As Reported by the House Criminal Justice Committee

124th General Assembly
Regular Session
2001-2002
Sub. S. B. No. 184


SENATORS Spada, Armbruster, Jacobson, Austria, Oelslager, Mead, Randy Gardner, White, Nein, Amstutz, Blessing, Brady, Carnes, Coughlin, DiDonato, Robert Gardner, Goodman, Harris, Hottinger, Jordan, Mumper, Prentiss, Wachtmann

REPRESENTATIVES Womer Benjamin, Seitz, Latta, Hughes, Faber, Willamowski, Sulzer, Brown, Seaver



A BILL
To amend sections 121.22, 2901.01, 2903.01, 2921.32,1
2923.31, 2927.24, 2929.04, 2933.51, 2941.14,2
3313.536, 4507.09, 5502.26, 5502.27, and 5502.2713
and to enact sections 149.433, 2152.201, 2909.21,4
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, and 2909.25 of the5
Revised Code to create the offenses of terrorism,6
soliciting or providing support for an act of7
terrorism, and making a terroristic threat; to8
expand certain offenses and laws relative to those9
offenses; to increase the penalty for obstructing10
justice involving terrorism; to expand and rename11
contaminating a substance for human consumption to12
include contamination with any hazardous chemical,13
biological, or radioactive substance; to exempt14
certain security-related information from the15
Public Records Law; to revise the Open Meetings Law16
provision regarding executive sessions to consider17
security matters; to revise the Emergency18
Management Law regarding all-hazards emergency19
operations plans; and to declare an emergency.20


BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:

       Section 1. That sections 121.22, 2901.01, 2903.01, 2921.32,21
2923.31, 2927.24, 2929.04, 2933.51, 2941.14, 3313.536, 4507.09,22
5502.26, 5502.27, and 5502.271 be amended and sections 149.433,23
2152.201, 2909.21, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, and 2909.25 of the24
Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:25

       Sec. 121.22.  (A) This section shall be liberally construed26
to require public officials to take official action and to conduct27
all deliberations upon official business only in open meetings28
unless the subject matter is specifically excepted by law.29

       (B) As used in this section:30

       (1) "Public body" means any of the following:31

       (a) Any board, commission, committee, council, or similar32
decision-making body of a state agency, institution, or authority,33
and any legislative authority or board, commission, committee,34
council, agency, authority, or similar decision-making body of any35
county, township, municipal corporation, school district, or other36
political subdivision or local public institution;37

       (b) Any committee or subcommittee of a body described in38
division (B)(1)(a) of this section;39

       (c) A court of jurisdiction of a sanitary district organized40
wholly for the purpose of providing a water supply for domestic,41
municipal, and public use when meeting for the purpose of the42
appointment, removal, or reappointment of a member of the board of43
directors of such a district pursuant to section 6115.10 of the44
Revised Code, if applicable, or for any other matter related to45
such a district other than litigation involving the district. As46
used in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, "court of47
jurisdiction" has the same meaning as "court" in section 6115.0148
of the Revised Code.49

       (2) "Meeting" means any prearranged discussion of the public50
business of the public body by a majority of its members.51

       (3) "Regulated individual" means either of the following:52

       (a) A student in a state or local public educational53
institution;54

       (b) A person who is, voluntarily or involuntarily, an55
inmate, patient, or resident of a state or local institution56
because of criminal behavior, mental illness or retardation,57
disease, disability, age, or other condition requiring custodial58
care.59

       (4) "Public office" has the same meaning as in section60
149.011 of the Revised Code.61

       (C) All meetings of any public body are declared to be62
public meetings open to the public at all times. A member of a63
public body shall be present in person at a meeting open to the64
public to be considered present or to vote at the meeting and for65
purposes of determining whether a quorum is present at the66
meeting.67

       The minutes of a regular or special meeting of any public68
body shall be promptly prepared, filed, and maintained and shall69
be open to public inspection. The minutes need only reflect the70
general subject matter of discussions in executive sessions71
authorized under division (G) or (J) of this section.72

       (D) This section does not apply to any of the following:73

       (1) A grand jury;74

       (2) An audit conference conducted by the auditor of state or75
independent certified public accountants with officials of the76
public office that is the subject of the audit;77

       (3) The adult parole authority when its hearings are78
conducted at a correctional institution for the sole purpose of79
interviewing inmates to determine parole or pardon;80

       (4) The organized crime investigations commission81
established under section 177.01 of the Revised Code;82

       (5) Meetings of a child fatality review board established83
under section 307.621 of the Revised Code and meetings conducted84
pursuant to sections 5153.171 to 5153.173 of the Revised Code;85

       (6) The state medical board when determining whether to86
suspend a certificate without a prior hearing pursuant to division87
(G) of either section 4730.25 or 4731.22 of the Revised Code;88

       (7) The board of nursing when determining whether to suspend89
a license or certificate without a prior hearing pursuant to90
division (B) of section 4723.281 of the Revised Code;91

       (8) The state board of pharmacy when determining whether to92
suspend a license without a prior hearing pursuant to division (D)93
of section 4729.16 of the Revised Code;94

       (9) The state chiropractic board when determining whether to95
suspend a license without a hearing pursuant to section 4734.37 of96
the Revised Code.97

       (10) The executive committee of the emergency response98
commission when determining whether to issue an enforcement order99
or request that a civil action, civil penalty action, or criminal100
action be brought to enforce Chapter 3750. of the Revised Code.101

       (E) The controlling board, the development financing102
advisory council, the industrial technology and enterprise103
advisory council, the tax credit authority, or the minority104
development financing advisory board, when meeting to consider105
granting assistance pursuant to Chapter 122. or 166. of the106
Revised Code, in order to protect the interest of the applicant or107
the possible investment of public funds, by unanimous vote of all108
board, council, or authority members present, may close the109
meeting during consideration of the following information110
confidentially received by the authority, council, or board from111
the applicant:112

       (1) Marketing plans;113

       (2) Specific business strategy;114

       (3) Production techniques and trade secrets;115

       (4) Financial projections;116

       (5) Personal financial statements of the applicant or117
members of the applicant's immediate family, including, but not118
limited to, tax records or other similar information not open to119
public inspection.120

       The vote by the authority, council, or board to accept or121
reject the application, as well as all proceedings of the122
authority, council, or board not subject to this division, shall123
be open to the public and governed by this section.124

       (F) Every public body, by rule, shall establish a reasonable125
method whereby any person may determine the time and place of all126
regularly scheduled meetings and the time, place, and purpose of127
all special meetings. A public body shall not hold a special128
meeting unless it gives at least twenty-four hours' advance notice129
to the news media that have requested notification, except in the130
event of an emergency requiring immediate official action. In the131
event of an emergency, the member or members calling the meeting132
shall notify the news media that have requested notification133
immediately of the time, place, and purpose of the meeting.134

       The rule shall provide that any person, upon request and135
payment of a reasonable fee, may obtain reasonable advance136
notification of all meetings at which any specific type of public137
business is to be discussed. Provisions for advance notification138
may include, but are not limited to, mailing the agenda of139
meetings to all subscribers on a mailing list or mailing notices140
in self-addressed, stamped envelopes provided by the person.141

       (G) Except as provided in division (J) of this section, the142
members of a public body may hold an executive session only after143
a majority of a quorum of the public body determines, by a roll144
call vote, to hold an executive session and only at a regular or145
special meeting for the sole purpose of the consideration of any146
of the following matters:147

       (1) To consider the appointment, employment, dismissal,148
discipline, promotion, demotion, or compensation of a public149
employee or official, or the investigation of charges or150
complaints against a public employee, official, licensee, or151
regulated individual, unless the public employee, official,152
licensee, or regulated individual requests a public hearing. 153
Except as otherwise provided by law, no public body shall hold an154
executive session for the discipline of an elected official for155
conduct related to the performance of the elected official's156
official duties or for the elected official's removal from office.157
If a public body holds an executive session pursuant to division158
(G)(1) of this section, the motion and vote to hold that executive159
session shall state which one or more of the approved purposes160
listed in division (G)(1) of this section are the purposes for161
which the executive session is to be held, but need not include162
the name of any person to be considered at the meeting.163

       (2) To consider the purchase of property for public164
purposes, or for the sale of property at competitive bidding, if165
premature disclosure of information would give an unfair166
competitive or bargaining advantage to a person whose personal,167
private interest is adverse to the general public interest. No168
member of a public body shall use division (G)(2) of this section169
as a subterfuge for providing covert information to prospective170
buyers or sellers. A purchase or sale of public property is void171
if the seller or buyer of the public property has received covert172
information from a member of a public body that has not been173
disclosed to the general public in sufficient time for other174
prospective buyers and sellers to prepare and submit offers.175

       If the minutes of the public body show that all meetings and176
deliberations of the public body have been conducted in compliance177
with this section, any instrument executed by the public body178
purporting to convey, lease, or otherwise dispose of any right,179
title, or interest in any public property shall be conclusively180
presumed to have been executed in compliance with this section181
insofar as title or other interest of any bona fide purchasers,182
lessees, or transferees of the property is concerned.183

       (3) Conferences with an attorney for the public body184
concerning disputes involving the public body that are the subject185
of pending or imminent court action;186

       (4) Preparing for, conducting, or reviewing negotiations or187
bargaining sessions with public employees concerning their188
compensation or other terms and conditions of their employment;189

       (5) Matters required to be kept confidential by federal law190
or regulations or state statutes;191

       (6) Specialized details ofDetails relative to the security192
arrangements and emergency response protocols for a public body or193
a public office, if disclosure of the matters discussed might194
reveal information that could reasonably be used for the purpose195
of committing, or avoiding prosecution for, a violation of the law196
expected to jeopardize the security of the public body or public197
office;198

       (7) In the case of a county hospital operated pursuant to199
Chapter 339. of the Revised Code, to consider trade secrets, as200
defined in section 1333.61 of the Revised Code.201

       If a public body holds an executive session to consider any202
of the matters listed in divisions (G)(2) to (7) of this section,203
the motion and vote to hold that executive session shall state204
which one or more of the approved matters listed in those205
divisions are to be considered at the executive session.206

       A public body specified in division (B)(1)(c) of this section207
shall not hold an executive session when meeting for the purposes208
specified in that division.209

       (H) A resolution, rule, or formal action of any kind is210
invalid unless adopted in an open meeting of the public body. A211
resolution, rule, or formal action adopted in an open meeting that212
results from deliberations in a meeting not open to the public is213
invalid unless the deliberations were for a purpose specifically214
authorized in division (G) or (J) of this section and conducted at215
an executive session held in compliance with this section. A216
resolution, rule, or formal action adopted in an open meeting is217
invalid if the public body that adopted the resolution, rule, or218
formal action violated division (F) of this section.219

       (I)(1) Any person may bring an action to enforce this220
section. An action under division (I)(1) of this section shall be221
brought within two years after the date of the alleged violation222
or threatened violation. Upon proof of a violation or threatened223
violation of this section in an action brought by any person, the224
court of common pleas shall issue an injunction to compel the225
members of the public body to comply with its provisions.226

       (2)(a) If the court of common pleas issues an injunction227
pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section, the court shall order228
the public body that it enjoins to pay a civil forfeiture of five229
hundred dollars to the party that sought the injunction and shall230
award to that party all court costs and, subject to reduction as231
described in division (I)(2) of this section, reasonable232
attorney's fees. The court, in its discretion, may reduce an233
award of attorney's fees to the party that sought the injunction234
or not award attorney's fees to that party if the court determines235
both of the following:236

       (i) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law237
and case law as it existed at the time of violation or threatened238
violation that was the basis of the injunction, a well-informed239
public body reasonably would believe that the public body was not240
violating or threatening to violate this section;241

       (ii) That a well-informed public body reasonably would242
believe that the conduct or threatened conduct that was the basis243
of the injunction would serve the public policy that underlies the244
authority that is asserted as permitting that conduct or245
threatened conduct.246

       (b) If the court of common pleas does not issue an247
injunction pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section and the248
court determines at that time that the bringing of the action was249
frivolous conduct, as defined in division (A) of section 2323.51250
of the Revised Code, the court shall award to the public body all251
court costs and reasonable attorney's fees, as determined by the252
court.253

       (3) Irreparable harm and prejudice to the party that sought254
the injunction shall be conclusively and irrebuttably presumed255
upon proof of a violation or threatened violation of this section.256

       (4) A member of a public body who knowingly violates an257
injunction issued pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section may258
be removed from office by an action brought in the court of common259
pleas for that purpose by the prosecuting attorney or the attorney260
general.261

       (J)(1) Pursuant to division (C) of section 5901.09 of the262
Revised Code, a veterans service commission shall hold an263
executive session for one or more of the following purposes unless264
an applicant requests a public hearing:265

       (a) Interviewing an applicant for financial assistance under266
sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the Revised Code;267

       (b) Discussing applications, statements, and other documents268
described in division (B) of section 5901.09 of the Revised Code;269

       (c) Reviewing matters relating to an applicant's request for270
financial assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the271
Revised Code.272

       (2) A veterans service commission shall not exclude an273
applicant for, recipient of, or former recipient of financial274
assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the Revised Code,275
and shall not exclude representatives selected by the applicant,276
recipient, or former recipient, from a meeting that the commission277
conducts as an executive session that pertains to the applicant's,278
recipient's, or former recipient's application for financial279
assistance.280

       (3) A veterans service commission shall vote on the grant or281
denial of financial assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15282
of the Revised Code only in an open meeting of the commission. The283
minutes of the meeting shall indicate the name, address, and284
occupation of the applicant, whether the assistance was granted or285
denied, the amount of the assistance if assistance is granted, and286
the votes for and against the granting of assistance.287

       Sec. 149.433. (A) As used in this section:288

       (1) "Act of terrorism" has the same meaning as in section289
2909.21 of the Revised Code.290

       (2) "Infrastructure record" means any record that discloses291
the configuration of a public office's critical systems including,292
but not limited to, communication, computer, electrical,293
mechanical, ventilation, water, and plumbing systems, security294
codes, or the infrastructure or structural configuration of the295
building in which a public office is located. "Infrastructure296
record" does not mean a simple floor plan that discloses only the297
spatial relationship of components of a public office or the298
building in which a public office is located.299

       (3) "Security record" means either of the following:300

        (a) Any record that contains information directly used for301
protecting or maintaining the security of a public office against302
attack, interference, or sabotage;303

        (b) Any record assembled, prepared, or maintained by a304
public office or public body to prevent, mitigate, or respond to305
acts of terrorism, including any of the following:306

        (i) Those portions of records containing specific and307
unique vulnerability assessments or specific and unique response308
plans either of which is intended to prevent or mitigate acts of309
terrorism, and communication codes or deployment plans of law310
enforcement or emergency response personnel;311

        (ii) Specific intelligence information and specific312
investigative records shared by federal and international law313
enforcement agencies with state and local law enforcement and314
public safety agencies;315

       (iii) National security records classified under federal316
executive order and not subject to public disclosure under federal317
law that are shared by federal agencies, and other records related318
to national security briefings to assist state and local319
government with domestic preparedness for acts of terrorism.320

        (B) A record kept by a public office that is a security321
record or an infrastructure record is not a public record under322
section 149.43 of the Revised Code and is not subject to mandatory323
release or disclosure under that section.324

       (C) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, a325
public office's or a public employee's disclosure of a security326
record or infrastructure record that is necessary for327
construction, renovation, or remodeling work on any public328
building or project does not constitute public disclosure for329
purposes of waiving division (B) of this section and does not330
result in that record becoming a public record for purposes of331
section 149.43 of the Revised Code.332

       Sec. 2152.201. (A) In addition to any other dispositions333
authorized or required by this chapter, the juvenile court making334
disposition of a child adjudicated a delinquent child for335
committing a violation of section 2909.22, 2909.23, or 2909.24 of336
the Revised Code or a violation of section 2921.32 of the Revised337
Code when the offense or act committed by the person aided or to338
be aided as described in that section is an act of terrorism may339
order the child to pay to the state, municipal, or county law340
enforcement agencies that handled the investigation and341
prosecution all of the costs that the state, municipal342
corporation, or county reasonably incurred in the investigation343
and prosecution of the violation. The court shall hold a hearing344
to determine the amount of costs to be imposed under this section.345
The court may hold the hearing as part of the dispositional346
hearing for the child.347

        (B) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child for348
committing a violation of section 2909.23 or 2909.24 of the349
Revised Code and if any political subdivision incurred any350
response costs as a result of, or in making any response to, the351
threat of the specified offense involved in the violation of352
section 2909.23 of the Revised Code or the actual specified353
offense involved in the violation of section 2909.24 of the354
Revised Code, in addition to any other dispositions authorized or355
required by this chapter, the juvenile court making disposition of356
the child for the violation may order the child to reimburse the357
involved political subdivision for the response costs it so358
incurred.359

       (C) As used in this section, "response costs" and "act of360
terrorism" have the same meanings as in section 2909.21 of the361
Revised Code.362

       Sec. 2901.01.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:363

       (1) "Force" means any violence, compulsion, or constraint364
physically exerted by any means upon or against a person or thing.365

       (2) "Deadly force" means any force that carries a366
substantial risk that it will proximately result in the death of367
any person.368

       (3) "Physical harm to persons" means any injury, illness, or369
other physiological impairment, regardless of its gravity or370
duration.371

       (4) "Physical harm to property" means any tangible or372
intangible damage to property that, in any degree, results in loss373
to its value or interferes with its use or enjoyment. "Physical374
harm to property" does not include wear and tear occasioned by375
normal use.376

       (5) "Serious physical harm to persons" means any of the377
following:378

       (a) Any mental illness or condition of such gravity as would379
normally require hospitalization or prolonged psychiatric380
treatment;381

       (b) Any physical harm that carries a substantial risk of382
death;383

       (c) Any physical harm that involves some permanent384
incapacity, whether partial or total, or that involves some385
temporary, substantial incapacity;386

       (d) Any physical harm that involves some permanent387
disfigurement or that involves some temporary, serious388
disfigurement;389

       (e) Any physical harm that involves acute pain of such390
duration as to result in substantial suffering or that involves391
any degree of prolonged or intractable pain.392

       (6) "Serious physical harm to property" means any physical393
harm to property that does either of the following:394

       (a) Results in substantial loss to the value of the property395
or requires a substantial amount of time, effort, or money to396
repair or replace;397

       (b) Temporarily prevents the use or enjoyment of the398
property or substantially interferes with its use or enjoyment for399
an extended period of time.400

       (7) "Risk" means a significant possibility, as contrasted401
with a remote possibility, that a certain result may occur or that402
certain circumstances may exist.403

       (8) "Substantial risk" means a strong possibility, as404
contrasted with a remote or significant possibility, that a405
certain result may occur or that certain circumstances may exist.406

       (9) "Offense of violence" means any of the following:407

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03,408
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.21, 2903.211,409
2903.22, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05,410
2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2917.01,411
2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.04, 2921.34, or412
2923.161, of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 2911.12, or413
of division (B)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of section 2919.22 of the414
Revised Code or felonious sexual penetration in violation of415
former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;416

       (b) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance417
or law of this or any other state or the United States,418
substantially equivalent to any section, division, or offense419
listed in division (A)(9)(a) of this section;420

       (c) An offense, other than a traffic offense, under an421
existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other422
state or the United States, committed purposely or knowingly, and423
involving physical harm to persons or a risk of serious physical424
harm to persons;425

       (d) A conspiracy or attempt to commit, or complicity in426
committing, any offense under division (A)(9)(a), (b), or (c) of427
this section.428

       (10)(a) "Property" means any property, real or personal,429
tangible or intangible, and any interest or license in that430
property. "Property" includes, but is not limited to, cable431
television service, other telecommunications service,432
telecommunications devices, information service, computers, data,433
computer software, financial instruments associated with434
computers, other documents associated with computers, or copies of435
the documents, whether in machine or human readable form, trade436
secrets, trademarks, copyrights, patents, and property protected437
by a trademark, copyright, or patent. "Financial instruments438
associated with computers" include, but are not limited to,439
checks, drafts, warrants, money orders, notes of indebtedness,440
certificates of deposit, letters of credit, bills of credit or441
debit cards, financial transaction authorization mechanisms,442
marketable securities, or any computer system representations of443
any of them.444

       (b) As used in division (A)(10) of this section, "trade445
secret" has the same meaning as in section 1333.61 of the Revised446
Code, and "telecommunications service" and "information service"447
have the same meanings as in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code.448

       (c) As used in divisions (A)(10) and (13) of this section,449
"cable television service," "computer," "computer software,"450
"computer system," "computer network," "data," and451
"telecommunications device" have the same meanings as in section452
2913.01 of the Revised Code.453

       (11) "Law enforcement officer" means any of the following:454

       (a) A sheriff, deputy sheriff, constable, police officer of455
a township or joint township police district, marshal, deputy456
marshal, municipal police officer, member of a police force457
employed by a metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of458
section 3735.31 of the Revised Code, or state highway patrol459
trooper;460

       (b) An officer, agent, or employee of the state or any of461
its agencies, instrumentalities, or political subdivisions, upon462
whom, by statute, a duty to conserve the peace or to enforce all463
or certain laws is imposed and the authority to arrest violators464
is conferred, within the limits of that statutory duty and465
authority;466

       (c) A mayor, in the mayor's capacity as chief conservator of467
the peace within the mayor's municipal corporation;468

       (d) A member of an auxiliary police force organized by469
county, township, or municipal law enforcement authorities, within470
the scope of the member's appointment or commission;471

       (e) A person lawfully called pursuant to section 311.07 of472
the Revised Code to aid a sheriff in keeping the peace, for the473
purposes and during the time when the person is called;474

       (f) A person appointed by a mayor pursuant to section 737.01475
of the Revised Code as a special patrolling officer during riot or476
emergency, for the purposes and during the time when the person is477
appointed;478

       (g) A member of the organized militia of this state or the479
armed forces of the United States, lawfully called to duty to aid480
civil authorities in keeping the peace or protect against domestic481
violence;482

       (h) A prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney,483
secret service officer, or municipal prosecutor;484

       (i) An Ohio veterans' home police officer appointed under485
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code;486

       (j) A member of a police force employed by a regional487
transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the488
Revised Code;489

       (k) A special police officer employed by a port authority490
under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code;491

       (l) The house sergeant at arms if the house sergeant at arms492
has arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section493
101.311 of the Revised Code and an assistant house sergeant at494
arms.495

       (12) "Privilege" means an immunity, license, or right496
conferred by law, bestowed by express or implied grant, arising497
out of status, position, office, or relationship, or growing out498
of necessity.499

       (13) "Contraband" means any property described in the500
following categories:501

       (a) Property that in and of itself is unlawful for a person502
to acquire or possess;503

       (b) Property that is not in and of itself unlawful for a504
person to acquire or possess, but that has been determined by a505
court of this state, in accordance with law, to be contraband506
because of its use in an unlawful activity or manner, of its507
nature, or of the circumstances of the person who acquires or508
possesses it, including, but not limited to, goods and personal509
property described in division (D) of section 2913.34 of the510
Revised Code;511

       (c) Property that is specifically stated to be contraband by512
a section of the Revised Code or by an ordinance, regulation, or513
resolution;514

       (d) Property that is forfeitable pursuant to a section of515
the Revised Code, or an ordinance, regulation, or resolution,516
including, but not limited to, forfeitable firearms, dangerous517
ordnance, obscene materials, and goods and personal property518
described in division (D) of section 2913.34 of the Revised Code;519

       (e) Any controlled substance, as defined in section 3719.01520
of the Revised Code, or any device, paraphernalia, money as521
defined in section 1301.01 of the Revised Code, or other means of522
exchange that has been, is being, or is intended to be used in an523
attempt or conspiracy to violate, or in a violation of, Chapter524
2925. or 3719. of the Revised Code;525

       (f) Any gambling device, paraphernalia, money as defined in526
section 1301.01 of the Revised Code, or other means of exchange527
that has been, is being, or is intended to be used in an attempt528
or conspiracy to violate, or in the violation of, Chapter 2915. of529
the Revised Code;530

       (g) Any equipment, machine, device, apparatus, vehicle,531
vessel, container, liquid, or substance that has been, is being,532
or is intended to be used in an attempt or conspiracy to violate,533
or in the violation of, any law of this state relating to alcohol534
or tobacco;535

       (h) Any personal property that has been, is being, or is536
intended to be used in an attempt or conspiracy to commit, or in537
the commission of, any offense or in the transportation of the538
fruits of any offense;539

       (i) Any property that is acquired through the sale or other540
transfer of contraband or through the proceeds of contraband,541
other than by a court or a law enforcement agency acting within542
the scope of its duties;543

       (j) Any computer, computer system, computer network,544
computer software, or other telecommunications device that is used545
in a conspiracy to commit, an attempt to commit, or the commission546
of any offense, if the owner of the computer, computer system,547
computer network, computer software, or other telecommunications548
device is convicted of or pleads guilty to the offense in which it549
is used;550

       (k) Any property that is material support or resources and551
that has been, is being, or is intended to be used in an attempt552
or conspiracy to violate, or in the violation of, section 2909.22,553
2909.23, or 2909.24 of the Revised Code or of section 2921.32 of554
the Revised Code when the offense or act committed by the person555
aided or to be aided as described in that section is an act of556
terrorism. As used in division (A)(13)(k) of this section,557
"material support or resources" and "act of terrorism" have the558
same meanings as in section 2909.21 of the Revised Code.559

       (14) A person is "not guilty by reason of insanity" relative560
to a charge of an offense only if the person proves, in the manner561
specified in section 2901.05 of the Revised Code, that at the time562
of the commission of the offense, the person did not know, as a563
result of a severe mental disease or defect, the wrongfulness of564
the person's acts.565

       (B)(1)(a) Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, as566
used in any section contained in Title XXIX of the Revised Code567
that sets forth a criminal offense, "person" includes all of the568
following:569

       (i) An individual, corporation, business trust, estate,570
trust, partnership, and association;571

       (ii) An unborn human who is viable.572

       (b) As used in any section contained in Title XXIX of the573
Revised Code that does not set forth a criminal offense, "person"574
includes an individual, corporation, business trust, estate,575
trust, partnership, and association.576

       (c) As used in division (B)(1)(a) of this section:577

       (i) "Unborn human" means an individual organism of the578
species Homo sapiens from fertilization until live birth.579

       (ii) "Viable" means the stage of development of a human580
fetus at which there is a realistic possibility of maintaining and581
nourishing of a life outside the womb with or without temporary582
artificial life-sustaining support.583

       (2) Notwithstanding division (B)(1)(a) of this section, in584
no case shall the portion of the definition of the term "person"585
that is set forth in division (B)(1)(a)(ii) of this section be586
applied or construed in any section contained in Title XXIX of the587
Revised Code that sets forth a criminal offense in any of the588
following manners:589

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2)(a) of590
this section, in a manner so that the offense prohibits or is591
construed as prohibiting any pregnant woman or her physician from592
performing an abortion with the consent of the pregnant woman,593
with the consent of the pregnant woman implied by law in a medical594
emergency, or with the approval of one otherwise authorized by law595
to consent to medical treatment on behalf of the pregnant woman.596
An abortion that violates the conditions described in the597
immediately preceding sentence may be punished as a violation of598
section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.05, 2903.06,599
2903.08, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.14, 2903.21, or 2903.22600
of the Revised Code, as applicable. An abortion that does not601
violate the conditions described in the second immediately602
preceding sentence, but that does violate section 2919.12,603
division (B) of section 2919.13, or section 2919.151, 2919.17, or604
2919.18 of the Revised Code, may be punished as a violation of605
section 2919.12, division (B) of section 2919.13, or section606
2919.151, 2919.17, or 2919.18 of the Revised Code, as applicable.607
Consent is sufficient under this division if it is of the type608
otherwise adequate to permit medical treatment to the pregnant609
woman, even if it does not comply with section 2919.12 of the610
Revised Code.611

       (b) In a manner so that the offense is applied or is612
construed as applying to a woman based on an act or omission of613
the woman that occurs while she is or was pregnant and that614
results in any of the following:615

       (i) Her delivery of a stillborn baby;616

       (ii) Her causing, in any other manner, the death in utero of617
a viable, unborn human that she is carrying;618

       (iii) Her causing the death of her child who is born alive619
but who dies from one or more injuries that are sustained while620
the child is a viable, unborn human;621

       (iv) Her causing her child who is born alive to sustain one622
or more injuries while the child is a viable, unborn human;623

       (v) Her causing, threatening to cause, or attempting to624
cause, in any other manner, an injury, illness, or other625
physiological impairment, regardless of its duration or gravity,626
or a mental illness or condition, regardless of its duration or627
gravity, to a viable, unborn human that she is carrying.628

       (C) As used in Title XXIX of the Revised Code:629

       (1) "School safety zone" consists of a school, school630
building, school premises, school activity, and school bus.631

       (2) "School," "school building," and "school premises" have632
the same meanings as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.633

       (3) "School activity" means any activity held under the634
auspices of a board of education of a city, local, exempted635
village, joint vocational, or cooperative education school636
district, a governing board of an educational service center, or637
the governing body of a school for which the state board of638
education prescribes minimum standards under section 3301.07 of639
the Revised Code.640

       (4) "School bus" has the same meaning as in section 4511.01641
of the Revised Code.642

       Sec. 2903.01.  (A) No person shall purposely, and with prior643
calculation and design, cause the death of another or the unlawful644
termination of another's pregnancy.645

       (B) No person shall purposely cause the death of another or646
the unlawful termination of another's pregnancy while committing647
or attempting to commit, or while fleeing immediately after648
committing or attempting to commit, kidnapping, rape, aggravated649
arson or, arson, aggravated robbery or, robbery, aggravated650
burglary or, burglary, terrorism, or escape.651

       (C) No person shall purposely cause the death of another who652
is under thirteen years of age at the time of the commission of653
the offense.654

       (D) No person who is under detention as a result of having655
been found guilty of or having pleaded guilty to a felony or who656
breaks that detention shall purposely cause the death of another.657

       (E) No person shall purposely cause the death of a law658
enforcement officer whom the offender knows or has reasonable659
cause to know is a law enforcement officer when either of the660
following applies:661

       (1) The victim, at the time of the commission of the662
offense, is engaged in the victim's duties.663

       (2) It is the offender's specific purpose to kill a law664
enforcement officer.665

       (F) Whoever violates this section is guilty of aggravated666
murder, and shall be punished as provided in section 2929.02 of667
the Revised Code.668

       (G) As used in this section:669

       (1) "Detention" has the same meaning as in section 2921.01670
of the Revised Code.671

       (2) "Law enforcement officer" has the same meaning as in672
section 2911.01 of the Revised Code.673

       Sec. 2909.21. As used in sections 2909.21 to 2909.25 of the674
Revised Code:675

        (A) "Act of terrorism" means an act that is committed676
within or outside the territorial jurisdiction of this state or677
the United States, that constitutes a specified offense if678
committed in this state or constitutes an offense in any679
jurisdiction within or outside the territorial jurisdiction of the680
United States containing all of the essential elements of a681
specified offense, and that is intended to do one or more of the682
following:683

        (1) Intimidate or coerce a civilian population;684

        (2) Influence the policy of any government by intimidation685
or coercion;686

        (3) Affect the conduct of any government by the act that687
constitutes the offense.688

        (B) "Material support or resources" means currency, payment689
instruments, other financial securities, financial services,690
lodging, training, safehouses, false documentation or691
identification, communications equipment, facilities, weapons,692
lethal substances, explosives, personnel, transportation, and693
other physical assets, except medicine or religious materials.694

        (C) "Payment instrument" means a check, draft, money order,695
traveler's check, cashier's check, teller's check, or other696
instrument or order for the transmission or payment of money,697
regardless of whether the item in question is negotiable.698

       (D) "Response costs" means all costs a political subdivision699
incurs as a result of, or in making any response to, a threat of a700
specified offense made as described in section 2909.23 of the701
Revised Code or a specified offense committed as described in702
section 2909.24 of the Revised Code, including, but not limited703
to, all costs so incurred by any law enforcement officers,704
firefighters, rescue personnel, or emergency medical services705
personnel of the political subdivision and all costs so incurred706
by the political subdivision that relate to laboratory testing or707
hazardous material cleanup.708

       (E) "Specified offense" means any of the following:709

        (1) A felony offense of violence, a violation of section710
2909.04 or 2927.24 of the Revised Code, or a felony of the first711
degree that is not a violation of any provision in Chapter 2925.712
or 3719. of the Revised Code;713

        (2) An attempt to commit, complicity in committing, or a714
conspiracy to commit an offense listed in division (E)(1) of this715
section.716

       Sec. 2909.22. (A) No person shall raise, solicit, collect,717
donate, or provide any material support or resources, with purpose718
that the material support or resources will be used in whole or in719
part to plan, prepare, carry out, or aid in either an act of720
terrorism or the concealment of, or an escape from, an act of721
terrorism.722

        (B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of soliciting723
or providing support for an act of terrorism, a felony of the724
third degree. Section 2909.25 of the Revised Code applies725
regarding an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a726
violation of this section. 727

       (C) A prosecution for a violation of this section does not728
preclude a prosecution for a violation of any other section of the729
Revised Code. One or more acts, a series of acts, or a course of730
behavior that can be prosecuted under this section or any other731
section of the Revised Code may be prosecuted under this section,732
the other section, or both sections. 733

       Sec. 2909.23. (A) No person shall threaten to commit or734
threaten to cause to be committed a specified offense when both of735
the following apply:736

        (1) The person makes the threat with purpose to do any of737
the following:738

       (a) Intimidate or coerce a civilian population;739

       (b) Influence the policy of any government by intimidation or740
coercion;741

       (c) Affect the conduct of any government by the threat or by742
the specified offense.743

        (2) As a result of the threat, the person causes a744
reasonable expectation or fear of the imminent commission of the745
specified offense.746

        (B) It is not a defense to a charge of a violation of this747
section that the defendant did not have the intent or capability748
to commit the threatened specified offense or that the threat was749
not made to a person who was a subject of the threatened specified750
offense.751

        (C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of making a752
terroristic threat, a felony of the third degree. Section 2909.25753
of the Revised Code applies regarding an offender who is convicted754
of or pleads guilty to a violation of this section.755

       Sec. 2909.24. (A) No person shall commit a specified offense756
with purpose to do any of the following:757

        (1) Intimidate or coerce a civilian population;758

        (2) Influence the policy of any government by intimidation759
or coercion;760

        (3) Affect the conduct of any government by the specified761
offense.762

        (B)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of763
terrorism.764

        (2) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (B)(3) and765
(4) of this section, terrorism is an offense one degree higher766
than the most serious underlying specified offense the defendant767
committed.768

        (3) If the most serious underlying specified offense the769
defendant committed is a felony of the first degree or murder, the770
person shall be sentenced to life imprisonment without parole.771

        (4) If the most serious underlying specified offense the772
defendant committed is aggravated murder, the offender shall be773
sentenced to life imprisonment without parole or death pursuant to774
sections 2929.02 to 2929.06 of the Revised Code.775

       (5) Section 2909.25 of the Revised Code applies regarding an776
offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of777
this section.778

       Sec. 2909.25. (A) In addition to the financial sanctions779
authorized under section 2929.18 of the Revised Code, the court780
imposing sentence upon an offender who is convicted of or pleads781
guilty to a violation of section 2909.22, 2909.23, or 2909.24 of782
the Revised Code or to a violation of section 2921.32 of the783
Revised Code when the offense or act committed by the person aided784
or to be aided as described in that section is an act of terrorism785
may order the offender to pay to the state, municipal, or county786
law enforcement agencies that handled the investigation and787
prosecution all of the costs that the state, municipal788
corporation, or county reasonably incurred in the investigation789
and prosecution of the violation. The court shall hold a hearing790
to determine the amount of costs to be imposed under this section.791
The court may hold the hearing as part of the sentencing hearing792
for the offender.793

       (B) If a person is convicted of or pleads guilty to a794
violation of section 2909.23 or 2909.24 of the Revised Code and if795
any political subdivision incurred any response costs as a result796
of, or in making any response to, the threat of the specified797
offense involved in the violation of section 2909.23 of the798
Revised Code or the actual specified offense involved in the799
violation of section 2909.24 of the Revised Code, in addition to800
the financial sanctions authorized under section 2929.18 of the801
Revised Code, the court imposing sentence upon the offender for802
the violation may order the offender to reimburse the involved803
political subdivision for the response costs it so incurred. 804

       Sec. 2921.32.  (A) No person, with purpose to hinder the805
discovery, apprehension, prosecution, conviction, or punishment of806
another for crime or to assist another to benefit from the807
commission of a crime, and no person, with purpose to hinder the808
discovery, apprehension, prosecution, adjudication as a delinquent809
child, or disposition of a child for an act that if committed by810
an adult would be a crime or to assist a child to benefit from the811
commission of an act that if committed by an adult would be a812
crime, shall do any of the following:813

       (1) Harbor or conceal the other person or child;814

       (2) Provide the other person or child with money,815
transportation, a weapon, a disguise, or other means of avoiding816
discovery or apprehension;817

       (3) Warn the other person or child of impending discovery or818
apprehension;819

       (4) Destroy or conceal physical evidence of the crime or820
act, or induce any person to withhold testimony or information or821
to elude legal process summoning the person to testify or supply822
evidence;823

       (5) Communicate false information to any person;824

       (6) Prevent or obstruct any person, by means of force,825
intimidation, or deception, from performing any act to aid in the826
discovery, apprehension, or prosecution of the other person or827
child.828

       (B) A person may be prosecuted for, and may be convicted of829
or adjudicated a delinquent child for committing, a violation of830
division (A) of this section regardless of whether the person or831
child aided ultimately is apprehended for, is charged with, is832
convicted of, pleads guilty to, or is adjudicated a delinquent833
child for committing the crime or act the person or child aided834
committed. The crime or act the person or child aided committed835
shall be used under division (C) of this section in determining836
the penalty for the violation of division (A) of this section,837
regardless of whether the person or child aided ultimately is838
apprehended for, is charged with, is convicted of, pleads guilty839
to, or is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing the crime840
or act the person or child aided committed.841

       (C)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of842
obstructing justice.843

       (2) If the crime committed by the person aided is a844
misdemeanor or if the act committed by the child aided would be a845
misdemeanor if committed by an adult, obstructing justice is a846
misdemeanor of the same degree as the crime committed by the847
person aided or a misdemeanor of the same degree that the act848
committed by the child aided would be if committed by an adult.849

       (3) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)divisions850
(C)(4) and (5) of this section, if the crime committed by the851
person aided is a felony or if the act committed by the child852
aided would be a felony if committed by an adult, obstructing853
justice is a felony of the fifth degree.854

       (4) If the crime committed by the person aided is aggravated855
murder, murder, or a felony of the first or second degree or if856
the act committed by the child aided would be one of those857
offenses if committed by an adult and if the offender knows or has858
reason to believe that the crime committed by the person aided is859
one of those offenses or that the act committed by the child aided860
would be one of those offenses if committed by an adult,861
obstructing justice is a felony of the third degree.862

       (C)(5) If the crime or act committed by the person or child863
aided is an act of terrorism, obstructing justice is one of the864
following:865

       (a) Except as provided in division (C)(5)(b) of this section,866
a felony of the second degree;867

       (b) If the act of terrorism resulted in the death of a person868
who was not a participant in the act of terrorism, a felony of the869
first degree.870

       (D) As used in this section:871

       (1) "Adult" and "child" have the same meanings as in section872
2151.011 of the Revised Code.873

       (2) "Delinquent child" has the same meaning as in section 874
2152.02 of the Revised Code.875

       (3) "Act of terrorism" has the same meaning as in section876
2909.21 of the Revised Code.877

       Sec. 2923.31.  As used in sections 2923.31 to 2923.36 of the878
Revised Code:879

       (A) "Beneficial interest" means any of the following:880

       (1) The interest of a person as a beneficiary under a trust881
in which the trustee holds title to personal or real property;882

       (2) The interest of a person as a beneficiary under any883
other trust arrangement under which any other person holds title884
to personal or real property for the benefit of such person;885

       (3) The interest of a person under any other form of express886
fiduciary arrangement under which any other person holds title to887
personal or real property for the benefit of such person.888

       "Beneficial interest" does not include the interest of a889
stockholder in a corporation or the interest of a partner in890
either a general or limited partnership.891

       (B) "Costs of investigation and prosecution" and "costs of892
investigation and litigation" mean all of the costs incurred by893
the state or a county or municipal corporation under sections894
2923.31 to 2923.36 of the Revised Code in the prosecution and895
investigation of any criminal action or in the litigation and896
investigation of any civil action, and includes, but is not897
limited to, the costs of resources and personnel.898

       (C) "Enterprise" includes any individual, sole899
proprietorship, partnership, limited partnership, corporation,900
trust, union, government agency, or other legal entity, or any901
organization, association, or group of persons associated in fact902
although not a legal entity. "Enterprise" includes illicit as903
well as licit enterprises.904

       (D) "Innocent person" includes any bona fide purchaser of905
property that is allegedly involved in a violation of section906
2923.32 of the Revised Code, including any person who establishes907
a valid claim to or interest in the property in accordance with908
division (E) of section 2923.32 of the Revised Code, and any909
victim of an alleged violation of that section or of any910
underlying offense involved in an alleged violation of that911
section.912

       (E) "Pattern of corrupt activity" means two or more913
incidents of corrupt activity, whether or not there has been a914
prior conviction, that are related to the affairs of the same915
enterprise, are not isolated, and are not so closely related to916
each other and connected in time and place that they constitute a917
single event.918

       At least one of the incidents forming the pattern shall occur919
on or after January 1, 1986. Unless any incident was an920
aggravated murder or murder, the last of the incidents forming the921
pattern shall occur within six years after the commission of any922
prior incident forming the pattern, excluding any period of923
imprisonment served by any person engaging in the corrupt924
activity.925

       For the purposes of the criminal penalties that may be926
imposed pursuant to section 2923.32 of the Revised Code, at least927
one of the incidents forming the pattern shall constitute a felony928
under the laws of this state in existence at the time it was929
committed or, if committed in violation of the laws of the United930
States or of any other state, shall constitute a felony under the931
law of the United States or the other state and would be a932
criminal offense under the law of this state if committed in this933
state.934

       (F) "Pecuniary value" means money, a negotiable instrument,935
a commercial interest, or anything of value, as defined in section936
1.03 of the Revised Code, or any other property or service that937
has a value in excess of one hundred dollars.938

       (G) "Person" means any person, as defined in section 1.59 of939
the Revised Code, and any governmental officer, employee, or940
entity.941

       (H) "Personal property" means any personal property, any942
interest in personal property, or any right, including, but not943
limited to, bank accounts, debts, corporate stocks, patents, or944
copyrights. Personal property and any beneficial interest in945
personal property are deemed to be located where the trustee of946
the property, the personal property, or the instrument evidencing947
the right is located.948

       (I) "Corrupt activity" means engaging in, attempting to949
engage in, conspiring to engage in, or soliciting, coercing, or950
intimidating another person to engage in any of the following:951

       (1) Conduct defined as "racketeering activity" under the952
"Organized Crime Control Act of 1970," 84 Stat. 941, 18 U.S.C.953
1961(1)(B), (1)(C), (1)(D), and (1)(E), as amended;954

       (2) Conduct constituting any of the following:955

       (a) A violation of section 1315.55, 1322.02, 2903.01,956
2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2905.01, 2905.02,957
2905.11, 2905.22, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03,958
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12,959
2911.13, 2911.31, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2921.02, 2921.03, 2921.04,960
2921.11, 2921.12, 2921.32, 2921.41, 2921.42, 2921.43, 2923.12, or961
2923.17; division (F)(1)(a), (b), or (c) of section 1315.53;962
division (A)(1) or (2) of section 1707.042; division (B), (C)(4),963
(D), (E), or (F) of section 1707.44; division (A)(1) or (2) of964
section 2923.20; division (J)(1) of section 4712.02; section965
4719.02, 4719.05, or 4719.06; division (C), (D), or (E) of section966
4719.07; section 4719.08; or division (A) of section 4719.09 of967
the Revised Code.968

       (b) Any violation of section 3769.11, 3769.15, 3769.16, or969
3769.19 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996,970
any violation of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code that occurs971
on or after July 1, 1996, and that, had it occurred prior to that972
date, would have been a violation of section 3769.11 of the973
Revised Code as it existed prior to that date, or any violation of974
section 2915.05 of the Revised Code that occurs on or after July975
1, 1996, and that, had it occurred prior to that date, would have976
been a violation of section 3769.15, 3769.16, or 3769.19 of the977
Revised Code as it existed prior to that date.978

       (c) Any violation of section 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.31,979
2913.02, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.34, 2913.42,980
2913.47, 2913.51, 2915.03, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, or 2925.37981
of the Revised Code, any violation of section 2925.11 of the982
Revised Code that is a felony of the first, second, third, or983
fourth degree and that occurs on or after July 1, 1996, any984
violation of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code that occurred985
prior to July 1, 1996, any violation of section 2915.02 of the986
Revised Code that occurs on or after July 1, 1996, and that, had987
it occurred prior to that date, would not have been a violation of988
section 3769.11 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to that989
date, any violation of section 2915.06 of the Revised Code as it990
existed prior to July 1, 1996, or any violation of division (B) of991
section 2915.05 of the Revised Code as it exists on and after July992
1, 1996, when the proceeds of the violation, the payments made in993
the violation, the amount of a claim for payment or for any other994
benefit that is false or deceptive and that is involved in the995
violation, or the value of the contraband or other property996
illegally possessed, sold, or purchased in the violation exceeds997
five hundred dollars, or any combination of violations described998
in division (I)(2)(c) of this section when the total proceeds of999
the combination of violations, payments made in the combination of1000
violations, amount of the claims for payment or for other benefits1001
that is false or deceptive and that is involved in the combination1002
of violations, or value of the contraband or other property1003
illegally possessed, sold, or purchased in the combination of1004
violations exceeds five hundred dollars;1005

       (d) Any violation of section 5743.112 of the Revised Code1006
when the amount of unpaid tax exceeds one hundred dollars;1007

       (e) Any violation or combination of violations of section1008
2907.32 of the Revised Code involving any material or performance1009
containing a display of bestiality or of sexual conduct, as1010
defined in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code, that is explicit1011
and depicted with clearly visible penetration of the genitals or1012
clearly visible penetration by the penis of any orifice when the1013
total proceeds of the violation or combination of violations, the1014
payments made in the violation or combination of violations, or1015
the value of the contraband or other property illegally possessed,1016
sold, or purchased in the violation or combination of violations1017
exceeds five hundred dollars;1018

       (f) Any combination of violations described in division1019
(I)(2)(c) of this section and violations of section 2907.32 of the1020
Revised Code involving any material or performance containing a1021
display of bestiality or of sexual conduct, as defined in section1022
2907.01 of the Revised Code, that is explicit and depicted with1023
clearly visible penetration of the genitals or clearly visible1024
penetration by the penis of any orifice when the total proceeds of1025
the combination of violations, payments made in the combination of1026
violations, amount of the claims for payment or for other benefits1027
that is false or deceptive and that is involved in the combination1028
of violations, or value of the contraband or other property1029
illegally possessed, sold, or purchased in the combination of1030
violations exceeds five hundred dollars.1031

       (3) Conduct constituting a violation of any law of any state1032
other than this state that is substantially similar to the conduct1033
described in division (I)(2) of this section, provided the1034
defendant was convicted of the conduct in a criminal proceeding in1035
the other state.1036

       (J) "Real property" means any real property or any interest1037
in real property, including, but not limited to, any lease of, or1038
mortgage upon, real property. Real property and any beneficial1039
interest in it is deemed to be located where the real property is1040
located.1041

       (K) "Trustee" means any of the following:1042

       (1) Any person acting as trustee under a trust in which the1043
trustee holds title to personal or real property;1044

       (2) Any person who holds title to personal or real property1045
for which any other person has a beneficial interest;1046

       (3) Any successor trustee.1047

       "Trustee" does not include an assignee or trustee for an1048
insolvent debtor or an executor, administrator, administrator with1049
the will annexed, testamentary trustee, guardian, or committee,1050
appointed by, under the control of, or accountable to a court.1051

       (L) "Unlawful debt" means any money or other thing of value1052
constituting principal or interest of a debt that is legally1053
unenforceable in this state in whole or in part because the debt1054
was incurred or contracted in violation of any federal or state1055
law relating to the business of gambling activity or relating to1056
the business of lending money at an usurious rate unless the1057
creditor proves, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the1058
usurious rate was not intentionally set and that it resulted from1059
a good faith error by the creditor, notwithstanding the1060
maintenance of procedures that were adopted by the creditor to1061
avoid an error of that nature.1062

       Sec. 2927.24.  (A) As used in this section:1063

       (1) "Poison" has the same meaning as in section 3719.01 of1064
the Revised Code.1065

       (2) "Drug" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the1066
Revised Code.1067

       (3) "Hazardous chemical, biological, or radioactive1068
substance" means any of the following:1069

        (a) Any toxic or poisonous chemical, the precursor of any1070
toxic or poisonous chemical, or any toxin;1071

        (b) Any disease organism or biological agent;1072

        (c) Any substance or item that releases or is designed to1073
release radiation or radioactivity at a level dangerous to human1074
life.1075

        (4) "Biological agent" means any microorganism, virus,1076
infectious substance, or biological product that may be engineered1077
through biotechnology, or any naturally occurring or bioengineered1078
component of any microorganism, virus, infectious substance, or1079
biological product that may be engineered through biotechnology,1080
capable of causing death, disease, or other biological malfunction1081
in a human, an animal, a plant, or another living organism,1082
deterioration of food, water, equipment, supplies, or material of1083
any kind, or deleterious alteration of the environment.1084

        (5) "Toxin" means the toxic material of plants, animals,1085
microorganisms, viruses, fungi, or infectious substances, or a1086
recombinant molecule, whatever its origin or method of1087
reproduction, including, but not limited to, any poisonous1088
substance or biological product that may be engineered through1089
biotechnology or produced by a living organism and any poisonous1090
isomer or biological product, homolog, or derivative of any1091
substance or product of that nature.1092

       (B) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, no1093
person shall knowinglydo any of the following:1094

       (1) Knowingly mingle a poison, hazardous chemical,1095
biological, or radioactive substance, or other harmful substance1096
with a food, drink, nonprescription drug, prescription drug, or1097
pharmaceutical product, or knowingly place a poison, hazardous1098
chemical, biological, or radioactive substance, or other harmful1099
substance in a spring, well, reservoir, or public water supply, if1100
the person knows or has reason to know that the food, drink,1101
nonprescription drug, prescription drug, pharmaceutical product,1102
or water may be ingested or used by another person. For purposes1103
of this division, a person does not know or have reason to know1104
that water may be ingested or used by another person if it is1105
disposed of as waste into a household drain including the drain of1106
a toilet, sink, tub, or floor.1107

       (2) Knowingly release into the air, knowingly leave in any1108
public place, or knowingly expose one or more persons to any1109
hazardous chemical, biological, or radioactive substance with the1110
intent to cause, or create a risk of, death or serious physical1111
harm to any person.1112

       (C) No person shall informdo any of the following:1113

       (1) Inform another person that a poison, hazardous chemical,1114
biological, or radioactive substance, or other harmful substance1115
has been or will be placed in a food, drink, nonprescription drug,1116
prescription drug, or other pharmaceutical product, spring, well,1117
reservoir, or public water supply, if the placement of the poison1118
or other harmful substance would be a violation of division (B)(1)1119
of this section, and the person knows both that the information is1120
false and that the information likely will be disseminated to the1121
public.1122

       (2) Inform another person that a hazardous chemical,1123
biological, or radioactive substance has been or will be released1124
into the air or left in a public place, or that one or more1125
persons has been or will be exposed to a hazardous chemical,1126
biological, or radioactive substance, if the release, leaving, or1127
exposure of the hazardous chemical, biological, or radioactive1128
substance would be a violation of division (B)(2) of this section,1129
and the person knows both that the information is false and that1130
the information likely will be disseminated to the general public.1131

       (D)(1) A person may mingle a drug with a food or drink for1132
the purpose of causing the drug to be ingested or used in the1133
quantity described by its labeling or prescription.1134

       (2) A person may place a poison or other harmful substance1135
in a spring, well, reservoir, or public water supply in such1136
quantity as is necessary to treat the spring, well, reservoir, or1137
water supply to make it safe for human consumption and use.1138

       (3) The provisions of division (A)(B) of this section shall1139
not be applied in a manner that conflicts with any other state or1140
federal law or rule relating to substances permitted to be applied1141
to or present in any food, raw or processed, any milk or milk1142
product, any meat or meat product, any type of crop, water, or1143
alcoholic or nonalcoholic beverage.1144

       (E)(1) Whoever violates division (B)(1) or (2) of this1145
section is guilty of contaminating a substance for human1146
consumption or use or contamination with a hazardous chemical,1147
biological, or radioactive substance. Except as otherwise1148
provided in this division, contaminating a substance for human1149
consumption or use or contamination with a hazardous chemical,1150
biological, or radioactive substance is a felony of the first1151
degree. If the offense involved an amount of poison, the1152
hazardous chemical, biological, or radioactive substance, or the1153
other harmful substance sufficient to cause death if ingested or1154
used by a person regarding a violation of division (B)(1) of this1155
section or sufficient to cause death to persons who are exposed to1156
it regarding a violation of division (B)(2) of this section or if1157
the offense resulted in serious physical harm to another person,1158
whoever violates division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall be1159
imprisoned for life with parole eligibility after serving fifteen1160
years of imprisonment.1161

       (2) Whoever violates division (C)(1) or (2) of this section1162
is guilty of spreading a false report of contamination, a felony1163
of the fourth degree.1164

       (F) Divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section do not limit or1165
affect the application of sections 2917.31 or 2917.32 of the1166
Revised Code. Any act that is a violation of both division (C)(1)1167
or (2) of this section and of section 2917.31 or 2917.32 of the1168
Revised Code may be prosecuted under this section, section 2917.311169
or 2917.32 of the Revised Code, or both this section and section1170
2917.31 or 2917.32 of the Revised Code.1171

       Sec. 2929.04.  (A) Imposition of the death penalty for1172
aggravated murder is precluded unless one or more of the following1173
is specified in the indictment or count in the indictment pursuant1174
to section 2941.14 of the Revised Code and proved beyond a1175
reasonable doubt:1176

       (1) The offense was the assassination of the president of1177
the United States or a person in line of succession to the1178
presidency, the governor or lieutenant governor of this state, the1179
president-elect or vice president-elect of the United States, the1180
governor-elect or lieutenant governor-elect of this state, or a1181
candidate for any of the offices described in this division. For1182
purposes of this division, a person is a candidate if the person1183
has been nominated for election according to law, if the person1184
has filed a petition or petitions according to law to have the1185
person's name placed on the ballot in a primary or general1186
election, or if the person campaigns as a write-in candidate in a1187
primary or general election.1188

       (2) The offense was committed for hire.1189

       (3) The offense was committed for the purpose of escaping1190
detection, apprehension, trial, or punishment for another offense1191
committed by the offender.1192

       (4) The offense was committed while the offender was under1193
detention or while the offender was at large after having broken1194
detention. As used in division (A)(4) of this section,1195
"detention" has the same meaning as in section 2921.01 of the1196
Revised Code, except that detention does not include1197
hospitalization, institutionalization, or confinement in a mental1198
health facility or mental retardation and developmentally disabled1199
facility unless at the time of the commission of the offense1200
either of the following circumstances apply:1201

       (a) The offender was in the facility as a result of being1202
charged with a violation of a section of the Revised Code.1203

       (b) The offender was under detention as a result of being1204
convicted of or pleading guilty to a violation of a section of the1205
Revised Code.1206

       (5) Prior to the offense at bar, the offender was convicted1207
of an offense an essential element of which was the purposeful1208
killing of or attempt to kill another, or the offense at bar was1209
part of a course of conduct involving the purposeful killing of or1210
attempt to kill two or more persons by the offender.1211

       (6) The victim of the offense was a law enforcement officer,1212
as defined in section 2911.01 of the Revised Code, whom the1213
offender had reasonable cause to know or knew to be a law1214
enforcement officer as so defined, and either the victim, at the1215
time of the commission of the offense, was engaged in the victim's1216
duties, or it was the offender's specific purpose to kill a law1217
enforcement officer as so defined.1218

       (7) The offense was committed while the offender was1219
committing, attempting to commit, or fleeing immediately after1220
committing or attempting to commit kidnapping, rape, aggravated1221
arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated burglary, and either the1222
offender was the principal offender in the commission of the1223
aggravated murder or, if not the principal offender, committed the1224
aggravated murder with prior calculation and design.1225

       (8) The victim of the aggravated murder was a witness to an1226
offense who was purposely killed to prevent the victim's testimony1227
in any criminal proceeding and the aggravated murder was not1228
committed during the commission, attempted commission, or flight1229
immediately after the commission or attempted commission of the1230
offense to which the victim was a witness, or the victim of the1231
aggravated murder was a witness to an offense and was purposely1232
killed in retaliation for the victim's testimony in any criminal1233
proceeding.1234

       (9) The offender, in the commission of the offense,1235
purposefully caused the death of another who was under thirteen1236
years of age at the time of the commission of the offense, and1237
either the offender was the principal offender in the commission1238
of the offense or, if not the principal offender, committed the1239
offense with prior calculation and design.1240

        (10) The offense was committed while the offender was1241
committing, attempting to commit, or fleeing immediately after1242
committing or attempting to commit terrorism.1243

       (B) If one or more of the aggravating circumstances listed1244
in division (A) of this section is specified in the indictment or1245
count in the indictment and proved beyond a reasonable doubt, and1246
if the offender did not raise the matter of age pursuant to1247
section 2929.023 of the Revised Code or if the offender, after1248
raising the matter of age, was found at trial to have been1249
eighteen years of age or older at the time of the commission of1250
the offense, the court, trial jury, or panel of three judges shall1251
consider, and weigh against the aggravating circumstances proved1252
beyond a reasonable doubt, the nature and circumstances of the1253
offense, the history, character, and background of the offender,1254
and all of the following factors:1255

       (1) Whether the victim of the offense induced or facilitated1256
it;1257

       (2) Whether it is unlikely that the offense would have been1258
committed, but for the fact that the offender was under duress,1259
coercion, or strong provocation;1260

       (3) Whether, at the time of committing the offense, the1261
offender, because of a mental disease or defect, lacked1262
substantial capacity to appreciate the criminality of the1263
offender's conduct or to conform the offender's conduct to the1264
requirements of the law;1265

       (4) The youth of the offender;1266

       (5) The offender's lack of a significant history of prior1267
criminal convictions and delinquency adjudications;1268

       (6) If the offender was a participant in the offense but not1269
the principal offender, the degree of the offender's participation1270
in the offense and the degree of the offender's participation in1271
the acts that led to the death of the victim;1272

       (7) Any other factors that are relevant to the issue of1273
whether the offender should be sentenced to death.1274

       (C) The defendant shall be given great latitude in the1275
presentation of evidence of the factors listed in division (B) of1276
this section and of any other factors in mitigation of the1277
imposition of the sentence of death.1278

       The existence of any of the mitigating factors listed in1279
division (B) of this section does not preclude the imposition of a1280
sentence of death on the offender but shall be weighed pursuant to1281
divisions (D)(2) and (3) of section 2929.03 of the Revised Code by1282
the trial court, trial jury, or the panel of three judges against1283
the aggravating circumstances the offender was found guilty of1284
committing.1285

       Sec. 2933.51.  As used in sections 2933.51 to 2933.66 of the1286
Revised Code:1287

       (A) "Wire communication" means an aural transfer that is1288
made in whole or in part through the use of facilities for the1289
transmission of communications by the aid of wires or similar1290
methods of connecting the point of origin of the communication and1291
the point of reception of the communication, including the use of1292
a method of connecting the point of origin and the point of1293
reception of the communication in a switching station, if the1294
facilities are furnished or operated by a person engaged in1295
providing or operating the facilities for the transmission of1296
communications. "Wire communication" includes an electronic1297
storage of a wire communication.1298

       (B) "Oral communication" means an oral communication uttered1299
by a person exhibiting an expectation that the communication is1300
not subject to interception under circumstances justifying that1301
expectation. "Oral communication" does not include an electronic1302
communication.1303

       (C) "Intercept" means the aural or other acquisition of the1304
contents of any wire, oral, or electronic communication through1305
the use of an interception device.1306

       (D) "Interception device" means an electronic, mechanical,1307
or other device or apparatus that can be used to intercept a wire,1308
oral, or electronic communication. "Interception device" does not1309
mean any of the following:1310

       (1) A telephone or telegraph instrument, equipment, or1311
facility, or any of its components, if the instrument, equipment,1312
facility, or component is any of the following:1313

       (a) Furnished to the subscriber or user by a provider of1314
wire or electronic communication service in the ordinary course of1315
its business and being used by the subscriber or user in the1316
ordinary course of its business;1317

       (b) Furnished by a subscriber or user for connection to the1318
facilities of a provider of wire or electronic communication1319
service and used in the ordinary course of that subscriber's or1320
user's business;1321

       (c) Being used by a provider of wire or electronic1322
communication service in the ordinary course of its business or by1323
an investigative or law enforcement officer in the ordinary course1324
of the officer's duties that do not involve the interception of1325
wire, oral, or electronic communications.1326

       (2) A hearing aid or similar device being used to correct1327
subnormal hearing to not better than normal.1328

       (E) "Investigative officer" means any of the following:1329

       (1) An officer of this state or a political subdivision of1330
this state, who is empowered by law to conduct investigations or1331
to make arrests for a designated offense;1332

       (2) A person described in divisions (A)(11)(a) and (b) of1333
section 2901.01 of the Revised Code;1334

       (3) An attorney authorized by law to prosecute or1335
participate in the prosecution of a designated offense;1336

       (4) A secret service officer appointed pursuant to section1337
309.07 of the Revised Code;1338

       (5) An officer of the United States, a state, or a political1339
subdivision of a state who is authorized to conduct investigations1340
pursuant to the "Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986,"1341
100 Stat. 1848-1857, 18 U.S.C. 2510-2521 (1986), as amended.1342

       (F) "Interception warrant" means a court order that1343
authorizes the interception of wire, oral, or electronic1344
communications and that is issued pursuant to sections 2933.53 to1345
2933.56 of the Revised Code.1346

       (G) "Contents," when used with respect to a wire, oral, or1347
electronic communication, includes any information concerning the1348
substance, purport, or meaning of the communication.1349

       (H) "Communications common carrier" means a person who is1350
engaged as a common carrier for hire in intrastate, interstate, or1351
foreign communications by wire, radio, or radio transmission of1352
energy. "Communications common carrier" does not include, to the1353
extent that the person is engaged in radio broadcasting, a person1354
engaged in radio broadcasting.1355

       (I) "Designated offense" means any of the following:1356

       (1) A felony violation of section 1315.53, 1315.55, 2903.01,1357
2903.02, 2903.11, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.22, 2907.02,1358
2907.21, 2907.22, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23,1359
2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.02, 2913.04,1360
2913.42, 2913.51, 2915.02, 2915.03, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2921.02,1361
2921.03, 2921.04, 2921.32, 2921.34, 2923.20, 2923.32, 2925.03,1362
2925.04, 2925.05, or 2925.06 or of division (B) of section 2915.051363
of the Revised Code;1364

       (2) A violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that,1365
had it occurred prior to July 1, 1996, would have been a violation1366
of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to that1367
date;1368

       (3) A felony violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised1369
Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, as defined in1370
section 2925.01 of the Revised Code;1371

       (4) Complicity in the commission of a felony violation of a1372
section listed in division (I)(1), (2), or (3) of this section;1373

       (5) An attempt to commit, or conspiracy in the commission1374
of, a felony violation of a section listed in division (I)(1),1375
(2), or (3) of this section, if the attempt or conspiracy is1376
punishable by a term of imprisonment of more than one year.1377

       (J) "Aggrieved person" means a person who was a party to an1378
intercepted wire, oral, or electronic communication or a person1379
against whom the interception of the communication was directed.1380

       (K) "Person" means a person, as defined in section 1.59 of1381
the Revised Code, or a governmental officer, employee, or entity.1382

       (L) "Special need" means a showing that a licensed1383
physician, licensed practicing psychologist, attorney, practicing1384
cleric, journalist, or either spouse is personally engaging in1385
continuing criminal activity, was engaged in continuing criminal1386
activity over a period of time, or is committing, has committed,1387
or is about to commit, a designated offense, or a showing that1388
specified public facilities are being regularly used by someone1389
who is personally engaging in continuing criminal activity, was1390
engaged in continuing criminal activity over a period of time, or1391
is committing, has committed, or is about to commit, a designated1392
offense.1393

       (M) "Journalist" means a person engaged in, connected with,1394
or employed by, any news media, including a newspaper, magazine,1395
press association, news agency, or wire service, a radio or1396
television station, or a similar media, for the purpose of1397
gathering, processing, transmitting, compiling, editing, or1398
disseminating news for the general public.1399

       (N) "Electronic communication" means a transfer of a sign,1400
signal, writing, image, sound, datum, or intelligence of any1401
nature that is transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio,1402
electromagnetic, photoelectronic, or photo-optical system.1403
"Electronic communication" does not mean any of the following:1404

       (1) A wire or oral communication;1405

       (2) A communication made through a tone-only paging device;1406

       (3) A communication from an electronic or mechanical1407
tracking device that permits the tracking of the movement of a1408
person or object.1409

       (O) "User" means a person or entity that uses an electronic1410
communication service and is duly authorized by the provider of1411
the service to engage in the use of the electronic communication1412
service.1413

       (P) "Electronic communications system" means a wire, radio,1414
electromagnetic, photoelectronic, or photo-optical facility for1415
the transmission of electronic communications, and a computer1416
facility or related electronic equipment for the electronic1417
storage of electronic communications.1418

       (Q) "Electronic communication service" means a service that1419
provides to users of the service the ability to send or receive1420
wire or electronic communications.1421

       (R) "Readily accessible to the general public" means, with1422
respect to a radio communication, that the communication is none1423
of the following:1424

       (1) Scrambled or encrypted;1425

       (2) Transmitted using a modulation technique, the essential1426
parameters of which have been withheld from the public with the1427
intention of preserving the privacy of the communication;1428

       (3) Carried on a subcarrier or other signal subsidiary to a1429
radio transmission;1430

       (4) Transmitted over a communications system provided by a1431
communications common carrier, unless the communication is a1432
tone-only paging system communication;1433

       (5) Transmitted on a frequency allocated under part 25,1434
subpart D, E, or F of part 74, or part 94 of the Rules of the1435
Federal Communications Commission, as those provisions existed on1436
July 1, 1996, unless, in the case of a communication transmitted1437
on a frequency allocated under part 74 that is not exclusively1438
allocated to broadcast auxiliary services, the communication is a1439
two-way voice communication by radio.1440

       (S) "Electronic storage" means a temporary, intermediate1441
storage of a wire or electronic communication that is incidental1442
to the electronic transmission of the communication, and a storage1443
of a wire or electronic communication by an electronic1444
communication service for the purpose of backup protection of the1445
communication.1446

       (T) "Aural transfer" means a transfer containing the human1447
voice at a point between and including the point of origin and the1448
point of reception.1449

       (U) "Pen register" means a device that records or decodes1450
electronic impulses that identify the numbers dialed, pulsed, or1451
otherwise transmitted on telephone lines to which the device is1452
attached.1453

       (V) "Trap and trace device" means a device that captures the1454
incoming electronic or other impulses that identify the1455
originating number of an instrument or device from which a wire1456
communication or electronic communication was transmitted but that1457
does not intercept the contents of the wire communication or1458
electronic communication.1459

       (W) "Judge of a court of common pleas" means a judge of that1460
court who is elected or appointed as a judge of general1461
jurisdiction or as a judge who exercises both general jurisdiction1462
and probate, domestic relations, or juvenile jurisdiction. "Judge1463
of a court of common pleas" does not mean a judge of that court1464
who is elected or appointed specifically as a probate, domestic1465
relations, or juvenile judge.1466

       Sec. 2941.14.  (A) In an indictment for aggravated murder,1467
murder, or voluntary or involuntary manslaughter, the manner in1468
which, or the means by which the death was caused need not be set1469
forth.1470

       (B) Imposition of the death penalty for aggravated murder is1471
precluded unless the indictment or count in the indictment1472
charging the offense specifies one or more of the aggravating1473
circumstances listed in division (A) of section 2929.04 of the1474
Revised Code. If more than one aggravating circumstance is1475
specified to an indictment or count, each shall be in a separately1476
numbered specification, and if an aggravating circumstance is1477
specified to a count in an indictment containing more than one1478
count, such specification shall be identified as to the count to1479
which it applies.1480

       (C) A specification to an indictment or count in an1481
indictment charging aggravated murder shall be stated at the end1482
of the body of the indictment or count, and may be in1483
substantially the following form:1484

       "SPECIFICATION (or, SPECIFICATION 1, SPECIFICATION TO THE1485
FIRST COUNT, or SPECIFICATION 1 TO THE FIRST COUNT). The Grand1486
Jurors further find and specify that (set forth the applicable1487
aggravating circumstance listed in divisions (A)(1) to (9)(10) of1488
section 2929.04 of the Revised Code. The aggravating circumstance1489
may be stated in the words of the subdivision in which it appears,1490
or in words sufficient to give the accused notice of the same)."1491

       Sec. 3313.536.  The board of education of each city, exempted1492
village, and local school district shall adopt a comprehensive1493
school safety plan for each school building under the board's1494
control. The board shall examine the environmental conditions and1495
operations of each building to determine potential hazards to1496
student and staff safety and shall propose operating changes to1497
promote the prevention of potentially dangerous problems and1498
circumstances. In developing the plan for each building, the1499
board shall involve community law enforcement and safety1500
officials, parents of students who are assigned to the building,1501
and teachers and nonteaching employees who are assigned to the1502
building. The board shall consider incorporating remediation1503
strategies into the plan for any building where documented safety1504
problems have occurred. The board shall file a copy of the safety1505
plan with each law enforcement agency that has jurisdiction over1506
the school building.1507

       The board shall incorporate into the plan both of the1508
following:1509

       (A) A protocol for addressing serious threats to the safety1510
of school property, students, employees, or administrators;1511

       (B) A protocol for responding to any emergency events that1512
do occur and that compromise the safety of school property,1513
students, employees, or administrators.1514

       Each protocol shall include procedures deemed appropriate by1515
the board for responding to threats and emergency events,1516
respectively, including such things as notification of appropriate1517
law enforcement personnel, calling upon specified emergency1518
response personnel for assistance, and informing parents of1519
affected students.1520

       Sec. 4507.09.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of1521
this section, every driver's license issued to a resident of this1522
state expires on the birthday of the applicant in the fourth year1523
after the date it is issued and every driver's license issued to a1524
temporary resident expires in accordance with rules adopted by the1525
registrar of motor vehicles. In no event shall any license be1526
issued for a period longer than four years and ninety days.1527

       Subject to the requirements of section 4507.12 of the Revised1528
Code, every driver's license issued to a resident is renewable at1529
any time prior to its expiration and any license of a temporary1530
resident is nonrenewable. A nonrenewable license may be replaced1531
with a new license within ninety days prior to its expiration upon1532
the applicant's compliance with all applicable requirementsin1533
accordance with division (E) of this section. No refund shall be1534
made or credit given for the unexpired portion of the driver's1535
license that is renewed. The registrar of motor vehicles shall1536
notify each person whose driver's license has expired within1537
forty-five days after the date of expiration. Notification shall1538
be made by regular mail sent to the person's last known address as1539
shown in the records of the bureau of motor vehicles. Failure to1540
provide such notification shall not be construed as a renewal or1541
extension of any license. For the purposes of this section, the1542
date of birth of any applicant born on the twenty-ninth day of1543
February shall be deemed to be the first day of March in any year1544
in which there is no twenty-ninth day of February.1545

       (B) Every driver's license or renewal of a driver's license1546
issued to an applicant who is sixteen years of age or older, but1547
less than twenty-one years of age, expires on the twenty-first1548
birthday of the applicant, except that an applicant who applies no1549
more than thirty days before the applicant's twenty-first birthday1550
shall be issued a license in accordance with division (A) of this1551
section.1552

       (C) Each person licensed as a driver under this chapter1553
shall notify the registrar of any change in the person's address1554
within ten days following that change. The notification shall be1555
in writing on a form provided by the registrar and shall include1556
the full name, date of birth, license number, county of residence,1557
social security number, and new address of the person.1558

       (D) No driver's license shall be renewed when renewal is1559
prohibited by division (A) of section 4507.091 of the Revised1560
Code.1561

       (E) A nonrenewable license may be replaced with a new license1562
within ninety days prior to its expiration upon the applicant's1563
presentation of documentation verifying the applicant's legal1564
presence in the United States. A nonrenewable license expires on1565
the same date listed on the legal presence documentation, or on1566
the same date in the fourth year after the date the nonrenewable1567
license is issued, whichever comes first. A nonrenewable license1568
is not transferable, and the applicant may not rely on it to1569
obtain a driver’s license in another state.1570

        In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the1571
registrar of motor vehicles shall adopt rules governing1572
nonrenewable licenses for temporary residents. At a minimum, the1573
rules shall include provisions specifying all of the following:1574

        (1) That no nonrenewable license may extend beyond the1575
duration of the applicant’s temporary residence in this state;1576

        (2) That no nonrenewable license may be replaced by a new1577
license unless the applicant provides acceptable documentation of1578
the person’s identity and of the applicant’s continued temporary1579
residence in this state;1580

        (3) That no nonrenewable license is valid to apply for a1581
driver’s license in any other state;1582

        (4) That every nonrenewable license may contain any security1583
features that the registrar prescribes.1584

       Sec. 5502.26.  (A) The board of county commissioners of a1585
county and the chief executive of all or a majority of the other1586
political subdivisions within the county may enter into a written1587
agreement establishing a countywide emergency management agency.1588

       A representative from each political subdivision entering1589
into the agreement, selected by the political subdivision's chief1590
executive, shall constitute a countywide advisory group for the1591
purpose of appointing an executive committee under this section1592
through which the countywide agency shall implement emergency1593
management in the county in accordance with this section and for1594
the purpose of advising the executive committee on matters1595
pertaining to countywide emergency management. The executive1596
committee shall consist of at least the following seven members: 1597
one county commissioner representing the board of county1598
commissioners entering into the agreement; five chief executives1599
representing the municipal corporations and townships entering1600
into the agreement; and one nonelected representative. The1601
countywide agreement shall specify how many additional members, if1602
any, shall serve on the executive committee and their manner of1603
selection.1604

       The agency shall be supported financially by the political1605
subdivisions entering into the countywide agreement. The1606
executive committee shall appoint a director/coordinator of1607
emergency management who shall pursue a professional development1608
training program in accordance with rules adopted under section1609
5502.25 of the Revised Code. The director/coordinator of1610
emergency management may be an official or employee of any1611
political subdivision entering into the countywide agreement,1612
except that the director/coordinator shall not be the chief1613
executive of any such political subdivision.1614

       A countywide emergency management agency organized under this1615
section shall establish a program for emergency management that:1616

       (1) Is in accordance with sections 5502.21 to 5502.51 of the1617
Revised Code, rules adopted under those sections, the "Act of1618
January 12, 1951 ," 64 Stat. 1245, 50 App. U.S.C.A. 2251local1619
ordinances pertaining to emergency management, the "Robert T.1620
Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act," 88 Stat.1621
143, 42 U.S.C. 5121, et. seq., as amended, and all applicable1622
rules and regulations adopted under itthat act;1623

       (2) Includes, without limitation, development of an1624
all-hazards emergency operations plan that has been coordinated1625
with all agencies, boards, and divisions having emergency1626
management functions within the county;1627

       (3) Includes the preparation and conduct of an annual1628
exercise of the county’s all-hazards emergency operations plan;1629

       (4) Is applicable to all political subdivisions entering into1630
the countywide agreement.1631

       The director/coordinator of emergency management for a1632
countywide agency organized under this section shall be1633
responsible for coordinating, organizing, administering, and1634
operating emergency management in accordance with the agency's1635
program established under this section, subject to the direction1636
and control of the executive committee. All agencies, boards, and1637
divisions having emergency management functions within each1638
political subdivision within the county shall cooperate in the1639
development of the all-hazards emergency operations plan and shall1640
cooperate in the preparation and conduct of the annual exercise.1641

       (B) Nothing in this section requires any political1642
subdivision that is located within a county that has entered into1643
a written agreement under this section establishing a countywide1644
emergency management agency to enter into that agreement, provided1645
that the political subdivision has established a program for1646
emergency management in accordance with section 5502.271 of the1647
Revised Code.1648

       (C) A countywide emergency management agency shall be1649
considered a county board and shall receive the services of the1650
auditor, treasurer, and prosecuting attorney of the county in the1651
same manner as other county agencies, boards, or divisions.1652

       Sec. 5502.27.  (A) In lieu of establishing a countywide1653
emergency management agency under section 5502.26 of the Revised1654
Code, the boards of county commissioners of two or more counties,1655
with the consent of the chief executives of a majority of the1656
participating political subdivisions of each county involved, may1657
enter into a written agreement establishing a regional authority1658
for emergency management.1659

       A representative from each political subdivision entering1660
into the agreement, selected by the political subdivision's chief1661
executive, shall constitute a regional advisory group for the1662
purpose of appointing an executive committee under this section1663
through which the regional authority shall implement emergency1664
management in the counties in accordance with this section and for1665
the purpose of advising the executive committee on matters1666
pertaining to regional emergency management. The executive1667
committee shall consist of at least the following nine members: 1668
two county commissioners representing the boards of county1669
commissioners entering into the agreement; six chief executives1670
representing the municipal corporations and townships entering1671
into the agreement; and one nonelected representative. The1672
regional agreement shall specify how many additional members, if1673
any, shall serve on the executive committee and their manner of1674
selection.1675

       The authority shall be supported financially by the political1676
subdivisions entering into the regional agreement. The executive1677
committee shall appoint a director/coordinator of emergency1678
management who shall pursue a professional development training1679
program in accordance with rules adopted under section 5502.25 of1680
the Revised Code. The director/coordinator of emergency1681
management may be an official or employee of any political1682
subdivision entering into the regional agreement, except that the1683
director/coordinator shall not be the chief executive of any such1684
political subdivision.1685

       A regional authority for emergency management organized under1686
this section shall establish a program for emergency management1687
that:1688

       (1) Is in accordance with sections 5502.21 to 5502.51 of the1689
Revised Code, rules adopted under those sections, the "Act of1690
January 12, 1951," 64 Stat. 1245, 50 App. U.S.C.A. 2251local1691
ordinances pertaining to emergency management, the "Robert T.1692
Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act," 88 Stat.1693
143, 42 U.S.C. 5121, et. seq., as amended, and all applicable1694
rules and regulations adopted under itthat act;1695

       (2) Includes, without limitation, development of an1696
all-hazards emergency operations plan that has been coordinated1697
with all agencies, boards, and divisions having emergency1698
management functions within the regional authority;1699

       (3) Includes the preparation and conduct of an annual1700
exercise of the regional authority's all-hazards emergency1701
operations plan;1702

       (4) Is applicable to all political subdivisions entering into1703
the regional agreement.1704

       The director/coordinator of emergency management for a1705
regional authority organized under this section shall be1706
responsible for coordinating, organizing, administering, and1707
operating emergency management in accordance with the authority's1708
program established under this section, subject to the direction1709
and control of the executive committee. All agencies, boards, and1710
divisions having emergency management functions within each1711
political subdivision within the regional authority shall1712
cooperate in the development of the all-hazards emergency1713
operations plan and shall cooperate in the preparation and conduct1714
of the annual exercise.1715

       (B) Nothing in this section requires any political1716
subdivision that is located within a county that has entered into1717
a written agreement under this section establishing a regional1718
authority for emergency management to enter into that agreement,1719
provided that the political subdivision has established a program1720
for emergency management in accordance with section 5502.271 of1721
the Revised Code.1722

       (C) A regional authority for emergency management may1723
designate the county auditor and county treasurer of one of the1724
counties in the region as fiscal officers for the regional1725
authority and may designate the prosecuting attorney of one of the1726
counties in the region as legal advisor for the regional1727
authority.1728

       Sec. 5502.271.  The chief executive of any political1729
subdivision that has not entered into a written agreement1730
establishing either a countywide emergency management agency under1731
section 5502.26 of the Revised Code or a regional authority for1732
emergency management under section 5502.27 of the Revised Code1733
shall establish a program for emergency management within that1734
political subdivision that meets all of the following criteria:1735

       (A) Is in accordance with sections 5502.21 to 5502.51 of the1736
Revised Code, rules adopted under those sections, the "Act of1737
January 12, 1951," 64 Stat. 1245, 50 App. U.S.C.A. 2251local1738
ordinances pertaining to emergency management, the "Robert T.1739
Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act," 88 Stat.1740
143, 42 U.S.C. 5121, et. seq., as amended, and all applicable1741
rules and regulations adopted under itthat act;1742

       (B) Includes, without limitation, development of an1743
all-hazards emergency operations plan that has been coordinated1744
with all agencies, boards, and divisions having emergency1745
management functions within the political subdivision;1746

       (C) Includes the preparation and conduct of an annual1747
exercise of the political subdivision's all-hazards emergency1748
operations plan;1749

       (D) Is not inconsistent with the program for emergency1750
management established for the county in which the political1751
subdivision is located by a countywide emergency management agency1752
under section 5502.26 of the Revised Code or a regional authority1753
for emergency management under section 5502.27 of the Revised1754
Code.1755

       All agencies, boards, and divisions having emergency1756
management functions within the political subdivision shall1757
cooperate in the development of the all-hazards emergency1758
operations plan and shall cooperate in the preparation and conduct1759
of the annual exercise.1760

       The chief executive shall appoint a director/coordinator of1761
emergency management who shall pursue a professional development1762
training program in accordance with rules adopted under section1763
5502.25 of the Revised Code. The director/coordinator of1764
emergency management may be an official or employee of the1765
political subdivision, but shall not be the chief executive of the1766
political subdivision.1767

       The director/coordinator shall be responsible for1768
coordinating, organizing, administering, and operating emergency1769
management in accordance with the political subdivision's program1770
established under this section, subject to the direction and1771
control of the chief executive.1772

       Section 2. That existing sections 121.22, 2901.01, 2903.01,1773
2921.32, 2923.31, 2927.24, 2929.04, 2933.51, 2941.14, 3313.536,1774
4507.09, 5502.26, 5502.27, and 5502.271 of the Revised Code are1775
hereby repealed.1776

       Section 3.  Section 4507.09 of the Revised Code is presented1777
in this act as a composite of the section as amended by both Am.1778
H.B. 141 and Am. Sub. S.B. 60 of the 122nd General Assembly. The1779
General Assembly, applying the principle stated in division (B) of1780
section 1.52 of the Revised Code that amendments are to be1781
harmonized if reasonably capable of simultaneous operation, finds1782
that the composite is the resulting version of the section in1783
effect prior to the effective date of the section as presented in1784
this act.1785

       Section 4. This act is hereby declared to be an emergency1786
measure necessary for the immediate preservation of the public1787
peace, health, and safety. The reason for such necessity is that1788
the recent terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001, underscore the1789
compelling need for legislation that is specifically designed to1790
combat the evils of terrorism, that comprehensive state laws are1791
urgently needed to complement federal laws in the fight against1792
terrorism and to better protect all citizens against terrorist1793
acts, and that state laws must be strengthened to ensure that1794
terrorists, as well as those who solicit or provide financial and1795
other support to terrorists, are prosecuted and punished in state1796
courts with appropriate severity. Therefore, this act shall go1797
into immediate effect.1798