As Passed by the Senate

126th General Assembly
Regular Session
2005-2006
Am. Sub. H. B. No. 530


Representatives Calvert, Coley, Allen, Aslanides, Collier, Combs, Dolan, Evans, C., Evans, D., Flowers, Hagan, Law, Martin, McGregor, R., Peterson, Schneider, Seitz, Setzer, Webster, White, Widowfield 

Senators Carey, Harris, Spada 



A BILL
To amend sections 9.41, 9.901, 101.543, 107.40, 109.57, 109.572, 113.09, 113.11, 113.12, 117.45, 117.46, 117.47, 117.48, 120.36, 120.52, 120.521, 120.53, 121.37, 122.17, 122.171, 122.72, 122.73, 122.74, 122.90, 124.09, 124.11, 124.134, 124.135, 124.137, 124.138, 124.139, 124.14, 124.151, 124.152, 124.18, 124.181, 124.182, 124.321, 124.324, 124.327, 124.382, 124.384, 124.386, 124.387, 124.389, 124.391, 124.82, 124.821, 124.823, 124.84, 124.87, 125.21, 126.07, 126.21, 126.22, 131.01, 131.02, 131.33, 133.01, 133.04, 133.06, 133.12, 133.18, 141.08, 141.10, 145.70, 173.14, 173.39, 173.391, 173.41, 184.20, 319.301, 340.021, 742.57, 901.23, 927.39, 927.40, 927.41, 927.42, 955.011, 955.16, 955.43, 1309.102, 1309.520, 1309.521, 1317.07, 1321.02, 1333.11, 1333.82, 1523.02, 1901.31, 1901.311, 1901.32, 1901.33, 2151.357, 2152.44, 2305.2341, 2503.20, 2913.01, 2913.02, 2921.321, 2923.46, 2925.44, 2933.43, 3109.14, 3301.0714, 3302.021, 3307.32, 3309.68, 3310.03, 3310.06, 3310.08, 3310.16, 3311.057, 3313.29, 3313.372, 3313.61, 3313.64, 3313.6410, 3313.813, 3314.02, 3314.03, 3314.08, 3314.26, 3314.35, 3314.36, 3315.01, 3317.01, 3317.015, 3317.02, 3317.021, 3317.022, 3317.024, 3317.029, 3317.0216, 3317.03, 3317.051, 3317.053, 3317.06, 3317.07, 3317.082, 3317.11, 3317.19, 3318.052, 3318.37, 3319.17, 3323.091, 3323.13, 3323.20, 3353.02, 3354.10, 3357.10, 3358.06, 3362.01, 3365.02, 3375.121, 3381.15, 3381.17, 3517.152, 3701.041, 3701.341, 3701.65, 3705.242, 3718.02, 3734.57, 3735.67, 3745.114, 3769.087, 3901.383, 3901.3814, 3905.43, 3917.04, 4109.01, 4109.02, 4109.06, 4117.01, 4123.444, 4301.01, 4303.17, 4303.181, 4303.182, 4303.29, 4731.22, 4731.281, 4781.04, 4905.79, 5101.93, 5111.011, 5111.0112, 5111.061, 5111.081, 5111.11, 5111.151, 5111.161, 5111.162, 5111.20, 5111.222, 5111.231, 5111.244, 5111.27, 5111.31, 5111.88, 5111.882, 5111.889, 5111.8811, 5111.8812, 5112.08, 5112.18, 5112.31, 5115.04, 5119.16, 5123.0413, 5123.196, 5123.36, 5139.50, 5505.27, 5531.10, 5577.99, 5703.21, 5703.57, 5705.03, 5705.091, 5705.19, 5705.195, 5705.34, 5709.08, 5709.081, 5709.40, 5709.42, 5709.43, 5709.73, 5709.74, 5709.75, 5709.78, 5709.79, 5709.80, 5711.01, 5725.221, 5727.06, 5727.85, 5729.05, 5733.01, 5733.352, 5733.56, 5733.98, 5735.27, 5739.011, 5739.026, 5739.211, 5741.031, 5743.025, 5743.03, 5743.04, 5743.05, 5743.08, 5743.081, 5743.12, 5743.13, 5743.15, 5743.18, 5743.33, 5743.34, 5743.35, 5745.01, 5747.01, 5747.012, 5747.05, 5747.056, 5747.11, 5747.331, 5748.01, 5748.02, 5751.01, 5751.011, 5751.032, 5751.04, 5751.05, 5751.051, 5751.10, 5751.20, 5751.21, 5751.22, 5751.53, 5923.05, and 6121.02; to amend, for the purpose of adopting new section numbers as indicated in parentheses, sections 117.45 (126.35), 117.46 (126.36), 117.47 (126.37), 117.48 (126.38), 173.41 (173.394), 5101.93 (5111.178), 5111.081 (5111.942), 5111.082 (5111.081), 5111.083 (5111.082), 5111.084 (5111.083), and 5111.085 (5111.084); to enact new sections 3325.12, 3365.11, and 5111.18 and sections 124.392, 131.022, 173.27, 307.761, 333.01, 333.02, 333.03, 333.04, 333.05, 333.06, 333.07, 3310.11, 3310.12, 3314.18, 3323.143, 3701.046, 3701.79, 4303.207, 4503.105, 5111.0116, 5111.0117, 5111.0118, 5111.101, 5111.163, 5111.8813, 5111.8814, 5111.8815, 5111.8816, 5111.8817, 5111.941, 5111.943, 5112.311, 5123.37, 5123.371, 5123.372, 5123.373, 5123.374, 5123.375, 5502.261, 5531.101, 5701.11, 5705.211, 5725.222, 5725.98, 5729.101, 5729.102, 5729.98, 5743.021, 5743.321, 5748.011, and 5919.19; and to repeal sections 124.822, 124.92, 3325.12, 3325.17, 3365.11, 4732.04, and 5111.18 of the Revised Code; to amend Section 3 of Sub. H.B. 11 of the 126th General Assembly; to amend Sections 203.09, 203.12, 203.12.12, 203.45, 203.51, 203.54, 203.66, 203.69, 203.84, 203.87, 203.99.01, 203.99.30, 203.99.48, 206.03, 206.09, 206.09.12, 206.09.15, 206.09.21, 206.09.27, 206.09.36, 206.09.39, 206.09.42, 206.09.61, 206.09.63, 206.09.66, 206.09.84, 206.16, 206.42, 206.42.09, 206.48, 206.66, 206.66.22, 206.66.23, 206.66.36, 206.66.64, 206.66.66, 206.66.84, 206.66.85, 206.66.91, 206.67.15, 206.67.21, 206.99, 209.04, 209.06.06, 209.06.09, 209.09.06, 209.09.18, 209.15, 209.18, 209.18.09, 209.24, 209.30, 209.33, 209.36, 209.45, 209.63, 209.63.42, 209.64.60, 209.72, 209.75, 209.78.03, 209.81, 209.90.06, 212.03, 212.24, 212.27, 212.30, 212.33, 557.12, and 612.36.03 of Am. Sub. H.B. 66 of the 126th General Assembly; to amend Sections 23 and 23.01 of Am. Sub. S.B. 189 of the 125th General Assembly; to amend Sections 19.01, 20.01, 22.04, 23.12, and 23.45 of Am. Sub. H.B. 16 of the 126th General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to amend Sections 203.06.06 and 203.06.24 of Am. Sub. H.B. 68 of the 126th General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to amend Section 22 of Am. Sub. S.B. 189 of the 125th General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to repeal Section 5 of Am. Sub. S.B. 234 of the 125th General Assembly; and to repeal Sections 315.03 and 557.09.09 of Am. Sub. H.B. 66 of the 126th General Assembly to make capital reappropriations for the biennium ending June 30, 2008, to make certain supplemental and capital appropriations and to provide authorization and conditions for the operation of state programs.

BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:
Section 101.01. That sections 9.41, 9.901, 101.543, 107.40, 109.57, 109.572, 113.09, 113.11, 113.12, 117.45, 117.46, 117.47, 117.48, 120.36, 120.52, 120.521, 120.53, 121.37, 122.17, 122.171, 122.72, 122.73, 122.74, 122.90, 124.09, 124.11, 124.134, 124.135, 124.137, 124.138, 124.139, 124.14, 124.151, 124.152, 124.18, 124.181, 124.182, 124.321, 124.324, 124.327, 124.382, 124.384, 124.386, 124.387, 124.389, 124.391, 124.82, 124.821, 124.823, 124.84, 124.87, 125.21, 126.07, 126.21, 126.22, 131.01, 131.02, 131.33, 133.01, 133.04, 133.06, 133.12, 133.18, 141.08, 141.10, 145.70, 173.14, 173.39, 173.391, 173.41, 184.20, 319.301, 340.021, 742.57, 901.23, 927.39, 927.40, 927.41, 927.42, 955.011, 955.16, 955.43, 1309.102, 1309.520, 1309.521, 1317.07, 1321.02, 1333.11, 1333.82, 1523.02, 1901.31, 1901.311, 1901.32, 1901.33, 2151.357, 2152.44, 2305.2341, 2503.20, 2913.01, 2913.02, 2921.321, 2923.46, 2925.44, 2933.43, 3109.14, 3301.0714, 3302.021, 3307.32, 3309.68, 3310.03, 3310.06, 3310.08, 3310.16, 3311.057, 3313.29, 3313.372, 3313.61, 3313.64, 3313.6410, 3313.813, 3314.02, 3314.03, 3314.08, 3314.26, 3314.35, 3314.36, 3315.01, 3317.01, 3317.015, 3317.02, 3317.021, 3317.022, 3317.024, 3317.029, 3317.0216, 3317.03, 3317.051, 3317.053, 3317.06, 3317.07, 3317.082, 3317.11, 3317.19, 3318.052, 3318.37, 3319.17, 3323.091, 3323.13, 3323.20, 3353.02, 3354.10, 3357.10, 3358.06, 3362.01, 3365.02, 3375.121, 3381.15, 3381.17, 3517.152, 3701.041, 3701.341, 3701.65, 3705.242, 3718.02, 3734.57, 3735.67, 3745.114, 3769.087, 3901.383, 3901.3814, 3905.43, 3917.04, 4109.01, 4109.02, 4109.06, 4117.01, 4123.444, 4301.01, 4303.17, 4303.181, 4303.182, 4303.29, 4731.22, 4731.281, 4781.04, 4905.79, 5101.93, 5111.011, 5111.0112, 5111.061, 5111.081, 5111.11, 5111.151, 5111.161, 5111.162, 5111.20, 5111.222, 5111.231, 5111.244, 5111.27, 5111.31, 5111.88, 5111.882, 5111.889, 5111.8811, 5111.8812, 5112.08, 5112.18, 5112.31, 5115.04, 5119.16, 5123.0413, 5123.196, 5123.36, 5139.50, 5505.27, 5531.10, 5577.99, 5703.21, 5703.57, 5705.03, 5705.091, 5705.19, 5705.195, 5705.34, 5709.08, 5709.081, 5709.40, 5709.42, 5709.43, 5709.73, 5709.74, 5709.75, 5709.78, 5709.79, 5709.80, 5711.01, 5725.221, 5727.06, 5727.85, 5729.05, 5733.01, 5733.352, 5733.56, 5733.98, 5735.27, 5739.011, 5739.026, 5739.211, 5741.031, 5743.025, 5743.03, 5743.04, 5743.05, 5743.08, 5743.081, 5743.12, 5743.13, 5743.15, 5743.18, 5743.33, 5743.34, 5743.35, 5745.01, 5747.01, 5747.012, 5747.05, 5747.056, 5747.11, 5747.331, 5748.01, 5748.02, 5751.01, 5751.011, 5751.032, 5751.04, 5751.05, 5751.051, 5751.10, 5751.20, 5751.21, 5751.22, 5751.53, 5923.05, and 6121.02 be amended; that sections 117.45 (126.35), 117.46 (126.36), 117.47 (126.37), 117.48 (126.38), 173.41 (173.394), 5101.93 (5111.178), 5111.081 (5111.942), 5111.082 (5111.081), 5111.083 (5111.082), 5111.084 (5111.083), and 5111.085 (5111.084) be amended for the purpose of adopting new sections numbers as indicated in parentheses; that new sections 3325.12, 3365.11, and 5111.18 and sections 124.392, 131.022, 173.27, 307.761, 333.01, 333.02, 333.03, 333.04, 333.05, 333.06, 333.07, 3310.11, 3310.12, 3314.18, 3323.143, 3701.046, 3701.79, 4303.207, 4503.105, 5111.0116, 5111.0117, 5111.0118, 5111.101, 5111.163, 5111.8813, 5111.8814, 5111.8815, 5111.8816, 5111.8817, 5111.941, 5111.943, 5112.311, 5123.37, 5123.371, 5123.372, 5123.373, 5123.374, 5123.375, 5502.261, 5531.101, 5701.11, 5705.211, 5725.222, 5725.98, 5729.101, 5729.102, 5729.98, 5743.021, 5743.321, 5748.011, and 5919.19 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:
Sec. 9.41.  The auditor of state, director of budget and management, or any fiscal officer of any county, city, city health district, general health district, or city school district thereof, or civil service township, shall not draw, sign, issue, or authorize the drawing, signing, or issuing of any warrant on the treasurer of state or other disbursing officer of the state, or the treasurer or other disbursing officer of any county, city, or city school district thereof, or civil service township, to pay any salary or other compensation to any officer, clerk, employee, or other person in the classified service unless an estimate, payroll, or account for such salary or compensation containing the name of each person to be paid, bears the certificate of the director of administrative services, or in the case of the service of the city or civil service township, the certificate of the civil service commission of the city or civil service township, or in the case of the service of the county, the certificate of the appointing authority, that the persons named in the estimate, payroll, or account have been appointed, promoted, reduced, suspended, or laid off, or are being employed in pursuance of Chapter 124. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.
Where estimates, payrolls, or accounts are prepared by electronic data processing equipment, the director of administrative services or the municipal or civil service township civil service commission may develop methods for controlling the input or verifying the output of such equipment to ensure compliance with Chapter 124. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder. Any estimates, payrolls, or accounts prepared by these methods shall be subject to special audit at any time.
Any sum paid contrary to this section may be recovered from any officer making such payment in contravention of law and of the rules made in pursuance of law, or from any officer signing, countersigning, or authorizing the signing or countersigning of any warrant for the payment of the same, or from the sureties on his the officer's official bond, in an action in the courts of the state, maintained by a citizen resident therein. All moneys recovered in any action brought under this section shall, when collected, be paid into the state treasury or the treasury of the appropriate civil division of the state, except that the plaintiff in any action shall be entitled to recover his the plaintiff's own taxable costs of such action.
Sec. 9.901.  (A)(1) All health care benefits provided to persons employed by the public schools of this state shall be provided by medical plans designed pursuant to this section by the school employees health care board. The board, in consultation with the superintendent of insurance, shall negotiate with and, in accordance with the competitive selection procedures of Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, contract with one or more insurance companies authorized to do business in this state for the issuance of the plans. Any or all of the medical plans designed by the board may be self-insured. All self-insured plans adopted shall be administered by the board in accordance with this section. As used in this section, a "public school" means a school in a city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school district, and includes the educational service centers associated with those schools.
(2) Prior to soliciting proposals from insurance companies for the issuance of medical plans, the board shall determine what geographic regions exist in the state based on the availability of providers, networks, costs, and other factors relating to providing health care benefits. The board shall then determine what medical plans are offered by school districts and existing consortiums in the state. The board shall determine what medical plan offered by a school district or existing consortium in the region offers the lowest premium cost plan.
(3) The board shall develop a request for proposals and solicit bids for medical plans for the school districts in a region similar to the existing plans. The board shall also determine the benefits offered by existing medical plans, the employees' costs, and the cost-sharing arrangements used by public schools participating in a consortium. The board shall determine what strategies are used by the existing medical plans to manage health care costs and shall study the potential benefits of state or regional consortiums of public schools offering multiple health care plans.
(4) As used in this section, a "medical plan" includes group policies, contracts, and agreements that provide hospital, surgical, or medical expense coverage, including self-insured plans. A "medical plan" does not include an individual plan offered to the employees of a public school, or a plan that provides coverage only for specific disease or accidents, or a hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, or other plan that provides only supplemental benefits, paid for by the employees of a public school.
(B) The school employees health care board is hereby created. The school employees health care board shall consist of the following nine members and shall include individuals with experience with public school benefit programs, health care industry providers, and medical plan beneficiaries:
(1) Three members appointed by the governor;
(2) Three members appointed by the president of the senate;
(3) Three members appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives.
A member of the school employees health care board shall not be employed by, represent, or in any way be affiliated with a private entity that is providing services to the board, an individual school district, employers, or employees in the state of Ohio.
(C)(1) Members of the school employees health care board shall serve four-year terms; however, one of each of the initial members appointed under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section shall be appointed to a term of one year. The initial appointments under this section shall be made within forty-five days after the effective date of this section September 29, 2005.
Members' terms shall end on the same day of the same month as the effective date of this section twenty-ninth day of September, but a member shall continue to serve subsequent to the expiration of the member's term until a successor is appointed. Any vacancy occurring during a member's term shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment, except that the person appointed to fill the vacancy shall be appointed to the remainder of the unexpired term.
(2) Members shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed from the school employees health care fund for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official duties as members of the board.
(3) Members may be removed by their appointing authority for misfeasance, malfeasance, incompetence, dereliction of duty, or other just cause.
(D)(1) The governor shall call the first meeting of the school employees health care board. At that meeting, and annually thereafter, the board shall elect a chairperson and may elect members to other positions on the board as the board considers necessary or appropriate. The board shall meet at least four times each calendar year and shall also meet at the call of the chairperson or three or more board members. The chairperson shall provide reasonable advance notice of the time and place of board meetings to all members.
(2) A majority of the board constitutes a quorum for the transaction of business at a board meeting. A majority vote of the members present is necessary for official action.
(E) The school employees health care board shall conduct its business at open meetings; however, the records of the board are not public records for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.
(F) The school employees health care fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The public schools shall pay all school employees health care board plan premiums in the manner prescribed by the school employees health care board to the board for deposit into the school employees health care fund. All funds in the school employees health care fund shall be used solely for the provision of health care benefits to public schools employees pursuant to this section and related administrative costs. Premiums received by the board or insurance companies contracted pursuant to division (A) of this section are not subject to any state insurance premium tax.
(G) The school employees health care board shall do all of the following:
(1) Design multiple medical plans, including regional plans, to provide, in the board's judgment, the optimal combination of coverage, cost, choice, and stability of health cost benefits. The board may establish more than one tier of premium rates for any medical plan. The board shall establish regions as necessary for the implementation of the board's medical plans. Plans and premium rates may vary across the regions established by the board.
(2) Set an aggregate goal for employee and employer portions of premiums for the board's medical plans so as to manage plan participation and encourage the use of value-based plan participation by employees;
(3) Set employer and employee plan copayments, deductibles, exclusions, limitations, formularies, premium shares, and other responsibilities;
(4) Include disease management and consumer education programs, to the extent that the board determines is appropriate, in all medical plans designed by the board, which programs shall include, but are not limited to, wellness programs and other measures designed to encourage the wise use of medical plan coverage. These programs are not services or treatments for purposes of section 3901.71 of the Revised Code.
(5) Create and distribute to the governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the president of the senate, an annual report covering the plan background; plan coverage options; plan administration, including procedures for monitoring and managing objectives, scope, and methodology; plan operations; employee and employer contribution rates and the relationship between the rates and the school employees health care fund balance; a means to develop and maintain identity and evaluate alternative employee and employer cost-sharing strategies; an evaluation of the effectiveness of cost-saving services and programs; an evaluation of efforts to control and manage member eligibility and to insure that proper employee and employer contributions are remitted to the trust fund; efforts to prevent and detect fraud; and efforts to manage and monitor board contracts;
(6) Utilize cost containment measures aligned with patient, plan, and provider management strategies in developing and managing medical plans.
(H) The sections in Chapter 3923. of the Revised Code regulating public employee benefit plans are not applicable to the medical plans designed pursuant to this section.
(I)(1) Public schools are not subject to this section prior to the release of medical plans designed pursuant to this section.
(2) Prior to the school employees health care board's release of the board's initial medical plans, the board shall contract with an independent consultant to analyze costs related to employee health care benefits provided by existing school district plans in this state. The consultant shall determine the benefits offered by existing medical plans, the employees' costs, and the cost-sharing arrangements used by public schools either participating in a consortium or by other means. The consultant shall determine what strategies are used by the existing medical plans to manage health care costs and shall study the potential benefits of state or regional consortiums of public schools offering multiple health care plans. Based on the findings of the analysis, the consultant shall submit written recommendations to the board for the development and implementation of a successful program for pooling school districts' purchasing power for the acquisition of employee medical plans. The consultant's recommendations shall address, at a minimum, all of the following issues:
(a) The establishment of regions for the provision of medical plans, based on the availability of providers and plans in the state at the time that the school employees health care board is established;
(b) The use of regional preferred provider and closed panel plans, health savings accounts, and alternative medical plans, to stabilize both costs and the premiums charged school districts and district employees;
(c) The development of a system to obtain eligibility data and data compiled pursuant to the "Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985 (COBRA)," 100 Stat. 227, 29 U.S.C. 1161, as amended;
(d) The use of the competitive bidding process for regional medical plans;
(e) The development of a timeline planning for the design and use of board medical plans by not later than December 31, 2007;
(f) The use of information on claims and costs and of information reported by districts pursuant to COBRA in analyzing administrative and premium costs;
(g) The experience of states that have mandated statewide medical plans for public school employees, including the implementation strategies used by those states;
(h) Recommended strategies for the use of first-year roll-in premiums in the transition from district medical plans to school employees health care board plans;
(i) The option of allowing school districts to join an existing regional consortium as an alternative to school employees health care board plans;
(j) Mandatory and optional coverages to be offered by the board's medical plans;
(k) Potential risks to the state from the use of medical plans developed pursuant to this section;
(l) Any legislation needed to ensure the long-term financial solvency and stability of a health care purchasing system;
(m) The potential impacts of any changes to the existing purchasing structure on all of the following:
(i) Existing health care pooling and consortiums;
(ii) School district employees;
(iii) Individual school districts.
(n) Issues that could arise when school districts transition from the existing purchasing structure to a new purchasing structure;
(o) Strategies available to the board in the creation of fund reserves and the need for stop-loss insurance coverage for catastrophic losses;
(p) Any legislation needed to establish and maintain medical plans designed pursuant to this section. The consultant shall submit all legislative recommendations not later than December 31, 2005 2006, in writing, to the school employees health care board and to the governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the president of the senate.
(3) The public schools health care advisory committee is hereby created under the school employees health care board. The committee shall make recommendations to the school employees health care board related to the board's accomplishment of the duties assigned to the board under this section. The committee shall consist of eighteen members. The governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the president of the senate shall each appoint a representative from the Ohio education association, the Ohio school boards association, the Ohio association of school business officials, the Ohio association of health underwriters, an existing health care consortium serving public schools, and a health insuring corporation licensed to do business in Ohio and recommended by the Ohio association of health plans. The initial appointees shall be appointed to a one-year term not later than July 31, 2005 2007, the members' term to begin on that date. Subsequent one-year appointments, to commence on the thirty-first day of July of each year, shall be made in the same manner. A member shall continue to serve subsequent to the expiration of the member's term until the member's successor is appointed. Any vacancy occurring during a member's term shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment, except that the person appointed to fill the vacancy shall be appointed to the remainder of the unexpired term. The governor shall call the first meeting of each newly appointed committee. At that meeting the board shall elect a chairperson who shall call the time and place of future committee meetings. Committee members are not subject to the conditions for eligibility set by division (B) of this section for members of the school employees health care board.
(4) The school employees health care board shall submit a written study to the governor and the general assembly not later than January 15, 2006 31, 2007, of a plan to operate in compliance with this section, and on the governance of the school employees health care board. A copy of the board's plan of operation, including audit provisions, shall accompany the report on the board's governance and the report shall include the board's recommendations on any legislation needed to enforce the recommendations of the board on implementing the provisions of this section.
(5) Not later than January 15, 2009, and not later than the same day of each subsequent year, the school employees health care board shall submit a written report to the governor and each member of the general assembly, which report evaluates the performance of school employees health care board medical plans during the previous year. Districts offering employee health care benefits through a plan offered by a consortium of two or more districts, or a consortium of one or more districts and one or more political subdivisions as defined in section 9.833 of the Revised Code, representing five thousand or more employees as of January 1, 2005, may request permission from the school employees health care board to continue offering consortium plans to the districts' employees at the discretion of the board. If the board grants permission, the permission is valid for only one year but may be renewed annually thereafter upon application to an approval of the board. The board shall grant initial or continued approval upon finding, based on an actuarial evaluation of the existing consortium plan offerings, that benefit design, premium costs, administrative cost, and other factors considered by the board are equivalent to or lower than comparable costs of the board's plan options offered to the local district. Age and gender adjustments, benefit comparison adjustments, and the total cost of the consortium plan, including administration, benefit cost, stop-loss insurance, and all other expenses or information requested by the board shall be presented to the board prior to the board's decision to allow a local district to continue to offer health care benefits under a consortium plan. A district shall not participate in the consortium plan once the district has chosen to offer plans designed by the board to the district's employees and begins premium payments for deposit into the school employees health care fund.
(6) Any districts providing medical plan coverage for the employees of public schools, or that have provided coverage within two years prior to the effective date of this section September 29, 2005, shall provide nonidentifiable aggregate claims data for the coverage to the school employees health care board or the department of administrative services, without charge, within thirty days after receiving a written request from the board or the department. The claims data shall include data relating to employee group benefit sets, demographics, and claims experience.
(J) The school employees health care board may contract with other state agencies as the board deems necessary for the implementation and operation of this section, based on demonstrated experience and expertise in administration, management, data handling, actuarial studies, quality assurance, or other needed services. The school employees health care board shall contract with the department of administrative services for central services until the board is able to obtain such services from other sources. The board shall reimburse the department of administrative services for the reasonable cost of those services.
(K) The board's administrative functions shall include, but are not limited to, the following:
(1) Maintaining reserves in the school employees health care fund, reinsurance, and other measures that in the judgment of the board will result in the long-term stability and solvency of the medical plans designed by the board. The board shall bill school districts, in proportion to a district's premium payments to all premium payments paid into the school employees health care fund during the previous year, in order to maintain necessary reserves, reinsurance, and administrative and operating funds. Each school district contributing to a board medical plan shall share any losses due to the expense of claims paid by the plan. In the event of a loss, the board may bill each district an amount, in proportion to the district's premium payments to all premium payments paid into the school employees health care fund during the previous year, sufficient in total to cover the loss. The state is not liable for any obligations of the school employees health care board or the school employees health care fund, or for expenses of public schools or school districts related to the board's medical plans.
(2) Providing health care information, wellness programs, and other preventive health care measures to medical plan beneficiaries, to the extent that the board determines to be appropriate;
(3) Coordinating contracts for services related to the board's medical plans. Contracts shall be approved by the school employees health care board.
(L) Not less than ninety days before coverage begins for public school employees under medical plans designed by the school employees health care board, a school district's board of education shall provide detailed information about the medical plans to the employees.
(M) Nothing in this section shall be construed as prohibiting public schools or school districts from consulting with and compensating insurance agents and brokers for professional services.
(N) The department of administrative services shall report to the governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the president of the senate within eighteen months after the effective date of this section not later than April 30, 2007, on the feasibility of achieving all of the following:
(1) Designing multiple medical plans to cover persons employed by public institutions of higher education that achieve an optimal combination of coverage, cost, choice, and stability, which plans include both state and regional preferred provider plans, set employee and employer premiums, and set employee plan copayments, deductibles, exclusions, limitations, formularies, and other responsibilities. For this purpose, "public institutions of higher education" include, without limitation, state universities and colleges, state community college districts, community college districts, university branch districts, technical college districts, and municipal universities.
(2) Maintaining reserves, reinsurance, and other measures to insure the long-term stability and solvency of the medical plans;
(3) Providing appropriate health care information, wellness programs, and other preventive health care measures to medical plan beneficiaries;
(4) Coordinating contracts for services related to the medical plans.
Sec. 101.543.  The As used in this section, "published" means to produce an electronic record that is accessible to the public.
The daily journals of the senate and house of representatives journals shall be printed or published daily during each session of the general assembly in pamphlet form without covers. The senate journal shall precede the house of representatives journal in the pamphlet. The composition used in printing or publishing the daily journals shall be retained for use in printing the final journals.
The final journals and appendixes of the senate and house of representatives journals and appendixes shall be printed after adjournment sine die and be bound in half law binding. The respective journal of each house and its proper appendix shall compose one volume unless the clerk of the senate or clerk of the house of representatives, as the case may be, directs that they be bound in separate volumes.
Sec. 107.40.  (A) There is hereby created the governor's residence advisory commission. The commission shall provide for the preservation, restoration, acquisition, and conservation of all decorations, objects of art, chandeliers, china, silver, statues, paintings, furnishings, accouterments, and other aesthetic materials that have been acquired, donated, loaned, or otherwise obtained by the state for the governor's residence and that have been approved by the commission. In addition, the commission shall provide for the maintenance of plants that have been acquired, donated, loaned, or otherwise obtained by the state for the governor's residence and that have been approved by the commission.
(B) The commission shall be responsible for the care, provision, repair, and placement of furnishings and other objects and accessories of the grounds and public areas of the first story of the governor's residence and for the care and placement of plants on the grounds. In exercising this responsibility, the commission shall preserve and seek to further establish the both of the following:
(1) The authentic ambiance and decor of the historic era during which the governor's residence was constructed. These;
(2) The grounds as a representation of Ohio's natural ecosystems.
These duties shall not affect the obligation of the department of administrative services to provide for the general maintenance and operating expenses of the governor's residence.
(C) The commission shall consist of nine eleven members. One member shall be the director of administrative services or the director's designee, who shall serve during the director's term of office and shall serve as chairperson. One member shall be the director of the Ohio historical society or the director's designee, who shall serve during the director's term of office and shall serve as vice-chairperson. One member shall represent the Columbus landmarks foundation. One member shall represent the Bexley historical society. One member shall be the mayor of the city of Bexley, who shall serve during the mayor's term of office. One member shall be the chief executive officer of the Franklin park conservatory joint recreation district, who shall serve during the term of employment as chief executive officer. The remaining five members shall be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate. The five members appointed by the governor shall be persons with knowledge of Ohio history, architecture, decorative arts, or historic preservation, and one of those members shall have knowledge of landscape architecture, garden design, horticulture, and plants native to this state.
(D) Of the initial appointees, the representative of the Columbus landmarks foundation shall serve for a term expiring December 31, 1996, and the representative of the Bexley historical society shall serve for a term expiring December 31, 1997. Of the five members appointed by the governor, three shall serve for terms ending December 31, 1998, and two shall serve for terms ending December 31, 1999. Thereafter, each term shall be for four years, commencing on the first day of January and ending on the last day of December. Each The member having knowledge of landscape architecture, garden design, horticulture, and plants native to this state initially shall be appointed upon the first vacancy on the commission occurring on or after the effective date of this amendment.
Each member shall hold office from the date of the member's appointment until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the end of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the term. Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration of the term until the member's successor takes office.
(E) Five Six members of the commission constitute a quorum, and the affirmative vote of five six members is required for approval of any action by the commission.
(F) After each initial member of the commission has been appointed, the commission shall meet and select one member as secretary and another as treasurer. Organizational meetings of the commission shall be held at the time and place designated by call of the chairperson. Meetings of the commission may be held anywhere in the state and shall be in compliance with Chapters 121. and 149. of the Revised Code. The commission may adopt, pursuant to section 111.15 of the Revised Code, rules necessary to carry out the purposes of this section.
(G) Members of the commission shall serve without remuneration, but shall be compensated for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official duties.
(H) All expenses incurred in carrying out this section are payable solely from money accrued under this section or appropriated for these purposes by the general assembly, and the commission shall incur no liability or obligation beyond such money.
(I) The commission may accept any donation, gift, bequest, or devise for the governor's residence or as an endowment for the maintenance and care of the garden on the grounds of the governor's residence in furtherance of its duties. Any revenue received by the commission shall be deposited into the governor's residence fund, which is hereby established in the state treasury, for use by the commission in accordance with the performance of its duties. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund. Title to all property acquired by the commission shall be taken in the name of the state and shall be held for the use and benefit of the commission.
(J) Nothing in this section limits the ability of a person or other entity to purchase decorations, objects of art, chandeliers, china, silver, statues, paintings, furnishings, accouterments, plants, or other aesthetic materials for placement in the governor's residence or on the grounds of the governor's residence or donation to the commission. No such object or plant, however, shall be placed on the grounds or public areas of the first story of the governor's residence without the consent of the commission.
Sec. 109.57.  (A)(1) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall procure from wherever procurable and file for record photographs, pictures, descriptions, fingerprints, measurements, and other information that may be pertinent of all persons who have been convicted of committing within this state a felony, any crime constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, of all children under eighteen years of age who have been adjudicated delinquent children for committing within this state an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult or who have been convicted of or pleaded guilty to committing within this state a felony or an offense of violence, and of all well-known and habitual criminals. The person in charge of any county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional institution and the person in charge of any state institution having custody of a person suspected of having committed a felony, any crime constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or having custody of a child under eighteen years of age with respect to whom there is probable cause to believe that the child may have committed an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult shall furnish such material to the superintendent of the bureau. Fingerprints, photographs, or other descriptive information of a child who is under eighteen years of age, has not been arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, has not been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to committing a felony or an offense of violence, and is not a child with respect to whom there is probable cause to believe that the child may have committed an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult shall not be procured by the superintendent or furnished by any person in charge of any county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional institution, except as authorized in section 2151.313 of the Revised Code.
(2) Every clerk of a court of record in this state, other than the supreme court or a court of appeals, shall send to the superintendent of the bureau a weekly report containing a summary of each case involving a felony, involving any crime constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent offenses, involving a misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, or involving an adjudication in a case in which a child under eighteen years of age was alleged to be a delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult. The clerk of the court of common pleas shall include in the report and summary the clerk sends under this division all information described in divisions (A)(2)(a) to (f) of this section regarding a case before the court of appeals that is served by that clerk. The summary shall be written on the standard forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to division (B) of this section and shall include the following information:
(a) The incident tracking number contained on the standard forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to division (B) of this section;
(b) The style and number of the case;
(c) The date of arrest;
(d) The date that the person was convicted of or pleaded guilty to the offense, adjudicated a delinquent child for committing the act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, found not guilty of the offense, or found not to be a delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, the date of an entry dismissing the charge, an entry declaring a mistrial of the offense in which the person is discharged, an entry finding that the person or child is not competent to stand trial, or an entry of a nolle prosequi, or the date of any other determination that constitutes final resolution of the case;
(e) A statement of the original charge with the section of the Revised Code that was alleged to be violated;
(f) If the person or child was convicted, pleaded guilty, or was adjudicated a delinquent child, the sentence or terms of probation imposed or any other disposition of the offender or the delinquent child.
If the offense involved the disarming of a law enforcement officer or an attempt to disarm a law enforcement officer, the clerk shall clearly state that fact in the summary, and the superintendent shall ensure that a clear statement of that fact is placed in the bureau's records.
(3) The superintendent shall cooperate with and assist sheriffs, chiefs of police, and other law enforcement officers in the establishment of a complete system of criminal identification and in obtaining fingerprints and other means of identification of all persons arrested on a charge of a felony, any crime constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent offenses, or a misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and of all children under eighteen years of age arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult. The superintendent also shall file for record the fingerprint impressions of all persons confined in a county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional institution for the violation of state laws and of all children under eighteen years of age who are confined in a county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional institution or in any facility for delinquent children for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, and any other information that the superintendent may receive from law enforcement officials of the state and its political subdivisions.
(4) The superintendent shall carry out Chapter 2950. of the Revised Code with respect to the registration of persons who are convicted of or plead guilty to either a sexually oriented offense that is not a registration-exempt sexually oriented offense or a child-victim oriented offense and with respect to all other duties imposed on the bureau under that chapter.
(5) The bureau shall perform centralized recordkeeping functions for criminal history records and services in this state for purposes of the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code and is the criminal history record repository as defined in that section for purposes of that compact. The superintendent or the superintendent's designee is the compact officer for purposes of that compact and shall carry out the responsibilities of the compact officer specified in that compact.
(B) The superintendent shall prepare and furnish to every county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional institution and to every clerk of a court in this state specified in division (A)(2) of this section standard forms for reporting the information required under division (A) of this section. The standard forms that the superintendent prepares pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible formats and electronic formats.
(C) The superintendent may operate a center for electronic, automated, or other data processing for the storage and retrieval of information, data, and statistics pertaining to criminals and to children under eighteen years of age who are adjudicated delinquent children for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, criminal activity, crime prevention, law enforcement, and criminal justice, and may establish and operate a statewide communications network to gather and disseminate information, data, and statistics for the use of law enforcement agencies. The superintendent may gather, store, retrieve, and disseminate information, data, and statistics that pertain to children who are under eighteen years of age and that are gathered pursuant to sections 109.57 to 109.61 of the Revised Code together with information, data, and statistics that pertain to adults and that are gathered pursuant to those sections. In addition to any other authorized use of information, data, and statistics of that nature, the superintendent or the superintendent's designee may provide and exchange the information, data, and statistics pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact as described in division (A)(5) of this section.
(D) The information and materials furnished to the superintendent pursuant to division (A) of this section and information and materials furnished to any board or person under division (F) or (G) of this section are not public records under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.
(E) The attorney general shall adopt rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, setting forth the procedure by which a person may receive or release information gathered by the superintendent pursuant to division (A) of this section. A reasonable fee may be charged for this service. If a temporary employment service submits a request for a determination of whether a person the service plans to refer to an employment position has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed in division (A)(1), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, the request shall be treated as a single request and only one fee shall be charged.
(F)(1) As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "head start agency" means an entity in this state that has been approved to be an agency for purposes of subchapter II of the "Community Economic Development Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, as amended.
(2)(a) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is required to be made under section 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code, the board of education of any school district; the director of mental retardation and developmental disabilities; any county board of mental retardation and developmental disabilities; any entity under contract with a county board of mental retardation and developmental disabilities; the chief administrator of any chartered nonpublic school; the chief administrator of any home health agency; the chief administrator of or person operating any child day-care center, type A family day-care home, or type B family day-care home licensed or certified under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code; the administrator of any type C family day-care home certified pursuant to Section 1 of Sub. H.B. 62 of the 121st general assembly or Section 5 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st general assembly; the chief administrator of any head start agency; or the executive director of a public children services agency may request that the superintendent of the bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for employment in any position after October 2, 1989, or any individual wishing to apply for employment with a board of education may request, with regard to the individual, whether the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this section that pertains to that individual. On receipt of the request, the superintendent shall determine whether that information exists and, upon request of the person, board, or entity requesting information, also shall request from the federal bureau of investigation any criminal records it has pertaining to that individual. The superintendent or the superintendent's designee also may request criminal history records from other states or the federal government pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code. Within thirty days of the date that the superintendent receives a request, the superintendent shall send to the board, entity, or person a report of any information that the superintendent determines exists, including information contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days of its receipt, shall send the board, entity, or person a report of any information received from the federal bureau of investigation, other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law.
(b) When a board of education is required to receive information under this section as a prerequisite to employment of an individual pursuant to section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, it may accept a certified copy of records that were issued by the bureau of criminal identification and investigation and that are presented by an individual applying for employment with the district in lieu of requesting that information itself. In such a case, the board shall accept the certified copy issued by the bureau in order to make a photocopy of it for that individual's employment application documents and shall return the certified copy to the individual. In a case of that nature, a district only shall accept a certified copy of records of that nature within one year after the date of their issuance by the bureau.
(3) The state board of education may request, with respect to any individual who has applied for employment after October 2, 1989, in any position with the state board or the department of education, any information that a school district board of education is authorized to request under division (F)(2) of this section, and the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the request has been received from a school district board of education under division (F)(2) of this section.
(4) When the superintendent of the bureau receives a request for information under section 3319.291 of the Revised Code, the superintendent shall proceed as if the request has been received from a school district board of education under division (F)(2) of this section.
(5) When a recipient of a classroom reading improvement grant paid under section 3301.86 of the Revised Code requests, with respect to any individual who applies to participate in providing any program or service funded in whole or in part by the grant, the information that a school district board of education is authorized to request under division (F)(2)(a) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the request has been received from a school district board of education under division (F)(2)(a) of this section.
(G) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is required to be made under section 173.41, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, or 3722.151 of the Revised Code with respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a position that involves providing direct care to an older adult, the chief administrator of a PASSPORT agency that provides services through the PASSPORT program created under section 173.40 of the Revised Code, home health agency, hospice care program, home licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, adult day-care program operated pursuant to rules adopted under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code, or adult care facility may request that the superintendent of the bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any individual who has applied after January 27, 1997, for employment in a position that does not involve providing direct care to an older adult, whether the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this section that pertains to that individual. On
In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is required to be made under section 173.27 of the Revised Code with respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a position that involves providing ombudsperson services to residents of long-term care facilities or recipients of community-based long-term care services, the state long-term care ombudsperson, ombudsperson's designee, or director of health may request that the superintendent investigate and determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for employment in a position that does not involve providing such ombudsperson services, whether the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this section that pertains to that applicant.
In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is required to be made under section 173.394 of the Revised Code with respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a position that involves providing direct care to an individual, the chief administrator of a community-based long-term care agency may request that the superintendent investigate and determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for employment in a position that does not involve providing direct care, whether the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this section that pertains to that applicant.
On receipt of the a request under this division, the superintendent shall determine whether that information exists and, on request of the administrator individual requesting information, shall also request from the federal bureau of investigation any criminal records it has pertaining to that individual the applicant. The superintendent or the superintendent's designee also may request criminal history records from other states or the federal government pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code. Within thirty days of the date a request is received, the superintendent shall send to the administrator requester a report of any information determined to exist, including information contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days of its receipt, shall send the administrator requester a report of any information received from the federal bureau of investigation, other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law.
(H) Information obtained by a board, administrator, government entity or other person under this section is confidential and shall not be released or disseminated.
(I) The superintendent may charge a reasonable fee for providing information or criminal records under division (F)(2) or (G) of this section.
Sec. 109.572. (A)(1) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 121.08, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 5104.012, 5104.013, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;
(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(1)(a) of this section.
(2) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 5123.081 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in any position with the department of mental retardation and developmental disabilities, pursuant to section 5126.28 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in any position with a county board of mental retardation and developmental disabilities, or pursuant to section 5126.281 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in a direct services position with an entity contracting with a county board for employment, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.04, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;
(b) An existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(2)(a) of this section.
(3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.41 173.27, 173.394, 3712.09, 3721.121, or 3722.151 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person who has applied for employment in a position that involves providing direct care to an older adult for which a criminal records check is required by those sections. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;
(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(3)(a) of this section.
(4) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3701.881 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with a home health agency as a person responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.04, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;
(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(4)(a) of this section.
(5) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 5111.95 or 5111.96 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with a waiver agency participating in a department of job and family services administered home and community-based waiver program or an independent provider participating in a department administered home and community-based waiver program in a position that involves providing home and community-based waiver services to consumers with disabilities, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.12, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date;
(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(5)(a) of this section.
(6) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3701.881 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with a home health agency in a position that involves providing direct care to an older adult, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;
(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(6)(a) of this section.
(7) When conducting a criminal records check upon a request pursuant to section 3319.39 of the Revised Code for an applicant who is a teacher, in addition to the determination made under division (A)(1) of this section, the superintendent shall determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense specified in section 3319.31 of the Revised Code.
(8) On a request pursuant to section 2151.86 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, or felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;
(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(8)(a) of this section.
(9) When conducting a criminal records check on a request pursuant to section 5104.013 of the Revised Code for a person who is an owner, licensee, or administrator of a child day-care center or type A family day-care home or an authorized provider of a certified type B family day-care home, the superintendent, in addition to the determination made under division (A)(1) of this section, shall determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2921.11, 2921.13, or 2923.01 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2923.02 or 2923.03 of the Revised Code that relates to a crime specified in this division or division (A)(1)(a) of this section, or a second violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code within five years of the date of application for licensure or certification.
(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described in division (A)(9)(a) of this section.
(10) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from an individual pursuant to section 4749.03 or 4749.06 of the Revised Code, accompanied by a completed copy of the form prescribed in division (C)(1) of this section and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in a manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists indicating that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony in this state or in any other state. If the individual indicates that a firearm will be carried in the course of business, the superintendent shall require information from the federal bureau of investigation as described in division (B)(2) of this section. The superintendent shall report the findings of the criminal records check and any information the federal bureau of investigation provides to the director of public safety.
(11) Not later than thirty days after the date the superintendent receives the request, completed form, and fingerprint impressions, the superintendent shall send the person, board, or entity that made the request any information, other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law, the superintendent determines exists with respect to the person who is the subject of the request that indicates that the person previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), or (10) of this section, as appropriate. The superintendent shall send the person, board, or entity that made the request a copy of the list of offenses specified in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), or (10) of this section, as appropriate. If the request was made under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code with regard to an applicant who may be both responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child and involved in providing direct care to an older adult, the superintendent shall provide a list of the offenses specified in divisions (A)(4) and (6) of this section.
(B) The superintendent shall conduct any criminal records check requested under section 121.08, 173.41 173.27, 173.394, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 4749.03, 4749.06, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code as follows:
(1) The superintendent shall review or cause to be reviewed any relevant information gathered and compiled by the bureau under division (A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code that relates to the person who is the subject of the request, including any relevant information contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code;
(2) If the request received by the superintendent asks for information from the federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall request from the federal bureau of investigation any information it has with respect to the person who is the subject of the request and shall review or cause to be reviewed any information the superintendent receives from that bureau.
(3) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee may request criminal history records from other states or the federal government pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code.
(C)(1) The superintendent shall prescribe a form to obtain the information necessary to conduct a criminal records check from any person for whom a criminal records check is required by section 121.08, 173.41 173.27, 173.394, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 4749.03, 4749.06, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code. The form that the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.
(2) The superintendent shall prescribe standard impression sheets to obtain the fingerprint impressions of any person for whom a criminal records check is required by section 121.08, 173.41 173.27, 173.394, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 4749.03, 4749.06, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code. Any person for whom a records check is required by any of those sections shall obtain the fingerprint impressions at a county sheriff's office, municipal police department, or any other entity with the ability to make fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheets prescribed by the superintendent. The office, department, or entity may charge the person a reasonable fee for making the impressions. The standard impression sheets the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.
(3) Subject to division (D) of this section, the superintendent shall prescribe and charge a reasonable fee for providing a criminal records check requested under section 121.08, 173.41 173.27, 173.394, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 4749.03, 4749.06, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code. The person making a criminal records request under section 121.08, 173.41 173.27, 173.394, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 4749.03, 4749.06, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.95, 5111.96, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code shall pay the fee prescribed pursuant to this division. A person making a request under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code for a criminal records check for an applicant who may be both responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child and involved in providing direct care to an older adult shall pay one fee for the request.
(4) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation may prescribe methods of forwarding fingerprint impressions and information necessary to conduct a criminal records check, which methods shall include, but not be limited to, an electronic method.
(D) A determination whether any information exists that indicates that a person previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described in division (A)(1)(a) or (b), (A)(2)(a) or (b), (A)(3)(a) or (b), (A)(4)(a) or (b), (A)(5)(a) or (b), (A)(6), (A)(7)(a) or (b), (A)(8)(a) or (b), or (A)(9)(a) or (b) of this section that is made by the superintendent with respect to information considered in a criminal records check in accordance with this section is valid for the person who is the subject of the criminal records check for a period of one year from the date upon which the superintendent makes the determination. During the period in which the determination in regard to a person is valid, if another request under this section is made for a criminal records check for that person, the superintendent shall provide the information that is the basis for the superintendent's initial determination at a lower fee than the fee prescribed for the initial criminal records check.
(E) As used in this section:
(1) "Criminal records check" means any criminal records check conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance with division (B) of this section.
(2) "Home and community-based waiver services" and "waiver agency" have the same meanings as in section 5111.95 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Independent provider" has the same meaning as in section 5111.96 of the Revised Code.
(4) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.
(5) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.
Sec. 113.09.  Except as provided in section 113.10 of the Revised Code, all moneys deposited with the treasurer of state, the disposition of which is not otherwise provided for by law, shall be credited to the general revenue fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. If a warrant for the payment of money from the state treasury has been illegally or improperly issued by the auditor of state, or the amount of a warrant issued by him exceeds the sum which that should have been named therein, and payment of such warrant or excess has been made by the treasurer of state, the director of budget and management shall, unless the account of the appropriation from which it was paid has been closed, credit the amount collected to such appropriation; but, if such account has been closed, he the director shall credit the amount so collected to the fund on which the warrant was originally drawn.
All investment earnings on moneys deposited in the state treasury shall be credited to the general revenue fund unless:
(A) The disposition of the earnings is otherwise provided for by law;
(B) The director of budget and management has provided in the plan approved under section 131.36 of the Revised Code that a different fund is entitled to the earnings.
Sec. 113.11.  No money shall be paid out of the state treasury or transferred elsewhere except on the warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management. No money shall be paid out of a custodial fund of the treasurer of state except on proper order to the treasurer of state by the officer authorized by law to pay money out of the fund.
The treasurer of state shall adopt rules prescribing the form and manner in which money may be paid out of the state treasury or a custodial fund of the treasurer of state.
Sec. 113.12. The treasurer of state, on presentation, shall pay all warrants drawn on him the treasurer of state by the auditor of state director of budget and management. At least once each month the treasurer of state shall surrender to the auditor of state director all warrants the treasurer of state has paid and shall accept the receipt of the auditor of state director therefor. The receipt shall be held by the treasurer of state in place of such warrants and as evidence of their payment until an audit of the state treasury and the custodial funds of the treasurer of state has been completed.
Sec. 120.36. (A) If (1) Subject to division (A)(2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of this section, if a person who is a defendant in a criminal case or a party in a case in juvenile court requests or is provided a state public defender, a county or joint county public defender, or any other counsel appointed by the court, the court in which the criminal case is initially filed or the juvenile court, whichever is applicable, shall assess, unless the application fee is waived or reduced, a non-refundable application fee of twenty-five dollars.
The court shall direct the person to pay the application fee to the clerk of court. The person shall pay the application fee to the clerk of court at the time the person files an affidavit of indigency or a financial disclosure form with the court, a state public defender, a county or joint county public defender, or any other counsel appointed by the court or within seven days of that date. If the person does not pay the application fee within that seven-day period, the court shall assess the application fee at sentencing or at the final disposition of the case.
If a case involving a felony that was initially filed in a municipal court or a county court is bound over to the court of common pleas and the defendant in the case failed to pay the application fee in the municipal court or county court, the court of common pleas shall assess the application fee at the initial appearance of the defendant in the court of common pleas. If a case involving an alleged delinquent child is transferred to the court of common pleas for prosecution of the involved child as an adult and if the involved child failed to pay the fee in the juvenile court, the court of common pleas shall assess the application fee at the initial appearance of the child in the court of common pleas.
(2) For purposes of this section, a criminal case includes any case involving a violation of any provision of the Revised Code or of an ordinance of a municipal corporation for which the potential penalty includes loss of liberty and includes any contempt proceeding in which a court may impose a term of imprisonment.
(3) In a juvenile court proceeding, the court shall not assess the application fee against a child if the court appoints a guardian ad litem for the child or the court appoints an attorney to represent the child at the request of a guardian ad litem.
(4) The court shall not assess an application fee for a postconviction proceeding or when the defendant files an appeal.
(5)(a) Except when the court assesses an application fee pursuant to division (A)(5)(b) of this section, the court shall assess an application fee when a person is charged with a violation of a community control sanction or a violation of a post-release control sanction.
(b) If a charge of violating a community control sanction or post-release control sanction described in division (A)(5)(a) of this section results in a person also being charged with violating any provision of the Revised Code or an ordinance of a municipal corporation, the court shall only assess an application fee for the case that results from the additional charge.
(6) If a case is transferred from one court to another court and the person failed to pay the application fee to the court that initially assessed the application fee, the court that initially assessed the fee shall remove the assessment, and the court to which the case was transferred shall assess the application fee.
(7) The court shall assess an application fee pursuant to this section one time per case. An appeal shall not be considered a separate case for the purpose of assessing the application fee For purposes of assessing the application fee, a case means one complete proceeding or trial held in one court for a person on an indictment, information, complaint, petition, citation, writ, motion, or other document initiating a case that arises out of a single incident or a series of related incidents, or when one individual is charged with two or more offenses that the court handles simultaneously. The court may waive or reduce the fee for a specific person in a specific case upon a finding that the person lacks financial resources that are sufficient to pay the fee or that payment of the fee would result in an undue hardship.
(B) No court, state public defender, county or joint county public defender, or other counsel appointed by the court shall deny a person the assistance of counsel solely due to the person's failure to pay the application fee assessed pursuant to division (A) of this section. A person's present inability, failure, or refusal to pay the application fee shall not disqualify that person from legal representation.
(C) The application fee assessed pursuant to division (A) of this section is separate from and in addition to any other amount assessed against a person who is found to be able to contribute toward the cost of the person's legal representation pursuant to division (D) of section 2941.51 of the Revised Code.
(D) The clerk of the court that assessed the fees shall forward all application fees collected pursuant to this section to the county treasurer for deposit in the county treasury. The county shall retain eighty per cent of the application fees so collected to offset the costs of providing legal representation to indigent persons. Each Not later than the last day of each month, the county auditor shall remit twenty per cent of the application fees so collected in the previous month to the state public defender. The state public defender shall deposit the remitted fees into the state treasury to the credit of the client payment fund created pursuant to division (B)(5) of section 120.04 of the Revised Code. The state public defender may use that money in accordance with that section.
(E) On or before the first day of March of each year twentieth day of each month beginning in February of the year 2007, each clerk of court shall provide to the state public defender and the state auditor a report including all of the following:
(1) The number of persons in the previous calendar year month who requested or were provided a state public defender, county or joint county public defender, or other counsel appointed by the court;
(2) The number of persons in the previous calendar year month for whom the court waived the application fee pursuant to division (A) of this section;
(3) The dollar value of the assessed application fees assessed pursuant to division (A) of this section in the previous calendar year month;
(4) The amount of assessed application fees collected in the previous calendar year month;
(5) The balance of unpaid assessed application fees at the open and close of the previous calendar year month.
(F) As used in this section:
(1) "Clerk of court" means the clerk of the court of common pleas of the county, the clerk of the juvenile court of the county, the clerk of the domestic relations division of the court of common pleas of the county, the clerk of the probate court of the county, the clerk of a municipal court in the county, the clerk of a county-operated municipal court, or the clerk of a county court in the county, whichever is applicable.
(2) "County-operated municipal court" has the same meaning as in section 1901.03 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 120.52.  There is hereby established in the state treasury the legal aid fund, which shall be for the charitable public purpose of providing financial assistance to legal aid societies that provide civil legal services to indigents. The fund shall contain all funds credited to it by the treasurer of state pursuant to sections 1901.26, 1907.24, 2303.201, 3953.231, 4705.09, and 4705.10 of the Revised Code and income from investment credited to it by the treasurer of state in accordance with this section.
The treasurer of state may invest moneys contained in the legal aid fund in any manner authorized by the Revised Code for the investment of state moneys. However, no such investment shall interfere with any apportionment, allocation, or payment of moneys in January and July of each calendar year, as required by section 120.53 of the Revised Code. All income earned as a result of any such investment shall be credited to the fund.
The state public defender, through the Ohio legal assistance foundation, shall administer the payment of moneys out of the fund. Four and one-half per cent of the moneys in the fund shall be reserved for the actual, reasonable costs of administering sections 120.51 to 120.55 and sections 1901.26, 1907.24, 2303.201, 3953.231, 4705.09, and 4705.10 of the Revised Code. Moneys that are reserved for administrative costs but that are not used for actual, reasonable administrative costs shall be set aside for use in the manner described in division (A) of section 120.521 of the Revised Code. The remainder of the moneys in the legal aid fund shall be distributed in accordance with section 120.53 of the Revised Code. The Ohio legal assistance foundation shall establish, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, rules governing the administration of the legal aid fund, including the programs established under sections 1901.26, 1907.24, 2303.201, 4705.09, and 4705.10 of the Revised Code regarding interest on interest-bearing trust accounts of an attorney, law firm, or legal professional association.
Sec. 120.521.  (A) The state public defender shall establish a charitable, tax exempt foundation, named the Ohio legal assistance foundation, to actively solicit and accept gifts, bequests, donations, and contributions for use in providing financial assistance to legal aid societies, enhancing or improving the delivery of civil legal services to indigents, and operating the foundation. The Ohio legal assistance foundation shall deposit all gifts, bequests, donations, and contributions accepted by it into the legal assistance foundation fund established under this section. If the state public defender, pursuant to section 120.52 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to the effective date of this section, established a charitable, tax exempt foundation named the Ohio legal assistance foundation and if that foundation is in existence on the day before the effective date of this section, that foundation shall continue in existence and shall serve as the Ohio legal assistance foundation described in this section.
There is hereby established the legal assistance foundation fund, which shall be under the custody and control of the Ohio legal assistance foundation. The fund shall contain all moneys distributed to the Ohio legal assistance foundation pursuant to section 120.53 of the Revised Code and all gifts, bequests, donations, and contributions accepted by the Ohio legal assistance foundation under this section.
The Ohio legal assistance foundation shall distribute or use all moneys in the legal assistance foundation fund for the charitable public purpose of providing financial assistance to legal aid societies that provide civil legal services to indigents, enhancing or improving the delivery of civil legal services to indigents, and operating the foundation. The Ohio legal assistance foundation shall establish rules governing the administration of the legal assistance foundation fund.
The Ohio legal assistance foundation shall include, in the annual report it is required to make to the governor, the general assembly, and the supreme court pursuant to division (G)(2) of section 120.53 of the Revised Code, an audited financial statement on the distribution and use of the legal assistance foundation fund. No information contained in the statement shall identify or enable the identification of any person served by a legal aid society or in any way breach confidentiality.
(B) A foundation is tax exempt for purposes of this section if the foundation is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 501(a), as amended, and if the foundation has received from the internal revenue service a determination letter that is in effect stating that the foundation is exempt from federal income taxation under that subsection.
Sec. 120.53.  (A) A legal aid society that operates within the state may apply to the Ohio legal assistance foundation for financial assistance from the legal aid fund established by section 120.52 of the Revised Code to be used for the funding of the society during the calendar year following the calendar year in which application is made.
(B) An application for financial assistance made under division (A) of this section shall be submitted by the first day of November of the calendar year preceding the calendar year for which financial assistance is desired and shall include all of the following:
(1) Evidence that the applicant is incorporated in this state as a nonprofit corporation;
(2) A list of the trustees of the applicant;
(3) The proposed budget of the applicant for these funds for the following calendar year;
(4) A summary of the services to be offered by the applicant in the following calendar year;
(5) A specific description of the territory or constituency served by the applicant;
(6) An estimate of the number of persons to be served by the applicant during the following calendar year;
(7) A general description of the additional sources of the applicant's funding;
(8) The amount of the applicant's total budget for the calendar year in which the application is filed that it will expend in that calendar year for legal services in each of the counties it serves;
(9) A specific description of any services, programs, training, and legal technical assistance to be delivered by the applicant or by another person pursuant to a contract with the applicant, including, but not limited to, by private attorneys or through reduced fee plans, judicare panels, organized pro bono programs, and mediation programs.
(C) The Ohio legal assistance foundation shall determine whether each applicant that filed an application for financial assistance under division (A) of this section in a calendar year is eligible for financial assistance under this section. To be eligible for such financial assistance, an applicant shall satisfy the criteria for being a legal aid society and shall be in compliance with the provisions of sections 120.51 to 120.55 of the Revised Code and with the rules and requirements the foundation establishes pursuant to section 120.52 of the Revised Code. The Ohio legal assistance foundation then, on or before the fifteenth day of December of the calendar year in which the application is filed, shall notify each such applicant, in writing, whether it is eligible for financial assistance under this section, and if it is eligible, estimate the amount that will be available for that applicant for each six-month distribution period, as determined under division (D) of this section.
(D) The Ohio legal assistance foundation shall allocate moneys contained in the legal aid fund twice each year monthly for distribution to applicants that filed their applications in the previous calendar year and were are determined to be eligible applicants.
All moneys contained in the fund on the first day of January of a calendar year each month shall be allocated, after deduction of the costs of administering sections 120.51 to 120.55 and sections 1901.26, 1907.24, 2303.201, 3953.231, 4705.09, and 4705.10 of the Revised Code that are authorized by section 120.52 of the Revised Code, according to this section and shall be distributed accordingly on the thirty-first day of January of that calendar year, and all moneys contained in the fund on the first day of July of that calendar year shall be allocated, after deduction of the costs of administering those sections that are authorized by section 120.52 of the Revised Code, according to this section and shall be distributed accordingly on the thirty-first day of July of that calendar year not later than the last day of the month following the month the moneys were received. In making the allocations under this section, the moneys in the fund that were generated pursuant to sections 1901.26, 1907.24, 2303.201, 3953.231, 4705.09, and 4705.10 of the Revised Code and all income generated from the investment of such moneys shall be apportioned as follows:
(1) After deduction of the amount authorized and used for actual, reasonable administrative costs under section 120.52 of the Revised Code:
(a) Five per cent of the moneys remaining in the fund shall be reserved for use in the manner described in division (A) of section 120.521 of the Revised Code or for distribution to legal aid societies that provide assistance to special population groups of their eligible clients, engage in special projects that have a substantial impact on their local service area or on significant segments of the state's poverty population, or provide legal training or support to other legal aid societies in the state;
(b) After deduction of the amount described in division (D)(1)(a) of this section, one and three-quarters per cent of the moneys remaining in the fund shall be apportioned among entities that received financial assistance from the legal aid fund prior to the effective date of this amendment but that, on and after the effective date of this amendment, no longer qualify as a legal aid society that is eligible for financial assistance under this section.
(c) After deduction of the amounts described in divisions (D)(1)(a) and (b) of this section, fifteen per cent of the moneys remaining in the fund shall be placed in the legal assistance foundation fund for use in the manner described in division (A) of section 120.521 of the Revised Code.
(2) After deduction of the actual, reasonable administrative costs under section 120.52 of the Revised Code and after deduction of the amounts identified in divisions (D)(1)(a), (b), and (c) of this section, the remaining moneys shall be apportioned among the counties that are served by eligible legal aid societies that have applied for financial assistance under this section so that each such county is apportioned a portion of those moneys, based upon the ratio of the number of indigents who reside in that county to the total number of indigents who reside in all counties of this state that are served by eligible legal aid societies that have applied for financial assistance under this section. Subject to division (E) of this section, the moneys apportioned to a county under this division then shall be allocated to the eligible legal aid society that serves the county and that has applied for financial assistance under this section. For purposes of this division, the source of data identifying the number of indigent persons who reside in a county shall be the most recent decennial census figures from the United States department of commerce, division of census.
(E) If the Ohio legal assistance foundation, in attempting to make an allocation of moneys under division (D)(2) of this section, determines that a county that has been apportioned money under that division is served by more than one eligible legal aid society that has applied for financial assistance under this section, the Ohio legal assistance foundation shall allocate the moneys that have been apportioned to that county under division (D)(2) of this section among all eligible legal aid societies that serve that county and that have applied for financial assistance under this section on a pro rata basis, so that each such eligible society is allocated a portion based upon the amount of its total budget expended in the prior calendar year for legal services in that county as compared to the total amount expended in the prior calendar year for legal services in that county by all eligible legal aid societies that serve that county and that have applied for financial assistance under this section.
(F) Moneys allocated to eligible applicants under this section shall be paid twice annually, on the thirty-first day of January and on the thirty-first day of July of monthly beginning the calendar year following the calendar year in which the application is filed.
(G)(1) A legal aid society that receives financial assistance in any calendar year under this section shall file an annual report with the Ohio legal assistance foundation detailing the number and types of cases handled, and the amount and types of legal training, legal technical assistance, and other service provided, by means of that financial assistance. No information contained in the report shall identify or enable the identification of any person served by the legal aid society or in any way breach client confidentiality.
(2) The Ohio legal assistance foundation shall make an annual report to the governor, the general assembly, and the supreme court on the distribution and use of the legal aid fund. The foundation also shall include in the annual report an audited financial statement of all gifts, bequests, donations, contributions, and other moneys the foundation receives. No information contained in the report shall identify or enable the identification of any person served by a legal aid society, or in any way breach confidentiality.
(H) A legal aid society may enter into agreements for the provision of services, programs, training, or legal technical assistance for the legal aid society or to indigent persons.
Sec. 121.37.  (A)(1) There is hereby created the Ohio family and children first cabinet council. The council shall be composed of the superintendent of public instruction and the directors of youth services, job and family services, mental health, health, alcohol and drug addiction services, mental retardation and developmental disabilities, and budget and management. The chairperson of the council shall be the governor or the governor's designee and shall establish procedures for the council's internal control and management.
(2) The purpose of the cabinet council is to help families seeking government services. This section shall not be interpreted or applied to usurp the role of parents, but solely to streamline and coordinate existing government services for families seeking assistance for their children.
In seeking to fulfill its purpose, the council may do any of the following:
(a) Advise and make recommendations to the governor and general assembly regarding the provision of services to children;
(b) Advise and assess local governments on the coordination of service delivery to children;
(c) Hold meetings at such times and places as may be prescribed by the council's procedures and maintain records of the meetings, except that records identifying individual children are confidential and shall be disclosed only as provided by law;
(d) Develop programs and projects, including pilot projects, to encourage coordinated efforts at the state and local level to improve the state's social service delivery system;
(e) Enter into contracts with and administer grants to county family and children first councils, as well as other county or multicounty organizations to plan and coordinate service delivery between state agencies and local service providers for families and children;
(f) Enter into contracts with and apply for grants from federal agencies or private organizations;
(g) Enter into interagency agreements to encourage coordinated efforts at the state and local level to improve the state's social service delivery system. The agreements may include provisions regarding the receipt, transfer, and expenditure of funds;
(h) Identify public and private funding sources for services provided to alleged or adjudicated unruly children and children who are at risk of being alleged or adjudicated unruly children, including regulations governing access to and use of the services;
(i) Collect information provided by local communities regarding successful programs for prevention, intervention, and treatment of unruly behavior, including evaluations of the programs;
(j) Identify and disseminate publications regarding alleged or adjudicated unruly children and children who are at risk of being alleged or adjudicated unruly children and regarding programs serving those types of children;
(k) Maintain an inventory of strategic planning facilitators for use by government or nonprofit entities that serve alleged or adjudicated unruly children or children who are at risk of being alleged or adjudicated unruly children.
(3) The cabinet council shall provide for the following:
(a) Reviews of service and treatment plans for children for which such reviews are requested;
(b) Assistance as the council determines to be necessary to meet the needs of children referred by county family and children first councils;
(c) Monitoring and supervision of a statewide, comprehensive, coordinated, multi-disciplinary, interagency system for infants and toddlers with developmental disabilities or delays and their families, as established pursuant to federal grants received and administered by the department of health for early intervention services under the "Individuals with Disabilities Education Act of 2004," 20 U.S.C.A. 1400, as amended.
(B)(1) Each board of county commissioners shall establish a county family and children first council. The board may invite any local public or private agency or group that funds, advocates, or provides services to children and families to have a representative become a permanent or temporary member of its county council. Each county council must include the following individuals:
(a) At least three individuals who are not employed by an agency represented on the council and whose families are or have received services from an agency represented on the council or another county's council. Where possible, the number of members representing families shall be equal to twenty per cent of the council's membership.
(b) The director of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services that serves the county, or, in the case of a county that has a board of alcohol and drug addiction services and a community mental health board, the directors of both boards. If a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services covers more than one county, the director may designate a person to participate on the county's council.
(c) The health commissioner, or the commissioner's designee, of the board of health of each city and general health district in the county. If the county has two or more health districts, the health commissioner membership may be limited to the commissioners of the two districts with the largest populations.
(d) The director of the county department of job and family services;
(e) The executive director of the public children services agency;
(f) The superintendent of the county board of mental retardation and developmental disabilities;
(g) The county's juvenile court judge senior in service or another judge of the juvenile court designated by the administrative judge or, where there is no administrative judge, by the judge senior in service;
(h) The superintendent of the city, exempted village, or local school district with the largest number of pupils residing in the county, as determined by the department of education, which shall notify each board of county commissioners of its determination at least biennially;
(i) A school superintendent representing all other school districts with territory in the county, as designated at a biennial meeting of the superintendents of those districts;
(j) A representative of the municipal corporation with the largest population in the county;
(k) The president of the board of county commissioners or an individual designated by the board;
(l) A representative of the regional office of the department of youth services;
(m) A representative of the county's head start agencies, as defined in section 3301.32 of the Revised Code;
(n) A representative of the county's early intervention collaborative established pursuant to the federal early intervention program operated under the "Education of the Handicapped Act Amendments of 1986";
(o) A representative of a local nonprofit entity that funds, advocates, or provides services to children and families.
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the public members of a county council are not prohibited from serving on the council and making decisions regarding the duties of the council, including those involving the funding of joint projects and those outlined in the county's service coordination mechanism implemented pursuant to division (C) of this section.
The cabinet council shall establish a state appeals process to resolve disputes among the members of a county council concerning whether reasonable responsibilities as members are being shared. The appeals process may be accessed only by a majority vote of the council members who are required to serve on the council. Upon appeal, the cabinet council may order that state funds for services to children and families be redirected to a county's board of county commissioners.
(2) The purpose of the county council is to streamline and coordinate existing government services for families seeking services for their children. In seeking to fulfill its purpose, a county council shall provide for the following:
(a) Referrals to the cabinet council of those children for whom the county council cannot provide adequate services;
(b) Development and implementation of a process that annually evaluates and prioritizes services, fills service gaps where possible, and invents new approaches to achieve better results for families and children;
(c) Participation in the development of a countywide, comprehensive, coordinated, multi-disciplinary, interagency system for infants and toddlers with developmental disabilities or delays and their families, as established pursuant to federal grants received and administered by the department of health for early intervention services under the "Education of the Handicapped Act Amendments of 1986";
(d) Maintenance of an accountability system to monitor the county council's progress in achieving results for families and children;
(e) Establishment of a mechanism to ensure ongoing input from a broad representation of families who are receiving services within the county system.
(3)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(3)(b) of this section, a county council shall comply with the policies, procedures, and activities prescribed by the rules or interagency agreements of a state department participating on the cabinet council whenever the county council performs a function subject to those rules or agreements.
(b) On application of a county council, the cabinet council may grant an exemption from any rules or interagency agreements of a state department participating on the council if an exemption is necessary for the council to implement an alternative program or approach for service delivery to families and children. The application shall describe the proposed program or approach and specify the rules or interagency agreements from which an exemption is necessary. The cabinet council shall approve or disapprove the application in accordance with standards and procedures it shall adopt. If an application is approved, the exemption is effective only while the program or approach is being implemented, including a reasonable period during which the program or approach is being evaluated for effectiveness.
(4)(a) Each county council shall designate an administrative agent for the council from among the following public entities: the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, including a board of alcohol and drug addiction or a community mental health board if the county is served by separate boards; the board of county commissioners; any board of health of the county's city and general health districts; the county department of job and family services; the county agency responsible for the administration of children services pursuant to section 5153.15 of the Revised Code; the county board of mental retardation and developmental disabilities; any of the county's boards of education or governing boards of educational service centers; or the county's juvenile court. Any of the foregoing public entities, other than the board of county commissioners, may decline to serve as the council's administrative agent.
A county council's administrative agent shall serve as the council's appointing authority for any employees of the council. The council shall file an annual budget with its administrative agent, with copies filed with the county auditor and with the board of county commissioners, unless the board is serving as the council's administrative agent. The council's administrative agent shall ensure that all expenditures are handled in accordance with policies, procedures, and activities prescribed by state departments in rules or interagency agreements that are applicable to the council's functions.
The administrative agent for a county council may do any of the following on behalf of the council:
(i) Enter into agreements or administer contracts with public or private entities to fulfill specific council business. Such agreements and contracts are exempt from the competitive bidding requirements of section 307.86 of the Revised Code if they have been approved by the county council and they are for the purchase of family and child welfare or child protection services or other social or job and family services for families and children. The approval of the county council is not required to exempt agreements or contracts entered into under section 5139.34, 5139.41, or 5139.43 of the Revised Code from the competitive bidding requirements of section 307.86 of the Revised Code.
(ii) As determined by the council, provide financial stipends, reimbursements, or both, to family representatives for expenses related to council activity;
(iii) Receive by gift, grant, devise, or bequest any moneys, lands, or other property for the purposes for which the council is established. The agent shall hold, apply, and dispose of the moneys, lands, or other property according to the terms of the gift, grant, devise, or bequest. Any interest or earnings shall be treated in the same manner and are subject to the same terms as the gift, grant, devise, or bequest from which it accrues.
(b)(i) If the county council designates the board of county commissioners as its administrative agent, the board may, by resolution, delegate any of its powers and duties as administrative agent to an executive committee the board establishes from the membership of the county council. The board shall name to the executive committee at least the individuals described in divisions (B)(1)(a) to (i) of this section and may appoint the president of the board or another individual as the chair of the executive committee. The executive committee must include at least one family county council representative who does not have a family member employed by an agency represented on the council.
(ii) The executive committee may, with the approval of the board, hire an executive director to assist the county council in administering its powers and duties. The executive director shall serve in the unclassified civil service at the pleasure of the executive committee. The executive director may, with the approval of the executive committee, hire other employees as necessary to properly conduct the county council's business.
(iii) The board may require the executive committee to submit an annual budget to the board for approval and may amend or repeal the resolution that delegated to the executive committee its authority as the county council's administrative agent.
(5) Two or more county councils may enter into an agreement to administer their county councils jointly by creating a regional family and children first council. A regional council possesses the same duties and authority possessed by a county council, except that the duties and authority apply regionally rather than to individual counties. Prior to entering into an agreement to create a regional council, the members of each county council to be part of the regional council shall meet to determine whether all or part of the members of each county council will serve as members of the regional council.
(6) A board of county commissioners may approve a resolution by a majority vote of the board's members that requires the county council to submit a statement to the board each time the council proposes to enter into an agreement, adopt a plan, or make a decision, other than a decision pursuant to section 121.38 of the Revised Code, that requires the expenditure of funds for two or more families. The statement shall describe the proposed agreement, plan, or decision.
Not later than fifteen days after the board receives the statement, it shall, by resolution approved by a majority of its members, approve or disapprove the agreement, plan, or decision. Failure of the board to pass a resolution during that time period shall be considered approval of the agreement, plan, or decision.
An agreement, plan, or decision for which a statement is required to be submitted to the board shall be implemented only if it is approved by the board.
(C) Each county shall develop a county service coordination mechanism. The county service coordination mechanism shall serve as the guiding document for coordination of services in the county. For children who also receive services under the help me grow program, the service coordination mechanism shall be consistent with rules adopted by the department of health under section 3701.61 of the Revised Code. All family service coordination plans shall be developed in accordance with the county service coordination mechanism. The mechanism shall be developed and approved with the participation of the county entities representing child welfare; mental retardation and developmental disabilities; alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services; health; juvenile judges; education; the county family and children first council; and the county early intervention collaborative established pursuant to the federal early intervention program operated under the "Education of the Handicapped Act Amendments of 1986." The county shall establish an implementation schedule for the mechanism. The cabinet council may monitor the implementation and administration of each county's service coordination mechanism.
Each mechanism shall include all of the following:
(1) A procedure for an agency, including a juvenile court, or a family voluntarily seeking service coordination, to refer the child and family to the county council for service coordination in accordance with the county service coordination mechanism;
(2) A procedure ensuring that a family and all appropriate staff from involved agencies, including a representative from the appropriate school district, are notified of and invited to participate in all family service coordination plan meetings;
(3) A procedure that permits a family to initiate a meeting to develop or review the family's service coordination plan and allows the family to invite a family advocate, mentor, or support person of the family's choice to participate in any such meeting;
(4) A procedure for ensuring that a family service coordination plan meeting is conducted before a non-emergency for each child who receives service coordination under the mechanism and for whom an emergency out-of-home placement for all multi-need children, or has been made or for whom a nonemergency out-of-home placement is being considered. The meeting shall be conducted within ten days of a an emergency out-of-home placement for emergency placements of multi-need children. The meeting shall be conducted before a nonemergency out-of-home placement. The family service coordination plan shall outline how the county council members will jointly pay for services, where applicable, and provide services in the least restrictive environment.
(5) A procedure for monitoring the progress and tracking the outcomes of each service coordination plan requested in the county including monitoring and tracking children in out-of-home placements to assure continued progress, appropriateness of placement, and continuity of care after discharge from placement with appropriate arrangements for housing, treatment, and education.
(6) A procedure for protecting the confidentiality of all personal family information disclosed during service coordination meetings or contained in the comprehensive family service coordination plan.
(7) A procedure for assessing the needs and strengths of any child or family that has been referred to the council for service coordination, including a child whose parent or custodian is voluntarily seeking services, and for ensuring that parents and custodians are afforded the opportunity to participate;
(8) A procedure for development of a family service coordination plan described in division (D) of this section;
(9) A local dispute resolution process to serve as the process that must be used first to resolve disputes among the agencies represented on the county council concerning the provision of services to children, including children who are abused, neglected, dependent, unruly, alleged unruly, or delinquent children and under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court and children whose parents or custodians are voluntarily seeking services. The local dispute resolution process shall comply with section 121.38 of the Revised Code. The local dispute resolution process shall be used to resolve disputes between a child's parents or custodians and the county council regarding service coordination. The county council shall inform the parents or custodians of their right to use the dispute resolution process. Parents or custodians shall use existing local agency grievance procedures to address disputes not involving service coordination. The dispute resolution process is in addition to and does not replace other rights or procedures that parents or custodians may have under other sections of the Revised Code.
The cabinet council shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing an administrative review process to address problems that arise concerning the operation of a local dispute resolution process.
Nothing in division (C)(4) of this section shall be interpreted as overriding or affecting decisions of a juvenile court regarding an out-of-home placement, long-term placement, or emergency out-of-home placement.
(D) Each county shall develop a comprehensive family service coordination plan that does all of the following:
(1) Designates service responsibilities among the various state and local agencies that provide services to children and their families, including children who are abused, neglected, dependent, unruly, or delinquent children and under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court and children whose parents or custodians are voluntarily seeking services;
(2) Designates an individual, approved by the family, to track the progress of the family service coordination plan, schedule reviews as necessary, and facilitate the family service coordination plan meeting process;
(3) Ensures that assistance and services to be provided are responsive to the strengths and needs of the family, as well as the family's culture, race, and ethnic group, by allowing the family to offer information and suggestions and participate in decisions. Identified assistance and services shall be provided in the least restrictive environment possible.
(4) Includes a process for dealing with a child who is alleged to be an unruly child. The process shall include methods to divert the child from the juvenile court system;
(5) Includes timelines for completion of goals specified in the plan with regular reviews scheduled to monitor progress toward those goals;
(6) Includes a plan for dealing with short-term crisis situations and safety concerns.
(E)(1) The process provided for under division (D)(4) of this section may include, but is not limited to, the following:
(a) Designation of the person or agency to conduct the assessment of the child and the child's family as described in division (C)(7) of this section and designation of the instrument or instruments to be used to conduct the assessment;
(b) An emphasis on the personal responsibilities of the child and the parental responsibilities of the parents, guardian, or custodian of the child;
(c) Involvement of local law enforcement agencies and officials.
(2) The method to divert a child from the juvenile court system that must be included in the service coordination process may include, but is not limited to, the following:
(a) The preparation of a complaint under section 2151.27 of the Revised Code alleging that the child is an unruly child and notifying the child and the parents, guardian, or custodian that the complaint has been prepared to encourage the child and the parents, guardian, or custodian to comply with other methods to divert the child from the juvenile court system;
(b) Conducting a meeting with the child, the parents, guardian, or custodian, and other interested parties to determine the appropriate methods to divert the child from the juvenile court system;
(c) A method to provide to the child and the child's family a short-term respite from a short-term crisis situation involving a confrontation between the child and the parents, guardian, or custodian;
(d) A program to provide a mentor to the child or the parents, guardian, or custodian;
(e) A program to provide parenting education to the parents, guardian, or custodian;
(f) An alternative school program for children who are truant from school, repeatedly disruptive in school, or suspended or expelled from school;
(g) Other appropriate measures, including, but not limited to, any alternative methods to divert a child from the juvenile court system that are identified by the Ohio family and children first cabinet council.
(F) Each county may review and revise the service coordination process described in division (D) of this section based on the availability of funds under Title IV-A of the "Social Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C.A. 601, as amended, or to the extent resources are available from any other federal, state, or local funds.
Sec. 122.17.  (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Full-time employee" means an individual who is employed for consideration for at least thirty-five hours a week, or who renders any other standard of service generally accepted by custom or specified by contract as full-time employment.
(2) "New employee" means one of the following:
(a) A full-time employee first employed by a taxpayer in the project that is the subject of the agreement after the taxpayer enters into a tax credit agreement with the tax credit authority under this section;
(b) A full-time employee first employed by a taxpayer in the project that is the subject of the tax credit after the tax credit authority approves a project for a tax credit under this section in a public meeting, as long as the taxpayer enters into the tax credit agreement prepared by the department of development after such meeting within sixty days after receiving the agreement from the department. If the taxpayer fails to enter into the agreement within sixty days, "new employee" has the same meaning as under division (A)(2)(a) of this section.
Under division (A)(2)(a) or (b) of this section, if the tax credit authority determines it appropriate, "new employee" also may include an employee re-hired or called back from lay-off to work in a new facility or on a new product or service established or produced by the taxpayer after entering into the agreement under this section or after the tax credit authority approves the tax credit in a public meeting. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, "new employee" does not include any employee of the taxpayer who was previously employed in this state by a related member of the taxpayer and whose employment was shifted to the taxpayer after the taxpayer entered into the tax credit agreement or after the tax credit authority approved the credit in a public meeting, or any employee of the taxpayer for which the taxpayer has been granted a certificate under division (B) of section 5709.66 of the Revised Code. However, if the taxpayer is engaged in the enrichment and commercialization of uranium or uranium products or is engaged in research and development activities related thereto and if the tax credit authority determines it appropriate, "new employee" may include an employee of the taxpayer who was previously employed in this state by a related member of the taxpayer and whose employment was shifted to the taxpayer after the taxpayer entered into the tax credit agreement or after the tax credit authority approved the credit in a public meeting. "New employee" does not include an employee of the taxpayer who is employed in an employment position that was relocated to a project from other operations of the taxpayer in this state or from operations of a related member of the taxpayer in this state. In addition, "new employee" does not include a child, grandchild, parent, or spouse, other than a spouse who is legally separated from the individual, of any individual who is an employee of the taxpayer and who has a direct or indirect ownership interest of at least five per cent in the profits, capital, or value of the taxpayer. Such ownership interest shall be determined in accordance with section 1563 of the Internal Revenue Code and regulations prescribed thereunder.
(3) "New income tax revenue" means the total amount withheld under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code by the taxpayer during the taxable year, or during the calendar year that includes the tax period, from the compensation of new employees for the tax levied under Chapter 5747. of the Revised Code.
(4) "Related member" has the same meaning as under division (A)(6) of section 5733.042 of the Revised Code without regard to division (B) of that section.
(B) The tax credit authority may make grants under this section to foster job creation in this state. Such a grant shall take the form of a refundable credit allowed against the tax imposed by section 5725.18, 5729.03, 5733.06, or 5747.02 or levied under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code. The credit shall be claimed for the taxable years or tax periods specified in the taxpayer's agreement with the tax credit authority under division (D) of this section. With respect to taxes imposed under section 5733.06 or 5747.02 or Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, the credit shall be claimed in the order required under section 5733.98, 5747.98, or 5751.98 of the Revised Code. The amount of the credit available for a taxable year or for a calendar year that includes a tax period equals the new income tax revenue for that year multiplied by the percentage specified in the agreement with the tax credit authority. Any credit granted under this section against the tax imposed by section 5733.06 or 5747.02 of the Revised Code, to the extent not fully utilized against such tax for taxable years ending prior to 2008, shall automatically be converted without any action taken by the tax credit authority to a credit against the tax levied under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code for tax periods beginning on or after July 1, 2008, provided that the person to whom the credit was granted is subject to such tax. The converted credit shall apply to those calendar years in which the remaining taxable years specified in the agreement end.
(C) A taxpayer or potential taxpayer who proposes a project to create new jobs in this state may apply to the tax credit authority to enter into an agreement for a tax credit under this section. The director of development shall prescribe the form of the application. After receipt of an application, the authority may enter into an agreement with the taxpayer for a credit under this section if it determines all of the following:
(1) The taxpayer's project will create new jobs in this state;
(2) The taxpayer's project is economically sound and will benefit the people of this state by increasing opportunities for employment and strengthening the economy of this state;
(3) Receiving the tax credit is a major factor in the taxpayer's decision to go forward with the project.
(D) An agreement under this section shall include all of the following:
(1) A detailed description of the project that is the subject of the agreement;
(2) The term of the tax credit, which shall not exceed fifteen years, and the first taxable year, or first calendar year that includes a tax period, for which the credit may be claimed;
(3) A requirement that the taxpayer shall maintain operations at the project location for at least twice the number of years as the term of the tax credit;
(4) The percentage, as determined by the tax credit authority, of new income tax revenue that will be allowed as the amount of the credit for each taxable year or for each calendar year that includes a tax period;
(5) A specific method for determining how many new employees are employed during a taxable year or during a calendar year that includes a tax period;
(6) A requirement that the taxpayer annually shall report to the director of development the number of new employees, the new income tax revenue withheld in connection with the new employees, and any other information the director needs to perform the director's duties under this section;
(7) A requirement that the director of development annually shall verify the amounts reported under division (D)(6) of this section, and after doing so shall issue a certificate to the taxpayer stating that the amounts have been verified;
(8)(a) A provision requiring that the taxpayer, except as otherwise provided in division (D)(8)(b) of this section, shall not relocate employment positions from elsewhere in this state to the project site that is the subject of the agreement for the lesser of five years from the date the agreement is entered into or the number of years the taxpayer is entitled to claim the tax credit.
(b) The taxpayer may relocate employment positions from elsewhere in this state to the project site that is the subject of the agreement if the director of development determines both of the following:
(i) That the site from which the employment positions would be relocated is inadequate to meet market and industry conditions, expansion plans, consolidation plans, or other business considerations affecting the taxpayer;
(ii) That the legislative authority of the county, township, or municipal corporation from which the employment positions would be relocated has been notified of the relocation.
For purposes of this section, the movement of an employment position from one political subdivision to another political subdivision shall be considered a relocation of an employment position, but the transfer of an individual employee from one political subdivision to another political subdivision shall not be considered a relocation of an employment position as long as the individual's employment position in the first political subdivision is refilled.
(E) If a taxpayer fails to meet or comply with any condition or requirement set forth in a tax credit agreement, the tax credit authority may amend the agreement to reduce the percentage or term of the tax credit. The reduction of the percentage or term shall take effect in the taxable year immediately following the taxable year in which the authority amends the agreement or in the first tax period beginning in the calendar year immediately following the calendar year in which the authority amends the agreement. If the taxpayer relocates employment positions in violation of the provision required under division (D)(8)(a) of this section, the taxpayer shall not claim the tax credit under section 5733.0610 of the Revised Code for any tax years following the calendar year in which the relocation occurs, or shall not claim the tax credit under section 5725.32, 5729.032, or 5747.058 of the Revised Code for the taxable year in which the relocation occurs and any subsequent taxable years, and shall not claim the tax credit under division (A) of section 5751.50 of the Revised Code for any tax period in the calendar year in which the relocation occurs and any subsequent tax periods.
(F) Projects that consist solely of point-of-final-purchase retail facilities are not eligible for a tax credit under this section. If a project consists of both point-of-final-purchase retail facilities and nonretail facilities, only the portion of the project consisting of the nonretail facilities is eligible for a tax credit and only the new income tax revenue from new employees of the nonretail facilities shall be considered when computing the amount of the tax credit. If a warehouse facility is part of a point-of-final-purchase retail facility and supplies only that facility, the warehouse facility is not eligible for a tax credit. Catalog distribution centers are not considered point-of-final-purchase retail facilities for the purposes of this division, and are eligible for tax credits under this section.
(G) Financial statements and other information submitted to the department of development or the tax credit authority by an applicant or recipient of a tax credit under this section, and any information taken for any purpose from such statements or information, are not public records subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code. However, the chairperson of the authority may make use of the statements and other information for purposes of issuing public reports or in connection with court proceedings concerning tax credit agreements under this section. Upon the request of the tax commissioner or, if the applicant or recipient is an insurance company, upon the request of the superintendent of insurance, the chairperson of the authority shall provide to the commissioner or superintendent any statement or information submitted by an applicant or recipient of a tax credit in connection with the credit. The commissioner or superintendent shall preserve the confidentiality of the statement or information.
(H) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall submit to the tax commissioner or, if the taxpayer is an insurance company, to the superintendent of insurance, a copy of the director of development's certificate of verification under division (D)(7) of this section with the taxpayer's tax report or return for the taxable year or for the calendar year that includes the tax period. However, failure Failure to submit a copy of the certificate with the report or return does not invalidate a claim for a credit if the taxpayer submits a copy of the certificate to the commissioner or superintendent within sixty days after the commissioner or superintendent requests it.
(I) The director of development, after consultation with the tax commissioner and the superintendent of insurance and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules necessary to implement this section. The rules may provide for recipients of tax credits under this section to be charged fees to cover administrative costs of the tax credit program. At the time the director gives public notice under division (A) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code of the adoption of the rules, the director shall submit copies of the proposed rules to the chairpersons of the standing committees on economic development in the senate and the house of representatives.
(J) For the purposes of this section, a taxpayer may include a partnership, a corporation that has made an election under subchapter S of chapter one of subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code, or any other business entity through which income flows as a distributive share to its owners. A credit received under this section by a partnership, S-corporation, or other such business entity shall be apportioned among the persons to whom the income or profit of the partnership, S-corporation, or other entity is distributed, in the same proportions as those in which the income or profit is distributed.
(K) If the director of development determines that a taxpayer who has received a credit under this section is not complying with the requirement under division (D)(3) of this section, the director shall notify the tax credit authority of the noncompliance. After receiving such a notice, and after giving the taxpayer an opportunity to explain the noncompliance, the tax credit authority may require the taxpayer to refund to this state a portion of the credit in accordance with the following:
(1) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project location for at least one and one-half times the number of years of the term of the tax credit, an amount not exceeding twenty-five per cent of the sum of any previously allowed credits under this section;
(2) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project location for at least the number of years of the term of the tax credit, an amount not exceeding fifty per cent of the sum of any previously allowed credits under this section;
(3) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project location for less than the number of years of the term of the tax credit, an amount not exceeding one hundred per cent of the sum of any previously allowed credits under this section.
In determining the portion of the tax credit to be refunded to this state, the tax credit authority shall consider the effect of market conditions on the taxpayer's project and whether the taxpayer continues to maintain other operations in this state. After making the determination, the authority shall certify the amount to be refunded to the tax commissioner or superintendent of insurance, as appropriate. If the amount is certified to the commissioner, the commissioner shall make an assessment for that amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5733., 5747., or 5751. of the Revised Code. If the amount is certified to the superintendent, the superintendent shall make an assessment for that amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5725. or 5729. of the Revised Code. The time limitations on assessments under those chapters do not apply to an assessment under this division, but the commissioner or superintendent, as appropriate, shall make the assessment within one year after the date the authority certifies to the commissioner or superintendent the amount to be refunded.
(L) On or before the thirty-first day of March each year, the director of development shall submit a report to the governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives on the tax credit program under this section. The report shall include information on the number of agreements that were entered into under this section during the preceding calendar year, a description of the project that is the subject of each such agreement, and an update on the status of projects under agreements entered into before the preceding calendar year.
(M) There is hereby created the tax credit authority, which consists of the director of development and four other members appointed as follows: the governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives each shall appoint one member who shall be a specialist in economic development; the governor also shall appoint a member who is a specialist in taxation. Of the initial appointees, the members appointed by the governor shall serve a term of two years; the members appointed by the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives shall serve a term of four years. Thereafter, terms of office shall be for four years. Initial appointments to the authority shall be made within thirty days after January 13, 1993. Each member shall serve on the authority until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of that term. Members may be reappointed to the authority. Members of the authority shall receive their necessary and actual expenses while engaged in the business of the authority. The director of development shall serve as chairperson of the authority, and the members annually shall elect a vice-chairperson from among themselves. Three members of the authority constitute a quorum to transact and vote on the business of the authority. The majority vote of the membership of the authority is necessary to approve any such business, including the election of the vice-chairperson.
The director of development may appoint a professional employee of the department of development to serve as the director's substitute at a meeting of the authority. The director shall make the appointment in writing. In the absence of the director from a meeting of the authority, the appointed substitute shall serve as chairperson. In the absence of both the director and the director's substitute from a meeting, the vice-chairperson shall serve as chairperson.
(N) For purposes of the credits granted by this section against the taxes imposed under sections 5725.18 and 5729.03 of the Revised Code, "taxable year" means the period covered by the taxpayer's annual statement to the superintendent of insurance.
Sec. 122.171. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Capital investment project" means a plan of investment at a project site for the acquisition, construction, renovation, or repair of buildings, machinery, or equipment, or for capitalized costs of basic research and new product development determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, but does not include any of the following:
(a) Payments made for the acquisition of personal property through operating leases;
(b) Project costs paid before January 1, 2002;
(c) Payments made to a related member as defined in section 5733.042 of the Revised Code or to an elected consolidated taxpayer or a combined taxpayer as defined in section 5751.01 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Eligible business" means a business with Ohio operations satisfying all of the following:
(a) Employed an average of at least one thousand employees in full-time employment positions at a project site during each of the twelve months preceding the application for a tax credit under this section; and
(b) On or after January 1, 2002, has made payments for the capital investment project of either of the following:
(i) At least two hundred million dollars in the aggregate at the project site during a period of three consecutive calendar years including the calendar year that includes a day of the taxpayer's taxable year or tax period with respect to which the credit is granted;
(ii) If the average wage of all full-time employment positions at the project site is greater than four hundred per cent of the federal minimum wage, at least one hundred million dollars in the aggregate at the project site during a period of three consecutive calendar years including the calendar year that includes a day of the taxpayer's taxable year or tax period with respect to which the credit is granted.
(c) Is engaged at the project site primarily as a manufacturer or is providing significant corporate administrative functions;
(d) Has had a capital investment project reviewed and approved by the tax credit authority as provided in divisions (C), (D), and (E) of this section.
(3) "Full-time employment position" means a position of employment for consideration for at least thirty-five hours a week that has been filled for at least one hundred eighty days immediately preceding the filing of an application under this section and for at least one hundred eighty days during each taxable year or each calendar year that includes a tax period with respect to which the credit is granted.
(4) "Manufacturer" has the same meaning as in section 5739.011 of the Revised Code.
(5) "Project site" means an integrated complex of facilities in this state, as specified by the tax credit authority under this section, within a fifteen-mile radius where a taxpayer is primarily operating as an eligible business.
(6) "Applicable corporation" means a corporation satisfying all of the following:
(a)(i) For the entire taxable year immediately preceding the tax year, the corporation develops software applications primarily to provide telecommunication billing and information services through outsourcing or licensing to domestic or international customers.
(ii) Sales and licensing of software generated at least six hundred million dollars in revenue during the taxable year immediately preceding the tax year the corporation is first entitled to claim the credit provided under division (B) of this section.
(b) For the entire taxable year immediately preceding the tax year, the corporation or one or more of its related members provides customer or employee care and technical support for clients through one or more contact centers within this state, and the corporation and its related members together have a daily average, based on a three-hundred-sixty-five-day year, of at least five hundred thousand successful customer contacts through one or more of their contact centers, wherever located.
(c) The corporation is eligible for the credit under division (B) of this section for the tax year.
(7) "Related member" has the same meaning as in section 5733.042 of the Revised Code as that section existed on the effective date of its amendment by Am. Sub. H.B. 215 of the 122nd general assembly, September 29, 1997.
(8) "Successful customer contact" means a contact with an end user via telephone, including interactive voice recognition or similar means, where the contact culminates in a conversation or connection other than a busy signal or equipment busy.
(9) "Telecommunications" means all forms of telecommunications service as defined in section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, and includes services in wireless, wireline, cable, broadband, internet protocol, and satellite.
(10)(a) "Applicable difference" means the difference between the tax for the tax year under Chapter 5733. of the Revised Code applying the law in effect for that tax year, and the tax for that tax year if section 5733.042 of the Revised Code applied as that section existed on the effective date of its amendment by Am. Sub. H.B. 215 of the 122nd general assembly, September 29, 1997, subject to division (A)(10)(b) of this section.
(b) If the tax rate set forth in division (B) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code for the tax year is less than eight and one-half per cent, the tax calculated under division (A)(10)(a) of this section shall be computed by substituting a tax rate of eight and one-half per cent for the rate set forth in division (B) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code for the tax year.
(c) If the resulting difference is negative, the applicable tax difference for the tax year shall be zero.
(B) The tax credit authority created under section 122.17 of the Revised Code may grant tax credits under this section for the purpose of fostering job retention in this state. Upon application by an eligible business and upon consideration of the recommendation of the director of budget and management, tax commissioner, and director of development under division (C) of this section, the tax credit authority may grant to an eligible business a nonrefundable credit against the tax imposed by section 5733.06 or 5747.02 or levied under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code for a period up to fifteen taxable years and against the tax levied by Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code for a period of up to fifteen calendar years. The credit shall be in an amount not exceeding seventy-five per cent of the Ohio income tax withheld from the employees of the eligible business occupying full-time employment positions at the project site during the calendar year that includes the last day of such business' taxable year or tax period with respect to which the credit is granted. The amount of the credit shall not be based on the Ohio income tax withheld from full-time employees for a calendar year prior to the calendar year in which the minimum investment requirement referred to in division (A)(2)(b) of this section is completed. The credit shall be claimed only for the taxable years or tax periods specified in the eligible business' agreement with the tax credit authority under division (E) of this section, but in no event shall the credit be claimed for a taxable year or tax period terminating before the date specified in the agreement. Any credit granted under this section against the tax imposed by section 5733.06 or 5747.02 of the Revised Code, to the extent not fully utilized against such tax for taxable years ending prior to 2008, shall automatically be converted without any action taken by the tax credit authority to a credit against the tax levied under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code for tax periods beginning on or after July 1, 2008, provided that the person to whom the credit was granted is subject to such tax. The converted credit shall apply to those calendar years in which the remaining taxable years specified in the agreement end.
The credit computed under this division is in addition to any credit allowed under division (M) of this section which the tax credit authority may also include in the agreement.
Any unused portion of a tax credit may be carried forward for not more than three additional years after the year for which the credit is granted.
(C) A taxpayer that proposes a capital investment project to retain jobs in this state may apply to the tax credit authority to enter into an agreement for a tax credit under this section. The director of development shall prescribe the form of the application. After receipt of an application, the authority shall forward copies of the application to the director of budget and management, the tax commissioner, and the director of development, each of whom shall review the application to determine the economic impact the proposed project would have on the state and the affected political subdivisions and shall submit a summary of their determinations and recommendations to the authority.
(D) Upon review of the determinations and recommendations described in division (C) of this section, the tax credit authority may enter into an agreement with the taxpayer for a credit under this section if the authority determines all of the following:
(1) The taxpayer's capital investment project will result in the retention of full-time employment positions in this state.
(2) The taxpayer is economically sound and has the ability to complete the proposed capital investment project.
(3) The taxpayer intends to and has the ability to maintain operations at the project site for at least twice the term of the credit.
(4) Receiving the credit is a major factor in the taxpayer's decision to begin, continue with, or complete the project.
(5) The political subdivisions in which the project is located have agreed to provide substantial financial support to the project.
(E) An agreement under this section shall include all of the following:
(1) A detailed description of the project that is the subject of the agreement, including the amount of the investment, the period over which the investment has been or is being made, and the number of full-time employment positions at the project site.
(2) The method of calculating the number of full-time employment positions as specified in division (A)(3) of this section.
(3) The term and percentage of the tax credit, and the first year for which the credit may be claimed.
(4) A requirement that the taxpayer maintain operations at the project site for at least twice the number of years as the term of the credit.
(5) A requirement that the taxpayer retain a specified number of full-time employment positions at the project site and within this state for the term of the credit, including a requirement that the taxpayer continue to employ at least one thousand employees in full-time employment positions at the project site during the entire term of any agreement, subject to division (E)(7) of this section.
(6) A requirement that the taxpayer annually report to the director of development the number of full-time employment positions subject to the credit, the amount of tax withheld from employees in those positions, the amount of the payments made for the capital investment project, and any other information the director needs to perform the director's duties under this section.
(7) A requirement that the director of development annually review the annual reports of the taxpayer to verify the information reported under division (E)(6) of this section and compliance with the agreement. Upon verification, the director shall issue a certificate to the taxpayer stating that the information has been verified and identifying the amount of the credit for the taxable year. Unless otherwise specified by the tax credit authority in a resolution and included as part of the agreement, the director shall not issue a certificate for any year in which the total number of filled full-time employment positions for each day of the calendar year divided by three hundred sixty-five is less than ninety per cent of the full-time employment positions specified in division (E)(5) of this section. In determining the number of full-time employment positions, no position shall be counted that is filled by an employee who is included in the calculation of a tax credit under section 122.17 of the Revised Code.
(8)(a) A provision requiring that the taxpayer, except as otherwise provided in division (E)(8)(b) of this section, shall not relocate employment positions from elsewhere in this state to the project site that is the subject of the agreement for the lesser of five years from the date the agreement is entered into or the number of years the taxpayer is entitled to claim the credit.
(b) The taxpayer may relocate employment positions from elsewhere in this state to the project site that is the subject of the agreement if the director of development determines both of the following:
(i) That the site from which the employment positions would be relocated is inadequate to meet market and industry conditions, expansion plans, consolidation plans, or other business considerations affecting the taxpayer;
(ii) That the legislative authority of the county, township, or municipal corporation from which the employment positions would be relocated has been notified of the relocation.
For purposes of this section, the movement of an employment position from one political subdivision to another political subdivision shall be considered a relocation of an employment position unless the movement is confined to the project site. The transfer of an individual employee from one political subdivision to another political subdivision shall not be considered a relocation of an employment position as long as the individual's employment position in the first political subdivision is refilled.
(9) A waiver by the taxpayer of any limitations periods relating to assessments or adjustments resulting from the taxpayer's failure to comply with the agreement.
(F) If a taxpayer fails to meet or comply with any condition or requirement set forth in a tax credit agreement, the tax credit authority may amend the agreement to reduce the percentage or term of the credit. The reduction of the percentage or term shall take effect in the taxable year immediately following the taxable year in which the authority amends the agreement or in the first tax period beginning in the calendar year immediately following the calendar year in which the authority amends the agreement. If the taxpayer relocates employment positions in violation of the provision required under division (D)(8)(a) of this section, the taxpayer shall not claim the tax credit under section 5733.0610 of the Revised Code for any tax years following the calendar year in which the relocation occurs, shall not claim the tax credit under section 5747.058 of the Revised Code for the taxable year in which the relocation occurs and any subsequent taxable years, and shall not claim the tax credit under division (A) of section 5751.50 of the Revised Code for the tax period in which the relocation occurs and any subsequent tax periods.
(G) Financial statements and other information submitted to the department of development or the tax credit authority by an applicant for or recipient of a tax credit under this section, and any information taken for any purpose from such statements or information, are not public records subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code. However, the chairperson of the authority may make use of the statements and other information for purposes of issuing public reports or in connection with court proceedings concerning tax credit agreements under this section. Upon the request of the tax commissioner, the chairperson of the authority shall provide to the commissioner any statement or other information submitted by an applicant for or recipient of a tax credit in connection with the credit. The commissioner shall preserve the confidentiality of the statement or other information.
(H) A taxpayer claiming a tax credit under this section shall submit to the tax commissioner a copy of the director of development's certificate of verification under division (E)(7) of this section with the taxpayer's tax report or return for the taxable year or for the calendar year that includes the tax period. However, failure Failure to submit a copy of the certificate with the report or return does not invalidate a claim for a credit if the taxpayer submits a copy of the certificate to the commissioner within sixty days after the commissioner requests it.
(I) For the purposes of this section, a taxpayer may include a partnership, a corporation that has made an election under subchapter S of chapter one of subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code, or any other business entity through which income flows as a distributive share to its owners. A tax credit received under this section by a partnership, S-corporation, or other such business entity shall be apportioned among the persons to whom the income or profit of the partnership, S-corporation, or other entity is distributed, in the same proportions as those in which the income or profit is distributed.
(J) If the director of development determines that a taxpayer that received a tax credit under this section is not complying with the requirement under division (E)(4) of this section, the director shall notify the tax credit authority of the noncompliance. After receiving such a notice, and after giving the taxpayer an opportunity to explain the noncompliance, the authority may terminate the agreement and require the taxpayer to refund to the state all or a portion of the credit claimed in previous years, as follows:
(1) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project site for less than the term of the credit, the amount required to be refunded shall not exceed the amount of any tax credits previously allowed and received under this section.
(2) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project site longer than the term of the credit but less than one and one-half times the term of the credit, the amount required to be refunded shall not exceed fifty per cent of the sum of any tax credits previously allowed and received under this section.
(3) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project site for at least one and one-half times the term of the credit but less than twice the term of the credit, the amount required to be refunded shall not exceed twenty-five per cent of the sum of any tax credits previously allowed and received under this section.
In determining the portion of the credit to be refunded to this state, the authority shall consider the effect of market conditions on the taxpayer's project and whether the taxpayer continues to maintain other operations in this state. After making the determination, the authority shall certify the amount to be refunded to the tax commissioner. The commissioner shall make an assessment for that amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5733., 5747., or 5751. of the Revised Code. The time limitations on assessments under those chapters do not apply to an assessment under this division, but the commissioner shall make the assessment within one year after the date the authority certifies to the commissioner the amount to be refunded.
If the director of development determines that a taxpayer that received a tax credit under this section has reduced the number of employees agreed to under division (E)(5) of this section by more than ten per cent, the director shall notify the tax credit authority of the noncompliance. After receiving such notice, and after providing the taxpayer an opportunity to explain the noncompliance, the authority may amend the agreement to reduce the percentage or term of the tax credit. The reduction in the percentage or term shall take effect in the taxable year, or in the calendar year that includes the tax period, in which the authority amends the agreement.
(K) The director of development, after consultation with the tax commissioner and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules necessary to implement this section. The rules may provide for recipients of tax credits under this section to be charged fees to cover administrative costs of the tax credit program. At the time the director gives public notice under division (A) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code of the adoption of the rules, the director shall submit copies of the proposed rules to the chairpersons of the standing committees on economic development in the senate and the house of representatives.
(L) On or before the thirty-first day of March of each year, the director of development shall submit a report to the governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives on the tax credit program under this section. The report shall include information on the number of agreements that were entered into under this section during the preceding calendar year, a description of the project that is the subject of each such agreement, and an update on the status of projects under agreements entered into before the preceding calendar year.
(M)(1) A nonrefundable credit shall be allowed to an applicable corporation and its related members in an amount equal to the applicable difference. The credit is in addition to the credit granted to the corporation or related members under division (B) of this section. The credit is subject to divisions (B) to (E) and division (J) of this section.
(2) A person qualifying as an applicable corporation under this section for a tax year does not necessarily qualify as an applicable corporation for any other tax year. No person is entitled to the credit allowed under division (M) of this section for the tax year immediately following the taxable year during which the person fails to meet the requirements in divisions (A)(6)(a)(i) and (A)(6)(b) of this section. No person is entitled to the credit allowed under division (M) of this section for any tax year for which the person is not eligible for the credit provided under division (B) of this section.
Sec. 122.72.  (A) There is hereby created the minority development financing advisory board to assist in carrying out the programs created pursuant to sections 122.71 to 122.90 122.89 of the Revised Code.
(B) The board shall consist of ten members. The director of development or the director's designee shall be a voting member on the board. Seven members shall be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate and selected because of their knowledge of and experience in industrial, business, and commercial financing, suretyship, construction, and their understanding of the problems of minority business enterprises; one member also shall be a member of the senate and appointed by the president of the senate, and one member also shall be a member of the house of representatives and appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives. With respect to the board, all of the following apply:
(1) Not more than four of the members of the board appointed by the governor shall be of the same political party.
(2) Each member shall hold office from the date of the member's appointment until the end of the term for which the member was appointed.
(3) The terms of office for the seven members appointed by the governor shall be for seven years, commencing on the first day of October and ending on the thirtieth day of September of the seventh year, except that of the original seven members, three shall be appointed for three years and two shall be appointed for five years.
(4) Any member of the board is eligible for reappointment.
(5) Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the predecessor's term.
(6) Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.
(7) Before entering upon official duties as a member of the board, each member shall take an oath as provided by Section 7 of Article XV, Ohio Constitution.
(8) The governor may, at any time, remove any member appointed by the governor pursuant to section 3.04 of the Revised Code.
(9) Notwithstanding section 101.26 of the Revised Code, members shall receive their necessary and actual expenses while engaged in the business of the board and shall be paid at the per diem rate of step 1 of pay range 31 of section 124.15 of the Revised Code.
(10) Six members of the board constitute a quorum and the affirmative vote of six members is necessary for any action taken by the board.
(11) In the event of the absence of a member appointed by the president of the senate or by the speaker of the house of representatives, either of the following persons may serve in the member's absence:
(a) The president of the senate or the speaker of the house of representatives, whoever appointed the absent member;
(b) A member of the senate or of the house of representatives of the same political party as the absent member, as designated by the president of the senate or the speaker of the house of representatives, whoever appointed the absent member.
(12) The board shall annually elect one of its members as chairperson and another as vice-chairperson.
Sec. 122.73.  (A) The minority development financing advisory board and the director of development are invested with the powers and duties provided in sections 122.71 to 122.90 122.89 of the Revised Code, in order to promote the welfare of the people of the state by encouraging the establishment and expansion of minority business enterprises; to stabilize the economy; to provide employment; to assist in the development within the state of industrial, commercial, distribution, and research activities required for the people of the state, and for their gainful employment; or otherwise to create or preserve jobs and employment opportunities, or improve the economic welfare of the people of the state. It is hereby determined that the accomplishment of those purposes is essential so that the people of the state may maintain their present high standards of living in comparison with the people of other states and so that opportunities for employment and for favorable markets for the products of the state's natural resources, agriculture, and manufacturing shall be improved. It further is determined that it is necessary for the state to establish the programs authorized under sections 122.71 to 122.90 122.89 of the Revised Code to establish the minority development financing advisory board, and to invest it and the director of development with the powers and duties provided in sections 122.71 to 122.90 122.89 of the Revised Code.
(B) The minority development financing advisory board shall do all of the following:
(1) Make recommendations to the director as to applications for assistance pursuant to sections 122.71 to 122.90 122.89 of the Revised Code. The board may revise its recommendations to reflect any changes in the proposed assistance made by the director.
(2) Advise the director in the administration of sections 122.71 to 122.90 122.89 of the Revised Code.
(3) Adopt bylaws to govern the conduct of the business of the board.
Sec. 122.74.  (A)(1) The director of development shall do all of the following:
(a) Receive applications for assistance under sections 122.71 to 122.89 of the Revised Code and applications from surety companies for bond guarantees under section 122.90 of the Revised Code, and, after processing but subject to division (A)(2) of this section, forward them to the minority development financing advisory board together with necessary supporting information;
(b) Receive the recommendations of the board and make a final determination whether to approve the application for assistance;
(c) Receive recommendations from a regional economic development entity for loans made under section 122.76 of the Revised Code and make a final determination, notwithstanding divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section, whether to approve the proposed loan;
(d) Transmit the director's determinations to approve assistance to the controlling board unless such assistance falls under section 122.90 of the Revised Code and has been previously approved by the controlling board, together with any information the controlling board requires for its review and decision as to whether to approve the assistance.
(2) The director is not required to submit any determination, data, terms, or any other application materials or information to the minority development financing advisory board when provision of the assistance has been recommended to the director by a regional economic development entity or when an application for a surety company for bond guarantees under section 122.90 of the Revised Code has been previously approved by the controlling board.
(B) The director may do all of the following:
(1) Fix the rate of interest and charges to be made upon or with respect to moneys loaned or guaranteed by the director and the terms upon which mortgages and lease rentals may be guaranteed and the rates of charges to be made for them and make provisions for the operation of the funds established by the director in accordance with this section and sections 122.80, 122.88, and 122.90 of the Revised Code;
(2) Loan and guarantee moneys from the fund established in accordance with section 122.80 of the Revised Code pursuant to and in compliance with sections 122.71 to 122.90 of the Revised Code.
(3) Acquire in the name of the director any property of any kind or character in accordance with sections 122.71 to 122.90 of the Revised Code, by purchase, purchase at foreclosure, or exchange on such terms and in such manner as the director considers proper;
(4) Make and enter into all contracts and agreements necessary or incidental to the performance of the director's duties and the exercise of the director's powers under sections 122.71 to 122.90 of the Revised Code;
(5) Maintain, protect, repair, improve, and insure any property that the director has acquired and dispose of it by sale, exchange, or lease for the consideration and on the terms and in the manner as the director considers proper, but the director shall not operate any such property as a business except as the lessor of it;
(6)(a) When the cost of any contract for the maintenance, protection, repair, or improvement of any property held by the director, other than compensation for personal services, involves an expenditure of more than fifty thousand dollars, the director shall make a written contract with the lowest responsive and responsible bidder in accordance with section 9.312 of the Revised Code after advertisement for not less than two consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the county where such contract, or some substantial part of it, is to be performed, and in such other publications as the director determines, which notice shall state the general character of the work and the general character of the materials to be furnished, the place where plans and specifications therefor may be examined, and the time and place of receiving bids.
(b) Each bid for a contract for the construction, demolition, alteration, repair, or reconstruction of an improvement shall contain the full name of every person interested in it and meet the requirements of section 153.54 of the Revised Code.
(c) Each bid for a contract, except as provided in division (B)(6)(b) of this section, shall contain the full name of every person interested in it and shall be accompanied by bond or certified check on a solvent bank, in such amount as the director considers sufficient, that if the bid is accepted a contract will be entered into and the performance of the proposal secured.
(d) The director may reject any and all bids.
(e) A bond with good and sufficient surety, approved by the director, shall be required of every contractor awarded a contract except as provided in division (B)(6)(b) of this section, in an amount equal to at least fifty per cent of the contract price, conditioned upon faithful performance of the contract.
(7) Employ or contract with financial consultants, appraisers, consulting engineers, superintendents, managers, construction and accounting experts, attorneys, and other employees and agents as are necessary in the director's judgment and fix their compensation;
(8) Receive and accept grants, gifts, and contributions of money, property, labor, and other things of value to be held, used, and applied only for the purpose for which the grants, gifts, and contributions are made, from individuals, private and public corporations, from the United States or any agency thereof, from the state or any agency thereof, and from any political subdivision of the state, and may agree to repay any contribution of money or to return any property contributed or the value thereof at such times, in amounts, and on terms and conditions, excluding the payment of interest, as the director determines at the time the contribution is made, and may evidence the obligations by notes, bonds, or other written instruments;
(9) Establish with the treasurer of state the funds provided in sections 122.80 and 122.88 of the Revised Code in addition to such funds as the director determines are necessary or proper;
(10) Adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code necessary to implement sections 122.71 to 122.90 of the Revised Code.
(11) Do all acts and things necessary or proper to carry out the powers expressly granted and the duties imposed in sections 122.71 to 122.90 of the Revised Code.
(C)(1) All expenses and obligations incurred by the director in carrying out the director's powers and in exercising the director's duties under sections 122.71 to 122.90 of the Revised Code shall be payable solely from revenues or other receipts or income of the director, from grants, gifts, and contributions, or funds established in accordance with such sections. Such sections do not authorize the director to incur indebtedness or to impose liability on the state or any political subdivision of the state.
(2) Financial statements and other data submitted to the director by any corporation, partnership, or person in connection with financial assistance provided under sections 122.71 to 122.90 of the Revised Code, or any information taken from such statements or data for any purpose, shall not be open to public inspection.
Sec. 122.90.  (A) The director of development may guarantee bonds executed by sureties for minority businesses and EDGE business enterprises certified under section 123.152 of the Revised Code as principals on contracts with the state, any political subdivision or instrumentality, or any person as the obligee. The director, as guarantor, may exercise all the rights and powers of a company authorized by the department of insurance to guarantee bonds under Chapter 3929. of the Revised Code but otherwise is not subject to any laws related to a guaranty company under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code nor to any rules of the department of insurance.
(B) The director shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to establish procedures for the application for bond guarantees and the review and approval of applications for bond guarantees submitted by sureties that execute bonds eligible for guarantees under division (A) of this section.
(C) In accordance with rules adopted pursuant to this section, the director may guarantee up to ninety per cent of the loss incurred and paid by sureties on bonds guaranteed under division (A) of this section.
(D) The penal sum amounts of all outstanding guarantees made by the director under this section shall not exceed three times the difference between the amount of moneys in the minority business bonding fund and available to the fund under division (B) of section 169.05 of the Revised Code and the amount of all outstanding bonds issued by the director in accordance with division (A) of section 122.89 of the Revised Code.
(E) The director of development, with controlling board approval, may approve one application per fiscal year from each surety bond company for bond guarantees in an amount requested to support one fiscal year of that company's activity under this section. A surety bond company that applies for a bond guarantee under this division, whether or not the guarantee is approved, is not restricted from also applying for individual bond guarantees under division (A) of this section.
Sec. 124.09.  The director of administrative services shall do all of the following:
(A) Prescribe, amend, and enforce administrative rules for the purpose of carrying out the functions, powers, and duties vested in and imposed upon the director by this chapter. Except in the case of rules adopted pursuant to section 124.14 of the Revised Code, the prescription, amendment, and enforcement of rules under this division are subject to approval, disapproval, or modification by the state personnel board of review.
(B) Keep records of the director's proceedings and records of all applications for examinations and all examinations conducted by the director. All such of those records, except examinations, proficiency assessments, and recommendations of former employers, shall be open to public inspection under reasonable regulations; provided the governor, or any person designated by the governor, may, for the purpose of investigation, have free access to all such of those records, whenever the governor has reason to believe that this chapter, or the administrative rules of the director prescribed under such sections this chapter, are being violated.
(C) Prepare, continue, and keep in the office of the department of administrative services a complete roster of all persons in the classified service who are paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management. This roster shall be open to public inspection at all reasonable hours. It shall show in reference to each of those persons, the person's name, address, date of appointment to or employment in the classified service, and salary or compensation, the title of the place or office that the person holds, the nature of the duties of that place or office, and, in case of the person's removal or resignation, the date of the termination of that service.
(D) Approve the establishment of all new positions in the civil service of the state and the reestablishment of abolished positions.;
(E) Require the abolishment of any position in the civil service of the state that is not filled after a period of twelve months unless it is determined that the position is seasonal in nature or that the vacancy is otherwise justified.;
(F) Make investigations concerning all matters touching the enforcement and effect of this chapter and the administrative rules of the director of administrative services prescribed under this chapter. In the course of such those investigations, the director or the director's deputy may administer oaths and affirmations and take testimony relative to any matter which the director has authority to investigate.
(G) Have the power to subpoena and require the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of books, papers, public records, and other documentary evidence pertinent to the investigations, inquiries, or hearings on any matter which the director has authority to investigate, inquire into, or hear, and to examine them in relation to any matter which the director has authority to investigate, inquire into, or hear. Fees shall be allowed to witnesses, and, on their certificate, duly audited, shall be paid by the treasurer of state, or, in the case of municipal or civil service township civil service commissions, by the county treasurer, for attendance and traveling, as is provided in section 2335.06 of the Revised Code for witnesses in courts of record. All officers in the civil service of the state or any of the political subdivisions thereof of the state and their deputies, clerks, and employees shall attend and testify when summoned to do so by the director or the state personnel board of review. Depositions of witnesses may be taken by the director or the board, or any member thereof of the board, in the manner prescribed by law for like depositions in civil actions in the courts of common pleas. In case any person, in disobedience to any subpoena issued by the director or the board, or any member thereof of the board, or the chief examiner, fails or refuses to attend and testify to any matter regarding which the person may be lawfully interrogated, or produce any documentary evidence pertinent to any investigation, inquiry, or hearing, the court of common pleas of any county, or any judge thereof of the court of common pleas of any county, where such the disobedience, failure, or refusal occurs, upon application of the director or the board, or any member thereof of the board, or a municipal or civil service township civil service commission, or any commissioner thereof of such a commission, or their chief examiner, shall compel obedience by attachment proceedings for contempt as in the case of disobedience of the requirements of a subpoena issued from such courts the court or a refusal to testify therein in the court.
(H) Make a report to the governor, on or before the first day of January of each year, showing the director's actions, the rules and all exceptions thereto to the rules in force, and any recommendations for the more effectual accomplishment of the purposes of this chapter. The director shall also furnish any special reports to the governor whenever the governor requests them. Such The reports shall be printed for public distribution under the same regulations as are the reports of other state officers, boards, or commissions.
Sec. 124.11.  The civil service of the state and the several counties, cities, civil service townships, city health districts, general health districts, and city school districts thereof of the state shall be divided into the unclassified service and the classified service.
(A) The unclassified service shall comprise the following positions, which shall not be included in the classified service, and which shall be exempt from all examinations required by this chapter:
(1) All officers elected by popular vote or persons appointed to fill vacancies in such those offices;
(2) All election officers as defined in section 3501.01 of the Revised Code;
(3) The members of all boards and commissions, and heads of principal departments, boards, and commissions appointed by the governor or by and with the governor's consent; and the members of all boards and commissions and all heads of departments appointed by the mayor, or, if there is no mayor, such other similar chief appointing authority of any city or city school district; except. Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(17) or (C) of this section, this chapter does not exempt the chiefs of police departments and chiefs of fire departments of cities or civil service townships from the competitive classified service;.
(4) The members of county or district licensing boards or commissions and boards of revision, and deputy county auditors;
(5) All officers and employees elected or appointed by either or both branches of the general assembly, and such employees of the city legislative authority as are engaged in legislative duties;
(6) All commissioned, warrant, and noncommissioned officers and enlisted persons in the Ohio organized militia, including military appointees in the adjutant general's department;
(7)(a) All presidents, business managers, administrative officers, superintendents, assistant superintendents, principals, deans, assistant deans, instructors, teachers, and such employees as are engaged in educational or research duties connected with the public school system, colleges, and universities, as determined by the governing body of the public school system, colleges, and universities;
(b) The library staff of any library in the state supported wholly or in part at public expense.
(8) Four clerical and administrative support employees for each of the elective state officers;, and three clerical and administrative support employees for other elective officers and each of the principal appointive executive officers, boards, or commissions, except for civil service commissions, that are authorized to appoint such clerical and administrative support employees;
(9) The deputies and assistants of state agencies authorized to act for and on behalf of the agency, or holding a fiduciary or administrative relation to that agency and those persons employed by and directly responsible to elected county officials or a county administrator and holding a fiduciary or administrative relationship to such elected county officials or county administrator, and the employees of such county officials whose fitness would be impracticable to determine by competitive examination, provided that division (A)(9) of this section shall not affect those persons in county employment in the classified service as of September 19, 1961. Nothing in division (A)(9) of this section applies to any position in a county department of job and family services created pursuant to Chapter 329. of the Revised Code.
(10) Bailiffs, constables, official stenographers, and commissioners of courts of record, deputies of clerks of the courts of common pleas who supervise, or who handle public moneys or secured documents, and such officers and employees of courts of record and such deputies of clerks of the courts of common pleas as the director of administrative services finds it impracticable to determine their fitness by competitive examination;
(11) Assistants to the attorney general, special counsel appointed or employed by the attorney general, assistants to county prosecuting attorneys, and assistants to city directors of law;
(12) Such teachers and employees in the agricultural experiment stations; such students in normal schools, colleges, and universities of the state who are employed by the state or a political subdivision of the state in student or intern classifications; and such unskilled labor positions as the director of administrative services or any municipal civil service commission may find it impracticable to include in the competitive classified service; provided such exemptions shall be by order of the commission or the director, duly entered on the record of the commission or the director with the reasons for each such exemption;
(13) Any physician or dentist who is a full-time employee of the department of mental health or the department of mental retardation and developmental disabilities or of an institution under the jurisdiction of either department; and physicians who are in residency programs at the institutions;
(14) Up to twenty positions at each institution under the jurisdiction of the department of mental health or the department of mental retardation and developmental disabilities that the department director determines to be primarily administrative or managerial; and up to fifteen positions in any division of either department, excluding administrative assistants to the director and division chiefs, which are within the immediate staff of a division chief and which the director determines to be primarily and distinctively administrative and managerial;
(15) Noncitizens of the United States employed by the state, or its counties or cities, as physicians or nurses who are duly licensed to practice their respective professions under the laws of Ohio this state, or medical assistants, in mental or chronic disease hospitals, or institutions;
(16) Employees of the governor's office;
(17) Fire chiefs and chiefs of police in civil service townships appointed by boards of township trustees under section 505.38 or 505.49 of the Revised Code;
(18) Executive directors, deputy directors, and program directors employed by boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code, and secretaries of the executive directors, deputy directors, and program directors;
(19) Superintendents, and management employees as defined in section 5126.20 of the Revised Code, of county boards of mental retardation and developmental disabilities;
(20) Physicians, nurses, and other employees of a county hospital who are appointed pursuant to sections 339.03 and 339.06 of the Revised Code;
(21) The executive director of the state medical board, who is appointed pursuant to division (B) of section 4731.05 of the Revised Code;
(22) County directors of job and family services as provided in section 329.02 of the Revised Code and administrators appointed under section 329.021 of the Revised Code;
(23) A director of economic development who is hired pursuant to division (A) of section 307.07 of the Revised Code;
(24) Chiefs of construction and compliance, of operations and maintenance, and of licensing and certification in the division of industrial compliance in the department of commerce;
(25) The executive director of a county transit system appointed under division (A) of section 306.04 of the Revised Code;
(26) Up to five positions at each of the administrative departments listed in section 121.02 of the Revised Code and at the department of taxation, department of the adjutant general, department of education, Ohio board of regents, bureau of workers' compensation, industrial commission, state lottery commission, and public utilities commission of Ohio that the head of that administrative department or of that other state agency determines to be involved in policy development and implementation. The head of the administrative department or other state agency shall set the compensation for employees in these positions at a rate that is not less than the minimum compensation specified in pay range 41 but not more than the maximum compensation specified in pay range 44 of salary schedule E-2 in section 124.152 of the Revised Code. The authority to establish positions in the unclassified service under division (A)(26) of this section is in addition to and does not limit any other authority that an administrative department or state agency has under the Revised Code to establish positions, appoint employees, or set compensation.
(27) Employees of the department of agriculture employed under section 901.09 of the Revised Code;
(28) For cities, counties, civil service townships, city health districts, general health districts, and city school districts, the deputies and assistants of elective or principal executive officers authorized to act for and in the place of their principals or holding a fiduciary relation to their principals;
(29) Employees who receive external interim, intermittent, or temporary appointments under division (B) of section 124.30 of the Revised Code;
(30) Employees appointed to administrative staff positions for which an appointing authority is given specific statutory authority to set compensation;
(31) Employees appointed to highway patrol cadet or highway patrol cadet candidate classifications.
(B) The classified service shall comprise all persons in the employ of the state and the several counties, cities, city health districts, general health districts, and city school districts thereof of the state, not specifically included in the unclassified service. Upon the creation by the board of trustees of a civil service township civil service commission, the classified service shall also comprise, except as otherwise provided in division (A)(17) or (C) of this section, all persons in the employ of a civil service township police or fire departments department having ten or more full-time paid employees. The classified service consists of two classes, which shall be designated as the competitive class and the unskilled labor class.
(1) The competitive class shall include all positions and employments in the state and the counties, cities, city health districts, general health districts, and city school districts thereof of the state, and, upon the creation by the board of trustees of a civil service township of a township civil service commission, all positions in a civil service township police or fire departments department having ten or more full-time paid employees, for which it is practicable to determine the merit and fitness of applicants by competitive examinations. Appointments shall be made to, or employment shall be given in, all positions in the competitive class that are not filled by promotion, reinstatement, transfer, or reduction, as provided in this chapter, and the rules of the director of administrative services, by appointment from those certified to the appointing officer in accordance with this chapter.
(2) The unskilled labor class shall include ordinary unskilled laborers. Vacancies in the labor class shall be filled by appointment from lists of applicants registered by the director or a commission, as applicable. The director or the commission, by rule, shall require an applicant for registration in the labor class to furnish such evidence or take such tests as the director or commission considers proper with respect to age, residence, physical condition, ability to labor, honesty, sobriety, industry, capacity, and experience in the work or employment for which application is made. Laborers who fulfill the requirements shall be placed on the eligible list for the kind of labor or employment sought, and preference shall be given in employment in accordance with the rating received from such that evidence or in such those tests. Upon the request of an appointing officer, stating the kind of labor needed, the pay and probable length of employment, and the number to be employed, the director or commission shall certify from the highest on the list double the number to be employed; from this number, the appointing officer shall appoint the number actually needed for the particular work. If more than one applicant receives the same rating, priority in time of application shall determine the order in which their names shall be certified for appointment.
(C) A municipal or civil service township civil service commission may place volunteer firefighters who are paid on a fee-for-service basis in either the classified or the unclassified civil service.
(D) This division does not apply to persons in the unclassified service who have the right to resume positions in the classified service under sections 4121.121, 5119.071, 5120.07, 5120.38, 5120.381, 5120.382, 5123.08, 5139.02, and 5501.19 of the Revised Code.
An appointing authority whose employees are paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management may appoint a person who holds a certified position in the classified service within the appointing authority's agency to a position in the unclassified service within that agency. A person appointed pursuant to this division to a position in the unclassified service shall retain the right to resume the position and status held by the person in the classified service immediately prior to the person's appointment to the position in the unclassified service, regardless of the number of positions the person held in the unclassified service. Reinstatement An employee's right to resume a position in the classified service may only be exercised when an appointing authority demotes the employee to a pay range lower than the employee's current pay range or revokes the employee's appointment to the unclassified service. An employee forfeits the right to resume a position in the classified service when the employee is removed from the position in the unclassified service due to incompetence, inefficiency, dishonesty, drunkenness, immoral conduct, insubordination, discourteous treatment of the public, neglect of duty, violation of this chapter or the rules of the director of administrative services, any other failure of good behavior, any other acts of misfeasance, malfeasance, or nonfeasance in office, or conviction of a felony. An employee also forfeits the right to resume a position in the classified service upon transfer to a different agency.
Reinstatement to a position in the classified service shall be to a position substantially equal to that position in the classified service held previously, as certified by the director of administrative services. If the position the person previously held in the classified service has been placed in the unclassified service or is otherwise unavailable, the person shall be appointed to a position in the classified service within the appointing authority's agency that the director of administrative services certifies is comparable in compensation to the position the person previously held in the classified service. Service in the position in the unclassified service shall be counted as service in the position in the classified service held by the person immediately prior to the person's appointment to the position in the unclassified service. When a person is reinstated to a position in the classified service as provided in this division, the person is entitled to all rights, status, and benefits accruing to the position in the classified service during the person's time of service in the position in the unclassified service.
Sec. 124.134.  (A) Each full-time permanent state employee paid in accordance with section 124.152 of the Revised Code and those employees listed in divisions (B)(2) and (4) of section 124.14 of the Revised Code, after service of one year, shall have earned and will be due upon the attainment of the first year of employment, and annually thereafter, eighty hours of vacation leave with full pay. One year of service shall be computed on the basis of twenty-six biweekly pay periods. A full-time permanent state employee with five or more years of service shall have earned and is entitled to one hundred twenty hours of vacation leave with full pay. A full-time permanent state employee with ten or more years of service shall have earned and is entitled to one hundred sixty hours of vacation leave with full pay. A full-time permanent state employee with fifteen or more years of service shall have earned and is entitled to one hundred eighty hours of vacation leave with full pay. A full-time permanent state employee with twenty or more years of service shall have earned and is entitled to two hundred hours of vacation leave with full pay. A full-time permanent state employee with twenty-five or more years of service shall have earned and is entitled to two hundred forty hours of vacation leave with full pay. Such vacation leave shall accrue to the employee at the rate of three and one-tenth hours each biweekly period for those entitled to eighty hours per year; four and six-tenths hours each biweekly period for those entitled to one hundred twenty hours per year; six and two-tenths hours each biweekly period for those entitled to one hundred sixty hours per year; six and nine-tenths hours each biweekly period for those entitled to one hundred eighty hours per year; seven and seven-tenths hours each biweekly period for those entitled to two hundred hours per year; and nine and two-tenths hours each biweekly period for those entitled to two hundred forty hours per year.
The amount of an employee's service shall be determined in accordance with the standard specified in section 9.44 of the Revised Code. Credit for prior service, including an increased vacation accrual rate and longevity supplement, shall take effect during the first pay period that begins immediately following the date the director of administrative services approves granting credit for that prior service. No employee, other than an employee who submits proof of prior service within ninety days after the date of the employee's hiring, shall receive any amount of vacation leave for the period prior to the date of the director's approval of the grant of credit for prior service.
Part-time permanent employees who are paid in accordance with section 124.152 of the Revised Code and full-time permanent employees subject to this section who are in active pay status for less than eighty hours in a pay period shall earn vacation leave on a prorated basis. The ratio between the hours worked and the vacation hours earned by these classes of employees shall be the same as the ratio between the hours worked and the vacation hours earned by a full-time permanent employee with the same amount of service as provided for in this section.
Vacation leave is not available for use until it appears on the employee's earning statement and the compensation described in the earning statement is available to the employee.
(B) Employees granted leave under this section shall forfeit their right to take or to be paid for any vacation leave to their credit which is in excess of the accrual for three years. Such excess leave shall be eliminated from the employees' leave balance. If an employee's vacation leave credit is at, or will reach in the immediately following pay period, the maximum of the accrual for three years and the employee has been denied the use of vacation leave during the immediately preceding twelve months, the employee, at the employee's request, shall be paid in a pay period for the vacation leave the employee was denied, up to the maximum amount the employee would be entitled to be paid for in any pay period. An employee is not entitled to receive payment for vacation leave denied in any pay period in which the employee's vacation leave credit is not at, or will not reach in the immediately following pay period, the maximum of accrual for three years. Any vacation leave for which an employee receives payment shall be deducted from the employee's vacation leave balance. Such payment shall not be made for any leave accrued in the same calendar year in which the payment is made.
(C) Upon separation from state service an employee granted leave under this section is entitled to compensation at the employee's current rate of pay for all unused vacation leave accrued under this section or section 124.13 of the Revised Code to the employee's credit. In case of transfer of an employee from one state agency to another, the employee shall retain the accrued and unused vacation leave. In case of death of an employee, such unused vacation leave shall be paid in accordance with section 2113.04 of the Revised Code, or to the employee's estate. An employee serving in a temporary work level or an interim appointment who is eligible to receive compensation under this division shall be compensated at the base rate of pay of the employee's normal classification.
Sec. 124.135.  (A) State employees are entitled to paid leave when summoned for jury duty by a court of competent jurisdiction or.
(B) State employees are entitled to paid leave when subpoenaed to appear before any court, commission, board, or other legally constituted body authorized by law to compel the attendance of witnesses, if the employee is not a party to the action. Each This division does not apply if the state employee is a party to the action or proceeding involved or is subpoenaed as a result of secondary employment outside the service of the state.
(C) Each full-time permanent state employee paid in accordance with section 124.152 of the Revised Code and those employees described in divisions (B)(2) and (4) of section 124.14 of the Revised Code also may also be entitled, at in their appointing authority's discretion, be entitled to paid leave when appointed to serve on advisory boards or commissions, or when soliciting for charities for which payroll deductions are made.
Sec. 124.137.  There is hereby created in the state treasury the parental leave benefit fund. The director of administrative services shall use moneys credited to the fund solely for the payment of parental leave benefits available to employees paid by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management and for payment of any direct and indirect costs that are attributable to consultants or a third-party administrator and that are necessary to administer this section. All investment earnings of the parental leave fund shall be credited to the fund.
The director of administrative services, in consultation with the director of budget and management, shall determine a rate at which the payrolls of all state agencies with employees paid by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management shall be charged each pay period that is sufficient to cover the costs of administering the parental leave benefit program. The rate shall be based on the total number of such employees and may be adjusted as the director of administrative services, in consultation with the director of budget and management, considers necessary. All money collected from the assessment shall be credited to the parental leave benefit fund.
Sec. 124.138.  The director of administrative services may establish paid leaves and employee benefits for eligible full-time fire fighters employed by the adjutant general's department that are comparable to paid leaves and employee benefits provided to other full-time permanent employees paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management. Any paid leaves and employee benefits established under this section shall be limited to fire fighters regularly scheduled to work at least one hundred four hours per biweekly pay period and shall be adjusted so that the ratio between the hours worked and the paid leave hours earned shall be the same as the ratio between the hours worked and the paid leave hours earned by full-time permanent employees with the same amount of accrued service. The director of administrative services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing any paid leaves and employee benefits established under this section.
Sec. 124.139. (A) A full-time state employee shall receive up to two hundred forty hours of leave with pay during each calendar year to use during those hours when the employee is absent from work because of the employee's donation of any portion of an adult liver or because of the employee's donation of an adult kidney.
(B) A full-time state employee shall receive up to fifty-six hours of leave with pay during each calendar year to use during those hours when the employee is absent from work because of the employee's donation of adult bone marrow.
(C) An appointing authority shall compensate a full-time state employee who uses leave granted under division (A) or (B) of this section at the employee's regular rate of pay for those regular work hours during which the employee is absent from work.
(D)(1) The director of administrative services, under section 124.04 of the Revised Code, shall provide information about this section to full-time employees who are paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management.
(2) The appointing authority of full-time employees who are not paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management shall periodically provide information about this section to those employees.
Sec. 124.14.  (A)(1) The director of administrative services shall establish, and may modify or repeal, by rule, a job classification plan for all positions, offices, and employments the salaries of which are paid in whole or in part by the state. The director shall group jobs within a classification so that the positions are similar enough in duties and responsibilities to be described by the same title, to have the same pay assigned with equity, and to have the same qualifications for selection applied. The director shall, by rule, assign a classification title to each classification within the classification plan. However, the director shall consider in establishing classifications, including classifications with parenthetical titles, and assigning pay ranges such factors as duties performed only on one shift, special skills in short supply in the labor market, recruitment problems, separation rates, comparative salary rates, the amount of training required, and other conditions affecting employment. The director shall describe the duties and responsibilities of the class and establish the qualifications for being employed in that position, and shall file with the secretary of state a copy of specifications for all of the classifications. The director shall file new, additional, or revised specifications with the secretary of state before being used.
The director shall, by rule, assign each classification, either on a statewide basis or in particular counties or state institutions, to a pay range established under section 124.15 or section 124.152 of the Revised Code. The director may assign a classification to a pay range on a temporary basis for a period of time designated in the rule. The director may establish, by rule adopted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, experimental classification plans for some or all employees paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management. The rule shall include specifications for each classification within the plan and shall specifically address compensation ranges, and methods for advancing within the ranges, for the classifications, which may be assigned to pay ranges other than the pay ranges established under section 124.15 or 124.152 of the Revised Code.
(2) The director of administrative services may reassign to a proper classification those positions that have been assigned to an improper classification. If the compensation of an employee in such a reassigned position exceeds the maximum rate of pay for the employee's new classification, the employee shall be placed in pay step X and shall not receive an increase in compensation until the maximum rate of pay for that classification exceeds the employee's compensation.
(3) The director may reassign an exempt employee, as defined in section 124.152 of the Revised Code, to a bargaining unit classification if the director determines that the bargaining unit classification is the proper classification for that employee. Notwithstanding Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code or instruments and contracts negotiated under it, such placements are at the director's discretion.
(4) The director shall, by rule, assign related classifications, which form a career progression, to a classification series. The director shall, by rule, assign each classification in the classification plan a five-digit number, the first four digits of which shall denote the classification series to which the classification is assigned. When a career progression encompasses more than ten classifications, the director shall, by rule, identify the additional classifications belonging to a classification series. Such additional classifications shall be part of the classification series, notwithstanding the fact that the first four digits of the number assigned to the additional classifications do not correspond to the first four digits of the numbers assigned to other classifications in the classification series.
(5) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the establishment of a classification plan for county agencies that elect not to use the services and facilities of a county personnel department. The rules shall include a methodology for the establishment of titles unique to county agencies, the use of state classification titles and classification specifications for common positions, the criteria for a county to meet in establishing its own classification plan, and the establishment of what constitutes a classification series for county agencies.
(B) Division (A) of this section and sections 124.15 and 124.152 of the Revised Code do not apply to the following persons, positions, offices, and employments:
(1) Elected officials;
(2) Legislative employees, employees of the legislative service commission, employees in the office of the governor, employees who are in the unclassified civil service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of state, and attorney general, and employees of the supreme court;
(3) Employees of a county children services board that establishes compensation rates under section 5153.12 of the Revised Code;
(4) Any position for which the authority to determine compensation is given by law to another individual or entity;
(5) Employees of the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the administrator of workers' compensation establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised Code.
(C) The director may employ a consulting agency to aid and assist the director in carrying out this section.
(D)(1) When the director proposes to modify a classification or the assignment of classes to appropriate pay ranges, the director shall send written notice of the proposed rule to the appointing authorities of the affected employees thirty days before the hearing on the proposed rule. The appointing authorities shall notify the affected employees regarding the proposed rule. The director shall also send such appointing authorities notice of any final rule which is adopted within ten days after adoption.
(2) When the director proposes to reclassify any employee so that the employee is adversely affected, the director shall give to the employee affected and to the employee's appointing authority a written notice setting forth the proposed new classification, pay range, and salary. Upon the request of any classified employee who is not serving in a probationary period, the director shall perform a job audit to review the classification of the employee's position to determine whether the position is properly classified. The director shall give to the employee affected and to the employee's appointing authority a written notice of the director's determination whether or not to reclassify the position or to reassign the employee to another classification. An employee or appointing authority desiring a hearing shall file a written request for the hearing with the state personnel board of review within thirty days after receiving the notice. The board shall set the matter for a hearing and notify the employee and appointing authority of the time and place of the hearing. The employee, appointing authority, or any authorized representative of the employee who wishes to submit facts for the consideration of the board shall be afforded reasonable opportunity to do so. After the hearing, the board shall consider anew the reclassification and may order the reclassification of the employee and require the director to assign the employee to such appropriate classification as the facts and evidence warrant. As provided in division (A) of section 124.03 of the Revised Code, the board may determine the most appropriate classification for the position of any employee coming before the board, with or without a job audit. The board shall disallow any reclassification or reassignment classification of any employee when it finds that changes have been made in the duties and responsibilities of any particular employee for political, religious, or other unjust reasons.
(E)(1) Employees of each county department of job and family services shall be paid a salary or wage established by the board of county commissioners. The provisions of section 124.18 of the Revised Code concerning the standard work week apply to employees of county departments of job and family services. A board of county commissioners may do either of the following:
(a) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, supplement the sick leave, vacation leave, personal leave, and other benefits of any employee of the county department of job and family services of that county, if the employee is eligible for the supplement under a written policy providing for the supplement;
(b) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, establish alternative schedules of sick leave, vacation leave, personal leave, or other benefits for employees not inconsistent with the provisions of a collective bargaining agreement covering the affected employees.
(2) The provisions of division (E)(1) of this section do not apply to employees for whom the state employment relations board establishes appropriate bargaining units pursuant to section 4117.06 of the Revised Code, except in either of the following situations:
(a) The employees for whom the state employment relations board establishes appropriate bargaining units elect no representative in a board-conducted representation election.
(b) After the state employment relations board establishes appropriate bargaining units for such employees, all employee organizations withdraw from a representation election.
(F) With respect to officers and employees of state-supported colleges and universities and except for the powers and duties of the state personnel board of review set forth in section 124.03 of the Revised Code, the powers, duties, and functions of the department of administrative services and of the director of administrative services specified in this chapter are hereby vested in and assigned to the boards of trustees of those colleges and universities, or those officers to whom the boards of trustees have delegated these powers, duties, and functions, subject to a periodic audit and review by the director. In exercising the powers, duties, and functions of the director, the boards of trustees or the officers to whom these powers, duties, and functions were delegated need not establish a job classification plan for unclassified employees and may proceed under section 111.15 of the Revised Code when exercising the director's rule-making authority. The adoption, amendment, rescission, and enforcement of rules under this division is not subject to approval, disapproval, or modification by the state personnel board of review. Nothing in this division shall be construed to limit the right of any classified employee who possesses the right of appeal to the state personnel board of review to continue to possess that right of appeal.
Upon the director's determination or finding of the misuse by the board of trustees of or a designated officer of a state-supported college or university of the authority granted under this division, the director shall order and direct the personnel functions of that state-supported college or university until sections 124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code have been fully complied with.
(G)(1) Each board of county commissioners may, by a resolution adopted by a majority of its members, establish a county personnel department to exercise the powers, duties, and functions specified in division (G) of this section. As used in division (G) of this section, "county personnel department" means a county personnel department established by a board of county commissioners under division (G)(1) of this section.
(2) Each board of county commissioners may, by a resolution adopted by a majority of its members, designate the county personnel department of the county to exercise the powers, duties, and functions of the department of administrative services and the director of administrative services specified in sections 124.01 to 124.64 and Chapter 325. of the Revised Code, except for the powers and duties of the state personnel board of review, which powers and duties shall not be construed as having been modified or diminished in any manner by division (G)(2) of this section, with respect to the employees for whom the board of county commissioners is the appointing authority or co-appointing authority. Upon certification of a copy of the resolution by the board to the director, these powers, duties, and functions are vested in and assigned to the county personnel department with respect to the employees for whom the board of county commissioners is the appointing authority or co-appointing authority. The certification to the director shall be provided not later than one hundred twenty days before the first day of July of an odd-numbered year, and, following the certification, the powers, duties, and functions specified in sections 124.01 to 124.64 and Chapter 325. of the Revised Code shall be vested in and assigned to the county personnel department on that first day of July. Nothing in division (G)(2) of this section shall be construed to limit the right of any employee who possesses the right of appeal to the state personnel board of review to continue to possess that right of appeal.
Any board of county commissioners that has established a county personnel department may contract with the department of administrative services, another political subdivision, or an appropriate public or private entity to provide competitive testing services or other appropriate services.
(3) After the county personnel department of a county has assumed the powers, duties, and functions of the department of administrative services and the director as described in division (G)(2) of this section, any elected official, board, agency, or other appointing authority of that county may, upon notification to the director, elect to use the services and facilities of the county personnel department. Upon the acceptance by the director of such notification, the county personnel department shall exercise the powers, duties, and functions of the department of administrative services and the director as described in division (G)(2) of this section with respect to the employees of that elected official, board, agency, or other appointing authority. The notification to the director shall be provided not later than one hundred twenty days before the first day of July of an odd-numbered year, and, following the notification, the powers, duties, and functions specified in sections 124.01 to 124.64 and Chapter 325. of the Revised Code with respect to the employees of that elected official, board, agency, or other appointing authority shall be vested in and assigned to the county personnel department on that first day of July. Except for those employees under the jurisdiction of the county personnel department, the director shall continue to exercise these powers, duties, and functions with respect to employees of the county.
(4) Each board of county commissioners that has established a county personnel department may, by a resolution adopted by a majority of its members, disband the county personnel department and return to the department of administrative services for the administration of sections 124.01 to 124.64 and Chapter 325. of the Revised Code. The board shall, not later than one hundred twenty days before the first day of July of an odd-numbered year, send the director a certified copy of the resolution disbanding the county personnel department. All powers, duties, and functions previously vested in and assigned to the county personnel department shall return to the director on that first day of July.
(5) Any elected official, board, agency, or appointing authority of a county may return to the department of administrative services for the administration of sections 124.01 to 124.64 and Chapter 325. of the Revised Code. The elected official, board, agency, or appointing authority shall, not later than one hundred twenty days before the first day of July of an odd-numbered year, send the director a certified copy of the resolution that states its decision. All powers, duties, and functions previously vested in and assigned to the county personnel department with respect to the employees of that elected official, board, agency, or appointing authority shall return to the director on that first day of July.
(6) The director, by rule adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall prescribe criteria and procedures for granting to each county personnel department the powers, duties, and functions of the department of administrative services and the director as described in division (G)(2) of this section with respect to the employees of an elected official, board, agency, or other appointing authority or co-appointing authority. The rules shall cover the following criteria and procedures:
(a) The notification to the department of administrative services that an elected official, board, agency, or other appointing authority of a county has elected to use the services and facilities of the county personnel department;
(b) A requirement that each county personnel department, in carrying out its duties, adhere to merit system principles with regard to employees of county departments of job and family services, child support enforcement agencies, and public child welfare agencies so that there is no threatened loss of federal funding for these agencies, and a requirement that the county be financially liable to the state for any loss of federal funds due to the action or inaction of the county personnel department. The costs associated with audits conducted to monitor compliance with division (G)(6)(b) of this section shall be borne equally by the department of administrative services and the county.
(c) The termination of services and facilities rendered by the department of administrative services, to include rate adjustments, time periods for termination, and other related matters;
(d) Authorization for the director of administrative services to conduct periodic audits and reviews of county personnel departments to guarantee the uniform application of this granting of the director's powers, duties, and functions. The costs of the audits and reviews shall be borne equally by the department of administrative services and the county for which the services were performed.
(e) The dissemination of audit findings under division (G)(5)(d) of this section, any appeals process relating to adverse findings by the department, and the methods whereby the county personnel program will revert to the authority of the director of administrative services due to misuse or nonuniform application of the authority granted to the county under division (G)(2) or (3) of this section.
(H) The director of administrative services shall establish the rate and method of compensation for all employees who are paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management and who are serving in positions which the director of administrative services has determined impracticable to include in the state job classification plan. This division does not apply to elected officials, legislative employees, employees of the legislative service commission, employees who are in the unclassified civil service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of state, and attorney general, employees of the courts, employees of the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the administrator of workers' compensation establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised Code, or employees of an appointing authority authorized by law to fix the compensation of those employees.
(I) The director shall set the rate of compensation for all intermittent, interim, seasonal, temporary, emergency, and casual employees who are not considered public employees under section 4117.01 of the Revised Code. Such employees are not entitled to receive employee benefits. This rate of compensation shall be equitable in terms of the rate of employees serving in the same or similar classifications. This division does not apply to elected officials, legislative employees, employees of the legislative service commission, employees who are in the unclassified civil service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of state, and attorney general, employees of the courts, employees of the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the administrator establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised Code, or employees of an appointing authority authorized by law to fix the compensation of those employees.
Sec. 124.151.  (A) As used in this section, "compensation" includes, but is not limited to, wages and salary, travel allowances paid pursuant to section 101.27 of the Revised Code, and benefits paid pursuant to sections 124.13, 124.19, 124.381, 124.382, 124.383, 124.384, 124.385, and 124.386 of the Revised Code.
(B)(1) The compensation of any employee whose employment commenced on or after the effective date of this amendment and who is paid by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management shall be paid by direct deposit. Each such employee shall provide to the appointing authority a written authorization for payment by direct deposit. The authorization shall include the designation of a financial institution equipped to accept direct deposits and the number of the account into which the deposit is to be made. The authorization shall remain in effect until withdrawn in writing by the employee or until dishonored by the financial institution. The director of administrative services shall provide by rule adopted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the direct deposit in a financial institution of the compensation of an employee who fails to provide to the appointing authority a written authorization for payment by direct deposit.
(2) Division (B)(1) of this section does not apply to an employee who was appointed to the employee's current position before June 5, 2002, who is a public employee as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised Code, and whose applicable collective bargaining agreement does not require the employee to be paid by direct deposit.
Sec. 124.152.  (A)(1) Except as provided in divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this section, each exempt employee shall be paid a salary or wage in accordance with schedule E-1 or schedule E-2 of division (B) or (C) of this section.
(2) Each exempt employee who holds a position in the unclassified civil service pursuant to division (A)(26) or (30) of section 124.11 of the Revised Code may be paid a salary or wage in accordance with schedule E-1, schedule E-1 for step seven only, or schedule E-2 of division (B), or (C), (D), or (E) of this section, as applicable.
(3)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(3)(b) of this section, each exempt employee who was paid a salary or wage at step 7 in the employee's pay range on June 28, 2003, in accordance with the applicable schedule E-1 of former section 124.152 of the Revised Code and who continued to be so paid on June 29, 2003, shall be paid a salary or wage in the corresponding pay range in schedule E-1 for step seven only of division (D) or (E)(C) of this section for as long as the employee remains in the position the employee held as of July 1, 2003.
(b) Except as provided in division (A)(3)(c) of this section, if an exempt employee who is being paid a salary or wage in accordance with schedule E-1 for step seven only of division (D) or (E)(C) of this section moves to another position, the employee shall not receive a salary or wage for that position or any other position in the future in accordance with that schedule.
(c) If an exempt employee who is being paid a salary or wage in accordance with schedule E-1 for step seven only of division (D) or (E)(C) of this section moves to another position assigned to pay range 12 or above, the appointing authority has the discretion to assign the employee to be paid a salary or wage in the appropriate pay range for that position in accordance with schedule E-1 for step seven only, provided that the appointing authority so notifies the director of administrative services in writing at the time the employee is appointed to that position.
(B) Beginning on the first day of the pay period that includes July 1, 2002 2006, each exempt employee who must be paid in accordance with schedule E-1 or schedule E-2 of this section shall be paid a salary or wage in accordance with the following schedule of rates:
Schedule E-1
Pay Ranges and Step Values
Step Step Step Step Step Step
Range 1 2 3 4 5 6
1 Hourly 8.78 9.16 9.56 9.97
Annually 18262 19053 19885 20738
2 Hourly 10.64 11.09 11.58 12.08
Annually 22131 23067 24086 25126
3 Hourly 11.14 11.65 12.16 12.69
Annually 23171 24232 25293 26395
4 Hourly 11.70 12.23 12.81 13.38
Annually 24336 25438 26645 27830
5 Hourly 12.28 12.84 13.38 13.97
Annually 25542 26707 27830 29058
6 Hourly 12.94 13.47 14.07 14.64
Annually 26915 28018 29266 30451
7 Hourly 13.74 14.26 14.83 15.35 15.94
Annually 28579 29661 30846 31928 33155
8 Hourly 14.53 15.16 15.83 16.53 17.23
Annually 30222 31533 32926 34382 35838
9 Hourly 15.50 16.30 17.11 17.95 18.87
Annually 32240 33904 35589 37336 39250
10 Hourly 16.72 17.63 18.58 19.65 20.70
Annually 34778 36670 38646 40872 43056
11 Hourly 18.20 19.27 20.38 21.53 22.76
Annually 37856 40082 42390 44782 47341
12 Hourly 20.08 21.21 22.35 23.59 24.90 26.26
Annually 41766 44117 46488 49067 51792 54621
13 Hourly 22.13 23.35 24.63 25.95 27.40 28.90
Annually 46030 48568 51230 53976 56992 60112
14 Hourly 24.35 25.72 27.10 28.59 30.20 31.88
Annually 50648 53498 56368 59467 62816 66310
15 Hourly 26.74 28.24 29.84 31.48 33.22 35.06
Annually 55619 58739 62067 65478 69098 72925
16 Hourly 29.48 31.12 32.84 34.67 36.59 38.67
Annually 61318 64730 68307 72114 76107 80434
17 Hourly 32.49 34.28 36.20 38.20 40.33 42.58
Annually 67579 71302 75296 79456 83886 88566
18 Hourly 35.80 37.78 39.90 42.11 44.43 46.92
Annually 74464 78582 82992 87589 92414 97594

1 Hourly 9.40 9.82 10.24 10.68
Annually 19552 20426 21299 22214
2 Hourly 11.40 11.88 12.40 12.94
Annually 23712 24710 25792 26915
3 Hourly 11.94 12.48 13.03 13.60
Annually 24835 25958 27102 28288
4 Hourly 12.54 13.10 13.72 14.34
Annually 26083 27248 28538 29827
5 Hourly 13.15 13.75 14.34 14.97
Annually 27352 28600 29827 31138
6 Hourly 13.86 14.43 15.07 15.69
Annually 28829 30014 31346 32635
7 Hourly 14.72 15.27 15.88 16.44 17.08
Annually 30618 31762 33030 34195 35526
8 Hourly 15.56 16.24 16.95 17.71 18.46
Annually 32365 33779 35256 36837 38397
9 Hourly 16.60 17.46 18.32 19.23 20.21
Annually 34528 36317 38106 39998 42037
10 Hourly 17.91 18.89 19.90 21.05 22.18
Annually 37253 39291 41392 43784 46134
11 Hourly 19.50 20.64 21.84 23.06 24.38
Annually 40560 42931 45427 47965 50710
12 Hourly 21.51 22.72 23.94 25.27 26.68 28.13
Annually 44741 47258 49795 52562 55494 58510
13 Hourly 23.71 25.01 26.39 27.80 29.36 30.96
Annually 49317 52021 54891 57824 61069 64397
14 Hourly 26.08 27.55 29.03 30.62 32.35 34.15
Annually 54246 57304 60382 63690 67288 71032
15 Hourly 28.64 30.25 31.96 33.72 35.59 37.55
Annually 59571 62920 66477 70138 74027 78104
16 Hourly 31.58 33.33 35.17 37.14 39.19 41.43
Annually 65686 69326 73154 77251 81515 86174
17 Hourly 34.80 36.72 38.78 40.92 43.20 45.61
Annually 72384 76378 80662 85114 89856 94869
18 Hourly 38.35 40.47 42.75 45.10 47.60 50.26
Annually 79768 84178 88920 93808 99008 104541

Schedule E-2
Range Minimum Maximum
41 Hourly 16.23 32.46
Annually 33758 67517
42 Hourly 17.89 35.86
Annually 37211 74589
43 Hourly 19.70 39.49
Annually 40976 82139
44 Hourly 21.73 43.13
Annually 45198 89710
45 Hourly 24.01 47.09
Annually 49941 97947
46 Hourly 26.43 51.46
Annually 54974 107037
47 Hourly 29.14 56.16
Annually 60611 116813
48 Hourly 32.14 61.29
Annually 66851 127483
49 Hourly 35.44 66.18
Annually 73715 137654

41 Hourly 16.23 34.77
Annually 33758 72322
42 Hourly 17.89 38.41
Annually 37211 79893
43 Hourly 19.70 42.30
Annually 40976 87984
44 Hourly 21.73 46.21
Annually 45198 96117
45 Hourly 24.01 50.44
Annually 49941 104915
46 Hourly 26.43 55.13
Annually 54974 114670
47 Hourly 29.14 60.16
Annually 60611 125133
48 Hourly 32.14 65.65
Annually 66851 136552
49 Hourly 35.44 70.89
Annually 73715 147451

(C) Beginning on the first day of the pay period that includes July 1, 2005, each exempt employee who must be paid in accordance with schedule E-1 or schedule E-2 of this section shall be paid a salary or wage in accordance with the following schedule of rates:
Schedule E-1
Pay Ranges and Step Values
Step Step Step Step Step Step
Range 1 2 3 4 5 6
1 Hourly 9.13 9.53 9.94 10.37
Annually 18990 19822 20675 21570
2 Hourly 11.07 11.53 12.04 12.56
Annually 23026 23982 25043 26125
3 Hourly 11.59 12.12 12.65 13.20
Annually 24107 25210 26312 27456
4 Hourly 12.17 12.72 13.32 13.92
Annually 25314 26458 27706 28954
5 Hourly 12.77 13.35 13.92 14.53
Annually 26562 27768 28954 30222
6 Hourly 13.46 14.01 14.63 15.23
Annually 27997 29141 30430 31678
7 Hourly 14.29 14.83 15.42 15.96 16.58
Annually 29723 30846 32074 33197 34486
8 Hourly 15.11 15.77 16.46 17.19 17.92
Annually 31429 32802 34237 35755 37274
9 Hourly 16.12 16.95 17.79 18.67 19.62
Annually 33530 35256 37003 38834 40810
10 Hourly 17.39 18.34 19.32 20.44 21.53
Annually 36171 38147 40186 42515 44782
11 Hourly 18.93 20.04 21.20 22.39 23.67
Annually 39374 41683 44096 46571 49234
12 Hourly 20.88 22.06 23.24 24.53 25.90 27.31
Annually 43430 45885 48339 51022 53872 56805
13 Hourly 23.02 24.28 25.62 26.99 28.50 30.06
Annually 47882 50502 53290 56139 59280 62525
14 Hourly 25.32 26.75 28.18 29.73 31.41 33.16
Annually 52666 55640 58614 61838 65333 68973
15 Hourly 27.81 29.37 31.03 32.74 34.55 36.46
Annually 57845 61090 64542 68099 71864 75837
16 Hourly 30.66 32.36 34.15 36.06 38.05 40.22
Annually 63773 67309 71032 75005 79144 83658
17 Hourly 33.79 35.65 37.65 39.73 41.94 44.28
Annually 70283 74152 78312 82638 87235 92102
18 Hourly 37.23 39.29 41.50 43.79 46.21 48.80
Annually 77438 81723 86320 91083 96117 101504

Schedule E-2
Range Minimum Maximum
41 Hourly 16.23 33.76
Annually 33758 70221
42 Hourly 17.89 37.29
Annually 37211 77563
43 Hourly 19.70 41.07
Annually 40976 85426
44 Hourly 21.73 44.86
Annually 45198 93309
45 Hourly 24.01 48.97
Annually 49941 101858
46 Hourly 26.43 53.52
Annually 54974 111322
47 Hourly 29.14 58.41
Annually 60611 121493
48 Hourly 32.14 63.74
Annually 66851 132579
49 Hourly 35.44 68.83
Annually 73715 143166

(D) Beginning on the first day of the pay period that includes July 1, 2003 2006, each exempt employee who must be paid in accordance with schedule E-1 for step seven only shall be paid a salary or wage in accordance with the following schedule of rates:
Schedule E-1 for Step Seven Only
Pay Ranges and Step Seven Values
Range
12 Hourly 27.71
Annually 57637
13 Hourly 30.49
Annually 63419
14 Hourly 33.62
Annually 69930
15 Hourly 36.98
Annually 76918
16 Hourly 40.80
Annually 84864
17 Hourly 44.93
Annually 93454
18 Hourly 49.50
Annually 102960

(E) Beginning on the first day of the pay period that includes July 1, 2005, each exempt employee who must be paid in accordance with schedule E-1 for step seven only shall be paid a salary or wage in accordance with the following schedule of rates:
Schedule E-1 for Step Seven Only
Pay Ranges and Step Seven Values
Range
12 Hourly 28.82
Annually 59946
13 Hourly 31.71
Annually 65957
14 Hourly 34.96
Annually 72717
15 Hourly 38.46
Annually 79997
16 Hourly 42.43
Annually 88254
17 Hourly 46.73
Annually 97198
18 Hourly 51.48
Annually 107078

12 Hourly 29.68
Annually 61734
13 Hourly 32.66
Annually 67933
14 Hourly 36.01
Annually 74901
15 Hourly 39.61
Annually 82389
16 Hourly 43.70
Annually 90896
17 Hourly 48.13
Annually 100110
18 Hourly 53.02
Annually 110282

(F)(D) As used in this section, "exempt employee" means a permanent full-time or permanent part-time employee paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management whose position is included in the job classification plan established under division (A) of section 124.14 of the Revised Code but who is not considered a public employee for the purposes of Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code. As used in this section, "exempt employee" also includes a permanent full-time or permanent part-time employee of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of state, or attorney general who has not been placed in an appropriate bargaining unit by the state employment relations board.
Sec. 124.18.  (A) Forty hours shall be the standard work week for all employees whose salary or wage is paid in whole or in part by the state or by any state-supported college or university. When any employee whose salary or wage is paid in whole or in part by the state or by any state-supported college or university is required by an authorized administrative authority to be in an active pay status more than forty hours in any calendar week, the employee shall be compensated for such time over forty hours, except as otherwise provided in this section, at one and one-half times the employee's regular rate of pay. The use of sick leave or any leave used in lieu of sick leave shall not be considered to be active pay status for the purposes of earning overtime or compensatory time by employees whose wages are paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management. A flexible-hours employee is not entitled to compensation for overtime work unless the employee's authorized administrative authority required the employee to be in active pay status for more than forty hours in a calendar week, regardless of the number of hours the employee works on any day in the same calendar week.
Such compensation for overtime work shall be paid no later than at the conclusion of the next succeeding pay period.
If the employee elects to take compensatory time off in lieu of overtime pay for any overtime worked, such compensatory time shall be granted by the employee's administrative superior, on a time and one-half basis, at a time mutually convenient to the employee and the administrative superior. An Compensatory time is not available for use until it appears on the employee's earning statement and the compensation described in the earning statement is available to the employee.
An employee may accrue compensatory time to a maximum of two hundred forty hours, except that public safety employees and other employees who meet the criteria established in the "Federal Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C.A. 207, 213, as amended, may accrue a maximum of four hundred eighty hours of compensatory time. An employee shall be paid at the employee's regular rate of pay for any hours of compensatory time accrued in excess of these maximum amounts if the employee has not used the compensatory time within one hundred eighty days after it is granted, if the employee transfers to another agency of the state, or if a change in the employee's status exempts the employee from the payment of overtime compensation. Upon the termination of employment, any employee with accrued but unused compensatory time shall be paid for that time at a rate that is the greater of the employee's final regular rate of pay or the employee's average regular rate of pay during the employee's last three years of employment with the state.
No overtime, as described in this section, can be paid unless it has been authorized by the authorized administrative authority. Employees may be exempted from the payment of compensation as required by this section only under the criteria for exemption from the payment of overtime compensation established in the "Federal Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C.A. 207, 213, as amended. With the approval of the director of administrative services, the appointing authority may establish a policy to grant compensatory time or to pay compensation to state employees who are exempt from overtime compensation. With the approval of the board of county commissioners, a county human services department may establish a policy to grant compensatory time or to pay compensation to employees of the department who are exempt from overtime compensation.
(B)(1) An employee, whose salary or wage is paid in whole or in part by the state, shall be paid for the holidays declared in section 124.19 of the Revised Code and shall not be required to work on those holidays, unless, in the opinion of the employee's responsible administrative authority, failure to work on those holidays would impair the public service. An employee paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management who is scheduled to work on a holiday and who does not report to work the day before, the day of, or the day after the holiday due to an illness of the employee or of a member of the employee's immediate family shall not receive holiday pay as provided by this division, unless the employee can provide documentation of extenuating circumstances that prohibited the employee from so reporting to work. An employee also shall not be paid for a holiday unless the employee was in active pay status on the scheduled work day immediately preceding the holiday.
(2) If any of the holidays declared in section 124.19 of the Revised Code falls on Saturday, the Friday immediately preceding shall be observed as the holiday. If any of the holidays declared in section 124.19 of the Revised Code falls on Sunday, the Monday immediately succeeding shall be observed as the holiday. Employees whose work schedules are based on the requirements of a seven-days-a-week work operation shall observe holidays on the actual days specified in section 124.19 of the Revised Code.
(3) If an employee's work schedule is other than Monday through Friday, the employee shall be entitled to eight hours of holiday pay for holidays observed on the employee's day off regardless of the day of the week on which they are observed. A
(4) A full-time permanent employee is entitled to a minimum of eight hours of pay for each holiday regardless of the employee's work shift and work schedule. A flexible-hours employee is entitled to holiday pay for the number of hours for which the employee normally would have been scheduled to work, who is normally scheduled to work in excess of eight hours on a day on which a holiday falls, either shall be required to work an alternate schedule for that week or shall receive additional holiday pay for the hours the employee is normally scheduled to work. Such an alternate schedule may require a flexible-hours employee to work five shifts consisting of eight hours each during the week including the holiday, and, in that case, the employee shall receive eight hours of holiday pay for the day the holiday is observed. Part-time
(5) Part-time permanent employees shall be paid receive holiday pay for that portion of any holiday for which they would normally have been scheduled to work on a pro-rated basis, based upon the daily average of actual hours worked, excluding overtime hours worked, in the previous calendar quarter. The figure shall be calculated for the preceding calendar quarter on the first day of January, April, July, and October of each year. When
(6) When an employee who is eligible for overtime pay under this section is required by the employee's responsible administrative authority to work on the day observed as a holiday, the employee shall be entitled to pay for such time worked at one and one-half times the employee's regular rate of pay in addition to the employee's regular pay, or to be granted compensatory time off at time and one-half thereafter, at the employee's option. Payment at such rate shall be excluded in the calculation of hours in active pay status.
(C) Each appointing authority may designate the number of employees in an agency who are flexible-hours employees. The appointing authority may establish for each flexible-hours employee a specified minimum number of hours to be worked each day that is consistent with the "Federal Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C.A. 207, 213, as amended.
(D) This section shall be uniformly administered for employees as defined in section 124.01 of the Revised Code and by the personnel departments of state-supported colleges and universities for employees of state-supported colleges and universities. If employees are not paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management, the political subdivision shall determine whether the use of sick leave shall be considered to be active pay status for purposes of those employees earning overtime or compensatory time.
(E) Policies relating to the payment of overtime pay or the granting of compensatory time off shall be adopted by the chief administrative officer of the house of representatives for employees of the house of representatives, by the clerk of the senate for employees of the senate, and by the director of the legislative service commission for all other legislative employees.
(F) As used in this section, "regular rate of pay" means the base rate of pay an employee receives plus any pay supplements received pursuant to section 124.181 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 124.181.  (A) Except as provided in division (M) of this section, any employee paid in accordance with schedule B of section 124.15 or schedule E-1 or schedule E-1 for step seven only of section 124.152 of the Revised Code is eligible for the pay supplements provided in this section upon application by the appointing authority substantiating the employee's qualifications for the supplement and with the approval of the director of administrative services except as provided in division (E) of this section.
(B)(1) Except as provided in section 124.183 of the Revised Code, in computing any of the pay supplements provided in this section for an employee paid in accordance with schedule B of section 124.15 of the Revised Code, the classification salary base shall be the minimum hourly rate of the pay range, provided in that section, in which the employee is assigned at the time of computation.
(2) Except as provided in section 124.183 of the Revised Code, in computing any of the pay supplements provided in this section for an employee paid in accordance with schedule E-1 of section 124.152 of the Revised Code, the classification salary base shall be the minimum hourly rate of the pay range, provided in that section, in which the employee is assigned at the time of computation.
(3) Except as provided in section 124.183 of the Revised Code, in computing any of the pay supplements provided in this section for an employee paid in accordance with schedule E-1 for step seven only of section 124.152 of the Revised Code, the classification salary base shall be the minimum hourly rate in the corresponding pay range, provided in schedule E-1 of that section, to which the employee is assigned at the time of the computation.
(C) The effective date of any pay supplement, except as provided in section 124.183 of the Revised Code or unless otherwise provided in this section, shall be determined by the director.
(D) The director shall, by rule, establish standards regarding the administration of this section.
(E)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this division, beginning on the first day of the pay period within which the employee completes five years of total service with the state government or any of its political subdivisions, each employee in positions paid in accordance with schedule B of section 124.15 of the Revised Code or in accordance with schedule E-1 or schedule E-1 for step seven only of section 124.152 of the Revised Code shall receive an automatic salary adjustment equivalent to two and one-half per cent of the classification salary base, to the nearest whole cent. Each employee shall receive thereafter an annual adjustment equivalent to one-half of one per cent of the employee's classification salary base, to the nearest whole cent, for each additional year of qualified employment until a maximum of ten per cent of the employee's classification salary base is reached. The granting of longevity adjustments shall not be affected by promotion, demotion, or other changes in classification held by the employee, nor by any change in pay range for the employee's class or grade. Longevity pay adjustments shall become effective at the beginning of the pay period within which the employee completes the necessary length of service, except that when an employee requests credit for prior service, the effective date of the prior service credit and of any longevity adjustment shall be the first day of the pay period following approval of the credit by the director of administrative services. No employee, other than an employee who submits proof of prior service within ninety days after the date of the employee's hiring, shall receive any longevity adjustment for the period prior to the director's approval of a prior service credit. Time spent on authorized leave of absence shall be counted for this purpose.
(2) An employee who has retired in accordance with the provisions of any retirement system offered by the state and who is employed by the state or any political subdivision of the state on or after June 24, 1987, shall not have prior service with the state or any political subdivision of the state counted for the purpose of determining the amount of the salary adjustment provided under this division.
(3) There shall be a moratorium on employees' receipt under this division of credit for service with the state government or any of its political subdivisions during the period from July 1, 2003, through June 30, 2005. In calculating the number of years of total service under this division, no credit shall be included for service during the moratorium. The moratorium shall apply to the employees of the secretary of state, the auditor of state, the treasurer of state, and the attorney general, who are subject to this section unless the secretary of state, the auditor of state, the treasurer of state, or the attorney general decides to exempt the office's employees from the moratorium and so notifies the director of administrative services in writing on or before July 1, 2003.
If an employee is exempt from the moratorium, receives credit for a period of service during the moratorium, and takes a position with another entity in the state government or any of its political subdivisions, either during or after the moratorium, and if that entity's employees are or were subject to the moratorium, the employee shall continue to retain the credit. However, if the moratorium is in effect upon the taking of the new position, the employee shall cease receiving additional credit as long as the employee is in the position, until the moratorium expires.
(F) When an exceptional condition exists that creates a temporary or a permanent hazard for one or more positions in a class paid in accordance with schedule B of section 124.15 of the Revised Code or in accordance with schedule E-1 or schedule E-1 for step seven only of section 124.152 of the Revised Code, a special hazard salary adjustment may be granted for the time the employee is subjected to the hazardous condition. All special hazard conditions shall be identified for each position and incidence from information submitted to the director on an appropriate form provided by the director and categorized into standard conditions of: some unusual hazard not common to the class; considerable unusual hazard not common to the class; and exceptional hazard not common to the class.
(1) A hazardous salary adjustment of five per cent of the employee's classification salary base may be applied in the case of some unusual hazardous condition not common to the class for those hours worked, or a fraction of those hours worked, while the employee was subject to the unusual hazard condition.
(2) A hazardous salary adjustment of seven and one-half per cent of the employee's classification salary base may be applied in the case of some considerable hazardous condition not common to the class for those hours worked, or a fraction of those hours worked, while the employee was subject to the considerable hazard condition.
(3) A hazardous salary adjustment of ten per cent of the employee's classification salary base may be applied in the case of some exceptional hazardous condition not common to the class for those hours worked, or a fraction of those hours worked, when the employee was subject to the exceptional hazard condition.
(4) Each claim for temporary hazard pay shall be submitted as a separate payment and shall be subject to an administrative audit by the director as to the extent and duration of the employee's exposure to the hazardous condition.
(G) When a full-time employee whose salary or wage is paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management and who also is eligible for overtime under the "Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C.A. 207, 213, as amended, is ordered by the appointing authority to report back to work after termination of the employee's regular work schedule and the employee reports, the employee shall be paid for such time. The employee shall be entitled to four hours at the employee's total rate of pay or overtime compensation for the actual hours worked, whichever is greater. This division does not apply to work that is a continuation of or immediately preceding an employee's regular work schedule.
(H) When a certain position or positions paid in accordance with schedule B of section 124.15 of the Revised Code or in accordance with schedule E-1 or schedule E-1 for step seven only of section 124.152 of the Revised Code require the ability to speak or write a language other than English, a special pay supplement may be granted to attract bilingual individuals, to encourage present employees to become proficient in other languages, or to retain qualified bilingual employees. The bilingual pay supplement provided in this division may be granted in the amount of five per cent of the employee's classification salary base for each required foreign language and shall remain in effect as long as the bilingual requirement exists.
(I) The director of administrative services may establish a shift differential for employees. The differential shall be paid to employees in positions working in other than the regular or first shift. In those divisions or agencies where only one shift prevails, no shift differential shall be paid regardless of the hours of the day that are worked. The director and the appointing authority shall designate which positions shall be covered by this division.
(J) Whenever an employee is assigned to work in a higher level position for a continuous period of more than two weeks but no more than two years because of a vacancy, the employee's pay may be established at a rate that is approximately four per cent above the employee's current base rate for the period the employee occupies the position, provided that this temporary occupancy is approved by the director. Employees paid under this division shall continue to receive any of the pay supplements due them under other divisions of this section based on the step one base rate for their normal classification.
(K) If a certain position, or positions, within a class paid in accordance with schedule B of section 124.15 of the Revised Code or in accordance with schedule E-1 or schedule E-1 for step seven only of section 124.152 of the Revised Code are mandated by state or federal law or regulation or other regulatory agency or other certification authority to have special technical certification, registration, or licensing to perform the functions which are under the mandate, a special professional achievement pay supplement may be granted. This special professional achievement pay supplement shall not be granted when all incumbents in all positions in a class require a license as provided in the classification description published by the department of administrative services; to licensees where no special or extensive training is required; when certification is granted upon completion of a stipulated term of in-service training; when an appointing authority has required certification; or any other condition prescribed by the director.
(1) Before this supplement may be applied, evidence as to the requirement must be provided by the agency for each position involved, and certification must be received from the director as to the director's concurrence for each of the positions so affected.
(2) The professional achievement pay supplement provided in this division shall be granted in an amount up to ten per cent of the employee's classification salary base and shall remain in effect as long as the mandate exists.
(L) Those employees assigned to teaching supervisory, principal, assistant principal, or superintendent positions who have attained a higher educational level than a basic bachelor's degree may receive an educational pay supplement to remain in effect as long as the employee's assignment and classification remain the same.
(1) An educational pay supplement of two and one-half per cent of the employee's classification salary base may be applied upon the achievement of a bachelor's degree plus twenty quarter hours of postgraduate work.
(2) An educational pay supplement of an additional five per cent of the employee's classification salary base may be applied upon achievement of a master's degree.
(3) An educational pay supplement of an additional two and one-half per cent of the employee's classification salary base may be applied upon achievement of a master's degree plus thirty quarter hours of postgraduate work.
(4) An educational pay supplement of five per cent of the employee's classification salary base may be applied when the employee is performing as a master teacher.
(5) An educational pay supplement of five per cent of the employee's classification salary base may be applied when the employee is performing as a special education teacher.
(6) Those employees in teaching supervisory, principal, assistant principal, or superintendent positions who are responsible for specific extracurricular activity programs shall receive overtime pay for those hours worked in excess of their normal schedule, at their straight time hourly rate up to a maximum of five per cent of their regular base salary in any calendar year.
(M)(1) A state agency, board, or commission may establish a supplementary compensation schedule for those licensed physicians employed by the agency, board, or commission in positions requiring a licensed physician. The supplementary compensation schedule, together with the compensation otherwise authorized by this chapter, shall provide for the total compensation for these employees to range appropriately, but not necessarily uniformly, for each classification title requiring a licensed physician, in accordance with a schedule approved by the state controlling board. The individual salary levels recommended for each such physician employed shall be approved by the director. Notwithstanding section 124.11 of the Revised Code, such personnel are in the unclassified civil service.
(2) The director of administrative services may approve supplementary compensation for the director of health, if the director is a licensed physician, in accordance with a supplementary compensation schedule approved under division (M)(1) of this section or in accordance with another supplementary compensation schedule the director of administrative services considers appropriate. The supplementary compensation shall not exceed twenty per cent of the director of health's base rate of pay.
(N) Notwithstanding sections 117.28, 117.30, 117.33, 117.36, 117.42, and 131.02 of the Revised Code, the state shall not institute any civil action to recover and shall not seek reimbursement for overpayments made in violation of division (E) of this section or division (C) of section 9.44 of the Revised Code for the period starting after June 24, 1987, and ending on October 31, 1993.
(O) Employees of the office of the treasurer of state who are exempt from collective bargaining coverage may be granted a merit pay supplement of up to one and one-half per cent of their step rate. The rate at which this supplement is granted shall be based on performance standards established by the treasurer of state. Any supplements granted under this division shall be administered on an annual basis.
Sec. 124.182.  (A) There is hereby created in the state treasury the professional development fund. The director of administrative services shall use moneys credited to the fund to pay for programs that provide professional development opportunities for employees who are exempt from collective bargaining coverage and paid by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management. The director of administrative services shall identify by rule adopted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code programs for which payments from the fund shall be made. The fund also shall be used to pay any direct and indirect costs that are attributable to consultants or a third-party administrator and that are necessary to administer this section. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to it.
(B) The director of administrative services, in consultation with the director of budget and management, shall determine a rate at which the payrolls of all participating state agencies with employees paid by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management shall be charged each pay period that is sufficient to cover the costs of administering the programs paid for with the moneys credited to the professional development fund. The rate shall be based on the total number of those employees and may be adjusted as the director of administrative services, in consultation with the director of budget and management, considers necessary. All moneys collected from the charge shall be credited to the professional development fund.
(C) If the director of administrative services determines that additional appropriation amounts are necessary, the director may request that the director of budget and management increase the appropriation amounts. The additional appropriation amounts are hereby appropriated.
Sec. 124.321.  (A) Whenever it becomes necessary for an appointing authority to reduce its work force, the appointing authority shall lay off employees or abolish their positions in accordance with sections 124.321 to 124.327 of the Revised Code and the rules of the director of administrative services.
(B)(1) Employees may be laid off as a result of a lack of funds within an appointing authority. For appointing authorities that employ persons whose salary or wage is paid by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management, the director of budget and management shall be responsible for determining whether a lack of funds exists. For appointing authorities that employ persons whose salary or wage is paid other than by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management, the appointing authority itself shall determine whether a lack of funds exists and shall file a statement of rationale and supporting documentation with the director of administrative services prior to sending the layoff notice.
(2) As used in this division, a "lack of funds" means an appointing authority has a current or projected deficiency of funding to maintain current, or to sustain projected, levels of staffing and operations. This section does not require any transfer of money between funds in order to offset a deficiency or projected deficiency of federal funding for a program.
(3) The director of budget and management shall adopt rules, under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, for agencies whose employees are paid by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management, for determining whether a lack of funds exists.
(C)(1) Employees may be laid off as a result of lack of work within an appointing authority. For appointing authorities whose employees are paid by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management, the director of administrative services shall determine whether a lack of work exists. All other appointing authorities shall themselves determine whether a lack of work exists and shall file a statement of rationale and supporting documentation with the director of administrative services prior to sending the layoff notice.
(2) As used in this division, a "lack of work" means an appointing authority has a current or projected temporary decrease in the workload, expected to last less than one year, that requires a reduction of current or projected staffing levels. The determination of a lack of work shall indicate the current or projected temporary decrease in the workload of an appointing authority and whether the current or projected staffing levels of the appointing authority will be excessive.
(D)(1) Employees may be laid off as a result of abolishment of positions. As used in this division, "abolishment" means the deletion of a position or positions from the organization or structure of an appointing authority.
For purposes of this division, an appointing authority may abolish positions for any one or any combination of the following reasons: as a result of a reorganization for the efficient operation of the appointing authority, for reasons of economy, or for lack of work.
(2)(a) Reasons of economy permitting an appointing authority to abolish a position and to lay off the holder of that position under this division shall be determined at the time the appointing authority proposes to abolish the position. The reasons of economy shall be based on the appointing authority's estimated amount of savings with respect to salary, benefits, and other matters associated with the abolishment of the position, except that the reasons of economy associated with the position's abolishment instead may be based on the appointing authority's estimated amount of savings with respect to salary and benefits only, if:
(i) Either the appointing authority's operating appropriation has been reduced by an executive or legislative action, or the appointing authority has a current or projected deficiency in funding to maintain current or projected levels of staffing and operations; and
(ii) It files a notice of the position's abolishment with the director of administrative services within one year of the occurrence of the applicable circumstance described in division (D)(2)(a)(i) of this section.
(b) The following principles apply when a circumstance described in division (D)(2)(a)(i) of this section would serve to authorize an appointing authority to abolish a position and to lay off the holder of the position under this division based on the appointing authority's estimated amount of savings with respect to salary and benefits only:
(i) The position's abolishment shall be done in good faith and not as a subterfuge for discipline.
(ii) If a circumstance affects a specific program only, the appointing authority only may abolish a position within that program.
(iii) If a circumstance does not affect a specific program only, the appointing authority may identify a position that it considers appropriate for abolishment based on the reasons of economy.
(3) Each appointing authority shall determine itself whether any position should be abolished and shall file a statement of rationale and supporting documentation with the director of administrative services prior to sending the notice of abolishment.
If an abolishment results in a reduction of the work force, the appointing authority shall follow the procedures for laying off employees, subject to the following modifications:
(a) The employee whose position has been abolished shall have the right to fill an available vacancy within the employee's classification.
(b) If the employee whose position has been abolished has more retention points than any other employee serving in the same classification, the employee with the fewest retention points shall be displaced.
(c) If the employee whose position has been abolished has the fewest retention points in the classification, the employee shall have the right to fill an available vacancy in a lower classification in the classification series.
(d) If the employee whose position has been abolished has the fewest retention points in the classification, the employee shall displace the employee with the fewest retention points in the next or successively lower classification in the classification series.
(E) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of the displacement procedure described in section 124.324 of the Revised Code for employees to displace other employees during a layoff, the director of administrative services may establish a paper lay-off process under which employees who are to be laid off or displaced may be required, before the date of their paper layoff, to preselect their options for displacing other employees.
(F) The director of administrative services shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the determination of lack of work within an appointing authority, for the abolishment of positions by an appointing authority, and for the implementation of this section.
Sec. 124.324.  (A) A laid-off employee has the right to displace the employee with the fewest retention points in the classification from which the employee was laid off or in a lower or equivalent classification, in the following order:
(1) Within the classification from which the employee was laid off;
(2) Within the classification series from which the employee was laid off;
(3) Within a classification which that has the same or similar duties as the classification from which the employee was laid off, in accordance with the list published by the director of administrative services under division (B)(2) of section 124.311 of the Revised Code;
(4) Within the classification the employee held immediately prior to holding the classification from which the employee was laid off.
Divisions (A)(3) and (4) of this section shall not apply to employees of cities, city health districts, and counties, except for employees of county departments of job and family services.
A laid-off employee in the classified service has the right to displace an employee with the fewest retention points in the classification that the laid-off employee held immediately prior to holding the classification from which the employee was laid off, if the laid-off employee was certified in the former classification. If a position in that classification does not exist, then the employee may displace employees in the classification that the employee next previously held, and so on, subject to the same provisions. The employee may not displace employees in a classification if the employee does not meet the minimum qualifications of the classification, or if the employee held the classification more than five years prior to the date on which the employee was laid off, except that failure to meet minimum qualifications shall not prevent the employee from displacing employees in the classification that the employee next previously held within that five-year period.
If, after exercising displacement rights, an employee is subject to further layoff action, the employee's displacement rights shall be in accordance with the classification from which the employee was first laid off.
The director shall verify the calculation of the retention points of all employees in an affected classification in accordance with section 124.325 of the Revised Code.
(B) Following the order of layoff, an employee laid off in the classified civil service shall displace another employee within the same appointing authority or independent institution and layoff jurisdiction in the following manner:
(1) Each laid-off employee possessing more retention points shall displace the employee with the fewest retention points in the next lower classification or successively lower classification in the same classification series;, except that a laid-off provisional employee shall not have the right to displace a certified employee;.
(2) Any employee displaced by an employee possessing more retention points shall displace the employee with the fewest retention points in the next lower classification or successively lower classification in the same classification series;, except that a displaced provisional employee shall not displace a certified employee. This process shall continue, if necessary, until the employee with the fewest retention points in the lowest classification of the classification series of the same appointing authority or independent institution has been reached and, if necessary, laid off.
(C) Employees shall notify the appointing authority of their intention to exercise their displacement rights, within five days after receiving notice of layoff. This division does not apply if the director of administrative services has established a paper lay-off process pursuant to division (E) of section 124.321 of the Revised Code that includes a different notification requirement for employees exercising their displacement rights under that process.
(D) No employee shall displace an employee for whose position or classification there exists special minimum qualifications, as established by a position description, by classification specifications, or by bona fide occupational qualification, unless the employee desiring to displace another employee possesses the requisite minimum qualifications for the position or classification.
(E) If an employee exercising displacement rights must displace an employee in another county within the same layoff district, the displacement shall not be construed to be a transfer.
(F) The director of administrative services shall promulgate adopt rules, under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, for the implementation of this section.
Sec. 124.327.  (A) Employees who have been laid off or have, by virtue of exercising their displacements displacement rights, been displaced to a lower classification in their classification series, shall be placed on appropriate layoff lists. Those employees with the most retention points within each category of order of layoff, as established in section 124.323 of the Revised Code, shall be placed at the top of the layoff list to be followed by employees ranked in descending total retention order. Laid-off employees shall be placed on layoff lists for each classification in the classification series equal to or lower than the classification in which the employee was employed at the time of layoff.
(B) An employee who is laid off retains reinstatement rights in the agency from which the employee was laid off. Reinstatement rights continue for one year from the date of layoff. During this one-year period, in any layoff jurisdiction in which an appointing authority has an employee on a layoff list, the appointing authority shall not hire or promote anyone into a position within that classification until all laid-off persons on a layoff list for that classification who are qualified to perform the duties of the position are reinstated or decline the position when it is offered.
(C) Each laid-off or displaced employee, in addition to reinstatement rights within the employee's appointing authority, shall have the right to reemployment with other agencies within the layoff jurisdiction, if the employee is qualified to perform the duties of the position, but only in the same classification from which the employee was initially laid off or displaced. Layoff lists for each appointing authority must be exhausted before jurisdictional reemployment layoff lists are used.
(D) Any employee accepting or declining reinstatement to the same classification and same appointment type from which the employee was laid off or displaced shall be removed from the appointing authority's layoff list.
(E) Any employee accepting or declining reemployment to the same classification and the same appointment type from which the employee was laid off or displaced shall be removed from the jurisdictional layoff list.
(F) An employee who does not exercise the option to displace under section 124.324 of the Revised Code shall only be entitled to reinstatement or reemployment in the classification from which the employee was displaced or laid off.
(G) An employee who declines reinstatement to a classification lower in the classification series than the classification from which the employee was laid off or displaced, shall thereafter only be entitled to reinstatement to a classification higher, up to and including the classification from which the employee was laid off or displaced, in the classification series than the classification that was declined.
(H) Any employee reinstated or reemployed under this section shall not serve a probationary period upon reinstatement or reemployment except that an employee laid off during an original or promotional probationary period shall begin a new probationary period.
(I) For the purposes of this section, employees whose salary or wage is not paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management shall be placed on layoff lists of their appointing authority only.
Sec. 124.382.  (A) As used in this section and sections 124.383, 124.386, 124.387, and 124.388 of the Revised Code:
(1) "Base pay period" means the pay period that includes the first day of December.
(2) "Pay period" means the fourteen-day period of time during which the payroll is accumulated, as determined by the director of administrative services.
(3)(2) "Active pay status" means the conditions under which an employee is eligible to receive pay, and includes, but is not limited to, vacation leave, sick leave, personal leave, bereavement leave, and administrative leave.
(4)(3) "No pay status" means the conditions under which an employee is ineligible to receive pay and includes, but is not limited to, leave without pay, leave of absence, and disability leave.
(5)(4) "Disability leave" means the leave granted pursuant to section 124.385 of the Revised Code.
(6)(5) "Full-time permanent employee" means an employee whose regular hours of duty total eighty hours in a pay period in a state agency and whose appointment is not for a limited period of time.
(7)(6) "Base rate of pay" means the rate of pay established under schedule B or C of section 124.15 of the Revised Code or under schedule E-1, schedule E-1 for step seven only, or schedule E-2 of section 124.152 of the Revised Code, plus any supplement provided under section 124.181 of the Revised Code, plus any supplements enacted into law which are added to schedule B or C of section 124.15 of the Revised Code or to schedule E-1, schedule E-1 for step seven only, or schedule E-2 of section 124.152 of the Revised Code.
(8)(7) "Part-time permanent employee" means an employee whose regular hours of duty total less than eighty hours in a pay period in a state agency and whose appointment is not for a limited period of time.
(B) Each full-time permanent and part-time permanent employee whose salary or wage is paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management shall be credited with sick leave of three and one-tenth hours for each completed eighty hours of service, excluding overtime hours worked. Sick leave is not available for use until it appears on the employee's earning statement and the compensation described in the earning statement is available to the employee.
(C) Any sick leave credit provided pursuant to division (B) of this section, remaining as of the last day of the pay period preceding the next succeeding base pay period first paycheck the employee receives in December, shall be converted pursuant to section 124.383 of the Revised Code.
(D) Employees may use sick leave, provided a credit balance is available, upon approval of the responsible administrative officer of the employing unit, for absence due to personal illness, pregnancy, injury, exposure to contagious disease that could be communicated to other employees, and illness, injury, or death in the employee's immediate family. When sick leave is used, it shall be deducted from the employee's credit on the basis of absence from previously scheduled work in such increments of an hour and at such a compensation rate as the director of administrative services determines. The appointing authority of each employing unit may require an employee to furnish a satisfactory, signed statement to justify the use of sick leave.
If, after having utilized the credit provided by this section, an employee utilizes sick leave that was accumulated prior to November 15, 1981, compensation for such sick leave used shall be at a rate as the director determines.
(E)(1) The previously accumulated sick leave balance of an employee who has been separated from the public service, for which separation payments pursuant to section 124.384 of the Revised Code have not been made, shall be placed to the employee's credit upon the employee's reemployment in the public service, if the reemployment takes place within ten years of the date on which the employee was last terminated from public service.
(2) The previously accumulated sick leave balance of an employee who has separated from a school district shall be placed to the employee's credit upon the employee's appointment as an unclassified employee of the state department of education, if all of the following apply:
(a) The employee accumulated the sick leave balance while employed by the school district.
(b) The employee did not receive any separation payments for the sick leave balance.
(c) The employee's employment with the department takes place within ten years after the date on which the employee separated from the school district.
(F) An employee who transfers from one public agency to another shall be credited with the unused balance of the employee's accumulated sick leave.
(G) The director of administrative services shall establish procedures to uniformly administer this section. No sick leave may be granted to a state employee upon or after the employee's retirement or termination of employment.
Sec. 124.384.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this section, employees whose salaries or wages are paid by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management and who have accumulated sick leave under section 124.38 or 124.382 of the Revised Code shall be paid for a percentage of their accumulated balances, upon separation for any reason, including death but excluding retirement, at their last base rate of pay at the rate of one hour of pay for every two hours of accumulated balances. An employee who retires in accordance with any retirement plan offered by the state shall be paid upon retirement for each hour of the employee's accumulated sick leave balance at a rate of fifty-five per cent of the employee's last base rate of pay.
An employee serving in a temporary work level or an interim appointment who elects to convert unused sick leave to cash shall do so at the base rate of pay of the employee's normal classification. If an employee dies, the employee's unused sick leave shall be paid in accordance with section 2113.04 of the Revised Code or to the employee's estate.
In order to be eligible for the payment authorized by this section, an employee shall have at least one year of state service and shall request all or a portion of such payment no later than three years after separation from state service. No person is eligible to receive all or a portion of the payment authorized by this section at any time later than three years after the person's separation from state service.
(B) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a person initially employed on or after July 5, 1987, by a state agency in which the employees' salaries or wages are paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management shall receive payment under this section only for sick leave accumulated while employed by state agencies in which the employees' salaries or wages are paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management. A person initially employed on or after July 5, 1987, by the state department of education as an unclassified employee shall receive payment under this section only for sick leave accumulated while employed by state agencies in which the employees' salaries or wages are paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management and for sick leave placed to the employee's credit under division (E)(2) of section 124.382 of the Revised Code.
(C) For employees paid in accordance with section 124.152 of the Revised Code and those employees listed in divisions (B)(2) and (4) of section 124.14 of the Revised Code, the director of administrative services, with the approval of the director of the office of budget and management, may establish a plan for early payment of accrued sick leave and vacation leave.
Sec. 124.386.  (A) Each full-time permanent employee paid in accordance with section 124.152 of the Revised Code and those full-time permanent employees listed in divisions (B)(2) and (4) of section 124.14 of the Revised Code shall be credited with thirty-two hours of personal leave each year. Each part-time permanent employee paid in accordance with section 124.152 of the Revised Code, and those part-time permanent employees listed in divisions (B)(2) and (4) of section 124.14 of the Revised Code, shall receive a pro-rated personal leave credit as determined by rule of the director of administrative services. Such credit shall be made to each eligible employee in the first pay the employee receives in December. Employees, upon giving reasonable notice to the responsible administrative officer of the appointing authority, may use personal leave for absence due to mandatory court appearances, legal or business matters, family emergencies, unusual family obligations, medical appointments, weddings, religious holidays not listed in section 124.19 of the Revised Code, or any other matter of a personal nature. Personal leave may not be used on a holiday when an employee is scheduled to work.
Personal leave is not available for use until it appears on the employee's earning statement and the compensation described in the earning statement is available to the employee.
(B) When personal leave is used, it shall be deducted from the unused balance of the employee's personal leave on the basis of absence in such increments of an hour as the director of administrative services determines. Compensation for such leave shall be equal to the employee's base rate of pay.
(C) A newly appointed full-time permanent employee or a nonfull-time employee who receives a full-time permanent appointment shall be credited with personal leave of thirty-two hours, less one and two-tenths hours for each pay period that has elapsed following the base pay period the first paycheck the employee receives in December, until the first day of the pay period during which the appointment was effective.
(D) The director of administrative services shall allow employees to elect one of the following options with respect to the unused balance of personal leave:
(1) Carry forward the balance. The maximum credit that shall be available to an employee at any one time is forty hours.
(2) Convert the balance to accumulated sick leave, to be used in the manner provided by section 124.382 of the Revised Code;
(3) Receive a cash benefit. The cash benefit shall equal one hour of the employee's base rate of pay for every hour of unused credit that is converted. An employee serving in a temporary work level or an interim appointment who elects to convert unused personal leave to cash shall do so at the base rate of pay of the employee's normal classification. Such cash benefit shall not be subject to contributions to any of the retirement systems, either by the employee or the employer.
(E) A full-time permanent employee who separates from state service or becomes ineligible to be credited with leave under this section shall receive a reduction of personal leave credit of one and two-tenths hours for each pay period that remains beginning with the first pay period following the date of separation or the effective date of the employee's ineligibility until the pay period preceding the next base pay period. After calculation of the reduction of an employee's personal leave credit, the employee is entitled to compensation for any remaining personal leave credit at the employee's current base rate of pay. If the reduction results in a number of hours less than zero, the cash equivalent value of such number of hours shall be deducted from any compensation that remains payable to the employee, or from the cash conversion value of any vacation or sick leave that remains credited to the employee. An employee serving in a temporary work level or an interim appointment who is eligible to receive compensation under this section shall be compensated at the base rate of pay of the employee's normal classification.
(F) An employee who transfers from one public agency to another public agency in which the employee is eligible for the credit provided under this section shall be credited with the unused balance of personal leave.
(G) The director of administrative services shall establish procedures to uniformly administer this section. No personal leave may be granted to a state employee upon or after retirement or termination of employment.
Sec. 124.387.  Each full-time permanent and part-time permanent employee whose salary or wage is paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management shall be granted three days of bereavement leave with pay upon the death of a member of the employee's immediate family. Compensation for bereavement leave shall be equal to the employee's base rate of pay.
Sec. 124.389.  The director of administrative services may establish an employee exchange program for employees whose salary or wage is paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management. The director of administrative services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to provide for the administration of the program.
Sec. 124.391.  (A) As used in this section, "paid leave" means sick leave, personal leave, or vacation leave.
(B) The director of administrative services may establish a program under which an employee paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management may donate that employee's accrued but unused paid leave to another employee paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management who has no accrued but unused paid leave and who has a critical need for it because of circumstances such as a serious illness or the serious illness of a member of the employee's immediate family.
If the director of administrative services establishes a leave donation program under this division, the director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to provide for the administration of the program. These rules shall include, but not be limited to, provisions that identify the circumstances under which leave may be donated and that specify the amount, types, and value of leave that may be donated.
(C) At the discretion of the appropriate legislative authority, a county may implement a leave donation program, as provided in this section, for all county agencies or for one or more designated agencies within the county.
Sec. 124.392.  (A) As used in this section, "exempt employee" has the same meaning as in section 124.152 of the Revised Code.
(B) The director of administrative services may establish a voluntary cost savings program for exempt employees. The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to provide for the administration of the program.
Sec. 124.82.  (A) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, the department of administrative services, in consultation with the superintendent of insurance, shall, in accordance with competitive selection procedures of Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, contract with an insurance company or a health plan in combination with an insurance company, authorized to do business in this state, for the issuance of a policy or contract of health, medical, hospital, dental, or surgical benefits, or any combination of those benefits, covering state employees who are paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management, including elected state officials. The department may fulfill its obligation under this division by exercising its authority under division (A)(2) of section 124.81 of the Revised Code.
(B) The department may, in addition, in consultation with the superintendent of insurance, negotiate and contract with health insuring corporations holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, in their approved service areas only, for issuance of a contract or contracts of health care services, covering state employees who are paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management, including elected state officials. Except for health insuring corporations, no more than The department may enter into contracts with one or more insurance carrier carriers or health plan shall be contracted with plans to provide the same plan of benefits, provided that:
(1) The amount of the premium or cost for such coverage contributed by the state, for an individual or for an individual and the individual's family, does not exceed that same amount of the premium or cost contributed by the state under division (A) of this section;
(2) The employee be permitted to exercise the option as to which plan the employee will select under division (A) or (B) of this section, at a time that shall be determined by the department;
(3) The health insuring corporations do not refuse to accept the employee, or the employee and the employee's family, if the employee exercises the option to select care provided by the corporations;
(4) The employee may choose participation in only one of the plans sponsored by the department;
(5) The director of health examines and certifies to the department that the quality and adequacy of care rendered by the health insuring corporations meet at least the standards of care provided by hospitals and physicians in that employee's community, who would be providing such care as would be covered by a contract awarded under division (A) of this section.
(C) All or any portion of the cost, premium, or charge for the coverage in divisions (A) and (B) of this section may be paid in such manner or combination of manners as the department determines and may include the proration of health care costs, premiums, or charges for part-time employees.
(D) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, the department may provide benefits equivalent to those that may be paid under a policy or contract issued by an insurance company or a health plan pursuant to division (A) of this section.
(E) This section does not prohibit the state office of collective bargaining from entering into an agreement with an employee representative for the purposes of providing fringe benefits, including, but not limited to, hospitalization, surgical care, major medical care, disability, dental care, vision care, medical care, hearing aids, prescription drugs, group life insurance, sickness and accident insurance, group legal services or other benefits, or any combination of those benefits, to employees paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management through a jointly administered trust fund. The employer's contribution for the cost of the benefit care shall be mutually agreed to in the collectively bargained agreement. The amount, type, and structure of fringe benefits provided under this division is subject to the determination of the board of trustees of the jointly administered trust fund. Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, competitive bidding does not apply to the purchase of fringe benefits for employees under this division when those benefits are provided through a jointly administered trust fund.
(F) Members of state boards or commissions may be covered by any policy, contract, or plan of benefits or services described in division (A) or (B) of this section. Board or commission members who are appointed for a fixed term and who are compensated on a per meeting basis, or paid only for expenses, or receive a combination of per diem payments and expenses shall pay the entire amount of the premiums, costs, or charges for that coverage.
Sec. 124.821.  Each state agency shall pay the monthly enrollee premium for medical insurance coverage under Part B of "The Social Security Amendments of 1965," 79 Stat. 301, 42 U.S.C. 1395j, as amended, for state employees and elected state officials who are employed by or serve in the agency, are paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management, are sixty-five years of age or older, and are participating in the program of health insurance for the aged under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286, 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended. The cost of the premiums shall not be deducted from any employee's or official's wage or salary.
The director of administrative services shall uniformly administer this section and shall, by rule, establish procedures for carrying out such administration.
Sec. 124.823.  The department of administrative services shall establish a pilot program under which it includes medical savings accounts as part of any package of health care benefit options offered to state employees and state elected officials paid by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management. Except for the provisions in divisions (A) and (B) of section 3924.64 of the Revised Code concerning designation of an administrator, a medical savings account established as part of the program is subject to sections 3924.64 to 3924.74 of the Revised Code.
The department is not required to offer the medical savings account option to any state employee who is covered under a collective bargaining agreement entered into pursuant to Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, but a medical savings account option may be part of a package of health care benefit options offered pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement. The department may limit enrollment in the medical savings account program and may require state employees enrolled in it to contribute to their medical savings accounts. The department shall make both individual and family coverage available through the accounts. The program shall not increase the cost of providing health insurance to state employees. The department may end the program at any time not sooner than two years after it is established, except that the department may not end the program prior to providing six months' notice to the speaker of the house of representatives, president of the senate, minority leader of the house and minority leader of the senate, and the chairs of the standing committees of the senate and house of representatives with primary responsibility for health and insurance legislation.
A state employee who chooses the medical savings account option shall have any state health, medical, hospital, dental, surgical, and vision benefits for which the employee is eligible provided through the medical savings account. The department, under section 124.81 or 124.82 of the Revised Code, shall contract for or otherwise provide a high-deductible policy or contract through which those benefits can be paid.
The employee for whom a medical savings account is opened shall at the time the account is opened choose an administrator from a list of administrators designated by the department, one of which may be the insurer from which the department purchases the high-deductible policy or contract. If the employee fails to choose an administrator, the department shall designate an administrator.
If an elected state official whose term commenced prior to the establishment of the program elects to participate in the medical savings account program, participation shall commence at the beginning of the term following establishment of the program.
Sec. 124.84.  (A) The department of administrative services, in consultation with the superintendent of insurance and subject to division (D) of this section, shall negotiate and contract with one or more insurance companies or health insuring corporations authorized to operate or do business in this state for the purchase of a policy of long-term care insurance covering all state employees who are paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management, including elected state officials. Any policy purchased under this division shall be negotiated and entered into in accordance with the competitive selection procedures specified in Chapter 125. of the Revised Code. As used in this section, "long-term care insurance" has the same meaning as in section 3923.41 of the Revised Code.
(B) Any elected state official or state employee paid directly by warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management may elect to participate in any long-term care insurance policy purchased under division (A) of this section. All or any portion of the premium charged may be paid by the state. Participation in the policy may include the dependents and family members of the elected state official or state employee.
If a participant in a long-term care insurance policy leaves employment, the participant and the participant's dependents and family members may, at their election, continue to participate in a policy established under this section. The manner of payment and the portion of premium charged the participant, dependent, and family member shall be established pursuant to division (E) of this section.
(C) Any long-term care insurance policy purchased under this section or section 124.841 or 145.581 of the Revised Code shall provide for all of the following with respect to the premiums charged for the policy:
(1) They shall be set at the entry age of the official or employee when first covered by the policy and shall not increase except as a class during coverage under the policy.
(2) They shall be based on the class of all officials or employees covered by the policy.
(3) They shall continue, pursuant to section 145.581 of the Revised Code, after the retirement of the official or employee who is covered under the policy, at the rate in effect on the date of the official's or employee's retirement.
(D) Prior to entering into a contract with an insurance company or health insuring corporation for the purchase of a long-term care insurance policy under this section, the department shall request the superintendent of insurance to certify the financial condition of the company or corporation. The department shall not enter into the contract if, according to that certification, the company or corporation is insolvent, is determined by the superintendent to be potentially unable to fulfill its contractual obligations, or is placed under an order of rehabilitation or conservation by a court of competent jurisdiction or under an order of supervision by the superintendent.
(E) The department shall adopt rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code governing long-term care insurance purchased under this section. All or any portion of the premium charged the participants, dependents, and family members shall be paid in such manner or combination of manners as the department determines.
Sec. 124.87.  (A) There is hereby established in the state treasury the state employee health benefit fund for the sole purpose of enabling the department of administrative services to provide state employees with any benefits specified in division (A) of section 124.82 of the Revised Code.
(B) The fund shall be under the supervision of the department. The department shall be responsible, under approved bonds, for all moneys coming into, and paid out of, the fund in accordance with this section and shall ensure that the fund is actuarially sound. Amounts from the fund may be used to pay direct and indirect costs that are attributable to consultants or a third-party administrator administrators and that are necessary to administer this section.
(C) In carrying out its duties and responsibilities, the department shall do the following:
(1) Adopt rules with regard to the administration of the fund;
(2) With respect to benefits specified in division (A) of section 124.82 of the Revised Code, enter into a contract with a company authorized to do the business of sickness and accident insurance under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code or a professional claim administrator, to serve as administrator of that portion of the fund set aside to provide such those benefits. As used in this division, a "professional claim administrator" means any person that has experience in the handling of insurance claims and has been determined by the department to be fully qualified, financially sound, and capable of meeting all of the service requirements of the contract of administration under such criteria as may be established by rules adopted by the department. With respect to the benefits specified in division (A) of section 124.82 of the Revised Code, if the fund is the secondary payor of these benefits, the amount the professional claim administrator may pay is limited to an amount that will yield a benefit no greater than the amount that would have been paid if the fund were the primary payor of these benefits.
(3) Adopt rules governing the conditions under which an employee may participate in or withdraw from the fund, and the procedure by which the employee is to contribute to the fund;
(4) Adopt rules to ensure that the fund is actuarially sound;
(5) Adopt rules to ensure the integrity of the fund, and to ensure that the fund be used solely for the purpose specified in division (A) of this section.
The department shall adopt all rules pursuant to this section in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(D) Amounts withheld from employees, amounts contributed by the state or from federal funds, and all amounts contributed by any state authority, shall be credited to the fund. All other income, including the income derived from any dividends and distributions, interest earned, premium rate adjustments, or other refunds, shall also be credited to the fund. Any amounts remaining in the fund after all premiums or subscription charges, and other expenses have been paid, shall be retained in the fund as a special reserve for adverse fluctuation.
(E) All income derived from the investment of the fund shall accrue to the fund.
(F) The department shall have prepared every year, by a competent actuary familiar with health and life insurance, a report showing a complete actuarial evaluation of the fund and the adequacy of the rates of contribution, which report shall contain such recommendations as the actuary considers advisable. The department may at any time may request the actuary to make any studies or evaluations to determine the adequacy of the rates of contribution, and such those rates may be adjusted by the department, as recommended by the actuary, effective as of the first of any fiscal year thereafter.
Sec. 125.21.  The director of administrative services shall process payroll information for the purpose of payment for personal services of state officials and employees on the basis of rates of pay determined by pertinent law, the director, or other competent authority.
Calculation of payrolls may be made after the conclusion of each pay period based upon the amount of time served as certified by the appropriate appointing authority. Payment for personal service rendered by an official or employee during any pay period shall be made no later than at the conclusion of the official's or employee's next succeeding pay period.
The director of administrative services shall furnish to the auditor of state director of budget and management all necessary data for drawing state official and employee pay warrants and preparing earning statements. These data shall include the rate at which paid; the time for which paid, including overtime and any other adjustments affecting the official's or employee's gross pay; all taxes withheld, including, whenever practicable, year-to-date figures on all taxes withheld; the amount of contribution to the appropriate retirement system; any voluntary deductions made in accordance with authorizations filed by the official or employee; and whether a direct deposit is to be made in accordance with an authorization filed by the official or employee.
Amounts deducted from the salaries or wages of all officials and employees shall be transferred to the payroll withholding fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury for the purpose of consolidating all such deductions made in any month. Payments from this fund shall be made at intervals for the intended purpose of the deduction or for refund where it is determined that deductions were made in error.
Sec. 126.07.  No contract, agreement, or obligation involving the expenditure of money chargeable to an appropriation, nor any resolution or order for the expenditure of money chargeable to an appropriation, shall be valid and enforceable unless the director of budget and management first certifies that there is a balance in the appropriation not already obligated to pay existing obligations, in an amount at least equal to the portion of the contract, agreement, obligation, resolution, or order to be performed in the current fiscal year. Any written contract or agreement entered into by the state shall contain a clause stating that the obligations of the state are subject to this section.
In order to make a payment from the state treasury, a state agency shall first submit to the director all invoices, claims, vouchers, and other evidentiary matter related to the payment. If the director approves payment to be made, the director shall submit the approval to the auditor of state for the drawing of draw a warrant as provided in section 117.45 126.35 of the Revised Code. The director shall not approve payment to be made if the director finds that there is not an unobligated balance in the appropriation for the payment, that the payment is not for a valid claim against the state that is legally due, or that insufficient evidentiary matter has been submitted. If the director does not approve payment, the director shall notify the agency of the reasons the director has not given approval.
In approving payments to be made under this section, the director, upon receipt of certification from the director of job and family services pursuant to section 4141.231 of the Revised Code, shall withhold from amounts otherwise payable to a person who is the subject of the director of jobs and family services' certification, the amount certified to be due and unpaid to the director of job and family services, and shall approve for payment to the director of job and family services, the amount withheld.
Sec. 126.21.  (A) The director of budget and management shall do all of the following:
(1) Keep all necessary accounting records;
(2) Prescribe and maintain the accounting system of the state and establish appropriate accounting procedures and charts of accounts;
(3) Establish procedures for the use of written, electronic, optical, or other communications media for approving payment vouchers;
(4) Reconcile, in the case of any variation between the amount of any appropriation and the aggregate amount of items of the appropriation, with the advice and assistance of the state agency affected by it and the legislative service commission, totals so as to correspond in the aggregate with the total appropriation. In the case of a conflict between the item and the total of which it is a part, the item shall be considered the intended appropriation.
(5) Evaluate on an ongoing basis and, if necessary, recommend improvements to the internal controls used in state agencies;
(6) Authorize the establishment of petty cash accounts. The director of budget and management may withdraw approval for any petty cash account and require the officer in charge to return to the state treasury any unexpended balance shown by the officer's accounts to be on hand. Any officer who is issued a warrant for petty cash shall render a detailed account of the expenditures of the petty cash and shall report when requested the balance of petty cash on hand at any time.
(7) Process orders, invoices, vouchers, claims, and payrolls and prepare financial reports and statements;
(8) Perform extensions, reviews, and compliance checks prior to approving a payment as the director considers necessary;
(9) Issue the official comprehensive annual financial report of the state. The report shall cover all funds of the state reporting entity and shall include basic financial statements and required supplementary information prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and other information as the director provides. All state agencies, authorities, institutions, offices, retirement systems, and other component units of the state reporting entity as determined by the director shall furnish the director whatever financial statements and other information the director requests for the report, in the form, at the times, covering the periods, and with the attestation the director prescribes. The information for state institutions of higher education, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, shall be submitted to the director by the Ohio board of regents. The board shall establish a due date by which each such institution shall submit the information to the board, but no such date shall be later than one hundred twenty days after the end of the state fiscal year unless a later date is approved by the director.
(B) In addition to the director's duties under division (A) of this section, the director of budget and management may establish and administer one or more state payment card programs that permit or require state agencies to use a payment card to purchase equipment, materials, supplies, or services in accordance with guidelines issued by the director. The director may contract with one or more vendors to provide the payment cards and payment card services. State agencies may only participate in state payment card programs that the director establishes pursuant to this section.
(C) In addition to the director's duties under divisions (A) and (B) of this section, the director may enter into any contract or agreement necessary for and incidental to the performance of the director's duties or the duties of the office of budget and management.
Sec. 126.22.  The director of budget and management may:
(A) Perform or contract for accounting services for and design and implement accounting systems with state agencies;
(B) Provide other accounting services, including the preparation and submission of reports;
(C) Change any accounting code appearing in appropriations acts of the general assembly.
Sec. 117.45 126.35 (A) The auditor of state director of budget and management shall draw warrants against the treasurer of state pursuant to all requests for payment that the director of budget and management has approved under section 126.07 of the Revised Code.
(B) Unless the director of job and family services has provided for the making of payments by electronic benefit transfer, if a financial institution and account have been designated by the participant or recipient, payment by the auditor of state director of budget and management to a participant in the Ohio works first program pursuant to Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code or a recipient of disability financial assistance pursuant to Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code shall be made by direct deposit to the account of the participant or recipient in the financial institution. Payment by the auditor of state director of budget and management to a recipient of benefits distributed through the medium of electronic benefit transfer pursuant to section 5101.33 of the Revised Code shall be by electronic benefit transfer. Payment by the auditor of state director of budget and management as compensation to an employee of the state who has, pursuant to section 124.151 of the Revised Code, designated a financial institution and account for the direct deposit of such payments shall be made by direct deposit to the account of the employee. Payment to any other payee who has designated a financial institution and account for the direct deposit of such payment may be made by direct deposit to the account of the payee in the financial institution as provided in section 9.37 of the Revised Code. The auditor of state shall contract with an authorized financial institution for the services necessary to make direct deposits or electronic benefit transfers under this division and draw lump sum warrants payable to that institution in the amount to be transferred. Accounts maintained by the auditor of state director of budget and management or the auditor of state's director's agent in a financial institution for the purpose of effectuating payment by direct deposit or electronic benefit transfer shall be maintained in accordance with section 135.18 of the Revised Code.
(C) All other payments from the state treasury shall be made by paper warrants or by direct deposit payable to the respective payees. The auditor of state director of budget and management may mail the paper warrants to the respective payees or distribute them through other state agencies, whichever the auditor of state director determines to be the better procedure.
(D) If the average per transaction cost the auditor of state director of budget and management incurs in making direct deposits for a state agency exceeds the average per transaction cost the auditor of state director incurs in drawing paper warrants for all public offices during the same period of time, the auditor of state director may certify the difference in cost and the number of direct deposits for the agency to the director of administrative services. The director of administrative services shall reimburse the auditor of state director of budget and management for such additional costs and add the amount to the processing charge assessed upon the state agency.
Sec. 117.46 126.36 If the auditor of state director of budget and management is satisfied, by affidavit or otherwise, that any warrant on the state treasury drawn by him the director has been lost or destroyed prior to its presentation for payment, he the director may issue to the proper person a replacement of the lost or destroyed warrant; provided, that before issuing the replacement, he the director shall require that the person making application therefor execute a formal agreement to indemnify the state for any loss or damage sustained on account of the issuance of the replacement and the subsequent presentation and payment of the original. The form of the agreement shall be prepared by the attorney general. The agreement when executed shall be filed with the auditor of state director. The treasurer of state shall not be liable because of his paying the payment of any replacement warrant drawn under this section.
Sec. 117.47 126.37 (A) The auditor of state director of budget and management shall void any warrant he the director draws on the state treasury pursuant to Chapter 5733. or 5747. of the Revised Code that is not presented for payment to the treasurer of state within two years after the date of issuance and shall void any other warrant he the director draws on the state treasury that is not presented to the treasurer of state within ninety days after the date of issuance.
(B) If a warrant voided pursuant to division (A) of this section was drawn against an appropriation of the current fiscal year and the holder of the voided warrant presents the warrant for reissuance, in the same fiscal year, to the state agency that made the payment originally, the agency shall prepare a voucher for the holder of the voided warrant, in the amount shown on the warrant that has been voided, against the same appropriation of the same fiscal year if the agency is satisfied that payment is proper.
(C) If a warrant was drawn against an appropriation of the first fiscal year of the fiscal biennium and voided pursuant to division (A) of this section in either fiscal year of the biennium and if the holder of the voided warrant presents the warrant for reissuance, in the second fiscal year of the biennium, to the state agency that made the payment originally, the agency shall prepare a voucher for the holder of the voided warrant, in the amount shown on the warrant that has been voided, against funds transferred to the agency by the director of budget and management pursuant to section 131.33 of the Revised Code, if the agency is satisfied that payment is proper. If no such funds are available for transfer, the agency shall prepare the voucher against any unexpended appropriations of the current fiscal year available to it.
(D) If a warrant was drawn against an appropriation and, during the same biennium, was voided pursuant to division (A) of this section, and if, after that biennium, the holder of the voided warrant presents the warrant for reissuance to the state agency that made the payment originally, the agency shall prepare a voucher for the holder of the voided warrant, in the amount shown on the warrant that has been voided, against any appropriation of the current fiscal year made to the agency if the agency is satisfied that payment is proper.
(E) If a warrant voided pursuant to division (A) of this section was drawn against an appropriation of a previous fiscal year and voided after that fiscal biennium and if the holder of the voided warrant presents the warrant for reissuance to the state agency that made the payment originally, the agency shall forward the warrant to the director of budget and management with a request for reissuance. The director shall make payment to the holder of the voided warrant, in the amount shown on the warrant that has been voided, against an appropriation of the current fiscal year made to the director of budget and management for the reissuance of voided warrants, if the director of budget and management is satisfied that reissuance of the warrant is proper.
Sec. 117.48 126.38 The auditor of state director of budget and management shall furnish an earnings statement with each pay warrant issued to a state employee paid on a payroll voucher. The statement shall include a summary of the earnings information provided to the auditor of state director pursuant to section 125.21 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 131.01.  As used in Chapters 113., 117., 123., 124., 125., 126., 127., and 131. of the Revised Code, and any statute that uses the terms in connection with state accounting or budgeting:
(A) "Account" means any record, element, or summary in which financial transactions are identified and recorded as debit or credit transactions in order to summarize items of a similar nature or classification.
(B) "Accounting procedure" means the arrangement of all processes which discover, record, and summarize financial information to produce financial statements and reports and to provide internal control.
(C) "Accounting system" means the total structure of records and procedures which discover, record, classify, and report information on the financial position and operations of a governmental unit or any of its funds and organizational components.
(D) "Allocation" means a portion of an appropriation which is designated for expenditure by specific organizational units or for special purposes, activities, or objects that do not relate to a period of time.
(E) "Allotment" means all or part of an appropriation which may be encumbered or expended within a specific period of time.
(F) "Appropriation" means an authorization granted by the general assembly to make expenditures and to incur obligations for specific purposes.
(G) "Assets" means resources owned, controlled, or otherwise used or held by the state which have monetary value.
(H) "Budget" means the plan of financial operation embodying an estimate of proposed expenditures and obligations for a given period and the proposed means of financing them.
(I) "Direct deposit" is a form of electronic funds transfer in which money is electronically deposited into the account of a person or entity at a financial institution.
(J) "Disbursement" means a payment made for any purpose.
(K) "Electronic benefit transfer" means the electronic delivery of benefits through automated teller machines, point of sale terminals, or other electronic media pursuant to section 5101.33 of the Revised Code.
(L) "Electronic funds transfer" means the electronic movement of funds via automated clearing house or wire transfer.
(M) "Encumbrancing document" means a document reserving all or part of an appropriation.
(N) "Expenditure" means a reduction of the balance of an appropriation after legal requirements have been met.
(O) "Fund" means an independent fiscal and accounting entity with a self-balancing set of accounts recording cash or other resources, together with all related liabilities, obligations, reserves, and fund balances which are segregated for the purpose of carrying on specific activities or attaining certain objectives in accordance with special rules, restrictions, or limitations.
(P) "Lapse" means the automatic termination of an appropriation at the end of the fiscal period for which it was appropriated.
(Q) "Reappropriation" means an appropriation of a previous appropriation that is continued in force in a succeeding appropriation period. "Reappropriation" shall be equated with and incorporated in the term "appropriation."
(R) "Voucher" means the document used to transmit a claim for payment and evidentiary matter related to the claim.
(S) "Warrant" means an order drawn upon the treasurer of state by the auditor of state director of budget and management directing the treasurer of state to pay a specified amount, including an order to make a lump-sum payment to a financial institution for the transfer of funds by direct deposit or the drawdown of funds by electronic benefit transfer, and the resulting electronic transfer to or by the ultimate payees.
The terms defined in this section shall be used, on all accounting forms, reports, formal rules, and budget requests produced by a state agency, only as defined in this section.
Sec. 131.02. (A) Whenever Except as otherwise provided in section 4123.37 and division (J) of section 4123.511 of the Revised Code, whenever any amount is payable to the state, the officer, employee, or agent responsible for administering the law under which the amount is payable shall immediately proceed to collect the amount or cause the amount to be collected and shall pay the amount into the state treasury or into the appropriate custodial fund in the manner set forth pursuant to section 113.08 of the Revised Code. Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the amount is not paid within forty-five days after payment is due, the officer, employee, or agent shall certify the amount due to the attorney general, in the form and manner prescribed by the attorney general, and notify the director of budget and management thereof. In the case of an amount payable by a student enrolled in a state institution of higher education, the amount shall be certified within the later of forty-five days after the amount is due or the tenth day after the beginning of the next academic semester, quarter, or other session following the session for which the payment is payable. The attorney general may assess the collection cost to the amount certified in such manner and amount as prescribed by the attorney general.
For the purposes of this section, the attorney general and the officer, employee, or agent responsible for administering the law under which the amount is payable shall agree on the time a payment is due, and that agreed upon time shall be one of the following times:
(1) If a law, including an administrative rule, of this state prescribes the time a payment is required to be made or reported, when the payment is required by that law to be paid or reported.
(2) If the payment is for services rendered, when the rendering of the services is completed.
(3) If the payment is reimbursement for a loss, when the loss is incurred.
(4) In the case of a fine or penalty for which a law or administrative rule does not prescribe a time for payment, when the fine or penalty is first assessed.
(5) If the payment arises from a legal finding, judgment, or adjudication order, when the finding, judgment, or order is rendered or issued.
(6) If the payment arises from an overpayment of money by the state to another person, when the overpayment is discovered.
(7) The date on which the amount for which an individual is personally liable under section 5735.35, section 5739.33, or division (G) of section 5747.07 of the Revised Code is determined.
(8) Upon proof of claim being filed in a bankruptcy case.
(9) Any other appropriate time determined by the attorney general and the officer, employee, or agent responsible for administering the law under which the amount is payable on the basis of statutory requirements or ordinary business processes of the state agency to which the payment is owed.
(B)(1) The attorney general shall give immediate notice by mail or otherwise to the party indebted of the nature and amount of the indebtedness.
(2) If the amount payable to this state arises from a tax levied under Chapter 5733., 5739., 5741., or 5747. of the Revised Code, the notice also shall specify all of the following:
(a) The assessment or case number;
(b) The tax pursuant to which the assessment is made;
(c) The reason for the liability, including, if applicable, that a penalty or interest is due;
(d) An explanation of how and when interest will be added to the amount assessed;
(e) That the attorney general and tax commissioner, acting together, have the authority, but are not required, to compromise the claim and accept payment over a reasonable time, if such actions are in the best interest of the state.
(C) The attorney general shall collect the claim or secure a judgment and issue an execution for its collection.
(D) Each claim shall bear interest, from the day on which the claim became due, at the rate per annum required by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code.
(E) The attorney general and the chief officer of the agency reporting a claim, acting together, may do any of the following if such action is in the best interests of the state:
(1) Compromise the claim;
(2) Extend for a reasonable period the time for payment of the claim by agreeing to accept monthly or other periodic payments. The agreement may require security for payment of the claim.
(3) Add fees to recover the cost of processing checks or other draft instruments returned for insufficient funds and the cost of providing electronic payment options.
(F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, if the attorney general finds, after investigation, that any claim due and owing to the state is uncollectible, the attorney general, with the consent of the chief officer of the agency reporting the claim, may do the following:
(a) Sell, convey, or otherwise transfer the claim to one or more private entities for collection;
(b) Cancel the claim or cause it to be cancelled canceled.
(2) The attorney general shall cancel or cause to be cancelled canceled an unsatisfied claim on the date that is forty years after the date the claim is certified.
(3) If information contained in a claim that is sold, conveyed, or transferred to a private entity pursuant to this section is confidential pursuant to federal law or a section of the Revised Code that implements a federal law governing confidentiality, such information remains subject to that law during and following the sale, conveyance, or transfer.
Sec. 131.022. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Final overdue claim" means a claim that has been certified to the attorney general under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, that has been final for at least one year, and for which no arrangements have been made for the payment of the claim or, if arrangements for the payment of the claim have been made, the person owing the claim has failed to comply with the terms of the arrangement for more than thirty days.
"Final overdue claim" includes collection costs incurred with respect to the claim that is the basis of the final overdue claim and assessed by the attorney general under division (A) of section 131.02 of the Revised Code, interest accreting to the claim under division (D) of that section, and fees added under division (E)(3) of that section.
(2) "Final" means a claim has been finalized under the law providing for the imposition or determination of the amount due, and any time provided for appeal of the amount, legality, or validity of the claim has expired without an appeal having been filed in the manner provided by law. "Final" includes, but is not limited to, a final determination of the tax commissioner for which the time for appeal has expired without a notice of appeal having been filed.
(B) If a claim is certified to the attorney general under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, at any time after the claim is a final overdue claim, the attorney general may, subject to the approval of the chief officer of the agency reporting the claim and of the controlling board, sell the claim to any person through a competitive process. If federal funds comprise all or a part of the claim, it may not be sold unless the chief officer determines that the sale of the claim will not have an adverse financial impact on the state due to any requirement of the state to repay the federal funds to the federal government.
(C) The attorney general may consolidate any number of final overdue claims for sale under this section.
(D) Not less than sixty days before first offering a final overdue claim for sale, the attorney general shall provide written notice, by ordinary mail, to the person owing the claim at that person's last known mailing address. The notice shall state the following:
(1) The nature and amount of the claim;
(2) The manner in which the person may contact the office of the attorney general to arrange terms for payment of the claim;
(3) That if the person does not contact the office of the attorney general within sixty days after the date the notice is issued and arrange terms of payment of the claim all of the following apply:
(a) The attorney general will offer the claim for sale to a private party for collection by that party by any legal means;
(b) The person is deemed to be denied any right to seek and obtain a refund of any amount from which the claim arises if the applicable law otherwise allows for a refund of that nature;
(c) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, the person is deemed to waive any right the person may have to confidentiality of information regarding the claim to the extent confidentiality is provided under any other section of the Revised Code.
(E) Upon the sale of a final overdue claim under this section, the claim becomes the property of the purchaser, and the purchaser may sell or otherwise transfer the claim to any other person or otherwise dispose of the claim. The owner of the claim is entitled to all proceeds from the collection of the claim, except the owner of the claim shall reimburse the state for costs it incurs after the sale of the claim in assisting or facilitating the collection of the claim including, without limitation, costs of time expended by state employees. Purchasers or transferees of a final overdue claim are subject to any applicable laws governing collection of debts of the kind represented by the claim.
(F) Upon the sale or transfer of a final overdue claim under this section, no refund shall be issued or paid to the person owing the claim for any part of the amount from which the claim arises. The sale or transfer of a claim under this section or division (F) of section 131.02 of the Revised Code shall not compromise any criminal, civil, or administrative action initiated by the state against any person owing the claim.
(G) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, and notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, the attorney general, solely for the purpose of effecting the sale or transfer of a final overdue claim under this section, may disclose information about the person owing the claim that otherwise would be confidential under a section of the Revised Code, and the person shall have no right of action against that disclosure to the extent a right of that nature is available under that section.
(H) The authority granted under this section is supplemental to the authority granted under section 131.02 of the Revised Code.
(I) If information contained in a claim that is sold, conveyed, or transferred to a private entity pursuant to this section is confidential pursuant to federal law or a section of the Revised Code that implements a federal law governing confidentiality, such information remains subject to that law during and following the sale, conveyance, or transfer. A private entity to which a claim is sold, conveyed, or transferred is bound by all federal and state confidentiality requirements concerning such information.
Sec. 131.33.  No state agency shall incur an obligation which exceeds the agency's current appropriation authority. Unexpended balances of appropriations shall, at the close of the period for which the appropriations are made, revert to the funds from which the appropriations were made, except that the director of budget and management shall transfer such unexpended balances from the first fiscal year to the second fiscal year of an agency's appropriations to the extent necessary for voided warrants to be reissued pursuant to division (C) of section 117.47 126.37 of the Revised Code.
Except as provided in this section, appropriations made to a specific fiscal year shall be expended only to pay liabilities incurred within that fiscal year.
All payrolls shall be charged to the allotments of the fiscal quarters in which the applicable payroll vouchers are certified by the director of budget and management in accordance with section 126.07 of the Revised Code. As used in this section, "payrolls" means any payment made in accordance with section 125.21 of the Revised Code.
Legal liabilities from prior fiscal years for which there is no reappropriation authority shall be discharged from the unencumbered balances of current appropriations.
Sec. 133.01.  As used in this chapter, in sections 9.95, 9.96, and 2151.655 of the Revised Code, in other sections of the Revised Code that make reference to this chapter unless the context does not permit, and in related proceedings, unless otherwise expressly provided:
(A) "Acquisition" as applied to real or personal property includes, among other forms of acquisition, acquisition by exercise of a purchase option, and acquisition of interests in property, including, without limitation, easements and rights-of-way, and leasehold and other lease interests initially extending or extendable for a period of at least sixty months.
(B) "Anticipatory securities" means securities, including notes, issued in anticipation of the issuance of other securities.
(C) "Board of elections" means the county board of elections of the county in which the subdivision is located. If the subdivision is located in more than one county, "board of elections" means the county board of elections of the county that contains the largest portion of the population of the subdivision or that otherwise has jurisdiction in practice over and customarily handles election matters relating to the subdivision.
(D) "Bond retirement fund" means the bond retirement fund provided for in section 5705.09 of the Revised Code, and also means a sinking fund or any other special fund, regardless of the name applied to it, established by or pursuant to law or the proceedings for the payment of debt charges. Provision may be made in the applicable proceedings for the establishment in a bond retirement fund of separate accounts relating to debt charges on particular securities, or on securities payable from the same or common sources, and for the application of moneys in those accounts only to specified debt charges on specified securities or categories of securities. Subject to law and any provisions in the applicable proceedings, moneys in a bond retirement fund or separate account in a bond retirement fund may be transferred to other funds and accounts.
(E) "Capitalized interest" means all or a portion of the interest payable on securities from their date to a date stated or provided for in the applicable legislation, which interest is to be paid from the proceeds of the securities.
(F) "Chapter 133. securities" means securities authorized by or issued pursuant to or in accordance with this chapter.
(G) "County auditor" means the county auditor of the county in which the subdivision is located. If the subdivision is located in more than one county, "county auditor" means the county auditor of the county that contains the highest amount of the tax valuation of the subdivision or that otherwise has jurisdiction in practice over and customarily handles property tax matters relating to the subdivision. In the case of a county that has adopted a charter, "county auditor" means the officer who generally has the duties and functions provided in the Revised Code for a county auditor.
(H) "Credit enhancement facilities" means letters of credit, lines of credit, stand-by, contingent, or firm securities purchase agreements, insurance, or surety arrangements, guarantees, and other arrangements that provide for direct or contingent payment of debt charges, for security or additional security in the event of nonpayment or default in respect of securities, or for making payment of debt charges to and at the option and on demand of securities holders or at the option of the issuer or upon certain conditions occurring under put or similar arrangements, or for otherwise supporting the credit or liquidity of the securities, and includes credit, reimbursement, marketing, remarketing, indexing, carrying, interest rate hedge, and subrogation agreements, and other agreements and arrangements for payment and reimbursement of the person providing the credit enhancement facility and the security for that payment and reimbursement.
(I) "Current operating expenses" or "current expenses" means the lawful expenditures of a subdivision, except those for permanent improvements and for payments of debt charges of the subdivision.
(J) "Debt charges" means the principal, including any mandatory sinking fund deposits and mandatory redemption payments, interest, and any redemption premium, payable on securities as those payments come due and are payable. The use of "debt charges" for this purpose does not imply that any particular securities constitute debt within the meaning of the Ohio Constitution or other laws.
(K) "Financing costs" means all costs and expenses relating to the authorization, including any required election, issuance, sale, delivery, authentication, deposit, custody, clearing, registration, transfer, exchange, fractionalization, replacement, payment, and servicing of securities, including, without limitation, costs and expenses for or relating to publication and printing, postage, delivery, preliminary and final official statements, offering circulars, and informational statements, travel and transportation, underwriters, placement agents, investment bankers, paying agents, registrars, authenticating agents, remarketing agents, custodians, clearing agencies or corporations, securities depositories, financial advisory services, certifications, audits, federal or state regulatory agencies, accounting and computation services, legal services and obtaining approving legal opinions and other legal opinions, credit ratings, redemption premiums, and credit enhancement facilities. Financing costs may be paid from any moneys available for the purpose, including, unless otherwise provided in the proceedings, from the proceeds of the securities to which they relate and, as to future financing costs, from the same sources from which debt charges on the securities are paid and as though debt charges.
(L) "Fiscal officer" means the following, or, in the case of absence or vacancy in the office, a deputy or assistant authorized by law or charter to act in the place of the named officer, or if there is no such authorization then the deputy or assistant authorized by legislation to act in the place of the named officer for purposes of this chapter, in the case of the following subdivisions:
(1) A county, the county auditor;
(2) A municipal corporation, the city auditor or village clerk or clerk-treasurer, or the officer who, by virtue of a charter, has the duties and functions provided in the Revised Code for the city auditor or village clerk or clerk-treasurer;
(3) A school district, the treasurer of the board of education;
(4) A regional water and sewer district, the secretary of the board of trustees;
(5) A joint township hospital district, the treasurer of the district;
(6) A joint ambulance district, the clerk of the board of trustees;
(7) A joint recreation district, the person designated pursuant to section 755.15 of the Revised Code;
(8) A detention facility district or a district organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code or a combined district organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, the county auditor of the county designated by law to act as the auditor of the district;
(9) A township, a fire district organized under division (C) of section 505.37 of the Revised Code, or a township police district, the fiscal officer of the township;
(10) A joint fire district, the clerk of the board of trustees of that district;
(11) A regional or county library district, the person responsible for the financial affairs of that district;
(12) A joint solid waste management district, the fiscal officer appointed by the board of directors of the district under section 343.01 of the Revised Code;
(13) A joint emergency medical services district, the person appointed as fiscal officer pursuant to division (D) of section 307.053 of the Revised Code;
(14) A fire and ambulance district, the person appointed as fiscal officer under division (B) of section 505.375 of the Revised Code;
(15) A subdivision described in division (MM)(17) of this section, the officer who is designated by law as or performs the functions of its chief fiscal officer.
(M) "Fiscal year" has the same meaning as in section 9.34 of the Revised Code.
(N) "Fractionalized interests in public obligations" means participations, certificates of participation, shares, or other instruments or agreements, separate from the public obligations themselves, evidencing ownership of interests in public obligations or of rights to receive payments of, or on account of, principal or interest or their equivalents payable by or on behalf of an obligor pursuant to public obligations.
(O) "Fully registered securities" means securities in certificated or uncertificated form, registered as to both principal and interest in the name of the owner.
(P) "Fund" means to provide for the payment of debt charges and expenses related to that payment at or prior to retirement by purchase, call for redemption, payment at maturity, or otherwise.
(Q) "General obligation" means securities to the payment of debt charges on which the full faith and credit and the general property taxing power, including taxes within the tax limitation if available to the subdivision, of the subdivision are pledged.
(R) "Interest" or "interest equivalent" means those payments or portions of payments, however denominated, that constitute or represent consideration for forbearing the collection of money, or for deferring the receipt of payment of money to a future time.
(S) "Internal Revenue Code" means the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1 et seq., as amended, and includes any laws of the United States providing for application of that code.
(T) "Issuer" means any public issuer and any nonprofit corporation authorized to issue securities for or on behalf of any public issuer.
(U) "Legislation" means an ordinance or resolution passed by a majority affirmative vote of the then members of the taxing authority unless a different vote is required by charter provisions governing the passage of the particular legislation by the taxing authority.
(V) "Mandatory sinking fund redemption requirements" means amounts required by proceedings to be deposited in a bond retirement fund for the purpose of paying in any year or fiscal year by mandatory redemption prior to stated maturity the principal of securities that is due and payable, except for mandatory prior redemption requirements as provided in those proceedings, in a subsequent year or fiscal year.
(W) "Mandatory sinking fund requirements" means amounts required by proceedings to be deposited in a year or fiscal year in a bond retirement fund for the purpose of paying the principal of securities that is due and payable in a subsequent year or fiscal year.
(X) "Net indebtedness" has the same meaning as in division (A) of section 133.04 of the Revised Code.
(Y) "Obligor," in the case of securities or fractionalized interests in public obligations issued by another person the debt charges or their equivalents on which are payable from payments made by a public issuer, means that public issuer.
(Z) "One purpose" relating to permanent improvements means any one permanent improvement or group or category of permanent improvements for the same utility, enterprise, system, or project, development or redevelopment project, or for or devoted to the same general purpose, function, or use or for which self-supporting securities, based on the same or different sources of revenues, may be issued or for which special assessments may be levied by a single ordinance or resolution. "One purpose" includes, but is not limited to, in any case any off-street parking facilities relating to another permanent improvement, and:
(1) Any number of roads, highways, streets, bridges, sidewalks, and viaducts;
(2) Any number of off-street parking facilities;
(3) In the case of a county, any number of permanent improvements for courthouse, jail, county offices, and other county buildings, and related facilities;
(4) In the case of a school district, any number of facilities and buildings for school district purposes, and related facilities.
(AA) "Outstanding," referring to securities, means securities that have been issued, delivered, and paid for, except any of the following:
(1) Securities canceled upon surrender, exchange, or transfer, or upon payment or redemption;
(2) Securities in replacement of which or in exchange for which other securities have been issued;
(3) Securities for the payment, or redemption or purchase for cancellation prior to maturity, of which sufficient moneys or investments, in accordance with the applicable legislation or other proceedings or any applicable law, by mandatory sinking fund redemption requirements, mandatory sinking fund requirements, or otherwise, have been deposited, and credited for the purpose in a bond retirement fund or with a trustee or paying or escrow agent, whether at or prior to their maturity or redemption, and, in the case of securities to be redeemed prior to their stated maturity, notice of redemption has been given or satisfactory arrangements have been made for giving notice of that redemption, or waiver of that notice by or on behalf of the affected security holders has been filed with the subdivision or its agent for the purpose.
(BB) "Paying agent" means the one or more banks, trust companies, or other financial institutions or qualified persons, including an appropriate office or officer of the subdivision, designated as a paying agent or place of payment of debt charges on the particular securities.
(CC) "Permanent improvement" or "improvement" means any property, asset, or improvement certified by the fiscal officer, which certification is conclusive, as having an estimated life or period of usefulness of five years or more, and includes, but is not limited to, real estate, buildings, and personal property and interests in real estate, buildings, and personal property, equipment, furnishings, and site improvements, and reconstruction, rehabilitation, renovation, installation, improvement, enlargement, and extension of property, assets, or improvements so certified as having an estimated life or period of usefulness of five years or more. The acquisition of all the stock ownership of a corporation is the acquisition of a permanent improvement to the extent that the value of that stock is represented by permanent improvements. A permanent improvement for parking, highway, road, and street purposes includes resurfacing, but does not include ordinary repair.
(DD) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the Revised Code and also includes any federal, state, interstate, regional, or local governmental agency, any subdivision, and any combination of those persons.
(EE) "Proceedings" means the legislation, certifications, notices, orders, sale proceedings, trust agreement or indenture, mortgage, lease, lease-purchase agreement, assignment, credit enhancement facility agreements, and other agreements, instruments, and documents, as amended and supplemented, and any election proceedings, authorizing, or providing for the terms and conditions applicable to, or providing for the security or sale or award of, public obligations, and includes the provisions set forth or incorporated in those public obligations and proceedings.
(FF) "Public issuer" means any of the following that is authorized by law to issue securities or enter into public obligations:
(1) The state, including an agency, commission, officer, institution, board, authority, or other instrumentality of the state;
(2) A taxing authority, subdivision, district, or other local public or governmental entity, and any combination or consortium, or public division, district, commission, authority, department, board, officer, or institution, thereof;
(3) Any other body corporate and politic, or other public entity.
(GG) "Public obligations" means both of the following:
(1) Securities;
(2) Obligations of a public issuer to make payments under installment sale, lease, lease purchase, or similar agreements, which obligations bear interest or interest equivalent.
(HH) "Refund" means to fund and retire outstanding securities, including advance refunding with or without payment or redemption prior to maturity.
(II) "Register" means the books kept and maintained by the registrar for registration, exchange, and transfer of registered securities.
(JJ) "Registrar" means the person responsible for keeping the register for the particular registered securities, designated by or pursuant to the proceedings.
(KK) "Securities" means bonds, notes, certificates of indebtedness, commercial paper, and other instruments in writing, including, unless the context does not admit, anticipatory securities, issued by an issuer to evidence its obligation to repay money borrowed, or to pay interest, by, or to pay at any future time other money obligations of, the issuer of the securities, but not including public obligations described in division (GG)(2) of this section.
(LL) "Self-supporting securities" means securities or portions of securities issued for the purpose of paying costs of permanent improvements to the extent that receipts of the subdivision, other than the proceeds of taxes levied by that subdivision, derived from or with respect to the improvements or the operation of the improvements being financed, or the enterprise, system, project, or category of improvements of which the improvements being financed are part, are estimated by the fiscal officer to be sufficient to pay the current expenses of that operation or of those improvements or enterprise, system, project, or categories of improvements and the debt charges payable from those receipts on securities issued for the purpose. Until such time as the improvements or increases in rates and charges have been in operation or effect for a period of at least six months, the receipts therefrom, for purposes of this definition, shall be those estimated by the fiscal officer, except that those receipts may include, without limitation, payments made and to be made to the subdivision under leases or agreements in effect at the time the estimate is made. In the case of an operation, improvements, or enterprise, system, project, or category of improvements without at least a six-month history of receipts, the estimate of receipts by the fiscal officer, other than those to be derived under leases and agreements then in effect, shall be confirmed by the taxing authority.
(MM) "Subdivision" means any of the following:
(1) A county, including a county that has adopted a charter under Article X, Ohio Constitution;
(2) A municipal corporation, including a municipal corporation that has adopted a charter under Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution;
(3) A school district;
(4) A regional water and sewer district organized under Chapter 6119. of the Revised Code;
(5) A joint township hospital district organized under section 513.07 of the Revised Code;
(6) A joint ambulance district organized under section 505.71 of the Revised Code;
(7) A joint recreation district organized under division (C) of section 755.14 of the Revised Code;
(8) A detention facility district organized under section 2152.41, a district organized under section 2151.65, or a combined district organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code;
(9) A township police district organized under section 505.48 of the Revised Code;
(10) A township;
(11) A joint fire district organized under section 505.371 of the Revised Code;
(12) A county library district created under section 3375.19 or a regional library district created under section 3375.28 of the Revised Code;
(13) A joint solid waste management district organized under section 343.01 or 343.012 of the Revised Code;
(14) A joint emergency medical services district organized under section 307.052 of the Revised Code;
(15) A fire and ambulance district organized under section 505.375 of the Revised Code;
(16) A fire district organized under division (C) of section 505.37 of the Revised Code;
(17) Any other political subdivision or taxing district or other local public body or agency authorized by this chapter or other laws to issue Chapter 133. securities.
(NN) "Taxing authority" means in the case of the following subdivisions:
(1) A county, a county library district, or a regional library district, the board or boards of county commissioners, or other legislative authority of a county that has adopted a charter under Article X, Ohio Constitution, but with respect to such a library district acting solely as agent for the board of trustees of that district;
(2) A municipal corporation, the legislative authority;
(3) A school district, the board of education;
(4) A regional water and sewer district, a joint ambulance district, a joint recreation district, a fire and ambulance district, or a joint fire district, the board of trustees of the district;
(5) A joint township hospital district, the joint township hospital board;
(6) A detention facility district or a district organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code, a combined district organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, or a joint emergency medical services district, the joint board of county commissioners;
(7) A township, a fire district organized under division (C) of section 505.37 of the Revised Code, or a township police district, the board of township trustees;
(8) A joint solid waste management district organized under section 343.01 or 343.012 of the Revised Code, the board of directors of the district;
(9) A subdivision described in division (MM)(17) of this section, the legislative or governing body or official.
(OO) "Tax limitation" means the "ten-mill limitation" as defined in section 5705.02 of the Revised Code without diminution by reason of section 5705.313 of the Revised Code or otherwise, or, in the case of a municipal corporation or county with a different charter limitation on property taxes levied to pay debt charges on unvoted securities, that charter limitation. Those limitations shall be respectively referred to as the "ten-mill limitation" and the "charter tax limitation."
(PP) "Tax valuation" means the aggregate of the valuations of property subject to ad valorem property taxation by the subdivision on the real property, personal property, and public utility property tax lists and duplicates most recently certified for collection, and shall be calculated without deductions of the valuations of otherwise taxable property exempt in whole or in part from taxation by reason of exemptions of certain amounts of taxable value under division (C) of section 5709.01 or section 323.152 of the Revised Code, or similar laws now or in the future in effect.
For purposes of section 133.06 of the Revised Code, "tax valuation" shall not include the valuation of tangible personal property used in business, telephone or telegraph property, interexchange telecommunications company property, or personal property owned or leased by a railroad company and used in railroad operations listed under or described in section 5711.22, division (B) or (F) of section 5727.111, or section 5727.12 of the Revised Code.
(QQ) "Year" means the calendar year.
(RR) "Administrative agent," "agent," "commercial paper," "floating rate interest structure," "indexing agent," "interest rate hedge," "interest rate period," "put arrangement," and "remarketing agent" have the same meanings as in section 9.98 of the Revised Code.
(SS) "Sales tax supported" means obligations to the payment of debt charges on which an additional sales tax or additional sales taxes have been pledged by the taxing authority of a county pursuant to section 133.081 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 133.04.  (A) As used in this chapter, "net indebtedness" means, as determined pursuant to this section, the principal amount of the outstanding securities of a subdivision less the amount held in a bond retirement fund to the extent such amount is not taken into account in determining the principal amount outstanding under division (AA) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code. For purposes of this definition, the principal amount of outstanding securities includes the principal amount of outstanding securities of another subdivision apportioned to the subdivision as a result of acquisition of territory, and excludes the principal amount of outstanding securities of the subdivision apportioned to another subdivision as a result of loss of territory and the payment or reimbursement obligations of the subdivision under credit enhancement facilities relating to outstanding securities.
(B) In calculating the net indebtedness of a subdivision, none of the following securities, including anticipatory securities issued in anticipation of their issuance, shall be considered:
(1) Securities issued in anticipation of the levy or collection of special assessments, either in original or refunded form;
(2) Securities issued in anticipation of the collection of current revenues for the fiscal year or other period not to exceed twelve consecutive months, or securities issued in anticipation of the collection of the proceeds from a specifically identified voter-approved tax levy;
(3) Securities issued for purposes described in section 133.12 of the Revised Code;
(4) Securities issued under Chapter 122., 140., 165., 725., or 761. or section 131.23 of the Revised Code;
(5) Securities issued to pay final judgments or court-approved settlements under authorizing laws and securities issued under section 2744.081 of the Revised Code;
(6) Securities issued to pay costs of permanent improvements to the extent they are issued in anticipation of the receipt of, and are payable as to principal from, federal or state grants or distributions for, or legally available for, that principal or for the costs of those permanent improvements;
(7) Securities issued to evidence loans from the state capital improvements fund pursuant to Chapter 164. of the Revised Code or from the state infrastructure bank pursuant to section 5531.09 of the Revised Code;
(8) That percentage of the principal amount of general obligation securities issued by a county, township, or municipal corporation to pay the costs of permanent improvements equal to the percentage of the debt charges on those securities payable during the current fiscal year that the fiscal officer estimates can be paid during the current fiscal year from payments in lieu of taxes under section 1728.11, 1728.111, 5709.42, 5709.74, or 5709.79 of the Revised Code, and that the legislation authorizing the issuance of the securities pledges or covenants will be used for the payment of those debt charges; provided that the amount excluded from consideration under division (B)(8) of this section shall not exceed the lesser of thirty million dollars or one-half per cent of the subdivision's tax valuation in the case of a county or township, or one and one-tenth per cent of the subdivision's tax valuation in the case of a municipal corporation;
(9) Securities issued in an amount equal to the property tax replacement payments received under section 5727.85 or 5727.86 of the Revised Code;
(9)(10) Securities issued in an amount equal to the property tax replacement payments received under section 5751.21 or 5751.22 of the Revised Code;
(11) Other securities, including self-supporting securities, excepted by law from the calculation of net indebtedness or from the application of this chapter;
(10)(12) Any other securities outstanding on October 30, 1989, and then excepted from the calculation of net indebtedness or from the application of this chapter, and securities issued at any time to fund or refund those securities.
Sec. 133.06.  (A) A school district shall not incur, without a vote of the electors, net indebtedness that exceeds an amount equal to one-tenth of one per cent of its tax valuation, except as provided in divisions (G) and (H) of this section and in division (C) of section 3313.372 of the Revised Code, or as prescribed in section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, or as provided in division (J) of this section.
(B) Except as provided in divisions (E), (F), and (I) of this section, a school district shall not incur net indebtedness that exceeds an amount equal to nine per cent of its tax valuation.
(C) A school district shall not submit to a vote of the electors the question of the issuance of securities in an amount that will make the district's net indebtedness after the issuance of the securities exceed an amount equal to four per cent of its tax valuation, unless the superintendent of public instruction, acting under policies adopted by the state board of education, and the tax commissioner, acting under written policies of the commissioner, consent to the submission. A request for the consents shall be made at least thirty one hundred five days prior to the election at which the question is to be submitted, except that the superintendent of public instruction and the tax commissioner may waive this thirty-day deadline or grant their consents after the election if the school district shows good cause for such waiver or consent after the election.
The superintendent of public instruction shall certify to the district the superintendent's and the tax commissioner's decisions within thirty days after receipt of the request for consents.
If the electors do not approve the issuance of securities at the election for which the superintendent of public instruction and tax commissioner consented to the submission of the question, the school district may submit the same question to the electors on the date that the next special election may be held under section 3501.01 of the Revised Code without submitting a new request for consent. If the school district seeks to submit the same question at any other subsequent election, the district shall first submit a new request for consent in accordance with this division.
(D) In calculating the net indebtedness of a school district, none of the following shall be considered:
(1) Securities issued to acquire school buses and other equipment used in transporting pupils or issued pursuant to division (D) of section 133.10 of the Revised Code;
(2) Securities issued under division (F) of this section, under section 133.301 of the Revised Code, and, to the extent in excess of the limitation stated in division (B) of this section, under division (E) of this section;
(3) Indebtedness resulting from the dissolution of a joint vocational school district under section 3311.217 of the Revised Code, evidenced by outstanding securities of that joint vocational school district;
(4) Loans, evidenced by any securities, received under sections 3313.483, 3317.0210, 3317.0211, and 3317.64 of the Revised Code;
(5) Debt incurred under section 3313.374 of the Revised Code;
(6) Debt incurred pursuant to division (B)(5) of section 3313.37 of the Revised Code to acquire computers and related hardware;
(7) Debt incurred under section 3318.042 of the Revised Code.
(E) A school district may become a special needs district as to certain securities as provided in division (E) of this section.
(1) A board of education, by resolution, may declare its school district to be a special needs district by determining both of the following:
(a) The student population is not being adequately serviced by the existing permanent improvements of the district.
(b) The district cannot obtain sufficient funds by the issuance of securities within the limitation of division (B) of this section to provide additional or improved needed permanent improvements in time to meet the needs.
(2) The board of education shall certify a copy of that resolution to the superintendent of public instruction with a statistical report showing all of the following:
(a) A history of and a projection of the growth of the student population;
(b) The history of and a projection of the growth of the tax valuation;
(c) The projected needs;
(d) The estimated cost of permanent improvements proposed to meet such projected needs.
(3) The superintendent of public instruction shall certify the district as an approved special needs district if the superintendent finds both of the following:
(a) The district does not have available sufficient additional funds from state or federal sources to meet the projected needs.
(b) The projection of the potential average growth of tax valuation during the next five years, according to the information certified to the superintendent and any other information the superintendent obtains, indicates a likelihood of potential average growth of tax valuation of the district during the next five years of an average of not less than three per cent per year. The findings and certification of the superintendent shall be conclusive.
(4) An approved special needs district may incur net indebtedness by the issuance of securities in accordance with the provisions of this chapter in an amount that does not exceed an amount equal to the greater of the following:
(a) Nine per cent of the sum of its tax valuation plus an amount that is the product of multiplying that tax valuation by the percentage by which the tax valuation has increased over the tax valuation on the first day of the sixtieth month preceding the month in which its board determines to submit to the electors the question of issuing the proposed securities;
(b) Nine per cent of the sum of its tax valuation plus an amount that is the product of multiplying that tax valuation by the percentage, determined by the superintendent of public instruction, by which that tax valuation is projected to increase during the next ten years.
(F) A school district may issue securities for emergency purposes, in a principal amount that does not exceed an amount equal to three per cent of its tax valuation, as provided in this division.
(1) A board of education, by resolution, may declare an emergency if it determines both of the following:
(a) School buildings or other necessary school facilities in the district have been wholly or partially destroyed, or condemned by a constituted public authority, or that such buildings or facilities are partially constructed, or so constructed or planned as to require additions and improvements to them before the buildings or facilities are usable for their intended purpose, or that corrections to permanent improvements are necessary to remove or prevent health or safety hazards.
(b) Existing fiscal and net indebtedness limitations make adequate replacement, additions, or improvements impossible.
(2) Upon the declaration of an emergency, the board of education may, by resolution, submit to the electors of the district pursuant to section 133.18 of the Revised Code the question of issuing securities for the purpose of paying the cost, in excess of any insurance or condemnation proceeds received by the district, of permanent improvements to respond to the emergency need.
(3) The procedures for the election shall be as provided in section 133.18 of the Revised Code, except that:
(a) The form of the ballot shall describe the emergency existing, refer to this division as the authority under which the emergency is declared, and state that the amount of the proposed securities exceeds the limitations prescribed by division (B) of this section;
(b) The resolution required by division (B) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code shall be certified to the county auditor and the board of elections at least seventy-five days prior to the election;
(c) The county auditor shall advise and, not later than sixty-five days before the election, confirm that advice by certification to, the board of education of the information required by division (C) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code;
(d) The board of education shall then certify its resolution and the information required by division (D) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code to the board of elections not less than sixty days prior to the election.
(4) Notwithstanding division (B) of section 133.21 of the Revised Code, the first principal payment of securities issued under this division may be set at any date not later than sixty months after the earliest possible principal payment otherwise provided for in that division.
(G) The board of education may contract with an architect, professional engineer, or other person experienced in the design and implementation of energy conservation measures for an analysis and recommendations pertaining to installations, modifications of installations, or remodeling that would significantly reduce energy consumption in buildings owned by the district. The report shall include estimates of all costs of such installations, modifications, or remodeling, including costs of design, engineering, installation, maintenance, repairs, and debt service, and estimates of the amounts by which energy consumption and resultant operational and maintenance costs, as defined by the Ohio school facilities commission, would be reduced.
If the board finds after receiving the report that the amount of money the district would spend on such installations, modifications, or remodeling is not likely to exceed the amount of money it would save in energy and resultant operational and maintenance costs over the ensuing fifteen years, the board may submit to the commission a copy of its findings and a request for approval to incur indebtedness to finance the making or modification of installations or the remodeling of buildings for the purpose of significantly reducing energy consumption.
If the commission determines that the board's findings are reasonable, it shall approve the board's request. Upon receipt of the commission's approval, the district may issue securities without a vote of the electors in a principal amount not to exceed nine-tenths of one per cent of its tax valuation for the purpose of making such installations, modifications, or remodeling, but the total net indebtedness of the district without a vote of the electors incurred under this and all other sections of the Revised Code, except section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, shall not exceed one per cent of the district's tax valuation.
So long as any securities issued under division (G) of this section remain outstanding, the board of education shall monitor the energy consumption and resultant operational and maintenance costs of buildings in which installations or modifications have been made or remodeling has been done pursuant to division (G) of this section and shall maintain and annually update a report documenting the reductions in energy consumption and resultant operational and maintenance cost savings attributable to such installations, modifications, or remodeling. The report shall be certified by an architect or engineer independent of any person that provided goods or services to the board in connection with the energy conservation measures that are the subject of the report. The resultant operational and maintenance cost savings shall be certified by the school district treasurer. The report shall be made available to the commission upon request.
(H) With the consent of the superintendent of public instruction, a school district may incur without a vote of the electors net indebtedness that exceeds the amounts stated in divisions (A) and (G) of this section for the purpose of paying costs of permanent improvements, if and to the extent that both of the following conditions are satisfied:
(1) The fiscal officer of the school district estimates that receipts of the school district from payments made under or pursuant to agreements entered into pursuant to section 725.02, 1728.10, 3735.671, 5709.081, 5709.082, 5709.40, 5709.41, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.73, 5709.78, or 5709.82 of the Revised Code, or distributions under division (C) of section 5709.43 of the Revised Code, or any combination thereof, are, after accounting for any appropriate coverage requirements, sufficient in time and amount, and are committed by the proceedings, to pay the debt charges on the securities issued to evidence that indebtedness and payable from those receipts, and the taxing authority of the district confirms the fiscal officer's estimate, which confirmation is approved by the superintendent of public instruction;
(2) The fiscal officer of the school district certifies, and the taxing authority of the district confirms, that the district, at the time of the certification and confirmation, reasonably expects to have sufficient revenue available for the purpose of operating such permanent improvements for their intended purpose upon acquisition or completion thereof, and the superintendent of public instruction approves the taxing authority's confirmation.
The maximum maturity of securities issued under division (H) of this section shall be the lesser of twenty years or the maximum maturity calculated under section 133.20 of the Revised Code.
(I) A school district may incur net indebtedness by the issuance of securities in accordance with the provisions of this chapter in excess of the limit specified in division (B) or (C) of this section when necessary to raise the school district portion of the basic project cost pursuant to and any additional funds necessary to participate in a project under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, including the cost of items designated by the Ohio school facilities commission as required locally funded initiatives and the cost for site acquisition. The school facilities commission shall notify the superintendent of public instruction whenever a school district will exceed either limit pursuant to this division.
(J) A school district whose portion of the basic project cost of its classroom facilities project under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code is greater than or equal to one hundred million dollars may incur without a vote of the electors net indebtedness in an amount up to two per cent of its tax valuation through the issuance of general obligation securities in order to generate all or part of the amount of its portion of the basic project cost if the controlling board has approved the school facilities commission's conditional approval of the project under section 3318.04 of the Revised Code. The school district board and the Ohio school facilities commission shall include the dedication of the proceeds of such securities in the agreement entered into under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code. No state moneys shall be released for a project to which this section applies until the proceeds of any bonds issued under this section that are dedicated for the payment of the school district portion of the project are first deposited into the school district's project construction fund.
Sec. 133.12.  (A) If the tax commissioner determines that funds are not otherwise available for the purpose, the taxing authority of a subdivision having general property taxing power may issue general obligation securities in case of any of the following:
(1) An epidemic or threatened epidemic, or during an unusual prevalence of a dangerous communicable disease, to defray those expenses that the board of health having jurisdiction within the subdivision considers necessary to prevent the spread of the epidemic or disease;
(2) The destruction of an essential permanent improvement by fire, flood, or extraordinary catastrophe, to provide temporary necessary facilities in place of that permanent improvement;
(3) A special election called after the adoption of the annual appropriation measure, to pay the costs of that election payable by the subdivision;
(4) Within a quarantined area, the outbreak or infestation of the pest for which the quarantined area was established, to defray those expenses that the subdivision considers necessary to combat the pest, including removal or complete destruction of plants that are dead or dying from the pest.
(B) One-half of the principal amount of the securities issued under this section prior to the effective date of this amendment shall mature on the first day of June next following the next February tax settlement at which, in accordance with the statutory tax budget procedure, a property tax to pay the debt charges on the securities can be included in the budget, and the other one-half of the principal amount shall mature on the next following first day of December. The last maturity of the securities issued under this section on and after the effective date of this amendment shall be not later than the last day of December of the tenth year following the year in which the securities are first issued. A property tax shall be levied to pay debt charges on these any of those securities.
(C) As used in this section:
(1) "Pest" has the same meaning as in section 927.51 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Quarantined area" has the same meaning as in section 927.39 of the Revise Code.
Sec. 133.18.  (A) The taxing authority of a subdivision may by legislation submit to the electors of the subdivision the question of issuing any general obligation bonds, for one purpose, that the subdivision has power or authority to issue.
(B) When the taxing authority of a subdivision desires or is required by law to submit the question of a bond issue to the electors, it shall pass legislation that does all of the following:
(1) Declares the necessity and purpose of the bond issue;
(2) States the date of the authorized election at which the question shall be submitted to the electors;
(3) States the amount, approximate date, estimated rate of interest, and maximum number of years over which the principal of the bonds may be paid;
(4) Declares the necessity of levying a tax outside the tax limitation to pay the debt charges on the bonds and any anticipatory securities.
The estimated rate of interest, and any statutory or charter limit on interest rate rates that may then be in effect and that is subsequently amended, shall not be a limitation on the actual interest rate or rates on the securities when issued.
(C)(1) The taxing authority shall certify a copy of the legislation passed under division (B) of this section to the county auditor. The county auditor shall promptly calculate and advise and, not later than seventy-five days before the election, confirm that advice by certification to, the taxing authority the estimated average annual property tax levy, expressed in cents or dollars and cents for each one hundred dollars of tax valuation and in mills for each one dollar of tax valuation, that the county auditor estimates to be required throughout the stated maturity of the bonds to pay the debt charges on the bonds. In calculating the estimated average annual property tax levy for this purpose, the county auditor shall assume that the bonds are issued in one series bearing interest and maturing in substantially equal principal amounts in each year over the maximum number of years over which the principal of the bonds may be paid as stated in that legislation, and that the amount of the tax valuation of the subdivision for the current year remains the same throughout the maturity of the bonds, except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of this section. If the tax valuation for the current year is not determined, the county auditor shall base the calculation on the estimated amount of the tax valuation submitted by the county auditor to the county budget commission. If the subdivision is located in more than one county, the county auditor shall obtain the assistance of the county auditors of the other counties, and those county auditors shall provide assistance, in establishing the tax valuation of the subdivision for purposes of certifying the estimated average annual property tax levy.
(2) When considering the tangible personal property component of the tax valuation of the subdivision, the county auditor shall take into account the assessment percentages prescribed in section 5711.22 of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner may issue rules, orders, or instructions directing how the assessment percentages must be utilized.
(D) After receiving the county auditor's advice under division (C) of this section, the taxing authority by legislation may determine to proceed with submitting the question of the issue of securities, and shall, not later than the seventy-fifth day before the day of the election, file the following with the board of elections:
(1) Copies of the legislation provided for in divisions (B) and (D) of this section;
(2) The amount of the estimated average annual property tax levy, expressed in cents or dollars and cents for each one hundred dollars of tax valuation and in mills for each one dollar of tax valuation, as estimated and certified to the taxing authority by the county auditor.
(E)(1) The board of elections shall prepare the ballots and make other necessary arrangements for the submission of the question to the electors of the subdivision. If the subdivision is located in more than one county, the board shall inform the boards of elections of the other counties of the filings with it, and those other boards shall if appropriate make the other necessary arrangements for the election in their counties. The election shall be conducted, canvassed, and certified in the manner provided in Title XXXV of the Revised Code.
(2) The election shall be held at the regular places for voting in the subdivision. If the electors of only a part of a precinct are qualified to vote at the election the board of elections may assign the electors in that part to an adjoining precinct, including an adjoining precinct in another county if the board of elections of the other county consents to and approves the assignment. Each elector so assigned shall be notified of that fact prior to the election by notice mailed by the board of elections, in such manner as it determines, prior to the election.
(3) The board of elections shall publish a notice of the election, in one or more newspapers of general circulation in the subdivision, at least once no later than ten days prior to the election. The notice shall state all of the following:
(a) The principal amount of the proposed bond issue;
(b) The stated purpose for which the bonds are to be issued;
(c) The maximum number of years over which the principal of the bonds may be paid;
(d) The estimated additional average annual property tax levy, expressed in cents or dollars and cents for each one hundred dollars of tax valuation and in mills for each one dollar of tax valuation, to be levied outside the tax limitation, as estimated and certified to the taxing authority by the county auditor;
(e) The first calendar year in which the tax is expected to be due.
(F)(1) The form of the ballot to be used at the election shall be substantially either of the following, as applicable:
(a) "Shall bonds be issued by the ............ (name of subdivision) for the purpose of ........... (purpose of the bond issue) in the principal amount of .......... (principal amount of the bond issue), to be repaid annually over a maximum period of .......... (the maximum number of years over which the principal of the bonds may be paid) years, and an annual levy of property taxes be made outside the .......... (as applicable, "ten-mill" or "...charter tax") limitation, estimated by the county auditor to average over the repayment period of the bond issue .......... (number of mills) mills for each one dollar of tax valuation, which amounts to .......... (rate expressed in cents or dollars and cents, such as "36 cents" or "$1.41") for each one hundred dollars of tax valuation, commencing in .......... (first year the tax will be levied), first due in calendar year .......... (first calendar year in which the tax shall be due), to pay the annual debt charges on the bonds, and to pay debt charges on any notes issued in anticipation of those bonds?
  
  For the bond issue
  Against the bond issue   "

  
(b) In the case of an election held pursuant to legislation adopted under section 3375.43 or 3375.431 of the Revised Code:
"Shall bonds be issued for .......... (name of library) for the purpose of .......... (purpose of the bond issue), in the principal amount of .......... (amount of the bond issue) by .......... (the name of the subdivision that is to issue the bonds and levy the tax) as the issuer of the bonds, to be repaid annually over a maximum period of .......... (the maximum number of years over which the principal of the bonds may be paid) years, and an annual levy of property taxes be made outside the ten-mill limitation, estimated by the county auditor to average over the repayment period of the bond issue .......... (number of mills) mills for each one dollar of tax valuation, which amounts to .......... (rate expressed in cents or dollars and cents, such as "36 cents" or "$1.41") for each one hundred dollars of tax valuation, commencing in .......... (first year the tax will be levied), first due in calendar year .......... (first calendar year in which the tax shall be due), to pay the annual debt charges on the bonds, and to pay debt charges on any notes issued in anticipation of those bonds?
  
  For the bond issue
  Against the bond issue   "

  
(2) The purpose for which the bonds are to be issued shall be printed in the space indicated, in boldface type.
(G) The board of elections shall promptly certify the results of the election to the tax commissioner, the county auditor of each county in which any part of the subdivision is located, and the fiscal officer of the subdivision. The election, including the proceedings for and result of the election, is incontestable other than in a contest filed under section 3515.09 of the Revised Code in which the plaintiff prevails.
(H) If a majority of the electors voting upon the question vote for it, the taxing authority of the subdivision may proceed under sections 133.21 to 133.33 of the Revised Code with the issuance of the securities and with the levy and collection of a property tax outside the tax limitation during the period the securities are outstanding sufficient in amount to pay the debt charges on the securities, including debt charges on any anticipatory securities required to be paid from that tax. If legislation passed under section 133.22 or 133.23 of the Revised Code authorizing those securities is filed with the county auditor on or before the last day of November, the amount of the voted property tax levy required to pay debt charges or estimated debt charges on the securities payable in the following year shall if requested by the taxing authority be included in the taxes levied for collection in the following year under section 319.30 of the Revised Code.
(I)(1) If, before any securities authorized at an election under this section are issued, the net indebtedness of the subdivision exceeds that applicable to that subdivision or those securities, then and so long as that is the case none of the securities may be issued.
(2) No securities authorized at an election under this section may be initially issued after the first day of the sixth January following the election, but this period of limitation shall not run for any time during which any part of the permanent improvement for which the securities have been authorized, or the issuing or validity of any part of the securities issued or to be issued, or the related proceedings, is involved or questioned before a court or a commission or other tribunal, administrative agency, or board.
(3) Securities representing a portion of the amount authorized at an election that are issued within the applicable limitation on net indebtedness are valid and in no manner affected by the fact that the balance of the securities authorized cannot be issued by reason of the net indebtedness limitation or lapse of time.
(4) Nothing in this division (I) shall be interpreted or applied to prevent the issuance of securities in an amount to fund or refund anticipatory securities lawfully issued.
(5) The limitations of divisions (I)(1) and (2) of this section do not apply to any securities authorized at an election under this section if at least ten per cent of the principal amount of the securities, including anticipatory securities, authorized has theretofore been issued, or if the securities are to be issued for the purpose of participating in any federally or state-assisted program.
(6) The certificate of the fiscal officer of the subdivision is conclusive proof of the facts referred to in this division.
Sec. 141.08.  The chief justice of the supreme court shall receive his the actual and necessary expenses incurred while performing his official duties under the law and the constitution in determining the disqualification or disability of any judge of the court of common pleas or of the court of appeals, to be paid from the state treasury upon the warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management.
Sec. 141.10.  (A) In addition to the annual salary and expenses provided for in sections 141.04 and 2501.15 of the Revised Code, each judge of a court of appeals who holds court in a county in which he the judge does not reside shall receive his the judge's actual and necessary expenses incurred while so holding court. Those expenses shall be paid by the treasurer of state upon the warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management.
(B) In addition to the annual salary and expenses provided for in sections 141.04 and 2501.15 of the Revised Code, each judge of a court of appeals who is assigned by the chief justice of the supreme court to aid in disposing of business of a district other than that in which he the judge is elected or appointed, shall receive fifty dollars per day for each day of the assignment. The per diem compensation shall be paid from the treasury of the county to which the judge is so assigned upon the warrant of the auditor of that county.
Sec. 145.70.  All amounts due the public employees retirement system from the state treasury pursuant to this chapter shall be promptly paid upon warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management pursuant to a voucher approved by the director of budget and management.
Sec. 173.14.  As used in sections 173.14 to 173.26 173.27 of the Revised Code:
(A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of this section, "long-term care facility" includes any residential facility that provides personal care services for more than twenty-four hours for two or more unrelated adults, including all of the following:
(a) A "nursing home," "residential care facility," or "home for the aging" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;
(b) A facility authorized to provide extended care services under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended;
(c) A county home or district home operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;
(d) An "adult care facility" as defined in section 3722.01 of the Revised Code;
(e) A facility approved by the veterans administration under section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for the placement and care of veterans;
(f) An adult foster home certified under section 173.36 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Long-term care facility" does not include a "residential facility" as defined in section 5119.22 of the Revised Code or a "residential facility" as defined in section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.
(B) "Resident" means a resident of a long-term care facility and, where appropriate, includes a prospective, previous, or deceased resident of a long-term care facility.
(C) "Community-based long-term care services" means health and social services provided to persons in their own homes or in community care settings, and includes any of the following:
(1) Case management;
(2) Home health care;
(3) Homemaker services;
(4) Chore services;
(5) Respite care;
(6) Adult day care;
(7) Home-delivered meals;
(8) Personal care;
(9) Physical, occupational, and speech therapy;
(10) Transportation;
(11) Any other health and social services provided to persons that allow them to retain their independence in their own homes or in community care settings.
(D) "Recipient" means a recipient of community-based long-term care services and, where appropriate, includes a prospective, previous, or deceased recipient of community-based long-term care services.
(E) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian who has an interest in or responsibility for the welfare of a resident or a recipient.
(F) "Personal care services" has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
(G) "Regional long-term care ombudsperson program" means an entity, either public or private and nonprofit, designated as a regional long-term care ombudsperson program by the state long-term care ombudsperson.
(H) "Representative of the office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program" means the state long-term care ombudsperson or a member of the ombudsperson's staff, or a person certified as a representative of the office under section 173.21 of the Revised Code.
(I) "Area agency on aging" means an area agency on aging established under the "Older Americans Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 219, 42 U.S.C.A. 3001, as amended.
Sec. 173.27.  (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final consideration for employment with the office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves providing ombudsperson services to residents and recipients. "Applicant" includes a person who is under final consideration for employment as the state long-term care ombudsperson or the head of a regional long-term care ombudsperson program. "Applicant" does not include a person who provides ombudsperson services to residents and recipients as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for actual expenses.
(2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.
(B)(1) The state long-term care ombudsperson or the ombudsperson's designee shall request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check with respect to each applicant. However, if the applicant is under final consideration for employment as the state long-term care ombudsperson, the director of aging shall request that the superintendent conduct the criminal records check. If an applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required under this division does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period the superintendent has requested information about the applicant from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the ombudsperson, designee, or director shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records check of the applicant. Even if an applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required under this division presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the ombudsperson, designee, or director may request that the superintendent include information from the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.
(2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to request a criminal records check shall do both of the following:
(a) Provide to each applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required under that division a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard fingerprint impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, and obtain the completed form and impression sheet from the applicant;
(b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation.
(3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be employed in any position for which a criminal records check is required by this section.
(C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the director of aging in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject to division (C)(2) of this section, the office of the state long-term care ombudsperson may not employ a person in a position that involves providing ombudsperson services to residents and recipients if the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.
(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of this section.
(2)(a) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program may employ conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required under division (B) of this section prior to obtaining the results of a criminal records check regarding the individual, provided that the state long-term care ombudsperson, ombudsperson's designee, or director of aging shall request a criminal records check regarding the individual in accordance with division (B)(1) of this section not later than five business days after the individual begins conditional employment.
(b) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program shall terminate the employment of an individual employed conditionally under division (C)(2)(a) of this section if the results of the criminal records check request under division (B) of this section, other than the results of any request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending sixty days after the date the request is made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are obtained, if the results indicate that the individual has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, the office shall terminate the individual's employment unless the office chooses to employ the individual pursuant to division (F) of this section. Termination of employment under this division shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the individual makes any attempt to deceive the office about the individual's criminal record.
(D)(1) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to a request made under division (B) of this section.
(2) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the office pays under division (D)(1) of this section. The office may collect a fee only if the office notifies the applicant at the time of initial application for employment of the amount of the fee.
(E) The report of any criminal records check conducted pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any person other than the following:
(1) The individual who is the subject of the criminal records check or the individual's representative;
(2) The state long-term care ombudsperson, ombudsperson's designee, director of health, or the ombudsperson, designee, or director's representative;
(3) If the state long-term care ombudsperson designates the head or other employee of a regional long-term care ombudsperson program to request a criminal records check under this section, a representative of the office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program who is responsible for monitoring the regional program's compliance with this section;
(4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case dealing with a denial of employment of the applicant or dealing with employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant.
(F) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules shall specify circumstances under which the office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program may employ a person who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal character standards set by the director.
(G) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program shall inform each person, at the time of initial application for a position that involves providing ombudsperson services to residents and recipients, that the person is required to provide a set of fingerprint impressions and that a criminal records check is required to be conducted if the person comes under final consideration for employment.
(H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or property caused by an individual who the office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program employs in a position that involves providing ombudsperson services to residents and recipients, all of the following shall apply:
(1) If the office employed the individual in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records check requested under this section, the office shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate.
(2) If the office employed the individual in good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section, the office shall not be found negligent solely because it employed the individual prior to receiving the report of a criminal records check requested under this section.
(3) If the office in good faith employed the individual according to the personal character standards established in rules adopted under division (F) of this section, the office shall not be found negligent solely because the individual prior to being employed had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section.
Sec. 173.39. (A) As used in sections 173.39 to 173.393 173.394 of the Revised Code, "community-based:
(1) "Community-based long-term care agency" means a person or government entity that provides community-based long-term care services under a program the department of aging administers, regardless of whether the person or government entity is certified under section 173.391 or authorized to receive payment for the services from the department under section 173.392 of the Revised Code. "Community-based long-term care agency" includes a person or government entity that provides home and community-based services to older adults through the PASSPORT program created under section 173.40 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Community-based long-term care services" has the same meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.
(B) Except as provided in section 173.392 of the Revised Code, the department of aging may not pay a person or government entity for providing community-based long-term care services under a program the department administers unless the person or government entity is certified under section 173.391 of the Revised Code and provides the services.
Sec. 173.391. (A) The department of aging or its designee shall do all of the following in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code:
(1) Certify a person or government entity to provide community-based long-term care services under a program the department administers if the person or government entity satisfies the requirements for certification established by rules adopted under division (B) of this section;
(2) When required to do so by rules adopted under division (B) of this section, take one or more of the following disciplinary actions against a person or government entity issued a certificate under division (A)(1) of this section:
(a) Issue a written warning;
(b) Require the submission of a plan of correction;
(c) Suspend referrals;
(d) Remove clients;
(e) Impose a fiscal sanction such as a civil monetary penalty or an order that unearned funds be repaid;
(f) Revoke the certificate;
(g) Impose another sanction.
(3) Hold hearings when there is a dispute between the department or its designee and a person or government entity concerning actions the department or its designee takes or does not take under division (A)(1) or (2)(c) to (g) of this section.
(B) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing certification requirements and standards for determining which type of disciplinary action to take under division (A)(2) of this section in individual situations. The rules shall establish procedures for all of the following:
(1) Ensuring that PASSPORT community-based long-term care agencies, as defined in section 173.41 of the Revised Code, comply with that section 173.394 of the Revised Code;
(2) Evaluating the services provided to ensure that they are provided in a quality manner advantageous to the individual receiving the services;
(3) Determining when to take disciplinary action under division (A)(2) of this section and which disciplinary action to take.
(C) The procedures established in rules adopted under division (B)(2) of this section shall require that all of the following be considered as part of an evaluation:
(1) The service provider's experience and financial responsibility;
(2) The service provider's ability to comply with standards for the community-based long-term care services that the provider provides under a program the department administers;
(3) The service provider's ability to meet the needs of the individuals served;
(4) Any other factor the director considers relevant.
(D) The rules adopted under division (B)(3) of this section shall specify that the reasons disciplinary action may be taken under division (A)(2) of this section include good cause, including misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, confirmed abuse or neglect, financial irresponsibility, or other conduct the director determines is injurious to the health or safety of individuals being served.
Sec. 173.41 173.394 (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final consideration for employment with a PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves providing direct care to an older adult individual. "Applicant" does not include a person who provides direct care as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for actual expenses.
(2) "Criminal records check" and "older adult" have has the same meanings meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.
(3) "PASSPORT agency" means a public or private entity that provides home and community-based services to older adults through the PASSPORT program created under section 173.40 of the Revised Code.
(B)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, the chief administrator of a PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency shall request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check with respect to each applicant. If an applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required under this division does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period the superintendent has requested information about the applicant from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the chief administrator shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records check of the applicant. Even if an applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required under this division presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief administrator may request that the superintendent include information from the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.
(2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to request a criminal records check shall do both of the following:
(a) Provide to each applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required under that division a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard fingerprint impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, and obtain the completed form and impression sheet from the applicant;
(b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation.
(3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be employed in any position for which a criminal records check is required by this section.
(C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the department of aging in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject to division (C)(2) of this section, no PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency shall employ a person in a position that involves providing direct care to an older adult individual if the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.
(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of this section.
(2)(a) A PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency may employ conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required under division (B) of this section prior to obtaining the results of a criminal records check regarding the individual, provided that the agency shall request a criminal records check regarding the individual in accordance with division (B)(1) of this section not later than five business days after the individual begins conditional employment. In the circumstances described in division (I)(2) of this section, a PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency may employ conditionally an applicant who has been referred to the PASSPORT agency by an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older adults individuals and for whom, pursuant to that division, a criminal records check is not required under division (B) of this section.
(b) A PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency that employs an individual conditionally under authority of division (C)(2)(a) of this section shall terminate the individual's employment if the results of the criminal records check request under division (B) of this section or described in division (I)(2) of this section, other than the results of any request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending sixty days after the date the request is made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are obtained, if the results indicate that the individual has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, the agency shall terminate the individual's employment unless the agency chooses to employ the individual pursuant to division (F) of this section. Termination of employment under this division shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the individual makes any attempt to deceive the agency about the individual's criminal record.
(D)(1) Each PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to a request made under division (B) of this section.
(2) A PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the agency pays under division (D)(1) of this section. An agency may collect a fee only if both of the following apply:
(a) The agency notifies the person at the time of initial application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered for employment;
(b) The medical assistance medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code does not reimburse the agency the fee it pays under division (D)(1) of this section.
(E) The report of any criminal records check conducted pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any person other than the following:
(1) The individual who is the subject of the criminal records check or the individual's representative;
(2) The chief administrator of the agency requesting the criminal records check or the administrator's representative;
(3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or program that provides direct care to older adults individuals that is owned or operated by the same entity that owns or operates the PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency;
(4) The director of aging or a person authorized by the director to monitor a community-based long-term care agency's compliance with this section;
(5) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case dealing with a denial of employment of the applicant or dealing with employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant;
(5)(6) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section.
(F) The department of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules shall specify circumstances under which a PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency may employ a person who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal character standards set by the department.
(G) The chief administrator of a PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency shall inform each person, at the time of initial application for a position that involves providing direct care to an older adult individual, that the person is required to provide a set of fingerprint impressions and that a criminal records check is required to be conducted if the person comes under final consideration for employment.
(H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or property caused by an individual who a PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency employs in a position that involves providing direct care to older adults individuals, all of the following shall apply:
(1) If the agency employed the individual in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records check requested under this section, the agency shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate;
(2) If the agency employed the individual in good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section, the agency shall not be found negligent solely because it employed the individual prior to receiving the report of a criminal records check requested under this section;
(3) If the agency in good faith employed the individual according to the personal character standards established in rules adopted under division (F) of this section, the agency shall not be found negligent solely because the individual prior to being employed had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section.
(I)(1) The chief administrator of a PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency is not required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check of an applicant if the applicant has been referred to the agency by an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older adults individuals and both of the following apply:
(a) The chief administrator receives from the employment service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by the superintendent within the one-year period immediately preceding the applicant's referral;
(b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency chooses to employ the individual pursuant to division (F) of this section.
(2) The chief administrator of a PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency is not required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check of an applicant and may employ the applicant conditionally as described in this division, if the applicant has been referred to the agency by an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older adults individuals and if the chief administrator receives from the employment service or the applicant a letter from the employment service that is on the letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed by a supervisor or another designated official of the employment service and that states that the employment service has requested the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will include a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth on the letter, the employment service had not received the results of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment service receives the results of the criminal records check, it promptly will send a copy of the results to the PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency. If a PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency employs an applicant conditionally in accordance with this division, the employment service, upon its receipt of the results of the criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the PASSPORT community-based long-term care agency, and division (C)(2)(b) of this section applies regarding the conditional employment.
Sec. 184.20.  (A) A member of the third frontier commission or a member of the third frontier advisory board shall not do either of the following:
(1) Receive receive support under section 184.11 of the Revised Code;
(2) Receive any financial gain from an entity that is awarded support under section 184.11 of the Revised Code if that financial gain is directly related to, or is the direct result of, the awarding of such support.
(B) A member who violates division (A) of this section shall forfeit the support or financial gain received and shall pay the amount forfeited to the third frontier commission.
Sec. 307.761. A board of county commissioners may maintain and operate a facility to encourage the study of and promote the sciences and natural history, or it may contract with or contribute to a nonprofit corporation to develop, maintain, and operate such a facility if the nonprofit corporation is organized, in whole or in part, for the purpose of encouraging the study of and to promote the sciences and natural history.
Sec. 319.301.  (A) This section does not apply to any of the following:
(1) Taxes levied at whatever rate is required to produce a specified amount of tax money, including a tax levied under section 5705.211 of the Revised Code, or an amount to pay debt charges;
(2) Taxes levied within the one per cent limitation imposed by Section 2 of Article XII, Ohio Constitution;
(3) Taxes provided for by the charter of a municipal corporation.
(B) As used in this section:
(1) "Real property" includes real property owned by a railroad.
(2) "Carryover property" means all real property on the current year's tax list except:
(a) Land and improvements that were not taxed by the district in both the preceding year and the current year;
(b) Land and improvements that were not in the same class in both the preceding year and the current year.
(3) "Effective tax rate" means with respect to each class of property:
(a) The sum of the total taxes that would have been charged and payable for current expenses against real property in that class if each of the district's taxes were reduced for the current year under division (D)(1) of this section without regard to the application of division (E)(3) of this section divided by
(b) The taxable value of all real property in that class.
(4) "Taxes charged and payable" means the taxes charged and payable prior to any reduction required by section 319.302 of the Revised Code.
(C) The tax commissioner shall make the determinations required by this section each year, without regard to whether a taxing district has territory in a county to which section 5715.24 of the Revised Code applies for that year. Separate determinations shall be made for each of the two classes established pursuant to section 5713.041 of the Revised Code.
(D) With respect to each tax authorized to be levied by each taxing district, the tax commissioner, annually, shall do both of the following:
(1) Determine by what percentage, if any, the sums levied by such tax against the carryover property in each class would have to be reduced for the tax to levy the same number of dollars against such property in that class in the current year as were charged against such property by such tax in the preceding year subsequent to the reduction made under this section but before the reduction made under section 319.302 of the Revised Code. In the case of a tax levied for the first time that is not a renewal of an existing tax, the commissioner shall determine by what percentage the sums that would otherwise be levied by such tax against carryover property in each class would have to be reduced to equal the amount that would have been levied if the full rate thereof had been imposed against the total taxable value of such property in the preceding tax year. A tax or portion of a tax that is designated a replacement levy under section 5705.192 of the Revised Code is not a renewal of an existing tax for purposes of this division.
(2) Certify each percentage determined in division (D)(1) of this section, as adjusted under division (E) of this section, and the class of property to which that percentage applies to the auditor of each county in which the district has territory. The auditor, after complying with section 319.30 of the Revised Code, shall reduce the sum to be levied by such tax against each parcel of real property in the district by the percentage so certified for its class. Certification shall be made by the first day of September except in the case of a tax levied for the first time, in which case certification shall be made within fifteen days of the date the county auditor submits the information necessary to make the required determination.
(E)(1) As used in division (E)(2) of this section, "pre-1982 joint vocational taxes" means, with respect to a class of property, the difference between the following amounts:
(a) The taxes charged and payable in tax year 1981 against the property in that class for the current expenses of the joint vocational school district of which the school district is a part after making all reductions under this section;
(b) The following percentage of the taxable value of all real property in that class:
(i) In 1987, five one-hundredths of one per cent;
(ii) In 1988, one-tenth of one per cent;
(iii) In 1989, fifteen one-hundredths of one per cent;
(iv) In 1990 and each subsequent year, two-tenths of one per cent.
If the amount in division (E)(1)(b) of this section exceeds the amount in division (E)(1)(a) of this section, the pre-1982 joint vocational taxes shall be zero.
As used in divisions (E)(2) and (3) of this section, "taxes charged and payable" has the same meaning as in division (B)(4) of this section and excludes any tax charged and payable in 1985 or thereafter under sections 5705.194 to 5705.197 or section 5705.213 of the Revised Code.
(2) If in the case of a school district other than a joint vocational or cooperative education school district any percentage required to be used in division (D)(2) of this section for either class of property could cause the total taxes charged and payable for current expenses to be less than two per cent of the taxable value of all real property in that class that is subject to taxation by the district, the commissioner shall determine what percentages would cause the district's total taxes charged and payable for current expenses against that class, after all reductions that would otherwise be made under this section, to equal, when combined with the pre-1982 joint vocational taxes against that class, the lesser of the following:
(a) The sum of the rates at which those taxes are authorized to be levied;
(b) Two per cent of the taxable value of the property in that class. The auditor shall use such percentages in making the reduction required by this section for that class.
(3)(a) If in the case of a joint vocational school district any percentage required to be used in division (D)(2) of this section for either class of property could cause the total taxes charged and payable for current expenses for that class to be less than the designated amount, the commissioner shall determine what percentages would cause the district's total taxes charged and payable for current expenses for that class, after all reductions that would otherwise be made under this section, to equal the designated amount. The auditor shall use such percentages in making the reductions required by this section for that class.
(b) As used in division (E)(3)(a) of this section, the designated amount shall equal the taxable value of all real property in the class that is subject to taxation by the district times the lesser of the following:
(i) Two-tenths of one per cent;
(ii) The district's effective rate plus the following percentage for the year indicated:
WHEN COMPUTING THE
TAXES CHARGED FOR ADD THE FOLLOWING PERCENTAGE:

1987 0.025%
1988 0.05%
1989 0.075%
1990 0.1%
1991 0.125%
1992 0.15%
1993 0.175%
1994 and thereafter 0.2%

(F) No reduction shall be made under this section in the rate at which any tax is levied.
(G) The commissioner may order a county auditor to furnish any information he the commissioner needs to make the determinations required under division (D) or (E) of this section, and the auditor shall supply the information in the form and by the date specified in the order. If the auditor fails to comply with an order issued under this division, except for good cause as determined by the commissioner, the commissioner shall withhold from such county or taxing district therein fifty per cent of state revenues to local governments pursuant to section 5747.50 of the Revised Code or shall direct the department of education to withhold therefrom fifty per cent of state revenues to school districts pursuant to Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code. The commissioner shall withhold the distribution of such revenues until the county auditor has complied with this division, and the department shall withhold the distribution of such revenues until the commissioner has notified the department that the county auditor has complied with this division.
(H) If the commissioner is unable to certify a tax reduction factor for either class of property in a taxing district located in more than one county by the last day of November because information required under division (G) of this section is unavailable, he the commissioner may compute and certify an estimated tax reduction factor for that district for that class. The estimated factor shall be based upon an estimate of the unavailable information. Upon receipt of the actual information for a taxing district that received an estimated tax reduction factor, the commissioner shall compute the actual tax reduction factor and use that factor to compute the taxes that should have been charged and payable against each parcel of property for the year for which the estimated reduction factor was used. The amount by which the estimated factor resulted in an overpayment or underpayment in taxes on any parcel shall be added to or subtracted from the amount due on that parcel in the ensuing tax year.
A percentage or a tax reduction factor determined or computed by the commissioner under this section shall be used solely for the purpose of reducing the sums to be levied by the tax to which it applies for the year for which it was determined or computed. It shall not be used in making any tax computations for any ensuing tax year.
(I) In making the determinations under division (D)(1) of this section, the tax commissioner shall take account of changes in the taxable value of carryover property resulting from complaints filed under section 5715.19 of the Revised Code for determinations made for the tax year in which such changes are reported to the commissioner. Such changes shall be reported to the commissioner on the first abstract of real property filed with the commissioner under section 5715.23 of the Revised Code following the date on which the complaint is finally determined by the board of revision or by a court or other authority with jurisdiction on appeal. The tax commissioner shall account for such changes in making the determinations only for the tax year in which the change in valuation is reported. Such a valuation change shall not be used to recompute the percentages determined under division (D)(1) of this section for any prior tax year.
Sec. 333.01.  As used in this chapter:
(A) "County sales and use tax" means the tax levied by a county under division (A) of section 5739.021 or division (A) of section 5741.021 of the Revised Code that is returned or distributed to the county under section 5739.21 or 5741.03 of the Revised Code.
(B) "Impact facility" means a permanent structure, including all interior or exterior square footage used for educational or exhibition activities, that meets all of the following criteria:
(1) It is used for the sale of tangible personal property or services;
(2) At least ten per cent of the facility's total square footage is dedicated to educational or exhibition activities;
(3) At least fifty million dollars is invested in land, buildings, infrastructure, and equipment for the facility at the site of the facility over a period of not more than two years;
(4) An annualized average of at least one hundred fifty new full-time equivalent positions will be created and maintained at the facility;
(5) More than fifty per cent of the visitors to the facility are reasonably anticipated to live at least one hundred miles from the facility.
(C) "Qualifying investment" means a person's investment in land, buildings, infrastructure, and equipment for creating an impact facility.
(D) "Full-time equivalent positions" means the total number of hours worked at a facility in a work week, divided by forty hours per week.
Sec. 333.02.  Before December 1, 2006, a board of county commissioners of a county that levies a county sales and use tax may enter into an agreement with any person that proposes to construct an impact facility in the county to provide payments to that person of up to seventy-five per cent of the county sales and use tax collected on each retail sale made by that person at the facility, for a term of up to ten years, or until the person's qualifying investment in the impact facility has been realized through the payments, whichever occurs first.
Sec. 333.03.  (A) A person seeking to enter into an agreement and obtain payments under section 333.02 of the Revised Code shall provide both of the following to the board of county commissioners:
(1) A certification by the person's chief financial officer, or the equivalent if that position does not exist, that the criteria listed in division (B) of section 333.01 of the Revised Code will be met; and
(2) An application on a form or in a format acceptable to the board that describes the proposed impact facility, including the projected level of investment in and new jobs to be created at the facility, the rationale used for determining that more than fifty per cent of the facility's visitors live at least one hundred miles from the facility, the types of activities to be conducted at the facility, the projected levels of sales to occur at the facility, a calculation of the facility's square footage that will be dedicated to educational or exhibition activities, and any other information the board of county commissioners reasonably requests about the expected operations of the facility.
(B) The board of county commissioners shall request the director of development to certify that the proposed facility meets the criteria for an impact facility listed in division (B) of section 333.01 of the Revised Code. The board of county commissioners may, but need not, make findings of fact that a proposed facility meets the criteria for an impact facility listed in division (B) of section 333.01 of the Revised Code before or after requesting the certification. If the director of development certifies a proposed facility as an impact facility under this section, and if the board makes such findings, the findings and certification are conclusive and not subject to reopening at any time.
Sec. 333.04. (A) After review of the items submitted under division (A) of section 333.03 of the Revised Code, and after receipt of the certification from the director of development under division (B) of that section, a board of county commissioners, before December 1, 2006, may enter into an agreement under section 333.02 of the Revised Code, provided that the board has determined all of the following:
(1) The proposed impact facility is economically sound;
(2) Construction of the proposed impact facility has not begun prior to the day the agreement is entered into;
(3) The impact facility will benefit the county by increasing employment opportunities and strengthening the local and regional economy; and
(4) Receiving payments from the board of county commissioners is a major factor in the person's decision to go forward with construction of the impact facility.
(B) An agreement entered into under this section shall include all of the following:
(1) A description of the impact facility that is the subject of the agreement, including the existing investment level, if any, the proposed amount of investments, the scheduled starting and completion dates for the facility, and the number and type of full-time equivalent positions to be created at the facility;
(2) The percentage of the county sales and use tax collected at the impact facility that will be used to make payments to the person entering into the agreement;
(3) The term of the payments and the first calendar quarter in which the person may apply for a payment under section 333.06 of the Revised Code;
(4) A requirement that the amount of payments made to the person during the term established under division (B)(3) of this section shall not exceed the person's qualifying investment, and that all payments cease when that amount is reached;
(5) A requirement that the person maintain operations at the impact facility for at least the term established under division (B)(3) of this section;
(6) A requirement that the person annually certify to the board of county commissioners, on or before a date established by the board in the agreement, the level of investment in, the number of employees and type of full-time equivalent positions at, and the amount of county sales and use tax collected and remitted to the tax commissioner or treasurer of state from sales made at, the facility;
(7) A provision stating that the creation of the proposed impact facility does not involve the relocation of more than ten full-time equivalent positions and two million dollars in taxable assets to the impact facility from another facility owned by the person, or a related member of the person, that is located in another political subdivision of this state, other than the political subdivision in which the impact facility is or will be located;
(8) A provision stating that the person will not relocate more than ten full-time equivalent positions and two million dollars in taxable assets to the impact facility from another facility in another political subdivision of this state during the term of the payments without the written approval of the director of development;
(9) A detailed explanation of how the person determined that more than fifty per cent of the visitors to the facility live at least one hundred miles from the facility.
(C) For purposes of this section, the transfer of a full-time equivalent position or taxable asset from another political subdivision in this state to the political subdivision in which the impact facility is or will be located shall be considered a relocation, unless the person refills the full-time equivalent position, or replaces the taxable asset with an asset of equal or greater taxable value, within six months after the transfer. The person may not receive a payment under this chapter for any year in which more than ten relocations occurred without the written consent of the board of county commissioners.
Sec. 333.05.  (A) If a person fails to meet or comply with any provision of an agreement entered into under section 333.02 of the Revised Code, the board of county commissioners may amend the agreement to reduce the percentage or term, or both, of the payments the person is entitled to receive under the agreement. The reduction shall commence in the calendar quarter immediately following the calendar quarter in which the board amends the agreement.
(B) A board of county commissioners shall submit to the department of development and to the tax commissioner a copy of each agreement entered into under section 333.02 of the Revised Code and any modifications to an agreement within thirty days after finalization or modification of the agreement.
Sec. 333.06.  (A) A person who has entered into an agreement with a board of county commissioners under section 333.02 of the Revised Code shall apply for payment with the county auditor on a form prescribed by the tax commissioner within sixty days after the end of each calendar quarter during which the agreement is in effect. Upon request of the county auditor, the tax commissioner shall provide to the county auditor the applicant's sales or use tax return information or any sales or use tax audit information, including information regarding state refunds of sales or use taxes, that the county auditor needs to determine the amount of the payment that should be made to the applicant.
(B) On receipt of an application for payment under this section and review of the applicant's agreement with the board of county commissioners, the county auditor shall determine the amount of the payment the applicant shall receive as follows:
(1) If the amount of the payment is not less than that claimed on the application, the county auditor shall certify the amount to the county treasurer, who shall make a payment to the applicant from the county sales and use tax revenues returned or distributed to the county under sections 5739.21 and 5741.03 of the Revised Code. Upon request of the board of county commissioners or the tax commissioner, the county auditor shall notify the board or the commissioner, or both, of the amount certified and the date the payment will be made.
(2) If the amount of the payment is less than that claimed on the application, the county auditor shall notify the applicant and provide to the applicant the reasons why the payment is less than that claimed. If the applicant disagrees with the amount of the payment, the applicant may file an appeal with the tax commissioner pursuant to, and within the time prescribed by, section 333.07 of the Revised Code. To assist in reviewing the amount under appeal, the county auditor shall provide to the tax commissioner any information the commissioner requests.
(C) A payment made under this section or under section 333.07 of the Revised Code shall not include interest. The amount of the payment shall be subject to adjustment by the county auditor, based on any refunds of the county sales and use tax that were made to the person arising from retail sales at the impact facility, including for calendar quarters in which such sales were made before the calendar quarter for which the person is requesting a payment under this section.
Sec. 333.07.  (A) An applicant who intends to file an appeal with the tax commissioner under division (B)(2) of section 333.06 of the Revised Code shall have sixty days from the date the county auditor mails the notice under that section, as shown by the United States postal service postmark, to file with the commissioner a notice of objection and to request a hearing. The notice of objection shall state the reasons why the applicant objects to the amount of the payment to be paid to the applicant by the county auditor.
(B)(1) If an applicant who files an appeal with the tax commissioner under division (B)(2) of section 333.06 of the Revised Code does not file a notice of objection within the time limit prescribed under division (A) of this section, the tax commissioner shall take no further action and the county auditor's determination under section 333.06 of the Revised Code is final.
(2)(a) If the applicant files a notice of objection and requests a hearing within the time limit prescribed by division (A) of this section, the tax commissioner shall assign a time and place for the hearing and notify the applicant of the time and place, but the commissioner may continue the hearing from time to time as necessary. After the hearing, the commissioner may make adjustments to the payment as the commissioner finds proper, and shall issue a final determination thereon.
(b) If the applicant files a notice of objection within the time limit prescribed by division (A) of this section and does not request a hearing, but provides additional information within the time limit prescribed by division (A) of this section, the tax commissioner shall review the information, may make adjustments to the payment as the commissioner finds proper, and shall issue a final determination thereon.
(C) The tax commissioner shall serve a copy of the commissioner's final determination under this section on the applicant that filed the appeal and on the county auditor, in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. The final determination may be appealed by the applicant under section 5717.02 of the Revised Code.
(D) If applicable, the county auditor shall certify to the county treasurer any payment due to a person pursuant to the tax commissioner's final determination under this section, adjusted for any changes that were made to the amount of the payment as the result of the appeal.
Sec. 340.021.  (A) In an alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district comprised of a county with a population of two hundred fifty thousand or more on October 10, 1989, the board of county commissioners shall, within thirty days of October 10, 1989, establish an alcohol and drug addiction services board as the entity responsible for providing alcohol and drug addiction services in the county, unless, prior to that date, the board adopts a resolution providing that the entity responsible for providing the services is a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services. If the board of county commissioners establishes an alcohol and drug addiction services board, the community mental health board established under former section 340.02 of the Revised Code shall serve as the entity responsible for providing mental health services in the county. A community mental health board has all the powers, duties, and obligations of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to mental health services. An alcohol and drug addiction services board has all the powers, duties, and obligations of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to alcohol and drug addiction services. Any provision of the Revised Code that refers to a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to mental health services also refers to a community mental health board and any provision that refers to a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to alcohol and drug addiction services also refers to an alcohol and drug addiction services board.
An alcohol and drug addiction services board shall consist of eighteen members, six of whom shall be appointed by the director of alcohol and drug addiction services and twelve of whom shall be appointed by the board of county commissioners. Of the members appointed by the director, one shall be a person who has received or is receiving services for alcohol or drug addiction, one shall be a parent or relative of such a person, one shall be a professional in the field of alcohol or drug addiction services, and one shall be an advocate for persons receiving treatment for alcohol or drug addiction. The membership of the board shall, as nearly as possible, reflect the composition of the population of the service district as to race and sex. Members shall be residents of the service district and shall be interested in alcohol and drug addiction services. Requirements for membership, including prohibitions against certain family and business relationships, and terms of office shall be the same as those for members of boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.
A community mental health board shall consist of eighteen members, six of whom shall be appointed by the director of mental health and twelve of whom shall be appointed by the board of county commissioners. Of the members appointed by the director, one shall be a person who has received or is receiving mental health services, one shall be a parent or relative of such a person, one shall be a psychiatrist or a physician, and one shall be a mental health professional. The membership of the board as nearly as possible shall reflect the composition of the population of the service district as to race and sex. Members shall be residents of the service district and shall be interested in mental health services. Requirements for membership, including prohibitions against certain family and business relationships, and terms of office shall be the same as those for members of boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.
(B) If a board of county commissioners subject to division (A) of this section did not adopt a resolution providing for a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, the board of county commissioners may adopt a resolution providing for establish such a board, subject to both of in accordance with the following procedures:
(1) The resolution shall be adopted not later than January 1, 2004.
(2) Before adopting the resolution, the board of county commissioners shall provide notice of the proposed resolution to the alcohol and drug services board and the community mental health board and shall provide both boards an opportunity to comment on the proposed resolution Not later than January 1, 2007, the board of county commissioners shall adopt a resolution expressing its intent to establish a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.
(2) After adopting a resolution under division (B)(1) of this section, the board of county commissioners shall instruct the county's community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction services board to prepare a report on the feasibility, process, and proposed plan to establish a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services. The board of county commissioners shall specify the date by which the report must be submitted to the board for its review.
(3) After reviewing the report prepared under division (B)(2) of this section, the board may adopt a final resolution establishing a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services. A final resolution establishing such a board shall be adopted not later than July 1, 2007.
Sec. 742.57.  All amounts due the Ohio police and fire pension fund from the state treasury pursuant to this chapter shall be promptly paid upon warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management pursuant to a voucher approved by the director of budget and management.
Sec. 901.23. (A) There is hereby created the farmland preservation advisory board consisting of twelve voting members. Not later than sixty days after the effective date of this section, appointed by the director of agriculture shall appoint all of the following members to the board as follows:
(1) One member who is a county commissioner or a representative of a statewide organization that represents county commissioners;
(2) One member who is a township trustee or a representative of a statewide organization that represents township trustees;
(3) One representative of the Ohio state university;
(4) One representative of a national nonprofit organization dedicated to the preservation of farmland;
(5) One representative of the natural resources conservation service in the United States department of agriculture;
(6) One representative each of development, environmental, and planning, and soil and water conservation interests;
(7)(6) One farmer from each of the state's four quadrants.
Of the initial appointments to the board, four shall serve for a one-year term, four shall serve for a two-year term, and four shall serve for a three-year term. Thereafter, terms Terms of office shall be staggered and shall be for three years, with each term ending on the same day of the same month as did the term that it succeeds. Each member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the end of the term for which the member was appointed, except that the term of any member who is a county commissioner or township trustee shall end when the member ceases to serve as a county commissioner or township trustee.
Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term for which the member was appointed shall serve for the remainder of that term. A member shall continue to serve subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Members shall serve at the pleasure of the director.
The executive director of the office of farmland preservation in the department of agriculture or another employee of the department who is designated by the director shall serve as the nonvoting chairperson of the board. The director annually shall designate one member of the board to serve as its vice-chairperson. The board may adopt bylaws governing its operation and shall meet at a time when the director, or the director's designee, considers it appropriate in order for the board to provide advice as required under division (B) of this section.
(B) The board shall provide advice to the director regarding all of the following:
(1) The design and implementation of an agricultural easement purchase program;
(2) The selection of applications that will be awarded matching grants under division (D) of section 901.22 of the Revised Code for the purchase of agricultural easements;
(3) The design and implementation of any other statewide farmland protection measures that the director considers appropriate.
(C) Serving as a member of the board does not constitute holding a public office or position of employment under the laws of this state and does not constitute grounds for removal of public officers or employees from their offices or positions of employment.
(D) A board member shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of duties as a board member.
Sec. 927.39.  (A) As used in this section and in sections 927.40 to 927.42 of the Revised Code:
(1) "Pest" has the same meaning as in section 927.51 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Quarantined area" means an area that is quarantined by the director of agriculture under section 927.71 of the Revised Code or by the United States department of agriculture.
(B) Counties, townships, and municipal corporations may, upon the vote of the board of county commissioners, the board of township trustees, or the legislative authority of any municipal corporation, purchase or rent spraying equipment and may purchase supplies designed to combat dutch elm disease and phloem necrosis, commonly known as "elmblight," a pest for which a quarantined area is established and may contract for the hire of necessary employees to operate such equipment and carry out sections 927.39 to 927.42, inclusive, of the Revised Code. Payment for such equipment or its use, supplies, and wages as are contracted for may be provided out of the general fund of such subdivision.
Any two or more counties, townships, municipal corporations, or any combination of such subdivisions, may jointly contract for the purchase or renting of such spraying equipment, the purchase of such supplies, and for the hiring of such employees to conduct a joint effort to combat dutch elm disease and phloem necrosis a pest for which a quarantined area is established; the payment for such equipment, supplies, and labor may be made jointly, in such proportions as the board of county commissioners, the board of township trustees, or the legislative authority of a municipal corporation may agree upon, out of the general fund of any such subdivision.
Sec. 927.40.  The board of county commissioners, board of township trustees, or legislative authority of a municipal corporation may authorize an agent to enter upon any lands in a quarantined area within the subdivisions for the sole purpose of inspecting such lands for the existence of dutch elm disease or phloem necrosis the pest for which the quarantined area has been established. Such powers of inspection may be exercised by any such subdivision, through its agent, solely to prepare a campaign within the subdivision against such plant diseases a pest for which a quarantined area is established.
Sec. 927.41.  Upon the purchase or rental of spraying equipment and the purchase of supplies to combat dutch elm disease and phloem necrosis a pest for which a quarantined area is established, the agents of the board of county commissioners, board of township trustees, or legislative authority of a municipal corporation may contact the owners of land in the quarantined area within the subdivision, to obtain permission to enter upon such lands to spray and treat trees upon such land combat that pest. After obtaining such permission, such agents may enter upon such land and spray and treat such trees combat that pest as the owner agrees shall be so treated, and the board of county commissioners, board of township trustees, or legislative authority of the municipal corporation may charge such fees for such treatment efforts as will cover the actual costs of such treatment the efforts.
In the same manner, plants that are dead or dying trees infested with the carrier beetles of the dutch elm disease from a pest may be removed or completely destroyed by burning at the cost of the landowner.
Sec. 927.42.  (A) The board of county commissioners, the board of township trustees, or the legislative authority of any municipal corporation may obtain the assistance of the departments department of agriculture of Ohio or of the United States department of agriculture upon any problem which that arises in connection with combating dutch elm disease and phloem necrosis.
(B) If the board of county commissioners, the board of township trustees, or the legislative authority of a municipal corporation issues general obligation securities under division (A)(4) of section 133.12 of the Revised Code, that board of county commissioners, board of township trustees, or legislative authority, whichever is applicable, shall do both of the following:
(1) Notify the director of agriculture of that fact;
(2) Coordinate and comply with the protocols and directives established by the director with respect to the quarantined area or the pest for which a quarantined area is established.
Sec. 955.011.  (A) When an application is made for registration of a an assistance dog that is in training to become or serves as a guide or leader for a blind person or as a listener for a deaf person, that is in training to provide or provides support or assistance for a mobility impaired person, or that is in training to become or serves as a seizure assistance, seizure response, or seizure alert dog for a person with a seizure disorder, and the owner can show proof by certificate or other means that the dog is in training or has been trained for that purpose by a nonprofit special agency engaged in such work an assistance dog, the owner of such a guide, leader, hearing, support, seizure assistance, seizure response, or seizure alert the dog shall be exempt from any fee for such the registration. Registration for such a an assistance dog in training or serving as a guide or leader for a blind person, as a listener for a deaf person, as a support dog for a mobility impaired person, or as a seizure assistance, seizure response, or seizure alert dog for a person with a seizure disorder shall be permanent and not subject to annual renewal so long as the dog is in training or so serves an assistance dog. Certificates and tags stamped "Ohio Service Assistance Dog-Permanent Registration," with registration number, shall be issued upon registration of such a dog. Any certificate and tag stamped "Ohio Guide Dog-Permanent Registration" or "Ohio Hearing Dog-Permanent Registration," with registration number, that was issued for a dog in accordance with this section as it existed prior to July 4, 1984, and any certificate and tag stamped "Ohio Handicapped Assistance Dog-Permanent Registration," with registration number, that was issued for a dog in accordance with this section as it existed on and after July 5, 1984, and but prior to the effective date of this amendment November 26, 2004, and any certificate and tag stamped "Ohio Service Dog-Permanent Registration," with registration number, that was issued for a dog in accordance with this section as it existed on and after November 26, 2004, but prior to the effective date of this amendment shall remain in effect as valid proof of the registration of the dog on and after the effective date of this amendment November 26, 2004. Duplicate certificates and tags for a dog registered in accordance with this section, upon proper proof of loss, shall be issued and no fee required. Each duplicate certificate and tag that is issued shall be stamped "Ohio Service Assistance Dog-Permanent Registration."
(B) As used in this section and in sections 955.16 and 955.43 of the Revised Code:
(1) "Mobility impaired person" means any person, regardless of age, who is subject to a physiological defect or deficiency regardless of its cause, nature, or extent that renders the person unable to move about without the aid of crutches, a wheelchair, or any other form of support, or that limits the person's functional ability to ambulate, climb, descend, sit, rise, or to perform any related function. "Mobility impaired person" includes a person with a neurological or psychological disability that limits the person's functional ability to ambulate, climb, descend, sit, rise, or perform any related function. "Mobility impaired person" also includes a person with a seizure disorder.
(2) "Blind" means either of the following:
(a) Vision twenty/two hundred or less in the better eye with proper correction.;
(b) Field defect in the better eye with proper correction which that contracts the peripheral field so that the diameter of the visual field subtends an angle no greater than twenty degrees.
(3) "Assistance dog" means a guide dog, hearing dog, or service dog that has been trained by a nonprofit special agency.
(4) "Guide dog" means a dog that has been trained or is in training to assist a blind person.
(5) "Hearing dog" means a dog that has been trained or is in training to assist a deaf or hearing-impaired person.
(6) "Service dog" means a dog that has been trained or is in training to assist a mobility impaired person.
Sec. 955.16.  (A) Dogs that have been seized by the county dog warden and impounded shall be kept, housed, and fed for three days for the purpose of redemption, as provided by section 955.18 of the Revised Code, unless any of the following applies:
(1) Immediate humane destruction of the dog is necessary because of obvious disease or injury. If the diseased or injured dog is registered, as determined from the current year's registration list maintained by the warden and the county auditor of the county where the dog is registered, the necessity of destroying the dog shall be certified by a licensed veterinarian or a registered veterinary technician. If the dog is not registered, the decision to destroy it shall be made by the warden.
(2) The dog is currently registered on the registration list maintained by the warden and the auditor of the county where the dog is registered and the attempts to notify the owner, keeper, or harborer under section 955.12 of the Revised Code have failed, in which case the dog shall be kept, housed, and fed for fourteen days for the purpose of redemption.
(3) The warden has contacted the owner, keeper, or harborer under section 955.12 of the Revised Code, and the owner, keeper, or harborer has requested that the dog remain in the pound or animal shelter until the owner, harborer, or keeper redeems the dog. The time for such redemption shall be not more than forty-eight hours following the end of the appropriate redemption period.
At any time after such periods of redemption, any dog not redeemed shall be donated to any nonprofit special agency that is engaged in the training of any type of assistance dogs to serve as guide or leader dogs for blind persons, hearing dogs for deaf persons, or support dogs for mobility impaired persons and that requests that the dog be donated to it. Any dog not redeemed that is not requested by such an agency may be sold, except that no dog sold to a person other than a nonprofit teaching or research institution or organization of the type described in division (B) of this section shall be discharged from the pound or animal shelter until the animal has been registered and furnished with a valid registration tag.
(B) Any dog that is not redeemed within the applicable period as specified in this section or section 955.12 of the Revised Code from the time notice is mailed to its owner, keeper, or harborer or is posted at the pound or animal shelter, as required by section 955.12 of the Revised Code, and that is not required to be donated to a nonprofit special agency engaged in the training of guide, leader, hearing, or support any type of assistance dogs may, upon payment to the dog warden or poundkeeper of the sum of three dollars, be sold to any nonprofit Ohio institution or organization that is certified by the Ohio public health council as being engaged in teaching or research concerning the prevention and treatment of diseases of human beings or animals. Any dog that is donated to a nonprofit special agency engaged in the training of guide, leader, hearing, or support any type of assistance dogs, in accordance with division (A) of this section and any dog that is sold to any nonprofit teaching or research institution or organization shall be discharged from the pound or animal shelter without registration and may be kept by the agency or by the institution or organization without registration so long as the dog is being trained, or is being used for teaching and research purposes.
Any institution or organization certified by the Ohio public health council that obtains dogs for teaching and research purposes pursuant to this section shall, at all reasonable times, make the dogs available for inspection by agents of the Ohio humane society, appointed pursuant to section 1717.04 of the Revised Code, and agents of county humane societies, appointed pursuant to section 1717.06 of the Revised Code, in order that the agents may prevent the perpetration of any act of cruelty, as defined in section 1717.01 of the Revised Code, to the dogs.
(C) Any dog that the dog warden or poundkeeper is unable to dispose of, in the manner provided by this section and section 955.18 of the Revised Code, may be humanely destroyed, except that no dog shall be destroyed until twenty-four hours after it has been offered to a nonprofit teaching or research institution or organization, as provided in this section, that has made a request for dogs to the dog warden or poundkeeper.
(D) An owner of a dog that is wearing a valid registration tag who presents the dog to the dog warden or poundkeeper may specify in writing that the dog shall not be offered to a nonprofit teaching or research institution or organization, as provided in this section.
(E) A record of all dogs impounded, the disposition of the same, the owner's name and address, if known, and a statement of costs assessed against the dogs shall be kept by the poundkeeper, and he the poundkeeper shall furnish a transcript thereof to the county treasurer quarterly.
A record of all dogs received and the source that supplied them shall be kept, for a period of three years from the date of acquiring the dogs, by all institutions or organizations engaged in teaching or research concerning the prevention and treatment of diseases of human beings or animals.
(F) No person shall destroy any dog by the use of a high altitude decompression chamber or by any method other than a method that immediately and painlessly renders the dog initially unconscious and subsequently dead.
Sec. 955.43.  (A) When either a blind, deaf or hearing impaired, or mobility impaired person or a trainer of an assistance dog is accompanied by a an assistance dog that serves as or is in training to become a guide, leader, listener, or support dog for the person, and the person can show proof by certificate or other means that the dog leading the person, listening for the person, or providing support or assistance for the person has been or is being trained for that purpose by a nonprofit special agency engaged in such work, the person or the trainer, as applicable, is entitled to the full and equal accommodations, advantages, facilities, and privileges of all public conveyances, hotels, lodging places, all places of public accommodation, amusement, or resort, all institutions of education, and other places to which the general public is invited, and may take the dog into such conveyances and places, subject only to the conditions and limitations applicable to all persons not so accompanied, except that:
(1) The dog shall not occupy a seat in any public conveyance.
(2) The dog shall be upon a leash while using the facilities of a common carrier.
(3) Any dog in training to become a guide, leader, listener, or support an assistance dog shall be covered by a liability insurance policy provided by the nonprofit special agency engaged in such work protecting members of the public against personal injury or property damage caused by the dog.
(B) No person shall deprive a blind, deaf or hearing impaired, or mobility impaired person or a trainer of an assistance dog who is accompanied by an assistance dog of any of the advantages, facilities, or privileges provided in division (A) of this section, nor charge the blind, deaf, or mobility impaired person or trainer a fee or charge for the dog.
(C) As used in this section, "institutions of education" means:
(1) Any state university or college as defined in section 3345.32 of the Revised Code;
(2) Any private college or university that holds a certificate of authorization issued by the Ohio board of regents pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code;
(3) Any elementary or secondary school operated by a board of education;
(4) Any chartered or nonchartered nonpublic elementary or secondary school;
(5) Any school issued a certificate of registration by the state board of career colleges and schools.
Sec. 1309.102.  (A) As used in this chapter, unless the context requires otherwise:
(1) "Accession" means goods that are physically united with other goods in such a manner that the identity of the original goods is not lost.
(2)(a) "Account," except as used in "account for," means a right to payment of a monetary obligation, whether or not earned by performance, (i) for property that has been or is to be sold, leased, licensed, assigned, or otherwise disposed of, (ii) for services rendered or to be rendered, (iii) for a policy of insurance issued or to be issued, (iv) for a secondary obligation incurred or to be incurred, (v) for energy provided or to be provided, (vi) for the use or hire of a vessel under a charter or other contract, (vii) arising out of the use of a credit or charge card or information contained on or for use with the card, or (viii) as winnings in a lottery or other game of chance operated or sponsored by a state, governmental unit of a state, or person licensed or authorized to operate the game by a state or governmental unit of a state.
(b) "Account" includes health-care insurance receivables.
(c) "Account" does not include (i) rights to payment evidenced by chattel paper or an instrument, (ii) commercial tort claims, (iii) deposit accounts, (iv) investment property, (v) letter-of-credit rights or letters of credit, or (vi) rights to payment for money or funds advanced or sold, other than rights arising out of the use of a credit or charge card or information contained on or for use with the card.
(3) "Account debtor" means a person who is obligated on an account, chattel paper, or general intangible. "Account debtor" does not include a person who is obligated to pay a negotiable instrument, even if the instrument constitutes part of chattel paper.
(4) "Accounting," except as used in "accounting for," means a record:
(a) Authenticated by a secured party;
(b) Indicating the aggregate unpaid secured obligations as of a date not more than thirty-five days earlier or thirty-five days later than the date of the record; and
(c) Identifying the components of the obligations in reasonable detail.
(5) "Agricultural lien" means an interest, other than a security interest, in farm products:
(a) That secures payment or performance of an obligation for:
(i) Goods or services furnished in connection with a debtor's farming operation; or
(ii) Rent on real property leased by a debtor in connection with its farming operation.
(b) That is created by statute in favor of a person who:
(i) In the ordinary course of business, furnished goods or services to a debtor in connection with the debtor's farming operation; or
(ii) Leased real property to a debtor in connection with the debtor's farming operation; and
(c) Whose effectiveness does not depend on the person's possession of the personal property.
(6) "As-extracted collateral" means:
(a) Oil, gas, or other minerals that are subject to a security interest that:
(i) Is created by a debtor having an interest in the minerals before extraction; and
(ii) Attaches to the minerals as extracted; or
(b) Accounts arising out of the sale at the wellhead or minehead of oil, gas, or other minerals in which the debtor had an interest before extraction.
(7) "Authenticate" means:
(a) To sign; or
(b) To execute or otherwise adopt a symbol, or encrypt or similarly process a record in whole or in part, with the present intent of the authenticating person to identify the person and adopt or accept a record.
(8) "Bank" means an organization that is engaged in the business of banking. "Bank" includes savings banks, savings and loan associations, credit unions, and trust companies.
(9) "Cash proceeds" means proceeds that are money, checks, deposit accounts, or the like.
(10) "Certificate of title" means a certificate of title with respect to which a statute provides for the security interest in question to be indicated on the certificate as a condition or result of the security interest's obtaining priority over the rights of a lien creditor with respect to the collateral.
(11)(a) "Chattel paper" means a record that evidences both a monetary obligation and a security interest in specific goods, a security interest in specific goods and software used in the goods, a security interest in specific goods and license of software used in the goods, a lease of specific goods, or a lease of specific goods and license of software used in the goods.
As used in division (A)(11)(a) of this section, "monetary obligation" means a monetary obligation secured by the goods or owed under a lease of the goods and includes a monetary obligation with respect to software used in the goods.
(b) If a transaction is evidenced by records that include an instrument or series of instruments, the group of records taken together constitutes chattel paper.
(c) "Chattel paper" does not include (i) charters or other contracts involving the use or hire of a vessel or (ii) records that evidence a right to payment arising out of the use of a credit or charge card or information contained on or for use with the card.
(12) "Collateral" means the property subject to a security interest or agricultural lien, including:
(a) Proceeds to which a security interest attaches;
(b) Accounts, chattel paper, payment intangibles, and promissory notes that have been sold; and
(c) Goods that are the subject of a consignment.
(13) "Commercial tort claim" means a claim arising in tort with respect to which:
(a) The claimant is an organization; or
(b) The claimant is an individual, and the claim:
(i) Arose in the course of the claimant's business or profession; and
(ii) Does not include damages arising out of personal injury to or the death of an individual.
(14) "Commodity account" means an account maintained by a commodity intermediary in which a commodity contract is carried for a commodity customer.
(15) "Commodity contract" means a commodity futures contract, an option on a commodity futures contract, a commodity option, or another contract if the contract or option is:
(a) Traded on or subject to the rules of a board of trade that has been designated as a contract market for such a contract pursuant to the federal commodities laws; or
(b) Traded on a foreign commodity board of trade, exchange, or market and is carried on the books of a commodity intermediary for a commodity customer.
(16) "Commodity customer" means a person for whom a commodity intermediary carries a commodity contract on its books.
(17) "Commodity intermediary" means a person that:
(a) Is registered as a futures commission merchant under the federal commodities laws; or
(b) In the ordinary course of its business provides clearance or settlement services for a board of trade that has been designated as a contract market pursuant to the federal commodities laws.
(18) "Communicate" means:
(a) To send a written or other tangible record;
(b) To transmit a record by any means agreed upon by the persons sending and receiving the record; or
(c) In the case of transmission of a record to or by a filing office, to transmit a record by any means prescribed by filing-office rule.
(19) "Consignee" means a merchant to whom goods are delivered in a consignment.
(20) "Consignment" means a transaction, regardless of its form, in which a person delivers goods to a merchant for the purpose of sale and:
(a) The merchant:
(i) Deals in goods of that kind under a name other than the name of the person making delivery;
(ii) Is not an auctioneer; and
(iii) Is not generally known by its creditors to be substantially engaged in selling the goods of others;
(b) With respect to each delivery, the aggregate value of the goods is one thousand dollars or more at the time of delivery.
(c) The goods are not consumer goods immediately before delivery; and
(d) The transaction does not create a security interest that secures an obligation.
(21) "Consignor" means a person that delivers goods to a consignee in a consignment.
(22) "Consumer debtor" means a debtor in a consumer transaction.
(23) "Consumer goods" means goods that are used or bought for use primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
(24) "Consumer-goods transaction" means a consumer transaction in which:
(a) An individual incurs an obligation primarily for personal, family, or household purposes; and
(b) A security interest in consumer goods secures the obligation.
(25) "Consumer obligor" means an obligor who is an individual and who incurred the obligation as part of a transaction entered into primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
(26) "Consumer transaction" means a transaction in which: (a) an individual incurs an obligation primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, (b) a security interest secures the obligation, and (c) the collateral is held or acquired primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. "Consumer transaction" includes consumer-goods transactions.
(27) "Continuation statement" means an amendment of a financing statement that:
(a) Identifies, by its file number, the initial financing statement to which it relates; and
(b) Indicates that it is a continuation statement for, or that it is filed to continue the effectiveness of, the identified financing statement.
(28) "Debtor" means:
(a) A person having an interest, other than a security interest or other lien, in the collateral, whether or not the person is an obligor;
(b) A seller of accounts, chattel paper, payment intangibles, or promissory notes; or
(c) A consignee.
(29) "Deposit account" means a demand, time, savings, passbook, or similar account maintained with a bank but does not include investment property or accounts evidenced by an instrument.
(30) "Document" means a document of title or a receipt of the type described in division (B) of section 1307.06 of the Revised Code.
(31) "Electronic chattel paper" means chattel paper evidenced by a record consisting of information stored in an electronic medium.
(32) "Encumbrance" means a right, other than an ownership interest, in real property. "Encumbrance" includes mortgages and other liens on real property.
(33) "Equipment" means goods other than inventory, farm products, or consumer goods.
(34) "Farm products" means goods, other than standing timber, with respect to which the debtor is engaged in a farming operation and that are:
(a) Crops grown, growing, or to be grown, including:
(i) Crops produced on trees, vines, and bushes; and
(ii) Aquatic goods produced in aquacultural operations;
(b) Livestock, born or unborn, including aquatic goods produced in aquacultural operations;
(c) Supplies used or produced in a farming operation; or
(d) Products of crops or livestock in their unmanufactured states.
(35) "Farming operation" means raising, cultivating, propagating, fattening, grazing, or any other farming, livestock, or aquacultural operation.
(36) "File number" means the number assigned to an initial financing statement under division (A) of section 1309.519 of the Revised Code.
(37) "Filing office" means an office designated in section 1309.501 of the Revised Code as the place to file a financing statement.
(38) "Filing-office rule" means a rule adopted under section 1309.526 of the Revised Code.
(39) "Financing statement" means a record composed of an initial financing statement and any filed record or records relating to the initial financing statement. For the purposes of this chapter, financing statements filed for recording with the secretary of state shall not be required to include social security or employer identification numbers.
(40) "Fixture filing" means the filing of a financing statement covering goods that are or are to become fixtures and satisfying divisions (A) and (B) of section 1309.502 of the Revised Code. "Fixture filing" includes the filing of a financing statement covering goods of a transmitting utility that are or are to become fixtures.
(41) "Fixtures" means goods that have become so related to particular real property that an interest in them arises under real property law.
(42) "General intangible" means any personal property, including things in action, other than accounts, chattel paper, commercial tort claims, deposit accounts, documents, goods, instruments, investment property, letter-of-credit rights, letters of credit, money, and oil, gas, or other minerals before extraction. "General intangible" includes payment intangibles and software.
(43) "Good faith" means honesty in fact and the observance of reasonable commercial standards of fair dealing.
(44)(a) "Goods" means all things that are movable when a security interest attaches. "Goods" includes (i) fixtures, (ii) standing timber that is to be cut and removed under a conveyance or contract for sale, (iii) the unborn young of animals, (iv) crops grown, growing, or to be grown, even if the crops are produced on trees, vines, or bushes, and (v) manufactured homes.
(b) "Goods" also includes a computer program embedded in goods and any supporting information provided in connection with a transaction relating to the program if (i) the program is associated with the goods in such a manner that it customarily is considered part of the goods, or (ii) by becoming the owner of the goods, a person acquires a right to use the program in connection with the goods.
(c) "Goods" does not include a computer program embedded in goods that consist solely of the medium in which the program is embedded. "Goods" does not include accounts, chattel paper, commercial tort claims, deposit accounts, documents, general intangibles, instruments, investment property, letter-of-credit rights, letters of credit, money, or oil, gas, or other minerals before extraction.
(45) "Governmental unit" means a subdivision, agency, department, county, parish, municipal corporation, or other unit of the government of the United States, a state, or a foreign country. "Governmental unit" includes an organization having a separate corporate existence if the organization is eligible to issue debt on which interest is exempt from income taxation under the laws of the United States.
(46) "Health-care-insurance receivable" means an interest in or claim under a policy of insurance that is a right to payment of a monetary obligation for health-care goods or services provided.
(47)(a) "Instrument" means a negotiable instrument or any other writing that evidences a right to the payment of a monetary obligation, is not itself a security agreement or lease, and is of a type that in ordinary course of business is transferred by delivery with any necessary indorsement or assignment.
(b) "Instrument" does not include (i) investment property, (ii) letters of credit, or (iii) writings that evidence a right to payment arising out of the use of a credit or charge card or information contained on or for use with the card.
(48) "Inventory" means goods, other than farm products, that:
(a) Are leased by a person as lessor;
(b) Are held by a person for sale or lease or to be furnished under a contract of service;
(c) Are furnished by a person under a contract of service; or
(d) Consist of raw materials, work in process, or materials used or consumed in a business.
(49) "Investment property" means a security, whether certificated or uncertificated, a security entitlement, a securities account, a commodity contract, or a commodity account.
(50) "Jurisdiction of organization," with respect to a registered organization, means the jurisdiction under whose law the organization is organized.
(51) "Letter-of-credit right" means a right to payment or performance under a letter of credit, whether or not the beneficiary has demanded or is at the time entitled to demand payment or performance. "Letter-of-credit right" does not include the right of a beneficiary to demand payment or performance under a letter of credit.
(52) "Lien creditor" means:
(a) A creditor who has acquired a lien on the property involved by attachment, levy or the like;
(b) An assignee for benefit of creditors from the time of assignment;
(c) A trustee in bankruptcy from the date of the filing of the petition; or
(d) A receiver in equity from the time of appointment.
(53) "Manufactured home" means a structure, transportable in one or more sections, that, in the traveling mode, is eight body feet or more in width or forty body feet or more in length, or, when erected on site, is three hundred twenty or more square feet, and that is built on a permanent chassis and designed to be used as a dwelling with or without a permanent foundation when connected to the required utilities, and includes the plumbing, heating, air conditioning, and electrical systems contained in the structure. "Manufactured home" includes any structure that meets all of the requirements of this paragraph except the size requirements and with respect to which the manufacturer voluntarily files a certification required by the United States secretary of housing and urban development and complies with the standards established under Title 42 of the United States Code.
(54) "Manufactured-home transaction" means a secured transaction:
(a) That creates a purchase-money security interest in a manufactured home, other than a manufactured home held as inventory; or
(b) In which a manufactured home, other than a manufactured home held as inventory, is the primary collateral.
(55) "Mortgage" means a consensual interest in real property, including fixtures, that secures payment or performance of an obligation.
(56) "New debtor" means a person that becomes bound as debtor under division (D) of section 1309.203 of the Revised Code by a security agreement previously entered into by another person.
(57)(a) "New value" means (i) money, (ii) money's worth in property, services, or new credit, or (iii) release by a transferee of an interest in property previously transferred to the transferee.
(b) "New value" does not include an obligation substituted for another obligation.
(58) "Noncash proceeds" means proceeds other than cash proceeds.
(59)(a) "Obligor" means a person who, with respect to an obligation secured by a security interest in or an agricultural lien on the collateral, (i) owes payment or other performance of the obligation, (ii) has provided property other than the collateral to secure payment or other performance of the obligation, or (iii) is otherwise accountable in whole or in part for payment or other performance of the obligation.
(b) "Obligor" does not include issuers or nominated persons under a letter of credit.
(60) "Original debtor," except as used in division (C) of section 1309.310 of the Revised Code, means a person who, as debtor, entered into a security agreement to which a new debtor has become bound under division (D) of section 1309.203 of the Revised Code.
(61) "Payment intangible" means a general intangible under which the account debtor's principal obligation is a monetary obligation.
(62) "Person related to," with respect to an individual, means:
(a) The spouse of the individual;
(b) A brother, brother-in-law, sister, or sister-in-law of the individual;
(c) An ancestor or lineal descendant of the individual or the individual's spouse; or
(d) Any other relative, by blood or marriage, of the individual or the individual's spouse who shares the same home with the individual.
(63) "Person related to," with respect to an organization, means:
(a) A person directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the organization;
(b) An officer or director of, or a person performing similar functions with respect to, the organization;
(c) An officer or director of, or a person performing similar functions with respect to, a person described in division (A)(63)(a) of this section;
(d) The spouse of an individual described in division (A)(63)(a), (b), or (c) of this section; or
(e) An individual who is related by blood or marriage to an individual described in division (A)(63)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of this section and shares the same home with the individual.
(64) "Proceeds," except as used in division (B) of section 1309.609 of the Revised Code, means the following property:
(a) Whatever is acquired upon the sale, lease, license, exchange, or other disposition of collateral;
(b) Whatever is collected on, or distributed on account of, collateral;
(c) Rights arising out of collateral;
(d) To the extent of the value of collateral, claims arising out of the loss, nonconformity, or interference with the use of, defects or infringement of rights in, or damage to the collateral; or
(e) To the extent of the value of collateral and to the extent payable to the debtor or the secured party, insurance payable by reason of the loss or nonconformity of, defects or infringement of rights in, or damage to the collateral.
(65) "Promissory note" means an instrument that evidences a promise to pay a monetary obligation, does not evidence an order to pay, and does not contain an acknowledgment by a bank that the bank has received for deposit a sum of money or funds.
(66) "Proposal" means a record authenticated by a secured party that includes the terms on which the secured party is willing to accept collateral in full or partial satisfaction of the obligation it secures pursuant to sections 1309.620, 1309.621, and 1309.622 of the Revised Code.
(67) "Public-finance transaction" means a secured transaction in connection with which:
(a) Debt securities are issued;
(b) All or a portion of the securities issued have an initial stated maturity of at least twenty years; and
(c) The debtor, obligor, secured party, account debtor or other person obligated on collateral, assignor or assignee of a secured obligation, or assignor or assignee of a security interest is a state or a governmental unit of a state.
(68) "Pursuant to commitment," with respect to an advance made or other value given by a secured party, means pursuant to the secured party's obligation, whether or not a subsequent event of default or other event not within the secured party's control has relieved or may relieve the secured party from its obligation.
(69) "Record," except as used in "for record," "of record," "record or legal title," and "record owner," means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.
(70) "Registered organization" means an organization organized solely under the law of a single state or the United States and as to which the state or the United States must maintain a public record showing the organization to have been organized.
(71) "Secondary obligor" means an obligor to the extent that:
(a) The obligor's obligation is secondary; or
(b) The obligor has a right of recourse with respect to an obligation secured by collateral against the debtor, another obligor, or property of either.
(72) "Secured party" means:
(a) A person in whose favor a security interest is created or provided for under a security agreement, whether or not any obligation to be secured is outstanding;
(b) A person that holds an agricultural lien;
(c) A consignor;
(d) A person to whom accounts, chattel paper, payment intangibles, or promissory notes have been sold;
(e) A trustee, indenture trustee, agent, collateral agent, or other representative in whose favor a security interest or agricultural lien is created or provided for; or
(f) A person who holds a security interest arising under section 1302.42, 1302.49, 1302.85, 1304.20, 1305.18, or 1310.54 of the Revised Code.
(73) "Security agreement" means an agreement that creates or provides for a security interest.
(74) "Send," in connection with a record or notification, means:
(a) To deposit in the mail, deliver for transmission, or transmit by any other usual means of communication, with postage or cost of transmission provided for, addressed to any address reasonable under the circumstances; or
(b) To cause the record or notification to be received within the time that it would have been received if properly sent under division (A)(74)(a) of this section.
(75) "Software" means a computer program and any supporting information provided in connection with a transaction relating to the program. "Software" does not include a computer program that is included in the definition of goods.
(76) "State" means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.
(77) "Supporting obligation" means a letter-of-credit right or secondary obligation that supports the payment or performance of an account, chattel paper, a document, a general intangible, an instrument, or investment property.
(78) "Tangible chattel paper" means chattel paper evidenced by a record consisting of information that is inscribed on a tangible medium.
(79) "Termination statement" means an amendment of a financing statement that:
(a) Identifies, by its file number, the initial financing statement to which it relates; and
(b) Indicates either that it is a termination statement or that the identified financing statement is no longer effective.
(80) "Transmitting utility" means a person primarily engaged in the business of:
(a) Operating a railroad, subway, street railway, or trolley bus;
(b) Transmitting communications electrically, electromagnetically, or by light;
(c) Transmitting goods by pipeline or sewer; or
(d) Transmitting or producing and transmitting electricity, steam, gas, or water.
(B) Other definitions applying to this chapter are:
(1) "Applicant" has the same meaning as in section 1305.01 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Beneficiary" has the same meaning as in section 1305.01 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Broker" has the same meaning as in section 1308.01 of the Revised Code.
(4) "Certificated security" has the same meaning as in section 1308.01 of the Revised Code.
(5) "Check" has the same meaning as in section 1303.03 of the Revised Code.
(6) "Clearing corporation" has the same meaning as in section 1308.01 of the Revised Code.
(7) "Contract for sale" has the same meaning as in section 1302.01 of the Revised Code.
(8) "Customer" has the same meaning as in section 1304.01 of the Revised Code.
(9) "Entitlement holder" has the same meaning as in section 1308.01 of the Revised Code.
(10) "Financial asset" has the same meaning as in section 1308.01 of the Revised Code.
(11) "Holder in due course" has the same meaning as in section 1303.32 of the Revised Code.
(12) "Issuer," with respect to a letter of credit or letter-of-credit right, has the same meaning as in section 1305.01 of the Revised Code.
(13) "Issuer," with respect to a security, has the same meaning as in section 1308.08 of the Revised Code.
(14) "Lease," "lease agreement," "lease contract," "leasehold interest," "lessee," "lessee in ordinary course of business," "lessor," and "lessor's residual interest" have the same meanings as in section 1310.01 of the Revised Code.
(15) "Letter of credit" has the same meaning as in section 1305.01 of the Revised Code.
(16) "Merchant" has the same meaning as in section 1302.01 of the Revised Code.
(17) "Negotiable instrument" has the same meaning as in section 1303.03 of the Revised Code.
(18) "Nominated person" has the same meaning as in section 1305.01 of the Revised Code.
(19) "Note" has the same meaning as in section 1303.03 of the Revised Code.
(20) "Proceeds of a letter of credit" has the same meaning as in section 1305.13 of the Revised Code.
(21) "Prove" has the same meaning as in section 1303.01 of the Revised Code.
(22) "Sale" has the same meaning as in division (A)(11) of section 1302.01 of the Revised Code.
(23) "Securities account" has the same meaning as in section 1308.51 of the Revised Code.
(24) "Securities intermediary," "security," "security certificate," "security entitlement," and "uncertificated security" have the same meanings as in section 1308.01 of the Revised Code.
(C) The terms and principles of construction and interpretations set forth in sections 1301.01 to 1301.14 of the Revised Code are applicable to this chapter.
Sec. 1309.520.  (A) A filing office shall refuse to accept a record for filing for a reason specified in division (B) of section 1309.516 of the Revised Code and may refuse to accept a record for filing only for a reason specified in that division. However, the secretary of state's office shall redact social security and employer identification numbers from filings posted on its web site.
(B) If a filing office refuses to accept a record for filing, it shall communicate to the person who presented the record the fact of and reason for the refusal and the date and time the record would have been filed had the filing office accepted it. The communication must be made at the time and in the manner prescribed by the applicable filing-office rule but, in the case of a filing office described in division (A)(2) of section 1309.501 of the Revised Code, in no event more than two business days after the filing office receives the record.
(C) A filed financing statement that satisfies divisions (A) and (B) of section 1309.502 of the Revised Code is effective, even if the filing office is required to refuse to accept it for filing under division (A) of this section. However, section 1309.338 of the Revised Code applies to a filed financing statement that provides information described in division (B)(5) of section 1309.516 of the Revised Code that is incorrect at the time the financing statement is filed.
(D) If a record communicated to a filing office provides information that relates to more than one debtor, sections 1309.501 to 1309.527 of the Revised Code apply as to each debtor separately.
Sec. 1309.521.  (A) A filing office that accepts written records may not refuse to accept a written initial financing statement in the following form and format except for a reason prescribed in division (B) of section 1309.516 of the Revised Code:
UCC FINANCING STATEMENT
Follow instructions (front and back) carefully.
A. Name and phone of contact at filer (optional)
.................................................................
B. Send acknowledgment to: (name and address)
..................................
..................................
.................................. The above space is for filing office use only.
1. DEBTOR'S EXACT FULL LEGAL NAME
(Insert only one debtor name [1a or 1b]. Do not abbreviate or
combine names.)
1a. Organization's name .........................................
or
1b. Individual's last name ............. First name .............
Middle name ........................... Suffix ..................
1c. Mailing address .............................................
City .......... State ....... Postal code ...... Country ........
1d. Tax ID Number: SSN or EIN ...................................
Additional information regarding organization debtor
1e1d. Type of organization ........................................
1f1e. Jurisdiction of organization ................................
2. ADDITIONAL DEBTOR'S EXACT FULL LEGAL NAME
(Insert only one debtor name [2a or 2b]. Do not abbreviate or
combine names.)
2a. Organization's name .........................................
or
2b. Individual's last name ............. First name .............
Middle name ........................... Suffix ..................
2c. Mailing address .............................................
City .......... State ....... Postal code ...... Country ........
2d. Tax ID Number: SSN or EIN ...................................
Additional information regarding organization debtor
2e2d. Type of organization ........................................
2f2e. Jurisdiction of organization ................................
3. SECURED PARTY'S NAME (or name of total assignee of assignor
S/P). Insert only one secured party name (3a or 3b).
3a. Organization's name .........................................
or
3b. Individual's last name ............. First name .............
Middle name ........................... Suffix ..................
3c. Mailing address .............................................
City .......... State ....... Postal code ...... Country ........
4. This FINANCING STATEMENT covers the following collateral:
.................................................................
.................................................................
.................................................................
.................................................................
5. ALTERNATIVE DESIGNATION (if applicable):
[ ] Lessee/lessor [ ] Consignee/consignor [ ] Bailee/bailor
[ ] Seller/buyer [ ] Ag. lien [ ] Non-UCC filing
6. [ ] This FINANCING STATEMENT is to be filed [for record] (or
recorded) in the REAL ESTATE RECORDS. Attach addendum ..........
[if applicable].
7. Check to REQUEST SEARCH REPORT(S) on debtor(s)
[ADDITIONAL FEE] .......... [optional]
[ ] All debtors [ ] Debtor 1 [ ] Debtor 2
8. OPTIONAL FILER REFERENCE DATA
.................................................................
.................................................................

UCC FINANCING STATEMENT ADDENDUM
Follow instructions (front and back) carefully.
9. NAME OF FIRST DEBTOR (1a OR 1b) ON RELATED FINANCING STATEMENT
9a. Organization's name .........................................
or
9b. Individual's last name ............. First name .............
Middle name ........................... Suffix ..................
10. MISCELLANEOUS
..................................
..................................
.................................. The above space is for filing office use only.
11. ADDITIONAL DEBTOR'S EXACT FULL LEGAL NAME
(Insert only one name [11a or 11b]. Do not abbreviate or combine
names.)
11a. Organization's name ........................................
or
11b. Individual's last name ............. First name ............
Middle name ........................... Suffix ..................
11c. Mailing address ............................................
City .......... State ....... Postal code ...... Country ........
11d. Tax ID Number: SSN or EIN ..................................
Additional information regarding organization debtor
11e11d. Type of organization .......................................
11f11e. Jurisdiction of organization ...............................
12. [ ] ADDITIONAL SECURED PARTY'S or [ ] ASSIGNOR S/P'S NAME
(Insert only one name [12a or 12b].)
12a. Organization's name ........................................
or
12b. Individual's last name ............. First name ............
Middle name ........................... Suffix ..................
12c. Mailing address ............................................
City .......... State ....... Postal code ...... Country ........
13. This FINANCING STATEMENT covers [ ] timber to be cut or
[ ] as-extracted collateral, or is filed as a [ ] fixture filing.
14. DESCRIPTION OF REAL ESTATE:
.................................................................
.................................................................
.................................................................
.................................................................
15. Name and address of a RECORD OWNER of above-described real
estate (if debtor does not have a record interest):
.................................................................
.................................................................
.................................................................
16. Additional collateral description:
.................................................................
.................................................................
.................................................................
.................................................................
17. Check only if applicable and check only one box.
Debtor is a [ ] Trust or [ ] Trustee acting with respect to
property held in trust or [ ] Decedent's estate
18. Check only if applicable and check only one box.
[ ] Debtor is a transmitting utility
[ ] Filed in connection with a manufactured-home transaction -
effective 30 years
[ ] Filed in connection with a public-finance transaction -
effective 30 years

(B) A filing office that accepts written records may not refuse to accept a written record in the following form and format except for a reason prescribed in division (B) of section 1309.516 of the Revised Code:
UCC FINANCING STATEMENT AMENDMENT
Follow instructions (front and back) carefully.
A. Name and phone of contact at filer (optional)
................................................................
B. Send acknowledgment to: (name and address)
..................................
..................................
.................................. The above space is for filing office use only.
1a. INITIAL FINANCING STATEMENT FILE NUMBER ....................
1b. [ ] This financing statement amendment is to be filed [for
record] (or recorded) in the real estate records.
2. [ ] TERMINATION: Effectiveness of the financing statement identified above is terminated with respect to security interest(s) of the secured party authorizing this termination statement.
3. [ ] CONTINUATION: Effectiveness of the financing statement identified above with respect to security interest(s) of the secured party authorizing this continuation statement is continued for the additional period provided by applicable law.
4. [ ] ASSIGNMENT (full or partial): Give name of assignee in item 7a or 7b and address of assignee in item 7c; and also give name of assignor in item 9.
5. AMENDMENT (PARTY INFORMATION): This amendment affects [ ] Debtor
or [ ] Secured Party of record. Check only one of these two boxes.

Also check one of the following three boxes and provide appropriate information in items 6 and/or 7.
[ ] CHANGE name and/or address. Give current record name in item 6a or 6b; also give new name (if name change) in item 7a or 7b and/or new address (if address change) in item 7c.
[ ] DELETE name. Give record name to be deleted in item 6a or 6b.
[ ] ADD name. Complete item 7a or 7b, and also item 7c; also complete items 7d-7g (if applicable).

6. CURRENT RECORD INFORMATION:
6a. Organization's name .........................................
or
6b. Individual's last name .................. First name ........
Middle name ................................. Suffix ............
7. CHANGED (NEW) OR ADDED INFORMATION:
7a. Organization's name .........................................
or
7b. Individual's last name .................. First name ........
Middle name ................................. Suffix ............
7c. Mailing address .............................................
City ........ State ....... Postal code ....... Country .........
7d. Tax ID Number: SSN or EIN ...................................
Additional information regarding organization debtor
7e7d. Type of organization ........................................
7f7e. Jurisdiction of organization ................................
8. AMENDMENT (COLLATERAL CHANGE). Check only one box.
Describe collateral [ ] deleted or [ ] added, or give entire
[ ] restated collateral description, or describe collateral
[ ] assigned.
.................................................................
.................................................................
.................................................................
.................................................................
9. NAME OF SECURED PARTY OF RECORD AUTHORIZING THIS AMENDMENT
(name of assignor, if this is an assignment). If this is an
amendment authorized by a debtor that adds collateral or adds
the authorizing debtor, or if this is a termination authorized
by a debtor, check here [ ] and enter name of debtor
authorizing this amendment.
9a. Organization's name .........................................
or
9b. Individual's last name ................ First name ..........
Middle name ............................... Suffix ..............
10. OPTIONAL FILER REFERENCE DATA
.................................................................

UCC FINANCING STATEMENT AMENDMENT ADDENDUM
Follow instructions (front and back) carefully.
11. INITIAL FINANCING STATEMENT FILE NUMBER (same as item 1a
on amendment form) .............................................
12. NAME OF PARTY AUTHORIZING
THIS AMENDMENT (same as item 9
on amendment form)
12a. Organization's name
.................................
or
12b. Individual's last name
.................................
First name ......................
Middle name .......... Suffix ... The above space is for filing office use only.
13. Use this space for additional information.
...................................................................
...................................................................
...................................................................

...................................................................

Sec. 1317.07.  No retail installment contract authorized by section 1317.03 of the Revised Code that is executed in connection with any retail installment sale shall evidence any indebtedness in excess of the time balance fixed in the written instrument in compliance with section 1317.04 of the Revised Code, but it may evidence in addition any agreements of the parties for the payment of delinquent charges, as provided for in section 1317.06 of the Revised Code, taxes, and any lawful fee actually paid out, or to be paid out, by the retail seller to any public officer for filing, recording, or releasing any instrument securing the payment of the obligation owed on any retail installment contract. No retail seller, directly or indirectly, shall charge, contract for, or receive from any retail buyer, any further or other amount for examination, service, brokerage, commission, expense, fee, or other thing of value. A documentary service charge customarily and presently being paid on May 9, 1949, in a particular business and area may be charged if the charge does not exceed one two hundred fifty dollars per sale.
No retail seller shall use multiple agreements with respect to a single item or related items purchased at the same time, with intent to obtain a higher charge than would otherwise be permitted by Chapter 1317. of the Revised Code or to avoid disclosure of an annual percentage rate, nor by use of such agreements make any charge greater than that which would be permitted by Chapter 1317. of the Revised Code had a single agreement been used.
Sec. 1321.02.  No person shall engage in the business of lending money, credit, or choses in action in amounts of five thousand dollars or less, or exact, contract for, or receive, directly or indirectly, on or in connection with any such loan, any interest and charges that in the aggregate are greater than the interest and charges that the lender would be permitted to charge for a loan of money if the lender were not a licensee, without first having obtained a license from the division of financial institutions under sections 1321.01 to 1321.19 of the Revised Code.
Sections 1321.01 to 1321.19 of the Revised Code do not apply to any person doing business under and as permitted by any law of this state, another state, or the United States relating to banks, savings banks, savings societies, trust companies, credit unions, savings and loan associations substantially all the business of which is confined to loans on real estate mortgages and evidences of their own indebtedness; to registrants conducting business pursuant to sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code; to licensees conducting business pursuant to sections 1321.71 to 1321.83 of the Revised Code; or to licensees doing business pursuant to sections 1315.35 to 1315.44 of the Revised Code; or to any entity who is licensed pursuant to Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, who makes advances or loans to any person who is licensed to sell insurance pursuant to that Title, and who is authorized in writing by that entity to sell insurance. No person engaged in the business of selling tangible goods or services related thereto may receive or retain a license under sections 1321.01 to 1321.19 of the Revised Code for such place of business.
The first paragraph of this section applies to any person, who by any device, subterfuge, or pretense, charges, contracts for, or receives greater interest, consideration, or charges than that authorized by this section for any such loan or use of money or for any such loan, use, or sale of credit, or who for a fee or any manner of compensation arranges or offers to find or arrange for another person to make any such loan, use, or sale of credit. This section does not preclude the acquiring, directly or indirectly, by purchase or discount, of a bona fide obligation for goods or services when such obligation is payable directly to the person who provided the goods or services.
Any contract of loan in the making or collection of which an act is done by the lender that violates this section is void and the lender has no right to collect, receive, or retain any principal, interest, or charges.
Sec. 1333.11.  As used in sections 1333.11 to 1333.21 of the Revised Code:
(A) "Cost to the retailer" means the invoice cost of cigarettes to the retailer, or the replacement cost of cigarettes to the retailer within thirty days prior to the date of sale, in the quantity last purchased, whichever is lower, less all trade discounts except customary discounts for cash, to which shall be added the cost of doing business by the retailer as evidenced by the standards and the methods of accounting regularly employed by the retailer in the retailer's allocation of overhead costs and expenses, paid or incurred. "Cost to the retailer" must include, without limitation, labor, including salaries of executives and officers, rent, depreciation, selling costs, maintenance of equipment, delivery costs, all types of licenses, insurance, advertising, and taxes, exclusive of county cigarette taxes paid or payable on the cigarettes. Where the sale to the retailer is on a cash and carry basis, the cartage to the retail outlet, if performed or paid for by the retailer, shall be added to the invoice cost of the cigarettes to the retailer. In the absence of proof of a lesser or higher cost by the retailer, the cartage cost shall be three-fourths of one per cent of the invoice cost of the cigarettes to the retailer, not including the amount added thereto by the wholesaler for the face value of state and county cigarette tax stamps affixed to each package of cigarettes.
(B) In the absence of proof of a lesser or higher cost of doing business by the retailer making the sale, the cost of doing business to the retailer shall be eight per cent of the invoice cost of the cigarettes to the retailer exclusive of the face value of county cigarette taxes paid on the cigarettes or of the replacement cost of the cigarettes to the retailer within thirty days prior to the date of sale in the quantity last purchased exclusive of the face value of county cigarette taxes paid on the cigarettes, whichever is lower, less all trade discounts except customary discounts for cash.
(C) "Cost to the wholesaler" means the invoice cost of the cigarettes to the wholesaler, or the replacement cost of the cigarettes to the wholesaler within thirty days prior to the date of sale, in the quantity last purchased, whichever is lower, less all trade discounts except customary discounts for cash, to which shall be added a wholesaler's markup to cover in part the cost of doing business, which wholesaler's markup, in the absence of proof of a lesser or higher cost of doing business by the wholesaler as evidenced by the standards and methods of accounting regularly employed by the wholesaler in the wholesaler's allocation of overhead costs and expenses, paid or incurred, including without limitation, labor, salaries of executives and officers, rent, depreciation, selling costs, maintenance of equipment, delivery, delivery costs, all types of licenses, taxes, insurance, and advertising, shall be three and five-tenths per cent of such invoice cost of the cigarettes to the wholesaler, to which shall be added the full face value of state and county cigarette tax stamps affixed by the wholesaler to each package of cigarettes, or of the replacement cost of the cigarettes to the wholesaler within thirty days prior to the date of sale in the quantity last purchased, whichever is lower, less all trade discounts except customary discounts for cash. Where the sale by the wholesaler to the retailer is on a cash and carry basis, the wholesaler may, in the absence of proof of a lesser or higher cost, allow to the retailer an amount not to exceed three-fourths of one per cent of the "cost to the wholesaler" excluding the amount added thereto for the face value of state and county cigarette tax stamps affixed to each package of cigarettes.
(D) Any person licensed to sell cigarettes as both a wholesaler and a retailer, who does sell cigarettes at retail, shall, in determining "cost to the retailer", first compute "cost to the wholesaler" as provided in division (C) of this section; that "cost to the wholesaler" shall then be used in lieu of the lower of either invoice cost or replacement cost less all trade discounts except customary discounts for cash in computing "cost to the retailer" as provided in divisions (A) and (B) of this section.
(E) In all advertisements, offers for sale, or sales involving two or more items at a combined price and in all advertisements, offers for sale, or sales involving the giving of any concession of any kind, whether it be coupons or otherwise, the retailer's or wholesaler's selling price shall not be below the "cost to the retailer" or the "cost to wholesaler", respectively, of all articles, products, commodities, and concessions included in such transactions.
(F)(1) "Sell at retail," "sales at retail," and "retail sales" include any transfer of title to tangible personal property for a valuable consideration made, in the ordinary course of trade or usual prosecution of the seller's business, to the purchaser for consumption or use.
(2) "Sell at wholesale," "sales at wholesale," and "wholesale sales" include any such transfer of title to tangible personal property for the purpose of resale.
(G) "Retailer" includes any person who is permitted to sell cigarettes at retail within this state under section 5743.15 of the Revised Code.
(H) "Wholesaler" includes any person who is permitted to sell cigarettes at wholesale within this state under that section.
(I) "Person" includes individuals, corporations, partnerships, associations, joint-stock companies, business trusts, unincorporated organizations, receivers, or trustees.
(J) "County cigarette taxes" means the taxes levied under section 5743.021, 5743.024, or 5743.026 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 1333.82.  As used in sections 1333.82 to 1333.87 of the Revised Code:
(A) "Alcoholic beverages" means beer and wine as defined in section 4301.01 of the Revised Code.
(B) "Manufacturer" means a person, whether located in this state or elsewhere, who that manufactures or supplies alcoholic beverages to distributors in this state.
(C) "Distributor" means a person who that sells or distributes alcoholic beverages to retail permit holders in the this state, but does not include the state or any of its political subdivisions.
(D) "Franchise" means a contract or any other legal device used to establish a contractual relationship between a manufacturer and a distributor.
(E) "Good faith" means the duty of any party to any franchise, and all officers, employees, or agents of any party to any franchise, to act in a fair and equitable manner toward each other so as to guarantee each party freedom from coercion or intimidation; except that recommendation, endorsement, exposition, persuasion, urging, or argument shall not be considered to constitute a lack of good faith or coercion.
(F) "Brand," as applied to wine, means a wine different from any other wine in respect to type, brand, trade name, or container size.
(G) "Sales area or territory" means an exclusive geographic area or territory that is assigned to a particular A or B permit holder and that either has one or more political subdivisions as its boundaries or consists of an area of land with readily identifiable geographic boundaries. "Sales area or territory" does not include, however, any particular retail location in an exclusive geographic area or territory that is had been assigned to another A or B permit holder before April 9, 2001.
Sec. 1523.02.  If the governor approves the plans, specifications, and estimates authorized by section 1523.01 of the Revised Code, the chief of the division of water shall thereupon proceed, as provided in sections 1523.02 to 1523.13 of the Revised Code, to construct the improvements or to make alterations in or to enlarge those already existing, in such manner and form as is shown by such plans and specifications. In order to provide the funds for such construction, alteration, or enlargement, the chief shall issue and sell bonds of the state, not in excess of the estimated cost of such improvements. The bonds shall be issued in denominations of not less than one hundred dollars payable as a whole or in series on or before fifty years from the date thereof, with interest not to exceed the rate provided in section 9.95 of the Revised Code, payable either annually or semiannually.
The bonds shall show on their face the purpose for which issued and shall create no liability upon or be considered an indebtedness of the state, but both the principal and interest shall be paid solely out of the proceeds arising from the improvements constructed, altered, or enlarged by the chief, or from the proceeds of the sale or foreclosure of the lien securing the bonds on such improvement or such part thereof as is constructed from the money realized from the sale of the bonds.
The form of the bonds shall be approved by the attorney general, and they shall be signed by the governor and attested by the director of natural resources and the chief. The bonds may be issued as coupon bonds, payable to bearer only, or upon demand of the owner or holder thereof as registered bonds.
Such bonds shall be sold by the chief to the highest bidder therefor, but for not less than the par value thereof, with accrued interest thereon, after thirty days' notice in at least two newspapers of general circulation in the county where such improvements are to be constructed, altered, or enlarged, setting forth the nature, amount, rate of interest, and length of time the bonds have to run, with the time and place of sale.
The treasurer of state shall be the treasurer of the fund realized from the sale of such bonds, and the auditor of state shall be the auditor of such fund. The proceeds of such sale shall be turned over to the treasurer of state and shall be deposited by him the treasurer of state in a solvent bank, located either in Columbus or in the county in which such improvements are located. Such proceeds shall be kept by such bank in a fund to be known as the water conservation improvement fund. Such fund shall be used to acquire the necessary real estate and to construct such new improvements and for no other purpose, except that the treasurer of state may pay the interest on the bonds during the period of condemnation and the construction, alteration, or enlargement of such improvements out of the proceeds arising from the sale of the bonds for a term not exceeding three years from the date on which the bonds are issued. The bank shall give bond to the state in such amount as the treasurer of state considers advisable, and with surety to his the satisfaction of the treasurer of state, for the benefit of the holders of the bonds, and for the benefit of any contractors performing labor or furnishing material for such improvements, as provided by law, conditioned that it will safely keep the money and will make no payments or disbursements therefrom except as provided in sections 1523.01 to 1523.13 of the Revised Code.
The treasurer of state shall hold such fund as trustee for the holders of the bonds and for all persons performing labor or furnishing material for the construction, alteration, or enlargement of any improvement made under such sections. Such funds shall not be turned into the state treasury, but shall be deposited and disbursed by the treasurer of state as provided in such sections. The interest coupons attached to such bonds shall bear the signature of the treasurer of state, executed by him the treasurer of state or printed or lithographed thereon.
Both the interest and principal of such bonds shall be made payable at the office of the treasurer of state in Columbus, and shall be paid by the treasurer of state, without warrant of the auditor of state or authority of the director of budget and management, to the owner or holder of such bonds upon presentation by the owner or holder of matured interest coupons or bonds.
Sec. 1901.31.  The clerk and deputy clerks of a municipal court shall be selected, be compensated, give bond, and have powers and duties as follows:
(A) There shall be a clerk of the court who is appointed or elected as follows:
(1)(a) Except in the Akron, Barberton, Cuyahoga Falls, Toledo, Hamilton county, Portage county, and Wayne county municipal courts, if the population of the territory equals or exceeds one hundred thousand at the regular municipal election immediately preceding the expiration of the term of the present clerk, the clerk shall be nominated and elected by the qualified electors of the territory in the manner that is provided for the nomination and election of judges in section 1901.07 of the Revised Code.
The clerk so elected shall hold office for a term of six years, which term shall commence on the first day of January following the clerk's election and continue until the clerk's successor is elected and qualified.
(b) In the Hamilton county municipal court, the clerk of courts of Hamilton county shall be the clerk of the municipal court and may appoint an assistant clerk who shall receive the compensation, payable out of the treasury of Hamilton county in semimonthly installments, that the board of county commissioners prescribes. The clerk of courts of Hamilton county, acting as the clerk of the Hamilton county municipal court and assuming the duties of that office, shall receive compensation at one-fourth the rate that is prescribed for the clerks of courts of common pleas as determined in accordance with the population of the county and the rates set forth in sections 325.08 and 325.18 of the Revised Code. This compensation shall be paid from the county treasury in semimonthly installments and is in addition to the annual compensation that is received for the performance of the duties of the clerk of courts of Hamilton county, as provided in sections 325.08 and 325.18 of the Revised Code.
(c) In the Portage county and Wayne county municipal courts, the clerks of courts of Portage county and Wayne county shall be the clerks, respectively, of the Portage county and Wayne county municipal courts and may appoint a chief deputy clerk for each branch that is established pursuant to section 1901.311 of the Revised Code and assistant clerks as the judges of the municipal court determine are necessary, all of whom shall receive the compensation that the legislative authority prescribes. The clerks of courts of Portage county and Wayne county, acting as the clerks of the Portage county and Wayne county municipal courts and assuming the duties of these offices, shall receive compensation payable from the county treasury in semimonthly installments at one-fourth the rate that is prescribed for the clerks of courts of common pleas as determined in accordance with the population of the county and the rates set forth in sections 325.08 and 325.18 of the Revised Code.
(d) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1)(d) of this section, in the Akron municipal court, candidates for election to the office of clerk of the court shall be nominated by primary election. The primary election shall be held on the day specified in the charter of the city of Akron for the nomination of municipal officers. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 3513.05 or 3513.257 of the Revised Code, the declarations of candidacy and petitions of partisan candidates and the nominating petitions of independent candidates for the office of clerk of the Akron municipal court shall be signed by at least fifty qualified electors of the territory of the court.
The candidates shall file a declaration of candidacy and petition, or a nominating petition, whichever is applicable, not later than four p.m. of the seventy-fifth day before the day of the primary election, in the form prescribed by section 3513.07 or 3513.261 of the Revised Code. The declaration of candidacy and petition, or the nominating petition, shall conform to the applicable requirements of section 3513.05 or 3513.257 of the Revised Code.
If no valid declaration of candidacy and petition is filed by any person for nomination as a candidate of a particular political party for election to the office of clerk of the Akron municipal court, a primary election shall not be held for the purpose of nominating a candidate of that party for election to that office. If only one person files a valid declaration of candidacy and petition for nomination as a candidate of a particular political party for election to that office, a primary election shall not be held for the purpose of nominating a candidate of that party for election to that office, and the candidate shall be issued a certificate of nomination in the manner set forth in section 3513.02 of the Revised Code.
Declarations of candidacy and petitions, nominating petitions, and certificates of nomination for the office of clerk of the Akron municipal court shall contain a designation of the term for which the candidate seeks election. At the following regular municipal election, all candidates for the office shall be submitted to the qualified electors of the territory of the court in the manner that is provided in section 1901.07 of the Revised Code for the election of the judges of the court. The clerk so elected shall hold office for a term of six years, which term shall commence on the first day of January following the clerk's election and continue until the clerk's successor is elected and qualified.
(e) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1)(e) of this section, in the Barberton municipal court, candidates for election to the office of clerk of the court shall be nominated by primary election. The primary election shall be held on the day specified in the charter of the city of Barberton for the nomination of municipal officers. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 3513.05 or 3513.257 of the Revised Code, the declarations of candidacy and petitions of partisan candidates and the nominating petitions of independent candidates for the office of clerk of the Barberton municipal court shall be signed by at least fifty qualified electors of the territory of the court.
The candidates shall file a declaration of candidacy and petition, or a nominating petition, whichever is applicable, not later than four p.m. of the seventy-fifth day before the day of the primary election, in the form prescribed by section 3513.07 or 3513.261 of the Revised Code. The declaration of candidacy and petition, or the nominating petition, shall conform to the applicable requirements of section 3513.05 or 3513.257 of the Revised Code.
If no valid declaration of candidacy and petition is filed by any person for nomination as a candidate of a particular political party for election to the office of clerk of the Barberton municipal court, a primary election shall not be held for the purpose of nominating a candidate of that party for election to that office. If only one person files a valid declaration of candidacy and petition for nomination as a candidate of a particular political party for election to that office, a primary election shall not be held for the purpose of nominating a candidate of that party for election to that office, and the candidate shall be issued a certificate of nomination in the manner set forth in section 3513.02 of the Revised Code.
Declarations of candidacy and petitions, nominating petitions, and certificates of nomination for the office of clerk of the Barberton municipal court shall contain a designation of the term for which the candidate seeks election. At the following regular municipal election, all candidates for the office shall be submitted to the qualified electors of the territory of the court in the manner that is provided in section 1901.07 of the Revised Code for the election of the judges of the court. The clerk so elected shall hold office for a term of six years, which term shall commence on the first day of January following the clerk's election and continue until the clerk's successor is elected and qualified.
(f) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1)(f) of this section, in the Cuyahoga Falls municipal court, candidates for election to the office of clerk of the court shall be nominated by primary election. The primary election shall be held on the day specified in the charter of the city of Cuyahoga Falls for the nomination of municipal officers. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 3513.05 or 3513.257 of the Revised Code, the declarations of candidacy and petitions of partisan candidates and the nominating petitions of independent candidates for the office of clerk of the Cuyahoga Falls municipal court shall be signed by at least fifty qualified electors of the territory of the court.
The candidates shall file a declaration of candidacy and petition, or a nominating petition, whichever is applicable, not later than four p.m. of the seventy-fifth day before the day of the primary election, in the form prescribed by section 3513.07 or 3513.261 of the Revised Code. The declaration of candidacy and petition, or the nominating petition, shall conform to the applicable requirements of section 3513.05 or 3513.257 of the Revised Code.
If no valid declaration of candidacy and petition is filed by any person for nomination as a candidate of a particular political party for election to the office of clerk of the Cuyahoga Falls municipal court, a primary election shall not be held for the purpose of nominating a candidate of that party for election to that office. If only one person files a valid declaration of candidacy and petition for nomination as a candidate of a particular political party for election to that office, a primary election shall not be held for the purpose of nominating a candidate of that party for election to that office, and the candidate shall be issued a certificate of nomination in the manner set forth in section 3513.02 of the Revised Code.
Declarations of candidacy and petitions, nominating petitions, and certificates of nomination for the office of clerk of the Cuyahoga Falls municipal court shall contain a designation of the term for which the candidate seeks election. At the following regular municipal election, all candidates for the office shall be submitted to the qualified electors of the territory of the court in the manner that is provided in section 1901.07 of the Revised Code for the election of the judges of the court. The clerk so elected shall hold office for a term of six years, which term shall commence on the first day of January following the clerk's election and continue until the clerk's successor is elected and qualified.
(g) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1)(g) of this section, in the Toledo municipal court, candidates for election to the office of clerk of the court shall be nominated by primary election. The primary election shall be held on the day specified in the charter of the city of Toledo for the nomination of municipal officers. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 3513.05 or 3513.257 of the Revised Code, the declarations of candidacy and petitions of partisan candidates and the nominating petitions of independent candidates for the office of clerk of the Toledo municipal court shall be signed by at least fifty qualified electors of the territory of the court.
The candidates shall file a declaration of candidacy and petition, or a nominating petition, whichever is applicable, not later than four p.m. of the seventy-fifth day before the day of the primary election, in the form prescribed by section 3513.07 or 3513.261 of the Revised Code. The declaration of candidacy and petition, or the nominating petition, shall conform to the applicable requirements of section 3513.05 or 3513.257 of the Revised Code.
If no valid declaration of candidacy and petition is filed by any person for nomination as a candidate of a particular political party for election to the office of clerk of the Toledo municipal court, a primary election shall not be held for the purpose of nominating a candidate of that party for election to that office. If only one person files a valid declaration of candidacy and petition for nomination as a candidate of a particular political party for election to that office, a primary election shall not be held for the purpose of nominating a candidate of that party for election to that office, and the candidate shall be issued a certificate of nomination in the manner set forth in section 3513.02 of the Revised Code.
Declarations of candidacy and petitions, nominating petitions, and certificates of nomination for the office of clerk of the Toledo municipal court shall contain a designation of the term for which the candidate seeks election. At the following regular municipal election, all candidates for the office shall be submitted to the qualified electors of the territory of the court in the manner that is provided in section 1901.07 of the Revised Code for the election of the judges of the court. The clerk so elected shall hold office for a term of six years, which term shall commence on the first day of January following the clerk's election and continue until the clerk's successor is elected and qualified.
(2)(a) Except for the Alliance, Auglaize county, Brown county, Columbiana county, Lorain, Massillon, and Youngstown municipal courts, in a municipal court for which the population of the territory is less than one hundred thousand, the clerk shall be appointed by the court, and the clerk shall hold office until the clerk's successor is appointed and qualified.
(b) In the Alliance, Lorain, Massillon, and Youngstown municipal courts, the clerk shall be elected for a term of office as described in division (A)(1)(a) of this section.
(c) In the Auglaize county and Brown county municipal courts, the clerks of courts of Auglaize county and Brown county shall be the clerks, respectively, of the Auglaize county and Brown county municipal courts and may appoint a chief deputy clerk for each branch that is established pursuant to section 1901.311 of the Revised Code, and assistant clerks as the judge of the court determines are necessary, all of whom shall receive the compensation that the legislative authority prescribes. The clerks of courts of Auglaize county and Brown county, acting as the clerks of the Auglaize county and Brown county municipal courts and assuming the duties of these offices, shall receive compensation payable from the county treasury in semimonthly installments at one-fourth the rate that is prescribed for the clerks of courts of common pleas as determined in accordance with the population of the county and the rates set forth in sections 325.08 and 325.18 of the Revised Code.
(d) In the Columbiana county municipal court, the clerk of courts of Columbiana county shall be the clerk of the municipal court, may appoint a chief deputy clerk for each branch office that is established pursuant to section 1901.311 of the Revised Code, and may appoint any assistant clerks that the judges of the court determine are necessary. All of the chief deputy clerks and assistant clerks shall receive the compensation that the legislative authority prescribes. The clerk of courts of Columbiana county, acting as the clerk of the Columbiana county municipal court and assuming the duties of that office, shall receive in either biweekly installments or semimonthly installments, as determined by the payroll administrator, compensation payable from the county treasury in semimonthly installments at one-fourth the rate that is prescribed for the clerks of courts of common pleas as determined in accordance with the population of the county and the rates set forth in sections 325.08 and 325.18 of the Revised Code.
(3) During the temporary absence of the clerk due to illness, vacation, or other proper cause, the court may appoint a temporary clerk, who shall be paid the same compensation, have the same authority, and perform the same duties as the clerk.
(B) Except in the Hamilton county, Portage county, and Wayne county municipal courts, if a vacancy occurs in the office of the clerk of the Alliance, Lorain, Massillon, or Youngstown municipal court or occurs in the office of the clerk of a municipal court for which the population of the territory equals or exceeds one hundred thousand because the clerk ceases to hold the office before the end of the clerk's term or because a clerk-elect fails to take office, the vacancy shall be filled, until a successor is elected and qualified, by a person chosen by the residents of the territory of the court who are members of the county central committee of the political party by which the last occupant of that office or the clerk-elect was nominated. Not less than five nor more than fifteen days after a vacancy occurs, those members of that county central committee shall meet to make an appointment to fill the vacancy. At least four days before the date of the meeting, the chairperson or a secretary of the county central committee shall notify each such member of that county central committee by first class mail of the date, time, and place of the meeting and its purpose. A majority of all such members of that county central committee constitutes a quorum, and a majority of the quorum is required to make the appointment. If the office so vacated was occupied or was to be occupied by a person not nominated at a primary election, or if the appointment was not made by the committee members in accordance with this division, the court shall make an appointment to fill the vacancy. A successor shall be elected to fill the office for the unexpired term at the first municipal election that is held more than one hundred twenty days after the vacancy occurred.
(C)(1) In a municipal court, other than the Auglaize county, the Brown county, the Columbiana county, and the Lorain municipal courts, for which the population of the territory is less than one hundred thousand, the clerk of the municipal court shall receive the annual compensation that the presiding judge of the court prescribes, if the revenue of the court for the preceding calendar year, as certified by the auditor or chief fiscal officer of the municipal corporation in which the court is located or, in the case of a county-operated municipal court, the county auditor, is equal to or greater than the expenditures, including any debt charges, for the operation of the court payable under this chapter from the city treasury or, in the case of a county-operated municipal court, the county treasury for that calendar year, as also certified by the auditor or chief fiscal officer. If the revenue of a municipal court, other than the Auglaize county, the Brown county, the Columbiana county, and the Lorain municipal courts, for which the population of the territory is less than one hundred thousand for the preceding calendar year as so certified is not equal to or greater than those expenditures for the operation of the court for that calendar year as so certified, the clerk of a municipal court shall receive the annual compensation that the legislative authority prescribes. As used in this division, "revenue" means the total of all costs and fees that are collected and paid to the city treasury or, in a county-operated municipal court, the county treasury by the clerk of the municipal court under division (F) of this section and all interest received and paid to the city treasury or, in a county-operated municipal court, the county treasury in relation to the costs and fees under division (G) of this section.
(2) In a municipal court, other than the Hamilton county, Portage county, and Wayne county municipal courts, for which the population of the territory is one hundred thousand or more, and in the Lorain municipal court, the clerk of the municipal court shall receive annual compensation in a sum equal to eighty-five per cent of the salary of a judge of the court.
(3) The compensation of a clerk described in division (C)(1) or (2) of this section is payable in semimonthly installments from the same sources and in the same manner as provided in section 1901.11 of the Revised Code.
(D) Before entering upon the duties of the clerk's office, the clerk of a municipal court shall give bond of not less than six thousand dollars to be determined by the judges of the court, conditioned upon the faithful performance of the clerk's duties.
(E) The clerk of a municipal court may do all of the following: administer oaths, take affidavits, and issue executions upon any judgment rendered in the court, including a judgment for unpaid costs; issue, sign, and attach the seal of the court to all writs, process, subpoenas, and papers issuing out of the court; and approve all bonds, sureties, recognizances, and undertakings fixed by any judge of the court or by law. The clerk may refuse to accept for filing any pleading or paper submitted for filing by a person who has been found to be a vexatious litigator under section 2323.52 of the Revised Code and who has failed to obtain leave to proceed under that section. The clerk shall do all of the following: file and safely keep all journals, records, books, and papers belonging or appertaining to the court; record the proceedings of the court; perform all other duties that the judges of the court may prescribe; and keep a book showing all receipts and disbursements, which book shall be open for public inspection at all times.
The clerk shall prepare and maintain a general index, a docket, and other records that the court, by rule, requires, all of which shall be the public records of the court. In the docket, the clerk shall enter, at the time of the commencement of an action, the names of the parties in full, the names of the counsel, and the nature of the proceedings. Under proper dates, the clerk shall note the filing of the complaint, issuing of summons or other process, returns, and any subsequent pleadings. The clerk also shall enter all reports, verdicts, orders, judgments, and proceedings of the court, clearly specifying the relief granted or orders made in each action. The court may order an extended record of any of the above to be made and entered, under the proper action heading, upon the docket at the request of any party to the case, the expense of which record may be taxed as costs in the case or may be required to be prepaid by the party demanding the record, upon order of the court.
(F) The clerk of a municipal court shall receive, collect, and issue receipts for all costs, fees, fines, bail, and other moneys payable to the office or to any officer of the court. The clerk shall each month disburse to the proper persons or officers, and take receipts for, all costs, fees, fines, bail, and other moneys that the clerk collects. Subject to sections 3375.50 and 4511.193 of the Revised Code and to any other section of the Revised Code that requires a specific manner of disbursement of any moneys received by a municipal court and except for the Hamilton county, Lawrence county, and Ottawa county municipal courts, the clerk shall pay all fines received for violation of municipal ordinances into the treasury of the municipal corporation the ordinance of which was violated and shall pay all fines received for violation of township resolutions adopted pursuant to Chapter 504. of the Revised Code into the treasury of the township the resolution of which was violated. Subject to sections 1901.024 and 4511.193 of the Revised Code, in the Hamilton county, Lawrence county, and Ottawa county municipal courts, the clerk shall pay fifty per cent of the fines received for violation of municipal ordinances and fifty per cent of the fines received for violation of township resolutions adopted pursuant to Chapter 504. of the Revised Code into the treasury of the county. Subject to sections 3375.50, 3375.53, 4511.19, and 5503.04 of the Revised Code and to any other section of the Revised Code that requires a specific manner of disbursement of any moneys received by a municipal court, the clerk shall pay all fines collected for the violation of state laws into the county treasury. Except in a county-operated municipal court, the clerk shall pay all costs and fees the disbursement of which is not otherwise provided for in the Revised Code into the city treasury. The clerk of a county-operated municipal court shall pay the costs and fees the disbursement of which is not otherwise provided for in the Revised Code into the county treasury. Moneys deposited as security for costs shall be retained pending the litigation. The clerk shall keep a separate account of all receipts and disbursements in civil and criminal cases, which shall be a permanent public record of the office. On the expiration of the term of the clerk, the clerk shall deliver the records to the clerk's successor. The clerk shall have other powers and duties as are prescribed by rule or order of the court.
(G) All moneys paid into a municipal court shall be noted on the record of the case in which they are paid and shall be deposited in a state or national bank, or a domestic savings and loan association, as defined in section 1151.01 of the Revised Code, that is selected by the clerk. Any interest received upon the deposits shall be paid into the city treasury, except that, in a county-operated municipal court, the interest shall be paid into the treasury of the county in which the court is located.
On the first Monday in January of each year, the clerk shall make a list of the titles of all cases in the court that were finally determined more than one year past in which there remains unclaimed in the possession of the clerk any funds, or any part of a deposit for security of costs not consumed by the costs in the case. The clerk shall give notice of the moneys to the parties who are entitled to the moneys or to their attorneys of record. All the moneys remaining unclaimed on the first day of April of each year shall be paid by the clerk to the city treasurer, except that, in a county-operated municipal court, the moneys shall be paid to the treasurer of the county in which the court is located. The treasurer shall pay any part of the moneys at any time to the person who has the right to the moneys upon proper certification of the clerk.
(H) Deputy clerks may be appointed by the clerk and shall receive the compensation, payable in either biweekly installments or semimonthly installments, as determined by the payroll administrator, out of the city treasury, that the clerk may prescribe, except that the compensation of any deputy clerk of a county-operated municipal court shall be paid out of the treasury of the county in which the court is located. Each deputy clerk shall take an oath of office before entering upon the duties of the deputy clerk's office and, when so qualified, may perform the duties appertaining to the office of the clerk. The clerk may require any of the deputy clerks to give bond of not less than three thousand dollars, conditioned for the faithful performance of the deputy clerk's duties.
(I) For the purposes of this section, whenever the population of the territory of a municipal court falls below one hundred thousand but not below ninety thousand, and the population of the territory prior to the most recent regular federal census exceeded one hundred thousand, the legislative authority of the municipal corporation may declare, by resolution, that the territory shall be considered to have a population of at least one hundred thousand.
(J) The clerk or a deputy clerk shall be in attendance at all sessions of the municipal court, although not necessarily in the courtroom, and may administer oaths to witnesses and jurors and receive verdicts.
Sec. 1901.311.  A municipal court may establish one or more branch offices and may appoint a special deputy clerk to administer each branch office. Each special deputy clerk shall take an oath of office before entering upon the duties of his office, and, when so qualified, may perform any one or more of the duties appertaining to the office of clerk, as the court prescribes. Special deputy clerks appointed by the court pursuant to this section shall receive such compensation payable in either biweekly installments or semimonthly installments, as determined by the payroll administrator, out of the city treasury as the court may prescribe, except that the compensation of any special deputy clerk of a county-operated municipal court shall be payable out of the treasury of the county in which the court is located. The court may require any of the special deputy clerks to give bond of not less than three thousand dollars, conditioned for the faithful performance of his duties.
Sec. 1901.32.  (A) The bailiffs and deputy bailiffs of a municipal court shall be provided for, and their duties are, as follows:
(1) Except for the Hamilton county municipal court, the court shall appoint a bailiff who shall receive the annual compensation that the court prescribes payable in either biweekly installments or semimonthly installments, as determined by the payroll administrator, from the same sources and in the same manner as provided in section 1901.11 of the Revised Code. The court may provide that the chief of police of the municipal corporation or a member of the police force be appointed by the court to be the bailiff of the court. Before entering upon his the duties of office, the bailiff shall take an oath to faithfully perform the duties of the office and shall give a bond of not less than three thousand dollars, as the legislative authority prescribes, conditioned for the faithful performance of his the duties as of chief bailiff.
(2) Except for the Hamilton county municipal court, deputy bailiffs may be appointed by the court. Deputy bailiffs shall receive the compensation payable in semimonthly installments out of the city treasury that the court prescribes, except that the compensation of deputy bailiffs in a county-operated municipal court shall be paid out of the treasury of the county in which the court is located. Each deputy bailiff shall give a bond in an amount not less than one thousand dollars, and, when so qualified, he may perform the duties pertaining to the office of chief bailiff of the court.
(3) The bailiff and all deputy bailiffs of the Hamilton county municipal court shall be appointed by the clerk and shall receive the compensation payable in semimonthly installments out of the treasury of Hamilton county that the clerk prescribes. Each judge of the Hamilton county municipal court may appoint a courtroom bailiff, each of whom shall receive the compensation payable in semimonthly installments out of the treasury of Hamilton county that the court prescribes.
(4) The legislative authority may purchase motor vehicles for the use of the bailiffs and deputy bailiffs as the court determines they need to perform the duties of their office. All expenses, maintenance, and upkeep of the vehicles shall be paid by the legislative authority upon approval by the court. Any allowances, costs, and expenses for the operation of private motor vehicles by bailiffs and deputy bailiffs for official duties, including the cost of oil, gasoline, and maintenance, shall be prescribed by the court and, subject to the approval of the legislative authority, shall be paid from the city treasury, except that the allowances, costs, and expenses for the bailiffs and deputy bailiffs of a county-operated municipal court shall be paid from the treasury of the county in which the court is located.
(5) Every police officer of any municipal corporation and police constable of a township within the territory of the court is ex officio a deputy bailiff of the court in and for the municipal corporation or township within in which he is commissioned as a police officer or police constable, and shall perform any duties in respect to cases within his the officer or constable's jurisdiction that are required of him by a judge of the court, or by the clerk or a bailiff or deputy bailiff of the court, without additional compensation.
(6) The bailiff and deputy bailiffs shall perform for the court services similar to those performed by the sheriff for the court of common pleas and shall perform any other duties that are requested by rule of court.
The bailiff or deputy bailiff may administer oaths to witnesses and jurors and receive verdicts in the same manner and form and to the same extent as the clerk or deputy clerks of the court. The bailiff may approve all undertakings and bonds given in actions of replevin and all redelivery bonds in attachments.
(B) In the Cleveland municipal court, the chief clerks and all deputy clerks are in the classified civil service of the city of Cleveland. The clerk, the chief deputy clerks, the probation officers, one private secretary, one personal stenographer to the clerk, and one personal bailiff to each judge are in the unclassified civil service of the city of Cleveland. Upon demand of the clerk, the civil service commission of the city of Cleveland shall certify a list of those eligible for the position of deputy clerk. From the list, the clerk shall designate chief clerks and the number of deputy clerks that the legislative authority determines are necessary.
Except as otherwise provided in this division, the bailiff, chief deputy bailiffs, and all deputy bailiffs of the Cleveland municipal court appointed after January 1, 1968, and the chief housing specialist, housing specialists, and housing division referees of the housing division of the Cleveland municipal court appointed under section 1901.331 of the Revised Code are in the unclassified civil service of the city of Cleveland. All deputy bailiffs of the housing division of the Cleveland municipal court appointed pursuant to that section are in the classified civil service of the city of Cleveland. Upon the demand of the judge of the housing division of the Cleveland municipal court, the civil service commission of the city of Cleveland shall certify a list of those eligible for the position of deputy bailiff of the housing division. From the list, the judge of the housing division shall designate the number of deputy bailiffs that he the judge determines are necessary.
The chief deputy clerks, the chief clerks, and all other deputy clerks of the Cleveland municipal court shall receive the compensation that the clerk prescribes. Except as provided in division (A)(4)(a) of section 1901.331 of the Revised Code with respect to officers and employees of the housing division of the Cleveland municipal court, the bailiff, all deputy bailiffs, and assignment room personnel of the Cleveland municipal court shall receive the compensation that the court prescribes.
Any appointee under sections 1901.01 to 1901.37 of the Revised Code may be dismissed or discharged by the same power that appointed him the appointee. In the case of the removal of any civil service appointee under those sections, an appeal may be taken from the decision of the civil service commission to the court of common pleas of Cuyahoga county to determine the sufficiency of the cause of removal. The appeal shall be taken within ten days of the finding of the commission.
In the Cleveland municipal court, the presiding judge may appoint on a full-time, per diem, or contractual basis any official court reporters for the civil branch of the court that the business of the court requires. The compensation of official court reporters shall be determined by the presiding judge of the court. The compensation shall be payable from the city treasury and from the treasury of Cuyahoga county in the same proportion as designated in section 1901.11 of the Revised Code for the payment of compensation of municipal judges. In every trial in which the services of a court reporter so appointed are requested by the judge, any party, or the attorney for any party, there shall be taxed for each day's services of the court reporter a fee in the same amount as may be taxed for similar services in the court of common pleas under section 2301.21 of the Revised Code, to be collected as other costs in the case. The fees so collected shall be paid quarterly by the clerk into the city treasury and the treasury of Cuyahoga county in the same proportion as the compensation for the court reporters is paid from the city and county treasuries and shall be credited to the general funds of the city and county treasuries.
(C) In the Hamilton county municipal court, all employees, including the bailiff, deputy bailiff, and courtroom bailiffs, are in the unclassified civil service.
Sec. 1901.33.  (A) The judge or judges of a municipal court may appoint one or more interpreters, one or more mental health professionals, one or more probation officers, an assignment commissioner, deputy assignment commissioners, and other court aides on a full-time, part-time, hourly, or other basis. Each appointee shall receive the compensation out of the city treasury that the legislative authority prescribes in either biweekly installments or semimonthly installments, as determined by the payroll administrator, except that in a county-operated municipal court they shall receive the compensation out of the treasury of the county in which the court is located that the board of county commissioners prescribes. Probation officers have all the powers of regular police officers and shall perform any duties that are designated by the judge or judges of the court. Assignment commissioners shall assign cases for trial and perform any other duties that the court directs.
The judge or judges may appoint one or more typists, stenographers, statistical clerks, and official court reporters, each of whom shall be paid the compensation out of the city treasury that the legislative authority prescribes, except that in a county-operated municipal court they shall be paid the compensation out of the treasury of the county in which the court is located that the board of county commissioners prescribes.
(B) If a municipal court appoints one or more probation officers, those officers shall constitute the municipal court department of probation unless the court designates other employees as the department of probation for the court.
(C) The chief probation officer may grant permission to a probation officer to carry firearms when required in the discharge of the probation officer's official duties if the probation officer has successfully completed a basic firearm training program that is approved by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission. A probation officer who has been granted permission to carry a firearm in the discharge of the probation officer's official duties annually shall successfully complete a firearms requalification program in accordance with section 109.801 of the Revised Code.
(D) The judge or judges of a municipal court in which the clerk of the court is elected as provided in division (A)(1)(a) or (d) or (A)(2)(b) of section 1901.31 of the Revised Code may appoint an administrative assistant. The administrative assistant shall have charge of personnel related matters of the court and shall perform any other administrative duties assigned by the court. The administrative assistant shall receive the compensation out of the city treasury that the court prescribes, except that, in a county-operated municipal court, the administrative assistant shall receive the compensation out of the treasury of the county in which the court is located that the court prescribes.
Sec. 2151.357. (A)(1) In the manner prescribed by division (C)(1) or (2) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code, as applicable, the court, at the time of making any order that removes a child from the child's own home or that vests legal or permanent custody of the child in a person other than the child's parent or a government agency, shall determine the school district that is to bear the cost of educating the child. The court shall make the determination a part of the order that provides for the child's placement or commitment. That school district shall bear the cost of educating the child unless and until the court modifies its order pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section.
(2) If, while the child is in the custody of a person other than the child's parent or a government agency, the department of education notifies the court that the place of residence of the child's parent has changed since the court issued its initial order, the court may modify its order to name a different school district to bear the cost of educating the child. The department may submit the notice to the court upon receipt, from the school district initially ordered to bear the cost of educating the child, of evidence acceptable to the department that the residence of the child's parent has changed since the court issued its initial order. In the notice to the court, the department shall recommend to the court whether a different district should be ordered to bear the cost of educating the child and, if so, which district should be so ordered. The department shall recommend to the court the district in which the child's parent currently resides or, if the parent's residence is not known, the district in which the parent's last known residence is located. If the department cannot determine any Ohio district in which the parent currently resides or has resided, the school district designated in the initial court order shall continue to bear the cost of educating the child.
The court may consider the content of a notice by the department of education under division (A)(2) of this section as conclusive evidence as to which school district should bear the cost of educating the child and may amend its order accordingly.
(B) Whenever a child is placed in a detention facility established under section 2152.41 of the Revised Code or a juvenile facility established under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code, the child's school district as determined by the court shall pay the cost of educating the child based on the per capita cost of the educational facility within the detention home or juvenile facility.
(C) Whenever a child is placed by the court in a private institution, school, or residential treatment center or any other private facility, the state shall pay to the court a subsidy to help defray the expense of educating the child in an amount equal to the product of the daily per capita educational cost of the private facility, as determined pursuant to this section, and the number of days the child resides at the private facility, provided that the subsidy shall not exceed twenty-five hundred dollars per year per child. The daily per capita educational cost of a private facility shall be determined by dividing the actual program cost of the private facility or twenty-five hundred dollars, whichever is less, by three hundred sixty-five days or by three hundred sixty-six days for years that include February twenty-ninth. The state shall pay seventy-five per cent of the total subsidy for each year quarterly to the court. The state may adjust the remaining twenty-five per cent of the total subsidy to be paid to the court for each year to an amount that is less than twenty-five per cent of the total subsidy for that year based upon the availability of funds appropriated to the department of education for the purpose of subsidizing courts that place a child in a private institution, school, or residential treatment center or any other private facility and shall pay that adjusted amount to the court at the end of the year.
Sec.  2152.44.  (A) As soon as practical after the organization of the joint board of county commissioners as provided by section 2152.41 of the Revised Code, the joint board shall appoint a board of not less than five trustees. The board shall hold office until the first annual meeting after the choice of an established site and buildings, or after the selection and purchase of a building site. At that time, the joint board of county commissioners shall appoint a board of not less than five trustees, one of whom shall hold office for a term of one year, one for a term of two years, one for a term of three years, half of the remaining number for a term of four years, and the remainder for a term of five years. Annually thereafter, the joint board of county commissioners shall appoint one or more trustees, each of whom shall hold office for a term of five years, to succeed the trustee or trustees whose term of office expires. A trustee may be appointed to successive terms. Any person appointed as a trustee shall be recommended and approved by the juvenile court judge or judges of the county of which the person resides.
At least one trustee shall reside in each county in the district. In districts composed of two counties, each county shall be entitled to not less than two trustees. In districts composed of more than four counties, the number of trustees shall be sufficiently increased, provided that there shall always be an uneven number of trustees on the board. The county in which a district detention facility is located shall have not less than two trustees, who, in the interim period between the regular meetings of the trustees, shall act as an executive committee in the discharge of all business pertaining to the facility.
The joint board of county commissioners may remove any trustee for good cause. The trustee appointed to fill any vacancy shall hold the office for the unexpired term of the predecessor trustee.
(B) The annual meeting of the board of trustees shall be held on the first Tuesday in May in each year.
A majority of the board constitutes a quorum. Other board meetings shall be held at least quarterly. The juvenile court judge of each county of the district, or the judge's designee, shall attend the meetings. The members of the board shall receive no compensation for their services, except their actual and necessary expenses. The treasurer shall pay the member's traveling expenses when properly certified.
(C) When the board of trustees does not choose an established institution in one of the counties of the district, it may select a suitable site for the erection of a district detention facility. The site must be easily accessible, conducive to health, economy in purchasing or in building, and the general interest of the facility and its residents, and be as near as practicable to the geographical center of the district.
In the interim between the selection and purchase of a site, and the erection and occupancy of the district detention facility, the joint board of county commissioners provided under section 2151.41 2152.41 of the Revised Code may delegate to the board of trustees any powers and duties that, in its judgment, will be of general interest or aid to the institution. The joint board of county commissioners may appropriate a trustees' fund, to be expended by the trustees for contracts, purchases, or other necessary expenses of the facility. The trustees shall make a complete settlement with the joint board of county commissioners once each six months, or quarterly if required, and shall make to the board of county commissioners and to the juvenile court of each of the counties a full report of the condition of the facility and residents.
(D) The choice of an established site and buildings, or the purchase of a site, stock, implements, and general farm equipment, should there be a farm, the erection of buildings, and the completion and furnishing of the district detention facility for occupancy, shall be in the hands of the joint board of county commissioners organized under section 2152.41 of the Revised Code. The joint board of county commissioners may delegate all or a portion of these duties to the board of trustees, under any restrictions that the joint board of county commissioners imposes.
When an established site and buildings are used for a district detention facility, the joint board of county commissioners shall cause the value of that site and those buildings to be properly appraised. This appraisal value, or in case of the purchase of a site, the purchase price and the cost of all improvements thereto, shall be paid by the counties comprising the district, in proportion to the taxable property of each county, as shown by its tax duplicate.
(E) Once a district is established, the trustees shall operate, maintain, and manage the facility as provided in sections 2152.41 to 2152.43 of the Revised Code and, on and after the effective date of this amendment and notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the contrary, may adopt bylaws regarding the daily operation, maintenance, and management of the facility. No bylaw adopted pursuant to this division may supersede any provision of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2305.2341. (A) The medical liability insurance reimbursement program is hereby established. Free clinics, including the clinics' staff and volunteer health care professionals and volunteer health care workers, may participate in the medical liability insurance reimbursement program established by this section. The coverage provided under the program shall be limited to claims that arise out of the diagnosis, treatment, and care of patients of free clinics, as defined in division (D)(1) of this section.
(B) A free clinic is eligible to receive reimbursement under the medical liability insurance reimbursement program for the premiums that the clinic pays for medical liability insurance coverage for the clinic, its staff, and volunteer health care professionals and health care workers. Free clinics shall register with the department of health by the thirty-first day of January of each year in order to participate in and to obtain reimbursement under the program. Free clinics shall provide all of the following to the department of health at the time of registration:
(1) A statement of the number of volunteer and paid health care professionals and health care workers providing health care services at the free clinic at that time;
(2) A statement of the number of health care services rendered by the free clinic during the previous fiscal year;
(3) A signed form acknowledging that the free clinic agrees to follow its medical liability insurer's risk management and loss prevention policies;
(4) A copy of the medical liability insurance policy purchased by the free clinic, or the policy's declaration page, and documentation of the premiums paid by the clinic.
(C) The department of health shall reimburse free clinics participating in the professional liability insurance reimbursement program for up to eighty per cent of the premiums that the free clinic pays for medical liability insurance coverage up to twenty thousand dollars. Appropriations to the department of health may be made from the general fund of the state for this purpose.
(D) As used in this section:
(1) "Free clinic" means a nonprofit organization exempt from federal income taxation under section 501(c)(3) of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," as amended, or a program component of a nonprofit organization, whose primary mission is to provide health care services for free or for a minimal administrative fee to individuals with limited resources. A free clinic facilitates the delivery of health care services through the use of volunteer health care professionals and voluntary care networks. For this purpose, a free clinic shall comply with all of the following:
(a) If a free clinic does request a minimal administrative fee, a free clinic shall not deny an individual access to its health care services based on an individual's ability to pay the fee.
(b) A free clinic shall not bill a patient for health care services rendered.
(c) Free clinics shall not perform operations, as defined by divisions (A)(9) and (F)(1)(b) of section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.
A clinic is not a free clinic if the clinic bills medicaid, medicare, or other third-party payers for health care services rendered at the clinic, and receives twenty-five per cent or more of the clinic's annual revenue from the third-party payments.
(2) "Health care professional" and "health care worker" have the same meanings as in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2503.20.  When requested by the supreme court, the reporter of the supreme court shall attend its sessions and consultations and shall report and prepare its decisions for publication under its direction. The reporter shall prepare for publication and edit, tabulate, and index those opinions and decisions of any court of appeals furnished him the reporter for publication by any such court, and such opinions and decisions of any of the inferior courts, as may be designated by him the reporter and approved by the chief justice of the supreme court. No cases in any court of appeals shall be reported for publication except those selected by that court of appeals, or by a majority of the judges thereof.
The supreme court may appoint assistants necessary to carry on the work of the reporter's office. The court shall fix the compensation of each assistant, which compensation shall be paid out of the state treasury upon the warrant of the auditor of state director of budget and management.
Whenever a case is reported for publication, the syllabus of such case shall be prepared by the judge delivering the opinion, and approved by a majority of the members of the court. Such report may be per curiam, or if an opinion is reported, such opinion shall be written in as concise form as may be consistent with a clear presentation of the law of the case. Opinions for permanent publication in book form shall be furnished to the reporter and to no other person. All such cases shall be reported in accordance with this section before they are recognized by and receive the official sanction of any court.
Sec. 2913.01.  As used in this chapter, unless the context requires that a term be given a different meaning:
(A) "Deception" means knowingly deceiving another or causing another to be deceived by any false or misleading representation, by withholding information, by preventing another from acquiring information, or by any other conduct, act, or omission that creates, confirms, or perpetuates a false impression in another, including a false impression as to law, value, state of mind, or other objective or subjective fact.
(B) "Defraud" means to knowingly obtain, by deception, some benefit for oneself or another, or to knowingly cause, by deception, some detriment to another.
(C) "Deprive" means to do any of the following:
(1) Withhold property of another permanently, or for a period that appropriates a substantial portion of its value or use, or with purpose to restore it only upon payment of a reward or other consideration;
(2) Dispose of property so as to make it unlikely that the owner will recover it;
(3) Accept, use, or appropriate money, property, or services, with purpose not to give proper consideration in return for the money, property, or services, and without reasonable justification or excuse for not giving proper consideration.
(D) "Owner" means, unless the context requires a different meaning, any person, other than the actor, who is the owner of, who has possession or control of, or who has any license or interest in property or services, even though the ownership, possession, control, license, or interest is unlawful.
(E) "Services" include labor, personal services, professional services, public utility services including wireless service as defined in division (F)(1) of section 4931.40 of the Revised Code, common carrier services, and food, drink, transportation, entertainment, and cable television services and, for purposes of section 2913.04 of the Revised Code, include cable services as defined in that section.
(F) "Writing" means any computer software, document, letter, memorandum, note, paper, plate, data, film, or other thing having in or upon it any written, typewritten, or printed matter, and any token, stamp, seal, credit card, badge, trademark, label, or other symbol of value, right, privilege, license, or identification.
(G) "Forge" means to fabricate or create, in whole or in part and by any means, any spurious writing, or to make, execute, alter, complete, reproduce, or otherwise purport to authenticate any writing, when the writing in fact is not authenticated by that conduct.
(H) "Utter" means to issue, publish, transfer, use, put or send into circulation, deliver, or display.
(I) "Coin machine" means any mechanical or electronic device designed to do both of the following:
(1) Receive a coin, bill, or token made for that purpose;
(2) In return for the insertion or deposit of a coin, bill, or token, automatically dispense property, provide a service, or grant a license.
(J) "Slug" means an object that, by virtue of its size, shape, composition, or other quality, is capable of being inserted or deposited in a coin machine as an improper substitute for a genuine coin, bill, or token made for that purpose.
(K) "Theft offense" means any of the following:
(1) A violation of section 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2911.31, 2911.32, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.45, 2913.47, former section 2913.47 or 2913.48, or section 2913.51, 2915.05, or 2921.41 of the Revised Code;
(2) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state, or of the United States, substantially equivalent to any section listed in division (K)(1) of this section or a violation of section 2913.41, 2913.81, or 2915.06 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;
(3) An offense under an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state, or of the United States, involving robbery, burglary, breaking and entering, theft, embezzlement, wrongful conversion, forgery, counterfeiting, deceit, or fraud;
(4) A conspiracy or attempt to commit, or complicity in committing, any offense under division (K)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.
(L) "Computer services" includes, but is not limited to, the use of a computer system, computer network, computer program, data that is prepared for computer use, or data that is contained within a computer system or computer network.
(M) "Computer" means an electronic device that performs logical, arithmetic, and memory functions by the manipulation of electronic or magnetic impulses. "Computer" includes, but is not limited to, all input, output, processing, storage, computer program, or communication facilities that are connected, or related, in a computer system or network to an electronic device of that nature.
(N) "Computer system" means a computer and related devices, whether connected or unconnected, including, but not limited to, data input, output, and storage devices, data communications links, and computer programs and data that make the system capable of performing specified special purpose data processing tasks.
(O) "Computer network" means a set of related and remotely connected computers and communication facilities that includes more than one computer system that has the capability to transmit among the connected computers and communication facilities through the use of computer facilities.
(P) "Computer program" means an ordered set of data representing coded instructions or statements that, when executed by a computer, cause the computer to process data.
(Q) "Computer software" means computer programs, procedures, and other documentation associated with the operation of a computer system.
(R) "Data" means a representation of information, knowledge, facts, concepts, or instructions that are being or have been prepared in a formalized manner and that are intended for use in a computer, computer system, or computer network. For purposes of section 2913.47 of the Revised Code, "data" has the additional meaning set forth in division (A) of that section.
(S) "Cable television service" means any services provided by or through the facilities of any cable television system or other similar closed circuit coaxial cable communications system, or any microwave or similar transmission service used in connection with any cable television system or other similar closed circuit coaxial cable communications system.
(T) "Gain access" means to approach, instruct, communicate with, store data in, retrieve data from, or otherwise make use of any resources of a computer, computer system, or computer network, or any cable service or cable system both as defined in section 2913.04 of the Revised Code.
(U) "Credit card" includes, but is not limited to, a card, code, device, or other means of access to a customer's account for the purpose of obtaining money, property, labor, or services on credit, or for initiating an electronic fund transfer at a point-of-sale terminal, an automated teller machine, or a cash dispensing machine. It also includes a county procurement card issued under section 301.29 of the Revised Code.
(V) "Electronic fund transfer" has the same meaning as in 92 Stat. 3728, 15 U.S.C.A. 1693a, as amended.
(W) "Rented property" means personal property in which the right of possession and use of the property is for a short and possibly indeterminate term in return for consideration; the rentee generally controls the duration of possession of the property, within any applicable minimum or maximum term; and the amount of consideration generally is determined by the duration of possession of the property.
(X) "Telecommunication" means the origination, emission, dissemination, transmission, or reception of data, images, signals, sounds, or other intelligence or equivalence of intelligence of any nature over any communications system by any method, including, but not limited to, a fiber optic, electronic, magnetic, optical, digital, or analog method.
(Y) "Telecommunications device" means any instrument, equipment, machine, or other device that facilitates telecommunication, including, but not limited to, a computer, computer network, computer chip, computer circuit, scanner, telephone, cellular telephone, pager, personal communications device, transponder, receiver, radio, modem, or device that enables the use of a modem.
(Z) "Telecommunications service" means the providing, allowing, facilitating, or generating of any form of telecommunication through the use of a telecommunications device over a telecommunications system.
(AA) "Counterfeit telecommunications device" means a telecommunications device that, alone or with another telecommunications device, has been altered, constructed, manufactured, or programmed to acquire, intercept, receive, or otherwise facilitate the use of a telecommunications service or information service without the authority or consent of the provider of the telecommunications service or information service. "Counterfeit telecommunications device" includes, but is not limited to, a clone telephone, clone microchip, tumbler telephone, or tumbler microchip; a wireless scanning device capable of acquiring, intercepting, receiving, or otherwise facilitating the use of telecommunications service or information service without immediate detection; or a device, equipment, hardware, or software designed for, or capable of, altering or changing the electronic serial number in a wireless telephone.
(BB)(1) "Information service" means, subject to division (BB)(2) of this section, the offering of a capability for generating, acquiring, storing, transforming, processing, retrieving, utilizing, or making available information via telecommunications, including, but not limited to, electronic publishing.
(2) "Information service" does not include any use of a capability of a type described in division (BB)(1) of this section for the management, control, or operation of a telecommunications system or the management of a telecommunications service.
(CC) "Elderly person" means a person who is sixty-five years of age or older.
(DD) "Disabled adult" means a person who is eighteen years of age or older and has some impairment of body or mind that makes the person unable to work at any substantially remunerative employment that the person otherwise would be able to perform and that will, with reasonable probability, continue for a period of at least twelve months without any present indication of recovery from the impairment, or who is eighteen years of age or older and has been certified as permanently and totally disabled by an agency of this state or the United States that has the function of so classifying persons.
(EE) "Firearm" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same meanings as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.
(FF) "Motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.
(GG) "Dangerous drug" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.
(HH) "Drug abuse offense" has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.
(II)(1) "Computer hacking" means any of the following:
(a) Gaining access or attempting to gain access to all or part of a computer, computer system, or a computer network without express or implied authorization with the intent to defraud or with intent to commit a crime;
(b) Misusing computer or network services including, but not limited to, mail transfer programs, file transfer programs, proxy servers, and web servers by performing functions not authorized by the owner of the computer, computer system, or computer network or other person authorized to give consent. As used in this division, "misuse of computer and network services" includes, but is not limited to, the unauthorized use of any of the following:
(i) Mail transfer programs to send mail to persons other than the authorized users of that computer or computer network;
(ii) File transfer program proxy services or proxy servers to access other computers, computer systems, or computer networks;
(iii) Web servers to redirect users to other web pages or web servers.
(c)(i) Subject to division (II)(1)(c)(ii) of this section, using a group of computer programs commonly known as "port scanners" or "probes" to intentionally access any computer, computer system, or computer network without the permission of the owner of the computer, computer system, or computer network or other person authorized to give consent. The group of computer programs referred to in this division includes, but is not limited to, those computer programs that use a computer network to access a computer, computer system, or another computer network to determine any of the following: the presence or types of computers or computer systems on a network; the computer network's facilities and capabilities; the availability of computer or network services; the presence or versions of computer software including, but not limited to, operating systems, computer services, or computer contaminants; the presence of a known computer software deficiency that can be used to gain unauthorized access to a computer, computer system, or computer network; or any other information about a computer, computer system, or computer network not necessary for the normal and lawful operation of the computer initiating the access.
(ii) The group of computer programs referred to in division (II)(1)(c)(i) of this section does not include standard computer software used for the normal operation, administration, management, and test of a computer, computer system, or computer network including, but not limited to, domain name services, mail transfer services, and other operating system services, computer programs commonly called "ping," "tcpdump," and "traceroute" and other network monitoring and management computer software, and computer programs commonly known as "nslookup" and "whois" and other systems administration computer software.
(d) The intentional use of a computer, computer system, or a computer network in a manner that exceeds any right or permission granted by the owner of the computer, computer system, or computer network or other person authorized to give consent.
(2) "Computer hacking" does not include the introduction of a computer contaminant, as defined in section 2909.02 of the Revised Code, into a computer, computer system, computer program, or computer network.
(JJ) "Police dog or horse" and "service dog" have has the same meanings meaning as in section 2921.321 of the Revised Code.
(KK) "Anhydrous ammonia" is a compound formed by the combination of two gaseous elements, nitrogen and hydrogen, in the manner described in this division. Anhydrous ammonia is one part nitrogen to three parts hydrogen (NH3). Anhydrous ammonia by weight is fourteen parts nitrogen to three parts hydrogen, which is approximately eighty-two per cent nitrogen to eighteen per cent hydrogen.
(LL) "Assistance dog" has the same meaning as in section 955.011 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2913.02.  (A) No person, with purpose to deprive the owner of property or services, shall knowingly obtain or exert control over either the property or services in any of the following ways:
(1) Without the consent of the owner or person authorized to give consent;
(2) Beyond the scope of the express or implied consent of the owner or person authorized to give consent;
(3) By deception;
(4) By threat;
(5) By intimidation.
(B)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of theft.
(2) Except as otherwise provided in this division or division (B)(3), (4), (5), (6), (7), or (8) of this section, a violation of this section is petty theft, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is five hundred dollars or more and is less than five thousand dollars or if the property stolen is any of the property listed in section 2913.71 of the Revised Code, a violation of this section is theft, a felony of the fifth degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is five thousand dollars or more and is less than one hundred thousand dollars, a violation of this section is grand theft, a felony of the fourth degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is one hundred thousand dollars or more and is less than five hundred thousand dollars, a violation of this section is aggravated theft, a felony of the third degree. If the value of the property or services is five hundred thousand dollars or more and is less than one million dollars, a violation of this section is aggravated theft, a felony of the second degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is one million dollars or more, a violation of this section is aggravated theft of one million dollars or more, a felony of the first degree.
(3) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(4), (5), (6), (7), or (8) of this section, if the victim of the offense is an elderly person or disabled adult, a violation of this section is theft from an elderly person or disabled adult, and division (B)(3) of this section applies. Except as otherwise provided in this division, theft from an elderly person or disabled adult is a felony of the fifth degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is five hundred dollars or more and is less than five thousand dollars, theft from an elderly person or disabled adult is a felony of the fourth degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is five thousand dollars or more and is less than twenty-five thousand dollars, theft from an elderly person or disabled adult is a felony of the third degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is twenty-five thousand dollars or more and is less than one hundred thousand dollars, theft from an elderly person or disabled adult is a felony of the second degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is one hundred thousand dollars or more, theft from an elderly person or disabled adult is a felony of the first degree.
(4) If the property stolen is a firearm or dangerous ordnance, a violation of this section is grand theft, a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption in favor of the court imposing a prison term for the offense. The offender shall serve the prison term consecutively to any other prison term or mandatory prison term previously or subsequently imposed upon the offender.
(5) If the property stolen is a motor vehicle, a violation of this section is grand theft of a motor vehicle, a felony of the fourth degree.
(6) If the property stolen is any dangerous drug, a violation of this section is theft of drugs, a felony of the fourth degree, or, if the offender previously has been convicted of a felony drug abuse offense, a felony of the third degree.
(7) If the property stolen is a police dog or horse or a service an assistance dog and the offender knows or should know that the property stolen is a police dog or horse or service an assistance dog, a violation of this section is theft of a police dog or horse or service an assistance dog, a felony of the third degree.
(8) If the property stolen is anhydrous ammonia, a violation of this section is theft of anhydrous ammonia, a felony of the third degree.
(9) In addition to the penalties described in division (B)(2) of this section, if the offender committed the violation by causing a motor vehicle to leave the premises of an establishment at which gasoline is offered for retail sale without the offender making full payment for gasoline that was dispensed into the fuel tank of the motor vehicle or into another container, the court may do one of the following:
(a) Unless division (B)(9)(b) of this section applies, suspend for not more than six months the offender's driver's license, probationary driver's license, commercial driver's license, temporary instruction permit, or nonresident operating privilege;
(b) If the offender's driver's license, probationary driver's license, commercial driver's license, temporary instruction permit, or nonresident operating privilege has previously been suspended pursuant to division (B)(9)(a) of this section, impose a class seven suspension of the offender's license, permit, or privilege from the range specified in division (A)(7) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code, provided that the suspension shall be for at least six months.
(C) The sentencing court that suspends an offender's license, permit, or nonresident operating privilege under division (B)(9) of this section may grant the offender limited driving privileges during the period of the suspension in accordance with Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2921.321.  (A) No person shall knowingly cause, or attempt to cause, physical harm to a police dog or horse in either of the following circumstances:
(1) The police dog or horse is assisting a law enforcement officer in the performance of the officer's official duties at the time the physical harm is caused or attempted.
(2) The police dog or horse is not assisting a law enforcement officer in the performance of the officer's official duties at the time the physical harm is caused or attempted, but the offender has actual knowledge that the dog or horse is a police dog or horse.
(B) No person shall recklessly do any of the following:
(1) Taunt, torment, or strike a police dog or horse;
(2) Throw an object or substance at a police dog or horse;
(3) Interfere with or obstruct a police dog or horse, or interfere with or obstruct a law enforcement officer who is being assisted by a police dog or horse, in a manner that does any of the following:
(a) Inhibits or restricts the law enforcement officer's control of the police dog or horse;
(b) Deprives the law enforcement officer of control of the police dog or horse;
(c) Releases the police dog or horse from its area of control;
(d) Enters the area of control of the police dog or horse without the consent of the law enforcement officer, including placing food or any other object or substance into that area;
(e) Inhibits or restricts the ability of the police dog or horse to assist a law enforcement officer.
(4) Engage in any conduct that is likely to cause serious physical injury or death to a police dog or horse;
(5) If the person is the owner, keeper, or harborer of a dog, fail to reasonably restrain the dog from taunting, tormenting, chasing, approaching in a menacing fashion or apparent attitude of attack, or attempting to bite or otherwise endanger a police dog or horse that at the time of the conduct is assisting a law enforcement officer in the performance of the officer's duties or that the person knows is a police dog or horse.
(C) No person shall knowingly cause, or attempt to cause, physical harm to a service an assistance dog in either of the following circumstances:
(1) The service dog is assisting or serving a blind, deaf or hearing impaired, or mobility impaired person or person with a seizure disorder at the time the physical harm is caused or attempted.
(2) The service dog is not assisting or serving a blind, deaf or hearing impaired, or mobility impaired person or person with a seizure disorder at the time the physical harm is caused or attempted, but the offender has actual knowledge that the dog is a service an assistance dog.
(D) No person shall recklessly do any of the following:
(1) Taunt, torment, or strike a service an assistance dog;
(2) Throw an object or substance at a service an assistance dog;
(3) Interfere with or obstruct a service an assistance dog, or interfere with or obstruct a blind, deaf or hearing impaired, or mobility impaired person or person with a seizure disorder who is being assisted or served by a service an assistance dog, in a manner that does any of the following:
(a) Inhibits or restricts the assisted or served person's control of the service dog;
(b) Deprives the assisted or served person of control of the service dog;
(c) Releases the service dog from its area of control;
(d) Enters the area of control of the service dog without the consent of the assisted or served person, including placing food or any other object or substance into that area;
(e) Inhibits or restricts the ability of the service dog to assist the assisted or served person.
(4) Engage in any conduct that is likely to cause serious physical injury or death to a service an assistance dog;
(5) If the person is the owner, keeper, or harborer of a dog, fail to reasonably restrain the dog from taunting, tormenting, chasing, approaching in a menacing fashion or apparent attitude of attack, or attempting to bite or otherwise endanger a service an assistance dog that at the time of the conduct is assisting or serving a blind, deaf or hearing impaired, or mobility impaired person or person with a seizure disorder or that the person knows is a service an assistance dog.
(E)(1) Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of assaulting a police dog or horse. Except as otherwise provided in this division, assaulting a police dog or horse is a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the violation results in the death of the police dog or horse, assaulting a police dog or horse is a felony of the third degree. If the violation results in serious physical harm to the police dog or horse other than its death, assaulting a police dog or horse is a felony of the fourth degree. If the violation results in physical harm to the police dog or horse other than death or serious physical harm, assaulting a police dog or horse is a misdemeanor of the first degree.
(2) Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of harassing a police dog or horse. Except as otherwise provided in this division, harassing a police dog or horse is a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the violation results in the death of the police dog or horse, harassing a police dog or horse is a felony of the third degree. If the violation results in serious physical harm to the police dog or horse, but does not result in its death, harassing a police dog or horse, is a felony of the fourth degree. If the violation results in physical harm to the police dog or horse, but does not result in its death or in serious physical harm to it, harassing a police dog or horse is a misdemeanor of the first degree.
(3) Whoever violates division (C) of this section is guilty of assaulting a service an assistance dog. Except as otherwise provided in this division, assaulting a service an assistance dog is a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the violation results in the death of the service assistance dog, assaulting a service an assistance dog is a felony of the third degree. If the violation results in serious physical harm to the service assistance dog other than its death, assaulting a service an assistance dog is a felony of the fourth degree. If the violation results in physical harm to the service assistance dog other than death or serious physical harm, assaulting a service an assistance dog is a misdemeanor of the first degree.
(4) Whoever violates division (D) of this section is guilty of harassing a service an assistance dog. Except as otherwise provided in this division, harassing a service an assistance dog is a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the violation results in the death of the service assistance dog, harassing a service an assistance dog is a felony of the third degree. If the violation results in serious physical harm to the service assistance dog, but does not result in its death, harassing a service an assistance dog is a felony of the fourth degree. If the violation results in physical harm to the service assistance dog, but does not result in its death or in serious physical harm to it, harassing a service an assistance dog is a misdemeanor of the first degree.
(5) In addition to any other sanction or penalty imposed for the offense under this section, Chapter 2929., or any other provision of the Revised Code, whoever violates division (A), (B), (C), or (D) of this section is responsible for the payment of all of the following:
(a) Any veterinary bill or bill for medication incurred as a result of the violation by the police department regarding a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section or by the blind, deaf or hearing impaired, or mobility impaired person or person with a seizure disorder assisted or served by the service assistance dog regarding a violation of division (C) or (D) of this section;
(b) The cost of any damaged equipment that results from the violation;
(c) If the violation did not result in the death of the police dog or horse or the service assistance dog that was the subject of the violation and if, as a result of that dog or horse being the subject of the violation, the dog or horse needs further training or retraining to be able to continue in the capacity of a police dog or horse or a service an assistance dog, the cost of any further training or retraining of that dog or horse by a law enforcement officer or by the blind, deaf or hearing impaired, or mobility impaired person or person with a seizure disorder assisted or served by the service assistance dog;
(d) If the violation resulted in the death of the police dog or horse or the service assistance dog that was the subject of the violation or resulted in serious physical harm to that dog or horse to the extent that the dog or horse needs to be replaced on either a temporary or a permanent basis, the cost of replacing that dog or horse and of any further training of a new police dog or horse or a new service assistance dog by a law enforcement officer or by the blind, deaf or hearing impaired, or mobility impaired person or person with a seizure disorder assisted or served by the service assistance dog, which replacement or training is required because of the death of or the serious physical harm to the dog or horse that was the subject of the violation.
(F) This section does not apply to a licensed veterinarian whose conduct is in accordance with Chapter 4741. of the Revised Code.
(G) This section only applies to an offender who knows or should know at the time of the violation that the police dog or horse or service assistance dog that is the subject of a violation under this section is a police dog or horse or service an assistance dog.
(H) As used in this section:
(1) "Physical harm" means any injury, illness, or other physiological impairment, regardless of its gravity or duration.
(2) "Police dog or horse" means a dog or horse that has been trained, and may be used, to assist law enforcement officers in the performance of their official duties.
(3) "Serious physical harm" means any of the following:
(a) Any physical harm that carries a substantial risk of death;
(b) Any physical harm that causes permanent maiming or that involves some temporary, substantial maiming;
(c) Any physical harm that causes acute pain of a duration that results in substantial suffering.
(4) "Service Assistance dog," means a dog that serves as a guide or leader for a blind person, serves as a listener for a deaf person, provides support or assistance for a mobility impaired person, or serves as a seizure assistance, seizure response, or seizure alert dog for a person with any seizure disorder.
(5) "Blind "blind," and "mobility impaired person" have the same meanings as in section 955.011 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2923.46.  (A) If property is seized pursuant to section 2923.44 or 2923.45 of the Revised Code, it is considered to be in the custody of the head of the law enforcement agency that seized it, and the head of that agency may do any of the following with respect to that property prior to its disposition in accordance with division (A)(4) or (B) of this section:
(1) Place the property under seal;
(2) Remove the property to a place that the head of that agency designates;
(3) Request the issuance of a court order that requires any other appropriate municipal corporation, county, township, park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code, or state law enforcement officer or other officer to take custody of the property and, if practicable, remove it to an appropriate location for eventual disposition in accordance with division (B) of this section;
(4)(a) Seek forfeiture of the property pursuant to federal law. If the head of that agency seeks its forfeiture pursuant to federal law, the law enforcement agency shall deposit, use, and account for proceeds from a sale of the property upon its forfeiture, proceeds from another disposition of the property upon its forfeiture, or forfeited moneys it receives, in accordance with the applicable federal law and otherwise shall comply with that law.
(b) If the state highway patrol seized the property and if the superintendent of the state highway patrol seeks its forfeiture pursuant to federal law, the appropriate governmental officials shall deposit into the highway patrol federal contraband, forfeiture, and other fund all interest or other earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds from a sale of the property upon its forfeiture, the proceeds from another disposition of the property upon its forfeiture, or the forfeited moneys into the highway patrol justice contraband fund or the highway patrol treasury contraband fund, as applicable. The state highway patrol shall use and account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable federal law.
(c) Division (B) of this section and divisions (D)(1) to (3) of section 2933.43 of the Revised Code do not apply to proceeds or forfeited moneys received pursuant to federal law or to the interest or other earnings that are derived from the investment of proceeds or forfeited moneys received pursuant to federal law and that are described in division (A)(4)(b) of this section.
(B) In addition to complying with any requirements imposed by a court pursuant to section 2923.44 or 2923.45 of the Revised Code, and the requirements imposed by those sections, in relation to the disposition of property forfeited to the state under either of those sections, the prosecuting attorney who is responsible for its disposition shall dispose of the property as follows:
(1) Any vehicle that was used in a violation of section 2923.42 of the Revised Code or in an act of a juvenile that is a violation of section 2923.42 of the Revised Code shall be given to the law enforcement agency of the municipal corporation or county in which the offense or act occurred if that agency desires to have the vehicle, except that, if the offense or act occurred in a township or in a park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code and a law enforcement officer employed by the township or the park district was involved in the seizure of the vehicle, the vehicle may be given to the law enforcement agency of that township or park district if that agency desires to have the vehicle, and except that, if the state highway patrol made the seizure of the vehicle, the vehicle may be given to the state highway patrol if it desires to have the vehicle.
(2) Drugs shall be disposed of pursuant to section 3719.11 of the Revised Code or placed in the custody of the secretary of the treasury of the United States for disposal or use for medical or scientific purposes under applicable federal law.
(3) Firearms and dangerous ordnance suitable for police work may be given to a law enforcement agency for that purpose. Firearms suitable for sporting use, or as museum pieces or collectors' items, may be disposed of by sale pursuant to division (B)(7) of this section. Other firearms and dangerous ordnance shall be destroyed by a law enforcement agency or shall be sent to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation for destruction by it.
(4) Computers, computer networks, computer systems, and computer software suitable for police work may be given to a law enforcement agency for that purpose. Other computers, computer networks, computer systems, and computer software shall be disposed of by sale pursuant to division (B)(7) of this section or disposed of in another manner that the court that issued the order of forfeiture considers proper under the circumstances.
(5) Obscene materials shall be destroyed.
(6) Beer, intoxicating liquor, and alcohol shall be disposed of in accordance with division (D)(4) of section 2933.41 of the Revised Code.
(7) In the case of property not described in divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this section and of property described in those divisions but not disposed of pursuant to them, the property shall be sold in accordance with division (B)(7) of this section or, in the case of forfeited moneys, disposed of in accordance with division (B)(7) of this section. If the property is to be sold, the prosecuting attorney shall cause a notice of the proposed sale of the property to be given in accordance with law, and the property shall be sold, without appraisal, at a public auction to the highest bidder for cash. The proceeds of a sale and forfeited moneys shall be applied in the following order:
(a) First, to the payment of the costs incurred in connection with the seizure of, storage of, maintenance of, and provision of security for the property, the forfeiture proceeding or civil action, and, if any, the sale;
(b) Second, the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys after compliance with division (B)(7)(a) of this section, to the payment of the value of any legal right, title, or interest in the property that is possessed by a person who, pursuant to division (F) of section 2923.44 of the Revised Code or division (E) of section 2923.45 of the Revised Code, established the validity of and consequently preserved that legal right, title, or interest, including, but not limited to, any mortgage, perfected or other security interest, or other lien in the property. The value of these rights, titles, or interests shall be paid according to their record or other order of priority.
(c) Third, the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys after compliance with divisions (B)(7)(a) and (b) of this section, as follows:
(i) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ten per cent to one or more alcohol and drug addiction treatment programs that are certified by the department of alcohol and drug addiction services under section 3793.06 of the Revised Code and that are specified in the order of forfeiture. A juvenile court shall not specify an alcohol or drug addiction treatment program in the order of forfeiture unless the program is a certified alcohol and drug addiction treatment program and, except as provided in division (B)(7)(c)(i) of this section, unless the program is located in the county in which the court that orders the forfeiture is located or in a contiguous county. If no certified alcohol and drug addiction treatment program is located in any of those counties, the juvenile court may specify in the order a certified alcohol and drug addiction treatment program located anywhere within this state.
(ii) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ninety per cent, and if the forfeiture was ordered in a court other than a juvenile court, one hundred per cent to appropriate funds in accordance with divisions (D)(1)(c) and (2) of section 2933.43 of the Revised Code. The remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys so deposited shall be used only for the purposes authorized by those divisions and division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of that section.
(C)(1) Sections 2923.44 to 2923.47 of the Revised Code do not preclude a financial institution that possessed a valid mortgage, security interest, or lien that is not satisfied prior to a sale under division (B)(7) of this section or following a sale by application of division (B)(7)(b) of this section, from commencing a civil action in any appropriate court in this or another state to obtain a deficiency judgment against the debtor if the financial institution otherwise would have been entitled to do so in this or another state.
(2) Any law enforcement agency that obtains any vehicle pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section shall take the vehicle subject to the outstanding amount of any security interest or lien that attaches to the vehicle.
(3) Nothing in this section impairs a mortgage, security interest, lien, or other interest of a financial institution in property that was the subject of a forfeiture order under section 2923.44 or 2923.45 of the Revised Code and that was sold or otherwise disposed of in a manner that does not conform to the requirements of division (B) of this section, or any right of a financial institution of that nature to commence a civil action in any appropriate court in this or another state to obtain a deficiency judgment against the debtor.
(4) Following the sale under division (B)(7) of this section of any property that is required to be titled or registered under the law of this state, the prosecuting attorney responsible for the disposition of the property shall cause the state to issue an appropriate certificate of title or registration to the purchaser of the property. If, in a disposition of property pursuant to division (B) of this section, the state or a political subdivision is given any property that is required to be titled or registered under the law of this state, the prosecuting attorney responsible for the disposition of the property shall cause the state to issue an appropriate certificate of title or registration to itself or to the political subdivision.
(D) Property that has been forfeited to the state pursuant to an order of criminal forfeiture under section 2923.44 of the Revised Code or an order of civil forfeiture under section 2923.45 of the Revised Code shall not be available for use to pay any fine imposed upon a person who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of section 2923.42 of the Revised Code or upon a juvenile who is found by a juvenile court to be a delinquent child for an act that is a violation of section 2923.42 of the Revised Code.
(E) Sections 2923.44 to 2923.47 of the Revised Code do not prohibit a law enforcement officer from seeking the forfeiture of contraband associated with a violation of section 2923.42 of the Revised Code pursuant to section 2933.43 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2925.44.  (A) If property is seized pursuant to section 2925.42 or 2925.43 of the Revised Code, it is deemed to be in the custody of the head of the law enforcement agency that seized it, and the head of that agency may do any of the following with respect to that property prior to its disposition in accordance with division (A)(4) or (B) of this section:
(1) Place the property under seal;
(2) Remove the property to a place that the head of that agency designates;
(3) Request the issuance of a court order that requires any other appropriate municipal corporation, county, township, park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code, or state law enforcement officer or other officer to take custody of the property and, if practicable, remove it to an appropriate location for eventual disposition in accordance with division (B) of this section;
(4)(a) Seek forfeiture of the property pursuant to federal law. If the head of that agency seeks its forfeiture pursuant to federal law, the law enforcement agency shall deposit, use, and account for proceeds from a sale of the property upon its forfeiture, proceeds from another disposition of the property upon its forfeiture, or forfeited moneys it receives, in accordance with the applicable federal law and otherwise shall comply with that law.
(b) If the state highway patrol seized the property and if the superintendent of the state highway patrol seeks its forfeiture pursuant to federal law, the appropriate governmental officials shall deposit into the highway patrol federal contraband, forfeiture, and other fund all interest or other earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds from a sale of the property upon its forfeiture, the proceeds from another disposition of the property upon its forfeiture, or the forfeited moneys into the highway patrol justice contraband fund or the highway patrol treasury contraband fund, as applicable. The state highway patrol shall use and account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable federal law.
(c) If the investigative unit of the department of public safety seized the property and if the director of public safety seeks its forfeiture pursuant to federal law, the appropriate governmental officials shall deposit into the department of public safety investigative unit federal equitable share account fund all interest or other earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds from a sale of the property upon its forfeiture, the proceeds from another disposition of the property upon its forfeiture, or the forfeited moneys. The department shall use and account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable federal law.
(d) If the enforcement division of the department of taxation seized the property and if the tax commissioner seeks its forfeiture pursuant to federal law, the appropriate governmental officials shall deposit into the department of taxation enforcement fund all interest or other earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds from a sale of the property upon its forfeiture, the proceeds from another disposition of the property upon its forfeiture, or the forfeited moneys. The department shall use and account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable federal law.
(e) Division (B) of this section and divisions (D)(1) to (3) of section 2933.43 of the Revised Code do not apply to proceeds or forfeited moneys received pursuant to federal law or to the interest or other earnings that are derived from the investment of proceeds or forfeited moneys received pursuant to federal law and that are described in division (A)(4)(b) or (d) of this section.
(B) In addition to complying with any requirements imposed by a court pursuant to section 2925.42 or 2925.43 of the Revised Code, and the requirements imposed by those sections, in relation to the disposition of property forfeited to the state under either of those sections, the prosecuting attorney who is responsible for its disposition shall dispose of the property as follows:
(1) Any vehicle, as defined in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code, that was used in a felony drug abuse offense or in an act that, if committed by an adult, would be a felony drug abuse offense shall be given to the law enforcement agency of the municipal corporation or county in which the offense occurred if that agency desires to have the vehicle, except that, if the offense occurred in a township or in a park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code and a law enforcement officer employed by the township or the park district was involved in the seizure of the vehicle, the vehicle may be given to the law enforcement agency of that township or park district if that agency desires to have the vehicle, and except that, if the state highway patrol made the seizure of the vehicle, the vehicle may be given to the state highway patrol if it desires to have the vehicle.
(2) Any drug paraphernalia that was used, possessed, sold, or manufactured in a violation of section 2925.14 of the Revised Code that would be a felony drug abuse offense or in a violation of that section committed by a juvenile that, if committed by an adult, would be a felony drug abuse offense, may be given to the law enforcement agency of the municipal corporation or county in which the offense occurred if that agency desires to have and can use the drug paraphernalia, except that, if the offense occurred in a township or in a park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code and a law enforcement officer employed by the township or the park district was involved in the seizure of the drug paraphernalia, the drug paraphernalia may be given to the law enforcement agency of that township or park district if that agency desires to have and can use the drug paraphernalia. If the drug paraphernalia is not so given, it shall be disposed of by sale pursuant to division (B)(8) of this section or disposed of in another manner that the court that issued the order of forfeiture considers proper under the circumstances.
(3) Drugs shall be disposed of pursuant to section 3719.11 of the Revised Code or placed in the custody of the secretary of the treasury of the United States for disposal or use for medical or scientific purposes under applicable federal law.
(4) Firearms and dangerous ordnance suitable for police work may be given to a law enforcement agency for that purpose. Firearms suitable for sporting use, or as museum pieces or collectors' items, may be disposed of by sale pursuant to division (B)(8) of this section. Other firearms and dangerous ordnance shall be destroyed by a law enforcement agency or shall be sent to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation for destruction by it. As used in this division, "firearms" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same meanings as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.
(5) Computers, computer networks, computer systems, and computer software suitable for police work may be given to a law enforcement agency for that purpose. Other computers, computer networks, computer systems, and computer software shall be disposed of by sale pursuant to division (B)(8) of this section or disposed of in another manner that the court that issued the order of forfeiture considers proper under the circumstances. As used in this division, "computers," "computer networks," "computer systems," and "computer software" have the same meanings as in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code.
(6) Obscene materials shall be destroyed.
(7) Beer, intoxicating liquor, and alcohol shall be disposed of in accordance with division (D)(4) of section 2933.41 of the Revised Code.
(8) In the case of property not described in divisions (B)(1) to (7) of this section and of property described in those divisions but not disposed of pursuant to them, the property shall be sold in accordance with division (B)(8) of this section or, in the case of forfeited moneys, disposed of in accordance with division (B)(8) of this section. If the property is to be sold, the prosecuting attorney shall cause a notice of the proposed sale of the property to be given in accordance with law, and the property shall be sold, without appraisal, at a public auction to the highest bidder for cash. The proceeds of a sale and forfeited moneys shall be applied in the following order:
(a) First, to the payment of the costs incurred in connection with the seizure of, storage of, maintenance of, and provision of security for the property, the forfeiture proceeding or civil action, and, if any, the sale;
(b) Second, the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys after compliance with division (B)(8)(a) of this section, to the payment of the value of any legal right, title, or interest in the property that is possessed by a person who, pursuant to division (F) of section 2925.42 of the Revised Code or division (E) of section 2925.43 of the Revised Code, established the validity of and consequently preserved that legal right, title, or interest, including, but not limited to, any mortgage, perfected or other security interest, or other lien in the property. The value of these rights, titles, or interests shall be paid according to their record or other order of priority.
(c) Third, the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys after compliance with divisions (B)(8)(a) and (b) of this section, as follows:
(i) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ten per cent to one or more alcohol and drug addiction treatment programs that are certified by the department of alcohol and drug addiction services under section 3793.06 of the Revised Code and that are specified in the order of forfeiture. A juvenile court shall not specify an alcohol or drug addiction treatment program in the order of forfeiture unless the program is a certified alcohol and drug addiction treatment program and, except as provided in division (B)(8)(c)(i) of this section, unless the program is located in the county in which the court that orders the forfeiture is located or in a contiguous county. If no certified alcohol and drug addiction treatment program is located in any of those counties, the juvenile court may specify in the order a certified alcohol and drug addiction treatment program located anywhere within this state.
(ii) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ninety per cent, and if the forfeiture was ordered in a court other than a juvenile court, one hundred per cent to appropriate funds in accordance with divisions (D)(1)(c) and (2) of section 2933.43 of the Revised Code. The remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys so deposited shall be used only for the purposes authorized by those divisions and division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of that section.
(C)(1) Sections 2925.41 to 2925.45 of the Revised Code do not preclude a financial institution that possessed a valid mortgage, security interest, or lien that is not satisfied prior to a sale under division (B)(8) of this section or following a sale by application of division (B)(8)(b) of this section, from commencing a civil action in any appropriate court in this or another state to obtain a deficiency judgment against the debtor if the financial institution otherwise would have been entitled to do so in this or another state.
(2) Any law enforcement agency that obtains any vehicle pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section shall take the vehicle subject to the outstanding amount of any security interest or lien that attaches to the vehicle.
(3) Nothing in this section impairs a mortgage, security interest, lien, or other interest of a financial institution in property that was the subject of a forfeiture order under section 2925.42 or 2925.43 of the Revised Code and that was sold or otherwise disposed of in a manner that does not conform to the requirements of division (B) of this section, or any right of a financial institution of that nature to commence a civil action in any appropriate court in this or another state to obtain a deficiency judgment against the debtor.
(4) Following the sale under division (B)(8) of this section of any property that is required to be titled or registered under the law of this state, the prosecuting attorney responsible for the disposition of the property shall cause the state to issue an appropriate certificate of title or registration to the purchaser of the property. Additionally, if, in a disposition of property pursuant to division (B) of this section, the state or a political subdivision is given any property that is required to be titled or registered under the law of this state, the prosecuting attorney responsible for the disposition of the property shall cause the state to issue an appropriate certificate of title or registration to itself or to the political subdivision.
(D) Property that has been forfeited to the state pursuant to an order of criminal forfeiture under section 2925.42 of the Revised Code or an order of civil forfeiture under section 2925.43 of the Revised Code shall not be available for use to pay any fine imposed upon a person who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a felony drug abuse offense or upon any juvenile who is found by a juvenile court to be a delinquent child for an act that, if committed by an adult, would be a felony drug abuse offense.
(E) Sections 2925.41 to 2925.45 of the Revised Code do not prohibit a law enforcement officer from seeking the forfeiture of contraband associated with a felony drug abuse offense pursuant to section 2933.43 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 2933.43.  (A)(1) Except as provided in this division or in section 2913.34 or sections 2923.44 to 2923.47 or 2925.41 to 2925.45 of the Revised Code, a law enforcement officer shall seize any contraband that has been, is being, or is intended to be used in violation of division (A) of section 2933.42 of the Revised Code. A law enforcement officer shall seize contraband that is a watercraft, motor vehicle, or aircraft and that has been, is being, or is intended to be used in violation of division (A) of section 2933.42 of the Revised Code only if the watercraft, motor vehicle, or aircraft is contraband because of its relationship to an underlying criminal offense that is a felony.
Additionally, a law enforcement officer shall seize any watercraft, motor vehicle, aircraft, or other personal property that is classified as contraband under division (B) of section 2933.42 of the Revised Code if the underlying offense involved in the violation of division (A) of that section that resulted in the watercraft, motor vehicle, aircraft, or personal property being classified as contraband, is a felony.
(2) If a law enforcement officer seizes property that is titled or registered under law, including a motor vehicle, pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section, the officer or the officer's employing law enforcement agency shall notify the owner of the seizure. The notification shall be given to the owner at the owner's last known address within seventy-two hours after the seizure, and may be given orally by any means, including telephone, or by certified mail, return receipt requested.
If the officer or the officer's agency is unable to provide the notice required by this division despite reasonable, good faith efforts to do so, the exercise of the reasonable, good faith efforts constitutes fulfillment of the notice requirement imposed by this division.
(B)(1) A motor vehicle seized pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section and the contents of the vehicle may be retained for a reasonable period of time, not to exceed seventy-two hours, for the purpose of inspection, investigation, and the gathering of evidence of any offense or illegal use.
At any time prior to the expiration of the seventy-two-hour period, the law enforcement agency that seized the motor vehicle may petition the court of common pleas of the county that has jurisdiction over the underlying criminal case or administrative proceeding involved in the forfeiture for an extension of the seventy-two-hour period if the motor vehicle or its contents are needed as evidence or if additional time is needed for the inspection, investigation, or gathering of evidence. Upon the filing of such a petition, the court immediately shall schedule a hearing to be held at a time as soon as possible after the filing, but in no event at a time later than the end of the next business day subsequent to the day on which the petition was filed, and upon scheduling the hearing, immediately shall notify the owner of the vehicle, at the address at which notification of the seizure was provided under division (A) of this section, of the date, time, and place of the hearing. If the court, at the hearing, determines that the vehicle or its contents, or both, are needed as evidence or that additional time is needed for the inspection, investigation, or gathering of evidence, the court may grant the petition and issue an order authorizing the retention of the vehicle or its contents, or both, for an extended period as specified by the court in its order. An order extending a period of retention issued under this division may be renewed.
If no petition for the extension of the initial seventy-two-hour period has been filed, prior to the expiration of that period, under this division, if the vehicle was not in the custody and control of the owner at the time of its seizure, and if, at the end of that seventy-two-hour period, the owner of the vehicle has not been charged with an offense or administrative violation that includes the use of the vehicle as an element and has not been charged with any other offense or administrative violation in the actual commission of which the motor vehicle was used, the vehicle and its contents shall be released to its owner or the owner's agent, provided that the law enforcement agency that seized the vehicle may require proof of ownership of the vehicle, proof of ownership or legal possession of the contents, and an affidavit of the owner that the owner neither knew of nor expressly or impliedly consented to the use of the vehicle that resulted in its forfeiture as conditions precedent to release. If a petition for the extension of the initial seventy-two-hour period has been filed, prior to the expiration of that period, under this division but the court does not grant the petition, if the vehicle was not in the custody and control of the owner at the time of its seizure, and if, at the end of that seventy-two-hour period, the owner of the vehicle has not been charged with an offense or administrative violation that includes the use of the vehicle as an element and has not been charged with any other offense or administrative violation in the actual commission of which the motor vehicle was used, the vehicle and its contents shall be released to its owner or the owner's agent, provided that the court may require the proof and affidavit described in the preceding sentence as conditions precedent to release. If the initial seventy-two-hour period has been extended under this division, the vehicle and its contents to which the extension applies may be retained in accordance with the extension order. If, at the end of that extended period, the owner of the vehicle has not been charged with an offense or administrative violation that includes the use of the vehicle as an element and has not been charged with any other offense or administrative violation in the actual commission of which the motor vehicle was used, and if the vehicle was not in the custody and control of the owner at the time of its seizure, the vehicle and its contents shall be released to its owner or the owner's agent, provided that the court may require the proof and affidavit described in the third preceding sentence as conditions precedent to release. In cases in which the court may require proof and affidavits as conditions precedent to release, the court also may require the posting of a bond, with sufficient sureties approved by the court, in an amount equal to the value of the property to be released, as determined by the court, and conditioned upon the return of the property to the court if it is forfeited under this section, as a further condition to release. If, at the end of the initial seventy-two-hour period or at the end of any extended period granted under this section, the owner has been charged with an offense or administrative violation that includes the use of the vehicle as an element or has been charged with another offense or administrative violation in the actual commission of which the motor vehicle was used, or if the vehicle was in the custody and control of the owner at the time of its seizure, the vehicle and its contents shall be retained pending disposition of the charge, provided that upon the filing of a motion for release by the owner, if the court determines that the motor vehicle or its contents, or both, are not needed as evidence in the underlying criminal case or administrative proceeding, the court may permit the release of the property that is not needed as evidence to the owner; as a condition precedent to a release of that nature, the court may require the owner to execute a bond with the court. Any bond so required shall be in an amount equal to the value of the property to be released, as determined by the court, shall have sufficient sureties approved by the court, and shall be conditioned upon the return of the property to the court to which it is forfeited under this section.
The final disposition of a motor vehicle seized pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section shall be determined in accordance with division (C) of this section.
(2) Pending a hearing pursuant to division (C) of this section, and subject to divisions (B)(1) and (C) of this section, any property lawfully seized pursuant to division (A) of this section because it was contraband of a type described in division (A)(13)(b), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h), (i), or (j) of section 2901.01 of the Revised Code shall not be subject to replevin or other action in any court and shall not be subject to release upon request of the owner, and no judgment shall be enforced against the property. Pending the hearing, and subject to divisions (B)(1) and (C) of this section, the property shall be kept in the custody of the law enforcement agency responsible for its seizure.
Pending a hearing pursuant to division (C) of this section, and notwithstanding any provisions of division (B)(1) or (C) of this section to the contrary, any property lawfully seized pursuant to division (A) of this section because it was contraband of a type described in division (A)(13)(a) or (c) of section 2901.01 of the Revised Code shall not be subject to replevin or other action in any court and shall not be subject to release upon request of the owner, and no judgment shall be enforced against the property. Pending the hearing, and notwithstanding any provisions of division (B)(1) or (C) of this section to the contrary, the property shall be kept in the custody of the law enforcement agency responsible for its seizure.
A law enforcement agency that seizes property under division (A) of this section because it was contraband of any type described in division (A)(13) of section 2901.01 or division (B) of section 2933.42 of the Revised Code shall maintain an accurate record of each item of property so seized, which record shall include the date on which each item was seized, the manner and date of its disposition, and if applicable, the name of the person who received the item; however, the record shall not identify or enable the identification of the individual officer who seized the item. The record of property of that nature that no longer is needed as evidence shall be open to public inspection during the agency's regular business hours. Each law enforcement agency that, during any calendar year, seizes property under division (A) of this section because it was contraband shall prepare a report covering the calendar year that cumulates all of the information contained in all of the records kept by the agency pursuant to this division for that calendar year, and shall send a copy of the cumulative report, no later than the first day of March in the calendar year following the calendar year covered by the report, to the attorney general. Each report received by the attorney general is a public record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Not later than the fifteenth day of April in the calendar year in which the reports are received, the attorney general shall send to the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives a written notification that does all of the following:
(a) Indicates that the attorney general has received from law enforcement agencies reports of the type described in this division that cover the previous calendar year and indicates that the reports were received under this division;
(b) Indicates that the reports are open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code;
(c) Indicates that the attorney general will provide a copy of any or all of the reports to the president of the senate or the speaker of the house of representatives upon request.
(C) The prosecuting attorney, village solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer who has responsibility for the prosecution of the underlying criminal case or administrative proceeding, or the attorney general if the attorney general has that responsibility, shall file a petition for the forfeiture, to the seizing law enforcement agency of the contraband seized pursuant to division (A) of this section. The petition shall be filed in the court that has jurisdiction over the underlying criminal case or administrative proceeding involved in the forfeiture. If the property was seized on the basis of both a criminal violation and an administrative regulation violation, the petition shall be filed by the officer and in the court that is appropriate in relation to the criminal case.
The petitioner shall conduct or cause to be conducted a search of the appropriate public records that relate to the seized property for the purpose of determining, and shall make or cause to be made reasonably diligent inquiries for the purpose of determining, any person having an ownership or security interest in the property. The petitioner then shall give notice of the forfeiture proceedings by personal service or by certified mail, return receipt requested, to any persons known, because of the conduct of the search, the making of the inquiries, or otherwise, to have an ownership or security interest in the property, and shall publish notice of the proceedings once each week for two consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in which the seizure occurred. The notices shall be personally served, mailed, and first published at least four weeks before the hearing. They shall describe the property seized; state the date and place of seizure; name the law enforcement agency that seized the property and, if applicable, that is holding the property; list the time, date, and place of the hearing; and state that any person having an ownership or security interest in the property may contest the forfeiture.
If the property seized was determined by the seizing law enforcement officer to be contraband because of its relationship to an underlying criminal offense or administrative violation, no forfeiture hearing shall be held under this section unless the person pleads guilty to or is convicted of the commission of, or an attempt or conspiracy to commit, the offense or a different offense arising out of the same facts and circumstances or unless the person admits or is adjudicated to have committed the administrative violation or a different violation arising out of the same facts and circumstances; a forfeiture hearing shall be held in a case of that nature no later than forty-five days after the conviction or the admission or adjudication of the violation, unless the time for the hearing is extended by the court for good cause shown. The owner of any property seized because of its relationship to an underlying criminal offense or administrative violation may request the court to release the property to the owner. Upon receipt of a request of that nature, if the court determines that the property is not needed as evidence in the underlying criminal case or administrative proceeding, the court may permit the release of the property to the owner. As a condition precedent to a release of that nature, the court may require the owner to execute a bond with the court. Any bond so required shall have sufficient sureties approved by the court, shall be in a sum equal to the value of the property, as determined by the court, and shall be conditioned upon the return of the property to the court if the property is forfeited under this section. Any property seized because of its relationship to an underlying criminal offense or administrative violation shall be returned to its owner if charges are not filed in relation to that underlying offense or violation within thirty days after the seizure, if charges of that nature are filed and subsequently are dismissed, or if charges of that nature are filed and the person charged does not plead guilty to and is not convicted of the offense or does not admit and is not found to have committed the violation.
If the property seized was determined by the seizing law enforcement officer to be contraband other than because of a relationship to an underlying criminal offense or administrative violation, the forfeiture hearing under this section shall be held no later than forty-five days after the seizure, unless the time for the hearing is extended by the court for good cause shown.
Where possible, a court holding a forfeiture hearing under this section shall follow the Rules of Civil Procedure. When a hearing is conducted under this section, property shall be forfeited upon a showing, by a preponderance of the evidence, by the petitioner that the person from which the property was seized was in violation of division (A) of section 2933.42 of the Revised Code. If that showing is made, the court shall issue an order of forfeiture. If an order of forfeiture is issued in relation to contraband that was released to the owner or the owner's agent pursuant to this division or division (B)(1) of this section, the order shall require the owner to deliver the property, by a specified date, to the law enforcement agency that employed the law enforcement officer who made the seizure of the property, and the court shall deliver a copy of the order to the owner or send a copy of it by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the owner at the address to which notice of the seizure was given under division (A)(2) of this section. Except as otherwise provided in this division, all rights, interest, and title to the forfeited contraband vests in the state, effective from the date of seizure.
No property shall be forfeited pursuant to this division if the owner of the property establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the owner neither knew, nor should have known after a reasonable inquiry, that the property was used, or was likely to be used, in a crime or administrative violation. No bona fide security interest shall be forfeited pursuant to this division if the holder of the interest establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the holder of the interest neither knew, nor should have known after a reasonable inquiry, that the property was used, or likely to be used, in a crime or administrative violation, that the holder of the interest did not expressly or impliedly consent to the use of the property in a crime or administrative violation, and that the security interest was perfected pursuant to law prior to the seizure. If the holder of the interest satisfies the court that these requirements are met, the interest shall be preserved by the court. In a case of that nature, the court shall either order that the agency to which the property is forfeited reimburse the holder of the interest to the extent of the preserved interest or order that the holder be paid for the interest from the proceeds of any sale pursuant to division (D) of this section.
(D)(1) Contraband ordered forfeited pursuant to this section shall be disposed of pursuant to divisions (D)(1) to (7) of section 2933.41 of the Revised Code or, if the contraband is not described in those divisions, may be used, with the approval of the court, by the law enforcement agency that has custody of the contraband pursuant to division (D)(8) of that section. In the case of contraband not described in any of those divisions and of contraband not disposed of pursuant to any of those divisions, the contraband shall be sold in accordance with this division or, in the case of forfeited moneys, disposed of in accordance with this division. If the contraband is to be sold, the prosecuting attorney shall cause a notice of the proposed sale of the contraband to be given in accordance with law, and the property shall be sold, without appraisal, at a public auction to the highest bidder for cash. The proceeds of a sale and forfeited moneys shall be applied in the following order:
(a) First, to the payment of the costs incurred in connection with the seizure of, storage of, maintenance of, and provision of security for the contraband, the forfeiture proceeding, and, if any, the sale;
(b) Second, the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys after compliance with division (D)(1)(a) of this section, to the payment of the balance due on any security interest preserved pursuant to division (C) of this section;
(c) Third, the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys after compliance with divisions (D)(1)(a) and (b) of this section, as follows:
(i) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ten per cent to one or more alcohol and drug addiction treatment programs that are certified by the department of alcohol and drug addiction services under section 3793.06 of the Revised Code and that are specified in the order of forfeiture. A juvenile court shall not certify an alcohol or drug addiction treatment program in the order of forfeiture unless the program is a certified alcohol and drug addiction treatment program and, except as provided in division (D)(1)(c)(i) of this section, unless the program is located in the county in which the court that orders the forfeiture is located or in a contiguous county. If no certified alcohol and drug addiction treatment program is located in any of those counties, the juvenile court may specify in the order a certified alcohol and drug addiction treatment program located anywhere within this state.
(ii) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ninety per cent, and if the forfeiture was ordered in a court other than a juvenile court, one hundred per cent to the law enforcement trust fund of the prosecuting attorney and to the law enforcement trust fund of the county sheriff if the county sheriff made the seizure, to the law enforcement trust fund of a municipal corporation if its police department made the seizure, to the law enforcement trust fund of a township if the seizure was made by a township police department, township police district police force, or office of a township constable, to the law enforcement trust fund of a park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code if the seizure was made by the park district police force or law enforcement department, to the highway patrol state contraband, forfeiture, and other fund if the state highway patrol made the seizure, to the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund if the investigative unit of the department of public safety made the seizure, to the department of taxation enforcement fund if the department of taxation made the seizure, to the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund created by division (B)(1) of section 4729.65 of the Revised Code if the board made the seizure, or to the treasurer of state for deposit into the peace officer training commission fund if a state law enforcement agency, other than the state highway patrol, the investigative unit of the department of public safety, the enforcement division of the department of taxation, or the state board of pharmacy, made the seizure. The prosecuting attorney may decline to accept any of the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys, and, if the prosecuting attorney so declines, the remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys shall be applied to the fund described in this division that relates to the law enforcement agency that made the seizure.
A law enforcement trust fund shall be established by the prosecuting attorney of each county who intends to receive any remaining proceeds or forfeited moneys pursuant to this division, by the sheriff of each county, by the legislative authority of each municipal corporation, by the board of township trustees of each township that has a township police department, township police district police force, or office of the constable, and by the board of park commissioners of each park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code that has a park district police force or law enforcement department, for the purposes of this division. There is hereby created in the state treasury the highway patrol state contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, and the peace officer training commission fund, for the purposes described in this division.
Proceeds or forfeited moneys distributed to any municipal corporation, township, or park district law enforcement trust fund shall be allocated from the fund by the legislative authority only to the police department of the municipal corporation, by the board of township trustees only to the township police department, township police district police force, or office of the constable, and by the board of park commissioners only to the park district police force or law enforcement department.
Additionally, no proceeds or forfeited moneys shall be allocated to or used by the state highway patrol, the department of public safety, the department of taxation, the state board of pharmacy, or a county sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police department, township police department, township police district police force, office of the constable, or park district police force or law enforcement department unless the state highway patrol, department of public safety, department of taxation, state board of pharmacy, sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police department, township police department, township police district police force, office of the constable, or park district police force or law enforcement department has adopted a written internal control policy under division (D)(3) of this section that addresses the use of moneys received from the highway patrol state contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund, or the appropriate law enforcement trust fund.
The highway patrol state contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, and a law enforcement trust fund shall be expended only in accordance with the written internal control policy so adopted by the recipient, and, subject to the requirements specified in division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section, only to pay the costs of protracted or complex investigations or prosecutions, to provide reasonable technical training or expertise, to provide matching funds to obtain federal grants to aid law enforcement, in the support of DARE programs or other programs designed to educate adults or children with respect to the dangers associated with the use of drugs of abuse, to pay the costs of emergency action taken under section 3745.13 of the Revised Code relative to the operation of an illegal methamphetamine laboratory if the forfeited property or money involved was that of a person responsible for the operation of the laboratory, or for other law enforcement purposes that the superintendent of the state highway patrol, department of public safety, department of taxation, prosecuting attorney, county sheriff, legislative authority, board of township trustees, or board of park commissioners determines to be appropriate. The board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund shall be expended only in accordance with the written internal control policy so adopted by the board and only in accordance with section 4729.65 of the Revised Code, except that it also may be expended to pay the costs of emergency action taken under section 3745.13 of the Revised Code relative to the operation of an illegal methamphetamine laboratory if the forfeited property or money involved was that of a person responsible for the operation of the laboratory. The highway patrol state contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund, and a law enforcement trust fund shall not be used to meet the operating costs of the state highway patrol, of the investigative unit of the department of public safety, of the department of taxation enforcement division, of the state board of pharmacy, of any political subdivision, or of any office of a prosecuting attorney or county sheriff that are unrelated to law enforcement.
Proceeds and forfeited moneys that are paid into the state treasury to be deposited into the peace officer training commission fund shall be used by the commission only to pay the costs of peace officer training.
Any sheriff or prosecuting attorney who receives proceeds or forfeited moneys pursuant to this division during any calendar year shall file a report with the county auditor, no later than the thirty-first day of January of the next calendar year, verifying that the proceeds and forfeited moneys were expended only for the purposes authorized by this division and division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section and specifying the amounts expended for each authorized purpose. Any municipal corporation police department that is allocated proceeds or forfeited moneys from a municipal corporation law enforcement trust fund pursuant to this division during any calendar year shall file a report with the legislative authority of the municipal corporation, no later than the thirty-first day of January of the next calendar year, verifying that the proceeds and forfeited moneys were expended only for the purposes authorized by this division and division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section and specifying the amounts expended for each authorized purpose. Any township police department, township police district police force, or office of the constable that is allocated proceeds or forfeited moneys from a township law enforcement trust fund pursuant to this division during any calendar year shall file a report with the board of township trustees of the township, no later than the thirty-first day of January of the next calendar year, verifying that the proceeds and forfeited moneys were expended only for the purposes authorized by this division and division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section and specifying the amounts expended for each authorized purpose. Any park district police force or law enforcement department that is allocated proceeds or forfeited moneys from a park district law enforcement trust fund pursuant to this division during any calendar year shall file a report with the board of park commissioners of the park district, no later than the thirty-first day of January of the next calendar year, verifying that the proceeds and forfeited moneys were expended only for the purposes authorized by this division and division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section and specifying the amounts expended for each authorized purpose. The superintendent of the state highway patrol shall file a report with the attorney general, no later than the thirty-first day of January of each calendar year, verifying that proceeds and forfeited moneys paid into the highway patrol state contraband, forfeiture, and other fund pursuant to this division during the prior calendar year were used by the state highway patrol during the prior calendar year only for the purposes authorized by this division and specifying the amounts expended for each authorized purpose. The executive director of the state board of pharmacy shall file a report with the attorney general, no later than the thirty-first day of January of each calendar year, verifying that proceeds and forfeited moneys paid into the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund during the prior calendar year were used only in accordance with section 4729.65 of the Revised Code and specifying the amounts expended for each authorized purpose. The peace officer training commission shall file a report with the attorney general, no later than the thirty-first day of January of each calendar year, verifying that proceeds and forfeited moneys paid into the peace officer training commission fund pursuant to this division during the prior calendar year were used by the commission during the prior calendar year only to pay the costs of peace officer training and specifying the amount used for that purpose.
The tax commissioner shall file a report with the attorney general, not later than the thirty-first day of January of each calendar year, verifying that proceeds and forfeited moneys paid into the department of taxation enforcement fund pursuant to this division during the prior calendar year were used by the enforcement division during the prior calendar year to pay only the costs of enforcing the tax laws and specifying the amount used for that purpose.
(2) If more than one law enforcement agency is substantially involved in the seizure of contraband that is forfeited pursuant to this section, the court ordering the forfeiture shall equitably divide the proceeds or forfeited moneys, after calculating any distribution to the law enforcement trust fund of the prosecuting attorney pursuant to division (D)(1)(c) of this section, among any county sheriff whose office is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure, any legislative authority of a municipal corporation whose police department is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure, any board of township trustees whose law enforcement agency is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure, any board of park commissioners of a park district whose police force or law enforcement department is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure, the state board of pharmacy if it is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure, the investigative unit of the department of public safety if it is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure, the enforcement division of the department of taxation if it is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure and the state highway patrol if it is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure. The proceeds or forfeited moneys shall be deposited in the respective law enforcement trust funds of the county sheriff, municipal corporation, township, and park district, the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund, the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, or the highway patrol state contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, in accordance with division (D)(1)(c) of this section. If a state law enforcement agency, other than the state highway patrol, the investigative unit of the department of public safety, the department of taxation, or the state board of pharmacy, is determined by the court to be substantially involved in the seizure, the state agency's equitable share of the proceeds and forfeited moneys shall be paid to the treasurer of state for deposit into the peace officer training commission fund.
(3)(a)(i) Prior to being allocated or using any proceeds or forfeited moneys out of the highway patrol state contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund, or a law enforcement trust fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this section, the state highway patrol, the department of public safety, the department of taxation, the state board of pharmacy, and a county sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police department, township police department, township police district police force, office of the constable, or park district police force or law enforcement department shall adopt a written internal control policy that addresses the state highway patrol's, department of public safety's, department of taxation's, state board of pharmacy's, sheriff's, prosecuting attorney's, police department's, police force's, office of the constable's, or law enforcement department's use and disposition of all the proceeds and forfeited moneys received and that provides for the keeping of detailed financial records of the receipts of the proceeds and forfeited moneys, the general types of expenditures made out of the proceeds and forfeited moneys, the specific amount of each general type of expenditure, and the amounts, portions, and programs described in division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section. The policy shall not provide for or permit the identification of any specific expenditure that is made in an ongoing investigation.
All financial records of the receipts of the proceeds and forfeited moneys, the general types of expenditures made out of the proceeds and forfeited moneys, the specific amount of each general type of expenditure by the state highway patrol, by the department of public safety, by the department of taxation, by the state board of pharmacy, and by a sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police department, township police department, township police district police force, office of the constable, or park district police force or law enforcement department, and the amounts, portions, and programs described in division (D)(3)(a)(ii) of this section are public records open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Additionally, a written internal control policy adopted under this division is a public record of that nature, and the state highway patrol, the department of public safety, the department of taxation, the state board of pharmacy, or the sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police department, township police department, township police district police force, office of the constable, or park district police force or law enforcement department that adopted it shall comply with it.
(ii) The written internal control policy of a county sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police department, township police department, township police district police force, office of the constable, or park district police force or law enforcement department shall provide that at least ten per cent of the first one hundred thousand dollars of proceeds and forfeited moneys deposited during each calendar year in the sheriff's, prosecuting attorney's, municipal corporation's, township's, or park district's law enforcement trust fund pursuant to division (B)(7)(c)(ii) of section 2923.46 or division (B)(8)(c)(ii) of section 2925.44 of the Revised Code, and at least twenty per cent of the proceeds and forfeited moneys exceeding one hundred thousand dollars that are so deposited, shall be used in connection with community preventive education programs. The manner in which the described percentages are so used shall be determined by the sheriff, prosecuting attorney, department, police force, or office of the constable after the receipt and consideration of advice on appropriate community preventive education programs from the county's board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, from the county's alcohol and drug addiction services board, or through appropriate community dialogue. The financial records described in division (D)(3)(a)(i) of this section shall specify the amount of the proceeds and forfeited moneys deposited during each calendar year in the sheriff's, prosecuting attorney's, municipal corporation's, township's, or park district's law enforcement trust fund pursuant to division (B)(7)(c)(ii) of section 2923.46 or division (B)(8)(c)(ii) of section 2925.44 of the Revised Code, the portion of that amount that was used pursuant to the requirements of this division, and the community preventive education programs in connection with which the portion of that amount was so used.
As used in this division, "community preventive education programs" includes, but is not limited to, DARE programs and other programs designed to educate adults or children with respect to the dangers associated with the use of drugs of abuse.
(b) Each sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police department, township police department, township police district police force, office of the constable, or park district police force or law enforcement department that receives in any calendar year any proceeds or forfeited moneys out of a law enforcement trust fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this section or uses any proceeds or forfeited moneys in its law enforcement trust fund in any calendar year shall prepare a report covering the calendar year that cumulates all of the information contained in all of the public financial records kept by the sheriff, prosecuting attorney, municipal corporation police department, township police department, township police district police force, office of the constable, or park district police force or law enforcement department pursuant to division (D)(3)(a) of this section for that calendar year, and shall send a copy of the cumulative report, no later than the first day of March in the calendar year following the calendar year covered by the report, to the attorney general.
The superintendent of the state highway patrol shall prepare a report covering each calendar year in which the state highway patrol uses any proceeds or forfeited moneys in the highway patrol state contraband, forfeiture, and other fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this section, that cumulates all of the information contained in all of the public financial records kept by the state highway patrol pursuant to division (D)(3)(a) of this section for that calendar year, and shall send a copy of the cumulative report, no later than the first day of March in the calendar year following the calendar year covered by the report, to the attorney general.
The department of public safety shall prepare a report covering each fiscal year in which the department uses any proceeds or forfeited moneys in the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this section that cumulates all of the information contained in all of the public financial records kept by the department pursuant to division (D)(3)(a) of this section for that fiscal year. The department shall send a copy of the cumulative report to the attorney general no later than the first day of August in the fiscal year following the fiscal year covered by the report. The director of public safety shall include in the report a verification that proceeds and forfeited moneys paid into the department of public safety investigative unit contraband, forfeiture, and other fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this section during the preceding fiscal year were used by the department during that fiscal year only for the purposes authorized by that division and shall specify the amount used for each authorized purpose.
The tax commissioner shall prepare a report covering each calendar year in which the department of taxation enforcement division uses any proceeds or forfeited moneys in the department of taxation enforcement fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this section, that cumulates all of the information contained in all of the public financial records kept by the department of taxation enforcement division pursuant to division (D)(3)(a) of this section for that calendar year, and shall send a copy of the cumulative report, not later than the first day of March in the calendar year following the calendar year covered by the report, to the attorney general.
The executive director of the state board of pharmacy shall prepare a report covering each calendar year in which the board uses any proceeds or forfeited moneys in the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund under division (D)(1)(c) of this section, that cumulates all of the information contained in all of the public financial records kept by the board pursuant to division (D)(3)(a) of this section for that calendar year, and shall send a copy of the cumulative report, no later than the first day of March in the calendar year following the calendar year covered by the report, to the attorney general. Each report received by the attorney general is a public record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Not later than the fifteenth day of April in the calendar year in which the reports are received, the attorney general shall send to the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives a written notification that does all of the following:
(i) Indicates that the attorney general has received from entities or persons specified in this division reports of the type described in this division that cover the previous calendar year and indicates that the reports were received under this division;
(ii) Indicates that the reports are open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code;
(iii) Indicates that the attorney general will provide a copy of any or all of the reports to the president of the senate or the speaker of the house of representatives upon request.
(4)(a) A law enforcement agency that receives pursuant to federal law proceeds from a sale of forfeited contraband, proceeds from another disposition of forfeited contraband, or forfeited contraband moneys shall deposit, use, and account for the proceeds or forfeited moneys in accordance with, and otherwise comply with, the applicable federal law.
(b)(i) If the state highway patrol receives from the United States department of justice pursuant to federal law proceeds from a sale of forfeited contraband, proceeds from another disposition of forfeited contraband, or forfeited contraband moneys, the appropriate governmental officials shall deposit the proceeds into the highway patrol federal contraband, forfeiture, and other fund justice contraband fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. All interest or other earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds or forfeited moneys shall be credited to the fund. The state highway patrol shall use and account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable federal law.
(ii) If the state highway patrol receives from the United States department of the treasury pursuant to federal law proceeds from a sale of forfeited contraband, proceeds from another disposition of forfeited contraband, or forfeited contraband moneys, the appropriate governmental officials shall deposit the proceeds into the highway patrol treasury contraband fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. All interest or other earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds or forfeited moneys shall be credited to the fund. The state highway patrol shall use and account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable federal law.
(c) If the investigative unit of the department of public safety receives pursuant to federal law proceeds from a sale of forfeited contraband, proceeds from another disposition of forfeited contraband, or forfeited contraband moneys, the appropriate governmental officials shall deposit the proceeds into the department of public safety investigative unit federal equitable share account fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. All interest or other earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds or forfeited moneys shall be credited to the fund. The department shall use and account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable federal law.
(d) If the tax commissioner receives pursuant to federal law proceeds from a sale of forfeited contraband, proceeds from another disposition of forfeited contraband, or forfeited contraband moneys, the appropriate governmental officials shall deposit into the department of taxation enforcement fund all interest or other earnings derived from the investment of the proceeds or forfeited moneys. The department shall use and account for that interest or other earnings in accordance with the applicable federal law.
(e) Divisions (D)(1) to (3) of this section do not apply to proceeds or forfeited moneys received pursuant to federal law or to the interest or other earnings that are derived from the investment of proceeds or forfeited moneys received pursuant to federal law and that are described in division (D)(4)(b) of this section.
(E) Upon the sale pursuant to this section of any property that is required to be titled or registered under law, the state shall issue an appropriate certificate of title or registration to the purchaser. If the state is vested with title pursuant to division (C) of this section and elects to retain property that is required to be titled or registered under law, the state shall issue an appropriate certificate of title or registration.
(F) Notwithstanding any provisions of this section to the contrary, any property that is lawfully seized in relation to a violation of section 2923.32 of the Revised Code shall be subject to forfeiture and disposition in accordance with sections 2923.32 to 2923.36 of the Revised Code; any property that is forfeited pursuant to section 2923.44 or 2923.45 of the Revised Code in relation to a violation of section 2923.42 of the Revised Code or in relation to an act of a juvenile that is a violation of section 2923.42 of the Revised Code may be subject to forfeiture and disposition in accordance with sections 2923.44 to 2923.47 of the Revised Code; and any property that is forfeited pursuant to section 2925.42 or 2925.43 of the Revised Code in relation to a felony drug abuse offense, as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, or in relation to an act that, if committed by an adult, would be a felony drug abuse offense of that nature, may be subject to forfeiture and disposition in accordance with sections 2925.41 to 2925.45 of the Revised Code or this section.
(G) Any failure of a law enforcement officer or agency, a prosecuting attorney, village solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer, a court, or the attorney general to comply with any duty imposed by this section in relation to any property seized or with any other provision of this section in relation to any property seized does not affect the validity of the seizure of the property, provided the seizure itself was made in accordance with law, and is not and shall not be considered to be the basis for the suppression of any evidence resulting from the seizure of the property, provided the seizure itself was made in accordance with law.
(H) Contraband that has been forfeited pursuant to division (C) of this section shall not be available for use to pay any fine imposed upon a person who is convicted of or pleads guilty to an underlying criminal offense or a different offense arising out of the same facts and circumstances.
Sec. 3109.14.  (A) As used in this section, "birth record" and "certification of birth" have the meanings given in section 3705.01 of the Revised Code.
(B)(1) The director of health, a person authorized by the director, a local commissioner of health, or a local registrar of vital statistics shall charge and collect a fee for each certified copy of a birth record, for each certification of birth, and for each copy of a death record. Until October 1, 2001, the fee shall be two dollars. On and after October 1, 2001, the The fee shall be three