To amend sections 101.70, 102.02, 102.03, 109.31, 109.572, 109.71, 109.77, 109.79, 121.41, 121.60, 1705.48, 2915.01, 2915.02, 2915.091, 2915.101, 3793.02, 4301.355, 4301.62, 4303.181, 4303.182, 4303.30, 5502.03, 5703.052, 5703.19, 5703.21, 5703.70, 5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.20, and 5747.98 and to enact sections 3517.1015, 3772.01 to 3772.03, 3772.031, 3772.032, 3772.033, 3772.034, 3772.04, 3772.05, 3772.051, 3772.06, 3772.061, 3772.062, 3772.07, 3772.08, 3772.09, 3772.091, 3772.10, 3772.11, 3772.111, 3772.112, 3772.12, 3772.121, 3772.13, 3772.131, 3772.14 to 3772.33, 3772.99, 3793.032, 5747.063, 5753.01 to 5753.06, 5753.061, and 5753.07 to 5753.10 of the Revised Code to create the Ohio Casino Control Commission and related provisions and to set forth casino gaming statutes under Ohio Constitution, Article XV, Section 6(C), to make changes to bingo and instant bingo laws, and to allow raffles of free prizes at professional sporting events.

Section 1. That sections 101.70, 102.02, 102.03, 109.31, 109.572, 109.71, 109.77, 109.79, 121.41, 121.60, 1705.48, 2915.01, 2915.02, 2915.091, 2915.101, 3793.02, 4301.355, 4301.62, 4303.181, 4303.182, 4303.30, 5502.03, 5703.052, 5703.19, 5703.21, 5703.70, 5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.20, and 5747.98 be amended and sections 2915.083, 3517.1015, 3772.01, 3772.02, 3772.03, 3772.031, 3772.032, 3772.033, 3772.034, 3772.04, 3772.05, 3772.051, 3772.06, 3772.061, 3772.062, 3772.07, 3772.08, 3772.09, 3772.091, 3772.10, 3772.11, 3772.111, 3772.112, 3772.12, 3772.121, 3772.13, 3772.131, 3772.14, 3772.15, 3772.16, 3772.17, 3772.18, 3772.19, 3772.20, 3772.21, 3772.22, 3772.23, 3772.24, 3772.25, 3772.26, 3772.27, 3772.28, 3772.29, 3772.30, 3772.31, 3772.32, 3772.33, 3772.99, 3793.032, 5747.063, 5753.01, 5753.02, 5753.03, 5753.04, 5753.05, 5753.06, 5753.061, 5753.07, 5753.08, 5753.09, and 5753.10 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:

Sec. 101.70.  As used in sections 101.70 to 101.79 and 101.99 of the Revised Code:

(A) "Person" means any individual, partnership, trust, estate, business trust, association, or corporation; any labor organization or manufacturer association; any department, commission, board, publicly supported college or university, division, institution, bureau, or other instrumentality of the state; or any county, township, municipal corporation, school district, or other political subdivision of the state. "Person" includes the Ohio casino control commission, a member of the commission, the executive director of the commission, an employee of the commission, and an agent of the commission.

(B) "Legislation" means bills, resolutions, amendments, nominations, and any other matter pending before the general assembly, any matter pending before the controlling board, or the executive approval or veto of any bill acted upon by the general assembly.

(C) "Compensation" means a salary, gift, payment, benefit, subscription, loan, advance, reimbursement, or deposit of money or anything of value; or a contract, promise, or agreement, whether or not legally enforceable, to make compensation.

(D) "Expenditure" means any of the following that is made to, at the request of, for the benefit of, or on behalf of any member of the general assembly, any member of the controlling board, the governor, the director of a department created under section 121.02 of the Revised Code, or any member of the staff of any public officer or employee listed in this division:

(1) A payment, distribution, loan, advance, deposit, reimbursement, or gift of money, real estate, or anything of value, including, but not limited to, food and beverages, entertainment, lodging, or transportation;

(2) A contract, promise, or agreement to make an expenditure, whether or not legally enforceable;

(3) The purchase, sale, or gift of services or any other thing of value.

"Expenditure" does not include a contribution, gift, or grant to a foundation or other charitable organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code. "Expenditure" does not include the purchase, sale, or gift of services or any other thing of value that is available to the general public on the same terms as it is available to the persons listed in this division, or an offer or sale of securities to any person listed in this division that is governed by regulation D, 17 C.F.R. 2301.501 230.501 to 2301.508 230.508, adopted under the authority of the "Securities Act of 1933," 48 Stat. 74, 15 U.S.C.A. and following, or that is governed by a comparable provision under state law.

(E) "Actively advocate" means to promote, advocate, or oppose the passage, modification, defeat, or executive approval or veto of any legislation by direct communication with any member of the general assembly, any member of the controlling board, the governor, the director of any department listed in section 121.02 of the Revised Code, or any member of the staff of any public officer or employee listed in this division. "Actively advocate" does not include the action of any person not engaged by an employer who has a direct interest in legislation if the person, acting under Section 3 of Article I, Ohio Constitution, assembles together with other persons to consult for their common good, instructs a public officer or employee who is listed in this division, or petitions that public officer or employee for the redress of grievances.

(F) "Legislative agent" means any individual, except a member of the general assembly, a member of the staff of the general assembly, the governor, lieutenant governor, attorney general, secretary of state, treasurer of state, or auditor of state, who is engaged during at least a portion of his the individual's time to actively advocate as one of his the individual's main purposes. An individual engaged by the Ohio casino control commission, a member of the commission, the executive director of the commission, or an employee or agent of the commission to actively advocate is a "legislative agent" even if the individual does not during at least a portion of the individual's time actively advocate as one of the individual's main purposes.

(G) "Employer" means any person who, directly or indirectly, engages a legislative agent.

(H) "Engage" means to make any arrangement, and "engagement" means any arrangement, whereby an individual is employed or retained for compensation to act for or on behalf of an employer to actively advocate.

(I) "Financial transaction" means a transaction or activity that is conducted or undertaken for profit and arises from the joint ownership or the ownership or part ownership in common of any real or personal property or any commercial or business enterprise of whatever form or nature between the following:

(1) A legislative agent, his an employer of a legislative agent, or a member of the immediate family of the legislative agent or his a legislative agent's employer; and

(2) Any member of the general assembly, any member of the controlling board, the governor, the director of a department created under section 121.02 of the Revised Code, or any member of the staff of a public officer or employee listed in division (I)(2) of this section.

"Financial transaction" does not include any transaction or activity described in division (I) of this section if it is available to the general public on the same terms, or if it is an offer or sale of securities to any person listed in division (I)(2) of this section that is governed by regulation D, 17 C.F.R. 2301.501 230.501 to 2301.508 230.508, adopted under the authority of the "Securities Act of 1933," 48 Stat. 74, 15 U.S.C.A. and following, or that is governed by a comparable provision under state law.

(J) "Staff" means any state employee whose official duties are to formulate policy and who exercises administrative or supervisory authority or who authorizes the expenditure of state funds.

Sec. 102.02.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in division (H) of this section, all of the following shall file with the appropriate ethics commission the disclosure statement described in this division on a form prescribed by the appropriate commission: every person who is elected to or is a candidate for a state, county, or city office and every person who is appointed to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term in such an elective office; all members of the state board of education; the director, assistant directors, deputy directors, division chiefs, or persons of equivalent rank of any administrative department of the state; the president or other chief administrative officer of every state institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code; the executive director and the members of the capitol square review and advisory board appointed or employed pursuant to section 105.41 of the Revised Code; all members of the Ohio casino control commission, the executive director of the commission, all professional employees of the commission, and all technical employees of the commission who perform an internal audit function; the chief executive officer and the members of the board of each state retirement system; each employee of a state retirement board who is a state retirement system investment officer licensed pursuant to section 1707.163 of the Revised Code; the members of the Ohio retirement study council appointed pursuant to division (C) of section 171.01 of the Revised Code; employees of the Ohio retirement study council, other than employees who perform purely administrative or clerical functions; the administrator of workers' compensation and each member of the bureau of workers' compensation board of directors; the bureau of workers' compensation director of investments; the chief investment officer of the bureau of workers' compensation; the director appointed by the workers' compensation council; all members of the board of commissioners on grievances and discipline of the supreme court and the ethics commission created under section 102.05 of the Revised Code; every business manager, treasurer, or superintendent of a city, local, exempted village, joint vocational, or cooperative education school district or an educational service center; every person who is elected to or is a candidate for the office of member of a board of education of a city, local, exempted village, joint vocational, or cooperative education school district or of a governing board of an educational service center that has a total student count of twelve thousand or more as most recently determined by the department of education pursuant to section 3317.03 of the Revised Code; every person who is appointed to the board of education of a municipal school district pursuant to division (B) or (F) of section 3311.71 of the Revised Code; all members of the board of directors of a sanitary district that is established under Chapter 6115. of the Revised Code and organized wholly for the purpose of providing a water supply for domestic, municipal, and public use, and that includes two municipal corporations in two counties; every public official or employee who is paid a salary or wage in accordance with schedule C of section 124.15 or schedule E-2 of section 124.152 of the Revised Code; members of the board of trustees and the executive director of the southern Ohio agricultural and community development foundation; all members appointed to the Ohio livestock care standards board under section 904.02 of the Revised Code; and every other public official or employee who is designated by the appropriate ethics commission pursuant to division (B) of this section.

The disclosure statement shall include all of the following:

(1) The name of the person filing the statement and each member of the person's immediate family and all names under which the person or members of the person's immediate family do business;

(2)(a) Subject to divisions (A)(2)(b) and (c) of this section and except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the Revised Code, identification of every source of income, other than income from a legislative agent identified in division (A)(2)(b) of this section, received during the preceding calendar year, in the person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or benefit, by the person filing the statement, and a brief description of the nature of the services for which the income was received. If the person filing the statement is a member of the general assembly, the statement shall identify the amount of every source of income received in accordance with the following ranges of amounts: zero or more, but less than one thousand dollars; one thousand dollars or more, but less than ten thousand dollars; ten thousand dollars or more, but less than twenty-five thousand dollars; twenty-five thousand dollars or more, but less than fifty thousand dollars; fifty thousand dollars or more, but less than one hundred thousand dollars; and one hundred thousand dollars or more. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section shall not be construed to require a person filing the statement who derives income from a business or profession to disclose the individual items of income that constitute the gross income of that business or profession, except for those individual items of income that are attributable to the person's or, if the income is shared with the person, the partner's, solicitation of services or goods or performance, arrangement, or facilitation of services or provision of goods on behalf of the business or profession of clients, including corporate clients, who are legislative agents. A person who files the statement under this section shall disclose the identity of and the amount of income received from a person who the public official or employee knows or has reason to know is doing or seeking to do business of any kind with the public official's or employee's agency.

(b) If the person filing the statement is a member of the general assembly, the statement shall identify every source of income and the amount of that income that was received from a legislative agent during the preceding calendar year, in the person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or benefit, by the person filing the statement, and a brief description of the nature of the services for which the income was received. Division (A)(2)(b) of this section requires the disclosure of clients of attorneys or persons licensed under section 4732.12 of the Revised Code, or patients of persons certified under section 4731.14 of the Revised Code, if those clients or patients are legislative agents. Division (A)(2)(b) of this section requires a person filing the statement who derives income from a business or profession to disclose those individual items of income that constitute the gross income of that business or profession that are received from legislative agents.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2)(c) of this section, division (A)(2)(a) of this section applies to attorneys, physicians, and other persons who engage in the practice of a profession and who, pursuant to a section of the Revised Code, the common law of this state, a code of ethics applicable to the profession, or otherwise, generally are required not to reveal, disclose, or use confidences of clients, patients, or other recipients of professional services except under specified circumstances or generally are required to maintain those types of confidences as privileged communications except under specified circumstances. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section does not require an attorney, physician, or other professional subject to a confidentiality requirement as described in division (A)(2)(c) of this section to disclose the name, other identity, or address of a client, patient, or other recipient of professional services if the disclosure would threaten the client, patient, or other recipient of professional services, would reveal details of the subject matter for which legal, medical, or professional advice or other services were sought, or would reveal an otherwise privileged communication involving the client, patient, or other recipient of professional services. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section does not require an attorney, physician, or other professional subject to a confidentiality requirement as described in division (A)(2)(c) of this section to disclose in the brief description of the nature of services required by division (A)(2)(a) of this section any information pertaining to specific professional services rendered for a client, patient, or other recipient of professional services that would reveal details of the subject matter for which legal, medical, or professional advice was sought or would reveal an otherwise privileged communication involving the client, patient, or other recipient of professional services.

(3) The name of every corporation on file with the secretary of state that is incorporated in this state or holds a certificate of compliance authorizing it to do business in this state, trust, business trust, partnership, or association that transacts business in this state in which the person filing the statement or any other person for the person's use and benefit had during the preceding calendar year an investment of over one thousand dollars at fair market value as of the thirty-first day of December of the preceding calendar year, or the date of disposition, whichever is earlier, or in which the person holds any office or has a fiduciary relationship, and a description of the nature of the investment, office, or relationship. Division (A)(3) of this section does not require disclosure of the name of any bank, savings and loan association, credit union, or building and loan association with which the person filing the statement has a deposit or a withdrawable share account.

(4) All fee simple and leasehold interests to which the person filing the statement holds legal title to or a beneficial interest in real property located within the state, excluding the person's residence and property used primarily for personal recreation;

(5) The names of all persons residing or transacting business in the state to whom the person filing the statement owes, in the person's own name or in the name of any other person, more than one thousand dollars. Division (A)(5) of this section shall not be construed to require the disclosure of debts owed by the person resulting from the ordinary conduct of a business or profession or debts on the person's residence or real property used primarily for personal recreation, except that the superintendent of financial institutions shall disclose the names of all state-chartered savings and loan associations and of all service corporations subject to regulation under division (E)(2) of section 1151.34 of the Revised Code to whom the superintendent in the superintendent's own name or in the name of any other person owes any money, and that the superintendent and any deputy superintendent of banks shall disclose the names of all state-chartered banks and all bank subsidiary corporations subject to regulation under section 1109.44 of the Revised Code to whom the superintendent or deputy superintendent owes any money.

(6) The names of all persons residing or transacting business in the state, other than a depository excluded under division (A)(3) of this section, who owe more than one thousand dollars to the person filing the statement, either in the person's own name or to any person for the person's use or benefit. Division (A)(6) of this section shall not be construed to require the disclosure of clients of attorneys or persons licensed under section 4732.12 or 4732.15 of the Revised Code, or patients of persons certified under section 4731.14 of the Revised Code, nor the disclosure of debts owed to the person resulting from the ordinary conduct of a business or profession.

(7) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the Revised Code, the source of each gift of over seventy-five dollars, or of each gift of over twenty-five dollars received by a member of the general assembly from a legislative agent, received by the person in the person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or benefit during the preceding calendar year, except gifts received by will or by virtue of section 2105.06 of the Revised Code, or received from spouses, parents, grandparents, children, grandchildren, siblings, nephews, nieces, uncles, aunts, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, sons-in-law, daughters-in-law, fathers-in-law, mothers-in-law, or any person to whom the person filing the statement stands in loco parentis, or received by way of distribution from any inter vivos or testamentary trust established by a spouse or by an ancestor;

(8) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the Revised Code, identification of the source and amount of every payment of expenses incurred for travel to destinations inside or outside this state that is received by the person in the person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or benefit and that is incurred in connection with the person's official duties, except for expenses for travel to meetings or conventions of a national or state organization to which any state agency, including, but not limited to, any legislative agency or state institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, pays membership dues, or any political subdivision or any office or agency of a political subdivision pays membership dues;

(9) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the Revised Code, identification of the source of payment of expenses for meals and other food and beverages, other than for meals and other food and beverages provided at a meeting at which the person participated in a panel, seminar, or speaking engagement or at a meeting or convention of a national or state organization to which any state agency, including, but not limited to, any legislative agency or state institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, pays membership dues, or any political subdivision or any office or agency of a political subdivision pays membership dues, that are incurred in connection with the person's official duties and that exceed one hundred dollars aggregated per calendar year;

(10) If the disclosure statement is filed by a public official or employee described in division (B)(2) of section 101.73 of the Revised Code or division (B)(2) of section 121.63 of the Revised Code who receives a statement from a legislative agent, executive agency lobbyist, or employer that contains the information described in division (F)(2) of section 101.73 of the Revised Code or division (G)(2) of section 121.63 of the Revised Code, all of the nondisputed information contained in the statement delivered to that public official or employee by the legislative agent, executive agency lobbyist, or employer under division (F)(2) of section 101.73 or (G)(2) of section 121.63 of the Revised Code.

A person may file a statement required by this section in person or by mail. A person who is a candidate for elective office shall file the statement no later than the thirtieth day before the primary, special, or general election at which the candidacy is to be voted on, whichever election occurs soonest, except that a person who is a write-in candidate shall file the statement no later than the twentieth day before the earliest election at which the person's candidacy is to be voted on. A person who holds elective office shall file the statement on or before the fifteenth day of April of each year unless the person is a candidate for office. A person who is appointed to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term in an elective office shall file the statement within fifteen days after the person qualifies for office. Other persons shall file an annual statement on or before the fifteenth day of April or, if appointed or employed after that date, within ninety days after appointment or employment. No person shall be required to file with the appropriate ethics commission more than one statement or pay more than one filing fee for any one calendar year.

The appropriate ethics commission, for good cause, may extend for a reasonable time the deadline for filing a statement under this section.

A statement filed under this section is subject to public inspection at locations designated by the appropriate ethics commission except as otherwise provided in this section.

(B) The Ohio ethics commission, the joint legislative ethics committee, and the board of commissioners on grievances and discipline of the supreme court, using the rule-making procedures of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may require any class of public officials or employees under its jurisdiction and not specifically excluded by this section whose positions involve a substantial and material exercise of administrative discretion in the formulation of public policy, expenditure of public funds, enforcement of laws and rules of the state or a county or city, or the execution of other public trusts, to file an annual statement on or before the fifteenth day of April under division (A) of this section. The appropriate ethics commission shall send the public officials or employees written notice of the requirement by the fifteenth day of February of each year the filing is required unless the public official or employee is appointed after that date, in which case the notice shall be sent within thirty days after appointment, and the filing shall be made not later than ninety days after appointment.

Except for disclosure statements filed by members of the board of trustees and the executive director of the southern Ohio agricultural and community development foundation, disclosure statements filed under this division with the Ohio ethics commission by members of boards, commissions, or bureaus of the state for which no compensation is received other than reasonable and necessary expenses shall be kept confidential. Disclosure statements filed with the Ohio ethics commission under division (A) of this section by business managers, treasurers, and superintendents of city, local, exempted village, joint vocational, or cooperative education school districts or educational service centers shall be kept confidential, except that any person conducting an audit of any such school district or educational service center pursuant to section 115.56 or Chapter 117. of the Revised Code may examine the disclosure statement of any business manager, treasurer, or superintendent of that school district or educational service center. The Ohio ethics commission shall examine each disclosure statement required to be kept confidential to determine whether a potential conflict of interest exists for the person who filed the disclosure statement. A potential conflict of interest exists if the private interests of the person, as indicated by the person's disclosure statement, might interfere with the public interests the person is required to serve in the exercise of the person's authority and duties in the person's office or position of employment. If the commission determines that a potential conflict of interest exists, it shall notify the person who filed the disclosure statement and shall make the portions of the disclosure statement that indicate a potential conflict of interest subject to public inspection in the same manner as is provided for other disclosure statements. Any portion of the disclosure statement that the commission determines does not indicate a potential conflict of interest shall be kept confidential by the commission and shall not be made subject to public inspection, except as is necessary for the enforcement of Chapters 102. and 2921. of the Revised Code and except as otherwise provided in this division.

(C) No person shall knowingly fail to file, on or before the applicable filing deadline established under this section, a statement that is required by this section.

(D) No person shall knowingly file a false statement that is required to be filed under this section.

(E)(1) Except as provided in divisions (E)(2) and (3) of this section, the statement required by division (A) or (B) of this section shall be accompanied by a filing fee of forty dollars.

(2) The statement required by division (A) of this section shall be accompanied by the following filing fee to be paid by the person who is elected or appointed to, or is a candidate for, any of the following offices:

(3) No judge of a court of record or candidate for judge of a court of record, and no referee or magistrate serving a court of record, shall be required to pay the fee required under division (E)(1) or (2) or (F) of this section.

(4) For any public official who is appointed to a nonelective office of the state and for any employee who holds a nonelective position in a public agency of the state, the state agency that is the primary employer of the state official or employee shall pay the fee required under division (E)(1) or (F) of this section.

(F) If a statement required to be filed under this section is not filed by the date on which it is required to be filed, the appropriate ethics commission shall assess the person required to file the statement a late filing fee of ten dollars for each day the statement is not filed, except that the total amount of the late filing fee shall not exceed two hundred fifty dollars.

(G)(1) The appropriate ethics commission other than the Ohio ethics commission and the joint legislative ethics committee shall deposit all fees it receives under divisions (E) and (F) of this section into the general revenue fund of the state.

(2) The Ohio ethics commission shall deposit all receipts, including, but not limited to, fees it receives under divisions (E) and (F) of this section and all moneys it receives from settlements under division (G) of section 102.06 of the Revised Code, into the Ohio ethics commission fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. All moneys credited to the fund shall be used solely for expenses related to the operation and statutory functions of the commission.

(3) The joint legislative ethics committee shall deposit all receipts it receives from the payment of financial disclosure statement filing fees under divisions (E) and (F) of this section into the joint legislative ethics committee investigative fund.

(H) Division (A) of this section does not apply to a person elected or appointed to the office of precinct, ward, or district committee member under Chapter 3517. of the Revised Code; a presidential elector; a delegate to a national convention; village or township officials and employees; any physician or psychiatrist who is paid a salary or wage in accordance with schedule C of section 124.15 or schedule E-2 of section 124.152 of the Revised Code and whose primary duties do not require the exercise of administrative discretion; or any member of a board, commission, or bureau of any county or city who receives less than one thousand dollars per year for serving in that position.

Sec. 102.03.  (A)(1) No present or former public official or employee shall, during public employment or service or for twelve months thereafter, represent a client or act in a representative capacity for any person on any matter in which the public official or employee personally participated as a public official or employee through decision, approval, disapproval, recommendation, the rendering of advice, investigation, or other substantial exercise of administrative discretion.

(2) For twenty-four months after the conclusion of service, no former commissioner or attorney examiner of the public utilities commission shall represent a public utility, as defined in section 4905.02 of the Revised Code, or act in a representative capacity on behalf of such a utility before any state board, commission, or agency.

(3) For twenty-four months after the conclusion of employment or service, no former public official or employee who personally participated as a public official or employee through decision, approval, disapproval, recommendation, the rendering of advice, the development or adoption of solid waste management plans, investigation, inspection, or other substantial exercise of administrative discretion under Chapter 343. or 3734. of the Revised Code shall represent a person who is the owner or operator of a facility, as defined in section 3734.01 of the Revised Code, or who is an applicant for a permit or license for a facility under that chapter, on any matter in which the public official or employee personally participated as a public official or employee.

(4) For a period of one year after the conclusion of employment or service as a member or employee of the general assembly, no former member or employee of the general assembly shall represent, or act in a representative capacity for, any person on any matter before the general assembly, any committee of the general assembly, or the controlling board. Division (A)(4) of this section does not apply to or affect a person who separates from service with the general assembly on or before December 31, 1995. As used in division (A)(4) of this section "person" does not include any state agency or political subdivision of the state.

(5) As used in divisions (A)(1), (2), and (3) of this section, "matter" includes any case, proceeding, application, determination, issue, or question, but does not include the proposal, consideration, or enactment of statutes, rules, ordinances, resolutions, or charter or constitutional amendments. As used in division (A)(4) of this section, "matter" includes the proposal, consideration, or enactment of statutes, resolutions, or constitutional amendments. As used in division (A) of this section, "represent" includes any formal or informal appearance before, or any written or oral communication with, any public agency on behalf of any person.

(6) Nothing contained in division (A) of this section shall prohibit, during such period, a former public official or employee from being retained or employed to represent, assist, or act in a representative capacity for the public agency by which the public official or employee was employed or on which the public official or employee served.

(7) Division (A) of this section shall not be construed to prohibit the performance of ministerial functions, including, but not limited to, the filing or amendment of tax returns, applications for permits and licenses, incorporation papers, and other similar documents.

(8) No present or former Ohio casino control commission official shall, during public service or for two years thereafter, represent a client, be employed or compensated by a person regulated by the commission, or act in a representative capacity for any person on any matter before or concerning the commission.

No present or former commission employee shall, during public employment or for two years thereafter, represent a client or act in a representative capacity on any matter in which the employee personally participated as a commission employee through decision, approval, disapproval, recommendation, the rendering of advice, investigation, or other substantial exercise of administrative discretion.

(B) No present or former public official or employee shall disclose or use, without appropriate authorization, any information acquired by the public official or employee in the course of the public official's or employee's official duties that is confidential because of statutory provisions, or that has been clearly designated to the public official or employee as confidential when that confidential designation is warranted because of the status of the proceedings or the circumstances under which the information was received and preserving its confidentiality is necessary to the proper conduct of government business.

(C) No public official or employee shall participate within the scope of duties as a public official or employee, except through ministerial functions as defined in division (A) of this section, in any license or rate-making proceeding that directly affects the license or rates of any person, partnership, trust, business trust, corporation, or association in which the public official or employee or immediate family owns or controls more than five per cent. No public official or employee shall participate within the scope of duties as a public official or employee, except through ministerial functions as defined in division (A) of this section, in any license or rate-making proceeding that directly affects the license or rates of any person to whom the public official or employee or immediate family, or a partnership, trust, business trust, corporation, or association of which the public official or employee or the public official's or employee's immediate family owns or controls more than five per cent, has sold goods or services totaling more than one thousand dollars during the preceding year, unless the public official or employee has filed a written statement acknowledging that sale with the clerk or secretary of the public agency and the statement is entered in any public record of the agency's proceedings. This division shall not be construed to require the disclosure of clients of attorneys or persons licensed under section 4732.12 or 4732.15 of the Revised Code, or patients of persons certified under section 4731.14 of the Revised Code.

(D) No public official or employee shall use or authorize the use of the authority or influence of office or employment to secure anything of value or the promise or offer of anything of value that is of such a character as to manifest a substantial and improper influence upon the public official or employee with respect to that person's duties.

(E) No public official or employee shall solicit or accept anything of value that is of such a character as to manifest a substantial and improper influence upon the public official or employee with respect to that person's duties.

(F) No person shall promise or give to a public official or employee anything of value that is of such a character as to manifest a substantial and improper influence upon the public official or employee with respect to that person's duties.

(G) In the absence of bribery or another offense under the Revised Code or a purpose to defraud, contributions made to a campaign committee, political party, legislative campaign fund, political action committee, or political contributing entity on behalf of an elected public officer or other public official or employee who seeks elective office shall be considered to accrue ordinarily to the public official or employee for the purposes of divisions (D), (E), and (F) of this section.

As used in this division, "contributions," "campaign committee," "political party," "legislative campaign fund," "political action committee," and "political contributing entity" have the same meanings as in section 3517.01 of the Revised Code.

(H)(1) No public official or employee, except for the president or other chief administrative officer of or a member of a board of trustees of a state institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, who is required to file a financial disclosure statement under section 102.02 of the Revised Code shall solicit or accept, and no person shall give to that public official or employee, an honorarium. Except as provided in division (H)(2) of this section, this division and divisions (D), (E), and (F) of this section do not prohibit a public official or employee who is required to file a financial disclosure statement under section 102.02 of the Revised Code from accepting and do not prohibit a person from giving to that public official or employee the payment of actual travel expenses, including any expenses incurred in connection with the travel for lodging, and meals, food, and beverages provided to the public official or employee at a meeting at which the public official or employee participates in a panel, seminar, or speaking engagement or provided to the public official or employee at a meeting or convention of a national organization to which any state agency, including, but not limited to, any state legislative agency or state institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, pays membership dues. Except as provided in division (H)(2) of this section, this division and divisions (D), (E), and (F) of this section do not prohibit a public official or employee who is not required to file a financial disclosure statement under section 102.02 of the Revised Code from accepting and do not prohibit a person from promising or giving to that public official or employee an honorarium or the payment of travel, meal, and lodging expenses if the honorarium, expenses, or both were paid in recognition of demonstrable business, professional, or esthetic interests of the public official or employee that exist apart from public office or employment, including, but not limited to, such a demonstrable interest in public speaking and were not paid by any person or other entity, or by any representative or association of those persons or entities, that is regulated by, doing business with, or seeking to do business with the department, division, institution, board, commission, authority, bureau, or other instrumentality of the governmental entity with which the public official or employee serves.

(2) No person who is a member of the board of a state retirement system, a state retirement system investment officer, or an employee of a state retirement system whose position involves substantial and material exercise of discretion in the investment of retirement system funds shall solicit or accept, and no person shall give to that board member, officer, or employee, payment of actual travel expenses, including expenses incurred with the travel for lodging, meals, food, and beverages.

(I) A public official or employee may accept travel, meals, and lodging or expenses or reimbursement of expenses for travel, meals, and lodging in connection with conferences, seminars, and similar events related to official duties if the travel, meals, and lodging, expenses, or reimbursement is not of such a character as to manifest a substantial and improper influence upon the public official or employee with respect to that person's duties. The house of representatives and senate, in their code of ethics, and the Ohio ethics commission, under section 111.15 of the Revised Code, may adopt rules setting standards and conditions for the furnishing and acceptance of such travel, meals, and lodging, expenses, or reimbursement.

A person who acts in compliance with this division and any applicable rules adopted under it, or any applicable, similar rules adopted by the supreme court governing judicial officers and employees, does not violate division (D), (E), or (F) of this section. This division does not preclude any person from seeking an advisory opinion from the appropriate ethics commission under section 102.08 of the Revised Code.

(J) For purposes of divisions (D), (E), and (F) of this section, the membership of a public official or employee in an organization shall not be considered, in and of itself, to be of such a character as to manifest a substantial and improper influence on the public official or employee with respect to that person's duties. As used in this division, "organization" means a church or a religious, benevolent, fraternal, or professional organization that is tax exempt under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3), (4), (8), (10), or (19) of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986." This division does not apply to a public official or employee who is an employee of an organization, serves as a trustee, director, or officer of an organization, or otherwise holds a fiduciary relationship with an organization. This division does not allow a public official or employee who is a member of an organization to participate, formally or informally, in deliberations, discussions, or voting on a matter or to use his official position with regard to the interests of the organization on the matter if the public official or employee has assumed a particular responsibility in the organization with respect to the matter or if the matter would affect that person's personal, pecuniary interests.

(K) It is not a violation of this section for a prosecuting attorney to appoint assistants and employees in accordance with division (B) of section 309.06 and section 2921.421 of the Revised Code, for a chief legal officer of a municipal corporation or an official designated as prosecutor in a municipal corporation to appoint assistants and employees in accordance with sections 733.621 and 2921.421 of the Revised Code, for a township law director appointed under section 504.15 of the Revised Code to appoint assistants and employees in accordance with sections 504.151 and 2921.421 of the Revised Code, or for a coroner to appoint assistants and employees in accordance with division (B) of section 313.05 of the Revised Code.

As used in this division, "chief legal officer" has the same meaning as in section 733.621 of the Revised Code.

(L) No present public official or employee with a casino gaming regulatory function shall indirectly invest, by way of an entity the public official or employee has an ownership interest or control in, or directly invest in a casino operator, management company, holding company, casino facility, or gaming-related vendor. No present public official or employee with a casino gaming regulatory function shall directly or indirectly have a financial interest in, have an ownership interest in, be the creditor or hold a debt instrument issued by, or have an interest in a contractual or service relationship with a casino operator, management company, holding company, casino facility, or gaming-related vendor. This section does not prohibit or limit permitted passive investing by the public official or employee.

As used in this division, "passive investing" means investment by the public official or employee by means of a mutual fund in which the public official or employee has no control of the investments or investment decisions. "Casino operator," "holding company," "management company," "casino facility," and "gaming-related vendor" have the same meanings as in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code.

(M) A member of the Ohio casino control commission, the executive director of the commission, or an employee of the commission shall not:

(1) Accept anything of value, including but not limited to a gift, gratuity, emolument, or employment from a casino operator, management company, or other person subject to the jurisdiction of the commission, or from an officer, attorney, agent, or employee of a casino operator, management company, or other person subject to the jurisdiction of the commission;

(2) Solicit, suggest, request, or recommend, directly or indirectly, to a casino operator, management company, or other person subject to the jurisdiction of the commission, or to an officer, attorney, agent, or employee of a casino operator, management company, or other person subject to the jurisdiction of the commission, the appointment of a person to an office, place, position, or employment;

(3) Participate in casino gaming or any other amusement or activity at a casino facility in this state or at an affiliate gaming facility of a licensed casino operator, wherever located.

In addition to the penalty provided in section 102.99 of the Revised Code, whoever violates division (M)(1), (2), or (3) of this section forfeits the individual's office or employment.

Sec. 109.31.  Except as otherwise provided by this section, the trustees of a charitable trust required to register under section 109.26 of the Revised Code shall file annual reports on forms prescribed by the attorney general, on or before the fifteenth day of the fifth month following the close of the trust's taxable year as established for federal tax purposes; or, in lieu of filing those reports, the trustees may file complete copies of all annual federal returns required to be filed by the trust with the internal revenue service for the taxable year, together with all schedules, attachments, and reports due with the return or returns. The federal returns shall be filed with the attorney general at the same time as required by the internal revenue service, taking into account any applicable extension of the federal filing date.

The annual report shall be signed by the trustee who is authorized to sign it. The annual report shall be considered certified by the trustee and his the trustee's signature on the report shall have the same effect as though made under oath.

A charitable trust required to register under section 109.26 of the Revised Code is not required to file the reports required by this section if any of the following apply:

(A) It is organized and operated exclusively for religious purposes.

(B) It is an educational institution that normally maintains a regular faculty and curriculum and normally has a regularly organized body of pupils or students in attendance at the place where its educational activities are regularly carried on.

(C) For any taxable year it has gross receipts of less than twenty-five thousand dollars and at the end of which it has gross assets of less than fifteen twenty-five thousand dollars.

The attorney general, by rule pursuant to section 109.27 of the Revised Code, may exempt other classes of charitable trusts from the requirements of this section, and may by rule increase monetary limits set forth in division (C) of this section, that require filing with the attorney general's office.

The attorney general may institute judicial proceedings to secure compliance with this section and to secure the proper administration of any trust or other relationship to which this section applies. The willful failure of any trustee to file reports as required by this section may be grounds for judicial removal of the trustee responsible for such failure.

The attorney general shall charge the following fees for filing the annual report:

For the purposes of this section, "assets" refers to the total fair market value of the charitable trust's assets at the end of that trust's taxable year as established for federal tax purposes.

Any charitable trust that fails to pay the fee required by this section at the time required shall pay an additional fee of two hundred dollars, except that the attorney general may waive the two-hundred-dollar fee upon a showing that the trustees of the charitable trust failed to pay the fee for filing the annual report at the time required by this section for reasons that were beyond the control of the trustees of the charitable trust or of a designee of the trustees.

This section shall not be subject to section 119.12 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 109.572. (A)(1) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 121.08, 3301.32, 3301.541, or 3319.39 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(1)(a) of this section.

(2) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 5123.081 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in any position with the department of developmental disabilities, pursuant to section 5126.28 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in any position with a county board of developmental disabilities, or pursuant to section 5126.281 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in a direct services position with an entity contracting with a county board for employment, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.04, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;

(b) An existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(2)(a) of this section.

(3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.27, 173.394, 3712.09, 3721.121, or 3722.151 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person who has applied for employment in a position for which a criminal records check is required by those sections. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;

(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(3)(a) of this section.

(4) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3701.881 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with a home health agency as a person responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.04, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;

(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(4)(a) of this section.

(5) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 5111.032, 5111.033, or 5111.034 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the following, regardless of the date of the conviction, the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the person was found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction:

(a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.11, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2923.01, 2923.02, 2923.03, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.32, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date;

(b) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(5)(a) of this section.

(6) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3701.881 of the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with a home health agency in a position that involves providing direct care to an older adult, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;

(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(6)(a) of this section.

(7) When conducting a criminal records check upon a request pursuant to section 3319.39 of the Revised Code for an applicant who is a teacher, in addition to the determination made under division (A)(1) of this section, the superintendent shall determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense specified in section 3319.31 of the Revised Code.

(8) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.86 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.49, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, two or more OVI or OVUAC violations committed within the three years immediately preceding the submission of the application or petition that is the basis of the request, or felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(8)(a) of this section.

(9) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5104.012 or 5104.013 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2923.01, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, a violation of section 2923.02 or 2923.03 of the Revised Code that relates to a crime specified in this division, or a second violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code within five years of the date of application for licensure or certification.

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described in division (A)(9)(a) of this section.

(10) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5153.111 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(10)(a) of this section.

(11) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from an individual pursuant to section 4749.03 or 4749.06 of the Revised Code, accompanied by a completed copy of the form prescribed in division (C)(1) of this section and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in a manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists indicating that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony in this state or in any other state. If the individual indicates that a firearm will be carried in the course of business, the superintendent shall require information from the federal bureau of investigation as described in division (B)(2) of this section. The superintendent shall report the findings of the criminal records check and any information the federal bureau of investigation provides to the director of public safety.

(12) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, or 4763.05 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person who has applied for a license, permit, or certification from the department of commerce or a division in the department. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following: a violation of section 2913.02, 2913.11, 2913.31, 2913.51, or 2925.03 of the Revised Code; any other criminal offense involving theft, receiving stolen property, embezzlement, forgery, fraud, passing bad checks, money laundering, or drug trafficking, or any criminal offense involving money or securities, as set forth in Chapters 2909., 2911., 2913., 2915., 2921., 2923., and 2925. of the Revised Code; or any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to those offenses.

(13) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from the treasurer of state under section 113.041 of the Revised Code or from an individual under section 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, or 4779.091 of the Revised Code, accompanied by a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in this state or any other state. The superintendent shall send the results of a check requested under section 113.041 of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state and shall send the results of a check requested under any of the other listed sections to the licensing board specified by the individual in the request.

(14) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, or 1761.26 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense under any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States.

(15) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from an appointing or licensing authority under section 3772.07 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner prescribed in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to any offense under any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is a disqualifying offense as defined in section 3772.07 of the Revised Code or substantially equivalent to such an offense.

(16) Not later than thirty days after the date the superintendent receives a request of a type described in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (12), or (14), or (15) of this section, the completed form, and the fingerprint impressions, the superintendent shall send the person, board, or entity that made the request any information, other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law, the superintendent determines exists with respect to the person who is the subject of the request that indicates that the person previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (12), or (14), or (15) of this section, as appropriate. The superintendent shall send the person, board, or entity that made the request a copy of the list of offenses specified in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (12), or (14), or (15) of this section, as appropriate. If the request was made under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code with regard to an applicant who may be both responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child and involved in providing direct care to an older adult, the superintendent shall provide a list of the offenses specified in divisions (A)(4) and (6) of this section.

Not later than thirty days after the superintendent receives a request for a criminal records check pursuant to section 113.041 of the Revised Code, the completed form, and the fingerprint impressions, the superintendent shall send the treasurer of state any information, other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law, the superintendent determines exist with respect to the person who is the subject of the request that indicates that the person previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in this state or any other state.

(B) The superintendent shall conduct any criminal records check requested under section 113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 3772.07, 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4763.05, 4779.091, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code as follows:

(1) The superintendent shall review or cause to be reviewed any relevant information gathered and compiled by the bureau under division (A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code that relates to the person who is the subject of the request, including, if the criminal records check was requested under section 113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 3772.07, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4763.05, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code, any relevant information contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code;

(2) If the request received by the superintendent asks for information from the federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall request from the federal bureau of investigation any information it has with respect to the person who is the subject of the request, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 if the request is made pursuant to section 2151.86, 5104.012, or 5104.013 of the Revised Code or if any other Revised Code section requires fingerprint-based checks of that nature, and shall review or cause to be reviewed any information the superintendent receives from that bureau. If a request under section 3319.39 of the Revised Code asks only for information from the federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall not conduct the review prescribed by division (B)(1) of this section.

(3) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee may request criminal history records from other states or the federal government pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code.

(C)(1) The superintendent shall prescribe a form to obtain the information necessary to conduct a criminal records check from any person for whom a criminal records check is requested under section 113.041 of the Revised Code or required by section 121.08, 173.27, 173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 3772.07, 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4763.05, 4779.091, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code. The form that the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.

(2) The superintendent shall prescribe standard impression sheets to obtain the fingerprint impressions of any person for whom a criminal records check is requested under section 113.041 of the Revised Code or required by section 121.08, 173.27, 173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 3772.07, 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4763.05, 4779.091, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code. Any person for whom a records check is requested under or required by any of those sections shall obtain the fingerprint impressions at a county sheriff's office, municipal police department, or any other entity with the ability to make fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheets prescribed by the superintendent. The office, department, or entity may charge the person a reasonable fee for making the impressions. The standard impression sheets the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.

(3) Subject to division (D) of this section, the superintendent shall prescribe and charge a reasonable fee for providing a criminal records check requested under section 113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3722.151, 3772.07, 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4763.05, 4779.091, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code. The person making a criminal records request under any of those sections shall pay the fee prescribed pursuant to this division. A person making a request under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code for a criminal records check for an applicant who may be both responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child and involved in providing direct care to an older adult shall pay one fee for the request. In the case of a request under section 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, 1761.26, or 5111.032 of the Revised Code, the fee shall be paid in the manner specified in that section.

(4) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation may prescribe methods of forwarding fingerprint impressions and information necessary to conduct a criminal records check, which methods shall include, but not be limited to, an electronic method.

(D) A determination whether any information exists that indicates that a person previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described in division (A)(1)(a) or (b), (A)(2)(a) or (b), (A)(3)(a) or (b), (A)(4)(a) or (b), (A)(5)(a) or (b), (A)(6)(a) or (b), (A)(7), (A)(8)(a) or (b), (A)(9)(a) or (b), (A)(10)(a) or (b), (A)(12), or (A)(14), or (A)(15) of this section, or that indicates that a person previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in this state or any other state regarding a criminal records check of a type described in division (A)(13) of this section, and that is made by the superintendent with respect to information considered in a criminal records check in accordance with this section is valid for the person who is the subject of the criminal records check for a period of one year from the date upon which the superintendent makes the determination. During the period in which the determination in regard to a person is valid, if another request under this section is made for a criminal records check for that person, the superintendent shall provide the information that is the basis for the superintendent's initial determination at a lower fee than the fee prescribed for the initial criminal records check.

(E) As used in this section:

(1) "Criminal records check" means any criminal records check conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance with division (B) of this section.

(2) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.

(4) "OVI or OVUAC violation" means a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to section 4511.19 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 109.71.  There is hereby created in the office of the attorney general the Ohio peace officer training commission. The commission shall consist of nine members appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate and selected as follows: one member representing the public; two members who are incumbent sheriffs; two members who are incumbent chiefs of police; one member from the bureau of criminal identification and investigation; one member from the state highway patrol; one member who is the special agent in charge of a field office of the federal bureau of investigation in this state; and one member from the department of education, trade and industrial education services, law enforcement training.

This section does not confer any arrest authority or any ability or authority to detain a person, write or issue any citation, or provide any disposition alternative, as granted under Chapter 2935. of the Revised Code.

As used in sections 109.71 to 109.801 of the Revised Code:

(A) "Peace officer" means:

(1) A deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, member of the organized police department of a township or municipal corporation, member of a township police district or joint township police district police force, member of a police force employed by a metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 3735.31 of the Revised Code, or township constable, who is commissioned and employed as a peace officer by a political subdivision of this state or by a metropolitan housing authority, and whose primary duties are to preserve the peace, to protect life and property, and to enforce the laws of this state, ordinances of a municipal corporation, resolutions of a township, or regulations of a board of county commissioners or board of township trustees, or any of those laws, ordinances, resolutions, or regulations;

(2) A police officer who is employed by a railroad company and appointed and commissioned by the secretary of state pursuant to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the Revised Code;

(3) Employees of the department of taxation engaged in the enforcement of Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code and designated by the tax commissioner for peace officer training for purposes of the delegation of investigation powers under section 5743.45 of the Revised Code;

(4) An undercover drug agent;

(5) Enforcement agents of the department of public safety whom the director of public safety designates under section 5502.14 of the Revised Code;

(6) An employee of the department of natural resources who is a natural resources law enforcement staff officer designated pursuant to section 1501.013, a park officer designated pursuant to section 1541.10, a forest officer designated pursuant to section 1503.29, a preserve officer designated pursuant to section 1517.10, a wildlife officer designated pursuant to section 1531.13, or a state watercraft officer designated pursuant to section 1547.521 of the Revised Code;

(7) An employee of a park district who is designated pursuant to section 511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code;

(8) An employee of a conservancy district who is designated pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;

(9) A police officer who is employed by a hospital that employs and maintains its own proprietary police department or security department, and who is appointed and commissioned by the secretary of state pursuant to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the Revised Code;

(10) Veterans' homes police officers designated under section 5907.02 of the Revised Code;

(11) A police officer who is employed by a qualified nonprofit corporation police department pursuant to section 1702.80 of the Revised Code;

(12) A state university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 of the Revised Code or a person serving as a state university law enforcement officer on a permanent basis on June 19, 1978, who has been awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic training program;

(13) A special police officer employed by the department of mental health pursuant to section 5119.14 of the Revised Code or the department of developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the Revised Code;

(14) A member of a campus police department appointed under section 1713.50 of the Revised Code;

(15) A member of a police force employed by a regional transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised Code;

(16) Investigators appointed by the auditor of state pursuant to section 117.091 of the Revised Code and engaged in the enforcement of Chapter 117. of the Revised Code;

(17) A special police officer designated by the superintendent of the state highway patrol pursuant to section 5503.09 of the Revised Code or a person who was serving as a special police officer pursuant to that section on a permanent basis on October 21, 1997, and who has been awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic training program;

(18) A special police officer employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code or a person serving as a special police officer employed by a port authority on a permanent basis on May 17, 2000, who has been awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic training program;

(19) A special police officer employed by a municipal corporation who has been awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission for satisfactory completion of an approved peace officer basic training program and who is employed on a permanent basis on or after March 19, 2003, at a municipal airport, or other municipal air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the transportation security administration of the United States department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended;

(20) A police officer who is employed by an owner or operator of an amusement park that has an average yearly attendance in excess of six hundred thousand guests and that employs and maintains its own proprietary police department or security department, and who is appointed and commissioned by a judge of the appropriate municipal court or county court pursuant to section 4973.17 of the Revised Code;

(21) A police officer who is employed by a bank, savings and loan association, savings bank, credit union, or association of banks, savings and loan associations, savings banks, or credit unions, who has been appointed and commissioned by the secretary of state pursuant to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the Revised Code, and who has been awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of a state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic training program;

(22) An investigator, as defined in section 109.541 of the Revised Code, of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation who is commissioned by the superintendent of the bureau as a special agent for the purpose of assisting law enforcement officers or providing emergency assistance to peace officers pursuant to authority granted under that section;

(23) A state fire marshal law enforcement officer appointed under section 3737.22 of the Revised Code or a person serving as a state fire marshal law enforcement officer on a permanent basis on or after July 1, 1982, who has been awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic training program;

(24) A gaming agent employed under section 3772.03 of the Revised Code.

(B) "Undercover drug agent" has the same meaning as in division (B)(2) of section 109.79 of the Revised Code.

(C) "Crisis intervention training" means training in the use of interpersonal and communication skills to most effectively and sensitively interview victims of rape.

(D) "Missing children" has the same meaning as in section 2901.30 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 109.77.  (A) As used in this section, "felony" has the same meaning as in section 109.511 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) Notwithstanding any general, special, or local law or charter to the contrary, and except as otherwise provided in this section, no person shall receive an original appointment on a permanent basis as any of the following unless the person previously has been awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic training program:

(a) A peace officer of any county, township, municipal corporation, regional transit authority, or metropolitan housing authority;

(b) A natural resources law enforcement staff officer, park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife officer, or state watercraft officer of the department of natural resources;

(c) An employee of a park district under section 511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code;

(d) An employee of a conservancy district who is designated pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;

(e) A state university law enforcement officer;

(f) A special police officer employed by the department of mental health pursuant to section 5119.14 of the Revised Code or the department of developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the Revised Code;

(g) An enforcement agent of the department of public safety whom the director of public safety designates under section 5502.14 of the Revised Code;

(h) A special police officer employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code;

(i) A special police officer employed by a municipal corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the transportation security administration of the United States department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended;

(j) A gaming agent employed under section 3772.03 of the Revised Code.

(2) Every person who is appointed on a temporary basis or for a probationary term or on other than a permanent basis as any of the following shall forfeit the appointed position unless the person previously has completed satisfactorily or, within the time prescribed by rules adopted by the attorney general pursuant to section 109.74 of the Revised Code, satisfactorily completes a state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic training program for temporary or probationary officers and is awarded a certificate by the director attesting to the satisfactory completion of the program:

(a) A peace officer of any county, township, municipal corporation, regional transit authority, or metropolitan housing authority;

(b) A natural resources law enforcement staff officer, park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife officer, or state watercraft officer of the department of natural resources;

(c) An employee of a park district under section 511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code;

(d) An employee of a conservancy district who is designated pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;

(e) A special police officer employed by the department of mental health pursuant to section 5119.14 of the Revised Code or the department of developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the Revised Code;

(f) An enforcement agent of the department of public safety whom the director of public safety designates under section 5502.14 of the Revised Code;

(g) A special police officer employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code;

(h) A special police officer employed by a municipal corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the transportation security administration of the United States department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended.

(3) For purposes of division (B) of this section, a state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic training program, regardless of whether the program is to be completed by peace officers appointed on a permanent or temporary, probationary, or other nonpermanent basis, shall include training in the handling of the offense of domestic violence, other types of domestic violence-related offenses and incidents, and protection orders and consent agreements issued or approved under section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code and crisis intervention training. The requirement to complete training in the handling of the offense of domestic violence, other types of domestic violence-related offenses and incidents, and protection orders and consent agreements issued or approved under section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code does not apply to any person serving as a peace officer on March 27, 1979, and the requirement to complete training in crisis intervention does not apply to any person serving as a peace officer on April 4, 1985. Any person who is serving as a peace officer on April 4, 1985, who terminates that employment after that date, and who subsequently is hired as a peace officer by the same or another law enforcement agency shall complete training in crisis intervention as prescribed by rules adopted by the attorney general pursuant to section 109.742 of the Revised Code. No peace officer shall have employment as a peace officer terminated and then be reinstated with intent to circumvent this section.

(4) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any person serving on a permanent basis on March 28, 1985, as a park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife officer, or state watercraft officer of the department of natural resources or as an employee of a park district under section 511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent basis on March 6, 1986, as an employee of a conservancy district designated pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent basis on January 10, 1991, as a preserve officer of the department of natural resources, to any person employed on a permanent basis on July 2, 1992, as a special police officer by the department of mental health pursuant to section 5119.14 of the Revised Code or by the department of developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent basis on May 17, 2000, as a special police officer employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent basis on March 19, 2003, as a special police officer employed by a municipal corporation at a municipal airport or other municipal air navigation facility described in division (A)(19) of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent basis on June 19, 1978, as a state university law enforcement officer pursuant to section 3345.04 of the Revised Code and who, immediately prior to June 19, 1978, was serving as a special police officer designated under authority of that section, or to any person serving on a permanent basis on September 20, 1984, as a liquor control investigator, known after June 30, 1999, as an enforcement agent of the department of public safety, engaged in the enforcement of Chapters 4301. and 4303. of the Revised Code.

(5) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any person who is appointed as a regional transit authority police officer pursuant to division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised Code if, on or before July 1, 1996, the person has completed satisfactorily an approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic training program and has been awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of such an approved program and if, on July 1, 1996, the person is performing peace officer functions for a regional transit authority.

(C) No person, after September 20, 1984, shall receive an original appointment on a permanent basis as a veterans' home police officer designated under section 5907.02 of the Revised Code unless the person previously has been awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved police officer basic training program. Every person who is appointed on a temporary basis or for a probationary term or on other than a permanent basis as a veterans' home police officer designated under section 5907.02 of the Revised Code shall forfeit that position unless the person previously has completed satisfactorily or, within one year from the time of appointment, satisfactorily completes an approved police officer basic training program.

(D) No bailiff or deputy bailiff of a court of record of this state and no criminal investigator who is employed by the state public defender shall carry a firearm, as defined in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code, while on duty unless the bailiff, deputy bailiff, or criminal investigator has done or received one of the following:

(1) Has been awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission, which certificate attests to satisfactory completion of an approved state, county, or municipal basic training program for bailiffs and deputy bailiffs of courts of record and for criminal investigators employed by the state public defender that has been recommended by the Ohio peace officer training commission;

(2) Has successfully completed a firearms training program approved by the Ohio peace officer training commission prior to employment as a bailiff, deputy bailiff, or criminal investigator;

(3) Prior to June 6, 1986, was authorized to carry a firearm by the court that employed the bailiff or deputy bailiff or, in the case of a criminal investigator, by the state public defender and has received training in the use of firearms that the Ohio peace officer training commission determines is equivalent to the training that otherwise is required by division (D) of this section.

(E)(1) Before a person seeking a certificate completes an approved peace officer basic training program, the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission shall request the person to disclose, and the person shall disclose, any previous criminal conviction of or plea of guilty of that person to a felony.

(2) Before a person seeking a certificate completes an approved peace officer basic training program, the executive director shall request a criminal history records check on the person. The executive director shall submit the person's fingerprints to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, which shall submit the fingerprints to the federal bureau of investigation for a national criminal history records check.

Upon receipt of the executive director's request, the bureau of criminal identification and investigation and the federal bureau of investigation shall conduct a criminal history records check on the person and, upon completion of the check, shall provide a copy of the criminal history records check to the executive director. The executive director shall not award any certificate prescribed in this section unless the executive director has received a copy of the criminal history records check on the person to whom the certificate is to be awarded.

(3) The executive director of the commission shall not award a certificate prescribed in this section to a person who has been convicted of or has pleaded guilty to a felony or who fails to disclose any previous criminal conviction of or plea of guilty to a felony as required under division (E)(1) of this section.

(4) The executive director of the commission shall revoke the certificate awarded to a person as prescribed in this section, and that person shall forfeit all of the benefits derived from being certified as a peace officer under this section, if the person, before completion of an approved peace officer basic training program, failed to disclose any previous criminal conviction of or plea of guilty to a felony as required under division (E)(1) of this section.

(F)(1) Regardless of whether the person has been awarded the certificate or has been classified as a peace officer prior to, on, or after October 16, 1996, the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission shall revoke any certificate that has been awarded to a person as prescribed in this section if the person does either of the following:

(a) Pleads guilty to a felony committed on or after January 1, 1997;

(b) Pleads guilty to a misdemeanor committed on or after January 1, 1997, pursuant to a negotiated plea agreement as provided in division (D) of section 2929.43 of the Revised Code in which the person agrees to surrender the certificate awarded to the person under this section.

(2) The executive director of the commission shall suspend any certificate that has been awarded to a person as prescribed in this section if the person is convicted, after trial, of a felony committed on or after January 1, 1997. The executive director shall suspend the certificate pursuant to division (F)(2) of this section pending the outcome of an appeal by the person from that conviction to the highest court to which the appeal is taken or until the expiration of the period in which an appeal is required to be filed. If the person files an appeal that results in that person's acquittal of the felony or conviction of a misdemeanor, or in the dismissal of the felony charge against that person, the executive director shall reinstate the certificate awarded to the person under this section. If the person files an appeal from that person's conviction of the felony and the conviction is upheld by the highest court to which the appeal is taken or if the person does not file a timely appeal, the executive director shall revoke the certificate awarded to the person under this section.

(G)(1) If a person is awarded a certificate under this section and the certificate is revoked pursuant to division (E)(4) or (F) of this section, the person shall not be eligible to receive, at any time, a certificate attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of a peace officer basic training program.

(2) The revocation or suspension of a certificate under division (E)(4) or (F) of this section shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(H)(1) A person who was employed as a peace officer of a county, township, or municipal corporation of the state on January 1, 1966, and who has completed at least sixteen years of full-time active service as such a peace officer, or equivalent service as determined by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission, may receive an original appointment on a permanent basis and serve as a peace officer of a county, township, or municipal corporation, or as a state university law enforcement officer, without complying with the requirements of division (B) of this section.

(2) Any person who held an appointment as a state highway trooper on January 1, 1966, may receive an original appointment on a permanent basis and serve as a peace officer of a county, township, or municipal corporation, or as a state university law enforcement officer, without complying with the requirements of division (B) of this section.

(I) No person who is appointed as a peace officer of a county, township, or municipal corporation on or after April 9, 1985, shall serve as a peace officer of that county, township, or municipal corporation unless the person has received training in the handling of missing children and child abuse and neglect cases from an approved state, county, township, or municipal police officer basic training program or receives the training within the time prescribed by rules adopted by the attorney general pursuant to section 109.741 of the Revised Code.

(J) No part of any approved state, county, or municipal basic training program for bailiffs and deputy bailiffs of courts of record and no part of any approved state, county, or municipal basic training program for criminal investigators employed by the state public defender shall be used as credit toward the completion by a peace officer of any part of the approved state, county, or municipal peace officer basic training program that the peace officer is required by this section to complete satisfactorily.

(K) This section does not apply to any member of the police department of a municipal corporation in an adjoining state serving in this state under a contract pursuant to section 737.04 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 109.79.  (A) The Ohio peace officer training commission shall establish and conduct a training school for law enforcement officers of any political subdivision of the state or of the state public defender's office. The school shall be known as the Ohio peace officer training academy. No bailiff or deputy bailiff of a court of record of this state and no criminal investigator employed by the state public defender shall be permitted to attend the academy for training unless the employing court of the bailiff or deputy bailiff or the state public defender, whichever is applicable, has authorized the bailiff, deputy bailiff, or investigator to attend the academy.

The Ohio peace officer training commission shall develop the training program, which shall include courses in both the civil and criminal functions of law enforcement officers, a course in crisis intervention with six or more hours of training, and training in the handling of missing children and child abuse and neglect cases, and shall establish rules governing qualifications for admission to the academy. The commission may require competitive examinations to determine fitness of prospective trainees, so long as the examinations or other criteria for admission to the academy are consistent with the provisions of Chapter 124. of the Revised Code.

The Ohio peace officer training commission shall determine tuition costs sufficient in the aggregate to pay the costs of operating the academy. The costs of acquiring and equipping the academy shall be paid from appropriations made by the general assembly to the Ohio peace officer training commission for that purpose, from gifts or grants received for that purpose, or from fees for goods related to the academy.

The Ohio peace officer training commission shall create a gaming-related curriculum for gaming agents. The Ohio peace officer training commission shall use money distributed to the Ohio peace officer training academy from the Ohio law enforcement training fund to first support the academy's training programs for gaming agents and gaming-related curriculum. The Ohio peace officer training commission may utilize existing training programs in other states that specialize in training gaming agents.

The law enforcement officers, during the period of their training, shall receive compensation as determined by the political subdivision that sponsors them or, if the officer is a criminal investigator employed by the state public defender, as determined by the state public defender. The political subdivision may pay the tuition costs of the law enforcement officers they sponsor and the state public defender may pay the tuition costs of criminal investigators of that office who attend the academy.

If trainee vacancies exist, the academy may train and issue certificates of satisfactory completion to peace officers who are employed by a campus police department pursuant to section 1713.50 of the Revised Code, by a qualified nonprofit corporation police department pursuant to section 1702.80 of the Revised Code, or by a railroad company, who are amusement park police officers appointed and commissioned by a judge of the appropriate municipal court or county court pursuant to section 4973.17 of the Revised Code, or who are bank, savings and loan association, savings bank, credit union, or association of banks, savings and loan associations, savings banks, or credit unions, or hospital police officers appointed and commissioned by the secretary of state pursuant to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the Revised Code, provided that no such officer shall be trained at the academy unless the officer meets the qualifications established for admission to the academy and the qualified nonprofit corporation police department; bank, savings and loan association, savings bank, credit union, or association of banks, savings and loan associations, savings banks, or credit unions; railroad company; hospital; or amusement park or the private college or university that established the campus police department prepays the entire cost of the training. A qualified nonprofit corporation police department; bank, savings and loan association, savings bank, credit union, or association of banks, savings and loan associations, savings banks, or credit unions; railroad company; hospital; or amusement park or a private college or university that has established a campus police department is not entitled to reimbursement from the state for any amount paid for the cost of training the bank, savings and loan association, savings bank, credit union, or association of banks, savings and loan associations, savings banks, or credit unions peace officers; the railroad company's peace officers; or the peace officers of the qualified nonprofit corporation police department, campus police department, hospital, or amusement park.

The academy shall permit investigators employed by the state medical board to take selected courses that the board determines are consistent with its responsibilities for initial and continuing training of investigators as required under sections 4730.26 and 4731.05 of the Revised Code. The board shall pay the entire cost of training that investigators receive at the academy.

(B) As used in this section:

(1) "Law enforcement officers" include any undercover drug agent, any bailiff or deputy bailiff of a court of record, and any criminal investigator who is employed by the state public defender.

(2) "Undercover drug agent" means any person who:

(a) Is employed by a county, township, or municipal corporation for the purposes set forth in division (B)(2)(b) of this section but who is not an employee of a county sheriff's department, of a township constable, or of the police department of a municipal corporation or township;

(b) In the course of the person's employment by a county, township, or municipal corporation, investigates and gathers information pertaining to persons who are suspected of violating Chapter 2925. or 3719. of the Revised Code, and generally does not wear a uniform in the performance of the person's duties.

(3) "Crisis intervention training" has the same meaning as in section 109.71 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Missing children" has the same meaning as in section 2901.30 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 121.41.  As used in sections 121.41 to 121.50 of the Revised Code:

(A) "Appropriate ethics commission" has the same meaning as in section 102.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) "Appropriate licensing agency" means a public or private entity that is responsible for licensing, certifying, or registering persons who are engaged in a particular vocation.

(C) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the Revised Code and also includes any officer or employee of the state or any political subdivision of the state.

(D) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 1.60 of the Revised Code and includes the Ohio casino control commission, but does not include any of the following:

(1) The general assembly;

(2) Any court;

(3) The secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of state, or attorney general and their respective offices.

(E) "State employee" means any person who is an employee of a state agency or any person who does business with the state.

(F) "State officer" means any person who is elected or appointed to a public office in a state agency.

(G) "Wrongful act or omission" means an act or omission, committed in the course of office holding or employment, that is not in accordance with the requirements of law or such standards of proper governmental conduct as are commonly accepted in the community and thereby subverts, or tends to subvert, the process of government.

Sec. 121.60.  As used in sections 121.60 to 121.69 of the Revised Code:

(A) "Person" and "compensation" have the same meanings as in section 101.70 of the Revised Code.

(B) "Expenditure" means any of the following that is made to, at the request of, for the benefit of, or on behalf of an elected executive official, the director of a department created under section 121.02 of the Revised Code, an executive agency official, or a member of the staff of any public officer or employee listed in this division:

(1) A payment, distribution, loan, advance, deposit, reimbursement, or gift of money, real estate, or anything of value, including, but not limited to, food and beverages, entertainment, lodging, transportation, or honorariums;

(2) A contract, promise, or agreement to make an expenditure, whether or not legally enforceable;

(3) The purchase, sale, or gift of services or any other thing of value. "Expenditure" does not include a contribution, gift, or grant to a foundation or other charitable organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code. "Expenditure" does not include the purchase, sale, or gift of services or any other thing of value that is available to the general public on the same terms as it is available to the persons listed in this division, or an offer or sale of securities to any person listed in this division that is governed by regulation D, 17 C.F.R. 2301.501 230.501 to 2301.508 230.508, adopted under the authority of the "Securities Act of 1933," 48 Stat. 74, 15 U.S.C.A. and following, or that is governed by a comparable provision under state law.

(C) "Employer" means any person who, directly or indirectly, engages an executive agency lobbyist.

(D) "Engage" means to make any arrangement, and "engagement" means arrangement, whereby an individual is employed or retained for compensation to act for or on behalf of an employer to influence executive agency decisions or to conduct any executive agency lobbying activity.

(E) "Financial transaction" means a transaction or activity that is conducted or undertaken for profit and arises from the joint ownership or the ownership or part ownership in common of any real or personal property or any commercial or business enterprise of whatever form or nature between the following:

(1) An executive agency lobbyist, his the executive agency lobbyist's employer, or a member of the immediate family of the executive agency lobbyist or his the executive agency lobbyist's employer; and

(2) Any elected executive official, the director of a department created under section 121.02 of the Revised Code, an executive agency official, or any member of the staff of a public officer or employee listed in division (E)(2) of this section.

"Financial transaction" does not include any transaction or activity described in division (E) of this section if it is available to the general public on the same terms, or if it is an offer or sale of securities to any person listed in division (E)(2) of this section that is governed by regulation D, 17 C.F.R. 2301.501 230.501 to 2301.508 230.508, adopted under the authority of the "Securities Act of 1933," 48 Stat. 74, 15 U.S.C.A. and following, or that is governed by a comparable provision under state law.

(F) "Executive agency" means the office of an elected executive official, a department created under section 121.02 of the Revised Code, or any other state agency, department, board, or commission controlled or directed by an elected executive official or otherwise subject to his an elected executive official's authority. "Executive agency" does not include any court, the general assembly, or the controlling board.

(G) "Executive agency decision" means a decision of an executive agency regarding the expenditure of funds of the state or of an executive agency with respect to the award of a contract, grant, lease, or other financial arrangement under which such funds are distributed or allocated, or a regulatory decision of an executive agency or any board or commission of the state. "Executive agency decision" does not include either of the following:

(1) A purchasing decision for which a vendor has filed a statement certifying that he the vendor has not made campaign contributions in an amount such that section 3517.13 of the Revised Code would invalidate the decision, if that vendor has not engaged an executive agency lobbyist;

(2) The award of a competitively bid contract for which bid specifications were prepared and for which at least three eligible competitive bids were received by the executive agency.

(H) "Executive agency lobbyist" means any person engaged to influence executive agency decisions or to conduct executive agency lobbying activity as one of his the person's main purposes on a regular and substantial basis. "Executive agency lobbyist" does not include an elected or appointed officer or employee of a federal or state agency, state college, state university, or political subdivision who attempts to influence or affect executive agency decisions in his a fiduciary capacity as a representative of his the officer's or employee's agency, college, university, or political subdivision.

(I) "Executive agency lobbying activity" means contacts made to promote, oppose, or otherwise influence the outcome of an executive agency decision by direct communication with an elected executive official, the director of any department listed in section 121.02 of the Revised Code, any executive agency official, or a member of the staff of any public officer or employee listed in this division, or the Ohio casino control commission. "Lobbying activity" does not include any of the following:

(1) The action of any person having a direct interest in executive agency decisions who, under Section 3 of Article I, Ohio Constitution, assembles together with other persons to consult for their common good, instructs a person listed in the first paragraph of division (I) of this section, or petitions such a person for the redress of grievances;

(2) Contacts made for the sole purpose of gathering information contained in a public record;

(3) Appearances before an executive agency to give testimony.

(J) "Executive agency official" means an officer or employee of an executive agency whose principal duties are to formulate policy or to participate directly or indirectly in the preparation, review, or award of contracts, grants, leases, or other financial arrangements with an executive agency.

(K) "Aggrieved party" means a party entitled to resort to a remedy.

(L) "Elected executive official" means the governor, lieutenant governor, secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of state, and the attorney general.

(M) "Staff" means any officer or employee of an executive agency whose official duties are to formulate policy and who exercises administrative or supervisory authority or who authorizes the expenditure of state funds.

Sec. 1705.48.  Except as otherwise provided by this chapter or any other provision of the Revised Code, including, but not limited to, sections 3734.908, 5739.33, 5743.57, 5747.07, and 5753.09 5753.02 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:

(A) The debts, obligations, and liabilities of a limited liability company, whether arising in contract, tort, or otherwise, are solely the debts, obligations, and liabilities of the limited liability company.

(B) Neither the members of the limited liability company nor any managers of the limited liability company are personally liable to satisfy any judgment, decree, or order of a court for, or are personally liable to satisfy in any other manner, a debt, obligation, or liability of the company solely by reason of being a member or manager of the limited liability company.

(C) Nothing in this chapter affects any personal liability of a member of a limited liability company or any manager of a limited liability company for the member's or manager's own actions or omissions.

(D) This chapter does not affect any statutory or common law of this or another state that pertains to the relationship between an individual who renders a professional service and a recipient of that service, including, but not limited to, any contract or tort liability arising out of acts or omissions committed or omitted during the course of rendering the professional service.

Sec. 2915.01.  As used in this chapter:

(A) "Bookmaking" means the business of receiving or paying off bets.

(B) "Bet" means the hazarding of anything of value upon the result of an event, undertaking, or contingency, but does not include a bona fide business risk.

(C) "Scheme of chance" means a slot machine, lottery, numbers game, pool conducted for profit, or other scheme in which a participant gives a valuable consideration for a chance to win a prize, but does not include bingo, a skill-based amusement machine, or a pool not conducted for profit.

(D) "Game of chance" means poker, craps, roulette, or other game in which a player gives anything of value in the hope of gain, the outcome of which is determined largely by chance, but does not include bingo.

(E) "Game of chance conducted for profit" means any game of chance designed to produce income for the person who conducts or operates the game of chance, but does not include bingo.

(F) "Gambling device" means any of the following:

(1) A book, totalizer, or other equipment for recording bets;

(2) A ticket, token, or other device representing a chance, share, or interest in a scheme of chance or evidencing a bet;

(3) A deck of cards, dice, gaming table, roulette wheel, slot machine, or other apparatus designed for use in connection with a game of chance;

(4) Any equipment, device, apparatus, or paraphernalia specially designed for gambling purposes;

(5) Bingo supplies sold or otherwise provided, or used, in violation of this chapter.

(G) "Gambling offense" means any of the following:

(1) A violation of section 2915.02, 2915.03, 2915.04, 2915.05, 2915.06, 2915.07, 2915.08, 2915.081, 2915.082, 2915.09, 2915.091, 2915.092, 2915.10, or 2915.11 of the Revised Code;

(2) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or the United States substantially equivalent to any section listed in division (G)(1) of this section or a violation of section 2915.06 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;

(3) An offense under an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or the United States, of which gambling is an element;

(4) A conspiracy or attempt to commit, or complicity in committing, any offense under division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.

(H) Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, "charitable organization" means any tax exempt religious, educational, veteran's, fraternal, sporting, service, nonprofit medical, volunteer rescue service, volunteer firefighter's, senior citizen's, historic railroad educational, youth athletic, amateur athletic, or youth athletic park organization. An organization is tax exempt if the organization is, and has received from the internal revenue service a determination letter that currently is in effect stating that the organization is, exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3), 501(c)(4), 501(c)(8), 501(c)(10), or 501(c)(19) of the Internal Revenue Code, or if the organization is a sporting organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and is described in subsection 501(c)(7) of the Internal Revenue Code. To qualify as a charitable organization, an organization, except a volunteer rescue service or volunteer firefighter's organization, shall have been in continuous existence as such in this state for a period of two years immediately preceding either the making of an application for a bingo license under section 2915.08 of the Revised Code or the conducting of any game of chance as provided in division (D) of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code. A charitable organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is created by a veteran's organization, a fraternal organization, or a sporting organization does not have to have been in continuous existence as such in this state for a period of two years immediately preceding either the making of an application for a bingo license under section 2915.08 of the Revised Code or the conducting of any game of chance as provided in division (D) of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code.

(I) "Religious organization" means any church, body of communicants, or group that is not organized or operated for profit and that gathers in common membership for regular worship and religious observances.

(J) "Educational organization" means any organization within this state that is not organized for profit, the primary purpose of which is to educate and develop the capabilities of individuals through instruction by means of operating or contributing to the support of a school, academy, college, or university.

(K) "Veteran's organization" means any individual post or state headquarters of a national veteran's association or an auxiliary unit of any individual post of a national veteran's association, which post, state headquarters, or auxiliary unit has been in continuous existence in this state for at least two years and is incorporated as a nonprofit corporation and either has received a letter from the state headquarters of the national veteran's association indicating that the individual post or auxiliary unit is in good standing with the national veteran's association or has received a letter from the national veteran's association indicating that the state headquarters is in good standing with the national veteran's association. As used in this division, "national veteran's association" means any veteran's association that has been in continuous existence as such for a period of at least five years and either is incorporated by an act of the United States congress or has a national dues-paying membership of at least five thousand persons.

(L) "Volunteer firefighter's organization" means any organization of volunteer firefighters, as defined in section 146.01 of the Revised Code, that is organized and operated exclusively to provide financial support for a volunteer fire department or a volunteer fire company and that is recognized or ratified by a county, municipal corporation, or township.

(M) "Fraternal organization" means any society, order, state headquarters, or association within this state, except a college or high school fraternity, that is not organized for profit, that is a branch, lodge, or chapter of a national or state organization, that exists exclusively for the common business or sodality of its members, and that has been in continuous existence in this state for a period of five years.

(N) "Volunteer rescue service organization" means any organization of volunteers organized to function as an emergency medical service organization, as defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.

(O) "Service organization" means either of the following:

(1) Any organization, not organized for profit, that is organized and operated exclusively to provide, or to contribute to the support of organizations or institutions organized and operated exclusively to provide, medical and therapeutic services for persons who are crippled, born with birth defects, or have any other mental or physical defect or those organized and operated exclusively to protect, or to contribute to the support of organizations or institutions organized and operated exclusively to protect, animals from inhumane treatment or provide immediate shelter to victims of domestic violence;

(2) Any organization that is described in subsection 509(a)(1), 509(a)(2), or 509(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and is either a governmental unit or an organization that is tax exempt under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is an organization, not organized for profit, that is organized and operated primarily to provide, or to contribute to the support of organizations or institutions organized and operated primarily to provide, medical and therapeutic services for persons who are crippled, born with birth defects, or have any other mental or physical defect.

(P) "Nonprofit medical organization" means either of the following:

(1) Any organization that has been incorporated as a nonprofit corporation for at least five years and that has continuously operated and will be operated exclusively to provide, or to contribute to the support of organizations or institutions organized and operated exclusively to provide, hospital, medical, research, or therapeutic services for the public;

(2) Any organization that is described and qualified under subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, that has been incorporated as a nonprofit corporation for at least five years, and that has continuously operated and will be operated primarily to provide, or to contribute to the support of organizations or institutions organized and operated primarily to provide, hospital, medical, research, or therapeutic services for the public.

(Q) "Senior citizen's organization" means any private organization, not organized for profit, that is organized and operated exclusively to provide recreational or social services for persons who are fifty-five years of age or older and that is described and qualified under subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(R) "Charitable bingo game" means any bingo game described in division (S)(1) or (2) of this section that is conducted by a charitable organization that has obtained a license pursuant to section 2915.08 of the Revised Code and the proceeds of which are used for a charitable purpose.

(S) "Bingo" means either of the following:

(1) A game with all of the following characteristics:

(a) The participants use bingo cards or sheets, including paper formats and electronic representation or image formats, that are divided into twenty-five spaces arranged in five horizontal and five vertical rows of spaces, with each space, except the central space, being designated by a combination of a letter and a number and with the central space being designated as a free space.

(b) The participants cover the spaces on the bingo cards or sheets that correspond to combinations of letters and numbers that are announced by a bingo game operator.

(c) A bingo game operator announces combinations of letters and numbers that appear on objects that a bingo game operator selects by chance, either manually or mechanically, from a receptacle that contains seventy-five objects at the beginning of each game, each object marked by a different combination of a letter and a number that corresponds to one of the seventy-five possible combinations of a letter and a number that can appear on the bingo cards or sheets.

(d) The winner of the bingo game includes any participant who properly announces during the interval between the announcements of letters and numbers as described in division (S)(1)(c) of this section, that a predetermined and preannounced pattern of spaces has been covered on a bingo card or sheet being used by the participant.

(2) Instant bingo, punch boards, and raffles.

(T) "Conduct" means to back, promote, organize, manage, carry on, sponsor, or prepare for the operation of bingo or a game of chance.

(U) "Bingo game operator" means any person, except security personnel, who performs work or labor at the site of bingo, including, but not limited to, collecting money from participants, handing out bingo cards or sheets or objects to cover spaces on bingo cards or sheets, selecting from a receptacle the objects that contain the combination of letters and numbers that appear on bingo cards or sheets, calling out the combinations of letters and numbers, distributing prizes, selling or redeeming instant bingo tickets or cards, supervising the operation of a punch board, selling raffle tickets, selecting raffle tickets from a receptacle and announcing the winning numbers in a raffle, and preparing, selling, and serving food or beverages.

(V) "Participant" means any person who plays bingo.

(W) "Bingo session" means a period that includes both of the following:

(1) Not to exceed five continuous hours for the conduct of one or more games described in division (S)(1) of this section, instant bingo, and seal cards;

(2) A period for the conduct of instant bingo and seal cards for not more than two hours before and not more than two hours after the period described in division (W)(1) of this section.

(X) "Gross receipts" means all money or assets, including admission fees, that a person receives from bingo without the deduction of any amounts for prizes paid out or for the expenses of conducting bingo. "Gross receipts" does not include any money directly taken in from the sale of food or beverages by a charitable organization conducting bingo, or by a bona fide auxiliary unit or society of a charitable organization conducting bingo, provided all of the following apply:

(1) The auxiliary unit or society has been in existence as a bona fide auxiliary unit or society of the charitable organization for at least two years prior to conducting bingo.

(2) The person who purchases the food or beverage receives nothing of value except the food or beverage and items customarily received with the purchase of that food or beverage.

(3) The food and beverages are sold at customary and reasonable prices.

(Y) "Security personnel" includes any person who either is a sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, township constable, or member of an organized police department of a municipal corporation or has successfully completed a peace officer's training course pursuant to sections 109.71 to 109.79 of the Revised Code and who is hired to provide security for the premises on which bingo is conducted.

(Z) "Charitable purpose" means that the net profit of bingo, other than instant bingo, is used by, or is given, donated, or otherwise transferred to, any of the following:

(1) Any organization that is described in subsection 509(a)(1), 509(a)(2), or 509(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and is either a governmental unit or an organization that is tax exempt under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(2) A veteran's organization that is a post, chapter, or organization of veterans, or an auxiliary unit or society of, or a trust or foundation for, any such post, chapter, or organization organized in the United States or any of its possessions, at least seventy-five per cent of the members of which are veterans and substantially all of the other members of which are individuals who are spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, or such individuals, provided that no part of the net earnings of such post, chapter, or organization inures to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual, and further provided that the net profit is used by the post, chapter, or organization for the charitable purposes set forth in division (B)(12) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code, is used for awarding scholarships to or for attendance at an institution mentioned in division (B)(12) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code, is donated to a governmental agency, or is used for nonprofit youth activities, the purchase of United States or Ohio flags that are donated to schools, youth groups, or other bona fide nonprofit organizations, promotion of patriotism, or disaster relief;

(3) A fraternal organization that has been in continuous existence in this state for fifteen years and that uses the net profit exclusively for religious, charitable, scientific, literary, or educational purposes, or for the prevention of cruelty to children or animals, if contributions for such use would qualify as a deductible charitable contribution under subsection 170 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(4) A volunteer firefighter's organization that uses the net profit for the purposes set forth in division (L) of this section.

(AA) "Internal Revenue Code" means the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as now or hereafter amended.

(BB) "Youth athletic organization" means any organization, not organized for profit, that is organized and operated exclusively to provide financial support to, or to operate, athletic activities for persons who are twenty-one years of age or younger by means of sponsoring, organizing, operating, or contributing to the support of an athletic team, club, league, or association.

(CC) "Youth athletic park organization" means any organization, not organized for profit, that satisfies both of the following:

(1) It owns, operates, and maintains playing fields that satisfy both of the following:

(a) The playing fields are used at least one hundred days per year for athletic activities by one or more organizations, not organized for profit, each of which is organized and operated exclusively to provide financial support to, or to operate, athletic activities for persons who are eighteen years of age or younger by means of sponsoring, organizing, operating, or contributing to the support of an athletic team, club, league, or association.

(b) The playing fields are not used for any profit-making activity at any time during the year.

(2) It uses the proceeds of bingo it conducts exclusively for the operation, maintenance, and improvement of its playing fields of the type described in division (CC)(1) of this section.

(DD) "Amateur athletic organization" means any organization, not organized for profit, that is organized and operated exclusively to provide financial support to, or to operate, athletic activities for persons who are training for amateur athletic competition that is sanctioned by a national governing body as defined in the "Amateur Sports Act of 1978," 90 Stat. 3045, 36 U.S.C.A. 373.

(EE) "Bingo supplies" means bingo cards or sheets; instant bingo tickets or cards; electronic bingo aids; raffle tickets; punch boards; seal cards; instant bingo ticket dispensers; and devices for selecting or displaying the combination of bingo letters and numbers or raffle tickets. Items that are "bingo supplies" are not gambling devices if sold or otherwise provided, and used, in accordance with this chapter. For purposes of this chapter, "bingo supplies" are not to be considered equipment used to conduct a bingo game.

(FF) "Instant bingo" means a form of bingo that uses folded or banded tickets or paper cards with perforated break-open tabs, a face of which is covered or otherwise hidden from view to conceal a number, letter, or symbol, or set of numbers, letters, or symbols, some of which have been designated in advance as prize winners. "Instant bingo" includes seal cards. "Instant bingo" does not include any device that is activated by the insertion of a coin, currency, token, or an equivalent, and that contains as one of its components a video display monitor that is capable of displaying numbers, letters, symbols, or characters in winning or losing combinations.

(GG) "Seal card" means a form of instant bingo that uses instant bingo tickets in conjunction with a board or placard that contains one or more seals that, when removed or opened, reveal predesignated winning numbers, letters, or symbols.

(HH) "Raffle" means a form of bingo in which the one or more prizes are won by one or more persons who have purchased a raffle ticket. The one or more winners of the raffle are determined by drawing a ticket stub or other detachable section from a receptacle containing ticket stubs or detachable sections corresponding to all tickets sold for the raffle. "Raffle" does not include the drawing of a ticket stub or other detachable section of a ticket purchased to attend a professional sporting event if both of the following apply:

(1) The ticket stub or other detachable section is used to select the winner of a free prize given away at the professional sporting event; and

(2) The cost of the ticket is the same as the cost of a ticket to the professional sporting event on days when no free prize is given away.

(II) "Punch board" means a board containing a number of holes or receptacles of uniform size in which are placed, mechanically and randomly, serially numbered slips of paper that may be punched or drawn from the hole or receptacle when used in conjunction with instant bingo. A player may punch or draw the numbered slips of paper from the holes or receptacles and obtain the prize established for the game if the number drawn corresponds to a winning number or, if the punch board includes the use of a seal card, a potential winning number.

(JJ) "Gross profit" means gross receipts minus the amount actually expended for the payment of prize awards.

(KK) "Net profit" means gross profit minus expenses.

(LL) "Expenses" means the reasonable amount of gross profit actually expended for all of the following:

(1) The purchase or lease of bingo supplies;

(2) The annual license fee required under section 2915.08 of the Revised Code;

(3) Bank fees and service charges for a bingo session or game account described in section 2915.10 of the Revised Code;

(4) Audits and accounting services;

(5) Safes;

(6) Cash registers;

(7) Hiring security personnel;

(8) Advertising bingo;

(9) Renting premises in which to conduct a bingo session;

(10) Tables and chairs;

(11) Expenses for maintaining and operating a charitable organization's facilities, including, but not limited to, a post home, club house, lounge, tavern, or canteen and any grounds attached to the post home, club house, lounge, tavern, or canteen;

(12) Payment of real property taxes and assessments that are levied on a premises on which bingo is conducted;

(13) Any other product or service directly related to the conduct of bingo that is authorized in rules adopted by the attorney general under division (B)(1) of section 2915.08 of the Revised Code.

(MM) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the Revised Code and includes any firm or any other legal entity, however organized.

(NN) "Revoke" means to void permanently all rights and privileges of the holder of a license issued under section 2915.08, 2915.081, or 2915.082 of the Revised Code or a charitable gaming license issued by another jurisdiction.

(OO) "Suspend" means to interrupt temporarily all rights and privileges of the holder of a license issued under section 2915.08, 2915.081, or 2915.082 of the Revised Code or a charitable gaming license issued by another jurisdiction.

(PP) "Distributor" means any person who purchases or obtains bingo supplies and who does either of the following:

(1) Sells, offers for sale, or otherwise provides or offers to provide the bingo supplies to another person for use in this state;

(2) Modifies, converts, adds to, or removes parts from the bingo supplies to further their promotion or sale for use in this state.

(QQ) "Manufacturer" means any person who assembles completed bingo supplies from raw materials, other items, or subparts or who modifies, converts, adds to, or removes parts from bingo supplies to further their promotion or sale.

(RR) "Gross annual revenues" means the annual gross receipts derived from the conduct of bingo described in division (S)(1) of this section plus the annual net profit derived from the conduct of bingo described in division (S)(2) of this section.

(SS) "Instant bingo ticket dispenser" means a mechanical device that dispenses an instant bingo ticket or card as the sole item of value dispensed and that has the following characteristics:

(1) It is activated upon the insertion of United States currency.

(2) It performs no gaming functions.

(3) It does not contain a video display monitor or generate noise.

(4) It is not capable of displaying any numbers, letters, symbols, or characters in winning or losing combinations.

(5) It does not simulate or display rolling or spinning reels.

(6) It is incapable of determining whether a dispensed bingo ticket or card is a winning or nonwinning ticket or card and requires a winning ticket or card to be paid by a bingo game operator.

(7) It may provide accounting and security features to aid in accounting for the instant bingo tickets or cards it dispenses.

(8) It is not part of an electronic network and is not interactive.

(9) The insertion of tickets or cards into the device and the removal of currency from the device that has been inserted into the device are controlled by two separate keys that are controlled by two separate individuals.

(TT)(1) "Electronic bingo aid" means an electronic device used by a participant to monitor bingo cards or sheets purchased at the time and place of a bingo session and that does all of the following:

(a) It provides a means for a participant to input numbers and letters announced by a bingo caller.

(b) It compares the numbers and letters entered by the participant to the bingo faces previously stored in the memory of the device.

(c) It identifies a winning bingo pattern.

(2) "Electronic bingo aid" does not include any device into which a coin, currency, token, or an equivalent is inserted to activate play.

(UU) "Deal of instant bingo tickets" means a single game of instant bingo tickets all with the same serial number.

(VV)(1) "Slot machine" means either of the following:

(a) Any mechanical, electronic, video, or digital device that is capable of accepting anything of value, directly or indirectly, from or on behalf of a player who gives the thing of value in the hope of gain;

(b) Any mechanical, electronic, video, or digital device that is capable of accepting anything of value, directly or indirectly, from or on behalf of a player to conduct or dispense bingo or a scheme or game of chance.

(2) "Slot machine" does not include a skill-based amusement machine or an instant bingo ticket dispenser.

(WW) "Net profit from the proceeds of the sale of instant bingo" means gross profit minus the ordinary, necessary, and reasonable expense expended for the purchase of instant bingo supplies.

(XX) "Charitable instant bingo organization" means an organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and is a charitable organization as defined in this section. A "charitable instant bingo organization" does not include a charitable organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is created by a veteran's organization, a fraternal organization, or a sporting organization in regards to bingo conducted or assisted by a veteran's organization, a fraternal organization, or a sporting organization pursuant to section 2915.13 of the Revised Code.

(YY) "Game flare" means the board or placard that accompanies each deal of instant bingo tickets and that has printed on or affixed to it the following information for the game:

(1) The name of the game;

(2) The manufacturer's name or distinctive logo;

(3) The form number;

(4) The ticket count;

(5) The prize structure, including the number of winning instant bingo tickets by denomination and the respective winning symbol or number combinations for the winning instant bingo tickets;

(6) The cost per play;

(7) The serial number of the game.

(ZZ) "Historic railroad educational organization" means an organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, that owns in fee simple the tracks and the right of way of a historic railroad that the organization restores or maintains and on which the organization provides excursions as part of a program to promote tourism and educate visitors regarding the role of railroad transportation in Ohio history, and that received as donations from a charitable organization that holds a license to conduct bingo under this chapter an amount equal to at least fifty per cent of that licensed charitable organization's net proceeds from the conduct of bingo during each of the five years preceding June 30, 2003. "Historic railroad" means all or a portion of the tracks and right-of-way of a railroad that was owned and operated by a for-profit common carrier in this state at any time prior to January 1, 1950.

(AAA)(1) "Skill-based amusement machine" means a mechanical, video, digital, or electronic device that rewards the player or players, if at all, only with merchandise prizes or with redeemable vouchers redeemable only for merchandise prizes, provided that with respect to rewards for playing the game all of the following apply:

(a) The wholesale value of a merchandise prize awarded as a result of the single play of a machine does not exceed ten dollars;

(b) Redeemable vouchers awarded for any single play of a machine are not redeemable for a merchandise prize with a wholesale value of more than ten dollars;

(c) Redeemable vouchers are not redeemable for a merchandise prize that has a wholesale value of more than ten dollars times the fewest number of single plays necessary to accrue the redeemable vouchers required to obtain that prize; and

(d) Any redeemable vouchers or merchandise prizes are distributed at the site of the skill-based amusement machine at the time of play.

(2) A device shall not be considered a skill-based amusement machine and shall be considered a slot machine if it pays cash or one or more of the following apply:

(a) The ability of a player to succeed at the game is impacted by the number or ratio of prior wins to prior losses of players playing the game.

(b) Any reward of redeemable vouchers is not based solely on the player achieving the object of the game or the player's score;

(c) The outcome of the game, or the value of the redeemable voucher or merchandise prize awarded for winning the game, can be controlled by a source other than any player playing the game.

(d) The success of any player is or may be determined by a chance event that cannot be altered by player actions.

(e) The ability of any player to succeed at the game is determined by game features not visible or known to the player.

(f) The ability of the player to succeed at the game is impacted by the exercise of a skill that no reasonable player could exercise.

(3) All of the following apply to any machine that is operated as described in division (AAA)(1) of this section:

(a) As used in this section, "game" and "play" mean one event from the initial activation of the machine until the results of play are determined without payment of additional consideration. An individual utilizing a machine that involves a single game, play, contest, competition, or tournament may be awarded redeemable vouchers or merchandise prizes based on the results of play.

(b) Advance play for a single game, play, contest, competition, or tournament participation may be purchased. The cost of the contest, competition, or tournament participation may be greater than a single noncontest, competition, or tournament play.

(c) To the extent that the machine is used in a contest, competition, or tournament, that contest, competition, or tournament has a defined starting and ending date and is open to participants in competition for scoring and ranking results toward the awarding of redeemable vouchers or merchandise prizes that are stated prior to the start of the contest, competition, or tournament.

(4) For purposes of division (AAA)(1) of this section, the mere presence of a device, such as a pin-setting, ball-releasing, or scoring mechanism, that does not contribute to or affect the outcome of the play of the game does not make the device a skill-based amusement machine.

(BBB) "Merchandise prize" means any item of value, but shall not include any of the following:

(1) Cash, gift cards, or any equivalent thereof;

(2) Plays on games of chance, state lottery tickets, bingo, or instant bingo;

(3) Firearms, tobacco, or alcoholic beverages; or

(4) A redeemable voucher that is redeemable for any of the items listed in division (BBB)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.

(CCC) "Redeemable voucher" means any ticket, token, coupon, receipt, or other noncash representation of value.

(DDD) "Pool not conducted for profit" means a scheme in which a participant gives a valuable consideration for a chance to win a prize and the total amount of consideration wagered is distributed to a participant or participants.

(EEE) "Sporting organization" means a hunting, fishing, or trapping organization, other than a college or high school fraternity or sorority, that is not organized for profit, that is affiliated with a state or national sporting organization, including but not limited to, the Ohio league of sportsmen, and that has been in continuous existence in this state for a period of three years.

(FFF) "Community action agency" has the same meaning as in section 122.66 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 2915.02.  (A) No person shall do any of the following:

(1) Engage in bookmaking, or knowingly engage in conduct that facilitates bookmaking;

(2) Establish, promote, or operate or knowingly engage in conduct that facilitates any game of chance conducted for profit or any scheme of chance;

(3) Knowingly procure, transmit, exchange, or engage in conduct that facilitates the procurement, transmission, or exchange of information for use in establishing odds or determining winners in connection with bookmaking or with any game of chance conducted for profit or any scheme of chance;

(4) Engage in betting or in playing any scheme or game of chance as a substantial source of income or livelihood;

(5) With purpose to violate division (A)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section, acquire, possess, control, or operate any gambling device.

(B) For purposes of division (A)(1) of this section, a person facilitates bookmaking if the person in any way knowingly aids an illegal bookmaking operation, including, without limitation, placing a bet with a person engaged in or facilitating illegal bookmaking. For purposes of division (A)(2) of this section, a person facilitates a game of chance conducted for profit or a scheme of chance if the person in any way knowingly aids in the conduct or operation of any such game or scheme, including, without limitation, playing any such game or scheme.

(C) This section does not prohibit conduct in connection with gambling expressly permitted by law.

(D) This section does not apply to any of the following:

(1) Games of chance, if all of the following apply:

(a) The games of chance are not craps for money or roulette for money.

(b) The games of chance are conducted by a charitable organization that is, and has received from the internal revenue service a determination letter that is currently in effect, stating that the organization is, exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(c) The games of chance are conducted at festivals of the charitable organization that are conducted either for a period of four consecutive days or less and not more than twice a year or for a period of five consecutive days not more than once a year, and are conducted on premises owned by the charitable organization for a period of no less than one year immediately preceding the conducting of the games of chance, on premises leased from a governmental unit, or on premises that are leased from a veteran's or fraternal organization and that have been owned by the lessor veteran's or fraternal organization for a period of no less than one year immediately preceding the conducting of the games of chance.

A charitable organization shall not lease premises from a veteran's or fraternal organization to conduct a festival described in division (D)(1)(c) of this section if the veteran's or fraternal organization already has leased the premises four twelve times during the preceding year to charitable organizations for that purpose. If a charitable organization leases premises from a veteran's or fraternal organization to conduct a festival described in division (D)(1)(c) of this section, the charitable organization shall not pay a rental rate for the premises per day of the festival that exceeds the rental rate per bingo session that a charitable organization may pay under division (B)(1) of section 2915.09 of the Revised Code when it leases premises from another charitable organization to conduct bingo games.

(d) All of the money or assets received from the games of chance after deduction only of prizes paid out during the conduct of the games of chance are used by, or given, donated, or otherwise transferred to, any organization that is described in subsection 509(a)(1), 509(a)(2), or 509(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and is either a governmental unit or an organization that is tax exempt under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(e) The games of chance are not conducted during, or within ten hours of, a bingo game conducted for amusement purposes only pursuant to section 2915.12 of the Revised Code.

No person shall receive any commission, wage, salary, reward, tip, donation, gratuity, or other form of compensation, directly or indirectly, for operating or assisting in the operation of any game of chance.

(2) Any tag fishing tournament operated under a permit issued under section 1533.92 of the Revised Code, as "tag fishing tournament" is defined in section 1531.01 of the Revised Code;

(3) Bingo conducted by a charitable organization that holds a license issued under section 2915.08 of the Revised Code.

(E) Division (D) of this section shall not be construed to authorize the sale, lease, or other temporary or permanent transfer of the right to conduct games of chance, as granted by that division, by any charitable organization that is granted that right.

(F) Whoever violates this section is guilty of gambling, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of any gambling offense, gambling is a felony of the fifth degree.

Sec. 2915.091.  (A) No charitable organization that conducts instant bingo shall do any of the following:

(1) Fail to comply with the requirements of divisions (A)(1), (2), and (3) of section 2915.09 of the Revised Code;

(2) Conduct instant bingo unless either of the following apply applies:

(a) That organization is, and has received from the internal revenue service a determination letter that is currently in effect stating that the organization is, exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a), is described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, is a charitable organization as defined in section 2915.01 of the Revised Code, is in good standing in the state pursuant to section 2915.08 of the Revised Code, and is in compliance with Chapter 1716. of the Revised Code;

(b) That organization is, and has received from the internal revenue service a determination letter that is currently in effect stating that the organization is, exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a), is described in subsection 501(c)(7), 501(c)(8), 501(c)(10), or 501(c)(19) or is a veteran's organization described in subsection 501(c)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code, and conducts instant bingo under section 2915.13 of the Revised Code.

(3) Conduct instant bingo on any day, at any time, or at any premises not specified on the organization's license issued pursuant to section 2915.08 of the Revised Code;

(4) Permit any person whom the organization knows or should have known has been convicted of a felony or gambling offense in any jurisdiction to be a bingo game operator in the conduct of instant bingo;

(5) Purchase or lease supplies used to conduct instant bingo or punch board games from any person except a distributor licensed under section 2915.081 of the Revised Code;

(6) Sell or provide any instant bingo ticket or card for a price different from the price printed on it by the manufacturer on either the instant bingo ticket or card or on the game flare;

(7) Sell an instant bingo ticket or card to a person under eighteen years of age;

(8) Fail to keep unsold instant bingo tickets or cards for less than three years;

(9) Pay any compensation to a bingo game operator for conducting instant bingo that is conducted by the organization or for preparing, selling, or serving food or beverages at the site of the instant bingo game, permit any auxiliary unit or society of the organization to pay compensation to any bingo game operator who prepares, sells, or serves food or beverages at an instant bingo game conducted by the organization, or permit any auxiliary unit or society of the organization to prepare, sell, or serve food or beverages at an instant bingo game conducted by the organization, if the auxiliary unit or society pays any compensation to the bingo game operators who prepare, sell, or serve the food or beverages;

(10) Pay fees to any person for any services performed in relation to an instant bingo game;

(11) Pay fees to any person who provides refreshments to the participants in an instant bingo game;

(12)(a) Allow instant bingo tickets or cards to be sold to bingo game operators at a premises at which the organization sells instant bingo tickets or cards or to be sold to employees of a D permit holder who are working at a premises at which instant bingo tickets or cards are sold;

(b) Division (A)(12)(a) of this section does not prohibit a licensed charitable organization or a bingo game operator from giving any person an instant bingo tickets ticket as a prize in place of a cash prize won by a participant in an instant bingo game. In no case shall an instant bingo ticket or card be sold or provided for a price different from the price printed on it by the manufacturer on either the instant bingo ticket or card or on the game flare.

(13) Fail to display its bingo license, and the serial numbers of the deal of instant bingo tickets or cards to be sold, conspicuously at each premises at which it sells instant bingo tickets or cards;

(14) Possess a deal of instant bingo tickets or cards that was not purchased from a distributor licensed under section 2915.081 of the Revised Code as reflected on an invoice issued by the distributor that contains all of the information required by division (E) of section 2915.10 of the Revised Code;

(15) Fail, once it opens a deal of instant bingo tickets or cards, to continue to sell the tickets or cards in that deal until the tickets or cards with the top two highest tiers of prizes in that deal are sold;

(16) Purchase, lease, or use instant bingo ticket dispensers to sell instant bingo tickets or cards;

(17) Possess bingo supplies that were not obtained in accordance with sections 2915.01 to 2915.13 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) A charitable organization may conduct instant bingo other than at a bingo session at not more than five separate locations. A charitable organization that is exempt from federal taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is created by a veteran's organization or a fraternal organization is not limited in the number of separate locations the charitable organization may conduct instant bingo other than at a bingo session.

(2) A charitable organization may purchase, lease, or use instant bingo ticket dispensers to sell instant bingo tickets or cards.

(C) The attorney general may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that govern the conduct of instant bingo by charitable organizations. Before those rules are adopted, the attorney general shall reference the recommended standards for opacity, randomization, minimum information, winner protection, color, and cutting for instant bingo tickets or cards, seal cards, and punch boards established by the North American gaming regulators association.

(D) Whoever violates division (A) of this section or a rule adopted under division (C) of this section is guilty of illegal instant bingo conduct. Except as otherwise provided in this division, illegal instant bingo conduct is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of division (A) of this section or of such a rule, illegal instant bingo conduct is a felony of the fifth degree.

Sec. 2915.101. Except as otherwise provided by law, a charitable organization that conducts instant bingo shall distribute the net profit from the proceeds of the sale of instant bingo as follows:

(A)(1) If a veteran's organization, a fraternal organization, or a sporting organization conducted the instant bingo, the organization shall distribute the net profit from the proceeds of the sale of instant bingo, as follows:

(a) For the first one two hundred fifty thousand dollars, or a greater amount prescribed by the attorney general to adjust for changes in prices as measured by the consumer price index as defined in section 325.18 of the Revised Code and other factors affecting the organization's expenses as defined in division (LL) of section 2915.01 of the Revised Code, or less of net profit from the proceeds of the sale of instant bingo generated in a calendar year:

(i) At least twenty-five per cent shall be distributed to an organization described in division (Z)(1) of section 2915.01 of the Revised Code or to a department or agency of the federal government, the state, or any political subdivision.

(ii) Not more than seventy-five per cent may be deducted and retained by the organization for reimbursement of or for the organization's expenses, as defined in division (LL) of section 2915.01 of the Revised Code, in conducting the instant bingo game.

(b) For any net profit from the proceeds of the sale of instant bingo of more than one two hundred fifty thousand dollars or an adjusted amount generated in a calendar year:

(i) A minimum of fifty per cent shall be distributed to an organization described in division (Z)(1) of section 2915.01 of the Revised Code or to a department or agency of the federal government, the state, or any political subdivision.

(ii) Five per cent may be distributed for the organization's own charitable purposes or to a community action agency.

(iii) Forty-five per cent may be deducted and retained by the organization for reimbursement of or for the organization's expenses, as defined in division (LL) of section 2915.01 of the Revised Code, in conducting the instant bingo game.

(2) If a veteran's organization, a fraternal organization, or a sporting organization does not distribute the full percentages specified in divisions (A)(1)(a) and (b) of this section for the purposes specified in those divisions, the organization shall distribute the balance of the net profit from the proceeds of the sale of instant bingo not distributed or retained for those purposes to an organization described in division (Z)(1) of section 2915.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) If a charitable organization other than a veteran's organization, a fraternal organization, or a sporting organization conducted the instant bingo, the organization shall distribute one hundred per cent of the net profit from the proceeds of the sale of instant bingo to an organization described in division (Z)(1) of section 2915.01 of the Revised Code or to a department or agency of the federal government, the state, or any political subdivision.

(C) Nothing in this section prohibits a veteran's organization, a fraternal organization, or a sporting organization from distributing any net profit from the proceeds of the sale of instant bingo to an organization that is described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code when the organization that is described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code is one that makes donations to other organizations and permits donors to advise or direct such donations so long as the donations comply with requirements established in or pursuant to subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.

Sec. 3517.1015. Each person licensed under Chapter 3772. of the Revised Code shall disclose quarterly to the secretary of state any contribution of one hundred dollars or more made to any ballot issue.

Sec. 3772.01. As used in this chapter:

(A) "Applicant" means any person who applies to the commission for a license under this chapter.

(B) "Casino control commission fund" means the casino control commission fund described in Section 6(C)(3)(d) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, the money in which shall be used to fund the commission and its related affairs.

(C) "Casino facility" means a casino facility as defined in Section 6(C)(9) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution.

(D) "Casino gaming" means any type of slot machine or table game wagering, using money, casino credit, or any representative of value, authorized in any of the states of Indiana, Michigan, Pennsylvania, and West Virginia as of January 1, 2009, and includes slot machine and table game wagering subsequently authorized by, but shall not be limited by, subsequent restrictions placed on such wagering in such states. "Casino gaming" does not include bingo, as authorized in Section 6 of Article XV, Ohio Constitution and conducted as of January 1, 2009, or horse racing where the pari-mutuel system of wagering is conducted, as authorized under the laws of this state as of January 1, 2009.

(E) "Casino gaming employee" means any employee of a casino operator or management company, but not a key employee, and as further defined in section 3772.131 of the Revised Code.

(F) "Casino operator" means any person, trust, corporation, partnership, limited partnership, association, limited liability company, or other business enterprise that directly or indirectly holds an ownership or leasehold interest in a casino facility. "Casino operator" does not include an agency of the state, any political subdivision of the state, any person, trust, corporation, partnership, limited partnership, association, limited liability company, or other business enterprise that may have an interest in a casino facility, but who is legally or contractually restricted from conducting casino gaming.

(G) "Central system" means a computer system that provides the following functions related to casino gaming equipment used in connection with casino gaming authorized under this chapter: security, auditing, data and information retrieval, and other purposes deemed necessary and authorized by the commission.

(H) "Commission" means the Ohio casino control commission.

(I) "Gaming agent" means a peace officer employed by the commission that is vested with duties to enforce this chapter and conduct other investigations into the conduct of the casino gaming and the maintenance of the equipment that the commission considers necessary and proper and is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.

(J) "Gaming-related vendor" means any individual, partnership, corporation, association, trust, or any other group of individuals, however organized, who supplies gaming-related equipment, goods, or services to a casino operator or management company, that are directly related to or affect casino gaming authorized under this chapter, including, but not limited to, the manufacture, sale, distribution, or repair of slot machines and table game equipment.

(K) "Holding company" means any corporation, firm, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, trust, or other form of business organization not a natural person which directly or indirectly owns, has the power or right to control, or holds with power to vote, any part of an applicant, casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor license.

(L) "Initial investment" includes costs related to working capital, demolition, engineering, architecture, design, site preparation, construction, infrastructure improvements, land acquisition, fixtures and equipment, insurance related to construction, and leasehold improvements.

(M) "Institutional investor" means any of the following entities owning one per cent or less, or a percentage between one and ten per cent as approved by the commission through a waiver on a case-by-case basis, ownership interest in a casino facility, casino operator, management company, or holding company: a corporation, bank, insurance company, pension fund or pension fund trust, retirement fund, including funds administered by a public agency, employees' profit-sharing fund or employees' profit-sharing trust, any association engaged, as a substantial part of its business or operations, in purchasing or holding securities, or any trust in respect of which a bank is trustee or cotrustee, investment company registered under the "Investment Company Act of 1940," 15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq., collective investment trust organized by banks under Part Nine of the Rules of the Comptroller of the Currency, closed-end investment trust, chartered or licensed life insurance company or property and casualty insurance company, investment advisor registered under the "Investment Advisors Act of 1940," 15 U.S.C. 80 b-1 et seq., and such other persons as the commission may reasonably determine to qualify as an institutional investor for reasons consistent with this chapter.

(N) "Key employee" means any executive, employee, or agent of a casino operator or management company licensee having the power to exercise significant influence over decisions concerning any part of the operation of such licensee, including:

(1) An officer, director, trustee, or partner of a person that has applied for or holds a casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor license or of a holding company that has control of a person that has applied for or holds a casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor license;

(2) A person that holds a direct or indirect ownership interest of more than one per cent in a person that has applied for or holds a casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor license or holding company that has control of a person that has applied for or holds a casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor license;

(3) A managerial employee of a person that has applied for or holds a casino operator or gaming-related vendor license in Ohio, or a managerial employee of a holding company that has control of a person that has applied for or holds a casino operator or gaming-related vendor license in Ohio, who performs the function of principal executive officer, principal operating officer, principal accounting officer, or an equivalent officer or other person the commission determines to have the power to exercise significant influence over decisions concerning any part of the operation of such licensee.

The commission shall determine whether an individual whose duties or status varies from those described in this division also is considered a key employee.

(O) "Licensed casino operator" means a casino operator that has been issued a license by the commission and that has been certified annually by the commission to have paid all applicable fees, taxes, and debts to the state.

(P) "Majority ownership interest" in a license or in a casino facility, as the case may be, means ownership of more than fifty per cent of such license or casino facility, as the case may be. For purposes of the foregoing, whether a majority ownership interest is held in a license or in a casino facility, as the case may be, shall be determined under the rules for constructive ownership of stock provided in Treas. Reg. 1.409A-3(i)(5)(iii) as in effect on January 1, 2009.

(Q) "Management company" means an organization retained by a casino operator to manage a casino facility and provide services such as accounting, general administration, maintenance, recruitment, and other operational services.

(R) "Ohio law enforcement training fund" means the state law enforcement training fund described in Section 6(C)(3)(f) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, the money in which shall be used to enhance public safety by providing additional training opportunities to the law enforcement community.

(S) "Person" includes, but is not limited to, an individual or a combination of individuals; a sole proprietorship, a firm, a company, a joint venture, a partnership of any type, a joint-stock company, a corporation of any type, a corporate subsidiary of any type, a limited liability company, a business trust, or any other business entity or organization; an assignee; a receiver; a trustee in bankruptcy; an unincorporated association, club, society, or other unincorporated entity or organization; entities that are disregarded for federal income tax purposes; and any other nongovernmental, artificial, legal entity that is capable of engaging in business.

(T) "Problem casino gambling and addictions fund" means the state problem gambling and addictions fund described in Section 6(C)(3)(g) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, the money in which shall be used for treatment of problem gambling and substance abuse, and for related research.

(U) "Slot machine" means any mechanical, electrical, or other device or machine which, upon insertion of a coin, token, ticket, or similar object, or upon payment of any consideration, is available to play or operate, the play or operation of which, whether by reason of the skill of the operator or application of the element of chance, or both, makes individual prize determinations for individual participants in cash, premiums, merchandise, tokens, or any thing of value, whether the payoff is made automatically from the machine or in any other manner.

(V) "Table game" means any game played with cards, dice, or any mechanical, electromechanical, or electronic device or machine for money, casino credit, or any representative of value. "Table game" does not include slot machines.

(W) "Upfront license" means the first plenary license issued to a casino operator.

(X) "Voluntary exclusion program" means a program provided by the commission that allows persons to voluntarily exclude themselves from the gaming areas of facilities under the jurisdiction of the commission by placing their name on a voluntary exclusion list and following the procedures set forth by the commission.

Sec. 3772.02. (A) There is hereby created the Ohio casino control commission described in Section 6(C)(1) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution.

(B) The commission shall consist of seven members appointed within one month of the effective date of this section by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate. The governor shall forward all appointments to the senate within twenty-four hours.

(1) Each commission member is eligible for reappointment at the discretion of the governor. No commission member shall be appointed for more than three terms in total.

(2) Each commission member shall be a resident of Ohio.

(3) At least one commission member shall be experienced in law enforcement and criminal investigation.

(4) At least one commission member shall be a certified public accountant experienced in accounting and auditing.

(5) At least one commission member shall be an attorney admitted to the practice of law in Ohio.

(6) At least one commission member shall be a resident of a county where one of the casino facilities is located.

(7) Not more than four commission members shall be of the same political party.

(8) No commission member shall have any affiliation with an Ohio casino operator or facility.

(C) Commission members shall serve four-year terms, except that when the governor makes initial appointments to the commission under this chapter, the governor shall appoint three members to serve four-year terms with not more than two such members from the same political party, two members to serve three-year terms with such members not being from the same political party, and two members to serve two-year terms with such members not being from the same political party.

(D) Each commission member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring before the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the unexpired term. Any member shall continue in office after the expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. A vacancy in the commission membership shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment.

(E) The governor shall select one member to serve as chairperson and the commission members shall select one member from a different party than the chairperson to serve as vice-chairperson. The governor may remove and replace the chairperson at any time. No such member shall serve as chairperson for more than six successive years. The vice-chairperson shall assume the duties of the chairperson in the absence of the chairperson. The chairperson and vice-chairperson shall perform but shall not be limited to additional duties as are prescribed by commission rule.

(F) A commission member is not required to devote the member's full time to membership on the commission. Each member of the commission shall receive compensation of sixty thousand dollars per year, payable in monthly installments for the first four years of the commission's existence. Each member shall receive the member's actual and necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of the member's official duties.

(G) The governor shall not appoint an individual to the commission, and an individual shall not serve on the commission, if the individual has been convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to a disqualifying offense as defined in section 3772.07 of the Revised Code. Members coming under indictment or bill of information of a disqualifying offense shall resign from the commission immediately upon indictment.

(H) At least five commission members shall be present for the commission to meet. The concurrence of four members is necessary for the commission to take any action. All members shall vote on the adoption of rules, and the approval of, and the suspension or revocation of, the licenses of casino operators or management companies, unless a member has a written leave of absence filed with and approved by the chairperson.

(I) A commission member may be removed or suspended from office in accordance with section 3.04 of the Revised Code.

(J) Each commission member, before entering upon the discharge of the member's official duties, shall make an oath to uphold the Ohio Constitution and laws of the state of Ohio and shall give a bond, payable by the commission, to the treasurer of state, in the sum of ten thousand dollars with sufficient sureties to be approved by the treasurer of state, which bond shall be filed with the secretary of state.

(K) The commission shall hold one regular meeting each month and shall convene other meetings at the request of the chairperson or a majority of the members. A member who fails to attend at least three-fifths of the regular and special meetings of the commission during any two-year period forfeits membership on the commission. All meetings of the commission shall be open meetings under section 121.22 of the Revised Code except as otherwise allowed by law.

Sec. 3772.03. (A) To ensure the integrity of casino gaming, the commission shall have authority to complete the functions of licensing, regulating, investigating, and penalizing casino operators, management companies, holding companies, key employees, casino gaming employees, and gaming-related vendors. The commission also shall have jurisdiction over all persons participating in casino gaming authorized by Section 6(C) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, and this chapter.

(B) All rules adopted by the commission under this chapter shall be adopted under procedures established in Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The commission may contract for the services of experts and consultants to assist the commission in carrying out its duties under this section.

(C) Within six months of the effective date of this section, the commission shall adopt initial rules as are necessary for completing the functions stated in division (A) of this section and for addressing the subjects enumerated in division (D) of this section.

(D) The commission shall adopt, and as advisable and necessary shall amend or repeal, rules that include all of the following:

(1) The prevention of practices detrimental to the public interest;

(2) Prescribing the method of applying, and the form of application, that an applicant for a license under this chapter must follow as otherwise described in this chapter;

(3) Prescribing the information to be furnished by an applicant or licensee as described in section 3772.11 of the Revised Code;

(4) Describing the certification standards and duties of an independent testing laboratory certified under section 3772.31 of the Revised Code and the relationship between the commission, the laboratory, the gaming-related vendor, and the casino operator;

(5) The minimum amount of insurance that must be maintained by a casino operator, management company, holding company, or gaming-related vendor;

(6) The approval process for a significant change in ownership or transfer of control of a licensee as provided in section 3772.091 of the Revised Code;

(7) The design of gaming supplies, devices, and equipment to be distributed by gaming-related vendors;

(8) Identifying the casino gaming that is permitted, identifying the gaming supplies, devices, and equipment, that are permitted, defining the area in which the permitted casino gaming may be conducted, and specifying the method of operation according to which the permitted casino gaming is to be conducted as provided in section 3772.20 of the Revised Code, and requiring gaming devices and equipment to meet the standards of this state;

(9) Tournament play in any casino facility;

(10) Establishing and implementing a voluntary exclusion program that provides all of the following:

(a) Except as provided by commission rule, a person who participates in the program shall agree to refrain from entering a casino facility.

(b) The name of a person participating in the program shall be included on a list of persons excluded from all casino facilities.

(c) Except as provided by commission rule, no person who participates in the program shall petition the commission for admittance into a casino facility.

(d) The list of persons participating in the program and the personal information of those persons shall be confidential and shall only be disseminated by the commission to a casino operator and the agents and employees of the casino operator for purposes of enforcement and to other entities, upon request of the participant and agreement by the commission.

(e) A casino operator shall make all reasonable attempts as determined by the commission to cease all direct marketing efforts to a person participating in the program.

(f) A casino operator shall not cash the check of a person participating in the program or extend credit to the person in any manner. However, the program shall not exclude a casino operator from seeking the payment of a debt accrued by a person before participating in the program.

(g) Any and all locations at which a person may register as a participant in the program shall be published.

(11) Requiring the commission to adopt standards regarding the marketing materials of a licensed casino operator, including allowing the commission to prohibit marketing materials that are contrary to the adopted standards;

(12) Requiring that the records, including financial statements, of any casino operator, management company, holding company, and gaming-related vendor be maintained in the manner prescribed by the commission and made available for inspection upon demand by the commission, but shall be subject to section 3772.16 of the Revised Code;

(13) Permitting a licensed casino operator, management company, key employee, or casino gaming employee to question a person suspected of violating this chapter;

(14) The chips, tokens, tickets, electronic cards, or similar objects that may be purchased by means of an agreement under which credit is extended to a wagerer by a casino operator;

(15) Establishing standards for provisional key employee licenses for a person who is required to be licensed as a key employee and is in exigent circumstances and standards for provisional licenses for casino gaming employees who submit complete applications and are compliant under an instant background check. A provisional license shall be valid not longer than three months. A provisional license may be renewed one time, at the commission's discretion, for an additional three months. In establishing standards with regard to instant background checks the commission shall take notice of criminal records checks as they are conducted under section 311.41 of the Revised Code using electronic fingerprint reading devices.

(16) Establishing approval procedures for third-party engineering or accounting firms, as described in section 3772.09 of the Revised Code;

(17) Prescribing the manner in which winnings, compensation from casino gaming, and gross revenue must be computed and reported by a licensee as described in Chapter 5753. of the Revised Code;

(18) Prescribing conditions under which a licensee's license may be suspended or revoked as described in section 3772.04 of the Revised Code;

(19) Prescribing the manner and procedure of all hearings to be conducted by the commission or by any hearing examiner;

(20) Prescribing technical standards and requirements that are to be met by security and surveillance equipment that is used at and standards and requirements to be met by personnel who are employed at casino facilities, and standards and requirements for the provision of security at and surveillance of casino facilities;

(21) Prescribing requirements for a casino operator to provide unarmed security services at a casino facility by licensed casino employees, and the training that shall be completed by these employees;

(22) Prescribing standards according to which casino operators shall keep accounts and standards according to which casino accounts shall be audited, and establish means of assisting the tax commissioner in levying and collecting the gross casino revenue tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code;

(23) Defining penalties for violation of commission rules and a process for imposing such penalties subject to the review of the joint committee on gaming and wagering;

(24) Establishing standards for decertifying contractors that violate statutes or rules of this state or the federal government;

(25) Establishing standards for the repair of casino gaming equipment;

(26) Establishing procedures to ensure that casino operators, management companies, and holding companies are compliant with the compulsive and problem gambling plan submitted under section 3772.18 of the Revised Code;

(27) Providing for any other thing necessary and proper for successful and efficient regulation of casino gaming under this chapter.

(E) The commission shall employ and assign gaming agents as necessary to assist the commission in carrying out the duties of this chapter. In order to maintain employment as a gaming agent, the gaming agent shall successfully complete all continuing training programs required by the commission and shall not have been convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to a disqualifying offense as defined in section 3772.07 of the Revised Code.

(F) The commission and its gaming agents shall have authority with regard to the detection and investigation of, the seizure of evidence allegedly relating to, and the apprehension and arrest of persons allegedly committing gaming offenses, and shall have access to casino facilities to carry out the requirements of this chapter.

(G) The commission may eject or exclude or authorize the ejection or exclusion of and a gaming agent may eject a person from a casino facility for any of the following reasons:

(1) The person's name is on the list of persons voluntarily excluding themselves from all casinos in a program established according to rules adopted by the commission;

(2) The person violates or conspires to violate this chapter or a rule adopted thereunder; or

(3) The commission determines that the person's conduct or reputation is such that the person's presence within a casino facility may call into question the honesty and integrity of the casino gaming operations or interfere with the orderly conduct of the casino gaming operations.

(H) A person, other than a person participating in a voluntary exclusion program, may petition the commission for a public hearing on the person's ejection or exclusion under this chapter.

(I) A casino operator or management company shall have the same authority to eject or exclude a person from the management company's casino facilities as authorized in division (G) of this section. The licensee shall immediately notify the commission of an ejection or exclusion.

(J) The commission shall submit a written annual report with the governor, president and minority leader of the senate, speaker and minority leader of the house of representatives, and joint committee on gaming and wagering before the first day of September each year. The annual report shall include a statement describing the receipts and disbursements of the commission, relevant financial data regarding casino gaming, including gross revenues and disbursements made under this chapter, actions taken by the commission, an update on casino operators', management companies', and holding companies' compulsive and problem gambling plans and the voluntary exclusion program and list, and any additional information that the commission considers useful or that the governor, president or minority leader of the senate, speaker or minority leader of the house of representatives, or joint committee on gaming and wagering requests.

Sec. 3772.031. (A) The general assembly finds that the exclusion or ejection of certain persons from casino facilities is necessary to effectuate the intents and purposes of this chapter and to maintain strict and effective regulation of casino gaming. The commission, by rule, shall provide for a list of persons who are to be excluded or ejected from a casino facility. Persons included on the exclusion list shall be identified by name and physical description. The commission shall publish the exclusion list on its web site, and shall transmit a copy of the exclusion list periodically to casino operators, as it is initially issued and thereafter as it is revised from time to time. A casino operator shall take steps necessary to ensure that all its key employees and casino gaming employees are aware of and understand the exclusion list and its function, and that all its key employees and casino gaming employees are kept aware of the content of the exclusion list as it is issued and thereafter revised from time to time.

(B) The exclusion list may include any person whose presence in a casino facility is determined by the commission to pose a threat to the interests of the state, to achieving the intents and purposes of this chapter, or to the strict and effective regulation of casino gaming. In determining whether to include a person on the exclusion list, the commission may consider:

(1) Any prior conviction of a crime that is a felony under the laws of this state, another state, or the United States, a crime involving moral turpitude, or a violation of the gaming laws of this state, another state, or the United States; and

(2) A violation, or a conspiracy to violate, any provision of this chapter that consists of:

(a) A failure to disclose an interest in a gaming facility for which the person must obtain a license;

(b) Purposeful evasion of taxes or fees;

(c) A notorious or unsavory reputation that would adversely affect public confidence and trust that casino gaming is free from criminal or corruptive elements; or

(d) A violation of an order of the commission or of any other governmental agency that warrants exclusion or ejection of the person from a casino facility.

(3) If the person has pending charges or indictments for a gaming or gambling crime or a crime related to the integrity of gaming operations in any state;

(4) If the person's conduct or reputation is such that the person's presence within a casino facility may call into question the honesty and integrity of the casino gaming operations or interfere with the orderly conduct of the casino gaming operations;

(5) If the person is a career or professional offender whose presence in a casino facility would be adverse to the interest of licensed gaming in this state;

(6) If the person has a known relationship or connection with a career or professional offender whose presence in a casino facility would be adverse to the interest of licensed gaming in this state;

(7) If the commission has suspended the person's gaming privileges;

(8) If the commission has revoked the person's licenses related to this chapter;

(9) If the commission determines that the person poses a threat to the safety of patrons or employees of a casino facility;

(10) If the person has a history of conduct involving the disruption of gaming operations within a casino facility.

Race, color, creed, national origin or ancestry, or sex are not grounds for placing a person on the exclusion list.

(C) The commission shall notify a person of the commission's intent to include such person on the exclusion list. The notice shall be provided by personal service, by certified mail to the person's last known address, or, if service cannot be accomplished by personal service or certified mail, by publication daily for two weeks in a newspaper of general circulation within the county in which the person resides and in a newspaper of general circulation within each county in which a casino facility is located.

(D) A person who receives notice of intent to include the person on the exclusion list is entitled to an adjudication hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except as provided in this section, in which the person may demonstrate why the person should not be included on the exclusion list. The person shall request such an adjudication hearing not later than thirty days after the person receives the notice by personal service or certified mail, or not later than thirty days after the last newspaper publication of the notice. If the adjudication hearing or any appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code results in an order that the person should not be included on the exclusion list, the commission shall publish a revised exclusion list that does not include the person. The commission also shall notify casino operators that the person has been removed from the exclusion list. A casino operator shall take all steps necessary to ensure its key employees and casino gaming employees are made aware that the person has been removed from the exclusion list.

(E) This section does not apply to the voluntary exclusion list created as part of the voluntary exclusion program.

Sec. 3772.032. (A) The permanent joint committee on gaming and wagering is established. The committee consists of six members. The speaker of the house of representatives shall appoint to the committee three members of the house of representatives and the president of the senate shall appoint to the committee three members of the senate. Not more than two members appointed from each chamber may be members of the same political party. The chairperson shall be from the opposite party as the chairperson of the joint committee on agency rule review. If the chairperson is to be from the house of representatives, the speaker of the house of representatives shall designate a member as the chairperson and the president of the senate shall designate a member as the vice-chairperson. If the chairperson is to be from the senate, the president of the senate shall designate a member as the chairperson and the speaker of the house of representatives shall designate a member as the vice-chairperson.

(B) The committee shall:

(1) Review all constitutional amendments, laws, and rules governing the operation and administration of casino gaming and all authorized gaming and wagering activities and recommend to the general assembly and commission any changes it may find desirable with respect to the language, structure, and organization of those amendments, laws, or rules;

(2) Make an annual report to the governor and to the general assembly with respect of the operation and administration of casino gaming;

(3) Approve all changes of fees and penalties as provided in this chapter and rules adopted thereunder; and

(4) Study all proposed changes to the constitution and laws of this state and to the rules adopted by the commission governing the operation and administration of casino gaming, and report to the general assembly on their adequacy and desirability as a matter of public policy.

(C) Any study, or any expense incurred, in furtherance of the committee's objectives shall be paid for from, or out of, the casino control commission fund or other appropriation provided by law. The members shall receive no additional compensation, but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official duties.

Sec. 3772.033. In carrying out the responsibilities vested in the commission by this chapter, the commission may do all the following and may designate any such responsibilities to the executive director, to the commission's employees, or to the gaming agents:

(A) Inspect and examine all premises where casino gaming is conducted or gaming supplies, devices, or equipment are manufactured, sold, or distributed;

(B) Inspect all gaming supplies, devices, and equipment in or about a casino facility;

(C) Summarily impound and seize and remove from the casino facility premises gaming supplies, devices, and equipment for the purpose of examination and inspection;

(D) Determine any facts, or any conditions, practices, or other matters, as the commission considers necessary or proper to aid in the enforcement of this chapter or of a rule adopted thereunder;

(E) Audit gaming operations, including those that have ceased operation;

(F) Investigate, for the purpose of prosecution, any suspected violation of this chapter or rules adopted thereunder;

(G) Investigate as appropriate to aid the commission and to seek the executive director's advice in adopting rules;

(H) Secure information as is necessary to provide a basis for recommending legislation for the improvement of this chapter;

(I) Make, execute, and otherwise effectuate all contracts and other agreements, including contracts for necessary purchases of goods and services. Except for any contract entered into with independent testing laboratories under section 3772.31 of the Revised Code, the commission shall ensure use of Ohio products or services in compliance with sections 125.09 and 125.11 of the Revised Code and all rules adopted thereunder.

(J) Employ the services of persons the commission considers necessary for the purposes of consultation or investigation, and fix the salaries of, or contract for the services of, legal, accounting, technical, operational, and other personnel and consultants;

(K) Secure, by agreement, information and services as the commission considers necessary from any state agency or other unit of state government;

(L) Acquire furnishings, equipment, supplies, stationery, books, and all other things the commission considers necessary or desirable to successfully and efficiently carry out the commission's duties and functions; and

(M) Perform all other things the commission considers necessary to effectuate the intents and purposes of this chapter. This section shall not prohibit the commission from imposing administrative discipline, including fines and suspension or revocation of licenses, on licensees under this chapter if the licensee is found to be in violation of the commission's rules.

Sec. 3772.034. Absent gross negligence, a casino operator, management company, holding company, gaming-related vendor, the state, and employees of those entities are entitled to immunity from any type of civil liability if a person participating in the voluntary exclusion program enters a casino facility.

Sec. 3772.04. (A)(1) If, as the result of an investigation, the commission concludes that a license or finding required by this chapter should be limited, conditioned, or restricted, or suspended or revoked, the commission shall conduct an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(2) The commission shall appoint a hearing examiner to conduct the hearing in the adjudication. A party to the adjudication may file written objections to the hearing examiner's report and recommendations not later than the thirtieth day after they are served upon the party or the party's attorney or other representative of record. The commission shall not take up the hearing examiner's report and recommendations earlier than the thirtieth day after the hearing examiner's report and recommendations were submitted to the commission.

(3) If the commission finds that a person has violated this chapter or a rule adopted thereunder, the commission may issue an order:

(a) Limiting, conditioning, or restricting, or suspending or revoking, a license issued under this chapter;

(b) Limiting, conditioning, or restricting, or suspending or revoking, a finding made under this chapter;

(c) Requiring a casino facility to exclude a licensee from the casino facility or requiring a casino facility not to pay to the licensee any remuneration for services or any share of profits, income, or accruals on the licensee's investment in the casino facility; or

(d) Fining a licensee or other person according to the penalties adopted by the commission.

(4) An order may be judicially reviewed under section 119.12 of the Revised Code.

(B) For the purpose of conducting any study or investigation, the commission may direct that public hearings be held at a time and place, prescribed by the commission, in accordance with section 121.22 of the Revised Code. The commission shall give notice of all public hearings in such manner as will give actual notice to all interested parties.

(C) In the discharge of any duties imposed by this chapter, the commission may require that testimony be given under oath and administer such oath, issue subpoenas compelling the attendance of witnesses and the production of any papers, books, and accounts, and cause the deposition of any witness. In the event of the refusal of any person without good cause to comply with the terms of a subpoena issued by the commission or refusal to testify on matters about which the person may lawfully be questioned, the prosecuting attorney of the county in which such person resides, upon the petition of the commission, may bring a proceeding for contempt against such person in the court of common pleas of that county.

(D) When conducting a public hearing, the commission shall not limit the number of speakers who may testify. However, the commission may set reasonable time limits on the length of an individual's testimony or the total amount of time allotted to proponents and opponents of an issue before the commission.

(E) An administrative law judge appointed by the commission may conduct a hearing under this chapter and recommend findings of fact and decisions to the commission.

(F) The commission may rely, in whole or in part, upon investigations, conclusions, or findings of other casino gaming commissions or other government regulatory bodies in connection with licensing, investigations, or other matters relating to an applicant or licensee under this chapter.

Sec. 3772.05. To carry out the provisions of this chapter and other enforcement provisions provided for under the laws of this state, the tax commissioner, the Ohio ethics commission, the inspector general, and the commission, and their respective employees, may demand access to and inspect, examine, photocopy, and audit all books, accounts, records, and memoranda of any person that is not protected by privilege and that is subject to the provisions of this chapter, and may examine under oath any officer, agent, or employee of that person.

Sec. 3772.051. Upon cessation of gaming operations, a former licensee shall furnish, upon the demand of the commission, books, papers, and other records as necessary for the commission to audit the ceased gaming operation. A former licensee shall maintain all books, papers, and other records for a period of three years after the cessation of gaming operations. However, if a civil action or criminal proceeding relating to the former licensee is pending, or if an administrative adjudication or judicial review of an administrative adjudication relating to the former licensee is pending, the former licensee shall maintain all books, papers, and other records until the matter has been finally determined.

If a person disobeys a subpoena or subpoena duces tecum, or refuses to testify as directed by a subpoena, the commission shall request the prosecutor of the county in which the person resides to apply to the court of common pleas for an order compelling the person to attend or to produce tangible evidence, or to testify, as directed by the subpoena or subpoena duces tecum. The court shall treat the application as if it were disobedience to comply with a subpoena or subpoena duces tecum issued by the court or a refusal to testify in the court.

Sec. 3772.06. (A)(1) The commission shall appoint an executive director who shall serve at the pleasure of the commission. The executive director is in the unclassified service, shall devote full time to the duties of the office, and shall hold no other office or employment. The executive director shall, by experience and training, possess management skills that equip the executive director to administer an enterprise of the nature of the commission. The executive director shall not have a pecuniary interest in any business organization that holds a license under this chapter, or that does business with any person licensed under this chapter. A member of the general assembly, a person who holds an elective office, or an office holder of a political party is ineligible to be appointed executive director at the same time as being such a member or holding such an office. The executive director shall receive an annual salary in accordance with pay range 48 of section 124.152 of the Revised Code.

(2) The executive director, before entering upon the discharge of the executive director's official duties, shall give, and thereafter shall maintain, bond in the amount of twenty-five thousand dollars, payable to the state, conditioned upon the executive director's faithful and proper performance of the executive director's official duties. The bond shall be issued by a surety authorized to do business in this state and shall be filed with the secretary of state. The bond may be an individual bond or a schedule or blanket bond.

(B)(1) The executive director or a deputy designated in writing by the executive director shall attend all meetings of the commission and shall act as its secretary. The executive director shall keep a record of all commission proceedings and shall keep the commission's records, files, and documents at the commission's principal office.

(2) The executive director shall be the chief executive officer and shall be responsible for keeping all commission records and supervising and administering casino gaming in accordance with this chapter, and enforcing all commission rules adopted under this chapter.

(3) The executive director shall hire staff, including an assistant director or deputy directors, as necessary to assist the executive director in the executive director's duties under this chapter. In appointing employees, the executive director is subject to section 3772.061 of the Revised Code. The executive director may employ employees as necessary, unless the commission determines otherwise. Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, all costs of administration incurred by the executive director and the executive director's employees shall be paid out of the casino control commission fund.

(C) A state agency or other unit of state government shall cooperate with the commission, and shall provide the commission with information and services the commission considers necessary to carry out the commission's duties and functions under this chapter.

(D) The executive director shall confer at least once each month with the commission, at which time the executive director shall advise it regarding the operation and administration of the commission and casino gaming. The executive director shall make available at the request of the commission all documents, files, and other records pertaining to the operation and administration of the commission and casino gaming. The executive director shall prepare and make available to the commission each month a complete and accurate accounting of gross casino gaming revenues, and all other relevant financial information, including an accounting of all transfers made from the casino control commission fund.

Sec. 3772.061.  The executive director of the commission shall appoint the number of professional, technical, and clerical employees that is necessary, in the executive director's reasonable opinion, for conducting internal audits, as an internal auditing department, of the commission. The professional and technical employees so appointed shall be qualified by education, licensing (if relevant), and experience to perform the internal audit function successfully and efficiently. These employees, together with clerical employees necessary for their support, shall be assigned only to the internal audit function and not to any other function of the commission.

The internal auditing department, at reasonable intervals and as necessary, shall conduct internal audits of the commission. The internal audits shall audit the accounts and transactions of the commission, ascertain the condition of funds used by the commission, and make an inventory of the funds and of the assets under the control of the commission. The report of an internal audit shall be signed by the employee who was principally responsible for conducting the internal audit. A copy of the signed report shall be forwarded to the commission and to the auditor of state. The report is not a public record that is open to public inspection and copying until it has been forwarded as required by the preceding sentence.

Sec. 3772.062.  The executive director of the commission shall enter into an agreement with the department of alcohol and drug addiction services under which the department provides a program of gambling and addiction services on behalf of the commission.

Sec. 3772.07.  The following appointing or licensing authorities shall obtain a criminal records check of the person who is to be appointed or licensed:

(A) The governor, before appointing an individual as a member of the commission;

(B) The commission, before appointing an individual as executive director or a gaming agent;

(C) The commission, before issuing a license for a key employee or casino gaming employee, and before issuing a license for each investor, except an institutional investor, for a casino operator, management company, holding company, or gaming-related vendor;

(D) The executive director, before appointing an individual as a professional, technical, or clerical employee of the commission.

Thereafter, such an appointing or licensing authority shall obtain a criminal records check of the same individual at three-year intervals.

The appointing or licensing authority shall provide to each person of whom a criminal records check is required a copy of the form and the standard fingerprint impression sheet prescribed under divisions (C)(1) and (2) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The person shall complete the form and impression sheet and return them to the appointing or licensing authority. If a person fails to complete and return the form and impression sheet within a reasonable time, the person is ineligible to be appointed or licensed or to continue in the appointment or licensure.

The appointing or licensing authority shall forward the completed form and impression sheet to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation. The appointing or licensing authority shall request the superintendent also to obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation, including fingerprint-based checks of the national crime information databases, and from other states and the federal government under the national crime prevention and privacy compact as part of the criminal records check.

The commission shall pay the fee the bureau of criminal identification and investigation charges for all criminal records checks conducted under this section. An applicant for a casino operator, management company, holding company, or gaming-related vendor license shall reimburse the commission for the amount of the fee paid on the applicant's behalf. An applicant for a key employee or casino gaming employee license shall reimburse the commission for the amount of the fee paid on the applicant's behalf, unless the applicant is applying at the request of a casino operator or management company, in which case the casino operator or management company shall reimburse the commission.

The appointing or licensing authority shall review the results of a criminal records check. An appointee for a commission member shall forward the results of the criminal records check to the president of the senate before the senate advises and consents to the appointment of the commission member. The appointing or licensing authority shall not appoint or license or retain the appointment or licensure of a person a criminal records check discloses has been convicted of or has pleaded guilty or no contest to a disqualifying offense. A "disqualifying offense" means any gambling offense, any theft offense, any offense having an element of fraud or misrepresentation, any offense having an element of moral turpitude, and any felony not otherwise included in the foregoing list, except as otherwise provided in section 3772.10 of the Revised Code.

The report of a criminal records check is not a public record that is open to public inspection and copying. The commission shall not make the report available to any person other than the person who was the subject of the criminal records check; an appointing or licensing authority; a member, the executive director, or an employee of the commission; or any court or agency, including a hearing examiner, in a judicial or administrative proceeding relating to the person's employment with the entity requesting the criminal records check in which the criminal records check is relevant.

Sec. 3772.08. (A) Casino gaming shall be conducted only by licensed casino operators of the four casino facilities or by a licensed management company retained by a licensed casino operator.

(B) A licensed casino operator, licensed management company, or another person may provide nongaming amenities within the casino facility.

Sec. 3772.09. (A) No casino operator, management company, holding company, gaming-related vendor, key employee, or casino gaming employee shall conduct or participate in conducting casino gaming without first obtaining a license from the commission.

(B) Before a licensed casino operator may conduct casino gaming at a casino facility, a licensed casino operator shall engage a third-party engineering or accounting firm to certify expenses of its initial investment, as required by section 3772.27 of the Revised Code, and provide documentation to the commission. The third-party engineering or accounting firm shall be approved by the commission and shall certify expenses in accordance with rules adopted by the commission under section 3772.03 of the Revised Code. The commission may request the department of administrative services to assist the commission in carrying out its duties under this section.

Sec. 3772.091. (A) No license issued under this chapter is transferable. New majority ownership interest or control shall require a new license. The commission may reopen a licensing investigation at any time. A significant change in or transfer of control, as determined by the commission, shall require the filing of an application for a new license and submission of a license fee with the commission before any such change or transfer of control is approved. A change in or transfer of control to an immediate family member is not considered a significant change under this section.

(B) As used in this section, "control" means either of the following:

(1) Either:

(a) Holding fifty per cent or more of the outstanding voting securities of a licensee; or

(b) For an unincorporated licensee, having the right to fifty per cent or more of the profits of the licensee, or having the right in the event of dissolution to fifty per cent or more of the assets of the licensee.

(2) Having the contractual power presently to designate fifty per cent or more of the directors of a for-profit or not-for-profit corporation, or in the case of trusts described in paragraphs (c)(3) to (5) of 16 C.F.R. 801.1, the trustees of such a trust.

Sec. 3772.10. (A) In determining whether to grant or maintain the privilege of a casino operator, management company, holding company, key employee, casino gaming employee, or gaming-related vendor license, the Ohio casino control commission shall consider all of the following, as applicable:

(1) The reputation, experience, and financial integrity of the applicant, its holding company, if applicable, and any other person that directly or indirectly controls the applicant;

(2) The financial ability of the applicant to purchase and maintain adequate liability and casualty insurance and to provide an adequate surety bond;

(3) The past and present compliance of the applicant and its affiliates or affiliated companies with casino-related licensing requirements in this state or any other jurisdiction, including whether the applicant has a history of noncompliance with the casino licensing requirements of any jurisdiction;

(4) If the applicant has been indicted, convicted, pleaded guilty or no contest, or forfeited bail concerning any criminal offense under the laws of any jurisdiction, either felony or misdemeanor, not including traffic violations;

(5) If the applicant has filed, or had filed against it a proceeding for bankruptcy or has ever been involved in any formal process to adjust, defer, suspend, or otherwise work out the payment of any debt;

(6) If the applicant has been served with a complaint or other notice filed with any public body regarding a payment of any tax required under federal, state, or local law that has been delinquent for one or more years;

(7) If the applicant is or has been a defendant in litigation involving its business practices;

(8) If awarding a license would undermine the public's confidence in the casino gaming industry in this state;

(9) If the applicant meets other standards for the issuance of a license that the commission adopts by rule, which shall not be arbitrary, capricious, or contradictory to the expressed provisions of this chapter.

(B) All applicants for a license under this chapter shall establish their suitability for a license by clear and convincing evidence. If the commission determines that a person is eligible under this chapter to be issued a license as a casino operator, management company, holding company, key employee, casino gaming employee, or gaming-related vendor, the commission shall issue such license for not more than three years, as determined by commission rule, if all other requirements of this chapter have been satisfied.

(C) The commission shall not issue a casino operator, management company, holding company, key employee, casino gaming employee, or gaming-related vendor license under this chapter to an applicant if:

(1) The applicant has been convicted of a disqualifying offense, as defined in section 3772.07 of the Revised Code.

(2) The applicant has submitted an application for license under this chapter that contains false information.

(3) The applicant is a commission member.

(4) The applicant owns an ownership interest that is unlawful under this chapter, unless waived by the commission.

(5) The applicant violates specific rules adopted by the commission related to denial of licensure.

(6) The applicant is a member of or employed by a gaming regulatory body of a governmental unit in this state, another state, or the federal government, or is employed by a governmental unit of this state. This division does not prohibit a casino operator from hiring special duty law enforcement officers if the officers are not specifically involved in gaming-related regulatory functions.

(7) The commission otherwise determines the applicant is ineligible for the license.

(D)(1) The commission shall investigate the qualifications of each applicant under this chapter before any license is issued and before any finding with regard to acts or transactions for which commission approval is required is made. The commission shall continue to observe the conduct of all licensees and all other persons having a material involvement directly or indirectly with a casino operator, management company, or holding company to ensure that licenses are not issued to or held by, or that there is not any material involvement with a casino operator, management company, or holding company by, an unqualified, disqualified, or unsuitable person or a person whose operations are conducted in an unsuitable manner or in unsuitable or prohibited places or locations.

(2) The executive director may recommend to the commission that it deny any application, or limit, condition, or restrict, or suspend or revoke, any license or finding, or impose any fine upon any licensee or other person according to this chapter and the rules adopted thereunder.

(3) A license issued under this chapter is a revocable privilege. No licensee has a vested right in or under any license issued under this chapter. The initial determination of the commission to deny, or to limit, condition, or restrict, a license may be appealed under section 2505.03 of the Revised Code.

(E)(1) An institutional investor otherwise required to be found suitable or qualified under this chapter and the rules adopted under this chapter shall be presumed suitable or qualified upon submitting documentation sufficient to establish qualifications as an institutional investor and upon certifying all of the following:

(a) The institutional investor owns, holds, or controls publicly traded securities issued by a licensee or holding, intermediate, or parent company of a licensee or in the ordinary course of business for investment purposes only.

(b) The institutional investor does not exercise influence over the affairs of the issuer of such securities nor over any licensed subsidiary of the issuer of such securities.

(c) The institutional investor does not intend to exercise influence over the affairs of the issuer of such securities, nor over any licensed subsidiary of the issuer of such securities, in the future, and that it agrees to notify the commission in writing within thirty days if such intent changes.

(2) The exercise of voting privileges with regard to publicly traded securities shall not be deemed to constitute the exercise of influence over the affairs of a licensee.

(3) The commission shall rescind the presumption of suitability for an institutional investor at any time if the institutional investor exercises or intends to exercise influence or control over the affairs of the licensee.

(4) This division shall not be construed to preclude the commission from investigating the suitability or qualifications of an institutional investor if the commission becomes aware of facts or information that may result in the institutional investor being found unsuitable or disqualified.

(F) Information provided on the application shall be used as a basis for a thorough background investigation of each applicant. A false or incomplete application is cause for denial of a license by the commission. All applicants and licensees shall consent to inspections, searches, and seizures and to the disclosure to the commission and its agents of confidential records, including tax records, held by any federal, state, or local agency, credit bureau, or financial institution and to provide handwriting exemplars, photographs, fingerprints, and information as authorized in this chapter and in rules adopted by the commission.

Sec. 3772.11. (A) A person may apply to the commission for a casino operator, management company, or holding company license to conduct casino gaming at a casino facility as provided in this chapter. The application shall be made under oath on forms provided by the commission and shall contain information as prescribed by rule, including, but not limited to, all of the following:

(1) The name, business address, business telephone number, social security number, and, where applicable, the federal tax identification number of any applicant;

(2) The identity of every person having a greater than one per cent direct or indirect interest in the applicant casino facility for which the license is sought for publicly traded companies or greater than one per cent for privately held companies;

(3) An identification of any business, including the state of incorporation or registration if applicable, in which an applicant, or the spouse or children of an applicant, has an equity interest of more than five per cent;

(4) The name of any casino operator, management company, holding company, and gaming-related vendor in which the applicant has an equity interest of at least five per cent;

(5) If an applicant has ever applied for or has been granted any gaming license or certificate issued by a licensing authority in Ohio or any other jurisdiction that has been denied, restricted, suspended, revoked, or not renewed and a statement describing the facts and circumstances concerning the application, denial, restriction, suspension, revocation, or nonrenewal, including the licensing authority, the date each action was taken, and the reason for each action;

(6) If an applicant has ever filed or had filed against it a civil or administrative action or proceeding in bankruptcy, including the date of filing, the name and location of the court, the case caption, the docket number, and the disposition;

(7) The name and business telephone number of any attorney representing an applicant in matters before the commission;

(8) Information concerning the amount, type of tax, the taxing agency, and times involved, if the applicant has filed or been served with a complaint or notice filed with a public body concerning a delinquency in the payment of or a dispute over a filing concerning the payment of a tax required under federal, state, or local law;

(9) A description of any proposed casino gaming operation and related casino enterprises, including the type of casino facility, location, expected economic benefit to the community, anticipated or actual number of employees, any statement from an applicant regarding compliance with federal and state affirmative action guidelines, projected or actual admissions, projected or actual gross receipts, and scientific market research;

(10) Financial information in the manner and form prescribed by the commission;

(11) If an applicant has directly made a political contribution, loan, donation, or other payment of one hundred dollars or more to a statewide office holder, a member of the general assembly, a local government official elected in a jurisdiction where a casino facility is located, or a ballot issue not more than one year before the date the applicant filed the application and all information relating to the contribution, loan, donation, or other payment;

(12) Any criminal conviction; and

(13) Other information required by the commission under rules adopted by the commission.

(B) Any holding company or management company, its directors, executive officers, members, managers, and any shareholder who holds more than five per cent ownership interest of a holding company or management company shall be required to submit the same information as required by an applicant under this section.

Sec. 3772.111. In determining whether to grant a casino operator license, the commission shall also consider:

(A) The facilities or proposed facilities for the conduct of casino gaming;

(B) The prospective total revenue to be collected by the state from the conduct of casino gaming;

(C) The extent to which the applicant exceeds or meets other standards adopted by the commission.

Sec. 3772.112. Before a license is issued to a casino operator, the casino operator shall post, and thereafter shall maintain, a surety bond in the amount of one million dollars payable to the state, conditioned on the casino operator complying with Section 6(C) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, this chapter, and the rules adopted under this chapter. The bond shall be issued by a surety that is licensed to do business in this state, and shall be approved by the commission. The total aggregate liability of the surety on the bond is limited to the amount specified in the bond. The surety shall not cancel the bond unless the surety has given the commission, in the event of nonpayment of premium, ten days' notice of the intention to cancel, and in the event of any other cause, thirty days' notice of the intention to cancel. If the bond is to be canceled, and if the casino operator fails to post and maintain a new surety bond in the specified amount on or before the day of cancellation, the casino operator's license is void.

Sec. 3772.12. (A) A person may apply for a gaming-related vendor license. All applications shall be made under oath.

(B) A person who holds a gaming-related vendor's license is authorized to sell or lease, and to contract to sell or lease, equipment and supplies to any licensee involved in the ownership or management of a casino facility.

(C) Gambling supplies and equipment shall not be distributed unless supplies and equipment conform to standards adopted in rules adopted by the commission.

Sec. 3772.121. (A) The commission may issue a gaming-related vendor's license under this chapter to an applicant who has:

(1) Applied for the gaming-related vendor's license;

(2) Paid a nonrefundable license fee as described in section 3772.17 of the Revised Code, which shall cover all actual costs generated by each licensee and all background checks;

(3) Submitted two sets of the applicant's fingerprints; and

(4) Been determined by the commission as eligible for a gaming-related vendor's license.

(B) A gaming-related vendor shall furnish to the commission a list of all equipment, devices, and supplies offered for sale or lease in connection with casino games authorized under this chapter.

(C) A gaming-related vendor's equipment, devices, or supplies that are used by a person in an unauthorized casino gaming operation shall be forfeited to the state.

Sec. 3772.13. (A) No person may be employed as a key employee unless the person is the holder of a valid key employee license issued by the commission.

(B) Each applicant shall, before the issuance of any key employee license, produce information, documentation, and assurances as are required by this chapter and rules adopted thereunder. In addition, each applicant shall, in writing, authorize the examination of all bank accounts and records as may be deemed necessary by the commission.

(C) To be eligible for a key employee license, the applicant shall be at least twenty-one years of age and shall meet the criteria set forth by rule by the commission.

(D) Each application for a key employee license shall be on a form prescribed by the commission and shall contain all information required by the commission. The applicant shall set forth in the application if the applicant has been issued prior gambling-related licenses; if the applicant has been licensed in any other state under any other name, and, if so, the name under which the license was issued and the applicant's age at the time the license was issued; any criminal conviction the applicant has had; and if a permit or license issued to the applicant in any other state has been suspended, restricted, or revoked, and, if so, the cause and the duration of each action.

(E) Each applicant shall submit with each application, on a form provided by the commission, two sets of fingerprints and a photograph. The commission shall charge each applicant an application fee set by the commission to cover all actual costs generated by each licensee and all background checks under this section and section 3772.07 of the Revised Code.

(F)(1) The casino operator, management company, or holding company by whom a person is employed as a key employee shall terminate the person's employment in any capacity requiring a license under this chapter and shall not in any manner permit the person to exercise a significant influence over the operation of a casino facility if:

(a) The person does not apply for and receive a key employee license within three months of being issued a provisional license, as established under commission rule.

(b) The person's application for a key employee license is denied by the commission.

(c) The person's key employee license is revoked by the commission.

The commission shall notify the casino operator, management company, or holding company who employs such a person by certified mail of any such finding, denial, or revocation.

(2) A casino operator, management company, or holding company shall not pay to a person whose employment is terminated under division (F)(1) of this section, any remuneration for any services performed in any capacity in which the person is required to be licensed, except for amounts due for services rendered before notice was received under that division. A contract or other agreement for personal services or for the conduct of any casino gaming at a casino facility between a casino operator, management company, or holding company and a person whose employment is terminated under division (F)(1) of this section may be terminated by the casino operator, management company, or holding company without further liability on the part of the casino operator, management company, or holding company. Any such contract or other agreement is deemed to include a term authorizing its termination without further liability on the part of the casino operator, management company, or holding company upon receiving notice under division (F)(1) of this section. That a contract or other agreement does not expressly include such a term is not a defense in any action brought to terminate the contract or other agreement, and is not grounds for relief in any action brought questioning termination of the contract or other agreement.

(3) A casino operator, management company, or holding company, without having obtained the prior approval of the commission, shall not enter into any contract or other agreement with a person who has been found unsuitable, who has been denied a license, or whose license has been revoked under division (F)(1) of this section, or with any business enterprise under the control of such a person, after the date on which the casino operator, management company, or holding company receives notice under that division.

Sec. 3772.131. (A) All casino gaming employees are required to have a casino gaming employee license. "Casino gaming employee" means the following and their supervisors:

(1) Individuals involved in operating a casino gaming pit, including dealers, shills, clerks, hosts, and junket representatives;

(2) Individuals involved in handling money, including cashiers, change persons, count teams, and coin wrappers;

(3) Individuals involved in operating casino games;

(4) Individuals involved in operating and maintaining slot machines, including mechanics, floor persons, and change and payoff persons;

(5) Individuals involved in security, including guards and game observers;

(6) Individuals with duties similar to those described in divisions (A)(1) to (5) of this section or other persons as the commission determines. "Casino gaming employee" does not include an individual whose duties are related solely to nongaming activities such as entertainment, hotel operation, maintenance, or preparing or serving food and beverages.

(B) The commission may issue a casino gaming employee license to an applicant after it has determined that the applicant is eligible for a license under rules adopted by the commission and paid any applicable fee. All applications shall be made under oath.

(C) To be eligible for a casino gaming employee license, an applicant shall be at least twenty-one years of age.

(D) Each application for a casino gaming employee license shall be on a form prescribed by the commission and shall contain all information required by the commission. The applicant shall set forth in the application if the applicant has been issued prior gambling-related licenses; if the applicant has been licensed in any other state under any other name, and, if so, the name under which the license was issued and the applicant's age at the time the license was issued; any criminal conviction the applicant has had; and if a permit or license issued to the applicant in any other state has been suspended, restricted, or revoked, and, if so, the cause and the duration of each action.

(E) Each applicant shall submit with each application, on a form provided by the commission, two sets of the applicant's fingerprints and a photograph. The commission shall charge each applicant an application fee to cover all actual costs generated by each licensee and all background checks.

Sec. 3772.14. (A) After notice and opportunity for an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the commission may suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew a license in accordance with rules adopted by the commission and the commission may reopen a licensing hearing at any time.

(B) Without in any manner limiting the authority of the commission to impose the level and type of discipline it may consider appropriate, the commission may take into consideration:

(1) If the licensee knew or reasonably should have known that the action complained of was a violation of any law, regulation, or condition on the licensee's license;

(2) If the licensee has previously been disciplined by the commission;

(3) If the licensee has previously been subject to discipline by the commission concerning the violation of any law, regulation, or condition of the licensee's license;

(4) If the licensee reasonably relied upon professional advice from a lawyer, doctor, accountant, or other recognized professional that was relevant to the action resulting in the violation;

(5) If the licensee or licensee's employer had a reasonably constituted and functioning compliance program;

(6) If the imposition of a condition requiring the licensee to establish and implement a written self-enforcement and compliance program would assist in ensuring the licensee's future compliance with all statutes, regulations, and conditions of the license;

(7) If the licensee realized a pecuniary gain from the violation;

(8) If the amount of any fine or other penalty imposed would result in disgorgement of any gains unlawfully realized by the licensee;

(9) If the violation was caused by an officer or employee of the licensee, the level of authority of the individual who caused the violation;

(10) If the individual who caused the violation acted within the scope of the individual's authority as granted by the licensee;

(11) The adequacy of any training programs offered by the licensee or licensee's employer that were relevant to the activity which resulted in the violation;

(12) If the licensee's action substantially deviated from industry standards and customs;

(13) The extent to which the licensee cooperated with the commission during the investigation of the violation;

(14) If the licensee has initiated remedial measures to prevent similar violations;

(15) The magnitude of penalties imposed on other licensees for similar violations;

(16) The proportionality of the penalty in relation to the misconduct;

(17) The extent to which the amount of any fine imposed would punish the licensee for the conduct and deter future violations;

(18) Any mitigating factors offered by the licensee; and

(19) Any other factors the commission in its sole and absolute discretion may consider relevant.

Sec. 3772.15. (A) Unless a license issued under this chapter is suspended, expires, or is revoked, the license shall be renewed for not more than three years, as determined by commission rule, after a determination by the commission that the licensee is in compliance with this chapter and rules authorized by this chapter and after the licensee pays a fee.

(B) A licensee shall undergo a complete investigation at least every three years, as determined by commission rule, to determine that the licensee remains in compliance with this chapter.

(C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, the commission may investigate a licensee at any time the commission determines it is necessary to ensure that the licensee remains in compliance with this section.

(D) The holder of a license shall bear the cost of an investigation, except key employees and casino gaming employees who are employed by a casino operator, in which case the casino operator shall pay the investigation cost.

Sec. 3772.16. (A) Any information concerning the following submitted, collected, or gathered as part of an application to the commission for a license under this chapter is confidential and not subject to disclosure as a record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code:

(1) A minor child of an applicant;

(2) The social security number of an applicant or the spouse of an applicant;

(3) The home telephone number of an applicant or the spouse or children of an applicant;

(4) An applicant's birth certificate;

(5) The driver's license number of an applicant or the applicant's spouse;

(6) The name or address of a previous spouse of the applicant;

(7) The date of birth of the spouse of an applicant;

(8) The place of birth of the spouse of an applicant;

(9) The personal financial information and records of an applicant or the spouse or minor child of an applicant, including tax returns and information, and records of criminal proceedings;

(10) Any information concerning a victim of domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking;

(11) The electronic mail address of the spouse or family member of the applicant;

(12) An applicant's home addresses; and

(13) Any trade secret.

(B) Notwithstanding any other law, upon written request from a person, the commission shall provide the following information to the person except as provided in this chapter:

(1) The information provided under this chapter concerning a licensee or an applicant;

(2) The amount of the wagering tax and admission tax paid daily to the state by a licensed applicant or an operating agent; and

(3) A copy of a letter providing the reasons for the denial of an applicant's license or an operating agent's contract and a copy of a letter providing the reasons for the commission's refusal to allow an applicant to withdraw the applicant's application, but with confidential information redacted if that information is the reason for the denial or refusal to withdraw.

(C) In addition to information that is confidential under division (A) of this section, medical records, trade secrets, patents or exclusive licenses, and marketing materials maintained by the commission concerning a person who holds, held, or has applied for a license under this chapter is confidential and not subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(D) The individual's name, the individual's place of employment, the individual's job title, and the individual's gaming experience that is provided for an individual who holds, held, or has applied for a license under this chapter is not confidential. The reason for denial or revocation of a license or for disciplinary action against the individual and information submitted by the individual for a felony waiver request is not confidential.

(E) An individual who holds, held, or has applied for a license under this chapter may waive the confidentiality requirements of division (A) of this section.

Sec. 3772.17. (A) The upfront license fee to obtain a license as a casino operator shall be fifty million dollars per casino facility, which shall be deposited into the economic development programs fund, which is created in the state treasury. New casino operator, management company, and holding company license and renewal license fees shall be set by rule, subject to the review of the joint committee on gaming and wagering.

(B) The fee to obtain an application for a casino operator, management company, or holding company license shall be one million five hundred thousand dollars per application. The application fee shall be deposited into the casino control commission fund. The application fee is nonrefundable.

(C) The license fees for a gaming-related vendor shall be set by rule, subject to the review of the joint committee on gaming and wagering. Additionally, the commission may assess an applicant a reasonable fee in the amount necessary to process a gaming-related vendor license application.

(D) The license fees for a key employee shall be set by rule, subject to the review of the joint committee on gaming and wagering. Additionally, the commission may assess an applicant a reasonable fee in the amount necessary to process a key employee license application. If the license is being sought at the request of a casino operator, such fees shall be paid by the casino operator.

(E) The license fees for a casino gaming employee shall be set by rule, subject to the review of the joint committee on gaming and wagering. If the license is being sought at the request of a casino operator, the fee shall be paid by the casino operator.

Sec. 3772.18. (A) Each casino operator, management company, and holding company involved in the application and ownership or management of a casino facility shall provide to the commission as applicable:

(1) An annual balance sheet;

(2) An annual income statement;

(3) An annual audited financial statement;

(4) A list of the stockholders or other persons having at least a five per cent ownership interest in the casino operator, management company, or holding company and any other information the commission considers necessary for the effective administration of this chapter;

(5) Notification of any material changes to the applicant's or licensee's stockholders must be provided to the commission within sixty days of the change. Notification of any refinancing and debt issuance shall be in accordance with rules adopted by the commission under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code; and

(6) An applicant's compulsive and problem gambling plan. A casino operator shall submit an annual summary of its compulsive and problem gambling plan to the commission. The plan at a minimum shall contain the following elements:

(a) The goals of the plan and procedures and timetables to implement the plan;

(b) The identification of the individual who will be responsible for the implementation and maintenance of the plan;

(c) Policies and procedures including the following:

(i) The commitment of the casino operator to train appropriate employees;

(ii) The duties and responsibilities of the employees designated to implement or participate in the plan;

(iii) The responsibility of patrons with respect to responsible gambling;

(iv) Procedures for providing information to individuals regarding community, public and private treatment services, gamblers anonymous programs, and similar treatment or addiction therapy programs designed to prevent, treat, or monitor compulsive and problem gamblers and to counsel family members;

(v) The provision of printed material to educate patrons about compulsive and problem gambling and to inform them about treatment services available to compulsive and problem gamblers and their families;

(vi) The employee training program;

(vii) Procedures to prevent underage gambling;

(viii) Procedures to prevent intoxicated patrons from gambling;

(ix) The plan for posting signs within the casino facility containing gambling treatment information.

(B) Each casino operator shall submit quarterly updates and an annual report to the commission of its adherence to the plans and goals submitted under division (A) of this section.

(C) Preference shall be given to each of the following to train employees for casino-related employment opportunities:

(1) State institutions of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code;

(2) Private career schools holding program authorizations issued by the state board of career colleges and schools under division (C) of section 3332.05 of the Revised Code;

(3) Private institutions exempt from regulation under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as prescribed in section 3333.046 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3772.19.  A person shall not hold a majority ownership interest in, or be a management company for, more than two casino facilities at any one time. A person shall not hold a majority ownership interest in, or be a management company, for more than two tracks at which horse racing where the pari-mutuel system of wagering is conducted at any one time, of which not more than one shall be a track for thoroughbred horses.

Sec. 3772.20. (A) A maximum of five thousand slot machines may be operated at a casino facility. Each casino operator for each casino facility shall determine the total number of slot machines in their facility, up to a maximum of five thousand slot machines that may be operated at such casino facility. There shall be no limit on the number of table games allowed at each casino facility.

(B) Any slot machine game or table game currently authorized in, and any future slot machine or table game authorized in, the states of Indiana, Michigan, Pennsylvania, and West Virginia may be conducted at casino facilities in this state at the discretion of a licensed casino operator but only after being approved, upon application by a licensed casino operator, by the commission.

(C) Minimum and maximum wagers on casino gaming shall be determined by casino operators, subject to the commission's approval.

(D) No slot machine shall be set to pay out less than the theoretical payout percentage, which shall be not less than eighty-five per cent, as specifically approved by the commission. The commission shall adopt rules that define the theoretical payout percentage of a slot machine based on the total value of the jackpots expected to be paid by a slot machine divided by the total value of slot machine wagers expected to be made on that slot machine during the same portion of the game cycle. In determining the theoretical payout percentage, the commission may consider market conditions, the payout percentage in other states, the impact on gaming within the market, or any other factor the commission deems relevant. The commission may adjust the payout percentage at any time.

Sec. 3772.21. (A) Casino gaming equipment and supplies customarily used in conducting casino gaming shall be purchased or leased only from gaming-related vendors licensed under this chapter. A management company owning casino gaming devices, supplies, and equipment shall be licensed as a gaming-related vendor under this chapter.

(B) Annually, a gaming-related vendor shall furnish to the commission a list of all equipment, devices, and supplies offered for sale or lease in connection with casino gaming authorized under this chapter.

(C) A gaming-related vendor shall keep books and records for the furnishing of equipment, devices, and supplies to gaming operations separate from books and records of any other business operated by the gaming-related vendor. A gaming-related vendor shall file a quarterly return with the commission listing all sales and leases. A gaming-related vendor shall permanently affix the gaming-related vendor's name to all of the gaming-related vendor's equipment, devices, and supplies for casino gaming operations.

(D) A gaming-related vendor's equipment, devices, or supplies that are used by a person in an unauthorized casino gaming operation shall be forfeited to the commission.

Sec. 3772.22. (A) All casino facility operations shall use a cashless wagering system whereby all wagerers' money is converted to chips, tokens, tickets, electronic cards, or other instruments of value at the request of the wagerer that may only be used for wagering at a casino facility. Wagering shall not be conducted with money or other negotiable currency.

(B) Wagers may be received only from a person present at a casino facility. A wagerer present at a casino facility shall not place or attempt to place a wager on behalf of an individual who is not present at the casino facility.

Sec. 3772.23. (A) All tokens, chips, or electronic cards that are used to make wagers shall be purchased from the casino operator or management company while at a casino facility that has been approved by the commission. Chips, tokens, tickets, electronic cards, or similar objects may be used while at the casino facility only for the purpose of making wagers on casino games.

(B) Casino operators and management companies shall not do any of the following:

(1) Obtain a license to operate a check-cashing business under sections 1315.01 to 1315.30 of the Revised Code;

(2) Obtain a license to provide loans under sections 1321.01 to 1321.19 of the Revised Code;

(3) Obtain a license to provide loans under sections 1321.35 to 1321.48 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3772.24. (A) An employee of a casino facility who is between eighteen and twenty-one years of age may be present in the area of a casino facility where casino gaming is being conducted, as long as the employee's duties are related solely to nongaming activities. An individual who is less than twenty-one years of age may enter a designated area of a casino facility where casino gaming is being conducted, as established by the commission, to pass to another area where casino gaming is not being conducted. An individual who is less than twenty-one years of age shall not make a wager under this chapter.

(B) Casino operators shall notify the commission of the days and hours during which casino gaming will be conducted.

Sec. 3772.25. The following are not subject to, or limited by, the requirements of this chapter or Section 6(C) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution:

(A) Charitable gaming authorized by Chapter 2915. of the Revised Code;

(B) Charitable bingo authorized by Section 6 of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, and as authorized by Chapter 2915. of the Revised Code;

(C) Lottery games as authorized by Section 6 of Article XV, Ohio Constitution; and

(D) Pari-mutuel wagering authorized by Chapter 3769. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3772.26. (A) Each of the four casino facilities shall be subject to all applicable state laws and local ordinances related to health and building codes, or any related requirements and provisions. Notwithstanding the foregoing, no local zoning, land use laws, subdivision regulations or similar provisions shall prohibit the development or operation of the four casino facilities, or casino gaming set forth herein, provided that no casino facility shall be located in a district zoned exclusively residential as of January 1, 2009.

(B) No municipal corporation or other political subdivision in which a casino facility is located shall be required to provide or improve infrastructure, appropriate property, or otherwise take any affirmative legislative or administrative action to assist development or operation of a casino facility, regardless of the source of funding but if such action is essential to the development or operation of a casino facility, the municipal corporation or other political subdivision may charge the casino operator for any costs incurred for such action.

Sec. 3772.27. Each initial licensed casino operator of each of the four casino facilities shall make an initial investment of at least two hundred fifty million dollars for the development of each casino facility.

Sec. 3772.28. (A) A casino operator shall not enter into a debt transaction without the approval of the commission. The casino operator shall submit, in writing, a request for approval of a debt transaction that contains at least the following information:

(1) The names and addresses of all parties to the debt transaction;

(2) The amount of the funds involved;

(3) The type of debt transaction;

(4) The source of the funds to be obtained;

(5) All sources of collateral;

(6) The purpose of the debt transaction;

(7) The terms of the debt transaction;

(8) Any other information deemed necessary by the commission.

(B) As used in this section, "debt transaction" means a transaction by a casino operator concerning a casino facility totaling five hundred thousand dollars or more in which a casino operator acquires debt, including bank financing, private debt offerings, and any other transaction that results in the encumbrance of assets.

Sec. 3772.29. All shipments of gaming supplies, devices, and equipment, including slot machines, into this state are exempt from section (2) of "An Act to Prohibit Transportation of Gambling Devices in Interstate and Foreign Commerce," 64 Stat. 1134, 15 U.S.C. 1171-1177.

Sec. 3772.30. (A) If any person violates this chapter or a rule adopted thereunder, the attorney general has a cause of action to restrain the violation. Such an action is a civil action, governed by the Rules of Civil Procedure. Upon receiving a request from the commission or the executive director, the attorney general shall commence and prosecute such an action to completion. The court shall give priority to such an action over all other civil actions. Such an action does not preclude an administrative or criminal proceeding on the same facts.

(B) The attorney general may enter into agreements with any state or local law enforcement agency to carry out its duties.

(C) A sheriff, chief of police, and prosecuting attorney shall furnish to the commission, on prescribed forms, all information obtained during the course of any substantial investigation or prosecution if it appears a violation of this chapter has occurred. Any such information is not a public record, as defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code, until such information would otherwise become a public record.

Sec. 3772.31.  (A) The commission, by and through the executive director of the commission and as required under section 125.05 of the Revised Code, may enter into contracts necessary to ensure the proper operation and reporting of all casino gaming authorized under this chapter. The commission may determine it to be necessary and adopt rules to authorize a central system. The system shall be operated by or under the commission's control. If the commission determines that a central system is necessary and adopts rules authorizing a central system, casino operators shall be responsible for the costs of the central system as it relates to casino facilities.

(B) The commission shall certify independent testing laboratories to scientifically test and technically evaluate all slot machines, mechanical, electromechanical, or electronic table games, slot accounting systems, and other electronic gaming equipment for compliance with this chapter. The certified independent testing laboratories shall be accredited by a national accreditation body. The commission shall certify an independent testing laboratory if it is competent and qualified to scientifically test and evaluate electronic gaming equipment for compliance with this chapter and to otherwise perform the functions assigned to an independent testing laboratory under this chapter. An independent testing laboratory shall not be owned or controlled by, or have any interest in, a gaming-related vendor of electronic gaming equipment. The commission shall prepare a list of certified independent testing laboratories from which independent testing laboratories shall be chosen for all purposes under this chapter.

Sec. 3772.32.  (A) As used in this section, "conservator" means a person appointed by a court of common pleas as a fiduciary to temporarily manage and control a casino facility.

(B) The commission shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code relating to the administration of a casino facility by a conservator.

(C) The commission may petition the court of common pleas of the county in which the casino facility is located for appointment by the court of a conservator to manage and control the casino facility if any of the following occurs:

(1) The commission revokes the casino operator's license.

(2) The commission declines to renew the casino operator's license.

(3) The commission suspends a casino operator's license for more than one hundred twenty days.

(4) A proposed buyer is denied a casino operator's license, and the licensed casino operator is unable or unwilling to retain ownership or control of the casino facility.

(5) A licensed casino operator agrees in writing to relinquish control of a casino facility to a conservator.

(6) A natural disaster or bankruptcy halts operations at a casino facility.

This division does not apply if the casino facility for which a casino license has been issued has not been in operation and open to the public.

(D)(1) The petition shall contain the names of two or more persons who the commission believes are suitable and qualified to manage and control the casino facility and are available for appointment as a conservator.

(2) Upon receipt of the petition, the court shall appoint as conservator of the casino facility a person who is named in the petition. The court shall immediately notify the commission of the appointment. Upon receipt of notice from the court, the commission shall immediately notify the casino operator and the conservator.

(3) The court that appoints the conservator shall set reasonable compensation, out of the revenue of the casino facility, for the services, costs, and expenses of the conservator and for any other persons whom the conservator may engage to aid the conservator in performing the conservator's duties.

(E) A conservator is subject to Chapter 3772. of the Revised Code and any rules adopted under that chapter as if the conservator were a licensed casino operator.

(F) A conservator shall be deemed to be a licensed casino operator and may perform all acts that the conservator is required or permitted to perform without approval or other action.

(G) The conservator shall take immediately into possession all property of the casino facility, including its money, accounts, books, records, and evidences of debts owed to the casino operator, and shall continue the business of the casino facility.

(H) A conservator shall file with the commission reports on the administration of the casino facility in such form and at such intervals as the commission may prescribe.

(I)(1) If at any time the court finds that a conservator is not qualified or available to serve as conservator, the court shall request from the commission the names of two or more persons who the commission believes are suitable and qualified to manage and control a casino facility and are available to serve as a conservator.

(2) The commission may, at any time after the appointment of a conservator, petition the court for the removal of the conservator and the appointment of a new conservator or for the termination of the conservator.

(J) A conservator shall, before assuming the conservator's duties, execute and file a bond for the faithful performance of the conservator's duties payable to the commission with such surety or sureties and in such form as the commission approves and in such amount as the commission prescribes.

(K) The commission shall require that the former casino operator purchase liability insurance, in an amount determined by the commission, to protect a conservator from liability for any acts or omissions of the conservator occurring during the duration of the conservatorship that are reasonably related to, and within the scope of, the conservator's duties.

(L)(1) The former licensed casino operator has one hundred eighty days after the date on which the conservator is appointed to sell the casino facility to another person who satisfies the requirements of this chapter for obtaining a casino operator's license and is approved by the commission.

(2) If the person is unable to sell the casino facility in the time required by division (L)(1) of this section, the conservator may take any action necessary to sell the casino facility to another person who satisfies the requirements of this chapter for obtaining a casino operator's license and is approved by the commission.

(M) The commission shall direct the court of common pleas to discontinue a conservatorship when any of the following occurs:

(1) The commission determines that the cause for which the conservatorship was instituted no longer exists.

(2) The former casino operator or the conservator has with the approval of the commission, consummated the sale, assignment, conveyance, or other disposition of the casino facility.

(N) Upon the discontinuation of the conservatorship and with the approval of the commission, the conservator shall take steps as may be necessary to affect an orderly transfer of the property of the former casino operator.

Sec. 3772.33. The provisions of law contained in this chapter, and their applications, constitute a unity. If any provision of law contained in this chapter, or if any application of any provision of law contained in this chapter, is held invalid by a final nonappealable order or judgment, then all other provisions of law contained in this chapter and their applications also are invalid.

Sec. 3772.99.  (A) The commission shall levy and collect penalties for noncriminal violations of this chapter. Moneys collected from such penalty levies shall be credited to the general revenue fund.

(B) If a licensed casino operator, management company, holding company, gaming-related vendor, or key employee violates this chapter or engages in a fraudulent act, the commission may suspend or revoke the license and may do either or both of the following:

(1) Suspend, revoke, or restrict the casino gaming operations of a casino operator;

(2) Require the removal of a management company, key employee, or discontinuance of services from a gaming-related vendor.

(C) The commission shall impose civil penalties against a person who violates this chapter under the penalties adopted by commission rule and approved by the joint committee on gaming and wagering.

(D) A person who knowingly or intentionally does any of the following commits a misdemeanor of the first degree on the first offense and a felony of the fifth degree for a subsequent offense:

(1) Makes a false statement on an application submitted under this chapter;

(2) Permits a person less than twenty-one years of age to make a wager;

(3) Aids, induces, or causes a person less than twenty-one years of age who is not an employee of the casino gaming operation to enter or attempt to enter a casino facility;

(4) Enters or attempts to enter a casino facility while under twenty-one years of age, unless the person enters a designated area as described in section 3772.24 of the Revised Code;

(5) Wagers or accepts a wager at a location other than a casino facility;

(6) Is a casino operator or employee and participates in casino gaming other than as part of operation or employment.

(E) A person who knowingly or intentionally does any of the following commits a felony of the fifth degree on a first offense and a felony of the fourth degree for a subsequent offense. If the person is a licensee under this chapter, the commission shall revoke the person's license after the first offense.

(1) Offers, promises, or gives anything of value or benefit to a person who is connected with the casino operator, management company, holding company, or gaming-related vendor, including their officers and employees, under an agreement to influence or with the intent to influence the actions of the person to whom the offer, promise, or gift was made in order to affect or attempt to affect the outcome of a casino game or an official action of a commission member;

(2) Solicits, accepts, or receives a promise of anything of value or benefit while the person is connected with a casino, including an officer or employee of a casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor, under an agreement to influence or with the intent to influence the actions of the person to affect or attempt to affect the outcome of a casino game or an official action of a commission member;

(3) Uses or possesses with the intent to use a device to assist in projecting the outcome of the game, keeping track of the cards played, analyzing the probability of the occurrence of an event relating to the casino game, or analyzing the strategy for playing or betting to be used in the game, except as permitted by the commission;

(4) Cheats at a casino game;

(5) Manufactures, sells, or distributes any cards, chips, dice, game, or device that is intended to be used to violate this chapter;

(6) Alters or misrepresents the outcome of a casino game on which wagers have been made after the outcome is made sure but before the outcome is revealed to the players;

(7) Places a wager on the outcome of a casino game after acquiring knowledge that is not available to all players and concerns the outcome of the casino game that is the subject of the wager;

(8) Aids a person in acquiring the knowledge described in division (E)(7) of this section for the purpose of placing a wager contingent on the outcome of a casino game;

(9) Claims, collects, takes, or attempts to claim, collect, or take money or anything of value in or from a casino game with the intent to defraud or without having made a wager contingent on winning a casino game;

(10) Claims, collects, or takes an amount of money or thing of value of greater value than the amount won in a casino game;

(11) Uses or possesses counterfeit chips or tokens in or for use in a casino game;

(12) Possesses a key or device designed for opening, entering, or affecting the operation of a casino game, drop box, or an electronic or a mechanical device connected with the casino game or removing coins, tokens, chips, or other contents of a casino game. This division does not apply to a casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor or their agents and employees in the course of agency or employment.

(13) Possesses materials used to manufacture a slug or device intended to be used in a manner that violates this chapter;

(14) Operates a casino gaming operation in which wagering is conducted or is to be conducted in a manner other than the manner required under this chapter.

(F) The possession of more than one of the devices described in division (E)(11), (12), or (13) of this section creates a rebuttable presumption that the possessor intended to use the devices for cheating.

(G) A person who is convicted of a felony described in this chapter may be barred for life from entering a casino facility by the commission.

Sec. 3793.02.  (A) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services shall promote, assist in developing, and coordinate or conduct programs of education and research for the prevention of alcohol and drug addiction, the prevention of gambling addiction, the treatment, including intervention, of alcoholics and persons who abuse drugs of abuse, including anabolic steroids, and the treatment, including intervention, of persons with gambling addictions. Programs established by the department shall include abstinence-based prevention and treatment programs.

(B) In addition to the other duties prescribed by this chapter, the department shall do all of the following:

(1) Promote and coordinate efforts in the provision of alcohol and drug addiction services and of gambling addiction services by other state agencies, as defined in section 1.60 of the Revised Code; courts; hospitals; clinics; physicians in private practice; public health authorities; boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services; alcohol and drug addiction programs; law enforcement agencies; gambling addiction programs; and related groups;

(2) Provide for education and training in prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and control of alcohol and drug addiction and of gambling addiction for medical students, physicians, nurses, social workers, professional counselors, psychologists, and other persons who provide alcohol and drug addiction services or gambling addiction services;

(3) Provide training and consultation for persons who supervise alcohol and drug addiction programs and facilities or gambling addiction programs and facilities;

(4) Develop measures for evaluating the effectiveness of alcohol and drug addiction services, including services that use methadone treatment, and of gambling addiction services, and for increasing the accountability of alcohol and drug addiction programs and of gambling addiction programs;

(5) Provide to each court of record, and biennially update, a list of the treatment and education programs within that court's jurisdiction that the court may require an offender, sentenced pursuant to section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, to attend;

(6) Make the warning sign described in sections 3313.752, 3345.41, and 3707.50 of the Revised Code available on the department's internet web site;

(7) Provide a program of gambling addiction services on behalf of the state lottery commission, pursuant to an agreement entered into with the director of the commission under division (K) of section 3770.02 of the Revised Code, and provide a program of gambling and addiction services on behalf of the Ohio casino control commission, under an agreement entered into with the executive director of the commission under section 3772.062 of the Revised Code. Under Section 6(C)(3) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, the department may enter into agreements with local alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service districts that are authorized and operating in this state, including with such districts of counties in which a casino facility is not located, and nonprofit organizations to provide gambling and addiction services and substance abuse services, and with state institutions of higher education or private nonprofit institutions that possess a certificate of authorization issued under Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code to perform related research.

(C) The department may accept and administer grants from public or private sources for carrying out any of the duties enumerated in this section.

(D) Pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the department shall adopt a rule defining the term "intervention" as it is used in this chapter in connection with alcohol and drug addiction services and in connection with gambling addiction services. The department may adopt other rules as necessary to implement the requirements of this chapter.

Sec. 3793.032.  The director of alcohol and drug addiction services shall administer the problem casino gambling and addictions fund. The director shall use the money in the fund to support programs that provide gambling addiction services, alcohol and drug addiction programs that provide alcohol and drug addiction services, other programs that relate to gambling addiction and substance abuse, and research that relates to gambling addiction and substance abuse. Treatment services provided under programs supported by money in the fund under this section shall be services that are provided by alcohol and drug addiction treatment programs certified by the department of alcohol and drug addiction services or provided by counselors who are certified by the department. Prevention services provided under programs supported by money in the fund under this section shall be services that are provided by alcohol and drug addiction prevention programs certified by the department of alcohol and drug addiction services.

The director shall prepare an annual report describing the use of the fund for these purposes. The director shall submit the report to the Ohio casino control commission, the speaker and minority leader of the house of representatives, the president and minority leader of the senate, the governor, and the joint committee on gaming and wagering.

Sec. 4301.355.  (A) If a petition is filed under section 4301.333 of the Revised Code for the submission of the question or questions set forth in this section, it shall be held in the precinct as ordered by the board of elections under that section. The expense of holding the election shall be charged to the municipal corporation or township of which the precinct is a part.

(B) At the election, one or more of the following questions, as designated in a valid petition, shall be submitted to the electors of the precinct:

(1) "Shall the sale of .......... (insert beer, wine and mixed beverages, or spirituous liquor) be permitted by .......... (insert name of applicant, liquor permit holder, or liquor agency store, including trade or fictitious name under which applicant for, or holder of, liquor permit or liquor agency store either intends to do, or does, business at the particular location), an .......... (insert "applicant for" or "holder of" or "operator of") a .......... (insert class name of liquor permit or permits followed by the words "liquor permit(s)" or, if appropriate, the words "liquor agency store for the State of Ohio"), who is engaged in the business of .......... (insert general nature of the business in which applicant or liquor permit holder is engaged or will be engaged in at the particular location, as described in the petition) at .......... (insert address of the particular location within the precinct as set forth in the petition) in this precinct?"

(2) "Shall the sale of .......... (insert beer, wine and mixed beverages, or spirituous liquor) be permitted for sale on Sunday between the hours of .......... (insert "ten a.m. and midnight" or " eleven a.m. and midnight") by .......... (insert name of applicant, liquor permit holder, or liquor agency store, including trade or fictitious name under which applicant for, or holder of, liquor permit or liquor agency store either intends to do, or does, business at the particular location), an ...... (insert "applicant for a D-6 liquor permit," "holder of a D-6 liquor permit," "applicant for or holder of an A-1-A, A-2, A-3a, C-1, C-2x, D-1, D-2x, D-3, D-3x, D-4, D-5, D-5b, D-5c, D-5e, D-5f, D-5g, D-5h, D-5i, D-5j, D-5k, D-5l, D-5m, D-5n, D-5o, or D-7 liquor permit," if only the approval of beer sales is sought, or "liquor agency store") who is engaged in the business of .......... (insert general nature of the business in which applicant or liquor permit holder is engaged or will be engaged in at the particular location, as described in the petition) at .......... (insert address of the particular location within the precinct) in this precinct?"

(C) The board of elections shall furnish printed ballots at the election as provided under section 3505.06 of the Revised Code, except that a separate ballot shall be used for the election under this section. The question set forth in this section shall be printed on each ballot, and the board shall insert in the question appropriate words to complete it. Votes shall be cast as provided under section 3505.06 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4301.62.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Chauffeured limousine" means a vehicle registered under section 4503.24 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Street," "highway," and "motor vehicle" have the same meanings as in section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) No person shall have in the person's possession an opened container of beer or intoxicating liquor in any of the following circumstances:

(1) In a state liquor store;

(2) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, on the premises of the holder of any permit issued by the division of liquor control;

(3) In any other public place;

(4) Except as provided in division (D) or (E) of this section, while operating or being a passenger in or on a motor vehicle on any street, highway, or other public or private property open to the public for purposes of vehicular travel or parking;

(5) Except as provided in division (D) or (E) of this section, while being in or on a stationary motor vehicle on any street, highway, or other public or private property open to the public for purposes of vehicular travel or parking.

(C)(1) A person may have in the person's possession an opened container of any of the following:

(a) Beer or intoxicating liquor that has been lawfully purchased for consumption on the premises where bought from the holder of an A-1-A, A-2, A-3a, D-1, D-2, D-3, D-3a, D-4, D-4a, D-5, D-5a, D-5b, D-5c, D-5d, D-5e, D-5f, D-5g, D-5h, D-5i, D-5j, D-5k, D-5l, D-5m, D-5n, D-5o, D-7, D-8, E, F, F-2, F-5, F-7, or F-8 permit;

(b) Beer, wine, or mixed beverages served for consumption on the premises by the holder of an F-3 permit or wine served for consumption on the premises by the holder of an F-4 or F-6 permit;

(c) Beer or intoxicating liquor consumed on the premises of a convention facility as provided in section 4303.201 of the Revised Code;

(d) Beer or intoxicating liquor to be consumed during tastings and samplings approved by rule of the liquor control commission.

(2) A person may have in the person's possession on an F liquor permit premises an opened container of beer or intoxicating liquor that was not purchased from the holder of the F permit if the premises for which the F permit is issued is a music festival and the holder of the F permit grants permission for that possession on the premises during the period for which the F permit is issued. As used in this division, "music festival" means a series of outdoor live musical performances, extending for a period of at least three consecutive days and located on an area of land of at least forty acres.

(3)(a) A person may have in the person's possession on a D-2 liquor permit premises an opened or unopened container of wine that was not purchased from the holder of the D-2 permit if the premises for which the D-2 permit is issued is an outdoor performing arts center, the person is attending an orchestral performance, and the holder of the D-2 permit grants permission for the possession and consumption of wine in certain predesignated areas of the premises during the period for which the D-2 permit is issued.

(b) As used in division (C)(3)(a) of this section:

(i) "Orchestral performance" means a concert comprised of a group of not fewer than forty musicians playing various musical instruments.

(ii) "Outdoor performing arts center" means an outdoor performing arts center that is located on not less than eight hundred acres of land and that is open for performances from the first day of April to the last day of October of each year.

(4) A person may have in the person's possession an opened or unopened container of beer or intoxicating liquor at an outdoor location at which the person is attending an orchestral performance as defined in division (C)(3)(b)(i) of this section if the person with supervision and control over the performance grants permission for the possession and consumption of beer or intoxicating liquor in certain predesignated areas of that outdoor location.

(D) This section does not apply to a person who pays all or a portion of the fee imposed for the use of a chauffeured limousine pursuant to a prearranged contract, or the guest of the person, when all of the following apply:

(1) The person or guest is a passenger in the limousine.

(2) The person or guest is located in the limousine, but is not occupying a seat in the front compartment of the limousine where the operator of the limousine is located.

(3) The limousine is located on any street, highway, or other public or private property open to the public for purposes of vehicular travel or parking.

(E) An opened bottle of wine that was purchased from the holder of a permit that authorizes the sale of wine for consumption on the premises where sold is not an opened container for the purposes of this section if both of the following apply:

(1) The opened bottle of wine is securely resealed by the permit holder or an employee of the permit holder before the bottle is removed from the premises. The bottle shall be secured in such a manner that it is visibly apparent if the bottle has been subsequently opened or tampered with.

(2) The opened bottle of wine that is resealed in accordance with division (E)(1) of this section is stored in the trunk of a motor vehicle or, if the motor vehicle does not have a trunk, behind the last upright seat or in an area not normally occupied by the driver or passengers and not easily accessible by the driver.

Sec. 4303.181.  (A) Permit D-5a may be issued either to the owner or operator of a hotel or motel that is required to be licensed under section 3731.03 of the Revised Code, that contains at least fifty rooms for registered transient guests or is owned by a state institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code or a private college or university, and that qualifies under the other requirements of this section, or to the owner or operator of a restaurant specified under this section, to sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and to registered guests in their rooms, which may be sold by means of a controlled access alcohol and beverage cabinet in accordance with division (B) of section 4301.21 of the Revised Code; and to sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises as may be sold by holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The premises of the hotel or motel shall include a retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is affiliated with the hotel or motel and within or contiguous to the hotel or motel, and that serves food within the hotel or motel, but the principal business of the owner or operator of the hotel or motel shall be the accommodation of transient guests. In addition to the privileges authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5a permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.

The owner or operator of a hotel, motel, or restaurant who qualified for and held a D-5a permit on August 4, 1976, may, if the owner or operator held another permit before holding a D-5a permit, either retain a D-5a permit or apply for the permit formerly held, and the division of liquor control shall issue the permit for which the owner or operator applies and formerly held, notwithstanding any quota.

A D-5a permit shall not be transferred to another location. No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of D-5a permits that may be issued.

The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred forty-four dollars.

(B) Permit D-5b may be issued to the owner, operator, tenant, lessee, or occupant of an enclosed shopping center to sell beer and intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises where sold; and to sell the same products in the same manner and amount not for consumption on the premises as may be sold by holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5b permit may exercise the same privileges as a holder of a D-5 permit.

A D-5b permit shall not be transferred to another location.

One D-5b permit may be issued at an enclosed shopping center containing at least two hundred twenty-five thousand, but less than four hundred thousand, square feet of floor area.

Two D-5b permits may be issued at an enclosed shopping center containing at least four hundred thousand square feet of floor area. No more than one D-5b permit may be issued at an enclosed shopping center for each additional two hundred thousand square feet of floor area or fraction of that floor area, up to a maximum of five D-5b permits for each enclosed shopping center. The number of D-5b permits that may be issued at an enclosed shopping center shall be determined by subtracting the number of D-3 and D-5 permits issued in the enclosed shopping center from the number of D-5b permits that otherwise may be issued at the enclosed shopping center under the formulas provided in this division. Except as provided in this section, no quota shall be placed on the number of D-5b permits that may be issued. Notwithstanding any quota provided in this section, the holder of any D-5b permit first issued in accordance with this section is entitled to its renewal in accordance with section 4303.271 of the Revised Code.

The holder of a D-5b permit issued before April 4, 1984, whose tenancy is terminated for a cause other than nonpayment of rent, may return the D-5b permit to the division of liquor control, and the division shall cancel that permit. Upon cancellation of that permit and upon the permit holder's payment of taxes, contributions, premiums, assessments, and other debts owing or accrued upon the date of cancellation to this state and its political subdivisions and a filing with the division of a certification of that payment, the division shall issue to that person either a D-5 permit, or a D-1, a D-2, and a D-3 permit, as that person requests. The division shall issue the D-5 permit, or the D-1, D-2, and D-3 permits, even if the number of D-1, D-2, D-3, or D-5 permits currently issued in the municipal corporation or in the unincorporated area of the township where that person's proposed premises is located equals or exceeds the maximum number of such permits that can be issued in that municipal corporation or in the unincorporated area of that township under the population quota restrictions contained in section 4303.29 of the Revised Code. Any D-1, D-2, D-3, or D-5 permit so issued shall not be transferred to another location. If a D-5b permit is canceled under the provisions of this paragraph, the number of D-5b permits that may be issued at the enclosed shopping center for which the D-5b permit was issued, under the formula provided in this division, shall be reduced by one if the enclosed shopping center was entitled to more than one D-5b permit under the formula.

The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred forty-four dollars.

(C) Permit D-5c may be issued to the owner or operator of a retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that qualifies under the other requirements of this section to sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and to sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises as may be sold by holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5c permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.

To qualify for a D-5c permit, the owner or operator of a retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a restaurant for purposes of this chapter, shall have operated the restaurant at the proposed premises for not less than twenty-four consecutive months immediately preceding the filing of the application for the permit, have applied for a D-5 permit no later than December 31, 1988, and appear on the division's quota waiting list for not less than six months immediately preceding the filing of the application for the permit. In addition to these requirements, the proposed D-5c permit premises shall be located within a municipal corporation and further within an election precinct that, at the time of the application, has no more than twenty-five per cent of its total land area zoned for residential use.

A D-5c permit shall not be transferred to another location. No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of such permits that may be issued.

Any person who has held a D-5c permit for at least two years may apply for a D-5 permit, and the division of liquor control shall issue the D-5 permit notwithstanding the quota restrictions contained in section 4303.29 of the Revised Code or in any rule of the liquor control commission.

The fee for this permit is one thousand five hundred sixty-three dollars.

(D) Permit D-5d may be issued to the owner or operator of a retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located at an airport operated by a board of county commissioners pursuant to section 307.20 of the Revised Code, at an airport operated by a port authority pursuant to Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code, or at an airport operated by a regional airport authority pursuant to Chapter 308. of the Revised Code. The holder of a D-5d permit may sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and may sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5d permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.

A D-5d permit shall not be transferred to another location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of such permits that may be issued.

The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred forty-four dollars.

(E) Permit D-5e may be issued to any nonprofit organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 501(c)(3), as amended, or that is a charitable organization under any chapter of the Revised Code, and that owns or operates a riverboat that meets all of the following:

(1) Is permanently docked at one location;

(2) Is designated as an historical riverboat by the Ohio historical society;

(3) Contains not less than fifteen hundred square feet of floor area;

(4) Has a seating capacity of fifty or more persons.

The holder of a D-5e permit may sell beer and intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises where sold.

A D-5e permit shall not be transferred to another location. No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of such permits that may be issued. The population quota restrictions contained in section 4303.29 of the Revised Code or in any rule of the liquor control commission shall not apply to this division, and the division shall issue a D-5e permit to any applicant who meets the requirements of this division. However, the division shall not issue a D-5e permit if the permit premises or proposed permit premises are located within an area in which the sale of spirituous liquor by the glass is prohibited.

The fee for this permit is one thousand two hundred nineteen dollars.

(F) Permit D-5f may be issued to the owner or operator of a retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that meets all of the following:

(1) It contains not less than twenty-five hundred square feet of floor area.

(2) It is located on or in, or immediately adjacent to, the shoreline of, a navigable river.

(3) It provides docking space for twenty-five boats.

(4) It provides entertainment and recreation, provided that not less than fifty per cent of the business on the permit premises shall be preparing and serving meals for a consideration.

In addition, each application for a D-5f permit shall be accompanied by a certification from the local legislative authority that the issuance of the D-5f permit is not inconsistent with that political subdivision's comprehensive development plan or other economic development goal as officially established by the local legislative authority.

The holder of a D-5f permit may sell beer and intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises where sold.

A D-5f permit shall not be transferred to another location.

The division of liquor control shall not issue a D-5f permit if the permit premises or proposed permit premises are located within an area in which the sale of spirituous liquor by the glass is prohibited.

A fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred forty-four dollars.

As used in this division, "navigable river" means a river that is also a "navigable water" as defined in the "Federal Power Act," 94 Stat. 770 (1980), 16 U.S.C. 796.

(G) Permit D-5g may be issued to a nonprofit corporation that is either the owner or the operator of a national professional sports museum. The holder of a D-5g permit may sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises where sold. The holder of a D-5g permit shall sell no beer or intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold after one a.m. A D-5g permit shall not be transferred to another location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of D-5g permits that may be issued. The fee for this permit is one thousand eight hundred seventy-five dollars.

(H)(1) Permit D-5h may be issued to any nonprofit organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 501(c)(3), as amended, that owns or operates any of the following:

(a) A fine arts museum, provided that the nonprofit organization has no less than one thousand five hundred bona fide members possessing full membership privileges;

(b) A community arts center. As used in division (H)(1)(b) of this section, "community arts center" means a facility that provides arts programming to the community in more than one arts discipline, including, but not limited to, exhibits of works of art and performances by both professional and amateur artists.

(c) A community theater, provided that the nonprofit organization is a member of the Ohio arts council and the American community theatre association and has been in existence for not less than ten years. As used in division (H)(1)(c) of this section, "community theater" means a facility that contains at least one hundred fifty seats and has a primary function of presenting live theatrical performances and providing recreational opportunities to the community.

(2) The holder of a D-5h permit may sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises where sold. The holder of a D-5h permit shall sell no beer or intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold after one a.m. A D-5h permit shall not be transferred to another location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of D-5h permits that may be issued.

(3) The fee for a D-5h permit is one thousand eight hundred seventy-five dollars.

(I) Permit D-5i may be issued to the owner or operator of a retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that meets all of the following requirements:

(1) It is located in a municipal corporation or a township with a population of one hundred thousand or less.

(2) It has inside seating capacity for at least one hundred forty persons.

(3) It has at least four thousand square feet of floor area.

(4) It offers full-course meals, appetizers, and sandwiches.

(5) Its receipts from beer and liquor sales, excluding wine sales, do not exceed twenty-five per cent of its total gross receipts.

(6) It has at least one of the following characteristics:

(a) The value of its real and personal property exceeds seven hundred twenty-five thousand dollars.

(b) It is located on property that is owned or leased by the state or a state agency, and its owner or operator has authorization from the state or the state agency that owns or leases the property to obtain a D-5i permit.

The holder of a D-5i permit may sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and may sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The holder of a D-5i permit shall sell no beer or intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold after two-thirty a.m. In addition to the privileges authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5i permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.

A D-5i permit shall not be transferred to another location. The division of liquor control shall not renew a D-5i permit unless the retail food establishment or food service operation for which it is issued continues to meet the requirements described in divisions (I)(1) to (6) of this section. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of D-5i permits that may be issued. The fee for the D-5i permit is two thousand three hundred forty-four dollars.

(J)(1) Permit D-5j may be issued to the owner or the operator of a retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code to sell beer and intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises where sold and to sell beer and intoxicating liquor in the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The holder of a D-5j permit may exercise the same privileges, and shall observe the same hours of operation, as the holder of a D-5 permit.

(2) The D-5j permit shall be issued only within a community entertainment district that is designated under section 4301.80 of the Revised Code and that meets one of the following qualifications:

(a) It is located in a municipal corporation with a population of at least one hundred thousand.

(b) It is located in a municipal corporation with a population of at least twenty thousand, and either of the following applies:

(i) It contains an amusement park the rides of which have been issued a permit by the department of agriculture under Chapter 1711. of the Revised Code.

(ii) Not less than fifty million dollars will be invested in development and construction in the community entertainment district's area located in the municipal corporation.

(c) It is located in a township with a population of at least forty thousand.

(d) It is located in a municipal corporation with a population of at least ten thousand, and not less than seventy million dollars will be invested in development and construction in the community entertainment district's area located in the municipal corporation.

(e) It is located in a municipal corporation with a population of at least five thousand, and not less than one hundred million dollars will be invested in development and construction in the community entertainment district's area located in the municipal corporation.

(3) The location of a D-5j permit may be transferred only within the geographic boundaries of the community entertainment district in which it was issued and shall not be transferred outside the geographic boundaries of that district.

(4) Not more than one D-5j permit shall be issued within each community entertainment district for each five acres of land located within the district. Not more than fifteen D-5j permits may be issued within a single community entertainment district. Except as otherwise provided in division (J)(4) of this section, no quota restrictions shall be placed upon the number of D-5j permits that may be issued.

(5) The fee for a D-5j permit is two thousand three hundred forty-four dollars.

(K)(1) Permit D-5k may be issued to any nonprofit organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 501(c)(3), as amended, that is the owner or operator of a botanical garden recognized by the American association of botanical gardens and arboreta, and that has not less than twenty-five hundred bona fide members.

(2) The holder of a D-5k permit may sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the container, on the premises where sold.

(3) The holder of a D-5k permit shall sell no beer or intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold after one a.m.

(4) A D-5k permit shall not be transferred to another location.

(5) No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of D-5k permits that may be issued.

(6) The fee for the D-5k permit is one thousand eight hundred seventy-five dollars.

(L)(1) Permit D-5l may be issued to the owner or the operator of a retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code to sell beer and intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises where sold and to sell beer and intoxicating liquor in the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The holder of a D-5l permit may exercise the same privileges, and shall observe the same hours of operation, as the holder of a D-5 permit.

(2) The D-5l permit shall be issued only to a premises that has gross annual receipts from the sale of food and meals that constitute not less than seventy-five per cent of its total gross annual receipts, that is located within a revitalization district that is designated under section 4301.81 of the Revised Code, that is located in a municipal corporation or township in which the number of D-5 permits issued equals or exceeds the number of those permits that may be issued in that municipal corporation or township under section 4303.29 of the Revised Code, and that is located in a county with a population of one hundred twenty-five thousand or less according to the population estimates certified by the department of development for calendar year 2006.

(3) The location of a D-5l permit may be transferred only within the geographic boundaries of the revitalization district in which it was issued and shall not be transferred outside the geographic boundaries of that district.

(4) Not more than one D-5l permit shall be issued within each revitalization district for each five acres of land located within the district. Not more than five D-5l permits may be issued within a single revitalization district. Except as otherwise provided in division (L)(4) of this section, no quota restrictions shall be placed upon the number of D-5l permits that may be issued.

(5) The fee for a D-5l permit is two thousand three hundred forty-four dollars.

(M) Permit D-5m may be issued to either the owner or the operator of a retail food establishment or food service operation licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located in, or affiliated with, a center for the preservation of wild animals as defined in section 4301.404 of the Revised Code, to sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and to sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges authorized by this division, the holder of a D-5m permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.

A D-5m permit shall not be transferred to another location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of D-5m permits that may be issued. The fee for a permit D-5m is two thousand three hundred forty-four dollars.

(N) Permit D-5n shall be issued to either a casino operator or a casino management company licensed under Chapter 3772. of the Revised Code that operates a casino facility under that chapter, to sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and to sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges authorized by this division, the holder of a D-5n permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit. A D-5n permit shall not be transferred to another location. Only one D-5n permit may be issued per casino facility and not more than four D-5n permits shall be issued in this state. The fee for a permit D-5n shall be twenty thousand dollars. The holder of a D-5n permit may conduct casino gaming on the permit premises notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code or Administrative Code.

(O) Permit D-5o may be issued to the owner or operator of a retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located within a casino facility for which a D-5n permit has been issued. The holder of a D-5o permit may sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and may sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges authorized by this division, the holder of a D-5o permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit. A D-5o permit shall not be transferred to another location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of such permits that may be issued. The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred forty-four dollars.

Sec. 4303.182.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (B) to (J) of this section, permit D-6 shall be issued to the holder of an A-1-A, A-2, A-3a, C-2, D-2, D-3, D-3a, D-4, D-4a, D-5, D-5a, D-5b, D-5c, D-5d, D-5e, D-5f, D-5g, D-5h, D-5i, D-5j, D-5k, D-5l, D-5m, D-5n, D-5o, or D-7 permit to allow sale under that permit as follows:

(1) Between the hours of ten a.m. and midnight on Sunday if sale during those hours has been approved under question (C)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4301.351 or 4301.354 of the Revised Code, under question (B)(2) of section 4301.355 of the Revised Code, or under section 4301.356 of the Revised Code and has been authorized under section 4301.361, 4301.364, 4301.365, or 4301.366 of the Revised Code, under the restrictions of that authorization;

(2) Between the hours of eleven a.m. and midnight on Sunday, if sale during those hours has been approved on or after the effective date of this amendment under question (B)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4301.351 or 4301.354 of the Revised Code, under question (B)(2) of section 4301.355 of the Revised Code, or under section 4301.356 of the Revised Code and has been authorized under section 4301.361, 4301.364, 4301.365, or 4301.366 of the Revised Code, under the restrictions of that authorization;

(3) Between the hours of eleven a.m. and midnight on Sunday if sale between the hours of one p.m. and midnight was approved before the effective date of this amendment under question (B)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4301.351 or 4301.354 of the Revised Code, under question (B)(2) of section 4301.355 of the Revised Code, or under section 4301.356 of the Revised Code and has been authorized under section 4301.361, 4301.364, 4301.365, or 4301.366 of the Revised Code, under the other restrictions of that authorization.

(B) Permit D-6 shall be issued to the holder of any permit, including a D-4a and D-5d permit, authorizing the sale of intoxicating liquor issued for a premises located at any publicly owned airport, as defined in section 4563.01 of the Revised Code, at which commercial airline companies operate regularly scheduled flights on which space is available to the public, to allow sale under such permit between the hours of ten a.m. and midnight on Sunday, whether or not that sale has been authorized under section 4301.361, 4301.364, 4301.365, or 4301.366 of the Revised Code.

(C) Permit D-6 shall be issued to the holder of a D-5a permit, and to the holder of a D-3 or D-3a permit who is the owner or operator of a hotel or motel that is required to be licensed under section 3731.03 of the Revised Code, that contains at least fifty rooms for registered transient guests, and that has on its premises a retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a restaurant for purposes of this chapter and is affiliated with the hotel or motel and within or contiguous to the hotel or motel and serving food within the hotel or motel, to allow sale under such permit between the hours of ten a.m. and midnight on Sunday, whether or not that sale has been authorized under section 4301.361, 4301.364, 4301.365, or 4301.366 of the Revised Code.

(D) The holder of a D-6 permit that is issued to a sports facility may make sales under the permit between the hours of eleven a.m. and midnight on any Sunday on which a professional baseball, basketball, football, hockey, or soccer game is being played at the sports facility. As used in this division, "sports facility" means a stadium or arena that has a seating capacity of at least four thousand and that is owned or leased by a professional baseball, basketball, football, hockey, or soccer franchise or any combination of those franchises.

(E) Permit D-6 shall be issued to the holder of any permit that authorizes the sale of beer or intoxicating liquor and that is issued to a premises located in or at the Ohio historical society area or the state fairgrounds, as defined in division (B) of section 4301.40 of the Revised Code, to allow sale under that permit between the hours of ten a.m. and midnight on Sunday, whether or not that sale has been authorized under section 4301.361, 4301.364, 4301.365, or 4301.366 of the Revised Code.

(F) Permit D-6 shall be issued to the holder of any permit that authorizes the sale of intoxicating liquor and that is issued to an outdoor performing arts center to allow sale under that permit between the hours of one p.m. and midnight on Sunday, whether or not that sale has been authorized under section 4301.361 of the Revised Code. A D-6 permit issued under this division is subject to the results of an election, held after the D-6 permit is issued, on question (B)(4) as set forth in section 4301.351 of the Revised Code. Following the end of the period during which an election may be held on question (B)(4) as set forth in that section, sales of intoxicating liquor may continue at an outdoor performing arts center under a D-6 permit issued under this division, unless an election on that question is held during the permitted period and a majority of the voters voting in the precinct on that question vote "no."

As used in this division, "outdoor performing arts center" means an outdoor performing arts center that is located on not less than eight hundred acres of land and that is open for performances from the first day of April to the last day of October of each year.

(G) Permit D-6 shall be issued to the holder of any permit that authorizes the sale of beer or intoxicating liquor and that is issued to a golf course owned by the state, a conservancy district, a park district created under Chapter 1545. of the Revised Code, or another political subdivision to allow sale under that permit between the hours of ten a.m. and midnight on Sunday, whether or not that sale has been authorized under section 4301.361, 4301.364, 4301.365, or 4301.366 of the Revised Code.

(H) Permit D-6 shall be issued to the holder of a D-5g permit to allow sale under that permit between the hours of ten a.m. and midnight on Sunday, whether or not that sale has been authorized under section 4301.361, 4301.364, 4301.365, or 4301.366 of the Revised Code.

(I) Permit D-6 shall be issued to the holder of any D permit for a premises that is licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code and that is located at a ski area to allow sale under the D-6 permit between the hours of ten a.m. and midnight on Sunday, whether or not that sale has been authorized under section 4301.361, 4301.364, 4301.365, or 4301.366 of the Revised Code.

As used in this division, "ski area" means a ski area as defined in section 4169.01 of the Revised Code, provided that the passenger tramway operator at that area is registered under section 4169.03 of the Revised Code.

(J) Permit D-6 shall be issued to the holder of any permit that is described in division (A) of this section for a permit premises that is located in a community entertainment district, as defined in section 4301.80 of the Revised Code, that was approved by the legislative authority of a municipal corporation under that section between October 1 and October 15, 2005, to allow sale under the permit between the hours of ten a.m. and midnight on Sunday, whether or not that sale has been authorized under section 4301.361, 4301.364, 4301.365, or 4301.366 of the Revised Code.

(K) If the restriction to licensed premises where the sale of food and other goods and services exceeds fifty per cent of the total gross receipts of the permit holder at the premises is applicable, the division of liquor control may accept an affidavit from the permit holder to show the proportion of the permit holder's gross receipts derived from the sale of food and other goods and services. If the liquor control commission determines that affidavit to have been false, it shall revoke the permits of the permit holder at the premises concerned.

(L) The fee for the D-6 permit is five hundred dollars when it is issued to the holder of an A-1-A, A-2, A-3a, D-2, D-3, D-3a, D-4, D-4a, D-5, D-5a, D-5b, D-5c, D-5d, D-5e, D-5f, D-5g, D-5h, D-5i, D-5j, D-5k, D-5l, D-5m, D-5n, D-5o, or D-7 permit. The fee for the D-6 permit is four hundred dollars when it is issued to the holder of a C-2 permit.

Sec. 4303.30.  The rights granted by any D-2, D-3, D-3a, D-4, D-4a, D-5, D-5a, D-5b, D-5e, D-5f, D-5g, D-5h, D-5i, D-5j, D-5k, D-5l, D-5m, D-5n, D-5o, or D-6 permit shall be exercised at not more than two fixed counters, commonly known as bars, in rooms or places on the permit premises, where beer, mixed beverages, wine, or spirituous liquor is sold to the public for consumption on the premises. For each additional fixed counter on the permit premises where those beverages are sold for consumption on the premises, the permit holder shall obtain a duplicate D-2, D-3, D-3a, D-4, D-4a, D-5, D-5a, D-5b, D-5e, D-5f, D-5g, D-5h, D-5i, D-5j, D-5k, D-5l, D-5m, D-5n, D-5o, or D-6 permit.

The holder of any D-2, D-3, D-3a, D-4, D-4a, D-5, D-5a, D-5b, D-5e, D-5f, D-5g, D-5h, D-5i, D-5j, D-5k, D-5l, D-5m, D-5n, D-5o, or D-6 permit shall be granted, upon application to the division of liquor control, a duplicate D-2, D-3, D-3a, D-4, D-4a, D-5, D-5a, D-5b, D-5e, D-5f, D-5g, D-5h, D-5i, D-5j, D-5k, D-5l, D-5m, D-5n, D-5o, or D-6 permit for each additional fixed counter on the permit premises at which beer, mixed beverages, wine, or spirituous liquor is sold for consumption on the premises, provided the application is made in the same manner as an application for an original permit. The application shall be identified with DUPLICATE printed on the permit application form furnished by the department, in boldface type. The application shall identify by name, or otherwise amply describe, the room or place on the premises where the duplicate permit is to be operative. Each duplicate permit shall be issued only to the same individual, firm, or corporation as that of the original permit and shall be an exact duplicate in size and word content as the original permit, except that it shall show on it the name or other ample identification of the room, or place, for which it is issued and shall have DUPLICATE printed on it in boldface type. A duplicate permit shall bear the same number as the original permit. The fee for a duplicate permit is: D-1, one hundred dollars; D-2, one hundred dollars; D-3, four hundred dollars; D-3a, four hundred dollars; D-4, two hundred dollars; D-5, one thousand dollars; D-5a, one thousand dollars; D-5b, one thousand dollars; D-5c, four hundred dollars; D-5e, six hundred fifty dollars; D-5f, one thousand dollars; D-5o, one thousand dollars; D-6, one hundred dollars when issued to the holder of a D-4a permit; and in all other cases one hundred dollars or an amount which is twenty per cent of the fees payable for the A-1-A, D-2, D-3, D-3a, D-4, D-5, D-5a, D-5b, D-5e, D-5f, D-5g, D-5h, D-5i, D-5j, D-5k, D-5l, D-5m, D-5n, D-5o, and D-6 permits issued to the same premises, whichever is higher. Application for a duplicate permit may be filed any time during the life of an original permit. The fee for each duplicate D-2, D-3, D-3a, D-4, D-4a, D-5, D-5a, D-5b, D-5e, D-5f, D-5g, D-5h, D-5i, D-5j, D-5k, D-5l, D-5m, D-5n, D-5o, or D-6 permit shall be paid in accordance with section 4303.24 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5502.03. (A) There is hereby created in the department of public safety a division of homeland security.

(B) The division shall do all of the following:

(1) Coordinate all homeland security activities of all state agencies and be the liaison between state agencies and local entities for the purposes of communicating homeland security funding and policy initiatives;

(2) Collect, analyze, maintain, and disseminate information to support local, state, and federal law enforcement agencies, other government agencies, and private organizations in detecting, deterring, preventing, preparing for, responding to, and recovering from threatened or actual terrorist events. This information is not a public record pursuant to section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(3) Coordinate efforts of state and local governments and private organizations to enhance the security and protection of critical infrastructure, including casino facilities, and key assets in this state;

(4) Develop and coordinate policies, protocols, and strategies that may be used to prevent, detect, prepare for, respond to, and recover from terrorist acts or threats;

(5) Develop, update, and coordinate the implementation of an Ohio homeland security strategic plan that will guide state and local governments in the achievement of homeland security in this state.

(C) The director of public safety shall appoint an executive director, who shall be head of the division of homeland security and who regularly shall advise the governor and the director on matters pertaining to homeland security. The executive director shall serve at the pleasure of the director of public safety. To carry out the duties assigned under this section, the executive director, subject to the direction and control of the director of public safety, may appoint and maintain necessary staff and may enter into any necessary agreements.

(D) Except as otherwise provided by law, nothing in this section shall be construed to give the director of public safety or the executive director of the division of homeland security authority over the incident management structure or responsibilities of local emergency response personnel.

(E) There is hereby created in the state treasury the homeland security fund. The fund shall consist of sixty cents of each fee collected under sections 4501.34, 4503.26, 4506.08, and 4509.05 of the Revised Code as specified in those sections, plus on and after October 1, 2009, sixty cents of each fee collected under sections 4505.14 and 4519.63 of the Revised Code as specified in those sections. The fund shall be used to pay the expenses of administering the law relative to the powers and duties of the executive director of the division of homeland security, except that the director of budget and management may transfer excess money from the homeland security fund to the state highway safety fund if the director of public safety determines that the amount of money in the homeland security fund exceeds the amount required to cover such costs incurred by the division of homeland security and requests the director of budget and management to make the transfer.

Sec. 5703.052.  (A) There is hereby created in the state treasury the tax refund fund, from which refunds shall be paid for taxes illegally or erroneously assessed or collected, or for any other reason overpaid, that are levied by Chapter 4301., 4305., 5728., 5729., 5733., 5735., 5739., 5741., 5743., 5747., 5748., 5749., or 5751., or 5753. and sections 3737.71, 3905.35, 3905.36, 4303.33, 5707.03, 5725.18, 5727.28, 5727.38, 5727.81, and 5727.811 of the Revised Code. Refunds for fees illegally or erroneously assessed or collected, or for any other reason overpaid, that are levied by sections 3734.90 to 3734.9014 of the Revised Code also shall be paid from the fund. Refunds for amounts illegally or erroneously assessed or collected by the tax commissioner, or for any other reason overpaid, that are due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code shall be paid from the fund. However, refunds for taxes levied under section 5739.101 of the Revised Code shall not be paid from the tax refund fund, but shall be paid as provided in section 5739.104 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) Upon certification by the tax commissioner to the treasurer of state of a tax refund, a fee refund, or an other amount refunded, or by the superintendent of insurance of a domestic or foreign insurance tax refund, the treasurer of state shall place the amount certified to the credit of the fund. The certified amount transferred shall be derived from current receipts of the same tax, fee, or other amount from which the refund arose. If current receipts from the tax, fee, or other amount from which the refund arose are inadequate to make the transfer of the amount so certified, the treasurer of state shall transfer such certified amount from current receipts of the sales tax levied by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code.

(2) When the treasurer of state provides for the payment of a refund of a tax, fee, or other amount from the current receipts of the sales tax, and the refund is for a tax, fee, or other amount that is not levied by the state, the tax commissioner shall recover the amount of that refund from the next distribution of that tax, fee, or other amount that otherwise would be made to the taxing jurisdiction. If the amount to be recovered would exceed twenty-five per cent of the next distribution of that tax, fee, or other amount, the commissioner may spread the recovery over more than one future distribution, taking into account the amount to be recovered and the amount of the anticipated future distributions. In no event may the commissioner spread the recovery over a period to exceed twenty-four months.

Sec. 5703.19.  (A) To carry out the purposes of the laws that the tax commissioner is required to administer, the commissioner or any person employed by the commissioner for that purpose, upon demand, may inspect books, accounts, records, and memoranda of any person or public utility subject to those laws, and may examine under oath any officer, agent, or employee of that person or public utility. Any person other than the commissioner who makes a demand pursuant to this section shall produce the person's authority to make the inspection.

(B) If a person or public utility receives at least ten days' written notice of a demand made under division (A) of this section and refuses to comply with that demand, a penalty of five hundred dollars shall be imposed upon the person or public utility for each day the person or public utility refuses to comply with the demand. Penalties imposed under this division may be assessed and collected in the same manner as assessments made under Chapter 3769., 4305., 5727., 5728., 5733., 5735., 5739., 5743., 5745., 5747., 5749., or 5751., or 5753., or sections 3734.90 to 3734.9014, of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5703.21.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and (C) of this section, no agent of the department of taxation, except in the agent's report to the department or when called on to testify in any court or proceeding, shall divulge any information acquired by the agent as to the transactions, property, or business of any person while acting or claiming to act under orders of the department. Whoever violates this provision shall thereafter be disqualified from acting as an officer or employee or in any other capacity under appointment or employment of the department.

(B)(1) For purposes of an audit pursuant to section 117.15 of the Revised Code, or an audit of the department pursuant to Chapter 117. of the Revised Code, or an audit, pursuant to that chapter, the objective of which is to express an opinion on a financial report or statement prepared or issued pursuant to division (A)(7) or (9) of section 126.21 of the Revised Code, the officers and employees of the auditor of state charged with conducting the audit shall have access to and the right to examine any state tax returns and state tax return information in the possession of the department to the extent that the access and examination are necessary for purposes of the audit. Any information acquired as the result of that access and examination shall not be divulged for any purpose other than as required for the audit or unless the officers and employees are required to testify in a court or proceeding under compulsion of legal process. Whoever violates this provision shall thereafter be disqualified from acting as an officer or employee or in any other capacity under appointment or employment of the auditor of state.

(2) For purposes of an internal audit pursuant to section 126.45 of the Revised Code, the officers and employees of the office of internal auditing in the office of budget and management charged with conducting the internal audit shall have access to and the right to examine any state tax returns and state tax return information in the possession of the department to the extent that the access and examination are necessary for purposes of the internal audit. Any information acquired as the result of that access and examination shall not be divulged for any purpose other than as required for the internal audit or unless the officers and employees are required to testify in a court or proceeding under compulsion of legal process. Whoever violates this provision shall thereafter be disqualified from acting as an officer or employee or in any other capacity under appointment or employment of the office of internal auditing.

(3) As provided by section 6103(d)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, any federal tax returns or federal tax information that the department has acquired from the internal revenue service, through federal and state statutory authority, may be disclosed to the auditor of state or the office of internal auditing solely for purposes of an audit of the department.

(4) For purposes of Chapter 3739. of the Revised Code, an agent of the department of taxation may share information with the division of state fire marshal that the agent finds during the course of an investigation.

(C) Division (A) of this section does not prohibit any of the following:

(1) Divulging information contained in applications, complaints, and related documents filed with the department under section 5715.27 of the Revised Code or in applications filed with the department under section 5715.39 of the Revised Code;

(2) Providing information to the office of child support within the department of job and family services pursuant to section 3125.43 of the Revised Code;

(3) Disclosing to the board of motor vehicle collision repair registration any information in the possession of the department that is necessary for the board to verify the existence of an applicant's valid vendor's license and current state tax identification number under section 4775.07 of the Revised Code;

(4) Providing information to the administrator of workers' compensation pursuant to sections 4123.271 and 4123.591 of the Revised Code;

(5) Providing to the attorney general information the department obtains under division (J) of section 1346.01 of the Revised Code;

(6) Permitting properly authorized officers, employees, or agents of a municipal corporation from inspecting reports or information pursuant to rules adopted under section 5745.16 of the Revised Code;

(7) Providing information regarding the name, account number, or business address of a holder of a vendor's license issued pursuant to section 5739.17 of the Revised Code, a holder of a direct payment permit issued pursuant to section 5739.031 of the Revised Code, or a seller having a use tax account maintained pursuant to section 5741.17 of the Revised Code, or information regarding the active or inactive status of a vendor's license, direct payment permit, or seller's use tax account;

(8) Releasing invoices or invoice information furnished under section 4301.433 of the Revised Code pursuant to that section;

(9) Providing to a county auditor notices or documents concerning or affecting the taxable value of property in the county auditor's county. Unless authorized by law to disclose documents so provided, the county auditor shall not disclose such documents;

(10) Providing to a county auditor sales or use tax return or audit information under section 333.06 of the Revised Code;

(11) Subject to section 4301.441 of the Revised Code, disclosing to the appropriate state agency information in the possession of the department of taxation that is necessary to verify a permit holder's gallonage or noncompliance with taxes levied under Chapter 4301. or 4305. of the Revised Code;

(12) Disclosing to the department of natural resources information in the possession of the department that is necessary to verify the taxpayer's compliance with division (A)(1), (8), or (9) of section 5749.02 of the Revised Code and information received pursuant to section 1509.50 of the Revised Code concerning the amount due under that section;

(13) Disclosing to the department of job and family services, industrial commission, and bureau of workers' compensation information in the possession of the department of taxation solely for the purpose of identifying employers that misclassify employees as independent contractors or that fail to properly report and pay employer tax liabilities. The department of taxation shall disclose only such information that is necessary to verify employer compliance with law administered by those agencies.

(14) Disclosing to the Ohio casino control commission information in the possession of the department of taxation that is necessary to verify a taxpayer's compliance with section 5753.02 of the Revised Code and sections related thereto.

Sec. 5703.70. (A) On the filing of an application for refund under section 3734.905, 4307.05, 4307.07, 5727.28, 5727.91, 5728.061, 5733.12, 5735.122, 5735.13, 5735.14, 5735.141, 5735.142, 5735.18, 5739.07, 5739.071, 5739.104, 5741.10, 5743.05, 5743.53, 5749.08, or 5751.08, or 5753.06 of the Revised Code, or an application for compensation under section 5739.061 of the Revised Code, if the tax commissioner determines that the amount of the refund or compensation to which the applicant is entitled is less than the amount claimed in the application, the commissioner shall give the applicant written notice by ordinary mail of the amount. The notice shall be sent to the address shown on the application unless the applicant notifies the commissioner of a different address. The applicant shall have sixty days from the date the commissioner mails the notice to provide additional information to the commissioner or request a hearing, or both.

(B) If the applicant neither requests a hearing nor provides additional information to the tax commissioner within the time prescribed by division (A) of this section, the commissioner shall take no further action, and the refund or compensation amount denied becomes final.

(C)(1) If the applicant requests a hearing within the time prescribed by division (A) of this section, the tax commissioner shall assign a time and place for the hearing and notify the applicant of such time and place, but the commissioner may continue the hearing from time to time as necessary. After the hearing, the commissioner may make such adjustments to the refund or compensation as the commissioner finds proper, and shall issue a final determination thereon.

(2) If the applicant does not request a hearing, but provides additional information, within the time prescribed by division (A) of this section, the commissioner shall review the information, make such adjustments to the refund or compensation as the commissioner finds proper, and issue a final determination thereon.

(3) The commissioner shall serve a copy of the final determination made under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section on the applicant in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code, and the decision is final, subject to appeal under section 5717.02 of the Revised Code.

(D) The tax commissioner shall certify to the director of budget and management and treasurer of state for payment from the tax refund fund created by section 5703.052 of the Revised Code, the amount of the refund to be refunded under division (B) or (C) of this section. The commissioner also shall certify to the director and treasurer of state for payment from the general revenue fund the amount of compensation to be paid under division (B) or (C) of this section.

Sec. 5747.01.  Except as otherwise expressly provided or clearly appearing from the context, any term used in this chapter that is not otherwise defined in this section has the same meaning as when used in a comparable context in the laws of the United States relating to federal income taxes or if not used in a comparable context in those laws, has the same meaning as in section 5733.40 of the Revised Code. Any reference in this chapter to the Internal Revenue Code includes other laws of the United States relating to federal income taxes.

As used in this chapter:

(A) "Adjusted gross income" or "Ohio adjusted gross income" means federal adjusted gross income, as defined and used in the Internal Revenue Code, adjusted as provided in this section:

(1) Add interest or dividends on obligations or securities of any state or of any political subdivision or authority of any state, other than this state and its subdivisions and authorities.

(2) Add interest or dividends on obligations of any authority, commission, instrumentality, territory, or possession of the United States to the extent that the interest or dividends are exempt from federal income taxes but not from state income taxes.

(3) Deduct interest or dividends on obligations of the United States and its territories and possessions or of any authority, commission, or instrumentality of the United States to the extent that the interest or dividends are included in federal adjusted gross income but exempt from state income taxes under the laws of the United States.

(4) Deduct disability and survivor's benefits to the extent included in federal adjusted gross income.

(5) Deduct benefits under Title II of the Social Security Act and tier 1 railroad retirement benefits to the extent included in federal adjusted gross income under section 86 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(6) In the case of a taxpayer who is a beneficiary of a trust that makes an accumulation distribution as defined in section 665 of the Internal Revenue Code, add, for the beneficiary's taxable years beginning before 2002, the portion, if any, of such distribution that does not exceed the undistributed net income of the trust for the three taxable years preceding the taxable year in which the distribution is made to the extent that the portion was not included in the trust's taxable income for any of the trust's taxable years beginning in 2002 or thereafter. "Undistributed net income of a trust" means the taxable income of the trust increased by (a)(i) the additions to adjusted gross income required under division (A) of this section and (ii) the personal exemptions allowed to the trust pursuant to section 642(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, and decreased by (b)(i) the deductions to adjusted gross income required under division (A) of this section, (ii) the amount of federal income taxes attributable to such income, and (iii) the amount of taxable income that has been included in the adjusted gross income of a beneficiary by reason of a prior accumulation distribution. Any undistributed net income included in the adjusted gross income of a beneficiary shall reduce the undistributed net income of the trust commencing with the earliest years of the accumulation period.

(7) Deduct the amount of wages and salaries, if any, not otherwise allowable as a deduction but that would have been allowable as a deduction in computing federal adjusted gross income for the taxable year, had the targeted jobs credit allowed and determined under sections 38, 51, and 52 of the Internal Revenue Code not been in effect.

(8) Deduct any interest or interest equivalent on public obligations and purchase obligations to the extent that the interest or interest equivalent is included in federal adjusted gross income.

(9) Add any loss or deduct any gain resulting from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of public obligations to the extent that the loss has been deducted or the gain has been included in computing federal adjusted gross income.

(10) Deduct or add amounts, as provided under section 5747.70 of the Revised Code, related to contributions to variable college savings program accounts made or tuition units purchased pursuant to Chapter 3334. of the Revised Code.

(11)(a) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise allowable as a deduction or exclusion in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, the amount the taxpayer paid during the taxable year for medical care insurance and qualified long-term care insurance for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, and dependents. No deduction for medical care insurance under division (A)(11) of this section shall be allowed either to any taxpayer who is eligible to participate in any subsidized health plan maintained by any employer of the taxpayer or of the taxpayer's spouse, or to any taxpayer who is entitled to, or on application would be entitled to, benefits under part A of Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended. For the purposes of division (A)(11)(a) of this section, "subsidized health plan" means a health plan for which the employer pays any portion of the plan's cost. The deduction allowed under division (A)(11)(a) of this section shall be the net of any related premium refunds, related premium reimbursements, or related insurance premium dividends received during the taxable year.

(b) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income during the taxable year, the amount the taxpayer paid during the taxable year, not compensated for by any insurance or otherwise, for medical care of the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, and dependents, to the extent the expenses exceed seven and one-half per cent of the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income.

(c) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income, any amount included in federal adjusted gross income under section 105 or not excluded under section 106 of the Internal Revenue Code solely because it relates to an accident and health plan for a person who otherwise would be a "qualifying relative" and thus a "dependent" under section 152 of the Internal Revenue Code but for the fact that the person fails to meet the income and support limitations under section 152(d)(1)(B) and (C) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(d) For purposes of division (A)(11) of this section, "medical care" has the meaning given in section 213 of the Internal Revenue Code, subject to the special rules, limitations, and exclusions set forth therein, and "qualified long-term care" has the same meaning given in section 7702B(c) of the Internal Revenue Code. Solely for purposes of divisions (A)(11)(a) and (c) of this section, "dependent" includes a person who otherwise would be a "qualifying relative" and thus a "dependent" under section 152 of the Internal Revenue Code but for the fact that the person fails to meet the income and support limitations under section 152(d)(1)(B) and (C) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(12)(a) Deduct any amount included in federal adjusted gross income solely because the amount represents a reimbursement or refund of expenses that in any year the taxpayer had deducted as an itemized deduction pursuant to section 63 of the Internal Revenue Code and applicable United States department of the treasury regulations. The deduction otherwise allowed under division (A)(12)(a) of this section shall be reduced to the extent the reimbursement is attributable to an amount the taxpayer deducted under this section in any taxable year.

(b) Add any amount not otherwise included in Ohio adjusted gross income for any taxable year to the extent that the amount is attributable to the recovery during the taxable year of any amount deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income in any taxable year.

(13) Deduct any portion of the deduction described in section 1341(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, for repaying previously reported income received under a claim of right, that meets both of the following requirements:

(a) It is allowable for repayment of an item that was included in the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for a prior taxable year and did not qualify for a credit under division (A) or (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code for that year;

(b) It does not otherwise reduce the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for the current or any other taxable year.

(14) Deduct an amount equal to the deposits made to, and net investment earnings of, a medical savings account during the taxable year, in accordance with section 3924.66 of the Revised Code. The deduction allowed by division (A)(14) of this section does not apply to medical savings account deposits and earnings otherwise deducted or excluded for the current or any other taxable year from the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income.

(15)(a) Add an amount equal to the funds withdrawn from a medical savings account during the taxable year, and the net investment earnings on those funds, when the funds withdrawn were used for any purpose other than to reimburse an account holder for, or to pay, eligible medical expenses, in accordance with section 3924.66 of the Revised Code;

(b) Add the amounts distributed from a medical savings account under division (A)(2) of section 3924.68 of the Revised Code during the taxable year.

(16) Add any amount claimed as a credit under section 5747.059 of the Revised Code to the extent that such amount satisfies either of the following:

(a) The amount was deducted or excluded from the computation of the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income as required to be reported for the taxpayer's taxable year under the Internal Revenue Code;

(b) The amount resulted in a reduction of the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income as required to be reported for any of the taxpayer's taxable years under the Internal Revenue Code.

(17) Deduct the amount contributed by the taxpayer to an individual development account program established by a county department of job and family services pursuant to sections 329.11 to 329.14 of the Revised Code for the purpose of matching funds deposited by program participants. On request of the tax commissioner, the taxpayer shall provide any information that, in the tax commissioner's opinion, is necessary to establish the amount deducted under division (A)(17) of this section.

(18) Beginning in taxable year 2001 but not for any taxable year beginning after December 31, 2005, if the taxpayer is married and files a joint return and the combined federal adjusted gross income of the taxpayer and the taxpayer's spouse for the taxable year does not exceed one hundred thousand dollars, or if the taxpayer is single and has a federal adjusted gross income for the taxable year not exceeding fifty thousand dollars, deduct amounts paid during the taxable year for qualified tuition and fees paid to an eligible institution for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, or any dependent of the taxpayer, who is a resident of this state and is enrolled in or attending a program that culminates in a degree or diploma at an eligible institution. The deduction may be claimed only to the extent that qualified tuition and fees are not otherwise deducted or excluded for any taxable year from federal or Ohio adjusted gross income. The deduction may not be claimed for educational expenses for which the taxpayer claims a credit under section 5747.27 of the Revised Code.

(19) Add any reimbursement received during the taxable year of any amount the taxpayer deducted under division (A)(18) of this section in any previous taxable year to the extent the amount is not otherwise included in Ohio adjusted gross income.

(20)(a)(i) Add five-sixths of the amount of depreciation expense allowed by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, including the taxpayer's proportionate or distributive share of the amount of depreciation expense allowed by that subsection to a pass-through entity in which the taxpayer has a direct or indirect ownership interest.

(ii) Add five-sixths of the amount of qualifying section 179 depreciation expense, including a person's proportionate or distributive share of the amount of qualifying section 179 depreciation expense allowed to any pass-through entity in which the person has a direct or indirect ownership. For the purposes of this division, "qualifying section 179 depreciation expense" means the difference between (I) the amount of depreciation expense directly or indirectly allowed to the taxpayer under section 179 of the Internal Revenue Code, and (II) the amount of depreciation expense directly or indirectly allowed to the taxpayer under section 179 of the Internal Revenue Code as that section existed on December 31, 2002.

The tax commissioner, under procedures established by the commissioner, may waive the add-backs related to a pass-through entity if the taxpayer owns, directly or indirectly, less than five per cent of the pass-through entity.

(b) Nothing in division (A)(20) of this section shall be construed to adjust or modify the adjusted basis of any asset.

(c) To the extent the add-back required under division (A)(20)(a) of this section is attributable to property generating nonbusiness income or loss allocated under section 5747.20 of the Revised Code, the add-back shall be sitused to the same location as the nonbusiness income or loss generated by the property for the purpose of determining the credit under division (A) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code. Otherwise, the add-back shall be apportioned, subject to one or more of the four alternative methods of apportionment enumerated in section 5747.21 of the Revised Code.

(d) For the purposes of division (A) of this section, net operating loss carryback and carryforward shall not include five-sixths of the allowance of any net operating loss deduction carryback or carryforward to the taxable year to the extent such loss resulted from depreciation allowed by section 168(k) of the Internal Revenue Code and by the qualifying section 179 depreciation expense amount.

(21)(a) If the taxpayer was required to add an amount under division (A)(20)(a) of this section for a taxable year, deduct one-fifth of the amount so added for each of the five succeeding taxable years.

(b) If the amount deducted under division (A)(21)(a) of this section is attributable to an add-back allocated under division (A)(20)(c) of this section, the amount deducted shall be sitused to the same location. Otherwise, the add-back shall be apportioned using the apportionment factors for the taxable year in which the deduction is taken, subject to one or more of the four alternative methods of apportionment enumerated in section 5747.21 of the Revised Code.

(c) No deduction is available under division (A)(21)(a) of this section with regard to any depreciation allowed by section 168(k) of the Internal Revenue Code and by the qualifying section 179 depreciation expense amount to the extent that such depreciation resulted in or increased a federal net operating loss carryback or carryforward to a taxable year to which division (A)(20)(d) of this section does not apply.

(22) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year as reimbursement for life insurance premiums under section 5919.31 of the Revised Code.

(23) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year as a death benefit paid by the adjutant general under section 5919.33 of the Revised Code.

(24) Deduct, to the extent included in federal adjusted gross income and not otherwise allowable as a deduction or exclusion in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, military pay and allowances received by the taxpayer during the taxable year for active duty service in the United States army, air force, navy, marine corps, or coast guard or reserve components thereof or the national guard. The deduction may not be claimed for military pay and allowances received by the taxpayer while the taxpayer is stationed in this state.

(25) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise allowable as a deduction or exclusion in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year and not otherwise compensated for by any other source, the amount of qualified organ donation expenses incurred by the taxpayer during the taxable year, not to exceed ten thousand dollars. A taxpayer may deduct qualified organ donation expenses only once for all taxable years beginning with taxable years beginning in 2007.

For the purposes of division (A)(25) of this section:

(a) "Human organ" means all or any portion of a human liver, pancreas, kidney, intestine, or lung, and any portion of human bone marrow.

(b) "Qualified organ donation expenses" means travel expenses, lodging expenses, and wages and salary forgone by a taxpayer in connection with the taxpayer's donation, while living, of one or more of the taxpayer's human organs to another human being.

(26) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, amounts received by the taxpayer as retired military personnel pay for service in the United States army, navy, air force, coast guard, or marine corps or reserve components thereof, or the national guard, or received by the surviving spouse or former spouse of such a taxpayer under the survivor benefit plan on account of such a taxpayer's death. If the taxpayer receives income on account of retirement paid under the federal civil service retirement system or federal employees retirement system, or under any successor retirement program enacted by the congress of the United States that is established and maintained for retired employees of the United States government, and such retirement income is based, in whole or in part, on credit for the taxpayer's military service, the deduction allowed under this division shall include only that portion of such retirement income that is attributable to the taxpayer's military service, to the extent that portion of such retirement income is otherwise included in federal adjusted gross income and is not otherwise deducted under this section. Any amount deducted under division (A)(26) of this section is not included in a taxpayer's adjusted gross income for the purposes of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code. No amount may be deducted under division (A)(26) of this section on the basis of which a credit was claimed under section 5747.055 of the Revised Code.

(27) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year from the military injury relief fund created in section 5101.98 of the Revised Code.

(28) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, the amount the taxpayer received as a veterans bonus during the taxable year from the Ohio department of veterans services as authorized by Section 2r of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.

(29) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, any loss from wagering transactions that is allowed as an itemized deduction under section 165 of the Internal Revenue Code and that the taxpayer deducted in computing federal taxable income.

(B) "Business income" means income, including gain or loss, arising from transactions, activities, and sources in the regular course of a trade or business and includes income, gain, or loss from real property, tangible property, and intangible property if the acquisition, rental, management, and disposition of the property constitute integral parts of the regular course of a trade or business operation. "Business income" includes income, including gain or loss, from a partial or complete liquidation of a business, including, but not limited to, gain or loss from the sale or other disposition of goodwill.

(C) "Nonbusiness income" means all income other than business income and may include, but is not limited to, compensation, rents and royalties from real or tangible personal property, capital gains, interest, dividends and distributions, patent or copyright royalties, or lottery winnings, prizes, and awards.

(D) "Compensation" means any form of remuneration paid to an employee for personal services.

(E) "Fiduciary" means a guardian, trustee, executor, administrator, receiver, conservator, or any other person acting in any fiduciary capacity for any individual, trust, or estate.

(F) "Fiscal year" means an accounting period of twelve months ending on the last day of any month other than December.

(G) "Individual" means any natural person.

(H) "Internal Revenue Code" means the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended.

(I) "Resident" means any of the following, provided that division (I)(3) of this section applies only to taxable years of a trust beginning in 2002 or thereafter:

(1) An individual who is domiciled in this state, subject to section 5747.24 of the Revised Code;

(2) The estate of a decedent who at the time of death was domiciled in this state. The domicile tests of section 5747.24 of the Revised Code are not controlling for purposes of division (I)(2) of this section.

(3) A trust that, in whole or part, resides in this state. If only part of a trust resides in this state, the trust is a resident only with respect to that part.

For the purposes of division (I)(3) of this section:

(a) A trust resides in this state for the trust's current taxable year to the extent, as described in division (I)(3)(d) of this section, that the trust consists directly or indirectly, in whole or in part, of assets, net of any related liabilities, that were transferred, or caused to be transferred, directly or indirectly, to the trust by any of the following:

(i) A person, a court, or a governmental entity or instrumentality on account of the death of a decedent, but only if the trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(i) or (ii) of this section;

(ii) A person who was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter when the person directly or indirectly transferred assets to an irrevocable trust, but only if at least one of the trust's qualifying beneficiaries is domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter during all or some portion of the trust's current taxable year;

(iii) A person who was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter when the trust document or instrument or part of the trust document or instrument became irrevocable, but only if at least one of the trust's qualifying beneficiaries is a resident domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter during all or some portion of the trust's current taxable year. If a trust document or instrument became irrevocable upon the death of a person who at the time of death was domiciled in this state for purposes of this chapter, that person is a person described in division (I)(3)(a)(iii) of this section.

(b) A trust is irrevocable to the extent that the transferor is not considered to be the owner of the net assets of the trust under sections 671 to 678 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(c) With respect to a trust other than a charitable lead trust, "qualifying beneficiary" has the same meaning as "potential current beneficiary" as defined in section 1361(e)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and with respect to a charitable lead trust "qualifying beneficiary" is any current, future, or contingent beneficiary, but with respect to any trust "qualifying beneficiary" excludes a person or a governmental entity or instrumentality to any of which a contribution would qualify for the charitable deduction under section 170 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(d) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(a) of this section, the extent to which a trust consists directly or indirectly, in whole or in part, of assets, net of any related liabilities, that were transferred directly or indirectly, in whole or part, to the trust by any of the sources enumerated in that division shall be ascertained by multiplying the fair market value of the trust's assets, net of related liabilities, by the qualifying ratio, which shall be computed as follows:

(i) The first time the trust receives assets, the numerator of the qualifying ratio is the fair market value of those assets at that time, net of any related liabilities, from sources enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this section. The denominator of the qualifying ratio is the fair market value of all the trust's assets at that time, net of any related liabilities.

(ii) Each subsequent time the trust receives assets, a revised qualifying ratio shall be computed. The numerator of the revised qualifying ratio is the sum of (1) the fair market value of the trust's assets immediately prior to the subsequent transfer, net of any related liabilities, multiplied by the qualifying ratio last computed without regard to the subsequent transfer, and (2) the fair market value of the subsequently transferred assets at the time transferred, net of any related liabilities, from sources enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this section. The denominator of the revised qualifying ratio is the fair market value of all the trust's assets immediately after the subsequent transfer, net of any related liabilities.

(iii) Whether a transfer to the trust is by or from any of the sources enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this section shall be ascertained without regard to the domicile of the trust's beneficiaries.

(e) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(a)(i) of this section:

(i) A trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(i) of this section if the trust is a testamentary trust and the testator of that testamentary trust was domiciled in this state at the time of the testator's death for purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code.

(ii) A trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(ii) of this section if the transfer is a qualifying transfer described in any of divisions (I)(3)(f)(i) to (vi) of this section, the trust is an irrevocable inter vivos trust, and at least one of the trust's qualifying beneficiaries is domiciled in this state for purposes of this chapter during all or some portion of the trust's current taxable year.

(f) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(e)(ii) of this section, a "qualifying transfer" is a transfer of assets, net of any related liabilities, directly or indirectly to a trust, if the transfer is described in any of the following:

(i) The transfer is made to a trust, created by the decedent before the decedent's death and while the decedent was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter, and, prior to the death of the decedent, the trust became irrevocable while the decedent was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter.

(ii) The transfer is made to a trust to which the decedent, prior to the decedent's death, had directly or indirectly transferred assets, net of any related liabilities, while the decedent was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter, and prior to the death of the decedent the trust became irrevocable while the decedent was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter.

(iii) The transfer is made on account of a contractual relationship existing directly or indirectly between the transferor and either the decedent or the estate of the decedent at any time prior to the date of the decedent's death, and the decedent was domiciled in this state at the time of death for purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code.

(iv) The transfer is made to a trust on account of a contractual relationship existing directly or indirectly between the transferor and another person who at the time of the decedent's death was domiciled in this state for purposes of this chapter.

(v) The transfer is made to a trust on account of the will of a testator who was domiciled in this state at the time of the testator's death for purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code.

(vi) The transfer is made to a trust created by or caused to be created by a court, and the trust was directly or indirectly created in connection with or as a result of the death of an individual who, for purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code, was domiciled in this state at the time of the individual's death.

(g) The tax commissioner may adopt rules to ascertain the part of a trust residing in this state.

(J) "Nonresident" means an individual or estate that is not a resident. An individual who is a resident for only part of a taxable year is a nonresident for the remainder of that taxable year.

(K) "Pass-through entity" has the same meaning as in section 5733.04 of the Revised Code.

(L) "Return" means the notifications and reports required to be filed pursuant to this chapter for the purpose of reporting the tax due and includes declarations of estimated tax when so required.

(M) "Taxable year" means the calendar year or the taxpayer's fiscal year ending during the calendar year, or fractional part thereof, upon which the adjusted gross income is calculated pursuant to this chapter.

(N) "Taxpayer" means any person subject to the tax imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code or any pass-through entity that makes the election under division (D) of section 5747.08 of the Revised Code.

(O) "Dependents" means dependents as defined in the Internal Revenue Code and as claimed in the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year or which the taxpayer would have been permitted to claim had the taxpayer filed a federal income tax return.

(P) "Principal county of employment" means, in the case of a nonresident, the county within the state in which a taxpayer performs services for an employer or, if those services are performed in more than one county, the county in which the major portion of the services are performed.

(Q) As used in sections 5747.50 to 5747.55 of the Revised Code:

(1) "Subdivision" means any county, municipal corporation, park district, or township.

(2) "Essential local government purposes" includes all functions that any subdivision is required by general law to exercise, including like functions that are exercised under a charter adopted pursuant to the Ohio Constitution.

(R) "Overpayment" means any amount already paid that exceeds the figure determined to be the correct amount of the tax.

(S) "Taxable income" or "Ohio taxable income" applies only to estates and trusts, and means federal taxable income, as defined and used in the Internal Revenue Code, adjusted as follows:

(1) Add interest or dividends, net of ordinary, necessary, and reasonable expenses not deducted in computing federal taxable income, on obligations or securities of any state or of any political subdivision or authority of any state, other than this state and its subdivisions and authorities, but only to the extent that such net amount is not otherwise includible in Ohio taxable income and is described in either division (S)(1)(a) or (b) of this section:

(a) The net amount is not attributable to the S portion of an electing small business trust and has not been distributed to beneficiaries for the taxable year;

(b) The net amount is attributable to the S portion of an electing small business trust for the taxable year.

(2) Add interest or dividends, net of ordinary, necessary, and reasonable expenses not deducted in computing federal taxable income, on obligations of any authority, commission, instrumentality, territory, or possession of the United States to the extent that the interest or dividends are exempt from federal income taxes but not from state income taxes, but only to the extent that such net amount is not otherwise includible in Ohio taxable income and is described in either division (S)(1)(a) or (b) of this section;

(3) Add the amount of personal exemption allowed to the estate pursuant to section 642(b) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(4) Deduct interest or dividends, net of related expenses deducted in computing federal taxable income, on obligations of the United States and its territories and possessions or of any authority, commission, or instrumentality of the United States to the extent that the interest or dividends are exempt from state taxes under the laws of the United States, but only to the extent that such amount is included in federal taxable income and is described in either division (S)(1)(a) or (b) of this section;

(5) Deduct the amount of wages and salaries, if any, not otherwise allowable as a deduction but that would have been allowable as a deduction in computing federal taxable income for the taxable year, had the targeted jobs credit allowed under sections 38, 51, and 52 of the Internal Revenue Code not been in effect, but only to the extent such amount relates either to income included in federal taxable income for the taxable year or to income of the S portion of an electing small business trust for the taxable year;

(6) Deduct any interest or interest equivalent, net of related expenses deducted in computing federal taxable income, on public obligations and purchase obligations, but only to the extent that such net amount relates either to income included in federal taxable income for the taxable year or to income of the S portion of an electing small business trust for the taxable year;

(7) Add any loss or deduct any gain resulting from sale, exchange, or other disposition of public obligations to the extent that such loss has been deducted or such gain has been included in computing either federal taxable income or income of the S portion of an electing small business trust for the taxable year;

(8) Except in the case of the final return of an estate, add any amount deducted by the taxpayer on both its Ohio estate tax return pursuant to section 5731.14 of the Revised Code, and on its federal income tax return in determining federal taxable income;

(9)(a) Deduct any amount included in federal taxable income solely because the amount represents a reimbursement or refund of expenses that in a previous year the decedent had deducted as an itemized deduction pursuant to section 63 of the Internal Revenue Code and applicable treasury regulations. The deduction otherwise allowed under division (S)(9)(a) of this section shall be reduced to the extent the reimbursement is attributable to an amount the taxpayer or decedent deducted under this section in any taxable year.

(b) Add any amount not otherwise included in Ohio taxable income for any taxable year to the extent that the amount is attributable to the recovery during the taxable year of any amount deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio taxable income in any taxable year, but only to the extent such amount has not been distributed to beneficiaries for the taxable year.

(10) Deduct any portion of the deduction described in section 1341(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, for repaying previously reported income received under a claim of right, that meets both of the following requirements:

(a) It is allowable for repayment of an item that was included in the taxpayer's taxable income or the decedent's adjusted gross income for a prior taxable year and did not qualify for a credit under division (A) or (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code for that year.

(b) It does not otherwise reduce the taxpayer's taxable income or the decedent's adjusted gross income for the current or any other taxable year.

(11) Add any amount claimed as a credit under section 5747.059 of the Revised Code to the extent that the amount satisfies either of the following:

(a) The amount was deducted or excluded from the computation of the taxpayer's federal taxable income as required to be reported for the taxpayer's taxable year under the Internal Revenue Code;

(b) The amount resulted in a reduction in the taxpayer's federal taxable income as required to be reported for any of the taxpayer's taxable years under the Internal Revenue Code.

(12) Deduct any amount, net of related expenses deducted in computing federal taxable income, that a trust is required to report as farm income on its federal income tax return, but only if the assets of the trust include at least ten acres of land satisfying the definition of "land devoted exclusively to agricultural use" under section 5713.30 of the Revised Code, regardless of whether the land is valued for tax purposes as such land under sections 5713.30 to 5713.38 of the Revised Code. If the trust is a pass-through entity investor, section 5747.231 of the Revised Code applies in ascertaining if the trust is eligible to claim the deduction provided by division (S)(12) of this section in connection with the pass-through entity's farm income.

Except for farm income attributable to the S portion of an electing small business trust, the deduction provided by division (S)(12) of this section is allowed only to the extent that the trust has not distributed such farm income. Division (S)(12) of this section applies only to taxable years of a trust beginning in 2002 or thereafter.

(13) Add the net amount of income described in section 641(c) of the Internal Revenue Code to the extent that amount is not included in federal taxable income.

(14) Add or deduct the amount the taxpayer would be required to add or deduct under division (A)(20) or (21) of this section if the taxpayer's Ohio taxable income were computed in the same manner as an individual's Ohio adjusted gross income is computed under this section. In the case of a trust, division (S)(14) of this section applies only to any of the trust's taxable years beginning in 2002 or thereafter.

(T) "School district income" and "school district income tax" have the same meanings as in section 5748.01 of the Revised Code.

(U) As used in divisions (A)(8), (A)(9), (S)(6), and (S)(7) of this section, "public obligations," "purchase obligations," and "interest or interest equivalent" have the same meanings as in section 5709.76 of the Revised Code.

(V) "Limited liability company" means any limited liability company formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code or under the laws of any other state.

(W) "Pass-through entity investor" means any person who, during any portion of a taxable year of a pass-through entity, is a partner, member, shareholder, or equity investor in that pass-through entity.

(X) "Banking day" has the same meaning as in section 1304.01 of the Revised Code.

(Y) "Month" means a calendar month.

(Z) "Quarter" means the first three months, the second three months, the third three months, or the last three months of the taxpayer's taxable year.

(AA)(1) "Eligible institution" means a state university or state institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, or a private, nonprofit college, university, or other post-secondary institution located in this state that possesses a certificate of authorization issued by the Ohio board of regents pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code or a certificate of registration issued by the state board of career colleges and schools under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code.

(2) "Qualified tuition and fees" means tuition and fees imposed by an eligible institution as a condition of enrollment or attendance, not exceeding two thousand five hundred dollars in each of the individual's first two years of post-secondary education. If the individual is a part-time student, "qualified tuition and fees" includes tuition and fees paid for the academic equivalent of the first two years of post-secondary education during a maximum of five taxable years, not exceeding a total of five thousand dollars. "Qualified tuition and fees" does not include:

(a) Expenses for any course or activity involving sports, games, or hobbies unless the course or activity is part of the individual's degree or diploma program;

(b) The cost of books, room and board, student activity fees, athletic fees, insurance expenses, or other expenses unrelated to the individual's academic course of instruction;

(c) Tuition, fees, or other expenses paid or reimbursed through an employer, scholarship, grant in aid, or other educational benefit program.

(BB)(1) "Modified business income" means the business income included in a trust's Ohio taxable income after such taxable income is first reduced by the qualifying trust amount, if any.

(2) "Qualifying trust amount" of a trust means capital gains and losses from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of equity or ownership interests in, or debt obligations of, a qualifying investee to the extent included in the trust's Ohio taxable income, but only if the following requirements are satisfied:

(a) The book value of the qualifying investee's physical assets in this state and everywhere, as of the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, is available to the trust.

(b) The requirements of section 5747.011 of the Revised Code are satisfied for the trust's taxable year in which the trust recognizes the gain or loss.

Any gain or loss that is not a qualifying trust amount is modified business income, qualifying investment income, or modified nonbusiness income, as the case may be.

(3) "Modified nonbusiness income" means a trust's Ohio taxable income other than modified business income, other than the qualifying trust amount, and other than qualifying investment income, as defined in section 5747.012 of the Revised Code, to the extent such qualifying investment income is not otherwise part of modified business income.

(4) "Modified Ohio taxable income" applies only to trusts, and means the sum of the amounts described in divisions (BB)(4)(a) to (c) of this section:

(a) The fraction, calculated under section 5747.013, and applying section 5747.231 of the Revised Code, multiplied by the sum of the following amounts:

(i) The trust's modified business income;

(ii) The trust's qualifying investment income, as defined in section 5747.012 of the Revised Code, but only to the extent the qualifying investment income does not otherwise constitute modified business income and does not otherwise constitute a qualifying trust amount.

(b) The qualifying trust amount multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the sum of the book value of the qualifying investee's physical assets in this state on the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the day on which the trust recognizes the qualifying trust amount, and the denominator of which is the sum of the book value of the qualifying investee's total physical assets everywhere on the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the day on which the trust recognizes the qualifying trust amount. If, for a taxable year, the trust recognizes a qualifying trust amount with respect to more than one qualifying investee, the amount described in division (BB)(4)(b) of this section shall equal the sum of the products so computed for each such qualifying investee.

(c)(i) With respect to a trust or portion of a trust that is a resident as ascertained in accordance with division (I)(3)(d) of this section, its modified nonbusiness income.

(ii) With respect to a trust or portion of a trust that is not a resident as ascertained in accordance with division (I)(3)(d) of this section, the amount of its modified nonbusiness income satisfying the descriptions in divisions (B)(2) to (5) of section 5747.20 of the Revised Code, except as otherwise provided in division (BB)(4)(c)(ii) of this section. With respect to a trust or portion of a trust that is not a resident as ascertained in accordance with division (I)(3)(d) of this section, the trust's portion of modified nonbusiness income recognized from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of a debt interest in or equity interest in a section 5747.212 entity, as defined in section 5747.212 of the Revised Code, without regard to division (A) of that section, shall not be allocated to this state in accordance with section 5747.20 of the Revised Code but shall be apportioned to this state in accordance with division (B) of section 5747.212 of the Revised Code without regard to division (A) of that section.

If the allocation and apportionment of a trust's income under divisions (BB)(4)(a) and (c) of this section do not fairly represent the modified Ohio taxable income of the trust in this state, the alternative methods described in division (C) of section 5747.21 of the Revised Code may be applied in the manner and to the same extent provided in that section.

(5)(a) Except as set forth in division (BB)(5)(b) of this section, "qualifying investee" means a person in which a trust has an equity or ownership interest, or a person or unit of government the debt obligations of either of which are owned by a trust. For the purposes of division (BB)(2)(a) of this section and for the purpose of computing the fraction described in division (BB)(4)(b) of this section, all of the following apply:

(i) If the qualifying investee is a member of a qualifying controlled group on the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, then "qualifying investee" includes all persons in the qualifying controlled group on such last day.

(ii) If the qualifying investee, or if the qualifying investee and any members of the qualifying controlled group of which the qualifying investee is a member on the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, separately or cumulatively own, directly or indirectly, on the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the qualifying trust amount, more than fifty per cent of the equity of a pass-through entity, then the qualifying investee and the other members are deemed to own the proportionate share of the pass-through entity's physical assets which the pass-through entity directly or indirectly owns on the last day of the pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year ending within or with the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the qualifying trust amount.

(iii) For the purposes of division (BB)(5)(a)(iii) of this section, "upper level pass-through entity" means a pass-through entity directly or indirectly owning any equity of another pass-through entity, and "lower level pass-through entity" means that other pass-through entity.

An upper level pass-through entity, whether or not it is also a qualifying investee, is deemed to own, on the last day of the upper level pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year, the proportionate share of the lower level pass-through entity's physical assets that the lower level pass-through entity directly or indirectly owns on the last day of the lower level pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year ending within or with the last day of the upper level pass-through entity's fiscal or calendar year. If the upper level pass-through entity directly and indirectly owns less than fifty per cent of the equity of the lower level pass-through entity on each day of the upper level pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year in which or with which ends the calendar or fiscal year of the lower level pass-through entity and if, based upon clear and convincing evidence, complete information about the location and cost of the physical assets of the lower pass-through entity is not available to the upper level pass-through entity, then solely for purposes of ascertaining if a gain or loss constitutes a qualifying trust amount, the upper level pass-through entity shall be deemed as owning no equity of the lower level pass-through entity for each day during the upper level pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year in which or with which ends the lower level pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year. Nothing in division (BB)(5)(a)(iii) of this section shall be construed to provide for any deduction or exclusion in computing any trust's Ohio taxable income.

(b) With respect to a trust that is not a resident for the taxable year and with respect to a part of a trust that is not a resident for the taxable year, "qualifying investee" for that taxable year does not include a C corporation if both of the following apply:

(i) During the taxable year the trust or part of the trust recognizes a gain or loss from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of equity or ownership interests in, or debt obligations of, the C corporation.

(ii) Such gain or loss constitutes nonbusiness income.

(6) "Available" means information is such that a person is able to learn of the information by the due date plus extensions, if any, for filing the return for the taxable year in which the trust recognizes the gain or loss.

(CC) "Qualifying controlled group" has the same meaning as in section 5733.04 of the Revised Code.

(DD) "Related member" has the same meaning as in section 5733.042 of the Revised Code.

(EE)(1) For the purposes of division (EE) of this section:

(a) "Qualifying person" means any person other than a qualifying corporation.

(b) "Qualifying corporation" means any person classified for federal income tax purposes as an association taxable as a corporation, except either of the following:

(i) A corporation that has made an election under subchapter S, chapter one, subtitle A, of the Internal Revenue Code for its taxable year ending within, or on the last day of, the investor's taxable year;

(ii) A subsidiary that is wholly owned by any corporation that has made an election under subchapter S, chapter one, subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code for its taxable year ending within, or on the last day of, the investor's taxable year.

(2) For the purposes of this chapter, unless expressly stated otherwise, no qualifying person indirectly owns any asset directly or indirectly owned by any qualifying corporation.

(FF) For purposes of this chapter and Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code:

(1) "Trust" does not include a qualified pre-income tax trust.

(2) A "qualified pre-income tax trust" is any pre-income tax trust that makes a qualifying pre-income tax trust election as described in division (FF)(3) of this section.

(3) A "qualifying pre-income tax trust election" is an election by a pre-income tax trust to subject to the tax imposed by section 5751.02 of the Revised Code the pre-income tax trust and all pass-through entities of which the trust owns or controls, directly, indirectly, or constructively through related interests, five per cent or more of the ownership or equity interests. The trustee shall notify the tax commissioner in writing of the election on or before April 15, 2006. The election, if timely made, shall be effective on and after January 1, 2006, and shall apply for all tax periods and tax years until revoked by the trustee of the trust.

(4) A "pre-income tax trust" is a trust that satisfies all of the following requirements:

(a) The document or instrument creating the trust was executed by the grantor before January 1, 1972;

(b) The trust became irrevocable upon the creation of the trust; and

(c) The grantor was domiciled in this state at the time the trust was created.

Sec. 5747.02.  (A) For the purpose of providing revenue for the support of schools and local government functions, to provide relief to property taxpayers, to provide revenue for the general revenue fund, and to meet the expenses of administering the tax levied by this chapter, there is hereby levied on every individual, trust, and estate residing in or earning or receiving income in this state, on every individual, trust, and estate earning or receiving lottery winnings, prizes, or awards pursuant to Chapter 3770. of the Revised Code, on every individual, trust, and estate earning or receiving winnings on casino gaming, and on every individual, trust, and estate otherwise having nexus with or in this state under the Constitution of the United States, an annual tax measured in the case of individuals by Ohio adjusted gross income less an exemption for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, and each dependent as provided in section 5747.025 of the Revised Code; measured in the case of trusts by modified Ohio taxable income under division (D) of this section; and measured in the case of estates by Ohio taxable income. The tax imposed by this section on the balance thus obtained is hereby levied as follows:

(1) For taxable years beginning in 2004:

(2) For taxable years beginning in 2005:

(3) For taxable years beginning in 2006:

(4) For taxable years beginning in 2007:

(5) For taxable years beginning in 2008, 2009, or 2010:

(6) For taxable years beginning in 2011 or thereafter:

In July of each year, beginning in 2010, the tax commissioner shall adjust the income amounts prescribed in this division by multiplying the percentage increase in the gross domestic product deflator computed that year under section 5747.025 of the Revised Code by each of the income amounts resulting from the adjustment under this division in the preceding year, adding the resulting product to the corresponding income amount resulting from the adjustment in the preceding year, and rounding the resulting sum to the nearest multiple of fifty dollars. The tax commissioner also shall recompute each of the tax dollar amounts to the extent necessary to reflect the adjustment of the income amounts. The rates of taxation shall not be adjusted.

The adjusted amounts apply to taxable years beginning in the calendar year in which the adjustments are made. The tax commissioner shall not make such adjustments in any year in which the amount resulting from the adjustment would be less than the amount resulting from the adjustment in the preceding year.

(B) If the director of budget and management makes a certification to the tax commissioner under division (B) of section 131.44 of the Revised Code, the amount of tax as determined under division (A) of this section shall be reduced by the percentage prescribed in that certification for taxable years beginning in the calendar year in which that certification is made.

(C) The levy of this tax on income does not prevent a municipal corporation, a joint economic development zone created under section 715.691, or a joint economic development district created under section 715.70 or 715.71 or sections 715.72 to 715.81 of the Revised Code from levying a tax on income.

(D) This division applies only to taxable years of a trust beginning in 2002 or thereafter.

(1) The tax imposed by this section on a trust shall be computed by multiplying the Ohio modified taxable income of the trust by the rates prescribed by division (A) of this section.

(2) A nonresident trust may claim a credit against the tax computed under division (D) of this section equal to the lesser of (1) the tax paid to another state or the District of Columbia on the nonresident trust's modified nonbusiness income, other than the portion of the nonresident trust's nonbusiness income that is qualifying investment income as defined in section 5747.012 of the Revised Code, or (2) the effective tax rate, based on modified Ohio taxable income, multiplied by the nonresident trust's modified nonbusiness income other than the portion of the nonresident trust's nonbusiness income that is qualifying investment income. The credit applies before any other applicable credits.

(3) The credits enumerated in divisions (A)(1) to (13) of section 5747.98 of the Revised Code do not apply to a trust subject to division (D) of this section. Any credits enumerated in other divisions of section 5747.98 of the Revised Code apply to a trust subject to division (D) of this section. To the extent that the trust distributes income for the taxable year for which a credit is available to the trust, the credit shall be shared by the trust and its beneficiaries. The tax commissioner and the trust shall be guided by applicable regulations of the United States treasury regarding the sharing of credits.

(E) For the purposes of this section, "trust" means any trust described in Subchapter J of Chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code, excluding trusts that are not irrevocable as defined in division (I)(3)(b) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code and that have no modified Ohio taxable income for the taxable year, charitable remainder trusts, qualified funeral trusts and preneed funeral contract trusts established pursuant to sections 4717.31 to 4717.38 of the Revised Code that are not qualified funeral trusts, endowment and perpetual care trusts, qualified settlement trusts and funds, designated settlement trusts and funds, and trusts exempted from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.

Sec. 5747.063.  (A)(1) If a person's winnings at a casino facility are an amount for which reporting to the internal revenue service of the amount is required by 26 U.S.C. 6041 or a subsequent, analogous section of the Internal Revenue Code, the casino operator shall deduct and withhold Ohio income tax from the person's winnings at a rate of six per cent of the amount won. A person's amount of winnings shall be determined each time the person exchanges amounts won in tokens, chips, casino credit, or other pre-paid representations of value for cash or a cash equivalent. The casino operator shall issue, to a person from whose winnings an amount has been deducted and withheld, a receipt for the amount deducted and withheld, and also shall obtain from the person additional information that will be necessary for the casino operator to prepare the returns required by this section.

(2) If a person's winnings at a casino facility require reporting to the internal revenue service under division (A)(1) of this section, the casino operator also shall require the person to state in writing, under penalty of falsification, whether the person is in default under a support order.

(B) Amounts deducted and withheld by a casino operator are held in trust for the benefit of the state.

(1) On or before the tenth banking day of each month, the casino operator shall file a return electronically with the tax commissioner identifying the persons from whose winnings amounts were deducted and withheld and the amount of each such deduction and withholding during the preceding calendar month. With the return, the casino operator shall remit electronically to the tax commissioner all the amounts deducted and withheld during the preceding month. And together with the return and remittance, the casino operator shall transmit electronically to the tax commissioner a copy of each receipt issued, and a copy of each statement made, under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section.

(2) Annually on or before the thirty-first day of January, a casino operator shall file an annual return electronically with the tax commissioner indicating the total amount deducted and withheld during the preceding calendar year. The casino operator shall remit electronically with the annual return any amount that was deducted and withheld and that was not previously remitted. If the identity of a person and the amount deducted and withheld with respect to that person were omitted on a monthly return, that information shall be indicated on the annual return. And if a copy of the receipt and statement pertaining to a person was not previously transmitted to the tax commissioner, the receipt and statement shall be transmitted to the tax commissioner electronically with the annual return.

(3)(a) A casino operator who fails to file a return and remit the amounts deducted and withheld is personally liable for the amount deducted and withheld and not remitted. The tax commissioner may impose a penalty up to one thousand dollars if a return is filed late, if amounts deducted and withheld are remitted late, if a return is not filed, or if amounts deducted and withheld are not remitted. Interest accrues on past due amounts deducted and withheld at the rate prescribed in section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner may collect past due amounts deducted and withheld and penalties and interest thereon by assessment under section 5747.13 of the Revised Code as if they were income taxes collected by an employer.

(b) If a casino operator sells the casino facility or otherwise quits the casino business, the amounts deducted and withheld and any penalties and interest thereon are immediately due and payable. The successor shall withhold an amount of the purchase money that is sufficient to cover the amounts deducted and withheld and penalties and interest thereon until the predecessor casino operator produces either a receipt from the tax commissioner showing that the amounts deducted and withheld and penalties and interest thereon have been paid or a certificate from the tax commissioner indicating that no amounts deducted and withheld or penalties and interest thereon are due. If the successor fails to withhold purchase money, the successor is personally liable for payment of the amounts deducted and withheld and penalties and interest thereon, up to the amount of the purchase money.

(C) Annually, on or before the thirty-first day of January, a casino operator shall issue an information return to each person with respect to whom an amount has been deducted and withheld during the preceding calendar year. The information return shall show the total amount deducted from the person's winnings by the casino operator during the preceding calendar year.

(D) Amounts deducted and withheld shall be treated as a credit against the tax imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code. The credit is refundable and shall be claimed in the order required under section 5747.98 of the Revised Code. Only the person for whom the amount is deducted and withheld may claim a credit for such amount.

(E) The failure of a casino operator to deduct and withhold the required amount from a person's winnings does not relieve the person from liability for the tax imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code with respect to those winnings. And compliance with this section does not relieve a casino operator or a person who has winnings at a casino facility from compliance with relevant provisions of federal tax laws.

(F) The tax commissioner shall prescribe the form of the receipt, statement, and returns required by this section.

Sec. 5747.20.  This section applies solely for the purposes of computing the credit allowed under division (A) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code and computing income taxable in this state under division (D) of section 5747.08 of the Revised Code.

All items of nonbusiness income or deduction shall be allocated in this state as follows:

(A) All items of nonbusiness income or deduction taken into account in the computation of adjusted gross income for the taxable year by a resident shall be allocated to this state.

(B) All items of nonbusiness income or deduction taken into account in the computation of adjusted gross income for the taxable year by a nonresident shall be allocated to this state as follows:

(1) All items of compensation paid to an individual for personal services performed in this state who was a nonresident at the time of payment and all items of deduction directly allocated thereto shall be allocated to this state.

(2) All gains or losses from the sale of real property, tangible personal property, or intangible property shall be allocated as follows:

(a) Capital gains or losses from the sale or other transfer of real property are allocable to this state if the property is located physically in this state.

(b) Capital gains or losses from the sale or other transfer of tangible personal property are allocable to this state if, at the time of such sale or other transfer, the property had its physical location in this state.

(c) Capital gains or losses from the sale or other transfer of intangible personal property are allocable to this state if the taxpayer's domicile was in this state at the time of such sale or other transfer.

(3) All rents and royalties of real or tangible personal property shall be allocated to this state as follows:

(a) Rents and royalties derived from real property are allocable to this state if the property is physically located in this state.

(b) Rents and royalties derived from tangible personal property are allocable to this state to the extent that such property is utilized in this state.

The extent of utilization of tangible personal property in a state is determined by multiplying the rents or royalties derived from such property by a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of days of physical location of the property in this state during the rental or royalty period in the taxable year and the denominator of which is the number of days of physical location of the property everywhere during all rental or royalty periods in the taxable year. If the physical location of the property during the rental or royalty period is unknown or unascertainable by the nonresident, tangible personal property is utilized in the state in which the property was located at the time the rental or royalty payor obtained possession.

(4) All patent and copyright royalties shall be allocated to this state to the extent the patent or copyright was utilized by the payor in this state.

A patent is utilized in a state to the extent that it is employed in production, fabrication, manufacturing, or other processing in the state, or to the extent that a patented product is produced in the state. If the basis of receipts from patent royalties does not permit allocation to states or if the accounting procedures do not reflect states of utilization, the patent is utilized in this state if the taxpayer's domicile was in this state at the time such royalties were paid or accrued.

A copyright is utilized in a state to the extent that printing or other publication originates in the state. If the basis of receipts from copyright royalties does not permit allocation to states or if the accounting procedures do not reflect states of utilization, the copyright is utilized in this state if the taxpayer's domicile was in this state at the time such royalties were paid or accrued.

(5)(a) All lottery prize awards paid by the state lottery commission pursuant to Chapter 3770. of the Revised Code shall be allocated to this state.

(b) All earnings, profit, income, and gain from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of lottery prize awards paid or to be paid to any person by the state lottery commission pursuant to Chapter 3770. of the Revised Code shall be allocated to this state.

(c) All earnings, profit, income, and gain from the direct or indirect ownership of lottery prize awards paid or to be paid to any person by the state lottery commission pursuant to Chapter 3770. of the Revised Code shall be allocated to this state.

(d) All earnings, profit, income, and gain from the direct or indirect interest in any right in or to any lottery prize awards paid or to be paid to any person by the state lottery commission pursuant to Chapter 3770. of the Revised Code shall be allocated to this state.

(6) Any item of income or deduction which has been taken into account in the computation of adjusted gross income for the taxable year by a nonresident and which is not otherwise specifically allocated or apportioned pursuant to sections 5747.20 to 5747.23 of the Revised Code, including, without limitation, interest, dividends and distributions, items of income taken into account under the provisions of sections 401 to 425 of the Internal Revenue Code, and benefit payments received by a beneficiary of a supplemental unemployment trust which is referred to in section 501(c)(17) of the Internal Revenue Code, shall not be allocated to this state unless the taxpayer's domicile was in this state at the time such income was paid or accrued.

(7) All casino gaming winnings paid by any person licensed by the Ohio casino control commission shall be allocated to the state.

(C) If an individual is a resident for part of the taxable year and a nonresident for the remainder of the taxable year, all items of nonbusiness income or deduction shall be allocated under division (A) of this section for the part of the taxable year that the individual is a resident and under division (B) of this section for the part of the taxable year that the individual is a nonresident.

Sec. 5747.98.  (A) To provide a uniform procedure for calculating the amount of tax due under section 5747.02 of the Revised Code, a taxpayer shall claim any credits to which the taxpayer is entitled in the following order:

(1) The retirement income credit under division (B) of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;

(2) The senior citizen credit under division (C) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;

(3) The lump sum distribution credit under division (D) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;

(4) The dependent care credit under section 5747.054 of the Revised Code;

(5) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (C) of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;

(6) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (D) of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;

(7) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (E) of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;

(8) The low-income credit under section 5747.056 of the Revised Code;

(9) The credit for displaced workers who pay for job training under section 5747.27 of the Revised Code;

(10) The campaign contribution credit under section 5747.29 of the Revised Code;

(11) The twenty-dollar personal exemption credit under section 5747.022 of the Revised Code;

(12) The joint filing credit under division (G) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;

(13) The nonresident credit under division (A) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;

(14) The credit for a resident's out-of-state income under division (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;

(15) The credit for employers that enter into agreements with child day-care centers under section 5747.34 of the Revised Code;

(16) The credit for employers that reimburse employee child care expenses under section 5747.36 of the Revised Code;

(17) The credit for adoption of a minor child under section 5747.37 of the Revised Code;

(18) The credit for purchases of lights and reflectors under section 5747.38 of the Revised Code;

(19) The job retention credit under division (B) of section 5747.058 of the Revised Code;

(20) The credit for selling alternative fuel under section 5747.77 of the Revised Code;

(21) The second credit for purchases of new manufacturing machinery and equipment and the credit for using Ohio coal under section 5747.31 of the Revised Code;

(22) The job training credit under section 5747.39 of the Revised Code;

(23) The enterprise zone credit under section 5709.66 of the Revised Code;

(24) The credit for the eligible costs associated with a voluntary action under section 5747.32 of the Revised Code;

(25) The credit for employers that establish on-site child day-care centers under section 5747.35 of the Revised Code;

(26) The ethanol plant investment credit under section 5747.75 of the Revised Code;

(27) The credit for purchases of qualifying grape production property under section 5747.28 of the Revised Code;

(28) The export sales credit under section 5747.057 of the Revised Code;

(29) The credit for research and development and technology transfer investors under section 5747.33 of the Revised Code;

(30) The enterprise zone credits under section 5709.65 of the Revised Code;

(31) The research and development credit under section 5747.331 of the Revised Code;

(32) The credit for rehabilitating a historic building under section 5747.76 of the Revised Code;

(33) The refundable credit for rehabilitating a historic building under section 5747.76 of the Revised Code;

(34) The refundable jobs creation credit under division (A) of section 5747.058 of the Revised Code;

(35) The refundable credit for taxes paid by a qualifying entity granted under section 5747.059 of the Revised Code;

(36) The refundable credits for taxes paid by a qualifying pass-through entity granted under division (J) of section 5747.08 of the Revised Code;

(37) The refundable credit for tax withheld under division (B)(1) of section 5747.062 of the Revised Code;

(38) The refundable credit for tax withheld under section 5747.063 of the Revised Code;

(39) The refundable credit under section 5747.80 of the Revised Code for losses on loans made to the Ohio venture capital program under sections 150.01 to 150.10 of the Revised Code;

(39)(40) The refundable motion picture production credit under section 5747.66 of the Revised Code.

(B) For any credit, except the refundable credits enumerated in this section and the credit granted under division (I) of section 5747.08 of the Revised Code, the amount of the credit for a taxable year shall not exceed the tax due after allowing for any other credit that precedes it in the order required under this section. Any excess amount of a particular credit may be carried forward if authorized under the section creating that credit. Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to allow a taxpayer to claim, directly or indirectly, a credit more than once for a taxable year.

Sec. 5753.01.  As used in Chapter 5753. of the Revised Code and for no other purpose under Title LVII of the Revised Code:

(A) "Casino facility" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) "Casino gaming" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code.

(C) "Casino operator" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code.

(D) "Gross casino revenue" means the total amount of money exchanged for the purchase of chips, tokens, tickets, electronic cards, or similar objects by casino patrons, less winnings paid to wagerers.

(E) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code.

(F) "Slot machine" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code.

(G) "Table game" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code.

(H) "Tax period" means one twenty-four-hour period with regard to which a casino operator is required to pay the tax levied by this chapter.

Sec. 5753.02.  For the purpose of funding the needs of cities, counties, public school districts, law enforcement, and the horse racing industry; funding efforts to alleviate problem gambling and substance abuse; defraying Ohio casino control commission operating costs; and defraying the costs of administering the tax, a tax is levied on the gross casino revenue received by a casino operator of a casino facility at the rate of thirty-three per cent of the casino operator's gross casino revenue at the casino facility. The tax is in addition to any other taxes or fees imposed under the Revised Code or other law and for which the casino operator is liable under Section 6(C)(2) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution.

Sec. 5753.03.  (A) For the purpose of receiving and distributing, and accounting for, revenue received from the tax levied by section 5753.02 of the Revised Code, the following funds are created in the state treasury:

(1) The casino tax revenue fund;

(2) The gross casino revenue county fund;

(3) The gross casino revenue county student fund;

(4) The gross casino revenue host city fund;

(5) The Ohio state racing commission fund;

(6) The Ohio law enforcement training fund;

(7) The problem casino gambling and addictions fund;

(8) The casino control commission fund;

(9) The casino tax administration fund.

(B) All moneys collected from the tax levied under this chapter shall be deposited into the casino tax revenue fund.

(C) From the casino tax revenue fund the director of budget and management shall transfer as needed to the tax refund fund amounts equal to the refunds certified by the tax commissioner under section 5753.06 of the Revised Code.

(D) After making any transfers required by division (C) of this section, but not later than the fifteenth day of the month following the end of each calendar quarter, the director of budget and management shall transfer amounts to each fund as follows:

(1) Fifty-one per cent to the gross casino revenue county fund to make payments as required by Section 6(C)(3)(a) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution;

(2) Thirty-four per cent to the gross casino revenue county student fund to make payments as required by Section 6(C)(3)(b) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution;

(3) Five per cent to the gross casino revenue host city fund for the benefit of the cities in which casino facilities are located;

(4) Three per cent to the Ohio state racing commission fund to support horse racing in this state at which the pari-mutuel system of wagering is conducted;

(5) Two per cent to the Ohio law enforcement training fund to support law enforcement functions in the state;

(6) Two per cent to the problem casino gambling and addictions fund to support efforts to alleviate problem gambling and substance abuse and related research in the state;

(7) Three per cent to the casino control commission fund to support the operations of the Ohio casino control commission and to defray the cost of administering the tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code.

Payments under divisions (D)(1), (2), and (3) of this section shall be made by the end of the month following the end of the quarterly period. The tax commissioner shall make the data available to the director of budget and management for this purpose.

Of the money credited to the Ohio law enforcement training fund, the director of budget and management shall distribute eighty-five per cent of the money to the Ohio peace officer training academy and fifteen per cent of the money to the division of criminal justice services.

(E) The director of budget and management shall transfer one per cent of the money credited to the casino control commission fund to the casino tax administration fund. The tax commissioner shall use the casino tax administration fund to defray the costs incurred in administering the tax levied by this chapter.

Sec. 5753.04.  Daily each day banks are open for business, not later than noon, a casino operator shall file a return electronically with the tax commissioner. The return shall be in the form required by the tax commissioner, and shall reflect the relevant tax period. The return shall include, but is not limited to, the amount of the casino operator's gross casino revenue for the tax period and the amount of tax due under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code for the tax period. The casino operator shall remit electronically with the return the tax due.

If the casino operator ceases to be a taxpayer at any time, the casino operator shall indicate the last date for which the casino operator was liable for the tax. The return shall include a space for this purpose.

Sec. 5753.05.  (A)(1) A casino operator who fails to file a return or to remit the tax due as required by section 5753.04 of the Revised Code shall pay a penalty not to exceed the greater of five hundred dollars or ten per cent of the tax due.

(2) If the tax commissioner finds additional tax to be due, the tax commissioner may impose an additional penalty of up to fifteen per cent of the additional tax found to be due. A delinquent payment of tax made as the result of a notice or an audit is subject to the additional penalty imposed by this division.

(3) If a casino operator fails to file a return electronically or to remit the tax electronically, the tax commissioner may impose an additional penalty of fifty dollars or ten per cent of the tax due as shown on the return, whichever is greater.

(B) If the tax due under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code is not timely paid, the casino operator shall pay interest at the rate per annum prescribed in section 5703.47 of the Revised Code beginning on the day the tax was due through the day the tax is paid or an assessment is issued, whichever occurs first.

(C) The tax commissioner shall collect any penalty or interest as if it were the tax levied by section 5753.02 of the Revised Code. Penalties and interest shall be treated as if they were revenue arising from the tax levied by section 5753.02 of the Revised Code.

(D) The tax commissioner may abate all or a portion of any penalty imposed under this section and may adopt rules governing abatements.

(E) If a casino operator fails to file a return or remit the tax due as required by section 5753.04 of the Revised Code within a period of one year after the due date for filing the return or remitting the tax, the Ohio casino control commission may suspend the casino operator's license.

Sec. 5753.06. (A) A casino operator may apply to the tax commissioner for refund of the amount of taxes under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code that were overpaid, paid illegally or erroneously, or paid on an illegal or erroneous assessment. The application shall be on a form prescribed by the tax commissioner. The casino operator shall provide the amount of the requested refund along with the claimed reasons for, and documentation to support, the issuance of a refund. The casino operator shall file the application with the tax commissioner within four years after the date the payment was made, unless the applicant has waived the time limitation under division (D) of section 5753.07 of the Revised Code. In the latter event, the four-year limitation is extended for the same period of time as the waiver.

(B) Upon the filing of a refund application, the tax commissioner shall determine the amount of refund to which the applicant is entitled. If the amount is not less than that claimed, the tax commissioner shall certify the amount to the director of budget and management and treasurer of state for payment from the tax refund fund. If the amount is less than that claimed, the tax commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.70 of the Revised Code.

(C) Interest on a refund applied for under this section, computed at the rate provided for in section 5703.47 of the Revised Code, shall be allowed from the later of the date the tax was due or the date payment of the tax was made. Except as provided in section 5753.07 of the Revised Code, the tax commissioner may, with the consent of the casino operator, provide for crediting against the tax due for a tax period, the amount of any refund due the casino operator for a preceding tax period.

(D) Refunds under this section are subject to offset under section 5753.061 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5753.061.  As used in this section, "debt to the state" means unpaid taxes that are due the state, unpaid workers' compensation premiums that are due, unpaid unemployment compensation contributions that are due, unpaid unemployment compensation payments in lieu of contributions that are due, unpaid fees payable to the state or to the clerk of courts under section 4505.06 of the Revised Code, incorrect medical assistance payments, or any unpaid charge, penalty, or interest arising from any of the foregoing. A debt to the state is not a "debt to the state" as used in this section unless the liability underlying the debt to the state has become incontestable because the time for appealing, reconsidering, reassessing, or otherwise questioning the liability has expired or the liability has been finally determined to be valid.

If a casino operator who is entitled to a refund under section 5753.06 of the Revised Code owes a debt to the state, the amount refundable may be applied in satisfaction of the debt to the state. If the amount refundable is less than the amount of the debt to the state, the amount refundable may be applied in partial satisfaction of the debt. If the amount refundable is greater than the amount of the debt, the amount refundable remaining after satisfaction of the debt shall be refunded to the casino operator.

Sec. 5753.07.  (A)(1) The tax commissioner may issue an assessment, based on any information in the tax commissioner's possession, against a casino operator who fails to pay the tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code or to file a return under section 5753.04 of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner shall give the casino operator written notice of the assessment under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the tax commissioner shall include instructions on how to petition for reassessment and on how to request a hearing with respect to the petition.

(2) Unless the casino operator, within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax commissioner, either personally or by certified mail, a written petition signed by the casino operator, or by the casino operator's authorized agent who has knowledge of the facts, the assessment becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due and payable from the casino operator to the treasurer of state. The petition shall indicate the casino operator's objections to the assessment. Additional objections may be raised in writing if they are received by the tax commissioner before the date shown on the final determination.

(3) If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, the tax commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.

(4) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the assessment, including penalties and accrued interest, remains unpaid, the tax commissioner may file a certified copy of the entry making the assessment final in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin county or in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas of the county in which the casino operator resides, the casino operator's casino facility is located, or the casino operator's principal place of business in this state is located. Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall enter a judgment for the state against the taxpayer assessed in the amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a loose-leaf book entitled, "special judgments for the gross casino revenue tax." The judgment has the same effect as other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment at the request of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution apply to sales made under the judgment.

(5) The portion of an assessment not paid within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued bears interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issued the assessment until the assessment is paid. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this section.

(B) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the casino operator who is liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of a jeopardy assessment, the tax commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (A)(4) of this section, and the clerk shall proceed as directed in that division. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served on the casino operator or the casino operator's authorized agent under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code within five days after the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the casino operator assessed files a petition for reassessment under division (A)(2) of this section and provides security in a form satisfactory to the tax commissioner that is in an amount sufficient to satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. If a petition for reassessment has been filed, and if satisfactory security has been provided, the tax commissioner shall proceed under division (A)(3) of this section. Full or partial payment of the assessment does not prejudice the tax commissioner's consideration of the petition for reassessment.

(C) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the treasurer of state all amounts the tax commissioner receives under this section, and the amounts forwarded shall be treated as if they were revenue arising from the tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code.

(D) Except as otherwise provided in this division, no assessment shall be issued against a casino operator for the tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code more than four years after the due date for filing the return for the tax period for which the tax was reported, or more than four years after the return for the tax period was filed, whichever is later. This division does not bar an assessment against a casino operator who fails to file a return as required by section 5753.04 of the Revised Code or who files a fraudulent return, or when the casino operator and the tax commissioner waive in writing the time limitation.

(E) If the tax commissioner possesses information that indicates that the amount of tax a casino operator is liable to pay under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code exceeds the amount the casino operator paid, the tax commissioner may audit a sample of the casino operator's gross casino revenue over a representative period of time to ascertain the amount of tax due, and may issue an assessment based on the audit. The tax commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement with the casino operator in selecting a representative sample. The tax commissioner may apply a sampling method only if the tax commissioner has prescribed the method by rule.

(F) If the whereabouts of a casino operator who is liable for the tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code are unknown to the tax commissioner, the tax commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code.

(G) If a casino operator fails to pay the tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code within a period of one year after the due date for remitting the tax, the Ohio casino control commission may suspend the casino operator's license.

Sec. 5753.08.  If a casino operator who is liable for the tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code sells the casino facility, disposes of the casino facility in any manner other than in the regular course of business, or quits the casino gaming business, any tax owed by that person becomes immediately due and payable, and the person shall pay the tax due, including any applicable penalties and interest. The person's successor shall withhold a sufficient amount of the purchase money to cover the amounts due and unpaid until the predecessor produces a receipt from the tax commissioner showing that the amounts due have been paid or a certificate indicating that no taxes are due. If the successor fails to withhold purchase money, the successor is personally liable, up to the purchase money amount, for amounts that were unpaid during the operation of the business by the predecessor.

Sec. 5753.09.  The tax commissioner shall administer and enforce this chapter. In addition to any other powers conferred upon the tax commissioner by law, the tax commissioner may:

(A) Prescribe all forms that are required to be filed under this chapter;

(B) Adopt rules that are necessary and proper to carry out this chapter; and

(C) Appoint professional, technical, and clerical employees as are necessary to carry out the tax commissioner's duties under this chapter.

Sec. 5753.10.  The tax commissioner may prescribe requirements for the keeping of records and pertinent documents, for the filing of copies of federal income tax returns and determinations, and for computations reconciling federal income tax returns with the return required by section 5753.04 of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner may require a casino operator, by rule or by notice served on the casino operator, to keep records and other documents that the tax commissioner considers necessary to show the extent to which the casino operator is subject to this chapter. The records and other documents shall be open to inspection by the tax commissioner during business hours, and shall be preserved for a period of four years unless the tax commissioner, in writing, consents to their destruction within that period, or by order served on the casino operator requires that they be kept longer. If the records are normally kept electronically by the casino operator, the casino operator shall provide the records to the tax commissioner electronically at the tax commissioner's request.

Any information required by the tax commissioner under this section is confidential under section 5703.21 of the Revised Code.

Section 2. That existing sections 101.70, 102.02, 102.03, 109.31, 109.572, 109.71, 109.77, 109.79, 121.41, 121.60, 1705.48, 2915.01, 2915.02, 2915.091, 2915.101, 3793.02, 4301.355, 4301.62, 4303.181, 4303.182, 4303.30, 5502.03, 5703.052, 5703.19, 5703.21, 5703.70, 5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.20, and 5747.98 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.

Section 3.  The first return filed under section 5753.04 of the Revised Code shall reflect the tax period consisting of or beginning on the day on which operations of the casino facility commence.

Section 4. The General Assembly, applying the principle stated in division (B) of section 1.52 of the Revised Code that amendments are to be harmonized if reasonably capable of simultaneous operation, finds that the following sections, presented in this act as composites of the sections as amended by the acts indicated, are the resulting versions of the sections in effect before the effective date of the sections as presented in this act:

Section 109.572 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.

Section 109.77 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.

Section 4301.62 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. Sub. H.B. 562 and Sub. S.B. 150 of the 127th General Assembly.