As Introduced

129th General Assembly
Regular Session
2011-2012
H. B. No. 386


Representative Blessing 



A BILL
To amend sections 111.15, 122.014, 2923.31, 1
3301.0714, 3769.089, 3770.02, 3770.03, 3770.05, 2
3770.21, 3772.01, 3772.04, 3772.07, 3772.091, 3
3772.10, 3772.13, 3772.16, 3772.17, 3772.28, 4
3772.99, 5503.02, 5751.01, 5753.01, and 5753.03, 5
to enact section 3770.22 of the Revised Code, to 6
amend Section 261.20.90 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of 7
the 129th General Assembly, to amend Section 3 of 8
Sub. H.B. 277 of the 129th General Assembly, and 9
to repeal Section 4 of Sub. H.B. 277 of the 129th 10
General Assembly to make changes to the law 11
regarding video lottery terminals, casino gaming, 12
and horse racing, to make an appropriation, and to 13
declare an emergency.14


BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:

       Section 1.  That sections 111.15, 122.014, 2923.31, 15
3301.0714, 3769.089, 3770.02, 3770.03, 3770.05, 3770.21, 3772.01, 16
3772.04, 3772.07, 3772.091, 3772.10, 3772.13, 3772.16, 3772.17, 17
3772.28, 3772.99, 5503.02, 5751.01, 5753.01, and 5753.03 be 18
amended and section 3770.22 of the Revised Code be enacted to read 19
as follows: 20

       Sec. 111.15.  (A) As used in this section:21

       (1) "Rule" includes any rule, regulation, bylaw, or standard 22
having a general and uniform operation adopted by an agency under 23
the authority of the laws governing the agency; any appendix to a 24
rule; and any internal management rule. "Rule" does not include 25
any guideline adopted pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the Revised 26
Code, any order respecting the duties of employees, any finding, 27
any determination of a question of law or fact in a matter 28
presented to an agency, or any rule promulgated pursuant to 29
Chapter 119., section 4141.14, division (C)(1) or (2) of section 30
5117.02, or section 5703.14 of the Revised Code. "Rule" includes 31
any amendment or rescission of a rule.32

       (2) "Agency" means any governmental entity of the state and 33
includes, but is not limited to, any board, department, division, 34
commission, bureau, society, council, institution, state college 35
or university, community college district, technical college 36
district, or state community college. "Agency" does not include 37
the general assembly, the controlling board, the adjutant 38
general's department, or any court.39

       (3) "Internal management rule" means any rule, regulation, 40
bylaw, or standard governing the day-to-day staff procedures and 41
operations within an agency.42

       (4) "Substantive revision" has the same meaning as in 43
division (J) of section 119.01 of the Revised Code.44

       (B)(1) Any rule, other than a rule of an emergency nature, 45
adopted by any agency pursuant to this section shall be effective 46
on the tenth day after the day on which the rule in final form and 47
in compliance with division (B)(3) of this section is filed as 48
follows:49

       (a) The rule shall be filed in electronic form with both the 50
secretary of state and the director of the legislative service 51
commission;52

       (b) The rule shall be filed in electronic form with the joint 53
committee on agency rule review. Division (B)(1)(b) of this 54
section does not apply to any rule to which division (D) of this 55
section does not apply.56

       An agency that adopts or amends a rule that is subject to 57
division (D) of this section shall assign a review date to the 58
rule that is not later than five years after its effective date. 59
If no review date is assigned to a rule, or if a review date 60
assigned to a rule exceeds the five-year maximum, the review date 61
for the rule is five years after its effective date. A rule with a 62
review date is subject to review under section 119.032 of the 63
Revised Code. This paragraph does not apply to a rule of a state 64
college or university, community college district, technical 65
college district, or state community college.66

       If all filings are not completed on the same day, the rule 67
shall be effective on the tenth day after the day on which the 68
latest filing is completed. If an agency in adopting a rule 69
designates an effective date that is later than the effective date 70
provided for by division (B)(1) of this section, the rule if filed 71
as required by such division shall become effective on the later 72
date designated by the agency.73

       Any rule that is required to be filed under division (B)(1) 74
of this section is also subject to division (D) of this section if 75
not exempted by division (D)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), or 76
(8) of this section.77

       If a rule incorporates a text or other material by reference, 78
the agency shall comply with sections 121.71 to 121.76 of the 79
Revised Code.80

       (2) A rule of an emergency nature necessary for the immediate 81
preservation of the public peace, health, or safety shall state 82
the reasons for the necessity. The emergency rule, in final form 83
and in compliance with division (B)(3) of this section, shall be 84
filed in electronic form with the secretary of state, the director 85
of the legislative service commission, and the joint committee on 86
agency rule review. The emergency rule is effective immediately 87
upon completion of the latest filing, except that if the agency in 88
adopting the emergency rule designates an effective date, or date 89
and time of day, that is later than the effective date and time 90
provided for by division (B)(2) of this section, the emergency 91
rule if filed as required by such division shall become effective 92
at the later date, or later date and time of day, designated by 93
the agency.94

       An emergency rule becomes invalid at the end of the ninetieth 95
day it is in effect. Prior to that date, the agency may file the 96
emergency rule as a nonemergency rule in compliance with division 97
(B)(1) of this section. The agency may not refile the emergency 98
rule in compliance with division (B)(2) of this section so that, 99
upon the emergency rule becoming invalid under such division, the 100
emergency rule will continue in effect without interruption for 101
another ninety-day period.102

       (3) An agency shall file a rule under division (B)(1) or (2) 103
of this section in compliance with the following standards and 104
procedures:105

       (a) The rule shall be numbered in accordance with the 106
numbering system devised by the director for the Ohio 107
administrative code.108

       (b) The rule shall be prepared and submitted in compliance 109
with the rules of the legislative service commission.110

       (c) The rule shall clearly state the date on which it is to 111
be effective and the date on which it will expire, if known.112

       (d) Each rule that amends or rescinds another rule shall 113
clearly refer to the rule that is amended or rescinded. Each 114
amendment shall fully restate the rule as amended.115

       If the director of the legislative service commission or the 116
director's designee gives an agency notice pursuant to section 117
103.05 of the Revised Code that a rule filed by the agency is not 118
in compliance with the rules of the legislative service 119
commission, the agency shall within thirty days after receipt of 120
the notice conform the rule to the rules of the commission as 121
directed in the notice.122

       (C) All rules filed pursuant to divisions (B)(1)(a) and (2) 123
of this section shall be recorded by the secretary of state and 124
the director under the title of the agency adopting the rule and 125
shall be numbered according to the numbering system devised by the 126
director. The secretary of state and the director shall preserve 127
the rules in an accessible manner. Each such rule shall be a 128
public record open to public inspection and may be transmitted to 129
any law publishing company that wishes to reproduce it.130

       (D) At least sixty-five days before a board, commission, 131
department, division, or bureau of the government of the state 132
files a rule under division (B)(1) of this section, it shall file 133
the full text of the proposed rule in electronic form with the 134
joint committee on agency rule review, and the proposed rule is 135
subject to legislative review and invalidation under division (I) 136
of section 119.03 of the Revised Code. If a state board, 137
commission, department, division, or bureau makes a substantive 138
revision in a proposed rule after it is filed with the joint 139
committee, the state board, commission, department, division, or 140
bureau shall promptly file the full text of the proposed rule in 141
its revised form in electronic form with the joint committee. The 142
latest version of a proposed rule as filed with the joint 143
committee supersedes each earlier version of the text of the same 144
proposed rule. Except as provided in division (F) of this section, 145
a state board, commission, department, division, or bureau shall 146
also file the rule summary and fiscal analysis prepared under 147
section 127.18 of the Revised Code in electronic form along with a 148
proposed rule, and along with a proposed rule in revised form, 149
that is filed under this division. If a proposed rule has an 150
adverse impact on businesses, the state board, commission, 151
department, division, or bureau also shall file the business 152
impact analysis, any recommendations received from the common 153
sense initiative office, and the associated memorandum of 154
response, if any, in electronic form along with the proposed rule, 155
or the proposed rule in revised form, that is filed under this 156
division.157

       As used in this division, "commission" includes the public 158
utilities commission when adopting rules under a federal or state 159
statute.160

       This division does not apply to any of the following:161

       (1) A proposed rule of an emergency nature;162

       (2) A rule proposed under section 1121.05, 1121.06, 1155.18, 163
1163.22, 1349.33, 1707.201, 1733.412, 4123.29, 4123.34, 4123.341, 164
4123.342, 4123.40, 4123.411, 4123.44, or 4123.442 of the Revised 165
Code;166

       (3) A rule proposed by an agency other than a board, 167
commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of 168
the state;169

       (4) A proposed internal management rule of a board, 170
commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of 171
the state;172

       (5) Any proposed rule that must be adopted verbatim by an 173
agency pursuant to federal law or rule, to become effective within 174
sixty days of adoption, in order to continue the operation of a 175
federally reimbursed program in this state, so long as the 176
proposed rule contains both of the following:177

       (a) A statement that it is proposed for the purpose of 178
complying with a federal law or rule;179

       (b) A citation to the federal law or rule that requires 180
verbatim compliance.181

       (6) An initial rule proposed by the director of health to 182
impose safety standards and quality-of-care standards with respect 183
to a health service specified in section 3702.11 of the Revised 184
Code, or an initial rule proposed by the director to impose 185
quality standards on a facility listed in division (A)(4) of 186
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code, if section 3702.12 of the 187
Revised Code requires that the rule be adopted under this section;188

       (7) A rule of the state lottery commission pertaining to 189
instant game rules as provided in division (A) of section 3770.03 190
of the Revised Code.191

       If a rule is exempt from legislative review under division 192
(D)(5) of this section, and if the federal law or rule pursuant to 193
which the rule was adopted expires, is repealed or rescinded, or 194
otherwise terminates, the rule is thereafter subject to 195
legislative review under division (D) of this section.196

       (E) Whenever a state board, commission, department, division, 197
or bureau files a proposed rule or a proposed rule in revised form 198
under division (D) of this section, it shall also file the full 199
text of the same proposed rule or proposed rule in revised form in 200
electronic form with the secretary of state and the director of 201
the legislative service commission. Except as provided in division 202
(F) of this section, a state board, commission, department, 203
division, or bureau shall file the rule summary and fiscal 204
analysis prepared under section 127.18 of the Revised Code in 205
electronic form along with a proposed rule or proposed rule in 206
revised form that is filed with the secretary of state or the 207
director of the legislative service commission.208

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, the 209
auditor of state or the auditor of state's designee is not 210
required to file a rule summary and fiscal analysis along with a 211
proposed rule, or proposed rule in revised form, that the auditor 212
of state proposes under section 117.12, 117.19, 117.38, or 117.43 213
of the Revised Code and files under division (D) or (E) of this 214
section. 215

       Sec. 122.014.  (A) As used in this section, "gaming 216
activities" means activities conducted in connection with or that 217
include any of the following:218

       (1) Casino gaming, as authorized and defined in Section 6(C) 219
of Article XV, Ohio Constitution;220

       (2) Casino gaming, as defined in division (D)(E) of section 221
3772.01 of the Revised Code; or222

       (3) The pari-mutuel system of wagering as authorized and 223
described in Chapter 3769. of the Revised Code.224

       (B) The department of development or any other entity that 225
administers any program or development project established under 226
Chapter 122., 166., or 184. of the Revised Code or in sections 227
149.311, 5709.87, or 5709.88 of the Revised Code shall not provide 228
any financial assistance, including loans, tax credits, and 229
grants, staffing assistance, technical support, or other 230
assistance to businesses conducting gaming activities or for 231
project sites on which gaming activities are or will be conducted.232

       Sec. 2923.31.  As used in sections 2923.31 to 2923.36 of the 233
Revised Code:234

       (A) "Beneficial interest" means any of the following:235

       (1) The interest of a person as a beneficiary under a trust 236
in which the trustee holds title to personal or real property;237

       (2) The interest of a person as a beneficiary under any other 238
trust arrangement under which any other person holds title to 239
personal or real property for the benefit of such person;240

       (3) The interest of a person under any other form of express 241
fiduciary arrangement under which any other person holds title to 242
personal or real property for the benefit of such person.243

       "Beneficial interest" does not include the interest of a 244
stockholder in a corporation or the interest of a partner in 245
either a general or limited partnership.246

       (B) "Costs of investigation and prosecution" and "costs of 247
investigation and litigation" mean all of the costs incurred by 248
the state or a county or municipal corporation under sections 249
2923.31 to 2923.36 of the Revised Code in the prosecution and 250
investigation of any criminal action or in the litigation and 251
investigation of any civil action, and includes, but is not 252
limited to, the costs of resources and personnel.253

       (C) "Enterprise" includes any individual, sole 254
proprietorship, partnership, limited partnership, corporation, 255
trust, union, government agency, or other legal entity, or any 256
organization, association, or group of persons associated in fact 257
although not a legal entity. "Enterprise" includes illicit as well 258
as licit enterprises.259

       (D) "Innocent person" includes any bona fide purchaser of 260
property that is allegedly involved in a violation of section 261
2923.32 of the Revised Code, including any person who establishes 262
a valid claim to or interest in the property in accordance with 263
division (E) of section 2981.04 of the Revised Code, and any 264
victim of an alleged violation of that section or of any 265
underlying offense involved in an alleged violation of that 266
section.267

       (E) "Pattern of corrupt activity" means two or more incidents 268
of corrupt activity, whether or not there has been a prior 269
conviction, that are related to the affairs of the same 270
enterprise, are not isolated, and are not so closely related to 271
each other and connected in time and place that they constitute a 272
single event.273

       At least one of the incidents forming the pattern shall occur 274
on or after January 1, 1986. Unless any incident was an aggravated 275
murder or murder, the last of the incidents forming the pattern 276
shall occur within six years after the commission of any prior 277
incident forming the pattern, excluding any period of imprisonment 278
served by any person engaging in the corrupt activity.279

       For the purposes of the criminal penalties that may be 280
imposed pursuant to section 2923.32 of the Revised Code, at least 281
one of the incidents forming the pattern shall constitute a felony 282
under the laws of this state in existence at the time it was 283
committed or, if committed in violation of the laws of the United 284
States or of any other state, shall constitute a felony under the 285
law of the United States or the other state and would be a 286
criminal offense under the law of this state if committed in this 287
state.288

       (F) "Pecuniary value" means money, a negotiable instrument, a 289
commercial interest, or anything of value, as defined in section 290
1.03 of the Revised Code, or any other property or service that 291
has a value in excess of one hundred dollars.292

       (G) "Person" means any person, as defined in section 1.59 of 293
the Revised Code, and any governmental officer, employee, or 294
entity.295

       (H) "Personal property" means any personal property, any 296
interest in personal property, or any right, including, but not 297
limited to, bank accounts, debts, corporate stocks, patents, or 298
copyrights. Personal property and any beneficial interest in 299
personal property are deemed to be located where the trustee of 300
the property, the personal property, or the instrument evidencing 301
the right is located.302

       (I) "Corrupt activity" means engaging in, attempting to 303
engage in, conspiring to engage in, or soliciting, coercing, or 304
intimidating another person to engage in any of the following:305

       (1) Conduct defined as "racketeering activity" under the 306
"Organized Crime Control Act of 1970," 84 Stat. 941, 18 U.S.C. 307
1961(1)(B), (1)(C), (1)(D), and (1)(E), as amended;308

       (2) Conduct constituting any of the following:309

       (a) A violation of section 1315.55, 1322.02, 2903.01, 310
2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2905.01, 2905.02, 311
2905.11, 2905.22, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 312
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2909.26, 2909.27, 2909.28, 2909.29, 313
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2911.31, 2913.05, 314
2913.06, 2921.02, 2921.03, 2921.04, 2921.11, 2921.12, 2921.32, 315
2921.41, 2921.42, 2921.43, 2923.12, or 2923.17; division 316
(F)(1)(a), (b), or (c) of section 1315.53; division (A)(1) or (2) 317
of section 1707.042; division (B), (C)(4), (D), (E), or (F) of 318
section 1707.44; division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2923.20; 319
division (E) of section 3772.99; division (J)(1) of section 320
4712.02; section 4719.02, 4719.05, or 4719.06; division (C), (D), 321
or (E) of section 4719.07; section 4719.08; or division (A) of 322
section 4719.09 of the Revised Code.323

       (b) Any violation of section 3769.11, 3769.15, 3769.16, or 324
3769.19 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 325
any violation of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code that occurs 326
on or after July 1, 1996, and that, had it occurred prior to that 327
date, would have been a violation of section 3769.11 of the 328
Revised Code as it existed prior to that date, or any violation of 329
section 2915.05 of the Revised Code that occurs on or after July 330
1, 1996, and that, had it occurred prior to that date, would have 331
been a violation of section 3769.15, 3769.16, or 3769.19 of the 332
Revised Code as it existed prior to that date.333

       (c) Any violation of section 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.31, 334
2913.02, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.34, 2913.42, 335
2913.47, 2913.51, 2915.03, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, or 2925.37 336
of the Revised Code, any violation of section 2925.11 of the 337
Revised Code that is a felony of the first, second, third, or 338
fourth degree and that occurs on or after July 1, 1996, any 339
violation of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code that occurred 340
prior to July 1, 1996, any violation of section 2915.02 of the 341
Revised Code that occurs on or after July 1, 1996, and that, had 342
it occurred prior to that date, would not have been a violation of 343
section 3769.11 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to that 344
date, any violation of section 2915.06 of the Revised Code as it 345
existed prior to July 1, 1996, or any violation of division (B) of 346
section 2915.05 of the Revised Code as it exists on and after July 347
1, 1996, when the proceeds of the violation, the payments made in 348
the violation, the amount of a claim for payment or for any other 349
benefit that is false or deceptive and that is involved in the 350
violation, or the value of the contraband or other property 351
illegally possessed, sold, or purchased in the violation exceeds 352
one thousand dollars, or any combination of violations described 353
in division (I)(2)(c) of this section when the total proceeds of 354
the combination of violations, payments made in the combination of 355
violations, amount of the claims for payment or for other benefits 356
that is false or deceptive and that is involved in the combination 357
of violations, or value of the contraband or other property 358
illegally possessed, sold, or purchased in the combination of 359
violations exceeds one thousand dollars;360

       (d) Any violation of section 5743.112 of the Revised Code 361
when the amount of unpaid tax exceeds one hundred dollars;362

       (e) Any violation or combination of violations of section 363
2907.32 of the Revised Code involving any material or performance 364
containing a display of bestiality or of sexual conduct, as 365
defined in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code, that is explicit 366
and depicted with clearly visible penetration of the genitals or 367
clearly visible penetration by the penis of any orifice when the 368
total proceeds of the violation or combination of violations, the 369
payments made in the violation or combination of violations, or 370
the value of the contraband or other property illegally possessed, 371
sold, or purchased in the violation or combination of violations 372
exceeds one thousand dollars;373

       (f) Any combination of violations described in division 374
(I)(2)(c) of this section and violations of section 2907.32 of the 375
Revised Code involving any material or performance containing a 376
display of bestiality or of sexual conduct, as defined in section 377
2907.01 of the Revised Code, that is explicit and depicted with 378
clearly visible penetration of the genitals or clearly visible 379
penetration by the penis of any orifice when the total proceeds of 380
the combination of violations, payments made in the combination of 381
violations, amount of the claims for payment or for other benefits 382
that is false or deceptive and that is involved in the combination 383
of violations, or value of the contraband or other property 384
illegally possessed, sold, or purchased in the combination of 385
violations exceeds one thousand dollars;386

       (g) Any violation of section 2905.32 of the Revised Code to 387
the extent the violation is not based solely on the same conduct 388
that constitutes corrupt activity pursuant to division (I)(2)(c) 389
of this section due to the conduct being in violation of section 390
2907.21 of the Revised Code.391

       (3) Conduct constituting a violation of any law of any state 392
other than this state that is substantially similar to the conduct 393
described in division (I)(2) of this section, provided the 394
defendant was convicted of the conduct in a criminal proceeding in 395
the other state;396

       (4) Animal or ecological terrorism;397

       (5)(a) Conduct constituting any of the following:398

       (i) Organized retail theft;399

       (ii) Conduct that constitutes one or more violations of any 400
law of any state other than this state, that is substantially 401
similar to organized retail theft, and that if committed in this 402
state would be organized retail theft, if the defendant was 403
convicted of or pleaded guilty to the conduct in a criminal 404
proceeding in the other state.405

       (b) By enacting division (I)(5)(a) of this section, it is the 406
intent of the general assembly to add organized retail theft and 407
the conduct described in division (I)(5)(a)(ii) of this section as 408
conduct constituting corrupt activity. The enactment of division 409
(I)(5)(a) of this section and the addition by division (I)(5)(a) 410
of this section of organized retail theft and the conduct 411
described in division (I)(5)(a)(ii) of this section as conduct 412
constituting corrupt activity does not limit or preclude, and 413
shall not be construed as limiting or precluding, any prosecution 414
for a violation of section 2923.32 of the Revised Code that is 415
based on one or more violations of section 2913.02 or 2913.51 of 416
the Revised Code, one or more similar offenses under the laws of 417
this state or any other state, or any combination of any of those 418
violations or similar offenses, even though the conduct 419
constituting the basis for those violations or offenses could be 420
construed as also constituting organized retail theft or conduct 421
of the type described in division (I)(5)(a)(ii) of this section.422

       (J) "Real property" means any real property or any interest 423
in real property, including, but not limited to, any lease of, or 424
mortgage upon, real property. Real property and any beneficial 425
interest in it is deemed to be located where the real property is 426
located.427

       (K) "Trustee" means any of the following:428

       (1) Any person acting as trustee under a trust in which the 429
trustee holds title to personal or real property;430

       (2) Any person who holds title to personal or real property 431
for which any other person has a beneficial interest;432

       (3) Any successor trustee.433

       "Trustee" does not include an assignee or trustee for an 434
insolvent debtor or an executor, administrator, administrator with 435
the will annexed, testamentary trustee, guardian, or committee, 436
appointed by, under the control of, or accountable to a court.437

       (L) "Unlawful debt" means any money or other thing of value 438
constituting principal or interest of a debt that is legally 439
unenforceable in this state in whole or in part because the debt 440
was incurred or contracted in violation of any federal or state 441
law relating to the business of gambling activity or relating to 442
the business of lending money at an usurious rate unless the 443
creditor proves, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the 444
usurious rate was not intentionally set and that it resulted from 445
a good faith error by the creditor, notwithstanding the 446
maintenance of procedures that were adopted by the creditor to 447
avoid an error of that nature.448

       (M) "Animal activity" means any activity that involves the 449
use of animals or animal parts, including, but not limited to, 450
hunting, fishing, trapping, traveling, camping, the production, 451
preparation, or processing of food or food products, clothing or 452
garment manufacturing, medical research, other research, 453
entertainment, recreation, agriculture, biotechnology, or service 454
activity that involves the use of animals or animal parts.455

        (N) "Animal facility" means a vehicle, building, structure, 456
nature preserve, or other premises in which an animal is lawfully 457
kept, handled, housed, exhibited, bred, or offered for sale, 458
including, but not limited to, a zoo, rodeo, circus, amusement 459
park, hunting preserve, or premises in which a horse or dog event 460
is held.461

        (O) "Animal or ecological terrorism" means the commission of 462
any felony that involves causing or creating a substantial risk of 463
physical harm to any property of another, the use of a deadly 464
weapon or dangerous ordnance, or purposely, knowingly, or 465
recklessly causing serious physical harm to property and that 466
involves an intent to obstruct, impede, or deter any person from 467
participating in a lawful animal activity, from mining, foresting, 468
harvesting, gathering, or processing natural resources, or from 469
being lawfully present in or on an animal facility or research 470
facility.471

       (P) "Research facility" means a place, laboratory, 472
institution, medical care facility, government facility, or public 473
or private educational institution in which a scientific test, 474
experiment, or investigation involving the use of animals or other 475
living organisms is lawfully carried out, conducted, or attempted.476

       (Q) "Organized retail theft" means the theft of retail 477
property with a retail value of one thousand dollars or more from 478
one or more retail establishments with the intent to sell, 479
deliver, or transfer that property to a retail property fence.480

       (R) "Retail property" means any tangible personal property 481
displayed, held, stored, or offered for sale in or by a retail 482
establishment.483

       (S) "Retail property fence" means a person who possesses, 484
procures, receives, or conceals retail property that was 485
represented to the person as being stolen or that the person knows 486
or believes to be stolen.487

       (T) "Retail value" means the full retail value of the retail 488
property. In determining whether the retail value of retail 489
property equals or exceeds one thousand dollars, the value of all 490
retail property stolen from the retail establishment or retail 491
establishments by the same person or persons within any 492
one-hundred-eighty-day period shall be aggregated.493

       Sec. 3301.0714.  (A) The state board of education shall adopt 494
rules for a statewide education management information system. The 495
rules shall require the state board to establish guidelines for 496
the establishment and maintenance of the system in accordance with 497
this section and the rules adopted under this section. The 498
guidelines shall include:499

       (1) Standards identifying and defining the types of data in 500
the system in accordance with divisions (B) and (C) of this 501
section;502

       (2) Procedures for annually collecting and reporting the data 503
to the state board in accordance with division (D) of this 504
section;505

       (3) Procedures for annually compiling the data in accordance 506
with division (G) of this section;507

       (4) Procedures for annually reporting the data to the public 508
in accordance with division (H) of this section.509

       (B) The guidelines adopted under this section shall require 510
the data maintained in the education management information system 511
to include at least the following:512

       (1) Student participation and performance data, for each 513
grade in each school district as a whole and for each grade in 514
each school building in each school district, that includes:515

       (a) The numbers of students receiving each category of 516
instructional service offered by the school district, such as 517
regular education instruction, vocational education instruction, 518
specialized instruction programs or enrichment instruction that is 519
part of the educational curriculum, instruction for gifted 520
students, instruction for students with disabilities, and remedial 521
instruction. The guidelines shall require instructional services 522
under this division to be divided into discrete categories if an 523
instructional service is limited to a specific subject, a specific 524
type of student, or both, such as regular instructional services 525
in mathematics, remedial reading instructional services, 526
instructional services specifically for students gifted in 527
mathematics or some other subject area, or instructional services 528
for students with a specific type of disability. The categories of 529
instructional services required by the guidelines under this 530
division shall be the same as the categories of instructional 531
services used in determining cost units pursuant to division 532
(C)(3) of this section.533

       (b) The numbers of students receiving support or 534
extracurricular services for each of the support services or 535
extracurricular programs offered by the school district, such as 536
counseling services, health services, and extracurricular sports 537
and fine arts programs. The categories of services required by the 538
guidelines under this division shall be the same as the categories 539
of services used in determining cost units pursuant to division 540
(C)(4)(a) of this section.541

       (c) Average student grades in each subject in grades nine 542
through twelve;543

       (d) Academic achievement levels as assessed under sections 544
3301.0710, 3301.0711, and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code;545

       (e) The number of students designated as having a disabling 546
condition pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 3301.0711 of the 547
Revised Code;548

       (f) The numbers of students reported to the state board 549
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 3301.0711 of the Revised 550
Code;551

       (g) Attendance rates and the average daily attendance for the 552
year. For purposes of this division, a student shall be counted as 553
present for any field trip that is approved by the school 554
administration.555

       (h) Expulsion rates;556

       (i) Suspension rates;557

       (j) Dropout rates;558

       (k) Rates of retention in grade;559

       (l) For pupils in grades nine through twelve, the average 560
number of carnegie units, as calculated in accordance with state 561
board of education rules;562

       (m) Graduation rates, to be calculated in a manner specified 563
by the department of education that reflects the rate at which 564
students who were in the ninth grade three years prior to the 565
current year complete school and that is consistent with 566
nationally accepted reporting requirements;567

       (n) Results of diagnostic assessments administered to 568
kindergarten students as required under section 3301.0715 of the 569
Revised Code to permit a comparison of the academic readiness of 570
kindergarten students. However, no district shall be required to 571
report to the department the results of any diagnostic assessment 572
administered to a kindergarten student if the parent of that 573
student requests the district not to report those results.574

       (2) Personnel and classroom enrollment data for each school 575
district, including:576

       (a) The total numbers of licensed employees and nonlicensed 577
employees and the numbers of full-time equivalent licensed 578
employees and nonlicensed employees providing each category of 579
instructional service, instructional support service, and 580
administrative support service used pursuant to division (C)(3) of 581
this section. The guidelines adopted under this section shall 582
require these categories of data to be maintained for the school 583
district as a whole and, wherever applicable, for each grade in 584
the school district as a whole, for each school building as a 585
whole, and for each grade in each school building.586

       (b) The total number of employees and the number of full-time 587
equivalent employees providing each category of service used 588
pursuant to divisions (C)(4)(a) and (b) of this section, and the 589
total numbers of licensed employees and nonlicensed employees and 590
the numbers of full-time equivalent licensed employees and 591
nonlicensed employees providing each category used pursuant to 592
division (C)(4)(c) of this section. The guidelines adopted under 593
this section shall require these categories of data to be 594
maintained for the school district as a whole and, wherever 595
applicable, for each grade in the school district as a whole, for 596
each school building as a whole, and for each grade in each school 597
building.598

       (c) The total number of regular classroom teachers teaching 599
classes of regular education and the average number of pupils 600
enrolled in each such class, in each of grades kindergarten 601
through five in the district as a whole and in each school 602
building in the school district.603

       (d) The number of lead teachers employed by each school 604
district and each school building.605

       (3)(a) Student demographic data for each school district, 606
including information regarding the gender ratio of the school 607
district's pupils, the racial make-up of the school district's 608
pupils, the number of limited English proficient students in the 609
district, and an appropriate measure of the number of the school 610
district's pupils who reside in economically disadvantaged 611
households. The demographic data shall be collected in a manner to 612
allow correlation with data collected under division (B)(1) of 613
this section. Categories for data collected pursuant to division 614
(B)(3) of this section shall conform, where appropriate, to 615
standard practices of agencies of the federal government.616

       (b) With respect to each student entering kindergarten, 617
whether the student previously participated in a public preschool 618
program, a private preschool program, or a head start program, and 619
the number of years the student participated in each of these 620
programs.621

       (4) Any data required to be collected pursuant to federal 622
law.623

       (C) The education management information system shall include 624
cost accounting data for each district as a whole and for each 625
school building in each school district. The guidelines adopted 626
under this section shall require the cost data for each school 627
district to be maintained in a system of mutually exclusive cost 628
units and shall require all of the costs of each school district 629
to be divided among the cost units. The guidelines shall require 630
the system of mutually exclusive cost units to include at least 631
the following:632

       (1) Administrative costs for the school district as a whole. 633
The guidelines shall require the cost units under this division 634
(C)(1) to be designed so that each of them may be compiled and 635
reported in terms of average expenditure per pupil in formula ADM 636
in the school district, as determined pursuant to section 3317.03 637
of the Revised Code.638

       (2) Administrative costs for each school building in the 639
school district. The guidelines shall require the cost units under 640
this division (C)(2) to be designed so that each of them may be 641
compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per 642
full-time equivalent pupil receiving instructional or support 643
services in each building.644

       (3) Instructional services costs for each category of 645
instructional service provided directly to students and required 646
by guidelines adopted pursuant to division (B)(1)(a) of this 647
section. The guidelines shall require the cost units under 648
division (C)(3) of this section to be designed so that each of 649
them may be compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure 650
per pupil receiving the service in the school district as a whole 651
and average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in each 652
building in the school district and in terms of a total cost for 653
each category of service and, as a breakdown of the total cost, a 654
cost for each of the following components:655

       (a) The cost of each instructional services category required 656
by guidelines adopted under division (B)(1)(a) of this section 657
that is provided directly to students by a classroom teacher;658

       (b) The cost of the instructional support services, such as 659
services provided by a speech-language pathologist, classroom 660
aide, multimedia aide, or librarian, provided directly to students 661
in conjunction with each instructional services category;662

       (c) The cost of the administrative support services related 663
to each instructional services category, such as the cost of 664
personnel that develop the curriculum for the instructional 665
services category and the cost of personnel supervising or 666
coordinating the delivery of the instructional services category.667

       (4) Support or extracurricular services costs for each 668
category of service directly provided to students and required by 669
guidelines adopted pursuant to division (B)(1)(b) of this section. 670
The guidelines shall require the cost units under division (C)(4) 671
of this section to be designed so that each of them may be 672
compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per pupil 673
receiving the service in the school district as a whole and 674
average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in each 675
building in the school district and in terms of a total cost for 676
each category of service and, as a breakdown of the total cost, a 677
cost for each of the following components:678

       (a) The cost of each support or extracurricular services 679
category required by guidelines adopted under division (B)(1)(b) 680
of this section that is provided directly to students by a 681
licensed employee, such as services provided by a guidance 682
counselor or any services provided by a licensed employee under a 683
supplemental contract;684

       (b) The cost of each such services category provided directly 685
to students by a nonlicensed employee, such as janitorial 686
services, cafeteria services, or services of a sports trainer;687

       (c) The cost of the administrative services related to each 688
services category in division (C)(4)(a) or (b) of this section, 689
such as the cost of any licensed or nonlicensed employees that 690
develop, supervise, coordinate, or otherwise are involved in 691
administering or aiding the delivery of each services category.692

       (D)(1) The guidelines adopted under this section shall 693
require school districts to collect information about individual 694
students, staff members, or both in connection with any data 695
required by division (B) or (C) of this section or other reporting 696
requirements established in the Revised Code. The guidelines may 697
also require school districts to report information about 698
individual staff members in connection with any data required by 699
division (B) or (C) of this section or other reporting 700
requirements established in the Revised Code. The guidelines shall 701
not authorize school districts to request social security numbers 702
of individual students. The guidelines shall prohibit the 703
reporting under this section of a student's name, address, and 704
social security number to the state board of education or the 705
department of education. The guidelines shall also prohibit the 706
reporting under this section of any personally identifiable 707
information about any student, except for the purpose of assigning 708
the data verification code required by division (D)(2) of this 709
section, to any other person unless such person is employed by the 710
school district or the information technology center operated 711
under section 3301.075 of the Revised Code and is authorized by 712
the district or technology center to have access to such 713
information or is employed by an entity with which the department 714
contracts for the scoring of assessments administered under 715
section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code. The guidelines may require 716
school districts to provide the social security numbers of 717
individual staff members and the county of residence for a 718
student. Nothing in this section prohibits the state board of 719
education or department of education from providing a student's 720
county of residence to the department of taxation to facilitate 721
the distribution of tax revenue.722

       (2) The guidelines shall provide for each school district or 723
community school to assign a data verification code that is unique 724
on a statewide basis over time to each student whose initial Ohio 725
enrollment is in that district or school and to report all 726
required individual student data for that student utilizing such 727
code. The guidelines shall also provide for assigning data 728
verification codes to all students enrolled in districts or 729
community schools on the effective date of the guidelines 730
established under this section.731

       Individual student data shall be reported to the department 732
through the information technology centers utilizing the code but, 733
except as provided in sections 3310.11, 3310.42, 3310.63,734
3313.978, 3310.63, and 3317.20 of the Revised Code, at no time 735
shall the state board or the department have access to information 736
that would enable any data verification code to be matched to 737
personally identifiable student data.738

       Each school district shall ensure that the data verification 739
code is included in the student's records reported to any 740
subsequent school district, community school, or state institution 741
of higher education, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised 742
Code, in which the student enrolls. Any such subsequent district 743
or school shall utilize the same identifier in its reporting of 744
data under this section.745

       The director of health shall request and receive, pursuant to 746
sections 3301.0723 and 3701.62 of the Revised Code, a data 747
verification code for a child who is receiving services under 748
division (A)(2) of section 3701.61 of the Revised Code. 749

       (E) The guidelines adopted under this section may require 750
school districts to collect and report data, information, or 751
reports other than that described in divisions (A), (B), and (C) 752
of this section for the purpose of complying with other reporting 753
requirements established in the Revised Code. The other data, 754
information, or reports may be maintained in the education 755
management information system but are not required to be compiled 756
as part of the profile formats required under division (G) of this 757
section or the annual statewide report required under division (H) 758
of this section.759

       (F) Beginning with the school year that begins July 1, 1991, 760
the board of education of each school district shall annually 761
collect and report to the state board, in accordance with the 762
guidelines established by the board, the data required pursuant to 763
this section. A school district may collect and report these data 764
notwithstanding section 2151.357 or 3319.321 of the Revised Code.765

       (G) The state board shall, in accordance with the procedures 766
it adopts, annually compile the data reported by each school 767
district pursuant to division (D) of this section. The state board 768
shall design formats for profiling each school district as a whole 769
and each school building within each district and shall compile 770
the data in accordance with these formats. These profile formats 771
shall:772

       (1) Include all of the data gathered under this section in a 773
manner that facilitates comparison among school districts and 774
among school buildings within each school district;775

       (2) Present the data on academic achievement levels as 776
assessed by the testing of student achievement maintained pursuant 777
to division (B)(1)(d) of this section.778

       (H)(1) The state board shall, in accordance with the 779
procedures it adopts, annually prepare a statewide report for all 780
school districts and the general public that includes the profile 781
of each of the school districts developed pursuant to division (G) 782
of this section. Copies of the report shall be sent to each school 783
district.784

       (2) The state board shall, in accordance with the procedures 785
it adopts, annually prepare an individual report for each school 786
district and the general public that includes the profiles of each 787
of the school buildings in that school district developed pursuant 788
to division (G) of this section. Copies of the report shall be 789
sent to the superintendent of the district and to each member of 790
the district board of education.791

       (3) Copies of the reports received from the state board under 792
divisions (H)(1) and (2) of this section shall be made available 793
to the general public at each school district's offices. Each 794
district board of education shall make copies of each report 795
available to any person upon request and payment of a reasonable 796
fee for the cost of reproducing the report. The board shall 797
annually publish in a newspaper of general circulation in the 798
school district, at least twice during the two weeks prior to the 799
week in which the reports will first be available, a notice 800
containing the address where the reports are available and the 801
date on which the reports will be available.802

       (I) Any data that is collected or maintained pursuant to this 803
section and that identifies an individual pupil is not a public 804
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.805

       (J) As used in this section:806

       (1) "School district" means any city, local, exempted 807
village, or joint vocational school district and, in accordance 808
with section 3314.17 of the Revised Code, any community school. As 809
used in division (L) of this section, "school district" also 810
includes any educational service center or other educational 811
entity required to submit data using the system established under 812
this section.813

       (2) "Cost" means any expenditure for operating expenses made 814
by a school district excluding any expenditures for debt 815
retirement except for payments made to any commercial lending 816
institution for any loan approved pursuant to section 3313.483 of 817
the Revised Code.818

       (K) Any person who removes data from the information system 819
established under this section for the purpose of releasing it to 820
any person not entitled under law to have access to such 821
information is subject to section 2913.42 of the Revised Code 822
prohibiting tampering with data.823

       (L)(1) In accordance with division (L)(2) of this section and 824
the rules adopted under division (L)(10) of this section, the 825
department of education may sanction any school district that 826
reports incomplete or inaccurate data, reports data that does not 827
conform to data requirements and descriptions published by the 828
department, fails to report data in a timely manner, or otherwise 829
does not make a good faith effort to report data as required by 830
this section.831

       (2) If the department decides to sanction a school district 832
under this division, the department shall take the following 833
sequential actions:834

       (a) Notify the district in writing that the department has 835
determined that data has not been reported as required under this 836
section and require the district to review its data submission and 837
submit corrected data by a deadline established by the department. 838
The department also may require the district to develop a 839
corrective action plan, which shall include provisions for the 840
district to provide mandatory staff training on data reporting 841
procedures.842

       (b) Withhold up to ten per cent of the total amount of state 843
funds due to the district for the current fiscal year and, if not 844
previously required under division (L)(2)(a) of this section, 845
require the district to develop a corrective action plan in 846
accordance with that division;847

       (c) Withhold an additional amount of up to twenty per cent of 848
the total amount of state funds due to the district for the 849
current fiscal year;850

       (d) Direct department staff or an outside entity to 851
investigate the district's data reporting practices and make 852
recommendations for subsequent actions. The recommendations may 853
include one or more of the following actions:854

       (i) Arrange for an audit of the district's data reporting 855
practices by department staff or an outside entity;856

       (ii) Conduct a site visit and evaluation of the district;857

       (iii) Withhold an additional amount of up to thirty per cent 858
of the total amount of state funds due to the district for the 859
current fiscal year;860

       (iv) Continue monitoring the district's data reporting;861

       (v) Assign department staff to supervise the district's data 862
management system;863

       (vi) Conduct an investigation to determine whether to suspend 864
or revoke the license of any district employee in accordance with 865
division (N) of this section;866

       (vii) If the district is issued a report card under section 867
3302.03 of the Revised Code, indicate on the report card that the 868
district has been sanctioned for failing to report data as 869
required by this section;870

       (viii) If the district is issued a report card under section 871
3302.03 of the Revised Code and incomplete or inaccurate data 872
submitted by the district likely caused the district to receive a 873
higher performance rating than it deserved under that section, 874
issue a revised report card for the district;875

       (ix) Any other action designed to correct the district's data 876
reporting problems.877

       (3) Any time the department takes an action against a school 878
district under division (L)(2) of this section, the department 879
shall make a report of the circumstances that prompted the action. 880
The department shall send a copy of the report to the district 881
superintendent or chief administrator and maintain a copy of the 882
report in its files.883

       (4) If any action taken under division (L)(2) of this section 884
resolves a school district's data reporting problems to the 885
department's satisfaction, the department shall not take any 886
further actions described by that division. If the department 887
withheld funds from the district under that division, the 888
department may release those funds to the district, except that if 889
the department withheld funding under division (L)(2)(c) of this 890
section, the department shall not release the funds withheld under 891
division (L)(2)(b) of this section and, if the department withheld 892
funding under division (L)(2)(d) of this section, the department 893
shall not release the funds withheld under division (L)(2)(b) or 894
(c) of this section.895

       (5) Notwithstanding anything in this section to the contrary, 896
the department may use its own staff or an outside entity to 897
conduct an audit of a school district's data reporting practices 898
any time the department has reason to believe the district has not 899
made a good faith effort to report data as required by this 900
section. If any audit conducted by an outside entity under 901
division (L)(2)(d)(i) or (5) of this section confirms that a 902
district has not made a good faith effort to report data as 903
required by this section, the district shall reimburse the 904
department for the full cost of the audit. The department may 905
withhold state funds due to the district for this purpose.906

       (6) Prior to issuing a revised report card for a school 907
district under division (L)(2)(d)(viii) of this section, the 908
department may hold a hearing to provide the district with an 909
opportunity to demonstrate that it made a good faith effort to 910
report data as required by this section. The hearing shall be 911
conducted by a referee appointed by the department. Based on the 912
information provided in the hearing, the referee shall recommend 913
whether the department should issue a revised report card for the 914
district. If the referee affirms the department's contention that 915
the district did not make a good faith effort to report data as 916
required by this section, the district shall bear the full cost of 917
conducting the hearing and of issuing any revised report card.918

       (7) If the department determines that any inaccurate data 919
reported under this section caused a school district to receive 920
excess state funds in any fiscal year, the district shall 921
reimburse the department an amount equal to the excess funds, in 922
accordance with a payment schedule determined by the department. 923
The department may withhold state funds due to the district for 924
this purpose.925

       (8) Any school district that has funds withheld under 926
division (L)(2) of this section may appeal the withholding in 927
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.928

       (9) In all cases of a disagreement between the department and 929
a school district regarding the appropriateness of an action taken 930
under division (L)(2) of this section, the burden of proof shall 931
be on the district to demonstrate that it made a good faith effort 932
to report data as required by this section.933

       (10) The state board of education shall adopt rules under 934
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement division (L) of this 935
section.936

       (M) No information technology center or school district shall 937
acquire, change, or update its student administration software 938
package to manage and report data required to be reported to the 939
department unless it converts to a student software package that 940
is certified by the department.941

       (N) The state board of education, in accordance with sections 942
3319.31 and 3319.311 of the Revised Code, may suspend or revoke a 943
license as defined under division (A) of section 3319.31 of the 944
Revised Code that has been issued to any school district employee 945
found to have willfully reported erroneous, inaccurate, or 946
incomplete data to the education management information system.947

       (O) No person shall release or maintain any information about 948
any student in violation of this section. Whoever violates this 949
division is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.950

       (P) The department shall disaggregate the data collected 951
under division (B)(1)(n) of this section according to the race and 952
socioeconomic status of the students assessed. No data collected 953
under that division shall be included on the report cards required 954
by section 3302.03 of the Revised Code.955

       (Q) If the department cannot compile any of the information 956
required by division (C)(5) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code 957
based upon the data collected under this section, the department 958
shall develop a plan and a reasonable timeline for the collection 959
of any data necessary to comply with that division.960

       Sec. 3769.089.  (A) As used in this chapter:961

       (1) "Racing day" means any day authorized under a permit 962
holder's permit on which, at a simulcast host, either a live 963
racing program is conducted as authorized under section 3769.07 of 964
the Revised Code or a simulcast racing program is conducted as 965
authorized under this section.966

       (2) "Live racing day" means a racing day on which a live 967
racing program is conducted by the permit holder along with 968
simulcasts of all other available racing programs from within this 969
state and simulcast racing programs from outside this state as 970
authorized under this section.971

       (3) "Live racing program" means a racing program consisting 972
of no fewer than seven live horse races at thoroughbred tracks and 973
nine live races at standardbred tracks and additional horse races 974
simulcast from other facilities located either inside or outside 975
this state, in which not more than two horse races on which 976
pari-mutuel wagering is conducted are simulcast from facilities 977
located outside this state. If only one racing meeting of a 978
particular breed of horse is being held, no fewer than nine live 979
horse races shall be held on a live racing day. If, during the 980
course of a racing meeting at a standardbred track, the racing 981
secretary of the permit holder determines that there is an 982
insufficient number of entries to have a full field of eight 983
horses for each of nine races on a live racing program, then the 984
racing secretary of the permit holder, after consultation with the 985
Ohio harness horsemens association, may reduce the number of live 986
races on that live racing program from nine to either eight or 987
seven, as the racing secretary may determine. The racing secretary 988
shall not reduce the live racing program to less than seven live 989
races. If during the course of a meeting at a thoroughbred track, 990
the racing secretary of a permit holder determines that there is 991
an insufficient number of entries to have a full field of eight 992
horses for each of nine races on a live racing program, then the 993
racing secretary of the permit holder, with the consent of the 994
thoroughbred horsemens association, may reduce the number of live 995
races on that live racing program from nine to either eight or 996
seven, as the racing secretary may determine. The racing secretary 997
shall not reduce the live racing program to less than seven live 998
races. No more than seventeen races on which pari-mutuel wagering 999
is conducted, including both live races and races simulcast from 1000
other facilities located either inside or outside this state, 1001
shall be part of a live racing program.1002

       (4) "Simulcast host" means a track or enclosure in this state 1003
where, on a racing day, a permit holder is doing one or both of 1004
the following:1005

       (a) Conducting a live racing program and offering this 1006
program for simulcasting to one or more simulcast guests and 1007
satellite facilities in this state;1008

       (b) Receiving a simulcast racing program for simulcasting to 1009
one or more simulcast guests and satellite facilities in this 1010
state.1011

       (5) "Simulcast guest" means any track or enclosure that is 1012
receiving from a simulcast host, on a day other than a racing day, 1013
a live racing program or a simulcast racing program.1014

       (6) "Simulcast racing program" means all simulcasts of horse 1015
races to a simulcast host or simulcast guest on a racing day or on 1016
any other day on which pari-mutuel wagering is conducted, but does 1017
not include any simulcast horse races from inside or outside this 1018
state that are included in a simulcast host's live racing program.1019

       (7) "Satellite facility" has the same meaning as in section 1020
3769.25 of the Revised Code.1021

       (8) "Collection and settlement agent" has the same meaning as 1022
in section 3769.0810 of the Revised Code.1023

       (9) "Special racing event" means individual races in live 1024
racing programs or simulcast racing programs, and simulcast racing 1025
programs on special event days under division (C) of this section, 1026
conducted at facilities located outside this state for which the 1027
track, racing association, or state regulatory agency conducting 1028
such races charges a simulcast host a fee for the privilege of 1029
receiving a simulcast of such races into this state that is higher 1030
than the customary and regular fee charged for simulcast races 1031
because of the status or popularity of such races.1032

       (B) The state racing commission shall, upon request by any 1033
permit holder, permit electronically televised simulcasts of horse 1034
races at the permit holder's track or enclosure on racing days 1035
authorized by the permit holder's permit. Except as provided in 1036
division (B) of this section, the commission shall not permit the 1037
simulcast of any simulcast racing program conducted at tracks or 1038
facilities located outside this state unless the out-of-state 1039
simulcast racing program is available to all permit holders, 1040
whether serving as simulcast hosts or simulcast guests, and all 1041
satellite facilities, in this state open and operating on that 1042
day. A permit holder or satellite facility may inform the 1043
commission that it waives the right to receive the simulcast of a 1044
simulcast racing program or a race in a simulcast racing program 1045
on that day and in this event the simulcast racing program or 1046
simulcast race shall be available to all other simulcast hosts, 1047
simulcast guests, and satellite facilities open and operating in 1048
this state on that day.1049

       In order for a permit holder to offer simulcasts of horse 1050
races conducted at facilities located outside this state, the 1051
permit holder shall have conducted live racing programs during the 1052
immediately preceding calendar year on a number of days that is 1053
not less than the number of regular live racing days it conducted 1054
in calendar year 1991, not including additional racing days 1055
conducted in calendar year 1991 by the permit holder at a 1056
winterized facility under a permit issued under section 3769.07 of 1057
the Revised Code, as certified by the commission. In satisfying 1058
the foregoing requirement for live racing days during the 1059
immediately preceding calendar year, a permit holder may include 1060
the number of days on which live racing programs were conducted 1061
under a permit issued under section 3769.07 of the Revised Code 1062
for additional racing days at a winterized facility. In addition, 1063
in order for a permit holder to offer simulcasts of horse races 1064
conducted at facilities located outside this state, the permit 1065
holder shall offer all simulcasts of horse races conducted in this 1066
state made available to it.1067

       In order for a permit holder to offer simulcasts of races 1068
conducted at race tracks located outside this state at the same 1069
time and during the hours in which the live races of a live racing 1070
program are being conducted at its track, a permit holder 1071
conducting a thoroughbred live racing program shall obtain the 1072
consent of the thoroughbred horsemens association and a permit 1073
holder conducting a harness live racing program shall obtain the 1074
consent of the Ohio harness horsemens association. The consent of 1075
the horsemen's organization shall not be unreasonably withheld, 1076
and shall be consistent with the interest of preserving live 1077
racing in this state. If a horsemen's organization withholds its 1078
consent, the permit holder may file an objection with the 1079
commission, which shall promptly consider the objection and 1080
determine whether the horsemen's organization's action in 1081
withholding consent is without substantial merit and, if the 1082
commission so determines, shall authorize the permit holder to 1083
simulcast the simulcast racing programs. The determination of the 1084
commission is final. A permit holder, as a simulcast host, may 1085
offer simulcast racing programs at its track or enclosure of races 1086
conducted at tracks and facilities located outside this state 1087
prior to the commencement of, and following the conclusion of, its 1088
live races without obtaining the consent of a horsemen's 1089
organization under this division.1090

       (1) A permit holder shall conduct a minimum of seventy-five 1091
live racing days in calendar year 2013. The live racing days shall 1092
be selected by the permit holder, but are subject to approval of 1093
the commission.1094

       (2) A permit holder shall conduct a minimum of one hundred 1095
live racing days in calendar year 2014. The live racing days shall 1096
be selected by the permit holder, but are subject to approval of 1097
the commission.1098

       (3) A permit holder shall conduct a minimum of one hundred 1099
twenty-five live racing days in calendar year 2015 and each 1100
subsequent calendar year. The live racing days shall be selected 1101
by the permit holder but are subject to approval of the 1102
commission.1103

       (4) In addition to the required live racing days, a permit 1104
holder shall simulcast a simulcast racing program on a minimum of 1105
three hundred sixty days each calendar year. The permit holder 1106
shall simulcast all simulcast racing programs conducted in this 1107
state and made available to the permit holder and simulcast racing 1108
programs conducted outside this state.1109

       (5) The commission may make exception to the required minimum 1110
number of live racing days or simulcast racing program days in 1111
instances of natural disaster or other emergency circumstances as 1112
defined by the commission, in its sole discretion. The horsemen's 1113
associations may negotiate an agreement with a permit holder to 1114
reduce the number of live racing days as provided in division (K) 1115
of this section. These negotiations shall not reduce the number of 1116
live racing days to less than fifty days per calendar year.1117

       (6) To satisfy the requirement of live racing days, a permit 1118
holder may include the number of days on which live racing 1119
programs were conducted under a permit issued under section 1120
3769.07 of the Revised Code for racing days authorized at a 1121
winterized facility.1122

       (7) Notwithstanding any other provision related to simulcast 1123
racing programs, in order for a permit holder to offer simulcast 1124
racing programs of races conducted at tracks located outside this 1125
state at the same time and during the hours in which the live 1126
races of a live racing program are being conducted at its track, a 1127
permit holder conducting a thoroughbred live racing program shall 1128
obtain the consent of the thoroughbred horsemen's association and 1129
a permit holder conducting a harness live racing program shall 1130
obtain the consent of the Ohio harness horsemen's association. The 1131
consent of the applicable horsemen's association shall be 1132
consistent with the interest of preserving live racing in this 1133
state. A permit holder, as a simulcast host, may offer simulcast 1134
racing programs at its track or enclosure of races conducted at 1135
tracks and facilities located outside this state before the 1136
commencement of, and following the conclusion of, its live races 1137
without obtaining the consent of a horsemen's association under 1138
this division.1139

       (C) The commission shall allocate to each track one racing 1140
day for each permit holder during each calendar year for the 1141
conduct of a live racing program on which a permit holder may 1142
conduct as few as one live horse race, with the remainder of the 1143
horse races on that racing day on which pari-mutuel wagering is 1144
conducted as part of the live racing program being simulcast from 1145
other tracks and facilities located either inside or outside this 1146
state. In addition, the commission may allocate to each permit 1147
holder racing days on which it may as part of a live racing 1148
program simulcast more than two horse races from facilities 1149
located outside this state if the horse races involve a national 1150
wagering pool and pari-mutuel wagering is conducted on the 1151
national wagering pool, but on such a racing day there shall in no 1152
event be more than two horse races simulcast from facilities 1153
located outside this state included in a live racing program on 1154
which separate pari-mutuel wagering is conducted. As used in this 1155
division, "national wagering pool" means an interstate or 1156
intrastate common pari-mutuel wagering pool involving two or more 1157
selections covering two or more horse races conducted at tracks 1158
located inside or outside this state.1159

       In emergency situations, the commission may authorize a live 1160
racing day at a track in which all horse races on that racing day 1161
on which pari-mutuel wagering is conducted are simulcast from 1162
tracks and facilities located either inside or outside this state 1163
with the consent of the thoroughbred horsemens association for a 1164
track conducting a thoroughbred live racing program and with the 1165
consent of the Ohio harness horsemens association for a track 1166
conducting a harness live racing program. If a horsemen's 1167
organization withholds its consent, the permit holder may file an 1168
objection with the commission, which shall promptly consider the 1169
objection and determine whether the horsemen's organization's 1170
action in withholding consent is without substantial merit and, if 1171
the commission so determines, shall authorize the permit holder to 1172
simulcast the simulcast racing programs. The determination of the 1173
commission is final.1174

       (D) On any day that a racing day has been applied for at any 1175
track in this state, each track in this state may operate as 1176
either a simulcast host or a simulcast guest and may conduct, with 1177
the approval of the state racing commission, pari-mutuel wagering 1178
on all simulcasts of races conducted inside this state made 1179
available to it plus all simulcasts of races conducted at 1180
facilities located outside this state as determined by the 1181
simulcast hosts. Except as otherwise provided in this section, any 1182
simulcast host or simulcast guest may receive and conduct 1183
simulcast racing programs that feature any breed of horse at any 1184
time of day, as authorized by the commission. Those persons 1185
holding state fair, county fair, or other fair permits shall not 1186
receive a simulcast racing program on which pari-mutuel wagering 1187
is conducted, except that a holder of a permit issued under 1188
section 3769.07 of the Revised Code that has been authorized by 1189
the commission to conduct races of the state fair, a county fair, 1190
or other fair at a commercial track may receive and conduct 1191
simulcast racing programs as a simulcast host or simulcast guest 1192
at the same time in conjunction with the live racing program of 1193
the state fair, county fair, or other fair permit holder conducted 1194
at its track.1195

       The simulcast hosts, with the approval of the state racing 1196
commission, shall determine which simulcast racing programs 1197
offered by race tracks located outside this state will be 1198
simulcast at their tracks and at all simulcast hosts, simulcast 1199
guests, and satellite facilities in this state that are open and 1200
operating during the hours that the simulcast hosts are operating. 1201
Simulcast guests and satellite facilities shall receive all 1202
approved simulcast racing programs offered by simulcast hosts. In 1203
addition, a simulcast host and simulcast guest, with the approval 1204
of the commission, may also receive simulcast horse races and 1205
simulcast racing programs not agreed to by simulcast hosts.1206

       A simulcast host that normally operates during the day only 1207
may serve as a simulcast host for only day-simulcast racing 1208
programs, which include all simulcast racing programs that 1209
commence at a track located outside this state on or before four 1210
p.m. A simulcast host that normally operates during the evening 1211
only may serve as a simulcast host for only evening-simulcast 1212
racing programs, which include all simulcast racing programs that 1213
commence at a track located outside this state on or after three 1214
p.m. A simulcast host that normally operates during the evening, 1215
but that under its permit conducts live racing programs during the 1216
day, may serve as a simulcast host for day-simulcast racing 1217
programs. A permit holder that is offering at its track simulcast 1218
racing programs that commence at a track located outside this 1219
state on or before four p.m. and simulcast racing programs that 1220
commence at a track located outside this state on or after three 1221
p.m. may serve as a simulcast host for both the day-simulcast 1222
racing program and the evening-simulcast racing program only if no 1223
other permit holder is serving as a simulcast host for the other 1224
simulcast racing programs. The times listed in this and the 1225
immediately following paragraphs are standard time as described in 1226
section 1.04 of the Revised Code and in the "Uniform Time Act of 1227
1966," 80 Stat. 107, 15 U.S.C. 260 to 265.1228

       If a simulcast host is conducting a racing program that 1229
features thoroughbred or quarter horses on the same day that 1230
another simulcast host is conducting a live racing program that 1231
features harness horses at a track located in the same county as, 1232
or within twenty miles of, the track of the first simulcast host, 1233
the first simulcast host shall not conduct pari-mutuel wagering on 1234
simulcast racing programs that commence after four p.m. on that 1235
day and the second simulcast host shall not conduct wagering on 1236
simulcast racing programs that commence before three p.m. on that 1237
day.1238

       A simulcast host that is conducting a live racing program and 1239
is simulcasting that program to other simulcast hosts and 1240
simulcast guests in this state shall receive from each simulcast 1241
host and each simulcast guest receiving the simulcast an 1242
intrastate simulcast fee of one and three-eighths per cent of the 1243
amounts wagered on such simulcast racing program at its 1244
facilities. The simulcast hosts and simulcast guests receiving 1245
such simulcast racing program shall pay the intrastate simulcast 1246
fee to the collection and settlement agent, and the fee shall be 1247
disbursed by the agent, at the time and in the manner provided in 1248
section 3769.0810 of the Revised Code.1249

       (E)(1) The moneys wagered on simulcast racing programs on a 1250
racing day shall be separated from the moneys wagered on the live 1251
racing program on that racing day. From the moneys wagered on the 1252
simulcast races, each permit holder may retain as a commission the 1253
percentage of the amount wagered as specified in sections 3769.08 1254
and 3769.087 of the Revised Code, as applicable, and shall pay, by 1255
check, draft, or money order to the state tax commissioner, as a 1256
tax, the tax specified in sections 3769.08 and 3769.087 of the 1257
Revised Code, as applicable. From the tax collected, the tax 1258
commissioner shall make the distributions to the respective funds, 1259
and in the proper amounts, as required by sections 3769.08 and 1260
3769.087 of the Revised Code, as applicable. Except as provided in 1261
divisions (E)(2) and (3) of this section, from the amount 1262
remaining after the payment of state taxes on the moneys wagered 1263
on live racing programs and on the moneys wagered on simulcast 1264
racing programs, a permit holder shall retain an amount equal to 1265
two and three-eightsthree-eighths per cent of the amount wagered 1266
on live racing programs and on intrastate and interstate simulcast 1267
racing programs simulcast at its track and on the amount wagered 1268
on the live racing programs and simulcast racing programs at a 1269
satellite facility allocated to it under section 3769.26 of the 1270
Revised Code, as a fee to pay for those costs associated with the 1271
reception and transmission of simulcasts and the administrative 1272
cost of the conduct of live racing programs and simulcast racing 1273
programs. From the remaining balance, one-half shall be retained 1274
by the permit holder for purses. On a day when a permit holder 1275
conducts a live racing program, all purse money generated from 1276
wagering on live racing programs and on simulcast racing programs 1277
at its track shall be used for that permit holder's purse account. 1278
On a day when a permit holder operates as a simulcast host with no 1279
live racing program, or operates as a simulcast guest, all purse 1280
money generated from wagering on intrastate and interstate 1281
simulcast racing programs shall be paid to the state racing 1282
commission for deposit into the Ohio combined simulcast horse 1283
racing purse fund created under this section. In addition, on a 1284
day when a permit holder serves as a simulcast host for a 1285
satellite facility, all purse money generated from amounts wagered 1286
at the satellite facility allocated to the permit holder under 1287
section 3769.26 of the Revised Code shall be paid to the 1288
commission for deposit into the Ohio simulcast horse racing purse 1289
fund.1290

       (2) If there are not four satellite facilities in operation 1291
in this state within one year after the effective date of this 1292
sectionSeptember 19, 1996, or if there are not seven satellite 1293
facilities in operation in this state within two years after the 1294
effective date of this sectionSeptember 19, 1996, or if there are 1295
not ten satellite facilities in operation in this state within 1296
three years after the effective date of this sectionSeptember 19, 1297
1996, then in any such event the amount to be retained as a fee by 1298
the permit holder under division (E)(1) of this section shall be 1299
one and seven-eighths per cent until such time as the number of 1300
satellite facilities specified in division (E)(2) of this section 1301
are in operation. For good cause shown, the thoroughbred horsemens 1302
association and Ohio harness horsemens association may waive the 1303
requirements of division (E)(2) of this section or extend the date 1304
for compliance as to any year by filing a written notification 1305
with the state racing commission.1306

       (3) If a simulcast racing program simulcast by a simulcast 1307
host at its track or enclosure and to other simulcast hosts, 1308
simulcast guests, and satellite facilities in this state is a 1309
special racing event, the permit holder offering the special 1310
racing event and other simulcast hosts, simulcast guests, and 1311
satellite facilities receiving the special racing event shall not 1312
retain the fee provided under division (E)(1) or (2) of this 1313
section but shall retain from the moneys wagered on the special 1314
racing event an amount equal to the fee charged by the track, 1315
racing association, or state regulatory agency simulcasting the 1316
special racing event to the simulcast host. From the remaining 1317
balance, one-half shall be retained by the permit holder for 1318
purses in the manner provided in division (E)(1) of this section.1319

       A permit holder proposing to simulcast a special racing event 1320
as a simulcast host shall advise its horsemen's organization of 1321
the proposed schedule of the special racing event and obtain its 1322
consent to this schedule. The consent of the horsemen's 1323
organization shall not be unreasonably withheld and shall be 1324
consistent with the interest of preserving live racing in this 1325
state. If the horsemen's organization withholds its consent, the 1326
permit holder may file an objection with the state racing 1327
commission, which shall promptly consider the objection and 1328
determine whether the organization's action in withholding consent 1329
is without substantial merit and, if the commission so determines, 1330
shall authorize the permit holder to simulcast the special racing 1331
event. The determination of the commission is final.1332

       (F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the Ohio 1333
combined simulcast horse racing purse fund, to consist of moneys 1334
paid into it by permit holders pursuant to division (E) of this 1335
section and by satellite facilities pursuant to division (F) of 1336
section 3769.26 of the Revised Code. Moneys to the credit of the 1337
fund, including interest earned thereon, may be used by the 1338
commission for the costs of administering this division and the 1339
balance shall be distributed among permit holders no less 1340
frequently than monthly to each permit holder's purse account on 1341
order of the commission.1342

       For each calendar year, permit holders at each track shall 1343
receive a share of each distribution of the Ohio combined 1344
simulcast horse racing purse fund in the same percentage, rounded 1345
to the nearest one-hundredth of the amount of each distribution, 1346
as the average total amount wagered at the track on racing days at 1347
which live racing programs were conducted, including the amount 1348
allocated to the track under section 3769.26 of the Revised Code 1349
for live races, during the five calendar years immediately 1350
preceding the year for which the distribution is made bears to the 1351
average annual total amount wagered at all tracks in the state 1352
operating under permits issued by the state racing commission 1353
under section 3769.07, 3769.071, or 3769.072 of the Revised Code 1354
on all racing days at which live racing programs were conducted, 1355
including the amount allocated to the tracks under section 3769.26 1356
of the Revised Code for live races, during the five calendar years 1357
immediately preceding the year for which the distribution is made. 1358
By the thirty-first day of January of each year the commission 1359
shall calculate the share of the permit holders at each track for 1360
that year, shall enter the share percentages in its official 1361
records, and shall notify all permit holders of the share 1362
percentages of all tracks for that calendar year.1363

       The permit holders at each track, with the approval of the 1364
commission, shall allocate their share of the fund as distributed 1365
to the purse account of each permit holder for each race meeting.1366

       The commission shall cause to be kept accurate records of its 1367
administration of the fund, including all administrative expenses 1368
incurred by it and charged to the fund, and of distributions to 1369
permit holders. These records are public records available for 1370
inspection at any time during the regular business hours of the 1371
commission by any permit holder or horsemen's organization, by an 1372
authorized agent of the permit holder or horsemen's organization, 1373
or by any other person.1374

       (G) Upon the approval of the commission, a permit holder 1375
conducting live racing programs may transmit electronically 1376
televised simulcasts of horse races conducted at the permit 1377
holder's track to racing associations, tracks, and facilities 1378
located outside this state for the conduct of pari-mutuel wagering 1379
thereon, at the times, on the terms, and for the fee agreed upon 1380
by the permit holder and the receiving racing association, track, 1381
or facility. From the fees paid to the permit holder for such 1382
simulcasts, a permit holder shall retain for the costs of 1383
administration a fee in an amount equal to one per cent of the 1384
amount wagered on the races simulcast by the permit holder. From 1385
the remaining balance of the fee, one-half shall be retained by 1386
the permit holder for purses, except that notwithstanding the fee 1387
arrangement between the permit holder and the receiving racing 1388
association, track, or facility, the permit holder shall deposit 1389
into its purse account not less than an amount equal to 1390
three-fourths of one per cent of the amount wagered at racing 1391
associations, tracks, and facilities located outside the state on 1392
the races simulcast by the permit holder.1393

       All televised simulcasts of horse races conducted in this 1394
state to racing associations, tracks, and facilities located 1395
outside this state shall comply with the "Interstate Horse Racing 1396
Act of 1978," 92 Stat. 1811, 15 U.S.C.A. 3001 to 3007. The consent 1397
of the horsemen's organization at the track of the permit holder 1398
applying to the commission to simulcast horse races conducted at 1399
the permit holder's track to racing associations, tracks, and 1400
facilities located outside this state shall not be unreasonably 1401
withheld and shall be consistent with the interest of preserving 1402
live racing. If a horsemen's organization withholds its consent, 1403
the permit holder may file an objection with the commission, which 1404
shall promptly consider the objection and determine whether the 1405
horsemen's organization's action in withholding consent is without 1406
substantial merit and, if the commission so determines, shall 1407
authorize the permit holder to simulcast the races. The 1408
determination of the commission is final.1409

       (H)(1) The state racing commission may authorize any permit 1410
holder that is authorized to conduct live horse racing on racing 1411
days and that conducts pari-mutuel wagering on simulcasts of horse 1412
races under this section that are conducted at race tracks either 1413
inside or outside this state to conduct, supervise, and 1414
participate in interstate and intrastate common pari-mutuel 1415
wagering pools on those races in the manner provided in division 1416
(H) of this section. Except as otherwise expressly provided in 1417
division (H) of this section or in the rules of the state racing 1418
commission, the provisions of this chapter that govern pari-mutuel 1419
wagering apply to interstate or intrastate common pari-mutuel 1420
wagering pools.1421

       (2) Subject to the approval of the state racing commission, 1422
the types of wagering, calculation of the commission retained by 1423
the permit holder, tax rates, distribution of winnings, and rules 1424
of racing in effect for pari-mutuel wagering pools at the host 1425
track may govern wagers placed at a receiving track in this state 1426
and merged into an interstate or intrastate common pari-mutuel 1427
wagering pool. Breakage from interstate or intrastate common 1428
pari-mutuel wagering pools shall be calculated in accordance with 1429
the rules that govern the host track and shall be distributed 1430
among the tracks participating in the interstate or intrastate 1431
common wagering pool in a manner agreed to by the participating 1432
tracks and the host track. An interstate common pari-mutuel 1433
wagering pool formed under division (H)(3) of this section is 1434
subject to that division rather than to division (H)(2) of this 1435
section.1436

       (3) Subject to the approval of the state racing commission, 1437
an interstate common pari-mutuel wagering pool may be formed 1438
between a permit holder and one or more receiving tracks located 1439
in states other than the state in which the host track is located. 1440
The commission may approve types of wagering, calculation of the 1441
commission retained by the permit holder, tax rates, distribution 1442
of winnings, rules of racing, and calculation of breakage for such 1443
an interstate common pari-mutuel wagering pool that differ from 1444
those that would otherwise be applied in this state under this 1445
chapter but that are consistent for all tracks participating in 1446
the interstate common pari-mutuel wagering pool formed under 1447
division (H)(3) of this section.1448

       (4) As used in division (H) of this section:1449

       (a) "Host track" means a track where live horse races are 1450
conducted and offered for simulcasting to receiving tracks.1451

       (b) "Receiving track" means a track where simulcasts of races 1452
from a host track are displayed and wagered on.1453

       (I) Each permit holder is responsible for paying all costs 1454
associated with the up-link for, and reception of, simulcasts, and 1455
the conduct and operation of simulcast racing programs, for all 1456
fees and costs associated with serving as a simulcast host or 1457
simulcast guest, and for any required fees payable to the tracks, 1458
racing associations, or state regulatory agencies where simulcast 1459
racing is conducted at tracks located outside this state.1460

       (J) No license, fee, or excise tax, other than as specified 1461
in division (E) of this section, shall be assessed upon or 1462
collected from a permit holder or the owners of a permit holder in 1463
connection with, or pertaining to, the operation and conduct of 1464
simulcast racing programs in this state, by any county, township, 1465
municipal corporation, district, or other body having the 1466
authority to assess or collect a tax or fee.1467

       (K)(1) Permit holders operating tracks within the same county 1468
or adjacent counties that are conducting simulcast racing programs 1469
under this section may enter into agreements regarding the conduct 1470
of simulcast racing programs at their respective tracks and the 1471
sharing of the retained commissions therefrom, for such periods of 1472
time, upon such terms and conditions, and subject to such rights 1473
and obligations, as the contracting permit holders consider 1474
appropriate under the circumstances. Permit holders so contracting1475
shall notify the state racing commission of their entry into an 1476
agreement pursuant to this division, the names of the permit 1477
holders that are parties to the agreement, and the length of the 1478
term oftime the agreement shall be in effect.1479

       (2) Permit holders and the thoroughbred horsemens association 1480
and Ohio harness horsemens association may agree to do any of the 1481
following:1482

       (a) Increase or reduce the fees and amounts to be retained by 1483
the permit holders under this section;1484

       (b) Increase or reduce the fees and amounts to be allocated 1485
to the purse accounts orof permit holders under this section;1486

       (c) Increase or reduce the fees to be paid between and among 1487
simulcast hosts and simulcast guests under this section and under 1488
division (C) of section 3769.0810 of the Revised Code;1489

       (d) Modify, suspend, or waive the requirements set forth in 1490
division (B) of this section as to any permit holder or as to all 1491
permit holders.1492

       All permit holders and both horsemen's organizations shall 1493
approve such agreement. Any agreement entered into under division 1494
(K)(2) of this section shall set forth the effective date of any 1495
such increase or reduction, and the terms and provisions of the 1496
agreement, and a copy of the agreement shall be filed with the 1497
state racing commission.1498

       Sec. 3770.02.  (A) Subject to the advice and consent of the 1499
senate, the governor shall appoint a director of the state lottery 1500
commission who shall serve at the pleasure of the governor. The 1501
director shall devote full time to the duties of the office and 1502
shall hold no other office or employment. The director shall meet 1503
all requirements for appointment as a member of the commission and 1504
shall, by experience and training, possess management skills that 1505
equip the director to administer an enterprise of the nature of a 1506
state lottery. The director shall receive an annual salary in 1507
accordance with pay range 48 of section 124.152 of the Revised 1508
Code.1509

       (B)(1) The director shall attend all meetings of the 1510
commission and shall act as its secretary. The director shall keep 1511
a record of all commission proceedings and shall keep the 1512
commission's records, files, and documents at the commission's 1513
principal office. All records of the commission's meetings shall 1514
be available for inspection by any member of the public, upon a 1515
showing of good cause and prior notification to the director.1516

       (2) The director shall be the commission's executive officer 1517
and shall be responsible for keeping all commission records and 1518
supervising and administering the state lottery in accordance with 1519
this chapter, and carrying out all commission rules adopted under 1520
section 3770.03 of the Revised Code.1521

       (C)(1) The director shall appoint an assistant director, 1522
deputy directors of marketing, operations, sales, finance, public 1523
relations, security, and administration, and as many regional 1524
managers as are required. The director may also appoint necessary 1525
professional, technical, and clerical assistants. All such 1526
officers and employees shall be appointed and compensated pursuant 1527
to Chapter 124. of the Revised Code. Regional and assistant 1528
regional managers, sales representatives, and any lottery 1529
executive account representatives shall remain in the unclassified 1530
service.1531

       (2) The director, in consultation with the director of 1532
administrative services, may establish standards of proficiency 1533
and productivity for commission field representatives.1534

       (D) The director shall request the bureau of criminal 1535
identification and investigation, the department of public safety, 1536
or any other state, local, or federal agency to supply the 1537
director with the criminal records of any job applicant and may 1538
periodically request the criminal records of commission employees. 1539
At or prior to the time of making such a request, the director 1540
shall require a job applicant or commission employee to obtain 1541
fingerprint cards prescribed by the superintendent of the bureau 1542
of criminal identification and investigation at a qualified law 1543
enforcement agency, and the director shall cause these fingerprint 1544
cards to be forwarded to the bureau of criminal identification and 1545
investigation and the federal bureau of investigation. The 1546
commission shall assume the cost of obtaining the fingerprint 1547
cards and shall pay to each agency supplying criminal records for 1548
each investigation under this division a reasonable fee, as 1549
determined by the agency.1550

       (E) The director shall license lottery sales agents pursuant 1551
to section 3770.05 of the Revised Code and, when it is considered 1552
necessary, may revoke or suspend the license of any lottery sales 1553
agent. The director may license video lottery technology 1554
providers, independent testing laboratories, and gaming employees, 1555
and promulgate rules relating thereto. When the director considers 1556
it necessary, the director may suspend or revoke the license of a 1557
video lottery technology provider, independent testing laboratory, 1558
or gaming employee, including suspension or revocation without 1559
affording an opportunity for a prior hearing under section 119.07 1560
of the Revised Code when the public safety, convenience, or trust 1561
requires immediate action.1562

       (F) The director shall confer at least once each month with 1563
the commission, at which time the director shall advise it 1564
regarding the operation and administration of the lottery. The 1565
director shall make available at the request of the commission all 1566
documents, files, and other records pertaining to the operation 1567
and administration of the lottery. The director shall prepare and 1568
make available to the commission each month a complete and 1569
accurate accounting of lottery revenues, prize money disbursements 1570
and the cost of goods and services awarded as prizes, operating 1571
expenses, and all other relevant financial information, including 1572
an accounting of all transfers made from any lottery funds in the 1573
custody of the treasurer of state to benefit education.1574

       (G) The director may enter into contracts for the operation 1575
or promotion of the lottery pursuant to Chapter 125. of the 1576
Revised Code. 1577

       (H)(1) Pursuant to rules adopted by the commission under 1578
section 3770.03 of the Revised Code, the director shall require 1579
any lottery sales agents to either mail directly to the commission 1580
or deposit to the credit of the state lottery fund, in banking 1581
institutions designated by the treasurer of state, net proceeds 1582
due the commission as determined by the director, and to file with 1583
the director or the director's designee reports of their receipts 1584
and transactions in the sale of lottery tickets in the form 1585
required by the director.1586

       (2) Pursuant to rules adopted by the commission under Chapter 1587
119. of the Revised Code, the director may impose penalties for 1588
the failure of a sales agent to transfer funds to the commission 1589
in a timely manner. Penalties may include monetary penalties, 1590
immediate suspension or revocation of a license, or any other 1591
penalty the commission adopts by rule.1592

       (I) The director may arrange for any person, or any banking 1593
institution, to perform functions and services in connection with 1594
the operation of the lottery as the director may consider 1595
necessary to carry out this chapter.1596

       (J)(1) As used in this chapter, "statewide joint lottery 1597
game" means a lottery game that the commission sells solely within 1598
this state under an agreement with other lottery jurisdictions to 1599
sell the same lottery game solely within their statewide or other 1600
jurisdictional boundaries.1601

       (2) If the governor directs the director to do so, the 1602
director shall enter into an agreement with other lottery 1603
jurisdictions to conduct statewide joint lottery games. If the 1604
governor signs the agreement personally or by means of an 1605
authenticating officer pursuant to section 107.15 of the Revised 1606
Code, the director then may conduct statewide joint lottery games 1607
under the agreement.1608

       (3) The entire net proceeds from any statewide joint lottery 1609
games shall be used to fund elementary, secondary, vocational, and 1610
special education programs in this state.1611

       (4) The commission shall conduct any statewide joint lottery 1612
games in accordance with rules it adopts under division (B)(5) of 1613
section 3770.03 of the Revised Code.1614

       (K)(1) The director shall enter into an agreement with the 1615
department of alcohol and drug addiction services under which the 1616
department shall provide a program of gambling addiction services 1617
on behalf of the commission. The commission shall pay the costs of 1618
the program provided pursuant to the agreement.1619

        (2) As used in this section, "gambling addiction services" 1620
has the same meaning as in section 3793.01 of the Revised Code.1621

       Sec. 3770.03.  (A) The state lottery commission shall 1622
promulgate rules under which a statewide lottery may be conducted, 1623
which includes, and since the original enactment of this section 1624
has included, the authority for the commission to operate video 1625
lottery terminal games. Any reference in this chapter to tickets 1626
shall not be construed to in any way limit the authority of the 1627
commission to operate video lottery terminal games. Nothing in 1628
this chapter shall restrict the authority of the commission to 1629
promulgate rules related to the operation of games utilizing video 1630
lottery terminals as described in section 3770.21 of the Revised 1631
Code. The rules shall be promulgated pursuant to Chapter 119. of 1632
the Revised Code, except that instant game rules other than those 1633
for video lottery terminal games shall be promulgated pursuant to 1634
section 111.15 of the Revised Code but are not subject to division 1635
(D) of that section, and except that those rules for video lottery 1636
terminal games shall be approved by resolution of the commission. 1637
Subjects covered in these rules shall include, but need not be 1638
limited to, the following:1639

       (1) The type of lottery to be conducted;1640

       (2) The prices of tickets in the lottery;1641

       (3) The number, nature, and value of prize awards, the manner 1642
and frequency of prize drawings, and the manner in which prizes 1643
shall be awarded to holders of winning tickets.1644

       (B) The commission shall promulgate rules, in addition to 1645
those described in division (A) of this section, pursuant to 1646
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code under which a statewide lottery 1647
and statewide joint lottery games may be conducted. Subjects 1648
covered in these rules shall include, but not be limited to, the 1649
following:1650

       (1) The locations at which lottery tickets may be sold and 1651
the manner in which they are to be sold. These rules may authorize 1652
the sale of lottery tickets by commission personnel or other 1653
licensed individuals from traveling show wagons at the state fair, 1654
and at any other expositions the director of the commission 1655
considers acceptable. These rules shall prohibit commission 1656
personnel or other licensed individuals from soliciting from an 1657
exposition the right to sell lottery tickets at that exposition, 1658
but shall allow commission personnel or other licensed individuals 1659
to sell lottery tickets at an exposition if the exposition 1660
requests commission personnel or licensed individuals to do so. 1661
These rules may also address the accessibility of sales agent 1662
locations to commission products in accordance with the "Americans 1663
with Disabilities Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 327, 42 U.S.C.A. 12101 1664
et seq.1665

       (2) The manner in which lottery sales revenues are to be 1666
collected, including authorization for the director to impose 1667
penalties for failure by lottery sales agents to transfer revenues 1668
to the commission in a timely manner;1669

       (3) The amount of compensation to be paid licensed lottery 1670
sales agents;1671

       (4) The substantive criteria for the licensing of lottery 1672
sales agents consistent with section 3770.05 of the Revised Code, 1673
and procedures for revoking or suspending their licenses 1674
consistent with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If 1675
circumstances, such as the nonpayment of funds owed by a lottery 1676
sales agent, or other circumstances related to the public safety, 1677
convenience, or trust, require immediate action, the director may 1678
suspend a license without affording an opportunity for a prior 1679
hearing under section 119.07 of the Revised Code.1680

       (5) Special game rules to implement any agreements signed by 1681
the governor that the director enters into with other lottery 1682
jurisdictions under division (J) of section 3770.02 of the Revised 1683
Code to conduct statewide joint lottery games. The rules shall 1684
require that the entire net proceeds of those games that remain, 1685
after associated operating expenses, prize disbursements, lottery 1686
sales agent bonuses, commissions, and reimbursements, and any 1687
other expenses necessary to comply with the agreements or the 1688
rules are deducted from the gross proceeds of those games, be 1689
transferred to the lottery profits education fund under division 1690
(B) of section 3770.06 of the Revised Code.1691

       (6) Any other subjects the commission determines are 1692
necessary for the operation of video lottery terminal games, 1693
including the establishment of any fees, fines, or payment 1694
schedules.1695

       (C) Chapter 2915. of the Revised Code does not apply to, 1696
affect, or prohibit lotteries conducted pursuant to this chapter.1697

       (D) The commission may promulgate rules, in addition to those 1698
described in divisions (A) and (B) of this section, that establish 1699
standards governing the display of advertising and celebrity 1700
images on lottery tickets and on other items that are used in the 1701
conduct of, or to promote, the statewide lottery and statewide 1702
joint lottery games. Any revenue derived from the sale of 1703
advertising displayed on lottery tickets and on those other items 1704
shall be considered, for purposes of section 3770.06 of the 1705
Revised Code, to be related proceeds in connection with the 1706
statewide lottery or gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery 1707
games, as applicable.1708

       (E)(1) The commission shall meet with the director at least 1709
once each month and shall convene other meetings at the request of 1710
the chairperson or any five of the members. No action taken by the 1711
commission shall be binding unless at least five of the members 1712
present vote in favor of the action. A written record shall be 1713
made of the proceedings of each meeting and shall be transmitted 1714
forthwith to the governor, the president of the senate, the senate 1715
minority leader, the speaker of the house of representatives, and 1716
the house minority leader.1717

       (2) The director shall present to the commission a report 1718
each month, showing the total revenues, prize disbursements, and 1719
operating expenses of the state lottery for the preceding month. 1720
As soon as practicable after the end of each fiscal year, the 1721
commission shall prepare and transmit to the governor and the 1722
general assembly a report of lottery revenues, prize 1723
disbursements, and operating expenses for the preceding fiscal 1724
year and any recommendations for legislation considered necessary 1725
by the commission.1726

       Sec. 3770.05.  (A) As used in this section, "person" means 1727
any person, association, corporation, partnership, club, trust, 1728
estate, society, receiver, trustee, person acting in a fiduciary 1729
or representative capacity, instrumentality of the state or any of 1730
its political subdivisions, or any other combination of 1731
individuals meeting the requirements set forth in this section or 1732
established by rule or order of the state lottery commission.1733

       (B) The director of the state lottery commission may license 1734
any person as a lottery sales agent. No license shall be issued to 1735
any person or group of persons to engage in the sale of lottery 1736
tickets as the person's or group's sole occupation or business.1737

       Before issuing any license to a lottery sales agent, the 1738
director shall consider all of the following:1739

       (1) The financial responsibility and security of the 1740
applicant and the applicant's business or activity;1741

       (2) The accessibility of the applicant's place of business or 1742
activity to the public;1743

       (3) The sufficiency of existing licensed agents to serve the 1744
public interest;1745

       (4) The volume of expected sales by the applicant;1746

       (5) Any other factors pertaining to the public interest, 1747
convenience, or trust.1748

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (F) of this 1749
section, the director of the state lottery commission shall refuse 1750
to grant, or shall suspend or revoke, a license if the applicant 1751
or licensee:1752

       (1) Has been convicted of a felony or has been convicted of a 1753
crime involving moral turpitude;1754

       (2) Has been convicted of an offense that involves illegal 1755
gambling;1756

       (3) Has been found guilty of fraud or misrepresentation in 1757
any connection;1758

       (4) Has been found to have violated any rule or order of the 1759
commission; or1760

       (5) Has been convicted of illegal trafficking in supplemental 1761
nutrition assistance program benefits.1762

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in division (F) of this 1763
section, the director of the state lottery commission shall refuse 1764
to grant, or shall suspend or revoke, a license if the applicant 1765
or licensee is a corporation and any of the following applies:1766

       (1) Any of the corporation's directors, officers, or 1767
controlling shareholders has been found guilty of any of the 1768
activities specified in divisions (C)(1) to (5) of this section;1769

       (2) It appears to the director of the state lottery 1770
commission that, due to the experience, character, or general 1771
fitness of any director, officer, or controlling shareholder of 1772
the corporation, the granting of a license as a lottery sales 1773
agent would be inconsistent with the public interest, convenience, 1774
or trust;1775

       (3) The corporation is not the owner or lessee of the 1776
business at which it would conduct a lottery sales agency pursuant 1777
to the license applied for;1778

       (4) Any person, firm, association, or corporation other than 1779
the applicant or licensee shares or will share in the profits of 1780
the applicant or licensee, other than receiving dividends or 1781
distributions as a shareholder, or participates or will 1782
participate in the management of the affairs of the applicant or 1783
licensee.1784

       (E)(1) The director of the state lottery commission shall 1785
refuse to grant a license to an applicant for a lottery sales 1786
agent license and shall revoke a lottery sales agent license if 1787
the applicant or licensee is or has been convicted of a violation 1788
of division (A) or (C)(1) of section 2913.46 of the Revised Code.1789

       (2) The director shall refuse to grant a license to an 1790
applicant for a lottery sales agent license that is a corporation 1791
and shall revoke the lottery sales agent license of a corporation 1792
if the corporation is or has been convicted of a violation of 1793
division (A) or (C)(1) of section 2913.46 of the Revised Code.1794

       (F) The director of the state lottery commission shall 1795
request the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, 1796
the department of public safety, or any other state, local, or 1797
federal agency to supply the director with the criminal records of 1798
any applicant for a lottery sales agent license, and may 1799
periodically request the criminal records of any person to whom a 1800
lottery sales agent license has been issued. At or prior to the 1801
time of making such a request, the director shall require an 1802
applicant or licensee to obtain fingerprint impressions on 1803
fingerprint cards prescribed by the superintendent of the bureau 1804
of criminal identification and investigation at a qualified law 1805
enforcement agency, and the director shall cause those fingerprint 1806
cards to be forwarded to the bureau of criminal identification and 1807
investigation, to the federal bureau of investigation, or to both 1808
bureaus. The commission shall assume the cost of obtaining the 1809
fingerprint cards. 1810

       The director shall pay to each agency supplying criminal 1811
records for each investigation a reasonable fee, as determined by 1812
the agency. 1813

       The commission may adopt uniform rules specifying time 1814
periods after which the persons described in divisions (C)(1) to 1815
(5) and (D)(1) to (4) of this section may be issued a license and 1816
establishing requirements for those persons to seek a court order 1817
to have records sealed in accordance with law.1818

       (G)(1) Each applicant for a lottery sales agent license shall 1819
do both of the following:1820

       (a) Pay fees to the state lottery commission, if required by 1821
rule adopted by the director under Chapter 119. of the Revised 1822
Code and the controlling board approves the fees;1823

       (b) Prior to approval of the application, obtain a surety 1824
bond in an amount the director determines by rule adopted under 1825
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code or, alternatively, with the 1826
director's approval, deposit the same amount into a dedicated 1827
account for the benefit of the state lottery. The director also 1828
may approve the obtaining of a surety bond to cover part of the 1829
amount required, together with a dedicated account deposit to 1830
cover the remainder of the amount required. The director also may 1831
establish an alternative program or policy, with the approval of 1832
the commission by rule adopted under Chapter 119. of the Revised 1833
Code, that otherwise ensures the lottery's financial interests are 1834
adequately protected. If such an alternative program or policy is 1835
established, an applicant or lottery sales agent, subject to the 1836
director's approval, may be permitted to participate in the 1837
program or proceed under that policy in lieu of providing a surety 1838
bond or dedicated amount.1839

       A surety bond may be with any company that complies with the 1840
bonding and surety laws of this state and the requirements 1841
established by rules of the commission pursuant to this chapter. A 1842
dedicated account deposit shall be conducted in accordance with 1843
policies and procedures the director establishes.1844

       A surety bond, dedicated account, other established program 1845
or policy, or bothany combination of these resources, as 1846
applicable, may be used to pay for the lottery sales agent's 1847
failure to make prompt and accurate payments for lottery ticket 1848
sales, for missing or stolen lottery tickets, for damage to 1849
equipment or materials issued to the lottery sales agent, or to 1850
pay for expenses the commission incurs in connection with the 1851
lottery sales agent's license.1852

       (2) A lottery sales agent license is effective for at least1853
one year, but not more than three years.1854

       A licensed lottery sales agent, on or before the date 1855
established by the director, shall renew the agent's license and 1856
provide at that time evidence to the director that the surety 1857
bond, dedicated account deposit, or both, required under division 1858
(G)(1)(b) of this section has been renewed or is active, whichever 1859
applies. 1860

        Before the commission renews a lottery sales agent license, 1861
the lottery sales agent shall submit a renewal fee to the 1862
commission, if one is required by rule adopted by the director 1863
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and the controlling board 1864
approves the renewal fee. The renewal fee shall not exceed the 1865
actual cost of administering the license renewal and processing 1866
changes reflected in the renewal application. The renewal of the 1867
license is effective for up toat least one year, but not more 1868
than three years.1869

       (3) A lottery sales agent license shall be complete, 1870
accurate, and current at all times during the term of the license. 1871
Any changes to an original license application or a renewal 1872
application may subject the applicant or lottery sales agent, as 1873
applicable, to paying an administrative fee that shall be in an 1874
amount that the director determines by rule adopted under Chapter 1875
119. of the Revised Code, that the controlling board approves, and 1876
that shall not exceed the actual cost of administering and 1877
processing the changes to an application.1878

       (4) The relationship between the commission and a lottery 1879
sales agent is one of trust. A lottery sales agent collects funds 1880
on behalf of the commission through the sale of lottery tickets 1881
for which the agent receives a compensation.1882

       (H) Pending a final resolution of any question arising under 1883
this section, the director of the state lottery commission may 1884
issue a temporary lottery sales agent license, subject to the 1885
terms and conditions the director considers appropriate.1886

       (I) If a lottery sales agent's rental payments for the 1887
lottery sales agent's premises are determined, in whole or in 1888
part, by the amount of retail sales the lottery sales agent makes, 1889
and if the rental agreement does not expressly provide that the 1890
amount of those retail sales includes the amounts the lottery 1891
sales agent receives from lottery ticket sales, only the amounts 1892
the lottery sales agent receives as compensation from the state 1893
lottery commission for selling lottery tickets shall be considered 1894
to be amounts the lottery sales agent receives from the retail 1895
sales the lottery sales agent makes, for the purpose of computing 1896
the lottery sales agent's rental payments.1897

       Sec. 3770.21. (A) As used in this section:1898

       (1) "Video lottery terminal" means any electronic device 1899
approved by the state lottery commission that provides immediate 1900
prize determinations for participants on an electronic display.1901

       (2) "Video lottery terminal promotional gaming credit" means 1902
a video lottery terminal game credit, discount, or other similar 1903
item issued to a patron to enable the placement of, or increase 1904
in, a wager at a video lottery terminal.1905

       (B) The state lottery commission shall include, in 1906
conjunction with the state racing commission, in any rules adopted 1907
concerning video lottery terminals, the level of minimum 1908
investments that must be made by video lottery terminal licensees 1909
in the buildings, fixtures, and grounds at the facilities, 1910
including temporary facilities, in which the terminals will be 1911
located, along with any standards and timetables for such 1912
investments.1913

       (C) Racetrack operators and management companies that are a 1914
licensed lottery sales agent may provide video lottery terminal 1915
promotional gaming credits to patrons for video lottery terminal 1916
gaming. Video lottery terminal promotional gaming credits shall be 1917
subject to oversight by the commission. The commission shall adopt 1918
rules for video lottery terminal promotional gaming credits.1919

       (D) No license or excise tax or fee not in effect on the 1920
effective date of this section shall be assessed upon or collected 1921
from a video lottery terminal licensee by any county, township, 1922
municipal corporation, school district, or other political 1923
subdivision of the state that has authority to assess or collect a 1924
tax or fee by reason of the video lottery terminal related conduct 1925
authorized by section 3770.03 of the Revised Code. This division 1926
does not prohibit the imposition of taxes under Chapter 718. or 1927
3769. of the Revised Code.1928

       (D)(E) The supreme court shall have exclusive, original 1929
jurisdiction over any claim asserting that this section or section 1930
3770.03 of the Revised Code or any portion of those sections or 1931
any rule adopted under those sections violates any provision of 1932
the Ohio Constitution, any claim asserting that any action taken 1933
by the governor or the lottery commission pursuant to those 1934
sections violates any provision of the Ohio Constitution or any 1935
provision of the Revised Code, or any claim asserting that any 1936
portion of this section violates any provision of the Ohio 1937
Constitution. If any claim over which the supreme court is granted 1938
exclusive, original jurisdiction by this division is filed in any 1939
lower court, the claim shall be dismissed by the court on the 1940
ground that the court lacks jurisdiction to review it.1941

       (E)(F) Should any portion of this section or of section 1942
3770.03 of the Revised Code be found to be unenforceable or 1943
invalid, it shall be severed and the remaining portions remain in 1944
full force and effect.1945

       Sec. 3770.22.  (A) Any information concerning the following 1946
that is submitted, collected, or gathered as part of an 1947
application to the state lottery commission for a video lottery 1948
related license under this chapter is confidential and not subject 1949
to disclosure by a state agency or political subdivision as a 1950
public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code:1951

       (1) A dependent of an applicant;1952

       (2) The social security number, passport number, or federal 1953
tax identification number of an applicant or the spouse of an 1954
applicant;1955

       (3) The home address and telephone number of an applicant or 1956
the spouse or dependent of an applicant;1957

       (4) An applicant's birth certificate;1958

       (5) The driver's license number of an applicant or the 1959
applicant's spouse;1960

       (6) The name or address of a previous spouse of the 1961
applicant;1962

       (7) The date of birth of the applicant and the spouse of an 1963
applicant;1964

       (8) The place of birth of the applicant and the spouse of an 1965
applicant;1966

       (9) The personal financial information and records of an 1967
applicant or of an employee or the spouse or dependent of an 1968
applicant, including tax returns and information, and records of 1969
criminal proceedings;1970

       (10) Any information concerning a victim of domestic 1971
violence, sexual assault, or stalking;1972

       (11) The electronic mail address of the spouse or family 1973
member of the applicant;1974

       (12) Any trade secret, medical records, and patents or 1975
exclusive licenses;1976

       (13) Security information, including risk prevention plans, 1977
detection and countermeasures, location of count rooms or other 1978
money storage areas, emergency management plans, security and 1979
surveillance plans, equipment and usage protocols, and theft and 1980
fraud prevention plans and countermeasures.1981

       (B) The individual's name, the individual's place of 1982
employment, the individual's job title, and the individual's 1983
gaming experience that is provided for an individual who holds, 1984
held, or has applied for a video lottery related license under 1985
this chapter is not confidential. The reason for denial or 1986
revocation of a video lottery related license or for disciplinary 1987
action against the individual is not confidential.1988

       (C) An individual who holds, held, or has applied for a video 1989
lottery related license under this chapter may waive the 1990
confidentiality requirements of division (A) of this section.1991

       (D) Confidential information received by the commission from 1992
another jurisdiction relating to a person who holds, held, or has 1993
applied for a license under this chapter is confidential and not 1994
subject to disclosure as a public record under section 149.43 of 1995
the Revised Code. The commission may share the information 1996
referenced in this division with, or disclose the information to, 1997
the inspector general, any appropriate prosecuting authority, any 1998
law enforcement agency, or any other appropriate governmental or 1999
licensing agency, if the agency that receives the information 2000
complies with the same requirements regarding confidentiality as 2001
those with which the commission must comply.2002

       Sec. 3772.01. As used in this chapter:2003

       (A) "Applicant" means any person who applies to the 2004
commission for a license under this chapter.2005

       (B) "Casino control commission fund" means the casino control 2006
commission fund described in Section 6(C)(3)(d) of Article XV, 2007
Ohio Constitution, the money in which shall be used to fund the 2008
commission and its related affairs.2009

       (C) "Casino facility" means a casino facility as defined in 2010
Section 6(C)(9) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution.2011

       (D) "Casino game" means any slot machine or table game as 2012
defined in this chapter.2013

       (E) "Casino gaming" means any type of slot machine or table 2014
game wagering, using money, casino credit, or any representative 2015
of value, authorized in any of the states of Indiana, Michigan, 2016
Pennsylvania, and West Virginia as of January 1, 2009, and 2017
includes slot machine and table game wagering subsequently 2018
authorized by, but shall not be limited by, subsequent 2019
restrictions placed on such wagering in such states. "Casino 2020
gaming" does not include bingo, as authorized in Section 6 of 2021
Article XV, Ohio Constitution and conducted as of January 1, 2009, 2022
or horse racing where the pari-mutuel system of wagering is 2023
conducted, as authorized under the laws of this state as of 2024
January 1, 2009.2025

       (E)(F) "Casino gaming employee" means any employee of a 2026
casino operator or management company, but not a key employee, and 2027
as further defined in section 3772.131 of the Revised Code.2028

       (F)(G) "Casino operator" means any person, trust, 2029
corporation, partnership, limited partnership, association, 2030
limited liability company, or other business enterprise that 2031
directly or indirectly holds an ownership or leasehold interest in 2032
a casino facility. "Casino operator" does not include an agency of 2033
the state, any political subdivision of the state, any person, 2034
trust, corporation, partnership, limited partnership, association, 2035
limited liability company, or other business enterprise that may 2036
have an interest in a casino facility, but who is legally or 2037
contractually restricted from conducting casino gaming.2038

       (G)(H) "Central system" means a computer system that provides 2039
the following functions related to casino gaming equipment used in 2040
connection with casino gaming authorized under this chapter: 2041
security, auditing, data and information retrieval, and other 2042
purposes deemed necessary and authorized by the commission.2043

       (H)(I) "Cheat" means to alter the result of a casino game, 2044
the element of chance, the operation of a machine used in a casino 2045
game, or the method of selection of criteria that determines (a) 2046
the result of the casino game, (b) the amount or frequency of 2047
payment in a casino game, (c) the value of a wagering instrument, 2048
or (d) the value of a wagering credit.2049

       (J) "Commission" means the Ohio casino control commission.2050

       (I)(K) "Gaming agent" means a peace officer employed by the 2051
commission that is vested with duties to enforce this chapter and 2052
conduct other investigations into the conduct of the casino gaming 2053
and the maintenance of the equipment that the commission considers 2054
necessary and proper and is in compliance with section 109.77 of 2055
the Revised Code.2056

       (J)(L) "Gaming-related vendor" means any individual, 2057
partnership, corporation, association, trust, or any other group 2058
of individuals, however organized, who supplies gaming-related 2059
equipment, goods, or services to a casino operator or management 2060
company, that are directly related to or affect casino gaming 2061
authorized under this chapter, including, but not limited to, the 2062
manufacture, sale, distribution, or repair of slot machines and 2063
table game equipment.2064

       (K)(M) "Holding company" means any corporation, firm, 2065
partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, 2066
trust, or other form of business organization not a natural person 2067
which directly or indirectly owns, hasdoes any of the following:2068

       (1) Has the power or right to control, or holds with power to 2069
vote, any part of an applicant,a casino operator, management 2070
company, or gaming-related vendor license applicant or licensee;2071

       (2) Holds an ownership interest of five per cent or more, as 2072
determined by the commission, in a casino operator, management 2073
company, or gaming-related vendor license applicant or licensee; 2074

       (3) Holds voting rights with the power to vote five per cent 2075
or more of the outstanding voting rights of a casino operator, 2076
management company, or gaming-related vendor applicant or 2077
licensee.2078

       (L)(N) "Initial investment" includes costs related to 2079
demolition, engineering, architecture, design, site preparation, 2080
construction, infrastructure improvements, land acquisition, 2081
fixtures and equipment, insurance related to construction, and 2082
leasehold improvements.2083

       (M)(O) "Institutional investor" means any of the following 2084
entities owning onemore than five per cent or less, or a 2085
percentage between one and ten per cent as approved by the 2086
commission through a waiver on a case-by-case basis, but less than 2087
fifteen per cent, of an ownership interest in a casino facility, 2088
casino operator, management company, or holding company: a 2089
corporation, bank, insurance company, pension fund or pension fund 2090
trust, retirement fund, including funds administered by a public 2091
agency, employees' profit-sharing fund or employees' 2092
profit-sharing trust, any association engaged, as a substantial 2093
part of its business or operations, in purchasing or holding 2094
securities, including a hedge fund, mutual fund, or private equity 2095
fund, or any trust in respect of which a bank is trustee or 2096
cotrustee, investment company registered under the "Investment 2097
Company Act of 1940," 15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq., collective 2098
investment trust organized by banks under Part Nine of the Rules 2099
of the Comptroller of the Currency, closed-end investment trust, 2100
chartered or licensed life insurance company or property and 2101
casualty insurance company, investment advisor registered under 2102
the "Investment Advisors Act of 1940," 15 U.S.C. 80 b-1 et seq., 2103
and such other persons as the commission may reasonably determine 2104
to qualify as an institutional investor for reasons consistent 2105
with this chapter, and that does not exercise control over the 2106
affairs of a licensee and its ownership interest in a licensee is 2107
for investment purposes only, as set forth in division (E) of 2108
section 3772.10 of the Revised Code.2109

       (N)(P) "Key employee" means any executive, employee, or agent 2110
of a casino operator or management company licensee having the 2111
power to exercise significant influence over decisions concerning 2112
any part of the operation of such licensee, including:2113

       (1) An officer, director, trustee, or partner of a person 2114
that has applied for or holds a casino operator, management 2115
company, or gaming-related vendor license or of a holding company 2116
that has control of a person that has applied for or holds a 2117
casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor 2118
license;2119

       (2) A person that holds a direct or indirect ownership 2120
interest of more than one per cent in a person that has applied 2121
for or holds a casino operator, management company, or 2122
gaming-related vendor license or holding company that has control 2123
of a person that has applied for or holds a casino operator, 2124
management company, or gaming-related vendor license;2125

       (3) A managerial employee of a person that has applied for or 2126
holds a casino operator or gaming-related vendor license in Ohio, 2127
or a managerial employee of a holding company that has control of 2128
a person that has applied for or holds a casino operator or 2129
gaming-related vendor license in Ohio, who performs the function 2130
of principal executive officer, principal operating officer, 2131
principal accounting officer, or an equivalent officer or other 2132
person the commission determines to have the power to exercise 2133
significant influence over decisions concerning any part of the 2134
operation of such licensee.2135

       The commission shall determine whether an individual whose 2136
duties or status varies from those described in this division also 2137
is considered a key employee.2138

       (O)(Q) "Licensed casino operator" means a casino operator 2139
that has been issued a license by the commission and that has been 2140
certified annually by the commission to have paid all applicable 2141
fees, taxes, and debts to the state.2142

       (P)(R) "Majority ownership interest" in a license or in a 2143
casino facility, as the case may be, means ownership of more than 2144
fifty per cent of such license or casino facility, as the case may 2145
be. For purposes of the foregoing, whether a majority ownership 2146
interest is held in a license or in a casino facility, as the case 2147
may be, shall be determined under the rules for constructive 2148
ownership of stock provided in Treas. Reg. 1.409A-3(i)(5)(iii) as 2149
in effect on January 1, 2009.2150

       (Q)(S) "Management company" means an organization retained by 2151
a casino operator to manage a casino facility and provide services 2152
such as accounting, general administration, maintenance, 2153
recruitment, and other operational services.2154

       (R)(T) "Ohio law enforcement training fund" means the state 2155
law enforcement training fund described in Section 6(C)(3)(f) of 2156
Article XV, Ohio Constitution, the money in which shall be used to 2157
enhance public safety by providing additional training 2158
opportunities to the law enforcement community.2159

       (S)(U) "Person" includes, but is not limited to, an 2160
individual or a combination of individuals; a sole proprietorship, 2161
a firm, a company, a joint venture, a partnership of any type, a 2162
joint-stock company, a corporation of any type, a corporate 2163
subsidiary of any type, a limited liability company, a business 2164
trust, or any other business entity or organization; an assignee; 2165
a receiver; a trustee in bankruptcy; an unincorporated 2166
association, club, society, or other unincorporated entity or 2167
organization; entities that are disregarded for federal income tax 2168
purposes; and any other nongovernmental, artificial, legal entity 2169
that is capable of engaging in business.2170

       (T)(V) "Problem casino gambling and addictions fund" means 2171
the state problem gambling and addictions fund described in 2172
Section 6(C)(3)(g) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, the money in 2173
which shall be used for treatment of problem gambling and 2174
substance abuse, and for related research.2175

       (U)(W) "Promotional gaming credit" means a slot machine or 2176
table game credit, discount, or other similar item issued to a 2177
patron to enable the placement of, or increase in, a wager at a 2178
slot machine or table game.2179

       (V)(X) "Slot machine" means any mechanical, electrical, or 2180
other device or machine which, upon insertion of a coin, token, 2181
ticket, or similar object, or upon payment of any consideration, 2182
is available to play or operate, the play or operation of which, 2183
whether by reason of the skill of the operator or application of 2184
the element of chance, or both, makes individual prize 2185
determinations for individual participants in cash, premiums, 2186
merchandise, tokens, or any thing of value, whether the payoff is 2187
made automatically from the machine or in any other manner.2188

       (W)(Y) "Table game" means any game played with cards, dice, 2189
or any mechanical, electromechanical, or electronic device or 2190
machine for money, casino credit, or any representative of value. 2191
"Table game" does not include slot machines.2192

       (X)(Z) "Upfront license" means the first plenary license 2193
issued to a casino operator.2194

       (Y)(AA) "Voluntary exclusion program" means a program 2195
provided by the commission that allows persons to voluntarily 2196
exclude themselves from the gaming areas of facilities under the 2197
jurisdiction of the commission by placing their name on a 2198
voluntary exclusion list and following the procedures set forth by 2199
the commission.2200

       Sec. 3772.04. (A)(1) If, as the result of an investigation, 2201
the commission concludes that a license or finding required by 2202
this chapter should be limited, conditioned, or restricted, or 2203
suspended or revoked, the commission shall conductAfter notice 2204
and opportunity for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the 2205
Revised Code, the commission may limit, condition, restrict, 2206
suspend, revoke, deny, or not renew a license under rules adopted 2207
by the commission. The commission may reopen a licensing 2208
adjudication at any time.2209

       (2) The commission shall appoint a hearing examiner to 2210
conduct the hearing in the adjudication. A party to the 2211
adjudication may file written objections to the hearing examiner's 2212
report and recommendations not later than the thirtieth day after 2213
they are served upon the party or the party's attorney or other 2214
representative of record. The commission shall not take up the 2215
hearing examiner's report and recommendations earlier than the 2216
thirtieth day after the hearing examiner's report and 2217
recommendations were submitted to the commission.2218

       (3) If the commission finds that a person fails or has failed 2219
to meet any requirement under this chapter or a rule adopted 2220
thereunder, or violates or has violated this chapter or a rule 2221
adopted thereunder, the commission may issue an order:2222

       (a) Limiting, conditioning, or restricting, or suspending or,2223
revoking, denying, or not renewing, a license issued under this 2224
chapter;2225

       (b) Limiting, conditioning, or restricting, or suspending or 2226
revoking, a finding made under this chapter;2227

       (c) Requiring a casino facility to exclude a licensee from 2228
the casino facility or requiring a casino facility not to pay to 2229
the licensee any remuneration for services or any share of 2230
profits, income, or accruals on the licensee's investment in the 2231
casino facility; or2232

       (d)(c) Fining a licensee or other person according to the 2233
penalties adopted by the commission.2234

       (4) An order may be judicially reviewed under section 119.12 2235
of the Revised Code.2236

       (B) Without in any manner limiting the authority of the 2237
commission to impose the level and type of discipline the 2238
commission considers appropriate, the commission may take into 2239
consideration the following:2240

       (1) If the licensee knew or reasonably should have known that 2241
the action complained of was a violation of any law, rule, or 2242
condition on the licensee's license;2243

       (2) If the licensee has previously been disciplined by the 2244
commission;2245

       (3) If the licensee has previously been subject to discipline 2246
by the commission concerning the violation of any law, rule, or 2247
condition of the licensee's license;2248

       (4) If the licensee reasonably relied upon professional 2249
advice from a lawyer, doctor, accountant, or other recognized 2250
professional that was relevant to the action resulting in the 2251
violation;2252

       (5) If the licensee or the licensee's employer had a 2253
reasonably constituted and functioning compliance program;2254

       (6) If the imposition of a condition requiring the licensee 2255
to establish and implement a written self-enforcement and 2256
compliance program would assist in ensuring the licensee's future 2257
compliance with all statutes, rules, and conditions of the 2258
license;2259

       (7) If the licensee realized a pecuniary gain from the 2260
violation;2261

       (8) If the amount of any fine or other penalty imposed would 2262
result in disgorgement of any gains unlawfully realized by the 2263
licensee;2264

       (9) If the violation was caused by an officer or employee of 2265
the licensee, the level of authority of the individual who caused 2266
the violation;2267

       (10) If the individual who caused the violation acted within 2268
the scope of the individual's authority as granted by the 2269
licensee;2270

       (11) The adequacy of any training programs offered by the 2271
licensee or the licensee's employer that were relevant to the 2272
activity that resulted in the violation;2273

       (12) If the licensee's action substantially deviated from 2274
industry standards and customs;2275

       (13) The extent to which the licensee cooperated with the 2276
commission during the investigation of the violation;2277

       (14) If the licensee has initiated remedial measures to 2278
prevent similar violations;2279

       (15) The magnitude of penalties imposed on other licensees 2280
for similar violations;2281

       (16) The proportionality of the penalty in relation to the 2282
misconduct;2283

       (17) The extent to which the amount of any fine imposed would 2284
punish the licensee for the conduct and deter future violations;2285

       (18) Any mitigating factors offered by the licensee; and2286

       (19) Any other factors the commission considers relevant.2287

       (C) For the purpose of conducting any study or investigation, 2288
the commission may direct that public hearings be held at a time 2289
and place, prescribed by the commission, in accordance with 2290
section 121.22 of the Revised Code. The commission shall give 2291
notice of all public hearings in such manner as will give actual 2292
notice to all interested parties.2293

       (C)(D) In the discharge of any duties imposed by this 2294
chapter, the commission may require that testimony be given under 2295
oath and administer such oath, issue subpoenas compelling the 2296
attendance of witnesses and the production of any papers, books, 2297
and accounts, and cause the deposition of any witness. In the 2298
event of the refusal of any person without good cause to comply 2299
with the terms of a subpoena issued by the commission or refusal 2300
to testify on matters about which the person may lawfully be 2301
questioned, the prosecuting attorney of the county in which such 2302
person resides, upon the petition of the commission, may bring a 2303
proceeding for contempt against such person in the court of common 2304
pleas of that county.2305

       (D)(E) When conducting a public hearing, the commission shall 2306
not limit the number of speakers who may testify. However, the 2307
commission may set reasonable time limits on the length of an 2308
individual's testimony or the total amount of time allotted to 2309
proponents and opponents of an issue before the commission.2310

       (E) An administrative law judge appointed by the commission 2311
may conduct a hearing under this chapter and recommend findings of 2312
fact and decisions to the commission.2313

       (F) The commission may rely, in whole or in part, upon 2314
investigations, conclusions, or findings of other casino gaming 2315
commissions or other government regulatory bodies in connection 2316
with licensing, investigations, or other matters relating to an 2317
applicant or licensee under this chapter.2318

       Sec. 3772.07.  The following appointing or licensing 2319
authorities shall obtain a criminal records check of the person 2320
who is to be appointed or licensed:2321

       (A) The governor, before appointing an individual as a member 2322
of the commission;2323

       (B) The commission, before appointing an individual as 2324
executive director or a gaming agent;2325

       (C) The commission, before issuing a license for a key 2326
employee or casino gaming employee, and before issuing a license 2327
for each investor, except an institutional investor, for a casino 2328
operator, management company, holding company, or gaming-related 2329
vendor;2330

       (D) The executive director, before appointing an individual 2331
as a professional, technical, or clerical employee of the 2332
commission.2333

       Thereafter, such an appointing or licensing authority shall 2334
obtain a criminal records check of the same individual at 2335
three-year intervals.2336

       The appointing or licensing authority shall provide to each 2337
person of whom a criminal records check is required a copy of the 2338
form and the standard fingerprint impression sheet prescribed 2339
under divisions (C)(1) and (2) of section 109.572 of the Revised 2340
Code. The person shall complete the form and impression sheet and 2341
return them to the appointing or licensing authority. If a person 2342
fails to complete and return the form and impression sheet within 2343
a reasonable time, the person is ineligible to be appointed or 2344
licensed or to continue in the appointment or licensure.2345

       The appointing or licensing authority shall forward the 2346
completed form and impression sheet to the superintendent of the 2347
bureau of criminal identification and investigation. The 2348
appointing or licensing authority shall request the superintendent 2349
also to obtain information from the federal bureau of 2350
investigation, including fingerprint-based checks of the national 2351
crime information databases, and from other states and the federal 2352
government under the national crime prevention and privacy compact 2353
as part of the criminal records check.2354

       The commission shall pay the fee the bureau of criminal 2355
identification and investigation charges for all criminal records 2356
checks conducted under this section. An applicant for a casino 2357
operator, management company, holding company, or gaming-related 2358
vendor license shall reimburse the commission for the amount of 2359
the fee paid on the applicant's behalf. An applicant for a key 2360
employee or casino gaming employee license shall reimburse the 2361
commission for the amount of the fee paid on the applicant's 2362
behalf, unless the applicant is applying at the request of a 2363
casino operator or management company, in which case the casino 2364
operator or management company shall reimburse the commission.2365

       The appointing or licensing authority shall review the 2366
results of a criminal records check. An appointee for a commission 2367
member shall forward the results of the criminal records check to 2368
the president of the senate before the senate advises and consents 2369
to the appointment of the commission member. The appointing or 2370
licensing authority shall not appoint or license or retain the 2371
appointment or licensure of a person a criminal records check 2372
discloses has been convicted of or has pleaded guilty or no 2373
contest to a disqualifying offense. A "disqualifying offense" 2374
means any gambling offense, any theft offense, any offense having 2375
an element of fraud or misrepresentation, any offense having an 2376
element of moral turpitude, and any felony not otherwise included 2377
in the foregoing list, except as otherwise provided in section 2378
3772.10 of the Revised Code.2379

       The report of a criminal records check is not a public record 2380
that is open to public inspection and copying. The commission 2381
shall not make the report available to any person other than the 2382
person who was the subject of the criminal records check; an 2383
appointing or licensing authority; a member, the executive 2384
director, or an employee of the commission; or any court or 2385
agency, including a hearing examiner, in a judicial or 2386
administrative proceeding relating to the person's employment with 2387
the entity requesting the criminal records check in which the 2388
criminal records check is relevant. 2389

       Sec. 3772.091. (A) NoA casino operator license issued under 2390
this chapter is transferable subject to approval by the 2391
commission. New majority ownership interest orAny change or 2392
transfer of control of a casino operator shall require a new 2393
licensecommission approval. The commission may reopen a licensing 2394
investigation at any time. A significantAny change in or transfer 2395
of control of a casino operator, as determined by the commission, 2396
shall require the filing of an application for a newtransferring 2397
the casino operator license and submission of a licensean 2398
application fee with the commission before any such change or 2399
transfer of control ismay be approved. A change in or transfer of 2400
control to an immediate family member is not considered a 2401
significant change under this sectionAdditionally, the commission 2402
may assess an applicant a reasonable fee in the amount necessary 2403
to review the application for the transfer of a casino operator 2404
license to the applicant. In determining whether to approve the 2405
transfer of a casino operator license to the applicant, the 2406
commission shall consider all the factors established in Chapter 2407
3772. of the Revised Code that pertain to the granting of a casino 2408
operator license. The commission may reopen a licensing 2409
investigation at any time.2410

       (B) As used in this section, "control" means either of the 2411
following:2412

       (1) Either:2413

       (a) Holding fiftythirty per cent or more of the outstanding 2414
voting securities of a licensee; or2415

       (b) For an unincorporated licensee, having the right to fifty2416
thirty per cent or more of the profits of the licensee, or having 2417
the right in the event of dissolution to fiftythirty per cent or 2418
more of the assets of the licensee.2419

       (2) Having the contractual power presently to designate fifty2420
thirty per cent or more of the directors of a for-profit or 2421
not-for-profit corporation, or in the case of trusts described in 2422
paragraphs (c)(3) to (5) of 16 C.F.R. 801.1, the trustees of such 2423
a trust.2424

       Sec. 3772.10. (A) In determining whether to grant or maintain 2425
the privilege of a casino operator, management company, holding 2426
company, key employee, casino gaming employee, or gaming-related 2427
vendor license, the Ohio casino control commission shall consider 2428
all of the following, as applicable:2429

       (1) The reputation, experience, and financial integrity of 2430
the applicant, its holding company, if applicable, and any other 2431
person that directly or indirectly controls the applicant;2432

       (2) The financial ability of the applicant to purchase and 2433
maintain adequate liability and casualty insurance and to provide 2434
an adequate surety bond;2435

       (3) The past and present compliance of the applicant and its 2436
affiliates or affiliated companies with casino-related licensing 2437
requirements in this state or any other jurisdiction, including 2438
whether the applicant has a history of noncompliance with the 2439
casino licensing requirements of any jurisdiction;2440

       (4) If the applicant has been indicted, convicted, pleaded 2441
guilty or no contest, or forfeited bail concerning any criminal 2442
offense under the laws of any jurisdiction, either felony or 2443
misdemeanor, not including traffic violations;2444

       (5) If the applicant has filed, or had filed against it a 2445
proceeding for bankruptcy or has ever been involved in any formal 2446
process to adjust, defer, suspend, or otherwise work out the 2447
payment of any debt;2448

       (6) If the applicant has been served with a complaint or 2449
other notice filed with any public body regarding a payment of any 2450
tax required under federal, state, or local law that has been 2451
delinquent for one or more years;2452

       (7) If the applicant is or has been a defendant in litigation 2453
involving its business practices;2454

       (8) If awarding a license would undermine the public's 2455
confidence in the casino gaming industry in this state;2456

       (9) If the applicant meets other standards for the issuance 2457
of a license that the commission adopts by rule, which shall not 2458
be arbitrary, capricious, or contradictory to the expressed 2459
provisions of this chapter.2460

       (B) All applicants for a license under this chapter shall 2461
establish their suitability for a license by clear and convincing 2462
evidence. If the commission determines that a person is eligible 2463
under this chapter to be issued a license as a casino operator, 2464
management company, holding company, key employee, casino gaming 2465
employee, or gaming-related vendor, the commission shall issue 2466
such license for not more than three years, as determined by 2467
commission rule, if all other requirements of this chapter have 2468
been satisfied.2469

       (C) The commission shall not issue a casino operator, 2470
management company, holding company, key employee, casino gaming 2471
employee, or gaming-related vendor license under this chapter to 2472
an applicant if:2473

       (1) The applicant has been convicted of a disqualifying 2474
offense, as defined in section 3772.07 of the Revised Code.2475

       (2) The applicant has submitted an application for license 2476
under this chapter that contains false information.2477

       (3) The applicant is a commission member.2478

       (4) The applicant owns an ownership interest that is unlawful 2479
under this chapter, unless waived by the commission.2480

       (5) The applicant violates specific rules adopted by the 2481
commission related to denial of licensure.2482

       (6) The applicant is a member of or employed by a gaming 2483
regulatory body of a governmental unit in this state, another 2484
state, or the federal government, or is employed by a governmental 2485
unit of this state. This division does not prohibit a casino 2486
operator from hiring special duty law enforcement officers if the 2487
officers are not specifically involved in gaming-related 2488
regulatory functions.2489

       (7) The commission otherwise determines the applicant is 2490
ineligible for the license.2491

       (D)(1) The commission shall investigate the qualifications of 2492
each applicant under this chapter before any license is issued and 2493
before any finding with regard to acts or transactions for which 2494
commission approval is required is made. The commission shall 2495
continue to observe the conduct of all licensees and all other 2496
persons having a material involvement directly or indirectly with 2497
a casino operator, management company, or holding company to 2498
ensure that licenses are not issued to or held by, or that there 2499
is not any material involvement with a casino operator, management 2500
company, or holding company by, an unqualified, disqualified, or 2501
unsuitable person or a person whose operations are conducted in an 2502
unsuitable manner or in unsuitable or prohibited places or 2503
locations.2504

       (2) The executive director may recommend to the commission 2505
that it deny any application, or limit, condition, or restrict, or 2506
suspend or revoke, any license or finding, or impose any fine upon 2507
any licensee or other person according to this chapter and the 2508
rules adopted thereunder.2509

       (3) A license issued under this chapter is a revocable 2510
privilege. No licensee has a vested right in or under any license 2511
issued under this chapter. The initial determination of the 2512
commission to deny, or to limit, condition, or restrict, a license 2513
may be appealed under section 2505.03 of the Revised Code.2514

       (E)(1) An institutional investor otherwise required toshall2515
be found to be suitable or qualified by the commission under this 2516
chapter and the rules adopted under this chapter. An institutional 2517
investor shall be presumed suitable or qualified upon submitting 2518
documentation sufficient to establish qualifications as an 2519
institutional investor and upon certifying all of the following:2520

       (a) The institutional investor owns, holds, or controls 2521
publicly traded securities issued by a licensee or holding, 2522
intermediate, or parent company of a licensee or in the ordinary 2523
course of business for investment purposes only.2524

       (b) The institutional investor does not exercise influence 2525
over the affairs of the issuer of such securities nor over any 2526
licensed subsidiary of the issuer of such securities.2527

       (c) The institutional investor does not intend to exercise 2528
influence over the affairs of the issuer of such securities, nor 2529
over any licensed subsidiary of the issuer of such securities, in 2530
the future, and that it agrees to notify the commission in writing 2531
within thirty days if such intent changes.2532

       (2) The exercise of voting privileges with regard to publicly 2533
traded securities shall not be deemed to constitute the exercise 2534
of influence over the affairs of a licensee.2535

       (3) The commission shall rescind the presumption of 2536
suitability for an institutional investor at any time if the 2537
institutional investor exercises or intends to exercise influence 2538
or control over the affairs of the licensee.2539

       (4) This division shall not be construed to preclude the 2540
commission from requesting information from or investigating the 2541
suitability or qualifications of an institutional investor if the:2542

       (a) The commission becomes aware of facts or information that 2543
may result in the institutional investor being found unsuitable or 2544
disqualified; or2545

       (b) The commission has any other reason to seek information 2546
from the investor to determine whether it qualifies as an 2547
institutional investor.2548

       (5) If the commission finds an institutional investor to be 2549
unsuitable or unqualified, the commission shall so notify the 2550
investor and the casino operator, holding company, management 2551
company, or gaming-related vendor licensee in which the investor 2552
invested. The commission shall allow the investor and the licensee 2553
a reasonable amount of time, as specified by the commission on a 2554
case-by-case basis, to cure the conditions that caused the 2555
commission to find the investor unsuitable or unqualified. If 2556
during the specified period of time the investor or the licensee 2557
does not or cannot cure the conditions that caused the commission 2558
to find the investor unsuitable or unqualified, the commission may 2559
allow the investor or licensee more time to cure the conditions or 2560
the commission may begin proceedings to deny, suspend, or revoke 2561
the license of the casino operator, holding company, management 2562
company, or gaming-related vendor in which the investor invested 2563
or to deny any of the same the renewal of any such license.2564

       (6) A private licensee or holding company shall provide the 2565
same information to the commission as a public company would 2566
provide in a form 13d or form 13g filing to the securities and 2567
exchange commission.2568

       (F) Information provided on the application shall be used as 2569
a basis for a thorough background investigation of each applicant. 2570
A false or incomplete application is cause for denial of a license 2571
by the commission. All applicants and licensees shall consent to 2572
inspections, searches, and seizures and to the disclosure to the 2573
commission and its agents of confidential records, including tax 2574
records, held by any federal, state, or local agency, credit 2575
bureau, or financial institution and to provide handwriting 2576
exemplars, photographs, fingerprints, and information as 2577
authorized in this chapter and in rules adopted by the commission.2578

       Sec. 3772.13. (A) No person may be employed as a key employee 2579
unless the person is the holder of a valid key employee license 2580
issued by the commission. A gaming-related vendor and a key 2581
employee of that gaming-related vendor are exempt from this 2582
requirement during the first sixty days of the key employee's 2583
employment with the gaming-related vendor.2584

       (B) Each applicant shall, before the issuance of any key 2585
employee license, produce information, documentation, and 2586
assurances as are required by this chapter and rules adopted 2587
thereunder. In addition, each applicant shall, in writing, 2588
authorize the examination of all bank accounts and records as may 2589
be deemed necessary by the commission.2590

       (C) To be eligible for a key employee license, the applicant 2591
shall be at least twenty-one years of age and shall meet the 2592
criteria set forth by rule by the commission.2593

       (D) Each application for a key employee license shall be on a 2594
form prescribed by the commission and shall contain all 2595
information required by the commission. The applicant shall set 2596
forth in the application if the applicant has been issued prior 2597
gambling-related licenses; if the applicant has been licensed in 2598
any other state under any other name, and, if so, the name under 2599
which the license was issued and the applicant's age at the time 2600
the license was issued; any criminal conviction the applicant has 2601
had; and if a permit or license issued to the applicant in any 2602
other state has been suspended, restricted, or revoked, and, if 2603
so, the cause and the duration of each action.2604

       (E) Each applicant shall submit with each application, on a 2605
form provided by the commission, two sets of fingerprints and a 2606
photograph. The commission shall charge each applicant an 2607
application fee set by the commission to cover all actual costs 2608
generated by each licensee and all background checks under this 2609
section and section 3772.07 of the Revised Code.2610

       (F)(1) The casino operator, management company, or holding 2611
company by whom a person is employed as a key employee shall 2612
terminate the person's employment in any capacity requiring a 2613
license under this chapter and shall not in any manner permit the 2614
person to exercise a significant influence over the operation of a 2615
casino facility if:2616

       (a) The person does not apply for and receive a key employee 2617
license within three months of being issued a provisional license, 2618
as established under commission rule.2619

       (b) The person's application for a key employee license is 2620
denied by the commission.2621

       (c) The person's key employee license is revoked by the 2622
commission.2623

       The commission shall notify the casino operator, management 2624
company, or holding company who employs such a person by certified 2625
mail of any such finding, denial, or revocation.2626

       (2) A casino operator, management company, or holding company 2627
shall not pay to a person whose employment is terminated under 2628
division (F)(1) of this section, any remuneration for any services 2629
performed in any capacity in which the person is required to be 2630
licensed, except for amounts due for services rendered before 2631
notice was received under that division. A contract or other 2632
agreement for personal services or for the conduct of any casino 2633
gaming at a casino facility between a casino operator, management 2634
company, or holding company and a person whose employment is 2635
terminated under division (F)(1) of this section may be terminated 2636
by the casino operator, management company, or holding company 2637
without further liability on the part of the casino operator, 2638
management company, or holding company. Any such contract or other 2639
agreement is deemed to include a term authorizing its termination 2640
without further liability on the part of the casino operator, 2641
management company, or holding company upon receiving notice under 2642
division (F)(1) of this section. That a contract or other 2643
agreement does not expressly include such a term is not a defense 2644
in any action brought to terminate the contract or other 2645
agreement, and is not grounds for relief in any action brought 2646
questioning termination of the contract or other agreement.2647

       (3) A casino operator, management company, or holding 2648
company, without having obtained the prior approval of the 2649
commission, shall not enter into any contract or other agreement 2650
with a person who has been found unsuitable, who has been denied a 2651
license, or whose license has been revoked under division (F)(1) 2652
of this section, or with any business enterprise under the control 2653
of such a person, after the date on which the casino operator, 2654
management company, or holding company receives notice under that 2655
division.2656

       Sec. 3772.16. (A) Any information concerning the following 2657
submitted, collected, or gathered as part of an application to the 2658
commission for a license under this chapter is confidential and 2659
not subject to disclosure by any state agency or political 2660
subdivision as a record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code:2661

       (1) A minor child of an applicant;2662

       (2) The social security number, passport number, or federal 2663
tax identification number of an applicant or the spouse of an 2664
applicant;2665

       (3) The home address and telephone number of an applicant or 2666
the spouse or childrendependent of an applicant;2667

       (4) An applicant's birth certificate;2668

       (5) The driver's license number of an applicant or the 2669
applicant's spouse;2670

       (6) The name or address of a previous spouse of the 2671
applicant;2672

       (7) The date of birth of the applicant and the spouse of an 2673
applicant;2674

       (8) The place of birth of the applicant and the spouse of an 2675
applicant;2676

       (9) The personal financial information and records of an 2677
applicant or of an employee or the spouse or minor childdependent2678
of an applicant, including tax returns and information, and 2679
records of criminal proceedings;2680

       (10) Any information concerning a victim of domestic 2681
violence, sexual assault, or stalking;2682

       (11) The electronic mail address of the spouse or family 2683
member of the applicant;2684

       (12) An applicant's home addresses; and2685

       (13) Any trade secret, medical records, and patents or 2686
exclusive licenses;2687

       (13) Security information, including risk prevention plans, 2688
detection and countermeasures, location of count rooms or other 2689
money storage areas, emergency management plans, security and 2690
surveillance plans, equipment and usage protocols, and theft and 2691
fraud prevention plans and countermeasures.2692

       (B) Notwithstanding any other law, upon written request from 2693
a person, the commission shall provide the following information 2694
to the person except as provided in this chapter:2695

       (1) The information provided under this chapter concerning a 2696
licensee or an applicant;2697

       (2) The amount of the wagering tax and admission tax paid 2698
daily to the state by a licensed applicant or an operating agent; 2699
and2700

       (3) A copy of a letter providing the reasons for the denial 2701
of an applicant's license or an operating agent's contract and a 2702
copy of a letter providing the reasons for the commission's 2703
refusal to allow an applicant to withdraw the applicant's 2704
application, but with confidential information redacted if that 2705
information is the reason for the denial or refusal to withdraw.2706

       (C) In addition to information that is confidential under 2707
division (A) of this section, medical records, trade secrets, 2708
patents or exclusive licenses, and marketing materials maintained 2709
by the commission concerning a person who holds, held, or has 2710
applied for a license under this chapter is confidential and not 2711
subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code.2712

       (D) The individual's name, the individual's place of 2713
employment, the individual's job title, and the individual's 2714
gaming experience that is provided for an individual who holds, 2715
held, or has applied for a license under this chapter is not 2716
confidential. The reason for denial or revocation of a license or 2717
for disciplinary action against the individual and information 2718
submitted by the individual for a felony waiver request is not 2719
confidential.2720

       (E)(D) An individual who holds, held, or has applied for a 2721
license under this chapter may waive the confidentiality 2722
requirements of division (A) of this section.2723

       (E) Confidential information received by the commission from 2724
another jurisdiction relating to a person who holds, held, or has 2725
applied for a license under this chapter is confidential and not 2726
subject to disclosure as a public record under section 149.43 of 2727
the Revised Code. The commission may share the information 2728
referenced in this division with, or disclose the information to, 2729
the inspector general, any appropriate prosecuting authority, any 2730
law enforcement agency, or any other appropriate governmental or 2731
licensing agency, if the agency that receives the information 2732
complies with the same requirements regarding confidentiality as 2733
those with which the commission must comply.2734

       Sec. 3772.17. (A) The upfront license fee to obtain a license 2735
as a casino operator shall be fifty million dollars per casino 2736
facility, whichand shall be paid upon each initial casino 2737
operator's filing of its casino operator license application with 2738
the commission. The upfront license fee, once paid to the 2739
commission, shall be deposited into the economic development 2740
programs fund, which is created in the state treasury. New casino 2741
operator, management company, and holding company license and 2742
renewal license fees shall be set by rule, subject to the review 2743
of the joint committee on gaming and wagering. The fee charged by 2744
this division shall not be assessed on the transfer of a casino 2745
operator license to a new casino operator if approved by the 2746
commission as set forth in section 3772.091 of the Revised Code.2747

       (B) The fee to obtain an application for a casino operator, 2748
management company, or holding company license shall be one 2749
million five hundred thousand dollars per application. The fee 2750
charged by this division shall apply to the application to 2751
transfer a casino operator license to a new casino operator as set 2752
forth in section 3772.091 of the Revised Code. The application fee 2753
shall be deposited into the casino control commission fund. The 2754
application fee is nonrefundable.2755

       (C) The license fees for a gaming-related vendor shall be set 2756
by rule, subject to the review of the joint committee on gaming 2757
and wagering. Additionally, the commission may assess an applicant 2758
a reasonable fee in the amount necessary to process a 2759
gaming-related vendor license application.2760

       (D) The license fees for a key employee shall be set by rule, 2761
subject to the review of the joint committee on gaming and 2762
wagering. Additionally, the commission may assess an applicant a 2763
reasonable fee in the amount necessary to process a key employee 2764
license application. If the license is being sought at the request 2765
of a casino operator, such fees shall be paid by the casino 2766
operator.2767

       (E) The license fees for a casino gaming employee shall be 2768
set by rule, subject to the review of the joint committee on 2769
gaming and wagering. If the license is being sought at the request 2770
of a casino operator, the fee shall be paid by the casino 2771
operator.2772

       Sec. 3772.28. (A) A licensed casino operator shall not enter 2773
into a debt transaction without the approval of the commission. 2774
The licensed casino operator shall submit, in writing, a request 2775
for approval of a debt transaction that contains at least the 2776
following information:2777

       (1) The names and addresses of all parties to the debt 2778
transaction;2779

       (2) The amount of the funds involved;2780

       (3) The type of debt transaction;2781

       (4) The source of the funds to be obtained;2782

       (5) All sources of collateral;2783

       (6) The purpose of the debt transaction;2784

       (7) The terms of the debt transaction;2785

       (8) Any other information deemed necessary by the commission.2786

       (B) As used in this section, "debt transaction" means a 2787
transaction by a licensed casino operator concerning a casino 2788
facility totaling five hundred thousand dollars or more in which a 2789
licensed casino operator acquires debt, including bank financing, 2790
private debt offerings, and any other transaction that results in 2791
the encumbrance of assets.2792

       (C) Notwithstanding divisions (A) and (B) of this section, a 2793
licensed casino operator may enter into one or more debt 2794
transactions with affiliated companies provided the aggregate 2795
amount of all such debt transactions at any one time does not 2796
exceed ten million dollars. When a licensed casino operator 2797
intends to enter into such a debt transaction with an affiliated 2798
company, the licensed casino operator shall provide immediate 2799
notification, in writing, to the commission. The commission is 2800
entitled to require prior approval of the debt transaction if the 2801
commission provides notice to the licensed casino operator within 2802
seven days after receiving the notification. In determining 2803
whether to approve such a debt transaction, the commission may 2804
require the licensed casino operator to submit the information 2805
specified in division (A) of this section. The commission may 2806
adopt rules governing its review and approval of such debt 2807
transactions. For the purposes of this division, "affiliated 2808
companies" means any holding company or institutional investor or 2809
any individual, partnership, corporation, association, trust, or 2810
any other group of individuals, however organized, which directly 2811
or indirectly owns, has the power or right to control, or holds 2812
with the power to vote, an ownership interest in a licensed casino 2813
operator.2814

       Sec. 3772.99.  (A) The commission shall levy and collect 2815
penalties for noncriminal violations of this chapter. Moneys 2816
collected from such penalty levies shall be credited to the 2817
general revenue fund.2818

       (B) If a licensed casino operator, management company, 2819
holding company, gaming-related vendor, or key employee violates 2820
this chapter or engages in a fraudulent act, the commission may 2821
suspend or revoke the license and may do either or both of the 2822
following:2823

       (1) Suspend, revoke, or restrict the casino gaming operations 2824
of a casino operator;2825

       (2) Require the removal of a management company, key 2826
employee, or discontinuance of services from a gaming-related 2827
vendor.2828

       (C) The commission shall impose civil penalties against a 2829
person who violates this chapter under the penalties adopted by 2830
commission rule and reviewed by the joint committee on gaming and 2831
wagering.2832

       (D) A person who knowingly or intentionally does any of the 2833
following commits a misdemeanor of the first degree on the first 2834
offense and a felony of the fifth degree for a subsequent offense:2835

       (1) Makes a false statement on an application submitted under 2836
this chapter;2837

       (2) Permits a person less than twenty-one years of age to 2838
make a wager;2839

       (3) Aids, induces, or causes a person less than twenty-one 2840
years of age who is not an employee of the casino gaming operation 2841
to enter or attempt to enter a casino facility;2842

       (4) Enters or attempts to enter a casino facility while under 2843
twenty-one years of age, unless the person enters a designated 2844
area as described in section 3772.24 of the Revised Code;2845

       (5) Wagers or accepts a wager at a location other than a 2846
casino facility;2847

       (6) Is a casino operator or employee and participates in 2848
casino gaming other than as part of operation or employment.2849

       (E) A person who knowingly or intentionally does any of the 2850
following commits a felony of the fifth degree on a first offense 2851
and a felony of the fourth degree for a subsequent offense. If the 2852
person is a licensee under this chapter, the commission shall 2853
revoke the person's license after the first offense.2854

       (1) Offers, promises, or gives anything of value or benefit 2855
to a person who is connected with the casino operator, management 2856
company, holding company, or gaming-related vendor, including 2857
their officers and employees, under an agreement to influence or 2858
with the intent to influence the actions of the person to whom the 2859
offer, promise, or gift was made in order to affect or attempt to 2860
affect the outcome of a casino game or an official action of a 2861
commission member;2862

       (2) Solicits, accepts, or receives a promise of anything of 2863
value or benefit while the person is connected with a casino, 2864
including an officer or employee of a casino operator, management 2865
company, or gaming-related vendor, under an agreement to influence 2866
or with the intent to influence the actions of the person to 2867
affect or attempt to affect the outcome of a casino game or an 2868
official action of a commission member;2869

       (3) Uses or possesses with the intent to use a device to 2870
assist in projecting the outcome of the casino game, keeping track 2871
of the cards played, analyzing the probability of the occurrence 2872
of an event relating to the casino game, or analyzing the strategy 2873
for playing or betting to be used in the casino game, except as 2874
permitted by the commission;2875

       (4)(2) Cheats at a casino game;2876

       (5)(3) Manufactures, sells, or distributes any cards, chips, 2877
dice, game, or device that is intended to be used to violate this 2878
chapter;2879

       (6)(4) Alters or misrepresents the outcome of a casino game 2880
on which wagers have been made after the outcome is made sure but 2881
before the outcome is revealed to the players;2882

       (7)(5) Places, increases, or decreases a wager on the outcome 2883
of a casino game after acquiring knowledge that is not available 2884
to all players and concerns the outcome of the casino game that is 2885
the subject of the wager;2886

       (8)(6) Aids a person in acquiring the knowledge described in 2887
division (E)(7)(5) of this section for the purpose of placing, 2888
increasing, or decreasing a wager contingent on the outcome of a 2889
casino game;2890

       (9)(7) Claims, collects, takes, or attempts to claim, 2891
collect, or take money or anything of value in or from a casino 2892
game with the intent to defraud or without having made a wager 2893
contingent on winning a casino game;2894

       (10)(8) Claims, collects, or takes an amount of money or 2895
thing of value of greater value than the amount won in a casino 2896
game;2897

       (11)(9) Uses or possesses counterfeit chips or, tokens, or 2898
cashless wagering instruments in or for use in a casino game;2899

       (12)(10) Possesses a key or device designed for opening, 2900
entering, or affecting the operation of a casino game, drop box, 2901
or an electronic or a mechanical device connected with the casino 2902
game or removing coins, tokens, chips, or other contents of a 2903
casino game. This division does not apply to a casino operator, 2904
management company, or gaming-related vendor or their agents and 2905
employees in the course of agency or employment.2906

       (13)(11) Possesses materials used to manufacture a slug or2907
device intended to be used in a manner that violates this chapter;2908

       (14)(12) Operates a casino gaming operation in which wagering 2909
is conducted or is to be conducted in a manner other than the 2910
manner required under this chapter.2911

       (F) The possession of more than one of the devices described 2912
in division (E)(11)(9), (12)(10), or (13)(11) of this section 2913
creates a rebuttable presumption that the possessor intended to 2914
use the devices for cheating.2915

       (G) A person who knowingly or intentionally does any of the 2916
following commits a felony of the third degree. If the person is a 2917
licensee under this chapter, the commission shall revoke the 2918
person's license after the first offense. A public servant or 2919
party official who is convicted under this division is forever 2920
disqualified from holding any public office, employment, or 2921
position of trust in this state.2922

       (1) Offers, promises, or gives anything of value or benefit 2923
to a person who is connected with the casino operator, management 2924
company, holding company, or gaming-related vendor, including 2925
their officers and employees, under an agreement to influence or 2926
with the intent to influence the actions of the person to whom the 2927
offer, promise, or gift was made in order to affect or attempt to 2928
affect the outcome of a casino game or an official action of a 2929
commission member, agent, or employee;2930

       (2) Solicits, accepts, or receives a promise of anything of 2931
value or benefit while the person is connected with a casino, 2932
including an officer or employee of a casino operator, management 2933
company, or gaming-related vendor, under an agreement to influence 2934
or with the intent to influence the actions of the person to 2935
affect or attempt to affect the outcome of a casino game or an 2936
official action of a commission member, agent, or employee;2937

       (H) A person who is convicted of a felony described in this 2938
chapter may be barred for life from entering a casino facility by 2939
the commission.2940

       Sec. 5503.02.  (A) The state highway patrol shall enforce the 2941
laws of the state relating to the titling, registration, and 2942
licensing of motor vehicles; enforce on all roads and highways, 2943
notwithstanding section 4513.39 of the Revised Code, the laws 2944
relating to the operation and use of vehicles on the highways; 2945
enforce and prevent the violation of the laws relating to the 2946
size, weight, and speed of commercial motor vehicles and all laws 2947
designed for the protection of the highway pavements and 2948
structures on the highways; investigate and enforce rules and laws 2949
of the public utilities commission governing the transportation of 2950
persons and property by motor carriers and report violations of 2951
such rules and laws to the commission; enforce against any motor 2952
transportation company as defined in section 4921.02 of the 2953
Revised Code, any contract carrier by motor vehicle as defined in 2954
section 4923.02 of the Revised Code, any private motor carrier as 2955
defined in section 4923.20 of the Revised Code, and any motor 2956
carrier as defined in section 4919.75 of the Revised Code those 2957
rules and laws that, if violated, may result in a forfeiture as 2958
provided in section 4905.83, 4919.99, 4921.99, or 4923.99 of the 2959
Revised Code; investigate and report violations of all laws 2960
relating to the collection of excise taxes on motor vehicle fuels; 2961
and regulate the movement of traffic on the roads and highways of 2962
the state, notwithstanding section 4513.39 of the Revised Code.2963

       The state highway patrol shall have jurisdiction to enforce 2964
the laws of this state at any casino facility, as defined in 2965
Section 6(C) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution.2966

       The patrol, whenever possible, shall determine the identity 2967
of the persons who are causing or who are responsible for the 2968
breaking, damaging, or destruction of any improved surfaced 2969
roadway, structure, sign, marker, guardrail, or other appurtenance 2970
constructed or maintained by the department of transportation and 2971
shall arrest the persons who are responsible for the breaking, 2972
damaging, or destruction and bring them before the proper 2973
officials for prosecution.2974

       State highway patrol troopers shall investigate and report 2975
all motor vehicle accidents on all roads and highways outside of 2976
municipal corporations. The superintendent of the patrol or any 2977
state highway patrol trooper may arrest, without a warrant, any 2978
person, who is the driver of or a passenger in any vehicle 2979
operated or standing on a state highway, whom the superintendent 2980
or trooper has reasonable cause to believe is guilty of a felony, 2981
under the same circumstances and with the same power that any 2982
peace officer may make such an arrest.2983

       The superintendent or any state highway patrol trooper may 2984
enforce the criminal laws on all state properties and state 2985
institutions, owned or leased by the state, and, when so ordered 2986
by the governor in the event of riot, civil disorder, or 2987
insurrection, may, pursuant to sections 2935.03 to 2935.05 of the 2988
Revised Code, arrest offenders against the criminal laws wherever 2989
they may be found within the state if the violations occurred 2990
upon, or resulted in injury to person or property on, state 2991
properties or state institutions, or under the conditions 2992
described in division (B) of this section.2993

       (B) In the event of riot, civil disorder, or insurrection, or 2994
the reasonable threat of riot, civil disorder, or insurrection, 2995
and upon request, as provided in this section, of the sheriff of a 2996
county or the mayor or other chief executive of a municipal 2997
corporation, the governor may order the state highway patrol to 2998
enforce the criminal laws within the area threatened by riot, 2999
civil disorder, or insurrection, as designated by the governor, 3000
upon finding that law enforcement agencies within the counties 3001
involved will not be reasonably capable of controlling the riot, 3002
civil disorder, or insurrection and that additional assistance is 3003
necessary. In cities in which the sheriff is under contract to 3004
provide exclusive police services pursuant to section 311.29 of 3005
the Revised Code, in villages, and in the unincorporated areas of 3006
the county, the sheriff has exclusive authority to request the use 3007
of the patrol. In cities in which the sheriff does not exclusively 3008
provide police services, the mayor, or other chief executive 3009
performing the duties of mayor, has exclusive authority to request 3010
the use of the patrol.3011

       The superintendent or any state highway patrol trooper may 3012
enforce the criminal laws within the area designated by the 3013
governor during the emergency arising out of the riot, civil 3014
disorder, or insurrection until released by the governor upon 3015
consultation with the requesting authority. State highway patrol 3016
troopers shall never be used as peace officers in connection with 3017
any strike or labor dispute.3018

       When a request for the use of the patrol is made pursuant to 3019
this division, the requesting authority shall notify the law 3020
enforcement authorities in contiguous communities and the sheriff 3021
of each county within which the threatened area, or any part of 3022
the threatened area, lies of the request, but the failure to 3023
notify the authorities or a sheriff shall not affect the validity 3024
of the request.3025

       (C) Any person who is arrested by the superintendent or a 3026
state highway patrol trooper shall be taken before any court or 3027
magistrate having jurisdiction of the offense with which the 3028
person is charged. Any person who is arrested or apprehended 3029
within the limits of a municipal corporation shall be brought 3030
before the municipal court or other tribunal of the municipal 3031
corporation.3032

       (D)(1) State highway patrol troopers have the same right and 3033
power of search and seizure as other peace officers.3034

       No state official shall command, order, or direct any state 3035
highway patrol trooper to perform any duty or service that is not 3036
authorized by law. The powers and duties conferred on the patrol 3037
are supplementary to, and in no way a limitation on, the powers 3038
and duties of sheriffs or other peace officers of the state.3039

       (2)(a) A state highway patrol trooper, pursuant to the policy 3040
established by the superintendent of the state highway patrol 3041
under division (D)(2)(b) of this section, may render emergency 3042
assistance to any other peace officer who has arrest authority 3043
under section 2935.03 of the Revised Code, if both of the 3044
following apply:3045

       (i) There is a threat of imminent physical danger to the 3046
peace officer, a threat of physical harm to another person, or any 3047
other serious emergency situation;3048

       (ii) Either the peace officer requests emergency assistance, 3049
or it appears that the peace officer is unable to request 3050
emergency assistance and the circumstances observed by the state 3051
highway patrol trooper reasonably indicate that emergency 3052
assistance is appropriate, or the peace officer requests emergency 3053
assistance and in the request the peace officer specifies a 3054
particular location and the state highway patrol trooper arrives 3055
at that location prior to the time that the peace officer arrives 3056
at that location and the circumstances observed by the state 3057
highway patrol trooper reasonably indicate that emergency 3058
assistance is appropriate.3059

       (b) The superintendent of the state highway patrol shall 3060
establish, within sixty days of August 8, 1991, a policy that sets 3061
forth the manner and procedures by which a state highway patrol 3062
trooper may render emergency assistance to any other peace officer 3063
under division (D)(2)(a) of this section. The policy shall include 3064
a provision that a state highway patrol trooper never be used as a 3065
peace officer in connection with any strike or labor dispute.3066

       (3)(a) A state highway patrol trooper who renders emergency 3067
assistance to any other peace officer under the policy established 3068
by the superintendent pursuant to division (D)(2)(b) of this 3069
section shall be considered to be performing regular employment 3070
for the purposes of compensation, pension, indemnity fund rights, 3071
workers' compensation, and other rights or benefits to which the 3072
trooper may be entitled as incident to regular employment.3073

       (b) A state highway patrol trooper who renders emergency 3074
assistance to any other peace officer under the policy established 3075
by the superintendent pursuant to division (D)(2)(b) of this 3076
section retains personal immunity from liability as specified in 3077
section 9.86 of the Revised Code.3078

       (c) A state highway patrol trooper who renders emergency 3079
assistance under the policy established by the superintendent 3080
pursuant to division (D)(2)(b) of this section has the same 3081
authority as the peace officer for or with whom the state highway 3082
patrol trooper is providing emergency assistance.3083

       (E)(1) Subject to the availability of funds specifically 3084
appropriated by the general assembly for security detail purposes, 3085
the state highway patrol shall provide security as follows:3086

       (a) For the governor;3087

       (b) At the direction of the governor, for other officials of 3088
the state government of this state; officials of the state 3089
governments of other states who are visiting this state; officials 3090
of the United States government who are visiting this state; 3091
officials of the governments of foreign countries or their 3092
political subdivisions who are visiting this state; or other 3093
officials or dignitaries who are visiting this state, including, 3094
but not limited to, members of trade missions;3095

       (c) For the capitol square, as defined in section 105.41 of 3096
the Revised Code;3097

       (d) For other state property.3098

       (2) To carry out the security responsibilities of the patrol 3099
listed in division (E)(1) of this section, the superintendent may 3100
assign state highway patrol troopers to a separate unit that is 3101
responsible for security details. The number of troopers assigned 3102
to particular security details shall be determined by the 3103
superintendent.3104

       (3) The superintendent and any state highway patrol trooper, 3105
when providing security pursuant to division (E)(1)(a) or (b) of 3106
this section, have the same arrest powers as other peace officers 3107
to apprehend offenders against the criminal laws who endanger or 3108
threaten the security of any person being protected, no matter 3109
where the offense occurs.3110

       The superintendent, any state highway patrol trooper, and any 3111
special police officer designated under section 5503.09 of the 3112
Revised Code, when providing security pursuant to division 3113
(E)(1)(c) of this section, shall enforce any rules governing 3114
capitol square adopted by the capitol square review and advisory 3115
board.3116

       (F) The governor may order the state highway patrol to 3117
undertake major criminal investigations that involve state 3118
property interests. If an investigation undertaken pursuant to 3119
this division results in either the issuance of a no bill or the 3120
filing of an indictment, the superintendent shall file a complete 3121
and accurate report of the investigation with the president of the 3122
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, the minority 3123
leader of the senate, and the minority leader of the house of 3124
representatives within fifteen days after the issuance of the no 3125
bill or the filing of an indictment. If the investigation does not 3126
have as its result any prosecutorial action, the superintendent 3127
shall, upon reporting this fact to the governor, file a complete 3128
and accurate report of the investigation with the president of the 3129
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, the minority 3130
leader of the senate, and the minority leader of the house of 3131
representatives.3132

       (G) The superintendent may purchase or lease real property 3133
and buildings needed by the patrol, negotiate the sale of real 3134
property owned by the patrol, rent or lease real property owned or 3135
leased by the patrol, and make or cause to be made repairs to all 3136
property owned or under the control of the patrol. Any instrument 3137
by which real property is acquired pursuant to this division shall 3138
identify the agency of the state that has the use and benefit of 3139
the real property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised 3140
Code.3141

       Sections 123.01 and 125.02 of the Revised Code do not limit 3142
the powers granted to the superintendent by this division.3143

       Sec. 5751.01.  As used in this chapter:3144

       (A) "Person" means, but is not limited to, individuals, 3145
combinations of individuals of any form, receivers, assignees, 3146
trustees in bankruptcy, firms, companies, joint-stock companies, 3147
business trusts, estates, partnerships, limited liability 3148
partnerships, limited liability companies, associations, joint 3149
ventures, clubs, societies, for-profit corporations, S 3150
corporations, qualified subchapter S subsidiaries, qualified 3151
subchapter S trusts, trusts, entities that are disregarded for 3152
federal income tax purposes, and any other entities. 3153

       (B) "Consolidated elected taxpayer" means a group of two or 3154
more persons treated as a single taxpayer for purposes of this 3155
chapter as the result of an election made under section 5751.011 3156
of the Revised Code.3157

       (C) "Combined taxpayer" means a group of two or more persons 3158
treated as a single taxpayer for purposes of this chapter under 3159
section 5751.012 of the Revised Code.3160

       (D) "Taxpayer" means any person, or any group of persons in 3161
the case of a consolidated elected taxpayer or combined taxpayer 3162
treated as one taxpayer, required to register or pay tax under 3163
this chapter. "Taxpayer" does not include excluded persons.3164

        (E) "Excluded person" means any of the following:3165

       (1) Any person with not more than one hundred fifty thousand 3166
dollars of taxable gross receipts during the calendar year. 3167
Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to a person that is 3168
a member of a consolidated elected taxpayer;3169

        (2) A public utility that paid the excise tax imposed by 3170
section 5727.24 or 5727.30 of the Revised Code based on one or 3171
more measurement periods that include the entire tax period under 3172
this chapter, except that a public utility that is a combined 3173
company is a taxpayer with regard to the following gross receipts:3174

        (a) Taxable gross receipts directly attributed to a public 3175
utility activity, but not directly attributed to an activity that 3176
is subject to the excise tax imposed by section 5727.24 or 5727.30 3177
of the Revised Code;3178

        (b) Taxable gross receipts that cannot be directly attributed 3179
to any activity, multiplied by a fraction whose numerator is the 3180
taxable gross receipts described in division (E)(2)(a) of this 3181
section and whose denominator is the total taxable gross receipts 3182
that can be directly attributed to any activity;3183

        (c) Except for any differences resulting from the use of an 3184
accrual basis method of accounting for purposes of determining 3185
gross receipts under this chapter and the use of the cash basis 3186
method of accounting for purposes of determining gross receipts 3187
under section 5727.24 of the Revised Code, the gross receipts 3188
directly attributed to the activity of a natural gas company shall 3189
be determined in a manner consistent with division (D) of section 3190
5727.03 of the Revised Code.3191

        As used in division (E)(2) of this section, "combined 3192
company" and "public utility" have the same meanings as in section 3193
5727.01 of the Revised Code.3194

       (3) A financial institution, as defined in section 5725.01 of 3195
the Revised Code, that paid the corporation franchise tax charged 3196
by division (D) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code based on 3197
one or more taxable years that include the entire tax period under 3198
this chapter;3199

       (4) A dealer in intangibles, as defined in section 5725.01 of 3200
the Revised Code, that paid the dealer in intangibles tax levied 3201
by division (D) of section 5707.03 of the Revised Code based on 3202
one or more measurement periods that include the entire tax period 3203
under this chapter;3204

       (5) A financial holding company as defined in the "Bank 3205
Holding Company Act," 12 U.S.C. 1841(p);3206

        (6) A bank holding company as defined in the "Bank Holding 3207
Company Act," 12 U.S.C. 1841(a);3208

        (7) A savings and loan holding company as defined in the 3209
"Home Owners Loan Act," 12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(1)(D) that is engaging 3210
only in activities or investments permissible for a financial 3211
holding company under 12 U.S.C. 1843(k);3212

        (8) A person directly or indirectly owned by one or more 3213
financial institutions, financial holding companies, bank holding 3214
companies, or savings and loan holding companies described in 3215
division (E)(3), (5), (6), or (7) of this section that is engaged 3216
in activities permissible for a financial holding company under 12 3217
U.S.C. 1843(k), except that any such person held pursuant to 3218
merchant banking authority under 12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H) or 12 3219
U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(I) is not an excluded person, or a person 3220
directly or indirectly owned by one or more insurance companies 3221
described in division (E)(9) of this section that is authorized to 3222
do the business of insurance in this state.3223

        For the purposes of division (E)(8) of this section, a person 3224
owns another person under the following circumstances:3225

        (a) In the case of corporations issuing capital stock, one 3226
corporation owns another corporation if it owns fifty per cent or 3227
more of the other corporation's capital stock with current voting 3228
rights;3229

        (b) In the case of a limited liability company, one person 3230
owns the company if that person's membership interest, as defined 3231
in section 1705.01 of the Revised Code, is fifty per cent or more 3232
of the combined membership interests of all persons owning such 3233
interests in the company;3234

        (c) In the case of a partnership, trust, or other 3235
unincorporated business organization other than a limited 3236
liability company, one person owns the organization if, under the 3237
articles of organization or other instrument governing the affairs 3238
of the organization, that person has a beneficial interest in the 3239
organization's profits, surpluses, losses, or distributions of 3240
fifty per cent or more of the combined beneficial interests of all 3241
persons having such an interest in the organization;3242

        (d) In the case of multiple ownership, the ownership 3243
interests of more than one person may be aggregated to meet the 3244
fifty per cent ownership tests in this division only when each 3245
such owner is described in division (E)(3), (5), (6), or (7) of 3246
this section and is engaged in activities permissible for a 3247
financial holding company under 12 U.S.C. 1843(k) or is a person 3248
directly or indirectly owned by one or more insurance companies 3249
described in division (E)(9) of this section that is authorized to 3250
do the business of insurance in this state.3251

        (9) A domestic insurance company or foreign insurance 3252
company, as defined in section 5725.01 of the Revised Code, that 3253
paid the insurance company premiums tax imposed by section 5725.18 3254
or Chapter 5729. of the Revised Code based on one or more 3255
measurement periods that include the entire tax period under this 3256
chapter;3257

       (10) A person that solely facilitates or services one or more 3258
securitizations or similar transactions for any person described 3259
in division (E)(3), (5), (6), (7), (8), or (9) of this section. 3260
For purposes of this division, "securitization" means transferring 3261
one or more assets to one or more persons and then issuing 3262
securities backed by the right to receive payment from the asset 3263
or assets so transferred.3264

       (11) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a 3265
pre-income tax trust as defined in division (FF)(4) of section 3266
5747.01 of the Revised Code and any pass-through entity of which 3267
such pre-income tax trust owns or controls, directly, indirectly, 3268
or constructively through related interests, more than five per 3269
cent of the ownership or equity interests. If the pre-income tax 3270
trust has made a qualifying pre-income tax trust election under 3271
division (FF)(3) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code, then the 3272
trust and the pass-through entities of which it owns or controls, 3273
directly, indirectly, or constructively through related interests, 3274
more than five per cent of the ownership or equity interests, 3275
shall not be excluded persons for purposes of the tax imposed 3276
under section 5751.02 of the Revised Code.3277

       (12) Nonprofit organizations or the state and its agencies, 3278
instrumentalities, or political subdivisions.3279

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (F)(2), (3), 3280
and (4) of this section, "gross receipts" means the total amount 3281
realized by a person, without deduction for the cost of goods sold 3282
or other expenses incurred, that contributes to the production of 3283
gross income of the person, including the fair market value of any 3284
property and any services received, and any debt transferred or 3285
forgiven as consideration. 3286

       (1) The following are examples of gross receipts:3287

       (a) Amounts realized from the sale, exchange, or other 3288
disposition of the taxpayer's property to or with another;3289

       (b) Amounts realized from the taxpayer's performance of 3290
services for another;3291

       (c) Amounts realized from another's use or possession of the 3292
taxpayer's property or capital;3293

       (d) Any combination of the foregoing amounts.3294

       (2) "Gross receipts" excludes the following amounts:3295

       (a) Interest income except interest on credit sales;3296

       (b) Dividends and distributions from corporations, and 3297
distributive or proportionate shares of receipts and income from a 3298
pass-through entity as defined under section 5733.04 of the 3299
Revised Code;3300

       (c) Receipts from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of 3301
an asset described in section 1221 or 1231 of the Internal Revenue 3302
Code, without regard to the length of time the person held the 3303
asset. Notwithstanding section 1221 of the Internal Revenue Code, 3304
receipts from hedging transactions also are excluded to the extent 3305
the transactions are entered into primarily to protect a financial 3306
position, such as managing the risk of exposure to (i) foreign 3307
currency fluctuations that affect assets, liabilities, profits, 3308
losses, equity, or investments in foreign operations; (ii) 3309
interest rate fluctuations; or (iii) commodity price fluctuations. 3310
As used in division (F)(2)(c) of this section, "hedging 3311
transaction" has the same meaning as used in section 1221 of the 3312
Internal Revenue Code and also includes transactions accorded 3313
hedge accounting treatment under statement of financial accounting 3314
standards number 133 of the financial accounting standards board. 3315
For the purposes of division (F)(2)(c) of this section, the actual 3316
transfer of title of real or tangible personal property to another 3317
entity is not a hedging transaction.3318

       (d) Proceeds received attributable to the repayment, 3319
maturity, or redemption of the principal of a loan, bond, mutual 3320
fund, certificate of deposit, or marketable instrument;3321

       (e) The principal amount received under a repurchase 3322
agreement or on account of any transaction properly characterized 3323
as a loan to the person;3324

       (f) Contributions received by a trust, plan, or other 3325
arrangement, any of which is described in section 501(a) of the 3326
Internal Revenue Code, or to which Title 26, Subtitle A, Chapter 3327
1, Subchapter (D) of the Internal Revenue Code applies;3328

       (g) Compensation, whether current or deferred, and whether in 3329
cash or in kind, received or to be received by an employee, former 3330
employee, or the employee's legal successor for services rendered 3331
to or for an employer, including reimbursements received by or for 3332
an individual for medical or education expenses, health insurance 3333
premiums, or employee expenses, or on account of a dependent care 3334
spending account, legal services plan, any cafeteria plan 3335
described in section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code, or any 3336
similar employee reimbursement;3337

       (h) Proceeds received from the issuance of the taxpayer's own 3338
stock, options, warrants, puts, or calls, or from the sale of the 3339
taxpayer's treasury stock;3340

       (i) Proceeds received on the account of payments from 3341
insurance policies, except those proceeds received for the loss of 3342
business revenue;3343

       (j) Gifts or charitable contributions received; membership 3344
dues received by trade, professional, homeowners', or condominium 3345
associations; and payments received for educational courses, 3346
meetings, meals, or similar payments to a trade, professional, or 3347
other similar association; and fundraising receipts received by 3348
any person when any excess receipts are donated or used 3349
exclusively for charitable purposes;3350

       (k) Damages received as the result of litigation in excess of 3351
amounts that, if received without litigation, would be gross 3352
receipts;3353

       (l) Property, money, and other amounts received or acquired 3354
by an agent on behalf of another in excess of the agent's 3355
commission, fee, or other remuneration;3356

       (m) Tax refunds, other tax benefit recoveries, and 3357
reimbursements for the tax imposed under this chapter made by 3358
entities that are part of the same combined taxpayer or 3359
consolidated elected taxpayer group, and reimbursements made by 3360
entities that are not members of a combined taxpayer or 3361
consolidated elected taxpayer group that are required to be made 3362
for economic parity among multiple owners of an entity whose tax 3363
obligation under this chapter is required to be reported and paid 3364
entirely by one owner, pursuant to the requirements of sections 3365
5751.011 and 5751.012 of the Revised Code;3366

       (n) Pension reversions;3367

       (o) Contributions to capital;3368

       (p) Sales or use taxes collected as a vendor or an 3369
out-of-state seller on behalf of the taxing jurisdiction from a 3370
consumer or other taxes the taxpayer is required by law to collect 3371
directly from a purchaser and remit to a local, state, or federal 3372
tax authority;3373

       (q) In the case of receipts from the sale of cigarettes or 3374
tobacco products by a wholesale dealer, retail dealer, 3375
distributor, manufacturer, or seller, all as defined in section 3376
5743.01 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to the federal and 3377
state excise taxes paid by any person on or for such cigarettes or 3378
tobacco products under subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code or 3379
Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code;3380

       (r) In the case of receipts from the sale of motor fuel by a 3381
licensed motor fuel dealer, licensed retail dealer, or licensed 3382
permissive motor fuel dealer, all as defined in section 5735.01 of 3383
the Revised Code, an amount equal to federal and state excise 3384
taxes paid by any person on such motor fuel under section 4081 of 3385
the Internal Revenue Code or Chapter 5735. of the Revised Code;3386

       (s) In the case of receipts from the sale of beer or 3387
intoxicating liquor, as defined in section 4301.01 of the Revised 3388
Code, by a person holding a permit issued under Chapter 4301. or 3389
4303. of the Revised Code, an amount equal to federal and state 3390
excise taxes paid by any person on or for such beer or 3391
intoxicating liquor under subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code 3392
or Chapter 4301. or 4305. of the Revised Code;3393

        (t) Receipts realized by a new motor vehicle dealer or used 3394
motor vehicle dealer, as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised 3395
Code, from the sale or other transfer of a motor vehicle, as 3396
defined in that section, to another motor vehicle dealer for the 3397
purpose of resale by the transferee motor vehicle dealer, but only 3398
if the sale or other transfer was based upon the transferee's need 3399
to meet a specific customer's preference for a motor vehicle;3400

       (u) Receipts from a financial institution described in 3401
division (E)(3) of this section for services provided to the 3402
financial institution in connection with the issuance, processing, 3403
servicing, and management of loans or credit accounts, if such 3404
financial institution and the recipient of such receipts have at 3405
least fifty per cent of their ownership interests owned or 3406
controlled, directly or constructively through related interests, 3407
by common owners;3408

       (v) Receipts realized from administering anti-neoplastic 3409
drugs and other cancer chemotherapy, biologicals, therapeutic 3410
agents, and supportive drugs in a physician's office to patients 3411
with cancer;3412

       (w) Funds received or used by a mortgage broker that is not a 3413
dealer in intangibles, other than fees or other consideration, 3414
pursuant to a table-funding mortgage loan or warehouse-lending 3415
mortgage loan. Terms used in division (F)(2)(w) of this section 3416
have the same meanings as in section 1322.01 of the Revised Code, 3417
except "mortgage broker" means a person assisting a buyer in 3418
obtaining a mortgage loan for a fee or other consideration paid by 3419
the buyer or a lender, or a person engaged in table-funding or 3420
warehouse-lending mortgage loans that are first lien mortgage 3421
loans.3422

        (x) Property, money, and other amounts received by a 3423
professional employer organization, as defined in section 4125.01 3424
of the Revised Code, from a client employer, as defined in that 3425
section, in excess of the administrative fee charged by the 3426
professional employer organization to the client employer;3427

       (y) In the case of amounts retained as commissions by a 3428
permit holder under Chapter 3769. of the Revised Code, an amount 3429
equal to the amounts specified under that chapter that must be 3430
paid to or collected by the tax commissioner as a tax and the 3431
amounts specified under that chapter to be used as purse money;3432

       (z) Qualifying distribution center receipts.3433

       (i) For purposes of division (F)(2)(z) of this section:3434

       (I) "Qualifying distribution center receipts" means receipts 3435
of a supplier from qualified property that is delivered to a 3436
qualified distribution center, multiplied by a quantity that 3437
equals one minus the Ohio delivery percentage.3438

       (II) "Qualified property" means tangible personal property 3439
delivered to a qualified distribution center that is shipped to 3440
that qualified distribution center solely for further shipping by 3441
the qualified distribution center to another location in this 3442
state or elsewhere. "Further shipping" includes storing and 3443
repackaging such property into smaller or larger bundles, so long 3444
as such property is not subject to further manufacturing or 3445
processing.3446

       (III) "Qualified distribution center" means a warehouse or 3447
other similar facility in this state that, for the qualifying 3448
year, is operated by a person that is not part of a combined 3449
taxpayer group and that has a qualifying certificate. However, all 3450
warehouses or other similar facilities that are operated by 3451
persons in the same taxpayer group and that are located within one 3452
mile of each other shall be treated as one qualified distribution 3453
center.3454

       (IV) "Qualifying year" means the calendar year to which the 3455
qualifying certificate applies.3456

       (V) "Qualifying period" means the period of the first day of 3457
July of the second year preceding the qualifying year through the 3458
thirtieth day of June of the year preceding the qualifying year.3459

       (VI) "Qualifying certificate" means the certificate issued by 3460
the tax commissioner after the operator of a distribution center 3461
files an annual application with the commissioner. The application 3462
and annual fee shall be filed and paid for each qualified 3463
distribution center on or before the first day of September before 3464
the qualifying year or within forty-five days after the 3465
distribution center opens, whichever is later.3466

       The applicant must substantiate to the commissioner's 3467
satisfaction that, for the qualifying period, all persons 3468
operating the distribution center have more than fifty per cent of 3469
the cost of the qualified property shipped to a location such that 3470
it would be sitused outside this state under the provisions of 3471
division (E) of section 5751.033 of the Revised Code. The 3472
applicant must also substantiate that the distribution center 3473
cumulatively had costs from its suppliers equal to or exceeding 3474
five hundred million dollars during the qualifying period. (For 3475
purposes of division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section, "supplier" 3476
excludes any person that is part of the consolidated elected 3477
taxpayer group, if applicable, of the operator of the qualified 3478
distribution center.) The commissioner may require the applicant 3479
to have an independent certified public accountant certify that 3480
the calculation of the minimum thresholds required for a qualified 3481
distribution center by the operator of a distribution center has 3482
been made in accordance with generally accepted accounting 3483
principles. The commissioner shall issue or deny the issuance of a 3484
certificate within sixty days after the receipt of the 3485
application. A denial is subject to appeal under section 5717.02 3486
of the Revised Code. If the operator files a timely appeal under 3487
section 5717.02 of the Revised Code, the operator shall be granted 3488
a qualifying certificate, provided that the operator is liable for 3489
any tax, interest, or penalty upon amounts claimed as qualifying 3490
distribution center receipts, other than those receipts exempt 3491
under division (C)(1) of section 5751.011 of the Revised Code, 3492
that would have otherwise not been owed by its suppliers if the 3493
qualifying certificate was valid.3494

       (VII) "Ohio delivery percentage" means the proportion of the 3495
total property delivered to a destination inside Ohio from the 3496
qualified distribution center during the qualifying period 3497
compared with total deliveries from such distribution center 3498
everywhere during the qualifying period.3499

       (ii) If the distribution center is new and was not open for 3500
the entire qualifying period, the operator of the distribution 3501
center may request that the commissioner grant a qualifying 3502
certificate. If the certificate is granted and it is later 3503
determined that more than fifty per cent of the qualified property 3504
during that year was not shipped to a location such that it would 3505
be sitused outside of this state under the provisions of division 3506
(E) of section 5751.033 of the Revised Code or if it is later 3507
determined that the person that operates the distribution center 3508
had average monthly costs from its suppliers of less than forty 3509
million dollars during that year, then the operator of the 3510
distribution center shall be liable for any tax, interest, or 3511
penalty upon amounts claimed as qualifying distribution center 3512
receipts, other than those receipts exempt under division (C)(1) 3513
of section 5751.011 of the Revised Code, that would have not 3514
otherwise been owed by its suppliers during the qualifying year if 3515
the qualifying certificate was valid. (For purposes of division 3516
(F)(2)(z)(ii) of this section, "supplier" excludes any person that 3517
is part of the consolidated elected taxpayer group, if applicable, 3518
of the operator of the qualified distribution center.)3519

       (iii) When filing an application for a qualifying certificate 3520
under division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section, the operator of a 3521
qualified distribution center also shall provide documentation, as 3522
the commissioner requires, for the commissioner to ascertain the 3523
Ohio delivery percentage. The commissioner, upon issuing the 3524
qualifying certificate, also shall certify the Ohio delivery 3525
percentage. The operator of the qualified distribution center may 3526
appeal the commissioner's certification of the Ohio delivery 3527
percentage in the same manner as an appeal is taken from the 3528
denial of a qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) 3529
of this section.3530

       Within thirty days after all appeals have been exhausted, the 3531
operator of the qualified distribution center shall notify the 3532
affected suppliers of qualified property that such suppliers are 3533
required to file, within sixty days after receiving notice from 3534
the operator of the qualified distribution center, amended reports 3535
for the impacted calendar quarter or quarters or calendar year, 3536
whichever the case may be. Any additional tax liability or tax 3537
overpayment shall be subject to interest but shall not be subject 3538
to the imposition of any penalty so long as the amended returns 3539
are timely filed. The supplier of tangible personal property 3540
delivered to the qualified distribution center shall include in 3541
its report of taxable gross receipts the receipts from the total 3542
sales of property delivered to the qualified distribution center 3543
for the calendar quarter or calendar year, whichever the case may 3544
be, multiplied by the Ohio delivery percentage for the qualifying 3545
year. Nothing in division (F)(2)(z)(iii) of this section shall be 3546
construed as imposing liability on the operator of a qualified 3547
distribution center for the tax imposed by this chapter arising 3548
from any change to the Ohio delivery percentage.3549

       (iv) In the case where the distribution center is new and not 3550
open for the entire qualifying period, the operator shall make a 3551
good faith estimate of an Ohio delivery percentage for use by 3552
suppliers in their reports of taxable gross receipts for the 3553
remainder of the qualifying period. The operator of the facility 3554
shall disclose to the suppliers that such Ohio delivery percentage 3555
is an estimate and is subject to recalculation. By the due date of 3556
the next application for a qualifying certificate, the operator 3557
shall determine the actual Ohio delivery percentage for the 3558
estimated qualifying period and proceed as provided in division 3559
(F)(2)(z)(iii) of this section with respect to the calculation and 3560
recalculation of the Ohio delivery percentage. The supplier is 3561
required to file, within sixty days after receiving notice from 3562
the operator of the qualified distribution center, amended reports 3563
for the impacted calendar quarter or quarters or calendar year, 3564
whichever the case may be. Any additional tax liability or tax 3565
overpayment shall be subject to interest but shall not be subject 3566
to the imposition of any penalty so long as the amended returns 3567
are timely filed.3568

       (v) Qualifying certificates and Ohio delivery percentages 3569
issued by the commissioner shall be open to public inspection and 3570
shall be timely published by the commissioner. A supplier relying 3571
in good faith on a certificate issued under this division shall 3572
not be subject to tax on the qualifying distribution center 3573
receipts under division (F)(2)(z) of this section. A person 3574
receiving a qualifying certificate is responsible for paying the 3575
tax, interest, and penalty upon amounts claimed as qualifying 3576
distribution center receipts that would not otherwise have been 3577
owed by the supplier if the qualifying certificate were available 3578
when it is later determined that the qualifying certificate should 3579
not have been issued because the statutory requirements were in 3580
fact not met.3581

       (vi) The annual fee for a qualifying certificate shall be one 3582
hundred thousand dollars for each qualified distribution center. 3583
If a qualifying certificate is not issued, the annual fee is 3584
subject to refund after the exhaustion of all appeals provided for 3585
in division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section. The fee imposed 3586
under this division may be assessed in the same manner as the tax 3587
imposed under this chapter. The first one hundred thousand dollars 3588
of the annual application fees collected each calendar year shall 3589
be credited to the commercial activity tax administrative fund. 3590
The remainder of the annual application fees collected shall be 3591
distributed in the same manner required under section 5751.20 of 3592
the Revised Code.3593

       (vii) The tax commissioner may require that adequate security 3594
be posted by the operator of the distribution center on appeal 3595
when the commissioner disagrees that the applicant has met the 3596
minimum thresholds for a qualified distribution center as set 3597
forth in divisions (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) and (F)(2)(z)(ii) of this 3598
section.3599

       (aa) Receipts of an employer from payroll deductions relating 3600
to the reimbursement of the employer for advancing moneys to an 3601
unrelated third party on an employee's behalf;3602

        (bb) Cash discounts allowed and taken;3603

       (cc) Returns and allowances;3604

       (dd) Bad debts from receipts on the basis of which the tax 3605
imposed by this chapter was paid in a prior quarterly tax payment 3606
period. For the purpose of this division, "bad debts" means any 3607
debts that have become worthless or uncollectible between the 3608
preceding and current quarterly tax payment periods, have been 3609
uncollected for at least six months, and that may be claimed as a 3610
deduction under section 166 of the Internal Revenue Code and the 3611
regulations adopted under that section, or that could be claimed 3612
as such if the taxpayer kept its accounts on the accrual basis. 3613
"Bad debts" does not include repossessed property, uncollectible 3614
amounts on property that remains in the possession of the taxpayer 3615
until the full purchase price is paid, or expenses in attempting 3616
to collect any account receivable or for any portion of the debt 3617
recovered;3618

       (ee) Any amount realized from the sale of an account 3619
receivable to the extent the receipts from the underlying 3620
transaction giving rise to the account receivable were included in 3621
the gross receipts of the taxpayer;3622

       (ff) Any receipts directly attributed to providing public 3623
services pursuant to sections 126.60 to 126.605 of the Revised 3624
Code, or any receipts directly attributed to a transfer agreement 3625
or to the enterprise transferred under that agreement under 3626
section 4313.02 of the Revised Code.3627

       (gg) Any receipts for which the tax imposed by this chapter 3628
is prohibited by the Constitution or laws of the United States or 3629
the Constitution of Ohio.3630

       (hh)(i) As used in this division:3631

       (I) "Qualified uranium receipts" means receipts from the 3632
sale, exchange, lease, loan, production, processing, or other 3633
disposition of uranium within a uranium enrichment zone certified 3634
by the tax commissioner under division (F)(2)(hh)(ii) of this 3635
section. "Qualified uranium receipts" does not include any 3636
receipts with a situs in this state outside a uranium enrichment 3637
zone certified by the tax commissioner under division 3638
(F)(2)(hh)(ii) of this section.3639

       (II) "Uranium enrichment zone" means all real property that 3640
is part of a uranium enrichment facility licensed by the United 3641
States nuclear regulatory commission and that was or is owned or 3642
controlled by the United States department of energy or its 3643
successor.3644

       (ii) Any person that owns, leases, or operates real or 3645
tangible personal property constituting or located within a 3646
uranium enrichment zone may apply to the tax commissioner to have 3647
the uranium enrichment zone certified for the purpose of excluding 3648
qualified uranium receipts under division (F)(2)(hh) of this 3649
section. The application shall include such information that the 3650
tax commissioner prescribes. Within sixty days after receiving the 3651
application, the tax commissioner shall certify the zone for that 3652
purpose if the commissioner determines that the property qualifies 3653
as a uranium enrichment zone as defined in division (F)(2)(hh) of 3654
this section, or, if the tax commissioner determines that the 3655
property does not qualify, the commissioner shall deny the 3656
application or request additional information from the applicant. 3657
If the tax commissioner denies an application, the commissioner 3658
shall state the reasons for the denial. The applicant may appeal 3659
the denial of an application to the board of tax appeals pursuant 3660
to section 5717.02 of the Revised Code. If the applicant files a 3661
timely appeal, the tax commissioner shall conditionally certify 3662
the applicant's property. The conditional certification shall 3663
expire when all of the applicant's appeals are exhausted. Until 3664
final resolution of the appeal, the applicant shall retain the 3665
applicant's records in accordance with section 5751.12 of the 3666
Revised Code, notwithstanding any time limit on the preservation 3667
of records under that section.3668

       (ii) Amounts realized by licensed motor fuel dealers or 3669
licensed permissive motor fuel dealers from the exchange of 3670
petroleum products, including motor fuel, between such dealers, 3671
provided that delivery of the petroleum products occurs at a 3672
refinery, terminal, pipeline, or marine vessel and that the 3673
exchanging dealers agree neither dealer shall require monetary 3674
compensation from the other for the value of the exchanged 3675
petroleum products other than such compensation for differences in 3676
product location or grade. Division (F)(2)(ii) of this section 3677
does not apply to amounts realized as a result of differences in 3678
location or grade of exchanged petroleum products or from 3679
handling, lubricity, dye, or other additive injections fees, 3680
pipeline security fees, or similar fees. As used in this division, 3681
"motor fuel," "licensed motor fuel dealer," "licensed permissive 3682
motor fuel dealer," and "terminal" have the same meanings as in 3683
section 5735.01 of the Revised Code.3684

       (hh)(jj) In the case of amounts collected by a licensed 3685
casino operator from casino gaming, amounts in excess of the 3686
casino operator's gross casino revenue. In this division, "casino 3687
operator" and "casino gaming" have the meanings defined in section 3688
3772.01 of the Revised Code, and "gross casino revenue" has the 3689
meaning defined in section 5753.01 of the Revised Code.3690

       (kk) Receipts from wagering by racetrack video lottery 3691
terminal patrons of promotional gaming credits as defined in 3692
section 3770.21 of the Revised Code.3693

        (3) In the case of a taxpayer when acting as a real estate 3694
broker, "gross receipts" includes only the portion of any fee for 3695
the service of a real estate broker, or service of a real estate 3696
salesperson associated with that broker, that is retained by the 3697
broker and not paid to an associated real estate salesperson or 3698
another real estate broker. For the purposes of this division, 3699
"real estate broker" and "real estate salesperson" have the same 3700
meanings as in section 4735.01 of the Revised Code.3701

       (4) A taxpayer's method of accounting for gross receipts for 3702
a tax period shall be the same as the taxpayer's method of 3703
accounting for federal income tax purposes for the taxpayer's 3704
federal taxable year that includes the tax period. If a taxpayer's 3705
method of accounting for federal income tax purposes changes, its 3706
method of accounting for gross receipts under this chapter shall 3707
be changed accordingly.3708

       (G) "Taxable gross receipts" means gross receipts sitused to 3709
this state under section 5751.033 of the Revised Code.3710

       (H) A person has "substantial nexus with this state" if any 3711
of the following applies. The person:3712

       (1) Owns or uses a part or all of its capital in this state;3713

       (2) Holds a certificate of compliance with the laws of this 3714
state authorizing the person to do business in this state;3715

       (3) Has bright-line presence in this state;3716

       (4) Otherwise has nexus with this state to an extent that the 3717
person can be required to remit the tax imposed under this chapter 3718
under the Constitution of the United States.3719

       (I) A person has "bright-line presence" in this state for a 3720
reporting period and for the remaining portion of the calendar 3721
year if any of the following applies. The person:3722

       (1) Has at any time during the calendar year property in this 3723
state with an aggregate value of at least fifty thousand dollars. 3724
For the purpose of division (I)(1) of this section, owned property 3725
is valued at original cost and rented property is valued at eight 3726
times the net annual rental charge.3727

       (2) Has during the calendar year payroll in this state of at 3728
least fifty thousand dollars. Payroll in this state includes all 3729
of the following:3730

       (a) Any amount subject to withholding by the person under 3731
section 5747.06 of the Revised Code;3732

       (b) Any other amount the person pays as compensation to an 3733
individual under the supervision or control of the person for work 3734
done in this state; and3735

       (c) Any amount the person pays for services performed in this 3736
state on its behalf by another.3737

       (3) Has during the calendar year taxable gross receipts of at 3738
least five hundred thousand dollars.3739

       (4) Has at any time during the calendar year within this 3740
state at least twenty-five per cent of the person's total 3741
property, total payroll, or total gross receipts.3742

       (5) Is domiciled in this state as an individual or for 3743
corporate, commercial, or other business purposes.3744

       (J) "Tangible personal property" has the same meaning as in 3745
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.3746

       (K) "Internal Revenue Code" means the Internal Revenue Code 3747
of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended. Any term used in 3748
this chapter that is not otherwise defined has the same meaning as 3749
when used in a comparable context in the laws of the United States 3750
relating to federal income taxes unless a different meaning is 3751
clearly required. Any reference in this chapter to the Internal 3752
Revenue Code includes other laws of the United States relating to 3753
federal income taxes.3754

       (L) "Calendar quarter" means a three-month period ending on 3755
the thirty-first day of March, the thirtieth day of June, the 3756
thirtieth day of September, or the thirty-first day of December.3757

       (M) "Tax period" means the calendar quarter or calendar year 3758
on the basis of which a taxpayer is required to pay the tax 3759
imposed under this chapter.3760

       (N) "Calendar year taxpayer" means a taxpayer for which the 3761
tax period is a calendar year.3762

       (O) "Calendar quarter taxpayer" means a taxpayer for which 3763
the tax period is a calendar quarter.3764

       (P) "Agent" means a person authorized by another person to 3765
act on its behalf to undertake a transaction for the other, 3766
including any of the following:3767

        (1) A person receiving a fee to sell financial instruments;3768

        (2) A person retaining only a commission from a transaction 3769
with the other proceeds from the transaction being remitted to 3770
another person;3771

        (3) A person issuing licenses and permits under section 3772
1533.13 of the Revised Code;3773

        (4) A lottery sales agent holding a valid license issued 3774
under section 3770.05 of the Revised Code;3775

        (5) A person acting as an agent of the division of liquor 3776
control under section 4301.17 of the Revised Code.3777

       (Q) "Received" includes amounts accrued under the accrual 3778
method of accounting.3779

       (R) "Reporting person" means a person in a consolidated 3780
elected taxpayer or combined taxpayer group that is designated by 3781
that group to legally bind the group for all filings and tax 3782
liabilities and to receive all legal notices with respect to 3783
matters under this chapter, or, for the purposes of section 3784
5751.04 of the Revised Code, a separate taxpayer that is not a 3785
member of such a group.3786

       Sec. 5753.01.  As used in Chapter 5753. of the Revised Code 3787
and for no other purpose under Title LVII of the Revised Code:3788

       (A) "Casino facility" has the same meaning as in section 3789
3772.01 of the Revised Code.3790

       (B) "Casino gaming" has the same meaning as in section 3791
3772.01 of the Revised Code.3792

       (C) "Casino operator" has the same meaning as in section 3793
3772.01 of the Revised Code.3794

       (D) "Gross casino revenue" means the total amount of money 3795
exchanged for the purchase of chips, tokens, tickets, electronic 3796
cards, or similar objects by casino patrons, less winnings paid to 3797
wagerers. "Gross casino revenue" does not include the:3798

       (1) The issuance to casino patrons or wagering by casino 3799
patrons of any promotional gaming credit as defined in section 3800
3772.01 of the Revised Code. When issuance of the promotional 3801
gaming credit requires money exchanged as a match from the patron, 3802
the excludible portion of the promotional gaming credit does not 3803
include the portion of the wager purchased by the patron.3804

       (2) Bad debts from receipts on the basis of which the tax 3805
imposed by this chapter was paid in a prior tax period. For the 3806
purpose of this division, "bad debts" means any debts that have 3807
become worthless or uncollectible between the preceding and 3808
current tax periods, have been uncollected for at least six 3809
months, and that may be claimed as a deduction under section 166 3810
of the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations adopted under 3811
that section, or that could be claimed as such if the taxpayer 3812
kept its accounts on the accrual basis. "Bad debts" does not 3813
include repossessed property, uncollectible amounts on property 3814
that remains in the possession of the casino operator until the 3815
full purchase price is paid, or expenses in attempting to collect 3816
any account receivable or for any portion of the debt recovered.3817

       (E) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 of 3818
the Revised Code.3819

       (F) "Slot machine" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 3820
of the Revised Code.3821

       (G) "Table game" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 3822
of the Revised Code.3823

       (H) "Tax period" means one twenty-four-hour period with 3824
regard to which a casino operator is required to pay the tax 3825
levied by this chapter.3826

       Sec. 5753.03.  (A) For the purpose of receiving and 3827
distributing, and accounting for, revenue received from the tax 3828
levied by section 5753.02 of the Revised Code, the following funds 3829
are created in the state treasury:3830

       (1) The casino tax revenue fund;3831

       (2) The gross casino revenue county fund;3832

       (3) The gross casino revenue county student fund;3833

       (4) The gross casino revenue host city fund;3834

       (5) The Ohio state racing commission fund;3835

       (6) The Ohio law enforcement training fund;3836

       (7) The problem casino gambling and addictions fund;3837

       (8) The casino control commission fund;3838

       (9) The casino tax administration fund.3839

       (B) All moneys collected from the tax levied under this 3840
chapter shall be deposited into the casino tax revenue fund.3841

       (C) From the casino tax revenue fund the director of budget 3842
and management shall transfer as needed to the tax refund fund 3843
amounts equal to the refunds certified by the tax commissioner 3844
under section 5753.06 of the Revised Code.3845

       (D) After making any transfers required by division (C) of 3846
this section, but not later than the fifteenth day of the month 3847
following the end of each calendar quarter, the director of budget 3848
and management shall transfer amounts to each fund as follows:3849

       (1) Fifty-one per cent to the gross casino revenue county 3850
fund to make payments as required by Section 6(C)(3)(a) of Article 3851
XV, Ohio Constitution;3852

       (2) Thirty-four per cent to the gross casino revenue county 3853
student fund to make payments as required by Section 6(C)(3)(b) of 3854
Article XV, Ohio Constitution;3855

       (3) Five per cent to the gross casino revenue host city fund 3856
for the benefit of the cities in which casino facilities are 3857
located;3858

       (4) Three per cent to the Ohio state racing commission fund 3859
to support horse racing in this state at which the pari-mutuel 3860
system of wagering is conducted;3861

       (5) Two per cent to the Ohio law enforcement training fund to 3862
support law enforcement functions in the state;3863

       (6) Two per cent to the problem casino gambling and 3864
addictions fund to support efforts to alleviate problem gambling 3865
and substance abuse and related research in the state;3866

       (7) Three per cent to the casino control commission fund to 3867
support the operations of the Ohio casino control commission and 3868
to defray the cost of administering the tax levied under section 3869
5753.02 of the Revised Code.3870

       Payments under divisions (D)(1), (2), and (3) of this section 3871
shall be made by the end of the month following the end of the 3872
quarterly period. The tax commissioner shall make the data 3873
available to the director of budget and management for this 3874
purpose.3875

       Of the money credited to the Ohio law enforcement training 3876
fund, the director of budget and management shall distribute 3877
eighty-five per cent of the money to the Ohio peace officer 3878
training academy and fifteen per cent of the money to the division 3879
of criminal justice services.3880

       (E)(1) The tax commissioner shall serve as an agent of the 3881
counties of this state only for the purposes of this division and 3882
solely to make payments directly to municipal corporations and 3883
school districts, as applicable, on the counties' behalf.3884

       (2) On or before the thirtieth day of the month following the 3885
end of each calendar quarter, the tax commissioner shall provide 3886
for payment from the funds referenced in divisions (D)(1), (2), 3887
and (3) of this section to each county, municipal corporation, and 3888
school district as prescribed in those divisions.3889

       (F) The director of budget and management shall transfer one 3890
per cent of the money credited to the casino control commission 3891
fund to the casino tax administration fund. The tax commissioner 3892
shall use the casino tax administration fund to defray the costs 3893
incurred in administering the tax levied by this chapter.3894

       Section 2.  That existing sections 111.15, 122.014, 2923.31, 3895
3301.0714, 3769.089, 3770.02, 3770.03, 3770.05, 3770.21, 3772.01, 3896
3772.04, 3772.07, 3772.091, 3772.10, 3772.13, 3772.16, 3772.17, 3897
3772.28, 3772.99, 5503.02, 5751.01, 5753.01, and 5753.03 of the 3898
Revised Code are hereby repealed.3899

       Section 3. That Section 261.20.90 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 3900
129th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:3901

       Sec. 261.20.90. OHIO INCUMBENT WORKFORCE TRAINING VOUCHERS3902

       (A) On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 3903
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer up to $20,000,000 3904
from the Economic Development Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used by 3905
the Board of Regents to the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training 3906
Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the Department of Development.3907

        On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 3908
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer up to $30,000,000 3909
from the Economic Development Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used by 3910
the Board of Regents to the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training 3911
Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the Department of Development.3912

        (B) Of the foregoing appropriation item 195526, Ohio 3913
Workforce Job Training, up to $20,000,000 in fiscal year 2012 and 3914
up to $30,000,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used to support the 3915
Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training Voucher Program. Any unexpended 3916
and unencumbered portion of the appropriation item remaining at 3917
the end of fiscal year 2012 is hereby appropriated for the same 3918
purpose in fiscal year 2013. The Director of Development and the 3919
Chief Investment Officer of JobsOhio may enter into an agreement 3920
to operate the program pursuant to the contract between the 3921
Department of Development and JobsOhio under section 187.04 of the 3922
Revised Code. The agreement may include a provision for granting, 3923
loaning, or transferring funds from appropriation item 195526, 3924
Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training, to JobsOhio to provide 3925
training for incumbent workers.3926

        (C) Regardless of any agreement between the Director and the 3927
Chief Investment Officer under division (B) of this section, the 3928
Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training Voucher Program shall conform to 3929
guidelines for the operation of the program, including, but not 3930
limited to, the following:3931

        (1) A requirement that a training voucher under the program 3932
shall not exceed $6,000 per worker per year;3933

       (2) A provision for an employer of an eligible employee to 3934
apply for a voucher on behalf of the eligible employee;3935

        (3) A provision for an eligible employee to apply directly 3936
for a training voucher with the pre-approval of the employee's 3937
employer; and3938

        (4) A requirement that an employee participating in the 3939
program, or the employee's employer, shall pay for not less than 3940
thirty-three per cent of the training costs under the program.3941

       DEFENSE DEVELOPMENT ASSISTANCE3942

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 3943
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 3944
$5,000,000 in cash from the Economic Development Projects Fund 3945
(Fund 5JC0) used by the Board of Regents to the Ohio Incumbent 3946
Workforce Job Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the Department of 3947
Development. The transferred funds are hereby appropriated in 3948
appropriation item 195622, Defense Development Assistance.3949

       The foregoing appropriation item 195622, Defense Development 3950
Assistance, shall be used for economic development programs and 3951
the creation of new jobs to leverage and support mission gains at 3952
Department of Defense facilities in Ohio by working with future 3953
base realignment and closure activities and ongoing Department of 3954
Defense efficiency initiatives, assisting efforts to secure 3955
Department of Defense support contracts for Ohio companies, 3956
assessing and supporting regional job training and workforce 3957
development needs generated by the Department of Defense and the 3958
Ohio aerospace industry, and for expanding job training and 3959
economic development programs in human performance related 3960
initiatives. These funds shall be matched by private industry 3961
partners or the Department of Defense in an aggregate amount of 3962
$6,000,000 over the FY 2012-FY 2013 biennium.3963

       Section 4. That existing Section 261.20.90 of Am. Sub. H.B. 3964
153 of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.3965

       Section 5.  That Section 3 of Sub. H.B. 277 of the 129th 3966
General Assembly be amended to read as follows:3967

       Sec. 3. (A) Notwithstanding sections 3769.04 and 3769.13 of 3968
the Revised Code, for a period of two years after the effective 3969
date of this section, a permit holder who is eligible to become a 3970
video lottery sales agent may apply to the State Racing Commission 3971
to move its track to another location using the following approval 3972
procedure:3973

       (1) The permit holder shall submit, for the consideration of 3974
the State Racing Commission in its determination on whether to 3975
approve the transfer, its proposal to the State Racing Commission 3976
and shall specify the location of the new track and the 3977
incremental economic benefits the permit holder is willing to 3978
provide to the state.3979

       (2) The State Racing Commission shall approve or deny the 3980
transfer.3981

       (3) The permit holder may apply to the State Lottery 3982
Commission for a video lottery sales agent license at the new 3983
track location.3984

       (B) The State Racing Commission, subject to division (D) of 3985
this section, shall give preference to transfer proposals 3986
involving moves to locations in which neither horse-racing 3987
meetings nor casino gaming have been authorized before July 1, 3988
2011. A permit holder that is authorized to transfer its track 3989
under this section and that is a video lottery sales agent may 3990
operate at a temporary facility at its new location while 3991
constructing or otherwise preparing its new track at that 3992
location. A permit holder that is not transferring its track and 3993
is remaining at its permitted location and that is a video lottery 3994
sales agent may operate a temporary facility at its permitted 3995
location while constructing or otherwise preparing its permanent 3996
video lottery terminal facility at its track. A temporary 3997
facility, either at a new track location or an existing track 3998
location of a track that does not transfer its track, shall meet 3999
any minimal capital investment and structure requirements 4000
established by rule by the State Racing Commission in conjunction 4001
with the State Lottery Commission.4002

       (C) The state may discuss and negotiate with parties 4003
regarding the transferring of racing permits to new track 4004
locations and may, in its discretion, enter into agreements 4005
regarding the transfer of permits to new locations in advance of 4006
the process set forth in this section.4007

       (D) A permit holder who is located on property owned by a 4008
political subdivision may move its track to a new location within 4009
twenty miles of its current location. Such a permit holder shall 4010
not be charged any fee by the state in exchange for applying for a 4011
move, for having its move approved, or for moving its existing 4012
track as specified under this division. The State Racing 4013
Commission shall give a preference greater than the preference 4014
given under division (B) of this section to such a permit holder 4015
as part of the approval procedure.4016

       (E) Chapter 2915. of the Revised Code does not apply to, 4017
affect, or prohibit lotteries or video lotteries conducted under 4018
this section and Chapter 3770. of the Revised Code. The State 4019
Racing Commission may not adopt rules regarding the operation of 4020
lotteries or video lotteries conducted under Chapter 3770. of the 4021
Revised Code.4022

       (F) The State Racing Commission may adopt rules under Chapter 4023
119. of the Revised Code to effectuate this section and to 4024
establish fees to relocate tracks for applicants under this 4025
section.4026

       (G) As used in this section:4027

       (1) "Permit holder" means a person that has been authorized 4028
by the State Racing Commission to conduct one or more horse-racing 4029
meetings under Chapter 3769. of the Revised Code. 4030

       (2) "Track" means any place, track, or enclosure where a 4031
permit holder conducts live horse racing for profit at a racing 4032
meeting. "Track" includes facilities or premises contiguous or 4033
adjacent to those places, tracks, or enclosures. 4034

       (3) "Video lottery sales agent" means a person who is a 4035
permit holder and holds a current license issued by the State 4036
Lottery Commission to assist the Commission in conducting video 4037
lotteries through the use of video lottery terminals at a track.4038

       Section 6.  That existing Section 3 of Sub. H.B. 277 of the 4039
129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.4040

       Section 7.  That Section 4 of Sub. H.B. 277 of the 129th 4041
General Assembly is hereby repealed.4042

       Section 8.  (A) The Governor is authorized to execute a deed 4043
in the name of the state conveying to Lebanon Trotting Club, Inc., 4044
and Miami Valley Trotting, Inc., the holders of pari-mutuel racing 4045
permits issued by the State Racing Commission, or to their 4046
respective successors and assigns (hereinafter collectively 4047
referred to as the "grantee"), all of the state's right, title, 4048
and interest in the following described real estate:4049

       Situated in Turtlecreek Township, City of Lebanon, County of 4050
Warren, State of Ohio and being part of Warren County Parcel Nos. 4051
11064000140 and 12363000030, which land is situated at the 4052
northeast corner of the intersection of State Route 63 and Union 4053
Road, and is bounded to the west by Union Road, to the south by 4054
Route 63, and to the east by a private roadway used by the 4055
Department of Rehabilitation and Correction for ingress and egress 4056
from Route 63 to the Lebanon Correctional Institution's dairy 4057
barn. The northerly boundary shall be established by a survey 4058
designed to ensure that the land to be conveyed does not exceed 4059
one hundred twenty acres.4060

       In preparing the deed, the Auditor of State, with the 4061
assistance of the Attorney General, may modify the foregoing 4062
description insofar as necessary to bring it into conformity with 4063
the actual bounds of the real estate being described.4064

       (B) Consideration for conveyance of the real estate is four 4065
million five hundred thousand dollars.4066

       (C) The net proceeds of the sale of the real estate shall be 4067
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the Department of 4068
Rehabilitation and Correction, Fund 2000, appropriation item 4069
501607, Ohio Penal Industries, which contains funds for 4070
expenditures on farm and agricultural uses, for which these 4071
proceeds shall be used.4072

       (D) The grantee, following the conveyance of the real estate, 4073
and in accordance with the terms of the purchase contract, shall 4074
do all of the following:4075

       (1) Permit the state and its successors and assigns perpetual 4076
ingress and egress rights to the culvert and roadway located along 4077
the easterly line of the real estate, which culvert and roadway 4078
are presently used by the state to access the Lebanon Correctional 4079
Institution's dairy barn. The grantee shall be responsible for all 4080
costs related to the continued maintenance of the culvert and 4081
roadway in their current condition.4082

       (2) Create and maintain, at the grantee's sole cost, a 4083
landscape buffer zone along the perimeter of the real estate. The 4084
design, location, and materials used in the landscape buffer zone 4085
shall be approved by the state.4086

       (3) Coordinate with the appropriate state and local 4087
authorities to improve State Route 63 with new signage and 4088
adequate turning lanes.4089

       (E) The grantee shall not use, develop, or sell the premises 4090
such that it will interfere with the quiet enjoyment of the 4091
neighboring state-owned land.4092

       (F)The real estate shall be sold as an entire tract and not 4093
in parcels.4094

       (G) The grantee shall pay all costs associated with the 4095
purchase and conveyance of the real estate, which costs shall 4096
include, but are not limited to, the following: surveying costs; 4097
title costs; preparation of metes and bounds property 4098
descriptions; appraisals; environmental studies, assessments, and 4099
remediation; and deed recordation costs.4100

       (H) The Auditor of State, with the assistance of the Attorney 4101
General, shall prepare a deed to the real estate. The deed shall 4102
state the consideration and the conditions. The deed shall be 4103
executed by the Governor in the name of the state, countersigned 4104
by the Secretary of State, sealed with the Great Seal of the 4105
State, presented in the Office of the Auditor of State for 4106
recording, and delivered to the grantee. The grantee shall present 4107
the deed for recording in the Office of the Warren County 4108
Recorder.4109

       (I) This section expires two years after its effective date.4110

       Section 9.  (A) As used in this section:4111

       (1) "Permit holder" means a person that has been authorized 4112
by the State Racing Commission to conduct one or more horse-racing 4113
meetings under Chapter 3769. of the Revised Code.4114

       (2) "Track" means any place, track, or enclosure where a 4115
permit holder conducts live horse racing for profit at a racing 4116
meeting. "Track" includes facilities or premises contiguous or 4117
adjacent to those places, tracks, or enclosures.4118

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 4119
Racetrack Relocation Fund. The fund shall receive any money paid 4120
to the state by horse-racing permit holders for the privilege to 4121
relocate to a new facility in accordance with Section 3 of Sub. 4122
H.B. 277 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by this act. 4123
Upon the allocation of all the money in the fund in accordance 4124
with this section, the fund shall cease to exist.4125

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 4126
Racetrack Facility Community Economic Redevelopment Fund into 4127
which shall be deposited moneys as specified by this section and 4128
rules promulgated by the State Racing Commission. The fund shall 4129
be used for repurposing or demolishing of an abandoned 4130
horse-racing facility or reinvestment in the area, neighborhood, 4131
and community near an abandoned facility. Any remaining funds 4132
shall be transferred to the General Revenue Fund. Upon the 4133
allocation of all the money in the fund in accordance with this 4134
section, the fund shall cease to exist.4135

       (D) The Director of Development or any successor department 4136
or agency shall oversee and administer the Racetrack Facility 4137
Community Economic Redevelopment Fund for the purpose of the 4138
repurposing or demolishing of an abandoned horse-racing facility 4139
or reinvestment in the area, neighborhood, and community near an 4140
abandoned facility through loans and grants. The Director shall 4141
provide guidelines for racetrack facility community economic 4142
development projects in the state. Projects may include, but are 4143
not limited to, site planning, site certification, structure 4144
demolition, physical site redevelopment, relocation of utilities, 4145
or construction. Projects shall not incorporate acquisition and 4146
related expense. Moneys in the fund may be used to pay reasonable 4147
costs incurred by the Director in administering this section.4148

       (E) The moneys in the Racetrack Relocation Fund shall be 4149
allocated to the following funds in the following amounts:4150

       (1) Five hundred thousand dollars to the Problem Casino 4151
Gambling and Addictions Fund described in Section 6(C)(3)(g) of 4152
Article XV, Ohio Constitution, to be used for research and data 4153
collection on gambling addiction issues;4154

       (2) Not more than three million dollars to the previous 4155
community of each moved track, which shall be deposited in the 4156
Racetrack Facility Community Economic Redevelopment Fund;4157

       (3) The remainder to the General Revenue Fund.4158

       (F) Communities whose permit holders did not pay to move its 4159
track to a new location are not eligible for funds in the 4160
Racetrack Facility Community Economic Redevelopment Fund. 4161

       Section 10.  Notwithstanding any provision in law to the 4162
contrary, the Director of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services 4163
shall complete a study to identify the current status of gaming 4164
addiction problems within the state. In fiscal year 2013, the 4165
Director may certify to the Director of Budget and Management the 4166
cost, not exceeding two hundred fifty thousand dollars, incurred 4167
by the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services in 4168
conducting the gaming addiction study. In response to receiving 4169
this certification, the Director of Budget and Management may 4170
transfer the cost of the study in cash to the Problem Casino and 4171
Gambling Addictions Fund (Fund 5JL0) to reimburse the fund for 4172
costs incurred in conducting the study.4173

       Section 11.  The items of law contained in this act, and 4174
their applications, are severable. If any item of law contained in 4175
this act, or if any application of any item of law contained in 4176
this act, is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other 4177
items of law contained in this act and their applications that can 4178
be given effect without the invalid item of law or application.4179

       Section 12.  Section 5751.01 of the Revised Code is presented 4180
in this act as a composite of the section as amended by both Am. 4181
Sub. H.B. 153 and Sub. H.B. 277 of the 129th General Assembly. The 4182
General Assembly, applying the principle stated in division (B) of 4183
section 1.52 of the Revised Code that amendments are to be 4184
harmonized if reasonably capable of simultaneous operation, finds 4185
that the composite is the resulting version of the section in 4186
effect prior to the effective date of the section as presented in 4187
this act.4188

       Section 13.  The amendment by this act of sections 3770.02 4189
and 5753.03 of the Revised Code are an emergency measure necessary 4190
for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and 4191
safety. The reason for such necessity is the importance of not 4192
delaying casino licensing procedures and money distribution. 4193
Therefore, the amendment by this act of sections 3770.02 and 4194
5753.03 of the Revised Code goes into immediate effect. 4195