As Pending in Senate Finance Committee

129th General Assembly
Regular Session
2011-2012
Sub. H. B. No. 487


Representative Amstutz (By Request) 

Cosponsors: Representatives Beck, Blair, Buchy, Combs, McClain, Sears, Sprague, Stebelton, Terhar, Wachtmann 



A BILL
To amend sections 7.10, 7.16, 9.34, 102.02, 103.05, 1
105.41, 107.54, 109.33, 109.57, 109.572, 109.801, 2
119.032, 121.04, 121.08, 121.083, 121.084, 123.01, 3
123.011, 123.07, 123.09, 123.10, 123.101, 123.13, 4
123.14, 123.15, 123.152, 123.17, 123.21, 123.48, 5
123.77, 124.04, 124.06, 124.11, 124.12, 124.14, 6
124.231, 124.241, 124.25, 124.26, 124.27, 124.30, 7
124.31, 125.082, 125.14, 126.14, 135.35, 140.01, 8
140.03, 140.05, 140.08, 145.01, 145.012, 149.43, 9
151.01, 152.18, 152.24, 153.01, 153.011, 153.013, 10
153.02, 153.04, 153.06, 153.07, 153.08, 153.09, 11
153.11, 153.12, 153.14, 153.16, 153.17, 153.502, 12
153.503, 153.53, 154.01, 167.04, 173.14, 173.21, 13
173.23, 173.26, 173.27, 173.391, 173.394, 173.40, 14
173.42, 173.45, 173.46, 185.01, 185.02, 185.03, 15
185.05, 185.06, 185.07, 185.09, 185.12, 189.04, 16
189.05, 189.06, 189.08, 306.04, 306.36, 306.55, 17
307.05, 307.051, 307.055, 313.121, 313.122, 18
313.16, 329.01, 329.40, 329.41, 329.42, 329.43, 19
329.44, 329.45, 329.46, 330.04, 339.091, 340.03, 20
340.05, 340.091, 505.37, 505.375, 505.44, 505.72, 21
705.18, 749.04, 749.05, 749.18, 901.54, 924.51, 22
955.16, 955.26, 991.02, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 23
1315.141, 1317.05, 1321.37, 1321.52, 1321.53, 24
1321.531, 1322.02, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1345.05, 25
1501.04, 1502.01, 1502.02, 1502.03, 1502.04, 26
1502.05, 1502.06, 1502.12, 1502.99, 1503.012, 27
1503.43, 1506.42, 1509.071, 1533.10, 1541.26, 28
1551.33, 1555.02, 1555.03, 1555.04, 1555.05, 29
1555.06, 1707.08, 1707.391, 1724.03, 1733.47, 30
1751.01, 1751.02, 1751.13, 1761.26, 1901.01, 31
1901.02, 1901.03, 1901.06, 1901.07, 1901.08, 32
1901.18, 1901.31, 1907.11, 1907.13, 1909.11, 33
1923.01, 1923.02, 1923.061, 1923.15, 2151.86, 34
2152.121, 2152.22, 2301.01, 2301.27, 2301.271, 35
2301.571, 2305.01, 2307.89, 2317.02, 2317.422, 36
2317.56, 2501.02, 2503.01, 2743.02, 2743.10, 37
2746.01, 2901.01, 2903.33, 2907.29, 2909.21, 38
2909.28, 2927.023, 2929.01, 2929.19, 2935.01, 39
2935.03, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 40
2945.401, 2961.22, 2967.03, 2967.05, 2967.14, 41
2967.19, 2967.191, 2967.26, 2967.28, 2981.11, 42
2981.14, 3109.14, 3125.41, 3301.55, 3304.14, 43
3304.16, 3304.181, 3304.182, 3305.01, 3305.02, 44
3305.03, 3305.04, 3305.05, 3305.053, 3305.06, 45
3313.65, 3313.71, 3313.976, 3313.978, 3313.979, 46
3318.034, 3318.08, 3318.10, 3318.30, 3318.31, 47
3318.37, 3333.04, 3333.041, 3333.123, 3333.21, 48
3333.60, 3333.61, 3333.71, 3333.72 3334.08, 49
3345.16, 3345.28, 3345.50, 3345.51, 3345.54, 50
3345.69, 3345.692, 3347.03, 3383.02, 3383.07, 51
3517.20, 3701.021, 3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.025, 52
3701.03, 3701.05, 3701.07, 3701.072, 3701.11, 53
3701.132, 3701.146, 3701.161, 3701.20, 3701.201, 54
3701.21, 3701.221, 3701.23, 3701.232, 3701.24, 55
3701.241, 3701.242, 3701.248, 3701.341, 3701.342, 56
3701.343, 3701.344, 3701.345, 3701.347, 3701.352, 57
3701.40, 3701.503, 3701.507, 3701.508, 3701.509, 58
3701.57, 3701.63, 3701.74, 3701.87, 3701.881, 59
3702.141, 3702.31, 3702.51, 3702.52, 3702.522, 60
3702.523, 3702.524, 3702.525, 3702.526, 3702.53, 61
3702.531, 3702.54, 3702.55, 3702.56, 3702.57, 62
3702.59, 3702.592, 3702.593, 3702.594, 3702.60, 63
3702.62, 3703.01, 3703.03, 3703.04, 3703.05, 64
3703.06, 3703.07, 3703.08, 3703.10, 3703.21, 65
3703.99, 3704.035, 3705.24, 3705.242, 3705.30, 66
3706.19, 3709.03, 3709.04, 3709.06, 3709.085, 67
3709.09, 3709.092, 3709.32, 3709.35, 3710.01, 68
3710.02, 3710.04, 3710.05, 3710.051, 3710.06, 69
3710.07, 3710.08, 3710.09, 3710.10, 3710.12, 70
3710.13, 3710.17, 3711.04, 3711.06, 3711.08, 71
3711.12, 3711.21, 3712.03, 3712.04, 3712.09, 72
3713.01, 3713.02, 3713.03, 3713.04, 3713.05, 73
3713.06, 3713.07, 3713.08, 3713.09, 3713.10, 74
3714.073, 3715.01, 3715.025, 3715.60, 3715.61, 75
3715.62, 3715.68, 3715.87, 3716.01, 3716.03, 76
3717.01, 3717.04, 3717.05, 3717.07, 3717.45, 77
3717.51, 3718.02, 3718.021, 3718.022, 3718.05, 78
3718.06, 3718.07, 3718.09, 3721.01, 3721.011, 79
3721.02, 3721.03, 3721.032, 3721.04, 3721.07, 80
3721.071, 3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.21, 3721.28, 81
3721.29, 3721.50, 3721.51, 3723.06, 3723.07, 82
3723.09, 3725.02, 3727.01, 3727.42, 3729.01, 83
3729.02, 3729.03, 3729.04, 3729.07, 3729.08, 84
3730.10, 3733.02, 3733.021, 3733.022, 3733.024, 85
3733.025, 3733.03, 3733.04, 3733.05, 3733.06, 86
3733.07, 3733.08, 3733.09, 3733.091, 3733.10, 87
3733.101, 3733.11, 3733.12, 3733.121, 3733.122, 88
3733.123, 3733.13, 3733.14, 3733.15, 3733.17, 89
3733.18, 3733.19, 3733.20, 3733.41, 3733.42, 90
3734.01, 3734.131, 3734.15, 3734.51, 3734.55, 91
3734.79, 3734.82, 3735.37, 3737.83, 3737.841, 92
3742.01, 3742.02, 3742.03, 3742.04, 3742.05, 93
3742.30, 3742.31, 3742.32, 3742.47, 3742.50, 94
3743.04, 3743.06, 3743.19, 3743.25, 3745.01, 95
3745.11, 3745.112, 3748.04, 3748.05, 3748.07, 96
3748.10, 3748.12, 3748.13, 3748.15, 3748.20, 97
3749.02, 3749.03, 3749.04, 3752.06, 3770.06, 98
3781.03, 3781.06, 3781.102, 3781.11, 3781.112, 99
3783.05, 3791.02, 3791.04, 3791.05, 3791.07, 100
3791.11, 3791.12, 3793.04, 3793.09, 3905.36, 101
4104.01, 4104.02, 4104.06, 4104.07, 4104.08, 102
4104.09, 4104.10, 4104.101, 4104.12, 4104.15, 103
4104.16, 4104.17, 4104.18, 4104.19, 4104.21, 104
4104.33, 4104.42, 4104.43, 4104.44, 4104.48, 105
4105.01, 4105.02, 4105.03, 4105.04, 4105.05, 106
4105.06, 4105.09, 4105.11, 4105.12, 4105.13, 107
4105.15, 4105.16, 4105.17, 4105.191, 4105.20, 108
4105.21, 4115.10, 4115.101, 4121.04, 4121.123, 109
4121.30, 4123.20, 4123.35, 4123.57, 4141.35, 110
4163.07, 4169.02, 4169.03, 4169.04, 4171.04, 111
4301.30, 4303.181, 4303.22, 4313.02, 4501.01, 112
4501.06, 4501.271, 4503.031, 4503.061, 4503.062, 113
4503.49, 4503.81, 4506.01, 4506.03, 4506.22, 114
4506.25, 4507.01, 4507.011, 4507.12, 4507.51, 115
4508.02, 4510.037, 4510.038, 4511.191, 4511.78, 116
4511.98, 4513.18, 4513.263, 4513.50, 4582.12, 117
4582.31, 4712.01, 4723.481, 4730.42, 4731.052, 118
4731.22, 4735.01, 4735.02, 4735.052, 4735.10, 119
4735.13, 4735.14, 4735.141, 4735.142, 4735.74, 120
4736.01, 4740.03, 4740.11, 4740.14, 4743.05, 121
4763.05, 4765.02, 4765.03, 4765.04, 4765.05, 122
4765.06, 4765.07, 4765.08, 4765.09, 4765.10, 123
4765.101, 4765.102, 4765.11, 4765.111, 4765.112, 124
4765.113, 4765.114, 4765.115, 4765.116, 4765.12, 125
4765.15, 4765.16, 4765.17, 4765.18, 4765.22, 126
4765.23, 4765.28, 4765.29, 4765.30, 4765.31, 127
4765.32, 4765.33, 4765.37, 4765.38, 4765.39, 128
4765.40, 4765.42, 4765.48, 4765.49, 4765.55, 129
4765.56, 4766.01, 4766.03, 4766.04, 4766.05, 130
4766.07, 4766.08, 4766.09, 4766.10, 4766.11, 131
4766.12, 4766.13, 4766.15, 4766.22, 4773.08, 132
4781.01, 4781.02, 4781.04, 4781.07, 4781.09, 133
4781.14, 4781.15, 4781.16, 4781.99, 4905.01, 134
4905.02, 4905.03, 4905.05, 4905.06, 4905.402, 135
4905.54, 4905.57, 4905.58, 4905.84, 4905.90, 136
4907.01, 4907.02, 4907.04, 4907.08, 4907.19, 137
4907.28, 4907.35, 4907.37, 4907.43, 4907.49, 138
4907.57, 4907.59, 4907.60, 4907.61, 4907.62, 139
4909.01, 4909.02, 4909.03, 4909.17, 4909.22, 140
4909.24, 4909.28, 4911.01, 4927.01, 4929.01, 141
4929.02, 4929.041, 4933.18, 4933.19, 4939.01, 142
4953.04, 4961.03, 4965.54, 5101.01, 5101.46, 143
5101.60, 5101.61, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.051, 144
5104.09, 5104.37, 5107.05, 5107.16, 5107.17, 145
5111.01, 5111.013, 5111.014, 5111.0115, 5111.0120, 146
5111.031, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5111.06, 147
5111.091, 5111.113, 5111.16, 5111.161, 5111.171, 148
5111.20, 5111.222, 5111.23, 5111.242, 5111.254, 149
5111.862, 5111.874, 5111.877, 5111.878, 5111.89, 150
5111.894, 5111.941, 5111.97, 5112.31, 5112.33, 151
5112.341, 5112.37, 5112.371, 5112.39, 5119.22, 152
5119.61, 5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.99, 5120.036, 153
5120.105, 5120.132, 5120.66, 5122.31, 5123.01, 154
5123.033, 5123.042, 5123.044, 5123.0412, 155
5123.0414, 5123.0415, 5123.081, 5123.16, 5123.161, 156
5123.162, 5123.163, 5123.164, 5123.166, 5123.169, 157
5123.171, 5123.19, 5123.31, 5123.38, 5123.41, 158
5123.50, 5123.51, 5123.542, 5123.61, 5123.89, 159
5126.023, 5126.0220, 5126.0221, 5126.043, 160
5126.046, 5126.055, 5126.13, 5126.15, 5126.20, 161
5126.21, 5126.22, 5126.25, 5126.251, 5126.51, 162
5139.41, 5139.43, 5149.311, 5155.14, 5501.04, 163
5501.07, 5502.01, 5502.011, 5503.02, 5503.04, 164
5503.21, 5503.22, 5503.23, 5503.34, 5516.02, 165
5516.06, 5701.13, 5703.05, 5705.08, 5705.19, 166
5705.25, 5705.28, 5705.30, 5705.34, 5705.35, 167
5705.38, 5709.084, 5709.12, 5709.121, 5709.212, 168
5709.43, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.73, 169
5709.75, 5709.80, 5713.03, 5719.13, 5725.14, 170
5725.15, 5725.16, 5725.17, 5725.22, 5725.221, 171
5731.39, 5733.064, 5739.01, 5739.02, 5743.03, 172
5743.031, 5751.033, 5751.12, 6109.21, 6111.46, 173
6117.39, and 6119.11; to amend, for the purpose of 174
adopting new section numbers as indicated in 175
parentheses, sections 123.011 (123.22), 123.024 176
(123.06), 123.04 (123.02), 123.07 (123.03), 123.08 177
(123.18), 123.09 (123.04), 123.10 (123.05), 178
123.101 (123.27), 123.11 (123.07), 123.13 179
(123.08), 123.14 (123.09), 123.15 (123.10), 123.17 180
(123.24), 123.21 (123.11), 123.46 (123.12), 123.47 181
(123.13), 123.48 (123.14), 123.49 (123.15), 123.77 182
(123.17), 185.01 (3701.92), 185.02 (3701.923), 183
185.03 (3701.924), 185.05 (3701.925), 185.06 184
(3701.926), 185.07 (3701.927), 185.09 (3701.928), 185
185.12 (3701.929), 1502.01 (3736.01), 1502.02 186
(3736.03), 1502.03 (3736.02), 1502.04 (3736.04), 187
1502.05 (3736.05), 1502.06 (3736.06), 1502.07 188
(3736.07), 1502.12 (3734.822), 1502.99 (3736.99), 189
3702.522 (3702.521), 3702.523 (3702.522), 3702.524 190
(3702.523), 3702.525 (3702.524), 3702.526 191
(3702.525), 3733.02 (4781.26), 3733.021 (4781.31), 192
3733.022 (4781.32), 3733.024 (4781.33), 3733.025 193
(4781.34), 3733.03 (4781.27), 3733.04 (4781.28), 194
3733.05 (4781.29), 3733.06 (4781.30), 3733.07 195
(4781.301), 3733.08 (4781.35), 3733.09 (4781.36), 196
3733.091 (4781.37), 3733.10 (4781.38), 3733.101 197
(4781.39), 3733.11 (4781.40), 3733.12 (4781.41), 198
3733.121 (4781.42), 3733.122 (4781.43), 3733.123 199
(4781.44), 3733.13 (4781.45), 3733.14 (4781.46), 200
3733.15 (4781.47), 3733.16 (4781.48), 3733.17 201
(4781.49), 3733.18 (4781.50), 3733.19 (4781.51), 202
3733.20 (4781.52), 5123.169 (5123.1610), 5503.21 203
(5502.05), 5503.22 (5502.06), and 5503.23 204
(5502.07); to enact new sections 123.21, 3701.33, 205
3701.34, 3702.526, 4905.80, 4905.81, 4921.01, 206
4921.03, 4921.05, 4921.07, 4921.09, 4921.11, 207
4921.13, 4921.15, 4921.16, 4921.19, 4921.25, 208
4921.30, 4921.32, 4921.36, 4921.38, 4923.01, 209
4923.02, 4923.04, 4923.06, 4923.07, 4923.09, 210
4923.11, 4923.99, 5123.169, and 5123.192 and 211
sections 101.312, 119.033, 121.35, 123.20, 212
123.201, 123.23, 123.26, 127.163, 127.164, 213
171.021, 189.041, 191.01, 191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 214
505.59, 901.53, 1321.537, 1321.538, 1322.042, 215
1322.043, 1533.081, 3305.031, 3305.032, 3356.10, 216
3366.05, 3375.405, 3701.77, 3701.771, 3701.772, 217
3701.773, 3701.774, 3701.775, 3701.921, 3701.922, 218
3701.93, 3701.931, 3701.932, 3701.933, 3701.934, 219
3701.935, 3701.936, 3701.937, 3701.938, 3701.9310, 220
3701.9311, 3701.9312, 3701.9314, 3702.511, 221
3702.527, 3793.041, 3798.01, 3798.02, 3798.03, 222
3798.04, 3798.06, 3798.07, 3798.08, 3798.10, 223
3798.12, 3798.13, 3798.14, 3798.15, 3798.16, 224
4731.297, 4781.121, 4781.54, 4921.21, 4921.34, 225
4923.15, 5111.246, 5111.946, 5111.96, 5112.331, 226
5139.511, 5705.252, 5705.72, and 5713.012; and to 227
repeal sections 185.04, 185.08, 185.10, 185.11, 228
2909.32, 2909.33, 2909.34, 3301.68, 3333.049, 229
3333.0411, 3333.33, 3333.70, 3333.80, 3334.111, 230
3354.23, 3701.02, 3701.032, 3701.12, 3701.33, 231
3701.34, 3701.35, 3702.521, 3702.5210, 3702.5211, 232
3702.5212, 3702.5213, 3702.58, 3702.591, 3733.01, 233
3733.031, 3745.111, 3781.183, 3791.043, 4113.11, 234
4121.18, 4766.02, 4766.20, 4905.80, 4905.801, 235
4905.81, 4905.82, 4905.83, 4919.75, 4919.76, 236
4919.77, 4919.78, 4919.79, 4919.99, 4921.01, 237
4921.02, 4921.03, 4921.04, 4921.05, 4921.06, 238
4921.07, 4921.08, 4921.09, 4921.10, 4921.101, 239
4921.11, 4921.12, 4921.13, 4921.14, 4921.15, 240
4921.16, 4921.17, 4921.18, 4921.19, 4921.20, 241
4921.23, 4921.24, 4921.25, 4921.26, 4921.27, 242
4921.28, 4921.30, 4921.31, 4921.32, 4921.35, 243
4921.36, 4921.37, 4921.38, 4921.39, 4921.40, 244
4921.99, 4923.01, 4923.02, 4923.03, 4923.04, 245
4923.05, 4923.06, 4923.07, 4923.08, 4923.09, 246
4923.10, 4923.11, 4923.12, 4923.13, 4923.14, 247
4923.17, 4923.20, 4923.26, 4923.99, 5101.97, 248
5111.651, 5119.614, 5119.692, 5119.693, 5119.70, 249
5119.701, 5119.71, 5119.711, 5119.712, 5119.72, 250
5119.73, 5119.731, 5119.74, 5119.75, 5119.76, 251
5119.77, 5119.78, 5119.79, 5119.80, 5119.81, 252
5119.82, 5119.83, 5119.84, 5119.85, 5119.86, 253
5119.87, 5119.88, 5123.082, 5123.083, 5123.192, 254
5126.0222, 5126.252, 5126.26, 5126.27, 5126.28, 255
5126.281, 5126.29, and 5501.09 of the Revised 256
Code; to repeal section 3356.10 of the Revised 257
Code five years after the effective date of that 258
section; to amend Section 753.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 259
114 of the 129th General Assembly, Section 205.10 260
of Am. Sub. H.B. 114 of the 129th General 261
Assembly, as subsequently amended, Section 201 of 262
Sub. H.B. 123 of the 129th General Assembly, 263
Section 1 of H.B. 124 of the 129th General 264
Assembly, Sections 205.10, 207.10, 207.10.80, 265
207.20.10, 207.20.30, 207.20.90, 209.10, 209.20, 266
209.30, 211.10, 215.10, 215.20, 223.10, 229.10, 267
243.10, 261.10.40, 261.10.70, 261.20.40, 268
261.20.50, 261.20.60, 261.20.80, 261.20.90, 269
261.30.10, 261.30.20, 261.30.30, 261.30.40, 270
261.30.60, 261.30.70, 261.30.80, 261.30.90, 271
261.40.10, 263.10, 263.10.30, 263.10.90, 272
263.20.40, 263.20.70, 267.10, 267.10.10, 273
267.10.20, 267.10.40, 267.30.20, 267.30.40, 274
279.10, 287.10, 291.10, 307.10, 309.10, 309.30.10, 275
309.30.30, 309.30.33, 309.30.53, 309.30.73, 276
309.35.73, 313.10, 315.10, 323.10, 327.10, 335.10, 277
337.10, 343.10, 343.40, 365.10, 367.10, 369.10, 278
371.10, 371.50.61, 371.60.80, 373.10, 375.10, 279
379.10, 387.10, 403.10, 411.10, 415.10, 503.50, 280
and 521.70 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 281
General Assembly, Sections 247.10, 261.10, and 282
261.20.93 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 283
General Assembly, as subsequently amended, Section 284
4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th General Assembly, 285
Section 701.10 of Sub. S.B. 312 of the 129th 286
General Assembly, Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 287
of the 121st General Assembly, and Section 3 of 288
Am. Sub. S.B. 38 of the 120th General Assembly; to 289
repeal Sections 261.10.10, 261.10.20, 261.10.30, 290
261.10.50, 261.10.60, 261.10.80, 261.10.90, 291
261.20.10, 261.20.20, 261.20.70, 261.30.50, and 292
263.10.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 293
General Assembly; and Section 2 of Am. Sub. S.B. 294
63 of the 121st General Assembly and to amend the 295
versions of sections 5122.31, 5123.19, and 5123.61 296
of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take 297
effect October 1, 2012, to continue the provisions 298
of this act on and after that effective date; to 299
make operating and other appropriations and to 300
provide authorization and conditions for the 301
operation of state programs.302


BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:

       Section 101.01. That sections 7.10, 7.16, 9.34, 102.02, 303
103.05, 105.41, 107.54, 109.33, 109.57, 109.572, 109.801, 119.032, 304
121.04, 121.08, 121.083, 121.084, 123.01, 123.011, 123.07, 123.09, 305
123.10, 123.101, 123.13, 123.14, 123.15, 123.152, 123.17, 123.21, 306
123.48, 123.77, 124.04, 124.06, 124.11, 124.12, 124.14, 124.231, 307
124.241, 124.25, 124.26, 124.27, 124.30, 124.31, 125.082, 125.14, 308
126.14, 135.35, 140.01, 140.03, 140.05, 140.08, 145.01, 145.012, 309
149.43, 151.01, 152.18, 152.24, 153.01, 153.011, 153.013, 153.02, 310
153.04, 153.06, 153.07, 153.08, 153.09, 153.11, 153.12, 153.14, 311
153.16, 153.17, 153.502, 153.503, 153.53, 154.01, 167.04, 173.14, 312
173.21, 173.23, 173.26, 173.27, 173.391, 173.394, 173.40, 173.42, 313
173.45, 173.46, 185.01, 185.02, 185.03, 185.05, 185.06, 185.07, 314
185.09, 185.12, 189.04, 189.05, 189.06, 189.08, 306.04, 306.36, 315
306.55, 307.05, 307.051, 307.055, 313.121, 313.122, 313.16, 316
329.01, 329.40, 329.41, 329.42, 329.43, 329.44, 329.45, 329.46, 317
330.04, 339.091, 340.03, 340.05, 340.091, 505.37, 505.375, 505.44, 318
505.72, 705.18, 749.04, 749.05, 749.18, 901.54, 924.51, 955.16, 319
955.26, 991.02, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1317.05, 320
1321.37, 1321.52, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.02, 1322.03, 1322.031, 321
1345.05, 1501.04, 1502.01, 1502.02, 1502.03, 1502.04, 1502.05, 322
1502.06, 1502.12, 1502.99, 1503.012, 1503.43, 1506.42, 1509.071, 323
1533.10, 1541.26, 1551.33, 1555.02, 1555.03, 1555.04, 1555.05, 324
1555.06, 1707.08, 1707.391, 1724.03, 1733.47, 1751.01, 1751.02, 325
1751.13, 1761.26, 1901.01, 1901.02, 1901.03, 1901.06, 1901.07, 326
1901.08, 1901.18, 1901.31, 1907.11, 1907.13, 1909.11, 1923.01, 327
1923.02, 1923.061, 1923.15, 2151.86, 2152.121, 2152.22, 2301.01, 328
2301.27, 2301.271, 2301.571, 2305.01, 2307.89, 2317.02, 2317.422, 329
2317.56, 2501.02, 2503.01, 2743.02, 2743.10, 2746.01, 2901.01, 330
2903.33, 2907.29, 2909.21, 2909.28, 2927.023, 2929.01, 2929.19, 331
2935.01, 2935.03, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 332
2961.22, 2967.03, 2967.05, 2967.14, 2967.19, 2967.191, 2967.26, 333
2967.28, 2981.11, 2981.14, 3109.14, 3125.41, 3301.55, 3304.14, 334
3304.16, 3304.181, 3304.182, 3305.01, 3305.02, 3305.03, 3305.04, 335
3305.05, 3305.053, 3305.06, 3313.65, 3313.71, 3313.976, 3313.978, 336
3313.979, 3318.034, 3318.08, 3318.10, 3318.30, 3318.31, 3318.37, 337
3333.04, 3333.041, 3333.123, 3333.21, 3333.60, 3333.61, 3333.71, 338
3333.72, 3334.08, 3345.16, 3345.28, 3345.50, 3345.51, 3345.54, 339
3345.69, 3345.692, 3347.03, 3383.02, 3383.07, 3517.20, 3701.021, 340
3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.025, 3701.03, 3701.05, 3701.07, 3701.072, 341
3701.11, 3701.132, 3701.146, 3701.161, 3701.20, 3701.201, 3701.21, 342
3701.221, 3701.23, 3701.232, 3701.24, 3701.241, 3701.242, 343
3701.248, 3701.341, 3701.342, 3701.343, 3701.344, 3701.345, 344
3701.347, 3701.352, 3701.40, 3701.503, 3701.507, 3701.508, 345
3701.509, 3701.57, 3701.63, 3701.74, 3701.87, 3701.881, 3702.141, 346
3702.31, 3702.51, 3702.52, 3702.522, 3702.523, 3702.524, 3702.525, 347
3702.526, 3702.53, 3702.531, 3702.54, 3702.55, 3702.56, 3702.57, 348
3702.59, 3702.592, 3702.593, 3702.594, 3702.60, 3702.62, 3703.01, 349
3703.03, 3703.04, 3703.05, 3703.06, 3703.07, 3703.08, 3703.10, 350
3703.21, 3703.99, 3704.035, 3705.24, 3705.242, 3705.30, 3706.19, 351
3709.03, 3709.04, 3709.06, 3709.085, 3709.09, 3709.092, 3709.32, 352
3709.35, 3710.01, 3710.02, 3710.04, 3710.05, 3710.051, 3710.06, 353
3710.07, 3710.08, 3710.09, 3710.10, 3710.12, 3710.13, 3710.17, 354
3711.04, 3711.06, 3711.08, 3711.12, 3711.21, 3712.03, 3712.04, 355
3712.09, 3713.01, 3713.02, 3713.03, 3713.04, 3713.05, 3713.06, 356
3713.07, 3713.08, 3713.09, 3713.10, 3714.073, 3715.01, 3715.025, 357
3715.60, 3715.61, 3715.62, 3715.68, 3715.87, 3716.01, 3716.03, 358
3717.01, 3717.04, 3717.05, 3717.07, 3717.45, 3717.51, 3718.02, 359
3718.021, 3718.022, 3718.05, 3718.06, 3718.07, 3718.09, 3721.01, 360
3721.011, 3721.02, 3721.03, 3721.032, 3721.04, 3721.07, 3721.071, 361
3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.21, 3721.28, 3721.29, 3721.50, 3721.51, 362
3723.06, 3723.07, 3723.09, 3725.02, 3727.01, 3727.42, 3729.01, 363
3729.02, 3729.03, 3729.04, 3729.07, 3729.08, 3730.10, 3733.02, 364
3733.021, 3733.022, 3733.024, 3733.025, 3733.03, 3733.04, 3733.05, 365
3733.06, 3733.07, 3733.08, 3733.09, 3733.091, 3733.10, 3733.101, 366
3733.11, 3733.12, 3733.121, 3733.122, 3733.123, 3733.13, 3733.14, 367
3733.15, 3733.17, 3733.18, 3733.19, 3733.20, 3733.41, 3733.42, 368
3734.01, 3734.131, 3734.15, 3734.51, 3734.55, 3734.79, 3734.82, 369
3735.37, 3737.83, 3737.841, 3742.01, 3742.02, 3742.03, 3742.04, 370
3742.05, 3742.30, 3742.31, 3742.32, 3742.47, 3742.50, 3743.04, 371
3743.06, 3743.19, 3743.25, 3745.01, 3745.11, 3745.112, 3748.04, 372
3748.05, 3748.07, 3748.10, 3748.12, 3748.13, 3748.15, 3748.20, 373
3749.02, 3749.03, 3749.04, 3752.06, 3770.06, 3781.03, 3781.06, 374
3781.102, 3781.11, 3781.112, 3783.05, 3791.02, 3791.04, 3791.05, 375
3791.07, 3791.11, 3791.12, 3793.04, 3793.09, 3905.36, 4104.01, 376
4104.02, 4104.06, 4104.07, 4104.08, 4104.09, 4104.10, 4104.101, 377
4104.12, 4104.15, 4104.16, 4104.17, 4104.18, 4104.19, 4104.21, 378
4104.33, 4104.42, 4104.43, 4104.44, 4104.48, 4105.01, 4105.02, 379
4105.03, 4105.04, 4105.05, 4105.06, 4105.09, 4105.11, 4105.12, 380
4105.13, 4105.15, 4105.16, 4105.17, 4105.191, 4105.20, 4105.21, 381
4115.10, 4115.101, 4121.04, 4121.123, 4121.30, 4123.20, 4123.35, 382
4123.57, 4141.35, 4163.07, 4169.02, 4169.03, 4169.04, 4171.04, 383
4301.30, 4303.181, 4303.22, 4313.02, 4501.01, 4501.06, 4501.271, 384
4503.031, 4503.061, 4503.062, 4503.49, 4503.81, 4506.01, 4506.03, 385
4506.22, 4506.25, 4507.01, 4507.011, 4507.12, 4507.51, 4508.02, 386
4510.037, 4510.038, 4511.191, 4511.78, 4511.98, 4513.18, 4513.263, 387
4513.50, 4582.12, 4582.31, 4712.01, 4723.481, 4730.42, 4731.052, 388
4731.22, 4735.01, 4735.02, 4735.052, 4735.10, 4735.13, 4735.14, 389
4735.141, 4735.142, 4735.74, 4736.01, 4740.03, 4740.11, 4740.14, 390
4743.05, 4763.05, 4765.02, 4765.03, 4765.04, 4765.05, 4765.06, 391
4765.07, 4765.08, 4765.09, 4765.10, 4765.101, 4765.102, 4765.11, 392
4765.111, 4765.112, 4765.113, 4765.114, 4765.115, 4765.116, 393
4765.12, 4765.15, 4765.16, 4765.17, 4765.18, 4765.22, 4765.23, 394
4765.28, 4765.29, 4765.30, 4765.31, 4765.32, 4765.33, 4765.37, 395
4765.38, 4765.39, 4765.40, 4765.42, 4765.48, 4765.49, 4765.55, 396
4765.56, 4766.01, 4766.03, 4766.04, 4766.05, 4766.07, 4766.08, 397
4766.09, 4766.10, 4766.11, 4766.12, 4766.13, 4766.15, 4766.22, 398
4773.08, 4781.01, 4781.02, 4781.04, 4781.07, 4781.09, 4781.14, 399
4781.15, 4781.16, 4781.99, 4905.01, 4905.02, 4905.03, 4905.05, 400
4905.06, 4905.402, 4905.54, 4905.57, 4905.58, 4905.84, 4905.90, 401
4907.01, 4907.02, 4907.04, 4907.08, 4907.19, 4907.28, 4907.35, 402
4907.37, 4907.43, 4907.49, 4907.57, 4907.59, 4907.60, 4907.61, 403
4907.62, 4909.01, 4909.02, 4909.03, 4909.17, 4909.22, 4909.24, 404
4909.28, 4911.01, 4927.01, 4929.01, 4929.02, 4929.041, 4933.18, 405
4933.19, 4939.01, 4953.04, 4961.03, 4965.54, 5101.01, 5101.46, 406
5101.60, 5101.61, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.051, 5104.09, 5104.37, 407
5107.05, 5107.16, 5107.17, 5111.01, 5111.013, 5111.014, 5111.0115, 408
5111.0120, 5111.031, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5111.06, 409
5111.091, 5111.113, 5111.16, 5111.161, 5111.171, 5111.20, 410
5111.222, 5111.23, 5111.242, 5111.254, 5111.862, 5111.874, 411
5111.877, 5111.878, 5111.89, 5111.894, 5111.941, 5111.97, 5112.31, 412
5112.33, 5112.341, 5112.37, 5112.371, 5112.39, 5119.22, 5119.61, 413
5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.99, 5120.036, 5120.105, 5120.132, 5120.66, 414
5122.31, 5123.01, 5123.033, 5123.042, 5123.044, 5123.0412, 415
5123.0414, 5123.0415, 5123.081, 5123.16, 5123.161, 5123.162, 416
5123.163, 5123.164, 5123.166, 5123.169, 5123.171, 5123.19, 417
5123.31, 5123.38, 5123.41, 5123.50, 5123.51, 5123.542, 5123.61, 418
5123.89, 5126.023, 5126.0220, 5126.0221, 5126.043, 5126.046, 419
5126.055, 5126.13, 5126.15, 5126.20, 5126.21, 5126.22, 5126.25, 420
5126.251, 5126.51, 5139.41, 5139.43, 5149.311, 5155.14, 5501.04, 421
5501.07, 5502.01, 5502.011, 5503.02, 5503.04, 5503.21, 5503.22, 422
5503.23, 5503.34, 5516.02, 5516.06, 5701.13, 5703.05, 5705.08, 423
5705.19, 5705.25, 5705.28, 5705.30, 5705.34, 5705.35, 5705.38, 424
5709.084, 5709.12, 5709.121, 5709.212, 5709.43, 5709.62, 5709.63, 425
5709.632, 5709.73, 5709.75, 5709.80, 5713.03, 5719.13, 5725.14, 426
5725.15, 5725.16, 5725.17, 5725.22, 5725.221, 5731.39, 5733.064, 427
5739.01, 5739.02, 5743.03, 5743.031, 5751.033, 5751.12, 6109.21, 428
6111.46, 6117.39, and 6119.11 be amended; sections 123.011 429
(123.22), 123.024 (123.06), 123.04 (123.02), 123.07 (123.03), 430
123.08 (123.18), 123.09 (123.04), 123.10 (123.05), 123.101 431
(123.27), 123.11 (123.07), 123.13 (123.08), 123.14 (123.09), 432
123.15 (123.10), 123.17 (123.24), 123.21 (123.11), 123.46 433
(123.12), 123.47 (123.13), 123.48 (123.14), 123.49 (123.15), 434
123.77 (123.17), 185.01 (3701.92), 185.02 (3701.923), 185.03 435
(3701.924), 185.05 (3701.925), 185.06 (3701.926), 185.07 436
(3701.927), 185.09 (3701.928), 185.12 (3701.929), 1502.01 437
(3736.01), 1502.02 (3736.03), 1502.03 (3736.02), 1502.04 438
(3736.04), 1502.05 (3736.05), 1502.06 (3736.06), 1502.07 439
(3736.07), 1502.12 (3734.822), 1502.99 (3736.99), 3702.522 440
(3702.521), 3702.523 (3702.522), 3702.524 (3702.523), 3702.525 441
(3702.524), 3702.526 (3702.525), 3733.02 (4781.26), 3733.021 442
(4781.31), 3733.022 (4781.32), 3733.024 (4781.33), 3733.025 443
(4781.34), 3733.03 (4781.27), 3733.04 (4781.28), 3733.05 444
(4781.29), 3733.06 (4781.30), 3733.07 (4781.301), 3733.08 445
(4781.35), 3733.09 (4781.36), 3733.091 (4781.37), 3733.10 446
(4781.38), 3733.101 (4781.39), 3733.11 (4781.40), 3733.12 447
(4781.41), 3733.121 (4781.42), 3733.122 (4781.43), 3733.123 448
(4781.44), 3733.13 (4781.45), 3733.14 (4781.46), 3733.15 449
(4781.47), 3733.16 (4781.48), 3733.17 (4781.49), 3733.18 450
(4781.50), 3733.19 (4781.51), 3733.20 (4781.52), 5123.169 451
(5123.1610), 5503.21 (5502.05), 5503.22 (5502.06), and 5503.23 452
(5502.07) be amended for the purpose of adopting new section 453
numbers as indicated in parentheses; and new sections 123.21, 454
3701.33, 3701.34, 3702.526, 4905.80, 4905.81, 4921.01, 4921.03, 455
4921.05, 4921.07, 4921.09, 4921.11, 4921.13, 4921.15, 4921.16, 456
4921.19, 4921.25, 4921.30, 4921.32, 4921.36, 4921.38, 4923.01, 457
4923.02, 4923.04, 4923.06, 4923.07, 4923.09, 4923.11, 4923.99, 458
5123.169, and 5123.192 and sections 101.312, 119.033, 121.35, 459
123.20, 123.201, 123.23, 123.26, 127.163, 127.164, 171.021, 460
189.041, 191.01, 191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 505.59, 901.53, 1321.537, 461
1321.538, 1322.042, 1322.043, 1533.081, 3305.031, 3305.032, 462
3356.10, 3366.05, 3375.405, 3701.77, 3701.771, 3701.772, 3701.773, 463
3701.774, 3701.775, 3701.921, 3701.922, 3701.93, 3701.931, 464
3701.932, 3701.933, 3701.934, 3701.935, 3701.936, 3701.937, 465
3701.938, 3701.9310, 3701.9311, 3701.9312, 3701.9314, 3702.511, 466
3702.527, 3793.041, 3798.01, 3798.02, 3798.03, 3798.04, 3798.06, 467
3798.07, 3798.08, 3798.10, 3798.12, 3798.13, 3798.14, 3798.15, 468
3798.16, 4731.297, 4781.121, 4781.54, 4921.21, 4921.34, 4923.15, 469
5111.246, 5111.946, 5111.96, 5112.331, 5139.511, 5705.252, 470
5705.72, and 5713.012 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as 471
follows:472

       Sec. 7.10.  For the publication of advertisements, notices, 473
and proclamations, except those relating to proposed amendments to 474
the Ohio Constitution, required to be published by a public 475
officer of the state,, a benevolent or other public institution, a 476
trustee, assignee, executor, or administrator, or by or in any 477
court of record, except when the rate is otherwise fixed by law, 478
publishers of newspapers may charge and receive for such 479
advertisements, notices, and proclamations rates charged on annual 480
contracts by them for a like amount of space to other advertisers 481
who advertise in its general display advertising columns. 482

       For the publication of advertisements, notices, or 483
proclamations required to be published by a public officer of a 484
county, municipal corporation, township, school, or other 485
political subdivision, publishers of newspapers shall establish a 486
government rate, which shall include free publication of 487
advertisements, notices, or proclamations on the newspaper's 488
internet web site, if the newspaper has one. The government rate 489
shall not exceed the lowest classified advertising rate and lowest 490
insert rate paid by other advertisers.491

        Legal advertising, except that relating to proposed 492
amendments to the Ohio Constitution, shall be set up in a compact 493
form, without unnecessary spaces, blanks, or headlines, and 494
printed in not smaller than six-point type. The type used must be 495
of such proportions that the body of the capital letter M is no 496
wider than it is high and all other letters and characters are in 497
proportion.498

       Except as provided in section 2701.09 of the Revised Code, 499
all legal advertisements or notices shall be printed in newspapers500
a newspaper of general circulation and also shall be posted on the 501
state public notice web site created under section 125.182 of the 502
Revised Code, and on athe newspaper's internet web site, if the 503
newspaper has one.504

       Sec. 7.16. (A) As used in this section:505

       (1) "State agency" means any organized body, office, agency, 506
institution, or other entity established by the laws of the state 507
for the exercise of any function of state government, including 508
state institutions of higher education, as defined in section 509
3345.011 of the Revised Code.510

       (2) "Political subdivision" has the meaning defined in 511
section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.512

       (B) If a section of the Revised Code or an administrative 513
rule requires a state agency or a political subdivision of the 514
state to publish a notice or advertisement two or more times in a 515
newspaper of general circulation and the section or administrative 516
rule refers to this section, the first publication of the notice 517
or advertisement shall be made in its entirety in a newspaper of 518
general circulation and may be made in a preprinted insert in the 519
newspaper, but the second publication otherwise required by that 520
section or administrative rule may be made in abbreviated form in 521
a newspaper of general circulation in the state or in the 522
political subdivision, as designated in that section or 523
administrative rule, and on the newspaper's internet web site, if 524
the newspaper has one. The state agency or political subdivision 525
may eliminate any further newspaper publications required by that 526
section or administrative rule, provided that the second, 527
abbreviated notice or advertisement meets all of the following 528
requirements:529

       (1) It is published in the newspaper of general circulation 530
in which the first publication of the notice or advertisement was 531
made and is published on that newspaper's internet web site, if 532
the newspaper has one.533

       (2) It is published on the state public notice web site 534
established under section 125.182 of the Revised Code.535

       (3) It includes a title, followed by a summary paragraph or 536
statement that clearly describes the specific purpose of the 537
notice or advertisement, and includes a statement that the notice 538
or advertisement is posted in its entirety on the state public 539
notice web site established under section 125.182 of the Revised 540
Code. The notice or advertisement also may be posted on the state 541
agency's or political subdivision's internet web site.542

       (3)(4) It includes the internet addresses of the state public 543
notice web site, and of the newspaper's and state agency's or 544
political subdivision's internet web site if the notice or 545
advertisement is posted on those web sites, and the name, address, 546
telephone number, and electronic mail address of the state agency, 547
political subdivision, or other party responsible for publication 548
of the notice or advertisement.549

       (B)(C) A notice or advertisement published under this section 550
on an internet web site shall be published in its entirety in 551
accordance with the section of the Revised Code or the 552
administrative rule that requires the publication.553

       (C)(D) If a state agency or political subdivision does not 554
operate and maintain, or ceases to operate and maintain, an 555
internet web site, and if the state public notice web site 556
established under section 125.182 of the Revised Code is not 557
operational, the state agency or political subdivision shall not 558
publish a notice or advertisement under this section, but instead 559
shall comply with the publication requirements of the section of 560
the Revised Code or the administrative rule that refers to this 561
section.562

       Sec. 9.34.  (A) The fiscal year of the state and of, every 563
school district, and, beginning July 1, 2013, the city of 564
Cincinnati, shall begin on the first day of July of each calendar 565
year and end at the close of the thirtieth day of June of the 566
succeeding calendar year. The fiscal year of every school library 567
district, and all political subdivisions or taxing districtsunits568
except school districts and the city of Cincinnati, and of every 569
officer, department, commission, board, or institution thereof, 570
shall begin at the opening of the first day of January of each 571
calendar year and end at the close of the succeeding thirty-first 572
day of December. Except as otherwise provided for school districts 573
and as otherwise provided in division (B) of this section, all 574
laws relating to the levying of taxes, the collection, 575
appropriation, or expenditure of revenues, or the making of 576
financial reports or statements for a fiscal year or other year 577
refer and apply to the fiscal year as defined in this division. 578
Reports required by sections 3319.32 to 3319.37 of the Revised 579
Code shall be for the school year as defined in section 3313.62 of 580
the Revised Code.581

       (B) Nothing in this section prohibits a subdivision, other 582
than a school district or county school financing district, from 583
using a different fiscal year or other fiscal period for one or 584
more of its funds, including when that fiscal year or period is 585
the same as the fiscal year of an entity providing money for the 586
fund or the fiscal period of a capital project. Use of a different 587
fiscal year or period shall be consistent with generally accepted 588
accounting principles, and shall be approved by the fiscal officer 589
of the subdivision and by the auditor of state. If a subdivision 590
uses a different fiscal year or period under this section, the 591
auditor of state may require the subdivision to continue to 592
maintain financial reports or statements on the basis of the 593
fiscal year prescribed by division (A) of this section.594

       (C) Taxes or other revenues collected in or on hand in any 595
fiscal year for the purposes of the next or any subsequent fiscal 596
year shall not be appropriated or expended prior to such next or 597
subsequent year. School district property taxes shall be subject 598
to appropriation as provided in division (B) of section 5705.35 of 599
the Revised Code. Budgets shall be designated and known by the 600
fiscal year for the purposes for which they are made.601

       (D) As used in this section, "fiscal officer," "school 602
library district," "subdivision," and "taxing districtunit" have 603
the same meanings as in section 5705.01 of the Revised Code.604

       Sec. 101.312.  (A) The person serving as the senate sergeant 605
at arms or employed as an assistant senate sergeant at arms has 606
all of the authority of a peace officer as specified in division 607
(B) of this section, and one of the following shall apply to that 608
person:609

       (1) The person is serving as the senate sergeant at arms or 610
is employed as an assistant senate sergeant at arms on the 611
effective date of this section and previously had been awarded a 612
certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer 613
training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory 614
completion of an approved state, county, municipal, or department 615
of natural resources peace officer basic training program.616

       (2) The person previously has been awarded a certificate by 617
the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training 618
commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an 619
approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural 620
resources peace officer basic training program, the person 621
previously has been employed as a peace officer, the prior 622
employment of the person as a peace officer contains no breaks in 623
service that would require the person to receive updated training 624
by the Ohio peace officer training academy, and the person has 625
successfully completed a firearms requalification program under 626
section 109.801 of the Revised Code.627

       (3) The person previously has been awarded a certificate by 628
the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training 629
commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an 630
approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural 631
resources peace officer basic training program, the person 632
previously has been employed as a peace officer, the prior 633
employment of the person as a peace officer contains a break in 634
service of one year or more but not more than four years that 635
would require the person to receive updated training under state 636
law, the person has received all updated training required by law, 637
and the person has successfully completed a firearms 638
requalification program under section 109.801 of the Revised Code.639

       (4) The person previously has been employed as a trooper of 640
the state highway patrol, within one year prior to employment as 641
the senate sergeant at arms the person had arrest authority as a 642
trooper of the state highway patrol, and the person has 643
successfully completed a firearms requalification program under 644
section 109.801 of the Revised Code.645

       (5) The person previously has been employed as a trooper of 646
the state highway patrol, the prior employment as a trooper of the 647
state highway patrol contains a break in service of one year or 648
more but not more than four years that would require the person to 649
receive updated training under state law, the person has received 650
all updated training required by law, and the person has 651
successfully completed a firearms requalification program under 652
section 109.801 of the Revised Code.653

       (B) The senate sergeant at arms and an assistant senate 654
sergeant at arms have the authority specified under section 655
2935.03 of the Revised Code for peace officers to enforce all 656
state laws, municipal ordinances, and township resolutions and to 657
make arrests for any violation of those laws, ordinances, and 658
resolutions in the statehouse or anywhere in the state where the 659
senate sergeant at arms or the assistant sergeant at arms is 660
engaged in the performance of the senate sergeant at arms's or 661
assistant sergeant at arms's official duties. The jurisdiction of 662
the senate sergeant at arms and of an assistant senate sergeant at 663
arms is concurrent with that of peace officers of the county, 664
township, or municipal corporation in which the violation occurs 665
and with the state highway patrol.666

       (C) Upon receiving a written recommendation from the clerk of 667
the senate, the president of the senate may issue to the senate 668
sergeant at arms a commission indicating the sergeant at arms's 669
authority to make arrests as provided in this section. The 670
president of the senate, upon the recommendation of the senate 671
sergeant at arms, may issue to each assistant senate sergeant at 672
arms a commission indicating the assistant sergeant at arms's 673
authority to make arrests as provided in this section. The 674
president of the senate shall furnish a suitable badge to the 675
senate sergeant at arms and to each commissioned assistant senate 676
sergeant at arms as evidence of the senate sergeant at arms's or 677
assistant senate sergeant at arms's authority.678

       (D) In order to maintain employment as the senate sergeant at 679
arms or to be an assistant sergeant at arms with all of the 680
authority of a peace officer, the sergeant at arms or assistant 681
shall comply with all continuing professional training 682
requirements for peace officers established in rules that the 683
attorney general adopts under section 109.74 of the Revised Code 684
and shall comply with firearms requalification requirements 685
established under section 109.801 of the Revised Code. The senate 686
sergeant at arms or assistant sergeant at arms shall provide 687
appropriate proof of the sergeant at arms's or assistant's 688
compliance with the continuing professional training requirements 689
and firearms requalification requirements to the clerk of the 690
senate. The Ohio peace officer training academy, a state, county, 691
municipal, or department of natural resources training program, or 692
any other program offering continuing training of that nature 693
shall admit the senate sergeant at arms or an assistant senate 694
sergeant at arms to all necessary continuing training programs.695

       (E) This section does not affect or abridge the authority or 696
responsibility of the state highway patrol.697

       Sec. 102.02.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in division 698
(H) of this section, all of the following shall file with the 699
appropriate ethics commission the disclosure statement described 700
in this division on a form prescribed by the appropriate 701
commission: every person who is elected to or is a candidate for a 702
state, county, or city office or an office of a township with a 703
population of five thousand or more, as determined by the most 704
recent federal decennial census, and every person who is appointed 705
to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term in such an elective 706
office; all members of the state board of education; the director, 707
assistant directors, deputy directors, division chiefs, or persons 708
of equivalent rank of any administrative department of the state; 709
the president or other chief administrative officer of every state 710
institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of 711
the Revised Code; the executive director and the members of the 712
capitol square review and advisory board appointed or employed 713
pursuant to section 105.41 of the Revised Code; all members of the 714
Ohio casino control commission, the executive director of the 715
commission, all professional employees of the commission, and all 716
technical employees of the commission who perform an internal 717
audit function; the individuals set forth in division (B)(2) of 718
section 187.03 of the Revised Code; the chief executive officer 719
and the members of the board of each state retirement system; each 720
employee of a state retirement board who is a state retirement 721
system investment officer licensed pursuant to section 1707.163 of 722
the Revised Code; the members of the Ohio retirement study council 723
appointed pursuant to division (C) of section 171.01 of the 724
Revised Code; employees of the Ohio retirement study council, 725
other than employees who perform purely administrative or clerical 726
functions; the administrator of workers' compensation and each 727
member of the bureau of workers' compensation board of directors; 728
the bureau of workers' compensation director of investments; the 729
chief investment officer of the bureau of workers' compensation; 730
all members of the board of commissioners on grievances and 731
discipline of the supreme court and the ethics commission created 732
under section 102.05 of the Revised Code; every business manager, 733
treasurer, or superintendent of a city, local, exempted village, 734
joint vocational, or cooperative education school district or an 735
educational service center; every person who is elected to or is a 736
candidate for the office of member of a board of education of a 737
city, local, exempted village, joint vocational, or cooperative 738
education school district or of a governing board of an 739
educational service center that has a total student count of 740
twelve thousand or more as most recently determined by the 741
department of education pursuant to section 3317.03 of the Revised 742
Code; every person who is appointed to the board of education of a 743
municipal school district pursuant to division (B) or (F) of 744
section 3311.71 of the Revised Code; all members of the board of 745
directors of a sanitary district that is established under Chapter 746
6115. of the Revised Code and organized wholly for the purpose of 747
providing a water supply for domestic, municipal, and public use, 748
and that includes two municipal corporations in two counties; 749
every public official or employee who is paid a salary or wage in 750
accordance with schedule C of section 124.15 or schedule E-2 of 751
section 124.152 of the Revised Code; members of the board of 752
trustees and the executive director of the southern Ohio 753
agricultural and community development foundation; all members 754
appointed to the Ohio livestock care standards board under section 755
904.02 of the Revised Code; and every other public official or 756
employee who is designated by the appropriate ethics commission 757
pursuant to division (B) of this section.758

       The disclosure statement shall include all of the following:759

       (1) The name of the person filing the statement and each 760
member of the person's immediate family and all names under which 761
the person or members of the person's immediate family do 762
business;763

       (2)(a) Subject to divisions (A)(2)(b) and (c) of this section 764
and except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the Revised 765
Code, identification of every source of income, other than income 766
from a legislative agent identified in division (A)(2)(b) of this 767
section, received during the preceding calendar year, in the 768
person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or 769
benefit, by the person filing the statement, and a brief 770
description of the nature of the services for which the income was 771
received. If the person filing the statement is a member of the 772
general assembly, the statement shall identify the amount of every 773
source of income received in accordance with the following ranges 774
of amounts: zero or more, but less than one thousand dollars; one 775
thousand dollars or more, but less than ten thousand dollars; ten 776
thousand dollars or more, but less than twenty-five thousand 777
dollars; twenty-five thousand dollars or more, but less than fifty 778
thousand dollars; fifty thousand dollars or more, but less than 779
one hundred thousand dollars; and one hundred thousand dollars or 780
more. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section shall not be construed to 781
require a person filing the statement who derives income from a 782
business or profession to disclose the individual items of income 783
that constitute the gross income of that business or profession, 784
except for those individual items of income that are attributable 785
to the person's or, if the income is shared with the person, the 786
partner's, solicitation of services or goods or performance, 787
arrangement, or facilitation of services or provision of goods on 788
behalf of the business or profession of clients, including 789
corporate clients, who are legislative agents. A person who files 790
the statement under this section shall disclose the identity of 791
and the amount of income received from a person who the public 792
official or employee knows or has reason to know is doing or 793
seeking to do business of any kind with the public official's or 794
employee's agency.795

       (b) If the person filing the statement is a member of the 796
general assembly, the statement shall identify every source of 797
income and the amount of that income that was received from a 798
legislative agent during the preceding calendar year, in the 799
person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or 800
benefit, by the person filing the statement, and a brief 801
description of the nature of the services for which the income was 802
received. Division (A)(2)(b) of this section requires the 803
disclosure of clients of attorneys or persons licensed under 804
section 4732.12 of the Revised Code, or patients of persons 805
certified under section 4731.14 of the Revised Code, if those 806
clients or patients are legislative agents. Division (A)(2)(b) of 807
this section requires a person filing the statement who derives 808
income from a business or profession to disclose those individual 809
items of income that constitute the gross income of that business 810
or profession that are received from legislative agents.811

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2)(c) of 812
this section, division (A)(2)(a) of this section applies to 813
attorneys, physicians, and other persons who engage in the 814
practice of a profession and who, pursuant to a section of the 815
Revised Code, the common law of this state, a code of ethics 816
applicable to the profession, or otherwise, generally are required 817
not to reveal, disclose, or use confidences of clients, patients, 818
or other recipients of professional services except under 819
specified circumstances or generally are required to maintain 820
those types of confidences as privileged communications except 821
under specified circumstances. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section 822
does not require an attorney, physician, or other professional 823
subject to a confidentiality requirement as described in division 824
(A)(2)(c) of this section to disclose the name, other identity, or 825
address of a client, patient, or other recipient of professional 826
services if the disclosure would threaten the client, patient, or 827
other recipient of professional services, would reveal details of 828
the subject matter for which legal, medical, or professional 829
advice or other services were sought, or would reveal an otherwise 830
privileged communication involving the client, patient, or other 831
recipient of professional services. Division (A)(2)(a) of this 832
section does not require an attorney, physician, or other 833
professional subject to a confidentiality requirement as described 834
in division (A)(2)(c) of this section to disclose in the brief 835
description of the nature of services required by division 836
(A)(2)(a) of this section any information pertaining to specific 837
professional services rendered for a client, patient, or other 838
recipient of professional services that would reveal details of 839
the subject matter for which legal, medical, or professional 840
advice was sought or would reveal an otherwise privileged 841
communication involving the client, patient, or other recipient of 842
professional services.843

       (3) The name of every corporation on file with the secretary 844
of state that is incorporated in this state or holds a certificate 845
of compliance authorizing it to do business in this state, trust, 846
business trust, partnership, or association that transacts 847
business in this state in which the person filing the statement or 848
any other person for the person's use and benefit had during the 849
preceding calendar year an investment of over one thousand dollars 850
at fair market value as of the thirty-first day of December of the 851
preceding calendar year, or the date of disposition, whichever is 852
earlier, or in which the person holds any office or has a 853
fiduciary relationship, and a description of the nature of the 854
investment, office, or relationship. Division (A)(3) of this 855
section does not require disclosure of the name of any bank, 856
savings and loan association, credit union, or building and loan 857
association with which the person filing the statement has a 858
deposit or a withdrawable share account.859

       (4) All fee simple and leasehold interests to which the 860
person filing the statement holds legal title to or a beneficial 861
interest in real property located within the state, excluding the 862
person's residence and property used primarily for personal 863
recreation;864

       (5) The names of all persons residing or transacting business 865
in the state to whom the person filing the statement owes, in the 866
person's own name or in the name of any other person, more than 867
one thousand dollars. Division (A)(5) of this section shall not be 868
construed to require the disclosure of debts owed by the person 869
resulting from the ordinary conduct of a business or profession or 870
debts on the person's residence or real property used primarily 871
for personal recreation, except that the superintendent of 872
financial institutions shall disclose the names of all 873
state-chartered savings and loan associations and of all service 874
corporations subject to regulation under division (E)(2) of 875
section 1151.34 of the Revised Code to whom the superintendent in 876
the superintendent's own name or in the name of any other person 877
owes any money, and that the superintendent and any deputy 878
superintendent of banks shall disclose the names of all 879
state-chartered banks and all bank subsidiary corporations subject 880
to regulation under section 1109.44 of the Revised Code to whom 881
the superintendent or deputy superintendent owes any money.882

       (6) The names of all persons residing or transacting business 883
in the state, other than a depository excluded under division 884
(A)(3) of this section, who owe more than one thousand dollars to 885
the person filing the statement, either in the person's own name 886
or to any person for the person's use or benefit. Division (A)(6) 887
of this section shall not be construed to require the disclosure 888
of clients of attorneys or persons licensed under section 4732.12 889
or 4732.15 of the Revised Code, or patients of persons certified 890
under section 4731.14 of the Revised Code, nor the disclosure of 891
debts owed to the person resulting from the ordinary conduct of a 892
business or profession.893

       (7) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the 894
Revised Code, the source of each gift of over seventy-five 895
dollars, or of each gift of over twenty-five dollars received by a 896
member of the general assembly from a legislative agent, received 897
by the person in the person's own name or by any other person for 898
the person's use or benefit during the preceding calendar year, 899
except gifts received by will or by virtue of section 2105.06 of 900
the Revised Code, or received from spouses, parents, grandparents, 901
children, grandchildren, siblings, nephews, nieces, uncles, aunts, 902
brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, sons-in-law, daughters-in-law, 903
fathers-in-law, mothers-in-law, or any person to whom the person 904
filing the statement stands in loco parentis, or received by way 905
of distribution from any inter vivos or testamentary trust 906
established by a spouse or by an ancestor;907

       (8) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the 908
Revised Code, identification of the source and amount of every 909
payment of expenses incurred for travel to destinations inside or 910
outside this state that is received by the person in the person's 911
own name or by any other person for the person's use or benefit 912
and that is incurred in connection with the person's official 913
duties, except for expenses for travel to meetings or conventions 914
of a national or state organization to which any state agency, 915
including, but not limited to, any legislative agency or state 916
institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of 917
the Revised Code, pays membership dues, or any political 918
subdivision or any office or agency of a political subdivision 919
pays membership dues;920

       (9) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the 921
Revised Code, identification of the source of payment of expenses 922
for meals and other food and beverages, other than for meals and 923
other food and beverages provided at a meeting at which the person 924
participated in a panel, seminar, or speaking engagement or at a 925
meeting or convention of a national or state organization to which 926
any state agency, including, but not limited to, any legislative 927
agency or state institution of higher education as defined in 928
section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, pays membership dues, or any 929
political subdivision or any office or agency of a political 930
subdivision pays membership dues, that are incurred in connection 931
with the person's official duties and that exceed one hundred 932
dollars aggregated per calendar year;933

       (10) If the disclosure statement is filed by a public 934
official or employee described in division (B)(2) of section 935
101.73 of the Revised Code or division (B)(2) of section 121.63 of 936
the Revised Code who receives a statement from a legislative 937
agent, executive agency lobbyist, or employer that contains the 938
information described in division (F)(2) of section 101.73 of the 939
Revised Code or division (G)(2) of section 121.63 of the Revised 940
Code, all of the nondisputed information contained in the 941
statement delivered to that public official or employee by the 942
legislative agent, executive agency lobbyist, or employer under 943
division (F)(2) of section 101.73 or (G)(2) of section 121.63 of 944
the Revised Code.945

       A person may file a statement required by this section in 946
person or by mail. A person who is a candidate for elective office 947
shall file the statement no later than the thirtieth day before 948
the primary, special, or general election at which the candidacy 949
is to be voted on, whichever election occurs soonest, except that 950
a person who is a write-in candidate shall file the statement no 951
later than the twentieth day before the earliest election at which 952
the person's candidacy is to be voted on. A person who holds 953
elective office shall file the statement on or before the 954
fifteenth day of April of each year unless the person is a 955
candidate for office. A person who is appointed to fill a vacancy 956
for an unexpired term in an elective office shall file the 957
statement within fifteen days after the person qualifies for 958
office. Other persons shall file an annual statement on or before 959
the fifteenth day of April or, if appointed or employed after that 960
date, within ninety days after appointment or employment. No 961
person shall be required to file with the appropriate ethics 962
commission more than one statement or pay more than one filing fee 963
for any one calendar year.964

       The appropriate ethics commission, for good cause, may extend 965
for a reasonable time the deadline for filing a statement under 966
this section.967

       A statement filed under this section is subject to public 968
inspection at locations designated by the appropriate ethics 969
commission except as otherwise provided in this section.970

       (B) The Ohio ethics commission, the joint legislative ethics 971
committee, and the board of commissioners on grievances and 972
discipline of the supreme court, using the rule-making procedures 973
of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may require any class of 974
public officials or employees under its jurisdiction and not 975
specifically excluded by this section whose positions involve a 976
substantial and material exercise of administrative discretion in 977
the formulation of public policy, expenditure of public funds, 978
enforcement of laws and rules of the state or a county or city, or 979
the execution of other public trusts, to file an annual statement 980
on or before the fifteenth day of April under division (A) of this 981
section. The appropriate ethics commission shall send the public 982
officials or employees written notice of the requirement by the 983
fifteenth day of February of each year the filing is required 984
unless the public official or employee is appointed after that 985
date, in which case the notice shall be sent within thirty days 986
after appointment, and the filing shall be made not later than 987
ninety days after appointment.988

       Except for disclosure statements filed by members of the 989
board of trustees and the executive director of the southern Ohio 990
agricultural and community development foundation, disclosure 991
statements filed under this division with the Ohio ethics 992
commission by members of boards, commissions, or bureaus of the 993
state for which no compensation is received other than reasonable 994
and necessary expenses shall be kept confidential. Disclosure 995
statements filed with the Ohio ethics commission under division 996
(A) of this section by business managers, treasurers, and 997
superintendents of city, local, exempted village, joint 998
vocational, or cooperative education school districts or 999
educational service centers shall be kept confidential, except 1000
that any person conducting an audit of any such school district or 1001
educational service center pursuant to section 115.56 or Chapter 1002
117. of the Revised Code may examine the disclosure statement of 1003
any business manager, treasurer, or superintendent of that school 1004
district or educational service center. Disclosure statements 1005
filed with the Ohio ethics commission under division (A) of this 1006
section by the individuals set forth in division (B)(2) of section 1007
187.03 of the Revised Code shall be kept confidential. The Ohio 1008
ethics commission shall examine each disclosure statement required 1009
to be kept confidential to determine whether a potential conflict 1010
of interest exists for the person who filed the disclosure 1011
statement. A potential conflict of interest exists if the private 1012
interests of the person, as indicated by the person's disclosure 1013
statement, might interfere with the public interests the person is 1014
required to serve in the exercise of the person's authority and 1015
duties in the person's office or position of employment. If the 1016
commission determines that a potential conflict of interest 1017
exists, it shall notify the person who filed the disclosure 1018
statement and shall make the portions of the disclosure statement 1019
that indicate a potential conflict of interest subject to public 1020
inspection in the same manner as is provided for other disclosure 1021
statements. Any portion of the disclosure statement that the 1022
commission determines does not indicate a potential conflict of 1023
interest shall be kept confidential by the commission and shall 1024
not be made subject to public inspection, except as is necessary 1025
for the enforcement of Chapters 102. and 2921. of the Revised Code 1026
and except as otherwise provided in this division.1027

       (C) No person shall knowingly fail to file, on or before the 1028
applicable filing deadline established under this section, a 1029
statement that is required by this section.1030

       (D) No person shall knowingly file a false statement that is 1031
required to be filed under this section.1032

       (E)(1) Except as provided in divisions (E)(2) and (3) of this 1033
section, the statement required by division (A) or (B) of this 1034
section shall be accompanied by a filing fee of fortysixty1035
dollars.1036

       (2) The statement required by division (A) of this section 1037
shall be accompanied by the following filing fee to be paid by the 1038
person who is elected or appointed to, or is a candidate for, any 1039
of the following offices:1040

For state office, except member of the 1041
state board of education $95 1042
For office of member of general assembly $40 1043
For county office $60 1044
For city office $35 1045
For township office $35 1046
For office of member of the state board 1047
of education $25 $35 1048
For office of member of the Ohio 1049
livestock care standards board $..... 1050
For office of member of a city, local, 1051
exempted village, or cooperative 1052
education board of 1053
education or educational service 1054
center governing board $30 1055
For position of business manager, 1056
treasurer, or superintendent of a 1057
city, local, exempted village, joint 1058
vocational, or cooperative education 1059
school district or 1060
educational service center $30 1061

       (3) No judge of a court of record or candidate for judge of a 1062
court of record, and no referee or magistrate serving a court of 1063
record, shall be required to pay the fee required under division 1064
(E)(1) or (2) or (F) of this section.1065

       (4) For any public official who is appointed to a nonelective 1066
office of the state and for any employee who holds a nonelective 1067
position in a public agency of the state, the state agency that is 1068
the primary employer of the state official or employee shall pay 1069
the fee required under division (E)(1) or (F) of this section.1070

       (F) If a statement required to be filed under this section is 1071
not filed by the date on which it is required to be filed, the 1072
appropriate ethics commission shall assess the person required to 1073
file the statement a late filing fee of ten dollars for each day 1074
the statement is not filed, except that the total amount of the 1075
late filing fee shall not exceed two hundred fifty dollars.1076

       (G)(1) The appropriate ethics commission other than the Ohio 1077
ethics commission and the joint legislative ethics committee shall 1078
deposit all fees it receives under divisions (E) and (F) of this 1079
section into the general revenue fund of the state.1080

       (2) The Ohio ethics commission shall deposit all receipts, 1081
including, but not limited to, fees it receives under divisions 1082
(E) and (F) of this section, investigative or other fees, costs, 1083
or other funds it receives as a result of court orders, and all 1084
moneys it receives from settlements under division (G) of section 1085
102.06 of the Revised Code, into the Ohio ethics commission fund, 1086
which is hereby created in the state treasury. All moneys credited 1087
to the fund shall be used solely for expenses related to the 1088
operation and statutory functions of the commission.1089

       (3) The joint legislative ethics committee shall deposit all 1090
receipts it receives from the payment of financial disclosure 1091
statement filing fees under divisions (E) and (F) of this section 1092
into the joint legislative ethics committee investigative fund.1093

       (H) Division (A) of this section does not apply to a person 1094
elected or appointed to the office of precinct, ward, or district 1095
committee member under Chapter 3517. of the Revised Code; a 1096
presidential elector; a delegate to a national convention; village 1097
or township officials and employees; township officials of a 1098
township with a population of less than five thousand, as 1099
determined by the most recent decennial census; all township 1100
employees; any physician or psychiatrist who is paid a salary or 1101
wage in accordance with schedule C of section 124.15 or schedule 1102
E-2 of section 124.152 of the Revised Code and whose primary 1103
duties do not require the exercise of administrative discretion; 1104
or any member of a board, commission, or bureau of any county or 1105
city who receives less than one thousand dollars per year for 1106
serving in that position.1107

       Sec. 103.05.  (A) The director of the legislative service 1108
commission shall be the codifier of the rules of the 1109
administrative agencies of the state. When a rule is filed under 1110
section 111.15, 119.04, 4141.14, or 5703.14 of the Revised Code, 1111
the director or the director's designee shall examine the rule. If 1112
the rule is not numbered or if the numbering of the rule is not in 1113
conformity with the system established by the director, the 1114
director shall give the rule its proper number by designating the 1115
proper number on the left hand margin of the rule. The number 1116
shall be the official administrative code number of the rule. Any 1117
number so assigned shall be published in any publication of the 1118
administrative code. Rules of the administrative code shall be 1119
cited and referred to by such official numbers.1120

       The legislative service commission shall, pursuant to section 1121
111.15 of the Revised Code, adopt, amend, and rescind any rules 1122
that are necessary to provide a uniform administrative code; to 1123
provide standards for use by the director in determining whether 1124
to include in the administrative code the full text of, or a 1125
reference to, any rule filed with the commission; to permit the 1126
director to discharge the director's duties and exercise the 1127
director's powers as described in this section; and to permit the 1128
director to discharge the director's duties and exercise the 1129
director's powers with respect to establishing and maintaining, 1130
and enhancing and improving, the electronic rule-filing system 1131
under section 103.0511 of the Revised Code.1132

       When the commission adopts rules to provide standards for use 1133
by the director in determining whether to include the full text 1134
of, or a reference to, a rule in the administrative code, it shall 1135
consider all of the following:1136

       (1) Whether the rule applies uniformly to all citizens of the 1137
state;1138

       (2) Whether the rule applies uniformly to all political 1139
subdivisions of the state;1140

       (3) Whether the rule affects the health, welfare, and safety 1141
of the citizens of the state;1142

       (4) Whether the rule applies only to the internal affairs of 1143
the agency adopting the rule;1144

       (5) The number of persons affected by the rule;1145

       (6) Whether the rule affects the statutory or constitutional 1146
rights of any person.1147

       The director or the director's designee shall accept any rule 1148
that is filed under section 111.15, 119.04, 4141.14, or 5703.14 of 1149
the Revised Code. If the director or the director's designee 1150
accepts a rule that is not in compliance with the rules of the 1151
commission, the director shall give notice of the noncompliance in 1152
electronic form to the agency that filed the rule within thirty 1153
days after the date on which the rule is filed. The notice shall 1154
indicate why the rule does not comply with the rules of the 1155
commission and how the rule can be brought into compliance. The 1156
failure of the director to give an agency notice within the 1157
thirty-day period shall presumptively establish that the rule 1158
complies with the rules of the commission.1159

       (B) Any person may publish an acceptable code. The director 1160
shall approve as acceptable any person's publication of the code 1161
conforming to the requirements of this division.1162

       An Ohio administrative code approved as acceptable by the 1163
director shall:1164

       (1) Contain a compilation of the full text of, or a reference 1165
to, each rule filed under sections 111.15, 119.04, 4141.14, and 1166
5703.14 of the Revised Code;1167

       (2) Presumptively establish the rules of all agencies 1168
adopting rules under section 111.15, 4141.14, 5703.14, or Chapter 1169
119. of the Revised Code that are in effect on the day of its 1170
initial publication;1171

       (3) Contain the full text of, or a reference to, each rule 1172
adopted after its initial publication and be updated at least 1173
quarterly;1174

       (4) Contain an index of the rules and references to rules 1175
that are included in the code and each supplement using terms 1176
easily understood by the general public;1177

       (5) Be published in electronic or print format following, to 1178
the extent possible, the subject matter arrangement of the Revised 1179
Code;1180

       (6) Be numbered according to the numbering system devised by 1181
the director.1182

       (C) If the director does not approve as acceptable any 1183
publication of the administrative code, theThe director, subject 1184
to division (D) of this section, may prepare and publish the code, 1185
or contract with any person under this division to prepare and 1186
publish the code. Any code published under this division shall 1187
include all of the requirements of division (B) of this section. 1188
In addition, the director shall furnish any code or supplement 1189
published under this division to any person who requests the code 1190
or supplement upon payment of a charge established by the 1191
director, not to exceed the cost of preparation and publication.1192

       Upon the request of the director of the legislative service 1193
commission under this division, the director of administrative 1194
services, in accordance with the competitive selection procedure 1195
of Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, shall let a contract for the 1196
compilation, preparation, and printing or publication of the 1197
administrative code and supplements.1198

       (D) The director shall not prepare and publish the 1199
administrative code in a print mode or any other mode under 1200
division (B) or (C) of this section unless no other person is 1201
willing and qualified to publish a version of the code in that 1202
mode that the director has approved as acceptable.1203

       Sec. 105.41.  (A) There is hereby created in the legislative 1204
branch of government the capitol square review and advisory board, 1205
consisting of thirteentwelve members as follows:1206

       (1) Two members of the senate, appointed by the president of 1207
the senate, both of whom shall not be members of the same 1208
political party;1209

       (2) Two members of the house of representatives, appointed by 1210
the speaker of the house of representatives, both of whom shall 1211
not be members of the same political party;1212

       (3) FiveFour members appointed by the governor, with the 1213
advice and consent of the senate, not more than three of whom 1214
shall be members of the same political party, one of whom shall be 1215
the chief of staff of the governor's office, one of whom shall 1216
represent the Ohio arts council, one of whom shall represent the 1217
Ohio historical society, one of whom shall represent the Ohio 1218
building authority, and one of whom shall represent the public at 1219
large;1220

       (4) One member, who shall be a former president of the 1221
senate, appointed by the current president of the senate. If the 1222
current president of the senate, in the current president's 1223
discretion, decides for any reason not to make the appointment or 1224
if no person is eligible or available to serve, the seat shall 1225
remain vacant.1226

       (5) One member, who shall be a former speaker of the house of 1227
representatives, appointed by the current speaker of the house of 1228
representatives. If the current speaker of the house of 1229
representatives, in the current speaker's discretion, decides for 1230
any reason not to make the appointment or if no person is eligible 1231
or available to serve, the seat shall remain vacant.1232

       (6) The clerk of the senate and the clerk of the house of 1233
representatives.1234

       (B) Terms of office of each appointed member of the board 1235
shall be for three years, except that members of the general 1236
assembly appointed to the board shall be members of the board only 1237
so long as they are members of the general assembly and the chief 1238
of staff of the governor's office shall be a member of the board 1239
only so long as the appointing governor remains in office. Each 1240
member shall hold office from the date of the member's appointment 1241
until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. In 1242
case of a vacancy occurring on the board, the president of the 1243
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, or the 1244
governor, as the case may be, shall in the same manner prescribed 1245
for the regular appointment to the commission, fill the vacancy by 1246
appointing a member. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy 1247
occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the 1248
member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 1249
remainder of the term. Any appointed member shall continue in 1250
office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term 1251
until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of 1252
sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.1253

       (C) The board shall hold meetings in a manner and at times 1254
prescribed by the rules adopted by the board. A majority of the 1255
board constitutes a quorum, and no action shall be taken by the 1256
board unless approved by at least six members or by at least seven 1257
members if a person is appointed under division (A)(4) or (5) of 1258
this section. At its first meeting, the board shall adopt rules 1259
for the conduct of its business and the election of its officers, 1260
and shall organize by selecting a chairperson and other officers 1261
as it considers necessary. Board members shall serve without 1262
compensation but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary 1263
expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.1264

       (D) The board may do any of the following:1265

       (1) Employ or hire on a consulting basis professional, 1266
technical, and clerical employees as are necessary for the 1267
performance of its duties. All employees of the board are in the 1268
unclassified service and serve at the pleasure of the board. For 1269
purposes of section 4117.01 of the Revised Code, employees of the 1270
board shall be considered employees of the general assembly, 1271
except that employees who are covered by a collective bargaining 1272
agreement on the effective date of this amendmentSeptember 29, 1273
2011, shall remain subject to the agreement until the agreement 1274
expires on its terms, and the agreement shall not be extended or 1275
renewed. Upon expiration of the agreement, the employees are 1276
considered employees of the general assembly for purposes of 1277
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code and are in the unclassified 1278
service and serve at the pleasure of the board.1279

       (2) Hold public hearings at times and places as determined by 1280
the board;1281

       (3) Adopt, amend, or rescind rules necessary to accomplish 1282
the duties of the board as set forth in this section;1283

       (4) Sponsor, conduct, and support such social events as the 1284
board may authorize and consider appropriate for the employees of 1285
the board, employees and members of the general assembly, 1286
employees of persons under contract with the board or otherwise 1287
engaged to perform services on the premises of capitol square, or 1288
other persons as the board may consider appropriate. Subject to 1289
the requirements of Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code, the board 1290
may provide beer, wine, and intoxicating liquor, with or without 1291
charge, for those events and may use funds only from the sale of 1292
goods and services fund to purchase the beer, wine, and 1293
intoxicating liquor the board provides;1294

       (5) Purchase a warehouse in which to store items of the 1295
capitol collection trust and, whenever necessary, equipment or 1296
other property of the board.1297

       (E) The board shall do all of the following:1298

       (1) Have sole authority to coordinate and approve any 1299
improvements, additions, and renovations that are made to the 1300
capitol square. The improvements shall include, but not be limited 1301
to, the placement of monuments and sculpture on the capitol 1302
grounds.1303

       (2) Subject to section 3353.07 of the Revised Code, operate 1304
the capitol square, and have sole authority to regulate all uses 1305
of the capitol square. The uses shall include, but not be limited 1306
to, the casual and recreational use of the capitol square.1307

       (3) Employ, fix the compensation of, and prescribe the duties 1308
of the executive director of the board and other employees the 1309
board considers necessary for the performance of its powers and 1310
duties;1311

       (4) Establish and maintain the capitol collection trust. The 1312
capitol collection trust shall consist of furniture, antiques, and 1313
other items of personal property that the board shall store in 1314
suitable facilities until they are ready to be displayed in the 1315
capitol square.1316

       (5) Perform repair, construction, contracting, purchasing, 1317
maintenance, supervisory, and operating activities the board 1318
determines are necessary for the operation and maintenance of the 1319
capitol square;1320

       (6) Maintain and preserve the capitol square, in accordance 1321
with guidelines issued by the United States secretary of the 1322
interior for application of the secretary's standards for 1323
rehabilitation adopted in 36 C.F.R. part 67;1324

       (7) Plan and develop a center at the capitol building for the 1325
purpose of educating visitors about the history of Ohio, including 1326
its political, economic, and social development and the design and 1327
erection of the capitol building and its grounds.1328

       (F)(1) The board shall lease capital facilities improved or 1329
financed by the Ohio building authority pursuant to Chapter 152. 1330
of the Revised Code for the use of the board, and may enter into 1331
any other agreements with the authority ancillary to improvement, 1332
financing, or leasing of those capital facilities, including, but 1333
not limited to, any agreement required by the applicable bond 1334
proceedings authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code. Any 1335
lease of capital facilities authorized by this section shall be 1336
governed by division (D) of section 152.24 of the Revised Code.1337

       (2) Fees, receipts, and revenues received by the board from 1338
the state underground parking garage constitute available receipts 1339
as defined in section 152.09 of the Revised Code, and may be 1340
pledged to the payment of bond service charges on obligations 1341
issued by the Ohio building authority pursuant to Chapter 152. of 1342
the Revised Code to improve, finance, or purchase capital 1343
facilities useful to the board. The authority may, with the 1344
consent of the board, provide in the bond proceedings for a pledge 1345
of all or a portion of those fees, receipts, and revenues as the 1346
authority determines. The authority may provide in the bond 1347
proceedings or by separate agreement with the board for the 1348
transfer of those fees, receipts, and revenues to the appropriate 1349
bond service fund or bond service reserve fund as required to pay 1350
the bond service charges when due, and any such provision for the 1351
transfer of those fees, receipts, and revenues shall be 1352
controlling notwithstanding any other provision of law pertaining 1353
to those fees, receipts, and revenues.1354

       (3) All moneys received by the treasurer of state on account 1355
of the board and required by the applicable bond proceedings or by 1356
separate agreement with the board to be deposited, transferred, or 1357
credited to the bond service fund or bond service reserve fund 1358
established by the bond proceedings shall be transferred by the 1359
treasurer of state to such fund, whether or not it is in the 1360
custody of the treasurer of state, without necessity for further 1361
appropriation, upon receipt of notice from the Ohio building 1362
authority as prescribed in the bond proceedings.1363

       (G) All(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(2) 1364
of this section, all fees, receipts, and revenues received by the 1365
board from the state underground parking garage shall be deposited 1366
into the state treasury to the credit of the underground parking 1367
garage operating fund, which is hereby created, to be used for the 1368
purposes specified in division (F) of this section and for the 1369
operation and maintenance of the garage. All investment earnings 1370
of the fund shall be credited to the fund.1371

       (2) There is hereby created the parking garage automated 1372
equipment fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 1373
state but shall not be part of the state treasury. Money in the 1374
fund shall be used to purchase the automated teller machine 1375
quality dollar bills needed for operation of the parking garage 1376
automated equipment. The fund shall consist of fees, receipts, or 1377
revenues received by the board from the state underground parking 1378
garage; provided, however, that the total amount deposited into 1379
the fund at any one time shall not exceed ten thousand dollars. 1380
All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.1381

       (H) All donations received by the board shall be deposited 1382
into the state treasury to the credit of the capitol square 1383
renovation gift fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall be 1384
used by the board as follows:1385

       (1) To provide part or all of the funding related to 1386
construction, goods, or services for the renovation of the capitol 1387
square;1388

       (2) To purchase art, antiques, and artifacts for display at 1389
the capitol square;1390

       (3) To award contracts or make grants to organizations for 1391
educating the public regarding the historical background and 1392
governmental functions of the capitol square. Chapters 125., 127., 1393
and 153. and section 3517.13 of the Revised Code do not apply to 1394
purchases made exclusively from the fund, notwithstanding anything 1395
to the contrary in those chapters or that section. All investment 1396
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.1397

       (I) Except as provided in divisions (G), (H), and (J) of this 1398
section, all fees, receipts, and revenues received by the board 1399
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 1400
sale of goods and services fund, which is hereby created. Money 1401
credited to the fund shall be used solely to pay costs of the 1402
board other than those specified in divisions (F) and (G) of this 1403
section. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to 1404
the fund.1405

       (J) There is hereby created in the state treasury the capitol 1406
square improvement fund, to be used by the board to pay 1407
construction, renovation, and other costs related to the capitol 1408
square for which money is not otherwise available to the board. 1409
Whenever the board determines that there is a need to incur those 1410
costs and that the unencumbered, unobligated balance to the credit 1411
of the underground parking garage operating fund exceeds the 1412
amount needed for the purposes specified in division (F) of this 1413
section and for the operation and maintenance of the garage, the 1414
board may request the director of budget and management to 1415
transfer from the underground parking garage operating fund to the 1416
capitol square improvement fund the amount needed to pay such 1417
construction, renovation, or other costs. The director then shall 1418
transfer the amount needed from the excess balance of the 1419
underground parking garage operating fund.1420

       (K) As the operation and maintenance of the capitol square 1421
constitute essential government functions of a public purpose, the 1422
board shall not be required to pay taxes or assessments upon the 1423
square, upon any property acquired or used by the board under this 1424
section, or upon any income generated by the operation of the 1425
square.1426

       (L) As used in this section, "capitol square" means the 1427
capitol building, senate building, capitol atrium, capitol 1428
grounds, the state underground parking garage, and the warehouse 1429
owned by the board.1430

       (M) The capitol annex shall be known as the senate building.1431

       Sec. 107.54. (A)(1) When the common sense initiative office 1432
receives a draft rule and business impact analysis from an agency, 1433
the office shall evaluate the draft rule and analysis against the 1434
business impact analysis instrument and any other relevant 1435
criteria, and may prepare and transmit recommendations to the 1436
agency on how the draft rule might be revised to eliminate or 1437
reduce any adverse impact the draft rule might have on businesses.1438

       (2) When the office receives a rule and business impact 1439
analysis from an agency under division (A)(2) of section 119.033 1440
of the Revised Code, the office shall evaluate the rule and 1441
analysis against the business impact analysis instrument and any 1442
other relevant criteria, and may prepare and transmit 1443
recommendations to the agency on how the rule might be amended or 1444
rescinded to eliminate or reduce any adverse impact the rule has 1445
on businesses.1446

       (B) The office shall transmit any such recommendations 1447
electronically to the agency. If the office fails to make such a 1448
transmission after receiving the draft rule and business impact 1449
analysis, it is as if the office had elected not to make any 1450
recommendations.1451

       Sec. 109.33.  The attorney general may appoint, with salaries 1452
fixed pursuant to section 124.15 or 124.152 of the Revised Code, 1453
such assistants and may employ such stenographers and clerks as 1454
may be necessary to carry out sections 109.23 to 109.33 of the 1455
Revised Code. The attorney general may also employ or contract1456
experts for assistance in any specific matter at a reasonable rate 1457
of compensation.1458

       Sec. 109.57.  (A)(1) The superintendent of the bureau of 1459
criminal identification and investigation shall procure from 1460
wherever procurable and file for record photographs, pictures, 1461
descriptions, fingerprints, measurements, and other information 1462
that may be pertinent of all persons who have been convicted of 1463
committing within this state a felony, any crime constituting a 1464
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 1465
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 1466
(A)(8)(5)(a), or (A)(10)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised 1467
Code, of all children under eighteen years of age who have been 1468
adjudicated delinquent children for committing within this state 1469
an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if 1470
committed by an adult or who have been convicted of or pleaded 1471
guilty to committing within this state a felony or an offense of 1472
violence, and of all well-known and habitual criminals. The person 1473
in charge of any county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, 1474
or multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 1475
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 1476
facility, or state correctional institution and the person in 1477
charge of any state institution having custody of a person 1478
suspected of having committed a felony, any crime constituting a 1479
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 1480
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 1481
(A)(8)(5)(a), or (A)(10)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised 1482
Code or having custody of a child under eighteen years of age with 1483
respect to whom there is probable cause to believe that the child 1484
may have committed an act that would be a felony or an offense of 1485
violence if committed by an adult shall furnish such material to 1486
the superintendent of the bureau. Fingerprints, photographs, or 1487
other descriptive information of a child who is under eighteen 1488
years of age, has not been arrested or otherwise taken into 1489
custody for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense 1490
of violence who is not in any other category of child specified in 1491
this division, if committed by an adult, has not been adjudicated 1492
a delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or 1493
an offense of violence if committed by an adult, has not been 1494
convicted of or pleaded guilty to committing a felony or an 1495
offense of violence, and is not a child with respect to whom there 1496
is probable cause to believe that the child may have committed an 1497
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 1498
by an adult shall not be procured by the superintendent or 1499
furnished by any person in charge of any county, multicounty, 1500
municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or 1501
workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, 1502
alternative residential facility, or state correctional 1503
institution, except as authorized in section 2151.313 of the 1504
Revised Code. 1505

       (2) Every clerk of a court of record in this state, other 1506
than the supreme court or a court of appeals, shall send to the 1507
superintendent of the bureau a weekly report containing a summary 1508
of each case involving a felony, involving any crime constituting 1509
a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 1510
offenses, involving a misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 1511
(A)(8)(5)(a), or (A)(10)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised 1512
Code, or involving an adjudication in a case in which a child 1513
under eighteen years of age was alleged to be a delinquent child 1514
for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of 1515
violence if committed by an adult. The clerk of the court of 1516
common pleas shall include in the report and summary the clerk 1517
sends under this division all information described in divisions 1518
(A)(2)(a) to (f) of this section regarding a case before the court 1519
of appeals that is served by that clerk. The summary shall be 1520
written on the standard forms furnished by the superintendent 1521
pursuant to division (B) of this section and shall include the 1522
following information: 1523

       (a) The incident tracking number contained on the standard 1524
forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to division (B) of 1525
this section; 1526

       (b) The style and number of the case; 1527

       (c) The date of arrest, offense, summons, or arraignment; 1528

       (d) The date that the person was convicted of or pleaded 1529
guilty to the offense, adjudicated a delinquent child for 1530
committing the act that would be a felony or an offense of 1531
violence if committed by an adult, found not guilty of the 1532
offense, or found not to be a delinquent child for committing an 1533
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 1534
by an adult, the date of an entry dismissing the charge, an entry 1535
declaring a mistrial of the offense in which the person is 1536
discharged, an entry finding that the person or child is not 1537
competent to stand trial, or an entry of a nolle prosequi, or the 1538
date of any other determination that constitutes final resolution 1539
of the case; 1540

       (e) A statement of the original charge with the section of 1541
the Revised Code that was alleged to be violated; 1542

       (f) If the person or child was convicted, pleaded guilty, or 1543
was adjudicated a delinquent child, the sentence or terms of 1544
probation imposed or any other disposition of the offender or the 1545
delinquent child. 1546

       If the offense involved the disarming of a law enforcement 1547
officer or an attempt to disarm a law enforcement officer, the 1548
clerk shall clearly state that fact in the summary, and the 1549
superintendent shall ensure that a clear statement of that fact is 1550
placed in the bureau's records. 1551

       (3) The superintendent shall cooperate with and assist 1552
sheriffs, chiefs of police, and other law enforcement officers in 1553
the establishment of a complete system of criminal identification 1554
and in obtaining fingerprints and other means of identification of 1555
all persons arrested on a charge of a felony, any crime 1556
constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on 1557
subsequent offenses, or a misdemeanor described in division 1558
(A)(1)(a), (A)(8)(5)(a), or (A)(10)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of 1559
the Revised Code and of all children under eighteen years of age 1560
arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing an act 1561
that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by 1562
an adult. The superintendent also shall file for record the 1563
fingerprint impressions of all persons confined in a county, 1564
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 1565
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 1566
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 1567
institution for the violation of state laws and of all children 1568
under eighteen years of age who are confined in a county, 1569
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 1570
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 1571
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 1572
institution or in any facility for delinquent children for 1573
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 1574
if committed by an adult, and any other information that the 1575
superintendent may receive from law enforcement officials of the 1576
state and its political subdivisions. 1577

       (4) The superintendent shall carry out Chapter 2950. of the 1578
Revised Code with respect to the registration of persons who are 1579
convicted of or plead guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a 1580
child-victim oriented offense and with respect to all other duties 1581
imposed on the bureau under that chapter. 1582

       (5) The bureau shall perform centralized recordkeeping 1583
functions for criminal history records and services in this state 1584
for purposes of the national crime prevention and privacy compact 1585
set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code and is the 1586
criminal history record repository as defined in that section for 1587
purposes of that compact. The superintendent or the 1588
superintendent's designee is the compact officer for purposes of 1589
that compact and shall carry out the responsibilities of the 1590
compact officer specified in that compact. 1591

       (B) The superintendent shall prepare and furnish to every 1592
county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 1593
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 1594
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 1595
facility, or state correctional institution and to every clerk of 1596
a court in this state specified in division (A)(2) of this section 1597
standard forms for reporting the information required under 1598
division (A) of this section. The standard forms that the 1599
superintendent prepares pursuant to this division may be in a 1600
tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible 1601
formats and electronic formats. 1602

       (C)(1) The superintendent may operate a center for 1603
electronic, automated, or other data processing for the storage 1604
and retrieval of information, data, and statistics pertaining to 1605
criminals and to children under eighteen years of age who are 1606
adjudicated delinquent children for committing an act that would 1607
be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, 1608
criminal activity, crime prevention, law enforcement, and criminal 1609
justice, and may establish and operate a statewide communications 1610
network to be known as the Ohio law enforcement gateway to gather 1611
and disseminate information, data, and statistics for the use of 1612
law enforcement agencies and for other uses specified in this 1613
division. The superintendent may gather, store, retrieve, and 1614
disseminate information, data, and statistics that pertain to 1615
children who are under eighteen years of age and that are gathered 1616
pursuant to sections 109.57 to 109.61 of the Revised Code together 1617
with information, data, and statistics that pertain to adults and 1618
that are gathered pursuant to those sections. 1619

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 1620
gather information of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 1621
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 1622
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 1623
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 1624
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for inclusion in the 1625
state registry of sex offenders and child-victim offenders 1626
maintained pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 2950.13 of the 1627
Revised Code and in the internet database operated pursuant to 1628
division (A)(13) of that section and for possible inclusion in the 1629
internet database operated pursuant to division (A)(11) of that 1630
section. 1631

        (3) In addition to any other authorized use of information, 1632
data, and statistics of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 1633
this section, the superintendent or the superintendent's designee 1634
may provide and exchange the information, data, and statistics 1635
pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact as 1636
described in division (A)(5) of this section. 1637

       (4) The attorney general may adopt rules under Chapter 119. 1638
of the Revised Code establishing guidelines for the operation of 1639
and participation in the Ohio law enforcement gateway. The rules 1640
may include criteria for granting and restricting access to 1641
information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 1642
enforcement gateway. The attorney general shall permit the state 1643
medical board and board of nursing to access and view, but not 1644
alter, information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 1645
enforcement gateway.1646

       The attorney general may appoint a steering committee to 1647
advise the attorney general in the operation of the Ohio law 1648
enforcement gateway that is comprised of persons who are 1649
representatives of the criminal justice agencies in this state 1650
that use the Ohio law enforcement gateway and is chaired by the 1651
superintendent or the superintendent's designee.1652

       (D)(1) The following are not public records under section 1653
149.43 of the Revised Code:1654

       (a) Information and materials furnished to the superintendent 1655
pursuant to division (A) of this section;1656

       (b) Information, data, and statistics gathered or 1657
disseminated through the Ohio law enforcement gateway pursuant to 1658
division (C)(1) of this section;1659

       (c) Information and materials furnished to any board or 1660
person under division (F) or (G) of this section.1661

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 1662
gather and retain information so furnished under division (A) of 1663
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 1664
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 1665
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 1666
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for the purposes 1667
described in division (C)(2) of this section. 1668

       (E) The attorney general shall adopt rules, in accordance 1669
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, setting forth the procedure 1670
by which a person may receive or release information gathered by 1671
the superintendent pursuant to division (A) of this section. A 1672
reasonable fee may be charged for this service. If a temporary 1673
employment service submits a request for a determination of 1674
whether a person the service plans to refer to an employment 1675
position has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 1676
listed in division (A)(1), (3), (4), (5), or (6)(2) of section 1677
109.572 of the Revised Code or has been convicted of, pleaded 1678
guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 1679
conviction for a disqualifying offense as defined in section 1680
173.394, 3701.881, or 5111.032 of the Revised Code, the request 1681
shall be treated as a single request and only one fee shall be 1682
charged. 1683

       (F)(1) As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "head 1684
start agency" means an entity in this state that has been approved 1685
to be an agency for purposes of subchapter II of the "Community 1686
Economic Development Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, 1687
as amended. 1688

       (2)(a) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that 1689
is required to be made under section 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32, 1690
3301.541, division (C) of section 3310.58, or section 3319.39, 1691
3319.391, 3327.10, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5123.081, 1692
5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code or that is made 1693
under section 3314.41, 3319.392, 3326.25, or 3328.20 of the 1694
Revised Code, the board of education of any school district; the 1695
director of developmental disabilities; any county board of 1696
developmental disabilities; any entity under contract with a 1697
county board of developmental disabilitiesprovider or 1698
subcontractor as defined in section 5123.081 of the Revised Code; 1699
the chief administrator of any chartered nonpublic school; the 1700
chief administrator of a registered private provider that is not 1701
also a chartered nonpublic school; the chief administrator of any 1702
home health agency; the chief administrator of or person operating 1703
any child day-care center, type A family day-care home, or type B 1704
family day-care home licensed or certified under Chapter 5104. of 1705
the Revised Code; the administrator of any type C family day-care 1706
home certified pursuant to Section 1 of Sub. H.B. 62 of the 121st 1707
general assembly or Section 5 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st 1708
general assembly; the chief administrator of any head start 1709
agency; the executive director of a public children services 1710
agency; a private company described in section 3314.41, 3319.392, 1711
3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised Code; or an employer described 1712
in division (J)(2) of section 3327.10 of the Revised Code may 1713
request that the superintendent of the bureau investigate and 1714
determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for 1715
employment in any position after October 2, 1989, or any 1716
individual wishing to apply for employment with a board of 1717
education may request, with regard to the individual, whether the 1718
bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 1719
section that pertains to that individual. On receipt of the 1720
request, the superintendent shall determine whether that 1721
information exists and, upon request of the person, board, or 1722
entity requesting information, also shall request from the federal 1723
bureau of investigation any criminal records it has pertaining to 1724
that individual. The superintendent or the superintendent's 1725
designee also may request criminal history records from other 1726
states or the federal government pursuant to the national crime 1727
prevention and privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the 1728
Revised Code. Within thirty days of the date that the 1729
superintendent receives a request, the superintendent shall send 1730
to the board, entity, or person a report of any information that 1731
the superintendent determines exists, including information 1732
contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 1733
of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days of its receipt, shall 1734
send the board, entity, or person a report of any information 1735
received from the federal bureau of investigation, other than 1736
information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal 1737
law. 1738

       (b) When a board of education or a registered private 1739
provider is required to receive information under this section as 1740
a prerequisite to employment of an individual pursuant to division 1741
(C) of section 3310.58 or section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, it 1742
may accept a certified copy of records that were issued by the 1743
bureau of criminal identification and investigation and that are 1744
presented by an individual applying for employment with the 1745
district in lieu of requesting that information itself. In such a 1746
case, the board shall accept the certified copy issued by the 1747
bureau in order to make a photocopy of it for that individual's 1748
employment application documents and shall return the certified 1749
copy to the individual. In a case of that nature, a district or 1750
provider only shall accept a certified copy of records of that 1751
nature within one year after the date of their issuance by the 1752
bureau. 1753

       (c) Notwithstanding division (F)(2)(a) of this section, in 1754
the case of a request under section 3319.39, 3319.391, or 3327.10 1755
of the Revised Code only for criminal records maintained by the 1756
federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall not 1757
determine whether any information gathered under division (A) of 1758
this section exists on the person for whom the request is made.1759

       (3) The state board of education may request, with respect to 1760
any individual who has applied for employment after October 2, 1761
1989, in any position with the state board or the department of 1762
education, any information that a school district board of 1763
education is authorized to request under division (F)(2) of this 1764
section, and the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if 1765
the request has been received from a school district board of 1766
education under division (F)(2) of this section. 1767

       (4) When the superintendent of the bureau receives a request 1768
for information under section 3319.291 of the Revised Code, the 1769
superintendent shall proceed as if the request has been received 1770
from a school district board of education and shall comply with 1771
divisions (F)(2)(a) and (c) of this section. 1772

       (5) When a recipient of a classroom reading improvement grant 1773
paid under section 3301.86 of the Revised Code requests, with 1774
respect to any individual who applies to participate in providing 1775
any program or service funded in whole or in part by the grant, 1776
the information that a school district board of education is 1777
authorized to request under division (F)(2)(a) of this section, 1778
the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the request 1779
has been received from a school district board of education under 1780
division (F)(2)(a) of this section. 1781

       (G) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 1782
required to be made under section 3701.881, 3712.09, or 3721.121, 1783
5119.693, or 5119.85 of the Revised Code with respect to an 1784
individual who has applied for employment in a position that 1785
involves providing direct care to an older adult or adult 1786
resident, the chief administrator of a home health agency, hospice 1787
care program, home licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised 1788
Code, or adult day-care program operated pursuant to rules adopted 1789
under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code, adult foster home, or 1790
adult care facility may request that the superintendent of the 1791
bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any individual 1792
who has applied after January 27, 1997, for employment in a 1793
position that does not involve providing direct care to an older 1794
adult or adult resident, whether the bureau has any information 1795
gathered under division (A) of this section that pertains to that 1796
individual. 1797

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 1798
required to be made under section 173.27 of the Revised Code with 1799
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 1800
position that involves providing ombudsperson services to 1801
residents of long-term care facilities or recipients of 1802
community-based long-term care services, the state long-term care 1803
ombudsperson, ombudsperson's designee, or director of health may 1804
request that the superintendent investigate and determine, with 1805
respect to any individual who has applied for employment in a 1806
position that does not involve providing such ombudsperson 1807
services, whether the bureau has any information gathered under 1808
division (A) of this section that pertains to that applicant. 1809

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 1810
required to be made under section 173.394 of the Revised Code with 1811
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 1812
position that involves providing direct care to an individual, the 1813
chief administrator of a community-based long-term care agency may 1814
request that the superintendent investigate and determine, with 1815
respect to any individual who has applied for employment in a 1816
position that does not involve providing direct care, whether the 1817
bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 1818
section that pertains to that applicant. 1819

       On receipt of a request under this division, the 1820
superintendent shall determine whether that information exists 1821
and, on request of the individual requesting information, shall 1822
also request from the federal bureau of investigation any criminal 1823
records it has pertaining to the applicant. The superintendent or 1824
the superintendent's designee also may request criminal history 1825
records from other states or the federal government pursuant to 1826
the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in 1827
section 109.571 of the Revised Code. Within thirty days of the 1828
date a request is received, the superintendent shall send to the 1829
requester a report of any information determined to exist, 1830
including information contained in records that have been sealed 1831
under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days 1832
of its receipt, shall send the requester a report of any 1833
information received from the federal bureau of investigation, 1834
other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited by 1835
federal law. 1836

       (H) Information obtained by a government entity or person 1837
under this section is confidential and shall not be released or 1838
disseminated. 1839

       (I) The superintendent may charge a reasonable fee for 1840
providing information or criminal records under division (F)(2) or 1841
(G) of this section. 1842

       (J) As used in this section:1843

       (1) "Sexually oriented offense" and "child-victim oriented 1844
offense" have the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the 1845
Revised Code.1846

       (2) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or 1847
entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 1848
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 1849
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 1850
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 1851
program.1852

       Sec. 109.572. (A)(1) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to 1853
section 121.08, 3301.32, 3301.541, or 3319.39 of the Revised Code, 1854
a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this 1855
section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 1856
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 1857
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 1858
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner 1859
described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any 1860
information exists that indicates that the person who is the 1861
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded 1862
guilty to any of the following:1863

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 1864
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 1865
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 1866
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 1867
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 1868
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 1869
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 1870
2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 1871
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 1872
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 1873
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 1874
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 1875
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 1876
had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a 1877
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 1878
minor drug possession offense;1879

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 1880
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 1881
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(1)(a) of 1882
this section.1883

       (2) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 5123.081 of 1884
the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in 1885
any position with the department of developmental disabilities, 1886
pursuant to section 5126.28 of the Revised Code with respect to an 1887
applicant for employment in any position with a county board of 1888
developmental disabilities, or pursuant to section 5126.281 of the 1889
Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in a 1890
direct services position with an entity contracting with a county 1891
board for employment, a completed form prescribed pursuant to 1892
division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 1893
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 1894
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 1895
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 1896
check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check 1897
in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 1898
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 1899
person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or 1900
pleaded guilty to any of the following:1901

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 1902
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 1903
2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.04, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 1904
2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 1905
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 1906
2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 1907
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 1908
2925.03, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;1909

       (b) An existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this 1910
state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially 1911
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(2)(a) of 1912
this section.1913

       (3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.27, 1914
173.394, 3712.09, or 3721.121, 5119.693, or 5119.85 of the Revised 1915
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 1916
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 1917
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 1918
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 1919
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect 1920
to any person who has applied for employment in a position for 1921
which a criminal records check is required by those sections. The 1922
superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the 1923
manner described in division (B) of this section to determine 1924
whether any information exists that indicates that the person who 1925
is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or 1926
pleaded guilty to any of the following:1927

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 1928
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 1929
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 1930
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 1931
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 1932
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 1933
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 1934
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 1935
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;1936

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 1937
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 1938
the offenses listed in division (A)(3)(2)(a) of this section.1939

       (4) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3701.881 of 1940
the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with 1941
a home health agency as a person responsible for the care, 1942
custody, or control of a child, a completed form prescribed 1943
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of 1944
fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in 1945
division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau 1946
of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a 1947
criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the 1948
criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of 1949
this section to determine whether any information exists that 1950
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request 1951
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the 1952
following:1953

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 1954
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 1955
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.04, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 1956
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.21, 1957
2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 1958
2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 1959
2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 1960
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code or a 1961
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 1962
minor drug possession offense;1963

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 1964
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 1965
the offenses listed in division (A)(4)(a) of this section.1966

       (5)(3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.27, 1967
173.394, 3701.881, 5111.032, 5111.033, or 5111.034, 5123.081, or 1968
5123.169 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 1969
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 1970
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 1971
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 1972
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 1973
check of the person for whom the request is made. The 1974
superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the 1975
manner described in division (B) of this section to determine 1976
whether any information exists that indicates that the person who 1977
is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of, 1978
has pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention 1979
in lieu of conviction for any of the following, regardless of the 1980
date of the conviction, the date of entry of the guilty plea, or 1981
the date the person was found eligible for intervention in lieu of 1982
conviction:1983

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 1984
2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 1985
2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 1986
2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 1987
2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 1988
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 1989
2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 1990
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 1991
2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 1992
2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 1993
2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.11, 1994
2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 1995
2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2923.01, 2923.02, 1996
2923.03, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.32, 2925.02, 2925.03, 1997
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 1998
2925.23, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 1999
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 2000
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 2001
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 2002
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2003
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 2004
had the violation been committed prior to that date;2005

       (b) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 2006
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 2007
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 2008
division (A)(5)(a) of this sectiona disqualifying offense as 2009
defined in the section of the Revised Code under which the request 2010
is made.2011

       (6) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3701.881 of 2012
the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with 2013
a home health agency in a position that involves providing direct 2014
care to an older adult, a completed form prescribed pursuant to 2015
division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 2016
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 2017
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2018
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 2019
check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check 2020
in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 2021
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2022
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2023
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:2024

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2025
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2026
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2027
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2028
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2029
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2030
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2031
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2032
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;2033

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 2034
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 2035
the offenses listed in division (A)(6)(a) of this section.2036

       (7)(4) When conducting a criminal records check upon a 2037
request pursuant to section 3319.39 of the Revised Code for an 2038
applicant who is a teacher, in addition to the determination made 2039
under division (A)(1) of this section, the superintendent shall 2040
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2041
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2042
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense specified in section 2043
3319.31 of the Revised Code.2044

       (8)(5) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.86 of 2045
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division 2046
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 2047
obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this 2048
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2049
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 2050
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 2051
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2052
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2053
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:2054

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2055
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2056
2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2057
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2058
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2059
2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2060
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.49, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2061
2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2062
2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2927.12, or 3716.11 2063
of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised 2064
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2065
2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of 2066
section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 2067
1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a 2068
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 2069
minor drug possession offense, two or more OVI or OVUAC violations 2070
committed within the three years immediately preceding the 2071
submission of the application or petition that is the basis of the 2072
request, or felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 2073
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;2074

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 2075
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 2076
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(8)(5)(a) 2077
of this section.2078

       (9)(6) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5104.012 2079
or 5104.013 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed 2080
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of 2081
fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in 2082
division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau 2083
of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a 2084
criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of 2085
this section to determine whether any information exists that 2086
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has 2087
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:2088

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2089
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.22, 2090
2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2091
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2092
2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2093
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2094
2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2095
2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2096
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2919.12, 2097
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2923.01, 2923.12, 2098
2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 2099
3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in 2100
violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a 2101
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 2102
prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the 2103
Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 2104
of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the 2105
violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of 2106
section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug 2107
possession offense, a violation of section 2923.02 or 2923.03 of 2108
the Revised Code that relates to a crime specified in this 2109
division, or a second violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 2110
Code within five years of the date of application for licensure or 2111
certification.2112

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 2113
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 2114
equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described in 2115
division (A)(9)(6)(a) of this section.2116

       (10)(7) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 2117
5153.111 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 2118
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 2119
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 2120
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2121
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 2122
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 2123
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2124
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2125
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:2126

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2127
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2128
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2129
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2130
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2131
2909.03, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2132
2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2133
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, 2134
felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2135
2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the 2136
Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of 2137
section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a 2138
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 2139
prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to 2140
that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code 2141
that is not a minor drug possession offense;2142

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 2143
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 2144
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(10)(7)(a) 2145
of this section.2146

       (11)(8) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check 2147
from an individual pursuant to section 4749.03 or 4749.06 of the 2148
Revised Code, accompanied by a completed copy of the form 2149
prescribed in division (C)(1) of this section and a set of 2150
fingerprint impressions obtained in a manner described in division 2151
(C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of 2152
criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal 2153
records check in the manner described in division (B) of this 2154
section to determine whether any information exists indicating 2155
that the person who is the subject of the request has been 2156
convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony in this state or in any 2157
other state. If the individual indicates that a firearm will be 2158
carried in the course of business, the superintendent shall 2159
require information from the federal bureau of investigation as 2160
described in division (B)(2) of this section. The superintendent 2161
shall report the findings of the criminal records check and any 2162
information the federal bureau of investigation provides to the 2163
director of public safety.2164

       (12)(9) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1321.37, 2165
1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, or 4763.05 of the Revised 2166
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 2167
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 2168
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 2169
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 2170
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect 2171
to any person who has applied for a license, permit, or 2172
certification from the department of commerce or a division in the 2173
department. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 2174
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 2175
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2176
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2177
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following: a 2178
violation of section 2913.02, 2913.11, 2913.31, 2913.51, or 2179
2925.03 of the Revised Code; any other criminal offense involving 2180
theft, receiving stolen property, embezzlement, forgery, fraud, 2181
passing bad checks, money laundering, or drug trafficking, or any 2182
criminal offense involving money or securities, as set forth in 2183
Chapters 2909., 2911., 2913., 2915., 2921., 2923., and 2925. of 2184
the Revised Code; or any existing or former law of this state, any 2185
other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent 2186
to those offenses.2187

       (13)(10) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check 2188
from the treasurer of state under section 113.041 of the Revised 2189
Code or from an individual under section 4701.08, 4715.101, 2190
4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 2191
4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 2192
4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 2193
4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 2194
4762.031, 4762.06, or 4779.091 of the Revised Code, accompanied by 2195
a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section 2196
and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner 2197
described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent 2198
of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall 2199
conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in 2200
division (B) of this section to determine whether any information 2201
exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the 2202
request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal 2203
offense in this state or any other state. The superintendent shall 2204
send the results of a check requested under section 113.041 of the 2205
Revised Code to the treasurer of state and shall send the results 2206
of a check requested under any of the other listed sections to the 2207
licensing board specified by the individual in the request.2208

       (14)(11) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1121.23, 2209
1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, or 1761.26 of the Revised 2210
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 2211
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 2212
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 2213
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 2214
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner 2215
described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any 2216
information exists that indicates that the person who is the 2217
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded 2218
guilty to any criminal offense under any existing or former law of 2219
this state, any other state, or the United States.2220

       (15)(12) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check 2221
from an appointing or licensing authority under section 3772.07 of 2222
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division 2223
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 2224
obtained in the manner prescribed in division (C)(2) of this 2225
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2226
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 2227
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 2228
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2229
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2230
convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to any offense under 2231
any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the 2232
United States that is a disqualifying offense as defined in 2233
section 3772.07 of the Revised Code or substantially equivalent to 2234
such an offense.2235

       (16)(13) Not later than thirty days after the date the 2236
superintendent receives a request of a type described in division 2237
(A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (12), 2238
(14), or (15)(13) of this section, the completed form, and the 2239
fingerprint impressions, the superintendent shall send the results 2240
of the criminal records check to the person, board, or entity that 2241
made the request any information, other than. The superintendent 2242
shall exclude from the results any information the dissemination 2243
of which is prohibited by federal law, the superintendent 2244
determines exists with respect to the person who is the subject of 2245
the request that indicates that the person previously has been 2246
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 2247
in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), 2248
(11), (12), (14), or (15) of this section, as appropriate. The 2249
superintendent shall send the person, board, or entity that made 2250
the request a copy of the list of offenses specified in division 2251
(A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (12), 2252
(14), or (15) of this section, as appropriatefor which the 2253
criminal records check was conducted. If the request was made 2254
under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code with regard to an 2255
applicant who may be both responsible for the care, custody, or 2256
control of a child and involved in providing direct care to an 2257
older adult, the superintendent shall provide a list of the 2258
offenses specified in divisions (A)(4) and (6) of this section.2259

       Not later than thirty days after the superintendent receives 2260
a request for a criminal records check pursuant to section 113.041 2261
of the Revised Code, the completed form, and the fingerprint 2262
impressions, the superintendent shall send the treasurer of state 2263
any information, other than information the dissemination of which 2264
is prohibited by federal law, the superintendent determines exist 2265
with respect to the person who is the subject of the request that 2266
indicates that the person previously has been convicted of or 2267
pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in this state or any other 2268
state.2269

       (B) The superintendent shall conduct any criminal records 2270
check requested under section 113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.394, 2271
1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 2272
1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 2273
3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 2274
4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 2275
4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 2276
4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 4749.03, 4749.06, 2277
4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 2278
4762.031, 4762.06, 4763.05, 4779.091, 5104.012, 5104.013, 2279
5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5119.693, 5119.85, 5123.081, 2280
5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Codeto be conducted 2281
under this section as follows:2282

       (1) The superintendent shall review or cause to be reviewed 2283
any relevant information gathered and compiled by the bureau under 2284
division (A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code that relates to 2285
the person who is the subject of the requestcriminal records 2286
check, including, if the criminal records check was requested 2287
under section 113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 2288
1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 2289
1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 2290
3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4763.05, 5104.012, 2291
5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5119.693, 5119.85,2292
5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281,5123.169, or 5153.111 of the Revised 2293
Code, any relevant information contained in records that have been 2294
sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code;2295

       (2) If the request received by the superintendent asks for 2296
information from the federal bureau of investigation, the 2297
superintendent shall request from the federal bureau of 2298
investigation any information it has with respect to the person 2299
who is the subject of the requestcriminal records check, 2300
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 2301
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 if the request is made 2302
pursuant to section 2151.86, 5104.012, or 5104.013 of the Revised 2303
Code or if any other Revised Code section requires 2304
fingerprint-based checks of that nature, and shall review or cause 2305
to be reviewed any information the superintendent receives from 2306
that bureau. If a request under section 3319.39 of the Revised 2307
Code asks only for information from the federal bureau of 2308
investigation, the superintendent shall not conduct the review 2309
prescribed by division (B)(1) of this section.2310

        (3) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee may 2311
request criminal history records from other states or the federal 2312
government pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy 2313
compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code.2314

       (C)(1) The superintendent shall prescribe a form to obtain 2315
the information necessary to conduct a criminal records check from 2316
any person for whom a criminal records check is requested under 2317
section 113.041 of the Revised Code or required by section 121.08, 2318
173.27, 173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.53, 2319
1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 2320
3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4701.08, 2321
4715.101, 4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 2322
4730.14, 4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 2323
4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 2324
4749.03, 4749.06, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 2325
4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4763.05, 4779.091, 5104.012, 2326
5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5119.693, 5119.85, 2327
5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Codeto be 2328
conducted under this section. The form that the superintendent 2329
prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, 2330
in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic 2331
formats.2332

       (2) The superintendent shall prescribe standard impression 2333
sheets to obtain the fingerprint impressions of any person for 2334
whom a criminal records check is requested under section 113.041 2335
of the Revised Code or required by section 121.08, 173.27, 2336
173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.53, 1321.531, 2337
1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 2338
3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4701.08, 4715.101, 2339
4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 2340
4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 2341
4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 2342
4749.03, 4749.06, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 2343
4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4763.05, 4779.091, 5104.012, 2344
5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5119.693, 5119.85, 2345
5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Codeto be 2346
conducted under this section. Any person for whom a records check 2347
is requested under or required by any of those sectionsto be 2348
conducted under this section shall obtain the fingerprint 2349
impressions at a county sheriff's office, municipal police 2350
department, or any other entity with the ability to make 2351
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheets 2352
prescribed by the superintendent. The office, department, or 2353
entity may charge the person a reasonable fee for making the 2354
impressions. The standard impression sheets the superintendent 2355
prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, 2356
in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic 2357
formats.2358

       (3) Subject to division (D) of this section, the 2359
superintendent shall prescribe and charge a reasonable fee for 2360
providing a criminal records check requested under section 2361
113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 2362
1315.141, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2363
2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 2364
3772.07, 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 2365
4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 2366
4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 2367
4740.061, 4741.10, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 2368
4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4763.05, 4779.091, 2369
5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5119.693, 2370
5119.85, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised 2371
Codeunder this section. The person making arequesting the2372
criminal records request under any of those sectionscheck shall 2373
pay the fee prescribed pursuant to this division. A person making 2374
a request under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code for a 2375
criminal records check for an applicant who may be both 2376
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child and 2377
involved in providing direct care to an older adult shall pay one 2378
fee for the request. In the case of a request under section 2379
1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, 1761.26, or 5111.032 2380
of the Revised Code, the fee shall be paid in the manner specified 2381
in that section.2382

       (4) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2383
identification and investigation may prescribe methods of 2384
forwarding fingerprint impressions and information necessary to 2385
conduct a criminal records check, which methods shall include, but 2386
not be limited to, an electronic method.2387

       (D) A determination whether any information exists that 2388
indicates that a person previously has been convicted of or 2389
pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described in division 2390
(A)(1)(a) or (b), (A)(2)(a) or (b), (A)(3)(a) or (b), (A)(4)(a) or 2391
(b), (A)(5)(a) or (b), (A)(6)(a) or (b), (A)(7), (A)(8)(a) or (b), 2392
(A)(9)(a) or (b), (A)(10)(a) or (b), (A)(12), (A)(14), or (A)(15) 2393
of this section, or that indicates that a person previously has 2394
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in 2395
this state or any other state regarding a criminal records check 2396
of a type described in division (A)(13) of this section, and that 2397
is made by the superintendent with respect to information 2398
considered inThe results of a criminal records check in 2399
accordance withconducted under this section is, other than a 2400
criminal records check specified in division (A)(8) of this 2401
section, are valid for the person who is the subject of the 2402
criminal records check for a period of one year from the date upon 2403
which the superintendent makes the determinationcompletes the 2404
criminal records check. During theIf during that period in which 2405
the determination in regard to a person is valid, ifthe 2406
superintendent receives another request under this section is made2407
for a criminal records check to be conducted under this section2408
for that person, the superintendent shall provide the information 2409
that is the basis for the superintendent's initial determination2410
results from the previous criminal records check of the person at 2411
a lower fee than the fee prescribed for the initial criminal 2412
records check.2413

       (E) When the superintendent receives a request for 2414
information from a registered private provider, the superintendent 2415
shall proceed as if the request was received from a school 2416
district board of education under section 3319.39 of the Revised 2417
Code. The superintendent shall apply division (A)(7)(4) of this 2418
section to any such request for an applicant who is a teacher.2419

       (F) As used in this section:2420

       (1) "Criminal records check" means any criminal records check 2421
conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2422
identification and investigation in accordance with division (B) 2423
of this section.2424

       (2) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as 2425
in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.2426

       (3) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.2427

       (4) "OVI or OVUAC violation" means a violation of section 2428
4511.19 of the Revised Code or a violation of an existing or 2429
former law of this state, any other state, or the United States 2430
that is substantially equivalent to section 4511.19 of the Revised 2431
Code.2432

       (5)(4) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school 2433
or entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 2434
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 2435
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 2436
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 2437
program.2438

       Sec. 109.801.  (A)(1) Each year, any of the following persons 2439
who are authorized to carry firearms in the course of their 2440
official duties shall complete successfully a firearms 2441
requalification program approved by the executive director of the 2442
Ohio peace officer training commission in accordance with rules 2443
adopted by the attorney general pursuant to section 109.743 of the 2444
Revised Code: any peace officer, sheriff, chief of police of an 2445
organized police department of a municipal corporation or 2446
township, chief of police of a township police district or joint 2447
police district police force, superintendent of the state highway 2448
patrol, state highway patrol trooper, or chief of police of a 2449
university or college police department; any parole or probation 2450
officer who carries a firearm in the course of official duties; 2451
the house of representatives sergeant at arms if the house of 2452
representatives sergeant at arms has arrest authority pursuant to 2453
division (E)(1) of section 101.311 of the Revised Code; any 2454
assistant house of representatives sergeant at arms; the senate 2455
sergeant at arms; any assistant senate sergeant at arms; or any 2456
employee of the department of youth services who is designated 2457
pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 5139.53 of the Revised Code 2458
as being authorized to carry a firearm while on duty as described 2459
in that division.2460

       (2) No person listed in division (A)(1) of this section shall 2461
carry a firearm during the course of official duties if the person 2462
does not comply with division (A)(1) of this section.2463

       (B) The hours that a sheriff spends attending a firearms 2464
requalification program required by division (A) of this section 2465
are in addition to the sixteen hours of continuing education that 2466
are required by division (E) of section 311.01 of the Revised 2467
Code.2468

       (C) As used in this section, "firearm" has the same meaning 2469
as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.2470

       Sec. 119.032.  (A) As used in this section and in section 2471
119.033 of the Revised Code:2472

       (1) "Agency" includes both an agency as defined in division 2473
(A)(2) of section 111.15 and an agency as defined in division (A) 2474
of section 119.01 of the Revised Code.2475

       (2) "Review date" means the review date assigned to a rule by 2476
an agency under division (B) or (E)(2) of this section or under 2477
section 111.15, 119.04, or 4141.14 of the Revised Code or a review 2478
dateor an extended review date assigned to a rule by the joint 2479
committee on agency rule review under division (B) of this 2480
section.2481

       (3)(a) "Rule" means only a rule whose adoption, amendment, or 2482
rescission is subject to review under division (D) of section 2483
111.15 or division (H) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code.2484

       (b) "Rule" does not include a rule adopted, amended, or 2485
rescinded by the department of taxation under section 5703.14 of 2486
the Revised Code, a rule of a state college or university, 2487
community college district, technical college district, or state 2488
community college, or a rule that is consistent with and 2489
equivalent to the form required by a federal law and that does not 2490
exceed the minimum scope and intent of that federal law.2491

       (B) Not later than March 25, 1997, each agency shall assign a 2492
review date to each of its rules that is currently in effect and 2493
shall notify the joint committee on agency rule review of the 2494
review date for each such rule. The agency shall assign review 2495
dates to its rules so that approximately one-fifth of the rules 2496
are scheduled for review during each calendar year of the 2497
five-year period that begins March 25, 1997, except that an 2498
agency, with the joint committee's approval, may set a review 2499
schedule for the agency's rules in which there is no requirement 2500
that approximately one-fifth of the agency's rules be assigned a 2501
review date during each calendar year of the five-year period but 2502
in which all of the agency's rules are assigned a review date 2503
during that five-year period. An agency may change the review 2504
dates it has assigned to specific rules so long as the agency 2505
complies with the five-year time deadline specified in this 2506
division.2507

       Upon the request of the agency that adopted the rule, the 2508
joint committee on agency rule review may extend a review date of 2509
a rule to a date that is not later than one hundred eighty days 2510
after the original review date assigned to the rule by the agency 2511
under this division, division (E)(2) of this section, or section 2512
111.15, 119.04, or 4141.14 of the Revised Code. The joint 2513
committee may further extend a review date that has been extended 2514
under this paragraph if appropriate under the circumstances.2515

       (C) Prior to the review date of a rule, the agency that 2516
adopted the rule shall review the rule to determine all of the 2517
following:2518

       (1) Whether the rule should be continued without amendment, 2519
be amended, or be rescinded, taking into consideration the 2520
purpose, scope, and intent of the statute under which the rule was 2521
adopted;2522

       (2) Whether the rule needs amendment or rescission to give 2523
more flexibility at the local level;2524

       (3) Whether the rule needs amendment or rescission to 2525
eliminate unnecessary paperwork, or whether the rule incorporates 2526
a text or other material by reference and, if so, whether the text 2527
or other material incorporated by reference is deposited or 2528
displayed as required by section 121.74 of the Revised Code and 2529
whether the incorporation by reference meets the standards stated 2530
in sections 121.72, 121.75, and 121.76 of the Revised Code;2531

       (4) Whether the rule duplicates, overlaps with, or conflicts 2532
with other rules;2533

       (5) Whether the rule has an adverse impact on businesses, 2534
reviewing the rule as if it were a draft rule being reviewed under 2535
sections 107.52 and 107.53 of the Revised Code, and whether any 2536
such adverse impact has been eliminated or reduced.2537

       (D) In making theits review required under division (C) of 2538
this section, the agency shall consider the continued need for the 2539
rule, the nature of any complaints or comments received concerning 2540
the rule, and any relevant factors that have changed in the 2541
subject matter area affected by the rule.2542

       (E)(1) On or before the designated review date of a rule, the 2543
agency that adopted the rule shall proceed under division (E)(2) 2544
or (5) of this section to indicate that the agency has reviewed 2545
the rule.2546

       (2) If the agency has determined that the rule does not need 2547
to be amended or rescinded, the agency shall file all the 2548
following, in electronic form, with the joint committee on agency 2549
rule review, the secretary of state, and the director of the 2550
legislative service commission: a copy of the rule, a statement of 2551
the agency's determination, and an accurate rule summary and 2552
fiscal analysis for the rule as described in section 127.18 of the 2553
Revised Code. The agency shall assign a new review date to the 2554
rule, which shall not be later than five years after the rule's 2555
immediately preceding review date. After the joint committee has 2556
reviewed such a rule for the first time, including any rule that 2557
was in effect on September 26, 1996, the agency in its subsequent 2558
reviews of the rule may provide the same fiscal analysis it 2559
provided to the joint committee during its immediately preceding 2560
review of the rule unless any of the conditions described in 2561
division (B)(4), (5), (6), (8), (9), or (10) of section 127.18 of 2562
the Revised Code, as they relate to the rule, have appreciably 2563
changed since the joint committee's immediately preceding review 2564
of the rule. If any of these conditions, as they relate to the 2565
rule, have appreciably changed, the agency shall provide the joint 2566
committee with an updated fiscal analysis for the rule. If no 2567
review date is assigned to a rule, or if a review date assigned to 2568
a rule exceeds the five-year maximum, the review date for the rule 2569
is five years after its immediately preceding review date. The 2570
joint committee shall give public notice in the register of Ohio 2571
of the agency's determination after receiving a notice from the 2572
agency under division (E)(2) of this section. The joint committee 2573
shall transmit a copy of the notice in electronic form to the 2574
director of the legislative service commission. The director shall 2575
publish the notice in the register of Ohio for four consecutive 2576
weeks after its receipt.2577

       (3) During the ninety-day period following the date the joint 2578
committee receives a notice under division (E)(2) of this section 2579
but after the four-week period described in division (E)(2) of 2580
this section has ended, the joint committee, by a two-thirds vote 2581
of the members present, may recommend the adoption of a concurrent 2582
resolution invalidating the rule if the joint committee determines 2583
that any of the following apply:2584

       (a) The agency improperly applied the criteria described in 2585
divisions (C) and (D) of this section in reviewing the rule and in 2586
recommending its continuance without amendment or rescission.2587

       (b) The agency failed to file proper notice with the joint 2588
committee regarding the rule, or if the rule incorporates a text 2589
or other material by reference, the agency failed to file, or to 2590
deposit or display, the text or other material incorporated by 2591
reference as required by section 121.73 or 121.74 of the Revised 2592
Code or the incorporation by reference fails to meet the standards 2593
stated in section 121.72, 121.75, or 121.76 of the Revised Code.2594

       (c) The rule has an adverse impact on businesses, as 2595
determined under section 107.52 of the Revised Code, and the 2596
agency has not eliminated or reduced that impact as required under 2597
section 121.82 of the Revised Code.2598

       (4) If the joint committee does not take the action described 2599
in division (E)(3) of this section regarding a rule during the 2600
ninety-day period after the date the joint committee receives a 2601
notice under division (E)(2) of this section regarding that rule, 2602
the rule shall continue in effect without amendment and shall be 2603
next reviewed by the joint committee by the date designated by the 2604
agency in the notice provided to the joint committee under 2605
division (E)(2) of this section.2606

       (5) If the agency has determined that a rule reviewed under 2607
division (C) of this section needs to be amended or rescinded, the 2608
agency, on or before the rule's review date, shall file the rule 2609
as amended or rescinded in accordance with section 111.15, 119.03, 2610
or 4141.14 of the Revised Code, as applicable.2611

       (6)(D) Prior to the review date of a rule, the agency that 2612
adopted the rule shall determine, on the basis of its review of 2613
the rule, whether the rule needs to be amended or rescinded.2614

       (1) If the rule needs to be amended or rescinded, the agency, 2615
on or before the review date of the rule, shall commence the 2616
process of amending or rescinding the rule in accordance with its 2617
review of the rule.2618

       (2) If the rule does not need to be amended or rescinded, 2619
proceedings shall be had under section 119.033 of the Revised 2620
Code.2621

       (E) Each agency shall provide the joint committee with a copy 2622
of the rules that it has determined are rules described in 2623
division (A)(3)(b) of this section. At a time the joint committee 2624
designates, each agency shall appear before the joint committee 2625
and explain why it has determined that such rules are rules 2626
described in division (A)(3)(b) of this section. The joint 2627
committee, by a two-thirds vote of the members present, may 2628
determine that any of such rules are rules described in division 2629
(A)(3)(a) of this section. After the joint committee has made such 2630
a determination relating to a rule, the agency shall thereafter 2631
treat the rule as a rule described in division (A)(3)(a) of this 2632
section.2633

       (F) If an agency fails to provide the notice to the joint 2634
committee required under division (E)(2) of this section regarding 2635
a rule or otherwise fails by the rule's review date to take any 2636
action regarding the rule required bycomply with this section or 2637
section 119.033 of the Revised Code, the joint committee, by a 2638
majority vote of the members present, may recommend the adoption 2639
of a concurrent resolution invalidating the rule. The joint 2640
committee shall not recommend the adoption of such a resolution 2641
until it has afforded the agency the opportunity to appear before 2642
the joint committee to show cause why the joint committee should 2643
not recommend the adoption of such a resolution regarding that 2644
rule.2645

       (G) If the joint committee recommends adoption of a 2646
concurrent resolution invalidating a rule under division (E)(3) or 2647
(F) of this section or section 119.033 of the Revised Code, the 2648
adoption of the concurrent resolution shall be in the manner 2649
described in division (I) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code.2650

       Sec. 119.033. If an agency, on the basis of its review of a 2651
rule under section 119.032 of the Revised Code, determines that 2652
the rule does not need to be amended or rescinded, proceedings 2653
shall be had as follows:2654

       (A)(1) If, considering only the standard of review specified 2655
in division (C)(5) of section 119.032 of the Revised Code, the 2656
rule has an adverse impact on businesses that has not been 2657
eliminated or reduced, the agency shall prepare a business impact 2658
analysis that describes its review of the rule under that division 2659
and that explains why the rule is not being amended or rescinded 2660
to reduce or eliminate its adverse impact on businesses. If the 2661
rule does not have an adverse impact on businesses, the agency may 2662
proceed under division (B) of this section.2663

       (2) The agency shall transmit a copy of the full text of the 2664
rule and the business impact analysis electronically to the common 2665
sense initiative office. The office shall make the rule and 2666
analysis available to the public on its web site under section 2667
107.62 of the Revised Code.2668

       (3) The agency shall consider any recommendations made by the 2669
office.2670

       (4) Not earlier than the sixteenth business day after 2671
transmitting the rule and analysis to the office, the agency shall 2672
either (a) proceed under division (B) of this section or (b) 2673
commence, under division (D)(1) of section 119.032 of the Revised 2674
Code, the process of rescinding the rule or of amending the rule 2675
to incorporate into the rule features the recommendations suggest 2676
will eliminate or reduce the adverse impact the rule has on 2677
businesses. If the agency determines to amend or rescind the rule, 2678
the agency is not subject to the time limit specified in division 2679
(D)(1) of section 119.032 of the Revised Code.2680

       (5) If the agency receives recommendations from the office, 2681
and determines not to amend or rescind the rule, the agency shall 2682
prepare a memorandum of response that explains why the rule is not 2683
being rescinded or why the recommendations are not being 2684
incorporated into the rule. 2685

       (B) The agency shall assign a new review date to the rule. 2686
The review date assigned shall be not later than five years after 2687
the immediately preceding review date pertaining to the rule. If 2688
the agency assigns a review date that exceeds the five-year 2689
maximum, the review date is five years after the immediately 2690
preceding review date.2691

       (C)(1) The agency shall file all the following, in electronic 2692
form, with the joint committee on agency rule review, the 2693
secretary of state, and the director of the legislative service 2694
commission: a copy of the rule specifying its new review date, a 2695
complete and accurate rule summary and fiscal analysis, and, if 2696
relevant, a business impact analysis of the rule, any comments 2697
received from the common sense initiative office, and any 2698
memorandum of response. An agency may comply with the requirement 2699
to file a complete and accurate rule summary and fiscal analysis 2700
by filing a previously prepared rule summary and fiscal analysis, 2701
so long as the previous rule summary and fiscal analysis was 2702
complete and accurate at the time it was prepared, continues to be 2703
such a complete and accurate explanation of the rule, and the 2704
conditions described in division (B)(4), (5), (6), (8), (9), or 2705
(10) of section 127.18 of the Revised Code, as they relate to the 2706
rule, have not appreciably changed since the previous rule summary 2707
and fiscal analysis was prepared.2708

       (2) The joint committee does not have jurisdiction to review, 2709
and shall reject, the filing of a rule under division (C)(1) of 2710
this section if, at any time while the rule is in its possession, 2711
it discovers that the rule has an adverse impact on businesses and 2712
the agency has not complied with division (A) of this section. The 2713
joint committee shall electronically return a rule that is 2714
rejected to the agency, together with any documents that were part 2715
of the filing. Such a rejection does not preclude the agency from 2716
refiling the rule under division (C)(1) of this section after 2717
complying with division (A) of this section. When the filing of a 2718
rule is rejected under this division, it is as if the filing had 2719
not been made.2720

       (D) The joint committee shall publish notice of the agency's 2721
determination not to amend or rescind the rule in the register of 2722
Ohio for four consecutive weeks after the rule is filed under 2723
division (C)(1) of this section.2724

       (E) During the ninety-day period after a rule is filed under 2725
division (C)(1) of this section, but after the four-week notice 2726
period required by division (D) of this section has ended, the 2727
joint committee, by a two-thirds vote of members present, may 2728
recommend adoption of a concurrent resolution invalidating the 2729
rule if the joint committee finds any of the following:2730

       (1) The agency improperly applied the standards in division 2731
(C) of section 119.032 of the Revised Code in reviewing the rule 2732
and in determining that the rule did not need amendment or 2733
rescission.2734

       (2) The rule has an adverse impact on businesses, and the 2735
agency has failed to demonstrate through a business impact 2736
analysis, recommendations from the common sense initiative office, 2737
and a memorandum of response that the regulatory intent of the 2738
rule justifies its adverse impact on businesses.2739

       (3) If the rule incorporates a text or other material by 2740
reference, the agency failed to file, or to deposit or display, 2741
the text or other material incorporated by reference as required 2742
by section 121.73 or 121.74 of the Revised Code or the 2743
incorporation by reference fails to meet the standards stated in 2744
section 121.72, 121.75, or 121.76 of the Revised Code.2745

       (4) The agency failed to make a proper filing under division 2746
(C)(1) of this section.2747

       If the joint committee does not take any of these actions 2748
during the prescribed time, the rule continues in effect without 2749
amendment and shall be next reviewed by the joint committee with 2750
reference to the new review date assigned by the agency.2751

       Sec. 121.04.  Offices are created within the several 2752
departments as follows:2753

       In the department of commerce:2754

Commissioner of securities; 2755
Superintendent of real estate and professional licensing; 2756
Superintendent of financial institutions; 2757
State fire marshal; 2758
Superintendent of labor industrial compliance; 2759
Superintendent of liquor control; 2760
Superintendent of unclaimed funds. 2761

       In the department of administrative services:2762

State architect and engineer; 2763
Equal employment opportunity coordinator. 2764

       In the department of agriculture:2765

       Chiefs of divisions as follows:2766

Administration; 2767
Animal health; 2768
Livestock environmental permitting; 2769
Dairy; 2770
Food safety; 2771
Plant health; 2772
Markets; 2773
Meat inspection; 2774
Consumer protection laboratory; 2775
Amusement ride safety; 2776
Enforcement; 2777
Weights and measures. 2778

       In the department of natural resources:2779

       Chiefs of divisions as follows:2780

Mineral resources management; 2781
Oil and gas resources management; 2782
Forestry; 2783
Natural areas and preserves; 2784
Wildlife; 2785
Geological survey; 2786
Parks and recreation; 2787
Watercraft; 2788
Recycling and litter prevention; 2789
Soil and water resources; 2790
Engineering. 2791

       In the department of insurance:2792

Deputy superintendent of insurance; 2793
Assistant superintendent of insurance, technical; 2794
Assistant superintendent of insurance, administrative; 2795
Assistant superintendent of insurance, research. 2796

       Sec. 121.08.  (A) There is hereby created in the department 2797
of commerce the position of deputy director of administration. 2798
This officer shall be appointed by the director of commerce, serve 2799
under the director's direction, supervision, and control, perform 2800
the duties the director prescribes, and hold office during the 2801
director's pleasure. The director of commerce may designate an 2802
assistant director of commerce to serve as the deputy director of 2803
administration. The deputy director of administration shall 2804
perform the duties prescribed by the director of commerce in 2805
supervising the activities of the division of administration of 2806
the department of commerce.2807

       (B) Except as provided in section 121.07 of the Revised Code, 2808
the department of commerce shall have all powers and perform all 2809
duties vested in the deputy director of administration, the state 2810
fire marshal, the superintendent of financial institutions, the 2811
superintendent of real estate and professional licensing, the 2812
superintendent of liquor control, the superintendent of labor2813
industrial compliance, the superintendent of unclaimed funds, and 2814
the commissioner of securities, and shall have all powers and 2815
perform all duties vested by law in all officers, deputies, and 2816
employees of those offices. Except as provided in section 121.07 2817
of the Revised Code, wherever powers are conferred or duties 2818
imposed upon any of those officers, the powers and duties shall be 2819
construed as vested in the department of commerce.2820

       (C)(1) There is hereby created in the department of commerce 2821
a division of financial institutions, which shall have all powers 2822
and perform all duties vested by law in the superintendent of 2823
financial institutions. Wherever powers are conferred or duties 2824
imposed upon the superintendent of financial institutions, those 2825
powers and duties shall be construed as vested in the division of 2826
financial institutions. The division of financial institutions 2827
shall be administered by the superintendent of financial 2828
institutions.2829

       (2) All provisions of law governing the superintendent of 2830
financial institutions shall apply to and govern the 2831
superintendent of financial institutions provided for in this 2832
section; all authority vested by law in the superintendent of 2833
financial institutions with respect to the management of the 2834
division of financial institutions shall be construed as vested in 2835
the superintendent of financial institutions created by this 2836
section with respect to the division of financial institutions 2837
provided for in this section; and all rights, privileges, and 2838
emoluments conferred by law upon the superintendent of financial 2839
institutions shall be construed as conferred upon the 2840
superintendent of financial institutions as head of the division 2841
of financial institutions. The director of commerce shall not 2842
transfer from the division of financial institutions any of the 2843
functions specified in division (C)(2) of this section.2844

       (D) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a 2845
division of liquor control, which shall have all powers and 2846
perform all duties vested by law in the superintendent of liquor 2847
control. Wherever powers are conferred or duties are imposed upon 2848
the superintendent of liquor control, those powers and duties 2849
shall be construed as vested in the division of liquor control. 2850
The division of liquor control shall be administered by the 2851
superintendent of liquor control.2852

       (E) The director of commerce shall not be interested, 2853
directly or indirectly, in any firm or corporation which is a 2854
dealer in securities as defined in sections 1707.01 and 1707.14 of 2855
the Revised Code, or in any firm or corporation licensed under 2856
sections 1321.01 to 1321.19 of the Revised Code.2857

       (F) The director of commerce shall not have any official 2858
connection with a savings and loan association, a savings bank, a 2859
bank, a bank holding company, a savings and loan association 2860
holding company, a consumer finance company, or a credit union 2861
that is under the supervision of the division of financial 2862
institutions, or a subsidiary of any of the preceding entities, or 2863
be interested in the business thereof.2864

       (G) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 2865
division of administration fund. The fund shall receive 2866
assessments on the operating funds of the department of commerce 2867
in accordance with procedures prescribed by the director of 2868
commerce and approved by the director of budget and management. 2869
All operating expenses of the division of administration shall be 2870
paid from the division of administration fund.2871

       (H) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a 2872
division of real estate and professional licensing, which shall be 2873
under the control and supervision of the director of commerce. The 2874
division of real estate and professional licensing shall be 2875
administered by the superintendent of real estate and professional 2876
licensing. The superintendent of real estate and professional 2877
licensing shall exercise the powers and perform the functions and 2878
duties delegated to the superintendent under Chapters 4735., 2879
4763., and 4767. of the Revised Code.2880

       (I) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a 2881
division of laborindustrial compliance, which shall have all 2882
powers and perform all duties vested by law in the superintendent 2883
of laborindustrial compliance. Wherever powers are conferred or 2884
duties imposed upon the superintendent of laborindustrial 2885
compliance, those powers and duties shall be construed as vested 2886
in the division of laborindustrial compliance. The division of 2887
laborindustrial compliance shall be under the control and 2888
supervision of the director of commerce and be administered by the 2889
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance.2890

       (J) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a 2891
division of unclaimed funds, which shall have all powers and 2892
perform all duties delegated to or vested by law in the 2893
superintendent of unclaimed funds. Wherever powers are conferred 2894
or duties imposed upon the superintendent of unclaimed funds, 2895
those powers and duties shall be construed as vested in the 2896
division of unclaimed funds. The division of unclaimed funds shall 2897
be under the control and supervision of the director of commerce 2898
and shall be administered by the superintendent of unclaimed 2899
funds. The superintendent of unclaimed funds shall exercise the 2900
powers and perform the functions and duties delegated to the 2901
superintendent by the director of commerce under section 121.07 2902
and Chapter 169. of the Revised Code, and as may otherwise be 2903
provided by law.2904

       (K) The department of commerce or a division of the 2905
department created by the Revised Code that is acting with 2906
authorization on the department's behalf may request from the 2907
bureau of criminal identification and investigation pursuant to 2908
section 109.572 of the Revised Code, or coordinate with 2909
appropriate federal, state, and local government agencies to 2910
accomplish, criminal records checks for the persons whose 2911
identities are required to be disclosed by an applicant for the 2912
issuance or transfer of a permit, license, certificate of 2913
registration, or certification issued or transferred by the 2914
department or division. At or before the time of making a request 2915
for a criminal records check, the department or division may 2916
require any person whose identity is required to be disclosed by 2917
an applicant for the issuance or transfer of such a license, 2918
permit, certificate of registration, or certification to submit to 2919
the department or division valid fingerprint impressions in a 2920
format and by any media or means acceptable to the bureau of 2921
criminal identification and investigation and, when applicable, 2922
the federal bureau of investigation. The department or division 2923
may cause the bureau of criminal identification and investigation 2924
to conduct a criminal records check through the federal bureau of 2925
investigation only if the person for whom the criminal records 2926
check would be conducted resides or works outside of this state or 2927
has resided or worked outside of this state during the preceding 2928
five years, or if a criminal records check conducted by the bureau 2929
of criminal identification and investigation within this state 2930
indicates that the person may have a criminal record outside of 2931
this state.2932

        In the case of a criminal records check under section 109.572 2933
of the Revised Code, the department or division shall forward to 2934
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the 2935
requisite form, fingerprint impressions, and fee described in 2936
division (C) of that section. When requested by the department or 2937
division in accordance with this section, the bureau of criminal 2938
identification and investigation shall request from the federal 2939
bureau of investigation any information it has with respect to the 2940
person who is the subject of the requested criminal records check 2941
and shall forward the requisite fingerprint impressions and 2942
information to the federal bureau of investigation for that 2943
criminal records check. After conducting a criminal records check 2944
or receiving the results of a criminal records check from the 2945
federal bureau of investigation, the bureau of criminal 2946
identification and investigation shall provide the results to the 2947
department or division.2948

        The department or division may require any person about whom 2949
a criminal records check is requested to pay to the department or 2950
division the amount necessary to cover the fee charged to the 2951
department or division by the bureau of criminal identification 2952
and investigation under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 2953
Revised Code, including, when applicable, any fee for a criminal 2954
records check conducted by the federal bureau of investigation.2955

       Sec. 121.083.  The superintendent of laborindustrial 2956
compliance in the department of commerce shall do all of the 2957
following:2958

       (A) Administer and enforce the general laws of this state 2959
pertaining to buildings, pressure piping, boilers, bedding, 2960
upholstered furniture, and stuffed toys, steam engineering, 2961
elevators, plumbing, licensed occupations regulated by the 2962
department, and travel agents, as they apply to plans review, 2963
inspection, code enforcement, testing, licensing, registration, 2964
and certification.2965

       (B) Exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated to 2966
the superintendent by the director of commerce under Chapters 2967
4109., 4111., and 4115. of the Revised Code.2968

       (C) Collect and collate statistics as are necessary.2969

       (D) Examine and license persons who desire to act as steam 2970
engineers, to operate steam boilers, and to act as inspectors of 2971
steam boilers, provide for the scope, conduct, and time of such 2972
examinations, provide for, regulate, and enforce the renewal and 2973
revocation of such licenses, inspect and examine steam boilers and 2974
make, publish, and enforce rules and orders for the construction, 2975
installation, inspection, and operation of steam boilers, and do, 2976
require, and enforce all things necessary to make such 2977
examination, inspection, and requirement efficient.2978

       (E) Rent and furnish offices as needed in cities in this 2979
state for the conduct of its affairs.2980

       (F) Oversee a chief of construction and compliance, a chief 2981
of operations and maintenance, a chief of licensing and 2982
certification, a chief of worker protection, and other designees 2983
appointed by the director to perform the duties described in this 2984
section.2985

       (G) Enforce the rules the board of building standards adopts 2986
pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 4104.43 of the Revised Code 2987
under the circumstances described in division (D) of that section.2988

       (H) Accept submissions, establish a fee for submissions, and 2989
review submissions of certified welding and brazing procedure 2990
specifications, procedure qualification records, and performance 2991
qualification records for building services piping as required by 2992
section 4104.44 of the Revised Code.2993

       Sec. 121.084.  (A) All moneys collected under sections 2994
3783.05, 3791.07, 4104.07, 4104.18, 4104.44, 4105.17, 4105.20, 2995
4169.03, 4171.04, and 5104.051 of the Revised Code, and any other 2996
moneys collected by the division of laborindustrial compliance2997
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the labor2998
industrial compliance operating fund, which is hereby created. The 2999
department of commerce shall use the moneys in the fund for paying 3000
the operating expenses of the division and the administrative 3001
assessment described in division (B) of this section.3002

       (B) The director of commerce, with the approval of the 3003
director of budget and management, shall prescribe procedures for 3004
assessing the laborindustrial compliance operating fund a 3005
proportionate share of the administrative costs of the department 3006
of commerce. The assessment shall be made in accordance with those 3007
procedures and be paid from the laborindustrial compliance3008
operating fund to the division of administration fund created in 3009
section 121.08 of the Revised Code.3010

       Sec. 121.35.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, 3011
the following state agencies shall collaborate to revise and make 3012
more uniform the eligibility standards and eligibility 3013
determination procedures of programs the state agencies 3014
administer:3015

       (1) The department of aging; 3016

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;3017

       (3) The department of development;3018

       (4) The department of developmental disabilities;3019

       (5) The department of education;3020

       (6) The department of health;3021

       (7) The department of job and family services;3022

       (8) The department of mental health;3023

       (9) The rehabilitation services commission.3024

       (B) In revising eligibility standards and eligibility 3025
determination procedures, a state agency shall not make any 3026
program's eligibility standards or eligibility determination 3027
procedures inconsistent with state or federal law. To the extent 3028
authorized by state and federal law, the revisions may provide for 3029
the state agencies to share administrative operations.3030

       Sec. 123.01.  (A) The department of administrative services, 3031
in addition to those powers enumerated in Chapters 124. and 125. 3032
of the Revised Code and provided elsewhere by law, shall exercise 3033
the following powers:3034

       (1) To prepare, or contract to be prepared, by licensed 3035
engineers or architects, surveys, general and detailed plans, 3036
specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost for any 3037
projects, improvements, or public buildings to be constructed by 3038
state agencies that may be authorized by legislative 3039
appropriations or any other funds made available therefor, 3040
provided that the construction of the projects, improvements, or 3041
public buildings is a statutory duty of the department. This 3042
section does not require the independent employment of an 3043
architect or engineer as provided by section 153.01 of the Revised 3044
Code in the cases to which that section applies nor affect or 3045
alter the existing powers of the director of transportation.3046

       (2) To have general supervision over the construction of any 3047
projects, improvements, or public buildings constructed for a 3048
state agency and over the inspection of materials previous to 3049
their incorporation into those projects, improvements, or 3050
buildings;3051

       (3) To make contracts for and supervise the construction of 3052
any projects and improvements or the construction and repair of 3053
buildings under the control of a state agency, except contracts 3054
for the repair of buildings under the management and control of 3055
the departments of public safety, job and family services, mental 3056
health, developmental disabilities, rehabilitation and correction, 3057
and youth services, the bureau of workers' compensation, the 3058
rehabilitation services commission, and boards of trustees of 3059
educational and benevolent institutions and except contracts for 3060
the construction of projects that do not require the issuance of a 3061
building permit or the issuance of a certificate of occupancy and 3062
that are necessary to remediate conditions at a hazardous waste 3063
facility, solid waste facility, or other location at which the 3064
director of environmental protection has reason to believe there 3065
is a substantial threat to public health or safety or the 3066
environment. These contracts shall be made and entered into by the 3067
directors of public safety, job and family services, mental 3068
health, developmental disabilities, rehabilitation and correction, 3069
and youth services, the administrator of workers' compensation, 3070
the rehabilitation services commission, the boards of trustees of 3071
such institutions, and the director of environmental protection, 3072
respectively. All such contracts may be in whole or in part on 3073
unit price basis of maximum estimated cost, with payment computed 3074
and made upon actual quantities or units.3075

       (4) To prepare and suggest comprehensive plans for the 3076
development of grounds and buildings under the control of a state 3077
agency;3078

       (5)(2) To acquire, by purchase, gift, devise, lease, or 3079
grant, all real estate required by a state agency, in the exercise 3080
of which power the department may exercise the power of eminent 3081
domain, in the manner provided by sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the 3082
Revised Code;3083

       (6) To make and provide all plans, specifications, and models 3084
for the construction and perfection of all systems of sewerage, 3085
drainage, and plumbing for the state in connection with buildings 3086
and grounds under the control of a state agency;3087

       (7)(3) To erect, supervise, and maintain all public monuments 3088
and memorials erected by the state, except where the supervision 3089
and maintenance is otherwise provided by law;3090

       (8)(4) To procure, by lease, storage accommodations for a 3091
state agency;3092

       (9)(5) To lease or grant easements or licenses for 3093
unproductive and unused lands or other property under the control 3094
of a state agency. Such leases, easements, or licenses shallmay3095
be granted to any person or entity, shall be for a period not to 3096
exceed fifteen years, and shall be executed for the state by the 3097
director of administrative services and the governor and shall be 3098
approved as to form by the attorney general, provided that leases, 3099
easements, or licenses may be granted to any county, township, 3100
municipal corporation, port authority, water or sewer district, 3101
school district, library district, health district, park district, 3102
soil and water conservation district, conservancy district, or 3103
other political subdivision or taxing district, or any agency of 3104
the United States government, for the exclusive use of that 3105
agency, political subdivision, or taxing district, without any 3106
right of sublease or assignment, for a period not to exceed 3107
fifteen years, and, provided that the director shall grant leases, 3108
easements, or licenses of university land for periods not to 3109
exceed twenty-five years for purposes approved by the respective 3110
university's board of trustees wherein the uses are compatible 3111
with the uses and needs of the university and may grant leases of 3112
university land for periods not to exceed forty years for purposes 3113
approved by the respective university's board of trustees pursuant 3114
to section 123.77123.17 of the Revised Code.3115

       (10)(6) To lease space for the use of a state agency;3116

       (11)(7) To have general supervision and care of the 3117
storerooms, offices, and buildings leased for the use of a state 3118
agency;3119

       (12)(8) To exercise general custodial care of all real 3120
property of the state;3121

       (13)(9) To assign and group together state offices in any 3122
city in the state and to establish, in cooperation with the state 3123
agencies involved, rules governing space requirements for office 3124
or storage use;3125

       (14)(10) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, 3126
pursuant to a contract providing for the construction thereof 3127
under a lease-purchase plan, buildings, structures, and other 3128
improvements for any public purpose, and, in conjunction 3129
therewith, to grant leases, easements, or licenses for lands under 3130
the control of a state agency for a period not to exceed forty 3131
years. The lease-purchase plan shall provide that at the end of 3132
the lease period, the buildings, structures, and related 3133
improvements, together with the land on which they are situated, 3134
shall become the property of the state without cost.3135

       (a) Whenever any building, structure, or other improvement is 3136
to be so leased by a state agency, the department shall retain 3137
either basic plans, specifications, bills of materials, and 3138
estimates of cost with sufficient detail to afford bidders all 3139
needed information or, alternatively, all of the following plans, 3140
details, bills of materials, and specifications:3141

       (i) Full and accurate plans suitable for the use of mechanics 3142
and other builders in the improvement;3143

       (ii) Details to scale and full sized, so drawn and 3144
represented as to be easily understood;3145

       (iii) Accurate bills showing the exact quantity of different 3146
kinds of material necessary to the construction;3147

       (iv) Definite and complete specifications of the work to be 3148
performed, together with such directions as will enable a 3149
competent mechanic or other builder to carry them out and afford 3150
bidders all needed information;3151

       (v) A full and accurate estimate of each item of expense and 3152
of the aggregate cost thereof.3153

       (b) The department shall give public notice, in such 3154
newspaper, in such form, and with such phraseology as the director 3155
of administrative services prescribes, published once each week 3156
for four consecutive weeks, of the time when and place where bids 3157
will be received for entering into an agreement to lease to a 3158
state agency a building, structure, or other improvement. The last 3159
publication shall be at least eight days preceding the day for 3160
opening the bids. The bids shall contain the terms upon which the 3161
builder would propose to lease the building, structure, or other 3162
improvement to the state agency. The form of the bid approved by 3163
the department shall be used, and a bid is invalid and shall not 3164
be considered unless that form is used without change, alteration, 3165
or addition. Before submitting bids pursuant to this section, any 3166
builder shall comply with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.3167

       (c) On the day and at the place named for receiving bids for 3168
entering into lease agreements with a state agency, the director 3169
of administrative services shall open the bids and shall publicly 3170
proceed immediately to tabulate the bids upon duplicate sheets. No 3171
lease agreement shall be entered into until the bureau of workers' 3172
compensation has certified that the person to be awarded the lease 3173
agreement has complied with Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, 3174
until, if the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a 3175
foreign corporation, the secretary of state has certified that the 3176
corporation is authorized to do business in this state, until, if 3177
the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a person 3178
nonresident of this state, the person has filed with the secretary 3179
of state a power of attorney designating the secretary of state as 3180
its agent for the purpose of accepting service of summons in any 3181
action brought under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, and until 3182
the agreement is submitted to the attorney general and the 3183
attorney general's approval is certified thereon. Within thirty 3184
days after the day on which the bids are received, the department 3185
shall investigate the bids received and shall determine that the 3186
bureau and the secretary of state have made the certifications 3187
required by this section of the builder who has submitted the 3188
lowest and best bid. Within ten days of the completion of the 3189
investigation of the bids, the department shall award the lease 3190
agreement to the builder who has submitted the lowest and best bid 3191
and who has been certified by the bureau and secretary of state as 3192
required by this section. If bidding for the lease agreement has 3193
been conducted upon the basis of basic plans, specifications, 3194
bills of materials, and estimates of costs, upon the award to the 3195
builder the department, or the builder with the approval of the 3196
department, shall appoint an architect or engineer licensed in 3197
this state to prepare such further detailed plans, specifications, 3198
and bills of materials as are required to construct the building, 3199
structure, or improvement. The department shall adopt such rules 3200
as are necessary to give effect to this section. The department 3201
may reject any bid. Where there is reason to believe there is 3202
collusion or combination among bidders, the bids of those 3203
concerned therein shall be rejected.3204

       (15)(11) To acquire by purchase, gift, devise, or grant and 3205
to transfer, lease, or otherwise dispose of all real property 3206
required to assist in the development of a conversion facility as 3207
defined in section 5709.30 of the Revised Code as that section 3208
existed before its repeal by Amended Substitute House Bill 95 of 3209
the 125th general assembly;3210

       (16)(12) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, 3211
notwithstanding any other division of this section, the 3212
state-owned property located at 408-450 East Town Street, 3213
Columbus, Ohio, formerly the state school for the deaf, to a 3214
developer in accordance with this section. "Developer," as used in 3215
this section, has the same meaning as in section 123.77 of the 3216
Revised Code.3217

       Such a lease shall be for the purpose of development of the 3218
land for use by senior citizens by constructing, altering, 3219
renovating, repairing, expanding, and improving the site as it 3220
existed on June 25, 1982. A developer desiring to lease the land 3221
shall prepare for submission to the department a plan for 3222
development. Plans shall include provisions for roads, sewers, 3223
water lines, waste disposal, water supply, and similar matters to 3224
meet the requirements of state and local laws. The plans shall 3225
also include provision for protection of the property by insurance 3226
or otherwise, and plans for financing the development, and shall 3227
set forth details of the developer's financial responsibility.3228

       The department may employ, as employees or consultants, 3229
persons needed to assist in reviewing the development plans. Those 3230
persons may include attorneys, financial experts, engineers, and 3231
other necessary experts. The department shall review the 3232
development plans and may enter into a lease if it finds all of 3233
the following:3234

       (a) The best interests of the state will be promoted by 3235
entering into a lease with the developer;3236

       (b) The development plans are satisfactory;3237

       (c) The developer has established the developer's financial 3238
responsibility and satisfactory plans for financing the 3239
development.3240

       The lease shall contain a provision that construction or 3241
renovation of the buildings, roads, structures, and other 3242
necessary facilities shall begin within one year after the date of 3243
the lease and shall proceed according to a schedule agreed to 3244
between the department and the developer or the lease will be 3245
terminated. The lease shall contain such conditions and 3246
stipulations as the director considers necessary to preserve the 3247
best interest of the state. Moneys received by the state pursuant 3248
to this lease shall be paid into the general revenue fund. The 3249
lease shall provide that at the end of the lease period the 3250
buildings, structures, and related improvements shall become the 3251
property of the state without cost.3252

       (17)(13) To manage the use of space owned and controlled by 3253
the department, including space in property under the jurisdiction 3254
of the Ohio building authority, by doing all of the following:3255

       (a) Biennially implementing, by state agency location, a 3256
census of agency employees assigned space;3257

        (b) Periodically in the discretion of the director of 3258
administrative services:3259

       (i) Requiring each state agency to categorize the use of 3260
space allotted to the agency between office space, common areas, 3261
storage space, and other uses, and to report its findings to the 3262
department;3263

        (ii) Creating and updating a master space utilization plan 3264
for all space allotted to state agencies. The plan shall 3265
incorporate space utilization metrics.3266

        (iii) Conducting a cost-benefit analysis to determine the 3267
effectiveness of state-owned buildings;3268

        (iv) Assessing the alternatives associated with consolidating 3269
the commercial leases for buildings located in Columbus.3270

        (c) Commissioning a comprehensive space utilization and 3271
capacity study in order to determine the feasibility of 3272
consolidating existing commercially leased space used by state 3273
agencies into a new state-owned facility.3274

       (14) To adopt rules to ensure that energy efficiency and 3275
conservation is considered in the purchase of products and 3276
equipment, except motor vehicles, by any state agency, department, 3277
division, bureau, office, unit, board, commission, authority, 3278
quasi-governmental entity, or institution. The department may 3279
require minimum energy efficiency standards for purchased products 3280
and equipment based on federal testing and labeling if available 3281
or on standards developed by the department. When possible, the 3282
rules shall apply to the competitive selection of energy consuming 3283
systems, components, and equipment under Chapter 125. of the 3284
Revised Code.3285

       (15) To ensure energy efficient and energy conserving 3286
purchasing practices by doing all of the following:3287

       (a) Identifying available energy efficiency and conservation 3288
opportunities;3289

       (b) Providing for interchange of information among purchasing 3290
agencies;3291

       (c) Identifying laws, policies, rules, and procedures that 3292
should be modified;3293

       (d) Monitoring experience with and the cost-effectiveness of 3294
this state's purchase and use of motor vehicles and of major 3295
energy-consuming systems, components, equipment, and products 3296
having a significant impact on energy consumption by the 3297
government;3298

       (e) Providing technical assistance and training to state 3299
employees involved in the purchasing process;3300

       (f) Working with the department of development to make 3301
recommendations regarding planning and implementation of 3302
purchasing policies and procedures that are supportive of energy 3303
efficiency and conservation.3304

       (16) To require all state agencies, departments, divisions, 3305
bureaus, offices, units, commissions, boards, authorities, 3306
quasi-governmental entities, institutions, and state institutions 3307
of higher education to implement procedures to ensure that all of 3308
the passenger automobiles they acquire in each fiscal year, except 3309
for those passenger automobiles acquired for use in law 3310
enforcement or emergency rescue work, achieve a fleet average fuel 3311
economy of not less than the fleet average fuel economy for that 3312
fiscal year as the department shall prescribe by rule. The 3313
department shall adopt the rule prior to the beginning of the 3314
fiscal year, in accordance with the average fuel economy standards 3315
established by federal law for passenger automobiles manufactured 3316
during the model year that begins during the fiscal year.3317

       Each state agency, department, division, bureau, office, 3318
unit, commission, board, authority, quasi-governmental entity, 3319
institution, and state institution of higher education shall 3320
determine its fleet average fuel economy by dividing the total 3321
number of passenger vehicles acquired during the fiscal year, 3322
except for those passenger vehicles acquired for use in law 3323
enforcement or emergency rescue work, by a sum of terms, each of 3324
which is a fraction created by dividing the number of passenger 3325
vehicles of a given make, model, and year, except for passenger 3326
vehicles acquired for use in law enforcement or emergency rescue 3327
work, acquired during the fiscal year by the fuel economy measured 3328
by the administrator of the United States environmental protection 3329
agency, for the given make, model, and year of vehicle, that 3330
constitutes an average fuel economy for combined city and highway 3331
driving.3332

       As used in division (A)(16) of this section, "acquired" means 3333
leased for a period of sixty continuous days or more, or 3334
purchased.3335

       (B) This section and section 125.02 of the Revised Code shall 3336
not interfere with any of the following:3337

       (1) The power of the adjutant general to purchase military 3338
supplies, or with the custody of the adjutant general of property 3339
leased, purchased, or constructed by the state and used for 3340
military purposes, or with the functions of the adjutant general 3341
as director of state armories;3342

       (2) The power of the director of transportation in acquiring 3343
rights-of-way for the state highway system, or the leasing of 3344
lands for division or resident district offices, or the leasing of 3345
lands or buildings required in the maintenance operations of the 3346
department of transportation, or the purchase of real property for 3347
garage sites or division or resident district offices, or in 3348
preparing plans and specifications for and constructing such 3349
buildings as the director may require in the administration of the 3350
department;3351

       (3) The power of the director of public safety and the 3352
registrar of motor vehicles to purchase or lease real property and 3353
buildings to be used solely as locations to which a deputy 3354
registrar is assigned pursuant to division (B) of section 4507.011 3355
of the Revised Code and from which the deputy registrar is to 3356
conduct the deputy registrar's business, the power of the director 3357
of public safety to purchase or lease real property and buildings 3358
to be used as locations for division or district offices as 3359
required in the maintenance of operations of the department of 3360
public safety, and the power of the superintendent of the state 3361
highway patrol in the purchase or leasing of real property and 3362
buildings needed by the patrol, to negotiate the sale of real 3363
property owned by the patrol, to rent or lease real property owned 3364
or leased by the patrol, and to make or cause to be made repairs 3365
to all property owned or under the control of the patrol;3366

       (4) The power of the division of liquor control in the 3367
leasing or purchasing of retail outlets and warehouse facilities 3368
for the use of the division;3369

       (5) The power of the director of development to enter into 3370
leases of real property, buildings, and office space to be used 3371
solely as locations for the state's foreign offices to carry out 3372
the purposes of section 122.05 of the Revised Code;3373

       (6) The power of the director of environmental protection to 3374
enter into environmental covenants, to grant and accept easements, 3375
or to sell property pursuant to division (G) of section 3745.01 of 3376
the Revised Code.3377

       (C) Purchases for, and the custody and repair of, buildings 3378
under the management and control of the capitol square review and 3379
advisory board, the rehabilitation services commission, the bureau 3380
of workers' compensation, or the departments of public safety, job 3381
and family services, mental health, developmental disabilities, 3382
and rehabilitation and correction; buildings of educational and 3383
benevolent institutions under the management and control of boards 3384
of trustees; and purchases or leases for, and the custody and 3385
repair of, office space used for the purposes of the joint 3386
legislative ethics committee are not subject to the control and 3387
jurisdiction of the department of administrative services.3388

       If the joint legislative ethics committee so requests, the 3389
committee and the director of administrative services may enter 3390
into a contract under which the department of administrative 3391
services agrees to perform any services requested by the committee 3392
that the department is authorized under this section to perform.3393

       (D) Any instrument by which real property is acquired 3394
pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state 3395
that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in 3396
section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.3397

       Sec. 123.04.        Sec. 123.02.  The director of administrative services 3398
shall be appointed superintendent of public works and shall have 3399
the care and control of the public works of the state and shall 3400
protect, maintain, and keep them in repair.3401

       Subject to the approval of the governor, the director may 3402
purchase on behalf of the state such real or personal property, 3403
rights, or privileges as are necessary, in the director's 3404
judgment, to acquire in the maintenance of the public works or 3405
their improvement.3406

       Any instrument by which the state or an agency of the state 3407
acquires real property pursuant to this section shall identify the 3408
agency of the state that has the use and benefit of the real 3409
property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.3410

       Sec. 123.07.        Sec. 123.03.  The director of administrative services 3411
may maintain an action in the name of the state for violations of 3412
any law relating to the public works for an injury to property 3413
pertaining to the public works, or for any other cause which is 3414
necessary in the performance of histhe director's duties.3415

       Sec. 123.09.        Sec. 123.04.  The director of administrative services 3416
shall have supervision of the public works of the state and shall 3417
make such rules and regulations for the improvement, maintenance,3418
and operation of the public works as are necessary.3419

       Sec. 123.10.        Sec. 123.05. (A) The director of administrative 3420
services shall regulate the rate of tolls to be collected on the 3421
public works of the state, and shall fix all rentals and collect 3422
all tolls, rents, fines, commissions, fees, and other revenues 3423
arising from any source in the public works, including the sale,3424
construction, purchase, or rental of property, except that the 3425
director shall not collect a commission or fee from a real estate 3426
broker or the private owner when real property is leased or rented 3427
to the state.3428

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the state 3429
architect's fund which shall consist of money received by the 3430
department of administrative services under division (A) of this 3431
section, fees paid under section 123.17 of the Revised Code, 3432
transfers of money to the fund authorized by the general assembly, 3433
and such amount of the investment earnings of the administrative 3434
building fund created in division (F) of section 154.24 of the 3435
Revised Code as the director of budget and management determines 3436
to be appropriate and in excess of the amounts required to meet 3437
estimated federal arbitrage rebate requirements. Money in the fund 3438
shall be used by the department of administrative services for the 3439
following purposes:3440

       (1) To pay personnel and other administrative expenses of the 3441
department;3442

       (2) To pay the cost of conducting evaluations of public 3443
works;3444

       (3) To pay the cost of building design specifications;3445

       (4) To pay the cost of providing project management services;3446

       (5) To pay the cost of operating the local administration 3447
competency certification program prescribed by section 123.17 of 3448
the Revised Code;3449

       (6) Any other purposes that the director of administrative 3450
services determines to be necessary for the department to execute 3451
its duties under this chapter.3452

       Sec. 123.024.        Sec. 123.06.  (A) The department of administrative 3453
services shall assign and make available, at state expense, 3454
suitable office space in state-owned facilities to accommodate the 3455
office operations of the state headquarters of both of the 3456
following:3457

       (1) All veterans organizations in this state that either are 3458
incorporated and issued a charter by the congress of the United 3459
States or are recognized by the United States department of 3460
veterans affairs;3461

       (2) The auxiliary organizations of veterans organizations 3462
described in division (A)(1) of this section.3463

       (B) The department may situate office space for each 3464
auxiliary organization of a veterans organization with or near the 3465
office space of that veterans organization.3466

       Sec. 123.11.        Sec. 123.07.  Each state agency and any county, 3467
township, or municipal corporation owning, leasing, or controlling 3468
the operation of parking spaces for use by its employees may 3469
provide preferential parking for those vehicles used in carpools, 3470
vanpools, and buspools. The department of administrative services 3471
shall coordinate the efforts of the state agencies in providing 3472
preferential parking for such vehicles.3473

       Sec. 123.13.        Sec. 123.08.  The director of administrative services 3474
shall appoint such foremanforepersons, patrolmenpatrol officers, 3475
lock tenders, inspectors, engineers, and all other employees as 3476
are necessary for the improvement, maintenance, and operation of 3477
the public works. They shall be assigned to duty under the 3478
supervision of the director, under rules and regulations 3479
prescribed by himthe director. Any such employee, when deemed 3480
necessary by the director, shall give proper bond to the state, 3481
conditioned for the faithful performance of histhe employee's3482
duties. Such bonds may, in the discretion of the director, be 3483
individual, schedule, or blanket bonds.3484

       Sec. 123.14.        Sec. 123.09.  All claims against the state for the 3485
improvement, repair, maintenance, and operation of the public 3486
works of Ohio, including salary and expenses of all employees 3487
engaged in such work, shall be paid upon the order of the director 3488
of administrative services.3489

       Sec. 123.15.        Sec. 123.10.  (A) As used in this section and section 3490
123.21123.11 of the Revised Code, "public exigency" means an 3491
injury or obstruction that occurs in any public works of the state 3492
maintained by the director of administrative services and that 3493
materially impairs its immediate use or places in jeopardy 3494
property adjacent to it; an immediate danger of such an injury or 3495
obstruction; or an injury or obstruction, or an immediate danger 3496
of an injury or obstruction, that occurs during the process of 3497
construction ofin any public works of the state maintained by the 3498
director of administrative services and that materially impairs 3499
its immediate use or places in jeopardy property adjacent to it.3500

       (B) TheWhen a declaration of public exigency is issued 3501
pursuant to division (C) of this section, the director of 3502
administrative services may request the Ohio facilities 3503
construction commission to enter into contracts with proper 3504
persons for the performance of labor, the furnishing of materials, 3505
or the construction of any structures and buildings necessary to 3506
the maintenance, control, and management of the public works of 3507
the state or any part of those public works. Except as provided 3508
in division (C) of this section for public exigencies, the 3509
director shall advertise, award, and administer thoseAny3510
contracts in accordance with the requirementsawarded for the work 3511
performed pursuant to the declaration of a public exigency may be 3512
awarded without competitive bidding or selection as set forth in 3513
Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.3514

       (C) The director of administrative services may issue a 3515
declaration of a public exigency on the director's own initiative 3516
or upon the request of the director of any state agency. The 3517
director's declaration shall identify the specific injury, 3518
obstruction, or danger that is the subject of the declaration and 3519
shall set forth a dollar limitation for the repair, removal, or 3520
prevention of that exigency under the declaration.3521

       Before any project to repair, remove, or prevent a public 3522
exigency under the director's declaration may begin, the director 3523
shall send notice of the project, in writing, to the director of 3524
budget and management and to the members of the controlling board. 3525
That notice shall detail the project to be undertaken to address 3526
the public exigency and shall include a copy of the director's 3527
declaration that establishes the monetary limitations on that 3528
project.3529

       Sec. 123.21.        Sec. 123.11.  When a public exigency, as defined in 3530
division (A) of section 123.15123.10 of the Revised Code, exists, 3531
the director of administrative services may take possession of 3532
lands and use them, or materials and other property necessary for 3533
the maintenance, protection, or repair of the public works, in 3534
accordance with sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code.3535

       Sec. 123.46.        Sec. 123.12.  No land lease or sale of state lands 3536
shall be made by the director of administrative services except 3537
upon the written approval of the governor and the attorney 3538
general.3539

       Sec. 123.47.        Sec. 123.13.  Except as otherwise provided by law, the 3540
director of administrative services shall have the custody and 3541
control of the books, records, papers, surveys, maps, plats, and 3542
documents that pertain to any of the public works of this state.3543

       Sec. 123.48.        Sec. 123.14.  The director of administrative services 3544
shall make an annual report to the governor containing a statement 3545
of the expenses of the public works under histhe director's3546
supervision during the preceding year, setting forth an account of 3547
moneys expended on each of the public works during the year, and 3548
such other information and records as hethe director deems 3549
proper. Such report shall contain a statement of the moneys 3550
received from all sources and an estimate of the appropriations 3551
necessary to maintain the public works and keep them in repair. 3552
The report shall also contain a list of all persons regularly 3553
employed, together with the salary, compensation, or allowance 3554
paid each.3555

       HeThe director shall further from time to time when hethe 3556
director deems it necessary, or when called upon by the governor, 3557
to do so, make such other reports as are proper, touching on the 3558
general condition and welfare of the public works and the 3559
drainage, leaseholds, and water powers incident thereto.3560

       Sec. 123.49.        Sec. 123.15.  The department of administrative 3561
services may adopt, amend, and rescind rules pertaining to lands 3562
under the supervision of the department in accordance with Chapter 3563
119. of the Revised Code.3564

       Sec. 123.152. (A) As used in this section, "EDGE business 3565
enterprise" means a sole proprietorship, association, partnership, 3566
corporation, limited liability corporation, or joint venture 3567
certified as a participant in the encouraging diversity, growth, 3568
and equity program by the director of administrative services 3569
under this section of the Revised Code.3570

       (B) The director of administrative services shall establish a 3571
business assistance program known as the encouraging diversity, 3572
growth, and equity program and shall adopt rules in accordance 3573
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to administer the program 3574
that do all of the following:3575

       (1) Establish procedures by which a sole proprietorship, 3576
association, partnership, corporation, limited liability 3577
corporation, or joint venture may apply for certification as an 3578
EDGE business enterprise;3579

       (2) Except as provided in division (B)(14) of this section, 3580
establish agency procurement goals for contracting with EDGE 3581
business enterprises in the award of contracts under Chapters 3582
123., 125., and 153. of the Revised Code based on the availability 3583
of eligible program participants by region or geographic area, as 3584
determined by the director, and by standard industrial code or 3585
equivalent code classification. 3586

       (a) Goals established under division (B)(2) of this section 3587
shall be based on a percentage level of participation and a 3588
percentage of contractor availability. 3589

       (b) Goals established under division (B)(2) of this section 3590
shall be applied at the contract level, relative to an overall 3591
dollar goal for each state agency, in accordance with the 3592
following certification categories: construction, architecture, 3593
and engineering; professional services; goods and services; and 3594
information technology services.3595

       (3) Establish a system of certifying EDGE business 3596
enterprises based on a requirement that the business owner or 3597
owners show both social and economic disadvantage based on the 3598
following, as determined to be sufficient by the director:3599

       (a) Relative wealth of the business seeking certification as 3600
well as the personal wealth of the owner or owners of the 3601
business;3602

       (b) Social disadvantage based on any of the following:3603

       (i) A rebuttable presumption when the business owner or 3604
owners demonstrate membership in a racial minority group or show 3605
personal disadvantage due to color, ethnic origin, gender, 3606
physical disability, long-term residence in an environment 3607
isolated from the mainstream of American society, location in an 3608
area of high unemployment;3609

       (ii) Some other demonstration of personal disadvantage not 3610
common to other small businesses;3611

       (iii) By business location in a qualified census tract.3612

       (c) Economic disadvantage based on economic and business size 3613
thresholds and eligibility criteria designed to stimulate economic 3614
development through contract awards to businesses located in 3615
qualified census tracts.3616

       (4) Establish standards to determine when an EDGE business 3617
enterprise no longer qualifies for EDGE business enterprise 3618
certification;3619

       (5) Develop a process for evaluating and adjusting goals 3620
established by this section to determine what adjustments are 3621
necessary to achieve participation goals established by the 3622
director;3623

       (6) Establish a point system or comparable system to evaluate 3624
bid proposals to encourage EDGE business enterprises to 3625
participate in the procurement of professional design and 3626
information technology services;3627

       (7) Establish a system to track data and analyze each 3628
certification category established under division (B)(2)(b) of 3629
this section;3630

       (8) Establish a process to mediate complaints and to review 3631
EDGE business enterprise certification appeals;3632

       (9) Implement an outreach program to educate potential 3633
participants about the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity 3634
program;3635

       (10) Establish a system to assist state agencies in 3636
identifying and utilizing EDGE business enterprises in their 3637
contracting processes;3638

       (11) Implement a system of self-reporting by EDGE business 3639
enterprises as well as an on-site inspection process to validate 3640
the qualifications of an EDGE business enterprise;3641

       (12) Establish a waiver mechanism to waive program goals or 3642
participation requirements for those companies that, despite their 3643
best-documented efforts, are unable to contract with certified 3644
EDGE business enterprises;3645

       (13) Establish a process for monitoring overall program 3646
compliance in which equal employment opportunity officers 3647
primarily are responsible for monitoring their respective 3648
agencies;3649

       (14) Establish guidelines for state universities as defined 3650
in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code and the Ohio school3651
facilities construction commission created in section 3318.303652
123.20 of the Revised Code for awarding contracts pursuant to 3653
Chapters 153., 3318., and 3345. of the Revised Code to allow the 3654
universities and commission to establish agency procurement goals 3655
for contracting with EDGE business enterprises.3656

       (C) Business and personal financial information and trade 3657
secrets submitted by encouraging diversity, growth, and equity 3658
program applicants to the director pursuant to this section are 3659
not public records for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised 3660
Code, unless the director presents the financial information or 3661
trade secrets at a public hearing or public proceeding regarding 3662
the applicant's eligibility to participate in the program.3663

       Sec. 123.77.        Sec. 123.17.  The department of administrative 3664
services may lease land belonging to or under the control or 3665
jurisdiction of a state university, not required nor to be 3666
required for use of the university, to a developer in accordance 3667
with this section. "Developer," as used in this section, means a 3668
person, partnership, association, corporation, or community 3669
improvement corporation established pursuant to Chapter 1724. of 3670
the Revised Code who or which submits a development plan to the 3671
department as provided in this section and requests the department 3672
to enter into a lease.3673

       Such a lease of university land shall be for the purpose of 3674
development of the land by establishing, constructing, altering, 3675
repairing, expanding, and improving industrial, distribution, 3676
commercial, or research facilities. A developer desiring to lease 3677
land of the university for such development shall prepare and 3678
submit to the department of administrative services and to the 3679
board of trustees of the university a plan for such development. 3680
Plans shall include provisions for roads, streets, sewers, water 3681
lines, waste disposal, water supply, and similar matters to meet 3682
the requirements of state and local laws. The plans shall also 3683
include provision for protection of the property by insurance or 3684
otherwise and plans for financing the development, and shall set 3685
forth details of the developer's financial responsibility.3686

       The department of administrative services may employ as 3687
employees or consultants, persons needed to assist it in reviewing 3688
the development plans. Such persons may include attorneys, 3689
financial experts, engineers, and other necessary experts. The 3690
department of administrative services shall review the development 3691
plans and may enter into a lease if it finds that:3692

       (A) The best interests of the university will be promoted by 3693
entering into a lease with the developer.3694

       (B) The development plans are satisfactory.3695

       (C) The developer has established histhe developer's3696
financial responsibility and satisfactory plans for financing the 3697
development.3698

       (D) The university board of trustees approves the lease.3699

       A lease may be entered into pursuant to this section for an 3700
annual rent agreed to between the department and the developer for 3701
a maximum term of forty years and may be renewed for a like or 3702
lesser term. The lease shall contain a provision that construction 3703
of buildings, structures, roads, and other necessary facilities 3704
shall begin within one year after the date of the lease and shall 3705
proceed according to a schedule agreed to between the department 3706
and the developer or the lease will be terminated. Moneys received 3707
by the state pursuant to such leases shall be paid into the state 3708
treasury as an addition to the appropriation made to the 3709
university which has control or jurisdiction of the land or to 3710
which the land belongs.3711

       Sec. 123.08.        Sec. 123.18.  The director of administrative services 3712
may administer oaths to persons required by law to file affidavits 3713
or statements in the department of administrative services and to 3714
witnesses who are examined in matters pertaining to the 3715
administration of the public works.3716

       Sec. 123.20.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio facilities 3717
construction commission. The commission shall administer the 3718
design and construction of improvements to public facilities of 3719
the state in accordance with this chapter and other provisions of 3720
the Revised Code.3721

       The commission is a body corporate and politic, an agency of 3722
state government and an instrumentality of the state, performing 3723
essential governmental functions of this state. The carrying out 3724
of the purposes and the exercise by the commission of its powers 3725
are essential public functions and public purposes of the state. 3726
The commission may, in its own name, sue and be sued, enter into 3727
contracts, and perform all the powers and duties given to it by 3728
the Revised Code, but it does not have and shall not exercise the 3729
power of eminent domain. In its discretion and as it determines 3730
appropriate, the commission may delegate to any of its members, 3731
executive director, or other employees any of the commission's 3732
powers and duties to carry out its functions.3733

       (B) The commission shall consist of three members: the 3734
director of the office of budget and management and the director 3735
of administrative services, or their designees, and a member whom 3736
the governor shall appoint.3737

       Members of the commission shall serve without compensation.3738

       Within sixty days after the effective date of this section, 3739
the commission shall meet and organize by electing voting members 3740
as the chairperson and vice-chairperson of the commission, who 3741
shall hold their offices until the next organizational meeting of 3742
the commission. Organizational meetings of the commission shall be 3743
held at the first meeting of each calendar year. At each 3744
organizational meeting, the commission shall elect from among its 3745
voting members a chairperson and vice-chairperson, who shall serve 3746
until the next annual organizational meeting. The commission shall 3747
adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the 3748
conduct of its internal business and shall keep a journal of its 3749
proceedings. Including the organizational meeting, the commission 3750
shall meet at least once each calendar year.3751

       Two members of the commission constitute a quorum, and the 3752
affirmative vote of two members is necessary for approval of any 3753
action taken by the commission. A vacancy in the membership of the 3754
commission does not impair a quorum from exercising all the rights 3755
and performing all the duties of the commission. Meetings of the 3756
commission may be held anywhere in the state and shall be held in 3757
compliance with section 121.22 of the Revised Code.3758

       (C) Within sixty days after the effective date of this 3759
section, the governor shall appoint a member to the commission. 3760
The initial appointment shall be for a term ending three years 3761
after the effective date of this section, with subsequent terms 3762
ending three years after they begin, on the same day of the same 3763
month as the initial term. 3764

       A vacancy for the member appointed by the governor shall be 3765
filled in the same manner as provided for the original 3766
appointment. The appointed member shall hold office for the 3767
remainder of the term for which the vacancy existed. After the 3768
expiration of the term, the appointed member shall continue in 3769
office for a period of sixty days or until the appointed member's 3770
successor takes office, whichever period is shorter.3771

       (D) The commission shall file an annual report of its 3772
activities and finances with the governor, speaker of the house of 3773
representatives, president of the senate, and chairpersons of the 3774
house and senate finance committees.3775

       (E) The commission shall be exempt from the requirements of 3776
sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code.3777

       Sec. 123.201.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 3778
the Ohio facilities construction commission fund, consisting of 3779
transfers of moneys authorized by the general assembly and 3780
revenues received by the Ohio facilities construction commission 3781
under section 123.21 of the Revised Code. Investment earnings on 3782
moneys in the fund shall be credited to the fund. Moneys in the 3783
fund may be used by the commission, in performing its duties under 3784
this chapter, to pay personnel and other administrative expenses, 3785
to pay the cost of preparing building design specifications, to 3786
pay the cost of providing project management services, and for 3787
other purposes determined by the commission to be necessary to 3788
fulfill its duties under this chapter.3789

       Sec. 123.21.  (A) The Ohio facilities construction commission 3790
may perform any act and ensure the performance of any function 3791
necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of, and 3792
exercise the powers granted under this chapter or any other 3793
provision of the Revised Code, including any of the following:3794

       (1) Prepare, or contract to be prepared, by licensed 3795
engineers or architects, surveys, general and detailed plans, 3796
specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost for any 3797
projects, improvements, or public buildings to be constructed by 3798
state agencies that may be authorized by legislative 3799
appropriations or any other funds made available therefor, 3800
provided that the construction of the projects, improvements, or 3801
public buildings is a statutory duty of the commission. This 3802
section does not require the independent employment of an 3803
architect or engineer as provided by section 153.01 of the Revised 3804
Code in the cases to which section 153.01 of the Revised Code 3805
applies. This section does not affect or alter the existing powers 3806
of the director of transportation, the director of public safety, 3807
or the superintendent of the state highway patrol.3808

       (2) Have general supervision over the construction of any 3809
projects, improvements, or public buildings constructed for a 3810
state agency and over the inspection of materials prior to their 3811
incorporation into those projects, improvements, or buildings.3812

       (3) Make contracts for and supervise the design and 3813
construction of any projects and improvements or the construction 3814
and repair of buildings under the control of a state agency. All 3815
such contracts may be based in whole or in part on the unit price 3816
or maximum estimated cost, with payment computed and made upon 3817
actual quantities or units.3818

       (4) Adopt, amend, and rescind rules pertaining to the 3819
administration of the construction of the public works of the 3820
state as required by law, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 3821
Revised Code.3822

       (5) Contract with, retain the services of, or designate, and 3823
fix the compensation of, such agents, accountants, consultants, 3824
advisers, and other independent contractors as may be necessary or 3825
desirable to carry out the programs authorized under this chapter, 3826
or authorize the executive director to perform such powers and 3827
duties.3828

       (6) Receive and accept any gifts, grants, donations, and 3829
pledges, and receipts therefrom, to be used for the programs 3830
authorized under this chapter.3831

       (7) Make and enter into all contracts, commitments, and 3832
agreements, and execute all instruments, necessary or incidental 3833
to the performance of its duties and the execution of its rights 3834
and powers under this chapter, or authorize the executive director 3835
to perform such powers and duties.3836

       (8) Debar a contractor as provided in section 153.02 of the 3837
Revised Code.3838

       (B) The commission shall appoint and fix the compensation of 3839
an executive director who shall serve at the pleasure of the 3840
commission. The executive director shall exercise all powers that 3841
the commission possesses, supervise the operations of the 3842
commission, and perform such other duties as delegated by the 3843
commission. The executive director also shall employ and fix the 3844
compensation of such employees as will facilitate the activities 3845
and purposes of the commission, who shall serve at the pleasure of 3846
the executive director. The employees of the commission are exempt 3847
from Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and are not considered 3848
public employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised 3849
Code. Any agreement entered into prior to July 1, 2012, between 3850
the office of collective bargaining and the exclusive 3851
representative for employees of the commission is binding and 3852
shall continue to have effect.3853

       (C) The attorney general shall serve as the legal 3854
representative for the commission and may appoint other counsel as 3855
necessary for that purpose in accordance with section 109.07 of 3856
the Revised Code.3857

       Sec. 123.011.        Sec. 123.22.  (A) As used in this section:3858

       (1) "Construct" includes reconstruct, improve, renovate, 3859
enlarge, or otherwise alter.3860

        (2) "Energy consumption analysis" means the evaluation of all 3861
energy consuming systems, components, and equipment by demand and 3862
type of energy, including the internal energy load imposed on a 3863
facility by its occupants and the external energy load imposed by 3864
climatic conditions.3865

       (3) "Energy performance index" means a number describing the 3866
energy requirements of a facility per square foot of floor space 3867
or per cubic foot of occupied volume as appropriate under defined 3868
internal and external ambient conditions over an entire seasonal 3869
cycle.3870

       (4) "Facility" means a building or other structure, or part 3871
of a building or other structure, that includes provision for a 3872
heating, refrigeration, ventilation, cooling, lighting, hot water, 3873
or other major energy consuming system, component, or equipment.3874

       (5) "Life-cycle cost analysis" means a general approach to 3875
economic evaluation that takes into account all dollar costs 3876
related to owning, operating, maintaining, and ultimately 3877
disposing of a project over the appropriate study period.3878

       (6) "Political subdivision" means a county, township, 3879
municipal corporation, board of education of any school district, 3880
or any other body corporate and politic that is responsible for 3881
government activities in a geographic area smaller than that of 3882
the state.3883

       (7) "State funded" means funded in whole or in part through 3884
appropriation by the general assembly or through the use of any 3885
guarantee provided by this state.3886

       (8) "State institution of higher education" has the same 3887
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.3888

        (B) There is hereby created within the department of 3889
administrative services the office of energy services. The office 3890
shall be under the supervision of a manager, who shall be 3891
appointed by the director of administrative services. The director 3892
shall assign to the office such number of employees and furnish 3893
such equipment and supplies as are necessary for the performance 3894
of the office's duties.3895

       The officeOhio facilities construction commission shall 3896
develop energy efficiency and conservation programs in each of the 3897
following areas:3898

       (1) Newfor new construction design and review;3899

       (2) Existingand for existing building audit and retrofit;3900

       (3) Energy efficient procurement;3901

       (4) Alternative fuel vehicles.3902

       The officecommission may accept and administer grants from 3903
public and private sources for carrying out any of its duties 3904
under this section.3905

       (C) No state agency, department, division, bureau, office, 3906
unit, board, commission, authority, quasi-governmental entity, or 3907
institution, including those agencies otherwise excluded from the 3908
jurisdiction of the department under division (A)(3) of section 3909
123.01 of the Revised Code, shall lease, construct, or cause to be 3910
leased or constructed, within the limits prescribed in this 3911
section, a state-funded facility, without a proper life-cycle cost 3912
analysis or, in the case of a lease, an energy consumption 3913
analysis, as computed or prepared by a qualified architect or 3914
engineer in accordance with the rules required by division (D) of 3915
this section.3916

       Construction shall proceed only upon the disclosure to the 3917
office, for the facility chosen, of the life-cycle costs as 3918
determined in this section and the capitalization of the initial 3919
construction costs of the building. The results of life-cycle cost 3920
analysis shall be a primary consideration in the selection of a 3921
building design. That analysis shall be required only for 3922
construction of buildings with an area of five thousand square 3923
feet or greater. An energy consumption analysis for the term of a 3924
proposed lease shall be required only for the leasing of an area 3925
of twenty thousand square feet or greater within a given building 3926
boundary. That analysis shall be a primary consideration in the 3927
selection of a facility to be leased.3928

       Nothing in this section shall deprive or limit any state 3929
agency that has review authority over design, construction, or 3930
leasing plans from requiring a life-cycle cost analysis or energy 3931
consumption analysis.3932

       (D) For the purposes of assisting the departmentcommission3933
in its responsibility for state-funded facilities pursuant to 3934
section 123.01123.21 of the Revised Code and of cost-effectively 3935
reducing the energy consumption of those and any other 3936
state-funded facilities, thereby promoting fiscal, economic, and 3937
environmental benefits to this state, the officecommission shall 3938
promulgate rules specifying cost-effective, energy efficiency and 3939
conservation standards that may govern the lease, design, 3940
construction, operation, and maintenance of all state-funded 3941
facilities, except facilities of state institutions of higher 3942
education or facilities operated by a political subdivision. The 3943
office of energy efficiency in the department of development shall 3944
cooperate in providing information and technical expertise to the 3945
office of energy services to ensure promulgation of rules of 3946
maximum effectiveness. The standards prescribed by rules 3947
promulgated under this division may draw from or incorporate, by 3948
reference or otherwise and in whole or in part, standards already 3949
developed or implemented by any competent, public or private 3950
standards organization or program. The rules also may include any 3951
of the following:3952

        (1) Specifications for a life-cycle cost analysis that shall 3953
determine, for the economic life of such state-funded facility, 3954
the reasonably expected costs of facility ownership, operation, 3955
and maintenance including labor and materials. Life-cycle cost may 3956
be expressed as an annual cost for each year of the facility's 3957
use. 3958

        A life-cycle cost analysis additionally may include an energy 3959
consumption analysis that conforms to division (D)(2) of this 3960
section.3961

        (2) Specifications for an energy consumption analysis of the 3962
facility's heating, refrigeration, ventilation, cooling, lighting, 3963
hot water, and other major energy consuming systems, components, 3964
and equipment. 3965

        A life-cycle cost analysis and energy consumption analysis 3966
shall be based on the best currently available methods of 3967
analysis, such as those of the national institute of standards and 3968
technology, the United States department of energy or other 3969
federal agencies, professional societies, and directions developed 3970
by the department.3971

        (3) Specifications for energy performance indices, to be used 3972
to audit and evaluate competing design proposals submitted to the 3973
state.3974

        (4) A requirement that, not later than two years after April 3975
6, 2007, each state-funded facility, except a facility of a state 3976
institution of higher education or a facility operated by a 3977
political subdivision, is managed by at least one building 3978
operator certified under the building operator certification 3979
program or any equivalent program or standards as shall be 3980
prescribed in the rules and considered reasonably equivalent.3981

       (5) An application process by which a manager of a specified 3982
state-funded facility, except a facility of a state institution of 3983
higher education or a facility operated by a political 3984
subdivision, may apply for a waiver of compliance with any 3985
provision of the rules required by divisions (D)(1) to (4) of this 3986
section.3987

       (E) The office of energy services shall promulgate rules to 3988
ensure that energy efficiency and conservation will be considered 3989
in the purchase of products and equipment, except motor vehicles, 3990
by any state agency, department, division, bureau, office, unit, 3991
board, commission, authority, quasi-governmental entity, or 3992
institution. Minimum energy efficiency standards for purchased 3993
products and equipment may be required, based on federal testing 3994
and labeling where available or on standards developed by the 3995
office. The rules shall apply to the competitive selection of 3996
energy consuming systems, components, and equipment under Chapter 3997
125. of the Revised Code where possible.3998

        The office also shall ensure energy efficient and energy 3999
conserving purchasing practices by doing all of the following:4000

       (1) Cooperatively with the office of energy efficiency, 4001
identifying available energy efficiency and conservation 4002
opportunities;4003

       (2) Providing for interchange of information among purchasing 4004
agencies;4005

       (3) Identifying laws, policies, rules, and procedures that 4006
need modification;4007

       (4) Monitoring experience with and the cost-effectiveness of 4008
this state's purchase and use of motor vehicles and of major 4009
energy-consuming systems, components, equipment, and products 4010
having a significant impact on energy consumption by government;4011

       (5) Cooperatively with the office of energy efficiency, 4012
providing technical assistance and training to state employees 4013
involved in the purchasing process.4014

       The department of development shall make recommendations to 4015
the office regarding planning and implementation of purchasing 4016
policies and procedures supportive of energy efficiency and 4017
conservation.4018

       (F)(1) The office of energy services shall require all state 4019
agencies, departments, divisions, bureaus, offices, units, 4020
commissions, boards, authorities, quasi-governmental entities, 4021
institutions, and state institutions of higher education to 4022
implement procedures ensuring that all their passenger automobiles 4023
acquired in each fiscal year, except for those passenger 4024
automobiles acquired for use in law enforcement or emergency 4025
rescue work, achieve a fleet average fuel economy of not less than 4026
the fleet average fuel economy for that fiscal year as shall be 4027
prescribed by the office by rule. The office shall promulgate the 4028
rule prior to the beginning of the fiscal year in accordance with 4029
the average fuel economy standards established pursuant to federal 4030
law for passenger automobiles manufactured during the model year 4031
that begins during the fiscal year.4032

       (2) Each state agency, department, division, bureau, office, 4033
unit, commission, board, authority, quasi-governmental entity, 4034
institution, and state institution of higher education shall 4035
determine its fleet average fuel economy by dividing:4036

       (a) The total number of passenger vehicles acquired during 4037
the fiscal year, except for those passenger vehicles acquired for 4038
use in law enforcement or emergency rescue work, by4039

       (b) A sum of terms, each of which is a fraction created by 4040
dividing:4041

       (i) The number of passenger vehicles of a given make, model, 4042
and year, except for passenger vehicles acquired for use in law 4043
enforcement or emergency rescue work, acquired during the fiscal 4044
year, by4045

       (ii) The fuel economy measured by the administrator of the 4046
United States environmental protection agency, for the given make, 4047
model, and year of vehicle, that constitutes an average fuel 4048
economy for combined city and highway driving.4049

        As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "acquired" means 4050
leased for a period of sixty continuous days or more, or 4051
purchased.4052

       (G)(E) Each state agency, department, division, bureau, 4053
office, unit, board, commission, authority, quasi-governmental 4054
entity, institution, and state institution of higher education 4055
shall comply with any applicable provision of this section or of a 4056
rule promulgated pursuant to division (D) or (F) of this section.4057

       Sec. 123.23.  (A) As used in this section, "public exigency" 4058
means an injury or obstruction that occurs in any public works of 4059
the state that materially impairs its immediate use or places in 4060
jeopardy property adjacent to it; an immediate danger of such an 4061
injury or obstruction; or an injury or obstruction, or an 4062
immediate danger of an injury or obstruction, that occurs during 4063
the process of construction of any public works and that 4064
materially impairs its immediate use or places in jeopardy 4065
property adjacent to it. 4066

       (B) When a declaration of a public exigency is issued 4067
pursuant to division (C) of this section, the executive director 4068
of the Ohio facilities construction commission may enter into 4069
contracts with proper persons for the performance of labor, the 4070
furnishing of materials, or the construction of any structures and 4071
buildings necessary to the maintenance, control, and management of 4072
the public works of the state or any part of those public works. 4073
Any contracts awarded for the work performed pursuant to the 4074
declaration of a public exigency may be awarded without 4075
competitive bidding or selection as otherwise required by Chapter 4076
153. of the Revised Code.4077

       (C) The executive director of the commission may issue a 4078
declaration of a public exigency on the executive director's own 4079
initiative, or upon the request of the director of any state 4080
agency, university, or instrumentality. The executive director's 4081
declaration shall identify the specific injury, obstruction, or 4082
danger that is the subject of the declaration and shall set forth 4083
a dollar limitation for the repair, removal, or prevention of that 4084
exigency under the declaration.4085

       Before any project to repair, remove, or prevent a public 4086
exigency under the executive director's declaration may begin, the 4087
executive director shall send notice of the project, in writing, 4088
to the director of budget and management and to the members of the 4089
controlling board. The notice shall detail the project to be 4090
undertaken to address the public exigency and shall include a copy 4091
of the director's declaration that establishes the monetary 4092
limitations on that project. 4093

       Sec. 123.17.        Sec. 123.24. (A) As used in this section, "institution 4094
of higher education" means a state university or college, as 4095
defined in section 3345.12 of the Revised Code, or a state 4096
community college.4097

       (B) Not later than December 30, 2005, the state architectThe 4098
Ohio facilities construction commission shall establish a local 4099
administration competency certification program to certify 4100
institutions of higher education to administer capital facilities 4101
projects pursuant to section 3345.51 of the Revised Code without 4102
the supervision, control, or approval of the department of 4103
administrative servicescommission. The program shall offer 4104
instruction in the administration of capital facilities projects 4105
for employees of institutions of higher education who are 4106
responsible for such administration and who are selected by their 4107
employing institutions to participate in the program.4108

       (C) The program shall provide instruction about the 4109
provisions of Chapters 9., 123., and 153. of the Revised Code and 4110
any rules or policies adopted by the departmentcommission4111
regarding the planning, design, and construction of capital 4112
facilities, including all of the following:4113

       (1) The planning, design, and construction process;4114

       (2) Contract requirements;4115

       (3) Construction management;4116

       (4) Project management.4117

       (D) The state architectcommission shall award local 4118
administration competency certification to any institution of 4119
higher education if all of the following apply:4120

       (1) The institution applied for certification on a form and 4121
in a manner prescribed by the state architectcommission.4122

       (2) The state architectcommission determines that a 4123
sufficient number of the institution's employees, representing a 4124
sufficient number of employee classifications, responsible for the 4125
administration of capital facilities projects have successfully 4126
completed the certification program to ensure that any capital 4127
facilities project undertaken by the institution will be 4128
administered successfully and in accordance with all provisions of 4129
the Revised Code, and the board of trustees of the institution 4130
provides written assurance to the state architectcommission that 4131
the institution will select new employees to participate in the 4132
certification program as necessary to compensate for employee 4133
turnover.4134

       (3) The state architectcommission determines that the 4135
employees of the institution enrolled in the program demonstrate 4136
successful completion of the competency certification training and 4137
a satisfactory level of knowledge of and competency in the 4138
requirements for administering capital facilities projects.4139

       (4) The institution pays the fee prescribed by division (F) 4140
of this section.4141

       (5) The board of trustees of the institution provides written 4142
assurance to the state architectcommission that the institution 4143
will conduct biennial audits of the institution's administration 4144
of capital facilities projects in accordance with division (C) of 4145
section 3345.51 of the Revised Code.4146

       (6) The board of trustees of the institution agrees in 4147
writing to indemnify and hold harmless the state and the 4148
departmentcommission for any claim of injury, loss, or damage 4149
that results from the institution's administration of a capital 4150
facilities project.4151

       (E) Local administration competency certification granted 4152
under this section shall remain in effect for as long as the state 4153
architectcommission determines that both of the following apply:4154

        (1) The institution of higher education maintains a 4155
sufficient number of employees responsible for the administration 4156
of capital facilities projects who have successfully completed the 4157
certification program and have demonstrated a satisfactory level 4158
of knowledge of and competency in the requirements for 4159
administering capital facilities projects;4160

        (2) The institution is performing the biennial audits 4161
prescribed in division (C) of section 3345.51 of the Revised Code.4162

       If the state architectcommission determines that an 4163
institution of higher education has failed to comply with the 4164
conditions of division (E)(1) or (2) of this section, the state 4165
architectcommission shall revoke the institution's certification 4166
and shall notify the board of trustees of the institution in 4167
writing of the revocation.4168

        (F) The state architectcommission shall establish, subject 4169
to the approval of the director of budget and management, the 4170
amount of the fee required to be paid by any institution of higher 4171
education that seeks certification under this section. The amount 4172
of the fees shall be set to cover the costs to implement this 4173
section, including the costs for materials and the competency 4174
certification training sessions. Any fees received under this 4175
section shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 4176
state architect'scommission's fund established under section 4177
123.10123.201 of the Revised Code.4178

       (G) Nothing in this section shall prohibit an institution 4179
that administers a capital facilities project under section 4180
3345.51 of the Revised Code from requesting guidance or other 4181
services from the department of administrative services4182
commission.4183

       Sec. 123.26.  (A) The executive director of the Ohio 4184
facilities construction commission shall regulate the rate of 4185
tolls to be collected on the construction or improvement of the 4186
public works of the state, and shall fix all rentals and collect 4187
all tolls, rents, fines, commissions, fees, and other revenues 4188
arising from any source in the construction or improvement of the 4189
public works of the state.4190

       (B) Deposits made to the commission's fund in the state 4191
treasury under section 123.201 of the Revised Code shall consist 4192
of money received by the commission under division (A) of this 4193
section, fees paid under section 123.24 of the Revised Code, 4194
transfers of money to the fund authorized by the general assembly, 4195
and such amount of the investment earnings of the administrative 4196
building fund created in division (F) of section 154.24 of the 4197
Revised Code as the director of budget and management determines 4198
to be appropriate and in excess of the amounts required to meet 4199
estimated federal arbitrage rebate requirements. Money in the fund 4200
shall be used by the commission for the following purposes:4201

       (1) To pay personnel and other administrative expenses of the 4202
commission;4203

       (2) To pay the cost of conducting evaluations of public 4204
works;4205

       (3) To pay the cost of building design specifications;4206

       (4) To pay the cost of providing project management services;4207

       (5) To pay the cost of operating the local administration 4208
competency certification program prescribed by section 123.24 of 4209
the Revised Code; and4210

       (6) Any other purposes that the executive director of the 4211
commission determines to be necessary for the commission to 4212
execute its duties under this chapter.4213

       Sec. 123.101.        Sec. 123.27.  (A) As used in this section:4214

       "Capital facilities project" means the construction, 4215
reconstruction, improvement, enlargement, alteration, or repair of 4216
a building by a public entity.4217

       "Public entity" includes a state agency and a state 4218
institution of higher education. 4219

       "State institution of higher education" has the same meaning 4220
as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.4221

       (B) Commencing not later than July 1, 2012, and upon 4222
completion of a capital facilities project that is funded wholly 4223
or in part using state funds, each public entity shall submit a 4224
report about the project to the executive director of 4225
administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities construction 4226
commission. The report shall be submitted in Ohio administrative 4227
knowledge system capital improvement format or in a manner 4228
determined by the executive director and not later than thirty 4229
days after the project is complete. The report shall provide the 4230
total original contract bid, total cost of change orders, total 4231
actual cost of the project, total costs incurred for mediation and 4232
litigation services, and any other data requested by the executive4233
director. The first report submitted pursuant to this division 4234
shall include information about any capital facilities project 4235
completed on or after July 1, 2011. Any capital facilities project 4236
that is funded wholly or in part through appropriations made to 4237
the Ohio school facilities commission, the Ohio public works 4238
commission, or the Ohio cultural facilities commission, or for 4239
which a joint use agreement has been entered into with any public 4240
entity, is exempt from the reporting requirement prescribed under 4241
this division.4242

       (C) Commencing not later than July 1, 2012, and annually 4243
thereafter, the attorney general shall report to the executive4244
director of the Ohio facilities construction commission on any 4245
mediation and litigation costs associated with capital facilities 4246
projects for which a judgment has been rendered. The report shall 4247
be submitted in a manner prescribed by the executive director and 4248
shall contain any information requested by the executive director 4249
related to capital facilities project mediation and litigation 4250
costs.4251

       (D) As soon as practicable after such information is made 4252
available, the executive director of administrative servicesthe 4253
Ohio facilities construction commission shall incorporate the 4254
information reported pursuant to divisions (B) and (C) of this 4255
section into the Ohio administrative knowledge system.4256

       Sec. 124.04.  In addition to those powers enumerated in 4257
Chapters 123. and 125. of the Revised Code and as provided 4258
elsewhere by law, the powers, duties, and functions of the 4259
department of administrative services not specifically vested in 4260
and assigned to, or to be performed by, the state personnel board 4261
of review are hereby vested in and assigned to, and shall be 4262
performed by, the director of administrative services. These 4263
powers, duties, and functions shall include, but shall not be 4264
limited to, the following powers, duties, and functions:4265

       (A) To prepare, conduct, and grade all competitive 4266
examinations for positions in the classified state service of the 4267
state;4268

       (B) To prepare, conduct, and grade all noncompetitive 4269
examinations for positions in the classified state service of the 4270
state;4271

       (C) To prepare eligible lists containing the names of persons 4272
qualified for appointment to positions in the classified state4273
service of the state;4274

       (D) To prepare or amend, in accordance with section 124.14 of 4275
the Revised Code, specifications descriptive of duties, 4276
responsibilities, requirements, and desirable qualifications of 4277
the various classifications of positions in the state service of 4278
the state;4279

       (E) To allocate and reallocate, upon the motion of the 4280
director or upon request of an appointing authority and in 4281
accordance with section 124.14 of the Revised Code, any position, 4282
office, or employment in the state service of the state to the 4283
appropriate classification on the basis of the duties, 4284
responsibilities, requirements, and qualifications of that 4285
position, office, or employment;4286

       (F) To develop and conduct personnel recruitment services and 4287
assist appointing authorities in recruiting qualified applicants4288
for positions in the state service of the state;4289

       (G) To conduct research on specifications, classifications, 4290
and salaries of positions in the state service of the state;4291

       (H) To develop and conduct personnel training programs, 4292
including supervisory training programs and best practices plans, 4293
and to develop merit hiring processes, in cooperation with 4294
appointing authorities for positions in the service of the state;4295

       (I) To include periodically in communications sent to state 4296
employees both of the following:4297

       (1) Information developed under section 2108.34 of the 4298
Revised Code promoting the donation of anatomical gifts under 4299
Chapter 2108. of the Revised Code;4300

       (2) Information about the liver or kidney donor and bone 4301
marrow donor leave granted under section 124.139 of the Revised 4302
Code.4303

       (J) To enter into agreements with universities and colleges 4304
for in-service training of officers and employees in the civil 4305
service and to assist appointing authorities in recruiting 4306
qualified applicants;4307

       (K) To appoint examiners, inspectors, clerks, and other 4308
assistants necessary in the exercise of the powers and performance 4309
of the duties and functions which the director is by law 4310
authorized and required to exercise and perform, and to prescribe 4311
the duties of all of those employees;4312

       (L) To maintain a journal, which shall be open to public 4313
inspection, in which the director shall keep a record of the 4314
director's final decision pertaining to the classification or 4315
reclassification of positions in the classified civil service of 4316
the state and assignment or reassignment of employees in the 4317
classified civil service of the state to specific position 4318
classifications;4319

       (M) To delegate any of the powers, functions, or duties 4320
granted or assigned to the director under this chapter to any 4321
other state agency of this state as the director considers 4322
necessary;4323

       (N) To delegate any of the powers, functions, or duties 4324
granted or assigned to the director under this chapter to any 4325
political subdivision with the concurrence of the legislative 4326
authority of the political subdivision.4327

       (O) To administer a state equal employment opportunity 4328
program.4329

       Sec. 124.06.  No person shall be appointed, removed, 4330
transferred, laid off, suspended, reinstated, promoted, or reduced 4331
as an officer or employee in the civil service, in any manner or 4332
by any means other than those prescribed in this chapter, and the 4333
rules of the director of administrative services for positions in 4334
the service of the state or the municipal or civil service 4335
township civil service commission within their respective 4336
jurisdictions.4337

       Sec. 124.11.  The civil service of the state and the several 4338
counties, cities, civil service townships, city health districts, 4339
general health districts, and city school districts of the state 4340
shall be divided into the unclassified service and the classified 4341
service.4342

       (A) The unclassified service shall comprise the following 4343
positions, which shall not be included in the classified service, 4344
and which shall be exempt from all examinations required by this 4345
chapter:4346

       (1) All officers elected by popular vote or persons appointed 4347
to fill vacancies in those offices;4348

       (2) All election officers as defined in section 3501.01 of 4349
the Revised Code;4350

       (3)(a) The members of all boards and commissions, and heads 4351
of principal departments, boards, and commissions appointed by the 4352
governor or by and with the governor's consent; 4353

       (b) The heads of all departments appointed by a board of 4354
county commissioners;4355

       (c) The members of all boards and commissions and all heads 4356
of departments appointed by the mayor, or, if there is no mayor, 4357
such other similar chief appointing authority of any city or city 4358
school district;4359

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(17) or (C) of 4360
this section, this chapter does not exempt the chiefs of police 4361
departments and chiefs of fire departments of cities or civil 4362
service townships from the competitive classified service.4363

       (4) The members of county or district licensing boards or 4364
commissions and boards of revision, and not more than five deputy 4365
county auditors;4366

       (5) All officers and employees elected or appointed by either 4367
or both branches of the general assembly, and employees of the 4368
city legislative authority engaged in legislative duties;4369

       (6) All commissioned, warrant, and noncommissioned officers 4370
and enlisted persons in the Ohio organized militia, including 4371
military appointees in the adjutant general's department;4372

       (7)(a) All presidents, business managers, administrative 4373
officers, superintendents, assistant superintendents, principals, 4374
deans, assistant deans, instructors, teachers, and such employees 4375
as are engaged in educational or research duties connected with 4376
the public school system, colleges, and universities, as 4377
determined by the governing body of the public school system, 4378
colleges, and universities;4379

       (b) The library staff of any library in the state supported 4380
wholly or in part at public expense.4381

       (8) Four clerical and administrative support employees for 4382
each of the elective state officers, four clerical and 4383
administrative support employees for each board of county 4384
commissioners and one such employee for each county commissioner, 4385
and four clerical and administrative support employees for other 4386
elective officers and each of the principal appointive executive 4387
officers, boards, or commissions, except for civil service 4388
commissions, that are authorized to appoint such clerical and 4389
administrative support employees;4390

       (9) The deputies and assistants of state agencies authorized 4391
to act for and on behalf of the agency, or holding a fiduciary or 4392
administrative relation to that agency and those persons employed 4393
by and directly responsible to elected county officials or a 4394
county administrator and holding a fiduciary or administrative 4395
relationship to such elected county officials or county 4396
administrator, and the employees of such county officials whose 4397
fitness would be impracticable to determine by competitive 4398
examination, provided that division (A)(9) of this section shall 4399
not affect those persons in county employment in the classified 4400
service as of September 19, 1961. Nothing in division (A)(9) of 4401
this section applies to any position in a county department of job 4402
and family services created pursuant to Chapter 329. of the 4403
Revised Code.4404

       (10) Bailiffs, constables, official stenographers, and 4405
commissioners of courts of record, deputies of clerks of the 4406
courts of common pleas who supervise or who handle public moneys 4407
or secured documents, and such officers and employees of courts of 4408
record and such deputies of clerks of the courts of common pleas 4409
as the director of administrative servicesappointing authority4410
finds it impracticable to determine their fitness by competitive 4411
examination;4412

       (11) Assistants to the attorney general, special counsel 4413
appointed or employed by the attorney general, assistants to 4414
county prosecuting attorneys, and assistants to city directors of 4415
law;4416

       (12) Such teachers and employees in the agricultural 4417
experiment stations; such students in normal schools, colleges, 4418
and universities of the state who are employed by the state or a 4419
political subdivision of the state in student or intern 4420
classifications; and such unskilled labor positions as the 4421
director of administrative services, with respect to positions in 4422
the service of the state, or any municipal civil service 4423
commission may find it impracticable to include in the competitive 4424
classified service; provided such exemptions shall be by order of 4425
the commission or the director, duly entered on the record of the 4426
commission or the director with the reasons for each such 4427
exemption;4428

       (13) Any physician or dentist who is a full-time employee of 4429
the department of mental health, the department of developmental 4430
disabilities, or an institution under the jurisdiction of either 4431
department; and physicians who are in residency programs at the 4432
institutions;4433

       (14) Up to twenty positions at each institution under the 4434
jurisdiction of the department of mental health or the department 4435
of developmental disabilities that the department director 4436
determines to be primarily administrative or managerial; and up to 4437
fifteen positions in any division of either department, excluding 4438
administrative assistants to the director and division chiefs, 4439
which are within the immediate staff of a division chief and which 4440
the director determines to be primarily and distinctively 4441
administrative and managerial;4442

       (15) Noncitizens of the United States employed by the state, 4443
or its counties or cities, as physicians or nurses who are duly 4444
licensed to practice their respective professions under the laws 4445
of this state, or medical assistants, in mental or chronic disease 4446
hospitals, or institutions;4447

       (16) Employees of the governor's office;4448

       (17) Fire chiefs and chiefs of police in civil service 4449
townships appointed by boards of township trustees under section 4450
505.38 or 505.49 of the Revised Code;4451

       (18) Executive directors, deputy directors, and program 4452
directors employed by boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 4453
mental health services under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code, and 4454
secretaries of the executive directors, deputy directors, and 4455
program directors;4456

       (19) Superintendents, and management employees as defined in 4457
section 5126.20 of the Revised Code, of county boards of 4458
developmental disabilities;4459

       (20) Physicians, nurses, and other employees of a county 4460
hospital who are appointed pursuant to sections 339.03 and 339.06 4461
of the Revised Code;4462

       (21) The executive director of the state medical board, who 4463
is appointed pursuant to division (B) of section 4731.05 of the 4464
Revised Code;4465

       (22) County directors of job and family services as provided 4466
in section 329.02 of the Revised Code and administrators appointed 4467
under section 329.021 of the Revised Code;4468

       (23) A director of economic development who is hired pursuant 4469
to division (A) of section 307.07 of the Revised Code;4470

       (24) Chiefs of construction and compliance, of operations and 4471
maintenance, of worker protection, and of licensing and 4472
certification in the division of laborindustrial compliance in 4473
the department of commerce;4474

       (25) The executive director of a county transit system 4475
appointed under division (A) of section 306.04 of the Revised 4476
Code;4477

       (26) Up to five positions at each of the administrative 4478
departments listed in section 121.02 of the Revised Code and at 4479
the department of taxation, department of the adjutant general, 4480
department of education, Ohio board of regents, bureau of workers' 4481
compensation, industrial commission, state lottery commission, and 4482
public utilities commission of Ohio that the head of that 4483
administrative department or of that other state agency determines 4484
to be involved in policy development and implementation. The head 4485
of the administrative department or other state agency shall set 4486
the compensation for employees in these positions at a rate that 4487
is not less than the minimum compensation specified in pay range 4488
41 but not more than the maximum compensation specified in pay 4489
range 44 of salary schedule E-2 in section 124.152 of the Revised 4490
Code. The authority to establish positions in the unclassified 4491
service under division (A)(26) of this section is in addition to 4492
and does not limit any other authority that an administrative 4493
department or state agency has under the Revised Code to establish 4494
positions, appoint employees, or set compensation.4495

       (27) Employees of the department of agriculture employed 4496
under section 901.09 of the Revised Code;4497

       (28) For cities, counties, civil service townships, city 4498
health districts, general health districts, and city school 4499
districts, the deputies and assistants of elective or principal 4500
executive officers authorized to act for and in the place of their 4501
principals or holding a fiduciary relation to their principals;4502

       (29) Employees who receive intermittent or temporary 4503
appointments under division (B) of section 124.30 of the Revised 4504
Code;4505

       (30) Employees appointed to administrative staff positions 4506
for which an appointing authority is given specific statutory 4507
authority to set compensation;4508

       (31) Employees appointed to highway patrol cadet or highway 4509
patrol cadet candidate classifications;4510

       (32) Employees placed in the unclassified service by another 4511
section of the Revised Code.4512

       (B) The classified service shall comprise all persons in the 4513
employ of the state and the several counties, cities, city health 4514
districts, general health districts, and city school districts of 4515
the state, not specifically included in the unclassified service. 4516
Upon the creation by the board of trustees of a civil service 4517
township civil service commission, the classified service shall 4518
also comprise, except as otherwise provided in division (A)(17) or 4519
(C) of this section, all persons in the employ of a civil service 4520
township police or fire department having ten or more full-time 4521
paid employees. The classified service consists of two classes, 4522
which shall be designated as the competitive class and the 4523
unskilled labor class.4524

       (1) The competitive class shall include all positions and 4525
employments in the state and the counties, cities, city health 4526
districts, general health districts, and city school districts of 4527
the state, and, upon the creation by the board of trustees of a 4528
civil service township of a township civil service commission, all 4529
positions in a civil service township police or fire department 4530
having ten or more full-time paid employees, for which it is 4531
practicable to determine the merit and fitness of applicants by 4532
competitive examinations. Appointments shall be made to, or 4533
employment shall be given in, all positions in the competitive 4534
class that are not filled by promotion, reinstatement, transfer, 4535
or reduction, as provided in this chapter, and the rules of the 4536
director of administrative services, by appointment from those 4537
certified to the appointing officer in accordance with this 4538
chapter.4539

       (2) The unskilled labor class shall include ordinary 4540
unskilled laborers. Vacancies in the labor class for positions in 4541
service of the state shall be filled by appointment from lists of 4542
applicants registered by the director or the director's designee. 4543
Vacancies in the labor class for all other positions shall be 4544
filled by appointment from lists of applicants registered by a 4545
commission. The director or the commission, as applicable, by 4546
rule, shall require an applicant for registration in the labor 4547
class to furnish evidence or take tests as the director or 4548
commission considers proper with respect to age, residence, 4549
physical condition, ability to labor, honesty, sobriety, industry, 4550
capacity, and experience in the work or employment for which 4551
application is made. Laborers who fulfill the requirements shall 4552
be placed on the eligible list for the kind of labor or employment 4553
sought, and preference shall be given in employment in accordance 4554
with the rating received from that evidence or in those tests. 4555
Upon the request of an appointing officer, stating the kind of 4556
labor needed, the pay and probable length of employment, and the 4557
number to be employed, the director or commission, as applicable, 4558
shall certify from the highest on the list double the number to be 4559
employed; from this number, the appointing officer shall appoint 4560
the number actually needed for the particular work. If more than 4561
one applicant receives the same rating, priority in time of 4562
application shall determine the order in which their names shall 4563
be certified for appointment.4564

       (C) A municipal or civil service township civil service 4565
commission may place volunteer firefighters who are paid on a 4566
fee-for-service basis in either the classified or the unclassified 4567
civil service.4568

       (D)(1) This division does not apply to persons in the 4569
unclassified service who have the right to resume positions in the 4570
classified service under sections 4121.121, 5119.071, 5120.38, 4571
5120.381, 5120.382, 5123.08, 5139.02, and 5501.19 of the Revised 4572
Code or to cities, counties, or political subdivisions of the 4573
state.4574

       An appointing authority whose employees are paid directly by 4575
warrant of the director of budget and management may appoint a 4576
person who holds a certified position in the classified service 4577
within the appointing authority's agency to a position in the 4578
unclassified service within that agency.(2) A person appointed 4579
pursuant to this divisionwho holds a position in the classified 4580
service of the safe and who is appointed to a position in the 4581
unclassified service shall retain the right to resume the position 4582
and status held by the person in the classified service 4583
immediately prior to the person's appointment to the position in 4584
the unclassified service, regardless of the number of positions 4585
the person held in the unclassified service. An employee's right 4586
to resume a position in the classified service may only be 4587
exercised when an appointing authority demotes the employee to a 4588
pay range lower than the employee's current pay range or revokes 4589
the employee's appointment to the unclassified service.and:4590

        (a) That person held a certified position prior to July 1, 4591
2007, in the classified service within the appointing authority's 4592
agency; or4593

        (b) That person held a permanent position on or after July 1, 4594
2007, in the classified service within the appointing authority's 4595
agency.4596

        (3) An employee forfeits the right to resume a position in 4597
the classified service when the:4598

       (a) The employee is removed from the position in the 4599
unclassified service due to incompetence, inefficiency, 4600
dishonesty, drunkenness, immoral conduct, insubordination, 4601
discourteous treatment of the public, neglect of duty, violation 4602
of this chapter or the rules of the director of administrative 4603
services, any other failure of good behavior, any other acts of 4604
misfeasance, malfeasance, or nonfeasance in office, or conviction 4605
of a felony. An employee also forfeits the right to resume a 4606
position in the classified service upon; or4607

       (b) Upon transfer to a different agency.4608

       (4) Reinstatement to a position in the classified service 4609
shall be to a position substantially equal to that position in the 4610
classified service held previously, as certified by the director 4611
of administrative services. If the position the person previously 4612
held in the classified service has been placed in the unclassified 4613
service or is otherwise unavailable, the person shall be appointed 4614
to a position in the classified service within the appointing 4615
authority's agency that the director of administrative services 4616
certifies is comparable in compensation to the position the person 4617
previously held in the classified service. Service in the position 4618
in the unclassified service shall be counted as service in the 4619
position in the classified service held by the person immediately 4620
prior to the person's appointment to the position in the 4621
unclassified service. When a person is reinstated to a position in 4622
the classified service as provided in this division, the person is 4623
entitled to all rights, status, and benefits accruing to the 4624
position in the classified service during the person's time of 4625
service in the position in the unclassified service.4626

       Sec. 124.12. (A) Within ninety days after an appointing 4627
authority appoints an employee to an unclassified position in the 4628
service of the state, the appointing authority shall notify the 4629
department of administrative services of that appointment.4630

       (B) On the date an appointing authority appoints an employee 4631
to an unclassified position in the state service, the appointing 4632
authority shall provide the employee with written information 4633
describing the nature of employment in the unclassified civil 4634
service. Within thirty days after the date an appointing authority 4635
appoints an employee to an unclassified position in the state 4636
service, the appointing authority shall provide the employee with 4637
written information describing the duties of that position. 4638
Failure of the appointing authority to provide the written 4639
information described in this division to the employee does not 4640
confer any additional rights upon the employee in any appellate 4641
body with jurisdiction over an appeal of the employee.4642

       (C) The department shall develop and provide each appointing 4643
authority in the state service of the state with a general written 4644
description of the nature of employment in the unclassified civil 4645
service that shall be provided to employees under division (B) of 4646
this section.4647

       Sec. 124.14.  (A)(1) The director of administrative services 4648
shall establish, and may modify or rescind, by rule, a job 4649
classification plan for all positions, offices, and employments 4650
the salaries of which are paid in whole or in part by the state. 4651
The director shall group jobs within a classification so that the 4652
positions are similar enough in duties and responsibilities to be 4653
described by the same title, to have the same pay assigned with 4654
equity, and to have the same qualifications for selection applied. 4655
The director shall, by rule, assign a classification title to each 4656
classification within the classification plan. However, the 4657
director shall consider in establishing classifications, including 4658
classifications with parenthetical titles, and assigning pay 4659
ranges such factors as duties performed only on one shift, special 4660
skills in short supply in the labor market, recruitment problems, 4661
separation rates, comparative salary rates, the amount of training 4662
required, and other conditions affecting employment. The director 4663
shall describe the duties and responsibilities of the class, 4664
establish the qualifications for being employed in each position 4665
in the class, and file with the secretary of state a copy of 4666
specifications for all of the classifications. The director shall 4667
file new, additional, or revised specifications with the secretary 4668
of state before they are used. 4669

       The director shall, by rule, assign each classification, 4670
either on a statewide basis or in particular counties or state 4671
institutions, to a pay range established under section 124.15 or 4672
section 124.152 of the Revised Code. The director may assign a 4673
classification to a pay range on a temporary basis for a period of 4674
six months. The director may establish, by rule adopted under 4675
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, experimental classification 4676
plans for some or all employees paid directly by warrant of the 4677
director of budget and management. The rule shall include 4678
specifications for each classification within the plan and shall 4679
specifically address compensation ranges, and methods for 4680
advancing within the ranges, for the classifications, which may be 4681
assigned to pay ranges other than the pay ranges established under 4682
section 124.15 or 124.152 of the Revised Code.4683

       (2) The director of administrative services may reassign to a 4684
proper classification those positions that have been assigned to 4685
an improper classification. If the compensation of an employee in 4686
such a reassigned position exceeds the maximum rate of pay for the 4687
employee's new classification, the employee shall be placed in pay 4688
step X and shall not receive an increase in compensation until the 4689
maximum rate of pay for that classification exceeds the employee's 4690
compensation.4691

       (3) The director may reassign an exempt employee, as defined 4692
in section 124.152 of the Revised Code, to a bargaining unit 4693
classification if the director determines that the bargaining unit 4694
classification is the proper classification for that employee. 4695
Notwithstanding Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code or instruments 4696
and contracts negotiated under it, these placements are at the 4697
director's discretion.4698

       (4) The director shall, by rule, assign related 4699
classifications, which form a career progression, to a 4700
classification series. The director shall, by rule, assign each 4701
classification in the classification plan a five-digit number, the 4702
first four digits of which shall denote the classification series 4703
to which the classification is assigned. When a career progression 4704
encompasses more than ten classifications, the director shall, by 4705
rule, identify the additional classifications belonging to a 4706
classification series. The additional classifications shall be 4707
part of the classification series, notwithstanding the fact that 4708
the first four digits of the number assigned to the additional 4709
classifications do not correspond to the first four digits of the 4710
numbers assigned to other classifications in the classification 4711
series.4712

       (5) The director may establish, modify, or rescind a 4713
classification plan for county agencies that elect not to use the 4714
services and facilities of a county personnel department. The 4715
director shall establish any such classification plan by means of 4716
rules adopted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The rules 4717
shall include a methodology for the establishment of titles unique 4718
to county agencies, the use of state classification titles and 4719
classification specifications for common positions, the criteria 4720
for a county to meet in establishing its own classification plan, 4721
and the establishment of what constitutes a classification series 4722
for county agencies. The director may assess a county agency that 4723
chooses to use the classification plan a usage fee the director 4724
determines. All usage fees the department of administrative 4725
services receives shall be paid into the state treasury to the 4726
credit of the human resources fund created in section 124.07 of 4727
the Revised Code.4728

       (B) Division (A) of this section and sections 124.15 and 4729
124.152 of the Revised Code do not apply to the following persons, 4730
positions, offices, and employments:4731

       (1) Elected officials;4732

       (2) Legislative employees, employees of the legislative 4733
service commission, employees in the office of the governor, 4734
employees who are in the unclassified civil service and exempt 4735
from collective bargaining coverage in the office of the secretary 4736
of state, auditor of state, treasurer of state, and attorney 4737
general, and employees of the supreme court;4738

       (3) Employees of a county children services board that 4739
establishes compensation rates under section 5153.12 of the 4740
Revised Code;4741

       (4) Any position for which the authority to determine 4742
compensation is given by law to another individual or entity;4743

       (5)(4) Employees of the bureau of workers' compensation whose 4744
compensation the administrator of workers' compensation 4745
establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised 4746
Code.4747

       (C) The director may employ a consulting agency to aid and 4748
assist the director in carrying out this section.4749

       (D)(1) When the director proposes to modify a classification 4750
or the assignment of classes to appropriate pay ranges, the 4751
director shall send written notice of the proposed rule to the 4752
appointing authorities of the affected employees thirty days 4753
before a hearing on the proposed rule. The appointing authorities 4754
shall notify the affected employees regarding the proposed rule. 4755
The director also shall send those appointing authorities notice 4756
of any final rule that is adopted within ten days after adoption.4757

       (2) When the director proposes to reclassify any employee in 4758
the service of the state so that the employee is adversely 4759
affected, the director shall give to the employee affected and to 4760
the employee's appointing authority a written notice setting forth 4761
the proposed new classification, pay range, and salary. Upon the 4762
request of any classified employee in the service of the state who 4763
is not serving in a probationary period, the director shall 4764
perform a job audit to review the classification of the employee's 4765
position to determine whether the position is properly classified. 4766
The director shall give to the employee affected and to the 4767
employee's appointing authority a written notice of the director's 4768
determination whether or not to reclassify the position or to 4769
reassign the employee to another classification. An employee or 4770
appointing authority desiring a hearing shall file a written 4771
request for the hearing with the state personnel board of review 4772
within thirty days after receiving the notice. The board shall set 4773
the matter for a hearing and notify the employee and appointing 4774
authority of the time and place of the hearing. The employee, the 4775
appointing authority, or any authorized representative of the 4776
employee who wishes to submit facts for the consideration of the 4777
board shall be afforded reasonable opportunity to do so. After the 4778
hearing, the board shall consider anew the reclassification and 4779
may order the reclassification of the employee and require the 4780
director to assign the employee to such appropriate classification 4781
as the facts and evidence warrant. As provided in division (A)(1) 4782
of section 124.03 of the Revised Code, the board may determine the 4783
most appropriate classification for the position of any employee 4784
coming before the board, with or without a job audit. The board 4785
shall disallow any reclassification or reassignment classification 4786
of any employee when it finds that changes have been made in the 4787
duties and responsibilities of any particular employee for 4788
political, religious, or other unjust reasons.4789

       (E)(1) Employees of each county department of job and family 4790
services shall be paid a salary or wage established by the board 4791
of county commissioners. The provisions of section 124.18 of the 4792
Revised Code concerning the standard work week apply to employees 4793
of county departments of job and family services. A board of 4794
county commissioners may do either of the following:4795

       (a) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, 4796
supplement the sick leave, vacation leave, personal leave, and 4797
other benefits of any employee of the county department of job and 4798
family services of that county, if the employee is eligible for 4799
the supplement under a written policy providing for the 4800
supplement;4801

       (b) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, 4802
establish alternative schedules of sick leave, vacation leave, 4803
personal leave, or other benefits for employees not inconsistent 4804
with the provisions of a collective bargaining agreement covering 4805
the affected employees.4806

       (2) Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to 4807
employees for whom the state employment relations board 4808
establishes appropriate bargaining units pursuant to section 4809
4117.06 of the Revised Code, except in either of the following 4810
situations:4811

       (a) The employees for whom the state employment relations 4812
board establishes appropriate bargaining units elect no 4813
representative in a board-conducted representation election.4814

       (b) After the state employment relations board establishes 4815
appropriate bargaining units for such employees, all employee 4816
organizations withdraw from a representation election.4817

       (F)(1) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of sections 4818
124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code, the board of trustees of 4819
each state university or college, as defined in section 3345.12 of 4820
the Revised Code, shall carry out all matters of governance 4821
involving the officers and employees of the university or college, 4822
including, but not limited to, the powers, duties, and functions 4823
of the department of administrative services and the director of 4824
administrative services specified in this chapter. Officers and 4825
employees of a state university or college shall have the right of 4826
appeal to the state personnel board of review as provided in this 4827
chapter.4828

       (2) Each board of trustees shall adopt rules under section 4829
111.15 of the Revised Code to carry out the matters of governance 4830
described in division (F)(1) of this section. Until the board of 4831
trustees adopts those rules, a state university or college shall 4832
continue to operate pursuant to the applicable rules adopted by 4833
the director of administrative services under this chapter.4834

       (G)(1) Each board of county commissioners may, by a 4835
resolution adopted by a majority of its members, establish a 4836
county personnel department to exercise the powers, duties, and 4837
functions specified in division (G) of this section. As used in 4838
division (G) of this section, "county personnel department" means 4839
a county personnel department established by a board of county 4840
commissioners under division (G)(1) of this section.4841

       (2)(a) Each board of county commissioners, by a resolution 4842
adopted by a majority of its members, may designate the county 4843
personnel department of the county to exercise the powers, duties, 4844
and functions specified in sections 124.01 to 124.64 and Chapter 4845
325. of the Revised Code with regard to employees in the service 4846
of the county, except for the powers and duties of the state 4847
personnel board of review, which powers and duties shall not be 4848
construed as having been modified or diminished in any manner by 4849
division (G)(2) of this section, with respect to the employees for 4850
whom the board of county commissioners is the appointing authority 4851
or co-appointing authority. 4852

       (b) Nothing in division (G)(2) of this section shall be 4853
construed to limit the right of any employee who possesses the 4854
right of appeal to the state personnel board of review to continue 4855
to possess that right of appeal.4856

       (c) Any board of county commissioners that has established a 4857
county personnel department may contract with the department of 4858
administrative services, in accordance with division (H) of this 4859
section, another political subdivision, or an appropriate public 4860
or private entity to provide competitive testing services or other 4861
appropriate services.4862

       (3) After the county personnel department of a county has 4863
been established as described in division (G)(2) of this section, 4864
any elected official, board, agency, or other appointing authority 4865
of that county, upon written notification to the county personnel 4866
department, may elect to use the services and facilities of the 4867
county personnel department. Upon receipt of the notification by 4868
the county personnel department, the county personnel department 4869
shall exercise the powers, duties, and functions as described in 4870
division (G)(2) of this section with respect to the employees of 4871
that elected official, board, agency, or other appointing 4872
authority. 4873

       (4) Each board of county commissioners, by a resolution 4874
adopted by a majority of its members, may disband the county 4875
personnel department. 4876

       (5) Any elected official, board, agency, or appointing 4877
authority of a county may end its involvement with a county 4878
personnel department upon actual receipt by the department of a 4879
certified copy of the notification that contains the decision to 4880
no longer participate.4881

       (6) The director of administrative services may, by rule 4882
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 4883
prescribe criteria and procedures for the following:4884

       (a) A requirement that each county personnel department, in 4885
carrying out its duties, shall adhere to merit system principles 4886
with regard to employees of county departments of job and family 4887
services, child support enforcement agencies, and public child 4888
welfare agencies so that there is no threatened loss of federal 4889
funding for these agencies, and a requirement that the county be4890
is financially liable to the state for any loss of federal funds 4891
due to the action or inaction of the county personnel department. 4892
The costs associated with audits conducted to monitor compliance 4893
with division (G)(6)(a) of this section shall be reimbursed to the 4894
department of administrative services as determined by the 4895
director. All money the department receives for these audits shall 4896
be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the human 4897
resources fund created in section 124.07 of the Revised Code.4898

       (b) Authorization for the director of administrative services 4899
to conduct periodic audits and reviews of county personnel 4900
departments to guarantee the uniform application of the powers, 4901
duties, and functions exercised pursuant to division (G)(2)(a) of 4902
this section. The costs of the audits and reviews shall be 4903
reimbursed to the department of administrative services as 4904
determined by the director by the county for which the services 4905
are performed. All money the department receives shall be paid 4906
into the state treasury to the credit of the human resources fund 4907
created in section 124.07 of the Revised Code.4908

       (H) County agencies may contract with the department of 4909
administrative services for any human resources services, 4910
including, but not limited to, establishment and modification of 4911
job classification plans, competitive testing services, and 4912
periodic audits and reviews of the county's uniform application of 4913
the powers, duties, and functions specified in sections 124.01 to 4914
124.64 and Chapter 325. of the Revised Code with regard to 4915
employees in the service of the county. Nothing in this division 4916
modifies the powers and duties of the state personnel board of 4917
review with respect to employees in the service of the county. 4918
Nothing in this division limits the right of any employee who 4919
possesses the right of appeal to the state personnel board of 4920
review to continue to possess that right of appeal.4921

       (I) The director of administrative services shall establish 4922
the rate and method of compensation for all employees who are paid 4923
directly by warrant of the director of budget and management and 4924
who are serving in positions that the director of administrative 4925
services has determined impracticable to include in the state job 4926
classification plan. This division does not apply to elected 4927
officials, legislative employees, employees of the legislative 4928
service commission, employees who are in the unclassified civil 4929
service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the 4930
office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 4931
state, and attorney general, employees of the courts, employees of 4932
the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the 4933
administrator of workers' compensation establishes under division 4934
(B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised Code, or employees of an 4935
appointing authority authorized by law to fix the compensation of 4936
those employees.4937

       (I)(J) The director of administrative services shall set the 4938
rate of compensation for all intermittent, seasonal, temporary, 4939
emergency, and casual employees in the service of the state who 4940
are not considered public employees under section 4117.01 of the 4941
Revised Code. Those employees are not entitled to receive employee 4942
benefits. This rate of compensation shall be equitable in terms of 4943
the rate of employees serving in the same or similar 4944
classifications. This division does not apply to elected 4945
officials, legislative employees, employees of the legislative 4946
service commission, employees who are in the unclassified civil 4947
service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the 4948
office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 4949
state, and attorney general, employees of the courts, employees of 4950
the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the 4951
administrator establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 4952
of the Revised Code, or employees of an appointing authority 4953
authorized by law to fix the compensation of those employees.4954

       Sec. 124.231.  (A) As used in this section, "legally blind 4955
person" means any person who qualifies as being blind under any 4956
Ohio or federal statute, or any rule adopted thereunder. As used 4957
in this section, "legally deaf person" means any person who 4958
qualifies as being deaf under any Ohio or federal statute, or any 4959
rule adopted thereunder.4960

       (B) When an examination is to be administered under sections 4961
124.01 to 124.64124.31 of the Revised Code, the director of 4962
administrative services or the director's designee shall whenever 4963
practicable arrange for special examinations to be administered to 4964
legally blind or legally deaf persons applying for positions in 4965
the classified service of the state to ensure that the abilities 4966
of such applicants are properly assessed and that such applicants 4967
are not subject to discrimination because they are legally blind 4968
or legally deaf persons.4969

       Sec. 124.241.  As used in this section, "professional 4970
employee" has the same meaning as in section 5126.20 of the 4971
Revised Code and "registered service employee" means a service 4972
employee, as defined in section 5126.20 of the Revised Code, who 4973
is registered under section 5126.25 of the Revised Code.4974

       County boards of developmental disabilities may hire 4975
professional employees and registered service employees in the 4976
classified service on the basis of the candidates' qualifications 4977
rather than on the basis of the results of ana civil service4978
examination administered by the director of administrative 4979
services pursuant to, as described in division (D) of section 4980
124.23 of the Revised Code.4981

       Sec. 124.25.  The director of administrative services shall 4982
require persons applying for an examination for original 4983
appointment in the service of the state to file with the director 4984
or the director's designee, within reasonable time prior to the 4985
examination, a formal application, in which the applicant shall 4986
state the applicant's name, address, and such other information as 4987
may reasonably be required concerning the applicant's education 4988
and experience. No inquiry shall be made as to religious or 4989
political affiliations or as to racial or ethnic origin of the 4990
applicant, except as necessary to gather equal employment 4991
opportunity or other statistics that, when compiled, will not 4992
identify any specific individual.4993

       Blank forms for applications shall be furnished by the 4994
director or the director's designee without charge to any person 4995
requesting the same. The director or the director's designee may 4996
require in connection with such application such certificate of 4997
persons having knowledge of the applicant as the good of the 4998
service demands. The director or the director's designee may 4999
refuse to appoint or examine an applicant, or, after an 5000
examination, refuse to certify the applicant as eligible, who is 5001
found to lack any of the established preliminary requirements for 5002
the examination, who is addicted to the habitual use of 5003
intoxicating liquors or drugs to excess, who has a pattern of poor 5004
work habits and performance with previous employers, who has been 5005
convicted of a felony, who has been guilty of infamous or 5006
notoriously disgraceful conduct, who has been dismissed from 5007
either branch of the civil service for delinquency or misconduct, 5008
or who has made false statements of any material fact, or 5009
practiced, or attempted to practice, any deception or fraud in the 5010
application or examination, in establishing eligibility, or 5011
securing an appointment.5012

       Sec. 124.26.  From the returns of the examinations for 5013
positions in the service of the state, the director of 5014
administrative services or the director's designee shall prepare 5015
an eligible list of the persons whose general average standing 5016
upon examinations for the class or position is not less than the 5017
minimum fixed by the rules of the director, and who are otherwise 5018
eligible. Those persons shall take rank upon the eligible list as 5019
candidates in the order of their relative excellence as determined 5020
by the examination without reference to priority of the time of 5021
examination. If two or more applicants receive the same mark in an 5022
open competitive examination, priority in the time of filing the 5023
application with the director or the director's designee shall 5024
determine the order in which their names shall be placed on the 5025
eligible list, except that applicants eligible for veteran's 5026
preference under section 124.23 of the Revised Code shall receive 5027
priority in rank on the eligible list over nonveterans on the list 5028
with a rating equal to that of the veteran. Ties among veterans 5029
shall be decided by priority of filing the application. 5030

       . An eligible list expires upon the filling or closing of the 5031
position. An expired eligible list may be used to fill a position 5032
of the same classification within the same appointing authority 5033
for which the list was created. But, in no event shall an expired 5034
list be used more than one year past its expiration date.5035

       Sec. 124.27.  (A) Appointments to all positions in the 5036
classified civil service, that are not filled by promotion, 5037
transfer, or reduction, as provided in sections 124.01 to 124.64 5038
of the Revised Code and the rules of the director prescribed under 5039
those sections, shall be made only from those persons whose names 5040
take rank order on an eligible list, and no employment, except as 5041
provided in those sections, shall be otherwise given in the 5042
classified civil service of this state or any political 5043
subdivision of the state. The appointing authority shall appoint 5044
in the following manner: each time a selection is made, it shall 5045
be from one of the names that ranks in the top ten names on the 5046
eligible list or the top twenty-five per cent of the eligible 5047
list, whichever is greater. But, inIn the event that ten or fewer 5048
names are on the eligible list, the appointing authority may 5049
select any of the listed candidates. Each person who qualifies for 5050
the veteran's preference under section 124.23 of the Revised Code, 5051
who is a resident of this state, and whose name is on the eligible 5052
list for a position is entitled to preference in original 5053
appointment to any such competitive position in the classified5054
civil service of the state and its civil divisions over all other 5055
persons who are eligible for those appointments and who are 5056
standing on the relevant eligible list with a rating equal to that 5057
of the person qualifying for the veteran's preference.5058

       (B) All original and promotional appointments in the 5059
classified civil service, including appointments made pursuant to 5060
section 124.30 of the Revised Code, but not intermittent 5061
appointments, shall be for a probationary period, not less than 5062
sixty days nor more than one year, to be fixed by the rules of the 5063
director for appointments in the civil service of the state, 5064
except as provided in section 124.231 of the Revised Code, and 5065
except for original appointments to a police department as a 5066
police officer or to a fire department as a firefighter which 5067
shall be for a probationary period of one year. No appointment or 5068
promotion is final until the appointee has satisfactorily served 5069
the probationary period. If the service of the probationary 5070
employee is unsatisfactory, the employee may be removed or reduced 5071
at any time during the probationary period. If the appointing 5072
authority decides to remove a probationary employee in the service 5073
of the state, the appointing authority shall communicate the 5074
removal to the director. A probationary employee duly removed or 5075
reduced in position for unsatisfactory service does not have the 5076
right to appeal the removal or reduction under section 124.34 of 5077
the Revised Code.5078

       Sec. 124.30.  (A) PositionsClassified positions in the 5079
classifiedcivil service may be filled without competition as 5080
follows:5081

       (1) Whenever there are urgent reasons for filling a vacancy 5082
in any position in the classified civil service and the director 5083
of administrative services is unable to certify to the appointing 5084
authority, upon its request, a list of persons eligible for 5085
appointment to the position after a competitive examination, the 5086
appointing authority may fill the position by noncompetitive 5087
examination.5088

        A temporary appointment may be made without regard to the 5089
rules of sections 124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code. Except as 5090
otherwise provided in this division, the temporary appointment may 5091
not continue longer than one hundred twenty days, and in no case 5092
shall successive temporary appointments be made. A temporary 5093
appointment longer than one hundred twenty days may be made if 5094
necessary by reason of sickness, disability, or other approved 5095
leave of absence of regular officers or employees, in which case 5096
it may continue during the period of sickness, disability, or 5097
other approved leave of absence, subject to the rules of the 5098
director.5099

       (2) In case of a vacancy in a position in the classified 5100
civil service where peculiar and exceptional qualifications of a 5101
scientific, managerial, professional, or educational character are 5102
required, and upon satisfactory evidence that for specified 5103
reasons competition in this special case is impracticable and that 5104
the position can best be filled by a selection of some designated 5105
person of high and recognized attainments in those qualities, the 5106
director may suspend the provisions of sections 124.01 to 124.64 5107
of the Revised Code that require competition in this special case, 5108
but no suspension shall be general in its application. All such 5109
cases of suspension shall be reported in the annual report of the 5110
director with the reasons for each suspension. The director shall 5111
suspend the provisions when the director of job and family 5112
services provides the certification under section 5101.051 of the 5113
Revised Code that a position with the department of job and family 5114
services can best be filled if the provisions are suspended.5115

       (3) The acceptance or refusal by an eligible person of a 5116
temporary appointment shall not affect the person's standing on 5117
the eligible list for permanent appointment, nor shall the period 5118
of temporary service be counted as a part of the probationary 5119
service in case of subsequent appointment to a permanent position.5120

       (B) Persons who receive temporary or intermittent 5121
appointments are in the unclassified civil service and serve at 5122
the pleasure of their appointing authority.5123

       Sec. 124.31.  Vacancies in positions in the classified civil5124
service of the state shall be filled insofar as practicable by 5125
promotions. The director of administrative services shall provide 5126
in the director's rules for keeping a record of efficiency for 5127
each employee in the classified civil service of the state, and 5128
for making promotions in the classified civil service of the state 5129
on the basis of merit and by conduct and capacity in office.5130

       Sec. 125.082.  (A) When purchasing equipment, materials, or 5131
supplies, the general assembly; the offices of all elected state 5132
officers; all departments, boards, offices, commissions, agencies, 5133
institutions, including, without limitation, state-supported 5134
institutions of higher education, and other instrumentalities of 5135
this state; the supreme court; all courts of appeals; and all 5136
courts of common pleas, may purchase recycled products in 5137
accordance with the guidelines adopted under division (B) of this 5138
section if the products are available and meet the performance 5139
specifications of the procuring entities. Purchases of recycled 5140
products shall comply with any rules adopted under division (C) of 5141
this section.5142

       (B) The director of administrative services shall adopt rules 5143
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 5144
guidelines for the procurement of recycled products pursuant to 5145
division (A) of this section. To the extent practicable, the 5146
guidelines shall do all of the following:5147

       (1) Be consistent with and substantially equivalent to any 5148
relevant regulations adopted by the administrator of the United 5149
States environmental protection agency pursuant to the "Resource 5150
Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 5151
6921, as amended;5152

       (2) Establish the minimum percentage of recycled materials 5153
the various products shall contain in order to be considered 5154
"recycled" for the purposes of division (A) of this section;5155

       (3) So far as practicable and economically feasible, 5156
incorporate specifications for recycled-content materials to 5157
promote the use and purchase of recycled products by state 5158
agencies.5159

       (C) The director may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 5160
119. of the Revised Code establishing a maximum percentage by 5161
which the cost of recycled products purchased under division (A) 5162
of this section may exceed the cost of comparable products made of 5163
virgin materials.5164

       (D) The department of administrative services and the5165
department of natural resourcesenvironmental protection agency5166
annually shall prepare and submit to the governor, president of 5167
the senate, and speaker of the house of representatives a report 5168
that describes, so far as practicable, the value and types of 5169
recycled products that are purchased with moneys disbursed from 5170
the state treasury by the general assembly; the offices of all 5171
elected state officers; and all departments, boards, offices, 5172
commissions, agencies, and institutions of this state.5173

       Sec. 125.14.  (A) The director of administrative services 5174
shall allocate any proceeds from the transfer, sale, or lease of 5175
excess and surplus supplies in the following manner:5176

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of this 5177
section, the proceeds of such a transfer, sale, or lease shall be 5178
paid into the state treasury to the credit of the investment 5179
recovery fund, which is hereby created.5180

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of this 5181
section, when supplies originally were purchased with funds from 5182
nongeneral revenue fund sources, the director shall determine what 5183
fund or account originally was used to purchase the supplies, and 5184
the credit for the proceeds from any transfer, sale, or lease of 5185
those supplies shall be transferred to that fund or account. If 5186
the director cannot determine which fund or account originally was 5187
used to purchase the supplies, if the fund or account is no longer 5188
active, or if the proceeds from the transfer, sale, or lease of a 5189
unit of supplies are less than one hundred dollars or any larger 5190
amount the director may establish with the approval of the 5191
director of budget and management, then the proceeds from the 5192
transfer, sale, or lease of such supplies shall be paid into the 5193
state treasury to the credit of the investment recovery fund.5194

       (B) The investment recovery fund shall be used to pay for the 5195
operating expenses of the state surplus property program. Any 5196
amounts in excess of these operating expenses shall periodically 5197
be transferred to the general revenue fund of the state. If 5198
proceeds paid into the investment recovery fund are insufficient 5199
to pay for the program's operating expenses, a service fee may be 5200
charged to state agencies to eliminate the deficit.5201

       (C) Proceeds from the sale of recyclable goods and materials 5202
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 5203
recycled materials fund, which is hereby created, except that the 5204
director of natural resourcesenvironmental protection, upon 5205
request, may grant an exemption from this requirement. The chief 5206
of the division of recycling and litter prevention in the 5207
department of natural resourcesdirector shall administer the fund 5208
for the benefit of recycling programs in state agencies.5209

       Sec. 126.14.  The release of any money appropriated for the 5210
purchase of real estate shall be approved by the controlling 5211
board. The release of money appropriated for all other capital 5212
projects is also subject to the approval of the controlling board, 5213
except that the director of budget and management may approve the 5214
release of money appropriated for specific projects in accordance 5215
with the requirements of this section and except that the director 5216
of budget and management may approve the release of unencumbered 5217
capital balances, for a project to repair, remove, or prevent a 5218
public exigency declared to exist by the director of 5219
administrative services under section 123.15123.10 of the Revised 5220
Code, or by the executive director of the Ohio facilities 5221
construction commission under section 123.23 of the Revised Code,5222
in the amount designated in that declaration.5223

       Within sixty days after the effective date of any act 5224
appropriating money for capital projects, the director shall 5225
determine which appropriations are for general projects and which 5226
are for specific projects. Specific projects may include specific 5227
higher education projects that are to be funded from general 5228
purpose appropriations from the higher education improvement fund 5229
or the higher education improvement taxable fund created in 5230
section 154.21 of the Revised Code. Upon determining which 5231
projects are general and which are specific, the director shall 5232
submit to the controlling board a list that includes a brief 5233
description of and the estimated expenditures for each specific 5234
project. The release of money for any specific higher education 5235
projects that are to be funded from general purpose appropriations 5236
from the higher education improvement fund or the higher education 5237
improvement taxable fund but that are not included on the list, 5238
and the release of money for any specific higher education 5239
projects included on the list that will exceed the estimated 5240
expenditures by more than ten per cent, are subject to the 5241
approval of the controlling board. 5242

       The director may create new appropriation items and make 5243
transfers of appropriations to them for specific higher education 5244
projects included on the list that are to be funded from general 5245
purpose appropriations for basic renovations that are made from 5246
the higher education improvement fund or the higher education 5247
improvement taxable fund.5248

       Sec. 127.163. At the time an agency submits a request to the 5249
controlling board to approve the making of a purchase, if the 5250
requested purchase is to be made from a supplier who is not 5251
headquartered in this state but has a presence in this state, the 5252
agency shall include in the request the following information:5253

        (A) The address or addresses of the supplier's places of 5254
business in this state;5255

        (B) The total number of employees the supplier employs in 5256
each of its places of business in this state;5257

        (C) The percentage of the requested purchase to be completed 5258
by employees of the supplier located in this state;5259

        (D) A list of any suppliers, subcontractors, or other 5260
entities the supplier intends to use to fulfill the requested 5261
purchase that includes all of the following:5262

        (1) The address or addresses of the places of business in 5263
this state of each potential supplier, subcontractor, or entity;5264

        (2) The number of employees that each potential supplier, 5265
subcontractor, or entity employs in each of its places of business 5266
in this state;5267

        (3) The percentage of the requested purchase to be completed 5268
by employees of the potential supplier, subcontractor, or entity 5269
located in this state.5270

       Sec. 127.164. (A) Prior to submitting a request to approve 5271
the making of a purchase to the controlling board, an agency shall 5272
contact any entity headquartered in this state that the agency 5273
approached related to the proposed purchase or to whom the agency 5274
sent a request for proposals but who did not respond to the 5275
request for proposals and ascertain why the entity did not 5276
respond.5277

        (B) At the time an agency submits a request to the 5278
controlling board to approve the making of a purchase, the agency 5279
shall submit to the board, as part of the request, the information 5280
that the agency collected under division (A) of this section.5281

       Sec. 135.35.  (A) The investing authority shall deposit or 5282
invest any part or all of the county's inactive moneys and shall 5283
invest all of the money in the county public library fund when 5284
required by section 135.352 of the Revised Code. The following 5285
classifications of securities and obligations are eligible for 5286
such deposit or investment:5287

       (1) United States treasury bills, notes, bonds, or any other 5288
obligation or security issued by the United States treasury, any 5289
other obligation guaranteed as to principal or interest by the 5290
United States, or any book entry, zero-coupon United States 5291
treasury security that is a direct obligation of the United 5292
States.5293

       Nothing in the classification of eligible securities and 5294
obligations set forth in divisions (A)(2) to (11) or (A)(13) of 5295
this section shall be construed to authorize any investment in 5296
stripped principal or interest obligations of such eligible 5297
securities and obligations.5298

       (2) Bonds, notes, debentures, or any other obligations or 5299
securities issued by any federal government agency or 5300
instrumentality, including, but not limited to, the federal 5301
national mortgage association, federal home loan bank, federal 5302
farm credit bank, federal home loan mortgage corporation, 5303
government national mortgage association, and student loan 5304
marketing association. All federal agency securities shall be 5305
direct issuances of federal government agencies or 5306
instrumentalities.5307

       (3) Time certificates of deposit or savings or deposit 5308
accounts, including, but not limited to, passbook accounts, in any 5309
eligible institution mentioned in section 135.32 of the Revised 5310
Code;5311

       (4) Bonds and other obligations of this state or the 5312
political subdivisions of this state;5313

       (5) No-load money market mutual funds consisting exclusively 5314
of obligations described in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 5315
and repurchase agreements secured by such obligations, provided 5316
that investments in securities described in this division are made 5317
only through eligible institutions mentioned in section 135.32 of 5318
the Revised Code;5319

       (6) The Ohio subdivision's fund as provided in section 135.45 5320
of the Revised Code;5321

       (7) Securities lending agreements with any eligible 5322
institution mentioned in section 135.32 of the Revised Code that 5323
is a member of the federal reserve system or federal home loan 5324
bank or with any recognized United States government securities 5325
dealer meeting the description in division (J)(1) of this section, 5326
under the terms of which agreements the investing authority lends 5327
securities and the eligible institution or dealer agrees to 5328
simultaneously exchange similar securities or cash, equal value 5329
for equal value.5330

       Securities and cash received as collateral for a securities 5331
lending agreement are not inactive moneys of the county or moneys 5332
of a county public library fund. The investment of cash collateral 5333
received pursuant to a securities lending agreement may be 5334
invested only in instruments specified by the investing authority 5335
in the written investment policy described in division (K) of this 5336
section. 5337

       (8) Up to twenty-five per cent of the county's total average 5338
portfolio in either of the following investments:5339

       (a) Commercial paper notes issued by an entity that is 5340
defined in division (D) of section 1705.01 of the Revised Code and 5341
that has assets exceeding five hundred million dollars, to which 5342
notes all of the following apply:5343

       (i) The notes are rated at the time of purchase in the 5344
highest classification established by at least two nationally 5345
recognized standard rating services.5346

       (ii) The aggregate value of the notes does not exceed ten per 5347
cent of the aggregate value of the outstanding commercial paper of 5348
the issuing corporation.5349

       (iii) The notes mature not later than two hundred seventy 5350
days after purchase.5351

       (b) Bankers acceptances of banks that are insured by the 5352
federal deposit insurance corporation and to which both of the 5353
following apply:5354

       (i) The obligations are eligible for purchase by the federal 5355
reserve system.5356

       (ii) The obligations mature not later than one hundred eighty 5357
days after purchase.5358

       No investment shall be made pursuant to division (A)(8) of 5359
this section unless the investing authority has completed 5360
additional training for making the investments authorized by 5361
division (A)(8) of this section. The type and amount of additional 5362
training shall be approved by the auditor of state and may be 5363
conducted by or provided under the supervision of the auditor of 5364
state.5365

       (9) Up to fifteen per cent of the county's total average 5366
portfolio in notes issued by corporations that are incorporated 5367
under the laws of the United States and that are operating within 5368
the United States, or by depository institutions that are doing 5369
business under authority granted by the United States or any state 5370
and that are operating within the United States, provided both of 5371
the following apply:5372

        (a) The notes are rated in the second highest or higher 5373
category by at least two nationally recognized standard rating 5374
services at the time of purchase.5375

        (b) The notes mature not later than two years after purchase.5376

        (10) No-load money market mutual funds rated in the highest 5377
category at the time of purchase by at least one nationally 5378
recognized standard rating service and consisting exclusively of 5379
obligations described in division (A)(1), (2), or (6) of section 5380
135.143 of the Revised Code;5381

        (11) Debt interests rated at the time of purchase in the 5382
three highest categories by two nationally recognized standard 5383
rating services and issued by foreign nations diplomatically 5384
recognized by the United States government. All interest and 5385
principal shall be denominated and payable in United States funds. 5386
The investments made under division (A)(11) of this section shall 5387
not exceed in the aggregate one per cent of a county's total 5388
average portfolio.5389

       The investing authority shall invest under division (A)(11) 5390
of this section in a debt interest issued by a foreign nation only 5391
if the debt interest is backed by the full faith and credit of 5392
that foreign nation, there is no prior history of default, and the 5393
debt interest matures not later than five years after purchase. 5394
For purposes of division (A)(11) of this section, a debt interest 5395
is rated in the three highest categories by two nationally 5396
recognized standard rating services if either the debt interest 5397
itself or the issuer of the debt interest is rated, or is 5398
implicitly rated, at the time of purchase in the three highest 5399
categories by two nationally recognized standard rating services.5400

       (12) A current unpaid or delinquent tax line of credit 5401
authorized under division (G) of section 135.341 of the Revised 5402
Code, provided that all of the conditions for entering into such a 5403
line of credit under that division are satisfied, or bonds and 5404
other obligations of a county land reutilization corporation 5405
organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code, if the county 5406
land reutilization corporation is located wholly or partly within 5407
the same county as the investing authority;5408

       (13) Either or both of the following, provided the 5409
investments are specifically approved by the investment advisory 5410
committee and the aggregate amount invested pursuant to division 5411
(A)(13) of this section does not exceed fifteen per cent of the 5412
county's total average portfolio:5413

       (a) Bonds or other obligations of the political subdivisions 5414
of this state, regardless of their date of maturity;5415

       (b) Securities or obligations otherwise eligible for 5416
investment under this section that mature on a date that is more 5417
than five years but not more than ten years from the date of 5418
settlement.5419

       (B) Nothing in the classifications of eligible obligations 5420
and securities set forth in divisions (A)(1) to (11) or (A)(13) of 5421
this section shall be construed to authorize investment in a 5422
derivative, and no investing authority shall invest any county 5423
inactive moneys or any moneys in a county public library fund in a 5424
derivative. For purposes of this division, "derivative" means a 5425
financial instrument or contract or obligation whose value or 5426
return is based upon or linked to another asset or index, or both, 5427
separate from the financial instrument, contract, or obligation 5428
itself. Any security, obligation, trust account, or other 5429
instrument that is created from an issue of the United States 5430
treasury or is created from an obligation of a federal agency or 5431
instrumentality or is created from both is considered a derivative 5432
instrument. An eligible investment described in this section with 5433
a variable interest rate payment, based upon a single interest 5434
payment or single index comprised of other eligible investments 5435
provided for in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, is not a 5436
derivative, provided that such variable rate investment has a 5437
maximum maturity of two years. A treasury inflation-protected 5438
security shall not be considered a derivative, provided the 5439
security matures not later than five years after purchase.5440

       (C) Except for the investments described in division (A)(13) 5441
of this section or as provided in divisionsdivision (D) and (O)5442
of this section, any investment made pursuant to this section must 5443
mature within tenfive years from the date of settlement, unless 5444
the investment is matched to a specific obligation or debt of the 5445
county or to a specific obligation or debt of a political 5446
subdivision of this state, and the investment is specifically 5447
approved by the investment advisory committee.5448

       (D) The investing authority may also enter into a written 5449
repurchase agreement with any eligible institution mentioned in 5450
section 135.32 of the Revised Code or any eligible securities 5451
dealer pursuant to division (J) of this section, under the terms 5452
of which agreement the investing authority purchases and the 5453
eligible institution or dealer agrees unconditionally to 5454
repurchase any of the securities listed in divisions (B)(1) to 5455
(5), except letters of credit described in division (B)(2), of 5456
section 135.18 of the Revised Code. The market value of securities 5457
subject to an overnight written repurchase agreement must exceed 5458
the principal value of the overnight written repurchase agreement 5459
by at least two per cent. A written repurchase agreement must 5460
exceed the principal value of the overnight written repurchase 5461
agreement, by at least two per cent. A written repurchase 5462
agreement shall not exceed thirty days, and the market value of 5463
securities subject to a written repurchase agreement must exceed 5464
the principal value of the written repurchase agreement by at 5465
least two per cent and be marked to market daily. All securities 5466
purchased pursuant to this division shall be delivered into the 5467
custody of the investing authority or the qualified custodian of 5468
the investing authority or an agent designated by the investing 5469
authority. A written repurchase agreement with an eligible 5470
securities dealer shall be transacted on a delivery versus payment 5471
basis. The agreement shall contain the requirement that for each 5472
transaction pursuant to the agreement the participating 5473
institution shall provide all of the following information:5474

       (1) The par value of the securities;5475

       (2) The type, rate, and maturity date of the securities;5476

       (3) A numerical identifier generally accepted in the 5477
securities industry that designates the securities.5478

       No investing authority shall enter into a written repurchase 5479
agreement under the terms of which the investing authority agrees 5480
to sell securities owned by the county to a purchaser and agrees 5481
with that purchaser to unconditionally repurchase those 5482
securities.5483

       (E) No investing authority shall make an investment under 5484
this section, unless the investing authority, at the time of 5485
making the investment, reasonably expects that the investment can 5486
be held until its maturity. The investing authority's written 5487
investment policy shall specify the conditions under which an 5488
investment may be redeemed or sold prior to maturity.5489

       (F) No investing authority shall pay a county's inactive 5490
moneys or moneys of a county public library fund into a fund 5491
established by another subdivision, treasurer, governing board, or 5492
investing authority, if that fund was established by the 5493
subdivision, treasurer, governing board, or investing authority 5494
for the purpose of investing or depositing the public moneys of 5495
other subdivisions. This division does not apply to the payment of 5496
public moneys into either of the following:5497

       (1) The Ohio subdivision's fund pursuant to division (A)(6) 5498
of this section;5499

       (2) A fund created solely for the purpose of acquiring, 5500
constructing, owning, leasing, or operating municipal utilities 5501
pursuant to the authority provided under section 715.02 of the 5502
Revised Code or Section 4 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution.5503

       For purposes of division (F) of this section, "subdivision" 5504
includes a county.5505

       (G) The use of leverage, in which the county uses its current 5506
investment assets as collateral for the purpose of purchasing 5507
other assets, is prohibited. The issuance of taxable notes for the 5508
purpose of arbitrage is prohibited. Contracting to sell securities 5509
not owned by the county, for the purpose of purchasing such 5510
securities on the speculation that bond prices will decline, is 5511
prohibited.5512

       (H) Any securities, certificates of deposit, deposit 5513
accounts, or any other documents evidencing deposits or 5514
investments made under authority of this section shall be issued 5515
in the name of the county with the county treasurer or investing 5516
authority as the designated payee. If any such deposits or 5517
investments are registrable either as to principal or interest, or 5518
both, they shall be registered in the name of the treasurer.5519

       (I) The investing authority shall be responsible for the 5520
safekeeping of all documents evidencing a deposit or investment 5521
acquired under this section, including, but not limited to, 5522
safekeeping receipts evidencing securities deposited with a 5523
qualified trustee, as provided in section 135.37 of the Revised 5524
Code, and documents confirming the purchase of securities under 5525
any repurchase agreement under this section shall be deposited 5526
with a qualified trustee, provided, however, that the qualified 5527
trustee shall be required to report to the investing authority, 5528
auditor of state, or an authorized outside auditor at any time 5529
upon request as to the identity, market value, and location of the 5530
document evidencing each security, and that if the participating 5531
institution is a designated depository of the county for the 5532
current period of designation, the securities that are the subject 5533
of the repurchase agreement may be delivered to the treasurer or 5534
held in trust by the participating institution on behalf of the 5535
investing authority.5536

       Upon the expiration of the term of office of an investing 5537
authority or in the event of a vacancy in the office for any 5538
reason, the officer or the officer's legal representative shall 5539
transfer and deliver to the officer's successor all documents 5540
mentioned in this division for which the officer has been 5541
responsible for safekeeping. For all such documents transferred 5542
and delivered, the officer shall be credited with, and the 5543
officer's successor shall be charged with, the amount of moneys 5544
evidenced by such documents.5545

       (J)(1) All investments, except for investments in securities 5546
described in divisions (A)(5), (6), and (12), and (13) of this 5547
section, shall be made only through a member of the national 5548
association of securities dealers, through a bank, savings bank, 5549
or savings and loan association regulated by the superintendent of 5550
financial institutions, or through an institution regulated by the 5551
comptroller of the currency, federal deposit insurance 5552
corporation, or board of governors of the federal reserve system. 5553

       (2) Payment for investments shall be made only upon the 5554
delivery of securities representing such investments to the 5555
treasurer, investing authority, or qualified trustee. If the 5556
securities transferred are not represented by a certificate, 5557
payment shall be made only upon receipt of confirmation of 5558
transfer from the custodian by the treasurer, governing board, or 5559
qualified trustee.5560

       (K)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (K)(2) of 5561
this section, no investing authority shall make an investment or 5562
deposit under this section, unless there is on file with the 5563
auditor of state a written investment policy approved by the 5564
investing authority. The policy shall require that all entities 5565
conducting investment business with the investing authority shall 5566
sign the investment policy of that investing authority. All 5567
brokers, dealers, and financial institutions, described in 5568
division (J)(1) of this section, initiating transactions with the 5569
investing authority by giving advice or making investment 5570
recommendations shall sign the investing authority's investment 5571
policy thereby acknowledging their agreement to abide by the 5572
policy's contents. All brokers, dealers, and financial 5573
institutions, described in division (J)(1) of this section, 5574
executing transactions initiated by the investing authority, 5575
having read the policy's contents, shall sign the investment 5576
policy thereby acknowledging their comprehension and receipt.5577

       (2) If a written investment policy described in division 5578
(K)(1) of this section is not filed on behalf of the county with 5579
the auditor of state, the investing authority of that county shall 5580
invest the county's inactive moneys and moneys of the county 5581
public library fund only in time certificates of deposits or 5582
savings or deposit accounts pursuant to division (A)(3) of this 5583
section, no-load money market mutual funds pursuant to division 5584
(A)(5) of this section, or the Ohio subdivision's fund pursuant to 5585
division (A)(6) of this section.5586

       (L)(1) The investing authority shall establish and maintain 5587
an inventory of all obligations and securities acquired by the 5588
investing authority pursuant to this section. The inventory shall 5589
include a description of each obligation or security, including 5590
type, cost, par value, maturity date, settlement date, and any 5591
coupon rate.5592

       (2) The investing authority shall also keep a complete record 5593
of all purchases and sales of the obligations and securities made 5594
pursuant to this section.5595

       (3) The investing authority shall maintain a monthly 5596
portfolio report and issue a copy of the monthly portfolio report 5597
describing such investments to the county investment advisory 5598
committee, detailing the current inventory of all obligations and 5599
securities, all transactions during the month that affected the 5600
inventory, any income received from the obligations and 5601
securities, and any investment expenses paid, and stating the 5602
names of any persons effecting transactions on behalf of the 5603
investing authority.5604

       (4) The monthly portfolio report shall be a public record and 5605
available for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.5606

       (5) The inventory and the monthly portfolio report shall be 5607
filed with the board of county commissioners. The monthly 5608
portfolio report also shall be filed with the treasurer of state.5609

       (M) An investing authority may enter into a written 5610
investment or deposit agreement that includes a provision under 5611
which the parties agree to submit to nonbinding arbitration to 5612
settle any controversy that may arise out of the agreement, 5613
including any controversy pertaining to losses of public moneys 5614
resulting from investment or deposit. The arbitration provision 5615
shall be set forth entirely in the agreement, and the agreement 5616
shall include a conspicuous notice to the parties that any party 5617
to the arbitration may apply to the court of common pleas of the 5618
county in which the arbitration was held for an order to vacate, 5619
modify, or correct the award. Any such party may also apply to the 5620
court for an order to change venue to a court of common pleas 5621
located more than one hundred miles from the county in which the 5622
investing authority is located.5623

       For purposes of this division, "investment or deposit 5624
agreement" means any agreement between an investing authority and 5625
a person, under which agreement the person agrees to invest, 5626
deposit, or otherwise manage, on behalf of the investing 5627
authority, a county's inactive moneys or moneys in a county public 5628
library fund, or agrees to provide investment advice to the 5629
investing authority.5630

       (N) An investment held in the county portfolio on September 5631
27, 1996, that was a legal investment under the law as it existed 5632
before September 27, 1996, may be held until maturity, or if the 5633
investment does not have a maturity date the investment may be 5634
held until five years from September 27, 1996, regardless of 5635
whether the investment would qualify as a legal investment under 5636
the terms of this section as amended.5637

       (O) Upon a majority affirmative vote of the county investment 5638
advisory committee in support of such action, an investment 5639
authority may invest up to twenty-five per cent of the county's 5640
total average portfolio of investments made under this section in 5641
securities and obligations that mature on a date that is more than 5642
ten years from the date of settlement.5643

       Sec. 140.01.  As used in this chapter:5644

       (A) "Hospital agency" means any public hospital agency or any 5645
nonprofit hospital agency.5646

       (B) "Public hospital agency" means any county, board of 5647
county hospital trustees established pursuant to section 339.02 of 5648
the Revised Code, county hospital commission established pursuant 5649
to section 339.14 of the Revised Code, municipal corporation, new 5650
community authority organized under Chapter 349. of the Revised 5651
Code, joint township hospital district, state or municipal 5652
university or college operating or authorized to operate a 5653
hospital facility, or the state.5654

       (C) "Nonprofit hospital agency" means a corporation or 5655
association not for profit, no part of the net earnings of which 5656
inures or may lawfully inure to the benefit of any private 5657
shareholder or individual, that has authority to own or operate a 5658
hospital facility or provides or is to provide services to one or 5659
more other hospital agencies.5660

       (D) "Governing body" means, in the case of a county, the 5661
board of county commissioners or other legislative body; in the 5662
case of a board of county hospital trustees, the board; in the 5663
case of a county hospital commission, the commission; in the case 5664
of a municipal corporation, the council or other legislative 5665
authority; in the case of a new community authority, its board of 5666
trustees; in the case of a joint township hospital district, the 5667
joint township district hospital board; in the case of a state or 5668
municipal university or college, its board of trustees or board of 5669
directors; in the case of a nonprofit hospital agency, the board 5670
of trustees or other body having general management of the agency; 5671
and, in the case of the state, the director of development or the 5672
Ohio higher educational facility commission.5673

       (E) "Hospital facilities" means buildings, structures and 5674
other improvements, additions thereto and extensions thereof, 5675
furnishings, equipment, and real estate and interests in real 5676
estate, used or to be used for or in connection with one or more 5677
hospitals, emergency, intensive, intermediate, extended, 5678
long-term, or self-care facilities, diagnostic and treatment and 5679
out-patient facilities, facilities related to programs for home 5680
health services, clinics, laboratories, public health centers, 5681
research facilities, and rehabilitation facilities, for or 5682
pertaining to diagnosis, treatment, care, or rehabilitation of 5683
sick, ill, injured, infirm, impaired, disabled, or handicapped 5684
persons, or the prevention, detection, and control of disease, and 5685
also includes education, training, and food service facilities for 5686
health professions personnel, housing facilities for such 5687
personnel and their families, and parking and service facilities 5688
in connection with any of the foregoing; and includes any one, 5689
part of, or any combination of the foregoing; and further includes 5690
site improvements, utilities, machinery, facilities, furnishings, 5691
and any separate or connected buildings, structures, improvements, 5692
sites, utilities, facilities, or equipment to be used in, or in 5693
connection with the operation or maintenance of, or supplementing 5694
or otherwise related to the services or facilities to be provided 5695
by, any one or more of such hospital facilities.5696

       (F) "Costs of hospital facilities" means the costs of 5697
acquiring hospital facilities or interests in hospital facilities, 5698
including membership interests in nonprofit hospital agencies, 5699
costs of constructing hospital facilities, costs of improving one 5700
or more hospital facilities, including reconstructing, 5701
rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, and enlarging, costs of 5702
equipping and furnishing such facilities, and all financing costs 5703
pertaining thereto, including, without limitation thereto, costs 5704
of engineering, architectural, and other professional services, 5705
designs, plans, specifications and surveys, and estimates of cost, 5706
costs of tests and inspections, the costs of any indemnity or 5707
surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related direct or 5708
allocable administrative expenses pertaining thereto, fees and 5709
expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 5710
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 5711
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisors, attorneys, 5712
accountants, consultants and rating services in connection 5713
therewith, capitalized interest on the obligations, amounts 5714
necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 5715
proceedings, the reimbursement of all moneys advanced or applied 5716
by the hospital agency or others or borrowed from others for the 5717
payment of any item or items of costs of such facilities, and all 5718
other expenses necessary or incident to planning or determining 5719
feasibility or practicability with respect to such facilities, and 5720
such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 5721
acquisition, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, 5722
remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and 5723
furnishing of such facilities, the financing thereof, and the 5724
placing of the same in use and operation, including any one, part 5725
of, or combination of such classes of costs and expenses, and 5726
means the costs of refinancing obligations issued by, or 5727
reimbursement of money advanced by, nonprofit hospital agencies or 5728
others the proceeds of which were used for the payment of costs of 5729
hospital facilities, if the governing body of the public hospital 5730
agency determines that the refinancing or reimbursement advances 5731
the purposes of this chapter, whether or not the refinancing or 5732
reimbursement is in conjunction with the acquisition or 5733
construction of additional hospital facilities.5734

       (G) "Hospital receipts" means all moneys received by or on 5735
behalf of a hospital agency from or in connection with the 5736
ownership, operation, acquisition, construction, improvement, 5737
equipping, or financing of any hospital facilities, including, 5738
without limitation thereto, any rentals and other moneys received 5739
from the lease, sale, or other disposition of hospital facilities, 5740
and any gifts, grants, interest subsidies, or other moneys 5741
received under any federal program for assistance in financing the 5742
costs of hospital facilities, and any other gifts, grants, and 5743
donations, and receipts therefrom, available for financing the 5744
costs of hospital facilities.5745

       (H) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 5746
indebtedness or obligation, including interest coupons pertaining 5747
thereto, issued or issuable by a public hospital agency to pay 5748
costs of hospital facilities.5749

       (I) "Bond service charges" means principal, interest, and 5750
call premium, if any, required to be paid on obligations.5751

       (J) "Bond proceedings" means one or more ordinances, 5752
resolutions, trust agreements, indentures, and other agreements or 5753
documents, and amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or any 5754
combination thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms, 5755
including any variable interest rates, and conditions applicable 5756
to, or providing for the security of, obligations and the 5757
provisions contained in such obligations.5758

       (K) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in division (A)(1) 5759
of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.5760

       (L) "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 5761
division (A)(2) of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.5762

       (M) "Adult care facility" has the same meaning as in division 5763
(A)(3) of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.5764

       (N) "Independent living facility" means any self-care 5765
facility or other housing facility designed or used as a residence 5766
for elderly persons. An "independent living facility" does not 5767
include a residential facility, or that part of a residential 5768
facility, that is any of the following:5769

       (1) A hospital required to be certified by section 3727.02 of 5770
the Revised Code;5771

       (2) A nursing home or residential care facility;5772

       (3) An adult care facility;5773

       (4) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 5774
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code and used for the 5775
program's hospice patients;5776

        (4) A residential facility licensed by the department of 5777
mental health under section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that 5778
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 5779
for three to sixteen unrelated adults;5780

       (5) A residential facility for the mentally ill licensed by 5781
the department of mental health under section 5119.22 of the 5782
Revised Code that is not a residential facility described in 5783
division (M)(4) of this section;5784

       (6) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment under 5785
section 3793.11 of the Revised Code;5786

       (7) A facility certified as an alcohol and drug addiction 5787
program under section 3793.06 of the Revised Code;5788

       (8) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 5789
the Revised Code or a facility providing services under a contract 5790
with the department of developmental disabilities under section 5791
5123.18 of the Revised Code;5792

       (9) A residential facility used as part of a hospital to 5793
provide housing for staff of the hospital or students pursuing a 5794
course of study at the hospital.5795

       Sec. 140.03.  (A) Two or more hospital agencies may enter 5796
into agreements for the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 5797
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, equipping, and 5798
furnishing of hospital facilities, or the management, operation, 5799
occupancy, use, maintenance, and repair of hospital facilities, or 5800
for participation in programs, projects, activities, and services 5801
useful to, connected with, supplementing, or otherwise related to 5802
the services provided by, or the operation of, hospital facilities 5803
operated by one or more participating hospital agencies, including 5804
any combination of such purposes, all in such manner as to promote 5805
the public purpose stated in section 140.02 of the Revised Code. A 5806
city health district; general health district; board of alcohol, 5807
drug addiction, and mental health services; county board of 5808
developmental disabilities; the department of mental health; the 5809
department of developmental disabilities; or any public body 5810
engaged in the education or training of health professions 5811
personnel may join in any such agreement for purposes related to 5812
its authority under laws applicable to it, and as such a 5813
participant shall be considered a public hospital agency or 5814
hospital agency for the purposes of this section.5815

       (B) An agreement entered into under authority of this section 5816
shall, where appropriate, provide for:5817

       (1) The manner in which the title to the hospital facilities, 5818
including the sites and interest in real estate pertaining 5819
thereto, is to be held, transferred, or disposed of;5820

       (2) Unless provided for by lease pursuant to section 140.05 5821
of the Revised Code, the method by which such hospital facilities 5822
are to be acquired, constructed, or otherwise improved and by 5823
which they shall be managed, occupied, maintained, and repaired, 5824
including the designation of one of the hospital agencies to have 5825
charge of the details of acquisition, construction, or improvement 5826
pursuant to the contracting procedures prescribed under the law 5827
applicable to one of the participating public hospital agencies;5828

       (3) The management or administration of any such programs, 5829
projects, activities, or services, which may include management or 5830
administration by one of said hospital agencies or a board or 5831
agency thereof;5832

       (4) Annual, or more frequent, reports to the participating 5833
hospital agencies as to the revenues and receipts pertaining to 5834
the subject of the agreement, the expenditures thereof, the status 5835
and application of other funds contributed under such agreement, 5836
and such other matters as may be specified by or pursuant to such 5837
agreement;5838

       (5) The manner of apportionment or sharing of costs of 5839
hospital facilities, any other applicable costs of management, 5840
operation, maintenance, and repair of hospital facilities, and 5841
costs for the programs, projects, activities, and services forming 5842
the subject of the agreement, which apportionment or sharing may 5843
be prescribed in fixed amounts, or determined by ratios, formulas, 5844
or otherwise, and paid as service charges, rentals, or in such 5845
other manner as provided in the agreement, and may include amounts 5846
sufficient to meet the bond service charges and other payments and 5847
deposits required under the bond proceedings for obligations 5848
issued to pay costs of hospital facilities. A hospital agency may 5849
commit itself to make such payments at least for so long as any 5850
such obligations are outstanding. In the apportionment, different 5851
classes of costs or expenses may be apportioned to one or more, 5852
all or less than all, of the participating hospital agencies as 5853
determined under such agreement.5854

       (C) An agreement entered into under authority of this section 5855
may provide for:5856

       (1) An orderly process for making determinations or advising 5857
as to planning, execution, implementation, and operation, which 5858
may include designating one of the hospital agencies, or a board 5859
thereof, for any of such purposes, provisions for a committee, 5860
board, or commission, and for representation thereon, or as may 5861
otherwise be provided;5862

       (2) Securing necessary personnel, including participation of 5863
personnel from the respective hospital agencies;5864

       (3) Standards or conditions for the admission or 5865
participation of patients and physicians;5866

       (4) Conditions for admittance of other hospital agencies to 5867
participation under the agreement;5868

       (5) Fixing or establishing the method of determining charges 5869
to be made for particular services;5870

       (6) The manner of amending, supplementing, terminating, or 5871
withdrawal or removal of any party from, the agreement, and the 5872
term of the agreement, or an indefinite term;5873

       (7) Designation of the applicants for or recipients of any 5874
federal, state, or other aid, assistance, or loans available by 5875
reason of any activities conducted under the agreement;5876

       (8) Designation of one or more of the participating hospital 5877
agencies to maintain, prepare, and submit, on behalf of all 5878
parties to the agreement, any or all records and reports with 5879
regard to the activities conducted under the agreement;5880

       (9) Any incidental use of the hospital facilities, or 5881
services thereof, by participating public hospital agencies for 5882
any of their lawful purposes, which incidental use does not impair 5883
the character of the facilities as hospital facilities for any 5884
purpose of this chapter;5885

       (10) Such other matters as the parties thereto may agree upon 5886
for the purposes of division (A) of this section.5887

       (D) For the purpose of paying or contributing its share under 5888
an agreement made under this section, a public hospital agency 5889
may:5890

       (1) Expend any moneys from its general fund, and from any 5891
other funds not otherwise restricted by law, but including funds 5892
for permanent improvements of hospital facilities of such public 5893
hospital agency where the contribution is to be made toward the 5894
costs of hospital facilities under the agreement, and including 5895
funds derived from levies for, or receipts available for, 5896
operating expenses of hospital facilities or services of such 5897
public hospital agency where the contribution or payment is to be 5898
made toward operating expenses of the hospital facilities or 5899
services under the agreement or for the services provided thereby;5900

       (2) Issue obligations under Chapter 133. or section 140.06, 5901
339.14, 339.15, 513.12, or 3345.12 of the Revised Code, or Section 5902
3 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, if applicable to such 5903
public hospital agency, to pay costs of hospital facilities, or 5904
issue obligations under any other provision of law authorizing 5905
such public hospital agency to issue obligations for any costs of 5906
hospital facilities;5907

       (3) Levy taxes under Chapter 5705. or section 513.13 or 5908
3709.29 of the Revised Code, if applicable to such public hospital 5909
agency, provided that the purpose of such levy may include the 5910
provision of funds for either or both permanent improvements and 5911
current expenses if required for the contribution or payment of 5912
such hospital agency under such agreement, and each such public 5913
hospital agency may issue notes in anticipation of any such levy, 5914
pursuant to the procedures provided in section 5705.191 of the 5915
Revised Code if the levy is solely for current expenses, and in 5916
section 5705.193 of the Revised Code if the levy is all or in part 5917
for permanent improvements;5918

       (4) Contribute real and personal property or interest therein 5919
without necessity for competitive bidding or public auction on 5920
disposition of such property.5921

       (E) Any funds provided by public hospital agencies that are 5922
parties to an agreement entered into under this section shall be 5923
transferred to and placed in a separate fund or funds of such 5924
participating public hospital agency as is designated under the 5925
agreement. The funds shall be applied for the purposes provided in 5926
such agreement and are subject to audit. Pursuant to any 5927
determinations to be made under such agreement, the funds shall be 5928
deposited, invested, and disbursed under the provisions of law 5929
applicable to the public hospital agency in whose custody the 5930
funds are held. This division is subject to the provisions of any 5931
applicable bond proceedings under section 133.08, 140.06, 339.15, 5932
or 3345.12 of the Revised Code or Section 3 of Article XVIII, Ohio 5933
Constitution. The records and reports of such public hospital 5934
agency under Chapter 117. of the Revised Code and sections 3702.51 5935
to 3702.62 of the Revised Code, with respect to the funds shall be 5936
sufficient without necessity for reports thereon by the other 5937
public hospital agencies participating under such agreement.5938

       (F)(1) Prior to its entry into any such agreement, the public 5939
hospital agency must determine, and set forth in a resolution or 5940
ordinance, that the contribution to be made by it under such 5941
agreement will be fair consideration for value and benefit to be 5942
derived by it under such agreement and that the agreement will 5943
promote the public purpose stated in section 140.02 of the Revised 5944
Code.5945

       (2) If the agreement is with a board of county commissioners, 5946
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 5947
and is an initial agreement for the acquisition or operation of a 5948
county hospital operated by a board of county hospital trustees 5949
under section 339.06 of the Revised Code, the governing body of 5950
the public hospital agency shall submit the agreement, accompanied 5951
by the resolution or ordinance, to the board of county 5952
commissioners for review pursuant to section 339.091 of the 5953
Revised Code. The agreement may be entered into only if the board 5954
of county commissioners adopts a resolution under that section. 5955
The requirements of division (F)(2) of this section do not apply 5956
to the agreement if one or more hospitals classified as general 5957
hospitals by the publicdirector of health council under section 5958
3701.07 of the Revised Code are operating in the same county as 5959
the county hospital.5960

       Sec. 140.05.  (A)(1) A public hospital agency may lease any 5961
hospital facility to one or more hospital agencies for use as a 5962
hospital facility, or to one or more city or general health 5963
districts; boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 5964
services; county boards of developmental disabilities; the 5965
department of mental health; or the department of developmental 5966
disabilities, for uses which they are authorized to make thereof 5967
under the laws applicable to them, or any combination of them, and 5968
they may lease such facilities to or from a hospital agency for 5969
such uses, upon such terms and conditions as are agreed upon by 5970
the parties. Such lease may be for a term of fifty years or less 5971
and may provide for an option of the lessee to renew for a term of 5972
fifty years or less, as therein set forth. Prior to entering into 5973
such lease, the governing body of any public hospital agency 5974
granting such lease must determine, and set forth in a resolution 5975
or ordinance, that such lease will promote the public purpose 5976
stated in section 140.02 of the Revised Code and that the lessor 5977
public hospital agency will be duly benefited thereby.5978

       (2) If the lease is with a board of county commissioners, 5979
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 5980
and is an agreement for the initial lease of a county hospital 5981
operated by a board of county hospital trustees under section 5982
339.06 of the Revised Code, the governing body of the public 5983
hospital agency shall submit the agreement, accompanied by the 5984
resolution or ordinance, to the board of county commissioners for 5985
review pursuant to section 339.091 of the Revised Code. The 5986
agreement may be entered into only if the board of county 5987
commissioners adopts a resolution under that section. The 5988
requirements of division (A)(2) of this section do not apply to 5989
the lease if one or more hospitals classified as general hospitals 5990
by the publicdirector of health council under section 3701.07 of 5991
the Revised Code are operating in the same county as the county 5992
hospital.5993

       (B) Any lease entered into pursuant to this section shall 5994
provide that in the event that the lessee fails faithfully and 5995
efficiently to administer, maintain, and operate such leased 5996
facilities as hospital facilities, or fails to provide the 5997
services thereof without regard to race, creed, color, or national 5998
origin, or fails to require that any hospital agency using such 5999
facilities or the services thereof shall not discriminate by 6000
reason of race, creed, color, or national origin, after an 6001
opportunity to be heard upon written charges, said lease may be 6002
terminated at the time, in the manner and with consequences 6003
therein provided. If any such lease does not contain terms to the 6004
effect provided in this division, it shall nevertheless be deemed 6005
to contain such terms which shall be implemented as determined by 6006
the governing body of the lessor.6007

       (C) Such lease may provide for rentals commencing at any time 6008
agreed upon, or advance rental, and continuing for such period 6009
therein provided, notwithstanding and without diminution, rebate, 6010
or setoff by reason of time of availability of the hospital 6011
facility for use, delays in construction, failure of completion, 6012
damage or destruction of the hospital facilities, or for any other 6013
reason.6014

       (D) Such lease may provide for the sale or transfer of title 6015
of the leased facilities pursuant to an option to purchase, 6016
lease-purchase, or installment purchase upon terms therein 6017
provided or to be determined as therein provided, which may 6018
include provision for the continued use thereof as a hospital 6019
facility for some reasonable period, taking into account efficient 6020
useful life and other factors, as is provided therein.6021

       (E) Such lease may be entered as part of or in connection 6022
with an agreement pursuant to section 140.03 of the Revised Code. 6023
Any hospital facilities which are the subject of an agreement 6024
entered into under section 140.03 of the Revised Code may be 6025
leased pursuant to this section.6026

       (F) If land acquired by a public hospital agency for a 6027
hospital facility is adjacent to an existing hospital facility 6028
owned by another hospital agency, the public hospital agency may, 6029
in connection with such acquisition or the leasing of such land 6030
and hospital facilities thereon to one or more hospital agencies, 6031
enter into an agreement with the hospital agency which owns such 6032
adjacent hospital facility for the use of common walls in the 6033
construction, operation, or maintenance of hospital facilities of 6034
the public hospital agency. For the purpose of construction, 6035
operation, or maintenance of hospital facilities, a public 6036
hospital agency may acquire by purchase, gift, lease, lease with 6037
option to purchase, lease-purchase, or installment purchase, 6038
easement deed, or other agreement, real estate and interests in 6039
real estate, including rights to use space over, under or upon 6040
real property owned by others, and support, access, common wall, 6041
and other rights in connection therewith. Any public hospital 6042
agency or other political subdivision or any public agency, board, 6043
commission, institution, body, or instrumentality may grant such 6044
real estate, interests, or rights to any hospital agency upon such 6045
terms as are agreed upon without necessity for competitive bidding 6046
or public auction.6047

       Sec. 140.08.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in divisions 6048
(B)(1) and (2) of this section, all hospital facilities purchased, 6049
acquired, constructed, or owned by a public hospital agency, or 6050
financed in whole or in part by obligations issued by a public 6051
hospital agency, and used, or to be used when completed, as 6052
hospital facilities, and the income therefrom, are exempt from all 6053
taxation within this state, including ad valorem and excise taxes, 6054
notwithstanding any other provisions of law, and hospital agencies 6055
are exempt from taxes levied under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the 6056
Revised Code. The obligations issued hereafter under section 6057
133.08, 140.06, or 339.15 of the Revised Code or Section 3 of 6058
Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, to pay costs of hospital 6059
facilities or to refund such obligations, and the transfer 6060
thereof, and the interest and other income from such obligations, 6061
including any profit made on the sale thereof, is free from 6062
taxation within the state.6063

       (B)(1) Division (A) of this section does not exempt 6064
independent living facilities from taxes levied on property or 6065
taxes levied under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code. 6066
If an independent living facility or part of such facility becomes 6067
an adult care facility, nursing home, or residential care facility6068
on or after January 10, 1991, a nursing home, residential care 6069
facility, or residential facility described in division (M)(4) of 6070
section 140.01 of the Revised Code, that part of the independent 6071
living facility that is an adult care facility,a nursing home, or6072
residential care facility, or residential facility described in 6073
division (M)(4) of section 140.01 of the Revised Code is exempt 6074
from taxation subject to division (B)(2) of this section on and 6075
after the date it becomes an adult care facility,a nursing home, 6076
or residential care facility, or residential facility described in 6077
division (M)(4) of section 140.01 of the Revised Code.6078

       (2) Division (A) of this section exempts nursing homes, 6079
residential care facilities, and adult careresidential facilities 6080
described in division (M)(4) of section 140.01 of the Revised Code6081
from taxes levied on property and taxes levied under Chapters 6082
5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code only until all obligations 6083
issued to finance such homes or facilities, or all refunding or 6084
series of refundings of those obligations, are redeemed or 6085
otherwise retired.6086

       Sec. 145.01.  As used in this chapter:6087

       (A) "Public employee" means:6088

       (1) Any person holding an office, not elective, under the 6089
state or any county, township, municipal corporation, park 6090
district, conservancy district, sanitary district, health 6091
district, metropolitan housing authority, state retirement board, 6092
Ohio historical society, public library, county law library, union 6093
cemetery, joint hospital, institutional commissary, state 6094
university, or board, bureau, commission, council, committee, 6095
authority, or administrative body as the same are, or have been, 6096
created by action of the general assembly or by the legislative 6097
authority of any of the units of local government named in 6098
division (A)(1) of this section, or employed and paid in whole or 6099
in part by the state or any of the authorities named in division 6100
(A)(1) of this section in any capacity not covered by section 6101
742.01, 3307.01, 3309.01, or 5505.01 of the Revised Code.6102

       (2) A person who is a member of the public employees 6103
retirement system and who continues to perform the same or similar 6104
duties under the direction of a contractor who has contracted to 6105
take over what before the date of the contract was a publicly 6106
operated function. The governmental unit with which the contract 6107
has been made shall be deemed the employer for the purposes of 6108
administering this chapter.6109

       (3) Any person who is an employee of a public employer, 6110
notwithstanding that the person's compensation for that employment 6111
is derived from funds of a person or entity other than the 6112
employer. Credit for such service shall be included as total 6113
service credit, provided that the employee makes the payments 6114
required by this chapter, and the employer makes the payments 6115
required by sections 145.48 and 145.51 of the Revised Code.6116

       (4) A person who elects in accordance with section 145.015 of 6117
the Revised Code to remain a contributing member of the public 6118
employees retirement system.6119

       (5) A person who is an employee of the legal rights service 6120
on September 30, 2012, and continues to be employed by the 6121
nonprofit entity established under Section 319.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 6122
153 of the 129th general assembly. The nonprofit entity is the 6123
employer for the purpose of this chapter.6124

       In all cases of doubt, the public employees retirement board 6125
shall determine whether any person is a public employee, and its 6126
decision is final.6127

       (B) "Member" means any public employee, other than a public 6128
employee excluded or exempted from membership in the retirement 6129
system by section 145.03, 145.031, 145.032, 145.033, 145.034, 6130
145.035, or 145.38 of the Revised Code. "Member" includes a PERS 6131
retirant who becomes a member under division (C) of section 145.38 6132
of the Revised Code. "Member" also includes a disability benefit 6133
recipient.6134

       (C) "Head of the department" means the elective or appointive 6135
head of the several executive, judicial, and administrative 6136
departments, institutions, boards, and commissions of the state 6137
and local government as the same are created and defined by the 6138
laws of this state or, in case of a charter government, by that 6139
charter.6140

       (D) "Employer" or "public employer" means the state or any 6141
county, township, municipal corporation, park district, 6142
conservancy district, sanitary district, health district, 6143
metropolitan housing authority, state retirement board, Ohio 6144
historical society, public library, county law library, union 6145
cemetery, joint hospital, institutional commissary, state medical 6146
university, state university, or board, bureau, commission, 6147
council, committee, authority, or administrative body as the same 6148
are, or have been, created by action of the general assembly or by 6149
the legislative authority of any of the units of local government 6150
named in this division not covered by section 742.01, 3307.01, 6151
3309.01, or 5505.01 of the Revised Code. In addition, "employer" 6152
means the employer of any public employee.6153

       (E) "Prior service" means all service as a public employee 6154
rendered before January 1, 1935, and all service as an employee of 6155
any employer who comes within the state teachers retirement system 6156
or of the school employees retirement system or of any other 6157
retirement system established under the laws of this state 6158
rendered prior to January 1, 1935, provided that if the employee 6159
claiming the service was employed in any capacity covered by that 6160
other system after that other system was established, credit for 6161
the service may be allowed by the public employees retirement 6162
system only when the employee has made payment, to be computed on 6163
the salary earned from the date of appointment to the date 6164
membership was established in the public employees retirement 6165
system, at the rate in effect at the time of payment, and the 6166
employer has made payment of the corresponding full liability as 6167
provided by section 145.44 of the Revised Code. "Prior service" 6168
also means all service credited for active duty with the armed 6169
forces of the United States as provided in section 145.30 of the 6170
Revised Code.6171

       If an employee who has been granted prior service credit by 6172
the public employees retirement system for service rendered prior 6173
to January 1, 1935, as an employee of a board of education 6174
establishes, before retirement, one year or more of contributing 6175
service in the state teachers retirement system or school 6176
employees retirement system, then the prior service ceases to be 6177
the liability of this system.6178

       If the board determines that a position of any member in any 6179
calendar year prior to January 1, 1935, was a part-time position, 6180
the board shall determine what fractional part of a year's credit 6181
shall be allowed by the following formula:6182

       (1) When the member has been either elected or appointed to 6183
an office the term of which was two or more years and for which an 6184
annual salary is established, the fractional part of the year's 6185
credit shall be computed as follows:6186

       First, when the member's annual salary is one thousand 6187
dollars or less, the service credit for each such calendar year 6188
shall be forty per cent of a year.6189

       Second, for each full one hundred dollars of annual salary 6190
above one thousand dollars, the member's service credit for each 6191
such calendar year shall be increased by two and one-half per 6192
cent.6193

       (2) When the member is paid on a per diem basis, the service 6194
credit for any single year of the service shall be determined by 6195
using the number of days of service for which the compensation was 6196
received in any such year as a numerator and using two hundred 6197
fifty days as a denominator.6198

       (3) When the member is paid on an hourly basis, the service 6199
credit for any single year of the service shall be determined by 6200
using the number of hours of service for which the compensation 6201
was received in any such year as a numerator and using two 6202
thousand hours as a denominator.6203

       (F) "Contributor" means any person who has an account in the 6204
employees' savings fund created by section 145.23 of the Revised 6205
Code. When used in the sections listed in division (B) of section 6206
145.82 of the Revised Code, "contributor" includes any person 6207
participating in a PERS defined contribution plan.6208

       (G) "Beneficiary" or "beneficiaries" means the estate or a 6209
person or persons who, as the result of the death of a member, 6210
contributor, or retirant, qualify for or are receiving some right 6211
or benefit under this chapter.6212

       (H)(1) "Total service credit," except as provided in section 6213
145.37 of the Revised Code, means all service credited to a member 6214
of the retirement system since last becoming a member, including 6215
restored service credit as provided by section 145.31 of the 6216
Revised Code; credit purchased under sections 145.293 and 145.299 6217
of the Revised Code; all the member's prior service credit; all 6218
the member's military service credit computed as provided in this 6219
chapter; all service credit established pursuant to section 6220
145.297 of the Revised Code; and any other service credited under 6221
this chapter. In addition, "total service credit" includes any 6222
period, not in excess of three years, during which a member was 6223
out of service and receiving benefits under Chapters 4121. and 6224
4123. of the Revised Code. For the exclusive purpose of satisfying 6225
the service credit requirement and of determining eligibility for 6226
benefits under sections 145.32, 145.33, 145.331, 145.35, 145.36, 6227
and 145.361 of the Revised Code, "five or more years of total 6228
service credit" means sixty or more calendar months of 6229
contributing service in this system.6230

       (2) "One and one-half years of contributing service credit," 6231
as used in division (B) of section 145.45 of the Revised Code, 6232
also means eighteen or more calendar months of employment by a 6233
municipal corporation that formerly operated its own retirement 6234
plan for its employees or a part of its employees, provided that 6235
all employees of that municipal retirement plan who have eighteen 6236
or more months of such employment, upon establishing membership in 6237
the public employees retirement system, shall make a payment of 6238
the contributions they would have paid had they been members of 6239
this system for the eighteen months of employment preceding the 6240
date membership was established. When that payment has been made 6241
by all such employee members, a corresponding payment shall be 6242
paid into the employers' accumulation fund by that municipal 6243
corporation as the employer of the employees.6244

       (3) Where a member also is a member of the state teachers 6245
retirement system or the school employees retirement system, or 6246
both, except in cases of retirement on a combined basis pursuant 6247
to section 145.37 of the Revised Code or as provided in section 6248
145.383 of the Revised Code, service credit for any period shall 6249
be credited on the basis of the ratio that contributions to the 6250
public employees retirement system bear to total contributions in 6251
all state retirement systems.6252

       (4) Not more than one year of credit may be given for any 6253
period of twelve months.6254

       (5) "Ohio service credit" means credit for service that was 6255
rendered to the state or any of its political subdivisions or any 6256
employer.6257

       (I) "Regular interest" means interest at any rates for the 6258
respective funds and accounts as the public employees retirement 6259
board may determine from time to time.6260

       (J) "Accumulated contributions" means the sum of all amounts 6261
credited to a contributor's individual account in the employees' 6262
savings fund together with any interest credited to the 6263
contributor's account under section 145.471 or 145.472 of the 6264
Revised Code.6265

       (K)(1) "Final average salary" means the quotient obtained by 6266
dividing by three the sum of the three full calendar years of 6267
contributing service in which the member's earnable salary was 6268
highest, except that if the member has a partial year of 6269
contributing service in the year the member's employment 6270
terminates and the member's earnable salary for the partial year 6271
is higher than for any comparable period in the three years, the 6272
member's earnable salary for the partial year shall be substituted 6273
for the member's earnable salary for the comparable period during 6274
the three years in which the member's earnable salary was lowest.6275

       (2) If a member has less than three years of contributing 6276
service, the member's final average salary shall be the member's 6277
total earnable salary divided by the total number of years, 6278
including any fraction of a year, of the member's contributing 6279
service.6280

       (3) For the purpose of calculating benefits payable to a 6281
member qualifying for service credit under division (Z) of this 6282
section, "final average salary" means the total earnable salary on 6283
which contributions were made divided by the total number of years 6284
during which contributions were made, including any fraction of a 6285
year. If contributions were made for less than twelve months, 6286
"final average salary" means the member's total earnable salary.6287

       (L) "Annuity" means payments for life derived from 6288
contributions made by a contributor and paid from the annuity and 6289
pension reserve fund as provided in this chapter. All annuities 6290
shall be paid in twelve equal monthly installments.6291

       (M) "Annuity reserve" means the present value, computed upon 6292
the basis of the mortality and other tables adopted by the board, 6293
of all payments to be made on account of any annuity, or benefit 6294
in lieu of any annuity, granted to a retirant as provided in this 6295
chapter.6296

       (N)(1) "Disability retirement" means retirement as provided 6297
in section 145.36 of the Revised Code.6298

       (2) "Disability allowance" means an allowance paid on account 6299
of disability under section 145.361 of the Revised Code.6300

       (3) "Disability benefit" means a benefit paid as disability 6301
retirement under section 145.36 of the Revised Code, as a 6302
disability allowance under section 145.361 of the Revised Code, or 6303
as a disability benefit under section 145.37 of the Revised Code.6304

       (4) "Disability benefit recipient" means a member who is 6305
receiving a disability benefit.6306

       (O) "Age and service retirement" means retirement as provided 6307
in sections 145.32, 145.33, 145.331, 145.34, 145.37, and 145.46 of 6308
the Revised Code.6309

       (P) "Pensions" means annual payments for life derived from 6310
contributions made by the employer that at the time of retirement 6311
are credited into the annuity and pension reserve fund from the 6312
employers' accumulation fund and paid from the annuity and pension 6313
reserve fund as provided in this chapter. All pensions shall be 6314
paid in twelve equal monthly installments.6315

       (Q) "Retirement allowance" means the pension plus that 6316
portion of the benefit derived from contributions made by the 6317
member.6318

       (R)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (R) of this 6319
section, "earnable salary" means all salary, wages, and other 6320
earnings paid to a contributor by reason of employment in a 6321
position covered by the retirement system. The salary, wages, and 6322
other earnings shall be determined prior to determination of the 6323
amount required to be contributed to the employees' savings fund 6324
under section 145.47 of the Revised Code and without regard to 6325
whether any of the salary, wages, or other earnings are treated as 6326
deferred income for federal income tax purposes. "Earnable salary" 6327
includes the following:6328

       (a) Payments made by the employer in lieu of salary, wages, 6329
or other earnings for sick leave, personal leave, or vacation used 6330
by the contributor;6331

       (b) Payments made by the employer for the conversion of sick 6332
leave, personal leave, and vacation leave accrued, but not used if 6333
the payment is made during the year in which the leave is accrued, 6334
except that payments made pursuant to section 124.383 or 124.386 6335
of the Revised Code are not earnable salary;6336

       (c) Allowances paid by the employer for full maintenance, 6337
consisting of housing, laundry, and meals, as certified to the 6338
retirement board by the employer or the head of the department 6339
that employs the contributor;6340

       (d) Fees and commissions paid under section 507.09 of the 6341
Revised Code;6342

       (e) Payments that are made under a disability leave program 6343
sponsored by the employer and for which the employer is required 6344
by section 145.296 of the Revised Code to make periodic employer 6345
and employee contributions;6346

       (f) Amounts included pursuant to divisions (K)(3) and (Y) of 6347
this section.6348

       (2) "Earnable salary" does not include any of the following:6349

       (a) Fees and commissions, other than those paid under section 6350
507.09 of the Revised Code, paid as sole compensation for personal 6351
services and fees and commissions for special services over and 6352
above services for which the contributor receives a salary;6353

       (b) Amounts paid by the employer to provide life insurance, 6354
sickness, accident, endowment, health, medical, hospital, dental, 6355
or surgical coverage, or other insurance for the contributor or 6356
the contributor's family, or amounts paid by the employer to the 6357
contributor in lieu of providing the insurance;6358

       (c) Incidental benefits, including lodging, food, laundry, 6359
parking, or services furnished by the employer, or use of the 6360
employer's property or equipment, or amounts paid by the employer 6361
to the contributor in lieu of providing the incidental benefits;6362

       (d) Reimbursement for job-related expenses authorized by the 6363
employer, including moving and travel expenses and expenses 6364
related to professional development;6365

       (e) Payments for accrued but unused sick leave, personal 6366
leave, or vacation that are made at any time other than in the 6367
year in which the sick leave, personal leave, or vacation was 6368
accrued;6369

       (f) Payments made to or on behalf of a contributor that are 6370
in excess of the annual compensation that may be taken into 6371
account by the retirement system under division (a)(17) of section 6372
401 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 6373
U.S.C.A. 401(a)(17), as amended;6374

       (g) Payments made under division (B), (C), or (E) of section 6375
5923.05 of the Revised Code, Section 4 of Substitute Senate Bill 6376
No. 3 of the 119th general assembly, Section 3 of Amended 6377
Substitute Senate Bill No. 164 of the 124th general assembly, or 6378
Amended Substitute House Bill No. 405 of the 124th general 6379
assembly;6380

       (h) Anything of value received by the contributor that is 6381
based on or attributable to retirement or an agreement to retire, 6382
except that payments made on or before January 1, 1989, that are 6383
based on or attributable to an agreement to retire shall be 6384
included in earnable salary if both of the following apply:6385

       (i) The payments are made in accordance with contract 6386
provisions that were in effect prior to January 1, 1986;6387

       (ii) The employer pays the retirement system an amount 6388
specified by the retirement board equal to the additional 6389
liability resulting from the payments.6390

       (3) The retirement board shall determine by rule whether any 6391
compensation not enumerated in division (R) of this section is 6392
earnable salary, and its decision shall be final.6393

       (S) "Pension reserve" means the present value, computed upon 6394
the basis of the mortality and other tables adopted by the board, 6395
of all payments to be made on account of any retirement allowance 6396
or benefit in lieu of any retirement allowance, granted to a 6397
member or beneficiary under this chapter.6398

       (T)(1) "Contributing service" means all service credited to a 6399
member of the system since January 1, 1935, for which 6400
contributions are made as required by sections 145.47, 145.48, and 6401
145.483 of the Revised Code. In any year subsequent to 1934, 6402
credit for any service shall be allowed by the following formula:6403

       (a) For each month for which the member's earnable salary is 6404
two hundred fifty dollars or more, allow one month's credit.6405

       (b) For each month for which the member's earnable salary is 6406
less than two hundred fifty dollars, allow a fraction of a month's 6407
credit. The numerator of this fraction shall be the earnable 6408
salary during the month, and the denominator shall be two hundred 6409
fifty dollars, except that if the member's annual earnable salary 6410
is less than six hundred dollars, the member's credit shall not be 6411
reduced below twenty per cent of a year for a calendar year of 6412
employment during which the member worked each month. Division 6413
(T)(1)(b) of this section shall not reduce any credit earned 6414
before January 1, 1985.6415

       (2) Notwithstanding division (T)(1) of this section, an 6416
elected official who prior to January 1, 1980, was granted a full 6417
year of credit for each year of service as an elected official 6418
shall be considered to have earned a full year of credit for each 6419
year of service regardless of whether the service was full-time or 6420
part-time. The public employees retirement board has no authority 6421
to reduce the credit.6422

       (U) "State retirement board" means the public employees 6423
retirement board, the school employees retirement board, or the 6424
state teachers retirement board.6425

       (V) "Retirant" means any former member who retires and is 6426
receiving a monthly allowance as provided in sections 145.32, 6427
145.33, 145.331, 145.34, and 145.46 of the Revised Code.6428

       (W) "Employer contribution" means the amount paid by an 6429
employer as determined under section 145.48 of the Revised Code.6430

       (X) "Public service terminates" means the last day for which 6431
a public employee is compensated for services performed for an 6432
employer or the date of the employee's death, whichever occurs 6433
first.6434

       (Y) When a member has been elected or appointed to an 6435
office, the term of which is two or more years, for which an 6436
annual salary is established, and in the event that the salary of 6437
the office is increased and the member is denied the additional 6438
salary by reason of any constitutional provision prohibiting an 6439
increase in salary during a term of office, the member may elect 6440
to have the amount of the member's contributions calculated upon 6441
the basis of the increased salary for the office. At the member's 6442
request, the board shall compute the total additional amount the 6443
member would have contributed, or the amount by which each of the 6444
member's contributions would have increased, had the member 6445
received the increased salary for the office the member holds. If 6446
the member elects to have the amount by which the member's 6447
contribution would have increased withheld from the member's 6448
salary, the member shall notify the employer, and the employer 6449
shall make the withholding and transmit it to the retirement 6450
system. A member who has not elected to have that amount withheld 6451
may elect at any time to make a payment to the retirement system 6452
equal to the additional amount the member's contribution would 6453
have increased, plus interest on that contribution, compounded 6454
annually at a rate established by the board and computed from the 6455
date on which the last contribution would have been withheld from 6456
the member's salary to the date of payment. A member may make a 6457
payment for part of the period for which the increased 6458
contribution was not withheld, in which case the interest shall be 6459
computed from the date the last contribution would have been 6460
withheld for the period for which the payment is made. Upon the 6461
payment of the increased contributions as provided in this 6462
division, the increased annual salary as provided by law for the 6463
office for the period for which the member paid increased 6464
contributions thereon shall be used in determining the member's 6465
earnable salary for the purpose of computing the member's final 6466
average salary.6467

       (Z) "Five years of service credit," for the exclusive purpose 6468
of satisfying the service credit requirements and of determining 6469
eligibility for benefits under section 145.33 of the Revised Code, 6470
means employment covered under this chapter or under a former 6471
retirement plan operated, recognized, or endorsed by the employer 6472
prior to coverage under this chapter or under a combination of the 6473
coverage.6474

       (AA) "Deputy sheriff" means any person who is commissioned 6475
and employed as a full-time peace officer by the sheriff of any 6476
county, and has been so employed since on or before December 31, 6477
1965; any person who is or has been commissioned and employed as a 6478
peace officer by the sheriff of any county since January 1, 1966, 6479
and who has received a certificate attesting to the person's 6480
satisfactory completion of the peace officer training school as 6481
required by section 109.77 of the Revised Code; or any person 6482
deputized by the sheriff of any county and employed pursuant to 6483
section 2301.12 of the Revised Code as a criminal bailiff or court 6484
constable who has received a certificate attesting to the person's 6485
satisfactory completion of the peace officer training school as 6486
required by section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6487

       (BB) "Township constable or police officer in a township 6488
police department or district" means any person who is 6489
commissioned and employed as a full-time peace officer pursuant to 6490
Chapter 505. or 509. of the Revised Code, who has received a 6491
certificate attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of 6492
the peace officer training school as required by section 109.77 of 6493
the Revised Code.6494

       (CC) "Drug agent" means any person who is either of the 6495
following:6496

       (1) Employed full time as a narcotics agent by a county 6497
narcotics agency created pursuant to section 307.15 of the Revised 6498
Code and has received a certificate attesting to the satisfactory 6499
completion of the peace officer training school as required by 6500
section 109.77 of the Revised Code;6501

       (2) Employed full time as an undercover drug agent as defined 6502
in section 109.79 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 6503
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6504

       (DD) "Department of public safety enforcement agent" means a 6505
full-time employee of the department of public safety who is 6506
designated under section 5502.14 of the Revised Code as an 6507
enforcement agent and who is in compliance with section 109.77 of 6508
the Revised Code.6509

       (EE) "Natural resources law enforcement staff officer" means 6510
a full-time employee of the department of natural resources who is 6511
designated a natural resources law enforcement staff officer under 6512
section 1501.013 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 6513
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6514

       (FF) "Park officer" means a full-time employee of the 6515
department of natural resources who is designated a park officer 6516
under section 1541.10 of the Revised Code and is in compliance 6517
with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6518

       (GG) "Forest officer" means a full-time employee of the 6519
department of natural resources who is designated a forest officer 6520
under section 1503.29 of the Revised Code and is in compliance 6521
with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6522

       (HH) "Preserve officer" means a full-time employee of the 6523
department of natural resources who is designated a preserve 6524
officer under section 1517.10 of the Revised Code and is in 6525
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6526

       (II) "Wildlife officer" means a full-time employee of the 6527
department of natural resources who is designated a wildlife 6528
officer under section 1531.13 of the Revised Code and is in 6529
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6530

       (JJ) "State watercraft officer" means a full-time employee of 6531
the department of natural resources who is designated a state 6532
watercraft officer under section 1547.521 of the Revised Code and 6533
is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6534

       (KK) "Park district police officer" means a full-time 6535
employee of a park district who is designated pursuant to section 6536
511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 6537
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6538

       (LL) "Conservancy district officer" means a full-time 6539
employee of a conservancy district who is designated pursuant to 6540
section 6101.75 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 6541
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6542

       (MM) "Municipal police officer" means a member of the 6543
organized police department of a municipal corporation who is 6544
employed full time, is in compliance with section 109.77 of the 6545
Revised Code, and is not a member of the Ohio police and fire 6546
pension fund.6547

       (NN) "Veterans' home police officer" means any person who is 6548
employed at a veterans' home as a police officer pursuant to 6549
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 6550
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6551

       (OO) "Special police officer for a mental health institution" 6552
means any person who is designated as such pursuant to section 6553
5119.14 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with section 6554
109.77 of the Revised Code.6555

       (PP) "Special police officer for an institution for the 6556
mentally retarded and developmentally disabled" means any person 6557
who is designated as such pursuant to section 5123.13 of the 6558
Revised Code and is in compliance with section 109.77 of the 6559
Revised Code.6560

       (QQ) "State university law enforcement officer" means any 6561
person who is employed full time as a state university law 6562
enforcement officer pursuant to section 3345.04 of the Revised 6563
Code and who is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised 6564
Code.6565

       (RR) "House sergeant at arms" means any person appointed by 6566
the speaker of the house of representatives under division (B)(1) 6567
of section 101.311 of the Revised Code who has arrest authority 6568
under division (E)(1) of that section.6569

       (SS) "Assistant house sergeant at arms" means any person 6570
appointed by the house sergeant at arms under division (C)(1) of 6571
section 101.311 of the Revised Code.6572

       (TT) "Regional transit authority police officer" means a 6573
person who is employed full time as a regional transit authority 6574
police officer under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised 6575
Code and is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6576

       (UU) "State highway patrol police officer" means a special 6577
police officer employed full time and designated by the 6578
superintendent of the state highway patrol pursuant to section 6579
5503.09 of the Revised Code or a person serving full time as a 6580
special police officer pursuant to that section on a permanent 6581
basis on October 21, 1997, who is in compliance with section 6582
109.77 of the Revised Code.6583

       (VV) "Municipal public safety director" means a person who 6584
serves full time as the public safety director of a municipal 6585
corporation with the duty of directing the activities of the 6586
municipal corporation's police department and fire department.6587

        (WW) Notwithstanding section 2901.01 of the Revised Code, 6588
"PERS law enforcement officer" means a sheriff or any of the 6589
following whose primary duties are to preserve the peace, protect 6590
life and property, and enforce the laws of this state: a deputy 6591
sheriff, township constable or police officer in a township police 6592
department or district, drug agent, department of public safety 6593
enforcement agent, natural resources law enforcement staff 6594
officer, park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife 6595
officer, state watercraft officer, park district police officer, 6596
conservancy district officer, veterans' home police officer, 6597
special police officer for a mental health institution, special 6598
police officer for an institution for the mentally retarded and 6599
developmentally disabled, state university law enforcement 6600
officer, municipal police officer, house sergeant at arms, 6601
assistant house sergeant at arms, regional transit authority 6602
police officer, or state highway patrol police officer. PERS law 6603
enforcement officer also includes a person serving as a municipal 6604
public safety director at any time during the period from 6605
September 29, 2005, to March 24, 2009, if the duties of that 6606
service were to preserve the peace, protect life and property, and 6607
enforce the laws of this state.6608

       (XX) "Hamilton county municipal court bailiff" means a person 6609
appointed by the clerk of courts of the Hamilton county municipal 6610
court under division (A)(3) of section 1901.32 of the Revised Code 6611
who is employed full time as a bailiff or deputy bailiff, who has 6612
received a certificate attesting to the person's satisfactory 6613
completion of the peace officer basic training described in 6614
division (D)(1) of section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6615

       (YY) "PERS public safety officer" means a Hamilton county 6616
municipal court bailiff, or any of the following whose primary 6617
duties are other than to preserve the peace, protect life and 6618
property, and enforce the laws of this state: a deputy sheriff, 6619
township constable or police officer in a township police 6620
department or district, drug agent, department of public safety 6621
enforcement agent, natural resources law enforcement staff 6622
officer, park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife 6623
officer, state watercraft officer, park district police officer, 6624
conservancy district officer, veterans' home police officer, 6625
special police officer for a mental health institution, special 6626
police officer for an institution for the mentally retarded and 6627
developmentally disabled, state university law enforcement 6628
officer, municipal police officer, house sergeant at arms, 6629
assistant house sergeant at arms, regional transit authority 6630
police officer, or state highway patrol police officer. "PERS 6631
public safety officer" also includes a person serving as a 6632
municipal public safety director at any time during the period 6633
from September 29, 2005, to March 24, 2009, if the duties of that 6634
service were other than to preserve the peace, protect life and 6635
property, and enforce the laws of this state.6636

       (ZZ) "Fiduciary" means a person who does any of the 6637
following:6638

       (1) Exercises any discretionary authority or control with 6639
respect to the management of the system or with respect to the 6640
management or disposition of its assets;6641

       (2) Renders investment advice for a fee, direct or indirect, 6642
with respect to money or property of the system;6643

       (3) Has any discretionary authority or responsibility in the 6644
administration of the system.6645

       (AAA) "Actuary" means an individual who satisfies all of the 6646
following requirements:6647

       (1) Is a member of the American academy of actuaries;6648

       (2) Is an associate or fellow of the society of actuaries;6649

       (3) Has a minimum of five years' experience in providing 6650
actuarial services to public retirement plans.6651

       (BBB) "PERS defined benefit plan" means the plan described in 6652
sections 145.201 to 145.79 of the Revised Code.6653

       (CCC) "PERS defined contribution plans" means the plan or 6654
plans established under section 145.81 of the Revised Code.6655

       Sec. 145.012.  (A) "Public employee," as defined in division 6656
(A) of section 145.01 of the Revised Code, does not include any 6657
person:6658

       (1) Who is employed by a private, temporary-help service and 6659
performs services under the direction of a public employer or is 6660
employed on a contractual basis as an independent contractor under 6661
a personal service contract with a public employer;6662

       (2) Who is an emergency employee serving on a temporary basis 6663
in case of fire, snow, earthquake, flood, or other similar 6664
emergency;6665

       (3) Who is employed in a program established pursuant to the 6666
"Job Training Partnership Act," 96 Stat. 1322 (1982), 29 U.S.C.A. 6667
1501;6668

       (4) Who is an appointed member of either the motor vehicle 6669
salvage dealers board or the motor vehicle dealer's board whose 6670
rate and method of payment are determined pursuant to division (J) 6671
of section 124.15 of the Revised Code;6672

       (5) Who is employed as an election worker and paid less than 6673
five hundred dollars per calendar year for that service;6674

       (6) Who is employed as a firefighter in a position requiring 6675
satisfactory completion of a firefighter training course approved 6676
under former section 3303.07 or section 4765.55 of the Revised 6677
Code or conducted under section 3737.33 of the Revised Code except 6678
for the following:6679

       (a) Any firefighter who has elected under section 145.013 of 6680
the Revised Code to remain a contributing member of the public 6681
employees retirement system;6682

       (b) Any firefighter who was eligible to transfer from the 6683
public employees retirement system to the Ohio police and fire 6684
pension fund under section 742.51 or 742.515 of the Revised Code 6685
and did not elect to transfer;6686

       (c) Any firefighter who has elected under section 742.516 of 6687
the Revised Code to transfer from the Ohio police and fire pension 6688
fund to the public employees retirement system.6689

       (7) Who is a member of the board of health of a city or 6690
general health district, which pursuant to sections 3709.051 and 6691
3709.07 of the Revised Code includes a combined health district, 6692
and whose compensation for attendance at meetings of the board is 6693
set forth in division (B) of section 3709.02 or division (B) of 6694
section 3709.05 of the Revised Code, as appropriate;6695

       (8) Who participates in an alternative retirement plan 6696
established under Chapter 3305. of the Revised Code;6697

       (9) Who is a member of the board of directors of a sanitary 6698
district established under Chapter 6115. of the Revised Code;6699

       (10) Who is a member of the unemployment compensation 6700
advisory council;6701

       (11) Who is an employee, officer, or governor-appointed 6702
member of the board of directors of the nonprofit corporation 6703
formed under section 187.01 of the Revised Code;6704

       (12) Who is employed by the nonprofit entity established to 6705
provide advocacy services and a client assistance program for 6706
people with disabilities under Section 319.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 6707
of the 129th general assembly and whose employment begins on or 6708
after October 1, 2012.6709

       (B) No inmate of a correctional institution operated by the 6710
department of rehabilitation and correction, no patient in a 6711
hospital for the mentally ill or criminally insane operated by the 6712
department of mental health, no resident in an institution for the 6713
mentally retarded operated by the department of developmental 6714
disabilities, no resident admitted as a patient of a veterans' 6715
home operated under Chapter 5907. of the Revised Code, and no 6716
resident of a county home shall be considered as a public employee 6717
for the purpose of establishing membership or calculating service 6718
credit or benefits under this chapter. Nothing in this division 6719
shall be construed to affect any service credit attained by any 6720
person who was a public employee before becoming an inmate, 6721
patient, or resident at any institution listed in this division, 6722
or the payment of any benefit for which such a person or such a 6723
person's beneficiaries otherwise would be eligible.6724

       Sec. 149.43.  (A) As used in this section:6725

       (1) "Public record" means records kept by any public office, 6726
including, but not limited to, state, county, city, village, 6727
township, and school district units, and records pertaining to the 6728
delivery of educational services by an alternative school in this 6729
state kept by the nonprofit or for-profit entity operating the 6730
alternative school pursuant to section 3313.533 of the Revised 6731
Code. "Public record" does not mean any of the following:6732

       (a) Medical records;6733

       (b) Records pertaining to probation and parole proceedings or 6734
to proceedings related to the imposition of community control 6735
sanctions and post-release control sanctions;6736

       (c) Records pertaining to actions under section 2151.85 and 6737
division (C) of section 2919.121 of the Revised Code and to 6738
appeals of actions arising under those sections;6739

       (d) Records pertaining to adoption proceedings, including the 6740
contents of an adoption file maintained by the department of 6741
health under section 3705.12 of the Revised Code;6742

       (e) Information in a record contained in the putative father 6743
registry established by section 3107.062 of the Revised Code, 6744
regardless of whether the information is held by the department of 6745
job and family services or, pursuant to section 3111.69 of the 6746
Revised Code, the office of child support in the department or a 6747
child support enforcement agency;6748

       (f) Records listed in division (A) of section 3107.42 of the 6749
Revised Code or specified in division (A) of section 3107.52 of 6750
the Revised Code;6751

       (g) Trial preparation records;6752

       (h) Confidential law enforcement investigatory records;6753

       (i) Records containing information that is confidential under 6754
section 2710.03 or 4112.05 of the Revised Code;6755

       (j) DNA records stored in the DNA database pursuant to 6756
section 109.573 of the Revised Code;6757

       (k) Inmate records released by the department of 6758
rehabilitation and correction to the department of youth services 6759
or a court of record pursuant to division (E) of section 5120.21 6760
of the Revised Code;6761

       (l) Records maintained by the department of youth services 6762
pertaining to children in its custody released by the department 6763
of youth services to the department of rehabilitation and 6764
correction pursuant to section 5139.05 of the Revised Code;6765

       (m) Intellectual property records;6766

       (n) Donor profile records;6767

       (o) Records maintained by the department of job and family 6768
services pursuant to section 3121.894 of the Revised Code;6769

       (p) Peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, 6770
bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, 6771
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 6772
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 6773
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6774
investigation residential and familial information;6775

       (q) In the case of a county hospital operated pursuant to 6776
Chapter 339. of the Revised Code or a municipal hospital operated 6777
pursuant to Chapter 749. of the Revised Code, information that 6778
constitutes a trade secret, as defined in section 1333.61 of the 6779
Revised Code;6780

       (r) Information pertaining to the recreational activities of 6781
a person under the age of eighteen;6782

       (s) Records provided to, statements made by review board 6783
members during meetings of, and all work products of a child 6784
fatality review board acting under sections 307.621 to 307.629 of 6785
the Revised Code, and child fatality review data submitted by the 6786
child fatality review board to the department of health or a 6787
national child death review database, other than the report 6788
prepared pursuant to division (A) of section 307.626 of the 6789
Revised Code;6790

       (t) Records provided to and statements made by the executive 6791
director of a public children services agency or a prosecuting 6792
attorney acting pursuant to section 5153.171 of the Revised Code 6793
other than the information released under that section;6794

       (u) Test materials, examinations, or evaluation tools used in 6795
an examination for licensure as a nursing home administrator that 6796
the board of examiners of nursing home administrators administers 6797
under section 4751.04 of the Revised Code or contracts under that 6798
section with a private or government entity to administer;6799

       (v) Records the release of which is prohibited by state or 6800
federal law;6801

       (w) Proprietary information of or relating to any person that 6802
is submitted to or compiled by the Ohio venture capital authority 6803
created under section 150.01 of the Revised Code;6804

       (x) Information reported and evaluations conducted pursuant 6805
to section 3701.072 of the Revised Code;6806

       (y) Financial statements and data any person submits for any 6807
purpose to the Ohio housing finance agency or the controlling 6808
board in connection with applying for, receiving, or accounting 6809
for financial assistance from the agency, and information that 6810
identifies any individual who benefits directly or indirectly from 6811
financial assistance from the agency;6812

       (z) Records listed in section 5101.29 of the Revised Code;6813

       (aa) Discharges recorded with a county recorder under section 6814
317.24 of the Revised Code, as specified in division (B)(2) of 6815
that section;6816

       (bb) Usage information including names and addresses of 6817
specific residential and commercial customers of a municipally 6818
owned or operated public utility.6819

       (2) "Confidential law enforcement investigatory record" means 6820
any record that pertains to a law enforcement matter of a 6821
criminal, quasi-criminal, civil, or administrative nature, but 6822
only to the extent that the release of the record would create a 6823
high probability of disclosure of any of the following:6824

       (a) The identity of a suspect who has not been charged with 6825
the offense to which the record pertains, or of an information 6826
source or witness to whom confidentiality has been reasonably 6827
promised;6828

       (b) Information provided by an information source or witness 6829
to whom confidentiality has been reasonably promised, which 6830
information would reasonably tend to disclose the source's or 6831
witness's identity;6832

       (c) Specific confidential investigatory techniques or 6833
procedures or specific investigatory work product;6834

       (d) Information that would endanger the life or physical 6835
safety of law enforcement personnel, a crime victim, a witness, or 6836
a confidential information source.6837

       (3) "Medical record" means any document or combination of 6838
documents, except births, deaths, and the fact of admission to or 6839
discharge from a hospital, that pertains to the medical history, 6840
diagnosis, prognosis, or medical condition of a patient and that 6841
is generated and maintained in the process of medical treatment.6842

       (4) "Trial preparation record" means any record that contains 6843
information that is specifically compiled in reasonable 6844
anticipation of, or in defense of, a civil or criminal action or 6845
proceeding, including the independent thought processes and 6846
personal trial preparation of an attorney.6847

       (5) "Intellectual property record" means a record, other than 6848
a financial or administrative record, that is produced or 6849
collected by or for faculty or staff of a state institution of 6850
higher learning in the conduct of or as a result of study or 6851
research on an educational, commercial, scientific, artistic, 6852
technical, or scholarly issue, regardless of whether the study or 6853
research was sponsored by the institution alone or in conjunction 6854
with a governmental body or private concern, and that has not been 6855
publicly released, published, or patented.6856

       (6) "Donor profile record" means all records about donors or 6857
potential donors to a public institution of higher education 6858
except the names and reported addresses of the actual donors and 6859
the date, amount, and conditions of the actual donation.6860

       (7) "Peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, 6861
bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, 6862
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 6863
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 6864
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6865
investigation residential and familial information" means any 6866
information that discloses any of the following about a peace 6867
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting 6868
attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 6869
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 6870
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 6871
criminal identification and investigation:6872

       (a) The address of the actual personal residence of a peace 6873
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, assistant 6874
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 6875
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 6876
firefighter, EMT, or an investigator of the bureau of criminal 6877
identification and investigation, except for the state or 6878
political subdivision in which the peace officer, parole officer, 6879
probation officer, bailiff, assistant prosecuting attorney, 6880
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 6881
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 6882
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6883
investigation resides;6884

       (b) Information compiled from referral to or participation in 6885
an employee assistance program;6886

       (c) The social security number, the residential telephone 6887
number, any bank account, debit card, charge card, or credit card 6888
number, or the emergency telephone number of, or any medical 6889
information pertaining to, a peace officer, parole officer, 6890
probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant 6891
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 6892
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 6893
firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 6894
identification and investigation;6895

       (d) The name of any beneficiary of employment benefits, 6896
including, but not limited to, life insurance benefits, provided 6897
to a peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, 6898
prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional 6899
employee, community-based correctional facility employee, youth 6900
services employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau 6901
of criminal identification and investigation by the peace 6902
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 6903
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 6904
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 6905
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 6906
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6907
investigation's employer;6908

       (e) The identity and amount of any charitable or employment 6909
benefit deduction made by the peace officer's, parole officer's, 6910
probation officer's, bailiff's, prosecuting attorney's, assistant 6911
prosecuting attorney's, correctional employee's, community-based 6912
correctional facility employee's, youth services employee's, 6913
firefighter's, EMT's, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 6914
identification and investigation's employer from the peace 6915
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 6916
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 6917
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 6918
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 6919
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6920
investigation's compensation unless the amount of the deduction is 6921
required by state or federal law;6922

       (f) The name, the residential address, the name of the 6923
employer, the address of the employer, the social security number, 6924
the residential telephone number, any bank account, debit card, 6925
charge card, or credit card number, or the emergency telephone 6926
number of the spouse, a former spouse, or any child of a peace 6927
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting 6928
attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 6929
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 6930
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 6931
criminal identification and investigation;6932

       (g) A photograph of a peace officer who holds a position or 6933
has an assignment that may include undercover or plain clothes 6934
positions or assignments as determined by the peace officer's 6935
appointing authority.6936

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 6937
"peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 109.71 of the 6938
Revised Code and also includes the superintendent and troopers of 6939
the state highway patrol; it does not include the sheriff of a 6940
county or a supervisory employee who, in the absence of the 6941
sheriff, is authorized to stand in for, exercise the authority of, 6942
and perform the duties of the sheriff.6943

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(5) of this section, 6944
"correctional employee" means any employee of the department of 6945
rehabilitation and correction who in the course of performing the 6946
employee's job duties has or has had contact with inmates and 6947
persons under supervision.6948

        As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(5) of this section, 6949
"youth services employee" means any employee of the department of 6950
youth services who in the course of performing the employee's job 6951
duties has or has had contact with children committed to the 6952
custody of the department of youth services.6953

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 6954
"firefighter" means any regular, paid or volunteer, member of a 6955
lawfully constituted fire department of a municipal corporation, 6956
township, fire district, or village.6957

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, "EMT" 6958
means EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, and paramedics that provide emergency 6959
medical services for a public emergency medical service 6960
organization. "Emergency medical service organization," 6961
"EMT-basic," "EMT-I," and "paramedic" have the same meanings as in 6962
section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.6963

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 6964
"investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6965
investigation" has the meaning defined in section 2903.11 of the 6966
Revised Code.6967

       (8) "Information pertaining to the recreational activities of 6968
a person under the age of eighteen" means information that is kept 6969
in the ordinary course of business by a public office, that 6970
pertains to the recreational activities of a person under the age 6971
of eighteen years, and that discloses any of the following:6972

       (a) The address or telephone number of a person under the age 6973
of eighteen or the address or telephone number of that person's 6974
parent, guardian, custodian, or emergency contact person;6975

       (b) The social security number, birth date, or photographic 6976
image of a person under the age of eighteen;6977

       (c) Any medical record, history, or information pertaining to 6978
a person under the age of eighteen;6979

       (d) Any additional information sought or required about a 6980
person under the age of eighteen for the purpose of allowing that 6981
person to participate in any recreational activity conducted or 6982
sponsored by a public office or to use or obtain admission 6983
privileges to any recreational facility owned or operated by a 6984
public office.6985

       (9) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 6986
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.6987

       (10) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 6988
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.6989

        (11) "Redaction" means obscuring or deleting any information 6990
that is exempt from the duty to permit public inspection or 6991
copying from an item that otherwise meets the definition of a 6992
"record" in section 149.011 of the Revised Code.6993

       (12) "Designee" and "elected official" have the same meanings 6994
as in section 109.43 of the Revised Code.6995

       (B)(1) Upon request and subject to division (B)(8) of this 6996
section, all public records responsive to the request shall be 6997
promptly prepared and made available for inspection to any person 6998
at all reasonable times during regular business hours. Subject to 6999
division (B)(8) of this section, upon request, a public office or 7000
person responsible for public records shall make copies of the 7001
requested public record available at cost and within a reasonable 7002
period of time. If a public record contains information that is 7003
exempt from the duty to permit public inspection or to copy the 7004
public record, the public office or the person responsible for the 7005
public record shall make available all of the information within 7006
the public record that is not exempt. When making that public 7007
record available for public inspection or copying that public 7008
record, the public office or the person responsible for the public 7009
record shall notify the requester of any redaction or make the 7010
redaction plainly visible. A redaction shall be deemed a denial of 7011
a request to inspect or copy the redacted information, except if 7012
federal or state law authorizes or requires a public office to 7013
make the redaction.7014

       (2) To facilitate broader access to public records, a public 7015
office or the person responsible for public records shall organize 7016
and maintain public records in a manner that they can be made 7017
available for inspection or copying in accordance with division 7018
(B) of this section. A public office also shall have available a 7019
copy of its current records retention schedule at a location 7020
readily available to the public. If a requester makes an ambiguous 7021
or overly broad request or has difficulty in making a request for 7022
copies or inspection of public records under this section such 7023
that the public office or the person responsible for the requested 7024
public record cannot reasonably identify what public records are 7025
being requested, the public office or the person responsible for 7026
the requested public record may deny the request but shall provide 7027
the requester with an opportunity to revise the request by 7028
informing the requester of the manner in which records are 7029
maintained by the public office and accessed in the ordinary 7030
course of the public office's or person's duties.7031

       (3) If a request is ultimately denied, in part or in whole, 7032
the public office or the person responsible for the requested 7033
public record shall provide the requester with an explanation, 7034
including legal authority, setting forth why the request was 7035
denied. If the initial request was provided in writing, the 7036
explanation also shall be provided to the requester in writing. 7037
The explanation shall not preclude the public office or the person 7038
responsible for the requested public record from relying upon 7039
additional reasons or legal authority in defending an action 7040
commenced under division (C) of this section.7041

       (4) Unless specifically required or authorized by state or 7042
federal law or in accordance with division (B) of this section, no 7043
public office or person responsible for public records may limit 7044
or condition the availability of public records by requiring 7045
disclosure of the requester's identity or the intended use of the 7046
requested public record. Any requirement that the requester 7047
disclose the requestor's identity or the intended use of the 7048
requested public record constitutes a denial of the request.7049

       (5) A public office or person responsible for public records 7050
may ask a requester to make the request in writing, may ask for 7051
the requester's identity, and may inquire about the intended use 7052
of the information requested, but may do so only after disclosing 7053
to the requester that a written request is not mandatory and that 7054
the requester may decline to reveal the requester's identity or 7055
the intended use and when a written request or disclosure of the 7056
identity or intended use would benefit the requester by enhancing 7057
the ability of the public office or person responsible for public 7058
records to identify, locate, or deliver the public records sought 7059
by the requester.7060

       (6) If any person chooses to obtain a copy of a public record 7061
in accordance with division (B) of this section, the public office 7062
or person responsible for the public record may require that 7063
person to pay in advance the cost involved in providing the copy 7064
of the public record in accordance with the choice made by the 7065
person seeking the copy under this division. The public office or 7066
the person responsible for the public record shall permit that 7067
person to choose to have the public record duplicated upon paper, 7068
upon the same medium upon which the public office or person 7069
responsible for the public record keeps it, or upon any other 7070
medium upon which the public office or person responsible for the 7071
public record determines that it reasonably can be duplicated as 7072
an integral part of the normal operations of the public office or 7073
person responsible for the public record. When the person seeking 7074
the copy makes a choice under this division, the public office or 7075
person responsible for the public record shall provide a copy of 7076
it in accordance with the choice made by the person seeking the 7077
copy. Nothing in this section requires a public office or person 7078
responsible for the public record to allow the person seeking a 7079
copy of the public record to make the copies of the public record.7080

       (7) Upon a request made in accordance with division (B) of 7081
this section and subject to division (B)(6) of this section, a 7082
public office or person responsible for public records shall 7083
transmit a copy of a public record to any person by United States 7084
mail or by any other means of delivery or transmission within a 7085
reasonable period of time after receiving the request for the 7086
copy. The public office or person responsible for the public 7087
record may require the person making the request to pay in advance 7088
the cost of postage if the copy is transmitted by United States 7089
mail or the cost of delivery if the copy is transmitted other than 7090
by United States mail, and to pay in advance the costs incurred 7091
for other supplies used in the mailing, delivery, or transmission.7092

       Any public office may adopt a policy and procedures that it 7093
will follow in transmitting, within a reasonable period of time 7094
after receiving a request, copies of public records by United 7095
States mail or by any other means of delivery or transmission 7096
pursuant to this division. A public office that adopts a policy 7097
and procedures under this division shall comply with them in 7098
performing its duties under this division.7099

       In any policy and procedures adopted under this division, a 7100
public office may limit the number of records requested by a 7101
person that the office will transmit by United States mail to ten 7102
per month, unless the person certifies to the office in writing 7103
that the person does not intend to use or forward the requested 7104
records, or the information contained in them, for commercial 7105
purposes. For purposes of this division, "commercial" shall be 7106
narrowly construed and does not include reporting or gathering 7107
news, reporting or gathering information to assist citizen 7108
oversight or understanding of the operation or activities of 7109
government, or nonprofit educational research.7110

       (8) A public office or person responsible for public records 7111
is not required to permit a person who is incarcerated pursuant to 7112
a criminal conviction or a juvenile adjudication to inspect or to 7113
obtain a copy of any public record concerning a criminal 7114
investigation or prosecution or concerning what would be a 7115
criminal investigation or prosecution if the subject of the 7116
investigation or prosecution were an adult, unless the request to 7117
inspect or to obtain a copy of the record is for the purpose of 7118
acquiring information that is subject to release as a public 7119
record under this section and the judge who imposed the sentence 7120
or made the adjudication with respect to the person, or the 7121
judge's successor in office, finds that the information sought in 7122
the public record is necessary to support what appears to be a 7123
justiciable claim of the person.7124

       (9)(a) Upon written request made and signed by a journalist 7125
on or after December 16, 1999, a public office, or person 7126
responsible for public records, having custody of the records of 7127
the agency employing a specified peace officer, parole officer, 7128
probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant 7129
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 7130
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 7131
firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 7132
identification and investigation shall disclose to the journalist 7133
the address of the actual personal residence of the peace officer, 7134
parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, 7135
assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 7136
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 7137
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 7138
criminal identification and investigation and, if the peace 7139
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 7140
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 7141
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 7142
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 7143
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 7144
investigation's spouse, former spouse, or child is employed by a 7145
public office, the name and address of the employer of the peace 7146
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 7147
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 7148
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 7149
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 7150
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 7151
investigation's spouse, former spouse, or child. The request shall 7152
include the journalist's name and title and the name and address 7153
of the journalist's employer and shall state that disclosure of 7154
the information sought would be in the public interest.7155

       (b) Division (B)(9)(a) of this section also applies to 7156
journalist requests for customer information maintained by a 7157
municipally owned or operated public utility, other than social 7158
security numbers and any private financial information such as 7159
credit reports, payment methods, credit card numbers, and bank 7160
account information.7161

       (c) As used in division (B)(9) of this section, "journalist" 7162
means a person engaged in, connected with, or employed by any news 7163
medium, including a newspaper, magazine, press association, news 7164
agency, or wire service, a radio or television station, or a 7165
similar medium, for the purpose of gathering, processing, 7166
transmitting, compiling, editing, or disseminating information for 7167
the general public.7168

       (C)(1) If a person allegedly is aggrieved by the failure of a 7169
public office or the person responsible for public records to 7170
promptly prepare a public record and to make it available to the 7171
person for inspection in accordance with division (B) of this 7172
section or by any other failure of a public office or the person 7173
responsible for public records to comply with an obligation in 7174
accordance with division (B) of this section, the person allegedly 7175
aggrieved may commence a mandamus action to obtain a judgment that 7176
orders the public office or the person responsible for the public 7177
record to comply with division (B) of this section, that awards 7178
court costs and reasonable attorney's fees to the person that 7179
instituted the mandamus action, and, if applicable, that includes 7180
an order fixing statutory damages under division (C)(1) of this 7181
section. The mandamus action may be commenced in the court of 7182
common pleas of the county in which division (B) of this section 7183
allegedly was not complied with, in the supreme court pursuant to 7184
its original jurisdiction under Section 2 of Article IV, Ohio 7185
Constitution, or in the court of appeals for the appellate 7186
district in which division (B) of this section allegedly was not 7187
complied with pursuant to its original jurisdiction under Section 7188
3 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution.7189

       If a requestor transmits a written request by hand delivery 7190
or certified mail to inspect or receive copies of any public 7191
record in a manner that fairly describes the public record or 7192
class of public records to the public office or person responsible 7193
for the requested public records, except as otherwise provided in 7194
this section, the requestor shall be entitled to recover the 7195
amount of statutory damages set forth in this division if a court 7196
determines that the public office or the person responsible for 7197
public records failed to comply with an obligation in accordance 7198
with division (B) of this section.7199

       The amount of statutory damages shall be fixed at one hundred 7200
dollars for each business day during which the public office or 7201
person responsible for the requested public records failed to 7202
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 7203
section, beginning with the day on which the requester files a 7204
mandamus action to recover statutory damages, up to a maximum of 7205
one thousand dollars. The award of statutory damages shall not be 7206
construed as a penalty, but as compensation for injury arising 7207
from lost use of the requested information. The existence of this 7208
injury shall be conclusively presumed. The award of statutory 7209
damages shall be in addition to all other remedies authorized by 7210
this section.7211

       The court may reduce an award of statutory damages or not 7212
award statutory damages if the court determines both of the 7213
following:7214

       (a) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 7215
and case law as it existed at the time of the conduct or 7216
threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for 7217
the requested public records that allegedly constitutes a failure 7218
to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of 7219
this section and that was the basis of the mandamus action, a 7220
well-informed public office or person responsible for the 7221
requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct 7222
or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible 7223
for the requested public records did not constitute a failure to 7224
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 7225
section;7226

       (b) That a well-informed public office or person responsible 7227
for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the 7228
conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person 7229
responsible for the requested public records would serve the 7230
public policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as 7231
permitting that conduct or threatened conduct.7232

       (2)(a) If the court issues a writ of mandamus that orders the 7233
public office or the person responsible for the public record to 7234
comply with division (B) of this section and determines that the 7235
circumstances described in division (C)(1) of this section exist, 7236
the court shall determine and award to the relator all court 7237
costs.7238

       (b) If the court renders a judgment that orders the public 7239
office or the person responsible for the public record to comply 7240
with division (B) of this section, the court may award reasonable 7241
attorney's fees subject to reduction as described in division 7242
(C)(2)(c) of this section. The court shall award reasonable 7243
attorney's fees, subject to reduction as described in division 7244
(C)(2)(c) of this section when either of the following applies:7245

        (i) The public office or the person responsible for the 7246
public records failed to respond affirmatively or negatively to 7247
the public records request in accordance with the time allowed 7248
under division (B) of this section.7249

        (ii) The public office or the person responsible for the 7250
public records promised to permit the relator to inspect or 7251
receive copies of the public records requested within a specified 7252
period of time but failed to fulfill that promise within that 7253
specified period of time.7254

       (c) Court costs and reasonable attorney's fees awarded under 7255
this section shall be construed as remedial and not punitive. 7256
Reasonable attorney's fees shall include reasonable fees incurred 7257
to produce proof of the reasonableness and amount of the fees and 7258
to otherwise litigate entitlement to the fees. The court may 7259
reduce an award of attorney's fees to the relator or not award 7260
attorney's fees to the relator if the court determines both of the 7261
following:7262

       (i) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 7263
and case law as it existed at the time of the conduct or 7264
threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for 7265
the requested public records that allegedly constitutes a failure 7266
to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of 7267
this section and that was the basis of the mandamus action, a 7268
well-informed public office or person responsible for the 7269
requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct 7270
or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible 7271
for the requested public records did not constitute a failure to 7272
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 7273
section;7274

       (ii) That a well-informed public office or person responsible 7275
for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the 7276
conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person 7277
responsible for the requested public records as described in 7278
division (C)(2)(c)(i) of this section would serve the public 7279
policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as permitting 7280
that conduct or threatened conduct.7281

       (D) Chapter 1347. of the Revised Code does not limit the 7282
provisions of this section.7283

       (E)(1) To ensure that all employees of public offices are 7284
appropriately educated about a public office's obligations under 7285
division (B) of this section, all elected officials or their 7286
appropriate designees shall attend training approved by the 7287
attorney general as provided in section 109.43 of the Revised 7288
Code. In addition, all public offices shall adopt a public records 7289
policy in compliance with this section for responding to public 7290
records requests. In adopting a public records policy under this 7291
division, a public office may obtain guidance from the model 7292
public records policy developed and provided to the public office 7293
by the attorney general under section 109.43 of the Revised Code. 7294
Except as otherwise provided in this section, the policy may not 7295
limit the number of public records that the public office will 7296
make available to a single person, may not limit the number of 7297
public records that it will make available during a fixed period 7298
of time, and may not establish a fixed period of time before it 7299
will respond to a request for inspection or copying of public 7300
records, unless that period is less than eight hours.7301

       (2) The public office shall distribute the public records 7302
policy adopted by the public office under division (E)(1) of this 7303
section to the employee of the public office who is the records 7304
custodian or records manager or otherwise has custody of the 7305
records of that office. The public office shall require that 7306
employee to acknowledge receipt of the copy of the public records 7307
policy. The public office shall create a poster that describes its 7308
public records policy and shall post the poster in a conspicuous 7309
place in the public office and in all locations where the public 7310
office has branch offices. The public office may post its public 7311
records policy on the internet web site of the public office if 7312
the public office maintains an internet web site. A public office 7313
that has established a manual or handbook of its general policies 7314
and procedures for all employees of the public office shall 7315
include the public records policy of the public office in the 7316
manual or handbook.7317

       (F)(1) The bureau of motor vehicles may adopt rules pursuant 7318
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to reasonably limit the number 7319
of bulk commercial special extraction requests made by a person 7320
for the same records or for updated records during a calendar 7321
year. The rules may include provisions for charges to be made for 7322
bulk commercial special extraction requests for the actual cost of 7323
the bureau, plus special extraction costs, plus ten per cent. The 7324
bureau may charge for expenses for redacting information, the 7325
release of which is prohibited by law.7326

       (2) As used in division (F)(1) of this section:7327

       (a) "Actual cost" means the cost of depleted supplies, 7328
records storage media costs, actual mailing and alternative 7329
delivery costs, or other transmitting costs, and any direct 7330
equipment operating and maintenance costs, including actual costs 7331
paid to private contractors for copying services.7332

       (b) "Bulk commercial special extraction request" means a 7333
request for copies of a record for information in a format other 7334
than the format already available, or information that cannot be 7335
extracted without examination of all items in a records series, 7336
class of records, or data base by a person who intends to use or 7337
forward the copies for surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale 7338
for commercial purposes. "Bulk commercial special extraction 7339
request" does not include a request by a person who gives 7340
assurance to the bureau that the person making the request does 7341
not intend to use or forward the requested copies for surveys, 7342
marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial purposes.7343

       (c) "Commercial" means profit-seeking production, buying, or 7344
selling of any good, service, or other product.7345

       (d) "Special extraction costs" means the cost of the time 7346
spent by the lowest paid employee competent to perform the task, 7347
the actual amount paid to outside private contractors employed by 7348
the bureau, or the actual cost incurred to create computer 7349
programs to make the special extraction. "Special extraction 7350
costs" include any charges paid to a public agency for computer or 7351
records services.7352

       (3) For purposes of divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section, 7353
"surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial 7354
purposes" shall be narrowly construed and does not include 7355
reporting or gathering news, reporting or gathering information to 7356
assist citizen oversight or understanding of the operation or 7357
activities of government, or nonprofit educational research.7358

       Sec. 151.01.  (A) As used in sections 151.01 to 151.11 and 7359
151.40 of the Revised Code and in the applicable bond proceedings 7360
unless otherwise provided:7361

       (1) "Bond proceedings" means the resolutions, orders, 7362
agreements, and credit enhancement facilities, and amendments and 7363
supplements to them, or any one or more or combination of them, 7364
authorizing, awarding, or providing for the terms and conditions 7365
applicable to or providing for the security or liquidity of, the 7366
particular obligations, and the provisions contained in those 7367
obligations.7368

       (2) "Bond service fund" means the respective bond service 7369
fund created by section 151.03, 151.04, 151.05, 151.06, 151.07, 7370
151.08, 151.09, 151.10, 151.11, or 151.40 of the Revised Code, and 7371
any accounts in that fund, including all moneys and investments, 7372
and earnings from investments, credited and to be credited to that 7373
fund and accounts as and to the extent provided in the applicable 7374
bond proceedings.7375

       (3) "Capital facilities" means capital facilities or projects 7376
as referred to in section 151.03, 151.04, 151.05, 151.06, 151.07, 7377
151.08, 151.09, 151.10, 151.11, or 151.40 of the Revised Code.7378

       (4) "Costs of capital facilities" means the costs of 7379
acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, rehabilitating, 7380
remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, equipping, or 7381
furnishing capital facilities, and of the financing of those 7382
costs. "Costs of capital facilities" includes, without limitation, 7383
and in addition to costs referred to in section 151.03, 151.04, 7384
151.05, 151.06, 151.07, 151.08, 151.09, 151.10, 151.11, or 151.40 7385
of the Revised Code, the cost of clearance and preparation of the 7386
site and of any land to be used in connection with capital 7387
facilities, the cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and 7388
premiums on insurance, all related direct administrative expenses 7389
and allocable portions of direct costs of the issuing authority, 7390
costs of engineering and architectural services, designs, plans, 7391
specifications, surveys, and estimates of cost, financing costs, 7392
interest on obligations, including but not limited to, interest7393
from theirthe date of their issuance to the time when interest is 7394
to be paid from sources other than proceeds of obligations, 7395
amounts necessary to establish any reserves as required by the 7396
bond proceedings, the reimbursement of all moneys advanced or 7397
applied by or borrowed from any person or governmental agency or 7398
entity for the payment of any item of costs of capital facilities, 7399
and all other expenses necessary or incident to planning or 7400
determining feasibility or practicability with respect to capital 7401
facilities, and such other expenses as may be necessary or 7402
incident to the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 7403
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, 7404
equipment, and furnishing of capital facilities, the financing of 7405
those costs, and the placing of the capital facilities in use and 7406
operation, including any one, part of, or combination of those 7407
classes of costs and expenses. For purposes of sections 122.085 to 7408
122.0820 of the Revised Code, "costs of capital facilities" 7409
includes "allowable costs" as defined in section 122.085 of the 7410
Revised Code.7411

       (5) "Credit enhancement facilities," "financing costs," and 7412
"interest" or "interest equivalent" have the same meanings as in 7413
section 133.01 of the Revised Code.7414

       (6) "Debt service" means principal, including any mandatory 7415
sinking fund or redemption requirements for retirement of 7416
obligations, interest and other accreted amounts, interest 7417
equivalent, and any redemption premium, payable on obligations. If 7418
not prohibited by the applicable bond proceedings, debt service 7419
may include costs relating to credit enhancement facilities that 7420
are related to and represent, or are intended to provide a source 7421
of payment of or limitation on, other debt service.7422

       (7) "Issuing authority" means the Ohio public facilities 7423
commission created in section 151.02 of the Revised Code for 7424
obligations issued under section 151.03, 151.04, 151.05, 151.07, 7425
151.08, 151.09, 151.10, or 151.11 of the Revised Code, or the 7426
treasurer of state, or the officer who by law performs the 7427
functions of that office, for obligations issued under section 7428
151.06 or 151.40 of the Revised Code.7429

       (8) "Net proceeds" means amounts received from the sale of 7430
obligations, excluding amounts used to refund or retire 7431
outstanding obligations, amounts required to be deposited into 7432
special funds pursuant to the applicable bond proceedings, and 7433
amounts to be used to pay financing costs.7434

       (9) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 7435
obligation of the state, including any appertaining interest 7436
coupons, issued under Section 2k, 2l, 2m, 2n, 2o, 2p, 2q, or 15 of 7437
Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and pursuant to sections 151.01 7438
to 151.11 or 151.40 of the Revised Code or other general assembly 7439
authorization.7440

       (10) "Principal amount" means the aggregate of the amount as 7441
stated or provided for in the applicable bond proceedings as the 7442
amount on which interest or interest equivalent on particular 7443
obligations is initially calculated. Principal amount does not 7444
include any premium paid to the state by the initial purchaser of 7445
the obligations. "Principal amount" of a capital appreciation 7446
bond, as defined in division (C) of section 3334.01 of the Revised 7447
Code, means its face amount, and "principal amount" of a zero 7448
coupon bond, as defined in division (J) of section 3334.01 of the 7449
Revised Code, means the discounted offering price at which the 7450
bond is initially sold to the public, disregarding any purchase 7451
price discount to the original purchaser, if provided for pursuant 7452
to the bond proceedings.7453

       (11) "Special funds" or "funds," unless the context indicates 7454
otherwise, means the bond service fund, and any other funds, 7455
including any reserve funds, created under the bond proceedings 7456
and stated to be special funds in those proceedings, including 7457
moneys and investments, and earnings from investments, credited 7458
and to be credited to the particular fund. Special funds do not 7459
include the school building program assistance fund created by 7460
section 3318.25 of the Revised Code, the higher education 7461
improvement fund created by division (F) of section 154.21 of the 7462
Revised Code, the higher education improvement taxable fund 7463
created by division (G) of section 154.21 of the Revised Code, the 7464
highway capital improvement bond fund created by section 5528.53 7465
of the Revised Code, the state parks and natural resources fund 7466
created by section 1557.02 of the Revised Code, the coal research 7467
and development fund created by section 1555.15 of the Revised 7468
Code, the clean Ohio conservation fund created by section 164.27 7469
of the Revised Code, the clean Ohio revitalization fund created by 7470
section 122.658 of the Revised Code, the job ready site 7471
development fund created by section 122.0820 of the Revised Code, 7472
the third frontier research and development fund created by 7473
section 184.19 of the Revised Code, the third frontier research 7474
and development taxable bond fund created by section 184.191 of 7475
the Revised Code, or other funds created by the bond proceedings 7476
that are not stated by those proceedings to be special funds.7477

       (B) Subject to Section 2l, 2m, 2n, 2o, 2p, 2q, or 15, and 7478
Section 17, of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, the state, by the 7479
issuing authority, is authorized to issue and sell, as provided in 7480
sections 151.03 to 151.11 or 151.40 of the Revised Code, and in 7481
respective aggregate principal amounts as from time to time 7482
provided or authorized by the general assembly, general 7483
obligations of this state for the purpose of paying costs of 7484
capital facilities or projects identified by or pursuant to 7485
general assembly action.7486

       (C) Each issue of obligations shall be authorized by 7487
resolution or order of the issuing authority. The bond proceedings 7488
shall provide for or authorize the manner for determining the 7489
principal amount or maximum principal amount of obligations of an 7490
issue, the principal maturity or maturities, the interest rate or 7491
rates, the date of and the dates of payment of interest on the 7492
obligations, their denominations, and the place or places of 7493
payment of debt service which may be within or outside the state. 7494
Unless otherwise provided by law, the latest principal maturity 7495
may not be later than the earlier of the thirty-first day of 7496
December of the twenty-fifth calendar year after the year of 7497
issuance of the particular obligations or of the twenty-fifth 7498
calendar year after the year in which the original obligation to 7499
pay was issued or entered into. Sections 9.96, 9.98, 9.981, 9.982, 7500
and 9.983 of the Revised Code apply to obligations. The purpose of 7501
the obligations may be stated in the bond proceedings in general 7502
terms, such as, as applicable, "financing or assisting in the 7503
financing of projects as provided in Section 2l of Article VIII, 7504
Ohio Constitution," "financing or assisting in the financing of 7505
highway capital improvement projects as provided in Section 2m of 7506
Article VIII, Ohio Constitution," "paying costs of capital 7507
facilities for a system of common schools throughout the state as 7508
authorized by Section 2n of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution," 7509
"paying costs of capital facilities for state-supported and 7510
state-assisted institutions of higher education as authorized by 7511
Section 2n of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution," "paying costs of 7512
coal research and development as authorized by Section 15 of 7513
Article VIII, Ohio Constitution," "financing or assisting in the 7514
financing of local subdivision capital improvement projects as 7515
authorized by Section 2m of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution," 7516
"paying costs of conservation projects as authorized by Sections 7517
2o and 2q of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution," "paying costs of 7518
revitalization projects as authorized by Sections 2o and 2q of 7519
Article VIII, Ohio Constitution," "paying costs of preparing sites 7520
for industry, commerce, distribution, or research and development 7521
as authorized by Section 2p of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution," 7522
or "paying costs of research and development as authorized by 7523
Section 2p of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution."7524

       (D) The issuing authority may appoint or provide for the 7525
appointment of paying agents, bond registrars, securities 7526
depositories, clearing corporations, and transfer agents, and may 7527
without need for any other approval retain or contract for the 7528
services of underwriters, investment bankers, financial advisers, 7529
accounting experts, marketing, remarketing, indexing, and 7530
administrative agents, other consultants, and independent 7531
contractors, including printing services, as are necessary in the 7532
judgment of the issuing authority to carry out the issuing 7533
authority's functions under this chapter. When the issuing 7534
authority is the Ohio public facilities commission, the issuing 7535
authority also may without need for any other approval retain or 7536
contract for the services of attorneys and other professionals for 7537
that purpose. Financing costs are payable, as may be provided in 7538
the bond proceedings, from the proceeds of the obligations, from 7539
special funds, or from other moneys available for the purpose.7540

       (E) The bond proceedings may contain additional provisions 7541
customary or appropriate to the financing or to the obligations or 7542
to particular obligations including, but not limited to, 7543
provisions for:7544

       (1) The redemption of obligations prior to maturity at the 7545
option of the state or of the holder or upon the occurrence of 7546
certain conditions, and at particular price or prices and under 7547
particular terms and conditions;7548

       (2) The form of and other terms of the obligations;7549

       (3) The establishment, deposit, investment, and application 7550
of special funds, and the safeguarding of moneys on hand or on 7551
deposit, in lieu of the applicability of provisions of Chapter 7552
131. or 135. of the Revised Code, but subject to any special 7553
provisions of sections 151.01 to 151.11 or 151.40 of the Revised 7554
Code with respect to the application of particular funds or 7555
moneys. Any financial institution that acts as a depository of any 7556
moneys in special funds or other funds under the bond proceedings 7557
may furnish indemnifying bonds or pledge securities as required by 7558
the issuing authority.7559

       (4) Any or every provision of the bond proceedings being 7560
binding upon the issuing authority and upon such governmental 7561
agency or entity, officer, board, commission, authority, agency, 7562
department, institution, district, or other person or body as may 7563
from time to time be authorized to take actions as may be 7564
necessary to perform all or any part of the duty required by the 7565
provision;7566

       (5) The maintenance of each pledge or instrument comprising 7567
part of the bond proceedings until the state has fully paid or 7568
provided for the payment of the debt service on the obligations or 7569
met other stated conditions;7570

       (6) In the event of default in any payments required to be 7571
made by the bond proceedings, or by any other agreement of the 7572
issuing authority made as part of a contract under which the 7573
obligations were issued or secured, including a credit enhancement 7574
facility, the enforcement of those payments by mandamus, a suit in 7575
equity, an action at law, or any combination of those remedial 7576
actions;7577

       (7) The rights and remedies of the holders or owners of 7578
obligations or of book-entry interests in them, and of third 7579
parties under any credit enhancement facility, and provisions for 7580
protecting and enforcing those rights and remedies, including 7581
limitations on rights of individual holders or owners;7582

       (8) The replacement of mutilated, destroyed, lost, or stolen 7583
obligations;7584

       (9) The funding, refunding, or advance refunding, or other 7585
provision for payment, of obligations that will then no longer be 7586
outstanding for purposes of this section or of the applicable bond 7587
proceedings;7588

       (10) Amendment of the bond proceedings;7589

       (11) Any other or additional agreements with the owners of 7590
obligations, and such other provisions as the issuing authority 7591
determines, including limitations, conditions, or qualifications, 7592
relating to any of the foregoing.7593

       (F) The great seal of the state or a facsimile of it may be 7594
affixed to or printed on the obligations. The obligations 7595
requiring execution by or for the issuing authority shall be 7596
signed as provided in the bond proceedings. Any obligations may be 7597
signed by the individual who on the date of execution is the 7598
authorized signer although on the date of these obligations that 7599
individual is not an authorized signer. In case the individual 7600
whose signature or facsimile signature appears on any obligation 7601
ceases to be an authorized signer before delivery of the 7602
obligation, that signature or facsimile is nevertheless valid and 7603
sufficient for all purposes as if that individual had remained the 7604
authorized signer until delivery.7605

       (G) Obligations are investment securities under Chapter 1308. 7606
of the Revised Code. Obligations may be issued in bearer or in 7607
registered form, registrable as to principal alone or as to both 7608
principal and interest, or both, or in certificated or 7609
uncertificated form, as the issuing authority determines. 7610
Provision may be made for the exchange, conversion, or transfer of 7611
obligations and for reasonable charges for registration, exchange, 7612
conversion, and transfer. Pending preparation of final 7613
obligations, the issuing authority may provide for the issuance of 7614
interim instruments to be exchanged for the final obligations.7615

       (H) Obligations may be sold at public sale or at private 7616
sale, in such manner, and at such price at, above or below par, 7617
all as determined by and provided by the issuing authority in the 7618
bond proceedings.7619

       (I) Except to the extent that rights are restricted by the 7620
bond proceedings, any owner of obligations or provider of a credit 7621
enhancement facility may by any suitable form of legal proceedings 7622
protect and enforce any rights relating to obligations or that 7623
facility under the laws of this state or granted by the bond 7624
proceedings. Those rights include the right to compel the 7625
performance of all applicable duties of the issuing authority and 7626
the state. Each duty of the issuing authority and that authority's 7627
officers, staff, and employees, and of each state entity or 7628
agency, or using district or using institution, and its officers, 7629
members, staff, or employees, undertaken pursuant to the bond 7630
proceedings, is hereby established as a duty of the entity or 7631
individual having authority to perform that duty, specifically 7632
enjoined by law and resulting from an office, trust, or station 7633
within the meaning of section 2731.01 of the Revised Code. The 7634
individuals who are from time to time the issuing authority, 7635
members or officers of the issuing authority, or those members' 7636
designees acting pursuant to section 151.02 of the Revised Code, 7637
or the issuing authority's officers, staff, or employees, are not 7638
liable in their personal capacities on any obligations or 7639
otherwise under the bond proceedings.7640

       (J)(1) Subject to Section 2k, 2l, 2m, 2n, 2o, 2p, 2q, or 15, 7641
and Section 17, of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution and sections 7642
151.01 to 151.11 or 151.40 of the Revised Code, the issuing 7643
authority may, in addition to the authority referred to in 7644
division (B) of this section, authorize and provide for the 7645
issuance of:7646

       (a) Obligations in the form of bond anticipation notes, and 7647
may provide for the renewal of those notes from time to time by 7648
the issuance of new notes. The holders of notes or appertaining 7649
interest coupons have the right to have debt service on those 7650
notes paid solely from the moneys and special funds that are or 7651
may be pledged to that payment, including the proceeds of bonds or 7652
renewal notes or both, as the issuing authority provides in the 7653
bond proceedings authorizing the notes. Notes may be additionally 7654
secured by covenants of the issuing authority to the effect that 7655
the issuing authority and the state will do all things necessary 7656
for the issuance of bonds or renewal notes in such principal 7657
amount and upon such terms as may be necessary to provide moneys 7658
to pay when due the debt service on the notes, and apply their 7659
proceeds to the extent necessary, to make full and timely payment 7660
of debt service on the notes as provided in the applicable bond 7661
proceedings. In the bond proceedings authorizing the issuance of 7662
bond anticipation notes the issuing authority shall set forth for 7663
the bonds anticipated an estimated schedule of annual principal 7664
payments the latest of which shall be no later than provided in 7665
division (C) of this section. While the notes are outstanding 7666
there shall be deposited, as shall be provided in the bond 7667
proceedings for those notes, from the sources authorized for 7668
payment of debt service on the bonds, amounts sufficient to pay 7669
the principal of the bonds anticipated as set forth in that 7670
estimated schedule during the time the notes are outstanding, 7671
which amounts shall be used solely to pay the principal of those 7672
notes or of the bonds anticipated.7673

       (b) Obligations for the refunding, including funding and 7674
retirement, and advance refunding with or without payment or 7675
redemption prior to maturity, of any obligations previously 7676
issued. Refunding obligations may be issued in amounts sufficient 7677
to pay or to provide for repayment of the principal amount, 7678
including principal amounts maturing prior to the redemption of 7679
the remaining prior obligations, any redemption premium, and 7680
interest accrued or to accrue to the maturity or redemption date 7681
or dates, payable on the prior obligations, and related financing 7682
costs and any expenses incurred or to be incurred in connection 7683
with that issuance and refunding. Subject to the applicable bond 7684
proceedings, the portion of the proceeds of the sale of refunding 7685
obligations issued under division (J)(1)(b) of this section to be 7686
applied to debt service on the prior obligations shall be credited 7687
to an appropriate separate account in the bond service fund and 7688
held in trust for the purpose by the issuing authority or by a 7689
corporate trustee. Obligations authorized under this division 7690
shall be considered to be issued for those purposes for which the 7691
prior obligations were issued.7692

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in sections 151.01 to 151.11 7693
or 151.40 of the Revised Code, bonds or notes authorized pursuant 7694
to division (J) of this section are subject to the provisions of 7695
those sections pertaining to obligations generally.7696

       (3) The principal amount of refunding or renewal obligations 7697
issued pursuant to division (J) of this section shall be in 7698
addition to the amount authorized by the general assembly as 7699
referred to in division (B) of the following sections: section 7700
151.03, 151.04, 151.05, 151.06, 151.07, 151.08, 151.09, 151.10, 7701
151.11, or 151.40 of the Revised Code.7702

       (K) Obligations are lawful investments for banks, savings and 7703
loan associations, credit union share guaranty corporations, trust 7704
companies, trustees, fiduciaries, insurance companies, including 7705
domestic for life and domestic not for life, trustees or other 7706
officers having charge of sinking and bond retirement or other 7707
special funds of the state and political subdivisions and taxing 7708
districts of this state, the sinking fund, the administrator of 7709
workers' compensation subject to the approval of the workers' 7710
compensation board, the state teachers retirement system, the 7711
public employees retirement system, the school employees 7712
retirement system, and the Ohio police and fire pension fund, 7713
notwithstanding any other provisions of the Revised Code or rules 7714
adopted pursuant to those provisions by any state agency with 7715
respect to investments by them, and are also acceptable as 7716
security for the repayment of the deposit of public moneys. The 7717
exemptions from taxation in Ohio as provided for in particular 7718
sections of the Ohio Constitution and section 5709.76 of the 7719
Revised Code apply to the obligations.7720

       (L)(1) Unless otherwise provided or provided for in any 7721
applicable bond proceedings, moneys to the credit of or in a 7722
special fund shall be disbursed on the order of the issuing 7723
authority. No such order is required for the payment, from the 7724
bond service fund or other special fund, when due of debt service 7725
or required payments under credit enhancement facilities.7726

       (2) Payments received by the state under interest rate hedges 7727
entered into as credit enhancement facilities under this chapter 7728
shall be deposited to the credit of the bond service fund for the 7729
obligations to which those credit enhancement facilities relate.7730

       (M) The full faith and credit, revenue, and taxing power of 7731
the state are and shall be pledged to the timely payment of debt 7732
service on outstanding obligations as it comes due, all in 7733
accordance with Section 2k, 2l, 2m, 2n, 2o, 2p, 2q, or 15 of 7734
Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and section 151.03, 151.04, 7735
151.05, 151.06, 151.07, 151.08, 151.09, 151.10, or 151.11 of the 7736
Revised Code. Moneys referred to in Section 5a of Article XII, 7737
Ohio Constitution, may not be pledged or used for the payment of 7738
debt service except on obligations referred to in section 151.06 7739
of the Revised Code. Net state lottery proceeds, as provided for 7740
and referred to in section 3770.06 of the Revised Code, may not be 7741
pledged or used for the payment of debt service except on 7742
obligations referred to in section 151.03 of the Revised Code. The 7743
state covenants, and that covenant shall be controlling 7744
notwithstanding any other provision of law, that the state and the 7745
applicable officers and agencies of the state, including the 7746
general assembly, shall, so long as any obligations are 7747
outstanding in accordance with their terms, maintain statutory 7748
authority for and cause to be levied, collected and applied 7749
sufficient pledged excises, taxes, and revenues of the state so 7750
that the revenues shall be sufficient in amounts to pay debt 7751
service when due, to establish and maintain any reserves and other 7752
requirements, and to pay financing costs, including costs of or 7753
relating to credit enhancement facilities, all as provided for in 7754
the bond proceedings. Those excises, taxes, and revenues are and 7755
shall be deemed to be levied and collected, in addition to the 7756
purposes otherwise provided for by law, to provide for the payment 7757
of debt service and financing costs in accordance with sections 7758
151.01 to 151.11 of the Revised Code and the bond proceedings.7759

       (N) The general assembly may from time to time repeal or 7760
reduce any excise, tax, or other source of revenue pledged to the 7761
payment of the debt service pursuant to Section 2k, 2l, 2m, 2n, 7762
2o, 2p, 2q, or 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and sections 7763
151.01 to 151.11 or 151.40 of the Revised Code, and may levy, 7764
collect and apply any new or increased excise, tax, or revenue to 7765
meet the pledge, to the payment of debt service on outstanding 7766
obligations, of the state's full faith and credit, revenue and 7767
taxing power, or of designated revenues and receipts, except fees, 7768
excises or taxes referred to in Section 5a of Article XII, Ohio 7769
Constitution, for other than obligations referred to in section 7770
151.06 of the Revised Code and except net state lottery proceeds 7771
for other than obligations referred to in section 151.03 of the 7772
Revised Code. Nothing in division (N) of this section authorizes 7773
any impairment of the obligation of this state to levy and collect 7774
sufficient excises, taxes, and revenues to pay debt service on 7775
obligations outstanding in accordance with their terms.7776

       (O) Each bond service fund is a trust fund and is hereby 7777
pledged to the payment of debt service on the applicable 7778
obligations. Payment of that debt service shall be made or 7779
provided for by the issuing authority in accordance with the bond 7780
proceedings without necessity for any act of appropriation. The 7781
bond proceedings may provide for the establishment of separate 7782
accounts in the bond service fund and for the application of those 7783
accounts only to debt service on specific obligations, and for 7784
other accounts in the bond service fund within the general 7785
purposes of that fund.7786

       (P) Subject to the bond proceedings pertaining to any 7787
obligations then outstanding in accordance with their terms, the 7788
issuing authority may in the bond proceedings pledge all, or such 7789
portion as the issuing authority determines, of the moneys in the 7790
bond service fund to the payment of debt service on particular 7791
obligations, and for the establishment and maintenance of any 7792
reserves for payment of particular debt service.7793

       (Q) The issuing authority shall by the fifteenth day of July 7794
of each fiscal year, certify or cause to be certified to the 7795
office of budget and management the total amount of moneys 7796
required during the current fiscal year to meet in full all debt 7797
service on the respective obligations and any related financing 7798
costs payable from the applicable bond service fund and not from 7799
the proceeds of refunding or renewal obligations. The issuing 7800
authority shall make or cause to be made supplemental 7801
certifications to the office of budget and management for each 7802
debt service payment date and at such other times during each 7803
fiscal year as may be provided in the bond proceedings or 7804
requested by that office. Debt service, costs of credit 7805
enhancement facilities, and other financing costs shall be set 7806
forth separately in each certification. If and so long as the 7807
moneys to the credit of the bond service fund, together with any 7808
other moneys available for the purpose, are insufficient to meet 7809
in full all payments when due of the amount required as stated in 7810
the certificate or otherwise, the office of budget and management 7811
shall at the times as provided in the bond proceedings, and 7812
consistent with any particular provisions in sections 151.03 to 7813
151.11 and 151.40 of the Revised Code, transfer a sufficient 7814
amount to the bond service fund from the pledged revenues in the 7815
case of obligations issued pursuant to section 151.40 of the 7816
Revised Code, and in the case of other obligations from the 7817
revenues derived from excises, taxes, and other revenues, 7818
including net state lottery proceeds in the case of obligations 7819
referred to in section 151.03 of the Revised Code.7820

       (R) Unless otherwise provided in any applicable bond 7821
proceedings, moneys to the credit of special funds may be invested 7822
by or on behalf of the state only in one or more of the following:7823

       (1) Notes, bonds, or other direct obligations of the United 7824
States or of any agency or instrumentality of the United States, 7825
or in no-front-end-load money market mutual funds consisting 7826
exclusively of those obligations, or in repurchase agreements, 7827
including those issued by any fiduciary, secured by those 7828
obligations, or in collective investment funds consisting 7829
exclusively of those obligations;7830

       (2) Obligations of this state or any political subdivision 7831
of this state;7832

       (3) Certificates of deposit of any national bank located in 7833
this state and any bank, as defined in section 1101.01 of the 7834
Revised Code, subject to inspection by the superintendent of 7835
financial institutions;7836

       (4) The treasurer of state's pooled investment program under 7837
section 135.45 of the Revised Code.7838

       The income from investments referred to in division (R) of 7839
this section shall, unless otherwise provided in sections 151.01 7840
to 151.11 or 151.40 of the Revised Code, be credited to special 7841
funds or otherwise as the issuing authority determines in the bond 7842
proceedings. Those investments may be sold or exchanged at times 7843
as the issuing authority determines, provides for, or authorizes.7844

       (S) The treasurer of state shall have responsibility for 7845
keeping records, making reports, and making payments, relating to 7846
any arbitrage rebate requirements under the applicable bond 7847
proceedings.7848

       Sec. 152.18.  Whenever the Ohio building authority 7849
constructs, reconstructs, rehabilitates, remodels, renovates, 7850
enlarges, improves, alters, maintains, equips, furnishes, repairs, 7851
paints, or decorates capital facilities pursuant to section 7852
152.19, 152.21, or 152.31 of the Revised Code or buildings, 7853
facilities, and other properties for use and occupancy of persons 7854
pursuant to section 152.04 of the Revised Code, the authority 7855
shall make the necessary plans and specifications, and shall 7856
advertise for bids for all work to be placed under contract once a 7857
week for two consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general 7858
circulation in the county within which the work is to be done, and 7859
shall award the contract to the lowest responsive and responsible 7860
bidder in accordance with section 9.312 of the Revised Code. When 7861
the authority determines, subject to approval by the controlling 7862
board, that a real and present emergency exists or if the cost of 7863
such a contract does not exceed fifty thousand dollars, such a 7864
contract may be awarded without advertising and receipt of bids. A 7865
bid guaranty pursuant to sections 153.54 to 153.571 of the Revised 7866
Code shall be required for any contract under this section.7867

       In all other cases of capital facilities financed by the 7868
authority, the construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, 7869
remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, alteration, 7870
maintenance, equipping, furnishing, repair, painting, or 7871
decoration of capital facilities by or for the state or any 7872
governmental entity shall be the responsibility of the department 7873
of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission7874
or, with the consent of the department of administrative services7875
Ohio facilities construction commission, shall be the 7876
responsibility of the state agency using the capital facility, or 7877
the governmental entity with which a state agency is participating 7878
pursuant to section 152.33 of the Revised Code, and shall be 7879
undertaken by the departmentcommission in compliance with Chapter 7880
153. of the Revised Code, or by such state agency or governmental 7881
entity in accordance with otherwise applicable law. The 7882
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, maintenance, equipping, or 7883
furnishing of capital facilities by or for the state or any 7884
governmental entity shall be the responsibility of the department 7885
of administrative services or, with the consent of the department, 7886
the state agency or other governmental entity that is using the 7887
capital facility.7888

       Sec. 152.24.  (A) Except as otherwise provided with respect 7889
to leasing of capital facilities in sections 152.241, 152.242, 7890
152.31, and 152.33 of the Revised Code, the department of 7891
administrative services or, with the consent of the department of 7892
administrative services, the state agency using an office facility 7893
and related storage and parking facilities, or participating in 7894
such facilities pursuant to section 152.33 of the Revised Code, 7895
shall lease any office facility and related storage and parking 7896
facility acquired, purchased, constructed, reconstructed, 7897
rehabilitated, remodeled, renovated, enlarged, improved, altered, 7898
operated, maintained, equipped, furnished, repaired, painted, 7899
decorated, or financed by the Ohio building authority for housing 7900
any state agencies. An agreement between the authority and the 7901
department of administrative services or such using or 7902
participating agency may provide for the transfer of the property 7903
to the state after bonds and notes issued by the authority for the 7904
purpose of the acquisition, purchase, construction, 7905
reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, 7906
enlargement, improvement, alteration, equipping, furnishing, 7907
repair, painting, decorating, or financing of such building or 7908
facility have been repaid. A lease between the authority and the 7909
department of administrative services or a using or participating 7910
agency shall be for a period not exceeding the then current 7911
two-year period for which appropriations have been made by the 7912
general assembly to the department of administrative services and 7913
the state agencies which will occupy or participate in the office 7914
facility and related storage and parking facility being leased, 7915
and such lease may contain such other terms as the department of 7916
administrative services, or a using or participating agency, and 7917
the authority agree notwithstanding any other provision of law, 7918
including provision that rental payments in amounts at least 7919
sufficient to pay bond service charges payable during the current 7920
two-year lease term shall be an absolute and unconditional 7921
obligation of the department of administrative services, or the 7922
using or participating agency, independent of all other duties 7923
under the lease without setoff or deduction or any other similar 7924
rights or defenses. Such an agreement may provide for renewal of a 7925
lease at the end of each term for another term, not exceeding two 7926
years, provided that no renewal shall be effective until the 7927
effective date of an appropriation enacted by the general assembly 7928
from which the department of administrative services, or the using 7929
or participating agency, may lawfully pay rentals under such 7930
lease. For purposes of this section, the term "lease" may include, 7931
without limitation, any agreement between the department of 7932
administrative services, or the using or participating agency, and 7933
the authority with respect to any costs of capital facilities to 7934
be incurred prior to land acquisition.7935

       (B) If the director of administrative services or the 7936
director of a state agency using or participating in an office 7937
facility and related storage and parking facility certifies that 7938
space in such facility acquired, purchased, constructed, 7939
reconstructed, rehabilitated, remodeled, renovated, enlarged, 7940
improved, altered, operated, maintained, equipped, furnished, 7941
repaired, painted, decorated, or financed by the authority has 7942
become unnecessary for state use, the authority may lease any 7943
excess space in such facility and related storage and parking 7944
facility to any governmental entity.7945

       (C) If space in any office facility leased by the authority 7946
to the department of administrative services is not immediately 7947
necessary for state use, the department of administrative services 7948
may exercise its authority under division (A)(9)(5) of section 7949
123.01 of the Revised Code with respect to such space.7950

       (D) Capital facilities acquired, purchased, constructed, 7951
reconstructed, rehabilitated, remodeled, renovated, enlarged, 7952
improved, altered, operated, maintained, equipped, furnished, 7953
repaired, painted, decorated, or financed by the Ohio building 7954
authority, other than any office facility and related storage and 7955
parking facility required to be leased pursuant to division (A) of 7956
this section, shall be leased to the department of administrative 7957
services, the state agency using the capital facilities, or the 7958
state agency participating in the capital facilities pursuant to 7959
section 152.33 of the Revised Code. The department of 7960
administrative services or the using or participating state agency 7961
may sublease such capital facilities to other state agencies or 7962
other governmental entities. Such parties, including other state 7963
agencies or state-supported or state-assisted institutions of 7964
higher education, may make other agreements for the use, 7965
construction, or operation of such capital facilities in any 7966
manner permitted by the lease or agreement with the authority and 7967
for the charging, collection, and deposit of such revenues and 7968
receipts of the using or participating state agency constituting 7969
available receipts, all upon such terms and conditions as the 7970
parties may agree upon and pursuant to this chapter 7971
notwithstanding other provisions of law affecting the leasing, 7972
acquisition, operation, or disposition of capital facilities by 7973
such parties. Any such lease between the authority and the 7974
department of administrative services or a using or participating 7975
state agency shall be for a period not to exceed the then current 7976
two-year period for which appropriations have been made by the 7977
general assembly to the department of administrative services or 7978
such using or participating state agency. The lease between the 7979
authority and the department of administrative services or the 7980
using or participating state agency may provide for renewal of the 7981
lease at the end of each term for another term, not exceeding two 7982
years, but no renewal shall be effective until the effective date 7983
of an appropriation enacted by the general assembly from which the 7984
department of administrative services or the using or 7985
participating state agency may lawfully pay rentals under such 7986
lease. Any such leases, subleases, or agreements may set forth the 7987
responsibilities of the authority, state agencies, 7988
state-supported, or state-assisted institutions of higher 7989
education, or other governmental entities as to the financing, 7990
assessment, planning, acquisition, purchase, construction, 7991
reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, 7992
enlargement, improvement, alteration, subleasing, management, 7993
operation, maintenance, equipping, furnishing, repair, painting, 7994
decorating, and insuring of such capital facilities and other 7995
terms and conditions applicable thereto, and any other provisions 7996
mutually agreed upon for the purposes of this chapter. Promptly 7997
upon execution thereof, a signed or conformed copy of each such 7998
lease or sublease or agreement, and any supplement thereto, 7999
between the authority and a governmental entity shall be filed by 8000
the authority with the department of administrative services and 8001
the director of budget and management, and, promptly upon 8002
execution thereof, a signed or conformed copy of each such 8003
sublease or agreement between two governmental entities, not 8004
including the authority, shall be filed with the authority and the 8005
director of budget and management. For purposes of this section, 8006
the term "lease" may include, without limitation, any agreement 8007
between the department of administrative services or the state 8008
agency using or participating in such capital facilities and the 8009
authority with respect to any costs of capital facilities to be 8010
incurred prior to land acquisition.8011

       (E) The transfer of tangible personal property by lease under 8012
authority of this chapter is not a sale as used in Chapter 5739. 8013
of the Revised Code. Any agreement of a governmental entity to 8014
make rental, use, or other payments or payment of purchase price, 8015
in installments or otherwise, or repayments to or on account of 8016
the authority and the obligations issued by the authority, shall 8017
not be deemed to constitute indebtedness, bonded or otherwise, or 8018
bonds, notes, or other evidence of indebtedness of such 8019
governmental entity for the purpose of Chapter 133. of the Revised 8020
Code or any other purpose; such leases and agreements requiring 8021
payments beyond the current fiscal year are continuing contracts 8022
for the purposes of sections 5705.41 and 5705.44 of the Revised 8023
Code.8024

       (F) Any agreement between the department of administrative 8025
services or the state agency using or participating in such 8026
capital facilities and the authority that includes provision for 8027
the use of space by such using or participating state agency or 8028
the department of administrative services, even if executed prior 8029
to land acquisition or completion of construction, improvements, 8030
or financing, shall be a lease for purposes of this chapter and 8031
for all other purposes. No such lease need be recorded or 8032
recordable for purposes of determining its validity or legal 8033
sufficiency.8034

       Sec. 153.01. (A) Whenever any building or structure for the 8035
use of the state or any institution supported in whole or in part 8036
by the state or in or upon the public works of the state that is 8037
administered by the director of administrative servicesOhio 8038
facilities construction commission or by any other state officer 8039
or state agency authorized by law to administer a project, 8040
including an educational institution listed in section 3345.50 of 8041
the Revised Code, is to be erected or constructed, whenever 8042
additions, alterations, or structural or other improvements are to 8043
be made, or whenever heating, cooling, or ventilating plants or 8044
other equipment is to be installed or material supplied therefor, 8045
the estimated cost of which amounts to two hundred thousand 8046
dollars or more, or the amount determined pursuant to section 8047
153.53 of the Revised Code or more, each officer, board, or other 8048
authority upon which devolves the duty of constructing, erecting, 8049
altering, or installing the same, referred to in sections 153.01 8050
to 153.60 of the Revised Code as the public authority, shall cause 8051
to be made, by an architect or engineer whose contract of 8052
employment shall be prepared and approved by the attorney general, 8053
the following:8054

       (1) Full and accurate plans, suitable for the use of 8055
mechanics and other builders in the construction, improvement, 8056
addition, alteration, or installation;8057

       (2) Details to scale and full-sized, so drawn and represented 8058
as to be easily understood;8059

       (3) Definite and complete specifications of the work to be 8060
performed, together with directions that will enable a competent 8061
mechanic or other builder to carry them out and afford bidders all 8062
needful information;8063

       (4) A full and accurate estimate of each item of expense and 8064
the aggregate cost of those items of expense;8065

       (5) A life-cycle cost analysis;8066

       (6) Further data as may be required by the department of 8067
administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission.8068

       (B) Division (A) of this section shall not be required with 8069
respect to a construction management contract entered into with a 8070
construction manager at risk as described in section 9.334 of the 8071
Revised Code or a design-build contract entered into with a 8072
design-build firm as described in section 153.693 of the Revised 8073
Code. No such construction management contract or design-build 8074
contract shall be entered into until the contract and bond, if 8075
any, are submitted to the attorney general and the attorney 8076
general's approval certified thereon.8077

       Sec. 153.011.  (A) Except as provided in division (D) of this 8078
section, whenever any building or structure, including highway 8079
improvements, in whole or in part supported by state capital 8080
funds, including moneys from the education facilities trust fund, 8081
is to be erected or constructed, or whenever additions, 8082
alterations, or structural or other improvements are to be made, 8083
if any steel products are to be purchased for or provided in the 8084
construction, repair, or improvement project, only steel products 8085
as defined in division (F) of this section shall be purchased for 8086
or provided in the project.8087

       (B)(1) No person shall purchase or provide steel products in 8088
violation of division (A) of this section.8089

       (2) Notwithstanding division (B) of section 153.99 of the 8090
Revised Code, no person who purchases steel products in violation 8091
of division (A) of this section shall be held liable in a civil 8092
action commenced under division (C) of this section, or pay a 8093
civil penalty under division (B) of section 153.99 of the Revised 8094
Code, if that person can demonstrate the person's compliance with 8095
division (E) of this section.8096

       (C) Whenever the executive director of administrative 8097
servicesthe Ohio facilities construction commission has 8098
reasonable cause to believe that any person has purchased or 8099
provided steel products in violation of division (A) of this 8100
section, the executive director shall conduct an investigation to 8101
determine whether the person has purchased or provided or is 8102
purchasing or providing steel products in violation of division 8103
(A) of this section. Upon conducting the investigation, if the 8104
executive director finds that the person has purchased or provided 8105
or is purchasing or providing steel products in violation of 8106
division (A) of this section, the executive director shall request 8107
the attorney general to commence a civil action under this section 8108
against the person for violating division (A) of this section. The 8109
remedy provided in this section is concurrent with any other 8110
remedy provided in this chapter, and the existence or exercise of 8111
one remedy does not prevent the exercise of any other. Upon 8112
collection of the civil penalty under division (B) of section 8113
153.99 of the Revised Code, pursuant to an action authorized under 8114
this section, the attorney general shall pay the money collected 8115
to the treasurer of the board of education of the city, local, or 8116
exempted village school district and joint vocational school 8117
district, if one exists, in which the construction, repair, or 8118
improvement project for which the steel products used in violation 8119
of division (A) of this section is located. The treasurer shall 8120
deposit the civil penalty in equal amounts into the school 8121
district's general fund and the joint vocational school district's 8122
general fund. If a joint vocational school district does not exist 8123
where the violation occurred, then the entire sum of the civil 8124
penalty shall be deposited into the school district's general 8125
fund.8126

       (D) Pursuant to section 5525.21 of the Revised Code, the 8127
director of transportation may authorize the purchase or provision 8128
or both of a minimal amount of foreign steel products for use in 8129
contracts for public bridge projects.8130

       The executive director of administrative servicesthe Ohio 8131
facilities construction commission may waive the requirements of 8132
division (A) of this section if the executive director determines 8133
that either division (A) or (B) of section 5525.21 of the Revised 8134
Code is true in connection with a public bridge project. The 8135
executive director shall issue this determination in writing.8136

       (E) The following notice shall be included in boldface type 8137
and capital letters in all bid notifications and specifications 8138
between all parties to any contract authorized under Chapter 153. 8139
of the Revised Code or subject to this section and section 153.99 8140
of the Revised Code: "Domestic steel use requirements as specified 8141
in section 153.011 of the Revised Code apply to this project. 8142
Copies of section 153.011 of the Revised Code can be obtained from8143
any of the officesoffice of the department of administrative 8144
servicesOhio facilities construction commission."8145

       (F) As used in this section:8146

       (1) "Steel products" means products rolled, formed, shaped, 8147
drawn, extruded, forged, cast, fabricated or otherwise similarly 8148
processed, or processed by a combination of two or more of such 8149
operations, and used for load-bearing structural purposes, from 8150
steel made in the United States by the open hearth, basic oxygen, 8151
electric furnace, bessemer or other steel making process.8152

       (2) "United States" means the United States of America and 8153
includes all territory, continental or insular, subject to the 8154
jurisdiction of the United States.8155

       Sec. 153.013.  If a project for the construction, alteration, 8156
or other improvement of a building or structure is administered by 8157
the executive director of administrative servicesthe Ohio 8158
facilities construction commission or by another state agency 8159
authorized to administer a project under this chapter, if the 8160
project is located in a municipal corporation with a population of 8161
at least four hundred thousand that is in a county with a 8162
population of at least one million two hundred thousand, and if a 8163
political subdivision contributes at least one hundred thousand 8164
dollars to the project, then a contractor for the project shall 8165
comply with regulations or ordinances of the political subdivision 8166
that are in effect before July 1, 2009, and that specifically 8167
relate to the employment of residents and local businesses of the 8168
political subdivision in the performance of the work of the 8169
project, and such ordinances or regulations shall be included by 8170
reference unambiguously in the contract between the administering 8171
state agency and the contractor for the project.8172

       Sec. 153.02.  (A) The executive director of administrative 8173
services, on the director's own initiative or upon request of the 8174
Ohio school facilities construction commission, may debar a 8175
contractor from contract awards for public improvements as 8176
referred to in section 153.01 of the Revised Code or for projects 8177
as defined in section 3318.01 of the Revised Code, upon proof that 8178
the contractor has done any of the following:8179

        (1) Defaulted on a contract requiring the execution of a 8180
takeover agreement as set forth in division (B) of section 153.17 8181
of the Revised Code;8182

        (2) Knowingly failed during the course of a contract to 8183
maintain the coverage required by the bureau of workers' 8184
compensation;8185

        (3) Knowingly failed during the course of a contract to 8186
maintain the contractor's drug-free workplace program as required 8187
by the contract;8188

        (4) Knowingly failed during the course of a contract to 8189
maintain insurance required by the contract or otherwise by law, 8190
resulting in a substantial loss to the owner, as owner is referred 8191
to in section 153.01 of the Revised Code, or to the commission and 8192
school district board, as provided in division (F) of section 8193
3318.08 of the Revised Code;8194

        (5) Misrepresented the firm's qualifications in the selection 8195
process set forth in sections 153.65 to 153.71 or section 3318.10 8196
of the Revised Code;8197

        (6) Been convicted of a criminal offense related to the 8198
application for or performance of any public or private contract, 8199
including, but not limited to, embezzlement, theft, forgery, 8200
bribery, falsification or destruction of records, receiving stolen 8201
property, and any other offense that directly reflects on the 8202
contractor's business integrity;8203

        (7) Been convicted of a criminal offense under state or 8204
federal antitrust laws;8205

        (8) Deliberately or willfully submitted false or misleading 8206
information in connection with the application for or performance 8207
of a public contract;8208

        (9) Been debarred from bidding on or participating in a 8209
contract with any state or federal agency.8210

        (B) When the executive director reasonably believes that 8211
grounds for debarment exist, the executive director shall send the 8212
contractor a notice of proposed debarment indicating the grounds 8213
for the proposed debarment and the procedure for requesting a 8214
hearing on the proposed debarment. The hearing shall be conducted 8215
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the 8216
contractor does not respond with a request for a hearing in the 8217
manner specified in Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 8218
executive director shall issue the debarment decision without a 8219
hearing and shall notify the contractor of the decision by 8220
certified mail, return receipt requested.8221

        (C) The executive director shall determine the length of the 8222
debarment period and may rescind the debarment at any time upon 8223
notification to the contractor. During the period of debarment, 8224
the contractor is not eligible to bid for or participate in any 8225
contract for a public improvement as referred to in section 153.01 8226
of the Revised Code or for a project as defined in section 3318.01 8227
of the Revised Code. After the debarment period expires, the 8228
contractor shall be eligible to bid for and participate in such 8229
contracts.8230

        (D) The executive director, through the office of the state 8231
architect, shall maintain a list of all contractors currently 8232
debarred under this section. Any governmental entity awarding a 8233
contract for construction of a public improvement or project may 8234
use a contractor's presence on the debarment list to determine 8235
whether a contractor is responsible or best under section 9.312 or 8236
any other section of the Revised Code in the award of a contract.8237

       Sec. 153.04.  The plans, details, bills of material, 8238
specifications of work, estimates of cost in detail and in the 8239
aggregate, life-cycle cost analysis, form of bid, bid guaranty, 8240
and other data that may be required shall be prepared on such 8241
material and in such manner and form as are prescribed by the 8242
department of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction 8243
commission. The life-cycle costs shall be a primary consideration 8244
in the selection of a design. The same shall be deposited and 8245
safely kept in the office of the owner as defined in section 8246
153.01 of the Revised Code as the property of the state.8247

       Sec. 153.06.  After the proceedings required by sections 8248
153.01 and 153.04 of the Revised Code have been complied with, the 8249
owner referred to in section 153.01 of the Revised Code shall give 8250
public notice of the time and place when and where bids will be 8251
received for performing the labor and furnishing the materials of 8252
such construction, improvement, alteration, addition, or 8253
installation, and a contract awarded, except for materials 8254
manufactured by the state or labor supplied by a county department 8255
of job and family services that may enter into the same. The form 8256
of bid approved by the department of administrative servicesOhio 8257
facilities construction commission shall be used, and a bid shall 8258
be invalid and not considered unless such form is used without 8259
change, alteration, or addition. Bidders may be permitted to bid 8260
upon all the branches of work and materials to be furnished and 8261
supplied, or upon any thereof, or alternately upon all or any 8262
thereof.8263

       Sec. 153.07.  The notice provided for in section 153.06 of 8264
the Revised Code shall be published once each week for three 8265
consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation, or as 8266
provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, in the county where 8267
the activity for which bids are submitted is to occur and in such 8268
other newspapers as ordered by the department of administrative 8269
servicesOhio facilities construction commission, the last 8270
publication to be at least eight days preceding the day for 8271
opening the bids, and in such form and with such phraseology as 8272
the departmentcommission orders. Copies of the plans, details, 8273
estimates of cost, and specifications shall be open to public 8274
inspection at all business hours between the day of the first 8275
publication and the day for opening the bids, at the office of the 8276
departmentcommission where the bids are received, and such other 8277
place as may be designated in such notice.8278

       Sec. 153.08.  On the day and at the place named in the notice 8279
provided for in section 153.06 of the Revised Code, the owner 8280
referred to in section 153.01 of the Revised Code shall open the 8281
bids and shall publicly, with the assistance of the architect or 8282
engineer, immediately proceed to tabulate the bids upon duplicate 8283
sheets. The public bid opening may be broadcast by electronic 8284
means pursuant to rules established by the director of 8285
administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission. A 8286
bid shall be invalid and not considered unless a bid guaranty 8287
meeting the requirements of section 153.54 of the Revised Code and 8288
in the form approved by the department of administrative services8289
commission is filed with such bid. For a bid that is not filed 8290
electronically, the bid and bid guaranty shall be filed in one 8291
sealed envelope. If the bid and bid guaranty are filed 8292
electronically, they must be received electronically before the 8293
deadline published pursuant to section 153.06 of the Revised Code. 8294
For all bids filed electronically, the original, unaltered bid 8295
guaranty shall be made available to the public authority after the 8296
public bid opening. After investigation, which shall be completed 8297
within thirty days, the contract shall be awarded by such owner to 8298
the lowest responsive and responsible bidder in accordance with 8299
section 9.312 of the Revised Code. 8300

       No contract shall be entered into until the industrial 8301
commission has certified that the person so awarded the contract 8302
has complied with sections 4123.01 to 4123.94 of the Revised Code, 8303
until, if the bidder so awarded the contract is a foreign 8304
corporation, the secretary of state has certified that such 8305
corporation is authorized to do business in this state, until, if 8306
the bidder so awarded the contract is a person nonresident of this 8307
state, such person has filed with the secretary of state a power 8308
of attorney designating the secretary of state as its agent for 8309
the purpose of accepting service of summons in any action brought 8310
under section 153.05 of the Revised Code or under sections 4123.01 8311
to 4123.94 of the Revised Code, and until the contract and bond, 8312
if any, are submitted to the attorney general and the attorney 8313
general's approval certified thereon.8314

       No contract shall be entered into unless the bidder possesses 8315
a valid certificate of compliance with affirmative action programs 8316
issued pursuant to section 9.47 of the Revised Code and dated no 8317
earlier than one hundred eighty days prior to the date fixed for 8318
the opening of bids for a particular project.8319

       Sec. 153.09.  If in the opinion of the owner referred to in 8320
section 153.01 of the Revised Code, the award of a contract to the 8321
lowest responsive and responsible bidder is not in the best 8322
interests of the state, the owner may accept another bid so opened 8323
or reject all bids, and advertise for other bids. Such 8324
advertisement shall be for such time, in such form, and in such 8325
newspaper as the departmentOhio facilities construction 8326
commission directs. All contracts shall provide that such owner 8327
may make any change in work or materials on the conditions and in 8328
the manner provided in sections 153.10 and 153.11 of the Revised 8329
Code.8330

       Sec. 153.11.  Whenever the change referred to in section 8331
153.10 of the Revised Code is approved by the owner as defined in 8332
section 153.01 of the Revised Code, accepted in writing by the 8333
contractor, and filed, the same shall be considered as being a 8334
part of the original contract, and the bond theretofore executed 8335
shall be heldincreased or decreased accordingly to include and 8336
cover the samechange in the contract.8337

       Sec. 153.12.  (A) With respect to award of any contract for 8338
the construction, reconstruction, improvement, enlargement, 8339
alteration, repair, painting, or decoration of a public 8340
improvement made by the state, or any county, township, municipal 8341
corporation, school district, or other political subdivision, or 8342
any public board, commission, authority, instrumentality, or 8343
special purpose district of or in the state or a political 8344
subdivision or that is authorized by state law, the award, and 8345
execution of the contract, shall be made within sixty days after 8346
the date on which the bids are opened. The failure to award and 8347
execute the contract within sixty days invalidates the entire bid 8348
proceedings and all bids submitted, unless the time for awarding 8349
and executing the contract is extended by mutual consent of the 8350
owner or its representatives and the bidder whose bid the owner 8351
accepts and with respect to whom the owner subsequently awards and 8352
executes a contract. The public owners referred to in this section 8353
shall include, in the plans and specifications for the project for 8354
which bids are solicited, the estimate of cost. The bid for which 8355
the award is to be made shall be opened at the time and place 8356
named in the advertisement for bids, unless extended by the owner 8357
or its representative or unless, within seventy-two hours prior to 8358
the published time for the opening of bids, excluding Saturdays, 8359
Sundays, and legal holidays, any modification of the plans or 8360
specifications and estimates of cost for the project for which 8361
bids are solicited is issued and mailed or otherwise furnished to 8362
persons who have obtained plans or specifications for the project, 8363
for which the time for opening of bids shall be extended one week, 8364
with no further advertising of bids required. The contractor, upon 8365
request, is entitled to a notice to proceed with the work by the 8366
owner or its representative upon execution of the contract. No 8367
contract to which this section applies shall be entered into if 8368
the price of the contract, or, if the project involves multiple 8369
contracts where the total price of all contracts for the project, 8370
is in excess of ten per cent above the entire estimate thereof, 8371
nor shall the entire cost of the construction, reconstruction, 8372
repair, painting, decorating, improvement, alteration, addition, 8373
or installation, including changes and estimates of expenses for 8374
architects or engineers, exceed in the aggregate the amount 8375
authorized by law.8376

       The unit or lump sum price stated in the contract shall be 8377
used in determining the amount to be paid and shall constitute 8378
full and final compensation for all the work.8379

       Partial payment to the contractor for work performed under 8380
the lump sum price shall be based on a schedule prepared by the 8381
contractor and approved by the architect or engineer who shall 8382
apportion the lump sum price to the major components entering into 8383
or forming a part of the work under the lump sum price.8384

       Partial payments to the contractor for labor performed under 8385
either a unit or lump sum price contract shall be made at the rate 8386
of ninety-two per cent of the estimates prepared by the contractor 8387
and approved by the architect or engineer. All labor performed 8388
after the job is fifty per cent completed shall be paid for at the 8389
rate of one hundred per cent of the estimates submitted by the 8390
contractor and approved by the architect or engineer.8391

       The amounts and time of payments of any public improvements 8392
contract made by the state or any county, township, municipal 8393
corporation, school district, or other political subdivision, or 8394
any public board, commission, authority, instrumentality, or 8395
special purpose district of or in the state or a political 8396
subdivision or that is authorized by state law, except as provided 8397
in section 5525.19 of the Revised Code, shall be governed by this 8398
section and sections 153.13 and 153.14 of the Revised Code. If the 8399
time for awarding the contract is extended by mutual consent, or 8400
if the owner or its representative fails to issue a timely notice 8401
to proceed as required by this section, the owner or its 8402
representative shall issue a change order authorizing delay costs 8403
to the contractor, which does not invalidate the contract. The 8404
amount of such a change order to the owner shall be determined in 8405
accordance with the provisions of the contract for change orders 8406
or force accounts or, if no such provision is set forth in the 8407
contract, the cost to the owner shall be the contractor's actual 8408
costs including wages, labor costs other than wages, wage taxes, 8409
materials, equipment costs and rentals, insurance, and 8410
subcontracts attributable to the delay, plus a reasonable sum for 8411
overhead. In the event of a dispute between the owner and the 8412
contractor concerning such change order, procedures shall be 8413
commenced under the applicable terms of the contract, or, if the 8414
contract contains no provision for resolving the dispute, it shall 8415
be resolved pursuant to the procedures for arbitration in Chapter 8416
2711. of the Revised Code, except as provided in division (B) of 8417
this section. Nothing in this division shall be construed as a 8418
limitation upon the authority of the director of transportation 8419
granted in Chapter 5525. of the Revised Code.8420

       (B) If a dispute arises between the state and a contractor 8421
concerning the terms of a public improvement contract let by the 8422
state or concerning a breach of the contract, and after 8423
administrative remedies provided for in such contract and any 8424
alternative dispute resolution procedures provided in accordance 8425
with guidelines established by the executive director of 8426
administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities construction 8427
commission are exhausted, the contractor may bring an action to 8428
the court of claims in accordance with Chapter 2743. of the 8429
Revised Code. The state or the contractor may request the chief 8430
justice of the supreme court to appoint a referee or panel of 8431
referees in accordance with division (C)(3) of section 2743.03 of 8432
the Revised Code. As used in this division, "dispute" means a 8433
disagreement between the state and the contractor concerning a 8434
public improvement contract let by the state.8435

       Sec. 153.14.  For the construction of those projects, 8436
improvements, and public buildings over which the director of 8437
administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission8438
has general supervision pursuant to section 123.01123.21 of the 8439
Revised Code, the estimates referred to in section 153.13 of the 8440
Revised Code shall be filed with the executive director by the 8441
owner referred to in section 153.01 or 153.12 of the Revised Code. 8442
Upon completion of a project referred to in section 153.13 of the 8443
Revised Code or any divisible part thereof, the maintenance and 8444
repair of such project or divisible part shall be assumed by the 8445
owner referred to in section 153.01 or 153.12 of the Revised Code.8446

       In addition to all other payments on account of work 8447
performed, there shall be allowed by the owner referred to in 8448
section 153.01 or 153.12 of the Revised Code and paid to the 8449
contractor a sum at the rate of ninety-two per cent of the invoice 8450
costs, not to exceed the bid price in a unit price contract, of 8451
material delivered on the site of the work, or a railroad station, 8452
siding, or other point in the vicinity of the work, or other 8453
approved storage site, provided such materials have been inspected 8454
and found to meet the specifications. The balance of such invoiced 8455
value shall be paid when such material is incorporated into and 8456
becomes a part of such building, construction, addition, 8457
improvement, alteration, or installation. When an estimate is 8458
allowed on account of material delivered on the site of the work 8459
or in the vicinity thereof or under the possession and control of 8460
the contractor but not yet incorporated therein, such material 8461
shall become the property of the owner under the contract, but if 8462
such material is stolen, destroyed, or damaged by casualty before 8463
being used, the contractor shall be required to replace it at his8464
the contractor's own expense.8465

       When the rate of work and amounts involved are so large that 8466
it is considered advisable by the owner or contractor, estimates 8467
and payments shall be made twice each month.8468

       Payment on approved estimates filed with the owner or its 8469
representative shall be made within thirty days. Upon the failure 8470
of the owner or its representative to make such payments within 8471
thirty days, or upon an unauthorized withholding of retainage, 8472
there shall be allowed to the contractor, in addition to any other 8473
remedies allowed by law, interest on such moneys not paid within 8474
thirty days. Interest on the unauthorized withholding of retainage 8475
shall be in addition to any interest earned in the escrow account 8476
set forth in section 153.13 of the Revised Code. The rate of such 8477
interest shall be the average of the prime rate established at the 8478
commercial banks in the city of over one hundred thousand 8479
population that is nearest the construction project. Nothing in 8480
this section shall be construed as a limitation upon the authority 8481
of the director of transportation granted in Chapter 5525. of the 8482
Revised Code.8483

       Sec. 153.16.  (A) The executive director of administrative 8484
servicesthe Ohio facilities construction commission shall 8485
establish policy and procedure guidelines for contract documents 8486
in conjunction with the administration of public works contracts 8487
that the state or any institution supported in whole or in part by 8488
the state enters into for any project subject to sections 153.01 8489
to 153.11 of the Revised Code.8490

       (B) Notwithstanding any contract provision to the contrary, 8491
any claim submitted under a public works contract that the state 8492
or any institution supported in whole or in part by the state 8493
enters into for any project subject to sections 153.01 to 153.11 8494
of the Revised Code shall be resolved within one hundred twenty 8495
days. After the end of this one hundred twenty-day period, the 8496
contractor shall be deemed to have exhausted all administrative 8497
remedies for purposes of division (B) of section 153.12 of the 8498
Revised Code.8499

       Sec. 153.17.  (A) When in the opinion of the owner referred 8500
to in section 153.01 of the Revised Code, the work under any 8501
contract made under any law of the state is neglected by the 8502
contractor or such work is not prosecuted with the diligence and 8503
force specified or intended in the contract, such owner may make 8504
requisition upon the contractor for such additional specific force 8505
or materials to be brought into the work under such contract or to 8506
remove improper materials from the grounds as in their judgment 8507
the contract and its faithful fulfillment requires.8508

       Not less than five days' notice in writing of such action 8509
shall be served upon the contractor or the contractor's agent in 8510
charge of the work. If the contractor fails to comply with such 8511
requisition within fifteen days, such owner with the written 8512
consent of the department of administrative servicesOhio 8513
facilities construction commission, may employ upon the work the 8514
additional force, or supply the special materials or such part of 8515
either as is considered proper, and may remove improper materials 8516
from the grounds.8517

       (B) When the original contractor has defaulted on a contract 8518
and the surety has declined to take over the project, the owner 8519
may contract with one or more takeover contractors to complete 8520
work that was not finished because of the default of the original 8521
contractor. The owner may enter into a contract with a takeover 8522
contractor without competitive bidding or controlling board 8523
approval. Upon execution of a takeover contract, the owner shall 8524
notify the director of budget and management.8525

       When the owner has taken over a project after a default has 8526
occurred, any moneys that the owner receives from the surety as a 8527
settlement for completion of the project shall be deposited in the 8528
original fund from which the capital appropriation for the project 8529
was made. The executive director, without controlling board 8530
approval, may authorize specified additional uses for the moneys 8531
related to completion of the project and may increase the 8532
appropriation authority in the appropriation line item used to 8533
fund the project by an amount equal to the moneys received from 8534
the surety.8535

       Sec. 153.502. (A) Each construction manager at risk and 8536
design-build firm shall establish criteria by which it will 8537
prequalify prospective bidders on subcontracts awarded for work to 8538
be performed under the construction management or design-build 8539
contract. The criteria established by a construction manager at 8540
risk or design-build firm shall be subject to the approval of the 8541
public authority involved in the project and shall be consistent 8542
with the rules adopted by the department of administrative 8543
servicesOhio facilities construction commission pursuant to 8544
section 153.503 of the Revised Code. 8545

       (B) For each subcontract to be awarded, the construction 8546
manager at risk or design-build firm shall identify at least three 8547
prospective bidders that are prequalified to bid on that 8548
subcontract, except that the construction manager at risk or 8549
design-build firm shall identify fewer than three if the 8550
construction manager at risk or design-build firm establishes to 8551
the satisfaction of the public authority that fewer than three 8552
prequalified bidders are available. The public authority shall 8553
verify that each prospective bidder meets the prequalification 8554
criteria and may eliminate any bidder it determines is not 8555
qualified. 8556

       (C) Once the prospective bidders are prequalified and found 8557
acceptable by the public authority, the construction manager at 8558
risk or design-build firm shall solicit proposals from each of 8559
those bidders. The solicitation and selection of a subcontractor 8560
shall be conducted under an open book pricing method. As used in 8561
this division, "open book pricing method" has the same meaning as 8562
in section 9.33 of the Revised Code, in the case of a construction 8563
manager at risk, and the same meaning as in section 153.65 of the 8564
Revised Code, in the case of a design-build firm.8565

       (D) A construction manager at risk or design-build firm shall 8566
not be required to award a subcontract to a low bidder.8567

       Sec. 153.503. The department of administrative servicesOhio 8568
facilities construction commission, pursuant to Chapter 119. of 8569
the Revised Code and not later than June 30, 2012, shall adopt 8570
rules to do all of the following:8571

       (A) Prescribe the procedures and criteria for determining the 8572
best value selection of a construction manager at risk or 8573
design-build firm;8574

       (B) In consultation with the state architect's office, set8575
Set forth standards to be followed by construction managers at 8576
risk and design-build firms when establishing prequalification 8577
criteria pursuant to section 153.502 of the Revised Code;8578

       (C) Prescribe the form for the contract documents to be used 8579
by a construction manager at risk, design-build firm, or general 8580
contractor when entering into a subcontract;8581

       (D) Prescribe the form for the contract documents to be used 8582
by a public authority when entering into a contract with a 8583
construction manager at risk or design-build firm. 8584

       Sec. 153.53.  (A) As used in this section, "rate of 8585
inflation" has the same meaning as in section 107.032 of the 8586
Revised Code.8587

       (B) Five years after the effective date of this section8588
September 29, 2011, and every five years thereafter, the executive8589
director of administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities 8590
construction commission shall evaluate the monetary threshold 8591
specified in section 153.01 of the Revised Code and adopt rules 8592
adjusting that amount based on the average rate of inflation 8593
during each of the previous five years immediately preceding such 8594
adjustment.8595

       Sec. 154.01.  As used in this chapter:8596

       (A) "Commission" means the Ohio public facilities commission 8597
created in section 151.02 of the Revised Code.8598

       (B) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 8599
obligation, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, issued 8600
pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code.8601

       (C) "Bond proceedings" means the order or orders, resolution 8602
or resolutions, trust agreement, indenture, lease, and other 8603
agreements, amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or any 8604
combination thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms and 8605
conditions applicable to, or providing for the security of, 8606
obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, 8607
and the provisions contained in such obligations.8608

       (D) "State agencies" means the state of Ohio and officers, 8609
boards, commissions, departments, divisions, or other units or 8610
agencies of the state.8611

       (E) "Governmental agency" means state agencies, state 8612
supported and assisted institutions of higher education, municipal 8613
corporations, counties, townships, school districts, and any other 8614
political subdivision or special district in this state 8615
established pursuant to law, and, except where otherwise 8616
indicated, also means the United States or any department, 8617
division, or agency thereof, and any agency, commission, or 8618
authority established pursuant to an interstate compact or 8619
agreement.8620

       (F) "Institutions of higher education" and "state supported 8621
or state assisted institutions of higher education" means the 8622
state universities identified in section 3345.011 of the Revised 8623
Code, the northeast Ohio medical university, state universities or 8624
colleges at any time created, community college districts, 8625
university branch districts, and technical college districts at 8626
any time established or operating under Chapter 3354., 3355., or 8627
3357. of the Revised Code, and other institutions for education, 8628
including technical education, beyond the high school, receiving 8629
state support or assistance for their expenses of operation.8630

       (G) "Governing body" means:8631

       (1) In the case of institutions of higher education, the 8632
board of trustees, board of directors, commission, or other body 8633
vested by law with the general management, conduct, and control of 8634
one or more institutions of higher education;8635

       (2) In the case of a county, the board of county 8636
commissioners or other legislative body; in the case of a 8637
municipal corporation, the council or other legislative body; in 8638
the case of a township, the board of township trustees; in the 8639
case of a school district, the board of education;8640

       (3) In the case of any other governmental agency, the 8641
officer, board, commission, authority or other body having the 8642
general management thereof or having jurisdiction or authority in 8643
the particular circumstances.8644

       (H) "Person" means any person, firm, partnership, 8645
association, or corporation.8646

       (I) "Bond service charges" means principal, including 8647
mandatory sinking fund requirements for retirement of obligations, 8648
and interest, and redemption premium, if any, required to be paid 8649
by the state on obligations. If not prohibited by the applicable 8650
bond proceedings, bond service charges may include costs relating 8651
to credit enhancement facilities that are related to and 8652
represent, or are intended to provide a source of payment of or 8653
limitation on, other bond service charges.8654

       (J) "Capital facilities" means buildings, structures, and 8655
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 8656
real estate therefor, within the state, and any one, part of, or 8657
combination of the foregoing, to serve the general purposes for 8658
which the issuing authority is authorized to issue obligations 8659
pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, including, but not 8660
limited to, drives, roadways, parking facilities, walks, lighting, 8661
machinery, furnishings, utilities, landscaping, wharves, docks, 8662
piers, reservoirs, dams, tunnels, bridges, retaining walls, 8663
riprap, culverts, ditches, channels, watercourses, retention 8664
basins, standpipes and water storage facilities, waste treatment 8665
and disposal facilities, heating, air conditioning and 8666
communications facilities, inns, lodges, cabins, camping sites, 8667
golf courses, boat and bathing facilities, athletic and 8668
recreational facilities, and site improvements.8669

       (K) "Costs of capital facilities" means the costs of 8670
acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, rehabilitating, 8671
remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, equipping, or 8672
furnishing capital facilities, and the financing thereof, 8673
including the cost of clearance and preparation of the site and of 8674
any land to be used in connection with capital facilities, the 8675
cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and premiums on insurance, 8676
all related direct administrative expenses and allocable portions 8677
of direct costs of the commission or issuing authority and 8678
department of administrative services, or other designees of the 8679
commission under section 154.17 of the Revised Code, cost of 8680
engineering and architectural services, designs, plans, 8681
specifications, surveys, and estimates of cost, legal fees, fees 8682
and expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 8683
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 8684
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisers and 8685
consultants in connection therewith, interest on obligations, 8686
including but not limited to, interest from the date thereofof 8687
their issuance to the time when interest is to be covered from 8688
sources other than proceeds of obligations, amounts necessary to 8689
establish reserves as required by the bond proceedings, costs of 8690
audits, the reimbursement of all moneys advanced or applied by or 8691
borrowed from any governmental agency, whether to or by the 8692
commission or others, from whatever source provided, for the 8693
payment of any item or items of cost of the capital facilities, 8694
any share of the cost undertaken by the commission pursuant to 8695
arrangements made with governmental agencies under division (H) of 8696
section 154.06 of the Revised Code, and all other expenses 8697
necessary or incident to planning or determining feasibility or 8698
practicability with respect to capital facilities, and such other 8699
expenses as may be necessary or incident to the acquisition, 8700
construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, 8701
renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and furnishing of 8702
capital facilities, the financing thereof and the placing of the 8703
same in use and operation, including any one, part of, or 8704
combination of such classes of costs and expenses.8705

       (L) "Public service facilities" means inns, lodges, hotels, 8706
cabins, camping sites, scenic trails, picnic sites, restaurants, 8707
commissaries, golf courses, boating and bathing facilities and 8708
other similar facilities in state parks.8709

       (M) "State parks" means:8710

       (1) State reservoirs described and identified in section 8711
1541.06 of the Revised Code;8712

       (2) All lands or interests therein of the state identified as 8713
administered by the division of parks and recreation in the 8714
"inventory of state owned lands administered by the department of 8715
natural resources as of June 1, 1963," as recorded in the journal 8716
of the director, which inventory was prepared by the real estate 8717
section of the department and is supported by maps now on file in 8718
said real estate section;8719

       (3) All lands or interests in lands of the state designated 8720
after June 1, 1963, as state parks in the journal of the director 8721
with the approval of the recreation and resources council.8722

       State parks do not include any lands or interest in lands of 8723
the state administered jointly by two or more divisions of the 8724
department of natural resources. The designation of lands as state 8725
parks under divisions (M)(1) to (3) of this section is conclusive 8726
and such lands shall be under the control of and administered by 8727
the division of parks and recreation. No order or proceeding 8728
designating lands as state parks or park purchase areas is subject 8729
to any appeal or review by any officer, board, commission, or 8730
court.8731

       (N) "Bond service fund" means the applicable fund created for 8732
and pledged to the payment of bond service charges under section 8733
154.20, 154.21, 154.22, or 154.23 of the Revised Code, including 8734
all moneys and investments, and earnings from investments, 8735
credited and to be credited thereto.8736

       (O) "Improvement fund" means the applicable fund created for 8737
the payment of costs of capital facilities under section 154.20, 8738
154.21, 154.22, or 3383.09 of the Revised Code, including all 8739
moneys and investments, and earnings from investments, credited 8740
and to be credited thereto.8741

       (P) "Special funds" or "funds" means, except where the 8742
context does not permit, the bond service funds, the improvements 8743
funds, and any other funds for similar or different purposes 8744
created under bond proceedings, including all moneys and 8745
investments, and earnings from investments, credited and to be 8746
credited thereto.8747

       (Q) "Year" unless the context indicates a different meaning 8748
or intent, means a calendar year beginning on the first day of 8749
January and ending on the thirty-first day of December.8750

       (R) "Fiscal year" means the period of twelve months beginning 8751
on the first day of July and ending on the thirtieth day of June.8752

       (S) "Issuing authority" means the treasurer of state or the 8753
officer or employee who by law performs the functions of that 8754
office.8755

       (T) "Credit enhancement facilities" has the same meaning as 8756
in section 133.01 of the Revised Code.8757

       (U) "Ohio cultural facility" and "Ohio sports facility" have 8758
the same meanings as in section 3383.01 of the Revised Code.8759

       Sec. 167.04.  (A) The regional council of governments shall 8760
adopt by-laws, by a majority vote of its members, designating the 8761
officers of the council and the method of their selection, 8762
creating a governing board that may act for the council as 8763
provided in the by-laws, and providing for the conduct of its 8764
business.8765

       (B) The by-laws of the regional council of governments shall 8766
provide for the appointment of a fiscal officer, who may hold any 8767
other office or employment with the council, and who shall 8768
receive, deposit, invest, and disburse the funds of the council in 8769
the manner authorized by the by-laws or action by the council.8770

       (C) The by-laws of a regional council of governments the 8771
members of which include, under sections 167.01 and 167.02 of the 8772
Revised Code, at least eight counties may include a provision 8773
authorizing member attendance and voting at council meetings 8774
either in person or by proxy.8775

       (D)(1) Within ten business days after forming a regional 8776
council of governments, the officers of the council shall notify 8777
the auditor of state of the regional council's formation and shall 8778
provide on a form prescribed by the auditor of state the 8779
information regarding the regional council that the auditor of 8780
state considers necessary.8781

       (2) As used in this division, "business day" means a day of 8782
the week, excluding Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday as 8783
defined in section 1.14 of the Revised Code.8784

       Sec. 171.021. Notwithstanding division (C) of section 121.22 8785
of the Revised Code, rules adopted by the Ohio retirement study 8786
council regarding meetings of the council shall prohibit a member 8787
from voting on a matter before the council except while sitting in 8788
a meeting of the council, unless the member shall have first been 8789
present and recorded as such during that meeting before the vote 8790
is taken, and by motion the roll call is continued for a vote by 8791
any member who is temporarily absent from the meeting until the 8792
adjournment thereof, which shall be not later than twelve noon one 8793
day following the meeting.8794

       Sec. 173.14.  As used in sections 173.14 to 173.27 of the 8795
Revised Code:8796

       (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of 8797
this section, "long-term care facility" includes any residential 8798
facility that provides personal care services for more than 8799
twenty-four hours for twoone or more unrelated adults, including 8800
all of the following:8801

       (a) A "nursing home," "residential care facility," or "home 8802
for the aging" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;8803

       (b) A facility authorized to provide extended care services 8804
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 8805
(1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, including a long-term acute 8806
care hospital that provides medical and rehabilitative care to 8807
patients who require an average length of stay greater than 8808
twenty-five days and is classified by the centers for medicare and 8809
medicaid services as a long-term care hospital pursuant to 42 8810
C.F.R. 412.23(e);8811

       (c) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 8812
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;8813

       (d) An "adult careA residential facility" as defined in8814
licensed under section 5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that 8815
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 8816
for three to sixteen unrelated adults or accommodations and 8817
personal care services for only one or two adults who are 8818
recipients under the residential state supplement program;8819

       (e) A facility approved by the veterans administration under 8820
section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 8821
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 8822
the placement and care of veterans;8823

       (f) An adult foster home certified under section 5119.692 of 8824
the Revised Code.8825

       (2) "Long-term care facility" does not include a "residential 8826
facility" as defined in section 5119.22 of the Revised Code or a 8827
"residential facility" as defined inlicensed under section 8828
5123.19 of the Revised Code.8829

       (B) "Resident" means a resident of a long-term care facility 8830
and, where appropriate, includes a prospective, previous, or 8831
deceased resident of a long-term care facility.8832

       (C) "Community-based long-term care services" means health 8833
and social services provided to persons in their own homes or in 8834
community care settings, and includes any of the following:8835

       (1) Case management;8836

       (2) Home health care;8837

       (3) Homemaker services;8838

       (4) Chore services;8839

       (5) Respite care;8840

       (6) Adult day care;8841

       (7) Home-delivered meals;8842

       (8) Personal care;8843

       (9) Physical, occupational, and speech therapy;8844

       (10) Transportation;8845

       (11) Any other health and social services provided to persons 8846
that allow them to retain their independence in their own homes or 8847
in community care settings.8848

       (D) "Recipient" means a recipient of community-based 8849
long-term care services and, where appropriate, includes a 8850
prospective, previous, or deceased recipient of community-based 8851
long-term care services.8852

       (E) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian 8853
who has an interest in or responsibility for the welfare of a 8854
resident or a recipient.8855

       (F) "Personal care services" has the same meaning as in 8856
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.8857

       (G) "Regional long-term care ombudsperson program" means an 8858
entity, either public or private and nonprofit, designated as a 8859
regional long-term care ombudsperson program by the state 8860
long-term care ombudsperson.8861

       (H) "Representative of the office of the state long-term care 8862
ombudsperson program" means the state long-term care ombudsperson 8863
or a member of the ombudsperson's staff, or a person certified as 8864
a representative of the office under section 173.21 of the Revised 8865
Code.8866

       (I) "Area agency on aging" means an area agency on aging 8867
established under the "Older Americans Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 219, 8868
42 U.S.C.A. 3001, as amended.8869

       Sec. 173.21.  (A) The office of the state long-term care 8870
ombudsperson program, through the state long-term care 8871
ombudsperson and the regional long-term care ombudsperson 8872
programs, shall require each representative of the office to 8873
complete a training and certification program in accordance with 8874
this section and to meet the continuing education requirements 8875
established under this section.8876

       (B) The department of aging shall adopt rules under Chapter 8877
119. of the Revised Code specifying the content of training 8878
programs for representatives of the office of the state long-term 8879
care ombudsperson program. Training for representatives other than 8880
those who are volunteers providing services through regional 8881
long-term care ombudsperson programs shall include instruction 8882
regarding federal, state, and local laws, rules, and policies on 8883
long-term care facilities and community-based long-term care 8884
services; investigative techniques; and other topics considered 8885
relevant by the department and shall consist of the following:8886

       (1) A minimum of forty clock hours of basic instruction, 8887
which shall be completed before the trainee is permitted to handle 8888
complaints without the supervision of a representative of the 8889
office certified under this section;8890

       (2) An additional sixty clock hours of instruction, which 8891
shall be completed within the first fifteen months of employment;8892

       (3) An internship of twenty clock hours, which shall be 8893
completed within the first twenty-four months of employment, 8894
including instruction in, and observation of, basic nursing care 8895
and long-term care provider operations and procedures. The 8896
internship shall be performed at a site that has been approved as 8897
an internship site by the state long-term care ombudsperson.8898

       (4) One of the following, which shall be completed within the 8899
first twenty-four months of employment:8900

       (a) Observation of a survey conducted by the director of 8901
health to certify a facility to receive funds under sections 8902
5111.20 to 5111.32 of the Revised Code;8903

       (b) Observation of an inspection conducted by the director of 8904
mental health to license an adult carea residential facility 8905
under section 5119.735119.22 of the Revised Code that provides 8906
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three 8907
to sixteen unrelated adults.8908

       (5) Any other training considered appropriate by the 8909
department.8910

       (C) Persons who for a period of at least six months prior to 8911
June 11, 1990, served as ombudsmen through the long-term care 8912
ombudsperson program established by the department of aging under 8913
division (M) of section 173.01 of the Revised Code shall not be 8914
required to complete a training program. These persons and persons 8915
who complete a training program shall take an examination 8916
administered by the department of aging. On attainment of a 8917
passing score, the person shall be certified by the department as 8918
a representative of the office. The department shall issue the 8919
person an identification card, which the representative shall show 8920
at the request of any person with whom the representative deals 8921
while performing the representative's duties and which shall be 8922
surrendered at the time the representative separates from the 8923
office.8924

       (D) The state ombudsperson and each regional program shall 8925
conduct training programs for volunteers on their respective 8926
staffs in accordance with the rules of the department of aging 8927
adopted under division (B) of this section. Training programs may 8928
be conducted that train volunteers to complete some, but not all, 8929
of the duties of a representative of the office. Each regional 8930
office shall bear the cost of training its representatives who are 8931
volunteers. On completion of a training program, the 8932
representative shall take an examination administered by the 8933
department of aging. On attainment of a passing score, a volunteer 8934
shall be certified by the department as a representative 8935
authorized to perform services specified in the certification. The 8936
department shall issue an identification card, which the 8937
representative shall show at the request of any person with whom 8938
the representative deals while performing the representative's 8939
duties and which shall be surrendered at the time the 8940
representative separates from the office. Except as a supervised 8941
part of a training program, no volunteer shall perform any duty 8942
unless he is certified as a representative having received 8943
appropriate training for that duty.8944

       (E) The state ombudsperson shall provide technical assistance 8945
to regional programs conducting training programs for volunteers 8946
and shall monitor the training programs.8947

       (F) Prior to scheduling an observation of a certification 8948
survey or licensing inspection for purposes of division (B)(4) of 8949
this section, the state ombudsperson shall obtain permission to 8950
have the survey or inspection observed from both the director of 8951
health and the long-term care facility at which the survey or 8952
inspection is to take place.8953

       (G) The department of aging shall establish continuing 8954
education requirements for representatives of the office.8955

       Sec. 173.23.  (A) Representatives of the office of the state 8956
long-term care ombudsperson program are immune from civil or 8957
criminal liability for any action taken in the good faith 8958
performance of their official duties under sections 173.14 to 8959
173.26 of the Revised Code. The department of aging shall ensure 8960
that adequate legal counsel is available to the office of the 8961
state long-term care ombudsperson program for advice and 8962
consultation and that legal representation is provided to any 8963
representative of the office against whom any legal action is 8964
brought in connection with the representative's official duties 8965
under sections 173.14 to 173.26 of the Revised Code.8966

       (B) A person acting in good faith is immune from civil or 8967
criminal liability incident to any of the following: providing 8968
information to the office, participating in registration of a 8969
complaint with the office, participating in investigation of a 8970
complaint by the office, or participating in an administrative or 8971
judicial proceeding resulting from a complaint.8972

       (C) No person shall knowingly register a false complaint with 8973
the office, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false 8974
complaint previously registered, when the statement is made with 8975
purpose to incriminate another.8976

       (D) The attorney general shall provide legal counsel to the 8977
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program and to the 8978
regional long-term care ombudsperson programs. The attorney 8979
general shall represent any representative of the office and any 8980
representative of a regional program against whom any legal action 8981
is brought in connection with the representative's official duties 8982
under sections 173.14 to 173.26 of the Revised Code.8983

       Sec. 173.26.  (A) Each of the following facilities shall 8984
annually pay to the department of aging six dollars for each bed 8985
maintained by the facility for use by a resident during any part 8986
of the previous year:8987

       (1) Nursing homes, residential care facilities, and homes for 8988
the aging as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;8989

       (2) Facilities authorized to provide extended care services 8990
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 8991
(1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, including a long-term acute 8992
care hospital that provides medical and rehabilitative care to 8993
patients who require an average length of stay greater than 8994
twenty-five days and is classified by the centers for medicare and 8995
medicaid services as a long-term care hospital pursuant to 42 8996
C.F.R. 412.23(e);8997

       (3) County homes and district homes operated pursuant to 8998
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;8999

       (4) Adult careResidential facilities as defined inlicensed 9000
under section 5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that provide 9001
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three 9002
to sixteen unrelated adults;9003

       (5) Facilities approved by the Veterans Administration under 9004
Section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 9005
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 9006
the placement and care of veterans.9007

       The department shall, by rule adopted in accordance with 9008
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, establish deadlines for payments 9009
required by this section. A facility that fails, within ninety 9010
days after the established deadline, to pay a payment required by 9011
this section shall be assessed at two times the original invoiced 9012
payment.9013

       (B) All money collected under this section shall be deposited 9014
in the state treasury to the credit of the office of the state 9015
long-term care ombudsperson program fund, which is hereby created. 9016
Money credited to the fund shall be used solely to pay the costs 9017
of operating the regional long-term care ombudsperson programs.9018

       (C) The state long-term care ombudsperson and the regional 9019
programs may solicit and receive contributions to support the 9020
operation of the office or a regional program, except that no 9021
contribution shall be solicited or accepted that would interfere 9022
with the independence or objectivity of the office or program.9023

       Sec. 173.27.  (A) As used in this section:9024

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 9025
consideration for employment with the office of the state 9026
long-term care ombudsperson program in a full-time, part-time, or 9027
temporary position that involves providing ombudsperson services 9028
to residents and recipients. "Applicant" includes, but is not 9029
limited to, a person who is under final consideration for 9030
employment as the state long-term care ombudsperson or the head of 9031
a regional long-term care ombudsperson program. "Applicant" does 9032
not include a person who providesseeking to provide ombudsperson 9033
services to residents and recipients as a volunteer without 9034
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 9035
than reimbursement for actual expenses.9036

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 9037
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.9038

       (3) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:9039

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 9040
2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 9041
2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 9042
2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 9043
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 9044
2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 9045
2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23, 9046
2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 9047
2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 9048
2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 9049
2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 9050
2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.22, 2919.23, 9051
2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 9052
2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 9053
2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 9054
2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 9055
2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 9056
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;9057

       (b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 9058
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;9059

       (c) A violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 9060
existed prior to July 1, 1996;9061

       (d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of 9062
the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of 9063
the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses 9064
listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (c) of this section;9065

       (e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 9066
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 9067
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 9068
divisions (A)(3)(a) to (d) of this section.9069

       (4) "Employee" means a person employed by the office of the 9070
state long-term care ombudsperson program in a full-time, 9071
part-time, or temporary position that involves providing 9072
ombudsperson services to residents and recipients. "Employee" 9073
includes the person employed as the state long-term care 9074
ombudsperson and a person employed as the head of a regional 9075
long-term care ombudsperson program. "Employee" does not include a 9076
person who provides ombudsperson services to residents and 9077
recipients as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to 9078
receive any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for 9079
actual expenses.9080

       (5) "Responsible entity" means the following:9081

       (a) In the case of an applicant who is under final 9082
consideration for employment as the state long-term care 9083
ombudsperson or the person employed as the state long-term care 9084
ombudsperson, the director of aging;9085

       (b) In the case of any other applicant or employee, the state 9086
long-term care ombudsperson or the ombudsperson's designee.9087

       (B) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 9088
program may not employ an applicant or continue to employ an 9089
employee in a position that involves providing ombudsperson 9090
services to residents and recipients if any of the following 9091
apply:9092

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 9093
section reveals any of the following:9094

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 9095
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 9096
section;9097

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 9098
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 9099
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 9100
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 9101
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 9102
such a resident;9103

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 9104
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 9105
section and the rules prohibit the office from employing an 9106
applicant or continuing to employ an employee included in such a 9107
database in a position that involves providing ombudsperson 9108
services to residents and recipients.9109

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 9110
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 9111
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 9112
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 9113
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 9114
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 9115
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.9116

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 9117
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 9118
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 9119
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 9120
for a disqualifying offense.9121

       (C) The responsible entity shall inform each applicant of 9122
both of the following at the time of the applicant's initial 9123
application for employment in a position that involves providing 9124
ombudsperson services to residents and recipients:9125

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 9126
this section will be conducted to determine whether the office of 9127
the state long-term care ombudsperson program is prohibited by 9128
division (B)(1) of this section from employing the applicant in 9129
the position;9130

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 9131
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 9132
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 9133
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 9134
impressions as part of the criminal records check.9135

       (D) As a condition of any applicant's being employed by the 9136
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program in a 9137
position that involves providing ombudsperson services to 9138
residents and recipients, the responsible entity shall conduct a 9139
database review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted 9140
under this section. If rules adopted under this section so 9141
require, the responsible entity shall conduct a database review of 9142
an employee in accordance with the rules as a condition of the 9143
office's continuing to employ the employee in a position that 9144
involves providing ombudsperson services to residents and 9145
recipients. A database review shall determine whether the 9146
applicant or employee is included in any of the following:9147

       (1) The excluded parties list system maintained by the United 9148
States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of 9149
the federal acquisition regulation;9150

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 9151
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 9152
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 9153
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as 9154
amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 9155
388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;9156

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 9157
5123.52 of the Revised Code;9158

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 9159
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 9160
the Revised Code;9161

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 9162
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;9163

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 9164
3721.32 of the Revised Code;9165

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 9166
under this section.9167

       (E)(1) The state long-term care ombudsperson or the 9168
ombudsperson's designeeAs a condition of any applicant's being 9169
employed by the office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 9170
program in a position that involves providing ombudsperson 9171
services to residents and recipients, the responsible entity shall 9172
request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 9173
identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check 9174
with respect to eachof the applicant. If rules adopted under this 9175
section so require, the responsible entity shall request that the 9176
superintendent conduct a criminal records check of an employee at 9177
times specified in the rules as a condition of the office's 9178
continuing to employ the employee in a position that involves 9179
providing ombudsperson services to residents and recipients.9180
However, if the applicant is under final consideration for 9181
employment as the state long-term care ombudsperson, the director 9182
of aging shall request that the superintendent conduct the 9183
criminal records checkthe responsible entity is not required to 9184
request the criminal records check of the applicant or employee if 9185
the office is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from 9186
employing the applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a 9187
position that involves providing ombudsperson services to 9188
residents and recipients. If an applicant or employee for whom a 9189
criminal records check request is required underby this division9190
section does not present proof of having been a resident of this 9191
state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date the 9192
criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that 9193
within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 9194
information about the applicant or employee from the federal 9195
bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the 9196
ombudsperson, designee, or directorresponsible entity shall 9197
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 9198
federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records 9199
check of the applicant. Even if an applicant or employee for whom 9200
a criminal records check request is required underby this 9201
divisionsection presents proof of having been a resident of this 9202
state for the five-year period, the ombudsperson, designee, or 9203
directorresponsible entity may request that the superintendent 9204
include information from the federal bureau of investigation in 9205
the criminal records check.9206

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 9207
request a criminal records checkThe responsible entity shall do 9208
bothall of the following:9209

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 9210
criminal records check request is required under that divisionby 9211
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 9212
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 9213
fingerprint impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 9214
(C)(2) of that section, and obtain;9215

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 9216
from the applicant or employee;9217

       (b)(c) Forward the completed form and standard impression 9218
sheet to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 9219
identification and investigation.9220

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 9221
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 9222
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 9223
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 9224
required by this section.9225

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the director of 9226
aging in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 9227
to division (C)(2) of this section, the office of the state 9228
long-term care ombudsperson may not employ a person in a position 9229
that involves providing ombudsperson services to residents and 9230
recipients if the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 9231
to any of the following:9232

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 9233
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 9234
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 9235
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 9236
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 9237
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 9238
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 9239
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 9240
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.9241

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 9242
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 9243
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 9244
this section.9245

       (2)(a)The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 9246
program shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 9247
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 9248
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 9249
check the responsible entity requests under this section. The 9250
office may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the 9251
office pays to the bureau under this section if the responsible 9252
entity notifies the applicant at the time of initial application 9253
for employment of the amount of the fee.9254

       (F)(1) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 9255
program may employ conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal 9256
records check request is required under division (B) ofby this 9257
section prior to obtaining the results of athe criminal records 9258
check regarding the individual, provided that the state long-term 9259
care ombudsperson, ombudsperson's designee, or director of aging 9260
shall request aif the office is not prohibited by division (B)(1) 9261
of this section from employing the applicant in a position that 9262
involves providing ombudsperson services to residents and 9263
recipients and the responsible entity requests the criminal 9264
records check regarding the individual in accordance with division 9265
(B)(1)(E) of this section not later than five business days after 9266
the individualapplicant begins conditional employment.9267

       (b)(2) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 9268
program shall terminate the employment of an individualapplicant9269
employed conditionally under division (C)(2)(a)(F)(1) of this 9270
section if the results of the criminal records check request under 9271
division (B) of this section, other than the results of any 9272
request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, 9273
are not obtained within the period ending sixty days after the 9274
date the request for the criminal records check is made. 9275
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 9276
obtained, if the results indicate that the individualapplicant9277
has been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to any of the offenses 9278
listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or been 9279
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 9280
disqualifying offense, the office shall terminate the individual's9281
applicant's employment unless circumstances specified in rules 9282
adopted under this section that permit the office to employ the 9283
applicant exist and the office chooses to employ the individual 9284
pursuant to division (F) of this sectionapplicant. Termination 9285
of employment under this division shall be considered just cause 9286
for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 9287
of the Revised Code if the individualapplicant makes any attempt 9288
to deceive the office about the individual'sapplicant's criminal 9289
record.9290

       (D)(1) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 9291
program shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 9292
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 9293
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 9294
check conducted pursuant to a request made under division (B) of 9295
this section.9296

       (2) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 9297
program may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the 9298
office pays under division (D)(1) of this section. The office may 9299
collect a fee only if the office notifies the applicant at the 9300
time of initial application for employment of the amount of the 9301
fee.9302

       (E)(G) The report of any criminal records check conducted 9303
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 9304
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 9305
shall not be made available to any person other than the 9306
following:9307

       (1) The individualapplicant or employee who is the subject 9308
of the criminal records check or the individual'sapplicant's or 9309
employee's representative;9310

       (2) The state long-term care ombudsperson, ombudsperson's 9311
designee, director of aging,responsible entity or the 9312
ombudsperson, designee, or director'sresponsible entity's9313
representative;9314

       (3) If the state long-term care ombudsperson designates the 9315
head or other employee of a regional long-term care ombudsperson 9316
program to request a criminal records check under this section, a 9317
representative of the office of the state long-term care 9318
ombudsperson program who is responsible for monitoring the 9319
regional program's compliance with this section;9320

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 9321
involved in a case dealing with aany of the following:9322

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or dealing with 9323
employmentemployee;9324

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 9325
employee;9326

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program 9327
or a program the department of aging administers.9328

       (F) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 9329
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 9330
The rules shall specify circumstances under which the office of 9331
the state long-term care ombudsperson program may employ a person 9332
who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed 9333
or described in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal 9334
character standards set by the director.9335

       (G) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 9336
program shall inform each person, at the time of initial 9337
application for a position that involves providing ombudsperson 9338
services to residents and recipients, that the person is required 9339
to provide a set of fingerprint impressions and that a criminal 9340
records check is required to be conducted if the person comes 9341
under final consideration for employment.9342

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 9343
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 9344
property caused by an individualapplicant or employee who the 9345
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program employs in 9346
a position that involves providing ombudsperson services to 9347
residents and recipients, all of the following shall apply:9348

       (1) If the office employed the individualapplicant or 9349
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 9350
criminal records check requested under this section, the office 9351
shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the 9352
report, even if the information in the report is determined later 9353
to have been incomplete or inaccurate.9354

       (2) If the office employed the individualapplicant in good 9355
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2)(F) of 9356
this section, the office shall not be found negligent solely 9357
because it employed the individualapplicant prior to receiving 9358
the report of a criminal records check requested under this 9359
section.9360

       (3) If the office in good faith employed the individual9361
applicant or employee according to the personal character 9362
standards established in rules adopted under division (F) of this 9363
section, the office shall not be found negligent solely because 9364
the individual prior to being employed hadapplicant or employee 9365
has been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to an offense listed or 9366
described in division (C)(1) of this section, or been found 9367
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 9368
disqualifying offense.9369

       (I) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 9370
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 9371

       (1) The rules may do the following:9372

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 9373
criminal records checks under this section;9374

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 9375
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 9376
or more classes of employees from the requirements;9377

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 9378
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 9379
database review conducted under this section.9380

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:9381

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 9382
section;9383

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 9384
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 9385
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 9386
be conducted;9387

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 9388
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which the 9389
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program is 9390
prohibited from employing an applicant or continuing to employ an 9391
employee who is found by a database review to be included in one 9392
or more of those databases;9393

       (d) Circumstances under which the office of the state 9394
long-term care ombudsperson program may employ an applicant or 9395
employee who is found by a criminal records check required by this 9396
section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 9397
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 9398
disqualifying offense but meets personal character standards.9399

       Sec. 173.391. (A) The department of aging or its designee 9400
shall do all of the following in accordance with Chapter 119. of 9401
the Revised Code:9402

        (1) Certify a person or government entity to provide 9403
community-based long-term care services under a program the 9404
department administers if the person or government entity 9405
satisfies the requirements for certification established by rules 9406
adopted under division (B) of this section and pays the fee, if 9407
any, established by rules adopted under division (G) of this 9408
section;9409

        (2) When required to do so by rules adopted under division 9410
(B) of this section, take one or more of the following 9411
disciplinary actions against a person or government entity 9412
certified under division (A)(1) of this section:9413

        (a) Issue a written warning;9414

        (b) Require the submission of a plan of correction or 9415
evidence of compliance with requirements identified by the 9416
department;9417

        (c) Suspend referrals;9418

        (d) Remove clients;9419

        (e) Impose a fiscal sanction such as a civil monetary penalty 9420
or an order that unearned funds be repaid;9421

        (f) Suspend the certification;9422

       (g) Revoke the certification;9423

        (h) Impose another sanction.9424

        (3) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, hold 9425
hearings when there is a dispute between the department or its 9426
designee and a person or government entity concerning actions the 9427
department or its designee takes regarding a decision not to 9428
certify the person or government entity under division (A)(1) of 9429
this section or a disciplinary action under divisiondivisions9430
(A)(2)(e) to (h) of this section.9431

        (B) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 9432
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing certification 9433
requirements and standards for determining which type of 9434
disciplinary action to take under division (A)(2) of this section 9435
in individual situations. The rules shall establish procedures for 9436
all of the following:9437

        (1) Ensuring that community-based long-term care agencies 9438
comply with section 173.394 of the Revised Code;9439

        (2) Evaluating the services provided by the agencies to 9440
ensure that the services are provided in a quality manner 9441
advantageous to the individual receiving the services;9442

        (3) Determining when to take disciplinary action under 9443
division (A)(2) of this section and which disciplinary action to 9444
take;9445

       (4) Determining what constitutes another sanction for 9446
purposes of division (A)(2)(h) of this section.9447

        (C) The procedures established in rules adopted under 9448
division (B)(2) of this section shall require that all of the 9449
following be considered as part of an evaluation described in 9450
division (B)(2) of this section:9451

        (1) The community-based long-term care agency's experience 9452
and financial responsibility;9453

        (2) The agency's ability to comply with standards for the 9454
community-based long-term care services that the agency provides 9455
under a program the department administers;9456

        (3) The agency's ability to meet the needs of the individuals 9457
served;9458

        (4) Any other factor the director considers relevant.9459

        (D) The rules adopted under division (B)(3) of this section 9460
shall specify that the reasons disciplinary action may be taken 9461
under division (A)(2) of this section include good cause, 9462
including misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, confirmed abuse 9463
or neglect, financial irresponsibility, or other conduct the 9464
director determines is injurious, or poses a threat, to the health 9465
or safety of individuals being served.9466

       (E) Subject to division (F) of this section, the department 9467
is not required to hold hearings under division (A)(3) of this 9468
section if any of the following conditions apply:9469

       (1) Rules adopted by the director of aging pursuant to this 9470
chapter require the community-based long-term care agency to be a 9471
party to a provider agreement; hold a license, certificate, or 9472
permit; or maintain a certification, any of which is required or 9473
issued by a state or federal government entity other than the 9474
department of aging, and either of the following is the case:9475

       (a) The provider agreement has not been entered into or the 9476
license, certificate, permit, or certification has not been 9477
obtained or maintained.9478

       (b) The provider agreement, license, certificate, permit, or 9479
certification has been denied, revoked, not renewed, or suspended 9480
or has been otherwise restricted.9481

        (2) The agency's certification under this section has been 9482
denied, suspended, or revoked for any of the following reasons:9483

       (a) A government entity of this state, other than the 9484
department of aging, has terminated or refused to renew any of the 9485
following held by, or has denied any of the following sought by, a 9486
community-based long-term care agency: a provider agreement, 9487
license, certificate, permit, or certification. Division (E)(2)(a) 9488
of this section applies regardless of whether the agency has 9489
entered into a provider agreement in, or holds a license, 9490
certificate, permit, or certification issued by, another state.9491

       (b) The agency or a principal owner or manager of the agency 9492
who provides direct care has entered a guilty plea for, or has 9493
been convicted of, an offense materially related to the medicaid 9494
program.9495

        (c) The agency or a principal owner or manager of the agency 9496
who provides direct care has entered a guilty plea for, or been 9497
convicted of, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 9498
conviction for an offense listed in division (C)(1)(a)divisions 9499
(A)(3)(a) to (d) of section 173.394 of the Revised Code, but only 9500
if none of the personal character standards established by the 9501
departmentdirector in rules adopted under division (F) ofthat9502
section 173.394 of the Revised Code apply.9503

       (d) The United States department of health and human services 9504
has taken adverse action against the agency and that action 9505
impacts the agency's participation in the medicaid program.9506

        (e) The agency has failed to enter into or renew a provider 9507
agreement with the PASSPORT administrative agency, as that term is 9508
defined in section 173.42 of the Revised Code, that administers 9509
programs on behalf of the department of aging in the region of the 9510
state in which the agency is certified to provide services.9511

        (f) The agency has not billed or otherwise submitted a claim 9512
to the department for payment under the medicaid program in at 9513
least two years.9514

        (g) The agency denied or failed to provide the department or 9515
its designee access to the agency's facilities during the agency's 9516
normal business hours for purposes of conducting an audit or 9517
structural compliance review.9518

        (h) The agency has ceased doing business.9519

        (i) The agency has voluntarily relinquished its certification 9520
for any reason.9521

        (3) The agency's provider agreement with the department of 9522
job and family services has been suspended under division (C) of 9523
section 5111.031 of the Revised Code.9524

        (4) The agency's provider agreement with the department of 9525
job and family services is denied or revoked because the agency or 9526
its owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or 9527
employee has been convicted of an offense that caused the provider 9528
agreement to be suspended under section 5111.031 of the Revised 9529
Code.9530

        (F) If the department does not hold hearings when any 9531
condition described in division (E) of this section applies, the 9532
department may send a notice to the agency describing a decision 9533
not to certify the agency under division (A)(1) of this section or 9534
the disciplinary action the department proposes to take under 9535
division (A)(2)(e) to (h) of this section. The notice shall be 9536
sent to the agency's address that is on record with the department 9537
and may be sent by regular mail.9538

       (G) The director of aging may adopt rules in accordance with 9539
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing a fee to be charged 9540
by the department of aging or its designee for certification 9541
issued under this section.9542

        All fees collected by the department or its designee under 9543
this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 9544
credit of the provider certification fund, which is hereby 9545
created. Money credited to the fund shall be used to pay for 9546
community-based long-term care services, administrative costs 9547
associated with community-based long-term care agency 9548
certification under this section, and administrative costs related 9549
to the publication of the Ohio long-term care consumer guide.9550

       Sec. 173.394.  (A) As used in this section:9551

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 9552
consideration for employment with a community-based long-term care 9553
agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that 9554
involves providing direct care to an individual or is referred to 9555
a community-based long-term care agency by an employment service 9556
for such a position. "Applicant" does not include a person who 9557
provides direct care to an individual as a volunteer without 9558
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 9559
than reimbursement for actual expenses.9560

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 9561
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.9562

       (3) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:9563

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 9564
2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 9565
2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 9566
2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 9567
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 9568
2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 9569
2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23, 9570
2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 9571
2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 9572
2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 9573
2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 9574
2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.22, 2919.23, 9575
2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 9576
2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 9577
2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 9578
2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 9579
2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 9580
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;9581

       (b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 9582
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;9583

       (c) A violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 9584
existed prior to July 1, 1996;9585

       (d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of 9586
the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of 9587
the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses 9588
listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (c) of this section;9589

       (e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 9590
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 9591
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 9592
divisions (A)(3)(a) to (d) of this section.9593

       (4) "Employee" means a person employed by a community-based 9594
long-term care agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 9595
position that involves providing direct care to an individual and 9596
a person who works in such a position due to being referred to a 9597
community-based long-term care agency by an employment service. 9598
"Employee" does not include a person who provides direct care to 9599
an individual as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to 9600
receive any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for 9601
actual expenses.9602

       (B) No community-based long-term care agency shall employ an 9603
applicant or continue to employ an employee in a position that 9604
involves providing direct care to an individual if any of the 9605
following apply:9606

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 9607
section reveals any of the following:9608

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 9609
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 9610
section;9611

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 9612
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 9613
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 9614
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 9615
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 9616
such a resident;9617

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 9618
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 9619
section and the rules prohibit the agency from employing an 9620
applicant or continuing to employ an employee included in such a 9621
database in a position that involves providing direct care to an 9622
individual.9623

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 9624
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 9625
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 9626
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 9627
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 9628
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 9629
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.9630

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 9631
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 9632
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 9633
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 9634
for a disqualifying offense.9635

       (C) Except as provided by division (F) of this section, the 9636
chief administrator of a community-based long-term care agency 9637
shall inform each applicant of both of the following at the time 9638
of the applicant's initial application for employment or referral 9639
to the agency by an employment service for a position that 9640
involves providing direct care to an individual:9641

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 9642
this section will be conducted to determine whether the agency is 9643
prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing the 9644
applicant in the position;9645

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 9646
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 9647
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 9648
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 9649
impressions as part of the criminal records check.9650

       (D) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 9651
that involves providing direct care to an individual, the chief 9652
administrator of a community-based long-term care agency shall 9653
conduct a database review of the applicant in accordance with 9654
rules adopted under this section. If rules adopted under this 9655
section so require, the chief administrator of a community-based 9656
long-term care agency shall conduct a database review of an 9657
employee in accordance with the rules as a condition of continuing 9658
to employ the employee in a position that involves providing 9659
direct care to an individual. However, a chief administrator is 9660
not required to conduct a database review of an applicant or 9661
employee if division (F) of this section applies. A database 9662
review shall determine whether the applicant or employee is 9663
included in any of the following:9664

       (1) The excluded parties list system maintained by the United 9665
States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of 9666
the federal acquisition regulation;9667

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 9668
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 9669
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 9670
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as 9671
amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 9672
388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;9673

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 9674
5123.52 of the Revised Code;9675

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 9676
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 9677
the Revised Code;9678

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 9679
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;9680

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 9681
3721.32 of the Revised Code;9682

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 9683
under this section.9684

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this sectionAs 9685
a condition of employing any applicant in a position that involves 9686
providing direct care to an individual, the chief administrator of 9687
a community-based long-term care agency shall request that the 9688
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 9689
investigation conduct a criminal records check with respect to 9690
eachof the applicant. If rules adopted under this section so 9691
require, the chief administrator of a community-based long-term 9692
care agency shall request that the superintendent conduct a 9693
criminal records check of an employee at times specified in the 9694
rules as a condition of continuing to employ the employee in a 9695
position that involves providing direct care to an individual. 9696
However, the chief administrator is not required to request the 9697
criminal records check of the applicant or employee if division 9698
(F) of this section applies or the agency is prohibited by 9699
division (B)(1) of this section from employing the applicant or 9700
continuing to employ the employee in a position that involves 9701
providing direct care to an individual. If an applicant or 9702
employee for whom a criminal records check request is required 9703
underby this divisionsection does not present proof of having 9704
been a resident of this state for the five-year period immediately 9705
prior to the date the criminal records check is requested or 9706
provide evidence that within that five-year period the 9707
superintendent has requested information about the applicant or 9708
employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal 9709
records check, the chief administrator shall request that the 9710
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 9711
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 9712
applicant. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 9713
records check request is required underby this divisionsection9714
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 9715
five-year period, the chief administrator may request that the 9716
superintendent include information from the federal bureau of 9717
investigation in the criminal records check.9718

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 9719
request a criminal records checkThe chief administrator shall do 9720
bothall of the following:9721

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 9722
criminal records check request is required under that divisionby 9723
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 9724
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 9725
fingerprint impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 9726
(C)(2) of that section, and obtain;9727

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 9728
from the applicant or employee;9729

       (b)(c) Forward the completed form and standard impression 9730
sheet to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 9731
identification and investigation.9732

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 9733
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 9734
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 9735
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 9736
required by this section.9737

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the department 9738
of aging in accordance with division (F) of this section and 9739
subject to division (C)(2) of this section, no community-based 9740
long-term care agency shall employ a person in a position that 9741
involves providing direct care to an individual if the person has 9742
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:9743

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 9744
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 9745
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 9746
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 9747
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 9748
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 9749
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 9750
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 9751
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.9752

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 9753
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 9754
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 9755
this section.9756

       (2)(a)A community-based long-term care agency shall pay to 9757
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 9758
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 9759
Revised Code for each criminal records check the agency requests 9760
under this section. An agency may charge an applicant a fee not 9761
exceeding the amount the agency pays to the bureau under this 9762
section if both of the following apply:9763

       (a) The agency notifies the applicant at the time of initial 9764
application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, 9765
unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be considered for 9766
employment.9767

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 9768
the Revised Code does not reimburse the agency for the fee it pays 9769
to the bureau under this section.9770

       (F) Divisions (C) to (E) of this section do not apply with 9771
regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is 9772
referred to a community-based long-term agency by an employment 9773
service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for 9774
positions that involve providing direct care to an individual and 9775
both of the following apply:9776

       (1) The chief administrator of the agency receives from the 9777
employment service confirmation that a review of the databases 9778
listed in division (D) of this section was conducted of the 9779
applicant or employee.9780

       (2) The chief administrator of the agency receives from the 9781
employment service, applicant, or employee a report of the results 9782
of a criminal records check of the applicant or employee that has 9783
been conducted by the superintendent within the one-year period 9784
immediately preceding the following:9785

       (a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's 9786
referral by the employment service to the agency;9787

       (b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the agency 9788
would otherwise have to request a criminal records check of the 9789
employee under division (E) of this section.9790

       (G)(1) A community-based long-term care agency may employ 9791
conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal records check 9792
request is required under division (B) ofby this section prior to 9793
obtaining the results of athe criminal records check regarding 9794
the individual, provided thatif the agency is not prohibited by 9795
division (B)(1) of this section from employing the applicant in a 9796
position that involves providing direct care to an individual and 9797
either of the following applies:9798

       (a) The chief administrator of the agency shall request a9799
requests the criminal records check regarding the individual in 9800
accordance with division (B)(1)(E) of this section not later than 9801
five business days after the individualapplicant begins 9802
conditional employment.9803

       (b) The applicant is referred to the agency by an employment 9804
service, the employment service or the applicant provides the 9805
chief administrator of the agency a letter that is on the 9806
letterhead of the employment service, the letter is dated and 9807
signed by a supervisor or another designated official of the 9808
employment service, and the letter states all of the following:9809

       (i) That the employment service has requested the 9810
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the 9811
applicant;9812

       (ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include 9813
a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, 9814
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 9815
of conviction for a disqualifying offense;9816

       (iii) That the employment service has not received the 9817
results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on 9818
the letter;9819

       (iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of 9820
the results of the criminal records check to the chief 9821
administrator of the agency when the employment service receives 9822
the results. In the circumstances described in division (I)(2) of 9823
this section, a community-based long-term care agency may employ 9824
conditionally an applicant who has been referred to the agency by 9825
an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 9826
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of 9827
individuals and for whom, pursuant to that division, a criminal 9828
records check is not required under division (B) of this section.9829

       (b)(2) If a community-based long-term care agency employs an 9830
applicant conditionally pursuant to division (G)(1)(b) of this 9831
section, the employment service, on its receipt of the results of 9832
the criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the 9833
results to the chief administrator of the agency.9834

       (3) A community-based long-term care agency that employs an9835
individualapplicant conditionally under authority ofpursuant to9836
division (C)(2)(a)(G)(1)(a) or (b) of this section shall terminate 9837
the individual'sapplicant's employment if the results of the 9838
criminal records check request under division (B) of this section 9839
or described in division (I)(2) of this section, other than the 9840
results of any request for information from the federal bureau of 9841
investigation, are not obtained within the period ending sixty 9842
days after the date the request for the criminal records check is 9843
made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check 9844
are obtained, if the results indicate that the individual9845
applicant has been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to any of the 9846
offenses listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, 9847
or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for 9848
a disqualifying offense, the agency shall terminate the 9849
individual'sapplicant's employment unless circumstances 9850
specified in rules adopted under this section that permit the 9851
agency to employ the applicant exist and the agency chooses to 9852
employ the individual pursuant to division (F) of this section9853
applicant. Termination of employment under this division shall be 9854
considered just cause for discharge for purposes of division 9855
(D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the individual9856
applicant makes any attempt to deceive the agency about the 9857
individual'sapplicant's criminal record.9858

       (D)(1) Each community-based long-term care agency shall pay 9859
to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 9860
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 9861
Revised Code for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to 9862
a request made under division (B) of this section.9863

       (2) A community-based long-term care agency may charge an 9864
applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the agency pays under 9865
division (D)(1) of this section. An agency may collect a fee only 9866
if both of the following apply:9867

       (a) The agency notifies the person at the time of initial 9868
application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, 9869
unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered for 9870
employment;9871

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 9872
the Revised Code does not reimburse the agency the fee it pays 9873
under division (D)(1) of this section.9874

       (E)(H) The report of any criminal records check conducted 9875
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 9876
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 9877
shall not be made available to any person other than the 9878
following:9879

       (1) The individualapplicant or employee who is the subject 9880
of the criminal records check or the individual'sapplicant's or 9881
employee's representative;9882

       (2) The chief administrator of the community-based long-term 9883
care agency requesting the criminal records check or the 9884
administrator's representative;9885

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 9886
program that provides direct care to individuals that is owned or 9887
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the 9888
community-based long-term care agency that requested the criminal 9889
records check;9890

       (4) The employment service that requested the criminal 9891
records check;9892

       (5) The director of aging or a person authorized by the 9893
director to monitor a community-based long-term care agency's 9894
compliance with this section;9895

       (5)(6) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary 9896
individual involved in a case dealing with aany of the following:9897

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or dealing with 9898
employmentemployee;9899

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 9900
employee;9901

       (6) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 9902
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section(c) 9903
A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program or a 9904
program the department of aging administers.9905

       (F) The department of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 9906
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 9907
The rules shall specify circumstances under which a 9908
community-based long-term care agency may employ a person who has 9909
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or 9910
described in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal 9911
character standards set by the department.9912

       (G) The chief administrator of a community-based long-term 9913
care agency shall inform each person, at the time of initial 9914
application for a position that involves providing direct care to 9915
an individual, that the person is required to provide a set of 9916
fingerprint impressions and that a criminal records check is 9917
required to be conducted if the person comes under final 9918
consideration for employment.9919

       (H)(I) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 9920
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 9921
property caused by an individualapplicant or employee who a 9922
community-based long-term care agency employs in a position that 9923
involves providing direct care to individuals, all of the 9924
following shall apply:9925

       (1) If the agency employed the individualapplicant or 9926
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 9927
criminal records check requested under this section, the agency 9928
shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the 9929
report, even if the information in the report is determined later 9930
to have been incomplete or inaccurate;.9931

       (2) If the agency employed the individualapplicant in good 9932
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2)(G) of 9933
this section, the agency shall not be found negligent solely 9934
because it employed the individualapplicant prior to receiving 9935
the report of a criminal records check requested under this 9936
section;.9937

       (3) If the agency in good faith employed the individual9938
applicant or employee according to the personal character 9939
standards established in rules adopted under division (F) of this 9940
section, the agency shall not be found negligent solely because 9941
the individual prior to being employed hadapplicant or employee 9942
has been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to an offense listed or 9943
described in division (C)(1) of this section, or been found 9944
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 9945
disqualifying offense.9946

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a community-based long-term 9947
care agency is not required to request that the superintendent of 9948
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 9949
criminal records check of an applicant if the applicant has been 9950
referred to the agency by an employment service that supplies 9951
full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving 9952
the direct care of individuals and both of the following apply:9953

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 9954
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 9955
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 9956
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 9957
preceding the applicant's referral;9958

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 9959
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 9960
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 9961
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 9962
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the 9963
community-based long-term care agency chooses to employ the 9964
individual pursuant to division (F) of this section.9965

       (2) The chief administrator of a community-based long-term 9966
care agency is not required to request that the superintendent of 9967
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 9968
criminal records check of an applicant and may employ the 9969
applicant conditionally as described in this division, if the 9970
applicant has been referred to the agency by an employment service 9971
that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for 9972
positions involving the direct care of individuals and if the 9973
chief administrator receives from the employment service or the 9974
applicant a letter from the employment service that is on the 9975
letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed by a 9976
supervisor or another designated official of the employment 9977
service and that states that the employment service has requested 9978
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 9979
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 9980
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 9981
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 9982
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 9983
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 9984
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 9985
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 9986
promptly will send a copy of the results to the community-based 9987
long-term care agency. If a community-based long-term care agency 9988
employs an applicant conditionally in accordance with this 9989
division, the employment service, upon its receipt of the results 9990
of the criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the 9991
results to the community-based long-term care agency, and division 9992
(C)(2)(b) of this section applies regarding the conditional 9993
employment.9994

       (J) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 9995
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.9996

       (1) The rules may do the following:9997

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 9998
criminal records checks under this section;9999

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 10000
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 10001
or more classes of employees from the requirements;10002

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 10003
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 10004
database review conducted under this section.10005

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:10006

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 10007
section;10008

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 10009
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 10010
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 10011
be conducted;10012

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 10013
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a 10014
community-based long-term care agency is prohibited from employing 10015
an applicant or continuing to employ an employee who is found by a 10016
database review to be included in one or more of those databases;10017

       (d) Circumstances under which a community-based long-term 10018
care agency may employ an applicant or employee who is found by a 10019
criminal records check required by this section to have been 10020
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 10021
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense but 10022
meets personal character standards.10023

       Sec. 173.40.  (A) As used in sections 173.40 to 173.402 of 10024
the Revised Code:10025

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 10026
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.10027

       "PASSPORT program" means the program created under this 10028
section.10029

       "PASSPORT waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver granted 10030
by the United States secretary of health and human services that 10031
authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.10032

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 10033
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 10034
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.10035

       (B) There is hereby created the preadmission screening system 10036
providing options and resources today program, or PASSPORT. The 10037
PASSPORT program shall provide home and community-based services 10038
as an alternative to nursing facility placement for individuals 10039
who are aged and disabled and meet the program's applicable 10040
eligibility requirements. Subject to division (C) of this section, 10041
the program shall have a medicaid-funded component and a 10042
state-funded component.10043

       (C)(1) Unless the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT 10044
program is terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, all 10045
of the following apply:10046

       (a) The department of aging shall administer the 10047
medicaid-funded component through a contract entered into with the 10048
department of job and family services under section 5111.91 of the 10049
Revised Code.10050

       (b) The medicaid-funded component shall be operated as a 10051
separate medicaid waiver component. 10052

       (c) For an individual to be eligible for the medicaid-funded 10053
component, the individual must be a medicaid recipient and meet 10054
the additional eligibility requirements applicable to the 10055
individual established in rules adopted under division (C)(1)(d) 10056
of this section.10057

       (d) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 10058
under section 5111.85 of the Revised Code and the director of 10059
aging shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 10060
Revised Code to implement the medicaid-funded component.10061

       (2) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 10062
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 10063
family services shall work together to determine whether the 10064
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program should continue 10065
to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component or be 10066
terminated. If the departments determine that the medicaid-funded 10067
component of the PASSPORT program should be terminated, the 10068
medicaid-funded component shall cease to exist on a date the 10069
departments shall specify.10070

       (D)(1) The department of aging shall administer the 10071
state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The state-funded 10072
component shall not be administered as part of the medicaid 10073
program.10074

       (2) For an individual to be eligible for the state-funded 10075
component, the individual must meet one of the following 10076
requirements and meet the additional eligibility requirements 10077
applicable to the individual established in rules adopted under 10078
division (D)(4) of this section:10079

       (a) The individual must have been enrolled in the 10080
state-funded component on September 1, 1991, (as the state-funded 10081
component was authorized by uncodified law in effect at that time) 10082
and have had one or more applications for enrollment in the 10083
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 10084
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 10085
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) denied.10086

       (b) The individual must have had the individual's enrollment 10087
in the medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded 10088
component is terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the 10089
unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) 10090
terminated and the individual must still need the home and 10091
community-based services provided under the PASSPORT program to 10092
protect the individual's health and safety.10093

       (c) The individual must have an application for the 10094
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 10095
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 10096
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) pending 10097
and the department or the department's designee must have 10098
determined that the individual meets the nonfinancial eligibility 10099
requirements of the medicaid-funded component (or, if the 10100
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2) of 10101
this section, the unified long-term services and support medicaid 10102
waiver component) and not have reason to doubt that the individual 10103
meets the financial eligibility requirements of the 10104
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 10105
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 10106
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component).10107

       (3) An individual who is eligible for the state-funded 10108
component because the individual meets the requirement of division 10109
(D)(2)(c) of this section may participate in the component on that 10110
basis for not more than three monthsninety days.10111

       (4) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 10112
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the 10113
state-funded component. The additional eligibility requirements 10114
established in the rules may vary for the different groups of 10115
individuals specified in divisions (D)(2)(a), (b), and (c) of this 10116
section.10117

       Sec. 173.42.  (A) As used in sections 173.42 to 173.434 of 10118
the Revised Code:10119

       (1) "Area agency on aging" means a public or private 10120
nonprofit entity designated under section 173.011 of the Revised 10121
Code to administer programs on behalf of the department of aging.10122

       (2) "Department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 10123
component" means each of the following:10124

       (a) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program 10125
created under section 173.40 of the Revised Code;10126

       (b) The choices program created under section 173.403 of the 10127
Revised Code;10128

       (c) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 10129
program created under section 5111.89 of the Revised Code;10130

       (d) Any other medicaid waiver component, as defined in 10131
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code, that the department of aging 10132
administers pursuant to an interagency agreement with the 10133
department of job and family services under section 5111.91 of the 10134
Revised Code.10135

       (3) "Home and community-based services covered by medicaid 10136
components the department of aging administers" means all of the 10137
following:10138

       (a) Medicaid waiver services available to a participant in a 10139
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver component;10140

       (b) The following medicaid state plan services available to a 10141
participant in a department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 10142
component as specified in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of 10143
the Revised Code:10144

       (i) Home health services;10145

       (ii) Private duty nursing services;10146

       (iii) Durable medical equipment;10147

       (iv) Services of a clinical nurse specialist;10148

       (v) Services of a certified nurse practitioner.10149

       (c) Services available to a participant of the PACE program.10150

       (4) "Long-term care consultation" or "consultation" means the 10151
consultation service made available by the department of aging or 10152
a program administrator through the long-term care consultation 10153
program established pursuant to this section.10154

       (5) "Medicaid" means the medical assistance program 10155
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.10156

       (6) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 10157
5111.20 of the Revised Code.10158

       (7) "PACE program" means the component of the medicaid 10159
program the department of aging administers pursuant to section 10160
173.50 of the Revised Code.10161

       (8) "PASSPORT administrative agency" means an entity under 10162
contract with the department of aging to provide administrative 10163
services regarding the PASSPORT program. 10164

       (9) "Program administrator" means an area agency on aging or 10165
other entity under contract with the department of aging to 10166
administer the long-term care consultation program in a geographic 10167
region specified in the contract.10168

       (10) "Representative" means a person acting on behalf of an 10169
individual specified in division (G) of this section. A 10170
representative may be a family member, attorney, hospital social 10171
worker, or any other person chosen to act on behalf of the 10172
individual.10173

       (B) The department of aging shall develop a long-term care 10174
consultation program whereby individuals or their representatives 10175
are provided with long-term care consultations and receive through 10176
these professional consultations information about options 10177
available to meet long-term care needs and information about 10178
factors to consider in making long-term care decisions. The 10179
long-term care consultations provided under the program may be 10180
provided at any appropriate time, as permitted or required under 10181
this section and the rules adopted under it, including either 10182
prior to or after the individual who is the subject of a 10183
consultation has been admitted to a nursing facility or granted 10184
assistance in receiving home and community-based services covered 10185
by medicaid components the department of aging administers.10186

        (C) The long-term care consultation program shall be 10187
administered by the department of aging, except that the 10188
department may have the program administered on a regional basis 10189
by one or more program administrators. The department and each 10190
program administrator shall administer the program in such a 10191
manner that all of the following are included:10192

       (1) Coordination and collaboration with respect to all 10193
available funding sources for long-term care services;10194

       (2) Assessments of individuals regarding their long-term care 10195
service needs;10196

       (3) Assessments of individuals regarding their on-going 10197
eligibility for long-term care services;10198

       (4) Procedures for assisting individuals in obtaining access 10199
to, and coordination of, health and supportive services, including 10200
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver components;10201

       (5) Priorities for using available resources efficiently and 10202
effectively.10203

        (D) The program's long-term care consultations shall be 10204
provided by individuals certified by the department under section 10205
173.422 of the Revised Code.10206

        (E) The information provided through a long-term care 10207
consultation shall be appropriate to the individual's needs and 10208
situation and shall address all of the following:10209

       (1) The availability of any long-term care options open to 10210
the individual;10211

       (2) Sources and methods of both public and private payment 10212
for long-term care services;10213

       (3) Factors to consider when choosing among the available 10214
programs, services, and benefits;10215

       (4) Opportunities and methods for maximizing independence and 10216
self-reliance, including support services provided by the 10217
individual's family, friends, and community.10218

       (F) An individual's long-term care consultation may include 10219
an assessment of the individual's functional capabilities. The 10220
consultation may incorporate portions of the determinations 10221
required under sections 5111.202, 5119.061, and 5123.021 of the 10222
Revised Code and may be provided concurrently with the assessment 10223
required under section 5111.204 of the Revised Code.10224

       (G)(1) Unless an exemption specified in division (I) of this 10225
section is applicable, each of the following shall be provided 10226
with a long-term care consultation:10227

       (a) An individual who applies or indicates an intention to 10228
apply for admission to a nursing facility, regardless of the 10229
source of payment to be used for the individual's care in a 10230
nursing facility;10231

       (b) An individual who requests a long-term care consultation;10232

       (c) An individual identified by the department or a program 10233
administrator as being likely to benefit from a long-term care 10234
consultation.10235

       (2) In addition to the individuals specified in division 10236
(G)(1) of this section, a long-term care consultation may be 10237
provided to a nursing facility resident regardless of the source 10238
of payment being used for the resident's care in the nursing 10239
facility. 10240

       (H)(1) Except as provided in division (H)(2) or (3) of this 10241
section, a long-term care consultation provided pursuant to 10242
division (G) of this section shall be provided as follows:10243

       (a) If the individual for whom the consultation is being 10244
provided has applied for medicaid and the consultation is being 10245
provided concurrently with the assessment required under section 10246
5111.204 of the Revised Code, the consultation shall be completed 10247
in accordance with the applicable time frames specified in that 10248
section for providing a level of care determination based on the 10249
assessment.10250

       (b) In all other cases, the consultation shall be provided 10251
not later than five calendar days after the department or program 10252
administrator receives notice of the reason for which the 10253
consultation is to be provided pursuant to division (G) of this 10254
section.10255

       (2) An individual or the individual's representative may 10256
request that a long-term care consultation be provided on a date 10257
that is later than the date required under division (H)(1)(a) or 10258
(b) of this section.10259

       (3) If a long-term care consultation cannot be completed 10260
within the number of days required by division (H)(1) or (2) of 10261
this section, the department or program administrator may do any 10262
of the following:10263

       (a) In the case of an individual specified in division (G)(1) 10264
of this section, exempt the individual from the consultation 10265
pursuant to rules that may be adopted under division (L) of this 10266
section;10267

       (b) In the case of an applicant for admission to a nursing 10268
facility, provide the consultation after the individual is 10269
admitted to the nursing facility;10270

       (c) In the case of a resident of a nursing facility, provide 10271
the consultation as soon as practicable.10272

       (I) An individual is not required to be provided a long-term 10273
care consultation under division (G)(1) of this section if any of 10274
the following apply:10275

       (1) The department or program administrator has attempted to 10276
provide the consultation, but the individual or the individual's 10277
representative refuses to cooperate;10278

       (2) The individual is to receive care in a nursing facility 10279
under a contract for continuing care as defined in section 173.13 10280
of the Revised Code;10281

       (3) The individual has a contractual right to admission to a 10282
nursing facility operated as part of a system of continuing care 10283
in conjunction with one or more facilities that provide a less 10284
intensive level of services, including a residential care facility 10285
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, an adult carea 10286
residential facility licensed under sections 5119.70 to 5119.8810287
section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 10288
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 10289
unrelated adults, or an independent living arrangement;10290

       (4) The individual is to receive continual care in a home for 10291
the aged exempt from taxation under section 5701.13 of the Revised 10292
Code;10293

       (5) The individual is seeking admission to a facility that is 10294
not a nursing facility with a provider agreement under section 10295
5111.22, 5111.671, or 5111.672 of the Revised Code;10296

       (6) The individual is exempted from the long-term care 10297
consultation requirement by the department or the program 10298
administrator pursuant to rules that may be adopted under division 10299
(L) of this section.10300

        (J) As part of the long-term care consultation program, the 10301
department or program administrator shall assist an individual or 10302
individual's representative in accessing all sources of care and 10303
services that are appropriate for the individual and for which the 10304
individual is eligible, including all available home and 10305
community-based services covered by medicaid components the 10306
department of aging administers. The assistance shall include 10307
providing for the conduct of assessments or other evaluations and 10308
the development of individualized plans of care or services under 10309
section 173.424 of the Revised Code.10310

       (K) No nursing facility for which an operator has a provider 10311
agreement under section 5111.22, 5111.671, or 5111.672 of the 10312
Revised Code shall admit any individual as a resident, unless the 10313
nursing facility has received evidence that a long-term care 10314
consultation has been completed for the individual or division (I) 10315
of this section is applicable to the individual.10316

       (L) The director of aging may adopt any rules the director 10317
considers necessary for the implementation and administration of 10318
this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with 10319
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and may specify any or all of the 10320
following:10321

       (1) Procedures for providing long-term care consultations 10322
pursuant to this section;10323

       (2) Information to be provided through long-term care 10324
consultations regarding long-term care services that are 10325
available;10326

       (3) Criteria and procedures to be used to identify and 10327
recommend appropriate service options for an individual receiving 10328
a long-term care consultation;10329

       (4) Criteria for exempting individuals from the long-term 10330
care consultation requirement;10331

       (5) Circumstances under which it may be appropriate to 10332
provide an individual's long-term care consultation after the 10333
individual's admission to a nursing facility rather than before 10334
admission;10335

        (6) Criteria for identifying nursing facility residents who 10336
would benefit from the provision of a long-term care consultation;10337

       (7) A description of the types of information from a nursing 10338
facility that is needed under the long-term care consultation 10339
program to assist a resident with relocation from the facility;10340

       (8) Standards to prevent conflicts of interest relative to 10341
the referrals made by a person who performs a long-term care 10342
consultation, including standards that prohibit the person from 10343
being employed by a provider of long-term care services;10344

       (9) Procedures for providing notice and an opportunity for a 10345
hearing under division (N) of this section.10346

       (M) To assist the department and each program administrator 10347
with identifying individuals who are likely to benefit from a 10348
long-term care consultation, the department and program 10349
administrator may ask to be given access to nursing facility 10350
resident assessment data collected through the use of the resident 10351
assessment instrument specified in rules adopted under section 10352
5111.02 of the Revised Code for purposes of the medicaid program. 10353
Except when prohibited by state or federal law, the department of 10354
health, department of job and family services, or nursing facility 10355
holding the data shall grant access to the data on receipt of the 10356
request from the department of aging or program administrator.10357

       (N)(1) The director of aging, after providing notice and an 10358
opportunity for a hearing, may fine a nursing facility an amount 10359
determined by rules the director shall adopt in accordance with 10360
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for any of the following reasons:10361

       (a) The nursing facility admits an individual, without 10362
evidence that a long-term care consultation has been provided, as 10363
required by this section;10364

       (b) The nursing facility denies a person attempting to 10365
provide a long-term care consultation access to the facility or a 10366
resident of the facility;10367

       (c) The nursing facility denies the department of aging or 10368
program administrator access to the facility or a resident of the 10369
facility, as the department or administrator considers necessary 10370
to administer the program.10371

       (2) In accordance with section 5111.62 of the Revised Code, 10372
all fines collected under division (N)(1) of this section shall be 10373
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the residents 10374
protection fund.10375

       Sec. 173.45. As used in this section and in sections 173.46 10376
to 173.49 of the Revised Code:10377

        (A) "Adult careResidential facility" has the same meaning as 10378
inmeans a residential facility licensed under section 5119.7010379
5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 10380
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 10381
unrelated adults.10382

       (B) "Community-based long-term care services" has the same 10383
meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.10384

       (C) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home or 10385
residential care facility.10386

        (D) "Nursing home" and "residential care facility" have the 10387
same meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.10388

        (E) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 10389
5111.20 of the Revised Code.10390

       Sec. 173.46. (A) The department of aging shall develop and 10391
publish a guide to long-term care facilities for use by 10392
individuals considering long-term care facility admission and 10393
their families, friends, and advisors. The guide, which shall be 10394
titled the Ohio long-term care consumer guide, may be published in 10395
printed form or in electronic form for distribution over the 10396
internet. The guide may be developed as a continuation or 10397
modification of the guide published by the department prior to 10398
September 29, 2005, under rules adopted under section 173.02 of 10399
the Revised Code.10400

        (B) The Ohio long-term care consumer guide shall include 10401
information on each long-term care facility in this state. For 10402
each facility, the guide shall include the following information, 10403
as applicable to the facility:10404

        (1) Information regarding the facility's compliance with 10405
state statutes and rules and federal statutes and regulations;10406

        (2) Information generated by the centers for medicare and 10407
medicaid services of the United States department of health and 10408
human services from the quality measures developed as part of its 10409
nursing home quality initiative;10410

        (3) Results of the customer satisfaction surveys conducted 10411
under section 173.47 of the Revised Code;10412

        (4) Any other information the department specifies in rules 10413
adopted under section 173.49 of the Revised Code.10414

       (C) The Ohio long-term care consumer guide may include 10415
information on adult careresidential facilities and providers of 10416
community-based long-term care services. The department may adopt 10417
rules under section 173.49 of the Revised Code to specify the 10418
information to be included in the guide pursuant to this division.10419

       Sec. 189.04.  (A) The local government innovation council 10420
shall award loans to a qualified political subdivision or a 10421
qualified group of political subdivisions to be used for the 10422
purchase of equipment, facilities, or systems or for 10423
implementation costs.10424

       Loans made under division (A) of this section shall be repaid 10425
by recipients using savings achieved from the innovation project 10426
or surplus money in a fund described in section 5709.43, 5709.75, 10427
or 5709.80 of the Revised Code. 10428

       (B) Up to twenty per cent of the funds in the local 10429
government innovation fund, established in section 189.05 of the 10430
Revised Code, may be awarded by the council as grants to political 10431
subdivisions for use in process improvement or implementation of 10432
innovation project awards, except for local government performance 10433
measurement grants awarded under section 189.041 of the Revised 10434
Code. 10435

       (C) In every two fiscal years, the council may award one 10436
million dollars from the local government innovation fund, 10437
established in section 189.05 of the Revised Code, as local 10438
government performance measurement grants under section 189.041 of 10439
the Revised Code.10440

       (D) The council shall award not more than one hundred 10441
thousand dollars in total grants and not more than one hundred 10442
thousand dollars in total loans to an individual political 10443
subdivision per innovation project under this section, excluding 10444
local government performance measurement grants awarded under 10445
section 189.041 of the Revised Code. For an innovation project 10446
involving a qualified group of political subdivisions, the council 10447
shall award, in total grants and loans, not more than five hundred 10448
thousand dollars, and the average amount per political subdivision 10449
shall not exceed one hundred thousand dollars.10450

       Sec. 189.041. (A) The local government innovation council 10451
shall award local government performance measurement grants to 10452
political subdivisions to pay the necessary expenses of 10453
participation in the center for performance measurement program of 10454
the international city/county management association. A political 10455
subdivision may use moneys awarded under this section only for the 10456
following purposes:10457

        (1) To pay the fee to the international city/county 10458
management association to enroll the political subdivision in the 10459
program;10460

        (2) To pay employees of the political subdivision for the 10461
hours of work required to receive training to participate in the 10462
program and to gather and submit data to the center for 10463
performance measurement for the purpose of participation in the 10464
program;10465

        (3) To pay an independent contractor to receive training to 10466
participate in the program and to gather and submit data to the 10467
center for performance measurement for the purpose of 10468
participation in the program; and10469

        (4) To pay for necessary equipment, including computer 10470
equipment and software, for the political subdivision to receive 10471
training to participate in the program and to gather and submit 10472
data to the center for performance measurement for the purpose of 10473
participation in the program, if the political subdivision does 10474
not already possess such equipment.10475

        (B)(1) All political subdivisions of the state are eligible 10476
to apply for a grant under this section. A political subdivision 10477
shall submit an application for a local government performance 10478
measurement grant to the council on a form specified by the 10479
council. The form shall require the political subdivision to 10480
provide a detailed estimate of the necessary expenses for the 10481
political subdivision to participate in the program.10482

        (2) A political subdivision that is awarded funds under this 10483
section shall not be required to contribute matching funds toward 10484
the cost of participation in the program.10485

        (3) The council shall award grants under this section in the 10486
order in which the council receives each properly completed 10487
application form, and in the amount reasonably requested in the 10488
application.10489

        (C)(1) The council shall award not more than ten thousand 10490
dollars in every two fiscal years to a political subdivision under 10491
this section.10492

        (2) After the end of each fiscal year in which a political 10493
subdivision has been awarded a grant under this section, the 10494
political subdivision shall do both of the following:10495

        (a) Prepare and submit to the council, on a form prescribed 10496
by the council, an itemized statement of the grant moneys that 10497
were expended and the purposes for which those moneys were 10498
expended.10499

        (b) Submit to the council any grant moneys awarded under this 10500
section that remain unexpended. The council shall deposit all 10501
unexpended moneys in the state treasury to the credit of the local 10502
government innovation fund created in section 189.05 of the 10503
Revised Code.10504

       Sec. 189.05.  Funds for awards made by the local government 10505
innovation council shall be made from the local government 10506
innovation fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. 10507
The fund shall consist of moneys appropriated to it, repayments of 10508
principal and interest on loans made from the fund, unexpended 10509
grant moneys submitted to the council under division (C)(2)(a) of 10510
section 189.041 of the Revised Code, and any grants or donations 10511
received from nonpublic entities. Interest earned on the money in 10512
the fund shall be credited to the fund. 10513

       Sec. 189.06.  (A) All political subdivisions of the state are 10514
eligible to apply for awards under the local government innovation 10515
program. ApplicationsExcept for applications submitted for a 10516
local government performance measurement grant under section 10517
189.041 of the Revised Code, applications shall be submitted to 10518
the department of development on a form specified by the director 10519
of development. The department shall provide the application to 10520
the local government innovation council for evaluation and 10521
selection.10522

       TheExcept as provided in section 189.041 of the Revised 10523
Code, the local government innovation council shall award loans 10524
and grants under the program in accordance with a competitive 10525
process to be developed by the council. 10526

       (B) Not later than December 31, 2011, the council shall 10527
establish criteria for evaluating proposals and making awards to 10528
political subdivisions, other than awards made under section 10529
189.041 of the Revised Code. The criteria shall be developed in 10530
consultation with nonpublic entities involved in local government 10531
issues, state institutions of higher education, and the department 10532
of development, as determined by the council. The criteria shall 10533
include a requirement that at least one of the political 10534
subdivisions that is a party to the proposal provide matching 10535
funds. The matching funds may be provided by a nonpublic entity or 10536
may be paid using surplus money in a fund described in section 10537
5709.43, 5709.75, or 5709.80 of the Revised Code. The criteria for 10538
evaluating proposals may include the following provisions:10539

       (1) The expected return on investment, based on the ratio of 10540
expected savings;10541

       (2) The number of participating entities in the proposal;10542

       (3) The probability of the proposal's success;10543

       (4) The percentage of local matching funds available;10544

       (5) The ability to replicate the proposal in other political 10545
subdivisions;10546

       (6) Whether the proposal is part of a larger consolidation 10547
effort by the applicant or applicants;10548

       (7) Whether the proposal is to implement performance audit or 10549
other audit recommendations under Chapter 117. of the Revised 10550
Code;10551

       (8) Whether the applicant has successfully completed an 10552
innovation project in the past.10553

       Sec. 189.08.  (A) Starting not later than March 1, 2012, the 10554
local government innovation council shall begin evaluating 10555
applications and proposals received under section 189.041 of the 10556
Revised Code and from the department of development for awards to 10557
political subdivisions. Not later than July 1, 2012, the council 10558
shall make its first round of awards to the political 10559
subdivisions.10560

       (B) After making the first round of awards, the council shall 10561
evaluate proposals and make awards on a quarterly basis, or on 10562
another schedule determined by the council, with the council 10563
determining the funding levels for each round of awards. 10564

       (C) When making awards from the local government innovation 10565
fund created in section 189.05 of the Revised Code, except for 10566
grants awarded under section 189.041 of the Revised Code, the 10567
funds awarded across all rounds shall be allocated as follows:10568

       (1) At least thirty per cent to political subdivisions that 10569
are not counties and have a population of less than 20,000 10570
residents as determined in the decennial census conducted in 2010 10571
or counties with a population of less than 235,000 residents as 10572
determined in the decennial census conducted in 2010;10573

       (2) At least thirty per cent to political subdivisions that 10574
are not counties and have a population of 20,000 residents or more 10575
as determined in the decennial census conducted in 2010 or 10576
counties with a population of 235,000 residents or more as 10577
determined in the decennial census conducted in 2010.10578

       If a proposal includes participants from both divisions 10579
(C)(1) and (2) of this section, the award may be drawn from either 10580
or both tiers in the local government innovation fund.10581

       Sec. 191.01.  As used in this chapter:10582

       (A) "Administrative safeguards," "availability," 10583
"confidentiality," "integrity," "physical safeguards," and 10584
"technical safeguards" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 10585
164.304.10586

        (B) "Business associate," "covered entity," "health plan," 10587
"individually identifiable health information," and "protected 10588
health information" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 10589
160.103.10590

       (C) "Executive director of the office of health 10591
transformation" or "executive director" means the executive 10592
director of the office of health transformation or the chief 10593
administrative officer of a successor governmental entity 10594
responsible for health system oversight in this state.10595

       (D) "Government program providing public benefits" means any 10596
program administered by a state agency that has been identified, 10597
pursuant to section 191.02 of the Revised Code, by the executive 10598
director of the office of health transformation in consultation 10599
with the individuals specified in that section. 10600

       (E) "Office of health transformation" means the office of 10601
health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K.10602

       (F) "Operating protocol" means a protocol adopted by the 10603
executive director of the office of health transformation or the 10604
executive director's designee under division (D) of section 191.06 10605
of the Revised Code.10606

       (G) "Participating agency" means a state agency that 10607
participates in a health transformation initiative as specified in 10608
the one or more operating protocols adopted for the initiative 10609
under division (D) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code.10610

       (H) "Personally identifiable information" means information 10611
that meets both of the following criteria: 10612

       (1) It identifies an individual or there is a reasonable 10613
basis to believe that it may be used to identify an individual;10614

       (2) It relates to an individual's eligibility for, 10615
application for, or receipt of public benefits from a government 10616
program providing public benefits.10617

       (I) "State agency" means each of the following:10618

       (1) The department of aging;10619

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;10620

       (3) The department of development;10621

       (4) The department of developmental disabilities;10622

       (5) The department of education;10623

       (6) The department of health;10624

       (7) The department of insurance;10625

       (8) The department of job and family services;10626

       (9) The department of mental health;10627

       (10) The department of rehabilitation and correction;10628

       (11) The department of taxation;10629

       (12) The department of veterans services;10630

       (13) The department of youth services.10631

       (J) "Unsecured" has the same meaning as in 16 C.F.R. 318.2.10632

       Sec. 191.02.  The executive director of the office of health 10633
transformation, in consultation with all of the following 10634
individuals, shall identify each government program administered 10635
by a state agency that is to be considered a government program 10636
providing public benefits for purposes of section 191.04 of the 10637
Revised Code:10638

       (A) The director of aging;10639

       (B) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services;10640

       (C) The director of development;10641

       (D) The director of developmental disabilities;10642

       (E) The director of health;10643

       (F) The director job and family services;10644

       (G) The director of mental health;10645

       (H) The director of rehabilitation and correction;10646

       (I) The director of veterans services;10647

       (J) The director of youth services;10648

       (K) The administrator of the rehabilitation services 10649
commission;10650

       (L) The administrator of workers' compensation;10651

       (M) The superintendent of insurance;10652

       (N) The superintendent of public instruction;10653

       (O) The tax commissioner.10654

       Sec. 191.04.  (A) In accordance with federal laws governing 10655
the confidentiality of individually identifiable health 10656
information, including the "Health Insurance Portability and 10657
Accountability Act of 1996," 104 Pub. L. No. 191, 110 Stat. 2021, 10658
42 U.S.C. 1320d et seq., as amended, and regulations promulgated 10659
by the United States department of health and human services to 10660
implement the act, a state agency may exchange protected health 10661
information with another state agency relating to eligibility for 10662
or enrollment in a health plan or relating to participation in a 10663
government program providing public benefits if the exchange of 10664
information is necessary for either or both of the following:10665

       (1) Operating a health plan;10666

       (2) Coordinating, or improving the administration or 10667
management of, the health care-related functions of at least one 10668
government program providing public benefits.10669

       (B) For fiscal year 2013 only, a state agency also may 10670
exchange personally identifiable information with another state 10671
agency for purposes related to and in support of a health 10672
transformation initiative identified by the executive director of 10673
the office of health transformation pursuant to division (C) of 10674
section 191.06 of the Revised Code. 10675

       (C) With respect to a state agency that uses or discloses 10676
personally identifiable information, all of the following 10677
conditions apply:10678

       (1) The state agency shall use or disclose the information 10679
only as permitted or required by state and federal law. In 10680
addition, if the information is obtained during fiscal year 2013 10681
from an exchange of personally identifiable information permitted 10682
under division (B) of this section, the agency shall also use or 10683
disclose the information in accordance with all operating 10684
protocols that apply to the use or disclosure. 10685

       (2) If the state agency is a state agency other than the 10686
department of job and family services and it uses or discloses 10687
protected health information that is related to a medicaid 10688
recipient and obtained from the department of job and family 10689
services or another agency operating a component of the medicaid 10690
program, the state agency shall comply with all state and federal 10691
laws that apply to the department of job and family services when 10692
that department, as the state's single state agency to supervise 10693
the medicaid program as specified in section 5111.01 of the 10694
Revised Code, uses or discloses protected health information. 10695

       (3) A state agency shall implement administrative, physical, 10696
and technical safeguards for the purpose of protecting the 10697
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of personally 10698
identifiable information the creation, receipt, maintenance, or 10699
transmittal of which is affected or governed by this section. 10700

       (4) If a state agency discovers an unauthorized use or 10701
disclosure of unsecured protected health information or unsecured 10702
individually identifiable health information, the state agency 10703
shall, not later than seventy-two hours after the discovery, do 10704
all of the following:10705

       (a) Identify the individuals who are the subject of the 10706
protected health information or individually identifiable health 10707
information;10708

       (b) Report the discovery and the names of all individuals 10709
identified pursuant to division (C)(4)(a) of this section to all 10710
other state agencies and the executive director of the office of 10711
health transformation or the executive director's designee;10712

       (c) Mitigate, to the extent reasonably possible, any 10713
potential adverse effects of the unauthorized use or disclosure.10714

       (5) A state agency shall make available to the executive 10715
director of the office of health transformation or the executive 10716
director's designee, and to any other state or federal 10717
governmental entity required by law to have access on that 10718
entity's request, all internal practices, records, and 10719
documentation relating to personally identifiable information it 10720
receives, uses, or discloses that is affected or governed by this 10721
section.10722

       (6) On termination or expiration of an operating protocol and 10723
if feasible, a state agency shall return or destroy all personally 10724
identifiable information received directly from or received on 10725
behalf of another state agency. If the personally identifiable 10726
information is not returned or destroyed, the state agency 10727
maintaining the information shall extend the protections set forth 10728
in this section for as long as it is maintained.10729

       (7) If a state agency enters into a subcontract or, when 10730
required by 45 C.F.R. 164.502(e)(2), a business associate 10731
agreement, the subcontract or business associate agreement shall 10732
require the subcontractor or business associate to comply with the 10733
terms of this section as if the subcontractor or business 10734
associate were a state agency.10735

       Sec. 191.06.  (A) The provisions of this section shall apply 10736
only for fiscal year 2013.10737

       (B) The executive director of the office of health 10738
transformation or the executive director's designee may facilitate 10739
the coordination of operations and exchange of information between 10740
state agencies. The purpose of the executive director's authority 10741
under this section is to support agency collaboration for health 10742
transformation purposes, including modernization of the medicaid 10743
program, streamlining of health and human services programs in 10744
this state, and improving the quality, continuity, and efficiency 10745
of health care and health care support systems in this state.10746

       (C) In furtherance of the authority of the executive director 10747
of the office of health transformation under division (B) of this 10748
section, the executive director or the executive director's 10749
designee shall identify each health transformation initiative in 10750
this state that involves the participation of two or more state 10751
agencies and that permits or requires an interagency agreement to 10752
be entered into for purposes of specifying each participating 10753
agency's role in coordinating, operating, or funding the 10754
initiative, or facilitating the exchange of data or other 10755
information for the initiative. The executive director shall 10756
publish a list of the identified health transformation initiatives 10757
on the internet web site maintained by the office of health 10758
transformation.10759

       (D) For each health transformation initiative that is 10760
identified under division (C) of this section, the executive 10761
director or the executive director's designee shall, in 10762
consultation with each participating agency, adopt one or more 10763
operating protocols. Notwithstanding any law enacted by the 10764
general assembly or rule adopted by a state agency, the provisions 10765
in a protocol shall supersede any provisions in an interagency 10766
agreement, including an interagency agreement entered into under 10767
section 5101.10 or 5111.91 of the Revised Code, that differ from 10768
the provisions of the protocol.10769

       (E)(1) An operating protocol adopted under division (D) of 10770
this section shall include both of the following:10771

       (a) All terms necessary to meet the requirements of "other 10772
arrangements" between a covered entity and a business associate 10773
that are referenced in 45 C.F.R. 164.314(a)(2)(ii);10774

       (b) If known, the date on which the protocol will terminate 10775
or expire.10776

       (2) In addition, a protocol may specify the extent to which 10777
each participating agency is responsible and accountable for 10778
completing the tasks necessary for successful completion of the 10779
initiative, including tasks relating to the following components 10780
of the initiative: 10781

       (a) Workflow;10782

       (b) Funding;10783

       (c) Exchange of data or other information that is 10784
confidential pursuant to state or federal law. 10785

       (F) An operating protocol adopted under division (D) of this 10786
section shall have the same force and effect as an interagency 10787
agreement or data sharing agreement, and each participating agency 10788
shall comply with it.10789

       (G) The director of job and family services shall determine 10790
whether a waiver of federal medicaid requirements or a medicaid 10791
state plan amendment is necessary to fulfill the requirements of 10792
this section. If the director determines a waiver or medicaid 10793
state plan amendment is necessary, the director shall apply to the 10794
United States secretary of health and human services for the 10795
waiver or amendment.10796

       Sec. 306.04.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in division 10797
(B) of this section, employees of a county transit board or a 10798
board of county commissioners operating a transit system are 10799
employees of the county. If the system is operated by the board of 10800
county commissioners, the board shall appoint an executive 10801
director, who shall be in the unclassified service.10802

       (B) Any county transit board that established its own civil 10803
service organization and procedure prior to the effective date of 10804
this amendmentOctober 25, 1995, shall continue to operate under 10805
that organization. Appointments and promotions in that system 10806
shall be made, as far as practicable, by competitive examination.10807

       A board that established its own civil service organization 10808
prior to the effective date of this amendmentOctober 25, 1995,10809
shall establish by rule the seniority provisions relating to 10810
street railway and motor bus employees in effect at the time of 10811
the acquisition of the transit system by the county. The vacation, 10812
holiday, and sick leave privileges shall not be regulated by other 10813
provisions of law relating to public employees of the state or 10814
county, except that the transit board, its officers and employees, 10815
shall be subject to the public employees retirement system of the 10816
state and the transit board shall assume any pension obligations 10817
which have been assumed by any publicly owned transit system which 10818
the county may acquire.10819

       (C) A county transit board or board of county commissioners 10820
operating a transit system may:10821

       (1) Acquire in its name by gift, grant, purchase, or 10822
condemnation and hold and operate real estate and interests 10823
therein and personal property suitable for its purposes;10824

       (2) In its name purchase, acquire, construct, enlarge, 10825
improve, equip, repair, maintain, sell, exchange, lease as lessee 10826
or lessor, receive a right of use of, and manage, control, and 10827
operate, in or out of the county, a county transit system 10828
consisting of all real estate and interests therein, personal 10829
property, and a combination thereof, for or related to the 10830
movement of persons including but not limited to street railway, 10831
tramline, subways, rapid transits, monorails, and passenger bus 10832
systems but excluding therefrom trucks, the movement of property 10833
by truck, and facilities designed for use in the movement of 10834
property by truck for hire;10835

       (3) Issue, with the approval of the county commissioners when 10836
the issuance is made by the transit board, revenue bonds of the 10837
county as provided in division (B) of section 306.09 of the 10838
Revised Code, to secure funds to accomplish its purposes. The 10839
principal of and interest on such bonds, together with all other 10840
payments required to be made by the trust agreement or indenture 10841
securing such bonds, shall be paid solely from revenues or other 10842
income accruing to the board from facilities of the county transit 10843
system designated in said agreement or indenture.10844

       (4) Enter into contracts in the exercise of the rights, 10845
powers, and duties conferred upon it, and execute all instruments 10846
necessary in the conduct of its business;10847

       (5) Fix, alter, and charge rates and other charges for the 10848
use of its real estate and interests therein, personal property, 10849
and combinations thereof;10850

       (6) Employ such financial consultants, accountants, 10851
appraisers, consulting engineers, architects, construction 10852
experts, attorneys-at-law, managers and other supervisory 10853
personnel, and other officers, employees, and agents as it 10854
determines necessary to conduct its business, and fix their 10855
compensation and duties;10856

       (7) Pledge, hypothecate, or otherwise encumber its revenues 10857
and other income as security for its obligations and enter into 10858
trust agreements or indentures for the benefit of revenue 10859
bondholders;10860

       (8) Borrow money or accept or contract to accept advances, 10861
loans, gifts, grants, devises, or bequests from and enter into 10862
contracts or agreements with any federal, state, or other 10863
governmental or private source and hold and apply advances, loans, 10864
gifts, grants, devises, or bequests according to the terms thereof 10865
including provisions which are required by such federal, state, or 10866
other governmental or private source to protect the interest of 10867
employees affected by such advances, loans, gifts, grants, 10868
devises, or bequests. Such advances, loans, gifts, grants, or 10869
devises may be subject to any reasonable reservation and any gift, 10870
grant, or devise or real estate may be in fee simple or any lesser 10871
estate. Any advances or loans received from any federal, state, or 10872
other governmental or private source may be repaid in accordance 10873
with the terms of such advance or loan.10874

       (9) Conduct investigations and surveys into the needs of the 10875
public within or without the county for transportation services to 10876
provide for the movement of persons within, into, or from the area 10877
serviced or to be serviced by the county transit system;10878

       (10) Enter into lawful arrangements with the appropriate 10879
federal or state department or agency, county, township, municipal 10880
corporation, or other political subdivision or public agency for 10881
the planning and installation of any public facilities which are 10882
determined necessary in the conduct of its business;10883

       (11) Purchase fire, extended coverage, and liability 10884
insurance for the real estate and interests therein, personal 10885
property and any combination thereof, used by or in connection 10886
with the county transit system and insurance covering the board 10887
and the county transit system and its officers and employees for 10888
liability for damage or injury to persons or property;10889

       (12) Procure and pay all or any part of the cost of group 10890
hospitalization, surgical, major medical, or sickness and accident 10891
insurance, or a combination thereof, for the officers and 10892
employees of the county transit system and their immediate 10893
dependents, issued by an insurance company, duly authorized to do 10894
business in this state;10895

       (13) Sell, lease, release, or otherwise dispose of real 10896
estate or interests therein or personal property owned by it and 10897
grant such easements across its real estate and interests therein 10898
as will not interfere with its use by the county transit system;10899

       (14) Establish rules for the use and operation of the county 10900
transit system including the real estate or interests therein, 10901
personal property or a combination of the foregoing used by or in 10902
connection with such system;10903

       (15) Exercise the power of eminent domain to appropriate any 10904
real estate or interests therein, personal property, franchises, 10905
or any combination thereof, within or without the county, 10906
necessary or proper in the exercise of its powers provided in 10907
sections 306.01 to 306.13 of the Revised Code, as provided in 10908
sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code, and subject to 10909
divisions (15)(a), (b), and (c) of this section, provided that a 10910
county transit board or a board of county commissioners operating 10911
a transit system shall not proceed to so appropriate real property 10912
outside its territorial boundaries, until it has served at the 10913
office of the county commissioners of the county in which it is 10914
proposed to appropriate real property, a notice describing the 10915
real property to be taken and the purpose for which it is proposed 10916
to be taken, and such county commissioners have entered on their 10917
journal within thirty days after such service a resolution 10918
approving such appropriation;10919

       (a) Nothing contained in this division authorizes a county 10920
transit board or a board of county commissioners to appropriate 10921
any land, rights, rights-of-way, franchises, or easements 10922
belonging to the state or to a municipal corporation without the 10923
consent of the state or of the municipal corporation, and no 10924
county transit board or board of county commissioners shall 10925
exercise the right of eminent domain to acquire any certificate of 10926
public convenience and necessity, or any part thereof, issued to a 10927
for-hire motor transportation companycarrier by the public 10928
utilities commission of Ohio or by the interstate commerce 10929
commissionfederal motor carrier safety administration of the 10930
United States, or to take or disturb other real estate or 10931
interests therein, personal property, or any combination thereof 10932
belonging to any municipal corporation without the consent of the 10933
legislative authority of such municipal corporation, or take or 10934
disturb real estate or interests therein, personal property, or 10935
any combination thereof belonging to any other political 10936
subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or common 10937
carrier, which is necessary and convenient in the operation of 10938
such political subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or 10939
common carrier unless provision is made for the restoration, 10940
relocation, or duplication of that taken or upon the election of 10941
such political subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or 10942
common carrier for the payment of compensation, if any, at the 10943
sole cost of the county transit system.10944

       (b) If any restoration or duplication proposed to be made 10945
under this division involves a relocation, the new location shall 10946
have at least comparable utilitarian value and effectiveness, and 10947
such relocation shall not impair the ability of the public utility 10948
or common carrier to compete in its original area of operation.10949

       (c) If such restoration or duplication proposed to be made 10950
under this division involves a relocation, the county transit 10951
board or board of county commissioners shall acquire no interest 10952
or right in or to the appropriated property or facility until the 10953
relocated property or facility is available for use and until 10954
marketable title thereto has been transferred to the political 10955
subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or common 10956
carrier. Nothing in this division shall require any board of 10957
county commissioners or county transit board operating a county 10958
transit system to so restore, relocate, or duplicate, if all of 10959
the real estate and interests therein, personal property, and any 10960
combination of the foregoing which is owned by a public utility or 10961
common carrier and used by it or in connection with the movement 10962
of persons, is acquired by exercise of the power of eminent 10963
domain.10964

       (16) When real property is acquired that is located outside 10965
the county and is removed from the tax duplicate, the county 10966
transit board or board of county commissioners operating a transit 10967
system shall pay annually to the county treasurer of the county in 10968
which that property is located, commencing with the first tax year 10969
in which that property is removed from the tax duplicate, an 10970
amount of money in lieu of taxes equal to the smaller of the 10971
following:10972

       (a) The last annual installment of taxes due from the 10973
acquired property before removal from the tax duplicate;10974

       (b) An amount equal to the difference between the combined 10975
revenue from real estate taxes of all the taxing districts in 10976
which the property is located in the tax year immediately prior to 10977
the removal of the acquired property from the tax duplicate, and 10978
either:10979

       (i) The total revenue which would be produced by the tax rate 10980
of each such taxing district in the tax year immediately prior to 10981
the removal of the acquired property from the tax duplicate, 10982
applied to the real estate tax duplicate of each of such taxing 10983
districts in each tax year subsequent to the year of removal; or10984

       (ii) The combined revenue from real estate taxes of all such 10985
taxing districts in each tax year subsequent to the year of 10986
removal, whichever is the greater.10987

       The county transit board or board of county commissioners may 10988
be exempted from such payment by agreement of the affected taxing 10989
district or districts in the county in which the property is 10990
located.10991

       The county auditor of the county in which that property is 10992
located shall apportion each such annual payment to each taxing 10993
district as if the annual payment had been levied and collected as 10994
a tax.10995

       Those annual payments shall never again be made after they 10996
have ceased.10997

       (17) Sue or be sued, plead or be impleaded, and be held 10998
liable in any court of proper jurisdiction for damages received by 10999
reason of negligence, in the same manner and to the same extent as 11000
if the county transit system were privately operated, provided, 11001
that no funds of a county other than those of the county transit 11002
board or, if the transit system is operated by the board of county 11003
commissioners, other than those in the account for the county 11004
transit system created under division (C) of section 306.01 of the 11005
Revised Code, shall be available for the satisfaction of judgments 11006
rendered against that system;11007

       (18) Annually prepare and make available for public 11008
inspection a report in condensed form showing the financial 11009
results of the operation of the county transit system. For systems 11010
operated by a county transit board, copies of this report shall be 11011
furnished to the county commissioners as well as a monthly summary 11012
statement of revenues and expenses for the preceding month 11013
sufficient to show the exact financial condition of the county 11014
transit system as of the last day of the preceding month.11015

       (19) With the approval of the county commissioners when the 11016
action is taken by the transit board, and without competitive 11017
bidding, sell, lease, or grant the right of use of all or a 11018
portion of the county transit system to any other political 11019
subdivision, taxing district, or other public body or agency 11020
having the power to operate a transit system;11021

       (20) Enter into and supervise franchise agreements for the 11022
operation of a county transit system;11023

       (21) Accept the assignment of and then supervise an existing 11024
franchise agreement for the operation of a county transit system.11025

       Sec. 306.36.  (A) The board of trustees of a regional transit 11026
authority may exercise the power of eminent domain to appropriate 11027
any land, rights, rights-of-way, franchise, power lines, 11028
easements, or other property, within or without the territorial 11029
boundaries of the regional transit authority, necessary or proper 11030
for the construction or efficient operation of any transit 11031
facility or access thereto under its jurisdiction pursuant to the 11032
procedure provided in sections 163.01 to 163.22, inclusive, of the 11033
Revised Code, and subject to division (B) of this section, 11034
provided that a regional transit authority shall not proceed to so 11035
appropriate real property outside its territorial boundaries, 11036
until it has served at the office of the county commissioners of 11037
the county in which it is proposed to appropriate real property, a 11038
notice describing the real property to be taken and the purpose 11039
for which it is proposed to be taken, and such county 11040
commissioners have entered on their journal within thirty days 11041
after such service a resolution approving such appropriation.11042

       (B) Nothing contained in sections 306.30 to 306.53, 11043
inclusive, of the Revised Code authorizes a regional transit 11044
authority to appropriate any land, rights, rights-of-way, 11045
franchises, or easements belonging to the state or a municipal 11046
corporation without the consent of the state or municipal 11047
corporation, and no regional transit authority shall exercise the 11048
right of eminent domain to acquire any certificate of public 11049
convenience and necessity, or any part thereof, issued to a 11050
for-hire motor transportation companycarrier by the public 11051
utilities commission of Ohio or by the interstate commerce 11052
commission of the United Statesfederal motor carrier safety 11053
administration, or to take or disturb other property or facilities 11054
belonging to any political subdivision, public corporation, public 11055
utility, or common carrier, which property or facility is 11056
necessary and convenient in the operation of such political 11057
subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or common 11058
carrier, unless provision is made for the restoration, relocation, 11059
or duplication of such property or facility, or upon the election 11060
of such political subdivision, public corporation, public utility, 11061
or common carrier, for the payment of compensation, if any, at the 11062
sole cost of the regional transit authority, provided:11063

       (1) If any restoration or duplication of any property or 11064
facility proposed to be made under this division involves a 11065
relocation of such property or facility the new facility and 11066
location thereof shall be of at least comparable utilitarian value 11067
and effectiveness and such relocation shall not impair the ability 11068
of the public utility or common carrier to compete in its original 11069
area of operation.11070

       (2) If any restoration or duplication of any property or 11071
facility proposed to be made under this division involves a 11072
relocation of such property or facility, the regional transit 11073
authority shall acquire no interest or right in or to the 11074
appropriated property or facility until the relocated property or 11075
facility is available for use and until marketable title thereto 11076
has been transferred to the public utility or common carrier.11077

       (C) When real property is acquired which is located outside 11078
the territorial boundaries of the regional transit authority and 11079
which is removed from the tax duplicate, the regional transit 11080
authority shall pay annually to the county treasurer of the county 11081
in which such property is located, commencing with the first tax 11082
year in which such property is removed from the tax duplicate, an 11083
amount of money in lieu of taxes equal to the smaller of the 11084
following:11085

       (1) The last annual installment of taxes due from the 11086
acquired property before removal from the tax duplicate;11087

       (2) An amount equal to the difference between the combined 11088
revenue from real estate taxes of all the taxing districts in 11089
which such property is located in the tax year immediately prior 11090
to the removal of such acquired property from the tax duplicate, 11091
and either:11092

       (a) The total revenue which would be produced by the tax rate 11093
of each such taxing district in the tax year immediately prior to 11094
the removal of such acquired property from the tax duplicate, 11095
applied to the real estate tax duplicate of each of such taxing 11096
districts in each tax year subsequent to the year of removal; or11097

       (b) The combined revenue from real estate taxes of all such 11098
taxing districts in each tax year subsequent to the year of 11099
removal, whichever is the greater.11100

       The county auditor of each county in which such property is 11101
located shall apportion each such annual payment to each taxing 11102
district as if such annual payment has been levied and collected 11103
as a tax.11104

       Such annual payments shall never again be made after they 11105
have ceased.11106

       The regional transit authority may be exempted from such 11107
payment by agreement of the affected taxing district or districts 11108
in the county in which such property is located.11109

       Sec. 306.55. Beginning July 1, 2011 and until November 5, 11110
2013, the legislative authority of any municipal corporation or 11111
the board of township trustees of any township that has created or 11112
joined a regional transit authority that levies a property tax and 11113
that includes in its membership political subdivisions that are 11114
located in a county having a population of at least four hundred 11115
thousand according to the most recent federal census, may withdraw 11116
the municipal corporation or the unincorporated territory of the 11117
township from the regional transit authority in the manner 11118
provided in this section. The legislative authority of the 11119
municipal corporation or board of township trustees of the 11120
township proposing to withdraw shall adopt a resolution to submit 11121
the question of withdrawing from the regional transit authority to 11122
the electors of the territorymunicipal corporation or the 11123
unincorporated area of the township to be withdrawn and shall 11124
certify the proposal to the board of elections for the purpose of 11125
having the proposal placed on the ballot at the next general 11126
election or at a special election conducted on the day of the next 11127
primary election that occurs not less than ninety days after the 11128
resolution is certified to the board of elections.11129

        Upon certification of a proposal to the board of elections 11130
pursuant to this section, the board of elections shall make the 11131
necessary arrangements for the submission of the question to the 11132
electors of the territory to be withdrawn from the regional 11133
transit authority qualified to vote on the question, and the. For 11134
a municipal corporation, the election shall be held, canvassed, 11135
and certified in the same manner as regular elections for the 11136
election of officers of the subdivisionmunicipal corporation11137
proposing to withdraw from the regional transit authority, except 11138
that the question appearing on the ballot of a municipal 11139
corporation shall read:11140

        "Shall the territory within the ......................... 11141
(Namename of political subdivisionmunicipal corporation to be 11142
withdrawn) be withdrawn from ......................... ......... 11143
(Namename of) regional transit authority)?"11144

       For the unincorporated area of a township, the election shall 11145
be held, canvassed, and certified in the same manner as regular 11146
elections for the election of officers of the township, except 11147
that question shall only be presented to electors of the 11148
unincorporated area of the township and the question appearing on 11149
the ballot of the unincorporated area of the township shall read:11150

       "Shall the territory of the unincorporated area of ...... 11151
(name of township to be withdrawn) be withdrawn from ...... (name 11152
of regional transit authority)?"11153

       The legislative authority of a municipal corporation or board 11154
of trustees of a township, by vote of two-thirds of all members of 11155
the legislative authority or board, may adopt a resolution and 11156
certify that resolution to the board of elections for the combined 11157
purpose of withdrawing from a regional transit authority as 11158
provided in this section and levying a property tax pursuant to 11159
division (XX) of section 5705.19 of the Revised Code for a 11160
municipal corporation and section 5705.72 of the Revised Code for 11161
a township. If the questions are combined, the question appearing 11162
on the ballot shall be as provided in section 5705.252 of the 11163
Revised Code.11164

        If the question is approved by at least a majority of the 11165
electors voting on the question, the withdrawal is effective six 11166
months from the date of the certification of its passage.11167

        The board of elections to which the resolution was certified 11168
shall certify the results of the election to the board or 11169
legislative authority of the subdivision that submitted the 11170
resolution to withdraw and to the board of trustees of the 11171
regional transit authority from which the subdivision proposed to 11172
withdraw. If the question is approved by at least a majority of 11173
the electors voting on the question, the municipal corporation's 11174
or unincorporated area of the township's membership in the 11175
regional transit authority terminates on the thirty-first day of 11176
December of the calendar year in which the election is held.11177

        If the question of withdrawing from the regional transit 11178
authority is approved, the power of the regional transit authority 11179
to levy a tax on taxable property in the affected area of the11180
withdrawing subdivision terminates beginning with the tax year in 11181
which the election is held, and no taxes from the levy may be 11182
charged for collection against such property for that tax year.11183

       Sec. 307.05.  As used in this section, "emergency medical 11184
service organization" has the same meaning as in section 4765.01 11185
of the Revised Code.11186

       A board of county commissioners may operate an ambulance 11187
service organization or emergency medical service organization, 11188
or, in counties with a population of forty thousand or less, may 11189
operate a nonemergency patient transport service organization, or 11190
may enter into a contract with one or more counties, townships, 11191
municipal corporations, nonprofit corporations, joint emergency 11192
medical services districts, fire and ambulance districts, or 11193
private ambulance owners, regardless of whether such counties, 11194
townships, municipal corporations, nonprofit corporations, joint 11195
emergency medical services districts, fire and ambulance 11196
districts, or private ambulance owners are located within or 11197
without the state, in order to furnish or obtain the services of 11198
ambulance service organizations, to furnish or obtain additional 11199
services from ambulance service organizations in times of 11200
emergency, to furnish or obtain the services of emergency medical 11201
service organizations, or, in counties with a population of forty 11202
thousand or less, to furnish or obtain services of nonemergency 11203
patient transport service organizations, or may enter into a 11204
contract with any such entity to furnish or obtain the interchange 11205
of services from ambulance or emergency medical service 11206
organizations, or, within counties with a population of forty 11207
thousand or less, to furnish or obtain the interchange of services 11208
from nonemergency patient transport service organizations, within 11209
the territories of the contracting subdivisions. Except in the 11210
case of a contract with a joint emergency medical services 11211
district to obtain the services of emergency medical service 11212
organizations, such contracts shall not be entered into with a 11213
public agency or nonprofit corporation that receives more than 11214
half of its operating funds from governmental entities with the 11215
intention of directly competing with the operation of other 11216
ambulance service organizations, nonemergency patient transport 11217
service organizations, or emergency medical service organizations 11218
in the county unless the public agency or nonprofit corporation is 11219
awarded the contract after submitting the lowest and best bid to 11220
the board of county commissioners. Any county wishing to commence 11221
operation of a nonemergency patient transport service organization 11222
or wishing to enter into a contract for the first time to furnish 11223
or obtain services from a nonemergency patient transport service 11224
organization on or after March 1, 1993, including a county in 11225
which a private provider has been providing the service, shall 11226
demonstrate the need for public funding for the service to, and 11227
obtain approval from, the state board of emergency medical, fire, 11228
and transportation services or its immediate successor board prior 11229
to operating or funding the organization.11230

       When such an organization is operated by the board, the 11231
organization may be administered by the board, by the county 11232
sheriff, or by another county officer or employee designated by 11233
the board. All rules, including the determining of reasonable 11234
rates, necessary for the establishment, operation, and maintenance 11235
of such an organization shall be adopted by the board.11236

       A contract for services of an ambulance service, nonemergency 11237
patient transport service, or emergency medical service 11238
organization shall include the terms, conditions, and stipulations 11239
as agreed to by the parties to the contract. It may provide for a 11240
fixed annual charge to be paid at the times agreed upon and 11241
stipulated in the contract, or for compensation based upon a 11242
stipulated price for each run, call, or emergency or the number of 11243
persons or pieces of apparatus employed, or the elapsed time of 11244
service required in such run, call, or emergency, or any 11245
combination thereof.11246

       Sec. 307.051.  As used in this section, "emergency medical 11247
service organization" has the same meaning as in section 4766.01 11248
of the Revised Code.11249

       A board of county commissioners, by adoption of an 11250
appropriate resolution, may choose to have the Ohiostate board of 11251
emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices license 11252
any emergency medical service organization it operates. If a board 11253
adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code, 11254
except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, 11255
applies to the county emergency medical service organization. All 11256
rules adopted under the applicable sections of that chapter also 11257
apply to the organization. A board, by adoption of an appropriate 11258
resolution, may remove its emergency medical service organization 11259
from the jurisdiction of the Ohiostate board of emergency11260
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices.11261

       Sec. 307.055.  (A) Subject to the terms and conditions of the 11262
joint resolution creating it, each joint emergency medical 11263
services district may furnish ambulance services and emergency 11264
medical services by one of the following methods:11265

       (1) By operating an emergency medical service organization as 11266
defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code;11267

       (2) By contracting for the operation of one or more 11268
facilities pursuant to division (C) or (D) of this section;11269

       (3) By providing necessary services and equipment to the 11270
district either directly or under a contract entered into pursuant 11271
to division (B) of this section;11272

       (4) By providing service through any combination of methods 11273
described in divisions (A)(1) to (3) of this section.11274

       (B) In order to obtain ambulance service, to obtain 11275
additional ambulance service in times of emergency, or to obtain 11276
emergency medical services, a joint emergency medical services 11277
district may enter into a contract, for a period not to exceed 11278
three years, with one or more counties, townships, municipal 11279
corporations, joint fire districts, other governmental units that 11280
provide ambulance service or emergency medical services, nonprofit 11281
corporations, or private ambulance owners, regardless of whether 11282
the entities contracted with are located within or outside this 11283
state, upon such terms as are agreed to, to furnish or receive 11284
ambulance services or the interchange of ambulance services or 11285
emergency medical services within the several territories of the 11286
contracting subdivisions, if the contract is first authorized by 11287
all boards of trustees and legislative authorities in the 11288
territories to be served.11289

       Such a contract may provide for a fixed annual charge to be 11290
paid at the times agreed upon and stipulated in the contract; or 11291
for compensation based on a stipulated price for each run, call, 11292
or emergency or based on the elapsed time of service required for 11293
each run, call, or emergency, or based on any combination of 11294
these.11295

       Expenditures of a district for ambulance service or emergency 11296
medical service, whether pursuant to contract or otherwise, are 11297
lawful expenditures, regardless of whether the district or the 11298
party with which it contracts charges an additional fee to users 11299
of the service.11300

       (C) The board of trustees may enter into a contract with any 11301
person, municipal corporation, township, or other political 11302
subdivision, and any political subdivision may contract with the 11303
board, for the operation and maintenance of emergency medical 11304
services facilities regardless of whether the facilities used are 11305
owned or leased by the district, by another political subdivision, 11306
or by the contractor.11307

       (D) The district may purchase, lease, and maintain all 11308
materials, buildings, land, and equipment, including vehicles, the 11309
board considers necessary for the district.11310

       When the board finds, by resolution, that the district has 11311
personal property that is not needed for public use, or is 11312
obsolete or unfit for the use for which it was acquired, the board 11313
may dispose of the property in the same manner as provided in 11314
section 307.12 of the Revised Code.11315

       (E) Except in the case of a contract with a board of county 11316
commissioners for the provision of services of an emergency 11317
medical service organization, any contract entered into by a joint 11318
emergency medical services district shall conform to the same 11319
bidding requirements that apply to county contracts under sections 11320
307.86 to 307.92 of the Revised Code.11321

       (F) A county participating in a joint district may contribute 11322
any of its rights or interests in real or personal property, 11323
including money, and may contribute services to the district. Any 11324
such contributions shall be made by a written agreement between 11325
the contributing county and the district, specifying the 11326
contribution as well as the rights of the participating counties 11327
in the contributed property. Written agreements shall also be 11328
prepared specifying the rights of participating counties in 11329
property acquired by the district other than by contribution of a 11330
participating county. Written agreements required by this division 11331
may be amended only by written agreement of all parties to the 11332
original agreement.11333

       (G) A district's board of trustees, by adoption of an 11334
appropriate resolution, may choose to have the Ohiostate board of 11335
emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices license 11336
any emergency medical service organization the district operates. 11337
If a board adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised 11338
Code, except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, 11339
applies to the district emergency medical service organization. 11340
All rules adopted under the applicable sections of that chapter 11341
also apply to the organization. A board, by adoption of an 11342
appropriate resolution, may remove the district emergency medical 11343
service organization from the jurisdiction of the Ohiostate board 11344
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices.11345

       Sec. 313.121.  (A) As used in this section, "parent" means 11346
either parent, except that if one parent has been designated the 11347
residential parent and legal custodian of the child, "parent" 11348
means the designated residential parent and legal custodian, and 11349
if a person other than a parent is the child's legal guardian, 11350
"parent" means the legal guardian.11351

       (B) If a child under two years of age dies suddenly when in 11352
apparent good health, the death shall be reported immediately to 11353
the coroner of the county in which the death occurred, as required 11354
by section 313.12 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in 11355
division (C) of this section, the coroner or deputy coroner shall 11356
perform an autopsy on the child. The autopsy shall be performed in 11357
accordance with public health council rules adopted by the 11358
director of health under section 313.122 of the Revised Code. The 11359
coroner or deputy coroner may perform research procedures and 11360
tests when performing the autopsy.11361

       (C) A coroner or deputy coroner is not required to perform an 11362
autopsy if the coroner of the county in which the death occurred 11363
or a court with jurisdiction over the deceased body determines 11364
under section 313.131 of the Revised Code that an autopsy is 11365
contrary to the religious beliefs of the child. If the coroner or 11366
the court makes such a determination, the coroner shall notify the 11367
health district or department of health with jurisdiction in the 11368
area in which the child's parent resides. For purposes of this 11369
division, the religious beliefs of the parents of a child shall be 11370
considered to be the religious beliefs of the child.11371

       (D) If the child's parent makes a written or verbal request 11372
for the preliminary results of the autopsy after the results are 11373
available, the coroner, or a person designated by himthe coroner, 11374
shall give the parent an oral statement of the preliminary 11375
results.11376

       The coroner, within a reasonable time after the final results 11377
of the autopsy are reported, shall send written notice of the 11378
results to the state department of health, the health district or 11379
department with jurisdiction in the area in which the child's 11380
parent resides, and, upon the request of a parent of the child, to 11381
the child's attending physician. Upon the written request of a 11382
parent of the child and the payment of the transcript fee required 11383
by section 313.10 of the Revised Code, the coroner shall send 11384
written notice of the final results to that parent. The notice 11385
sent to the state department of health shall include all of the 11386
information specified by rule of the public health councilin 11387
rules adopted under section 313.122 of the Revised Code.11388

       (E) On the occurrence of any of the following, the health 11389
district or department with jurisdiction in the area in which the 11390
child's parent resides shall offer the parent any counseling or 11391
other supportive services it has available:11392

       (1) When it learns through any source that an autopsy is 11393
being performed on a child under two years of age who died 11394
suddenly when in apparent good health;11395

       (2) When it receives notice that the final result of an 11396
autopsy performed pursuant to this section concluded that the 11397
child died of sudden infant death syndrome;11398

       (3) When it is notified by the coroner that, pursuant to 11399
division (C) of this section, an autopsy was not performed.11400

       (F) When a health district or department receives notice that 11401
the final result of an autopsy performed pursuant to this section 11402
concluded that the child died of sudden infant death syndrome or 11403
that, pursuant to division (C) of this section, an autopsy was not 11404
performed but sudden infant death syndrome may have been the cause 11405
of death, it shall offer the child's parent information about 11406
sudden infant death syndrome. The state department of health shall 11407
ensure that current information on sudden infant death syndrome is 11408
available for distribution by health districts and departments.11409

       Sec. 313.122.  The publicdirector of health council, after 11410
reviewing and considering any recommendations made by the Ohio 11411
state coroners association, shall adopt rules in accordance with 11412
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing a protocol governing 11413
the performance of autopsies under section 313.121 of the Revised 11414
Code. The rules shall specify the information derived from an 11415
autopsy that a coroner is required to report to the state 11416
department of health. The public health councildirector shall not 11417
amend the rules adopted under this section unless it notifies the 11418
Ohio state coroners association of the proposed changes and 11419
consults with the association.11420

       Sec. 313.16.  In counties where no coroner's laboratory has 11421
been established or where the coroner's laboratory does not have 11422
the equipment or personnel to follow the protocol established by 11423
rule ofin rules adopted by the publicdirector of health council 11424
adopted under section 313.122 of the Revised Code, the coroner may 11425
request a coroner of a county in which such a laboratory is 11426
established or that has a laboratory able to follow the public 11427
health council'sdirector's protocol to perform necessary 11428
laboratory examinations, the cost of which shall be no greater 11429
than the actual value of the services of technicians and the 11430
materials used in performing such examination. Money derived from 11431
the fees paid for these examinations shall be kept in a special 11432
fund, for the use of the coroner's laboratory, from which fund 11433
replacements can be made. Such funds shall be used to purchase 11434
necessary supplies and equipment for the laboratory and to pay any 11435
associated costs incurred in the administration of this section at 11436
the coroner's discretion.11437

       Sec. 329.01.  In each county, except as provided in section 11438
329.40 of the Revised Code, there shall be a county department of 11439
job and family services which, when so established, shall be 11440
governed by this chapter. The department shall consist of a county 11441
director of job and family services appointed by the board of 11442
county commissioners, and such assistants and other employees as 11443
are necessary for the efficient performance of the functions of 11444
the county department. Before entering upon the discharge of the 11445
director's official duties, the director shall give a bond, 11446
conditioned for the faithful performance of those official duties, 11447
in such sum as fixed by the board. The director may require any 11448
assistant or employee under the director's jurisdiction to give a 11449
bond in such sum as determined by the board. All bonds given under 11450
this section shall be with a surety or bonding company authorized 11451
to do business in this state, conditioned for the faithful 11452
performance of the duties of such director, assistant, or 11453
employee. The expense or premium for any bond required by this 11454
section shall be paid from the appropriation for administrative 11455
expenses of the department. Such bond shall be deposited with the 11456
county treasurer and kept in the treasurer's office.11457

       As used in the Revised Code:11458

       (A) "County department of job and family services" means the 11459
county department of job and family services established under 11460
this section, including an entity designated a county department 11461
of job and family services under section 307.981 of the Revised 11462
Code, or thea joint county department of job and family services 11463
established under section 329.40 of the Revised Code.11464

       (B) "County director of job and family services" means the 11465
county director of job and family services appointed under this 11466
section or under section 329.41 of the Revised Code. 11467

       Sec. 329.40.  (A)(1) The boards of county commissioners of 11468
theany two or more counties of Hocking, Ross, and Vinton, by 11469
entering into a written agreement, may form a joint county 11470
department of job and family services to perform the duties, 11471
provide the services, and operate the programs required under this 11472
chapter. The formation of this joint county department of job and 11473
family services is a pilot project. The agreement shall be 11474
ratified by resolution of the board of county commissioners of 11475
each county that entered into the agreement. Each board of county 11476
commissioners that enters into thean agreement shall give notice 11477
of the agreement to the Ohio department of job and family services 11478
at least ninety days before the agreement's effective date. The 11479
agreement shall take effect not earlier than the first day of the 11480
calendar quarter following the ninety-day notice period. The 11481
director of job and family services shall adopt, as an internal 11482
management rule under section 111.15 of the Revised Code, the form 11483
in which the notice shall be given.11484

        (2) The boards of county commissioners of the counties 11485
forming thea joint county department shall constitute, 11486
collectively, the board of directors of the joint county 11487
department of job and family services. On the effective date of 11488
the agreement, the board of directors shall take control of and 11489
manage the joint county department subject to this chapter and all 11490
other sections of the Revised Code that govern the authority and 11491
responsibilities of a single board of county commissioners in the 11492
operation of a single county department of job and family 11493
services.11494

       (B)(1) TheAn agreement to establish thea joint county 11495
department shall specify all of the following:11496

       (a) The obligations of each board of county commissioners in 11497
operating the joint county department, including requiring each 11498
board to provide state, federal, and county funds to the operation 11499
of the joint county department and the schedule for provision of 11500
those funds;11501

       (b) How and which facilities, equipment, and personnel will 11502
be shared;11503

       (c) Procedures for the division of resources and obligations 11504
should a countyif one or more counties withdraw from the joint 11505
county department, or should the department ceaseceases to exist;11506

       (d) Any contributions of participating counties establishing 11507
the joint county department and the rights of those counties in 11508
lands or personal property, or rights or interests therein, 11509
contributed to or otherwise acquired by the joint county 11510
department.11511

       (2) TheAn agreement to establish thea joint county 11512
department may set forth any or all of the following:11513

       (a) Quality, timeliness, and other standards to be met by 11514
each county;11515

       (b) Which family service programs and functions are to be 11516
included in the joint county department;11517

       (c) Procedures for the operation of the board of directors, 11518
including procedures governing the frequency of meetings and the 11519
number of members of the board required to constitute a quorum to 11520
take action;11521

       (d) Any other procedures or standards necessary for the joint 11522
county department to perform its duties and operate efficiently.11523

       (C) TheAn agreement may be amended by a majority vote of the 11524
board of directors of the joint county department, but no 11525
amendment shall divest a participating county of any right or 11526
interest in lands or personal property without its consent.11527

       (D) Costs incurred in operating thea joint county department 11528
shall be paid from a joint general fund created by the board of 11529
directors, except as may be otherwise provided in the agreement.11530

       Sec. 329.41.  (A) The board of directors of thea joint 11531
county department of job and family services formed under section 11532
329.40 of the Revised Code shall appoint and fix the compensation 11533
of athe director of the department. The director shall serve at 11534
the pleasure of the board of directors. Under the direction and 11535
control of the board, the director shall have full charge of the 11536
department as set forth in section 329.02 of the Revised Code for 11537
the director of a single county department of job and family 11538
services.11539

       (B) The board of directors may appoint up to three 11540
administrators to oversee services provided by the joint county 11541
department. Administrators shall be in the unclassified service.11542

       (C) Employees of thea joint county department of job and 11543
family services shall be appointed by the director of the joint 11544
county department and, except as provided in this section, shall 11545
be in the classified service. The employees of thea joint county 11546
department shall be considered county employees for the purposes 11547
of Chapter 124. of the Revised Code and other provisions of state 11548
law applicable to county employees. Instead of or in addition to 11549
appointing these employees, thea board of directors may agree to 11550
use the employees of one or more of the counties that formed thea11551
joint county department in the service of the joint county 11552
department and to share in their compensation in any manner that 11553
may be agreed upon.11554

       (D) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, if 11555
an employee's separation from county service occurs in connection 11556
with a county joining or withdrawing from thea joint county 11557
department of job and family services, the board of county 11558
commissioners that initially appointed the employee shall have no 11559
obligation to pay any compensation with respect to unused vacation 11560
or sick leave accrued to the credit of the employee if the 11561
employee accepts employment with the joint county department or a 11562
withdrawing county. At the effective time of separation from 11563
county service, the joint county department or the withdrawing 11564
county, as the case may be, shall assume such unused vacation and 11565
sick leave accrued to the employee's credit.11566

       Sec. 329.42.  The county auditor of the county with the 11567
largest population that formed thea joint county department of 11568
job and family services under section 329.40 of the Revised Code 11569
shall serve as the fiscal officer of the joint county department, 11570
and the county treasurer of that county shall serve as the 11571
treasurer of the joint county department, unless the counties that 11572
formed the joint county department agree to appoint the county 11573
auditor and county treasurer of another county that formed the 11574
department. In either case, these county officers shall perform 11575
any applicable duties for the joint county department as each 11576
typically performs for the county of which the individual is an 11577
officer. The board of directors of the joint county department may 11578
pay to that county any amount agreed upon by the board of 11579
directors and the board of county commissioners of that county to 11580
reimburse the county for the costs that are properly allocable to 11581
the service of its officers as fiscal officer and treasurer of the 11582
joint county department.11583

       Sec. 329.43.  (A) The prosecuting attorney of the county with 11584
the largest population that formed thea joint county department 11585
of job and family services under section 329.40 of the Revised 11586
Code shall serve as the legal advisor of the board of directors of 11587
the joint county department, unless the counties that formed the 11588
joint county department agree to appoint the prosecuting attorney 11589
of another county that formed the joint county department as legal 11590
advisor of the board. The board of directors may pay to the county 11591
of the prosecuting attorney who is the legal advisor of the board 11592
any amount agreed upon by the board of directors and the board of 11593
county commissioners of that county to reimburse that county for 11594
the costs that are properly allocable to the service of its 11595
prosecuting attorney as the legal advisor of the board of 11596
directors.11597

       (B) The prosecuting attorney shall provide such services to 11598
the board of directors as are required or authorized to be 11599
provided to other county boards under Chapter 309. of the Revised 11600
Code.11601

       (C)(1) If the board of directors of thea joint county 11602
department wishes to employ other legal counsel on an annual basis 11603
to serve as the board's legal advisor in place of the prosecuting 11604
attorney, the board may do so with the agreement of the 11605
prosecuting attorney. If the prosecuting attorney does not agree, 11606
the board of directors may apply to the court of common pleas of 11607
the county with the largest population that formed the joint 11608
county department for authority to employ other legal counsel on 11609
an annual basis.11610

       (2) If the board of directors of thea joint county 11611
department wishes to employ other legal counsel to represent or 11612
advise the board on a particular matter in place of the 11613
prosecuting attorney, the board may do so with the agreement of 11614
the prosecuting attorney. If the prosecuting attorney does not 11615
agree, the board of directors may apply to the court of common 11616
pleas of the county with the largest population that formed the 11617
joint county department for authority to employ other legal 11618
counsel for that particular matter.11619

       (3) The prosecuting attorney who is the legal advisor of the 11620
board of directors shall be given notice of an application filed 11621
under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section and shall be afforded 11622
an opportunity to be heard. After the hearing, the court may 11623
authorize the board of directors to employ other legal counsel on 11624
an annual basis or for a particular matter only if it finds that 11625
the prosecuting attorney refuses or is unable to provide the legal 11626
services that the board requires. If the board of directors 11627
employs other legal counsel on an annual basis or for a particular 11628
matter, the board may not require the prosecuting attorney to 11629
provide legal advice, opinions, or other legal services during the 11630
period or to the extent that the board employs the other legal 11631
counsel.11632

       Sec. 329.44.  (A) AThe board of directors of thea joint 11633
county department of job and family services formed under section 11634
329.40 of the Revised Code may acquire, by purchase or lease, real 11635
property, equipment, and systems to improve, maintain, or operate 11636
family service programs within the territory served by the joint 11637
county department. A board of county commissioners may acquire, 11638
within its county, real property or any estate, interest, or right 11639
therein, by appropriation or any other method, for use by the 11640
joint county department in connection with its provision of 11641
services. Appropriation proceedings shall be conducted in 11642
accordance with Chapter 163. of the Revised Code.11643

       (B) A board of county commissioners that formed thea joint 11644
county department may contribute lands or rights or interests 11645
therein, money, other personal property or rights or interests 11646
therein, or services to the joint county department. The board of 11647
county commissioners may issue bonds or bond anticipation notes of 11648
the county to pay the cost of acquiring real property and of 11649
constructing, modifying, or upgrading a facility to house 11650
employees of the joint county department. The board of directors 11651
of thea joint county department may reimburse the county for the 11652
use of such a facility if it is required to do so under the 11653
agreement entered into under section 329.40 of the Revised Code.11654

       Sec. 329.45.  (A)(1) A board of county commissioners that has 11655
entered into an agreement under section 329.40 of the Revised Code 11656
establishing a joint county department of job and family services11657
may passadopt a resolution requesting to withdraw from the 11658
agreement establishing the joint county department of job and 11659
family services formed under section 329.40 of the Revised Code. 11660
Upon adopting such a resolution, the board of county commissioners 11661
shall deliver a copy of the resolution to the board of directors 11662
of the joint county department. Upon receiving the resolution, the 11663
board of directors shall deliver written notice of the requested 11664
withdrawal to the boards of county commissioners of the other 11665
county or counties that formed the joint county department. Within11666
Not later than thirty days after receiving the notice, each of 11667
those boards of county commissioners shall adopt a resolution 11668
either accepting the withdrawal or objecting to the withdrawal, 11669
and shall deliver a copy of the resolution to the board of 11670
directors.11671

       (2) If any of the boards of county commissioners that formed 11672
thea joint county department adopts a resolution objecting to the 11673
requested withdrawal, the board of directors shall deliver written 11674
notice of the objection to each other board of county 11675
commissioners of the counties that formed the joint county 11676
department, including the board of county commissioners of the 11677
county proposing withdrawal, and shall schedule. Not later than 11678
thirty days after sending the notice, the board of directors shall 11679
hold a meeting of the board of directors to be held within thirty 11680
days to discuss the objection. After the meeting, the board of 11681
directors shall determine whether the county requesting withdrawal 11682
desires to proceed with the withdrawal and, if the county does, 11683
the board of directors shall accept the withdrawal. Not later than 11684
thirty days after the determination was made, the board of 11685
directors shall deliver written notice of the withdrawal to the 11686
boards of county commissioners that formed the joint county 11687
department and to the board of county commissioners that requested 11688
withdrawal, and shall commence the withdrawal process under this 11689
section.11690

       (3) If all of the boards of county commissioners that formed 11691
thea joint county department, except for the board of county 11692
commissioners requesting the withdrawal, each adopt a resolution 11693
accepting the withdrawal, the board of directors shall declare the 11694
withdrawal to be accepted. Not later than thirty days after the 11695
declaration, the board of directors shall deliver written notice 11696
of the withdrawal to all of the boards of county commissioners 11697
that formed the joint county department, including the board of 11698
county commissioners of the county requesting withdrawal, and 11699
shall commence the withdrawal process under this section.11700

       (4) The board of directors shall give notice to the Ohio 11701
department of job and family services of the withdrawal of a 11702
county under this section at least ninety days before the 11703
withdrawal becomes final. The director of job and family services 11704
shall adopt, as an internal management rule under section 111.15 11705
of the Revised Code, the form in which the notice shall be given.11706

        (5) If a county requesting to withdraw decides to remain as a 11707
party to the agreement establishing thea joint county department, 11708
the board of county commissioners of that county shall rescind its 11709
original resolution requesting withdrawal and shall deliver a copy 11710
of the rescission to the board of directors of the joint county 11711
department withinnot later than thirty days after adopting the 11712
rescission.11713

       (B) If a county withdraws from thean agreement under this 11714
section, the board of directors shall ascertain, apportion, and 11715
order a division of the funds on hand, credits, and real and 11716
personal property of the joint county department, either in money 11717
or in kind, on an equitable basis between the joint county 11718
department and the withdrawing county according to the agreement 11719
entered into under section 329.40 of the Revised Code and 11720
consistent with any prior contributions of the withdrawing county 11721
to the joint county department. Any debt incurred individually 11722
shall remain the responsibility of that county, unless otherwise 11723
specified in the agreement establishing the joint county 11724
department.11725

       (C) A withdrawal becomes final not earlier than the first day 11726
of the calendar quarter following the ninety-day notice period 11727
required by division (A)(4) of this section. On and after that 11728
day, the withdrawing county ceases to be a part of the joint 11729
county department, and its members of the board of directors shall 11730
cease to be members of that board.11731

       (D) If the withdrawal of one or more counties would leave 11732
only one county participating in thea joint county department, 11733
the board of directors shall ascertain, apportion, and order a 11734
final division of the funds on hand, credits, and real and 11735
personal property of the joint county department. On and after the 11736
day on which the latest withdrawal of a county becomes final, the 11737
joint county department is dissolved. When thea joint county 11738
department is dissolved and any indebtedness remains unpaid, the 11739
boards of county commissioners that formed the joint county 11740
department shall pay the indebtedness of the joint county 11741
department in the amounts established by the agreement at the time 11742
the indebtedness was incurred.11743

       Sec. 329.46.  (A) A board of county commissioners that formed 11744
thea joint county department of job and family services under 11745
section 329.40 of the Revised Code, by adopting a resolution, may 11746
propose the removal of another county that formed the joint county 11747
department. The board of county commissioners shall send a copy of 11748
such a resolution to the board of directors of the joint county 11749
department. WithinNot later than ten days after receiving the 11750
copy of the resolution, the board of directors shall send a copy 11751
of the resolution to each board of county commissioners that 11752
formed the joint county department, except the board of county 11753
commissioners proposing removal. WithinNot later than thirty days 11754
after sending a copy of the resolution, the board of directors 11755
shall hold a hearing at which any county commissioner whose county 11756
formed the joint county department may present arguments for or 11757
against the removal. At the hearing, approval or disapproval of 11758
the removal shall be determined by a two-thirds vote of the county 11759
commissioners of the counties that formed the joint county 11760
department, with the exception of the county commissioners of the 11761
county proposed for removal.11762

       (B) The board of directors of thea joint county department 11763
of job and family services, by adopting a resolution by a majority 11764
vote of the members of the board, may propose removal of a county 11765
that formed the joint county department. WithinNot later than ten 11766
days after adopting such a resolution, the board of directors 11767
shall send a copy of the resolution to the board of county 11768
commissioners of each county that formed the joint county 11769
department, including the board of county commissioners of the 11770
county proposed for removal. WithinNot later than thirty days 11771
after sending the copy of the resolution, the board of directors 11772
shall hold a hearing at which any member of the board may present 11773
arguments for or against the removal. At this hearing, approval or 11774
disapproval of the resolution proposing removal shall be 11775
determined by a two-thirds vote of the members of the board of 11776
directors, with the exception of the board members who represent 11777
the county proposed for removal.11778

       (C) If removal of a county is approved under this section, 11779
the board of directors shall give written notice of the approval 11780
to the Ohio department of job and family services at least ninety 11781
days before the removal takes effect. The director of job and 11782
family services shall adopt, as an internal management rule under 11783
section 111.15 of the Revised Code, the form in which the notice 11784
shall be given.11785

        (D) Removal of a county under this section shall take effect 11786
not earlier than the first day of the calendar quarter following 11787
the ninety-day notice period required by division (C) of this 11788
section.11789

        (E) If, at any time, the county proposed for removal under 11790
division (A) or (B) of this section notifies the board of 11791
directors, by a majority vote of that county's board of county 11792
commissioners, that it chooses to withdraw from the joint county 11793
department, the withdrawal procedure established under section 11794
329.45 of the Revised Code shall be put immediately into motion.11795

       Sec. 330.04.  If, for the purpose of Chapter 6301. of the 11796
Revised Code, a county is the type of local area defined in 11797
division (A)(2) of section 6301.01 of the Revised Code, the board 11798
of county commissioners serving the county shall adopt a 11799
resolution establishing or designating a workforce development 11800
agency to provide workforce development activities for the county. 11801
The board shall adopt the resolution not later than July 1, 2000. 11802

       The board may establish or designate any of the following as 11803
the workforce development agency:11804

       (A) The county department of job and family services;11805

       (B) A separate agency under the direct control of the board 11806
and administered by an official appointed by the board;11807

       (C) An entity serving the county on the effective date of 11808
this sectionMarch 14, 2000, in a capacity similar to the capacity 11809
in which a workforce development agency is to serve the county on 11810
and after the effective date of this sectionMarch 14, 2000;11811

       (D) An entity located in or outside the county that provides 11812
workforce development activities in the county on the effective 11813
date of this sectionMarch 14, 2000;11814

       (E) Any private or government entity designated under section 11815
307.981 of the Revised Code;11816

       (F) TheA joint county department of job and family services 11817
established under section 329.40 of the Revised Code.11818

       Sec. 339.091.  Before the board of county commissioners, 11819
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 11820
may enter into an initial agreement for the acquisition, 11821
operation, or lease under section 140.03, 140.05, 339.09, or 11822
339.14 of the Revised Code of a county hospital operated by a 11823
board of county hospital trustees under section 339.06 of the 11824
Revised Code, the board of county commissioners shall review the 11825
agreement. If it finds that the agreement will meet the needs of 11826
the residents of the county for hospital service, the board of 11827
county commissioners may adopt a resolution authorizing the board 11828
of county commissioners, board of county hospital trustees, or 11829
county hospital commission to enter into the agreement. On 11830
adoption of the resolution, the board of county commissioners, 11831
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 11832
may enter into the agreement.11833

       The requirements of this section do not apply to an agreement 11834
if one or more hospitals classified as general hospitals by the 11835
publicdirector of health council under section 3701.07 of the 11836
Revised Code are operating in the same county as the county 11837
hospital.11838

       Sec. 340.03.  (A) Subject to rules issued by the director of 11839
mental health after consultation with relevant constituencies as 11840
required by division (L) of section 5119.06 of the Revised Code, 11841
with regard to mental health services, the board of alcohol, drug 11842
addiction, and mental health services shall:11843

       (1) Serve as the community mental health planning agency for 11844
the county or counties under its jurisdiction, and in so doing it 11845
shall:11846

       (a) Evaluate the need for facilities and community mental 11847
health services;11848

       (b) In cooperation with other local and regional planning and 11849
funding bodies and with relevant ethnic organizations, assess the 11850
community mental health needs, set priorities, and develop plans 11851
for the operation of facilities and community mental health 11852
services;11853

       (c) In accordance with guidelines issued by the director of 11854
mental health after consultation with board representatives, 11855
annually develop and submit to the department of mental health a 11856
community mental health plan listing community mental health 11857
needs, including the needs of all residents of the district now 11858
residing in state mental institutions and severely mentally 11859
disabled adults, children, and adolescents; all children subject 11860
to a determination made pursuant to section 121.38 of the Revised 11861
Code; and all the facilities and community mental health services 11862
that are or will be in operation or provided during the period for 11863
which the plan will be in operation in the service district to 11864
meet such needs.11865

       The plan shall include, but not be limited to, a statement of 11866
which of the services listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code 11867
the board intends to make available. The board must include crisis 11868
intervention services for individuals in an emergency situation in 11869
the plan and explain how the board intends to make such services 11870
available. The plan must also include a statement of the inpatient 11871
and community-based services the board proposes that the 11872
department operate, an assessment of the number and types of 11873
residential facilities needed, such other information as the 11874
department requests, and a budget for moneys the board expects to 11875
receive. The department shall approve or disapprove the plan, in 11876
whole or in part, according to the criteria developed pursuant to 11877
section 5119.61 of the Revised Code. The department's statement of 11878
approval or disapproval shall specify the inpatient and the 11879
community-based services that the department will operate for the 11880
board. Eligibility for state and federal funding shall be 11881
contingent upon an approved plan or relevant part of a plan. 11882

       If a board determines that it is necessary to amend a plan or 11883
an allocation request that has been approved under division 11884
(A)(1)(c) of this section, the board shall submit a proposed 11885
amendment to the director. The director may approve or disapprove 11886
all or part of the amendment. The director shall inform the board 11887
of the reasons for disapproval of all or part of an amendment and 11888
of the criteria that must be met before the amendment may be 11889
approved. The director shall provide the board an opportunity to 11890
present its case on behalf of the amendment. The director shall 11891
give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria, 11892
and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the 11893
criteria.11894

       The board shall implement the plan approved by the 11895
department.11896

       (d) Promote, arrange, and implement working agreements with 11897
social agencies, both public and private, and with judicial 11898
agencies.11899

       (2) Investigate, or request another agency to investigate, 11900
any complaint alleging abuse or neglect of any person receiving 11901
services from a community mental health agency as defined in 11902
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, or fromalleging abuse or 11903
neglect of a person with mental illness or severe mental 11904
disability residing in a residential facility licensed under 11905
section 5119.22 of the Revised Code. If the investigation 11906
substantiates the charge of abuse or neglect, the board shall take 11907
whatever action it determines is necessary to correct the 11908
situation, including notification of the appropriate authorities. 11909
Upon request, the board shall provide information about such 11910
investigations to the department.11911

       (3) For the purpose of section 5119.611 of the Revised Code, 11912
cooperate with the director of mental health in visiting and 11913
evaluating whether the services of a community mental health 11914
agency satisfy the certification standards established by rules 11915
adopted under that section;11916

       (4) In accordance with criteria established under division 11917
(E) of section 5119.61 of the Revised Code, review and evaluate 11918
the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided 11919
through its community mental health plan and submit its findings 11920
and recommendations to the department of mental health;11921

       (5) In accordance with section 5119.22 of the Revised Code, 11922
review applicationsan application for a residential facility 11923
licenseslicense and recommendprovide to the department of 11924
mental health approval or disapproval of applicationsany 11925
information about the applicant or facility that the board would 11926
like the department to consider in reviewing the application;11927

       (6) Audit, in accordance with rules adopted by the auditor of 11928
state pursuant to section 117.20 of the Revised Code, at least 11929
annually all programs and services provided under contract with 11930
the board. In so doing, the board may contract for or employ the 11931
services of private auditors. A copy of the fiscal audit report 11932
shall be provided to the director of mental health, the auditor of 11933
state, and the county auditor of each county in the board's 11934
district.11935

       (7) Recruit and promote local financial support for mental 11936
health programs from private and public sources;11937

       (8)(a) Enter into contracts with public and private 11938
facilities for the operation of facility services included in the 11939
board's community mental health plan and enter into contracts with 11940
public and private community mental health agencies for the 11941
provision of community mental health services that are listed in 11942
section 340.09 of the Revised Code and included in the board's 11943
community mental health plan. The board may not contract with a 11944
community mental health agency to provide community mental health 11945
services included in the board's community mental health plan 11946
unless the services are certified by the director of mental health 11947
under section 5119.611 of the Revised Code. Section 307.86 of the 11948
Revised Code does not apply to contracts entered into under this 11949
division. In contracting with a community mental health agency, a 11950
board shall consider the cost effectiveness of services provided 11951
by that agency and the quality and continuity of care, and may 11952
review cost elements, including salary costs, of the services to 11953
be provided. A utilization review process shall be established as 11954
part of the contract for services entered into between a board and 11955
a community mental health agency. The board may establish this 11956
process in a way that is most effective and efficient in meeting 11957
local needs. Until July 1, 2012, a contract with a community 11958
mental health agency or facility, as defined in section 5111.023 11959
of the Revised Code, to provide services listed in division (B) of 11960
that section shall provide for the agency or facility to be paid 11961
in accordance with the contract entered into between the 11962
departments of job and family services and mental health under 11963
section 5111.91 of the Revised Code and any rules adopted under 11964
division (A) of section 5119.61 of the Revised Code.11965

       If either the board or a facility or community mental health 11966
agency with which the board contracts under division (A)(8)(a) of 11967
this section proposes not to renew the contract or proposes 11968
substantial changes in contract terms, the other party shall be 11969
given written notice at least one hundred twenty days before the 11970
expiration date of the contract. During the first sixty days of 11971
this one hundred twenty-day period, both parties shall attempt to 11972
resolve any dispute through good faith collaboration and 11973
negotiation in order to continue to provide services to persons in 11974
need. If the dispute has not been resolved sixty days before the 11975
expiration date of the contract, either party may request that11976
notify the department of mental health of the unresolved dispute. 11977
The director may require both parties to submit the dispute to a 11978
third party with the cost to be shared by the board and the 11979
facility or community mental health agency. The third party shall 11980
issue to the board and, the facility or agency, and the department11981
recommendations on how the dispute may be resolved twenty days 11982
prior to the expiration date of the contract, unless both parties 11983
agree to a time extension. The director shall adopt rules 11984
establishing the procedures of this dispute resolution process.11985

       (b) With the prior approval of the director of mental health, 11986
a board may operate a facility or provide a community mental 11987
health service as follows, if there is no other qualified private 11988
or public facility or community mental health agency that is 11989
immediately available and willing to operate such a facility or 11990
provide the service:11991

       (i) In an emergency situation, any board may operate a 11992
facility or provide a community mental health service in order to 11993
provide essential services for the duration of the emergency;11994

       (ii) In a service district with a population of at least one 11995
hundred thousand but less than five hundred thousand, a board may 11996
operate a facility or provide a community mental health service 11997
for no longer than one year;11998

       (iii) In a service district with a population of less than 11999
one hundred thousand, a board may operate a facility or provide a 12000
community mental health service for no longer than one year, 12001
except that such a board may operate a facility or provide a 12002
community mental health service for more than one year with the 12003
prior approval of the director and the prior approval of the board 12004
of county commissioners, or of a majority of the boards of county 12005
commissioners if the district is a joint-county district.12006

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 12007
facility or provide a community mental health service under 12008
division (A)(8)(b)(ii) or (iii) of this section unless the 12009
director determines that it is not feasible to have the department 12010
operate the facility or provide the service.12011

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 12012
facility or provide a community mental health service under 12013
division (A)(8)(b)(iii) of this section unless the director 12014
determines that the board will provide greater administrative 12015
efficiency and more or better services than would be available if 12016
the board contracted with a private or public facility or 12017
community mental health agency.12018

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 12019
facility previously operated by a person or other government 12020
entity unless the board has established to the director's 12021
satisfaction that the person or other government entity cannot 12022
effectively operate the facility or that the person or other 12023
government entity has requested the board to take over operation 12024
of the facility. The director shall not give a board approval to 12025
provide a community mental health service previously provided by a 12026
community mental health agency unless the board has established to 12027
the director's satisfaction that the agency cannot effectively 12028
provide the service or that the agency has requested the board 12029
take over providing the service.12030

       The director shall review and evaluate a board's operation of 12031
a facility and provision of community mental health service under 12032
division (A)(8)(b) of this section.12033

       Nothing in division (A)(8)(b) of this section authorizes a 12034
board to administer or direct the daily operation of any facility 12035
or community mental health agency, but a facility or agency may 12036
contract with a board to receive administrative services or staff 12037
direction from the board under the direction of the governing body 12038
of the facility or agency.12039

       (9) Approve fee schedules and related charges or adopt a unit 12040
cost schedule or other methods of payment for contract services 12041
provided by community mental health agencies in accordance with 12042
guidelines issued by the department as necessary to comply with 12043
state and federal laws pertaining to financial assistance;12044

       (10) Submit to the director and the county commissioners of 12045
the county or counties served by the board, and make available to 12046
the public, an annual report of the programs under the 12047
jurisdiction of the board, including a fiscal accounting;12048

       (11) Establish, to the extent resources are available, a 12049
community support system, which provides for treatment, support, 12050
and rehabilitation services and opportunities. The essential 12051
elements of the system include, but are not limited to, the 12052
following components in accordance with section 5119.06 of the 12053
Revised Code:12054

       (a) To locate persons in need of mental health services to 12055
inform them of available services and benefits mechanisms;12056

       (b) Assistance for clients to obtain services necessary to 12057
meet basic human needs for food, clothing, shelter, medical care, 12058
personal safety, and income;12059

       (c) Mental health care, including, but not limited to, 12060
outpatient, partial hospitalization, and, where appropriate, 12061
inpatient care;12062

       (d) Emergency services and crisis intervention;12063

       (e) Assistance for clients to obtain vocational services and 12064
opportunities for jobs;12065

       (f) The provision of services designed to develop social, 12066
community, and personal living skills;12067

       (g) Access to a wide range of housing and the provision of 12068
residential treatment and support;12069

       (h) Support, assistance, consultation, and education for 12070
families, friends, consumers of mental health services, and 12071
others;12072

       (i) Recognition and encouragement of families, friends, 12073
neighborhood networks, especially networks that include racial and 12074
ethnic minorities, churches, community organizations, and 12075
meaningful employment as natural supports for consumers of mental 12076
health services;12077

       (j) Grievance procedures and protection of the rights of 12078
consumers of mental health services;12079

       (k) Case management, which includes continual individualized 12080
assistance and advocacy to ensure that needed services are offered 12081
and procured.12082

       (12) Designate the treatment program, agency, or facility for 12083
each person involuntarily committed to the board pursuant to 12084
Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code and authorize payment for such 12085
treatment. The board shall provide the least restrictive and most 12086
appropriate alternative that is available for any person 12087
involuntarily committed to it and shall assure that the services 12088
listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code are available to 12089
severely mentally disabled persons residing within its service 12090
district. The board shall establish the procedure for authorizing 12091
payment for services, which may include prior authorization in 12092
appropriate circumstances. The board may provide for services 12093
directly to a severely mentally disabled person when life or 12094
safety is endangered and when no community mental health agency is 12095
available to provide the service.12096

       (13) Establish a method for evaluating referrals for 12097
involuntary commitment and affidavits filed pursuant to section 12098
5122.11 of the Revised Code in order to assist the probate 12099
division of the court of common pleas in determining whether there 12100
is probable cause that a respondent is subject to involuntary 12101
hospitalization and what alternative treatment is available and 12102
appropriate, if any;12103

       (14) Ensure that apartments or rooms built, subsidized, 12104
renovated, rented, owned, or leased by the board or a community 12105
mental health agency have been approved as meeting minimum fire 12106
safety standards and that persons residing in the rooms or 12107
apartments are receiving appropriate and necessary services, 12108
including culturally relevant services, from a community mental 12109
health agency. This division does not apply to residential 12110
facilities licensed pursuant to section 5119.22 of the Revised 12111
Code.12112

       (15) Establish a mechanism for involvement of consumer 12113
recommendation and advice on matters pertaining to mental health 12114
services in the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service 12115
district;12116

       (16) Perform the duties under section 5119.88 of the Revised 12117
Code required by rules adopted under section 5119.61 of the 12118
Revised Code regarding referrals by the board or mental health 12119
agencies under contract with the board of individuals with mental 12120
illness or severe mental disability to adult careresidential12121
facilities as defined in division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of 12122
the Revised Code and effective arrangements for ongoing mental 12123
health services for the individuals. The board is accountable in 12124
the manner specified in the rules for ensuring that the ongoing 12125
mental health services are effectively arranged for the 12126
individuals.12127

       (B) The board shall establish such rules, operating 12128
procedures, standards, and bylaws, and perform such other duties 12129
as may be necessary or proper to carry out the purposes of this 12130
chapter.12131

       (C) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 12132
services may receive by gift, grant, devise, or bequest any 12133
moneys, lands, or property for the benefit of the purposes for 12134
which the board is established, and may hold and apply it 12135
according to the terms of the gift, grant, or bequest. All money 12136
received, including accrued interest, by gift, grant, or bequest 12137
shall be deposited in the treasury of the county, the treasurer of 12138
which is custodian of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 12139
health services funds to the credit of the board and shall be 12140
available for use by the board for purposes stated by the donor or 12141
grantor.12142

       (D) No board member or employee of a board of alcohol, drug 12143
addiction, and mental health services shall be liable for injury 12144
or damages caused by any action or inaction taken within the scope 12145
of the board member's official duties or the employee's 12146
employment, whether or not such action or inaction is expressly 12147
authorized by this section, section 340.033, or any other section 12148
of the Revised Code, unless such action or inaction constitutes 12149
willful or wanton misconduct. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code 12150
applies to any action or inaction by a board member or employee of 12151
a board taken within the scope of the board member's official 12152
duties or employee's employment. For the purposes of this 12153
division, the conduct of a board member or employee shall not be 12154
considered willful or wanton misconduct if the board member or 12155
employee acted in good faith and in a manner that the board member 12156
or employee reasonably believed was in or was not opposed to the 12157
best interests of the board and, with respect to any criminal 12158
action or proceeding, had no reasonable cause to believe the 12159
conduct was unlawful.12160

       (E) The meetings held by any committee established by a board 12161
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall be 12162
considered to be meetings of a public body subject to section 12163
121.22 of the Revised Code.12164

       Sec. 340.05.  A community mental health agency that receives 12165
a complaint under section 5119.87 of the Revised Code alleging 12166
abuse or neglect of an individual with mental illness or severe 12167
mental disability who resides in an adult carea residential12168
facility as defined in division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of 12169
the Revised Code shall report the complaint to the board of 12170
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services serving the 12171
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district in 12172
which the adult careresidential facility is located. A board of 12173
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services that receives 12174
such a complaint or a report from a community mental health agency 12175
of such a complaint shall report the complaint to the director of 12176
mental health for the purpose of the director conducting an 12177
investigation under section 5119.875119.22 of the Revised Code. 12178
The board may enter the adult care facility with or without the 12179
director and, if the health and safety of a resident is in 12180
immediate danger, take any necessary action to protect the 12181
resident. The board's action shall not violate any resident's 12182
rights under section 5119.81 of the Revised Code andspecified in12183
rules adopted by the department of mental health under sections 12184
5119.70 to 5119.88section 5119.22 of the Revised Code. The board 12185
shall immediately report to the director regarding the board's 12186
actions under this section.12187

       Sec. 340.091.  Each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 12188
mental health services shall contract with a community mental 12189
health agency under division (A)(7)(a) of section 340.03 of the 12190
Revised Code for the agency to do all of the following in 12191
accordance with rules adopted under section 5119.61 of the Revised 12192
Code for an individual referred to the agency under division 12193
(C)(D)(2) of section 5119.69 of the Revised Code:12194

       (A) Assess the individual to determine whether to recommend 12195
that a residential state supplement administrative agency 12196
designated under section 5119.69 of the Revised Code determine12197
and, if the agency determines that the environment in which the 12198
individual will be living while receiving residential state 12199
supplement payments is appropriate for the individual's needs and, 12200
if it determines the environment is appropriate, issue thea12201
recommendation to the referring residential state supplement 12202
administrative agency that the referring agency should conclude 12203
that the living environment is appropriate when it makes its 12204
determination regarding the appropriateness of the environment;12205

       (B) Provide ongoing monitoring to ensure that services 12206
provided under section 340.09 of the Revised Code are available to 12207
the individual;12208

       (C) Provide discharge planning to ensure the individual's 12209
earliest possible transition to a less restrictive environment.12210

       Sec. 505.37.  (A) The board of township trustees may 12211
establish all necessary rules to guard against the occurrence of 12212
fires and to protect the property and lives of the citizens 12213
against damage and accidents, and may, with the approval of the 12214
specifications by the prosecuting attorney or, if the township has 12215
adopted limited home rule government under Chapter 504. of the 12216
Revised Code, with the approval of the specifications by the 12217
township's law director, purchase, lease, lease with an option to 12218
purchase, or otherwise provide any fire apparatus, mechanical 12219
resuscitators, or other equipment, appliances, materials, fire 12220
hydrants, and water supply for fire-fighting purposes that seems 12221
advisable to the board. The board shall provide for the care and 12222
maintenance of fire equipment, and, for these purposes, may 12223
purchase, lease, lease with an option to purchase, or construct 12224
and maintain necessary buildings, and it may establish and 12225
maintain lines of fire-alarm communications within the limits of 12226
the township. The board may employ one or more persons to maintain 12227
and operate fire-fighting equipment, or it may enter into an 12228
agreement with a volunteer fire company for the use and operation 12229
of fire-fighting equipment. The board may compensate the members 12230
of a volunteer fire company on any basis and in any amount that it 12231
considers equitable.12232

        When the estimated cost to purchase fire apparatus, 12233
mechanical resuscitators, other equipment, appliances, materials, 12234
fire hydrants, buildings, or fire-alarm communications equipment 12235
or services exceeds fifty thousand dollars, the contract shall be 12236
let by competitive bidding. When competitive bidding is required, 12237
the board shall advertise once a week for not less than two 12238
consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation within the 12239
township. The board may also cause notice to be inserted in trade 12240
papers or other publications designated by it or to be distributed 12241
by electronic means, including posting the notice on the board's 12242
internet web site. If the board posts the notice on its web site, 12243
it may eliminate the second notice otherwise required to be 12244
published in a newspaper of general circulation within the 12245
township, provided that the first notice published in such 12246
newspaper meets all of the following requirements: 12247

       (1) It is published at least two weeks before the opening of 12248
bids.12249

       (2) It includes a statement that the notice is posted on the 12250
board's internet web site.12251

       (3) It includes the internet address of the board's internet 12252
web site.12253

       (4) It includes instructions describing how the notice may be 12254
accessed on the board's internet web site.12255

       The advertisement shall include the time, date, and place 12256
where the clerk of the township, or the clerk's designee, will 12257
read bids publicly. The time, date, and place of bid openings may 12258
be extended to a later date by the board of township trustees, 12259
provided that written or oral notice of the change shall be given 12260
to all persons who have received or requested specifications not 12261
later than ninety-six hours prior to the original time and date 12262
fixed for the opening. The board may reject all the bids or accept 12263
the lowest and best bid, provided that the successful bidder meets 12264
the requirements of section 153.54 of the Revised Code when the 12265
contract is for the construction, demolition, alteration, repair, 12266
or reconstruction of an improvement.12267

       (B) The boards of township trustees of any two or more 12268
townships, or the legislative authorities of any two or more 12269
political subdivisions, or any combination of these, may, through 12270
joint action, unite in the joint purchase, lease, lease with an 12271
option to purchase, maintenance, use, and operation of 12272
fire-fighting equipment, or for any other purpose designated in 12273
sections 505.37 to 505.42 of the Revised Code, and may prorate the 12274
expense of the joint action on any terms that are mutually agreed 12275
upon.12276

       (C) The board of township trustees of any township may, by 12277
resolution, whenever it is expedient and necessary to guard 12278
against the occurrence of fires or to protect the property and 12279
lives of the citizens against damages resulting from their 12280
occurrence, create a fire district of any portions of the township 12281
that it considers necessary. The board may purchase, lease, lease 12282
with an option to purchase, or otherwise provide any fire 12283
apparatus, appliances, materials, fire hydrants, and water supply 12284
for fire-fighting purposes, or may contract for the fire 12285
protection for the fire district as provided in section 9.60 of 12286
the Revised Code. The fire district so created shall be given a 12287
separate name by which it shall be known.12288

       Additional unincorporated territory of the township may be 12289
added to a fire district upon the board's adoption of a resolution 12290
authorizing the addition. A municipal corporation that is within 12291
or adjoining the township may be added to a fire district upon the 12292
board's adoption of a resolution authorizing the addition and the 12293
municipal legislative authority's adoption of a resolution or 12294
ordinance requesting the addition of the municipal corporation to 12295
the fire district.12296

       If the township fire district imposes a tax, additional 12297
unincorporated territory of the township or a municipal 12298
corporation that is within or adjoining the township shall become 12299
part of the fire district only after all of the following have 12300
occurred:12301

       (1) Adoption by the board of township trustees of a 12302
resolution approving the expansion of the territorial limits of 12303
the district and, if the resolution proposes to add a municipal 12304
corporation, adoption by the municipal legislative authority of a 12305
resolution or ordinance requesting the addition of the municipal 12306
corporation to the district;12307

       (2) Adoption by the board of township trustees of a 12308
resolution recommending the extension of the tax to the additional 12309
territory;12310

       (3) Approval of the tax by the electors of the territory 12311
proposed for addition to the district.12312

       Each resolution of the board adopted under division (C)(2) of 12313
this section shall state the name of the fire district, a 12314
description of the territory to be added, and the rate and 12315
termination date of the tax, which shall be the rate and 12316
termination date of the tax currently in effect in the fire 12317
district.12318

       The board of trustees shall certify each resolution adopted 12319
under division (C)(2) of this section to the board of elections in 12320
accordance with section 5705.19 of the Revised Code. The election 12321
required under division (C)(3) of this section shall be held, 12322
canvassed, and certified in the manner provided for the submission 12323
of tax levies under section 5705.25 of the Revised Code, except 12324
that the question appearing on the ballot shall read:12325

       "Shall the territory within ........................ 12326
(description of the proposed territory to be added) be added to 12327
........................ (name) fire district, and a property tax 12328
at a rate of taxation not exceeding ...... (here insert tax rate) 12329
be in effect for .......... (here insert the number of years the 12330
tax is to be in effect or "a continuing period of time," as 12331
applicable)?"12332

       If the question is approved by at least a majority of the 12333
electors voting on it, the joinder shall be effective as of the 12334
first day of July of the year following approval, and on that 12335
date, the township fire district tax shall be extended to the 12336
taxable property within the territory that has been added. If the 12337
territory that has been added is a municipal corporation and if it 12338
had adopted a tax levy for fire purposes, the levy is terminated 12339
on the effective date of the joinder.12340

       Any municipal corporation may withdraw from a township fire 12341
district created under division (C) of this section by the 12342
adoption by the municipal legislative authority of a resolution or 12343
ordinance ordering withdrawal. On the first day of July of the 12344
year following the adoption of the resolution or ordinance of 12345
withdrawal, the municipal corporation withdrawing ceases to be a 12346
part of the district, and the power of the fire district to levy a 12347
tax upon taxable property in the withdrawing municipal corporation 12348
terminates, except that the fire district shall continue to levy 12349
and collect taxes for the payment of indebtedness within the 12350
territory of the fire district as it was composed at the time the 12351
indebtedness was incurred.12352

       Upon the withdrawal of any municipal corporation from a 12353
township fire district created under division (C) of this section, 12354
the county auditor shall ascertain, apportion, and order a 12355
division of the funds on hand, moneys and taxes in the process of 12356
collection except for taxes levied for the payment of 12357
indebtedness, credits, and real and personal property, either in 12358
money or in kind, on the basis of the valuation of the respective 12359
tax duplicates of the withdrawing municipal corporation and the 12360
remaining territory of the fire district.12361

       A board of township trustees may remove unincorporated 12362
territory of the township from the fire district upon the adoption 12363
of a resolution authorizing the removal. On the first day of July 12364
of the year following the adoption of the resolution, the 12365
unincorporated township territory described in the resolution 12366
ceases to be a part of the district, and the power of the fire 12367
district to levy a tax upon taxable property in that territory 12368
terminates, except that the fire district shall continue to levy 12369
and collect taxes for the payment of indebtedness within the 12370
territory of the fire district as it was composed at the time the 12371
indebtedness was incurred.12372

       (D) The board of township trustees of any township, the board 12373
of fire district trustees of a fire district created under section 12374
505.371 of the Revised Code, or the legislative authority of any 12375
municipal corporation may purchase, lease, or lease with an option 12376
to purchase the necessary fire-fighting equipment, buildings, and 12377
sites for the township, fire district, or municipal corporation 12378
and issue securities for that purpose with maximum maturities as 12379
provided in section 133.20 of the Revised Code. The board of 12380
township trustees, board of fire district trustees, or legislative 12381
authority may also construct any buildings necessary to house 12382
fire-fighting equipment and issue securities for that purpose with 12383
maximum maturities as provided in section 133.20 of the Revised 12384
Code.12385

        The board of township trustees, board of fire district 12386
trustees, or legislative authority may issue the securities of the 12387
township, fire district, or municipal corporation, signed by the 12388
board or designated officer of the municipal corporation and 12389
attested by the signature of the township fiscal officer, fire 12390
district clerk, or municipal clerk, covering any deferred payments 12391
and payable at the times provided, which securities shall bear 12392
interest not to exceed the rate determined as provided in section 12393
9.95 of the Revised Code, and shall not be subject to Chapter 133. 12394
of the Revised Code. The legislation authorizing the issuance of 12395
the securities shall provide for levying and collecting annually 12396
by taxation, amounts sufficient to pay the interest on and 12397
principal of the securities. The securities shall be offered for 12398
sale on the open market or given to the vendor or contractor if no 12399
sale is made.12400

       Section 505.40 of the Revised Code does not apply to any 12401
securities issued, or any lease with an option to purchase entered 12402
into, in accordance with this division.12403

       (E) A board of township trustees of any township or a board 12404
of fire district trustees of a fire district created under section 12405
505.371 of the Revised Code may purchase a policy or policies of 12406
liability insurance for the officers, employees, and appointees of 12407
the fire department, fire district, or joint fire district 12408
governed by the board that includes personal injury liability 12409
coverage as to the civil liability of those officers, employees, 12410
and appointees for false arrest, detention, or imprisonment, 12411
malicious prosecution, libel, slander, defamation or other 12412
violation of the right of privacy, wrongful entry or eviction, or 12413
other invasion of the right of private occupancy, arising out of 12414
the performance of their duties.12415

       When a board of township trustees cannot, by deed of gift or 12416
by purchase and upon terms it considers reasonable, procure land 12417
for a township fire station that is needed in order to respond in 12418
reasonable time to a fire or medical emergency, the board may 12419
appropriate land for that purpose under sections 163.01 to 163.22 12420
of the Revised Code. If it is necessary to acquire additional 12421
adjacent land for enlarging or improving the fire station, the 12422
board may purchase, appropriate, or accept a deed of gift for the 12423
land for these purposes.12424

       (F) As used in this division, "emergency medical service 12425
organization" has the same meaning as in section 4766.01 of the 12426
Revised Code.12427

       A board of township trustees, by adoption of an appropriate 12428
resolution, may choose to have the Ohiostate board of emergency12429
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices license any 12430
emergency medical service organization it operates. If the board 12431
adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code, 12432
except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, 12433
applies to the organization. All rules adopted under the 12434
applicable sections of that chapter also apply to the 12435
organization. A board of township trustees, by adoption of an 12436
appropriate resolution, may remove its emergency medical service 12437
organization from the jurisdiction of the Ohiostate board of 12438
emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices.12439

       Sec. 505.375.  (A)(1)(a) The boards of township trustees of 12440
one or more townships and the legislative authorities of one or 12441
more municipal corporations, or the legislative authorities of two 12442
or more municipal corporations, or the boards of township trustees 12443
of two or more townships, may negotiate an agreement to form a 12444
fire and ambulance district for the delivery of both fire and 12445
ambulance services. The agreement shall be ratified by the 12446
adoption of a joint resolution by a majority of the members of 12447
each board of township trustees involved and a majority of the 12448
members of the legislative authority of each municipal corporation 12449
involved. The joint resolution shall specify a date on which the 12450
fire and ambulance district shall come into being.12451

       (b) If a joint fire district created under section 505.371 of 12452
the Revised Code or a joint ambulance district created under 12453
section 505.71 of the Revised Code is dissolved to facilitate the 12454
creation of a fire and ambulance district under division (A)(1)(a) 12455
of this section, the townships and municipal corporations forming 12456
the fire and ambulance district may transfer to the fire and 12457
ambulance district any of the funds on hand, moneys and taxes in 12458
the process of collection, credits, and real and personal property 12459
apportioned to them under division (D) of section 505.371 of the 12460
Revised Code or section 505.71 of the Revised Code, as applicable, 12461
for use by the fire and ambulance district in accordance with this 12462
section.12463

       (2)(a) The board of trustees of a joint ambulance district 12464
created under section 505.71 of the Revised Code and the board of 12465
fire district trustees of a joint fire district created under 12466
section 505.371 of the Revised Code may negotiate to combine their 12467
two joint districts into a single fire and ambulance district for 12468
the delivery of both fire and ambulance services, if the 12469
geographic area covered by the combining joint districts is 12470
exactly the same. Both boards shall adopt a joint resolution 12471
ratifying the agreement and setting a date on which the fire and 12472
ambulance district shall come into being.12473

       (b) On that date, the joint fire district and the joint 12474
ambulance district shall cease to exist, and the power of each to 12475
levy a tax upon taxable property shall terminate, except that any 12476
levy of a tax for the payment of indebtedness within the territory 12477
of the joint fire or joint ambulance district as it was composed 12478
at the time the indebtedness was incurred shall continue to be 12479
collected by the successor fire and ambulance district if the 12480
indebtedness remains unpaid. All funds and other property of the 12481
joint districts shall become the property of the fire and 12482
ambulance district, unless otherwise provided in the negotiated 12483
agreement. The agreement shall provide for the settlement of all 12484
debts and obligations of the joint districts.12485

       (B)(1) The governing body of a fire and ambulance district 12486
created under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section shall be a 12487
board of trustees of at least three but no more than nine members, 12488
appointed as provided in the agreement creating the district. 12489
Members of the board may be compensated at a rate not to exceed 12490
thirty dollars per meeting for not more than fifteen meetings per 12491
year, and may be reimbursed for all necessary expenses incurred, 12492
as provided in the agreement creating the district.12493

       (2) The board shall employ a clerk and other employees as it 12494
considers best, including a fire chief or fire prevention 12495
officers, and shall fix their compensation. Neither this section 12496
nor any other section of the Revised Code requires, or shall be 12497
construed to require, that the fire chief of a fire and ambulance 12498
district be a resident of the district.12499

       Before entering upon the duties of office, the clerk shall 12500
execute a bond, in the amount and with surety to be approved by 12501
the board, payable to the state, conditioned for the faithful 12502
performance of all of the clerk's official duties. The clerk shall 12503
deposit the bond with the presiding officer of the board, who 12504
shall file a copy of it, certified by the presiding officer, with 12505
the county auditor of the county containing the most territory in 12506
the district.12507

       The board also shall provide for the appointment of a fiscal 12508
officer for the district and may enter into agreements with 12509
volunteer fire companies for the use and operation of 12510
fire-fighting equipment. Volunteer firefighters acting under such 12511
an agreement are subject to the requirements for volunteer 12512
firefighters set forth in division (A) of section 505.38 of the 12513
Revised Code.12514

       (3) Employees of the district shall not be removed from 12515
office except as provided by sections 733.35 to 733.39 of the 12516
Revised Code, except that, to initiate removal proceedings, the 12517
board shall designate a private citizen or, if the employee is 12518
employed as a firefighter, the board may designate the fire chief, 12519
to investigate, conduct the proceedings, and prepare the necessary 12520
charges in conformity with those sections, and except that the 12521
board shall perform the functions and duties specified for the 12522
municipal legislative authority under those sections. The board 12523
may pay reasonable compensation to any private citizen hired for 12524
services rendered in the matter.12525

       (4) No person shall be appointed as a permanent full-time 12526
paid member of the district whose duties include fire fighting, or 12527
be appointed as a volunteer firefighter, unless that person has 12528
received a certificate issued under former section 3303.07 or 12529
section 4765.55 of the Revised Code evidencing satisfactory 12530
completion of a firefighter training program. The board may send 12531
its officers and firefighters to schools of instruction designed 12532
to promote the efficiency of firefighters and, if authorized in 12533
advance, may pay their necessary expenses from the funds used for 12534
the maintenance and operation of the district.12535

       The board may choose, by adoption of an appropriate 12536
resolution, to have the Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 12537
fire, and transportation boardservices license any emergency 12538
medical service organization it operates. If the board adopts such 12539
a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code, except for 12540
sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, applies to the 12541
organization. All rules adopted under the applicable sections of 12542
that chapter also apply to the organization. The board may remove, 12543
by resolution, its emergency medical service organization from the 12544
jurisdiction of the Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, 12545
and transportation boardservices.12546

       (C) The board of trustees of a fire and ambulance district 12547
created under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section may exercise 12548
the following powers:12549

       (1) Purchase or otherwise provide any fire apparatus, 12550
mechanical resuscitators, or other fire or ambulance equipment, 12551
appliances, or materials; fire hydrants; and water supply for 12552
firefighting purposes that seems advisable to the board;12553

       (2) Provide for the care and maintenance of equipment and, 12554
for that purpose, purchase, lease, lease with an option to 12555
purchase, or construct and maintain necessary buildings;12556

       (3) Establish and maintain lines of fire-alarm communications 12557
within the limits of the district;12558

       (4) Appropriate land for a fire station or medical emergency 12559
unit needed in order to respond in reasonable time to a fire or 12560
medical emergency, in accordance with Chapter 163. of the Revised 12561
Code;12562

       (5) Purchase, appropriate, or accept a deed or gift of land 12563
to enlarge or improve a fire station or medical emergency unit;12564

       (6) Purchase, lease, lease with an option to purchase, 12565
maintain, and use all materials, equipment, vehicles, buildings, 12566
and land necessary to perform its duties;12567

       (7) Contract for a period not to exceed three years with one 12568
or more townships, municipal corporations, counties, joint fire 12569
districts, joint ambulance districts, governmental agencies, 12570
nonprofit corporations, or private ambulance owners located either 12571
within or outside the state, to furnish or receive ambulance 12572
services or emergency medical services within the several 12573
territories of the contracting parties, if the contract is first 12574
authorized by all boards of trustees and legislative authorities 12575
concerned;12576

       (8) Establish reasonable charges for the use of ambulance or 12577
emergency medical services under the same conditions under which a 12578
board of fire district trustees may establish those charges under 12579
section 505.371 of the Revised Code;12580

       (9) Establish all necessary rules to guard against the 12581
occurrence of fires and to protect property and lives against 12582
damage and accidents;12583

       (10) Adopt a standard code pertaining to fire, fire hazards, 12584
and fire prevention prepared and promulgated by the state or by a 12585
public or private organization that publishes a model or standard 12586
code;12587

       (11) Provide for charges for false alarms at commercial 12588
establishments in the same manner as joint fire districts are 12589
authorized to do under section 505.391 of the Revised Code;12590

       (12) Issue bonds and other evidences of indebtedness, subject 12591
to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, but only after approval by a 12592
vote of the electors of the district as provided by section 133.18 12593
of the Revised Code;12594

       (13) To provide the services and equipment it considers 12595
necessary, levy a sufficient tax, subject to Chapter 5705. of the 12596
Revised Code, on all the taxable property in the district.12597

       (D) Any municipal corporation or township may join an 12598
existing fire and ambulance district, whether created under 12599
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, by its legislative 12600
authority's adoption of a resolution requesting the membership and 12601
upon approval of the board of trustees of the district. Any 12602
municipal corporation or township may withdraw from a district, 12603
whether created under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, by 12604
its legislative authority's adoption of a resolution ordering 12605
withdrawal. Upon its withdrawal, the municipal corporation or 12606
township ceases to be a part of the district, and the district's 12607
power to levy a tax on taxable property in the withdrawing 12608
township or municipal corporation terminates, except that the 12609
district shall continue to levy and collect taxes for the payment 12610
of indebtedness within the territory of the district as it was 12611
composed at the time the indebtedness was incurred.12612

       Upon the withdrawal of any township or municipal corporation 12613
from a district, the county auditor of the county containing the 12614
most territory in the district shall ascertain, apportion, and 12615
order a division of the funds on hand, including funds in the 12616
ambulance and emergency medical services fund, moneys and taxes in 12617
the process of collection, except for taxes levied for the payment 12618
of indebtedness, credits, and real and personal property on the 12619
basis of the valuation of the respective tax duplicates of the 12620
withdrawing municipal corporation or township and the remaining 12621
territory of the district.12622

       (E) As used in this section:12623

       (1) "Governmental agency" includes all departments, boards, 12624
offices, commissions, agencies, colleges, universities, 12625
institutions, and other instrumentalities of this or another 12626
state.12627

       (2) "Emergency medical service organization" has the same 12628
meaning as in section 4766.01 of the Revised Code.12629

       Sec. 505.44.  As used in this section:12630

       (A) "Emergency medical service organization" has the same 12631
meaning as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.12632

       (B) "State agency" means all departments, boards, offices, 12633
commissions, agencies, colleges, universities, institutions, and 12634
other instrumentalities of this or another state.12635

       In order to obtain the services of ambulance service 12636
organizations, to obtain additional services from ambulance 12637
service organizations in times of emergency, to obtain the 12638
services of emergency medical service organizations, or, if the 12639
township is located in a county with a population of forty 12640
thousand or less, to obtain the services of nonemergency patient 12641
transport service organizations, a township may enter into a 12642
contract with one or more state agencies, townships, municipal 12643
corporations, counties, nonprofit corporations, joint emergency 12644
medical services districts, fire and ambulance districts, or 12645
private ambulance owners, regardless of whether such state 12646
agencies, townships, municipal corporations, counties, nonprofit 12647
corporations, joint emergency medical services districts, fire and 12648
ambulance districts, or private ambulance owners are located 12649
within or outside the state, upon such terms as are agreed to by 12650
them, to furnish or receive services from ambulance or emergency 12651
medical service organizations or, if the township is located in a 12652
county with a population of forty thousand or less, to furnish or 12653
receive services from nonemergency patient transport service 12654
organizations, or may enter into a contract for the interchange of 12655
services from ambulance or emergency medical service organizations 12656
or, if the township is located in a county with a population of 12657
forty thousand or less, the interchange of services from 12658
nonemergency patient transport service organizations, within the 12659
several territories of the contracting parties, if the contract is 12660
first authorized by the respective boards of township trustees, 12661
the other legislative bodies, or the officer or body authorized to 12662
contract on behalf of the state agency. Such contracts shall not 12663
be entered into with a state agency or nonprofit corporation that 12664
receives more than half of its operating funds from governmental 12665
entities with the intention of directly competing with the 12666
operation of other ambulance, emergency medical, or nonemergency 12667
patient transport service organizations in the township unless the 12668
state agency or nonprofit corporation is awarded the contract 12669
after submitting the lowest and best bid to the board of township 12670
trustees.12671

       The contract may provide for compensation upon such terms as 12672
the parties may agree.12673

       Any township wishing to commence providing or wishing to 12674
enter into a contract for the first time to furnish or obtain 12675
services from nonemergency patient transport service organizations 12676
on or after March 1, 1993, including a township in which a private 12677
provider has been providing the service, shall demonstrate the 12678
need for public funding for the service to, and obtain approval 12679
from, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 12680
transportation services or its immediate successor board prior to 12681
the establishment of a township-operated or township-funded 12682
service.12683

       Sec. 505.59.  The board of township trustees of a township 12684
that withdraws or proposes by resolution to withdraw the 12685
unincorporated territory of the township from a regional transit 12686
authority under section 306.55 of the Revised Code may levy a tax 12687
on taxable property in the unincorporated area of the township 12688
under section 5705.72 of the Revised Code to provide 12689
transportation services for the movement of persons within, from, 12690
or to the unincorporated area of the township.12691

       Sec. 505.72.  (A) The board of trustees of a joint ambulance 12692
district shall provide for the employment of such employees as it 12693
considers best, and shall fix their compensation. Such employees 12694
shall continue in office until removed as provided by sections 12695
733.35 to 733.39 of the Revised Code. To initiate removal 12696
proceedings, and for such purpose, the board shall designate a 12697
private citizen to investigate the conduct and prepare the 12698
necessary charges in conformity with sections 733.35 to 733.39 of 12699
the Revised Code. The board may pay reasonable compensation to 12700
such person for the person's services.12701

       In case of the removal of an employee of the district, an 12702
appeal may be had from the decision of the board to the court of 12703
common pleas of the county in which such district, or part of it, 12704
is situated, to determine the sufficiency of the cause of removal. 12705
Such appeal from the findings of the board shall be taken within 12706
ten days.12707

       (B) As used in this division, "emergency medical service 12708
organization" has the same meaning as in section 4765.01 of the 12709
Revised Code.12710

       (1) In order to obtain the services of ambulance service 12711
organizations, to obtain additional services from ambulance 12712
service organizations in times of emergency, or to obtain the 12713
services of emergency medical service organizations, a district 12714
may enter into a contract, for a period not to exceed three years, 12715
with one or more townships, municipal corporations, joint fire 12716
districts, nonprofit corporations, any other governmental unit 12717
that provides ambulance services or emergency medical services, or 12718
with private ambulance owners, regardless of whether such 12719
townships, municipal corporations, joint fire districts, nonprofit 12720
corporations, governmental unit, or private ambulance owners are 12721
located within or without this state, upon such terms as are 12722
agreed to, to furnish or receive services from ambulance or 12723
emergency medical service organizations or the interchange of 12724
services from ambulance or emergency medical service organizations 12725
within the several territories of the contracting subdivisions, if 12726
such contract is first authorized by all boards of trustees and 12727
legislative authorities concerned.12728

       The contract may provide for a fixed annual charge to be paid 12729
at the times agreed upon and stipulated in the contract, or for 12730
compensation based upon a stipulated price for each run, call, or 12731
emergency, or the elapsed time of service required in such run, 12732
call, or emergency, or any combination thereof.12733

       (2) Expenditures of a district for the services of ambulance 12734
service organizations or emergency medical service organizations, 12735
whether pursuant to contract or otherwise, are lawful 12736
expenditures, regardless of whether the district or the party with 12737
which it contracts charges additional fees to users of the 12738
services.12739

       (3) A district's board of trustees, by adoption of an 12740
appropriate resolution, may choose to have the Ohiostate board of 12741
emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices license 12742
any emergency medical service organization the district operates. 12743
If a board adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised 12744
Code, except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, 12745
applies to the district emergency medical service organization. 12746
All rules adopted under the applicable sections of that chapter 12747
also apply to the organization. A board, by adoption of an 12748
appropriate resolution, may remove the district emergency medical 12749
service organization from the jurisdiction of the Ohiostate board 12750
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices.12751

       (C) Ambulance services or emergency medical services rendered 12752
for a joint ambulance district under this section and section 12753
505.71 of the Revised Code shall be deemed services of the 12754
district. These sections do not authorize suits against a district 12755
or any township or municipal corporation providing or receiving, 12756
or contracting to provide or receive, such services under these 12757
sections for damages for injury or loss to persons or property or 12758
for wrongful death caused by persons providing such services.12759

       Sec. 705.18.  An annual appropriation ordinance shall be 12760
prepared by the legislative authority of a municipal corporation 12761
from estimates submitted by the mayor, the chairmanchairperson of 12762
the commission, or the city manager, as the case may be, in the 12763
manner provided in section 705.17 of the Revised Code for the 12764
annual tax ordinance. The annual appropriation ordinance shall be 12765
submitted to the legislative authority at its first meeting in 12766
Januaryafter the beginning of the municipal corporation's fiscal 12767
year, and the total of any appropriation ordinance passed by such 12768
legislative authority shall not exceed the total balances carried 12769
over from the previous fiscal year plus the estimated revenue of 12770
the current fiscal year. Supplemental appropriations shall not be 12771
made during the current fiscal year except from an contingent fund 12772
regularly set aside by the legislative authority in the annual 12773
appropriation ordinance or unless by an ordinance passed as an 12774
emergency measure.12775

       Sec. 749.04.  When the legislative authority of a municipal 12776
corporation enters upon and takes possession of grounds purchased, 12777
appropriated, or otherwise obtained for hospital purposes, and, by 12778
resolution or ordinance, determines to erect thereon or rebuild a 12779
hospital, the erection and repair thereof or any addition thereto 12780
shall be vested in a board of five commissioners, called the board 12781
of hospital commissioners, as established under this section.12782

       Such board shall consist of the mayor, who, by virtue of his 12783
office, shall be its president, and fourat least three trustees,12784
to be appointed by the mayor with the consent of the legislative 12785
authority. The members of such board shall be resident freehold 12786
electors of the municipal corporation, and they shall receive no 12787
compensation for their services.12788

       Sec. 749.05.  The term of office of the appointed members of 12789
the board of hospital commissioners shall be four years, but the 12790
members first appointed shall hold their offices, respectively, as 12791
determined by lot at the first meeting of the board, for the 12792
periods of one, two, three, and four years, and thereafter one 12793
member shall be appointed each year for the full term of four 12794
years. AThe mayor with the consent of the legislative authority 12795
shall fill any vacancy on the board of hospital commissioners not 12796
later than sixty days after the vacancy occurs. If the vacancy 12797
remains unfilled on that date, the legislative authority shall 12798
have thirty additional days to fill the vacancy. If the vacancy 12799
remains unfilled for ninety days after the vacancy occurs, the 12800
remaining members of the board, by majority vote, shall appoint an 12801
individual to fill the vacancy. Any member appointed to fill a 12802
vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term for 12803
which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office as 12804
a member for the remainder of that term.12805

       A majority of the board shall constitute a quorum.12806

       Sec. 749.18.  If an agreement under section 749.16 of the 12807
Revised Code concerns or includes participation of a joint 12808
township hospital district, or of a county, in the maintenance and 12809
operation of a municipal hospital, the municipal corporation may 12810
establish a board of governors to exercise, subject to such 12811
further limitations as are imposed by the agreement, the powers 12812
vested in the board of hospital commissioners, provided that any 12813
such limitations shall not deny the board of governors the 12814
authority to retain counsel, to institute legal action in its own 12815
name, or to employ any other lawful means, for the collection of 12816
delinquent accounts. The board of governors may include in its 12817
membership representatives of a participating district who are 12818
electors of the district, or of a participating county who are 12819
electors of that county or an adjacent county, as are provided for 12820
in the agreement. 12821

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, the municipal 12822
members of the board of governors shall consist of the mayor, who 12823
by virtue of that office shall be its president, and fourat least 12824
three resident freeholders of the municipal corporation, at least 12825
one of whom shall be a doctor of medicine, to be appointed by the 12826
mayor with the consent of the legislative authority. However, if 12827
necessary to secure qualified individuals to serve on the board of 12828
governors, the municipal members of the board may be residents of 12829
the county in which the municipal corporation is located or of an 12830
adjacent county. The12831

       The term of office of those municipal members of the board of 12832
governors shall be as provided in section 749.05 of the Revised 12833
Code and vacancies on the board with respect to those members 12834
shall be filled as provided in that section. Unless otherwise 12835
provided in the agreement, any vacancy on the board with respect 12836
to a member appointed by a participating joint township hospital 12837
district or county shall be filled by the appointing body not 12838
later than ninety days after the vacancy occurs and if the vacancy 12839
remains unfilled on that date, the remaining members of the board, 12840
by majority vote, shall appoint an individual to fill the vacancy. 12841
Unless otherwise provided in the agreement, vacancies on the board 12842
with respect to any other members shall be filled by the remaining 12843
members of the board, by majority vote. Any member appointed to 12844
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term 12845
for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office 12846
as a member for the remainder of that term. 12847

       The board of governors, subject to the terms of the 12848
agreement, shall establish regulations and elect officers, other 12849
than president, as its members determine. The members shall be 12850
entitled to the compensation for their services provided by the 12851
agreement.12852

       Sec. 901.53.  (A) As used in this section, "agricultural 12853
structure" means any building or structure that is used in 12854
production, growing, harvesting, or housing for the purposes of 12855
agriculture.12856

       (B) With regard to fire prevention and safety, agriculture 12857
and agricultural structures are subject only to the state fire 12858
code established in rules adopted under section 3737.82 of the 12859
Revised Code and not to any other requirements governing fire 12860
prevention and safety.12861

       Sec. 901.54. (A) There is hereby created the office of 12862
farmland preservation within the department of agriculture. The 12863
office shall do all of the following:12864

       (1)(A) Prepare guidelines and criteria for use in the 12865
development of comprehensive local land use plans that encourage 12866
the efficient use of public infrastructure and the preservation of 12867
farmland;12868

       (2)(B) Establish a farmland preservation program to 12869
coordinate and assist local farmland preservation initiatives;12870

       (3) Administer the pilot farmland preservation fund 12871
established in division (B) of this section;12872

       (4)(C) Educate existing agencies and organizations on the 12873
importance of farmland preservation and on the significance of 12874
agriculture and agribusiness to this state's economy;12875

       (5)(D) Serve as a liaison with other farmland preservation 12876
entities operating on a state, regional, or national level;12877

       (6)(E) Prepare an inventory of farmland within this state to 12878
monitor the development of lands within this state having prime 12879
soils or unique microclimates.12880

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the pilot 12881
farmland preservation fund consisting of moneys received by the 12882
office of farmland preservation for the purposes of the fund. The 12883
fund shall be administered by the office of farmland preservation. 12884
Moneys in the fund shall be used to leverage or match other 12885
farmland preservation funds provided from federal, local, or 12886
private sources.12887


       Sec. 924.51.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio grape 12889
industries committee consisting of nine members. The members shall 12890
be the director of agriculture or the director's designee, who 12891
shall chair the committee, the superintendent of liquor control or 12892
the superintendent's designee, the chief of the division of 12893
markets of the department of agriculture, the viticulture 12894
extension specialist of the Ohio agricultural research and 12895
development center, who shall be a nonvoting member, and five 12896
members who shall be residents of this state and appointed by the 12897
director of agriculture.12898

       (B) Of the five members of the committee appointed by the 12899
director of agriculture, not less than two, but not more than 12900
three shall be persons who receive the major portion of their12901
income from the production of grapes or grape products. The term 12902
of one of these members shall begin January 1, 1982, and end 12903
December 31, 1982, and the second member's term shall begin 12904
January 1, 1982, and end December 31, 1983. TwoNot less than two, 12905
but not more than three members shall be persons who receive the 12906
major portion of their income from the production of wine from raw 12907
grape or fruit products in either raw fruit or fresh juice form. 12908
The term of one of these members shall begin January 1, 1982, and 12909
end December 31, 1982, and the second member's term shall begin 12910
January 1, 1982, and end December 31, 1983. One member shall be a 12911
person the major portion of whose income is from the production of 12912
grape products other than wine, such as juice, jams, or jellies; 12913
that member's term shall begin January 1, 1982, and end December 12914
31, 1984. Thereafter, theAt no time shall the director appoint 12915
more than five members to the committee. The terms for each 12916
appointed member of the committee shall be for three years, 12917
commencing on the first day of January and ending on the 12918
thirty-first day of December. No appointed member shall serve more 12919
than two consecutive terms. The director may remove any appointed 12920
member for cause.12921

       (C) Members shall be appointed to fill vacancies caused by 12922
death, resignation, or removal in the same manner prescribed for 12923
regular appointment to the committee. Any member appointed to fill 12924
a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which 12925
the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 12926
remainder of the term. Any member shall continue in office 12927
subsequent to the expiration date of that member's term until that 12928
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixtyone 12929
hundred eighty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.12930

       (D) All members of the committee are entitled to their actual 12931
and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties 12932
as members, payable from moneys received from the Ohio grape 12933
industries fund created under section 924.54 of the Revised Code.12934

       (E) A majority of the committee constitutes a quorum.12935

       Sec. 955.16.  (A) Dogs that have been seized by the county 12936
dog warden and impounded shall be kept, housed, and fed for three 12937
days for the purpose of redemption, as provided by section 955.18 12938
of the Revised Code, unless any of the following applies:12939

       (1) Immediate humane destruction of the dog is necessary 12940
because of obvious disease or injury. If the diseased or injured 12941
dog is registered, as determined from the current year's 12942
registration list maintained by the warden and the county auditor 12943
of the county where the dog is registered, the necessity of 12944
destroying the dog shall be certified by a licensed veterinarian 12945
or a registered veterinary technician. If the dog is not 12946
registered, the decision to destroy it shall be made by the 12947
warden.12948

       (2) The dog is currently registered on the registration list 12949
maintained by the warden and the auditor of the county where the 12950
dog is registered and the attempts to notify the owner, keeper, or 12951
harborer under section 955.12 of the Revised Code have failed, in 12952
which case the dog shall be kept, housed, and fed for fourteen 12953
days for the purpose of redemption.12954

       (3) The warden has contacted the owner, keeper, or harborer 12955
under section 955.12 of the Revised Code, and the owner, keeper, 12956
or harborer has requested that the dog remain in the pound or 12957
animal shelter until the owner, harborer, or keeper redeems the 12958
dog. The time for such redemption shall be not more than 12959
forty-eight hours following the end of the appropriate redemption 12960
period.12961

       At any time after such periods of redemption, any dog not 12962
redeemed shall be donated to any nonprofit special agency that is 12963
engaged in the training of any type of assistance dogs and that 12964
requests that the dog be donated to it. Any dog not redeemed that 12965
is not requested by such an agency may be sold, except that no dog 12966
sold to a person other than a nonprofit teaching or research 12967
institution or organization of the type described in division (B) 12968
of this section shall be discharged from the pound or animal 12969
shelter until the animal has been registered and furnished with a 12970
valid registration tag.12971

       (B) Any dog that is not redeemed within the applicable period 12972
as specified in this section or section 955.12 of the Revised Code 12973
from the time notice is mailed to its owner, keeper, or harborer 12974
or is posted at the pound or animal shelter, as required by 12975
section 955.12 of the Revised Code, and that is not required to be 12976
donated to a nonprofit special agency engaged in the training of 12977
any type of assistance dogs may, upon payment to the dog warden or 12978
poundkeeper of the sum of three dollars, be sold to any nonprofit 12979
Ohio institution or organization that is certified by the Ohio 12980
publicdirector of health council as being engaged in teaching or 12981
research concerning the prevention and treatment of diseases of 12982
human beings or animals. Any dog that is donated to a nonprofit 12983
special agency engaged in the training of any type of assistance 12984
dogs in accordance with division (A) of this section and any dog 12985
that is sold to any nonprofit teaching or research institution or 12986
organization shall be discharged from the pound or animal shelter 12987
without registration and may be kept by the agency or by the 12988
institution or organization without registration so long as the 12989
dog is being trained, or is being used for teaching and research 12990
purposes.12991

       Any institution or organization certified by the Ohio public 12992
health councildirector that obtains dogs for teaching and 12993
research purposes pursuant to this section shall, at all 12994
reasonable times, make the dogs available for inspection by agents 12995
of the Ohio humane society, appointed pursuant to section 1717.04 12996
of the Revised Code, and agents of county humane societies, 12997
appointed pursuant to section 1717.06 of the Revised Code, in 12998
order that the agents may prevent the perpetration of any act of 12999
cruelty, as defined in section 1717.01 of the Revised Code, to the 13000
dogs.13001

       (C) Any dog that the dog warden or poundkeeper is unable to 13002
dispose of, in the manner provided by this section and section 13003
955.18 of the Revised Code, may be humanely destroyed, except that 13004
no dog shall be destroyed until twenty-four hours after it has 13005
been offered to a nonprofit teaching or research institution or 13006
organization, as provided in this section, that has made a request 13007
for dogs to the dog warden or poundkeeper.13008

       (D) An owner of a dog that is wearing a valid registration 13009
tag who presents the dog to the dog warden or poundkeeper may 13010
specify in writing that the dog shall not be offered to a 13011
nonprofit teaching or research institution or organization, as 13012
provided in this section.13013

       (E) A record of all dogs impounded, the disposition of the 13014
same, the owner's name and address, if known, and a statement of 13015
costs assessed against the dogs shall be kept by the poundkeeper, 13016
and the poundkeeper shall furnish a transcript thereof to the 13017
county treasurer quarterly.13018

       A record of all dogs received and the source that supplied 13019
them shall be kept, for a period of three years from the date of 13020
acquiring the dogs, by all institutions or organizations engaged 13021
in teaching or research concerning the prevention and treatment of 13022
diseases of human beings or animals.13023

       (F) No person shall destroy any dog by the use of a high 13024
altitude decompression chamber or by any method other than a 13025
method that immediately and painlessly renders the dog initially 13026
unconscious and subsequently dead.13027

       Sec. 955.26.  Whenever, in the judgment of the director of 13028
health, any city or general health district board of health, or 13029
persons performing the duties of a board of health, rabies is 13030
prevalent, the director of health, the board, or those persons 13031
shall declare a quarantine of all dogs in the health district or 13032
in a part of it. During the quarantine, the owner, keeper, or 13033
harborer of any dog shall keep it confined on the premises of the 13034
owner, keeper, or harborer, or in a suitable pound or kennel, at 13035
the expense of the owner, keeper, or harborer, except that a dog 13036
may be permitted to leave the premises of its owner, keeper, or 13037
harborer if it is under leash or under the control of a 13038
responsible person. The quarantine order shall be considered an 13039
emergency and need not be published.13040

       When the quarantine has been declared, the director of 13041
health, the board, or those persons may require vaccination for 13042
rabies of all dogs within the health district or part of it. Proof 13043
of rabies vaccination within a satisfactory period shall be 13044
demonstrated to the county auditor before any registration is 13045
issued under section 955.01 of the Revised Code for any dog that 13046
is required to be vaccinated.13047

       The public health councildirector shall determine 13048
appropriate methods of rabies vaccination and satisfactory periods 13049
for purposes of quarantines under this section.13050

       When a quarantine of dogs has been declared in any health 13051
district or part of a health district, the county dog warden and 13052
all other persons having the authority of police officers shall 13053
assist the health authorities in enforcing the quarantine order. 13054
When rabies vaccination has been declared compulsory in any health 13055
district or part of a health district, the dog warden shall assist 13056
the health authorities in enforcing the vaccination order.13057

       Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, a city or 13058
general health district board of health may make orders pursuant 13059
to sections 3709.20 and 3709.21 of the Revised Code requiring the 13060
vaccination of dogs.13061

       Sec. 991.02.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio 13062
expositions commission, which shall consist of the following13063
thirteenfourteen members: nine members appointed by the governor 13064
with the advice and consent of the senate; the director of 13065
development, the director of natural resources, and the director 13066
of agriculture, or their designated representatives, who shall be 13067
ex officio members with voting rights of suchthe commission; and 13068
the chairmanchairperson of the standing committee in the house of 13069
representatives to which matters dealing with agriculture are 13070
generally referred and the chairmanchairperson of the standing 13071
committee in the senate to which matters dealing with agriculture 13072
are generally referred, who shall be nonvoting members. If the 13073
senate is not in session, recess appointments shall be made by the 13074
governor.13075

       (B) Of the nine members of the commission appointed by the 13076
governor, not more than five shall be from one political party, at 13077
least three members shall receive the major portion of their 13078
income from farming, and at least one member shall, at the time of 13079
his appointment, be a member of the board of directors of an 13080
agricultural society whichthat was organized in compliance with 13081
section 1711.01 or 1711.02 of the Revised Code. Terms of office 13082
shall be for six years, commencing on the second day of December 13083
and ending on the first day of December. Each member shall hold 13084
office from the date of his appointment until the end of the term 13085
for which hethe member was appointed. Any member appointed to 13086
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for 13087
which histhe member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office 13088
for the remainder of suchthat term. Any member shall continue in 13089
office subsequent to the expiration date of histhe member's term 13090
until histhe member's successor takes office, or until a period 13091
of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.13092

       The term of each nonvoting, legislative member of the 13093
commission shall be for two years or until the end of the member's 13094
legislative term, whichever occurs first.13095

       (C) The commission shall annually, during the month of 13096
December, select from among its members a chairmanchairperson, a 13097
vice-chairmanvice-chairperson, who in the absence of the chairman13098
chairperson shall carry out histhe chairperson's duties, and a 13099
secretary, who may be a member or employee of the commission, to 13100
record the minutes of its meetings and to carry out such other 13101
duties as may be assigned by the commission, its chairman13102
chairperson, or vice-chairmanits vice-chairperson.13103

       (D) The director of agriculture, the director of natural 13104
resources, and the director of development, or their designated 13105
representatives, and the two legislators appointed to the 13106
commission, as members of the commission shall serve without 13107
compensation.13108

       (E) Each of the members of the commission appointed by the 13109
governor shall be paid the rate established pursuant to division 13110
(J) of section 124.15 of the Revised Code. All members of the 13111
commission are entitled to their actual and necessary expenses 13112
incurred in the performance of their duties as such members, 13113
payable from the appropriations for the commission.13114

       (F) The commission shall hold at least one regular meeting in 13115
each quarter of each calendar year, and shall keep a record of its 13116
proceedings, which shall be open to the public for inspection. 13117
Special meetings may be called by the chairmanchairperson and 13118
shall be called by himthe chairperson upon receipt of a written 13119
request therefor signed by two or more members of the commission. 13120
Written notice of the time and place of each meeting shall be sent 13121
to each member of the commission. Six of the voting members of the 13122
commission shall constitute a quorum.13123

       (G) The commission shall employ and prescribe the powers and 13124
duties of a general manager who shall serve in the unclassified 13125
civil service at a salary fixed pursuant to section 124.14 of the 13126
Revised Code. The general manager may employ such assistant 13127
managers as hethe general manager and the commission may approve. 13128
At no time shall such assistant managers exceed four in number, 13129
one of whom shall be appointed in the classified civil service. 13130
The general manager may, subject to the approval of the 13131
commission, employ a fiscal officer and such other officers, 13132
employees, and consultants with such powers and duties as are 13133
necessary to carry out sections 991.01 to 991.07 of the Revised 13134
Codethis chapter. With the approval of the commission and in 13135
order to implement this chapter, the general manager may employ 13136
and fix the compensation of seasonal employees; these employees 13137
shall be in the unclassified civil service, and the overtime pay 13138
requirements of section 124.18 of the Revised Code do not apply to 13139
them. The general manager shall be considered the appointing 13140
authority of the commission for purposes of Chapter 124. of the 13141
Revised Code.13142

       (H) The governor may remove any appointed voting member of 13143
the commission at any time for inefficiency, neglect of duty, or 13144
malfeasance in office.13145

       Sec. 1121.23. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 13146
financial institutions is required under Chapters 1101. to 1127. 13147
of the Revised Code, or under an order or supervisory action 13148
issued or taken under those chapters, for a person to serve as an 13149
organizer, incorporator, director, executive officer, or 13150
controlling shareholder of a bank, or to otherwise have a 13151
substantial interest in or participate in the management of a 13152
bank, the superintendent shall request the superintendent of the 13153
bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a vendor 13154
approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based 13155
on the person's fingerprints in accordance with division (A)(14) 13156
of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of 13157
financial institutions shall request that criminal record 13158
information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained 13159
as part of the criminal records check. Any fee required under 13160
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be 13161
paid by the person who is the subject of the request.13162

       Sec. 1155.03. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 13163
financial institutions is required under Chapters 1151. to 1157. 13164
of the Revised Code, or under an order or supervisory action 13165
issued or taken under those chapters, for a person to serve as an 13166
organizer, incorporator, director, executive officer, or 13167
controlling person of a savings and loan association, or to 13168
otherwise have a substantial interest in or participate in the 13169
management of a savings and loan association, the superintendent 13170
shall request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 13171
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 13172
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the person's 13173
fingerprints in accordance with division (A)(14) of section 13174
109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of financial 13175
institutions shall request that criminal record information from 13176
the federal bureau of investigation be obtained as part of the 13177
criminal records check. Any fee required under division (C)(3) of 13178
section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be paid by the person 13179
who is the subject of the request.13180

       Sec. 1163.05. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 13181
financial institutions is required under Chapters 1161. to 1165. 13182
of the Revised Code, or under an order or supervisory action 13183
issued or taken under those chapters, for a person to serve as an 13184
organizer, incorporator, director, executive officer, or 13185
controlling person of a savings bank, or to otherwise have a 13186
substantial interest in or participate in the management of a 13187
savings bank, the superintendent shall request the superintendent 13188
of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a 13189
vendor approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check 13190
based on the person's fingerprints in accordance with division 13191
(A)(14) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent 13192
of financial institutions shall request that criminal record 13193
information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained 13194
as part of the criminal records check. Any fee required under 13195
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be 13196
paid by the person who is the subject of the request.13197

       Sec. 1315.141. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 13198
financial institutions is required under sections 1315.01 to 13199
1315.18 of the Revised Code, or under an order or supervisory 13200
action issued or taken under those sections, for a person to serve 13201
as an organizer, incorporator, director, executive officer, or 13202
controlling person of a licensee, or to otherwise have a 13203
substantial interest in or participate in the management of a 13204
licensee, the superintendent shall request the superintendent of 13205
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a 13206
vendor approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check 13207
based on the person's fingerprints in accordance with division 13208
(A)(14) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent 13209
of financial institutions shall request that criminal record 13210
information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained 13211
as part of the criminal records check. Any fee required under 13212
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be 13213
paid by the person who is the subject of the request.13214

       Sec. 1317.05. (A) Any retail seller who, in any retail 13215
installment contract, has agreed to purchase insurance for the 13216
retail buyer and to extend credit for the price thereof, shall, 13217
prior to the due date of the first installment of the retail 13218
installment contract, deliver to the retail buyer personally, or 13219
mail or cause to be mailed to himthe retail buyer at histhe 13220
retail buyer's address as shown on the retail installment 13221
contract, the policy of insurance, or in lieu thereof a 13222
certificate of insurance, or the retail buyer is not liable on his13223
the retail buyer's retail installment contract until the policy, 13224
or certificate of insurance, is received, or full refund is made 13225
of the insurance premium.13226

       If the premium for insurance of like kind and amount, as 13227
fixed in the published manual of a recognized standard rating 13228
bureau designated by the retail seller, is less than the amount 13229
charged the retail buyer as fixed in the written instrument in 13230
compliance with division (D) of section 1317.04 of the Revised 13231
Code, the retail buyer may deduct an amount equal to three times 13232
the difference from the amount owed the retail seller, or histhe 13233
retail seller's successor in interest. Sections 1317.01 to 13234
1317.11, inclusive, of the Revised Code do not impair the 13235
authority of the superintendent of insurance to grant, renew, or 13236
revoke licenses, nor do said sections authorize anyone other than 13237
a licensee of the division of insurance to directly or indirectly 13238
receive any part of the amount charged for insurance in connection 13239
with any retail installment sale.13240

       (B) As used in this division, "debt cancellation or debt 13241
suspension product" means a contractual agreement in which a 13242
retail seller, or its assignee, agrees for a separate charge to 13243
cancel or waive all or a part of amounts due on a retail buyer's 13244
retail installment contract in the event of a total physical 13245
damage loss or unrecovered theft of the motor vehicle that is the 13246
subject of the contract. "Debt cancellation or debt suspension 13247
product" includes a guaranteed asset protection waiver, guaranteed 13248
auto protection waiver, or other similarly named agreement.13249

        A debt cancellation or debt suspension product, and an 13250
addendum to a retail installment contract containing a debt 13251
cancellation or debt suspension product, shall be considered a 13252
part of the retail installment contract and shall remain a part of 13253
that contract upon the assignment, sale, or transfer of that 13254
contract. The charge for any debt cancellation or debt suspension 13255
product shall be listed as a specific good. The purchase price and 13256
the terms of the debt cancellation or debt suspension product 13257
shall be disclosed in writing to the buyer. The extension of 13258
credit, terms of the credit, or the terms of the related motor 13259
vehicle sale or lease shall not be conditioned on the purchase of 13260
the debt cancellation or debt suspension product. Notwithstanding 13261
any other provision of law, a debt cancellation or debt suspension 13262
product shall not be considered insurance.13263

       Sec. 1321.37.  (A) Application for an original or renewal 13264
license to make short-term loans shall be in writing, under oath, 13265
and in the form prescribed by the superintendent of financial 13266
institutions, and shall contain the name and address of the 13267
applicant, the location where the business of making loans is to 13268
be conducted, and any further information as the superintendent 13269
requires. At the time of making an application for an original 13270
license, the applicant shall pay to the superintendent a 13271
nonrefundable investigation fee of two hundred dollars. No 13272
investigation fee or any portion thereof shall be refunded after 13273
an original license has been issued. The application for an 13274
original or renewal license shall be accompanied by an original or 13275
renewal license fee, for each business location of one thousand 13276
dollars, except that applications for original licenses issued on 13277
or after the first day of July for any year shall be accompanied 13278
by an original license fee of five hundred dollars, and except 13279
that an application for an original or renewal license, for a 13280
nonprofit corporation that is incorporated under Chapter 1702. of 13281
the Revised Code, shall be accompanied by an original or renewal 13282
license fee, for each business location, that is one-half of the 13283
fee otherwise required. All fees paid to the superintendent 13284
pursuant to this division shall be deposited into the state 13285
treasury to the credit of the consumer finance fund.13286

       (B) Upon the filing of an application for an original license 13287
and, with respect to an application filed for a renewal license, 13288
on a schedule determined by the superintendent by rule adopted 13289
pursuant to section 1321.43 of the Revised Code, and the payment 13290
of fees in accordance with division (A) of this section, the 13291
superintendent shall investigate the facts concerning the 13292
applicant and the requirements provided by this division. The 13293
superintendent shall request the superintendent of the bureau of 13294
criminal identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by 13295
the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 13296
applicant's fingerprints in accordance with division (A)(12) of13297
section 109.572 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding division (K) 13298
of section 121.08 of the Revised Code, the superintendent of 13299
financial institutions shall request that criminal record 13300
information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained 13301
as part of the criminal records check. The superintendent of 13302
financial institutions shall conduct a civil records check. The 13303
superintendent shall approve an application and issue an original 13304
or renewal license to the applicant if the superintendent finds 13305
all of the following:13306

       (1) The financial responsibility, experience, reputation, and 13307
general fitness of the applicant are such as to warrant the belief 13308
that the business of making loans will be operated lawfully, 13309
honestly, and fairly under sections 1321.35 to 1321.48 of the 13310
Revised Code and within the purposes of those sections; that the 13311
applicant has fully complied with those sections and any rule or 13312
order adopted or issued pursuant to section 1321.43 of the Revised 13313
Code; and that the applicant is qualified to engage in the 13314
business of making loans under sections 1321.35 to 1321.48 of the 13315
Revised Code.13316

       (2) The applicant is financially sound and has a net worth of 13317
not less than one hundred thousand dollars, or in the case of a 13318
nonprofit corporation that is incorporated under Chapter 1702. of 13319
the Revised Code, a net worth of not less than fifty thousand 13320
dollars. The applicant's net worth shall be computed according to 13321
generally accepted accounting principles.13322

       (3) The applicant has never had revoked a license to make 13323
loans under sections 1321.35 to 1321.48 of the Revised Code, under 13324
former sections 1315.35 to 1315.44 of the Revised Code, or to do 13325
business under sections 1315.21 to 1315.30 of the Revised Code.13326

       (4) Neither the applicant nor any senior officer, or partner 13327
of the applicant, has pleaded guilty to or been convicted of any 13328
criminal offense involving theft, receiving stolen property, 13329
embezzlement, forgery, fraud, passing bad checks, money 13330
laundering, or drug trafficking, or any criminal offense involving 13331
money or securities or any violation of an existing or former law 13332
of this state, any other state, or the United States that 13333
substantially is equivalent to a criminal offense described in 13334
that division. However, if the applicant or any of those other 13335
persons has pleaded guilty to or been convicted of any such 13336
offense other than theft, the superintendent shall not consider 13337
the offense if the applicant has proven to the superintendent, by 13338
a preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant's or other 13339
person's activities and employment record since the conviction 13340
show that the applicant or other person is honest, truthful, and 13341
of good reputation, and there is no basis in fact for believing 13342
that the applicant or other person will commit such an offense 13343
again.13344

        (5) Neither the applicant nor any senior officer, or partner 13345
of the applicant, has been subject to any adverse judgment for 13346
conversion, embezzlement, misappropriation of funds, fraud, 13347
misfeasance or malfeasance, or breach of fiduciary duty, or if the 13348
applicant or any of those other persons has been subject to such a 13349
judgment, the applicant has proven to the superintendent, by a 13350
preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant's or other 13351
person's activities and employment record since the judgment show 13352
that the applicant or other person is honest, truthful, and of 13353
good reputation, and there is no basis in fact for believing that 13354
the applicant or other person will be subject to such a judgment 13355
again.13356

       (C) If the superintendent finds that the applicant does not 13357
meet the requirements of division (B) of this section, or the 13358
superintendent finds that the applicant knowingly or repeatedly 13359
contracts with or employs persons to directly engage in lending 13360
activities who have been convicted of a felony crime listed in 13361
division (B)(5) of this section, the superintendent shall issue an 13362
order denying the application for an original or renewal license 13363
and giving the applicant an opportunity for a hearing on the 13364
denial in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The 13365
superintendent shall notify the applicant of the denial, the 13366
grounds for the denial, and the applicant's opportunity for a 13367
hearing. If the application is denied, the superintendent shall 13368
return the annual license fee but shall retain the investigation 13369
fee.13370

       (D) No person licensed under sections 1321.35 to 1321.48 of 13371
the Revised Code shall conduct business in this state unless the 13372
licensee has obtained and maintains in effect at all times a 13373
corporate surety bond issued by a bonding company or insurance 13374
company authorized to do business in this state. The bond shall be 13375
in favor of the superintendent and in the penal sum of at least 13376
one hundred thousand dollars, or in the case of a nonprofit 13377
corporation that is incorporated under Chapter 1702. of the 13378
Revised Code, in the amount of fifty thousand dollars. The term of 13379
the bond shall coincide with the term of the license. The licensee 13380
shall file a copy of the bond with the superintendent. The bond 13381
shall be for the exclusive benefit of any borrower injured by a 13382
violation by a licensee or any employee of a licensee, of any 13383
provision of sections 1321.35 to 1321.48 of the Revised Code.13384

       Sec. 1321.52.  (A)(1) No person, on that person's own behalf 13385
or on behalf of any other person, shall do any of the following 13386
without having first obtained a certificate of registration from 13387
the division of financial institutions:13388

       (a) Advertise, solicit, or hold out that the person is 13389
engaged in the business of making residential mortgage loans 13390
secured by a mortgage on a borrower's real estate which is other 13391
than a first lien on the real estate;13392

       (b) Engage in the business of lending or collecting the 13393
person's own or another person's money, credit, or choses in 13394
action for non-first lien residential mortgage loans;13395

       (c) Employ or compensate mortgage loan originators licensed 13396
or who should be licensed under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the 13397
Revised Code to conduct the business of making residential 13398
mortgage loans;13399

       (d) Make loans in this state of the type set forth in 13400
division (C) of this section that are unsecured or are secured by 13401
other than real property, which loans are for more than five 13402
thousand dollars at a rate of interest greater than permitted by 13403
section 1343.01 or other specific provisions of the Revised Code.13404

       (2) Each person issued a certificate of registration or 13405
license is subject to all the rules prescribed under sections 13406
1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code.13407

       (B)(1) All loans made to persons who at the time are 13408
residents of this state are considered as made within this state 13409
and subject to the laws of this state, regardless of any statement 13410
in the contract or note to the contrary, except as follows: 13411

       (a) If the loan is primarily secured by a lien on real 13412
property in another state and is arranged by a mortgage loan 13413
originator licensed by that state, the borrower may by choice of 13414
law designate that the transaction be governed by the law where 13415
the real property is located if the other state has consumer 13416
protection laws covering the borrower that are applicable to the 13417
transaction.13418

       (b) If the loan is for the purpose of purchasing goods 13419
acquired by the borrower when the borrower is outside of this 13420
state, the loan may be governed by the laws of the other state. 13421

       (2) Nothing in division (B)(1) of this section prevents a 13422
choice of law or requires registration or licensure of persons 13423
outside of this state in a transaction involving the solicitation 13424
of residents of this state to obtain non-real estate secured loans 13425
that require the borrowers to physically visit a lender's 13426
out-of-state office to apply for and obtain the disbursement of 13427
loan funds.13428

       (C) A registrant may make unsecured loans, loans secured by a 13429
mortgage on a borrower's real estate which is a first lien or 13430
other than a first lien on the real estate, loans secured by other 13431
than real estate, and loans secured by any combination of 13432
mortgages and security interests, on terms and conditions provided 13433
by sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code.13434

       (D)(1) If a lender that is subject to sections 1321.51 to 13435
1321.60 of the Revised Code makes a loan in violation of division 13436
(A)(1) of this section, the lender has no right to collect, 13437
receive, or retain any interest or charges on that loan.13438

       (2) If a registrant applies to the division for a renewal of 13439
the registrant's certificate after the date required by division 13440
(A)(7) of section 1321.53 of the Revised Code, but prior to the 13441
first day of February of that year, and the division approves the 13442
application, division (D)(1) of this section does not apply with 13443
respect to any loan made by the registrant while the registrant's 13444
certificate was expired.13445

       (3) If a person's registration under sections 1321.51 to 13446
1321.60 of the Revised Code terminates due to nonrenewal or 13447
otherwise but the person continues to engage in the business of 13448
collecting or servicing non-first lien residential mortgage loans 13449
in violation of division (A)(1) of this section, the 13450
superintendent of financial institutions may take administrative 13451
action, including action on any subsequent application for a 13452
certificate of registration. In addition, no late fee, bad check 13453
charge except as incurred, charge related to default or cost to 13454
realize on its security interest, or prepayment penalty on 13455
non-first lien residential mortgage loans shall be collected or 13456
retained by a person who is in violation of division (A)(1)(b) of 13457
this section for the period of time in which the person was in 13458
violation. Nothing in division (D)(3) of this section prevents or 13459
otherwise precludes any other actions or penalties provided by law 13460
or modifies a defense of holder in due course that a subsequent 13461
purchaser servicing the residential mortgage loan may raise.13462

       (E)(1) No individual shall engage in the business of a 13463
mortgage loan originator without first obtaining and maintaining 13464
annually a license pursuant to section 1321.532 of the Revised 13465
Code from the division of financial institutions. A mortgage loan 13466
originator shall be employed or associated with a registrant or 13467
entity exempt from registration under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 13468
of the Revised Code, but shall not be employed by or associated 13469
with more than one registrant or exempt entity at any one time.13470

       (2) An individual acting under the individual's authority as 13471
a registered mortgage loan originator shall not be required to be 13472
licensed under division (E)(1) of this section.13473

       (3) An individual who holds a valid temporary mortgage loan 13474
originator license issued pursuant to section 1321.537 of the 13475
Revised Code may engage in the business of a mortgage loan 13476
originator in accordance with sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the 13477
Revised Code during the term of the temporary license.13478

       (F)(1) Each licensee shall register with, and maintain a 13479
valid unique identifier issued by, the nationwide mortgage 13480
licensing system and registry.13481

       (2) No person shall use a licensee's unique identifier for 13482
any purpose other than as set forth in the "Secure and Fair 13483
Enforcement for Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008," 122 Stat. 2810, 13484
12 U.S.C. 5101.13485

       (G)(1) If a person that is subject to sections 1321.51 to 13486
1321.60 of the Revised Code makes a loan in violation of division 13487
(A)(1)(d) of this section and subsequently sells or assigns that 13488
loan, the person is liable to the borrower for any interest paid 13489
on that loan to the holder or assignee in excess of the rate that 13490
would be applicable in the absence of sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 13491
of the Revised Code, in addition to any interest or charges paid 13492
on that loan to the unauthorized lender as provided by division 13493
(D)(1) of this section.13494

       (2) If a person that is subject to sections 1321.51 to 13495
1321.60 of the Revised Code makes a residential mortgage loan in 13496
violation of division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of this section and 13497
subsequently sells or assigns that loan, the lender is liable to 13498
the borrower for any interest paid on that loan to the holder or 13499
assignee in excess of the rate set forth in division (B)(4) of 13500
section 1343.01 of the Revised Code, in addition to any interest 13501
or charges paid on that loan to the unauthorized lender as 13502
provided by division (D)(1) of this section.13503

       Sec. 1321.53.  (A)(1) An application for a certificate of 13504
registration under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code 13505
shall contain an undertaking by the applicant to abide by those 13506
sections. The application shall be in writing, under oath, and in 13507
the form prescribed by the division of financial institutions, and 13508
shall contain any information that the division may require. 13509
Applicants that are foreign corporations shall obtain and maintain 13510
a license pursuant to Chapter 1703. of the Revised Code before a 13511
certificate is issued or renewed.13512

       (2) Upon the filing of the application and the payment by the 13513
applicant of a nonrefundable two-hundred-dollar investigation fee, 13514
a nonrefundable three-hundred-dollar annual registration fee, and 13515
any additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing 13516
system and registry, the division shall investigate the relevant 13517
facts. If the application involves investigation outside this 13518
state, the applicant may be required by the division to advance 13519
sufficient funds to pay any of the actual expenses of such 13520
investigation, when it appears that these expenses will exceed two 13521
hundred dollars. An itemized statement of any of these expenses 13522
which the applicant is required to pay shall be furnished to the 13523
applicant by the division. No certificate shall be issued unless 13524
all the required fees have been submitted to the division.13525

       (3) All applicants making loans secured by an interest in 13526
real estate shall designate an employee or owner of the applicant 13527
as the applicant's primary point of contact. While acting as the 13528
primary point of contact, the employee or owner shall not be 13529
employed by any other registrant or mortgage broker.13530

       (4) The investigation undertaken upon application shall 13531
include both a civil and criminal records check of the applicant 13532
including any individual whose identity is required to be 13533
disclosed in the application. Where the applicant is a business 13534
entity the superintendent shall have the authority to require a 13535
civil and criminal background check of those persons that in the 13536
determination of the superintendent have the authority to direct 13537
and control the operations of the applicant. 13538

       (5)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the 13539
Revised Code, the superintendent of financial institutions shall 13540
obtain a criminal history records check and, as part of that 13541
records check, request that criminal record information from the 13542
federal bureau of investigation be obtained. To fulfill this 13543
requirement, the superintendent shall do either of the following: 13544

       (i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 13545
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 13546
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 13547
applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, 13548
based on the applicant's social security number, in accordance 13549
with division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code; 13550

       (ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13551
registry to request a criminal history background check as set 13552
forth in division (C) of section 1321.531 of the Revised Code.13553

       (b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 13554
of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 13555
and registry shall be paid by the applicant.13556

       (6) If an application for a certificate of registration does 13557
not contain all of the information required under division (A) of 13558
this section, and if such information is not submitted to the 13559
division or to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13560
registry within ninety days after the superintendent or the 13561
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry requests the 13562
information in writing, including by electronic transmission or 13563
facsimile, the superintendent may consider the application 13564
withdrawn.13565

       (7) If the division finds that the financial responsibility, 13566
experience, character, and general fitness of the applicant 13567
command the confidence of the public and warrant the belief that 13568
the business will be operated honestly and fairly in compliance 13569
with the purposes of sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised 13570
Code and the rules adopted thereunder, and that the applicant has 13571
the requisite bond or applicable net worth and assets required by 13572
division (B) of this section, the division shall thereupon issue a 13573
certificate of registration to the applicant. The superintendent 13574
shall not use a credit score as the sole basis for a registration 13575
denial.13576

        (a)(i) Certificates of registration issued on or after July 13577
1, 2010, shall annually expire on the thirty-first day of 13578
December, unless renewed by the filing of a renewal application 13579
and payment of a three-hundred-dollar nonrefundable annual 13580
registration fee, any assessment as determined by the 13581
superintendent pursuant to division (A)(7)(a)(ii) of this section, 13582
and any additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage 13583
licensing system and registry, on or before the last day of 13584
December of each year. No other fee or assessment shall be 13585
required of a registrant by the state or any political subdivision 13586
of this state.13587

       (ii) If the renewal fees billed by the superintendent 13588
pursuant to division (A)(7)(a)(i) of this section are less than 13589
the estimated expenditures of the consumer finance section of the 13590
division of financial institutions, as determined by the 13591
superintendent, for the following fiscal year, the superintendent 13592
may assess each registrant at a rate sufficient to equal in the 13593
aggregate the difference between the renewal fees billed and the 13594
estimated expenditures. Each registrant shall pay the assessed 13595
amount to the superintendent prior to the last day of June. In no 13596
case shall the assessment exceed ten cents per each one hundred 13597
dollars of interest (excluding charge-off recoveries), points, 13598
loan origination charges, and credit line charges collected by 13599
that registrant during the previous calendar year. If such an 13600
assessment is imposed, it shall not be less than two hundred fifty 13601
dollars per registrant and shall not exceed thirty thousand 13602
dollars less the total renewal fees paid pursuant to division 13603
(A)(7)(a)(i) of this section by each registrant.13604

       (b) Registrants shall timely file renewal applications on 13605
forms prescribed by the division and provide any further 13606
information that the division may require. If a renewal 13607
application does not contain all of the information required under 13608
this section, and if that information is not submitted to the 13609
division or to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13610
registry within ninety days after the superintendent or the 13611
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry requests the 13612
information in writing, including by electronic transmission or 13613
facsimile, the superintendent may consider the application 13614
withdrawn.13615

       (c) Renewal shall not be granted if the applicant's 13616
certificate of registration is subject to an order of suspension, 13617
revocation, or an unpaid and past due fine imposed by the 13618
superintendent.13619

       (d) If the division finds the applicant does not meet the 13620
conditions set forth in this section, it shall issue a notice of 13621
intent to deny the application, and forthwith notify the applicant 13622
of the denial, the grounds for the denial, and the applicant's 13623
reasonable opportunity to be heard on the action in accordance 13624
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 13625

       (8) If there is a change of five per cent or more in the 13626
ownership of a registrant, the division may make any investigation 13627
necessary to determine whether any fact or condition exists that, 13628
if it had existed at the time of the original application for a 13629
certificate of registration, the fact or condition would have 13630
warranted the division to deny the application under division 13631
(A)(7) of this section. If such a fact or condition is found, the 13632
division may, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 13633
revoke the registrant's certificate.13634

       (B) Each registrant that engages in lending under sections 13635
1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code shall, if not otherwise 13636
required to be bonded pursuant to section 1321.533 of the Revised 13637
Code, maintain both of the following:13638

       (1) A net worth of at least fifty thousand dollars;13639

       (2) For each certificate of registration, assets of at least 13640
fifty thousand dollars either in use or readily available for use 13641
in the conduct of the business.13642

       (C) Not more than one place of business shall be maintained 13643
under the same certificate, but the division may issue additional 13644
certificates to the same registrant upon compliance with sections 13645
1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code, governing the issuance of 13646
a single certificate. No change in the place of business of a 13647
registrant to a location outside the original municipal 13648
corporation shall be permitted under the same certificate without 13649
the approval of a new application, the payment of the registration 13650
fee and, if required by the superintendent, the payment of an 13651
investigation fee of two hundred dollars. When a registrant wishes 13652
to change its place of business within the same municipal 13653
corporation, it shall give written notice of the change in advance 13654
to the division, which shall provide a certificate for the new 13655
address without cost. If a registrant changes its name, prior to 13656
making loans under the new name it shall give written notice of 13657
the change to the division, which shall provide a certificate in 13658
the new name without cost. Sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the 13659
Revised Code do not limit the loans of any registrant to residents 13660
of the community in which the registrant's place of business is 13661
situated. Each certificate shall be kept conspicuously posted in 13662
the place of business of the registrant and is not transferable or 13663
assignable.13664

       (D) Sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code do not 13665
apply to any of the following:13666

       (1) Entities chartered and lawfully doing business under the 13667
authority of any law of this state, another state, or the United 13668
States as a bank, savings bank, trust company, savings and loan 13669
association, or credit union, or a subsidiary of any such entity, 13670
which subsidiary is regulated by a federal banking agency and is 13671
owned and controlled by such a depository institution;13672

       (2) Life, property, or casualty insurance companies licensed 13673
to do business in this state;13674

       (3) Any person that is a lender making a loan pursuant to 13675
sections 1321.01 to 1321.19 of the Revised Code or a business loan 13676
as described in division (B)(6) of section 1343.01 of the Revised 13677
Code;13678

       (4) Any political subdivision, or any governmental or other 13679
public entity, corporation, instrumentality, or agency, in or of 13680
the United States or any state of the United States, or any entity 13681
described in division (B)(3) of section 1343.01 of the Revised 13682
Code;13683

       (5) A college or university, or controlled entity of a 13684
college or university, as those terms are defined in section 13685
1713.05 of the Revised Code;13686

       (6) A credit union service organization, provided the 13687
organization utilizes services provided by registered mortgage 13688
loan originators or the organization complies with section 13689
1321.522 of the Revised Code and holds a valid letter of exemption 13690
issued by the superintendent.13691

       (E) No person engaged in the business of selling tangible 13692
goods or services related to tangible goods may receive or retain 13693
a certificate under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised 13694
Code for such place of business.13695

       Sec. 1321.531. (A) An application for a mortgage loan 13696
originator license shall be in writing, under oath, and in the 13697
form prescribed by the superintendent of financial institutions. 13698
The application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable 13699
application fee of one hundred fifty dollars and all other 13700
required fees, including any fees required by the nationwide 13701
mortgage licensing system and registry.13702

       (B) The superintendent may establish relationships or enter 13703
into contracts with the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13704
registry, or any entities designated by it, to collect and 13705
maintain records and process transaction fees or other fees 13706
related to mortgage loan originator licensees or other persons 13707
subject to or involved in their licensure.13708

       (C) In connection with applying for a mortgage loan 13709
originator license, the applicant shall furnish to the nationwide 13710
mortgage licensing system and registry the following information 13711
concerning the applicant's identity:13712

       (1) The applicant's fingerprints for submission to the 13713
federal bureau of investigation, and any other governmental agency 13714
or entity authorized to receive such information, for purposes of 13715
a state, national, and international criminal history background 13716
check;13717

       (2) Personal history and experience in a form prescribed by 13718
the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, along with 13719
authorization for the superintendent and the nationwide mortgage 13720
licensing system and registry to obtain the following:13721

       (a) An independent credit report from a consumer reporting 13722
agency;13723

       (b) Information related to any administrative, civil, or 13724
criminal findings by any governmental jurisdiction.13725

       (D) In order to effectuate the purposes of divisions (C)(1) 13726
and (C)(2)(b) of this section, the superintendent may use the 13727
conference of state bank supervisors, or a wholly owned 13728
subsidiary, as a channeling agent for requesting information from 13729
and distributing information to the United States department of 13730
justice or any other governmental agency. The superintendent may 13731
also use the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry as 13732
a channeling agent for requesting information from and 13733
distributing information to any source related to matters subject 13734
to divisions (C)(2)(a) and (b) of this section.13735

       (E) Upon the filing of the application, payment of the 13736
application fee, and payment of any additional fee, including any 13737
fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13738
registry, the superintendent shall investigate the applicant as 13739
set forth in division (E) of this section.13740

       (1)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the 13741
Revised Code, the superintendent shall obtain a criminal history 13742
records check and, as part of that records check, request that 13743
criminal record information from the federal bureau of 13744
investigation be obtained. To fulfill this requirement, the 13745
superintendent shall do either of the following: 13746

       (i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 13747
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 13748
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 13749
applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, 13750
based on the applicant's social security number in accordance with 13751
division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code;13752

       (ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13753
registry to request a criminal history background check as set 13754
forth in division (C) of this section.13755

       (b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 13756
of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 13757
and registry shall be paid by the applicant.13758

       (2) The superintendent of financial institutions shall 13759
conduct a civil records check.13760

       (3) If, in order to issue a license to an applicant, 13761
additional investigation by the superintendent outside this state 13762
is necessary, the superintendent may require the applicant to 13763
advance sufficient funds to pay the actual expenses of the 13764
investigation, if it appears that these expenses will exceed one 13765
hundred dollars. The superintendent shall provide the applicant 13766
with an itemized statement of the actual expenses that the 13767
applicant is required to pay.13768

       (F) If an application for a mortgage loan originator license 13769
does not contain all of the information required under this 13770
section, and if that information is not submitted to the 13771
superintendent or to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13772
registry within ninety days after the superintendent or the 13773
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry requests the 13774
information in writing, including by electronic transmission or 13775
facsimile, the superintendent may consider the application 13776
withdrawn.13777

       Sec. 1321.537.  (A) As used in this section:13778

       (1) "Out-of-state mortgage loan originator" means an 13779
individual to whom both of the following apply:13780

       (a) The individual holds a valid mortgage loan originator 13781
license, or comparable authority, issued pursuant to the law of 13782
any other state of the United States.13783

       (b) The individual is registered, fingerprinted, and 13784
maintains a unique identifier through the nationwide mortgage 13785
licensing system and registry.13786

       (2) "Sponsor" means a registrant or entity described in 13787
division (D) of section 1321.53 of the Revised Code that employs 13788
or is associated with an applicant for a temporary mortgage loan 13789
originator license and, during the term of the applicant's 13790
temporary license, covers the applicant under its corporate surety 13791
bond or requires the applicant to obtain and maintain a corporate 13792
surety bond.13793

       (B) The superintendent of financial institutions may, in 13794
accordance with this section, issue to an out-of-state mortgage 13795
loan originator a temporary mortgage loan originator license that 13796
enables the licensee to engage in the business of a mortgage loan 13797
originator while the individual completes the requirements 13798
necessary to meet the conditions set forth in section 1321.532 of 13799
the Revised Code for a mortgage loan originator license. A 13800
temporary mortgage loan originator license shall be valid for a 13801
term of not more than one hundred twenty days from the date of 13802
issuance. A temporary mortgage loan originator license may not be 13803
renewed.13804

       (C) An application for a temporary mortgage loan originator 13805
license shall be in writing, under oath, and in a form that meets 13806
the requirements of the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13807
registry. The application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable 13808
application fee, the amount of which shall be determined by the 13809
superintendent in rule, and a certification that, as of the date 13810
of application, the applicant meets both of the following 13811
conditions:13812

       (1) The applicant has at least two years of experience in the 13813
field of residential mortgage lending in the five years 13814
immediately preceding the date of application for the temporary 13815
mortgage loan originator license.13816

       (2) The applicant has not previously applied for a temporary 13817
mortgage loan originator license in this state.13818

       (3) The applicant has not had a mortgage loan originator 13819
license, or comparable authority, revoked in any governmental 13820
jurisdiction. For purposes of division (C)(3) of this section, a 13821
subsequent formal vacation of such a revocation shall not be 13822
considered a revocation.13823

       (4) The applicant has not been convicted of, or pleaded 13824
guilty or nolo contendere to, any of the following in a domestic, 13825
foreign, or military court:13826

       (a) During the seven-year period immediately preceding the 13827
date of application, a misdemeanor involving theft or any felony;13828

       (b) At any time prior to the date of application, a felony 13829
involving an act of fraud, dishonesty, a breach of trust, theft, 13830
or money laundering.13831

       For purposes of division (C)(4) of this section, any 13832
conviction for which the applicant has received a pardon shall not 13833
be considered a conviction.13834

       (D) The superintendent shall issue a temporary mortgage loan 13835
originator license to the applicant if the superintendent finds 13836
that all of the following conditions are met:13837

       (1) The application is accompanied by the application fee and 13838
the certification described in division (C) of this section.13839

       (2) The applicant is registered, fingerprinted, and has a 13840
valid unique identifier through the nationwide mortgage licensing 13841
system and registry as of the date of application.13842

       (3) The applicant has authorized the nationwide mortgage 13843
licensing system and registry to obtain a credit report for 13844
submission to the superintendent.13845

       (4) The applicant has a sponsor that certifies employment of, 13846
or association with, the applicant and has signed the application.13847

       (E) The sponsor of a temporary licensee shall have an 13848
affirmative duty to supervise the conduct of each temporary 13849
mortgage loan originator in the same manner as is required of its 13850
other licensees. If the temporary licensee's employment or 13851
association with the sponsor is terminated, the sponsor shall 13852
notify the division of financial institutions of the termination 13853
through the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry. 13854
Upon the division's receipt of the notice, the sponsor shall no 13855
longer be held responsible for the conduct of the temporary 13856
licensee.13857

       (F) The superintendent may, in accordance with Chapter 119. 13858
of the Revised Code, adopt rules necessary for the implementation 13859
and operation of this section.13860

       Sec. 1321.538.  If the "Secure and Fair Enforcement for 13861
Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008," 122 Stat. 2810, 12 U.S.C. 5101, 13862
as amended, is modified after the effective date of this section, 13863
or any regulation, statement, or position is adopted under that 13864
act, to permit states to issue a temporary mortgage loan 13865
originator license to a registered mortgage loan originator, the 13866
superintendent shall, in accordance with section 111.15 of the 13867
Revised Code, adopt rules the superintendent considers necessary 13868
and appropriate to issue a temporary license to a registered 13869
mortgage loan originator.13870

       Sec. 1322.02.  (A)(1) No person, on the person's own behalf 13871
or on behalf of any other person, shall act as a mortgage broker 13872
without first having obtained a certificate of registration from 13873
the superintendent of financial institutions for every office to 13874
be maintained by the person for the transaction of business as a 13875
mortgage broker in this state. A registrant shall maintain an 13876
office location in this state for the transaction of business as a 13877
mortgage broker in this state.13878

       (2) No person shall act or hold that person's self out as a 13879
mortgage broker under the authority or name of a registrant or 13880
person exempt from sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code 13881
without first having obtained a certificate of registration from 13882
the superintendent for every office to be maintained by the person 13883
for the transaction of business as a mortgage broker in this 13884
state.13885

       (B)(1) No individual shall act as a loan originator without 13886
first having obtained a license from the superintendent. A loan 13887
originator shall be employed by or associated with a mortgage 13888
broker or any person or entity listed in division (G)(2) of 13889
section 1322.01 of the Revised Code, but shall not be employed by 13890
or associated with more than one mortgage broker or person or 13891
entity at any one time.13892

       (2) An individual acting under the individual's authority as 13893
a registered loan originator shall not be required to be licensed 13894
under division (B)(1) of this section.13895

       (3) An individual who holds a valid temporary loan originator 13896
license issued pursuant to section 1322.042 of the Revised Code 13897
may engage in the business of a loan originator in accordance with 13898
sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code during the term of 13899
the temporary license.13900

       (C)(1) No person acting as a mortgage broker or loan 13901
originator shall fail to register with, and maintain a valid 13902
unique identifier issued by, the nationwide mortgage licensing 13903
system and registry.13904

       (2) No person shall use a mortgage broker's or loan 13905
originator's unique identifier for any purpose other than as set 13906
forth in the "Secure and Fair Enforcement for Mortgage Licensing 13907
Act of 2008," 122 Stat. 2810, 12 U.S.C. 5101.13908

       Sec. 1322.03.  (A) An application for a certificate of 13909
registration as a mortgage broker shall be in writing, under oath, 13910
and in the form prescribed by the superintendent of financial 13911
institutions. The application shall be accompanied by a 13912
nonrefundable application fee of five hundred dollars for each 13913
location of an office to be maintained by the applicant in 13914
accordance with division (A) of section 1322.02 of the Revised 13915
Code and any additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage 13916
licensing system and registry. The application shall provide all 13917
of the following:13918

       (1) The location or locations where the business is to be 13919
transacted and whether any location is a residence. If any 13920
location where the business is to be transacted is a residence, 13921
the superintendent may require that the application be accompanied 13922
by a copy of a zoning permit authorizing the use of the residence 13923
for commercial purposes, or by a written opinion or other document 13924
issued by the county or political subdivision where the residence 13925
is located certifying that the use of the residence to transact 13926
business as a mortgage broker is not prohibited by the county or 13927
political subdivision. 13928

       (2)(a) In the case of a sole proprietor, the name and address 13929
of the sole proprietor;13930

       (b) In the case of a partnership, the name and address of 13931
each partner;13932

       (c) In the case of a corporation, the name and address of 13933
each shareholder owning five per cent or more of the corporation;13934

       (d) In the case of any other entity, the name and address of 13935
any person that owns five per cent or more of the entity that will 13936
transact business as a mortgage broker.13937

       (3) Each applicant shall designate an employee or owner of 13938
the applicant as the applicant's operations manager. While acting 13939
as the operations manager, the employee or owner shall be licensed 13940
as a loan originator under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the 13941
Revised Code and shall not be employed by any other mortgage 13942
broker.13943

       (4) Evidence that the person designated on the application 13944
pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section possesses at least 13945
three years of experience in the residential mortgage and lending 13946
field, which experience may include employment with or as a 13947
mortgage broker or with a depository institution, mortgage lending 13948
institution, or other lending institution, or possesses at least 13949
three years of other experience related specifically to the 13950
business of residential mortgage loans that the superintendent 13951
determines meets the requirements of division (A)(4) of this 13952
section;13953

       (5) Evidence that the person designated on the application 13954
pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section has successfully 13955
completed the pre-licensing instruction requirements set forth in 13956
section 1322.031 of the Revised Code;13957

       (6) Evidence of compliance with the surety bond requirements 13958
of section 1322.05 of the Revised Code and with sections 1322.01 13959
to 1322.12 of the Revised Code;13960

       (7) In the case of a foreign business entity, evidence that 13961
it maintains a license or registration pursuant to Chapter 1703., 13962
1705., 1775., 1776., 1777., 1782., or 1783. of the Revised Code to 13963
transact business in this state;13964

       (8) Evidence that the applicant's operations manager has 13965
successfully completed the written test required under division 13966
(A) of section 1322.051 of the Revised Code;13967

       (9) Any further information that the superintendent requires.13968

       (B) Upon the filing of the application and payment of the 13969
nonrefundable application fee and any fee required by the 13970
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, the 13971
superintendent of financial institutions shall investigate the 13972
applicant, and any individual whose identity is required to be 13973
disclosed in the application, as set forth in division (B) of this 13974
section.13975

       (1)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the 13976
Revised Code, the superintendent shall obtain a criminal history 13977
records check and, as part of that records check, request that 13978
criminal record information from the federal bureau of 13979
investigation be obtained. To fulfill this requirement, the 13980
superintendent shall do either of the following:13981

       (i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 13982
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 13983
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 13984
applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, 13985
based on the applicant's social security number, in accordance 13986
with division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code;13987

       (ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13988
registry to request a criminal history background check. 13989

       (b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 13990
of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 13991
and registry shall be paid by the applicant.13992

       (2) The superintendent shall conduct a civil records check. 13993

       (3) If, in order to issue a certificate of registration to an 13994
applicant, additional investigation by the superintendent outside 13995
this state is necessary, the superintendent may require the 13996
applicant to advance sufficient funds to pay the actual expenses 13997
of the investigation, if it appears that these expenses will 13998
exceed five hundred dollars. The superintendent shall provide the 13999
applicant with an itemized statement of the actual expenses that 14000
the applicant is required to pay.14001

       (C) The superintendent shall pay all funds advanced and 14002
application and renewal fees and penalties the superintendent 14003
receives pursuant to this section and section 1322.04 of the 14004
Revised Code to the treasurer of state to the credit of the 14005
consumer finance fund created in section 1321.21 of the Revised 14006
Code.14007

       (D) If an application for a mortgage broker certificate of 14008
registration does not contain all of the information required 14009
under division (A) of this section, and if that information is not 14010
submitted to the superintendent or to the nationwide mortgage 14011
licensing system and registry within ninety days after the 14012
superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 14013
registry requests the information in writing, including by 14014
electronic transmission or facsimile, the superintendent may 14015
consider the application withdrawn.14016

       (E) A mortgage broker certificate of registration and the 14017
authority granted under that certificate is not transferable or 14018
assignable and cannot be franchised by contract or any other 14019
means.14020

       (F) The registration requirements of this chapter apply to 14021
any person acting as a mortgage broker, and no person is exempt 14022
from the requirements of this chapter on the basis of prior work 14023
or employment as a mortgage broker.14024

       (G) The superintendent may establish relationships or enter 14025
into contracts with the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 14026
registry, or any entities designated by it, to collect and 14027
maintain records and process transaction fees or other fees 14028
related to mortgage broker certificates of registration or the 14029
persons associated with a mortgage broker.14030

       Sec. 1322.031. (A) An application for a license as a loan 14031
originator shall be in writing, under oath, and in the form 14032
prescribed by the superintendent of financial institutions. The 14033
application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable application 14034
fee of one hundred fifty dollars and any additional fee required 14035
by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry.14036

       (B)(1) The application shall provide evidence, acceptable to 14037
the superintendent, that the applicant has successfully completed 14038
at least twenty-four hours of pre-licensing instruction consisting 14039
of all of the following:14040

       (a) Twenty hours of instruction in a course or program of 14041
study reviewed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing 14042
system and registry;14043

       (b) Four hours of instruction in a course or program of study 14044
reviewed and approved by the superintendent concerning state 14045
lending laws and the Ohio consumer sales practices act, Chapter 14046
1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to registrants and 14047
licensees.14048

       (2) Notwithstanding division (B)(1) of this section, until 14049
the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry implements a 14050
review and approval program, the application shall provide 14051
evidence, as determined by the superintendent, that the applicant 14052
has successfully completed at least twenty-four hours of 14053
instruction in a course or program of study approved by the 14054
superintendent that consists of at least all of the following:14055

       (a) Four hours of instruction concerning state and federal 14056
mortgage lending laws, which shall include no less than two hours 14057
on this chapter;14058

       (b) Four hours of instruction concerning the Ohio consumer 14059
sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it 14060
applies to registrants and licensees;14061

       (c) Four hours of instruction concerning the loan application 14062
process;14063

       (d) Two hours of instruction concerning the underwriting 14064
process;14065

       (e) Two hours of instruction concerning the secondary market 14066
for mortgage loans;14067

       (f) Four hours of instruction concerning the loan closing 14068
process;14069

       (g) Two hours of instruction covering basic mortgage 14070
financing concepts and terms;14071

       (h) Two hours of instruction concerning the ethical 14072
responsibilities of a registrant and a licensee, including with 14073
respect to confidentiality, consumer counseling, and the duties 14074
and standards of care created in section 1322.081 of the Revised 14075
Code.14076

       (3) For purposes of division (B)(1)(a) of this section, the 14077
review and approval of a course or program of study includes the 14078
review and approval of the provider of the course or program of 14079
study.14080

       (4) If an applicant held a valid loan originator license 14081
issued by this state at any time during the immediately preceding 14082
five-year period, the applicant shall not be required to complete 14083
any additional pre-licensing instruction. For this purpose, any 14084
time during which the individual is a registered loan originator 14085
shall not be taken into account.14086

       (5) A person having successfully completed the pre-licensing 14087
education requirement reviewed and approved by the nationwide 14088
mortgage licensing system and registry for any state within the 14089
previous five years shall be granted credit toward completion of 14090
the pre-licensing education requirement of this state.14091

       (C) In addition to the information required under division 14092
(B) of this section, the application shall provide both of the 14093
following:14094

       (1) Evidence that the applicant passed a written test that 14095
meets the requirements described in division (B) of section 14096
1322.051 of the Revised Code;14097

       (2) Any further information that the superintendent requires.14098

       (D) Upon the filing of the application and payment of the 14099
application fee and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage 14100
licensing system and registry, the superintendent of financial 14101
institutions shall investigate the applicant as set forth in 14102
division (D) of this section. 14103

        (1)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the 14104
Revised Code, the superintendent shall obtain a criminal history 14105
records check and, as part of the records check, request that 14106
criminal record information from the federal bureau of 14107
investigation be obtained. To fulfill this requirement, the 14108
superintendent shall do either of the following:14109

       (i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 14110
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 14111
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 14112
applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, 14113
based on the applicant's social security number, in accordance 14114
with division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code;14115

       (ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 14116
registry to request a criminal history background check. 14117

       (b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 14118
of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 14119
and registry shall be paid by the applicant.14120

       (2) The superintendent shall conduct a civil records check. 14121

       (3) If, in order to issue a license to an applicant, 14122
additional investigation by the superintendent outside this state 14123
is necessary, the superintendent may require the applicant to 14124
advance sufficient funds to pay the actual expenses of the 14125
investigation, if it appears that these expenses will exceed one 14126
hundred fifty dollars. The superintendent shall provide the 14127
applicant with an itemized statement of the actual expenses that 14128
the applicant is required to pay.14129

       (E)(1) In connection with applying for a loan originator 14130
license, the applicant shall furnish to the nationwide mortgage 14131
licensing system and registry the following information concerning 14132
the applicant's identity:14133

       (a) The applicant's fingerprints for submission to the 14134
federal bureau of investigation, and any other governmental agency 14135
or entity authorized to receive such information, for purposes of 14136
a state, national, and international criminal history background 14137
check;14138

       (b) Personal history and experience in a form prescribed by 14139
the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, along with 14140
authorization for the superintendent and the nationwide mortgage 14141
licensing system and registry to obtain the following:14142

       (i) An independent credit report from a consumer reporting 14143
agency;14144

       (ii) Information related to any administrative, civil, or 14145
criminal findings by any governmental jurisdiction. 14146

       (2) In order to effectuate the purposes of divisions 14147
(E)(1)(a) and (E)(1)(b)(ii) of this section, the superintendent 14148
may use the conference of state bank supervisors, or a wholly 14149
owned subsidiary, as a channeling agent for requesting information 14150
from and distributing information to the United States department 14151
of justice or any other governmental agency. The superintendent 14152
may also use the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry 14153
as a channeling agent for requesting information from and 14154
distributing information to any source related to matters subject 14155
to those divisions of this section.14156

        (F) The superintendent shall pay all funds advanced and 14157
application and renewal fees and penalties the superintendent 14158
receives pursuant to this section and section 1322.041 of the 14159
Revised Code to the treasurer of state to the credit of the 14160
consumer finance fund created in section 1321.21 of the Revised 14161
Code.14162

       (G) If an application for a loan originator license does not 14163
contain all of the information required under this section, and if 14164
that information is not submitted to the superintendent or to the 14165
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry within ninety 14166
days after the superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing 14167
system and registry requests the information in writing, including 14168
by electronic transmission or facsimile, the superintendent may 14169
consider the application withdrawn.14170

       (H)(1) The business of a loan originator shall principally be 14171
transacted at an office of the mortgage broker with whom the 14172
licensee is employed or associated, which office is registered in 14173
accordance with division (A) of section 1322.02 of the Revised 14174
Code. Each original loan originator license shall be deposited 14175
with and maintained by the mortgage broker at the mortgage 14176
broker's main office. A copy of the license shall be maintained 14177
and displayed at the office where the loan originator principally 14178
transacts business.14179

       (2) If a loan originator's employment or association is 14180
terminated for any reason, the mortgage broker shall return the 14181
original loan originator license to the superintendent within five 14182
business days after the termination. The licensee may request the 14183
transfer of the license to another mortgage broker by submitting a 14184
transfer application, along with a fifteen dollar fee and any fee 14185
required by the national mortgage licensing system and registry, 14186
to the superintendent or may request the superintendent in writing 14187
to hold the license in escrow. Any licensee whose license is held 14188
in escrow shall cease activity as a loan originator. A licensee 14189
whose license is held in escrow shall be required to apply for 14190
renewal annually and to comply with the annual continuing 14191
education requirement.14192

       (3) A mortgage broker may employ or be associated with a loan 14193
originator on a temporary basis pending the transfer of the loan 14194
originator's license to the mortgage broker, if the mortgage 14195
broker receives written confirmation from the superintendent that 14196
the loan originator is licensed under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 14197
of the Revised Code.14198

       (4) Notwithstanding divisions (H)(1) to (3) of this section, 14199
if a licensee is employed by or associated with a person or entity 14200
listed in division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code, 14201
all of the following apply:14202

       (a) The licensee shall maintain and display the original loan 14203
originator license at the office where the licensee principally 14204
transacts business;14205

       (b) If the loan originator's employment or association is 14206
terminated, the loan originator shall return the original loan 14207
originator license to the superintendent within five business days 14208
after termination. The licensee may request the transfer of the 14209
license to a mortgage broker or another person or entity listed in 14210
division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code by 14211
submitting a transfer application, along with a fifteen-dollar fee 14212
and any fee required by the national mortgage licensing system and 14213
registry, to the superintendent or may request the superintendent 14214
in writing to hold the license in escrow. A licensee whose license 14215
is held in escrow shall cease activity as a loan originator. A 14216
licensee whose license is held in escrow shall be required to 14217
apply for renewal annually and to comply with the annual 14218
continuing education requirement.14219

       (c) The licensee may seek to be employed or associated with a 14220
mortgage broker or person or entity listed in division (G)(2) of 14221
section 1322.01 of the Revised Code if the mortgage broker or 14222
person or entity receives written confirmation from the 14223
superintendent that the loan originator is licensed under sections 14224
1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code.14225

       (I) The superintendent may establish relationships or enter 14226
into contracts with the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 14227
registry, or any entities designated by it, to collect and 14228
maintain records and process transaction fees or other fees 14229
related to loan originator licenses or the persons associated with 14230
a licensee.14231

        (J) A loan originator license, or the authority granted under 14232
that license, is not assignable and cannot be franchised by 14233
contract or any other means.14234

       Sec. 1322.042.  (A) As used in this section:14235

       (1) "Out-of-state loan originator" means an individual to 14236
whom both of the following apply:14237

       (a) The individual holds a valid loan originator license, or 14238
comparable authority, issued pursuant to the law of any other 14239
state of the United States.14240

       (b) The individual is registered, fingerprinted, and 14241
maintains a unique identifier through the nationwide mortgage 14242
licensing system and registry.14243

       (2) "Sponsor" means a registrant or entity described in 14244
division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code that 14245
employs or is associated with an applicant for a temporary loan 14246
originator license and, during the term of the applicant's 14247
temporary license, covers the applicant under its corporate surety 14248
bond or requires the applicant to obtain and maintain a corporate 14249
surety bond.14250

       (B) The superintendent of financial institutions may, in 14251
accordance with this section, issue to an out-of-state loan 14252
originator a temporary loan originator license that enables the 14253
licensee to engage in the business of a loan originator while the 14254
individual completes the requirements necessary to meet the 14255
conditions set forth in section 1322.041 of the Revised Code for a 14256
loan originator license. A temporary loan originator license shall 14257
be valid for a term of not more than one hundred twenty days from 14258
the date of issuance. A temporary loan originator license may not 14259
be renewed.14260

       (C) An application for a temporary loan originator license 14261
shall be in writing, under oath, and in a form that meets the 14262
requirements of the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 14263
registry. The application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable 14264
application fee, the amount of which shall be determined by the 14265
superintendent in rule, and a certification that, as of the date 14266
of application, the applicant meets the following conditions:14267

       (1) The applicant has at least two years of experience in the 14268
field of residential mortgage lending in the five years 14269
immediately preceding the date of application for the temporary 14270
loan originator license.14271

       (2) The applicant has not previously applied for a temporary 14272
loan originator license in this state.14273

       (3) The applicant has not had a loan originator license, or 14274
comparable authority, revoked in any governmental jurisdiction. 14275
For purposes of division (C)(3) of this section, a subsequent 14276
formal vacation of such a revocation shall not be considered a 14277
revocation.14278

       (4) The applicant has not been convicted of, or pleaded 14279
guilty or nolo contendere to, any of the following in a domestic, 14280
foreign, or military court:14281

       (a) During the seven-year period immediately preceding the 14282
date of application, a misdemeanor involving theft or any felony;14283

       (b) At any time prior to the date of application, a felony 14284
involving an act of fraud, dishonesty, a breach of trust, theft, 14285
or money laundering.14286

       For purposes of division (C)(4) of this section, any 14287
conviction for which the applicant has received a pardon shall not 14288
be considered a conviction.14289

       (D) The superintendent shall issue a temporary loan 14290
originator license to the applicant if the superintendent finds 14291
that all of the following conditions are met:14292

       (1) The application is accompanied by the application fee and 14293
the certification described in division (C) of this section.14294

       (2) The applicant is registered, fingerprinted, and has a 14295
valid unique identifier through the nationwide mortgage licensing 14296
system and registry as of the date of application.14297

       (3) The applicant has authorized the nationwide mortgage 14298
licensing system and registry to obtain a credit report for 14299
submission to the superintendent.14300

       (4) The applicant has a sponsor that certifies employment of, 14301
or association with, the applicant and has signed the application.14302

       (E) The sponsor of a temporary licensee shall have an 14303
affirmative duty to supervise the conduct of each temporary loan 14304
originator in the same manner as is required of its other 14305
licensees. If the temporary licensee's employment or association 14306
with the sponsor is terminated, the sponsor shall notify the 14307
division of financial institutions of the termination through the 14308
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry. Upon the 14309
division's receipt of the notice, the sponsor shall no longer be 14310
held responsible for the conduct of the temporary licensee.14311

        (F) The superintendent may, in accordance with Chapter 119. 14312
of the Revised Code, adopt rules necessary for the implementation 14313
and operation of this section.14314

       Sec. 1322.043.  If the "Secure and Fair Enforcement for 14315
Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008," 122 Stat. 2810, 12 U.S.C. 5101, 14316
as amended, is modified after the effective date of this section, 14317
or any regulation, statement, or position is adopted under that 14318
act, to permit states to issue a temporary loan originator license 14319
to a registered loan originator, the superintendent shall, in 14320
accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code, adopt rules 14321
the superintendent considers necessary and appropriate to issue a 14322
temporary license to a registered loan originator.14323

       Sec. 1345.05.  (A) The attorney general shall:14324

       (1) Adopt, amend, and repeal procedural rules;14325

       (2) Adopt as a rule a description of the organization of the 14326
attorney general's office, stating the general courses and methods 14327
of operation of the section of the office of the attorney general, 14328
which is to administer Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code and 14329
methods whereby the public may obtain information or make 14330
submissions or requests, including a description of all forms and 14331
instructions used by that office;14332

       (3) Make available for public inspection all rules and all 14333
other written statements of policy or interpretations adopted or 14334
used by the attorney general in the discharge of the attorney 14335
general's functions, together with all judgments, including 14336
supporting opinions, by courts of this state that determine the 14337
rights of the parties and concerning which appellate remedies have 14338
been exhausted, or lost by the expiration of the time for appeal, 14339
determining that specific acts or practices violate section 14340
1345.02, 1345.03, or 1345.031 of the Revised Code;14341

       (4) Inform consumers and suppliers on a continuing basis of 14342
acts or practices that violate Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code 14343
by, among other things, publishing an informational document 14344
describing acts and practices in connection with residential 14345
mortgages that are unfair, deceptive, or unconscionable, and by 14346
making that information available on the attorney general's 14347
official web site;14348

       (5) Cooperate with state and local officials, officials of 14349
other states, and officials of the federal government in the 14350
administration of comparable statutes;14351

       (6) Report annually on or before the firstthirty-first day 14352
of January to the governor and the general assembly on the 14353
operations of the attorney general in respect to Chapter 1345. of 14354
the Revised Code, and on the acts or practices occurring in this 14355
state that violate such chapter. The report shall include a 14356
statement of investigatory and enforcement procedures and 14357
policies, of the number of investigations and enforcement 14358
proceedings instituted and of their disposition, and of other 14359
activities of the state and of other persons to promote the 14360
purposes of Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code.14361

       (7) In carrying out official duties, the attorney general 14362
shall not disclose publicly the identity of suppliers investigated 14363
or the facts developed in investigations unless these matters have 14364
become a matter of public record in enforcement proceedings, in 14365
public hearings conducted pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 14366
section, or the suppliers investigated have consented in writing 14367
to public disclosure.14368

       (B) The attorney general may:14369

       (1) Conduct research, make inquiries, hold public hearings, 14370
and publish studies relating to consumer transactions;14371

       (2) Adopt, amend, and repeal substantive rules defining with 14372
reasonable specificity acts or practices that violate sections 14373
1345.02, 1345.03, and 1345.031 of the Revised Code. In adopting, 14374
amending, or repealing substantive rules defining acts or 14375
practices that violate section 1345.02 of the Revised Code, due 14376
consideration and great weight shall be given to federal trade 14377
commission orders, trade regulation rules and guides, and the 14378
federal courts' interpretations of subsection 45(a)(1) of the 14379
"Federal Trade Commission Act," 38 Stat. 717 (1914), 15 U.S.C.A. 14380
41, as amended.14381

       In adopting, amending, or repealing such rules concerning a 14382
consumer transaction in connection with a residential mortgage, 14383
the attorney general shall consult with the superintendent of 14384
financial institutions and shall give due consideration to state 14385
and federal statutes, regulations, administrative agency 14386
interpretations, and case law.14387

       (C) In the conduct of public hearings authorized by this 14388
section, the attorney general may administer oaths, subpoena 14389
witnesses, adduce evidence, and require the production of relevant 14390
material. Upon failure of a person without lawful excuse to obey a 14391
subpoena or to produce relevant matter, the attorney general may 14392
apply to a court of common pleas for an order compelling 14393
compliance.14394

       (D) The attorney general may request that an individual who 14395
refuses to testify or to produce relevant material on the ground 14396
that the testimony or matter may incriminate the individual be 14397
ordered by the court to provide the testimony or matter. With the 14398
exception of a prosecution for perjury and an action for damages 14399
under section 1345.07 or 1345.09 of the Revised Code, an 14400
individual who complies with a court order to provide testimony or 14401
matter, after asserting a privilege against self incrimination to 14402
which the individual is entitled by law, shall not be subjected to 14403
a criminal proceeding on the basis of the testimony or matter 14404
discovered through that testimony or matter.14405

       (E) Any person may petition the attorney general requesting 14406
the adoption, amendment, or repeal of a rule. The attorney general 14407
shall prescribe by rule the form for such petitions and the 14408
procedure for their submission, consideration, and disposition. 14409
Within sixty days of submission of a petition, the attorney 14410
general shall either deny the petition in writing, stating the 14411
reasons for the denial, or initiate rule-making proceedings. There 14412
is no right to appeal from such denial of a petition.14413

       (F) All rules shall be adopted subject to Chapter 119. of the 14414
Revised Code.14415

       (G) The informational document published in accordance with 14416
division (A)(4) of this section shall be made available for 14417
distribution to consumers who are applying for a mortgage loan. An 14418
acknowledgement of receipt shall be retained by the lender, 14419
mortgage broker, and loan officer, as applicable, subject to 14420
review by the attorney general and the department of commerce.14421

       Sec. 1501.04.  There is hereby created in the department of 14422
natural resources a recreation and resources commission composed 14423
of the chairperson of the wildlife council created under section 14424
1531.03 of the Revised Code, the chairperson of the parks and 14425
recreation council created under section 1541.40 of the Revised 14426
Code, the chairperson of the waterways safety council created 14427
under section 1547.73 of the Revised Code, the chairperson of the 14428
technical advisory council on oil and gas created under section 14429
1509.38 of the Revised Code, the chairperson of the forestry 14430
advisory council created under section 1503.40 of the Revised 14431
Code, the chairperson of the Ohio soil and water conservation 14432
commission created under section 1515.02 of the Revised Code, the 14433
chairperson of the Ohio natural areas council created under 14434
section 1517.03 of the Revised Code, the chairperson of the Ohio 14435
water advisory council created under section 1521.031 of the 14436
Revised Code, the chairperson of the recycling and litter 14437
prevention advisory council created under section 1502.04 of the 14438
Revised Code, the chairperson of the Ohio geology advisory council 14439
created under section 1505.11 of the Revised Code, and five 14440
members appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of 14441
the senate, not more than three of whom shall belong to the same 14442
political party. The director of natural resources shall be an ex 14443
officio member of the commission, with a voice in its 14444
deliberations, but without the power to vote.14445

       Terms of office of members of the commission appointed by the 14446
governor shall be for five years, commencing on the second day of 14447
February and ending on the first day of February. Each member 14448
shall hold office from the date of appointment until the end of 14449
the term for which the member was appointed.14450

       In the event of the death, removal, resignation, or 14451
incapacity of a member of the commission, the governor, with the 14452
advice and consent of the senate, shall appoint a successor who 14453
shall hold office for the remainder of the term for which the 14454
member's predecessor was appointed. Any member shall continue in 14455
office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term 14456
until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of 14457
sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.14458

       The governor may remove any appointed member of the 14459
commission for misfeasance, nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office.14460

       The commission shall exercise no administrative function, but 14461
may do any of the following:14462

       (A) Advise with and recommend to the director as to plans and 14463
programs for the management, development, utilization, and 14464
conservation of the natural resources of the state;14465

       (B) Advise with and recommend to the director as to methods 14466
of coordinating the work of the divisions of the department;14467

       (C) Consider and make recommendations upon any matter that 14468
the director may submit to it;14469

       (D) Submit to the governor biennially recommendations for 14470
amendments to the conservation laws of the state.14471

        Each member of the commission, before entering upon the 14472
discharge of the member's duties, shall take and subscribe to an 14473
oath of office, which oath, in writing, shall be filed in the 14474
office of the secretary of state.14475

       The members of the commission shall serve without 14476
compensation, but shall be entitled to receive their actual and 14477
necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official 14478
duties.14479

       The commission, by a majority vote of all its members, shall 14480
adopt and amend bylaws.14481

       To be eligible for appointment, a person shall be a citizen 14482
of the United States and an elector of the state and shall possess 14483
a knowledge of and have an interest in the natural resources of 14484
this state.14485

       The commission shall hold at least four regular quarterly 14486
meetings each year. Special meetings shall be held at such times 14487
as the bylaws of the commission provide. Notices of all meetings 14488
shall be given in such manner as the bylaws provide. The 14489
commission shall choose annually from among its members a 14490
chairperson to preside over its meetings and a secretary to keep a 14491
record of its proceedings. A majority of the members of the 14492
commission constitutes a quorum. No advice shall be given or 14493
recommendation made without a majority of the members of the 14494
commission concurring in it.14495

       Sec. 1503.012. There is hereby created in the state treasury 14496
the forestry mineral royalties fund. The fund shall consist of 14497
money deposited into it under section 1509.73 of the Revised Code. 14498
Any investment proceeds earned on money in the fund shall be 14499
credited to the fund.14500

       Money in the fund shall be used by the division of forestry 14501
to acquire land and to pay capital costs, including equipment and 14502
repairs and renovations of facilities, that are owned by the state 14503
and administered by the division. Expenditures from the fund for 14504
those purposes shall be approved by the director of natural 14505
resources.14506

       The director of natural resources also may request the 14507
director of budget and management to transfer money from the 14508
forestry mineral royalties fund to the parks mineral royalties 14509
fund created in section 1541.26 of the Revised Code. The director 14510
of budget and management shall transfer the money pursuant to the 14511
request if the director consents to the request. Money that is 14512
transferred to the parks mineral royalties fund shall be used for 14513
the purposes specified in section 1541.26 of the Revised Code.14514

       Sec. 1503.43.  (A) As used in this section:14515

       (1) "Wilderness area" means a contiguous area of relatively 14516
undeveloped state-owned land administered by the division of 14517
forestry and consisting of not less than five thousand acres or of 14518
sufficient size as to make practicable its preservation and use in 14519
an unimpaired condition that either has retained its natural 14520
character and influence or has been substantially restored to a 14521
near natural appearance and that meets both of the following 14522
qualifications:14523

       (a) The area is one in which humankind's past influences are 14524
largely unnoticed;14525

       (b) The area has outstanding opportunities for solitude or 14526
for a primitive and unconfined type of recreation.14527

       (2) "Utility facility" includes, without limitation, towers, 14528
poles, pipes, sewers, tubing, conduits, conductors, cables, 14529
valves, lines, wires, manholes, and appurtenances thereto owned by 14530
a utility facility operator.14531

       (3) "Utility facility operator" means a person or public 14532
authority that supplies any of the following materials or services 14533
by means of a utility facility:14534

       (a) Flammable, toxic, or corrosive gas;14535

       (b) Crude oil, petroleum products, or hazardous liquids;14536

       (c) Coal;14537

       (d) Electricity;14538

       (e) Electronic, telephonic, or telegraphic communications;14539

       (f) Television signals;14540

       (g) Sewage disposal or drainage;14541

       (h) Potable water;14542

       (i) Steam or hot water.14543

       (B) That portion of contiguous state lands located in Scioto 14544
and Adams counties and within the Shawnee state forest and bounded 14545
by forest road seventeen and sunshine ridge to the north, by upper 14546
Twin Creek road to the east and northeast, by United States route 14547
fifty-two to the south, and by lower Twin Creek road to the west 14548
and southwest is hereby designated the Shawnee wilderness area. 14549
Except as otherwise specifically provided by this section or by 14550
rule adopted under this chapter, the provisions of this chapter 14551
apply to the Shawnee wilderness area, and that area shall continue 14552
to be a part of the Shawnee state forest.14553

       (C) The Shawnee wilderness area shall be managed to preserve 14554
natural conditions and ensure the continuance of natural 14555
processes. The chief of the division of forestry, with the 14556
approval of the director of natural resources, shall administer 14557
the Shawnee wilderness area in accordance with a management plan, 14558
which the chief shall develop and adopt within one year after 14559
September 14, 1988. Sixty days prior to adopting a plan, the chief 14560
shall solicit public review and comment on a draft plan. At least 14561
once every ten years, the chief shall conduct a review of the 14562
plan, with public input, and revise the plan as appropriate. The 14563
chief shall make the plan available for review by any person upon 14564
request.14565

       (D) Notwithstanding any other authority granted to the chief 14566
under this chapter, the chief shall include within the management 14567
plan adopted under division (C) of this section prohibitions of 14568
the following activities within the Shawnee wilderness area except 14569
for the areas exempted in division (E) of this section:14570

       (1) Picking, removal, cutting, or alteration in any manner of 14571
any vegetation unless the person first has obtained written 14572
consent from the chief for that activity and the action is 14573
necessary for appropriate public access, the preservation or 14574
restoration of a plant or wildlife species, or the documentation 14575
of scientific values;14576

       (2) Granting of any easement or license, or sale or lease of 14577
any of the land, for any purpose. Division (D)(2) of this section 14578
does not apply to any private easement or license in existence on 14579
September 14, 1988.14580

       (3) Exploration for or extraction of any coal, oil, gas, or 14581
minerals;14582

       (4) Operation, construction, or installation of a utility 14583
facility above or below the surface of the land;14584

       (5) Operation of a commercial enterprise;14585

       (6) Except as provided in division (D)(7) of this section, 14586
construction of a road upon any of the land or use of the land as 14587
a road;14588

       (7) Except as is necessary to meet emergency requirements for 14589
administration of the area:14590

       (a) Landing of an aircraft;14591

       (b) Operation of a motor vehicle, motor boat, other form of 14592
mechanical transport, or motorized equipment;14593

       (c) Construction of any building or other structure;14594

       (d) Use of the land as a temporary road.14595

       (E)(1) The following areas, which now are necessary for the 14596
administration of the Shawnee state forest and the state forest 14597
system, are not subject to the prohibitions of division (D) of 14598
this section:14599

       (a) The Buena Vista manager's residence;14600

       (b) The Buena Vista walnut seed orchard;14601

       (c) The Twin Creek fire tower.14602

       (2) The following areas, which now are necessary for the 14603
administration of the Shawnee state forest and the state forest 14604
system, are not subject to the prohibition established in division 14605
(D)(7)(b) of this section for the purpose of trail maintenance:14606

       (a) The hiking trail west of upper Twin Creek road known as 14607
the wilderness loop;14608

       (b) Buckhorn ridge bridle trail;14609

       (c) Cabbage patch bridle trail.14610

       (3) At any time that the chief makes a determination that it 14611
is no longer necessary for the administration of the Shawnee state 14612
forest or the state forest system for an area excluded in division 14613
(E)(1) or (2) of this section to be excluded, the area shall 14614
become subject to the prohibitions ofestablished in division (D) 14615
of this section or the prohibition established in division 14616
(D)(7)(b) of this section, as applicable.14617

       (F) The chief, in developing a management plan under division 14618
(C) of this section, may not prohibit any hunting, fishing, or 14619
trapping that is done in conformity with Chapters 1531. and 1533. 14620
of the Revised Code or any rules adopted under those chapters.14621

       Sec. 1506.42.  The state, acting through the director of 14622
natural resources, subject to section 1506.46 of the Revised Code, 14623
may enter into agreements with counties, townships, municipal 14624
corporations, park boards, and conservancy districts, other 14625
political subdivisions, or any state departments or divisions for 14626
the purpose of constructing and maintaining projects to control 14627
erosion along the Ohio shoreline of Lake Erie and in any rivers 14628
and bays that are connected with Lake Erie and any other 14629
watercourses that flow into Lake Erie. Such projects also may be 14630
constructed on any Lake Erie island that is situated within the 14631
boundaries of the state.14632

       The cost of such shore erosion projects that are for the 14633
benefit of public littoral property shall be prorated on the basis 14634
of two-thirds of the total cost to the state through 14635
appropriations made to the department of natural resources and 14636
one-third of the cost to the counties, townships, municipal 14637
corporations, park boards, conservancy districts, or other 14638
political subdivisions.14639

       If a shore erosion emergency is declared by the governor, the 14640
state, acting through the director, may spend whatever state funds 14641
are available to alleviate shore erosion, without participation by 14642
any political subdivision, regardless of whether the project will 14643
benefit public or private littoral property.14644

       A board of county commissioners, acting for the county over 14645
which it has jurisdiction, may enter into and carry out agreements 14646
with the director for the construction and maintenance of projects 14647
to control shore erosion. In providing the funds for the county's 14648
proportionate share of the cost of constructing and maintaining 14649
the projects referred to in this section, the board shall be 14650
governed by and may issue and refund bonds in accordance with 14651
Chapter 133. of the Revised Code.14652

       A municipal corporation or a township, acting through the 14653
legislative authority or the board of township trustees, may enter 14654
into and carry out agreements with the director for the purpose of 14655
constructing and maintaining projects to control shore erosion. In 14656
providing the funds for the municipal corporation's or township's 14657
proportionate share of the cost of constructing and maintaining 14658
the projects referred to in this section, a municipal corporation 14659
or township may issue and refund bonds in accordance with Chapter 14660
133. of the Revised Code. The contract shall be executed on behalf 14661
of the municipal corporation or township by the mayor, city 14662
manager, or other chief executive officer who has the authority to 14663
act for the municipal corporation or township.14664

       Conservancy districts may enter into and carry out agreements 14665
with the director, in accordance with the intent of this section, 14666
under the powers conferred upon conservancy districts under 14667
Chapter 6101. of the Revised Code.14668

       Park boards may enter into and carry out agreements with the 14669
director, in accordance with the intent of this section, and issue 14670
bonds for that purpose under the powers conferred upon park 14671
districts under Chapter 1545. of the Revised Code.14672

       The director shall approve and supervise all projects that 14673
are to be constructed in accordance with this section. The 14674
director shall not proceed with the construction of any project 14675
until all funds that are to be paid by the county, township, 14676
municipal corporation, park board, or conservancy district, in 14677
accordance with the terms of the agreement entered into between 14678
the director and the county, township, municipal corporation, park 14679
board, or conservancy district, are in the director's possession 14680
and deposited in the shore erosion fund, which is hereby created 14681
in the state treasury. If the director finds it to be in the best 14682
interests of the state to construct projects as set forth in this 14683
section by the state itself, without the financial contribution of 14684
counties, townships, municipal corporations, park boards, or 14685
conservancy districts, the director may construct the projects.14686

       In deciding whether to assist a county or municipal 14687
corporation in constructing and maintaining a project under this 14688
section, the state, acting through the director, shall consider, 14689
among other factors, whether the county or municipal corporation 14690
has adopted or is in the process of adopting a Lake Erie coastal 14691
erosion area resolution or ordinance under division (D) of section 14692
1506.07 of the Revised Code.14693

       All projects constructed by the state in conformity with 14694
sections 1506.38 to 1506.46 of the Revised Code shall be 14695
constructed subject to sections 153.01 to 153.20 of the Revised 14696
Code, except that the state architect and engineerOhio facilities 14697
construction commission is not required to prepare the plans and 14698
specifications for those projects.14699

       Sec. 1509.071.  (A) When the chief of the division of oil and 14700
gas resources management finds that an owner has failed to comply 14701
with a final nonappealable order issued or compliance agreement 14702
entered into under section 1509.04, the restoration requirements 14703
of section 1509.072, plugging requirements of section 1509.12, or 14704
permit provisions of section 1509.13 of the Revised Code, or rules 14705
and orders relating thereto, the chief shall make a finding of 14706
that fact and declare any surety bond filed to ensure compliance 14707
with those sections and rules forfeited in the amount set by rule 14708
of the chief. The chief thereupon shall certify the total 14709
forfeiture to the attorney general, who shall proceed to collect 14710
the amount of the forfeiture. In addition, the chief may require 14711
an owner, operator, producer, or other person who forfeited a 14712
surety bond to post a new surety bond in the amount of fifteen 14713
thousand dollars for a single well, thirty thousand dollars for 14714
two wells, or fifty thousand dollars for three or more wells.14715

       In lieu of total forfeiture, the surety or owner, at the 14716
surety's or owner's option, may cause the well to be properly 14717
plugged and abandoned and the area properly restored or pay to the 14718
treasurer of state the cost of plugging and abandonment.14719

       (B) All moneys collected because of forfeitures of bonds as 14720
provided in this section shall be deposited in the state treasury 14721
to the credit of the oil and gas well fund created in section 14722
1509.02 of the Revised Code. 14723

       The chief annually shall spend not less than fourteen per 14724
cent of the revenue credited to the fund during the previous 14725
fiscal year for the following purposes:14726

       (1) In accordance with division (D) of this section, to plug 14727
idle and orphaned wells or to restore the land surface properly as 14728
required in section 1509.072 of the Revised Code;14729

       (2) In accordance with division (E) of this section, to 14730
correct conditions that the chief reasonably has determined are 14731
causing imminent health or safety risks at an idle and orphaned 14732
well or a well for which the owner cannot be contacted in order to 14733
initiate a corrective action within a reasonable period of time as 14734
determined by the chief.14735

       Expenditures from the fund shall be made only for lawful 14736
purposes. In addition, expenditures from the fund shall not be 14737
made to purchase real property or to remove a dwelling in order to 14738
access a well.14739

       (C)(1) Upon determining that the owner of a well has failed 14740
to properly plug and abandon it or to properly restore the land 14741
surface at the well site in compliance with the applicable 14742
requirements of this chapter and applicable rules adopted and 14743
orders issued under it or that a well is an abandoned well for 14744
which no funds are available to plug the well in accordance with 14745
this chapter, the chief shall do all of the following:14746

       (a) Determine from the records in the office of the county 14747
recorder of the county in which the well is located the identity 14748
of the owner of the land on which the well is located, the 14749
identity of the owner of the oil or gas lease under which the well 14750
was drilled or the identity of each person owning an interest in 14751
the lease, and the identities of the persons having legal title 14752
to, or a lien upon, any of the equipment appurtenant to the well;14753

       (b) Mail notice to the owner of the land on which the well is 14754
located informing the landowner that the well is to be plugged. If 14755
the owner of the oil or gas lease under which the well was drilled 14756
is different from the owner of the well or if any persons other 14757
than the owner of the well own interests in the lease, the chief 14758
also shall mail notice that the well is to be plugged to the owner 14759
of the lease or to each person owning an interest in the lease, as 14760
appropriate.14761

       (c) Mail notice to each person having legal title to, or a 14762
lien upon, any equipment appurtenant to the well, informing the 14763
person that the well is to be plugged and offering the person the 14764
opportunity to plug the well and restore the land surface at the 14765
well site at the person's own expense in order to avoid forfeiture 14766
of the equipment to this state.14767

       (2) If none of the persons described in division (C)(1)(c) of 14768
this section plugs the well within sixty days after the mailing of 14769
the notice required by that division, all equipment appurtenant to 14770
the well is hereby declared to be forfeited to this state without 14771
compensation and without the necessity for any action by the state 14772
for use to defray the cost of plugging and abandoning the well and 14773
restoring the land surface at the well site.14774

       (D) Expenditures from the fund for the purpose of division 14775
(B)(1) of this section shall be made in accordance with either of 14776
the following:14777

       (1) The expenditures may be made pursuant to contracts 14778
entered into by the chief with persons who agree to furnish all of 14779
the materials, equipment, work, and labor as specified and 14780
provided in such a contract for activities associated with the 14781
restoration or plugging of a well as determined by the chief. The 14782
activities may include excavation to uncover a well, geophysical 14783
methods to locate a buried well when clear evidence of leakage 14784
from the well exists, cleanout of wellbores to remove material 14785
from a failed plugging of a well, plugging operations, 14786
installation of vault and vent systems, including associated 14787
engineering certifications and permits, restoration of property, 14788
and repair of damage to property that is caused by such 14789
activities. Expenditures shall not be used for salaries, 14790
maintenance, equipment, or other administrative purposes, except 14791
for costs directly attributed to the plugging of an idle and 14792
orphaned well. Agents or employees of persons contracting with the 14793
chief for a restoration or plugging project may enter upon any 14794
land, public or private, on which the well is located for the 14795
purpose of performing the work. Prior to such entry, the chief 14796
shall give to the following persons written notice of the 14797
existence of a contract for a project to restore or plug a well, 14798
the names of the persons with whom the contract is made, and the 14799
date that the project will commence: the owner of the well, the 14800
owner of the land upon which the well is located, the owner or 14801
agents of adjoining land, and, if the well is located in the same 14802
township as or in a township adjacent to the excavations and 14803
workings of a mine and the owner or lessee of that mine has 14804
provided written notice identifying those townships to the chief 14805
at any time during the immediately preceding three years, the 14806
owner or lessee of the mine.14807

       (2)(a) The owner of the land on which a well is located who 14808
has received notice under division (C)(1)(b) of this section may 14809
plug the well and be reimbursed by the division of oil and gas 14810
resources management for the reasonable cost of plugging the well. 14811
In order to plug the well, the landowner shall submit an 14812
application to the chief on a form prescribed by the chief and 14813
approved by the technical advisory council on oil and gas created 14814
in section 1509.38 of the Revised Code. The application, at a 14815
minimum, shall require the landowner to provide the same 14816
information as is required to be included in the application for a 14817
permit to plug and abandon under section 1509.13 of the Revised 14818
Code. The application shall be accompanied by a copy of a proposed 14819
contract to plug the well prepared by a contractor regularly 14820
engaged in the business of plugging oil and gas wells. The 14821
proposed contract shall require the contractor to furnish all of 14822
the materials, equipment, work, and labor necessary to plug the 14823
well properly and shall specify the price for doing the work, 14824
including a credit for the equipment appurtenant to the well that 14825
was forfeited to the state through the operation of division 14826
(C)(2) of this section. Expenditures under division (D)(2)(a) of 14827
this section shall be consistent with the expenditures for 14828
activities described in division (D)(1) of this section. The 14829
application also shall be accompanied by the permit fee required 14830
by section 1509.13 of the Revised Code unless the chief, in the 14831
chief's discretion, waives payment of the permit fee. The 14832
application constitutes an application for a permit to plug and 14833
abandon the well for the purposes of section 1509.13 of the 14834
Revised Code.14835

       (b) Within thirty days after receiving an application and 14836
accompanying proposed contract under division (D)(2)(a) of this 14837
section, the chief shall determine whether the plugging would 14838
comply with the applicable requirements of this chapter and 14839
applicable rules adopted and orders issued under it and whether 14840
the cost of the plugging under the proposed contract is 14841
reasonable. If the chief determines that the proposed plugging 14842
would comply with those requirements and that the proposed cost of 14843
the plugging is reasonable, the chief shall notify the landowner 14844
of that determination and issue to the landowner a permit to plug 14845
and abandon the well under section 1509.13 of the Revised Code. 14846
Upon approval of the application and proposed contract, the chief 14847
shall transfer ownership of the equipment appurtenant to the well 14848
to the landowner. The chief may disapprove an application 14849
submitted under division (D)(2)(a) of this section if the chief 14850
determines that the proposed plugging would not comply with the 14851
applicable requirements of this chapter and applicable rules 14852
adopted and orders issued under it, that the cost of the plugging 14853
under the proposed contract is unreasonable, or that the proposed 14854
contract is not a bona fide, arm's length contract.14855

       (c) After receiving the chief's notice of the approval of the 14856
application and permit to plug and abandon a well under division 14857
(D)(2)(b) of this section, the landowner shall enter into the 14858
proposed contract to plug the well. 14859

       (d) Upon determining that the plugging has been completed in 14860
compliance with the applicable requirements of this chapter and 14861
applicable rules adopted and orders issued under it, the chief 14862
shall reimburse the landowner for the cost of the plugging as set 14863
forth in the proposed contract approved by the chief. The 14864
reimbursement shall be paid from the oil and gas well fund. If the 14865
chief determines that the plugging was not completed in accordance 14866
with the applicable requirements, the chief shall not reimburse 14867
the landowner for the cost of the plugging, and the landowner or 14868
the contractor, as applicable, promptly shall transfer back to 14869
this state title to and possession of the equipment appurtenant to 14870
the well that previously was transferred to the landowner under 14871
division (D)(2)(b) of this section. If any such equipment was 14872
removed from the well during the plugging and sold, the landowner 14873
shall pay to the chief the proceeds from the sale of the 14874
equipment, and the chief promptly shall pay the moneys so received 14875
to the treasurer of state for deposit into the oil and gas well 14876
fund.14877

       The chief may establish an annual limit on the number of 14878
wells that may be plugged under division (D)(2) of this section or 14879
an annual limit on the expenditures to be made under that 14880
division.14881

       As used in division (D)(2) of this section, "plug" and 14882
"plugging" include the plugging of the well and the restoration of 14883
the land surface disturbed by the plugging.14884

       (E) Expenditures from the oil and gas well fund for the 14885
purpose of division (B)(2) of this section may be made pursuant to 14886
contracts entered into by the chief with persons who agree to 14887
furnish all of the materials, equipment, work, and labor as 14888
specified and provided in such a contract. The competitive bidding 14889
requirements of Chapter 153. of the Revised Code do not apply if 14890
the chief reasonably determines that an emergency situation exists 14891
requiring immediate action for the correction of the applicable 14892
health or safety risk requires immediate action. A contract or 14893
purchase of materials for purposes of addressing the emergency 14894
situation is not subject to division (B) of section 127.16 of the 14895
Revised Code. The chief, designated representatives of the chief, 14896
and agents or employees of persons contracting with the chief 14897
under this division may enter upon any land, public or private, 14898
for the purpose of performing the work.14899

       (F) Contracts entered into by the chief under this section 14900
are not subject to eitherany of the following:14901

       (1) Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code;14902

       (2) Section 153.54 of the Revised Code, except that the 14903
contractor shall obtain and provide to the chief as a bid guaranty 14904
a surety bond or letter of credit in an amount equal to ten per 14905
cent of the amount of the contract;14906

       (3) Section 4733.17 of the Revised Code.14907

       (G) The owner of land on which a well is located who has 14908
received notice under division (C)(1)(b) of this section, in lieu 14909
of plugging the well in accordance with division (D)(2) of this 14910
section, may cause ownership of the well to be transferred to an 14911
owner who is lawfully doing business in this state and who has met 14912
the financial responsibility requirements established under 14913
section 1509.07 of the Revised Code, subject to the approval of 14914
the chief. The transfer of ownership also shall be subject to the 14915
landowner's filing the appropriate forms required under section 14916
1509.31 of the Revised Code and providing to the chief sufficient 14917
information to demonstrate the landowner's or owner's right to 14918
produce a formation or formations. That information may include a 14919
deed, a lease, or other documentation of ownership or property 14920
rights.14921

       The chief shall approve or disapprove the transfer of 14922
ownership of the well. If the chief approves the transfer, the 14923
owner is responsible for operating the well in accordance with 14924
this chapter and rules adopted under it, including, without 14925
limitation, all of the following:14926

       (1) Filing an application with the chief under section 14927
1509.06 of the Revised Code if the owner intends to drill deeper 14928
or produce a formation that is not listed in the records of the 14929
division for that well;14930

       (2) Taking title to and possession of the equipment 14931
appurtenant to the well that has been identified by the chief as 14932
having been abandoned by the former owner;14933

       (3) Complying with all applicable requirements that are 14934
necessary to drill deeper, plug the well, or plug back the well.14935

       (H) The chief shall issue an order that requires the owner of 14936
a well to pay the actual documented costs of a corrective action 14937
that is described in division (B)(2) of this section concerning 14938
the well. The chief shall transmit the money so recovered to the 14939
treasurer of state who shall deposit the money in the state 14940
treasury to the credit of the oil and gas well fund.14941

       (I) The chief may engage in cooperative projects under this 14942
section with any agency of this state, another state, or the 14943
United States; any other governmental agencies; or any state 14944
university or college as defined in section 3345.27 of the Revised 14945
Code. A contract entered into for purposes of a cooperative 14946
project is not subject to division (B) of section 127.16 of the 14947
Revised Code.14948

       Sec. 1533.081. (A) As used in this section:14949

       (1) "Energy" has the same meaning as in section 1551.01 of 14950
the Revised Code.14951

       (2) "Energy facility" means a facility at which energy is 14952
produced.14953

       (B) A person operating an energy facility whose operation may 14954
result in the incidental taking of a wild animal shall obtain a 14955
permit to do so from the chief of the division of wildlife under 14956
this section. The chief shall adopt rules under section 1531.10 of 14957
the Revised Code that are necessary to administer this section.14958

       Sec. 1533.10.  Except as provided in this section or division 14959
(A)(2) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, no person shall 14960
hunt any wild bird or wild quadruped without a hunting license. 14961
Each day that any person hunts within the state without procuring 14962
such a license constitutes a separate offense. Except as otherwise 14963
provided in this section, every applicant for a hunting license 14964
who is a resident of the state and eighteen years of age or more 14965
shall procure a resident hunting license or an apprentice resident 14966
hunting license, the fee for which shall be eighteen dollars 14967
unless the rules adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 of 14968
the Revised Code provide for issuance of a resident hunting 14969
license to the applicant free of charge. Except as provided in 14970
rules adopted under division (B)(2) of that section, each 14971
applicant who is a resident of this state and who at the time of 14972
application is sixty-six years of age or older shall procure a 14973
special senior hunting license, the fee for which shall be 14974
one-half of the regular hunting license fee. Every applicant who 14975
is under the age of eighteen years shall procure a special youth 14976
hunting license or an apprentice youth hunting license, the fee 14977
for which shall be one-half of the regular hunting license fee. 14978

       A resident of this state who owns lands in the state and the 14979
owner's children of any age and grandchildren under eighteen years 14980
of age may hunt on the lands without a hunting license. A resident 14981
of any other state who owns real property in this state, and the 14982
spouse and children living with the property owner, may hunt on 14983
that property without a license, provided that the state of 14984
residence of the real property owner allows residents of this 14985
state owning real property in that state, and the spouse and 14986
children living with the property owner, to hunt without a 14987
license. If the owner of land in this state is a limited liability 14988
company or a limited liability partnership that consists of three 14989
or fewer individual members or partners, as applicable, an 14990
individual member or partner who is a resident of this state and 14991
the member's or partner's children of any age and grandchildren 14992
under eighteen years of age may hunt on the land owned by the 14993
limited liability company or limited liability partnership without 14994
a hunting license. In addition, if the owner of land in this state 14995
is a trust that has a total of three or fewer trustees and 14996
beneficiaries, an individual who is a trustee or beneficiary and 14997
who is a resident of this state and the individual's children of 14998
any age and grandchildren under eighteen years of age may hunt on 14999
the land owned by the trust without a hunting license. The tenant 15000
and children of the tenant, residing on lands in the state, may 15001
hunt on them without a hunting license. 15002

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1) of section 15003
1533.12 of the Revised Code, every applicant for a hunting license 15004
who is a nonresident of the state and who is eighteen years of age 15005
or older shall procure a nonresident hunting license or an 15006
apprentice nonresident hunting license, the fee for which shall be 15007
one hundred twenty-four dollars unless the applicant is a resident 15008
of a state that is a party to an agreement under section 1533.91 15009
of the Revised Code, in which case the fee shall be eighteen 15010
dollars. Apprentice resident hunting licenses, apprentice youth 15011
hunting licenses, and apprentice nonresident hunting licenses are 15012
subject to the requirements established under section 1533.102 of 15013
the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to it.15014

       The chief of the division of wildlife may issue a small game 15015
hunting license expiring three days from the effective date of the 15016
license to a nonresident of the state, the fee for which shall be 15017
thirty-nine dollars. No person shall take or possess deer, wild 15018
turkeys, fur-bearing animals, ducks, geese, brant, or any nongame 15019
animal while possessing only a small game hunting license. A small 15020
game hunting license or an apprentice nonresident hunting license 15021
does not authorize the taking or possessing of ducks, geese, or 15022
brant without having obtained, in addition to the small game 15023
hunting license or the apprentice nonresident hunting license, a 15024
wetlands habitat stamp as provided in section 1533.112 of the 15025
Revised Code. A small game hunting license or an apprentice 15026
nonresident hunting license does not authorize the taking or 15027
possessing of deer, wild turkeys, or fur-bearing animals. A 15028
nonresident of the state who wishes to take or possess deer, wild 15029
turkeys, or fur-bearing animals in this state shall procure, 15030
respectively, a deer or wild turkey permit as provided in section 15031
1533.11 of the Revised Code or a fur taker permit as provided in 15032
section 1533.111 of the Revised Code in addition to a nonresident 15033
hunting license, an apprentice nonresident hunting license, a 15034
special youth hunting license, or an apprentice youth hunting 15035
license, as applicable, as provided in this section.15036

       No person shall procure or attempt to procure a hunting 15037
license by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, or any false 15038
statement.15039

       This section does not authorize the taking and possessing of 15040
deer or wild turkeys without first having obtained, in addition to 15041
the hunting license required by this section, a deer or wild 15042
turkey permit as provided in section 1533.11 of the Revised Code 15043
or the taking and possessing of ducks, geese, or brant without 15044
first having obtained, in addition to the hunting license required 15045
by this section, a wetlands habitat stamp as provided in section 15046
1533.112 of the Revised Code.15047

       This section does not authorize the hunting or trapping of 15048
fur-bearing animals without first having obtained, in addition to 15049
a hunting license required by this section, a fur taker permit as 15050
provided in section 1533.111 of the Revised Code.15051

       No hunting license shall be issued unless it is accompanied 15052
by a written explanation of the law in section 1533.17 of the 15053
Revised Code and the penalty for its violation, including a 15054
description of terms of imprisonment and fines that may be 15055
imposed.15056

       No hunting license, other than an apprentice hunting license, 15057
shall be issued unless the applicant presents to the agent 15058
authorized to issue the license a previously held hunting license 15059
or evidence of having held such a license in content and manner 15060
approved by the chief, a certificate of completion issued upon 15061
completion of a hunter education and conservation course approved 15062
by the chief, or evidence of equivalent training in content and 15063
manner approved by the chief. A previously held apprentice hunting 15064
license does not satisfy the requirement concerning the 15065
presentation of a previously held hunting license or evidence of 15066
it.15067

       No person shall issue a hunting license, except an apprentice 15068
hunting license, to any person who fails to present the evidence 15069
required by this section. No person shall purchase or obtain a 15070
hunting license, other than an apprentice hunting license, without 15071
presenting to the issuing agent the evidence required by this 15072
section. Issuance of a hunting license in violation of the 15073
requirements of this section is an offense by both the purchaser 15074
of the illegally obtained hunting license and the clerk or agent 15075
who issued the hunting license. Any hunting license issued in 15076
violation of this section is void.15077

       The chief, with approval of the wildlife council, shall adopt 15078
rules prescribing a hunter education and conservation course for 15079
first-time hunting license buyers, other than buyers of apprentice 15080
hunting licenses, and for volunteer instructors. The course shall 15081
consist of subjects including, but not limited to, hunter safety 15082
and health, use of hunting implements, hunting tradition and 15083
ethics, the hunter and conservation, the law in section 1533.17 of 15084
the Revised Code along with the penalty for its violation, 15085
including a description of terms of imprisonment and fines that 15086
may be imposed, and other law relating to hunting. Authorized 15087
personnel of the division or volunteer instructors approved by the 15088
chief shall conduct such courses with such frequency and at such 15089
locations throughout the state as to reasonably meet the needs of 15090
license applicants. The chief shall issue a certificate of 15091
completion to each person who successfully completes the course 15092
and passes an examination prescribed by the chief.15093

       Sec. 1541.26.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 15094
the parks mineral royalties fund. The fund shall consist of money 15095
deposited into it under section 1509.73 of the Revised Code and 15096
money transferred to it under section 1503.012 of the Revised 15097
Code. Any investment proceeds earned on money in the fund shall be 15098
credited to the fund. 15099

       Money in the fund shall be used by the division of parks and 15100
recreation to acquire land and to pay capital costs, including 15101
equipment and repairs and renovations of facilities, that are 15102
owned by the state and administered by the division. Expenditures 15103
from the fund shall be approved by the director of natural 15104
resources.15105

       Sec. 1551.33.  (A) The director of development shall appoint 15106
and fix the compensation of the director of the Ohio coal 15107
development office. The director shall serve at the pleasure of 15108
the director of development.15109

       (B) The director of the office shall do all of the following:15110

       (1) Biennially prepare and maintain the Ohio coal development 15111
agenda required under section 1551.34 of the Revised Code;15112

       (2) Propose and support policies for the office consistent 15113
with the Ohio coal development agenda and develop means to 15114
implement the agenda;15115

       (3) Initiate, undertake, and support projects to carry out 15116
the office's purposes and ensure that the projects are consistent 15117
with and meet the selection criteria established by the Ohio coal 15118
development agenda;15119

       (4) Actively encourage joint participation in and, when 15120
feasible, joint funding of the office's projects with governmental 15121
agencies, electric utilities, universities and colleges, other 15122
public or private interests, or any other person;15123

       (5) Establish a table of organization for and employ such 15124
employees and agents as are necessary for the administration and 15125
operation of the office. Any such employees shall be in the 15126
unclassified service and shall serve at the pleasure of the 15127
director of development.15128

       (6) Appoint specified members of and convene the technical 15129
advisory committee established under section 1551.35 of the 15130
Revised Code;15131

       (7) Review, with the assistance of the technical advisory 15132
committee, proposed coal research and development projects as 15133
defined in section 1555.01 of the Revised Code, and coal 15134
development projects, submitted to the office by public utilities 15135
for the purpose of section 4905.304 of the Revised Code. If the 15136
director and the advisory committee determine that any such 15137
facility or project has as its purpose the enhanced use of Ohio 15138
coal in an environmentally acceptable, cost effective manner, 15139
promotes energy conservation, is cost effective, and is 15140
environmentally sound, the director shall submit to the public 15141
utilities commission a report recommending that the commission 15142
allow the recovery of costs associated with the facility or 15143
project under section 4905.304 of the Revised Code and including 15144
the reasons for the recommendation.15145

       (8) Establish such policies, procedures, and guidelines as 15146
are necessary to achieve the office's purposes.15147

       (C) TheWith the approval of the director of development, the15148
director of the office may exercise any of the powers and duties 15149
that the director of the officedevelopment considers appropriate 15150
or desirable to achieve the office's purposes, including, but not 15151
limited to, the powers and duties enumerated in sections 1551.11, 15152
1551.12, and 1551.15 of the Revised Code.15153

       Additionally, the director of the office may make loans to 15154
governmental agencies or persons for projects to carry out the 15155
office's purposes. Fees, charges, rates of interest, times of 15156
payment of interest and principal, and other terms, conditions, 15157
and provisions of the loans shall be such as the director of the 15158
office determines to be appropriate and in furtherance of the 15159
purposes for which the loans are made. The mortgage lien securing 15160
any moneys lent by the director of the office may be subordinate 15161
to the mortgage lien securing any moneys lent or invested by a 15162
financial institution, but shall be superior to that securing any 15163
moneys lent or expended by any other person. The moneys used in 15164
making the loans shall be disbursed upon order of the director of 15165
the office.15166

       Sec. 1555.02.  It is hereby declared to be the public policy 15167
of this state through the operations of the Ohio coal development 15168
office under this chapter to contribute toward one or more of the 15169
following: to provide for the comfort, health, safety, and general 15170
welfare of all employees and other inhabitants of this state 15171
through research and development directed toward the discovery of 15172
new technologies or the demonstration or application of existing 15173
technologies to enable the conversion or use of Ohio coal as a 15174
fuel or chemical feedstock in an environmentally acceptable manner 15175
thereby enhancing the marketability and fostering the use of this 15176
state's vast reserves of coal, to assist in the financing of coal 15177
research and development and coal research and development 15178
projects or facilities for persons doing business in this state 15179
and educational and scientific institutions located in this state, 15180
to create or preserve jobs and employment opportunities or improve 15181
the economic welfare of the people of this state, or to assist and 15182
cooperate with such persons and educational and scientific 15183
institutions in conducting coal research and development. In 15184
furtherance of this public policy, the Ohio coal development 15185
office, with the advice of the technical advisory committee 15186
created in section 1551.35 of the Revised Code and the approval of 15187
the director of development, may make loans, guarantee loans, and 15188
make grants to persons doing business in this state or to 15189
educational or scientific institutions located in this state for 15190
coal research and development projects by such persons or 15191
educational or scientific institutions; may, with the advice of 15192
the technical advisory committee and the approval of the director 15193
of development, request the issuance of coal research and 15194
development general obligations under section 151.07 of the 15195
Revised Code to provide funds for making such loans, loan 15196
guarantees, and grants; and may, with the advice of the technical 15197
advisory committee and the approval of the director of 15198
development, expend moneys credited to the coal research and 15199
development fund created in section 1555.15 of the Revised Code 15200
for the purpose of making such loans, loan guarantees, and grants. 15201
Determinations by the director of the Ohio coal development office 15202
that coal research and development or a coal research and 15203
development facility is a coal research and development project 15204
under this chapter and is consistent with the purposes of Section 15205
15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and this chapter shall be 15206
conclusive as to the validity and enforceability of the coal 15207
research and development general obligations issued to finance 15208
such project and of the authorizations, trust agreements or 15209
indentures, loan agreements, loan guarantee agreements, or grant 15210
agreements, and other agreements made in connection therewith, all 15211
in accordance with their terms.15212

       Sec. 1555.03.  For the purposes of this chapter, the director 15213
of the Ohio coal development office may:15214

       (A) With the advice of the technical advisory committee 15215
created in section 1551.35 of the Revised Code and the approval of 15216
the director of development, make loans, guarantee loans, and make 15217
grants to persons doing business in this state or to educational 15218
or scientific institutions located in this state for coal research 15219
and development projects by any such person or educational or 15220
scientific institution and adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the 15221
Revised Code for making such loans, guarantees, and grants.15222

       (B) In making loans, loan guarantees, and grants under 15223
division (A) of this section and section 1555.04 of the Revised 15224
Code, the director of the office shall ensure that an adequate 15225
portion of the total amount of those loans, loan guarantees, and 15226
grants, as determined by the director with the advice of the 15227
technical advisory committee, is used for conducting research on 15228
fundamental scientific problems related to the utilization of Ohio 15229
coal and shall ensure, to the maximum feasible extent, joint 15230
financial participation by the federal government or other 15231
investors or interested parties in conjunction with any such loan, 15232
loan guarantee, or grant. The director, in each grant agreement or 15233
contract under division (A) of this section, loan contract or 15234
agreement under this division or section 1555.04 of the Revised 15235
Code, and contract of guarantee under section 1555.05 of the 15236
Revised Code, shall require that the facility or project be 15237
maintained and kept in good condition and repair by the person or 15238
educational or scientific institution to whom the grant or loan 15239
was made or for whom the guarantee was made.15240

       (C) From time to time, with the advice of the technical 15241
advisory committee and the approval of the director of 15242
development, request the issuance of coal research and development 15243
general obligations under section 151.07 of the Revised Code, for 15244
any of the purposes set forth in Section 15 of Article VIII, Ohio 15245
Constitution, and subject to the limitations therein upon the 15246
aggregate total amount of obligations that may be outstanding at 15247
any time.15248

       (D) Include as a condition of any loan, loan guarantee, or 15249
grant contract or agreement with any such person or educational or 15250
scientific institution that the director of the office receive, in 15251
addition to payments of principal and interest on any such loan or 15252
service charges for any such guarantee, as appropriate, as 15253
authorized by Section 15,of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, a 15254
reasonable royalty or portion of the income or profits arising out 15255
of the developments, discoveries, or inventions, including patents 15256
or copyrights, that result in whole or in part from coal research 15257
and development projects conducted under any such contract or 15258
agreement, in such amounts and for such period of years as may be 15259
negotiated and provided by the contract or agreement in advance of 15260
the making of the grant, loan, or loan guarantee. Moneys received 15261
by the director of the office under this section may be credited 15262
to the coal research and development bond service fund or used to 15263
make additional loans, loan guarantees, grants, or agreements 15264
under this section.15265

       (E) Employ managers, superintendents, and other employees and 15266
retain or contract with consulting engineers, financial 15267
consultants, accounting experts, architects, and such other 15268
consultants and independent contractors as are necessary in the 15269
judgment of the director of the office to carry out this chapter, 15270
and fix the compensation thereof.15271

       (F) Receive and accept from any federal agency, subject to 15272
the approval of the governor, grants for or in aid of the 15273
construction or operation of any coal research and development 15274
project or for coal research and development, and receive and 15275
accept aid or contributions from any source of money, property, 15276
labor, or other things of value, to be held, used, and applied 15277
only for the purposes for which such grants and contributions are 15278
made.15279

       (G) Purchase fire and extended coverage and liability 15280
insurance for any coal research and development project, insurance 15281
protecting the office and its officers and employees against 15282
liability for damage to property or injury to or death of persons 15283
arising from its operations, and any other insurance the director 15284
of the office determines necessary or proper under this chapter. 15285
Any moneys received by the director from the proceeds of any such 15286
insurance with respect to a coal research and development project 15287
and any moneys received by the director from the proceeds of any 15288
settlement, judgment, foreclosure, or other insurance with respect 15289
to a coal research and development project or facility shall be 15290
credited to the coal research and development bond service fund.15291

       (H) In the exercise of the powers of the director of the 15292
office under this chapter, call to the director's assistance, 15293
temporarily, from time to time, any engineers, technical experts, 15294
financial experts, and other employees in any state department, 15295
agency, or commission, or in the Ohio state university, or other 15296
educational institutions financed wholly or partially by this 15297
state for purposes of assisting the director of the office with 15298
reviewing and evaluating applications for financial assistance 15299
under this chapter, monitoring performance of coal research and 15300
development projects receiving financial assistance under this 15301
chapter, and reviewing and evaluating the progress and findings of 15302
those projects. Such engineers, experts, and employees shall not 15303
receive any additional compensation over that which they receive 15304
from the department, agency, commission, or educational 15305
institution by which they are employed, but they shall be 15306
reimbursed for their actual and necessary expenses incurred while 15307
working under the direction of the director.15308

       (I) Do all acts necessary or proper to carry out the powers 15309
expressly granted in this chapter.15310

       Sec. 1555.04.  (A) With respect to coal research and 15311
development projects financed wholly or partially from a loan or 15312
loan guarantee under this chapter, the director of the Ohio coal 15313
development office, in addition to other powers under this 15314
chapter, with the advice of the technical advisory committee 15315
created in section 1551.35 of the Revised Code and the approval of 15316
the director of development, may enter into loan agreements, 15317
accept notes and other forms of obligation to evidence such 15318
indebtedness and mortgages, liens, pledges, assignments, or other 15319
security interests to secure such indebtedness, which may be prior 15320
or subordinate to or on a parity with other indebtedness, 15321
obligations, mortgages, pledges, assignments, other security 15322
interests, or liens or encumbrances, and take such actions as the 15323
director of the office considers appropriate to protect such 15324
security and safeguard against losses, including, without 15325
limitation, foreclosure and the bidding upon and purchase of 15326
property upon foreclosure or other sale.15327

       (B) The authority granted by this section is cumulative and 15328
supplementary to all other authority granted in this chapter. The 15329
authority granted by this section does not alter or impair any 15330
similar authority granted elsewhere in this chapter with respect 15331
to other projects.15332

       Sec. 1555.05.  (A) Subject to any limitations as to aggregate 15333
amounts thereof that may from time to time be prescribed by the 15334
general assembly and to other applicable provisions of this 15335
chapter, and subject to the one-hundred-million-dollar limitation 15336
provided in Section 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, the 15337
director of the Ohio coal development office, on behalf of this 15338
state, with the advice of the technical advisory committee created 15339
in section 1551.35 of the Revised Code and the approval of the 15340
director of development, may enter into contracts to guarantee the 15341
repayment or payment of the unpaid principal amount of loans made 15342
to pay the costs of coal research and development projects.15343

       (B) The contract of guarantee may make provision for the 15344
conditions of, time for, and manner of fulfillment of the 15345
guarantee commitment, subrogation of this state to the rights of 15346
the parties guaranteed and exercise of such parties' rights by the 15347
state, giving the state the option of making payment of the 15348
principal amount guaranteed in one or more installments and, if 15349
deferred, to pay interest thereon from the source specified in 15350
division (A) of this section, and any other terms or conditions 15351
customary to such guarantees and as the director of the office may 15352
approve, and may contain provisions for securing the guarantee in 15353
the manner consistent with this section, covenants on behalf of 15354
this state to issue obligations under section 1555.08 of the 15355
Revised Code to provide moneys to fulfill such guarantees and 15356
covenants, and covenants restricting the aggregate amount of 15357
guarantees that may be contracted under this section and 15358
obligations that may be issued under section 151.07 of the Revised 15359
Code, and terms pertinent to either, to better secure the parties 15360
guaranteed.15361

       (C) The director of the office may fix service charges for 15362
making a guarantee. Such charges shall be payable at such times 15363
and place and in such amounts and manner as may be prescribed by 15364
the director. Moneys received from such charges shall be credited 15365
to the coal research and development bond service fund.15366

       (D) Any guaranteed parties under this section, by any 15367
suitable form of legal proceedings and except to the extent that 15368
their rights are restricted by the guarantee documents, may 15369
protect and enforce any rights under the laws of this state or 15370
granted by such guarantee or guarantee documents. Such rights 15371
include the right to compel the performance of all duties of the 15372
office required by this section or the guarantee or guarantee 15373
documents; and in the event of default with respect to the payment 15374
of any guarantees, to apply to a court having jurisdiction of the 15375
cause to appoint a receiver to receive and administer the moneys 15376
pledged to such guarantee with full power to pay, and to provide 15377
for payment of, such guarantee, and with such powers, subject to 15378
the direction of the court, as are accorded receivers in general 15379
equity cases, excluding any power to pledge or apply additional 15380
revenues or receipts or other income or moneys of this state. Each 15381
duty of the office and its director and employees required or 15382
undertaken under this section or a guarantee made under this 15383
section is hereby established as a duty of the office and of its 15384
director and each such employee having authority to perform such 15385
duty, specifically enjoined by the law resulting from an office, 15386
trust, or station within the meaning of section 2731.01 of the 15387
Revised Code. The persons who are at the time the director of the 15388
office, or its employees, are not liable in their personal 15389
capacities on any guarantees or contracts to make guarantees by 15390
the director.15391

       Sec. 1555.06.  Upon application by the director of the Ohio 15392
coal development office with the approval of the director of 15393
development, the controlling board, from appropriations available 15394
to the board, may provide funds for surveys or studies by the 15395
office of any proposed coal research and development project 15396
subject to repayment by the office from funds available to it, 15397
within the time fixed by the board. Funds to be repaid shall be 15398
charged by the office to the appropriate coal research and 15399
development project and the amount thereof shall be a cost of the 15400
project. This section does not abrogate the authority of the 15401
controlling board to otherwise provide funds for use by the office 15402
in the exercise of the powers granted to it by this chapter.15403

       Sec. 1707.08. (A) The transactions enumerated in section 15404
1707.06 of the Revised Code may be consummated on compliance with 15405
this section and section 1707.11 of the Revised Code.15406

       (B) A description, verified either by the oath of the 15407
individual filing it or of any individual having knowledge of the 15408
facts, shall be filed with the division of securities by the 15409
issuer, or by a majority of the incorporators of the issuer prior 15410
to election of officers if it is an incorporated issuer, or by a 15411
licensed dealer, which description shall be on forms prescribed by 15412
the division and shall set forth:15413

       (1) The name of the issuer;15414

       (2) A brief description of the securities;15415

       (3) The amount of the securities to be offered after the 15416
filing of the description for sale in this state and, if all the 15417
securities are not to be offered by the person filing the 15418
description, then the respective amounts to be offered by others, 15419
so far as those amounts are known, and the names and addresses of 15420
the other offerors;15421

       (4) A brief statement of the facts which show that the 15422
securities are the subject matter of a transaction enumerated in 15423
section 1707.06 of the Revised Code;15424

       (5) The price at which the securities are to be offered for 15425
sale.15426

       (C) The individual who executes the application for 15427
registration by description on behalf of the applicant shall state 15428
the individual's relationship to the applicant and certify all of 15429
the following:15430

        (1) The individual has executed the application on behalf of 15431
the applicant.15432

       (2) The individual is fully authorized to execute and file 15433
the application on behalf of the applicant.15434

        (3) The individual is familiar with the applicant's 15435
application.15436

       (4) To the best of the individual's knowledge, information, 15437
and belief, the statements made in the application are true, and 15438
the documents submitted with the application are true copies of 15439
the original documents.15440

        (D) A registration by description is effective seven business 15441
days after the division receives the description on applicable 15442
forms, together with aany filing fee of fifty dollarsrequired 15443
under this division, if no proceeding is pending under section 15444
1707.13 or 1707.131 of the Revised Code. However, the division may 15445
permit an earlier effective date by rule or by issuing a 15446
certificate of acknowledgment for the registration by description.15447

       For an offering that exceeds fifty thousand dollars, a filing 15448
fee of fifty dollars shall be submitted with the registration by 15449
description.15450

       (E) In order to correct errors or omissions, a registration 15451
by description may be amended by the person that originally filed 15452
it, by the filing, in the same manner as in the case of an 15453
original registration by description, of an amended registration 15454
by description or of an amendment of the original registration by 15455
description.15456

       (F) When transactions in any securities enumerated in section 15457
1707.06 of the Revised Code have been registered and the fees 15458
prescribed by this section have been paid, the transactions may be 15459
consummated so long as the registration remains in full force.15460

       Sec. 1707.391.  When any securities have been sold in 15461
reliance upon division (Q), (W), (X), or (Y) of section 1707.03 of 15462
the Revised Code, section 1707.08 of the Revised Code, or any 15463
other section of this chapter that the division of securities may 15464
specify by rule, but such reliance was improper because the 15465
required filings were not timely or properly made due to excusable 15466
neglect, upon the effective date of an application made to the 15467
division and payment of the requiredany applicable fee, if 15468
required and not already paid, plusand upon payment of a penalty 15469
fee equal to the greater of the required fee or one hundred 15470
dollars, the sale of the securities shall be deemed exempt, 15471
qualified, or registered, as though timely and properly filed. The 15472
application shall become effective upon the expiration of fourteen 15473
days after the date of the filing in question if prior thereto the 15474
division did not give notice to the applicant that the application 15475
was denied based on a finding of lack of excusable neglect. The 15476
division shall promptly adopt and promulgate rules establishing 15477
provisions defining excusable neglect and otherwise establishing 15478
reasonable standards for determining excusable neglect.15479

       The effectiveness of an application under this section does 15480
not relieve anyone who has, other than for excusable neglect, 15481
violated sections 1707.01 to 1707.45 of the Revised Code, or any 15482
previous law in force at the time of sale, from prosecution 15483
thereunder.15484

       Sec. 1724.03. (A) After the articles of incorporation have 15485
been filed, and at the first meeting of the board of directors of 15486
a county land reutilization corporation, the board shall adopt 15487
regulations for the government of the corporation, the conduct of 15488
its affairs, and the management of its property, consistent with 15489
law and the articles. The content of the regulations shall be 15490
governed by section 1702.11 of the Revised Code to the extent not 15491
inconsistent with this chapter. 15492

       (B) The board of directors of a county land reutilization 15493
corporation shall be composed of five, seven, or nine members, 15494
including the county treasurer, at least two of the members of the 15495
board of county commissioners, one representative of the largest 15496
municipal corporation, based on the population according to the 15497
most recent federal decennial census, that is located in the 15498
county, one representative of a township with a population of at 15499
least ten thousand in the unincorporated area of the township 15500
according to the most recent federal decennial census, if at least 15501
two such a township existstownships exist in the county, and any 15502
remaining members selected by the treasurer and the county 15503
commissioners who are members of the corporation's board. At least 15504
one board member shall have private sector or nonprofit experience 15505
in rehabilitation or real estate acquisitions. A county treasurer 15506
and the county commissioners each may appoint a representative, as 15507
a director of the corporation, to act for the officer at any of 15508
the meetings of the corporation. Except as may otherwise be 15509
authorized by the regulations of the corporation, all members of 15510
the board of directors shall serve without compensation, but shall 15511
be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses. 15512

       Sec. 1733.47. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 15513
credit unions is required under this chapter, or under an order or 15514
supervisory action issued or taken under this chapter, for a 15515
person to serve as an organizer, incorporator, director, or 15516
executive officer of a credit union, or to otherwise participate 15517
in the management of a credit union, the superintendent shall 15518
request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 15519
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 15520
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the person's 15521
fingerprints in accordance with division (A)(14) of section 15522
109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of credit unions 15523
shall request that criminal record information from the federal 15524
bureau of investigation be obtained as part of the criminal 15525
records check. Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 15526
109.572 of the Revised Code shall be paid by the person who is the 15527
subject of the request.15528

       Sec. 1751.01.  As used in this chapter:15529

       (A)(1) "Basic health care services" means the following 15530
services when medically necessary:15531

       (a) Physician's services, except when such services are 15532
supplemental under division (B) of this section;15533

       (b) Inpatient hospital services;15534

       (c) Outpatient medical services;15535

       (d) Emergency health services;15536

       (e) Urgent care services;15537

       (f) Diagnostic laboratory services and diagnostic and 15538
therapeutic radiologic services;15539

       (g) Diagnostic and treatment services, other than 15540
prescription drug services, for biologically based mental 15541
illnesses;15542

       (h) Preventive health care services, including, but not 15543
limited to, voluntary family planning services, infertility 15544
services, periodic physical examinations, prenatal obstetrical 15545
care, and well-child care;15546

       (i) Routine patient care for patients enrolled in an eligible 15547
cancer clinical trial pursuant to section 3923.80 of the Revised 15548
Code.15549

       "Basic health care services" does not include experimental 15550
procedures.15551

        Except as provided by divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this 15552
section in connection with the offering of coverage for diagnostic 15553
and treatment services for biologically based mental illnesses, a 15554
health insuring corporation shall not offer coverage for a health 15555
care service, defined as a basic health care service by this 15556
division, unless it offers coverage for all listed basic health 15557
care services. However, this requirement does not apply to the 15558
coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in medicare pursuant to a 15559
medicare contract, or to the coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in 15560
the federal employee health benefits program pursuant to 5 15561
U.S.C.A. 8905, or to the coverage of medicaid recipients, or to 15562
the coverage of beneficiaries under any federal health care 15563
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or to the coverage 15564
of beneficiaries under any contract covering officers or employees 15565
of the state that has been entered into by the department of 15566
administrative services.15567

       (2) A health insuring corporation may offer coverage for 15568
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 15569
illnesses without offering coverage for all other basic health 15570
care services. A health insuring corporation may offer coverage 15571
for diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based 15572
mental illnesses alone or in combination with one or more 15573
supplemental health care services. However, a health insuring 15574
corporation that offers coverage for any other basic health care 15575
service shall offer coverage for diagnostic and treatment services 15576
for biologically based mental illnesses in combination with the 15577
offer of coverage for all other listed basic health care services.15578

       (3) A health insuring corporation that offers coverage for 15579
basic health care services is not required to offer coverage for 15580
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 15581
illnesses in combination with the offer of coverage for all other 15582
listed basic health care services if all of the following apply:15583

       (a) The health insuring corporation submits documentation 15584
certified by an independent member of the American academy of 15585
actuaries to the superintendent of insurance showing that incurred 15586
claims for diagnostic and treatment services for biologically 15587
based mental illnesses for a period of at least six months 15588
independently caused the health insuring corporation's costs for 15589
claims and administrative expenses for the coverage of basic 15590
health care services to increase by more than one per cent per 15591
year. 15592

       (b) The health insuring corporation submits a signed letter 15593
from an independent member of the American academy of actuaries to 15594
the superintendent of insurance opining that the increase in costs 15595
described in division (A)(3)(a) of this section could reasonably 15596
justify an increase of more than one per cent in the annual 15597
premiums or rates charged by the health insuring corporation for 15598
the coverage of basic health care services.15599

       (c) The superintendent of insurance makes the following 15600
determinations from the documentation and opinion submitted 15601
pursuant to divisions (A)(3)(a) and (b) of this section:15602

       (i) Incurred claims for diagnostic and treatment services for 15603
biologically based mental illnesses for a period of at least six 15604
months independently caused the health insuring corporation's 15605
costs for claims and administrative expenses for the coverage of 15606
basic health care services to increase by more than one per cent 15607
per year.15608

       (ii) The increase in costs reasonably justifies an increase 15609
of more than one per cent in the annual premiums or rates charged 15610
by the health insuring corporation for the coverage of basic 15611
health care services. 15612

       Any determination made by the superintendent under this 15613
division is subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.15614

       (B)(1) "Supplemental health care services" means any health 15615
care services other than basic health care services that a health 15616
insuring corporation may offer, alone or in combination with 15617
either basic health care services or other supplemental health 15618
care services, and includes:15619

       (a) Services of facilities for intermediate or long-term 15620
care, or both;15621

       (b) Dental care services;15622

       (c) Vision care and optometric services including lenses and 15623
frames;15624

       (d) Podiatric care or foot care services;15625

       (e) Mental health services, excluding diagnostic and 15626
treatment services for biologically based mental illnesses;15627

       (f) Short-term outpatient evaluative and crisis-intervention 15628
mental health services;15629

       (g) Medical or psychological treatment and referral services 15630
for alcohol and drug abuse or addiction;15631

       (h) Home health services;15632

       (i) Prescription drug services;15633

       (j) Nursing services;15634

       (k) Services of a dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of 15635
the Revised Code;15636

       (l) Physical therapy services;15637

       (m) Chiropractic services;15638

       (n) Any other category of services approved by the 15639
superintendent of insurance.15640

       (2) If a health insuring corporation offers prescription drug 15641
services under this division, the coverage shall include 15642
prescription drug services for the treatment of biologically based 15643
mental illnesses on the same terms and conditions as other 15644
physical diseases and disorders.15645

       (C) "Specialty health care services" means one of the 15646
supplemental health care services listed in division (B) of this 15647
section, when provided by a health insuring corporation on an 15648
outpatient-only basis and not in combination with other 15649
supplemental health care services.15650

       (D) "Biologically based mental illnesses" means 15651
schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, major depressive 15652
disorder, bipolar disorder, paranoia and other psychotic 15653
disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and panic disorder, as 15654
these terms are defined in the most recent edition of the 15655
diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders published by 15656
the American psychiatric association.15657

       (E) "Closed panel plan" means a health care plan that 15658
requires enrollees to use participating providers.15659

       (F) "Compensation" means remuneration for the provision of 15660
health care services, determined on other than a fee-for-service 15661
or discounted-fee-for-service basis.15662

       (G) "Contractual periodic prepayment" means the formula for 15663
determining the premium rate for all subscribers of a health 15664
insuring corporation.15665

       (H) "Corporation" means a corporation formed under Chapter 15666
1701. or 1702. of the Revised Code or the similar laws of another 15667
state.15668

       (I) "Emergency health services" means those health care 15669
services that must be available on a seven-days-per-week, 15670
twenty-four-hours-per-day basis in order to prevent jeopardy to an 15671
enrollee's health status that would occur if such services were 15672
not received as soon as possible, and includes, where appropriate, 15673
provisions for transportation and indemnity payments or service 15674
agreements for out-of-area coverage.15675

       (J) "Enrollee" means any natural person who is entitled to 15676
receive health care benefits provided by a health insuring 15677
corporation.15678

       (K) "Evidence of coverage" means any certificate, agreement, 15679
policy, or contract issued to a subscriber that sets out the 15680
coverage and other rights to which such person is entitled under a 15681
health care plan.15682

       (L) "Health care facility" means any facility, except a 15683
health care practitioner's office, that provides preventive, 15684
diagnostic, therapeutic, acute convalescent, rehabilitation, 15685
mental health, mental retardation, intermediate care, or skilled 15686
nursing services.15687

       (M) "Health care services" means basic, supplemental, and 15688
specialty health care services.15689

       (N) "Health delivery network" means any group of providers or 15690
health care facilities, or both, or any representative thereof, 15691
that have entered into an agreement to offer health care services 15692
in a panel rather than on an individual basis.15693

       (O) "Health insuring corporation" means a corporation, as 15694
defined in division (H) of this section, that, pursuant to a 15695
policy, contract, certificate, or agreement, pays for, reimburses, 15696
or provides, delivers, arranges for, or otherwise makes available, 15697
basic health care services, supplemental health care services, or 15698
specialty health care services, or a combination of basic health 15699
care services and either supplemental health care services or 15700
specialty health care services, through either an open panel plan 15701
or a closed panel plan.15702

       "Health insuring corporation" does not include a limited 15703
liability company formed pursuant to Chapter 1705. of the Revised 15704
Code, an insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code if 15705
that insurer offers only open panel plans under which all 15706
providers and health care facilities participating receive their 15707
compensation directly from the insurer, a corporation formed by or 15708
on behalf of a political subdivision or a department, office, or 15709
institution of the state, or a public entity formed by or on 15710
behalf of a board of county commissioners, a county board of 15711
developmental disabilities, an alcohol and drug addiction services 15712
board, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 15713
services, or a community mental health board, as those terms are 15714
used in Chapters 340. and 5126. of the Revised Code. Except as 15715
provided by division (D) of section 1751.02 of the Revised Code, 15716
or as otherwise provided by law, no board, commission, agency, or 15717
other entity under the control of a political subdivision may 15718
accept insurance risk in providing for health care services. 15719
However, nothing in this division shall be construed as 15720
prohibiting such entities from purchasing the services of a health 15721
insuring corporation or a third-party administrator licensed under 15722
Chapter 3959. of the Revised Code.15723

       (P) "Intermediary organization" means a health delivery 15724
network or other entity that contracts with licensed health 15725
insuring corporations or self-insured employers, or both, to 15726
provide health care services, and that enters into contractual 15727
arrangements with other entities for the provision of health care 15728
services for the purpose of fulfilling the terms of its contracts 15729
with the health insuring corporations and self-insured employers.15730

       (Q) "Intermediate care" means residential care above the 15731
level of room and board for patients who require personal 15732
assistance and health-related services, but who do not require 15733
skilled nursing care.15734

       (R) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 15735
the Revised Code.15736

       (S) "Medical record" means the personal information that 15737
relates to an individual's physical or mental condition, medical 15738
history, or medical treatment.15739

       (T) "Medicare" means the program established under Title 15740
XVIII of the "Social Security Act" 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 15741
1395, as amended.15742

       (U)(1) "Open panel plan" means a health care plan that 15743
provides incentives for enrollees to use participating providers 15744
and that also allows enrollees to use providers that are not 15745
participating providers.15746

       (2) No health insuring corporation may offer an open panel 15747
plan, unless the health insuring corporation is also licensed as 15748
an insurer under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, the health 15749
insuring corporation, on June 4, 1997, holds a certificate of 15750
authority or license to operate under Chapter 1736. or 1740. of 15751
the Revised Code, or an insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the 15752
Revised Code is responsible for the out-of-network risk as 15753
evidenced by both an evidence of coverage filing under section 15754
1751.11 of the Revised Code and a policy and certificate filing 15755
under section 3923.02 of the Revised Code.15756

       (V) "Osteopathic hospital" means a hospital registered under 15757
section 3701.07 of the Revised Code that advocates osteopathic 15758
principles and the practice and perpetuation of osteopathic 15759
medicine by doing any of the following:15760

       (1) Maintaining a department or service of osteopathic 15761
medicine or a committee on the utilization of osteopathic 15762
principles and methods, under the supervision of an osteopathic 15763
physician;15764

       (2) Maintaining an active medical staff, the majority of 15765
which is comprised of osteopathic physicians;15766

       (3) Maintaining a medical staff executive committee that has 15767
osteopathic physicians as a majority of its members.15768

       (W) "Panel" means a group of providers or health care 15769
facilities that have joined together to deliver health care 15770
services through a contractual arrangement with a health insuring 15771
corporation, employer group, or other payor.15772

       (W)(X) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of 15773
the Revised Code, and, unless the context otherwise requires, 15774
includes any insurance company holding a certificate of authority 15775
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, any subsidiary and 15776
affiliate of an insurance company, and any government agency.15777

       (X)(Y) "Premium rate" means any set fee regularly paid by a 15778
subscriber to a health insuring corporation. A "premium rate" does 15779
not include a one-time membership fee, an annual administrative 15780
fee, or a nominal access fee, paid to a managed health care system 15781
under which the recipient of health care services remains solely 15782
responsible for any charges accessed for those services by the 15783
provider or health care facility.15784

       (Y)(Z) "Primary care provider" means a provider that is 15785
designated by a health insuring corporation to supervise, 15786
coordinate, or provide initial care or continuing care to an 15787
enrollee, and that may be required by the health insuring 15788
corporation to initiate a referral for specialty care and to 15789
maintain supervision of the health care services rendered to the 15790
enrollee.15791

       (Z)(AA) "Provider" means any natural person or partnership of 15792
natural persons who are licensed, certified, accredited, or 15793
otherwise authorized in this state to furnish health care 15794
services, or any professional association organized under Chapter 15795
1785. of the Revised Code, provided that nothing in this chapter 15796
or other provisions of law shall be construed to preclude a health 15797
insuring corporation, health care practitioner, or organized 15798
health care group associated with a health insuring corporation 15799
from employing certified nurse practitioners, certified nurse 15800
anesthetists, clinical nurse specialists, certified nurse 15801
midwives, dietitians, physician assistants, dental assistants, 15802
dental hygienists, optometric technicians, or other allied health 15803
personnel who are licensed, certified, accredited, or otherwise 15804
authorized in this state to furnish health care services.15805

       (AA)(BB) "Provider sponsored organization" means a 15806
corporation, as defined in division (H) of this section, that is 15807
at least eighty per cent owned or controlled by one or more 15808
hospitals, as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, or 15809
one or more physicians licensed to practice medicine or surgery or 15810
osteopathic medicine and surgery under Chapter 4731. of the 15811
Revised Code, or any combination of such physicians and hospitals. 15812
Such control is presumed to exist if at least eighty per cent of 15813
the voting rights or governance rights of a provider sponsored 15814
organization are directly or indirectly owned, controlled, or 15815
otherwise held by any combination of the physicians and hospitals 15816
described in this division.15817

       (BB)(CC) "Solicitation document" means the written materials 15818
provided to prospective subscribers or enrollees, or both, and 15819
used for advertising and marketing to induce enrollment in the 15820
health care plans of a health insuring corporation.15821

       (CC)(DD) "Subscriber" means a person who is responsible for 15822
making payments to a health insuring corporation for participation 15823
in a health care plan, or an enrollee whose employment or other 15824
status is the basis of eligibility for enrollment in a health 15825
insuring corporation.15826

       (DD)(EE) "Urgent care services" means those health care 15827
services that are appropriately provided for an unforeseen 15828
condition of a kind that usually requires medical attention 15829
without delay but that does not pose a threat to the life, limb, 15830
or permanent health of the injured or ill person, and may include 15831
such health care services provided out of the health insuring 15832
corporation's approved service area pursuant to indemnity payments 15833
or service agreements.15834

       Sec. 1751.02.  (A) Notwithstanding any law in this state to 15835
the contrary, any corporation, as defined in section 1751.01 of 15836
the Revised Code, may apply to the superintendent of insurance for 15837
a certificate of authority to establish and operate a health 15838
insuring corporation. If the corporation applying for a 15839
certificate of authority is a foreign corporation domiciled in a 15840
state without laws similar to those of this chapter, the 15841
corporation must form a domestic corporation to apply for, obtain, 15842
and maintain a certificate of authority under this chapter.15843

       (B) No person shall establish, operate, or perform the 15844
services of a health insuring corporation in this state without 15845
obtaining a certificate of authority under this chapter.15846

       (C) Except as provided by division (D) of this section, no 15847
political subdivision or department, office, or institution of 15848
this state, or corporation formed by or on behalf of any political 15849
subdivision or department, office, or institution of this state, 15850
shall establish, operate, or perform the services of a health 15851
insuring corporation. Nothing in this section shall be construed 15852
to preclude a board of county commissioners, a county board of 15853
developmental disabilities, an alcohol and drug addiction services 15854
board, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 15855
services, or a community mental health board, or a public entity 15856
formed by or on behalf of any of these boards, from using managed 15857
care techniques in carrying out the board's or public entity's 15858
duties pursuant to the requirements of Chapters 307., 329., 340., 15859
and 5126. of the Revised Code. However, no such board or public 15860
entity may operate so as to compete in the private sector with 15861
health insuring corporations holding certificates of authority 15862
under this chapter.15863

       (D) A corporation formed by or on behalf of a publicly owned, 15864
operated, or funded hospital or health care facility may apply to 15865
the superintendent for a certificate of authority under division 15866
(A) of this section to establish and operate a health insuring 15867
corporation.15868

       (E) A health insuring corporation shall operate in this state 15869
in compliance with this chapter and Chapter 1753. of the Revised 15870
Code, and with sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code,15871
and shall operate in conformity with its filings with the 15872
superintendent under this chapter, including filings made pursuant 15873
to sections 1751.03, 1751.11, 1751.12, and 1751.31 of the Revised 15874
Code.15875

       (F) An insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code 15876
need not obtain a certificate of authority as a health insuring 15877
corporation to offer an open panel plan as long as the providers 15878
and health care facilities participating in the open panel plan 15879
receive their compensation directly from the insurer. If the 15880
providers and health care facilities participating in the open 15881
panel plan receive their compensation from any person other than 15882
the insurer, or if the insurer offers a closed panel plan, the 15883
insurer must obtain a certificate of authority as a health 15884
insuring corporation.15885

       (G) An intermediary organization need not obtain a 15886
certificate of authority as a health insuring corporation, 15887
regardless of the method of reimbursement to the intermediary 15888
organization, as long as a health insuring corporation or a 15889
self-insured employer maintains the ultimate responsibility to 15890
assure delivery of all health care services required by the 15891
contract between the health insuring corporation and the 15892
subscriber and the laws of this state or between the self-insured 15893
employer and its employees.15894

       Nothing in this section shall be construed to require any 15895
health care facility, provider, health delivery network, or 15896
intermediary organization that contracts with a health insuring 15897
corporation or self-insured employer, regardless of the method of 15898
reimbursement to the health care facility, provider, health 15899
delivery network, or intermediary organization, to obtain a 15900
certificate of authority as a health insuring corporation under 15901
this chapter, unless otherwise provided, in the case of contracts 15902
with a self-insured employer, by operation of the "Employee 15903
Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 829, 29 U.S.C.A. 15904
1001, as amended.15905

       (H) Any health delivery network doing business in this state, 15906
including any health delivery network that is functioning as an 15907
intermediary organization doing business in this state, that is 15908
not required to obtain a certificate of authority under this 15909
chapter shall certify to the superintendent annually, not later 15910
than the first day of July, and shall provide a statement signed 15911
by the highest ranking official which includes the following 15912
information:15913

       (1) The health delivery network's full name and the address 15914
of its principal place of business;15915

       (2) A statement that the health delivery network is not 15916
required to obtain a certificate of authority under this chapter 15917
to conduct its business.15918

       (I) The superintendent shall not issue a certificate of 15919
authority to a health insuring corporation that is a provider 15920
sponsored organization unless all health care plans to be offered 15921
by the health insuring corporation provide basic health care 15922
services. Substantially all of the physicians and hospitals with 15923
ownership or control of the provider sponsored organization, as 15924
defined in section 1751.01 of the Revised Code, shall also be 15925
participating providers for the provision of basic health care 15926
services for health care plans offered by the provider sponsored 15927
organization. If a health insuring corporation that is a provider 15928
sponsored organization offers health care plans that do not 15929
provide basic health care services, the health insuring 15930
corporation shall be deemed, for purposes of section 1751.35 of 15931
the Revised Code, to have failed to substantially comply with this 15932
chapter.15933

       Except as specifically provided in this division and in 15934
division (A) of section 1751.28 of the Revised Code, the 15935
provisions of this chapter shall apply to all health insuring 15936
corporations that are provider sponsored organizations in the same 15937
manner that these provisions apply to all health insuring 15938
corporations that are not provider sponsored organizations.15939

       (J) Nothing in this section shall be construed to apply to 15940
any multiple employer welfare arrangement operating pursuant to 15941
Chapter 1739. of the Revised Code.15942

       (K) Any person who violates division (B) of this section, and 15943
any health delivery network that fails to comply with division (H) 15944
of this section, is subject to the penalties set forth in section 15945
1751.45 of the Revised Code.15946

       Sec. 1751.13.  (A)(1)(a) A health insuring corporation shall, 15947
either directly or indirectly, enter into contracts for the 15948
provision of health care services with a sufficient number and 15949
types of providers and health care facilities to ensure that all 15950
covered health care services will be accessible to enrollees from 15951
a contracted provider or health care facility.15952

       (b) A health insuring corporation shall not refuse to 15953
contract with a physician for the provision of health care 15954
services or refuse to recognize a physician as a specialist on the 15955
basis that the physician attended an educational program or a 15956
residency program approved or certified by the American 15957
osteopathic association. A health insuring corporation shall not 15958
refuse to contract with a health care facility for the provision 15959
of health care services on the basis that the health care facility 15960
is certified or accredited by the American osteopathic association 15961
or that the health care facility is an osteopathic hospital as 15962
defined in section 3702.51 of the Revised Code.15963

       (c) Nothing in division (A)(1)(b) of this section shall be 15964
construed to require a health insuring corporation to make a 15965
benefit payment under a closed panel plan to a physician or health 15966
care facility with which the health insuring corporation does not 15967
have a contract, provided that none of the bases set forth in that 15968
division are used as a reason for failing to make a benefit 15969
payment.15970

       (2) When a health insuring corporation is unable to provide a 15971
covered health care service from a contracted provider or health 15972
care facility, the health insuring corporation must provide that 15973
health care service from a noncontracted provider or health care 15974
facility consistent with the terms of the enrollee's policy, 15975
contract, certificate, or agreement. The health insuring 15976
corporation shall either ensure that the health care service be 15977
provided at no greater cost to the enrollee than if the enrollee 15978
had obtained the health care service from a contracted provider or 15979
health care facility, or make other arrangements acceptable to the 15980
superintendent of insurance.15981

       (3) Nothing in this section shall prohibit a health insuring 15982
corporation from entering into contracts with out-of-state 15983
providers or health care facilities that are licensed, certified, 15984
accredited, or otherwise authorized in that state.15985

       (B)(1) A health insuring corporation shall, either directly 15986
or indirectly, enter into contracts with all providers and health 15987
care facilities through which health care services are provided to 15988
its enrollees.15989

       (2) A health insuring corporation, upon written request, 15990
shall assist its contracted providers in finding stop-loss or 15991
reinsurance carriers.15992

       (C) A health insuring corporation shall file an annual 15993
certificate with the superintendent certifying that all provider 15994
contracts and contracts with health care facilities through which 15995
health care services are being provided contain the following:15996

       (1) A description of the method by which the provider or 15997
health care facility will be notified of the specific health care 15998
services for which the provider or health care facility will be 15999
responsible, including any limitations or conditions on such 16000
services;16001

       (2) The specific hold harmless provision specifying 16002
protection of enrollees set forth as follows:16003

       "[Provider/Health Care Facility] agrees that in no event, 16004
including but not limited to nonpayment by the health insuring 16005
corporation, insolvency of the health insuring corporation, or 16006
breach of this agreement, shall [Provider/Health Care Facility] 16007
bill, charge, collect a deposit from, seek remuneration or 16008
reimbursement from, or have any recourse against, a subscriber, 16009
enrollee, person to whom health care services have been provided, 16010
or person acting on behalf of the covered enrollee, for health 16011
care services provided pursuant to this agreement. This does not 16012
prohibit [Provider/Health Care Facility] from collecting 16013
co-insurance, deductibles, or copayments as specifically provided 16014
in the evidence of coverage, or fees for uncovered health care 16015
services delivered on a fee-for-service basis to persons 16016
referenced above, nor from any recourse against the health 16017
insuring corporation or its successor."16018

       (3) Provisions requiring the provider or health care facility 16019
to continue to provide covered health care services to enrollees 16020
in the event of the health insuring corporation's insolvency or 16021
discontinuance of operations. The provisions shall require the 16022
provider or health care facility to continue to provide covered 16023
health care services to enrollees as needed to complete any 16024
medically necessary procedures commenced but unfinished at the 16025
time of the health insuring corporation's insolvency or 16026
discontinuance of operations. The completion of a medically 16027
necessary procedure shall include the rendering of all covered 16028
health care services that constitute medically necessary follow-up 16029
care for that procedure. If an enrollee is receiving necessary 16030
inpatient care at a hospital, the provisions may limit the 16031
required provision of covered health care services relating to 16032
that inpatient care in accordance with division (D)(3) of section 16033
1751.11 of the Revised Code, and may also limit such required 16034
provision of covered health care services to the period ending 16035
thirty days after the health insuring corporation's insolvency or 16036
discontinuance of operations.16037

       The provisions required by division (C)(3) of this section 16038
shall not require any provider or health care facility to continue 16039
to provide any covered health care service after the occurrence of 16040
any of the following:16041

       (a) The end of the thirty-day period following the entry of a 16042
liquidation order under Chapter 3903. of the Revised Code;16043

       (b) The end of the enrollee's period of coverage for a 16044
contractual prepayment or premium;16045

       (c) The enrollee obtains equivalent coverage with another 16046
health insuring corporation or insurer, or the enrollee's employer 16047
obtains such coverage for the enrollee;16048

       (d) The enrollee or the enrollee's employer terminates 16049
coverage under the contract;16050

       (e) A liquidator effects a transfer of the health insuring 16051
corporation's obligations under the contract under division (A)(8) 16052
of section 3903.21 of the Revised Code.16053

       (4) A provision clearly stating the rights and 16054
responsibilities of the health insuring corporation, and of the 16055
contracted providers and health care facilities, with respect to 16056
administrative policies and programs, including, but not limited 16057
to, payments systems, utilization review, quality assurance, 16058
assessment, and improvement programs, credentialing, 16059
confidentiality requirements, and any applicable federal or state 16060
programs;16061

       (5) A provision regarding the availability and 16062
confidentiality of those health records maintained by providers 16063
and health care facilities to monitor and evaluate the quality of 16064
care, to conduct evaluations and audits, and to determine on a 16065
concurrent or retrospective basis the necessity of and 16066
appropriateness of health care services provided to enrollees. The 16067
provision shall include terms requiring the provider or health 16068
care facility to make these health records available to 16069
appropriate state and federal authorities involved in assessing 16070
the quality of care or in investigating the grievances or 16071
complaints of enrollees, and requiring the provider or health care 16072
facility to comply with applicable state and federal laws related 16073
to the confidentiality of medical or health records.16074

       (6) A provision that states that contractual rights and 16075
responsibilities may not be assigned or delegated by the provider 16076
or health care facility without the prior written consent of the 16077
health insuring corporation;16078

       (7) A provision requiring the provider or health care 16079
facility to maintain adequate professional liability and 16080
malpractice insurance. The provision shall also require the 16081
provider or health care facility to notify the health insuring 16082
corporation not more than ten days after the provider's or health 16083
care facility's receipt of notice of any reduction or cancellation 16084
of such coverage.16085

       (8) A provision requiring the provider or health care 16086
facility to observe, protect, and promote the rights of enrollees 16087
as patients;16088

       (9) A provision requiring the provider or health care 16089
facility to provide health care services without discrimination on 16090
the basis of a patient's participation in the health care plan, 16091
age, sex, ethnicity, religion, sexual preference, health status, 16092
or disability, and without regard to the source of payments made 16093
for health care services rendered to a patient. This requirement 16094
shall not apply to circumstances when the provider or health care 16095
facility appropriately does not render services due to limitations 16096
arising from the provider's or health care facility's lack of 16097
training, experience, or skill, or due to licensing restrictions.16098

       (10) A provision containing the specifics of any obligation 16099
on the primary care provider to provide, or to arrange for the 16100
provision of, covered health care services twenty-four hours per 16101
day, seven days per week;16102

       (11) A provision setting forth procedures for the resolution 16103
of disputes arising out of the contract;16104

       (12) A provision stating that the hold harmless provision 16105
required by division (C)(2) of this section shall survive the 16106
termination of the contract with respect to services covered and 16107
provided under the contract during the time the contract was in 16108
effect, regardless of the reason for the termination, including 16109
the insolvency of the health insuring corporation;16110

       (13) A provision requiring those terms that are used in the 16111
contract and that are defined by this chapter, be used in the 16112
contract in a manner consistent with those definitions.16113

       This division does not apply to the coverage of beneficiaries 16114
enrolled in medicare pursuant to a medicare risk contract or 16115
medicare cost contract, or to the coverage of beneficiaries 16116
enrolled in the federal employee health benefits program pursuant 16117
to 5 U.S.C.A. 8905, or to the coverage of medicaid recipients, or 16118
to the coverage of beneficiaries under any federal health care 16119
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or to the coverage 16120
of beneficiaries under any contract covering officers or employees 16121
of the state that has been entered into by the department of 16122
administrative services.16123

       (D)(1) No health insuring corporation contract with a 16124
provider or health care facility shall contain any of the 16125
following:16126

       (a) A provision that directly or indirectly offers an 16127
inducement to the provider or health care facility to reduce or 16128
limit medically necessary health care services to a covered 16129
enrollee;16130

       (b) A provision that penalizes a provider or health care 16131
facility that assists an enrollee to seek a reconsideration of the 16132
health insuring corporation's decision to deny or limit benefits 16133
to the enrollee;16134

       (c) A provision that limits or otherwise restricts the 16135
provider's or health care facility's ethical and legal 16136
responsibility to fully advise enrollees about their medical 16137
condition and about medically appropriate treatment options;16138

       (d) A provision that penalizes a provider or health care 16139
facility for principally advocating for medically necessary health 16140
care services;16141

       (e) A provision that penalizes a provider or health care 16142
facility for providing information or testimony to a legislative 16143
or regulatory body or agency. This shall not be construed to 16144
prohibit a health insuring corporation from penalizing a provider 16145
or health care facility that provides information or testimony 16146
that is libelous or slanderous or that discloses trade secrets 16147
which the provider or health care facility has no privilege or 16148
permission to disclose.16149

       (f) A provision that violates Chapter 3963. of the Revised 16150
Code.16151

       (2) Nothing in this division shall be construed to prohibit a 16152
health insuring corporation from doing either of the following:16153

       (a) Making a determination not to reimburse or pay for a 16154
particular medical treatment or other health care service;16155

       (b) Enforcing reasonable peer review or utilization review 16156
protocols, or determining whether a particular provider or health 16157
care facility has complied with these protocols.16158

       (E) Any contract between a health insuring corporation and an 16159
intermediary organization shall clearly specify that the health 16160
insuring corporation must approve or disapprove the participation 16161
of any provider or health care facility with which the 16162
intermediary organization contracts.16163

       (F) If an intermediary organization that is not a health 16164
delivery network contracting solely with self-insured employers 16165
subcontracts with a provider or health care facility, the 16166
subcontract with the provider or health care facility shall do all 16167
of the following:16168

       (1) Contain the provisions required by divisions (C) and (G) 16169
of this section, as made applicable to an intermediary 16170
organization, without the inclusion of inducements or penalties 16171
described in division (D) of this section;16172

       (2) Acknowledge that the health insuring corporation is a 16173
third-party beneficiary to the agreement;16174

       (3) Acknowledge the health insuring corporation's role in 16175
approving the participation of the provider or health care 16176
facility, pursuant to division (E) of this section.16177

       (G) Any provider contract or contract with a health care 16178
facility shall clearly specify the health insuring corporation's 16179
statutory responsibility to monitor and oversee the offering of 16180
covered health care services to its enrollees.16181

       (H)(1) A health insuring corporation shall maintain its 16182
provider contracts and its contracts with health care facilities 16183
at one or more of its places of business in this state, and shall 16184
provide copies of these contracts to facilitate regulatory review 16185
upon written notice by the superintendent of insurance.16186

       (2) Any contract with an intermediary organization that 16187
accepts compensation shall include provisions requiring the 16188
intermediary organization to provide the superintendent with 16189
regulatory access to all books, records, financial information, 16190
and documents related to the provision of health care services to 16191
subscribers and enrollees under the contract. The contract shall 16192
require the intermediary organization to maintain such books, 16193
records, financial information, and documents at its principal 16194
place of business in this state and to preserve them for at least 16195
three years in a manner that facilitates regulatory review.16196

       (I)(1) A health insuring corporation shall notify its 16197
affected enrollees of the termination of a contract for the 16198
provision of health care services between the health insuring 16199
corporation and a primary care physician or hospital, by mail, 16200
within thirty days after the termination of the contract.16201

       (a) Notice shall be given to subscribers of the termination 16202
of a contract with a primary care physician if the subscriber, or 16203
a dependent covered under the subscriber's health care coverage, 16204
has received health care services from the primary care physician 16205
within the previous twelve months or if the subscriber or 16206
dependent has selected the physician as the subscriber's or 16207
dependent's primary care physician within the previous twelve 16208
months.16209

       (b) Notice shall be given to subscribers of the termination 16210
of a contract with a hospital if the subscriber, or a dependent 16211
covered under the subscriber's health care coverage, has received 16212
health care services from that hospital within the previous twelve 16213
months.16214

       (2) The health insuring corporation shall pay, in accordance 16215
with the terms of the contract, for all covered health care 16216
services rendered to an enrollee by a primary care physician or 16217
hospital between the date of the termination of the contract and 16218
five days after the notification of the contract termination is 16219
mailed to a subscriber at the subscriber's last known address.16220

       (J) Divisions (A) and (B) of this section do not apply to any 16221
health insuring corporation that, on June 4, 1997, holds a 16222
certificate of authority or license to operate under Chapter 1740. 16223
of the Revised Code.16224

       (K) Nothing in this section shall restrict the governing body 16225
of a hospital from exercising the authority granted it pursuant to 16226
section 3701.351 of the Revised Code.16227

       Sec. 1761.26. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 16228
credit unions is required under this chapter, or under an order or 16229
supervisory action issued or taken under this chapter, for a 16230
person to serve as an organizer, incorporator, director, or 16231
executive officer of a credit union share guaranty corporation, or 16232
to otherwise participate in the management of such a corporation, 16233
the superintendent shall request the superintendent of the bureau 16234
of criminal identification and investigation, or a vendor approved 16235
by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 16236
person's fingerprints in accordance with division (A)(14) of16237
section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of credit 16238
unions shall request that criminal record information from the 16239
federal bureau of investigation be obtained as part of the 16240
criminal records check. Any fee required under division (C)(3) of 16241
section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be paid by the person 16242
who is the subject of the request.16243

       Sec. 1901.01.  (A) There is hereby established a municipal 16244
court in each of the following municipal corporations:16245

       Akron, Alliance, Ashland, Ashtabula, Athens, Avon Lake, 16246
Barberton, Bedford, Bellefontaine, Bellevue, Berea, Bowling Green, 16247
Bryan, Bucyrus, Cambridge, Campbell, Canton, Carrollton, Celina, 16248
Chardon, Chesapeake, Chillicothe, Cincinnati, Circleville, 16249
Cleveland, Cleveland Heights, Columbus, Conneaut, Coshocton, 16250
Cuyahoga Falls, Dayton, Defiance, Delaware, East Cleveland, East 16251
Liverpool, Eaton, Elyria, Euclid, Fairborn, Fairfield, Findlay, 16252
Fostoria, Franklin, Fremont, Gallipolis, Garfield Heights, 16253
Georgetown, Girard, Greenville, Hamilton, Hillsboro, Huron, 16254
Ironton, Jackson, Kenton, Kettering, Lakewood, Lancaster, Lebanon, 16255
Lima, Logan, London, Lorain, Lyndhurst, Mansfield, Marietta, 16256
Marion, Marysville, Mason, Massillon, Maumee, Medina, Mentor, 16257
Miamisburg, Middletown, Millersburg, Mount Gilead, Mount Vernon, 16258
Napoleon, Newark, New Philadelphia, Newton Falls, Niles, Norwalk, 16259
Oakwood, Oberlin, Oregon, Ottawa, Painesville, Parma, Perrysburg, 16260
Port Clinton, Portsmouth, Ravenna, Rocky River, Sandusky, Shaker 16261
Heights, Shelby, Sidney, South Euclid, Springfield, Steubenville, 16262
Struthers, Sylvania, Tiffin, Toledo, Troy, Upper Sandusky, Urbana, 16263
Vandalia, Van Wert, Vermilion, Wadsworth, Wapakoneta, Warren, City 16264
of Washington in Fayette county, to be known as Washington Court 16265
House, Willoughby, Wilmington, Wooster, Xenia, Youngstown, and 16266
Zanesville.16267

       (B) There is hereby established a municipal court within 16268
Clermont county in Batavia or in any other municipal corporation 16269
or unincorporated territory within Clermont county that is 16270
selected by the legislative authority of the Clermont county 16271
municipal court. The municipal court established by this division 16272
is a continuation of the municipal court previously established in 16273
Batavia by this section before the enactment of this division.16274

       (C) There is hereby established a municipal court within 16275
Columbiana county in Lisbon or in any other municipal corporation 16276
or unincorporated territory within Columbiana county, except the 16277
municipal corporation of East Liverpool or Liverpool or St. Clair 16278
township, that is selected by the judges of the municipal court 16279
pursuant to division (I) of section 1901.021 of the Revised Code.16280

       (D) Effective January 1, 2008, there is hereby established a 16281
municipal court within Erie county in Milan or in any other 16282
municipal corporation or unincorporated territory within Erie 16283
county that is within the territorial jurisdiction of the Erie 16284
county municipal court and is selected by the legislative 16285
authority of that court.16286

       (E) The Cuyahoga Falls municipal court shall remain in 16287
existence until December 31, 2008, and shall be replaced by the 16288
Stow municipal court on January 1, 2009.16289

       (F) Effective January 1, 2009, there is hereby established a 16290
municipal court in the municipal corporation of Stow.16291

       (G) Effective July 1, 2010, there is hereby established a 16292
municipal court within Montgomery county in any municipal 16293
corporation or unincorporated territory within Montgomery county, 16294
except the municipal corporations of Centerville, Clayton, Dayton, 16295
Englewood, Germantown, Kettering, Miamisburg, Moraine, Oakwood, 16296
Union, Vandalia, and West Carrollton and Butler, German, Harrison, 16297
Miami, and Washington townships, that is selected by the 16298
legislative authority of that court.16299

       (H) Effective January 1, 2013, there is hereby established a 16300
municipal court within Trumbull county in any municipal 16301
corporation or unincorporated territory within Trumbull county, 16302
except the municipal corporations of Girard, McDonald, Newton 16303
Falls, Niles, and Warren and Bloomfield, Braceville, Bristol, 16304
Champion, Farmington, Howland, Hubbard, Liberty, Lordstown, 16305
Mesopotamia, Newton, Southington, Vienna, Warren, and 16306
Weathersfield townships, that is selected by the legislative 16307
authority of that court.16308

       (I) Effective January 1, 2013, there is hereby established a 16309
municipal court within Sandusky county in any municipal 16310
corporation or unincorporated territory within Sandusky county, 16311
except the municipal corporations of Bellevue and Fremont and 16312
Ballville, Sandusky, and York townships, that is selected by the 16313
legislative authority of that court.16314

       Sec. 1901.02.  (A) The municipal courts established by 16315
section 1901.01 of the Revised Code have jurisdiction within the 16316
corporate limits of their respective municipal corporations, or, 16317
for the Clermont county municipal court, the Columbiana county 16318
municipal court, and, effective January 1, 2008, the Erie county 16319
municipal court, within the municipal corporation or 16320
unincorporated territory in which they are established, and are 16321
courts of record. Each of the courts shall be styled 16322
".................................. municipal court," inserting 16323
the name of the municipal corporation, except the following 16324
courts, which shall be styled as set forth below:16325

       (1) The municipal court established in Chesapeake that shall 16326
be styled and known as the "Lawrence county municipal court";16327

       (2) The municipal court established in Cincinnati that shall 16328
be styled and known as the "Hamilton county municipal court";16329

       (3) The municipal court established in Ravenna that shall be 16330
styled and known as the "Portage county municipal court";16331

       (4) The municipal court established in Athens that shall be 16332
styled and known as the "Athens county municipal court";16333

       (5) The municipal court established in Columbus that shall be 16334
styled and known as the "Franklin county municipal court";16335

       (6) The municipal court established in London that shall be 16336
styled and known as the "Madison county municipal court";16337

       (7) The municipal court established in Newark that shall be 16338
styled and known as the "Licking county municipal court";16339

       (8) The municipal court established in Wooster that shall be 16340
styled and known as the "Wayne county municipal court";16341

       (9) The municipal court established in Wapakoneta that shall 16342
be styled and known as the "Auglaize county municipal court";16343

       (10) The municipal court established in Troy that shall be 16344
styled and known as the "Miami county municipal court";16345

       (11) The municipal court established in Bucyrus that shall be 16346
styled and known as the "Crawford county municipal court";16347

       (12) The municipal court established in Logan that shall be 16348
styled and known as the "Hocking county municipal court";16349

       (13) The municipal court established in Urbana that shall be 16350
styled and known as the "Champaign county municipal court";16351

       (14) The municipal court established in Jackson that shall be 16352
styled and known as the "Jackson county municipal court";16353

       (15) The municipal court established in Springfield that 16354
shall be styled and known as the "Clark county municipal court";16355

       (16) The municipal court established in Kenton that shall be 16356
styled and known as the "Hardin county municipal court";16357

       (17) The municipal court established within Clermont county 16358
in Batavia or in any other municipal corporation or unincorporated 16359
territory within Clermont county that is selected by the 16360
legislative authority of that court that shall be styled and known 16361
as the "Clermont county municipal court";16362

       (18) The municipal court established in Wilmington that, 16363
beginning July 1, 1992, shall be styled and known as the "Clinton 16364
county municipal court";16365

       (19) The municipal court established in Port Clinton that 16366
shall be styled and known as "the Ottawa county municipal court";16367

       (20) The municipal court established in Lancaster that, 16368
beginning January 2, 2000, shall be styled and known as the 16369
"Fairfield county municipal court";16370

       (21) The municipal court established within Columbiana county 16371
in Lisbon or in any other municipal corporation or unincorporated 16372
territory selected pursuant to division (I) of section 1901.021 of 16373
the Revised Code, that shall be styled and known as the 16374
"Columbiana county municipal court";16375

       (22) The municipal court established in Georgetown that, 16376
beginning February 9, 2003, shall be styled and known as the 16377
"Brown county municipal court";16378

       (23) The municipal court established in Mount Gilead that, 16379
beginning January 1, 2003, shall be styled and known as the 16380
"Morrow county municipal court";16381

       (24) The municipal court established in Greenville that, 16382
beginning January 1, 2005, shall be styled and known as the "Darke 16383
county municipal court";16384

       (25) The municipal court established in Millersburg that, 16385
beginning January 1, 2007, shall be styled and known as the 16386
"Holmes county municipal court";16387

       (26) The municipal court established in Carrollton that, 16388
beginning January 1, 2007, shall be styled and known as the 16389
"Carroll county municipal court";16390

       (27) The municipal court established within Erie county in 16391
Milan or established in any other municipal corporation or 16392
unincorporated territory that is within Erie county, is within the 16393
territorial jurisdiction of that court, and is selected by the 16394
legislative authority of that court that, beginning January 1, 16395
2008, shall be styled and known as the "Erie county municipal 16396
court";16397

       (28) The municipal court established in Ottawa that, 16398
beginning January 1, 2011, shall be styled and known as the 16399
"Putnam county municipal court";16400

       (29) The municipal court established within Montgomery county 16401
in any municipal corporation or unincorporated territory within 16402
Montgomery county, except the municipal corporations of 16403
Centerville, Clayton, Dayton, Englewood, Germantown, Kettering, 16404
Miamisburg, Moraine, Oakwood, Union, Vandalia, and West Carrollton 16405
and Butler, German, Harrison, Miami, and Washington townships, 16406
that is selected by the legislative authority of that court and 16407
that, beginning July 1, 2010, shall be styled and known as the 16408
"Montgomery county municipal court";16409

       (30) The municipal court established within Trumbull county 16410
in any municipal corporation or unincorporated territory within 16411
Trumbull county, except the municipal corporations of Girard, 16412
McDonald, Newton Falls, Niles, and Warren and Bloomfield, 16413
Braceville, Bristol, Champion, Farmington, Howland, Hubbard, 16414
Liberty, Lordstown, Mesopotamia, Newton, Southington, Vienna, 16415
Warren, and Weathersfield townships that is selected by the 16416
legislative authority of that court and that, beginning January 1, 16417
2013, shall be styled and known as the "Trumbull county municipal 16418
court";16419

       (31) The municipal court established within Sandusky county 16420
in any municipal corporation or unincorporated territory within 16421
Sandusky county, except the municipal corporations of Bellevue and 16422
Fremont and Ballville, Sandusky, and York townships, that is 16423
selected by the legislative authority of that court and that, 16424
beginning January 1, 2013, shall be styled and known as the 16425
"Sandusky county municipal court."16426

       (B) In addition to the jurisdiction set forth in division (A) 16427
of this section, the municipal courts established by section 16428
1901.01 of the Revised Code have jurisdiction as follows:16429

       The Akron municipal court has jurisdiction within Bath, 16430
Richfield, and Springfield townships, and within the municipal 16431
corporations of Fairlawn, Lakemore, and Mogadore, in Summit 16432
county.16433

       The Alliance municipal court has jurisdiction within 16434
Lexington, Marlboro, Paris, and Washington townships in Stark 16435
county.16436

       The Ashland municipal court has jurisdiction within Ashland 16437
county.16438

       The Ashtabula municipal court has jurisdiction within 16439
Ashtabula, Plymouth, and Saybrook townships in Ashtabula county.16440

       The Athens county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16441
Athens county.16442

       The Auglaize county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16443
Auglaize county.16444

       The Avon Lake municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16445
municipal corporations of Avon and Sheffield in Lorain county.16446

       The Barberton municipal court has jurisdiction within 16447
Coventry, Franklin, and Green townships, within all of Copley 16448
township except within the municipal corporation of Fairlawn, and 16449
within the municipal corporations of Clinton and Norton, in Summit 16450
county.16451

       The Bedford municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16452
municipal corporations of Bedford Heights, Oakwood, Glenwillow, 16453
Solon, Bentleyville, Chagrin Falls, Moreland Hills, Orange, 16454
Warrensville Heights, North Randall, and Woodmere, and within 16455
Warrensville and Chagrin Falls townships, in Cuyahoga county.16456

       The Bellefontaine municipal court has jurisdiction within 16457
Logan county.16458

       The Bellevue municipal court has jurisdiction within Lyme and 16459
Sherman townships in Huron county and within York township in 16460
Sandusky county.16461

       The Berea municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16462
municipal corporations of Strongsville, Middleburgh Heights, Brook 16463
Park, Westview, and Olmsted Falls, and within Olmsted township, in 16464
Cuyahoga county.16465

       The Bowling Green municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16466
municipal corporations of Bairdstown, Bloomdale, Bradner, Custar, 16467
Cygnet, Grand Rapids, Haskins, Hoytville, Jerry City, Milton 16468
Center, North Baltimore, Pemberville, Portage, Rising Sun, 16469
Tontogany, Wayne, West Millgrove, and Weston, and within Bloom, 16470
Center, Freedom, Grand Rapids, Henry, Jackson, Liberty, Middleton, 16471
Milton, Montgomery, Plain, Portage, Washington, Webster, and 16472
Weston townships in Wood county.16473

       Beginning February 9, 2003, the Brown county municipal court 16474
has jurisdiction within Brown county.16475

       The Bryan municipal court has jurisdiction within Williams 16476
county.16477

       The Cambridge municipal court has jurisdiction within 16478
Guernsey county.16479

       The Campbell municipal court has jurisdiction within 16480
Coitsville township in Mahoning county.16481

       The Canton municipal court has jurisdiction within Canton, 16482
Lake, Nimishillen, Osnaburg, Pike, Plain, and Sandy townships in 16483
Stark county.16484

       The Carroll county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16485
Carroll county.16486

       The Celina municipal court has jurisdiction within Mercer 16487
county.16488

       The Champaign county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16489
Champaign county.16490

       The Chardon municipal court has jurisdiction within Geauga 16491
county.16492

       The Chillicothe municipal court has jurisdiction within Ross 16493
county.16494

       The Circleville municipal court has jurisdiction within 16495
Pickaway county.16496

       The Clark county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16497
Clark county.16498

       The Clermont county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16499
Clermont county.16500

       The Cleveland municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16501
municipal corporation of Bratenahl in Cuyahoga county.16502

       Beginning July 1, 1992, the Clinton county municipal court 16503
has jurisdiction within Clinton county.16504

       The Columbiana county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16505
all of Columbiana county except within the municipal corporation 16506
of East Liverpool and except within Liverpool and St. Clair 16507
townships.16508

       The Coshocton municipal court has jurisdiction within 16509
Coshocton county.16510

       The Crawford county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16511
Crawford county.16512

        Until December 31, 2008, the Cuyahoga Falls municipal court 16513
has jurisdiction within Boston, Hudson, Northfield Center, 16514
Sagamore Hills, and Twinsburg townships, and within the municipal 16515
corporations of Boston Heights, Hudson, Munroe Falls, Northfield, 16516
Peninsula, Reminderville, Silver Lake, Stow, Tallmadge, Twinsburg, 16517
and Macedonia, in Summit county.16518

       Beginning January 1, 2005, the Darke county municipal court 16519
has jurisdiction within Darke county except within the municipal 16520
corporation of Bradford.16521

       The Defiance municipal court has jurisdiction within Defiance 16522
county.16523

       The Delaware municipal court has jurisdiction within Delaware 16524
county.16525

       The East Liverpool municipal court has jurisdiction within 16526
Liverpool and St. Clair townships in Columbiana county.16527

       The Eaton municipal court has jurisdiction within Preble 16528
county.16529

       The Elyria municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16530
municipal corporations of Grafton, LaGrange, and North Ridgeville, 16531
and within Elyria, Carlisle, Eaton, Columbia, Grafton, and 16532
LaGrange townships, in Lorain county.16533

       Beginning January 1, 2008, the Erie county municipal court 16534
has jurisdiction within Erie county except within the townships of 16535
Florence, Huron, Perkins, and Vermilion and the municipal 16536
corporations of Bay View, Castalia, Huron, Sandusky, and 16537
Vermilion.16538

       The Fairborn municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16539
municipal corporation of Beavercreek and within Bath and 16540
Beavercreek townships in Greene county.16541

       Beginning January 2, 2000, the Fairfield county municipal 16542
court has jurisdiction within Fairfield county.16543

       The Findlay municipal court has jurisdiction within all of 16544
Hancock county except within Washington township.16545

       The Fostoria municipal court has jurisdiction within Loudon 16546
and Jackson townships in Seneca county, within Washington township 16547
in Hancock county, and within Perry township, except within the 16548
municipal corporation of West Millgrove, in Wood county.16549

       The Franklin municipal court has jurisdiction within Franklin 16550
township in Warren county.16551

       The Franklin county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16552
Franklin county.16553

       The Fremont municipal court has jurisdiction within Ballville 16554
and Sandusky townships in Sandusky county.16555

       The Gallipolis municipal court has jurisdiction within Gallia 16556
county.16557

       The Garfield Heights municipal court has jurisdiction within 16558
the municipal corporations of Maple Heights, Walton Hills, Valley 16559
View, Cuyahoga Heights, Newburgh Heights, Independence, and 16560
Brecksville in Cuyahoga county.16561

       The Girard municipal court has jurisdiction within Liberty, 16562
Vienna, and Hubbard townships in Trumbull county.16563

       The Hamilton municipal court has jurisdiction within Ross and 16564
St. Clair townships in Butler county.16565

       The Hamilton county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16566
Hamilton county.16567

       The Hardin county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16568
Hardin county.16569

       The Hillsboro municipal court has jurisdiction within all of 16570
Highland county except within Madison township.16571

       The Hocking county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16572
Hocking county.16573

       The Holmes county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16574
Holmes county.16575

       The Huron municipal court has jurisdiction within all of 16576
Huron township in Erie county except within the municipal 16577
corporation of Sandusky.16578

       The Ironton municipal court has jurisdiction within Aid, 16579
Decatur, Elizabeth, Hamilton, Lawrence, Upper, and Washington 16580
townships in Lawrence county.16581

       The Jackson county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16582
Jackson county.16583

       The Kettering municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16584
municipal corporations of Centerville and Moraine, and within 16585
Washington township, in Montgomery county.16586

       Until January 2, 2000, the Lancaster municipal court has 16587
jurisdiction within Fairfield county.16588

       The Lawrence county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16589
the townships of Fayette, Mason, Perry, Rome, Symmes, Union, and 16590
Windsor in Lawrence county.16591

       The Lebanon municipal court has jurisdiction within 16592
Turtlecreek township in Warren county.16593

       The Licking county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16594
Licking county.16595

       The Lima municipal court has jurisdiction within Allen 16596
county.16597

       The Lorain municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16598
municipal corporation of Sheffield Lake, and within Sheffield 16599
township, in Lorain county.16600

       The Lyndhurst municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16601
municipal corporations of Mayfield Heights, Gates Mills, Mayfield, 16602
Highland Heights, and Richmond Heights in Cuyahoga county.16603

       The Madison county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16604
Madison county.16605

       The Mansfield municipal court has jurisdiction within 16606
Madison, Springfield, Sandusky, Franklin, Weller, Mifflin, Troy, 16607
Washington, Monroe, Perry, Jefferson, and Worthington townships, 16608
and within sections 35-36-31 and 32 of Butler township, in 16609
Richland county.16610

       The Marietta municipal court has jurisdiction within 16611
Washington county.16612

       The Marion municipal court has jurisdiction within Marion 16613
county.16614

       The Marysville municipal court has jurisdiction within Union 16615
county.16616

       The Mason municipal court has jurisdiction within Deerfield 16617
township in Warren county.16618

       The Massillon municipal court has jurisdiction within 16619
Bethlehem, Perry, Sugar Creek, Tuscarawas, Lawrence, and Jackson 16620
townships in Stark county.16621

       The Maumee municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16622
municipal corporations of Waterville and Whitehouse, within 16623
Waterville and Providence townships, and within those portions of 16624
Springfield, Monclova, and Swanton townships lying south of the 16625
northerly boundary line of the Ohio turnpike, in Lucas county.16626

       The Medina municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16627
municipal corporations of Briarwood Beach, Brunswick, 16628
Chippewa-on-the-Lake, and Spencer and within the townships of 16629
Brunswick Hills, Chatham, Granger, Hinckley, Lafayette, 16630
Litchfield, Liverpool, Medina, Montville, Spencer, and York 16631
townships, in Medina county.16632

       The Mentor municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16633
municipal corporation of Mentor-on-the-Lake in Lake county.16634

       The Miami county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16635
Miami county and within the part of the municipal corporation of 16636
Bradford that is located in Darke county.16637

       The Miamisburg municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16638
municipal corporations of Germantown and West Carrollton, and 16639
within German and Miami townships in Montgomery county.16640

       The Middletown municipal court has jurisdiction within 16641
Madison township, and within all of Lemon township, except within 16642
the municipal corporation of Monroe, in Butler county.16643

       Beginning July 1, 2010, the Montgomery county municipal court 16644
has jurisdiction within all of Montgomery county except for the 16645
municipal corporations of Centerville, Clayton, Dayton, Englewood, 16646
Germantown, Kettering, Miamisburg, Moraine, Oakwood, Union, 16647
Vandalia, and West Carrollton and Butler, German, Harrison, Miami, 16648
and Washington townships.16649

       Beginning January 1, 2003, the Morrow county municipal court 16650
has jurisdiction within Morrow county.16651

       The Mount Vernon municipal court has jurisdiction within Knox 16652
county.16653

       The Napoleon municipal court has jurisdiction within Henry 16654
county.16655

       The New Philadelphia municipal court has jurisdiction within 16656
the municipal corporation of Dover, and within Auburn, Bucks, 16657
Fairfield, Goshen, Jefferson, Warren, York, Dover, Franklin, 16658
Lawrence, Sandy, Sugarcreek, and Wayne townships in Tuscarawas 16659
county.16660

       The Newton Falls municipal court has jurisdiction within 16661
Bristol, Bloomfield, Lordstown, Newton, Braceville, Southington, 16662
Farmington, and Mesopotamia townships in Trumbull county.16663

       The Niles municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16664
municipal corporation of McDonald, and within Weathersfield 16665
township in Trumbull county.16666

       The Norwalk municipal court has jurisdiction within all of 16667
Huron county except within the municipal corporation of Bellevue 16668
and except within Lyme and Sherman townships.16669

       The Oberlin municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16670
municipal corporations of Amherst, Kipton, Rochester, South 16671
Amherst, and Wellington, and within Henrietta, Russia, Camden, 16672
Pittsfield, Brighton, Wellington, Penfield, Rochester, and 16673
Huntington townships, and within all of Amherst township except 16674
within the municipal corporation of Lorain, in Lorain county.16675

       The Oregon municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16676
municipal corporation of Harbor View, and within Jerusalem 16677
township, in Lucas county, and north within Maumee Bay and Lake 16678
Erie to the boundary line between Ohio and Michigan between the 16679
easterly boundary of the court and the easterly boundary of the 16680
Toledo municipal court.16681

       The Ottawa county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16682
Ottawa county.16683

       The Painesville municipal court has jurisdiction within 16684
Painesville, Perry, Leroy, Concord, and Madison townships in Lake 16685
county.16686

       The Parma municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16687
municipal corporations of Parma Heights, Brooklyn, Linndale, North 16688
Royalton, Broadview Heights, Seven Hills, and Brooklyn Heights in 16689
Cuyahoga county.16690

       The Perrysburg municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16691
municipal corporations of Luckey, Millbury, Northwood, Rossford, 16692
and Walbridge, and within Perrysburg, Lake, and Troy townships, in 16693
Wood county.16694

       The Portage county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16695
Portage county.16696

       The Portsmouth municipal court has jurisdiction within Scioto 16697
county.16698

       The Putnam county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16699
Putnam county.16700

       The Rocky River municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16701
municipal corporations of Bay Village, Westlake, Fairview Park, 16702
and North Olmsted, and within Riveredge township, in Cuyahoga 16703
county.16704

       The Sandusky municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16705
municipal corporations of Castalia and Bay View, and within 16706
Perkins township, in Erie county.16707

       Beginning January 1, 2013, the Sandusky county municipal 16708
court has jurisdiction within all of Sandusky county except within 16709
the municipal corporations of Bellevue and Fremont and Ballville, 16710
Sandusky, and York townships.16711

       Beginning January 1, 2013, the Trumbull county municipal 16712
court has jurisdiction within all of Trumbull county except within 16713
the municipal corporations of Girard, McDonald, Newton Falls, 16714
Niles, and Warren and Bloomfield, Braceville, Bristol, Champion, 16715
Farmington, Howland, Hubbard, Liberty, Lordstown, Mesopotamia, 16716
Newton, Southington, Vienna, Warren, and Weathersfield townships.16717

       The Shaker Heights municipal court has jurisdiction within 16718
the municipal corporations of University Heights, Beachwood, 16719
Pepper Pike, and Hunting Valley in Cuyahoga county.16720

       The Shelby municipal court has jurisdiction within Sharon, 16721
Jackson, Cass, Plymouth, and Blooming Grove townships, and within 16722
all of Butler township except sections 35-36-31 and 32, in 16723
Richland county.16724

       The Sidney municipal court has jurisdiction within Shelby 16725
county.16726

       Beginning January 1, 2009, the Stow municipal court has 16727
jurisdiction within Boston, Hudson, Northfield Center, Sagamore 16728
Hills, and Twinsburg townships, and within the municipal 16729
corporations of Boston Heights, Cuyahoga Falls, Hudson, Munroe 16730
Falls, Northfield, Peninsula, Reminderville, Silver Lake, Stow, 16731
Tallmadge, Twinsburg, and Macedonia, in Summit county.16732

       The Struthers municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16733
municipal corporations of Lowellville, New Middleton, and Poland, 16734
and within Poland and Springfield townships in Mahoning county.16735

       The Sylvania municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16736
municipal corporations of Berkey and Holland, and within Sylvania, 16737
Richfield, Spencer, and Harding townships, and within those 16738
portions of Swanton, Monclova, and Springfield townships lying 16739
north of the northerly boundary line of the Ohio turnpike, in 16740
Lucas county.16741

       The Tiffin municipal court has jurisdiction within Adams, Big 16742
Spring, Bloom, Clinton, Eden, Hopewell, Liberty, Pleasant, Reed, 16743
Scipio, Seneca, Thompson, and Venice townships in Seneca county.16744

       The Toledo municipal court has jurisdiction within Washington 16745
township, and within the municipal corporation of Ottawa Hills, in 16746
Lucas county.16747

       The Upper Sandusky municipal court has jurisdiction within 16748
Wyandot county.16749

       The Vandalia municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16750
municipal corporations of Clayton, Englewood, and Union, and 16751
within Butler, Harrison, and Randolph townships, in Montgomery 16752
county.16753

       The Van Wert municipal court has jurisdiction within Van Wert 16754
county.16755

       The Vermilion municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16756
townships of Vermilion and Florence in Erie county and within all 16757
of Brownhelm township except within the municipal corporation of 16758
Lorain, in Lorain county.16759

       The Wadsworth municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16760
municipal corporations of Gloria Glens Park, Lodi, Seville, and 16761
Westfield Center, and within Guilford, Harrisville, Homer, Sharon, 16762
Wadsworth, and Westfield townships in Medina county.16763

       The Warren municipal court has jurisdiction within Warren and 16764
Champion townships, and within all of Howland township except 16765
within the municipal corporation of Niles, in Trumbull county.16766

       The Washington Court House municipal court has jurisdiction 16767
within Fayette county.16768

       The Wayne county municipal court has jurisdiction within 16769
Wayne county.16770

       The Willoughby municipal court has jurisdiction within the 16771
municipal corporations of Eastlake, Wickliffe, Willowick, 16772
Willoughby Hills, Kirtland, Kirtland Hills, Waite Hill, 16773
Timberlake, and Lakeline, and within Kirtland township, in Lake 16774
county.16775

       Through June 30, 1992, the Wilmington municipal court has 16776
jurisdiction within Clinton county.16777

       The Xenia municipal court has jurisdiction within 16778
Caesarcreek, Cedarville, Jefferson, Miami, New Jasper, Ross, 16779
Silvercreek, Spring Valley, Sugarcreek, and Xenia townships in 16780
Greene county.16781

       (C) As used in this section:16782

       (1) "Within a township" includes all land, including, but not 16783
limited to, any part of any municipal corporation, that is 16784
physically located within the territorial boundaries of that 16785
township, whether or not that land or municipal corporation is 16786
governmentally a part of the township.16787

       (2) "Within a municipal corporation" includes all land within 16788
the territorial boundaries of the municipal corporation and any 16789
townships that are coextensive with the municipal corporation.16790

       Sec. 1901.03.  As used in this chapter:16791

       (A) "Territory" means the geographical areas within which 16792
municipal courts have jurisdiction as provided in sections 1901.01 16793
and 1901.02 of the Revised Code.16794

       (B) "Legislative authority" means the legislative authority 16795
of the municipal corporation in which a municipal court, other 16796
than a county-operated municipal court, is located, and means the 16797
respective board of county commissioners of the county in which a 16798
county-operated municipal court is located.16799

       (C) "Chief executive" means the chief executive of the 16800
municipal corporation in which a municipal court, other than a 16801
county-operated municipal court, is located, and means the 16802
respective chairman of the board of county commissioners of the 16803
county in which a county-operated municipal court is located.16804

       (D) "City treasury" means the treasury of the municipal 16805
corporation in which a municipal court, other than a 16806
county-operated municipal court, is located.16807

       (E) "City treasurer" means the treasurer of the municipal 16808
corporation in which a municipal court, other than a 16809
county-operated municipal court, is located.16810

       (F) "County-operated municipal court" means the Auglaize 16811
county, Brown county, Carroll county, Clermont county, Columbiana 16812
county, Crawford county, Darke county, Erie county, Hamilton 16813
county, Hocking county, Holmes county, Jackson county, Lawrence 16814
county, Madison county, Miami county, Montgomery county, Morrow 16815
county, Ottawa county, Portage county, Putnam county, or Wayne 16816
county municipal court and, effective January 1, 20082013, also 16817
includes the ErieSandusky county municipal court and the 16818
Trumbull county municipal court.16819

       (G) "A municipal corporation in which a municipal court is 16820
located" includes each municipal corporation named in section 16821
1901.01 of the Revised Code, but does not include one in which a 16822
judge sits pursuant to any provision of section 1901.021 of the 16823
Revised Code except division (M) of that section.16824

       Sec. 1901.06.  A municipal judge during the judge's term of 16825
office shall be a qualified elector and a resident of the 16826
territory of the court to which the judge is elected or appointed. 16827
A municipal judge shall have been admitted to the practice of law 16828
in this state and shall have been, for a total of at least six 16829
years preceding appointment or the commencement of the judge's 16830
term, engaged in the practice of law in this state or served as a 16831
judge of a court of record in any jurisdiction in the United 16832
States, or both. At least two of the years of practice or service 16833
that qualify a judge shall have been in this state.16834

       Except as provided in section 1901.08 of the Revised Code, 16835
the first election of any newly created office of a municipal 16836
judge shall be held at the next regular municipal election 16837
occurring not less than one hundred days after the creation of the 16838
office. Except as otherwise provided in division (G) of section 16839
1901.01 of the Revised Code, the institution of a new municipal 16840
court shall take place on the first day of January next after the 16841
first election for the court.16842

       Sec. 1901.07.  (A) All municipal court judges shall be 16843
elected on the nonpartisan ballot for terms of six years. In a 16844
municipal court in which only one judge is to be elected in any 16845
one year, that judge's term commences on the first day of January 16846
after the election. In a municipal court in which two or more 16847
judges are to be elected in any one year, their terms commence on 16848
successive days beginning the first day of January, following the 16849
election, unless otherwise provided by section 1901.08 of the 16850
Revised Code.16851

       (B) All candidates for municipal court judge may be nominated 16852
either by nominating petition or by primary election, except that 16853
if the jurisdiction of a municipal court extends only to the 16854
corporate limits of the municipal corporation in which the court 16855
is located and that municipal corporation operates under a 16856
charter, all candidates shall be nominated in the same manner 16857
provided in the charter for the office of municipal court judge 16858
or, if no specific provisions are made in the charter for the 16859
office of municipal court judge, in the same manner as the charter 16860
prescribes for the nomination and election of the legislative 16861
authority of the municipal corporation.16862

        If the jurisdiction of a municipal court extends beyond the 16863
corporate limits of the municipal corporation in which it is 16864
located or if the jurisdiction of the court does not extend beyond 16865
the corporate limits of the municipal corporation in which it is 16866
located and no charter provisions apply, all candidates for party 16867
nomination to the office of municipal court judge shall file a 16868
declaration of candidacy and petition not later than four p.m. of 16869
the ninetieth day before the day of the primary election in the 16870
form prescribed by section 3513.07 of the Revised Code. The 16871
petition shall conform to the requirements provided for those 16872
petitions of candidacy contained in section 3513.05 of the Revised 16873
Code, except that the petition shall be signed by at least fifty 16874
electors of the territory of the court. If no valid declaration of 16875
candidacy is filed for nomination as a candidate of a political 16876
party for election to the office of municipal court judge, or if 16877
the number of persons filing the declarations of candidacy for 16878
nominations as candidates of one political party for election to 16879
the office does not exceed the number of candidates that that 16880
party is entitled to nominate as its candidates for election to 16881
the office, no primary election shall be held for the purpose of 16882
nominating candidates of that party for election to the office, 16883
and the candidates shall be issued certificates of nomination in 16884
the manner set forth in section 3513.02 of the Revised Code.16885

       If the jurisdiction of a municipal court extends beyond the 16886
corporate limits of the municipal corporation in which it is 16887
located or if the jurisdiction of the court does not extend beyond 16888
the corporate limits of the municipal corporation in which it is 16889
located and no charter provisions apply, nonpartisan candidates 16890
for the office of municipal court judge shall file nominating 16891
petitions not later than four p.m. of the day before the day of 16892
the primary election in the form prescribed by section 3513.261 of 16893
the Revised Code. The petition shall conform to the requirements 16894
provided for those petitions of candidacy contained in section 16895
3513.257 of the Revised Code, except that the petition shall be 16896
signed by at least fifty electors of the territory of the court.16897

       The nominating petition or declaration of candidacy for a 16898
municipal court judge shall contain a designation of the term for 16899
which the candidate seeks election. At the following regular 16900
municipal election, the candidacies of the judges nominated shall 16901
be submitted to the electors of the territory on a nonpartisan, 16902
judicial ballot in the same manner as provided for judges of the 16903
court of common pleas, except that, in a municipal corporation 16904
operating under a charter, all candidates for municipal court 16905
judge shall be elected in conformity with the charter if 16906
provisions are made in the charter for the election of municipal 16907
court judges.16908

       (C) Notwithstanding divisions (A) and (B) of this section, in 16909
the following municipal courts, the judges shall be nominated and 16910
elected as follows:16911

       (1) In the Cleveland municipal court, the judges shall be 16912
nominated only by petition. The petition shall be signed by at 16913
least fifty electors of the territory of the court. It shall be in 16914
the statutory form and shall be filed in the manner and within the 16915
time prescribed by the charter of the city of Cleveland for filing 16916
petitions of candidates for municipal offices. Each elector shall 16917
have the right to sign petitions for as many candidates as are to 16918
be elected, but no more. The judges shall be elected by the 16919
electors of the territory of the court in the manner provided by 16920
law for the election of judges of the court of common pleas.16921

       (2) In the Toledo municipal court, the judges shall be 16922
nominated only by petition. The petition shall be signed by at 16923
least fifty electors of the territory of the court. It shall be in 16924
the statutory form and shall be filed in the manner and within the 16925
time prescribed by the charter of the city of Toledo for filing 16926
nominating petitions for city council. Each elector shall have the 16927
right to sign petitions for as many candidates as are to be 16928
elected, but no more. The judges shall be elected by the electors 16929
of the territory of the court in the manner provided by law for 16930
the election of judges of the court of common pleas.16931

       (3) In the Akron municipal court, the judges shall be 16932
nominated only by petition. The petition shall be signed by at 16933
least fifty electors of the territory of the court. It shall be in 16934
statutory form and shall be filed in the manner and within the 16935
time prescribed by the charter of the city of Akron for filing 16936
nominating petitions of candidates for municipal offices. Each 16937
elector shall have the right to sign petitions for as many 16938
candidates as are to be elected, but no more. The judges shall be 16939
elected by the electors of the territory of the court in the 16940
manner provided by law for the election of judges of the court of 16941
common pleas.16942

       (4) In the Hamilton county municipal court, the judges shall 16943
be nominated only by petition. The petition shall be signed by at 16944
least one hundred electors of the judicial district of the county 16945
from which the candidate seeks election, which petitions shall be 16946
signed and filed not later than four p.m. of the day before the 16947
day of the primary election in the form prescribed by section 16948
3513.261 of the Revised Code. Unless otherwise provided in this 16949
section, the petition shall conform to the requirements provided 16950
for nominating petitions in section 3513.257 of the Revised Code. 16951
The judges shall be elected by the electors of the relative 16952
judicial district of the county at the regular municipal election 16953
and in the manner provided by law for the election of judges of 16954
the court of common pleas.16955

       (5) In the Franklin county municipal court, the judges shall 16956
be nominated only by petition. The petition shall be signed by at 16957
least fifty electors of the territory of the court. The petition 16958
shall be in the statutory form and shall be filed in the manner 16959
and within the time prescribed by the charter of the city of 16960
Columbus for filing petitions of candidates for municipal offices. 16961
The judges shall be elected by the electors of the territory of 16962
the court in the manner provided by law for the election of judges 16963
of the court of common pleas.16964

       (6) In the Auglaize, Brown, Carroll, Clermont, Crawford, 16965
Hocking, Jackson, Lawrence, Madison, Miami, Morrow, Putnam, 16966
Sandusky, Trumbull, and Wayne county municipal courts, the judges 16967
shall be nominated only by petition. The petitions shall be signed 16968
by at least fifty electors of the territory of the court and shall 16969
conform to the provisions of this section.16970

       (D) In the Portage county municipal court, the judges shall 16971
be nominated either by nominating petition or by primary election, 16972
as provided in division (B) of this section.16973

       (E) As used in this section, as to an election for either a 16974
full or an unexpired term, "the territory within the jurisdiction 16975
of the court" means that territory as it will be on the first day 16976
of January after the election.16977

       Sec. 1901.08. The number of, and the time for election of, 16978
judges of the following municipal courts and the beginning of 16979
their terms shall be as follows:16980

       In the Akron municipal court, two full-time judges shall be 16981
elected in 1951, two full-time judges shall be elected in 1953, 16982
one full-time judge shall be elected in 1967, and one full-time 16983
judge shall be elected in 1975.16984

       In the Alliance municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 16985
elected in 1953.16986

       In the Ashland municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 16987
elected in 1951.16988

       In the Ashtabula municipal court, one full-time judge shall 16989
be elected in 1953.16990

       In the Athens county municipal court, one full-time judge 16991
shall be elected in 1967.16992

       In the Auglaize county municipal court, one full-time judge 16993
shall be elected in 1975.16994

       In the Avon Lake municipal court, one part-time judge shall 16995
be elected in 1957.16996

       In the Barberton municipal court, one full-time judge shall 16997
be elected in 1969, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 16998
1971.16999

       In the Bedford municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17000
elected in 1975, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1979.17001

       In the Bellefontaine municipal court, one full-time judge 17002
shall be elected in 1993.17003

       In the Bellevue municipal court, one part-time judge shall be 17004
elected in 1951.17005

       In the Berea municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17006
elected in 2005.17007

       In the Bowling Green municipal court, one full-time judge 17008
shall be elected in 1983.17009

       In the Brown county municipal court, one full-time judge 17010
shall be elected in 2005. Beginning February 9, 2003, the 17011
part-time judge of the Brown county county court that existed 17012
prior to that date whose term commenced on January 2, 2001, shall 17013
serve as the full-time judge of the Brown county municipal court 17014
until December 31, 2005.17015

       In the Bryan municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17016
elected in 1965.17017

       In the Cambridge municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17018
be elected in 1951.17019

       In the Campbell municipal court, one part-time judge shall be 17020
elected in 1963.17021

       In the Canton municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17022
elected in 1951, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1969, and 17023
two full-time judges shall be elected in 1977.17024

       In the Carroll county municipal court, one full-time judge 17025
shall be elected in 2009. Beginning January 1, 2007, the judge 17026
elected in 2006 to the part-time judgeship of the Carroll county 17027
county court that existed prior to that date shall serve as the 17028
full-time judge of the Carroll county municipal court until 17029
December 31, 2009.17030

       In the Celina municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17031
elected in 1957.17032

       In the Champaign county municipal court, one full-time judge 17033
shall be elected in 2001.17034

       In the Chardon municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17035
elected in 1963.17036

       In the Chillicothe municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17037
be elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 17038
1977.17039

       In the Circleville municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17040
be elected in 1953.17041

       In the Clark county municipal court, one full-time judge 17042
shall be elected in 1989, and two full-time judges shall be 17043
elected in 1991. The full-time judges of the Springfield municipal 17044
court who were elected in 1983 and 1985 shall serve as the judges 17045
of the Clark county municipal court from January 1, 1988, until 17046
the end of their respective terms.17047

       In the Clermont county municipal court, two full-time judges 17048
shall be elected in 1991, and one full-time judge shall be elected 17049
in 1999.17050

       In the Cleveland municipal court, six full-time judges shall 17051
be elected in 1975, three full-time judges shall be elected in 17052
1953, and four full-time judges shall be elected in 1955.17053

       In the Cleveland Heights municipal court, one full-time judge 17054
shall be elected in 1957.17055

       In the Clinton county municipal court, one full-time judge 17056
shall be elected in 1997. The full-time judge of the Wilmington 17057
municipal court who was elected in 1991 shall serve as the judge 17058
of the Clinton county municipal court from July 1, 1992, until the 17059
end of that judge's term on December 31, 1997.17060

       In the Columbiana county municipal court, two full-time 17061
judges shall be elected in 2001.17062

       In the Conneaut municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17063
elected in 1953.17064

       In the Coshocton municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17065
be elected in 1951.17066

       In the Crawford county municipal court, one full-time judge 17067
shall be elected in 1977.17068

       In the Cuyahoga Falls municipal court, one full-time judge 17069
shall be elected in 1953, and one full-time judge shall be elected 17070
in 1967. Effective December 31, 2008, the Cuyahoga Falls municipal 17071
court shall cease to exist; however, the judges of the Cuyahoga 17072
Falls municipal court who were elected pursuant to this section in 17073
2003 and 2007 for terms beginning on January 1, 2004, and January 17074
1, 2008, respectively, shall serve as full-time judges of the Stow 17075
municipal court until December 31, 2009, and December 31, 2013, 17076
respectively.17077

       In the Darke county municipal court, one full-time judge 17078
shall be elected in 2005. Beginning January 1, 2005, the part-time 17079
judge of the Darke county county court that existed prior to that 17080
date whose term began on January 1, 2001, shall serve as the 17081
full-time judge of the Darke county municipal court until December 17082
31, 2005.17083

       In the Dayton municipal court, three full-time judges shall 17084
be elected in 1987, their terms to commence on successive days 17085
beginning on the first day of January next after their election, 17086
and two full-time judges shall be elected in 1955, their terms to 17087
commence on successive days beginning on the second day of January 17088
next after their election.17089

       In the Defiance municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17090
elected in 1957.17091

       In the Delaware municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17092
elected in 1953, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 2007.17093

       In the East Cleveland municipal court, one full-time judge 17094
shall be elected in 1957.17095

       In the East Liverpool municipal court, one full-time judge 17096
shall be elected in 1953.17097

       In the Eaton municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17098
elected in 1973.17099

       In the Elyria municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17100
elected in 1955, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1973.17101

       In the Erie county municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17102
be elected in 2007.17103

       In the Euclid municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17104
elected in 1951.17105

       In the Fairborn municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17106
elected in 1977.17107

       In the Fairfield county municipal court, one full-time judge 17108
shall be elected in 2003, and one full-time judge shall be elected 17109
in 2005.17110

       In the Fairfield municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17111
be elected in 1989.17112

       In the Findlay municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17113
elected in 1955, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1993.17114

       In the Fostoria municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17115
elected in 1975.17116

       In the Franklin municipal court, one part-time judge shall be 17117
elected in 1951.17118

       In the Franklin county municipal court, two full-time judges 17119
shall be elected in 1969, three full-time judges shall be elected 17120
in 1971, seven full-time judges shall be elected in 1967, one 17121
full-time judge shall be elected in 1975, one full-time judge 17122
shall be elected in 1991, and one full-time judge shall be elected 17123
in 1997.17124

       In the Fremont municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17125
elected in 1975.17126

       In the Gallipolis municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17127
be elected in 1981.17128

       In the Garfield Heights municipal court, one full-time judge 17129
shall be elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected 17130
in 1981.17131

       In the Girard municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17132
elected in 1963.17133

       In the Hamilton municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17134
elected in 1953.17135

       In the Hamilton county municipal court, five full-time judges 17136
shall be elected in 1967, five full-time judges shall be elected 17137
in 1971, two full-time judges shall be elected in 1981, and two 17138
full-time judges shall be elected in 1983. All terms of judges of 17139
the Hamilton county municipal court shall commence on the first 17140
day of January next after their election, except that the terms of 17141
the additional judges to be elected in 1981 shall commence on 17142
January 2, 1982, and January 3, 1982, and that the terms of the 17143
additional judges to be elected in 1983 shall commence on January 17144
4, 1984, and January 5, 1984.17145

       In the Hardin county municipal court, one part-time judge 17146
shall be elected in 1989.17147

       In the Hillsboro municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17148
be elected in 2011. On and after December 30, 2008, the part-time 17149
judge of the Hillsboro municipal court who was elected in 2005 17150
shall serve as a full-time judge of the court until the end of 17151
that judge's term on December 31, 2011.17152

       In the Hocking county municipal court, one full-time judge 17153
shall be elected in 1977.17154

       In the Holmes county municipal court, one full-time judge 17155
shall be elected in 2007. Beginning January 1, 2007, the part-time 17156
judge of the Holmes county county court that existed prior to that 17157
date whose term commenced on January 1, 2007, shall serve as the 17158
full-time judge of the Holmes county municipal court until 17159
December 31, 2007.17160

       In the Huron municipal court, one part-time judge shall be 17161
elected in 1967.17162

       In the Ironton municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17163
elected in 1951.17164

       In the Jackson county municipal court, one full-time judge 17165
shall be elected in 2001. On and after March 31, 1997, the 17166
part-time judge of the Jackson county municipal court who was 17167
elected in 1995 shall serve as a full-time judge of the court 17168
until the end of that judge's term on December 31, 2001.17169

       In the Kettering municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17170
be elected in 1971, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 17171
1975.17172

       In the Lakewood municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17173
elected in 1955.17174

       In the Lancaster municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17175
be elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 17176
1979. Beginning January 2, 2000, the full-time judges of the 17177
Lancaster municipal court who were elected in 1997 and 1999 shall 17178
serve as judges of the Fairfield county municipal court until the 17179
end of those judges' terms.17180

       In the Lawrence county municipal court, one part-time judge 17181
shall be elected in 1981.17182

       In the Lebanon municipal court, one part-time judge shall be 17183
elected in 1955.17184

       In the Licking county municipal court, one full-time judge 17185
shall be elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected 17186
in 1971.17187

       In the Lima municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17188
elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1967.17189

       In the Lorain municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17190
elected in 1953, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1973.17191

       In the Lyndhurst municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17192
be elected in 1957.17193

       In the Madison county municipal court, one full-time judge 17194
shall be elected in 1981.17195

       In the Mansfield municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17196
be elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 17197
1969.17198

       In the Marietta municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17199
elected in 1957.17200

       In the Marion municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17201
elected in 1951.17202

       In the Marysville municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17203
be elected in 2011. On and after January 18, 2007, the part-time 17204
judge of the Marysville municipal court who was elected in 2005 17205
shall serve as a full-time judge of the court until the end of 17206
that judge's term on December 31, 2011.17207

       In the Mason municipal court, one part-time judge shall be 17208
elected in 1965.17209

       In the Massillon municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17210
be elected in 1953, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 17211
1971.17212

       In the Maumee municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17213
elected in 1963.17214

       In the Medina municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17215
elected in 1957.17216

       In the Mentor municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17217
elected in 1971.17218

       In the Miami county municipal court, one full-time judge 17219
shall be elected in 1975, and one full-time judge shall be elected 17220
in 1979.17221

       In the Miamisburg municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17222
be elected in 1951.17223

       In the Middletown municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17224
be elected in 1953.17225

       In the Montgomery county municipal court:17226

       One judge shall be elected in 2011 to a part-time judgeship 17227
for a term to begin on January 1, 2012. If any one of the other 17228
judgeships of the court becomes vacant and is abolished after July 17229
1, 2010, this judgeship shall become a full-time judgeship on that 17230
date. If only one other judgeship of the court becomes vacant and 17231
is abolished as of December 31, 2021, this judgeship shall be 17232
abolished as of that date. Beginning July 1, 2010, the part-time 17233
judge of the Montgomery county county court that existed before 17234
that date whose term commenced on January 1, 2005, shall serve as 17235
a part-time judge of the Montgomery county municipal court until 17236
December 31, 2011.17237

       One judge shall be elected in 2011 to a full-time judgeship 17238
for a term to begin on January 2, 2012, and this judgeship shall 17239
be abolished on January 1, 2016. Beginning July 1, 2010, the 17240
part-time judge of the Montgomery county county court that existed 17241
before that date whose term commenced on January 2, 2005, shall 17242
serve as a full-time judge of the Montgomery county municipal 17243
court until January 1, 2012.17244

       One judge shall be elected in 2013 to a full-time judgeship 17245
for a term to begin on January 2, 2014. Beginning July 1, 2010, 17246
the part-time judge of the Montgomery county county court that 17247
existed before that date whose term commenced on January 2, 2007, 17248
shall serve as a full-time judge of the Montgomery county 17249
municipal court until January 1, 2014.17250

       One judge shall be elected in 2013 to a judgeship for a term 17251
to begin on January 1, 2014. If no other judgeship of the court 17252
becomes vacant and is abolished by January 1, 2014, this judgeship 17253
shall be a part-time judgeship. When one or more of the other 17254
judgeships of the court becomes vacant and is abolished after July 17255
1, 2010, this judgeship shall become a full-time judgeship. 17256
Beginning July 1, 2010, the part-time judge of the Montgomery 17257
county county court that existed before that date whose term 17258
commenced on January 1, 2007, shall serve as this judge of the 17259
Montgomery county municipal court until December 31, 2013.17260

       If any one of the judgeships of the court becomes vacant 17261
before December 31, 2021, that judgeship is abolished on the date 17262
that it becomes vacant, and the other judges of the court shall be 17263
or serve as full-time judges. The abolishment of judgeships for 17264
the Montgomery county municipal court shall cease when the court 17265
has two full-time judgeships.17266

       In the Morrow county municipal court, one full-time judge 17267
shall be elected in 2005. Beginning January 1, 2003, the part-time 17268
judge of the Morrow county county court that existed prior to that 17269
date shall serve as the full-time judge of the Morrow county 17270
municipal court until December 31, 2005.17271

       In the Mount Vernon municipal court, one full-time judge 17272
shall be elected in 1951.17273

       In the Napoleon municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17274
elected in 2005.17275

       In the New Philadelphia municipal court, one full-time judge 17276
shall be elected in 1975.17277

       In the Newton Falls municipal court, one full-time judge 17278
shall be elected in 1963.17279

       In the Niles municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17280
elected in 1951.17281

       In the Norwalk municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17282
elected in 1975.17283

       In the Oakwood municipal court, one part-time judge shall be 17284
elected in 1953.17285

       In the Oberlin municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17286
elected in 1989.17287

       In the Oregon municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17288
elected in 1963.17289

       In the Ottawa county municipal court, one full-time judge 17290
shall be elected in 1995, and the full-time judge of the Port 17291
Clinton municipal court who is elected in 1989 shall serve as the 17292
judge of the Ottawa county municipal court from February 4, 1994, 17293
until the end of that judge's term.17294

       In the Painesville municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17295
be elected in 1951.17296

       In the Parma municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17297
elected in 1951, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1967, and 17298
one full-time judge shall be elected in 1971.17299

       In the Perrysburg municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17300
be elected in 1977.17301

       In the Portage county municipal court, two full-time judges 17302
shall be elected in 1979, and one full-time judge shall be elected 17303
in 1971.17304

       In the Port Clinton municipal court, one full-time judge 17305
shall be elected in 1953. The full-time judge of the Port Clinton 17306
municipal court who is elected in 1989 shall serve as the judge of 17307
the Ottawa county municipal court from February 4, 1994, until the 17308
end of that judge's term.17309

       In the Portsmouth municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17310
be elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 17311
1985.17312

       In the Putnam county municipal court, one full-time judge 17313
shall be elected in 2011. Beginning January 1, 2011, the part-time 17314
judge of the Putnam county county court that existed prior to that 17315
date whose term commenced on January 1, 2007, shall serve as the 17316
full-time judge of the Putnam county municipal court until 17317
December 31, 2011.17318

       In the Rocky River municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17319
be elected in 1957, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 17320
1971.17321

       In the Sandusky municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17322
elected in 1953.17323

       In the Sandusky county municipal court, one full-time judge 17324
shall be elected in 2013. Beginning on January 1, 2013, the two 17325
part-time judges of the Sandusky county county court that existed 17326
prior to that date shall serve as part-time judges of the Sandusky 17327
county municipal court until December 31, 2013. If either 17328
judgeship becomes vacant before January 1, 2014, that judgeship is 17329
abolished on the date it becomes vacant, and the person who holds 17330
the other judgeship shall serve as the full-time judge of the 17331
Sandusky county municipal court until December 31, 2013.17332

       In the Trumbull county municipal court, one full-time judge 17333
shall be elected in 2017. Beginning on January 1, 2013, the 17334
part-time judge of the Trumbull county county court that existed 17335
prior to that date who was elected in 2010 shall serve as the 17336
full-time judge of the Trumbull county municipal court until 17337
December 31, 2017.17338

       In the Shaker Heights municipal court, one full-time judge 17339
shall be elected in 1957.17340

       In the Shelby municipal court, one part-time judge shall be 17341
elected in 1957.17342

       In the Sidney municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17343
elected in 1995.17344

       In the South Euclid municipal court, one full-time judge 17345
shall be elected in 1999. The part-time judge elected in 1993, 17346
whose term commenced on January 1, 1994, shall serve until 17347
December 31, 1999, and the office of that judge is abolished on 17348
January 1, 2000.17349

       In the Springfield municipal court, two full-time judges 17350
shall be elected in 1985, and one full-time judge shall be elected 17351
in 1983, all of whom shall serve as the judges of the Springfield 17352
municipal court through December 31, 1987, and as the judges of 17353
the Clark county municipal court from January 1, 1988, until the 17354
end of their respective terms.17355

       In the Steubenville municipal court, one full-time judge 17356
shall be elected in 1953.17357

       In the Stow municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17358
elected in 2009, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 2013. 17359
Beginning January 1, 2009, the judge of the Cuyahoga Falls 17360
municipal court that existed prior to that date whose term 17361
commenced on January 1, 2008, shall serve as a full-time judge of 17362
the Stow municipal court until December 31, 2013. Beginning 17363
January 1, 2009, the judge of the Cuyahoga Falls municipal court 17364
that existed prior to that date whose term commenced on January 1, 17365
2004, shall serve as a full-time judge of the Stow municipal court 17366
until December 31, 2009.17367

       In the Struthers municipal court, one part-time judge shall 17368
be elected in 1963.17369

       In the Sylvania municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17370
elected in 1963.17371

       In the Tiffin municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17372
elected in 1953.17373

       In the Toledo municipal court, two full-time judges shall be 17374
elected in 1971, four full-time judges shall be elected in 1975, 17375
and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1973.17376

       In the Upper Sandusky municipal court, one full-time judge 17377
shall be elected in 2011. The part-time judge elected in 2005, 17378
whose term commenced on January 1, 2006, shall serve as a 17379
full-time judge on and after January 1, 2008, until the expiration 17380
of that judge's term on December 31, 2011, and the office of that 17381
judge is abolished on January 1, 2012.17382

       In the Vandalia municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17383
elected in 1959.17384

       In the Van Wert municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17385
elected in 1957.17386

       In the Vermilion municipal court, one part-time judge shall 17387
be elected in 1965.17388

       In the Wadsworth municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17389
be elected in 1981.17390

       In the Warren municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17391
elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1971.17392

       In the Washington Court House municipal court, one full-time 17393
judge shall be elected in 1999. The part-time judge elected in 17394
1993, whose term commenced on January 1, 1994, shall serve until 17395
December 31, 1999, and the office of that judge is abolished on 17396
January 1, 2000.17397

       In the Wayne county municipal court, one full-time judge 17398
shall be elected in 1975, and one full-time judge shall be elected 17399
in 1979.17400

       In the Willoughby municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17401
be elected in 1951.17402

       In the Wilmington municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17403
be elected in 1991, who shall serve as the judge of the Wilmington 17404
municipal court through June 30, 1992, and as the judge of the 17405
Clinton county municipal court from July 1, 1992, until the end of 17406
that judge's term on December 31, 1997.17407

       In the Xenia municipal court, one full-time judge shall be 17408
elected in 1977.17409

       In the Youngstown municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17410
be elected in 1951, and two full-time judges shall be elected in 17411
1953.17412

       In the Zanesville municipal court, one full-time judge shall 17413
be elected in 1953.17414

       Sec. 1901.18.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 17415
division or section 1901.181 of the Revised Code, subject to the 17416
monetary jurisdiction of municipal courts as set forth in section 17417
1901.17 of the Revised Code, a municipal court has original 17418
jurisdiction within its territory in all of the following actions 17419
or proceedings and to perform all of the following functions:17420

       (1) In any civil action, of whatever nature or remedy, of 17421
which judges of county courts have jurisdiction;17422

       (2) In any action or proceeding at law for the recovery of 17423
money or personal property of which the court of common pleas has 17424
jurisdiction;17425

       (3) In any action at law based on contract, to determine, 17426
preserve, and enforce all legal and equitable rights involved in 17427
the contract, to decree an accounting, reformation, or 17428
cancellation of the contract, and to hear and determine all legal 17429
and equitable remedies necessary or proper for a complete 17430
determination of the rights of the parties to the contract;17431

       (4) In any action or proceeding for the sale of personal 17432
property under chattel mortgage, lien, encumbrance, or other 17433
charge, for the foreclosure and marshalling of liens on personal 17434
property of that nature, and for the rendering of personal 17435
judgment in the action or proceeding;17436

       (5) In any action or proceeding to enforce the collection of 17437
its own judgments or the judgments rendered by any court within 17438
the territory to which the municipal court has succeeded, and to 17439
subject the interest of a judgment debtor in personal property to 17440
satisfy judgments enforceable by the municipal court;17441

       (6) In any action or proceeding in the nature of 17442
interpleader;17443

       (7) In any action of replevin;17444

       (8) In any action of forcible entry and detainer;17445

       (9) In any action concerning the issuance and enforcement of 17446
temporary protection orders pursuant to section 2919.26 of the 17447
Revised Code or protection orders pursuant to section 2903.213 of 17448
the Revised Code or the enforcement of protection orders issued by 17449
courts of another state, as defined in section 2919.27 of the 17450
Revised Code;17451

       (10) If the municipal court has a housing or environmental 17452
division, in any action over which the division is given 17453
jurisdiction by section 1901.181 of the Revised Code, provided 17454
that, except as specified in division (B) of that section, no 17455
judge of the court other than the judge of the division shall hear 17456
or determine any action over which the division has jurisdiction;17457

       (11) In any action brought pursuant to division (I) of 17458
section 3733.114781.40 of the Revised Code, if the residential 17459
premises that are the subject of the action are located within the 17460
territorial jurisdiction of the court;17461

       (12) In any civil action as described in division (B)(1) of 17462
section 3767.41 of the Revised Code that relates to a public 17463
nuisance, and, to the extent any provision of this chapter 17464
conflicts or is inconsistent with a provision of that section, the 17465
provision of that section shall control in the civil action;17466

       (13) In a proceeding brought pursuant to section 955.222 of 17467
the Revised Code by the owner of a dog that has been designated as 17468
a nuisance dog, dangerous dog, or vicious dog.17469

       (B) The Cleveland municipal court also shall have 17470
jurisdiction within its territory in all of the following actions 17471
or proceedings and to perform all of the following functions:17472

       (1) In all actions and proceedings for the sale of real 17473
property under lien of a judgment of the municipal court or a lien 17474
for machinery, material, or fuel furnished or labor performed, 17475
irrespective of amount, and, in those actions and proceedings, the 17476
court may proceed to foreclose and marshal all liens and all 17477
vested or contingent rights, to appoint a receiver, and to render 17478
personal judgment irrespective of amount in favor of any party.17479

       (2) In all actions for the foreclosure of a mortgage on real 17480
property given to secure the payment of money or the enforcement 17481
of a specific lien for money or other encumbrance or charge on 17482
real property, when the amount claimed by the plaintiff does not 17483
exceed fifteen thousand dollars and the real property is situated 17484
within the territory, and, in those actions, the court may proceed 17485
to foreclose all liens and all vested and contingent rights and 17486
may proceed to render judgments and make findings and orders 17487
between the parties in the same manner and to the same extent as 17488
in similar actions in the court of common pleas.17489

       (3) In all actions for the recovery of real property situated 17490
within the territory to the same extent as courts of common pleas 17491
have jurisdiction;17492

       (4) In all actions for injunction to prevent or terminate 17493
violations of the ordinances and regulations of the city of 17494
Cleveland enacted or promulgated under the police power of the 17495
city of Cleveland, pursuant to Section 3 of Article XVIII, Ohio 17496
Constitution, over which the court of common pleas has or may have 17497
jurisdiction, and, in those actions, the court may proceed to 17498
render judgments and make findings and orders in the same manner 17499
and to the same extent as in similar actions in the court of 17500
common pleas.17501

       Sec. 1901.31.  The clerk and deputy clerks of a municipal 17502
court shall be selected, be compensated, give bond, and have 17503
powers and duties as follows:17504

       (A) There shall be a clerk of the court who is appointed or 17505
elected as follows:17506

       (1)(a) Except in the Akron, Barberton, Toledo, Hamilton 17507
county, Miami county, Montgomery county, Portage county, and Wayne 17508
county municipal courts and through December 31, 2008, the 17509
Cuyahoga Falls municipal court, if the population of the territory 17510
equals or exceeds one hundred thousand at the regular municipal 17511
election immediately preceding the expiration of the term of the 17512
present clerk, the clerk shall be nominated and elected by the 17513
qualified electors of the territory in the manner that is provided 17514
for the nomination and election of judges in section 1901.07 of 17515
the Revised Code.17516

       The clerk so elected shall hold office for a term of six 17517
years, which term shall commence on the first day of January 17518
following the clerk's election and continue until the clerk's 17519
successor is elected and qualified.17520

       (b) In the Hamilton county municipal court, the clerk of 17521
courts of Hamilton county shall be the clerk of the municipal 17522
court and may appoint an assistant clerk who shall receive the 17523
compensation, payable out of the treasury of Hamilton county in 17524
semimonthly installments, that the board of county commissioners 17525
prescribes. The clerk of courts of Hamilton county, acting as the 17526
clerk of the Hamilton county municipal court and assuming the 17527
duties of that office, shall receive compensation at one-fourth 17528
the rate that is prescribed for the clerks of courts of common 17529
pleas as determined in accordance with the population of the 17530
county and the rates set forth in sections 325.08 and 325.18 of 17531
the Revised Code. This compensation shall be paid from the county 17532
treasury in semimonthly installments and is in addition to the 17533
annual compensation that is received for the performance of the 17534
duties of the clerk of courts of Hamilton county, as provided in 17535
sections 325.08 and 325.18 of the Revised Code.17536

       (c) In the Portage county and Wayne county municipal courts, 17537
the clerks of courts of Portage county and Wayne county shall be 17538
the clerks, respectively, of the Portage county and Wayne county 17539
municipal courts and may appoint a chief deputy clerk for each 17540
branch that is established pursuant to section 1901.311 of the 17541
Revised Code and assistant clerks as the judges of the municipal 17542
court determine are necessary, all of whom shall receive the 17543
compensation that the legislative authority prescribes. The clerks 17544
of courts of Portage county and Wayne county, acting as the clerks 17545
of the Portage county and Wayne county municipal courts and 17546
assuming the duties of these offices, shall receive compensation 17547
payable from the county treasury in semimonthly installments at 17548
one-fourth the rate that is prescribed for the clerks of courts of 17549
common pleas as determined in accordance with the population of 17550
the county and the rates set forth in sections 325.08 and 325.18 17551
of the Revised Code.17552

       (d) In the Montgomery county and Miami county municipal 17553
courts, the clerks of courts of Montgomery county and Miami county 17554
shall be the clerks, respectively, of the Montgomery county and 17555
Miami county municipal courts. The clerks of courts of Montgomery 17556
county and Miami county, acting as the clerks of the Montgomery 17557
county and Miami county municipal courts and assuming the duties 17558
of these offices, shall receive compensation at one-fourth the 17559
rate that is prescribed for the clerks of courts of common pleas 17560
as determined in accordance with the population of the county and 17561
the rates set forth in sections 325.08 and 325.18 of the Revised 17562
Code. This compensation shall be paid from the county treasury in 17563
semimonthly installments and is in addition to the annual 17564
compensation that is received for the performance of the duties of 17565
the clerks of courts of Montgomery county and Miami county, as 17566
provided in sections 325.08 and 325.18 of the Revised Code. 17567

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1)(e) of 17568
this section, in the Akron municipal court, candidates for 17569
election to the office of clerk of the court shall be nominated by 17570
primary election. The primary election shall be held on the day 17571
specified in the charter of the city of Akron for the nomination 17572
of municipal officers. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of 17573
section 3513.05 or 3513.257 of the Revised Code, the declarations 17574
of candidacy and petitions of partisan candidates and the 17575
nominating petitions of independent candidates for the office of 17576
clerk of the Akron municipal court shall be signed by at least 17577
fifty qualified electors of the territory of the court.17578

       The candidates shall file a declaration of candidacy and 17579
petition, or a nominating petition, whichever is applicable, not 17580
later than four p.m. of the ninetieth day before the day of the 17581
primary election, in the form prescribed by section 3513.07 or 17582
3513.261 of the Revised Code. The declaration of candidacy and 17583
petition, or the nominating petition, shall conform to the 17584
applicable requirements of section 3513.05 or 3513.257 of the 17585
Revised Code.17586

       If no valid declaration of candidacy and petition is filed by 17587
any person for nomination as a candidate of a particular political 17588
party for election to the office of clerk of the Akron municipal 17589
court, a primary election shall not be held for the purpose of 17590
nominating a candidate of that party for election to that office. 17591
If only one person files a valid declaration of candidacy and 17592
petition for nomination as a candidate of a particular political 17593
party for election to that office, a primary election shall not be 17594
held for the purpose of nominating a candidate of that party for 17595
election to that office, and the candidate shall be issued a 17596
certificate of nomination in the manner set forth in section 17597
3513.02 of the Revised Code.17598

       Declarations of candidacy and petitions, nominating 17599
petitions, and certificates of nomination for the office of clerk 17600
of the Akron municipal court shall contain a designation of the 17601
term for which the candidate seeks election. At the following 17602
regular municipal election, all candidates for the office shall be 17603
submitted to the qualified electors of the territory of the court 17604
in the manner that is provided in section 1901.07 of the Revised 17605
Code for the election of the judges of the court. The clerk so 17606
elected shall hold office for a term of six years, which term 17607
shall commence on the first day of January following the clerk's 17608
election and continue until the clerk's successor is elected and 17609
qualified.17610

        (f) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1)(f) of 17611
this section, in the Barberton municipal court, candidates for 17612
election to the office of clerk of the court shall be nominated by 17613
primary election. The primary election shall be held on the day 17614
specified in the charter of the city of Barberton for the 17615
nomination of municipal officers. Notwithstanding any contrary 17616
provision of section 3513.05 or 3513.257 of the Revised Code, the 17617
declarations of candidacy and petitions of partisan candidates and 17618
the nominating petitions of independent candidates for the office 17619
of clerk of the Barberton municipal court shall be signed by at 17620
least fifty qualified electors of the territory of the court.17621

       The candidates shall file a declaration of candidacy and 17622
petition, or a nominating petition, whichever is applicable, not 17623
later than four p.m. of the ninetieth day before the day of the 17624
primary election, in the form prescribed by section 3513.07 or 17625
3513.261 of the Revised Code. The declaration of candidacy and 17626
petition, or the nominating petition, shall conform to the 17627
applicable requirements of section 3513.05 or 3513.257 of the 17628
Revised Code.17629

       If no valid declaration of candidacy and petition is filed by 17630
any person for nomination as a candidate of a particular political 17631
party for election to the office of clerk of the Barberton 17632
municipal court, a primary election shall not be held for the 17633
purpose of nominating a candidate of that party for election to 17634
that office. If only one person files a valid declaration of 17635
candidacy and petition for nomination as a candidate of a 17636
particular political party for election to that office, a primary 17637
election shall not be held for the purpose of nominating a 17638
candidate of that party for election to that office, and the 17639
candidate shall be issued a certificate of nomination in the 17640
manner set forth in section 3513.02 of the Revised Code.17641

       Declarations of candidacy and petitions, nominating 17642
petitions, and certificates of nomination for the office of clerk 17643
of the Barberton municipal court shall contain a designation of 17644
the term for which the candidate seeks election. At the following 17645
regular municipal election, all candidates for the office shall be 17646
submitted to the qualified electors of the territory of the court 17647
in the manner that is provided in section 1901.07 of the Revised 17648
Code for the election of the judges of the court. The clerk so 17649
elected shall hold office for a term of six years, which term 17650
shall commence on the first day of January following the clerk's 17651
election and continue until the clerk's successor is elected and 17652
qualified.17653

       (g)(i) Through December 31, 2008, except as otherwise 17654
provided in division (A)(1)(g)(i) of this section, in the Cuyahoga 17655
Falls municipal court, candidates for election to the office of 17656
clerk of the court shall be nominated by primary election. The 17657
primary election shall be held on the day specified in the charter 17658
of the city of Cuyahoga Falls for the nomination of municipal 17659
officers. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 17660
3513.05 or 3513.257 of the Revised Code, the declarations of 17661
candidacy and petitions of partisan candidates and the nominating 17662
petitions of independent candidates for the office of clerk of the 17663
Cuyahoga Falls municipal court shall be signed by at least fifty 17664
qualified electors of the territory of the court.17665

       The candidates shall file a declaration of candidacy and 17666
petition, or a nominating petition, whichever is applicable, not 17667
later than four p.m. of the ninetieth day before the day of the 17668
primary election, in the form prescribed by section 3513.07 or 17669
3513.261 of the Revised Code. The declaration of candidacy and 17670
petition, or the nominating petition, shall conform to the 17671
applicable requirements of section 3513.05 or 3513.257 of the 17672
Revised Code.17673

       If no valid declaration of candidacy and petition is filed by 17674
any person for nomination as a candidate of a particular political 17675
party for election to the office of clerk of the Cuyahoga Falls 17676
municipal court, a primary election shall not be held for the 17677
purpose of nominating a candidate of that party for election to 17678
that office. If only one person files a valid declaration of 17679
candidacy and petition for nomination as a candidate of a 17680
particular political party for election to that office, a primary 17681
election shall not be held for the purpose of nominating a 17682
candidate of that party for election to that office, and the 17683
candidate shall be issued a certificate of nomination in the 17684
manner set forth in section 3513.02 of the Revised Code.17685

       Declarations of candidacy and petitions, nominating 17686
petitions, and certificates of nomination for the office of clerk 17687
of the Cuyahoga Falls municipal court shall contain a designation 17688
of the term for which the candidate seeks election. At the 17689
following regular municipal election, all candidates for the 17690
office shall be submitted to the qualified electors of the 17691
territory of the court in the manner that is provided in section 17692
1901.07 of the Revised Code for the election of the judges of the 17693
court. The clerk so elected shall hold office for a term of six 17694
years, which term shall commence on the first day of January 17695
following the clerk's election and continue until the clerk's 17696
successor is elected and qualified.17697

       (ii) Division (A)(1)(g)(i) of this section shall have no 17698
effect after December 31, 2008.17699

       (h) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1)(h) of 17700
this section, in the Toledo municipal court, candidates for 17701
election to the office of clerk of the court shall be nominated by 17702
primary election. The primary election shall be held on the day 17703
specified in the charter of the city of Toledo for the nomination 17704
of municipal officers. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of 17705
section 3513.05 or 3513.257 of the Revised Code, the declarations 17706
of candidacy and petitions of partisan candidates and the 17707
nominating petitions of independent candidates for the office of 17708
clerk of the Toledo municipal court shall be signed by at least 17709
fifty qualified electors of the territory of the court.17710

       The candidates shall file a declaration of candidacy and 17711
petition, or a nominating petition, whichever is applicable, not 17712
later than four p.m. of the ninetieth day before the day of the 17713
primary election, in the form prescribed by section 3513.07 or 17714
3513.261 of the Revised Code. The declaration of candidacy and 17715
petition, or the nominating petition, shall conform to the 17716
applicable requirements of section 3513.05 or 3513.257 of the 17717
Revised Code.17718

       If no valid declaration of candidacy and petition is filed by 17719
any person for nomination as a candidate of a particular political 17720
party for election to the office of clerk of the Toledo municipal 17721
court, a primary election shall not be held for the purpose of 17722
nominating a candidate of that party for election to that office. 17723
If only one person files a valid declaration of candidacy and 17724
petition for nomination as a candidate of a particular political 17725
party for election to that office, a primary election shall not be 17726
held for the purpose of nominating a candidate of that party for 17727
election to that office, and the candidate shall be issued a 17728
certificate of nomination in the manner set forth in section 17729
3513.02 of the Revised Code.17730

       Declarations of candidacy and petitions, nominating 17731
petitions, and certificates of nomination for the office of clerk 17732
of the Toledo municipal court shall contain a designation of the 17733
term for which the candidate seeks election. At the following 17734
regular municipal election, all candidates for the office shall be 17735
submitted to the qualified electors of the territory of the court 17736
in the manner that is provided in section 1901.07 of the Revised 17737
Code for the election of the judges of the court. The clerk so 17738
elected shall hold office for a term of six years, which term 17739
shall commence on the first day of January following the clerk's 17740
election and continue until the clerk's successor is elected and 17741
qualified.17742

       (2)(a) Except for the Alliance, Auglaize county, Brown 17743
county, Columbiana county, Holmes county, Putnam county, Sandusky 17744
county, Lorain, Massillon, and Youngstown municipal courts, in a 17745
municipal court for which the population of the territory is less 17746
than one hundred thousand, the clerk shall be appointed by the 17747
court, and the clerk shall hold office until the clerk's successor 17748
is appointed and qualified.17749

       (b) In the Alliance, Lorain, Massillon, and Youngstown 17750
municipal courts, the clerk shall be elected for a term of office 17751
as described in division (A)(1)(a) of this section.17752

       (c) In the Auglaize county, Brown county, Holmes county, and17753
Putnam county, and Sandusky county municipal courts, the clerks of 17754
courts of Auglaize county, Brown county, Holmes county, and Putnam 17755
county, and Sandusky county shall be the clerks, respectively, of 17756
the Auglaize county, Brown county, Holmes county, and Putnam 17757
county, and Sandusky county municipal courts and may appoint a 17758
chief deputy clerk for each branch office that is established 17759
pursuant to section 1901.311 of the Revised Code, and assistant 17760
clerks as the judge of the court determines are necessary, all of 17761
whom shall receive the compensation that the legislative authority 17762
prescribes. The clerks of courts of Auglaize county, Brown county, 17763
Holmes county, and Putnam county, and Sandusky county, acting as 17764
the clerks of the Auglaize county, Brown county, Holmes county, 17765
and Putnam county, and Sandusky county municipal courts and 17766
assuming the duties of these offices, shall receive compensation 17767
payable from the county treasury in semimonthly installments at 17768
one-fourth the rate that is prescribed for the clerks of courts of 17769
common pleas as determined in accordance with the population of 17770
the county and the rates set forth in sections 325.08 and 325.18 17771
of the Revised Code.17772

       (d) In the Columbiana county municipal court, the clerk of 17773
courts of Columbiana county shall be the clerk of the municipal 17774
court, may appoint a chief deputy clerk for each branch office 17775
that is established pursuant to section 1901.311 of the Revised 17776
Code, and may appoint any assistant clerks that the judges of the 17777
court determine are necessary. All of the chief deputy clerks and 17778
assistant clerks shall receive the compensation that the 17779
legislative authority prescribes. The clerk of courts of 17780
Columbiana county, acting as the clerk of the Columbiana county 17781
municipal court and assuming the duties of that office, shall 17782
receive in either biweekly installments or semimonthly 17783
installments, as determined by the payroll administrator, 17784
compensation payable from the county treasury at one-fourth the 17785
rate that is prescribed for the clerks of courts of common pleas 17786
as determined in accordance with the population of the county and 17787
the rates set forth in sections 325.08 and 325.18 of the Revised 17788
Code.17789

       (3) During the temporary absence of the clerk due to illness, 17790
vacation, or other proper cause, the court may appoint a temporary 17791
clerk, who shall be paid the same compensation, have the same 17792
authority, and perform the same duties as the clerk.17793

       (B) Except in the Hamilton county, Montgomery county, Miami 17794
county, Portage county, and Wayne county municipal courts, if a 17795
vacancy occurs in the office of the clerk of the Alliance, Lorain, 17796
Massillon, or Youngstown municipal court or occurs in the office 17797
of the clerk of a municipal court for which the population of the 17798
territory equals or exceeds one hundred thousand because the clerk 17799
ceases to hold the office before the end of the clerk's term or 17800
because a clerk-elect fails to take office, the vacancy shall be 17801
filled, until a successor is elected and qualified, by a person 17802
chosen by the residents of the territory of the court who are 17803
members of the county central committee of the political party by 17804
which the last occupant of that office or the clerk-elect was 17805
nominated. Not less than five nor more than fifteen days after a 17806
vacancy occurs, those members of that county central committee 17807
shall meet to make an appointment to fill the vacancy. At least 17808
four days before the date of the meeting, the chairperson or a 17809
secretary of the county central committee shall notify each such 17810
member of that county central committee by first class mail of the 17811
date, time, and place of the meeting and its purpose. A majority 17812
of all such members of that county central committee constitutes a 17813
quorum, and a majority of the quorum is required to make the 17814
appointment. If the office so vacated was occupied or was to be 17815
occupied by a person not nominated at a primary election, or if 17816
the appointment was not made by the committee members in 17817
accordance with this division, the court shall make an appointment 17818
to fill the vacancy. A successor shall be elected to fill the 17819
office for the unexpired term at the first municipal election that 17820
is held more than one hundred thirty-five days after the vacancy 17821
occurred.17822

       (C)(1) In a municipal court, other than the Auglaize county, 17823
the Brown county, the Columbiana county, the Holmes county, the 17824
Putnam county, the Sandusky county, and the Lorain municipal 17825
courts, for which the population of the territory is less than one 17826
hundred thousand, the clerk of the municipal court shall receive 17827
the annual compensation that the presiding judge of the court 17828
prescribes, if the revenue of the court for the preceding calendar 17829
year, as certified by the auditor or chief fiscal officer of the 17830
municipal corporation in which the court is located or, in the 17831
case of a county-operated municipal court, the county auditor, is 17832
equal to or greater than the expenditures, including any debt 17833
charges, for the operation of the court payable under this chapter 17834
from the city treasury or, in the case of a county-operated 17835
municipal court, the county treasury for that calendar year, as 17836
also certified by the auditor or chief fiscal officer. If the 17837
revenue of a municipal court, other than the Auglaize county, the 17838
Brown county, the Columbiana county, the Putnam county, the 17839
Sandusky county, and the Lorain municipal courts, for which the 17840
population of the territory is less than one hundred thousand for 17841
the preceding calendar year as so certified is not equal to or 17842
greater than those expenditures for the operation of the court for 17843
that calendar year as so certified, the clerk of a municipal court 17844
shall receive the annual compensation that the legislative 17845
authority prescribes. As used in this division, "revenue" means 17846
the total of all costs and fees that are collected and paid to the 17847
city treasury or, in a county-operated municipal court, the county 17848
treasury by the clerk of the municipal court under division (F) of 17849
this section and all interest received and paid to the city 17850
treasury or, in a county-operated municipal court, the county 17851
treasury in relation to the costs and fees under division (G) of 17852
this section.17853

       (2) In a municipal court, other than the Hamilton county, 17854
Montgomery county, Miami county, Portage county, and Wayne county 17855
municipal courts, for which the population of the territory is one 17856
hundred thousand or more, and in the Lorain municipal court, the 17857
clerk of the municipal court shall receive annual compensation in 17858
a sum equal to eighty-five per cent of the salary of a judge of 17859
the court.17860

       (3) The compensation of a clerk described in division (C)(1) 17861
or (2) of this section and of the clerk of the Columbiana county 17862
municipal court is payable in either semimonthly installments or 17863
biweekly installments, as determined by the payroll administrator, 17864
from the same sources and in the same manner as provided in 17865
section 1901.11 of the Revised Code, except that the compensation 17866
of the clerk of the Carroll county municipal court is payable in 17867
biweekly installments.17868

       (D) Before entering upon the duties of the clerk's office, 17869
the clerk of a municipal court shall give bond of not less than 17870
six thousand dollars to be determined by the judges of the court, 17871
conditioned upon the faithful performance of the clerk's duties.17872

       (E) The clerk of a municipal court may do all of the 17873
following: administer oaths, take affidavits, and issue executions 17874
upon any judgment rendered in the court, including a judgment for 17875
unpaid costs; issue, sign, and attach the seal of the court to all 17876
writs, process, subpoenas, and papers issuing out of the court; 17877
and approve all bonds, sureties, recognizances, and undertakings 17878
fixed by any judge of the court or by law. The clerk may refuse to 17879
accept for filing any pleading or paper submitted for filing by a 17880
person who has been found to be a vexatious litigator under 17881
section 2323.52 of the Revised Code and who has failed to obtain 17882
leave to proceed under that section. The clerk shall do all of the 17883
following: file and safely keep all journals, records, books, and 17884
papers belonging or appertaining to the court; record the 17885
proceedings of the court; perform all other duties that the judges 17886
of the court may prescribe; and keep a book showing all receipts 17887
and disbursements, which book shall be open for public inspection 17888
at all times.17889

       The clerk shall prepare and maintain a general index, a 17890
docket, and other records that the court, by rule, requires, all 17891
of which shall be the public records of the court. In the docket, 17892
the clerk shall enter, at the time of the commencement of an 17893
action, the names of the parties in full, the names of the 17894
counsel, and the nature of the proceedings. Under proper dates, 17895
the clerk shall note the filing of the complaint, issuing of 17896
summons or other process, returns, and any subsequent pleadings. 17897
The clerk also shall enter all reports, verdicts, orders, 17898
judgments, and proceedings of the court, clearly specifying the 17899
relief granted or orders made in each action. The court may order 17900
an extended record of any of the above to be made and entered, 17901
under the proper action heading, upon the docket at the request of 17902
any party to the case, the expense of which record may be taxed as 17903
costs in the case or may be required to be prepaid by the party 17904
demanding the record, upon order of the court.17905

       (F) The clerk of a municipal court shall receive, collect, 17906
and issue receipts for all costs, fees, fines, bail, and other 17907
moneys payable to the office or to any officer of the court. The 17908
clerk shall each month disburse to the proper persons or officers, 17909
and take receipts for, all costs, fees, fines, bail, and other 17910
moneys that the clerk collects. Subject to sections 307.515 and 17911
4511.193 of the Revised Code and to any other section of the 17912
Revised Code that requires a specific manner of disbursement of 17913
any moneys received by a municipal court and except for the 17914
Hamilton county, Lawrence county, and Ottawa county municipal 17915
courts, the clerk shall pay all fines received for violation of 17916
municipal ordinances into the treasury of the municipal 17917
corporation the ordinance of which was violated and shall pay all 17918
fines received for violation of township resolutions adopted 17919
pursuant to section 503.52 or 503.53 or Chapter 504. of the 17920
Revised Code into the treasury of the township the resolution of 17921
which was violated. Subject to sections 1901.024 and 4511.193 of 17922
the Revised Code, in the Hamilton county, Lawrence county, and 17923
Ottawa county municipal courts, the clerk shall pay fifty per cent 17924
of the fines received for violation of municipal ordinances and 17925
fifty per cent of the fines received for violation of township 17926
resolutions adopted pursuant to section 503.52 or 503.53 or 17927
Chapter 504. of the Revised Code into the treasury of the county. 17928
Subject to sections 307.515, 4511.19, and 5503.04 of the Revised 17929
Code and to any other section of the Revised Code that requires a 17930
specific manner of disbursement of any moneys received by a 17931
municipal court, the clerk shall pay all fines collected for the 17932
violation of state laws into the county treasury. Except in a 17933
county-operated municipal court, the clerk shall pay all costs and 17934
fees the disbursement of which is not otherwise provided for in 17935
the Revised Code into the city treasury. The clerk of a 17936
county-operated municipal court shall pay the costs and fees the 17937
disbursement of which is not otherwise provided for in the Revised 17938
Code into the county treasury. Moneys deposited as security for 17939
costs shall be retained pending the litigation. The clerk shall 17940
keep a separate account of all receipts and disbursements in civil 17941
and criminal cases, which shall be a permanent public record of 17942
the office. On the expiration of the term of the clerk, the clerk 17943
shall deliver the records to the clerk's successor. The clerk 17944
shall have other powers and duties as are prescribed by rule or 17945
order of the court.17946

       (G) All moneys paid into a municipal court shall be noted on 17947
the record of the case in which they are paid and shall be 17948
deposited in a state or national bank, or a domestic savings and 17949
loan association, as defined in section 1151.01 of the Revised 17950
Code, that is selected by the clerk. Any interest received upon 17951
the deposits shall be paid into the city treasury, except that, in 17952
a county-operated municipal court, the interest shall be paid into 17953
the treasury of the county in which the court is located.17954

       On the first Monday in January of each year, the clerk shall 17955
make a list of the titles of all cases in the court that were 17956
finally determined more than one year past in which there remains 17957
unclaimed in the possession of the clerk any funds, or any part of 17958
a deposit for security of costs not consumed by the costs in the 17959
case. The clerk shall give notice of the moneys to the parties who 17960
are entitled to the moneys or to their attorneys of record. All 17961
the moneys remaining unclaimed on the first day of April of each 17962
year shall be paid by the clerk to the city treasurer, except 17963
that, in a county-operated municipal court, the moneys shall be 17964
paid to the treasurer of the county in which the court is located. 17965
The treasurer shall pay any part of the moneys at any time to the 17966
person who has the right to the moneys upon proper certification 17967
of the clerk.17968

       (H) Deputy clerks of a municipal court other than the Carroll 17969
county municipal court may be appointed by the clerk and shall 17970
receive the compensation, payable in either biweekly installments 17971
or semimonthly installments, as determined by the payroll 17972
administrator, out of the city treasury, that the clerk may 17973
prescribe, except that the compensation of any deputy clerk of a 17974
county-operated municipal court shall be paid out of the treasury 17975
of the county in which the court is located. The judge of the 17976
Carroll county municipal court may appoint deputy clerks for the 17977
court, and the deputy clerks shall receive the compensation, 17978
payable in biweekly installments out of the county treasury, that 17979
the judge may prescribe. Each deputy clerk shall take an oath of 17980
office before entering upon the duties of the deputy clerk's 17981
office and, when so qualified, may perform the duties appertaining 17982
to the office of the clerk. The clerk may require any of the 17983
deputy clerks to give bond of not less than three thousand 17984
dollars, conditioned for the faithful performance of the deputy 17985
clerk's duties.17986

       (I) For the purposes of this section, whenever the population 17987
of the territory of a municipal court falls below one hundred 17988
thousand but not below ninety thousand, and the population of the 17989
territory prior to the most recent regular federal census exceeded 17990
one hundred thousand, the legislative authority of the municipal 17991
corporation may declare, by resolution, that the territory shall 17992
be considered to have a population of at least one hundred 17993
thousand.17994

       (J) The clerk or a deputy clerk shall be in attendance at all 17995
sessions of the municipal court, although not necessarily in the 17996
courtroom, and may administer oaths to witnesses and jurors and 17997
receive verdicts.17998

       Sec. 1907.11.  (A) Each county court district shall have the 17999
following county court judges, to be elected as follows:18000

       In the Adams county county court, one part-time judge shall 18001
be elected in 1982.18002

       In the Ashtabula county county court, one part-time judge 18003
shall be elected in 1980, and one part-time judge shall be elected 18004
in 1982.18005

       In the Belmont county county court, one part-time judge shall 18006
be elected in 1992, term to commence on January 1, 1993, and two 18007
part-time judges shall be elected in 1994, terms to commence on 18008
January 1, 1995, and January 2, 1995, respectively.18009

       In the Butler county county court, one part-time judge shall 18010
be elected in 1992, term to commence on January 1, 1993, and two 18011
part-time judges shall be elected in 1994, terms to commence on 18012
January 1, 1995, and January 2, 1995, respectively.18013

        Until December 31, 2007, in the Erie county county court, one 18014
part-time judge shall be elected in 1982. Effective January 1, 18015
2008, the Erie county county court shall cease to exist.18016

       In the Fulton county county court, one part-time judge shall 18017
be elected in 1980, and one part-time judge shall be elected in 18018
1982.18019

       In the Harrison county county court, one part-time judge 18020
shall be elected in 1982.18021

       In the Highland county county court, one part-time judge 18022
shall be elected in 1982.18023

       In the Jefferson county county court, one part-time judge 18024
shall be elected in 1992, term to commence on January 1, 1993, and 18025
two part-time judges shall be elected in 1994, terms to commence 18026
on January 1, 1995, and January 2, 1995, respectively.18027

       In the Mahoning county county court, one part-time judge 18028
shall be elected in 1992, term to commence on January 1, 1993, and 18029
three part-time judges shall be elected in 1994, terms to commence 18030
on January 1, 1995, January 2, 1995, and January 3, 1995, 18031
respectively.18032

       In the Meigs county county court, one part-time judge shall 18033
be elected in 1982.18034

       In the Monroe county county court, one part-time judge shall 18035
be elected in 1982.18036

       In the Morgan county county court, one part-time judge shall 18037
be elected in 1982.18038

       In the Muskingum county county court, one part-time judge 18039
shall be elected in 1980, and one part-time judge shall be elected 18040
in 1982.18041

       In the Noble county county court, one part-time judge shall 18042
be elected in 1982.18043

       In the Paulding county county court, one part-time judge 18044
shall be elected in 1982.18045

       In the Perry county county court, one part-time judge shall 18046
be elected in 1982.18047

       In the Pike county county court, one part-time judge shall be 18048
elected in 1982.18049

       InUntil December 31, 2006, in the Sandusky county county 18050
court, two part-time judges shall be elected in 1994, terms to 18051
commence on January 1, 1995, and January 2, 1995, respectively. 18052
The judges elected in 2006 shall serve until December 31, 2012. 18053
The Sandusky county county court shall cease to exist on January 18054
1, 2013.18055

       InUntil December 31, 2010, in the Trumbull county county 18056
court, one part-time judge shall be elected in 1992, and one 18057
part-time judge shall be elected in 1994. The judges elected in 18058
2006 and 2010 shall serve until December 31, 2012. The Trumbull 18059
county county court shall cease to exist on January 1, 2013.18060

       In the Tuscarawas county county court, one part-time judge 18061
shall be elected in 1982.18062

       In the Vinton county county court, one part-time judge shall 18063
be elected in 1982.18064

       In the Warren county county court, one part-time judge shall 18065
be elected in 1980, and one part-time judge shall be elected in 18066
1982.18067

       (B)(1) Additional judges shall be elected at the next regular 18068
election for a county court judge as provided in section 1907.13 18069
of the Revised Code.18070

       (2) Vacancies caused by the death or the resignation from, 18071
forfeiture of, or removal from office of a judge shall be filled 18072
in accordance with section 107.08 of the Revised Code, except as 18073
provided in section 1907.15 of the Revised Code.18074

       Sec. 1907.13.  A county court judge, at the time of filing a 18075
nominating petition for the office or at the time of appointment 18076
to the office and during the judge's term of office, shall be a 18077
qualified elector and a resident of the county court district in 18078
which the judge is elected or appointed. A county court judge does 18079
not have to be a resident of an area of separate jurisdiction in 18080
the county court district to which the judge may be assigned 18081
pursuant to section 1907.15 of the Revised Code. Every county 18082
court judge shall have been admitted to the practice of law in 18083
this state and shall have been engaged, for a total of at least 18084
six years preceding the judge's appointment or the commencement of 18085
the judge's term, in the practice of law in any jurisdiction in 18086
the United Statesthis state, except that the six-year practice 18087
requirement does not apply to a county court judge who is holding 18088
office on July 2, 2010the effective date of the amendment of 18089
this section by H.B. 487 of the 129th general assembly, and who 18090
subsequently is a candidate for that office. At least two of the 18091
years of practice that qualify a judge shall have been in this 18092
state.18093

       Judges shall be elected by the electors of the county court 18094
district at the general election in even-numbered years as set 18095
forth in section 1907.11 of the Revised Code for a term of six 18096
years commencing on the first day of January following the 18097
election for the county court or on the dates specified in section 18098
1907.11 of the Revised Code for particular county court judges. 18099
Their successors shall be elected in even-numbered years every six 18100
years.18101

       All candidates for county court judge shall be nominated by 18102
petition. The nominating petition shall be in the general form and 18103
signed and verified as prescribed by section 3513.261 of the 18104
Revised Code and shall be signed by the lesser of fifty qualified 18105
electors of the county court district or a number of qualified 18106
electors of the county court district not less than one per cent 18107
of the number of electors who voted for governor at the most 18108
recent regular state election in the district. A nominating 18109
petition shall not be accepted for filing or filed if it appears 18110
on its face to contain signatures aggregating in number more than 18111
twice the minimum aggregate number of signatures required by this 18112
section. A nominating petition shall be filed with the board of 18113
elections not later than four p.m. of the ninetieth day before the 18114
day of the general election.18115

       Sec. 1909.11.  A county court judge has jurisdiction in any 18116
action brought pursuant to division (I) of section 3733.114781.4018117
of the Revised Code if the residential premises that are the 18118
subject of the action are located within the territorial 18119
jurisdiction of the judge's county court district.18120

       Sec. 1923.01.  (A) As provided in this chapter, any judge of 18121
a county or municipal court or a court of common pleas, within the 18122
judge's proper area of jurisdiction, may inquire about persons who 18123
make unlawful and forcible entry into lands or tenements and 18124
detain them, and about persons who make a lawful and peaceable 18125
entry into lands or tenements and hold them unlawfully and by 18126
force. If, upon the inquiry, it is found that an unlawful and 18127
forcible entry has been made and the lands or tenements are 18128
detained, or that, after a lawful entry, lands or tenements are 18129
held unlawfully and by force, a judge shall cause the plaintiff in 18130
an action under this chapter to have restitution of the lands or 18131
tenements.18132

       (B) An action shall be brought under this chapter within two 18133
years after the cause of action accrues.18134

       (C) As used in this chapter:18135

       (1) "Tenant" means a person who is entitled under a rental 18136
agreement to the use or occupancy of premises, other than premises 18137
located in a manufactured home park, to the exclusion of others, 18138
except that as used in division (A)(6) of section 1923.02 and 18139
section 1923.051 of the Revised Code, "tenant" includes a 18140
manufactured home park resident.18141

       (2) "Landlord" means the owner, lessor, or sublessor of 18142
premises, or the agent or person the landlord authorizes to manage 18143
premises or to receive rent from a tenant under a rental 18144
agreement, except, if required by the facts of the action to which 18145
the term is applied, "landlord" means a park operator.18146

       (3) "Resident" has the same meaning as in section 3733.0118147
4781.01 of the Revised Code.18148

       (4) "Residential premises" has the same meaning as in section 18149
5321.01 of the Revised Code, except, if required by the facts of 18150
the action to which the term is applied, "residential premises" 18151
has the same meaning as in section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised 18152
Code.18153

       (5) "Rental agreement" means any agreement or lease, written 18154
or oral, that establishes or modifies the terms, conditions, 18155
rules, or other provisions concerning the use or occupancy of 18156
premises by one of the parties to the agreement or lease, except 18157
that "rental agreement," as used in division (A)(13) of section 18158
1923.02 of the Revised Code and where the context requires as used 18159
in this chapter, means a rental agreement as defined in division 18160
(D) of section 5322.01 of the Revised Code.18161

       (6) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 18162
3719.01 of the Revised Code.18163

       (7) "School premises" has the same meaning as in section 18164
2925.01 of the Revised Code.18165

       (8) "Sexually oriented offense" and "child-victim oriented 18166
offense" have the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the 18167
Revised Code.18168

       (9) "Recreational vehicle" and "mobile home" have the same 18169
meanings as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.18170

       (10) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in section 18171
3781.06 of the Revised Code.18172

       (11) "Manufactured home park" has the same meaning as in 18173
section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code and also means any 18174
tract of land upon which one or two manufactured or mobile homes 18175
used for habitation are parked, either free of charge or for 18176
revenue purposes, pursuant to rental agreements between the owners 18177
of the manufactured or mobile homes and the owner of the tract of 18178
land.18179

       (12) "Park operator" has the same meaning as in section 18180
3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code and also means a landlord of 18181
premises upon which one or two manufactured or mobile homes used 18182
for habitation are parked, either free of charge or for revenue 18183
purposes, pursuant to rental agreements between the owners of the 18184
manufactured or mobile homes and a landlord who is not licensed as 18185
a manufactured home park operator pursuant to Chapter 3733.4781.18186
of the Revised Code.18187

        (13) "Personal property" means tangible personal property 18188
other than a manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational 18189
vehicle that is the subject of an action under this chapter.18190

       (14) "Preschool or child day-care center premises" has the 18191
same meaning as in section 2950.034 of the Revised Code.18192

       Sec. 1923.02.  (A) Proceedings under this chapter may be had 18193
as follows:18194

       (1) Against tenants or manufactured home park residents 18195
holding over their terms;18196

       (2) Against tenants or manufactured home park residents in 18197
possession under an oral tenancy, who are in default in the 18198
payment of rent as provided in division (B) of this section;18199

       (3) In sales of real estate, on executions, orders, or other 18200
judicial process, when the judgment debtor was in possession at 18201
the time of the rendition of the judgment or decree, by virtue of 18202
which the sale was made;18203

       (4) In sales by executors, administrators, or guardians, and 18204
on partition, when any of the parties to the complaint were in 18205
possession at the commencement of the action, after the sales, so 18206
made on execution or otherwise, have been examined by the proper 18207
court and adjudged legal;18208

       (5) When the defendant is an occupier of lands or tenements, 18209
without color of title, and the complainant has the right of 18210
possession to them;18211

       (6) In any other case of the unlawful and forcible detention 18212
of lands or tenements. For purposes of this division, in addition 18213
to any other type of unlawful and forcible detention of lands or 18214
tenements, such a detention may be determined to exist when both 18215
of the following apply:18216

       (a) A tenant fails to vacate residential premises within 18217
three days after both of the following occur:18218

       (i) The tenant's landlord has actual knowledge of or has 18219
reasonable cause to believe that the tenant, any person in the 18220
tenant's household, or any person on the premises with the consent 18221
of the tenant previously has or presently is engaged in a 18222
violation of Chapter 2925. or 3719. of the Revised Code, or of a 18223
municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to any section 18224
in either of those chapters, which involves a controlled substance 18225
and which occurred in, is occurring in, or otherwise was or is 18226
connected with the premises, whether or not the tenant or other 18227
person has been charged with, has pleaded guilty to or been 18228
convicted of, or has been determined to be a delinquent child for 18229
an act that, if committed by an adult, would be a violation as 18230
described in this division. For purposes of this division, a 18231
landlord has "actual knowledge of or has reasonable cause to 18232
believe" that a tenant, any person in the tenant's household, or 18233
any person on the premises with the consent of the tenant 18234
previously has or presently is engaged in a violation as described 18235
in this division if a search warrant was issued pursuant to 18236
Criminal Rule 41 or Chapter 2933. of the Revised Code; the 18237
affidavit presented to obtain the warrant named or described the 18238
tenant or person as the individual to be searched and particularly 18239
described the tenant's premises as the place to be searched, named 18240
or described one or more controlled substances to be searched for 18241
and seized, stated substantially the offense under Chapter 2925. 18242
or 3719. of the Revised Code or the substantially similar 18243
municipal ordinance that occurred in, is occurring in, or 18244
otherwise was or is connected with the tenant's premises, and 18245
states the factual basis for the affiant's belief that the 18246
controlled substances are located on the tenant's premises; the 18247
warrant was properly executed by a law enforcement officer and any 18248
controlled substance described in the affidavit was found by that 18249
officer during the search and seizure; and, subsequent to the 18250
search and seizure, the landlord was informed by that or another 18251
law enforcement officer of the fact that the tenant or person has 18252
or presently is engaged in a violation as described in this 18253
division and it occurred in, is occurring in, or otherwise was or 18254
is connected with the tenant's premises.18255

       (ii) The landlord gives the tenant the notice required by 18256
division (C) of section 5321.17 of the Revised Code.18257

       (b) The court determines, by a preponderance of the evidence, 18258
that the tenant, any person in the tenant's household, or any 18259
person on the premises with the consent of the tenant previously 18260
has or presently is engaged in a violation as described in 18261
division (A)(6)(a)(i) of this section.18262

       (7) In cases arising out of Chapter 5313. of the Revised 18263
Code. In those cases, the court has the authority to declare a 18264
forfeiture of the vendee's rights under a land installment 18265
contract and to grant any other claims arising out of the 18266
contract.18267

       (8) Against tenants who have breached an obligation that is 18268
imposed by section 5321.05 of the Revised Code, other than the 18269
obligation specified in division (A)(9) of that section, and that 18270
materially affects health and safety. Prior to the commencement of 18271
an action under this division, notice shall be given to the tenant 18272
and compliance secured with section 5321.11 of the Revised Code.18273

       (9) Against tenants who have breached an obligation imposed 18274
upon them by a written rental agreement;18275

       (10) Against manufactured home park residents who have 18276
defaulted in the payment of rent or breached the terms of a rental 18277
agreement with a park operator. Nothing in this division precludes 18278
the commencement of an action under division (A)(12) of this 18279
section when the additional circumstances described in that 18280
division apply.18281

       (11) Against manufactured home park residents who have 18282
committed two material violations of the rules of the manufactured 18283
home park, of the public health councilmanufactured homes 18284
commission, or of applicable state and local health and safety 18285
codes and who have been notified of the violations in compliance 18286
with section 3733.134781.45 of the Revised Code;18287

       (12) Against a manufactured home park resident, or the estate 18288
of a manufactured home park resident, who as a result of death or 18289
otherwise has been absent from the manufactured home park for a 18290
period of thirty consecutive days prior to the commencement of an 18291
action under this division and whose manufactured home or mobile 18292
home, or recreational vehicle that is parked in the manufactured 18293
home park, has been left unoccupied for that thirty-day period, 18294
without notice to the park operator and without payment of rent 18295
due under the rental agreement with the park operator;18296

       (13) Against occupants of self-service storage facilities, as 18297
defined in division (A) of section 5322.01 of the Revised Code, 18298
who have breached the terms of a rental agreement or violated 18299
section 5322.04 of the Revised Code;18300

       (14) Against any resident or occupant who, pursuant to a 18301
rental agreement, resides in or occupies residential premises 18302
located within one thousand feet of any school premises or 18303
preschool or child day-care center premises and to whom both of 18304
the following apply:18305

       (a) The resident's or occupant's name appears on the state 18306
registry of sex offenders and child-victim offenders maintained 18307
under section 2950.13 of the Revised Code.18308

       (b) The state registry of sex offenders and child-victim 18309
offenders indicates that the resident or occupant was convicted of 18310
or pleaded guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a child-victim 18311
oriented offense in a criminal prosecution and was not sentenced 18312
to a serious youthful offender dispositional sentence for that 18313
offense.18314

       (15) Against any tenant who permits any person to occupy 18315
residential premises located within one thousand feet of any 18316
school premises or preschool or child day-care center premises if 18317
both of the following apply to the person:18318

        (a) The person's name appears on the state registry of sex 18319
offenders and child-victim offenders maintained under section 18320
2950.13 of the Revised Code.18321

        (b) The state registry of sex offenders and child-victim 18322
offenders indicates that the person was convicted of or pleaded 18323
guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a child-victim oriented 18324
offense in a criminal prosecution and was not sentenced to a 18325
serious youthful offender dispositional sentence for that offense.18326

       (B) If a tenant or manufactured home park resident holding 18327
under an oral tenancy is in default in the payment of rent, the 18328
tenant or resident forfeits the right of occupancy, and the 18329
landlord may, at the landlord's option, terminate the tenancy by 18330
notifying the tenant or resident, as provided in section 1923.04 18331
of the Revised Code, to leave the premises, for the restitution of 18332
which an action may then be brought under this chapter.18333

       (C)(1) If a tenant or any other person with the tenant's 18334
permission resides in or occupies residential premises that are 18335
located within one thousand feet of any school premises and is a 18336
resident or occupant of the type described in division (A)(14) of 18337
this section or a person of the type described in division (A)(15) 18338
of this section, the landlord for those residential premises, upon 18339
discovery that the tenant or other person is a resident, occupant, 18340
or person of that nature, may terminate the rental agreement or 18341
tenancy for those residential premises by notifying the tenant and 18342
all other occupants, as provided in section 1923.04 of the Revised 18343
Code, to leave the premises.18344

       (2) If a landlord is authorized to terminate a rental 18345
agreement or tenancy pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section 18346
but does not so terminate the rental agreement or tenancy, the 18347
landlord is not liable in a tort or other civil action in damages 18348
for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that 18349
allegedly result from that decision.18350

       (D) This chapter does not apply to a student tenant as 18351
defined by division (H) of section 5321.01 of the Revised Code 18352
when the college or university proceeds to terminate a rental 18353
agreement pursuant to section 5321.031 of the Revised Code.18354

       Sec. 1923.061.  (A) Any defense in an action under this 18355
chapter may be asserted at trial.18356

       (B) In an action for possession of residential premises based 18357
upon nonpayment of the rent or in an action for rent when the 18358
tenant or manufactured home park resident is in possession, the 18359
tenant or resident may counterclaim for any amount hethe tenant 18360
or resident may recover under the rental agreement or under 18361
Chapter 3733.4781. or 5321. of the Revised Code. In that event, 18362
the court from time to time may order the tenant or resident to 18363
pay into court all or part of the past due rent and rent becoming 18364
due during the pendency of the action. After trial and judgment, 18365
the party to whom a net judgment is owed shall be paid first from 18366
the money paid into court, and any balance shall be satisfied as 18367
any other judgment. If no rent remains due after application of 18368
this division, judgment shall be entered for the tenant or 18369
resident in the action for possession. If the tenant or resident 18370
has paid into court an amount greater than that necessary to 18371
satisfy a judgment obtained by the landlord, the balance shall be 18372
returned by the court to the tenant or resident.18373

       Sec. 1923.15.  During any proceeding involving residential 18374
premises under this chapter, the court may order an appropriate 18375
governmental agency to inspect the residential premises. If the 18376
agency determines and the court finds conditions which constitute 18377
a violation of section 3733.104781.38 or 5321.04 of the Revised 18378
Code, and if the premises have been vacated or are to be restored 18379
to the landlord, the court may issue an order forbidding the 18380
re-rental of the property until such conditions are corrected. If 18381
the agency determines and the court finds such conditions, and if 18382
the court finds that the tenant or manufactured home park resident 18383
may remain in possession, the court may order such conditions 18384
corrected. If such conditions have been caused by the tenant or 18385
resident, the court may award damages to the landlord equal to the 18386
reasonable cost of correcting such conditions.18387

       Sec. 2151.86.  (A)(1) The appointing or hiring officer of any 18388
entity that appoints or employs any person responsible for a 18389
child's care in out-of-home care shall request the superintendent 18390
of BCII to conduct a criminal records check with respect to any 18391
person who is under final consideration for appointment or 18392
employment as a person responsible for a child's care in 18393
out-of-home care, except that section 3319.39 of the Revised Code 18394
shall apply instead of this section if the out-of-home care entity 18395
is a public school, educational service center, or chartered 18396
nonpublic school.18397

       (2) At the times specified in this division, the 18398
administrative director of an agency, or attorney, who arranges an 18399
adoption for a prospective adoptive parent shall request the 18400
superintendent of BCII to conduct a criminal records check with 18401
respect to that prospective adoptive parent and a criminal records 18402
check with respect to all persons eighteen years of age or older 18403
who reside with the prospective adoptive parent. The 18404
administrative director or attorney shall request a criminal 18405
records check pursuant to this division at the time of the initial 18406
home study, every four years after the initial home study at the 18407
time of an update, and at the time that an adoptive home study is 18408
completed as a new home study.18409

       (3) Before a recommending agency submits a recommendation to 18410
the department of job and family services on whether the 18411
department should issue a certificate to a foster home under 18412
section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, and every four years 18413
thereafter prior to a recertification under that section, the 18414
administrative director of the agency shall request that the 18415
superintendent of BCII conduct a criminal records check with 18416
respect to the prospective foster caregiver and a criminal records 18417
check with respect to all other persons eighteen years of age or 18418
older who reside with the foster caregiver.18419

       (B)(1) If a person subject to a criminal records check under 18420
division (A)(1) of this section does not present proof that the 18421
person has been a resident of this state for the five-year period 18422
immediately prior to the date upon which the criminal records 18423
check is requested or does not provide evidence that within that 18424
five-year period the superintendent of BCII has requested 18425
information about the person from the federal bureau of 18426
investigation in a criminal records check, the appointing or 18427
hiring officer shall request that the superintendent of BCII 18428
obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as a 18429
part of the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based 18430
checks of national crime information databases as described in 42 18431
U.S.C. 671. If a person subject to a criminal records check under 18432
division (A)(1) of this section presents proof that the person has 18433
been a resident of this state for that five-year period, the 18434
appointing or hiring officer or attorney may request that the 18435
superintendent of BCII include information from the federal bureau 18436
of investigation in the criminal records check, including 18437
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 18438
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.18439

       When the administrative director of an agency, or attorney, 18440
who arranges an adoption for a prospective parent requests, at the 18441
time of the initial home study, a criminal records check for a 18442
person pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, the 18443
administrative director or attorney shall request that the 18444
superintendent of BCII obtain information from the federal bureau 18445
of investigation as part of the criminal records check, including 18446
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 18447
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the person subject to the 18448
criminal records check. In all other cases in which the 18449
administrative director of an agency, or attorney, who arranges an 18450
adoption for a prospective parent requests a criminal records 18451
check for a person pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, 18452
the administrative director or attorney may request that the 18453
superintendent of BCII include information from the federal bureau 18454
of investigation in the criminal records check, including 18455
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 18456
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.18457

        When the administrative director of a recommending agency 18458
requests, before submitting a recommendation to the department of 18459
job and family services on whether the department should issue a 18460
certificate to a foster home under section 5103.03 of the Revised 18461
Code, a criminal records check for a person pursuant to division 18462
(A)(3) of this section, the administrative director shall request 18463
that the superintendent of BCII obtain information from the 18464
federal bureau of investigation as part of a criminal records 18465
check, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime 18466
information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the 18467
person subject to the criminal records check. In all other cases 18468
in which the administrative director of a recommending agency 18469
requests a criminal records check for a person pursuant to 18470
division (A)(3) of this section, the administrative director may 18471
request that the superintendent of BCII include information from 18472
the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check, 18473
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 18474
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.18475

       Prior to a hearing on a final decree of adoption or 18476
interlocutory order of adoption by a probate court, the 18477
administrative director of an agency, or an attorney, who arranges 18478
an adoption for a prospective parent shall provide to the clerk of 18479
the probate court either of the following:18480

       (a) Any information received pursuant to a request made under 18481
this division from the superintendent of BCII or the federal 18482
bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records check, 18483
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 18484
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the person subject to 18485
the criminal records check;18486

       (b) Written notification that the person subject to a 18487
criminal records check pursuant to this division failed upon 18488
request to provide the information necessary to complete the form 18489
or failed to provide impressions of the person's fingerprints as 18490
required under division (B)(2) of this section. 18491

       (2) An appointing or hiring officer, administrative director, 18492
or attorney required by division (A) of this section to request a 18493
criminal records check shall provide to each person subject to a 18494
criminal records check a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to 18495
division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a 18496
standard impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions 18497
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the 18498
Revised Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from 18499
the person, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 18500
the superintendent of BCII at the time the criminal records check 18501
is requested.18502

       Any person subject to a criminal records check who receives 18503
pursuant to this division a copy of the form prescribed pursuant 18504
to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a 18505
copy of an impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) 18506
of that section and who is requested to complete the form and 18507
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 18508
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 18509
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 18510
person's fingerprints. If a person subject to a criminal records 18511
check, upon request, fails to provide the information necessary to 18512
complete the form or fails to provide impressions of the person's 18513
fingerprints, the appointing or hiring officer shall not appoint 18514
or employ the person as a person responsible for a child's care in 18515
out-of-home care, a probate court may not issue a final decree of 18516
adoption or an interlocutory order of adoption making the person 18517
an adoptive parent, and the department of job and family services 18518
shall not issue a certificate authorizing the prospective foster 18519
caregiver to operate a foster home.18520

       (C)(1) No appointing or hiring officer shall appoint or 18521
employ a person as a person responsible for a child's care in 18522
out-of-home care, the department of job and family services shall 18523
not issue a certificate under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code 18524
authorizing a prospective foster caregiver to operate a foster 18525
home, and no probate court shall issue a final decree of adoption 18526
or an interlocutory order of adoption making a person an adoptive 18527
parent if the person or, in the case of a prospective foster 18528
caregiver or prospective adoptive parent, any person eighteen 18529
years of age or older who resides with the prospective foster 18530
caregiver or prospective adoptive parent previously has been 18531
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 18532
in division (A)(8)(5) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, 18533
unless the person meets rehabilitation standards established in 18534
rules adopted under division (F) of this section.18535

       (2) The appointing or hiring officer may appoint or employ a 18536
person as a person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 18537
care conditionally until the criminal records check required by 18538
this section is completed and the officer receives the results of 18539
the criminal records check. If the results of the criminal records 18540
check indicate that, pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, 18541
the person subject to the criminal records check does not qualify 18542
for appointment or employment, the officer shall release the 18543
person from appointment or employment.18544

       (3) Prior to certification or recertification under section 18545
5103.03 of the Revised Code, the prospective foster caregiver 18546
subject to a criminal records check under division (A)(3) of this 18547
section shall notify the recommending agency of the revocation of 18548
any foster home license, certificate, or other similar 18549
authorization in another state occurring within the five years 18550
prior to the date of application to become a foster caregiver in 18551
this state. The failure of a prospective foster caregiver to 18552
notify the recommending agency of any revocation of that type in 18553
another state that occurred within that five-year period shall be 18554
grounds for denial of the person's foster home application or the 18555
revocation of the person's foster home certification, whichever is 18556
applicable. If a person has had a revocation in another state 18557
within the five years prior to the date of the application, the 18558
department of job and family services shall not issue a foster 18559
home certificate to the prospective foster caregiver.18560

       (D) The appointing or hiring officer, administrative 18561
director, or attorney shall pay to the bureau of criminal 18562
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 18563
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 18564
criminal records check conducted in accordance with that section 18565
upon a request pursuant to division (A) of this section. The 18566
officer, director, or attorney may charge the person subject to 18567
the criminal records check a fee for the costs the officer, 18568
director, or attorney incurs in obtaining the criminal records 18569
check. A fee charged under this division shall not exceed the 18570
amount of fees the officer, director, or attorney pays for the 18571
criminal records check. If a fee is charged under this division, 18572
the officer, director, or attorney shall notify the person who is 18573
the applicant at the time of the person's initial application for 18574
appointment or employment, an adoption to be arranged, or a 18575
certificate to operate a foster home of the amount of the fee and 18576
that, unless the fee is paid, the person who is the applicant will 18577
not be considered for appointment or employment or as an adoptive 18578
parent or foster caregiver.18579

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 18580
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 18581
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 18582
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 18583
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 18584
be made available to any person other than the following:18585

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 18586
check or the person's representative;18587

       (2) The appointing or hiring officer, administrative 18588
director, or attorney requesting the criminal records check or the 18589
officer's, director's, or attorney's representative;18590

       (3) The department of job and family services, a county 18591
department of job and family services, or a public children 18592
services agency;18593

       (4) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 18594
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment, a final 18595
decree of adoption or interlocutory order of adoption, or a foster 18596
home certificate.18597

       (F) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 18598
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 18599
this section. The rules shall include rehabilitation standards a 18600
person who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 18601
listed in division (A)(8)(5) of section 109.572 of the Revised 18602
Code must meet for an appointing or hiring officer to appoint or 18603
employ the person as a person responsible for a child's care in 18604
out-of-home care, a probate court to issue a final decree of 18605
adoption or interlocutory order of adoption making the person an 18606
adoptive parent, or the department to issue a certificate 18607
authorizing the prospective foster caregiver to operate a foster 18608
home or not revoke a foster home certificate for a violation 18609
specified in section 5103.0328 of the Revised Code.18610

       (G) An appointing or hiring officer, administrative director, 18611
or attorney required by division (A) of this section to request a 18612
criminal records check shall inform each person who is the 18613
applicant, at the time of the person's initial application for 18614
appointment or employment, an adoption to be arranged, or a foster 18615
home certificate, that the person subject to the criminal records 18616
check is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 18617
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 18618
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 18619
109.572 of the Revised Code.18620

       (H) The department of job and family services may waive the 18621
requirement that a criminal records check based on fingerprints be 18622
conducted for an adult resident of a prospective adoptive or 18623
foster home or the home of a foster caregiver if the recommending 18624
agency documents to the department's satisfaction that the adult 18625
resident is physically unable to comply with the fingerprinting 18626
requirement and poses no danger to foster children or adoptive 18627
children who may be placed in the home. In such cases, the 18628
recommending or approving agency shall request that the bureau of 18629
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 18630
records check using the person's name and social security number.18631

        (I) As used in this section:18632

       (1) "Children's hospital" means any of the following:18633

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 18634
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 18635
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 18636
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 18637
individuals less than eighteen years of age;18638

       (b) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 18639
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 18640
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 18641
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 18642
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 18643
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 18644
individuals less than eighteen years of age;18645

       (c) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 18646
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 18647
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 18648
requirements of division (I)(1)(a) of this section.18649

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 18650
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.18651

       (3) "Person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 18652
care" has the same meaning as in section 2151.011 of the Revised 18653
Code, except that it does not include a prospective employee of 18654
the department of youth services or a person responsible for a 18655
child's care in a hospital or medical clinic other than a 18656
children's hospital.18657

       (4) "Person subject to a criminal records check" means the 18658
following:18659

       (a) A person who is under final consideration for appointment 18660
or employment as a person responsible for a child's care in 18661
out-of-home care;18662

       (b) A prospective adoptive parent;18663

       (c) A prospective foster caregiver;18664

       (d) A person eighteen years old or older who resides with a 18665
prospective foster caregiver or a prospective adoptive parent.18666

       (5) "Recommending agency" means a public children services 18667
agency, private child placing agency, or private noncustodial 18668
agency to which the department of job and family services has 18669
delegated a duty to inspect and approve foster homes.18670

       (6) "Superintendent of BCII" means the superintendent of the 18671
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.18672

       Sec. 2152.121.  (A) If a complaint is filed against a child 18673
alleging that the child is a delinquent child and the case is 18674
transferred pursuant to division (A)(1)(a)(i) or (A)(1)(b)(ii) of 18675
section 2152.12 of the Revised Code, the juvenile court that 18676
transferred the case shall retain jurisdiction for purposes of 18677
making disposition of the child when required under division (B) 18678
of this section.18679

       (B) If a complaint is filed against a child alleging that the 18680
child is a delinquent child, if the case is transferred pursuant 18681
to division (A)(1)(a)(i) or (A)(1)(b)(ii) of section 2152.12 of 18682
the Revised Code, and if the child subsequently is convicted of or 18683
pleads guilty to an offense in that case, the sentence to be 18684
imposed or disposition to be made of the child shall be determined 18685
as follows:18686

       (1) The court in which the child is convicted of or pleads 18687
guilty to the offense shall determine whether, had a complaint 18688
been filed in juvenile court alleging that the child was a 18689
delinquent child for committing an act that would be that offense 18690
if committed by an adult, division (A) of section 2152.12 of the 18691
Revised Code would have required mandatory transfer of the case or 18692
division (B) of that section would have allowed discretionary 18693
transfer of the case. The court shall not consider the factor 18694
specified in division (B)(3) of section 2152.12 of the Revised 18695
Code in making its determination under this division.18696

       (2) If the court in which the child is convicted of or pleads 18697
guilty to the offense determines under division (B)(1) of this 18698
section that, had a complaint been filed in juvenile court 18699
alleging that the child was a delinquent child for committing an 18700
act that would be that offense if committed by an adult, division 18701
(A) of section 2152.12 of the Revised Code would not have required 18702
mandatory transfer of the case, and division (B) of that section 18703
would not have allowed discretionary transfer of the case, the 18704
court shall transfer jurisdiction of the case back to the juvenile 18705
court that initially transferred the case, the court and all other 18706
agencies that have any record of the conviction of the child or 18707
the child's guilty plea shall expunge the conviction or guilty 18708
plea and all records of it, the conviction or guilty plea shall be 18709
considered and treated for all purposes other than as provided in 18710
this section to have never occurred, the conviction or guilty plea 18711
shall be considered and treated for all purposes other than as 18712
provided in this section to have been a delinquent child 18713
adjudication of the child, and the juvenile court shall impose one 18714
or more traditional juvenile dispositions upon the child under 18715
sections 2152.19 and 2152.20 of the Revised Code.18716

       (3) If the court in which the child is convicted of or pleads 18717
guilty to the offense determines under division (B)(1) of this 18718
section that, had a complaint been filed in juvenile court 18719
alleging that the child was a delinquent child for committing an 18720
act that would be that offense if committed by an adult, division 18721
(A) of section 2152.12 of the Revised Code would not have required 18722
mandatory transfer of the case but division (B) of that section 18723
would have allowed discretionary transfer of the case, the court 18724
shall determine the sentence it believes should be imposed upon 18725
the child under Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code, shall impose 18726
that sentence upon the child, and shall stay that sentence pending 18727
completion of the procedures specified in this division. Upon 18728
imposition and staying of the sentence, the court shall transfer 18729
jurisdiction of the case back to the juvenile court that initially 18730
transferred the case and the juvenile court shall proceed in 18731
accordance with this division. In no case may the child waive a 18732
right to a hearing of the type described in division (B)(3)(b) of 18733
this section, regarding a motion filed as described in that 18734
division by the prosecuting attorney in the case. Upon transfer of 18735
jurisdiction of the case back to the juvenile court, both of the 18736
following apply:18737

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(3)(b) of 18738
this section, the juvenile court shall impose a serious youthful 18739
offender dispositional sentence upon the child under division 18740
(D)(1) of section 2152.13 of the Revised Code. In imposing the 18741
adult portion of that sentence, the juvenile court shall consider 18742
and give preference to the sentence imposed upon the child by the 18743
court in which the child was convicted of or pleaded guilty to the 18744
offense. Upon imposing a serious youthful offender dispositional 18745
sentence upon the child as described in this division, the 18746
juvenile court shall notify the court in which the child was 18747
convicted of or pleaded guilty to the offense, the sentence 18748
imposed upon the child by that court shall terminate, the court 18749
and all other agencies that have any record of the conviction of 18750
the child shall expunge the conviction or guilty plea and all 18751
records of it, the conviction or guilty plea shall be considered 18752
and treated for all purposes other than as provided in this 18753
section to have never occurred, and the conviction or guilty plea 18754
shall be considered and treated for all purposes other than as 18755
provided in this section to have been a delinquent child 18756
adjudication of the child.18757

       (b) Upon the transfer, the prosecuting attorney in the case 18758
may file a motion in the juvenile court that objects to the 18759
imposition of a serious youthful offender dispositional sentence 18760
upon the child and requests that the sentence imposed upon the 18761
child by the court in which the child was convicted of or pleaded 18762
guilty to the offense be invoked. Upon the filing of a motion 18763
under this division, the juvenile court shall hold a hearing to 18764
determine whether the child is not amenable to care or 18765
rehabilitation within the juvenile system and whether the safety 18766
of the community may require that the child be subject solely to 18767
adult sanctions. If the juvenile court at the hearing finds that 18768
the child is not amenable to care or rehabilitation within the 18769
juvenile system or that the safety of the community may require 18770
that the child be subject solely to adult sanctions, the court 18771
shall grant the motion. Absent such a finding, the juvenile court 18772
shall deny the motion. In making its decision under this division, 18773
the juvenile court shall consider the factors listed in division 18774
(D) of section 2152.12 of the Revised Code as factors indicating 18775
that the motion should be granted, shall consider the factors 18776
listed in division (E) of that section as factors indicating that 18777
the motion should not be granted, and shall consider whether the 18778
applicable factors listed in division (D) of that section outweigh 18779
the applicable factors listed in division (E) of that section.18780

       If the juvenile court grants the motion of the prosecuting 18781
attorney under this division, the juvenile court shall transfer 18782
jurisdiction of the case back to the court in which the child was 18783
convicted of or pleaded guilty to the offense, and the sentence 18784
imposed by that court shall be invoked. If the juvenile court 18785
denies the motion of the prosecuting attorney under this section, 18786
the juvenile court shall impose a serious youthful offender 18787
dispositional sentence upon the child in accordance with division 18788
(B)(3)(a) of this section. 18789

       (4) If the court in which the child is convicted of or pleads 18790
guilty to the offense determines under division (B)(1) of this 18791
section that, had a complaint been filed in juvenile court 18792
alleging that the child was a delinquent child for committing an 18793
act that would be that offense if committed by an adult, division 18794
(A) of section 2152.12 of the Revised Code would have required 18795
mandatory transfer of the case, the court shall impose sentence 18796
upon the child under Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code. 18797

       Sec. 2152.22.  (A) When a child is committed to the legal 18798
custody of the department of youth services under this chapter, 18799
the juvenile court relinquishes control with respect to the child 18800
so committed, except as provided in divisions (B), (C), (D), and 18801
(H) of this section or in sections 2152.82 to 2152.86 of the 18802
Revised Code. Subject to divisions (B), (C), and (D) of this 18803
section, sections 2151.353 and 2151.412 to 2151.421 of the Revised 18804
Code, sections 2152.82 to 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and any 18805
other provision of law that specifies a different duration for a 18806
dispositional order, all other dispositional orders made by the 18807
court under this chapter shall be temporary and shall continue for 18808
a period that is designated by the court in its order, until 18809
terminated or modified by the court or until the child attains 18810
twenty-one years of age.18811

       The department shall not release the child from a department 18812
facility and as a result shall not discharge the child or order 18813
the child's release on supervised release prior to the expiration 18814
of the minimum period specified by the court in division (A)(1) of 18815
section 2152.16 of the Revised Code and any term of commitment 18816
imposed under section 2152.17 of the Revised Code or prior to the 18817
child's attainment of twenty-one years of age, except upon the 18818
order of a court pursuant to division (B), (C), or (D) of this 18819
section or in accordance with section 5139.54 of the Revised Code.18820

       (B)(1) TheUnless the court grants judicial release under 18821
division (D)(1)(b) of this section, the court that commits a 18822
delinquent child to the department of youth services may grant 18823
judicial release of the child to court supervision under this 18824
division during the first half of the prescribed minimum term for 18825
which the child was committed to the department or, if the child 18826
was committed to the department until the child attains twenty-one 18827
years of age, during the first half of the prescribed period of 18828
commitment that begins on the first day of commitment and ends on 18829
the child's twenty-first birthday, provided any commitment imposed 18830
under division (A), (B), (C), or (D) of section 2152.17 of the 18831
Revised Code has ended.18832

       (2) If the department desires to release a child during a 18833
period specified in division (B)(1) of this section, it shall 18834
request the court that committed the child to grant a judicial 18835
release of the child to court supervision under this division. 18836
During whichever of those periods is applicable, the child or the 18837
parents of the child also may request that court to grant a 18838
judicial release of the child to court supervision. Upon receipt 18839
of a request for a judicial release to court supervision under 18840
this division from the department, the child, or the child's 18841
parent, or upon its own motion, the court that committed the child 18842
shall do one of the following: approve the release by journal 18843
entry; schedule within thirty days after the request is received a 18844
time for a hearing on whether the child is to be released; or 18845
reject the request by journal entry without conducting a hearing.18846

       If the court rejects an initial request for a release under 18847
this division by the child or the child's parent, the child or the 18848
child's parent may make one additional request for a judicial 18849
release to court supervision within the applicable period. The 18850
additional request may be made no earlier than thirty days after 18851
the filing of the prior request for a judicial release to court 18852
supervision. Upon the filing of a second request for a judicial 18853
release to court supervision, the court shall either approve or 18854
disapprove the release by journal entry or schedule within thirty 18855
days after the request is received a time for a hearing on whether 18856
the child is to be released.18857

       (3) If a court schedules a hearing under division (B)(2) of 18858
this section, it may order the department to deliver the child to 18859
the court on the date set for the hearing and may order the 18860
department to present to the court a report on the child's 18861
progress in the institution to which the child was committed and 18862
recommendations for conditions of supervision of the child by the 18863
court after release. The court may conduct the hearing without the 18864
child being present. The court shall determine at the hearing 18865
whether the child should be granted a judicial release to court 18866
supervision.18867

       If the court approves the release under this division, it 18868
shall order its staff to prepare a written treatment and 18869
rehabilitation plan for the child that may include any conditions 18870
of the child's release that were recommended by the department and 18871
approved by the court. The committing court shall send the 18872
juvenile court of the county in which the child is placed a copy 18873
of the recommended plan. The court of the county in which the 18874
child is placed may adopt the recommended conditions set by the 18875
committing court as an order of the court and may add any 18876
additional consistent conditions it considers appropriate. If a 18877
child is granted a judicial release to court supervision, the 18878
release discharges the child from the custody of the department of 18879
youth services.18880

       (C)(1) TheUnless the court grants judicial release under 18881
division (D)(1)(b) of this section, the court that commits a 18882
delinquent child to the department of youth services may grant 18883
judicial release of the child to department of youth services 18884
supervision under this division during the second half of the 18885
prescribed minimum term for which the child was committed to the 18886
department or, if the child was committed to the department until 18887
the child attains twenty-one years of age, during the second half 18888
of the prescribed period of commitment that begins on the first 18889
day of commitment and ends on the child's twenty-first birthday, 18890
provided any commitment imposed under division (A), (B), (C), or 18891
(D) of section 2152.17 of the Revised Code has ended.18892

       (2) If the department desires to release a child during a 18893
period specified in division (C)(1) of this section, it shall 18894
request the court that committed the child to grant a judicial 18895
release to department of youth services supervision. During 18896
whichever of those periods is applicable, the child or the child's 18897
parent also may request the court that committed the child to 18898
grant a judicial release to department of youth services 18899
supervision. Upon receipt of a request for judicial release to 18900
department of youth services supervision, the child, or the 18901
child's parent, or upon its own motion at any time during that 18902
period, the court shall do one of the following: approve the 18903
release by journal entry; schedule a time within thirty days after 18904
receipt of the request for a hearing on whether the child is to be 18905
released; or reject the request by journal entry without 18906
conducting a hearing.18907

       If the court rejects an initial request for release under 18908
this division by the child or the child's parent, the child or the 18909
child's parent may make one or more subsequent requests for a 18910
release within the applicable period, but may make no more than 18911
one request during each period of ninety days that the child is in 18912
a secure department facility after the filing of a prior request 18913
for early release. Upon the filing of a request for release under 18914
this division subsequent to an initial request, the court shall 18915
either approve or disapprove the release by journal entry or 18916
schedule a time within thirty days after receipt of the request 18917
for a hearing on whether the child is to be released.18918

       (3) If a court schedules a hearing under division (C)(2) of 18919
this section, it may order the department to deliver the child to 18920
the court on the date set for the hearing and shall order the 18921
department to present to the court at that time a treatment plan 18922
for the child's post-institutional care. The court may conduct the 18923
hearing without the child being present. The court shall determine 18924
at the hearing whether the child should be granted a judicial 18925
release to department of youth services supervision.18926

       If the court approves the judicial release to department of 18927
youth services supervision, the department shall prepare a written 18928
treatment and rehabilitation plan for the child pursuant to 18929
division (F) of this section that shall include the conditions of 18930
the child's release. It shall send the committing court and the 18931
juvenile court of the county in which the child is placed a copy 18932
of the plan. The court of the county in which the child is placed 18933
may adopt the conditions set by the department as an order of the 18934
court and may add any additional consistent conditions it 18935
considers appropriate, provided that the court may not add any 18936
condition that decreases the level or degree of supervision 18937
specified by the department in its plan, that substantially 18938
increases the financial burden of supervision that will be 18939
experienced by the department, or that alters the placement 18940
specified by the department in its plan. If the court of the 18941
county in which the child is placed adds to the department's plan 18942
any additional conditions, it shall enter those additional 18943
conditions in its journal and shall send to the department a copy 18944
of the journal entry of the additional conditions.18945

       If the court approves the judicial release to department of 18946
youth services supervision, the actual date on which the 18947
department shall release the child is contingent upon the 18948
department finding a suitable placement for the child. If the 18949
child is to be returned to the child's home, the department shall 18950
return the child on the date that the court schedules for the 18951
child's release or shall bear the expense of any additional time 18952
that the child remains in a department facility. If the child is 18953
unable to return to the child's home, the department shall 18954
exercise reasonable diligence in finding a suitable placement for 18955
the child, and the child shall remain in a department facility 18956
while the department finds the suitable placement.18957

       (D)(1) Subject to division (D)(3) of this section, the court 18958
that commits a delinquent child to the department of youth 18959
services may grant judicial release of the child under this 18960
division at any time after the expiration of one of the following 18961
periods of time:18962

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(1)(b) of 18963
this section, if the child was committed to the department for a 18964
prescribed minimum period and a maximum period not to exceed the 18965
child's attainment of twenty-one years, the court may grant 18966
judicial release of the child at any time after the expiration of 18967
the prescribed minimum term for which the child was committed to 18968
the department.18969

       (b) If the child was committed to the department for both one 18970
or more definite periods under division (A), (B), (C), or (D) of 18971
section 2152.17 of the Revised Code and a period of the type 18972
described in division (D)(1)(a) of this section, all of the 18973
prescribed minimum periods of commitment imposed under division 18974
(A), (B), (C), or (D) of section 2152.17 of the Revised Code and 18975
the prescribed period of commitment of the type described in 18976
division (D)(1)(a) of this section shall be aggregated for 18977
purposes of this division, and the court may grant judicial 18978
release of the child at any time after the expiration of one year 18979
after the child begins serving the aggregate period of commitment.18980

       (2) If a court grants a judicial release of a child under 18981
division (D)(1) of this section, the release shall be a judicial 18982
release to department of youth services supervision, if the 18983
release is granted during a period described in division (C)(1) of 18984
this section, and the second and third paragraphs of division 18985
(C)(3) of this section apply regarding the release. In all other 18986
cases, the release shall be a judicial release to court 18987
supervision, and the second paragraph of division (B)(3) of this 18988
section applies regarding the release.18989

       (3) A court at the time of making the disposition of a child 18990
shall provide notice in the order of disposition that the judge is 18991
retaining jurisdiction over the child for the purpose of a 18992
possible grant of judicial release of the child under division 18993
(D)(1) of this section. The failure of a court to provide this 18994
notice does not affect the authority of the court to grant a 18995
judicial release under that division and does not constitute 18996
grounds for setting aside the child's delinquent child 18997
adjudication or disposition or for granting any post-adjudication 18998
relief to the child.18999

       (4) The department of youth services, a child committed to 19000
the department, or the parents of the child, during a period 19001
specified in division (D)(1) of this section, may request the 19002
court that committed the child to grant a judicial release of the 19003
child under that division. Upon receipt of a request for judicial 19004
release of a child under this division from the department, the 19005
child, or the child's parent, or upon its own motion, the court 19006
that committed the child shall do one of the following:19007

       (a) Approve the request by journal entry;19008

       (b) Schedule within thirty days after the request is received 19009
a time for a hearing on whether the child is to be released;19010

       (c) Reject the request by journal entry without conducting a 19011
hearing.19012

       If the court rejects an initial request for a release under 19013
this division by the child or the child's parent, division (C)(2) 19014
of this section applies regarding the making of additional 19015
requests.19016

       If the court schedules a hearing under this division to 19017
consider the judicial release, the first paragraph of division 19018
(B)(3) of this section applies regarding the hearing.19019

       (E) If a child is released under division (B), (C), or (D) of 19020
this section and the court of the county in which the child is 19021
placed has reason to believe that the child's deportment is not in 19022
accordance with the conditions of the child's judicial release, 19023
the court of the county in which the child is placed shall 19024
schedule a time for a hearing to determine whether the child 19025
violated any of the post-release conditions, and, if the child was 19026
released under division (C) of this section or under division (D) 19027
of this section under department supervision, divisions (A) to (E) 19028
of section 5139.52 of the Revised Code apply regarding the child.19029

       If that court determines at the hearing that the child 19030
violated any of the post-release conditions, the court, if it 19031
determines that the violation was a serious violation, may order 19032
the child to be returned to the department for 19033
institutionalization, consistent with the original order of 19034
commitment of the child, or in any case may make any other 19035
disposition of the child authorized by law that the court 19036
considers proper. If the court of the county in which the child is 19037
placed orders the child to be returned to a department of youth 19038
services institution, the time during which the child was held in 19039
a secure department facility prior to the child's judicial release 19040
shall be considered as time served in fulfilling the prescribed 19041
period of institutionalization that is applicable to the child 19042
under the child's original order of commitment. If the court 19043
orders the child returned to a department institution, the child 19044
shall remain in institutional care for a minimum of three months 19045
or until the child successfully completes a revocation program of 19046
a duration of not less than thirty days operated either by the 19047
department or by an entity with which the department has 19048
contracted to provide a revocation program.19049

       (F) The department of youth services, prior to the release of 19050
a child pursuant to division (C) of this section or pursuant to 19051
division (D) of this section on department supervision, shall do 19052
all of the following:19053

       (1) After reviewing the child's rehabilitative progress 19054
history and medical and educational records, prepare a written 19055
treatment and rehabilitation plan for the child that includes 19056
conditions of the release;19057

       (2) Completely discuss the conditions of the plan prepared 19058
pursuant to division (F)(1) of this section and the possible 19059
penalties for violation of the plan with the child and the child's 19060
parents, guardian, or legal custodian;19061

       (3) Have the plan prepared pursuant to division (F)(1) of 19062
this section signed by the child, the child's parents, legal 19063
guardian, or custodian, and any authority or person that is to 19064
supervise, control, and provide supportive assistance to the child 19065
at the time of the child's release pursuant to division (C) or (D) 19066
of this section;19067

       (4) Prior to the child's release, file a copy of the 19068
treatment plan prepared pursuant to division (F)(1) of this 19069
section with the committing court and the juvenile court of the 19070
county in which the child is to be placed.19071

       (G) The department of youth services shall file a written 19072
progress report with the committing court regarding each child 19073
released pursuant to division (C) of this section or released 19074
pursuant to division (D) of this section on judicial release to 19075
department supervision at least once every thirty days unless 19076
specifically directed otherwise by the court. The report shall 19077
indicate the treatment and rehabilitative progress of the child 19078
and the child's family, if applicable, and shall include any 19079
suggestions for altering the program, custody, living 19080
arrangements, or treatment. The department shall retain legal 19081
custody of a child so released until it discharges the child or 19082
until the custody is terminated as otherwise provided by law.19083

       (H) When a child is committed to the legal custody of the 19084
department of youth services, the court retains jurisdiction to 19085
perform the functions specified in section 5139.51 of the Revised 19086
Code with respect to the granting of supervised release by the 19087
release authority and to perform the functions specified in 19088
section 5139.52 of the Revised Code with respect to violations of 19089
the conditions of supervised release granted by the release 19090
authority and to the revocation of supervised release granted by 19091
the release authority.19092

       Sec. 2301.01.  There shall be a court of common pleas in each 19093
county held by one or more judges, each of whom has been admitted 19094
to practice as an attorney at law in this state and has, for a 19095
total of at least six years preceding the judge's appointment or 19096
commencement of the judge's term, engaged in the practice of law 19097
in this state or served as a judge of a court of record in any 19098
jurisdiction in the United States, or both, resides in the county, 19099
and is elected by the electors therein. At least two of the years 19100
of practice or service that qualify a judge shall have been in 19101
this state. Each judge shall be elected for six years at the 19102
general election immediately preceding the year in which the term, 19103
as provided in sections 2301.02 and 2301.03 of the Revised Code, 19104
commences, and the judge's successor shall be elected at the 19105
general election immediately preceding the expiration of that 19106
term.19107

       Sec. 2301.27.  (A)(1)(a) The court of common pleas may 19108
establish a county department of probation. The establishment of 19109
the department shall be entered upon the journal of the court, and 19110
the clerk of the court of common pleas shall certify a copy of the 19111
journal entry establishing the department to each elective officer 19112
and board of the county. The department shall consist of a chief 19113
probation officer and the number of other probation officers and 19114
employees, clerks, and stenographers that is fixed from time to 19115
time by the court. The court shall appoint those individuals, fix 19116
their salaries, and supervise their work. 19117

       (b) When appointing a chief probation officer, the court 19118
shall do all of the following:19119

       (i) Publicly advertise the position on the court's web site, 19120
including, but not limited to, the job description, qualifications 19121
for the position, and the application requirements;19122

       (ii) Conduct a competitive hiring process that adheres to 19123
state and federal equal employment opportunity laws;19124

       (iii) Review applicants who meet the posted qualifications 19125
and comply with the application requirements.19126

        (c) The court shall not appoint as a probation officer any 19127
person who does not possess the training, experience, and other 19128
qualifications prescribed by the adult parole authority created by 19129
section 5149.02 of the Revised Code. Probation officers have all 19130
the powers of regular police officers and shall perform any duties 19131
that are designated by the judge or judges of the court. All 19132
positions within the department of probation shall be in the 19133
classified service of the civil service of the county.19134

       (2) If two or more counties desire to jointly establish a 19135
probation department for those counties, the judges of the courts 19136
of common pleas of those counties may establish a probation 19137
department for those counties. If a probation department is 19138
established pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section to serve 19139
more than one county, the judges of the courts of common pleas 19140
that established the department shall designate the county 19141
treasurer of one of the counties served by the department as the 19142
treasurer to whom probation fees paid under section 2951.021 of 19143
the Revised Code are to be appropriated and transferred under 19144
division (A)(2) of section 321.44 of the Revised Code for deposit 19145
into the multicounty probation services fund established under 19146
division (B) of section 321.44 of the Revised Code.19147

       The cost of the administration and operation of a probation 19148
department established for two or more counties shall be prorated 19149
to the respective counties on the basis of population.19150

       (3) Probation officers shall receive, in addition to their 19151
respective salaries, their necessary and reasonable travel and 19152
other expenses incurred in the performance of their duties. Their 19153
salaries and expenses shall be paid monthly from the county 19154
treasury in the manner provided for the payment of the 19155
compensation of other appointees of the court.19156

       (4) ProbationAdult probation officers shall be trained in 19157
accordance with a set of minimum standards that are established by 19158
the adult parole authority of the department of rehabilitation and 19159
correction.19160

       (B)(1) In lieu of establishing a county department of 19161
probation under division (A) of this section and in lieu of 19162
entering into an agreement with the adult parole authority as 19163
described in division (B) of section 2301.32 of the Revised Code, 19164
the court of common pleas may request the board of county 19165
commissioners to contract with, and upon that request the board 19166
may contract with, any nonprofit, public or private agency, 19167
association, or organization for the provision of probation 19168
services and supervisory services for persons placed under 19169
community control sanctions. The contract shall specify that each 19170
individual providing the probation services and supervisory 19171
services shall possess the training, experience, and other 19172
qualifications prescribed by the adult parole authority. The 19173
individuals who provide the probation services and supervisory 19174
services shall not be included in the classified or unclassified 19175
civil service of the county.19176

       (2) In lieu of establishing a county department of probation 19177
under division (A) of this section and in lieu of entering into an 19178
agreement with the adult parole authority as described in division 19179
(B) of section 2301.32 of the Revised Code, the courts of common 19180
pleas of two or more adjoining counties jointly may request the 19181
boards of county commissioners of those counties to contract with, 19182
and upon that request the boards of county commissioners of two or 19183
more adjoining counties jointly may contract with, any nonprofit, 19184
public or private agency, association, or organization for the 19185
provision of probation services and supervisory services for 19186
persons placed under community control sanctions for those 19187
counties. The contract shall specify that each individual 19188
providing the probation services and supervisory services shall 19189
possess the training, experience, and other qualifications 19190
prescribed by the adult parole authority. The individuals who 19191
provide the probation services and supervisory services shall not 19192
be included in the classified or unclassified civil service of any 19193
of those counties.19194

       (C) The chief probation officer may grant permission to a 19195
probation officer to carry firearms when required in the discharge 19196
of official duties if the probation officer has successfully 19197
completed a basic firearm training program that is approved by the 19198
executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission. 19199
A probation officer who has been granted permission to carry a 19200
firearm in the discharge of official duties, annually shall 19201
successfully complete a firearms requalification program in 19202
accordance with section 109.801 of the Revised Code.19203

       (D) As used in this section and sections 2301.28 to 2301.32 19204
of the Revised Code, "community control sanction" has the same 19205
meaning as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.19206

       Sec. 2301.271. (A) The adult parole authority of the 19207
department of rehabilitation and correction shall develop minimum 19208
standards for the training of adult probation officers as provided 19209
by section 2301.27 of the Revised Code. The adult parole authority 19210
shall consult and collaborate with the supreme court in developing 19211
the standards.19212

       (B) Within six months after the effective date of this 19213
sectionSeptember 30, 2011, the department of rehabilitation and 19214
correction shall make available a copy of the minimum standards to 19215
the following entities:19216

       (1) Every municipal court, county court, and court of common 19217
pleas;19218

       (2) Every probation department.19219

       Sec. 2301.571.  (A) A person who has been convicted of or 19220
pleaded guilty to an offense and who is confined in a 19221
community-based correctional facility or district community-based 19222
correctional facility, unless indigent, is financially responsible 19223
for the payment of any medical expense or service requested by and 19224
provided to that person.19225

       (B) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 2929.38 19226
of the Revised Code, the facility governing board of a 19227
community-based correctional facility or district community-based 19228
correctional facility shall establish a policy that requires any 19229
person who is not indigent and who is confined in the correctional 19230
facility to pay for any medical treatment or service requested by 19231
and provided to that person. The fee for the medical treatment or 19232
service shall not exceed the actual cost of the treatment or 19233
service provided. No person confined in a community-based 19234
correctional facility or district community-based correctional 19235
facility shall be denied any necessary medical care because of 19236
inability to pay for medical treatment or service.19237

       (C) Any fee paid by a person underNothing in this section 19238
shall be deducted fromcause a community-based correctional 19239
facility or district community-based correctional facility to be 19240
responsible for the payment of any medical or dental costs that 19241
the person is ordered to reimburse under a financial sanction 19242
imposed pursuant to section 2929.28 of the Revised Code or to 19243
repay under a policy adopted underother health care expenses 19244
incurred in connection with an offender who is serving a term in 19245
the facility pursuant to section 2929.372929.16 of the Revised 19246
Code.19247

       Sec. 2305.01.  Except as otherwise provided by this section 19248
or section 2305.03 of the Revised Code, the court of common pleas 19249
has original jurisdiction in all civil cases in which the sum or 19250
matter in dispute exceeds the exclusive original jurisdiction of 19251
county courts and appellate jurisdiction from the decisions of 19252
boards of county commissioners. The court of common pleas shall 19253
not have jurisdiction, in any tort action to which the amounts 19254
apply, to award punitive or exemplary damages that exceed the 19255
amounts set forth in section 2315.21 of the Revised Code. The 19256
court of common pleas shall not have jurisdiction in any tort 19257
action to which the limits apply to enter judgment on an award of 19258
compensatory damages for noneconomic loss in excess of the limits 19259
set forth in section 2315.18 of the Revised Code.19260

       The court of common pleas may on its own motion transfer for 19261
trial any action in the court to any municipal court in the county 19262
having concurrent jurisdiction of the subject matter of, and the 19263
parties to, the action, if the amount sought by the plaintiff does 19264
not exceed one thousand dollars and if the judge or presiding 19265
judge of the municipal court concurs in the proposed transfer. 19266
Upon the issuance of an order of transfer, the clerk of courts 19267
shall remove to the designated municipal court the entire case 19268
file. Any untaxed portion of the common pleas deposit for court 19269
costs shall be remitted to the municipal court by the clerk of 19270
courts to be applied in accordance with section 1901.26 of the 19271
Revised Code, and the costs taxed by the municipal court shall be 19272
added to any costs taxed in the common pleas court.19273

       The court of common pleas has jurisdiction in any action 19274
brought pursuant to division (I) of section 3733.114781.40 of the 19275
Revised Code if the residential premises that are the subject of 19276
the action are located within the territorial jurisdiction of the 19277
court.19278

       The courts of common pleas of Adams, Athens, Belmont, Brown, 19279
Clermont, Columbiana, Gallia, Hamilton, Jefferson, Lawrence, 19280
Meigs, Monroe, Scioto, and Washington counties have jurisdiction 19281
beyond the north or northwest shore of the Ohio river extending to 19282
the opposite shore line, between the extended boundary lines of 19283
any adjacent counties or adjacent state. Each of those courts of 19284
common pleas has concurrent jurisdiction on the Ohio river with 19285
any adjacent court of common pleas that borders on that river and 19286
with any court of Kentucky or of West Virginia that borders on the 19287
Ohio river and that has jurisdiction on the Ohio river under the 19288
law of Kentucky or the law of West Virginia, whichever is 19289
applicable, or under federal law.19290

       Sec. 2307.89. The following apply to all tort actions for 19291
silicosis or mixed dust disease claims brought against a premises 19292
owner to recover damages or other relief for exposure to silica or 19293
mixed dust on the premises owner's property:19294

       (A) A premises owner is not liable for any injury to any 19295
individual resulting from silica or mixed dust exposure unless 19296
that individual's alleged exposure occurred while the individual 19297
was at the premises owner's property.19298

       (B) If exposure to silica or mixed dust is alleged to have 19299
occurred before January 1, 1972, it is presumed that a premises 19300
owner knew that this state had adopted safe levels of exposure for 19301
silica or mixed dust and that products containing silica or mixed 19302
dust were used on its property only at levels below those safe 19303
levels of exposure. To rebut this presumption, the plaintiff must 19304
prove by a preponderance of the evidence that the premises owner 19305
knew or should have known that the levels of silica or mixed dust 19306
in the immediate breathing zone of the plaintiff regularly 19307
exceeded the threshold limit values adopted by this state and that 19308
the premises owner allowed that condition to persist.19309

       (C)(1) A premises owner is presumed to be not liable for any 19310
injury to any invitee who was engaged to work with, install, or 19311
remove products containing silica or mixed dust on the premises 19312
owner's property if the invitee's employer held itself out as 19313
qualified to perform the work. To rebut this presumption, the 19314
plaintiff must demonstrate by a preponderance of the evidence that 19315
the premises owner had actual knowledge of the potential dangers 19316
of the products containing silica or mixed dust at the time of the 19317
alleged exposure that was superior to the knowledge of both the 19318
invitee and the invitee's employer.19319

       (2) A premises owner that hired a contractor before January 19320
1, 1972, to perform the type of work at the premises owner's 19321
property that the contractor was qualified to perform cannot be 19322
liable for any injury to any individual resulting from silica or 19323
mixed dust exposure caused by any of the contractor's employees or 19324
agents on the premises owner's property unless the premises owner 19325
directed the activity that resulted in the injury or gave or 19326
denied permission for the critical acts that led to the 19327
individual's injury.19328

       (3) If exposure to silica or mixed dust is alleged to have 19329
occurred after January 1, 1972, a premises owner is not liable for 19330
any injury to any individual resulting from that exposure caused 19331
by a contractor's employee or agent on the premises owner's 19332
property unless the plaintiff establishes the premises owner's 19333
intentional violation of an established safety standard that was 19334
in effect at the time of the exposure and that the alleged 19335
violation was in the plaintiff's breathing zone and was the 19336
proximate cause of the plaintiff's medical condition.19337

       (D) As used in this section:19338

       (1) "Threshold limit values" means the maximum allowable 19339
concentration of silica, or other dust, set forth in regulation 19340
247 of the "regulations for the prevention and control of diseases 19341
resulting from exposure to toxic fumes, vapors, mists, gases, and 19342
dusts in order to preserve and protect the public health," as 19343
adopted by the former public health council of the department of 19344
health on January 1, 1947, and set forth by the industrial 19345
commission of Ohio in bulletin no. 203, "specific requirements and 19346
general safety standards of the industrial commission of Ohio for 19347
work shops and factories, chapter XV, ventilation and exhausts," 19348
effective January 3, 1955.19349

       (2) "Established safety standard" means that, for the years 19350
after 1971, the concentration of silica or mixed dust in the 19351
breathing zone of the worker does not exceed the maximum allowable 19352
exposure limits for the eight-hour time-weighted average airborne 19353
concentration as promulgated by the occupational safety and health 19354
administration (OSHA) in effect at the time of the alleged 19355
exposure.19356

       (3) "Employee" means an individual who performs labor or 19357
provides construction services pursuant to a construction 19358
contract, as defined in section 4123.79 of the Revised Code, or a 19359
remodeling or repair contract, whether written or oral, if at 19360
least ten of the following criteria apply:19361

       (a) The individual is required to comply with instructions 19362
from the other contracting party regarding the manner or method of 19363
performing services.19364

       (b) The individual is required by the other contracting party 19365
to have particular training.19366

       (c) The individual's services are integrated into the regular 19367
functioning of the other contracting party.19368

       (d) The individual is required to perform the work 19369
personally.19370

       (e) The individual is hired, supervised, or paid by the other 19371
contracting party.19372

       (f) A continuing relationship exists between the individual 19373
and the other contracting party that contemplates continuing or 19374
recurring work even if the work is not full time.19375

       (g) The individual's hours of work are established by the 19376
other contracting party.19377

       (h) The individual is required to devote full time to the 19378
business of the other contracting party.19379

       (i) The individual is required to perform the work on the 19380
premises of the other contracting party.19381

       (j) The individual is required to follow the order of work 19382
set by the other contracting party.19383

       (k) The individual is required to make oral or written 19384
reports of progress to the other contracting party.19385

       (l) The individual is paid for services on a regular basis, 19386
including hourly, weekly, or monthly.19387

       (m) The individual's expenses are paid for by the other 19388
contracting party.19389

       (n) The individual's tools and materials are furnished by the 19390
other contracting party.19391

       (o) The individual is provided with the facilities used to 19392
perform services.19393

       (p) The individual does not realize a profit or suffer a loss 19394
as a result of the services provided.19395

       (q) The individual is not performing services for a number of 19396
employers at the same time.19397

       (r) The individual does not make the same services available 19398
to the general public.19399

       (s) The other contracting party has a right to discharge the 19400
individual.19401

       (t) The individual has the right to end the relationship with 19402
the other contracting party without incurring liability pursuant 19403
to an employment contract or agreement.19404

       Sec. 2317.02.  The following persons shall not testify in 19405
certain respects:19406

       (A)(1) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the 19407
attorney by a client in that relation or the attorney's advice to 19408
a client, except that the attorney may testify by express consent 19409
of the client or, if the client is deceased, by the express 19410
consent of the surviving spouse or the executor or administrator 19411
of the estate of the deceased client. However, if the client 19412
voluntarily testifies or is deemed by section 2151.421 of the 19413
Revised Code to have waived any testimonial privilege under this 19414
division, the attorney may be compelled to testify on the same 19415
subject.19416

       The testimonial privilege established under this division 19417
does not apply concerning a communication between a client who has 19418
since died and the deceased client's attorney if the communication 19419
is relevant to a dispute between parties who claim through that 19420
deceased client, regardless of whether the claims are by testate 19421
or intestate succession or by inter vivos transaction, and the 19422
dispute addresses the competency of the deceased client when the 19423
deceased client executed a document that is the basis of the 19424
dispute or whether the deceased client was a victim of fraud, 19425
undue influence, or duress when the deceased client executed a 19426
document that is the basis of the dispute.19427

       (2) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the 19428
attorney by a client in that relationship or the attorney's advice 19429
to a client, except that if the client is an insurance company, 19430
the attorney may be compelled to testify, subject to an in camera 19431
inspection by a court, about communications made by the client to 19432
the attorney or by the attorney to the client that are related to 19433
the attorney's aiding or furthering an ongoing or future 19434
commission of bad faith by the client, if the party seeking 19435
disclosure of the communications has made a prima-facie showing of 19436
bad faith, fraud, or criminal misconduct by the client.19437

       (B)(1) A physician or a dentist concerning a communication 19438
made to the physician or dentist by a patient in that relation or 19439
the physician's or dentist's advice to a patient, except as 19440
otherwise provided in this division, division (B)(2), and division 19441
(B)(3) of this section, and except that, if the patient is deemed 19442
by section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived any 19443
testimonial privilege under this division, the physician may be 19444
compelled to testify on the same subject.19445

       The testimonial privilege established under this division 19446
does not apply, and a physician or dentist may testify or may be 19447
compelled to testify, in any of the following circumstances:19448

       (a) In any civil action, in accordance with the discovery 19449
provisions of the Rules of Civil Procedure in connection with a 19450
civil action, or in connection with a claim under Chapter 4123. of 19451
the Revised Code, under any of the following circumstances:19452

       (i) If the patient or the guardian or other legal 19453
representative of the patient gives express consent;19454

       (ii) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or 19455
the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives 19456
express consent;19457

       (iii) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, 19458
or optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised 19459
Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil 19460
action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is 19461
filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of 19462
the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal 19463
representative.19464

       (b) In any civil action concerning court-ordered treatment or 19465
services received by a patient, if the court-ordered treatment or 19466
services were ordered as part of a case plan journalized under 19467
section 2151.412 of the Revised Code or the court-ordered 19468
treatment or services are necessary or relevant to dependency, 19469
neglect, or abuse or temporary or permanent custody proceedings 19470
under Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code.19471

       (c) In any criminal action concerning any test or the results 19472
of any test that determines the presence or concentration of 19473
alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled 19474
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the 19475
patient's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, urine, or 19476
other bodily substance at any time relevant to the criminal 19477
offense in question.19478

       (d) In any criminal action against a physician or dentist. In 19479
such an action, the testimonial privilege established under this 19480
division does not prohibit the admission into evidence, in 19481
accordance with the Rules of Evidence, of a patient's medical or 19482
dental records or other communications between a patient and the 19483
physician or dentist that are related to the action and obtained 19484
by subpoena, search warrant, or other lawful means. A court that 19485
permits or compels a physician or dentist to testify in such an 19486
action or permits the introduction into evidence of patient 19487
records or other communications in such an action shall require 19488
that appropriate measures be taken to ensure that the 19489
confidentiality of any patient named or otherwise identified in 19490
the records is maintained. Measures to ensure confidentiality that 19491
may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting 19492
specific information from its records.19493

       (e)(i) If the communication was between a patient who has 19494
since died and the deceased patient's physician or dentist, the 19495
communication is relevant to a dispute between parties who claim 19496
through that deceased patient, regardless of whether the claims 19497
are by testate or intestate succession or by inter vivos 19498
transaction, and the dispute addresses the competency of the 19499
deceased patient when the deceased patient executed a document 19500
that is the basis of the dispute or whether the deceased patient 19501
was a victim of fraud, undue influence, or duress when the 19502
deceased patient executed a document that is the basis of the 19503
dispute.19504

       (ii) If neither the spouse of a patient nor the executor or 19505
administrator of that patient's estate gives consent under 19506
division (B)(1)(a)(ii) of this section, testimony or the 19507
disclosure of the patient's medical records by a physician, 19508
dentist, or other health care provider under division (B)(1)(e)(i) 19509
of this section is a permitted use or disclosure of protected 19510
health information, as defined in 45 C.F.R. 160.103, and an 19511
authorization or opportunity to be heard shall not be required.19512

       (iii) Division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section does not require 19513
a mental health professional to disclose psychotherapy notes, as 19514
defined in 45 C.F.R. 164.501.19515

       (iv) An interested person who objects to testimony or 19516
disclosure under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section may seek a 19517
protective order pursuant to Civil Rule 26.19518

       (v) A person to whom protected health information is 19519
disclosed under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section shall not 19520
use or disclose the protected health information for any purpose 19521
other than the litigation or proceeding for which the information 19522
was requested and shall return the protected health information to 19523
the covered entity or destroy the protected health information, 19524
including all copies made, at the conclusion of the litigation or 19525
proceeding.19526

       (2)(a) If any law enforcement officer submits a written 19527
statement to a health care provider that states that an official 19528
criminal investigation has begun regarding a specified person or 19529
that a criminal action or proceeding has been commenced against a 19530
specified person, that requests the provider to supply to the 19531
officer copies of any records the provider possesses that pertain 19532
to any test or the results of any test administered to the 19533
specified person to determine the presence or concentration of 19534
alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled 19535
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the 19536
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine at 19537
any time relevant to the criminal offense in question, and that 19538
conforms to section 2317.022 of the Revised Code, the provider, 19539
except to the extent specifically prohibited by any law of this 19540
state or of the United States, shall supply to the officer a copy 19541
of any of the requested records the provider possesses. If the 19542
health care provider does not possess any of the requested 19543
records, the provider shall give the officer a written statement 19544
that indicates that the provider does not possess any of the 19545
requested records.19546

       (b) If a health care provider possesses any records of the 19547
type described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section regarding the 19548
person in question at any time relevant to the criminal offense in 19549
question, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of 19550
the test in question, the custodian of the records may submit a 19551
certified copy of the records, and, upon its submission, the 19552
certified copy is qualified as authentic evidence and may be 19553
admitted as evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence. 19554
Division (A) of section 2317.422 of the Revised Code does not 19555
apply to any certified copy of records submitted in accordance 19556
with this division. Nothing in this division shall be construed to 19557
limit the right of any party to call as a witness the person who 19558
administered the test to which the records pertain, the person 19559
under whose supervision the test was administered, the custodian 19560
of the records, the person who made the records, or the person 19561
under whose supervision the records were made.19562

       (3)(a) If the testimonial privilege described in division 19563
(B)(1) of this section does not apply as provided in division 19564
(B)(1)(a)(iii) of this section, a physician or dentist may be 19565
compelled to testify or to submit to discovery under the Rules of 19566
Civil Procedure only as to a communication made to the physician 19567
or dentist by the patient in question in that relation, or the 19568
physician's or dentist's advice to the patient in question, that 19569
related causally or historically to physical or mental injuries 19570
that are relevant to issues in the medical claim, dental claim, 19571
chiropractic claim, or optometric claim, action for wrongful 19572
death, other civil action, or claim under Chapter 4123. of the 19573
Revised Code.19574

       (b) If the testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) 19575
of this section does not apply to a physician or dentist as 19576
provided in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, the physician or 19577
dentist, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of the 19578
test in question, may submit a certified copy of those results, 19579
and, upon its submission, the certified copy is qualified as 19580
authentic evidence and may be admitted as evidence in accordance 19581
with the Rules of Evidence. Division (A) of section 2317.422 of 19582
the Revised Code does not apply to any certified copy of results 19583
submitted in accordance with this division. Nothing in this 19584
division shall be construed to limit the right of any party to 19585
call as a witness the person who administered the test in 19586
question, the person under whose supervision the test was 19587
administered, the custodian of the results of the test, the person 19588
who compiled the results, or the person under whose supervision 19589
the results were compiled.19590

       (4) The testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) of 19591
this section is not waived when a communication is made by a 19592
physician to a pharmacist or when there is communication between a 19593
patient and a pharmacist in furtherance of the physician-patient 19594
relation.19595

       (5)(a) As used in divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this section, 19596
"communication" means acquiring, recording, or transmitting any 19597
information, in any manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or 19598
statements necessary to enable a physician or dentist to diagnose, 19599
treat, prescribe, or act for a patient. A "communication" may 19600
include, but is not limited to, any medical or dental, office, or 19601
hospital communication such as a record, chart, letter, 19602
memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, photograph, 19603
financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.19604

       (b) As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "health care 19605
provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care facility, long-term 19606
care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, or health care 19607
practitioner.19608

       (c) As used in division (B)(5)(b) of this section:19609

       (i) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides 19610
medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not 19611
require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory 19612
surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic 19613
imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home 19614
health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation 19615
therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. 19616
"Ambulatory health care facility" does not include the private 19617
office of a physician or dentist, whether the office is for an 19618
individual or group practice.19619

       (ii) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency 19620
department or any other facility that provides emergency medical 19621
services.19622

       (iii) "Health care practitioner" has the same meaning as in 19623
section 4769.01 of the Revised Code.19624

       (iv) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 19625
the Revised Code.19626

       (v) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, 19627
residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms 19628
are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; an adult care19629
a residential facility, as defined inlicensed under section 19630
5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 19631
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 19632
unrelated adults; a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 19633
for the mentally retarded, as those terms are defined in section 19634
5111.20 of the Revised Code; a facility or portion of a facility 19635
certified as a skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII of the 19636
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as 19637
amended.19638

       (vi) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of 19639
the Revised Code.19640

       (d) As used in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section, 19641
"drug of abuse" has the same meaning as in section 4506.01 of the 19642
Revised Code.19643

       (6) Divisions (B)(1), (2), (3), (4), and (5) of this section 19644
apply to doctors of medicine, doctors of osteopathic medicine, 19645
doctors of podiatry, and dentists.19646

       (7) Nothing in divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this section 19647
affects, or shall be construed as affecting, the immunity from 19648
civil liability conferred by section 307.628 of the Revised Code 19649
or the immunity from civil liability conferred by section 2305.33 19650
of the Revised Code upon physicians who report an employee's use 19651
of a drug of abuse, or a condition of an employee other than one 19652
involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the 19653
employee in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used 19654
in division (B)(7) of this section, "employee," "employer," and 19655
"physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the 19656
Revised Code.19657

       (C)(1) A cleric, when the cleric remains accountable to the 19658
authority of that cleric's church, denomination, or sect, 19659
concerning a confession made, or any information confidentially 19660
communicated, to the cleric for a religious counseling purpose in 19661
the cleric's professional character. The cleric may testify by 19662
express consent of the person making the communication, except 19663
when the disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred 19664
trust and except that, if the person voluntarily testifies or is 19665
deemed by division (A)(4)(c) of section 2151.421 of the Revised 19666
Code to have waived any testimonial privilege under this division, 19667
the cleric may be compelled to testify on the same subject except 19668
when disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred 19669
trust.19670

       (2) As used in division (C) of this section:19671

        (a) "Cleric" means a member of the clergy, rabbi, priest, 19672
Christian Science practitioner, or regularly ordained, accredited, 19673
or licensed minister of an established and legally cognizable 19674
church, denomination, or sect.19675

        (b) "Sacred trust" means a confession or confidential 19676
communication made to a cleric in the cleric's ecclesiastical 19677
capacity in the course of discipline enjoined by the church to 19678
which the cleric belongs, including, but not limited to, the 19679
Catholic Church, if both of the following apply:19680

        (i) The confession or confidential communication was made 19681
directly to the cleric.19682

        (ii) The confession or confidential communication was made in 19683
the manner and context that places the cleric specifically and 19684
strictly under a level of confidentiality that is considered 19685
inviolate by canon law or church doctrine.19686

       (D) Husband or wife, concerning any communication made by one 19687
to the other, or an act done by either in the presence of the 19688
other, during coverture, unless the communication was made, or act 19689
done, in the known presence or hearing of a third person competent 19690
to be a witness; and such rule is the same if the marital relation 19691
has ceased to exist;19692

       (E) A person who assigns a claim or interest, concerning any 19693
matter in respect to which the person would not, if a party, be 19694
permitted to testify;19695

       (F) A person who, if a party, would be restricted under 19696
section 2317.03 of the Revised Code, when the property or thing is 19697
sold or transferred by an executor, administrator, guardian, 19698
trustee, heir, devisee, or legatee, shall be restricted in the 19699
same manner in any action or proceeding concerning the property or 19700
thing.19701

       (G)(1) A school guidance counselor who holds a valid educator 19702
license from the state board of education as provided for in 19703
section 3319.22 of the Revised Code, a person licensed under 19704
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code as a professional clinical 19705
counselor, professional counselor, social worker, independent 19706
social worker, marriage and family therapist or independent 19707
marriage and family therapist, or registered under Chapter 4757. 19708
of the Revised Code as a social work assistant concerning a 19709
confidential communication received from a client in that relation 19710
or the person's advice to a client unless any of the following 19711
applies:19712

       (a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present 19713
danger to the client or other persons. For the purposes of this 19714
division, cases in which there are indications of present or past 19715
child abuse or neglect of the client constitute a clear and 19716
present danger.19717

       (b) The client gives express consent to the testimony.19718

       (c) If the client is deceased, the surviving spouse or the 19719
executor or administrator of the estate of the deceased client 19720
gives express consent.19721

       (d) The client voluntarily testifies, in which case the 19722
school guidance counselor or person licensed or registered under 19723
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code may be compelled to testify on 19724
the same subject.19725

       (e) The court in camera determines that the information 19726
communicated by the client is not germane to the counselor-client, 19727
marriage and family therapist-client, or social worker-client 19728
relationship.19729

       (f) A court, in an action brought against a school, its 19730
administration, or any of its personnel by the client, rules after 19731
an in-camera inspection that the testimony of the school guidance 19732
counselor is relevant to that action.19733

       (g) The testimony is sought in a civil action and concerns 19734
court-ordered treatment or services received by a patient as part 19735
of a case plan journalized under section 2151.412 of the Revised 19736
Code or the court-ordered treatment or services are necessary or 19737
relevant to dependency, neglect, or abuse or temporary or 19738
permanent custody proceedings under Chapter 2151. of the Revised 19739
Code.19740

       (2) Nothing in division (G)(1) of this section shall relieve 19741
a school guidance counselor or a person licensed or registered 19742
under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code from the requirement to 19743
report information concerning child abuse or neglect under section 19744
2151.421 of the Revised Code.19745

       (H) A mediator acting under a mediation order issued under 19746
division (A) of section 3109.052 of the Revised Code or otherwise 19747
issued in any proceeding for divorce, dissolution, legal 19748
separation, annulment, or the allocation of parental rights and 19749
responsibilities for the care of children, in any action or 19750
proceeding, other than a criminal, delinquency, child abuse, child 19751
neglect, or dependent child action or proceeding, that is brought 19752
by or against either parent who takes part in mediation in 19753
accordance with the order and that pertains to the mediation 19754
process, to any information discussed or presented in the 19755
mediation process, to the allocation of parental rights and 19756
responsibilities for the care of the parents' children, or to the 19757
awarding of parenting time rights in relation to their children;19758

       (I) A communications assistant, acting within the scope of 19759
the communication assistant's authority, when providing 19760
telecommunications relay service pursuant to section 4931.06 of 19761
the Revised Code or Title II of the "Communications Act of 1934," 19762
104 Stat. 366 (1990), 47 U.S.C. 225, concerning a communication 19763
made through a telecommunications relay service. Nothing in this 19764
section shall limit the obligation of a communications assistant 19765
to divulge information or testify when mandated by federal law or 19766
regulation or pursuant to subpoena in a criminal proceeding.19767

       Nothing in this section shall limit any immunity or privilege 19768
granted under federal law or regulation.19769

       (J)(1) A chiropractor in a civil proceeding concerning a 19770
communication made to the chiropractor by a patient in that 19771
relation or the chiropractor's advice to a patient, except as 19772
otherwise provided in this division. The testimonial privilege 19773
established under this division does not apply, and a chiropractor 19774
may testify or may be compelled to testify, in any civil action, 19775
in accordance with the discovery provisions of the Rules of Civil 19776
Procedure in connection with a civil action, or in connection with 19777
a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, under any of the 19778
following circumstances:19779

       (a) If the patient or the guardian or other legal 19780
representative of the patient gives express consent.19781

       (b) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or 19782
the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives 19783
express consent.19784

       (c) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or 19785
optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised 19786
Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil 19787
action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is 19788
filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of 19789
the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal 19790
representative.19791

       (2) If the testimonial privilege described in division (J)(1) 19792
of this section does not apply as provided in division (J)(1)(c) 19793
of this section, a chiropractor may be compelled to testify or to 19794
submit to discovery under the Rules of Civil Procedure only as to 19795
a communication made to the chiropractor by the patient in 19796
question in that relation, or the chiropractor's advice to the 19797
patient in question, that related causally or historically to 19798
physical or mental injuries that are relevant to issues in the 19799
medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or optometric 19800
claim, action for wrongful death, other civil action, or claim 19801
under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.19802

       (3) The testimonial privilege established under this division 19803
does not apply, and a chiropractor may testify or be compelled to 19804
testify, in any criminal action or administrative proceeding.19805

       (4) As used in this division, "communication" means 19806
acquiring, recording, or transmitting any information, in any 19807
manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or statements necessary to 19808
enable a chiropractor to diagnose, treat, or act for a patient. A 19809
communication may include, but is not limited to, any 19810
chiropractic, office, or hospital communication such as a record, 19811
chart, letter, memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, 19812
photograph, financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.19813

       (K)(1) Except as provided under division (K)(2) of this 19814
section, a critical incident stress management team member 19815
concerning a communication received from an individual who 19816
receives crisis response services from the team member, or the 19817
team member's advice to the individual, during a debriefing 19818
session.19819

        (2) The testimonial privilege established under division 19820
(K)(1) of this section does not apply if any of the following are 19821
true:19822

        (a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present 19823
danger to the individual who receives crisis response services or 19824
to other persons. For purposes of this division, cases in which 19825
there are indications of present or past child abuse or neglect of 19826
the individual constitute a clear and present danger.19827

        (b) The individual who received crisis response services 19828
gives express consent to the testimony.19829

       (c) If the individual who received crisis response services 19830
is deceased, the surviving spouse or the executor or administrator 19831
of the estate of the deceased individual gives express consent.19832

        (d) The individual who received crisis response services 19833
voluntarily testifies, in which case the team member may be 19834
compelled to testify on the same subject.19835

        (e) The court in camera determines that the information 19836
communicated by the individual who received crisis response 19837
services is not germane to the relationship between the individual 19838
and the team member.19839

       (f) The communication or advice pertains or is related to any 19840
criminal act.19841

       (3) As used in division (K) of this section:19842

       (a) "Crisis response services" means consultation, risk 19843
assessment, referral, and on-site crisis intervention services 19844
provided by a critical incident stress management team to 19845
individuals affected by crisis or disaster.19846

       (b) "Critical incident stress management team member" or 19847
"team member" means an individual specially trained to provide 19848
crisis response services as a member of an organized community or 19849
local crisis response team that holds membership in the Ohio 19850
critical incident stress management network.19851

       (c) "Debriefing session" means a session at which crisis 19852
response services are rendered by a critical incident stress 19853
management team member during or after a crisis or disaster.19854

       (L)(1) Subject to division (L)(2) of this section and except 19855
as provided in division (L)(3) of this section, an employee 19856
assistance professional, concerning a communication made to the 19857
employee assistance professional by a client in the employee 19858
assistance professional's official capacity as an employee 19859
assistance professional.19860

        (2) Division (L)(1) of this section applies to an employee 19861
assistance professional who meets either or both of the following 19862
requirements:19863

        (a) Is certified by the employee assistance certification 19864
commission to engage in the employee assistance profession;19865

        (b) Has education, training, and experience in all of the 19866
following:19867

        (i) Providing workplace-based services designed to address 19868
employer and employee productivity issues;19869

        (ii) Providing assistance to employees and employees' 19870
dependents in identifying and finding the means to resolve 19871
personal problems that affect the employees or the employees' 19872
performance;19873

       (iii) Identifying and resolving productivity problems 19874
associated with an employee's concerns about any of the following 19875
matters: health, marriage, family, finances, substance abuse or 19876
other addiction, workplace, law, and emotional issues;19877

       (iv) Selecting and evaluating available community resources;19878

        (v) Making appropriate referrals;19879

        (vi) Local and national employee assistance agreements;19880

        (vii) Client confidentiality.19881

        (3) Division (L)(1) of this section does not apply to any of 19882
the following:19883

        (a) A criminal action or proceeding involving an offense 19884
under sections 2903.01 to 2903.06 of the Revised Code if the 19885
employee assistance professional's disclosure or testimony relates 19886
directly to the facts or immediate circumstances of the offense;19887

        (b) A communication made by a client to an employee 19888
assistance professional that reveals the contemplation or 19889
commission of a crime or serious, harmful act;19890

        (c) A communication that is made by a client who is an 19891
unemancipated minor or an adult adjudicated to be incompetent and 19892
indicates that the client was the victim of a crime or abuse;19893

       (d) A civil proceeding to determine an individual's mental 19894
competency or a criminal action in which a plea of not guilty by 19895
reason of insanity is entered;19896

        (e) A civil or criminal malpractice action brought against 19897
the employee assistance professional;19898

        (f) When the employee assistance professional has the express 19899
consent of the client or, if the client is deceased or disabled, 19900
the client's legal representative;19901

        (g) When the testimonial privilege otherwise provided by 19902
division (L)(1) of this section is abrogated under law.19903

       Sec. 2317.422.  (A) Notwithstanding sections 2317.40 and 19904
2317.41 of the Revised Code but subject to division (B) of this 19905
section, the records, or copies or photographs of the records, of 19906
a hospital, homes required to be licensed pursuant to section 19907
3721.01 of the Revised Code, and adult careresidential facilities 19908
required to be licensed pursuant to Chapter 5119.section 5119.2219909
of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and 19910
personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults, in 19911
lieu of the testimony in open court of their custodian, person who 19912
made them, or person under whose supervision they were made, may 19913
be qualified as authentic evidence if any such person endorses 19914
thereon the person's verified certification identifying such 19915
records, giving the mode and time of their preparation, and 19916
stating that they were prepared in the usual course of the 19917
business of the institution. Such records, copies, or photographs 19918
may not be qualified by certification as provided in this section 19919
unless the party intending to offer them delivers a copy of them, 19920
or of their relevant portions, to the attorney of record for each 19921
adverse party not less than five days before trial. Nothing in 19922
this section shall be construed to limit the right of any party to 19923
call the custodian, person who made such records, or person under 19924
whose supervision they were made, as a witness.19925

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any 19926
certified copy of the results of any test given to determine the 19927
presence or concentration of alcohol, a drug of abuse, a 19928
combination of them, a controlled substance, or a metabolite of a 19929
controlled substance in a patient's whole blood, blood serum or 19930
plasma, breath, or urine at any time relevant to a criminal 19931
offense that is submitted in a criminal action or proceeding in 19932
accordance with division (B)(2)(b) or (B)(3)(b) of section 2317.02 19933
of the Revised Code.19934

       Sec. 2317.56.  (A) As used in this section:19935

       (1) "Medical emergency" means a condition of a pregnant woman 19936
that, in the reasonable judgment of the physician who is attending 19937
the woman, creates an immediate threat of serious risk to the life 19938
or physical health of the woman from the continuation of the 19939
pregnancy necessitating the immediate performance or inducement of 19940
an abortion.19941

       (2) "Medical necessity" means a medical condition of a 19942
pregnant woman that, in the reasonable judgment of the physician 19943
who is attending the woman, so complicates the pregnancy that it 19944
necessitates the immediate performance or inducement of an 19945
abortion.19946

       (3) "Probable gestational age of the embryo or fetus" means 19947
the gestational age that, in the judgment of a physician, is, with 19948
reasonable probability, the gestational age of the embryo or fetus 19949
at the time that the physician informs a pregnant woman pursuant 19950
to division (B)(1)(b) of this section.19951

       (B) Except when there is a medical emergency or medical 19952
necessity, an abortion shall be performed or induced only if all 19953
of the following conditions are satisfied:19954

       (1) At least twenty-four hours prior to the performance or 19955
inducement of the abortion, a physician meets with the pregnant 19956
woman in person in an individual, private setting and gives her an 19957
adequate opportunity to ask questions about the abortion that will 19958
be performed or induced. At this meeting, the physician shall 19959
inform the pregnant woman, verbally or, if she is hearing 19960
impaired, by other means of communication, of all of the 19961
following:19962

       (a) The nature and purpose of the particular abortion 19963
procedure to be used and the medical risks associated with that 19964
procedure;19965

       (b) The probable gestational age of the embryo or fetus;19966

       (c) The medical risks associated with the pregnant woman 19967
carrying the pregnancy to term.19968

       The meeting need not occur at the facility where the abortion 19969
is to be performed or induced, and the physician involved in the 19970
meeting need not be affiliated with that facility or with the 19971
physician who is scheduled to perform or induce the abortion.19972

       (2) At least twenty-four hours prior to the performance or 19973
inducement of the abortion, one or more physicians or one or more 19974
agents of one or more physicians do each of the following in 19975
person, by telephone, by certified mail, return receipt requested, 19976
or by regular mail evidenced by a certificate of mailing:19977

       (a) Inform the pregnant woman of the name of the physician 19978
who is scheduled to perform or induce the abortion;19979

       (b) Give the pregnant woman copies of the published materials 19980
described in division (C) of this section;19981

       (c) Inform the pregnant woman that the materials given 19982
pursuant to division (B)(2)(b) of this section are provided19983
published by the state and that they describe the embryo or fetus 19984
and list agencies that offer alternatives to abortion. The 19985
pregnant woman may choose to examine or not to examine the 19986
materials. A physician or an agent of a physician may choose to be 19987
disassociated from the materials and may choose to comment or not 19988
comment on the materials.19989

       (3) Prior to the performance or inducement of the abortion, 19990
the pregnant woman signs a form consenting to the abortion and 19991
certifies both of the following on that form:19992

       (a) She has received the information and materials described 19993
in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section, and her questions 19994
about the abortion that will be performed or induced have been 19995
answered in a satisfactory manner.19996

       (b) She consents to the particular abortion voluntarily, 19997
knowingly, intelligently, and without coercion by any person, and 19998
she is not under the influence of any drug of abuse or alcohol.19999

       (4) Prior to the performance or inducement of the abortion, 20000
the physician who is scheduled to perform or induce the abortion 20001
or the physician's agent receives a copy of the pregnant woman's 20002
signed form on which she consents to the abortion and that 20003
includes the certification required by division (B)(3) of this 20004
section.20005

       (C) The department of health shall cause to be published20006
publish in English and in Spanish, in a typeface large enough to 20007
be clearly legible, and in an easily comprehensible format, the 20008
following materials on the department's web site:20009

       (1) Materials that inform the pregnant woman about family 20010
planning information, of publicly funded agencies that are 20011
available to assist in family planning, and of public and private 20012
agencies and services that are available to assist her through the 20013
pregnancy, upon childbirth, and while the child is dependent, 20014
including, but not limited to, adoption agencies. The materials 20015
shall be geographically indexed; include a comprehensive list of 20016
the available agencies, a description of the services offered by 20017
the agencies, and the telephone numbers and addresses of the 20018
agencies; and inform the pregnant woman about available medical 20019
assistance benefits for prenatal care, childbirth, and neonatal 20020
care and about the support obligations of the father of a child 20021
who is born alive. The department shall ensure that the materials 20022
described in division (C)(1) of this section are comprehensive and 20023
do not directly or indirectly promote, exclude, or discourage the 20024
use of any agency or service described in this division.20025

       (2) Materials that inform the pregnant woman of the probable 20026
anatomical and physiological characteristics of the zygote, 20027
blastocyte, embryo, or fetus at two-week gestational increments 20028
for the first sixteen weeks of pregnancy and at four-week 20029
gestational increments from the seventeenth week of pregnancy to 20030
full term, including any relevant information regarding the time 20031
at which the fetus possibly would be viable. The department shall 20032
cause these materials to be published only after it consults with 20033
the Ohio state medical association and the Ohio section of the 20034
American college of obstetricians and gynecologists relative to 20035
the probable anatomical and physiological characteristics of a 20036
zygote, blastocyte, embryo, or fetus at the various gestational 20037
increments. The materials shall use language that is 20038
understandable by the average person who is not medically trained, 20039
shall be objective and nonjudgmental, and shall include only 20040
accurate scientific information about the zygote, blastocyte, 20041
embryo, or fetus at the various gestational increments. If the 20042
materials use a pictorial, photographic, or other depiction to 20043
provide information regarding the zygote, blastocyte, embryo, or 20044
fetus, the materials shall include, in a conspicuous manner, a 20045
scale or other explanation that is understandable by the average 20046
person and that can be used to determine the actual size of the 20047
zygote, blastocyte, embryo, or fetus at a particular gestational 20048
increment as contrasted with the depicted size of the zygote, 20049
blastocyte, embryo, or fetus at that gestational increment.20050

       (D) Upon the submission of a request to the department of 20051
health by any person, hospital, physician, or medical facility for 20052
one or more copiescopy of the materials published in accordance 20053
with division (C) of this section, the department shall make the 20054
requested number of copiescopy of the materials available to the 20055
person, hospital, physician, or medical facility that requested 20056
the copiescopy.20057

       (E) If a medical emergency or medical necessity compels the 20058
performance or inducement of an abortion, the physician who will 20059
perform or induce the abortion, prior to its performance or 20060
inducement if possible, shall inform the pregnant woman of the 20061
medical indications supporting the physician's judgment that an 20062
immediate abortion is necessary. Any physician who performs or 20063
induces an abortion without the prior satisfaction of the 20064
conditions specified in division (B) of this section because of a 20065
medical emergency or medical necessity shall enter the reasons for 20066
the conclusion that a medical emergency or medical necessity 20067
exists in the medical record of the pregnant woman.20068

       (F) If the conditions specified in division (B) of this 20069
section are satisfied, consent to an abortion shall be presumed to 20070
be valid and effective.20071

       (G) The performance or inducement of an abortion without the 20072
prior satisfaction of the conditions specified in division (B) of 20073
this section does not constitute, and shall not be construed as 20074
constituting, a violation of division (A) of section 2919.12 of 20075
the Revised Code. The failure of a physician to satisfy the 20076
conditions of division (B) of this section prior to performing or 20077
inducing an abortion upon a pregnant woman may be the basis of 20078
both of the following:20079

       (1) A civil action for compensatory and exemplary damages as 20080
described in division (H) of this section;20081

       (2) Disciplinary action under section 4731.22 of the Revised 20082
Code.20083

       (H)(1) Subject to divisions (H)(2) and (3) of this section, 20084
any physician who performs or induces an abortion with actual 20085
knowledge that the conditions specified in division (B) of this 20086
section have not been satisfied or with a heedless indifference as 20087
to whether those conditions have been satisfied is liable in 20088
compensatory and exemplary damages in a civil action to any 20089
person, or the representative of the estate of any person, who 20090
sustains injury, death, or loss to person or property as a result 20091
of the failure to satisfy those conditions. In the civil action, 20092
the court additionally may enter any injunctive or other equitable 20093
relief that it considers appropriate.20094

       (2) The following shall be affirmative defenses in a civil 20095
action authorized by division (H)(1) of this section:20096

       (a) The physician performed or induced the abortion under the 20097
circumstances described in division (E) of this section.20098

       (b) The physician made a good faith effort to satisfy the 20099
conditions specified in division (B) of this section.20100

       (c) The physician or an agent of the physician requested 20101
copies of the materials published in accordance with division (C) 20102
of this section from the department of health, but the physician 20103
was not able to give a pregnant woman copies of the materials 20104
pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section and to obtain a 20105
certification as described in divisions (B)(3) and (4) of this 20106
section because the department failed to make the requested number 20107
of copies available to the physician or agent in accordance with 20108
division (D) of this section.20109

       (3) An employer or other principal is not liable in damages 20110
in a civil action authorized by division (H)(1) of this section on 20111
the basis of the doctrine of respondeat superior unless either of 20112
the following applies:20113

       (a) The employer or other principal had actual knowledge or, 20114
by the exercise of reasonable diligence, should have known that an 20115
employee or agent performed or induced an abortion with actual 20116
knowledge that the conditions specified in division (B) of this 20117
section had not been satisfied or with a heedless indifference as 20118
to whether those conditions had been satisfied.20119

       (b) The employer or other principal negligently failed to 20120
secure the compliance of an employee or agent with division (B) of 20121
this section.20122

       (4) Notwithstanding division (E) of section 2919.12 of the 20123
Revised Code, the civil action authorized by division (H)(1) of 20124
this section shall be the exclusive civil remedy for persons, or 20125
the representatives of estates of persons, who allegedly sustain 20126
injury, death, or loss to person or property as a result of a 20127
failure to satisfy the conditions specified in division (B) of 20128
this section.20129

       (I) The department of job and family services shall prepare 20130
and conduct a public information program to inform women of all 20131
available governmental programs and agencies that provide services 20132
or assistance for family planning, prenatal care, child care, or 20133
alternatives to abortion.20134

       Sec. 2501.02.  Each judge of a court of appeals shall have 20135
been admitted to practice as an attorney at law in this state and 20136
have, for a total of six years preceding the judge's appointment 20137
or commencement of the judge's term, engaged in the practice of 20138
law in this state or served as a judge of a court of record in any 20139
jurisdiction in the United States, or both. At least two of the 20140
years of practice or service that qualify a judge shall have been 20141
in this state. One judge shall be chosen in each court of appeals 20142
district every two years, and shall hold office for six years, 20143
beginning on the ninth day of February next after the judge's 20144
election.20145

       In addition to the original jurisdiction conferred by Section 20146
3 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution, the court shall have 20147
jurisdiction upon an appeal upon questions of law to review, 20148
affirm, modify, set aside, or reverse judgments or final orders of 20149
courts of record inferior to the court of appeals within the 20150
district, including the finding, order, or judgment of a juvenile 20151
court that a child is delinquent, neglected, abused, or dependent, 20152
for prejudicial error committed by such lower court.20153

       The court, on good cause shown, may issue writs of 20154
supersedeas in any case, and all other writs, not specially 20155
provided for or prohibited by statute, necessary to enforce the 20156
administration of justice.20157

       Sec. 2503.01.  The supreme court shall consist of a chief 20158
justice and six justices, each of whom has been admitted to 20159
practice as an attorney at law in this state and has, for a total 20160
of at least six years preceding appointment or commencement of the 20161
justice's term, engaged in the practice of law in this state or 20162
served as a judge of a court of record in any jurisdiction of the 20163
United States, or both. At least two of the years of practice or 20164
service that qualify a justice shall have been in this state.20165

       Sec. 2743.02.  (A)(1) The state hereby waives its immunity 20166
from liability, except as provided for the office of the state 20167
fire marshal in division (G)(1) of section 9.60 and division (B) 20168
of section 3737.221 of the Revised Code and subject to division 20169
(H) of this section, and consents to be sued, and have its 20170
liability determined, in the court of claims created in this 20171
chapter in accordance with the same rules of law applicable to 20172
suits between private parties, except that the determination of 20173
liability is subject to the limitations set forth in this chapter 20174
and, in the case of state universities or colleges, in section 20175
3345.40 of the Revised Code, and except as provided in division 20176
(A)(2) or (3) of this section. To the extent that the state has 20177
previously consented to be sued, this chapter has no 20178
applicability.20179

       Except in the case of a civil action filed by the state, 20180
filing a civil action in the court of claims results in a complete 20181
waiver of any cause of action, based on the same act or omission,20182
whichthat the filing party has against any officer or employee, 20183
as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised Code. The waiver shall 20184
be void if the court determines that the act or omission was 20185
manifestly outside the scope of the officer's or employee's office 20186
or employment or that the officer or employee acted with malicious 20187
purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless manner.20188

       (2) If a claimant proves in the court of claims that an 20189
officer or employee, as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised 20190
Code, would have personal liability for the officer's or 20191
employee's acts or omissions but for the fact that the officer or 20192
employee has personal immunity under section 9.86 of the Revised 20193
Code, the state shall be held liable in the court of claims in any 20194
action that is timely filed pursuant to section 2743.16 of the 20195
Revised Code and that is based upon the acts or omissions.20196

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(3)(b) of this 20197
section, the state is immune from liability in any civil action or 20198
proceeding involving the performance or nonperformance of a public 20199
duty, including the performance or nonperformance of a public duty 20200
that is owed by the state in relation to any action of an 20201
individual who is committed to the custody of the state.20202

       (b) The state immunity provided in division (A)(3)(a) of this 20203
section does not apply to any action of the state under 20204
circumstances in which a special relationship can be established 20205
between the state and an injured party. A special relationship 20206
under this division is demonstrated if all of the following 20207
elements exist:20208

       (i) An assumption by the state, by means of promises or 20209
actions, of an affirmative duty to act on behalf of the party who 20210
was allegedly injured;20211

       (ii) Knowledge on the part of the state's agents that 20212
inaction of the state could lead to harm;20213

       (iii) Some form of direct contact between the state's agents 20214
and the injured party;20215

       (iv) The injured party's justifiable reliance on the state's 20216
affirmative undertaking.20217

       (B) The state hereby waives the immunity from liability of 20218
all hospitals owned or operated by one or more political 20219
subdivisions and consents for them to be sued, and to have their 20220
liability determined, in the court of common pleas, in accordance 20221
with the same rules of law applicable to suits between private 20222
parties, subject to the limitations set forth in this chapter. 20223
This division is also applicable to hospitals owned or operated by 20224
political subdivisions whichthat have been determined by the 20225
supreme court to be subject to suit prior to July 28, 1975.20226

       (C) Any hospital, as defined in section 2305.113 of the 20227
Revised Code, may purchase liability insurance covering its 20228
operations and activities and its agents, employees, nurses, 20229
interns, residents, staff, and members of the governing board and 20230
committees, and, whether or not such insurance is purchased, may, 20231
to suchthe extent asthat its governing board considers 20232
appropriate, indemnify or agree to indemnify and hold harmless any 20233
such person against expense, including attorney's fees, damage, 20234
loss, or other liability arising out of, or claimed to have arisen 20235
out of, the death, disease, or injury of any person as a result of 20236
the negligence, malpractice, or other action or inaction of the 20237
indemnified person while acting within the scope of the 20238
indemnified person's duties or engaged in activities at the 20239
request or direction, or for the benefit, of the hospital. Any 20240
hospital electing to indemnify suchthose persons, or to agree to 20241
so indemnify, shall reserve suchany funds asthat are necessary, 20242
in the exercise of sound and prudent actuarial judgment, to cover 20243
the potential expense, fees, damage, loss, or other liability. The 20244
superintendent of insurance may recommend, or, if suchthe20245
hospital requests the superintendent to do so, the superintendent 20246
shall recommend, a specific amount for any period that, in the 20247
superintendent's opinion, represents such a judgment. This 20248
authority is in addition to any authorization otherwise provided 20249
or permitted by law.20250

       (D) Recoveries against the state shall be reduced by the 20251
aggregate of insurance proceeds, disability award, or other 20252
collateral recovery received by the claimant. This division does 20253
not apply to civil actions in the court of claims against a state 20254
university or college under the circumstances described in section 20255
3345.40 of the Revised Code. The collateral benefits provisions of 20256
division (B)(2) of that section apply under those circumstances.20257

       (E) The only defendant in original actions in the court of 20258
claims is the state. The state may file a third-party complaint or 20259
counterclaim in any civil action, except a civil action for two20260
ten thousand five hundred dollars or less, that is filed in the 20261
court of claims.20262

       (F) A civil action against an officer or employee, as defined 20263
in section 109.36 of the Revised Code, that alleges that the 20264
officer's or employee's conduct was manifestly outside the scope 20265
of the officer's or employee's employment or official 20266
responsibilities, or that the officer or employee acted with 20267
malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless manner 20268
shall first be filed against the state in the court of claims, 20269
whichthat has exclusive, original jurisdiction to determine, 20270
initially, whether the officer or employee is entitled to personal 20271
immunity under section 9.86 of the Revised Code and whether the 20272
courts of common pleas have jurisdiction over the civil action. 20273
The officer or employee may participate in the immunity 20274
determination proceeding before the court of claims to determine 20275
whether the officer or employee is entitled to personal immunity 20276
under section 9.86 of the Revised Code.20277

       The filing of a claim against an officer or employee under 20278
this division tolls the running of the applicable statute of 20279
limitations until the court of claims determines whether the 20280
officer or employee is entitled to personal immunity under section 20281
9.86 of the Revised Code.20282

       (G) WheneverIf a claim lies against an officer or employee 20283
who is a member of the Ohio national guard, and the officer or 20284
employee was, at the time of the act or omission complained of, 20285
subject to the "Federal Tort Claims Act," 60 Stat. 842 (1946), 28 20286
U.S.C. 2671, et seq., then the Federal Tort Claims Act is the 20287
exclusive remedy of the claimant and the state has no liability 20288
under this section.20289

       (H) If an inmate of a state correctional institution has a 20290
claim against the state for the loss of or damage to property and 20291
the amount claimed does not exceed three hundred dollars, before 20292
commencing an action against the state in the court of claims, the 20293
inmate shall file a claim for the loss or damage under the rules 20294
adopted by the director of rehabilitation and correction pursuant 20295
to this division. The inmate shall file the claim within the time 20296
allowed for commencement of a civil action under section 2743.16 20297
of the Revised Code. If the state admits or compromises the claim, 20298
the director shall make payment from a fund designated by the 20299
director for that purpose. If the state denies the claim or does 20300
not compromise the claim at least sixty days prior to expiration 20301
of the time allowed for commencement of a civil action based upon 20302
the loss or damage under section 2743.16 of the Revised Code, the 20303
inmate may commence an action in the court of claims under this 20304
chapter to recover damages for the loss or damage.20305

       The director of rehabilitation and correction shall adopt 20306
rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 20307
this division.20308

       Sec. 2743.10.  (A) Civil actions against the state for two20309
ten thousand five hundred dollars or less shall be determined 20310
administratively by the clerk of the court of claims, except that 20311
the clerk is not required to administratively determine a civil 20312
action of that nature if the civil action was commenced by a 20313
person who has been found to be a vexatious litigator under 20314
section 2323.52 of the Revised Code and who has failed to obtain 20315
leave to proceed under that section and if the clerk refused 20316
pursuant to division (D) of section 2743.09 of the Revised Code to 20317
accept for filing any pleading or paper that relates to the civil 20318
action and that was submitted for filing by that person and except 20319
that all civil actions against the state that have been removed to 20320
the court of claims shall be heard and determined by a judge of 20321
the court of claims.20322

       (B) Civil actions covered by division (A) of this section 20323
shall be commenced by filing with the clerk on complaint forms 20324
prescribed by the supreme court. The clerk shall forward copies of 20325
the form complaint to the attorney general and the state 20326
department, board, office, commission, agency, institution, or 20327
other instrumentality whose actions or failure to act are the 20328
subject of complaint. The latter shall investigate the allegations 20329
made in the form complaint and report the results of its 20330
investigation to the clerk within sixty days of receipt of a copy 20331
of the form complaint. The clerk shall forward a copy of the 20332
report to the claimant and give the claimant an opportunity to 20333
respond to the report either in writing or by appearing before the 20334
clerk.20335

       (C) The clerk shall determine the civil action covered by 20336
division (A) of this section and make a report of the decision, 20337
together with findings of fact and conclusions of law, copies of 20338
which shall be mailed to the claimant and the state 20339
instrumentality. Except as otherwise provided in this division, 20340
the determination shall be based upon principles of law applicable 20341
in the court of claims, including, but not limited to, section 20342
3345.40 of the Revised Code if a state university or college is a 20343
defendant in the court of claims.20344

       Rules of evidence shall not be applicable in the 20345
determination. Procedures shall be governed by rules promulgated 20346
by the clerk, shall be informal, and shall be designed to 20347
accommodate persons who are not skilled in the law.20348

       (D) Upon the motion of a party, the court of claims shall 20349
review the determination of the clerk upon the clerk's report and 20350
papers filed in the action and shall enter judgment consistent 20351
with its findings. The judgment shall not be the subject of 20352
further appeal. No civil action arising out of the same 20353
transaction or set of facts may be commenced by the claimant in 20354
the court of claims.20355

       (E) The determination of the clerk pursuant to division (C) 20356
of this section shall be processed pursuant to section 2743.19 of 20357
the Revised Code as if it were a judgment.20358

       Sec. 2746.01.  A court of record of this state shall tax as 20359
costs or otherwise require the payment of fees for the following 20360
services rendered or as compensation for the following persons or 20361
any other of the following fees that are applicable in a 20362
particular case:20363

       (A) Appraisers, commissioners, or arbitrators appointed to 20364
make or procure an appraisement or valuation of any property, as 20365
provided in section 2335.02 of the Revised Code; 20366

       (B) Auctioneers appointed to conduct any public auction of 20367
goods, chattels, or lands required to be sold by an officer of the 20368
court, as provided in section 2335.021 of the Revised Code; 20369

       (C) Commissioners appointed to make partition of lands or to 20370
assign dower and appraisers of real or personal property on 20371
execution, replevin, or attachment or to fix the value of exempt 20372
property, as provided in section 2335.01 of the Revised Code; 20373

       (D) Deposit of rent with the clerk of court by a resident of 20374
a manufactured home park, as provided in section 3733.1214781.4220375
of the Revised Code, or by a tenant of residential premises, as 20376
provided in section 5321.08 of the Revised Code;20377

       (E) Interpreters, as provided in section 2335.09 of the 20378
Revised Code;20379

       (F) Fees in a civil action or appeal commenced by an inmate 20380
against a government entity or employee, as provided in section 20381
2969.22 of the Revised Code;20382

       (G) Procurement of a transcript of a judgment or proceeding 20383
or exemplification of a record in an appeal or other civil action, 20384
as provided in section 2303.21 of the Revised Code;20385

       (H) Publication of an advertisement, notice, or proclamation 20386
required to be published by a trustee, assignee, executor, 20387
administrator, receiver, or other officer of the court or a party 20388
in a case or proceeding, as provided in section 7.13 of the 20389
Revised Code;20390

       (I) Publication of calendars, motion dockets, legal 20391
advertisements, and notices, the fees for which are not fixed by 20392
law, as provided in section 2701.09 of the Revised Code;20393

       (J) Sheriffs, as provided in section 311.17 of the Revised 20394
Code;20395

       (K) Township constables or members of the police force of a 20396
township police district or joint police district, as provided in 20397
section 509.15 of the Revised Code;20398

       (L) Witnesses, as follows:20399

       (1) Fees and mileage in civil cases, as provided in section 20400
2335.06 of the Revised Code;20401

       (2) Fees and mileage in criminal cases, as provided in 20402
section 2335.08 of the Revised Code;20403

       (3) Fees in all cases or proceedings not specified in 20404
sections 2335.06 and 2335.08 of the Revised Code, as provided in 20405
section 2335.05 of the Revised Code;20406

       (4) Fees of municipal police officers in state felony cases, 20407
as provided in section 2335.17 of the Revised Code;20408

       (5) Fees in arbitration proceedings, as provided in section 20409
2711.06 of the Revised Code.20410

       (M) In an action to abate a nuisance or to enforce a local 20411
code relating to buildings, the expenses of operating and 20412
conserving the building, as provided in section 3767.41 of the 20413
Revised Code.20414

       Sec. 2901.01.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:20415

       (1) "Force" means any violence, compulsion, or constraint 20416
physically exerted by any means upon or against a person or thing.20417

       (2) "Deadly force" means any force that carries a substantial 20418
risk that it will proximately result in the death of any person.20419

       (3) "Physical harm to persons" means any injury, illness, or 20420
other physiological impairment, regardless of its gravity or 20421
duration.20422

       (4) "Physical harm to property" means any tangible or 20423
intangible damage to property that, in any degree, results in loss 20424
to its value or interferes with its use or enjoyment. "Physical 20425
harm to property" does not include wear and tear occasioned by 20426
normal use.20427

       (5) "Serious physical harm to persons" means any of the 20428
following:20429

       (a) Any mental illness or condition of such gravity as would 20430
normally require hospitalization or prolonged psychiatric 20431
treatment;20432

       (b) Any physical harm that carries a substantial risk of 20433
death;20434

       (c) Any physical harm that involves some permanent 20435
incapacity, whether partial or total, or that involves some 20436
temporary, substantial incapacity;20437

       (d) Any physical harm that involves some permanent 20438
disfigurement or that involves some temporary, serious 20439
disfigurement;20440

       (e) Any physical harm that involves acute pain of such 20441
duration as to result in substantial suffering or that involves 20442
any degree of prolonged or intractable pain.20443

       (6) "Serious physical harm to property" means any physical 20444
harm to property that does either of the following:20445

       (a) Results in substantial loss to the value of the property 20446
or requires a substantial amount of time, effort, or money to 20447
repair or replace;20448

       (b) Temporarily prevents the use or enjoyment of the property 20449
or substantially interferes with its use or enjoyment for an 20450
extended period of time.20451

       (7) "Risk" means a significant possibility, as contrasted 20452
with a remote possibility, that a certain result may occur or that 20453
certain circumstances may exist.20454

       (8) "Substantial risk" means a strong possibility, as 20455
contrasted with a remote or significant possibility, that a 20456
certain result may occur or that certain circumstances may exist.20457

       (9) "Offense of violence" means any of the following:20458

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 20459
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.21, 2903.211, 20460
2903.22, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.32, 2907.02, 2907.03, 20461
2907.05, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 20462
2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.04, 20463
2921.34, or 2923.161, of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 20464
2911.12, or of division (B)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of section 20465
2919.22 of the Revised Code or felonious sexual penetration in 20466
violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;20467

       (b) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 20468
or law of this or any other state or the United States, 20469
substantially equivalent to any section, division, or offense 20470
listed in division (A)(9)(a) of this section;20471

       (c) An offense, other than a traffic offense, under an 20472
existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other 20473
state or the United States, committed purposely or knowingly, and 20474
involving physical harm to persons or a risk of serious physical 20475
harm to persons;20476

       (d) A conspiracy or attempt to commit, or complicity in 20477
committing, any offense under division (A)(9)(a), (b), or (c) of 20478
this section.20479

       (10)(a) "Property" means any property, real or personal, 20480
tangible or intangible, and any interest or license in that 20481
property. "Property" includes, but is not limited to, cable 20482
television service, other telecommunications service, 20483
telecommunications devices, information service, computers, data, 20484
computer software, financial instruments associated with 20485
computers, other documents associated with computers, or copies of 20486
the documents, whether in machine or human readable form, trade 20487
secrets, trademarks, copyrights, patents, and property protected 20488
by a trademark, copyright, or patent. "Financial instruments 20489
associated with computers" include, but are not limited to, 20490
checks, drafts, warrants, money orders, notes of indebtedness, 20491
certificates of deposit, letters of credit, bills of credit or 20492
debit cards, financial transaction authorization mechanisms, 20493
marketable securities, or any computer system representations of 20494
any of them.20495

       (b) As used in division (A)(10) of this section, "trade 20496
secret" has the same meaning as in section 1333.61 of the Revised 20497
Code, and "telecommunications service" and "information service" 20498
have the same meanings as in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code.20499

       (c) As used in divisions (A)(10) and (13) of this section, 20500
"cable television service," "computer," "computer software," 20501
"computer system," "computer network," "data," and 20502
"telecommunications device" have the same meanings as in section 20503
2913.01 of the Revised Code.20504

       (11) "Law enforcement officer" means any of the following:20505

       (a) A sheriff, deputy sheriff, constable, police officer of a 20506
township or joint police district, marshal, deputy marshal, 20507
municipal police officer, member of a police force employed by a 20508
metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 20509
3735.31 of the Revised Code, or state highway patrol trooper;20510

       (b) An officer, agent, or employee of the state or any of its 20511
agencies, instrumentalities, or political subdivisions, upon whom, 20512
by statute, a duty to conserve the peace or to enforce all or 20513
certain laws is imposed and the authority to arrest violators is 20514
conferred, within the limits of that statutory duty and authority;20515

       (c) A mayor, in the mayor's capacity as chief conservator of 20516
the peace within the mayor's municipal corporation;20517

       (d) A member of an auxiliary police force organized by 20518
county, township, or municipal law enforcement authorities, within 20519
the scope of the member's appointment or commission;20520

       (e) A person lawfully called pursuant to section 311.07 of 20521
the Revised Code to aid a sheriff in keeping the peace, for the 20522
purposes and during the time when the person is called;20523

       (f) A person appointed by a mayor pursuant to section 737.01 20524
of the Revised Code as a special patrolling officer during riot or 20525
emergency, for the purposes and during the time when the person is 20526
appointed;20527

       (g) A member of the organized militia of this state or the 20528
armed forces of the United States, lawfully called to duty to aid 20529
civil authorities in keeping the peace or protect against domestic 20530
violence;20531

       (h) A prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, 20532
secret service officer, or municipal prosecutor;20533

       (i) A veterans' home police officer appointed under section 20534
5907.02 of the Revised Code;20535

       (j) A member of a police force employed by a regional transit 20536
authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised 20537
Code;20538

       (k) A special police officer employed by a port authority 20539
under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code;20540

       (l) The house of representatives sergeant at arms if the 20541
house of representatives sergeant at arms has arrest authority 20542
pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 101.311 of the Revised Code 20543
and an assistant house of representatives sergeant at arms;20544

       (m) The senate sergeant at arms and an assistant senate 20545
sergeant at arms;20546

       (n) A special police officer employed by a municipal 20547
corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal air 20548
navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in 20549
section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 20550
C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 20551
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 20552
transportation security administration of the United States 20553
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 20554
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended.20555

       (12) "Privilege" means an immunity, license, or right 20556
conferred by law, bestowed by express or implied grant, arising 20557
out of status, position, office, or relationship, or growing out 20558
of necessity.20559

       (13) "Contraband" means any property that is illegal for a 20560
person to acquire or possess under a statute, ordinance, or rule, 20561
or that a trier of fact lawfully determines to be illegal to 20562
possess by reason of the property's involvement in an offense. 20563
"Contraband" includes, but is not limited to, all of the 20564
following:20565

       (a) Any controlled substance, as defined in section 3719.01 20566
of the Revised Code, or any device or paraphernalia;20567

       (b) Any unlawful gambling device or paraphernalia;20568

       (c) Any dangerous ordnance or obscene material.20569

       (14) A person is "not guilty by reason of insanity" relative 20570
to a charge of an offense only if the person proves, in the manner 20571
specified in section 2901.05 of the Revised Code, that at the time 20572
of the commission of the offense, the person did not know, as a 20573
result of a severe mental disease or defect, the wrongfulness of 20574
the person's acts.20575

       (B)(1)(a) Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, as used 20576
in any section contained in Title XXIX of the Revised Code that 20577
sets forth a criminal offense, "person" includes all of the 20578
following:20579

       (i) An individual, corporation, business trust, estate, 20580
trust, partnership, and association;20581

       (ii) An unborn human who is viable.20582

       (b) As used in any section contained in Title XXIX of the 20583
Revised Code that does not set forth a criminal offense, "person" 20584
includes an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, 20585
trust, partnership, and association.20586

       (c) As used in division (B)(1)(a) of this section:20587

       (i) "Unborn human" means an individual organism of the 20588
species Homo sapiens from fertilization until live birth.20589

       (ii) "Viable" means the stage of development of a human fetus 20590
at which there is a realistic possibility of maintaining and 20591
nourishing of a life outside the womb with or without temporary 20592
artificial life-sustaining support.20593

       (2) Notwithstanding division (B)(1)(a) of this section, in no 20594
case shall the portion of the definition of the term "person" that 20595
is set forth in division (B)(1)(a)(ii) of this section be applied 20596
or construed in any section contained in Title XXIX of the Revised 20597
Code that sets forth a criminal offense in any of the following 20598
manners:20599

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2)(a) of 20600
this section, in a manner so that the offense prohibits or is 20601
construed as prohibiting any pregnant woman or her physician from 20602
performing an abortion with the consent of the pregnant woman, 20603
with the consent of the pregnant woman implied by law in a medical 20604
emergency, or with the approval of one otherwise authorized by law 20605
to consent to medical treatment on behalf of the pregnant woman. 20606
An abortion that violates the conditions described in the 20607
immediately preceding sentence may be punished as a violation of 20608
section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.05, 2903.06, 20609
2903.08, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.14, 2903.21, or 2903.22 20610
of the Revised Code, as applicable. An abortion that does not 20611
violate the conditions described in the second immediately 20612
preceding sentence, but that does violate section 2919.12, 20613
division (B) of section 2919.13, or section 2919.151, 2919.17, or 20614
2919.18 of the Revised Code, may be punished as a violation of 20615
section 2919.12, division (B) of section 2919.13, or section 20616
2919.151, 2919.17, or 2919.18 of the Revised Code, as applicable. 20617
Consent is sufficient under this division if it is of the type 20618
otherwise adequate to permit medical treatment to the pregnant 20619
woman, even if it does not comply with section 2919.12 of the 20620
Revised Code.20621

       (b) In a manner so that the offense is applied or is 20622
construed as applying to a woman based on an act or omission of 20623
the woman that occurs while she is or was pregnant and that 20624
results in any of the following:20625

       (i) Her delivery of a stillborn baby;20626

       (ii) Her causing, in any other manner, the death in utero of 20627
a viable, unborn human that she is carrying;20628

       (iii) Her causing the death of her child who is born alive 20629
but who dies from one or more injuries that are sustained while 20630
the child is a viable, unborn human;20631

       (iv) Her causing her child who is born alive to sustain one 20632
or more injuries while the child is a viable, unborn human;20633

       (v) Her causing, threatening to cause, or attempting to 20634
cause, in any other manner, an injury, illness, or other 20635
physiological impairment, regardless of its duration or gravity, 20636
or a mental illness or condition, regardless of its duration or 20637
gravity, to a viable, unborn human that she is carrying.20638

       (C) As used in Title XXIX of the Revised Code:20639

       (1) "School safety zone" consists of a school, school 20640
building, school premises, school activity, and school bus.20641

       (2) "School," "school building," and "school premises" have 20642
the same meanings as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.20643

       (3) "School activity" means any activity held under the 20644
auspices of a board of education of a city, local, exempted 20645
village, joint vocational, or cooperative education school 20646
district; a governing authority of a community school established 20647
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code; a governing board of an 20648
educational service center, or the governing body of a school for 20649
which the state board of education prescribes minimum standards 20650
under section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.20651

       (4) "School bus" has the same meaning as in section 4511.01 20652
of the Revised Code.20653

       Sec. 2903.33.  As used in sections 2903.33 to 2903.36 of the 20654
Revised Code:20655

       (A) "Care facility" means any of the following:20656

       (1) Any "home" as defined in section 3721.10 or 5111.20 of 20657
the Revised Code;20658

       (2) Any "residential facility" as defined in section 5123.19 20659
of the Revised Code;20660

       (3) Any institution or facility operated or provided by the 20661
department of mental health or by the department of developmental 20662
disabilities pursuant to sections 5119.02 and 5123.03 of the 20663
Revised Code;20664

       (4) Any "residential facility" as defined in section 5119.22 20665
of the Revised Code;20666

       (5) Any unit of any hospital, as defined in section 3701.01 20667
of the Revised Code, that provides the same services as a nursing 20668
home, as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;20669

       (6) Any institution, residence, or facility that provides, 20670
for a period of more than twenty-four hours, whether for a 20671
consideration or not, accommodations to one individual or two 20672
unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of 20673
others;20674

       (7) Any "adult care facility" as defined in section 5119.70 20675
of the Revised Code;20676

       (8) Any adult foster home certified under section 5119.692 of 20677
the Revised Code.20678

       (B) "Abuse" means knowingly causing physical harm or 20679
recklessly causing serious physical harm to a person by physical 20680
contact with the person or by the inappropriate use of a physical 20681
or chemical restraint, medication, or isolation on the person.20682

       (C)(1) "Gross neglect" means knowingly failing to provide a 20683
person with any treatment, care, goods, or service that is 20684
necessary to maintain the health or safety of the person when the 20685
failure results in physical harm or serious physical harm to the 20686
person.20687

       (2) "Neglect" means recklessly failing to provide a person 20688
with any treatment, care, goods, or service that is necessary to 20689
maintain the health or safety of the person when the failure 20690
results in serious physical harm to the person.20691

       (D) "Inappropriate use of a physical or chemical restraint, 20692
medication, or isolation" means the use of physical or chemical 20693
restraint, medication, or isolation as punishment, for staff 20694
convenience, excessively, as a substitute for treatment, or in 20695
quantities that preclude habilitation and treatment.20696

       Sec. 2907.29.  Every hospital of this state that offers 20697
organized emergency services shall provide that a physician, a 20698
physician assistant, a clinical nurse specialist, a certified 20699
nurse practitioner, or a certified nurse-midwife is available on 20700
call twenty-four hours each day for the examination of persons 20701
reported to any law enforcement agency to be victims of sexual 20702
offenses cognizable as violations of any provision of sections 20703
2907.02 to 2907.06 of the Revised Code. The physician, physician 20704
assistant, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse 20705
practitioner, or certified nurse-midwife, upon the request of any 20706
peace officer or prosecuting attorney and with the consent of the 20707
reported victim or upon the request of the reported victim, shall 20708
examine the person for the purposes of gathering physical evidence 20709
and shall complete any written documentation of the physical 20710
examination. The publicdirector of health council shall establish 20711
procedures for gathering evidence under this section.20712

       Each reported victim shall be informed of available venereal 20713
disease, pregnancy, medical, and psychiatric services.20714

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a minor may 20715
consent to examination under this section. The consent is not 20716
subject to disaffirmance because of minority, and consent of the 20717
parent, parents, or guardian of the minor is not required for an 20718
examination under this section. However, the hospital shall give 20719
written notice to the parent, parents, or guardian of a minor that 20720
an examination under this section has taken place. The parent, 20721
parents, or guardian of a minor giving consent under this section 20722
are not liable for payment for any services provided under this 20723
section without their consent.20724

       Sec. 2909.21. As used in sections 2909.21 to 2909.342909.3120725
of the Revised Code:20726

       (A) "Act of terrorism" means an act that is committed within 20727
or outside the territorial jurisdiction of this state or the 20728
United States, that constitutes a specified offense if committed 20729
in this state or constitutes an offense in any jurisdiction within 20730
or outside the territorial jurisdiction of the United States 20731
containing all of the essential elements of a specified offense, 20732
and that is intended to do one or more of the following:20733

       (1) Intimidate or coerce a civilian population;20734

       (2) Influence the policy of any government by intimidation or 20735
coercion;20736

       (3) Affect the conduct of any government by the act that 20737
constitutes the offense.20738

       (B) "Biological agent," "delivery system," "toxin," and 20739
"vector" have the same meanings as in section 2917.33 of the 20740
Revised Code.20741

       (C) "Biological weapon" means any biological agent, toxin, 20742
vector, or delivery system or combination of any biological agent 20743
or agents, any toxin or toxins, any vector or vectors, and any 20744
delivery system or systems.20745

       (D) "Chemical weapon" means any one or more of the following:20746

       (1) Any toxic chemical or precursor of a toxic chemical that 20747
is listed in Schedule 1, Schedule 2, or Schedule 3 of the 20748
international "Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, 20749
Production, Stockpiling and Use of Chemical Weapons and on their 20750
Destruction (CWC)," as entered into force on April 29, 1997;20751

       (2) A device specifically designed to cause death or other 20752
harm through the toxic properties of a toxic chemical or precursor 20753
identified in division (D)(1) of this section that would be 20754
created or released as a result of the employment of that device;20755

       (3) Any equipment specifically designed for use directly in 20756
connection with the employment of devices identified in division 20757
(D)(2) of this section.20758

       (E) "Radiological or nuclear weapon" means any device that is 20759
designed to create or release radiation or radioactivity at a 20760
level that is dangerous to human life or in order to cause serious 20761
physical harm to persons as a result of the radiation or 20762
radioactivity created or released.20763

       (F) "Explosive device" has the same meaning as in section 20764
2923.11 of the Revised Code.20765

       (G) "Key component of a binary or multicomponent chemical 20766
system" means the precursor that plays the most important role in 20767
determining the toxic properties of the final product and reacts 20768
rapidly with other chemicals in the binary or multicomponent 20769
chemical system.20770

       (H) "Material assistance" means any of the following:20771

       (1) Membership in an organization on the United States 20772
department of state terrorist exclusion list;20773

       (2) Use of the person's position of prominence within any 20774
country to persuade others to support an organization on the 20775
United States department of state terrorist exclusion list;20776

       (3) Knowingly soliciting funds or other things of value for 20777
an organization on the United States department of state terrorist 20778
exclusion list;20779

       (4) Solicitation of any individual for membership in an 20780
organization on the United States department of state terrorist 20781
exclusion list;20782

       (5) Commission of an act that the person knows, or reasonably 20783
should have known, affords material support or resources to an 20784
organization on the United States department of state terrorist 20785
exclusion list;20786

       (6) Hiring or compensating a person known by the person 20787
hiring or providing the compensation to be a member of an 20788
organization on the United States department of state terrorist 20789
exclusion list or a person known by the person hiring or providing 20790
the compensation to be engaged in planning, assisting, or carrying 20791
out an act of terrorism.20792

       (I) "Material support or resources" means currency, payment 20793
instruments, other financial securities, funds, transfer of funds, 20794
financial services, communications, lodging, training, safe 20795
houses, false documentation or identification, communications 20796
equipment, facilities, weapons, lethal substances, explosives, 20797
personnel, transportation, and other physical assets, except 20798
medicine or religious materials.20799

       (J)(I) "Payment instrument" means a check, draft, money 20800
order, traveler's check, cashier's check, teller's check, or other 20801
instrument or order for the transmission or payment of money, 20802
regardless of whether the item in question is negotiable.20803

       (K)(J) "Peace officer" and "prosecutor" have the same 20804
meanings as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.20805

       (L)(K) "Precursor" means any chemical reactant that takes 20806
part at any stage in the production by whatever method of a toxic 20807
chemical, including any key component of a binary or 20808
multicomponent chemical system.20809

       (M)(L) "Response costs" means all costs a political 20810
subdivision incurs as a result of, or in making any response to, a 20811
threat of a specified offense made as described in section 2909.23 20812
of the Revised Code or a specified offense committed as described 20813
in section 2909.24 of the Revised Code, including, but not limited 20814
to, all costs so incurred by any law enforcement officers, 20815
firefighters, rescue personnel, or emergency medical services 20816
personnel of the political subdivision and all costs so incurred 20817
by the political subdivision that relate to laboratory testing or 20818
hazardous material cleanup.20819

       (N)(M) "Specified offense" means any of the following:20820

       (1) A felony offense of violence, a violation of section 20821
2909.04, 2909.081, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2909.26, 2909.27, 20822
2909.28, 2909.29, or 2927.24 of the Revised Code, a felony of the 20823
first degree that is not a violation of any provision in Chapter 20824
2925. or 3719. of the Revised Code;20825

       (2) An attempt to commit, complicity in committing, or a 20826
conspiracy to commit an offense listed in division (N)(M)(1) of 20827
this section.20828

       (O)(N) "Toxic chemical" means any chemical that through its 20829
chemical action on life processes can cause death or serious 20830
physical harm to persons or animals, regardless of its origin or 20831
of its method of production and regardless of whether it is 20832
produced in facilities, in munitions, or elsewhere.20833

       (P) "United States department of state terrorist exclusion 20834
list" and "terrorist exclusion list" means the list compiled by 20835
the United States secretary of state, in consultation with or upon 20836
the request of the United States attorney general, that designates 20837
terrorist organizations for immigration purposes. "United States 20838
department of state terrorist exclusion list" and "terrorist 20839
exclusion list" also mean the list of terrorist organizations the 20840
director of public safety prepares pursuant to rules adopted in 20841
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that is 20842
comprised of lists of organizations officials of the United States 20843
government designate as terrorist, including the "terrorist 20844
exclusion list" described in this division, the list of "foreign 20845
terrorist organizations" the Unites States secretary of state 20846
prepares in consultation with the United States attorney general 20847
and the United States secretary of the treasury, and the list of 20848
charities that support terrorist activities, known as "designated 20849
charities," that the United States department of treasury 20850
compiles.20851

       (Q)(O) "Hazardous radioactive substance" means any substance 20852
or item that releases or is designed to release radiation or 20853
radioactivity at a level dangerous to human life.20854

       Sec. 2909.28.  (A) No person, with the intent to manufacture 20855
a chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear 20856
weapon, or explosive device, shall knowingly assemble or possess 20857
one or more toxins, toxic chemicals, precursors of toxic 20858
chemicals, vectors, biological agents, or hazardous radioactive 20859
substances, including, but not limited to, those listed in rules 20860
the director of public safety adopts, that may be used to 20861
manufacture a chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or 20862
nuclear weapon, or explosive device.20863

       (B) In a prosecution under this section, it is not necessary 20864
to allege or prove that the offender assembled or possessed all 20865
chemicals or substances necessary to manufacture a chemical 20866
weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear weapon, or 20867
explosive device. The assembly or possession of a single chemical 20868
or substance, with the intent to use that chemical or substance in 20869
the manufacture of a chemical weapon, biological weapon, 20870
radiological or nuclear weapon, or explosive device, is sufficient 20871
to violate this section.20872

       (C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of illegal 20873
assembly or possession of chemicals or substances for the 20874
manufacture of a chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological 20875
or nuclear weapon, or explosive device, which is a felony of the 20876
fourth degree.20877

       (D) This section does not apply when the items described in 20878
division (A) of this section are assembled or possessed for a 20879
purpose related to the performance of official duties related to 20880
any military purpose of the United States and any law enforcement 20881
purpose, including any domestic riot control purpose.20882

       Sec. 2927.023.  (A) As used in this section "authorized:20883

       (1) "Authorized recipient of tobacco products" means a person 20884
who is:20885

       (1)(a) Licensed as a cigarette wholesale dealer under section 20886
5743.15 of the Revised Code;20887

       (2)(b) Licensed as a retail dealer as long as the person 20888
purchases cigarettes with the appropriate tax stamp affixed;20889

       (3)(c) An export warehouse proprietor as defined in section 20890
5702 of the Internal Revenue Code;20891

       (4)(d) An operator of a customs bonded warehouse under 19 20892
U.S.C. 1311 or 19 U.S.C. 1555;20893

       (5)(e) An officer, employee, or agent of the federal 20894
government or of this state acting in the person's official 20895
capacity;20896

       (6)(f) A department, agency, instrumentality, or political 20897
subdivision of the federal government or of this state;20898

       (7)(g) A person having a consent for consumer shipment issued 20899
by the tax commissioner under section 5743.71 of the Revised Code.20900

       (2) "Motor carrier" has the same meaning as in section 20901
4923.01 of the Revised Code.20902

       The purpose of this section is to prevent the sale of 20903
cigarettes to minors and to ensure compliance with the Master 20904
Settlement Agreement, as defined in section 1346.01 of the Revised 20905
Code.20906

       (B)(1) No person shall cause to be shipped any cigarettes to 20907
any person in this state other than an authorized recipient of 20908
tobacco products.20909

       (2) No common carrier, contractmotor carrier, or other 20910
person shall knowingly transport cigarettes to any person in this 20911
state that the carrier or other person reasonably believes is not 20912
an authorized recipient of tobacco products. If cigarettes are 20913
transported to a home or residence, it shall be presumed that the 20914
common carrier, contractmotor carrier, or other person knew that 20915
the person to whom the cigarettes were delivered was not an 20916
authorized recipient of tobacco products.20917

       (C) No person engaged in the business of selling cigarettes 20918
who ships or causes to be shipped cigarettes to any person in this 20919
state in any container or wrapping other than the original 20920
container or wrapping of the cigarettes shall fail to plainly and 20921
visibly mark the exterior of the container or wrapping in which 20922
the cigarettes are shipped with the words "cigarettes."20923

       (D) A court shall impose a fine of up to one thousand dollars 20924
for each violation of division (B)(1), (B)(2), or (C) of this 20925
section.20926

       Sec. 2929.01.  As used in this chapter:20927

       (A)(1) "Alternative residential facility" means, subject to 20928
division (A)(2) of this section, any facility other than an 20929
offender's home or residence in which an offender is assigned to 20930
live and that satisfies all of the following criteria:20931

       (a) It provides programs through which the offender may seek 20932
or maintain employment or may receive education, training, 20933
treatment, or habilitation.20934

       (b) It has received the appropriate license or certificate 20935
for any specialized education, training, treatment, habilitation, 20936
or other service that it provides from the government agency that 20937
is responsible for licensing or certifying that type of education, 20938
training, treatment, habilitation, or service.20939

       (2) "Alternative residential facility" does not include a 20940
community-based correctional facility, jail, halfway house, or 20941
prison.20942

       (B) "Basic probation supervision" means a requirement that 20943
the offender maintain contact with a person appointed to supervise 20944
the offender in accordance with sanctions imposed by the court or 20945
imposed by the parole board pursuant to section 2967.28 of the 20946
Revised Code. "Basic probation supervision" includes basic parole 20947
supervision and basic post-release control supervision.20948

       (C) "Cocaine," "hashish," "L.S.D.," and "unit dose" have the 20949
same meanings as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.20950

       (D) "Community-based correctional facility" means a 20951
community-based correctional facility and program or district 20952
community-based correctional facility and program developed 20953
pursuant to sections 2301.51 to 2301.58 of the Revised Code.20954

       (E) "Community control sanction" means a sanction that is not 20955
a prison term and that is described in section 2929.15, 2929.16, 20956
2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code or a sanction that is not 20957
a jail term and that is described in section 2929.26, 2929.27, or 20958
2929.28 of the Revised Code. "Community control sanction" includes 20959
probation if the sentence involved was imposed for a felony that 20960
was committed prior to July 1, 1996, or if the sentence involved 20961
was imposed for a misdemeanor that was committed prior to January 20962
1, 2004.20963

       (F) "Controlled substance," "marihuana," "schedule I," and 20964
"schedule II" have the same meanings as in section 3719.01 of the 20965
Revised Code.20966

       (G) "Curfew" means a requirement that an offender during a 20967
specified period of time be at a designated place.20968

       (H) "Day reporting" means a sanction pursuant to which an 20969
offender is required each day to report to and leave a center or 20970
other approved reporting location at specified times in order to 20971
participate in work, education or training, treatment, and other 20972
approved programs at the center or outside the center.20973

       (I) "Deadly weapon" has the same meaning as in section 20974
2923.11 of the Revised Code.20975

       (J) "Drug and alcohol use monitoring" means a program under 20976
which an offender agrees to submit to random chemical analysis of 20977
the offender's blood, breath, or urine to determine whether the 20978
offender has ingested any alcohol or other drugs.20979

       (K) "Drug treatment program" means any program under which a 20980
person undergoes assessment and treatment designed to reduce or 20981
completely eliminate the person's physical or emotional reliance 20982
upon alcohol, another drug, or alcohol and another drug and under 20983
which the person may be required to receive assessment and 20984
treatment on an outpatient basis or may be required to reside at a 20985
facility other than the person's home or residence while 20986
undergoing assessment and treatment.20987

       (L) "Economic loss" means any economic detriment suffered by 20988
a victim as a direct and proximate result of the commission of an 20989
offense and includes any loss of income due to lost time at work 20990
because of any injury caused to the victim, and any property loss, 20991
medical cost, or funeral expense incurred as a result of the 20992
commission of the offense. "Economic loss" does not include 20993
non-economic loss or any punitive or exemplary damages.20994

       (M) "Education or training" includes study at, or in 20995
conjunction with a program offered by, a university, college, or 20996
technical college or vocational study and also includes the 20997
completion of primary school, secondary school, and literacy 20998
curricula or their equivalent.20999

       (N) "Firearm" has the same meaning as in section 2923.11 of 21000
the Revised Code.21001

       (O) "Halfway house" means a facility licensed by the division 21002
of parole and community services of the department of 21003
rehabilitation and correction pursuant to section 2967.14 of the 21004
Revised Code as a suitable facility for the care and treatment of 21005
adult offenders.21006

       (P) "House arrest" means a period of confinement of an 21007
offender that is in the offender's home or in other premises 21008
specified by the sentencing court or by the parole board pursuant 21009
to section 2967.28 of the Revised Code and during which all of the 21010
following apply:21011

       (1) The offender is required to remain in the offender's home 21012
or other specified premises for the specified period of 21013
confinement, except for periods of time during which the offender 21014
is at the offender's place of employment or at other premises as 21015
authorized by the sentencing court or by the parole board.21016

       (2) The offender is required to report periodically to a 21017
person designated by the court or parole board.21018

       (3) The offender is subject to any other restrictions and 21019
requirements that may be imposed by the sentencing court or by the 21020
parole board.21021

       (Q) "Intensive probation supervision" means a requirement 21022
that an offender maintain frequent contact with a person appointed 21023
by the court, or by the parole board pursuant to section 2967.28 21024
of the Revised Code, to supervise the offender while the offender 21025
is seeking or maintaining necessary employment and participating 21026
in training, education, and treatment programs as required in the 21027
court's or parole board's order. "Intensive probation supervision" 21028
includes intensive parole supervision and intensive post-release 21029
control supervision.21030

       (R) "Jail" means a jail, workhouse, minimum security jail, or 21031
other residential facility used for the confinement of alleged or 21032
convicted offenders that is operated by a political subdivision or 21033
a combination of political subdivisions of this state.21034

       (S) "Jail term" means the term in a jail that a sentencing 21035
court imposes or is authorized to impose pursuant to section 21036
2929.24 or 2929.25 of the Revised Code or pursuant to any other 21037
provision of the Revised Code that authorizes a term in a jail for 21038
a misdemeanor conviction.21039

       (T) "Mandatory jail term" means the term in a jail that a 21040
sentencing court is required to impose pursuant to division (G) of 21041
section 1547.99 of the Revised Code, division (E) of section 21042
2903.06 or division (D) of section 2903.08 of the Revised Code, 21043
division (E) or (G) of section 2929.24 of the Revised Code, 21044
division (B) of section 4510.14 of the Revised Code, or division 21045
(G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or pursuant to any 21046
other provision of the Revised Code that requires a term in a jail 21047
for a misdemeanor conviction.21048

       (U) "Delinquent child" has the same meaning as in section 21049
2152.02 of the Revised Code.21050

       (V) "License violation report" means a report that is made by 21051
a sentencing court, or by the parole board pursuant to section 21052
2967.28 of the Revised Code, to the regulatory or licensing board 21053
or agency that issued an offender a professional license or a 21054
license or permit to do business in this state and that specifies 21055
that the offender has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 21056
offense that may violate the conditions under which the offender's 21057
professional license or license or permit to do business in this 21058
state was granted or an offense for which the offender's 21059
professional license or license or permit to do business in this 21060
state may be revoked or suspended.21061

       (W) "Major drug offender" means an offender who is convicted 21062
of or pleads guilty to the possession of, sale of, or offer to 21063
sell any drug, compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that 21064
consists of or contains at least one thousand grams of hashish; at 21065
least one hundred grams of cocaine; at least two thousand five 21066
hundred unit doses or two hundred fifty grams of heroin; at least 21067
five thousand unit doses of L.S.D. or five hundred grams of L.S.D. 21068
in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate 21069
form; or at least one hundred times the amount of any other 21070
schedule I or II controlled substance other than marihuana that is 21071
necessary to commit a felony of the third degree pursuant to 21072
section 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, or 2925.11 of the Revised Code 21073
that is based on the possession of, sale of, or offer to sell the 21074
controlled substance.21075

       (X) "Mandatory prison term" means any of the following:21076

       (1) Subject to division (X)(2) of this section, the term in 21077
prison that must be imposed for the offenses or circumstances set 21078
forth in divisions (F)(1) to (8) or (F)(12) to (18) of section 21079
2929.13 and division (B) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code. 21080
Except as provided in sections 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 21081
and 2925.11 of the Revised Code, unless the maximum or another 21082
specific term is required under section 2929.14 or 2929.142 of the 21083
Revised Code, a mandatory prison term described in this division 21084
may be any prison term authorized for the level of offense.21085

       (2) The term of sixty or one hundred twenty days in prison 21086
that a sentencing court is required to impose for a third or 21087
fourth degree felony OVI offense pursuant to division (G)(2) of 21088
section 2929.13 and division (G)(1)(d) or (e) of section 4511.19 21089
of the Revised Code or the term of one, two, three, four, or five 21090
years in prison that a sentencing court is required to impose 21091
pursuant to division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 21092
Code.21093

       (3) The term in prison imposed pursuant to division (A) of 21094
section 2971.03 of the Revised Code for the offenses and in the 21095
circumstances described in division (F)(11) of section 2929.13 of 21096
the Revised Code or pursuant to division (B)(1)(a), (b), or (c), 21097
(B)(2)(a), (b), or (c), or (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of section 21098
2971.03 of the Revised Code and that term as modified or 21099
terminated pursuant to section 2971.05 of the Revised Code.21100

       (Y) "Monitored time" means a period of time during which an 21101
offender continues to be under the control of the sentencing court 21102
or parole board, subject to no conditions other than leading a 21103
law-abiding life.21104

       (Z) "Offender" means a person who, in this state, is 21105
convicted of or pleads guilty to a felony or a misdemeanor.21106

       (AA) "Prison" means a residential facility used for the 21107
confinement of convicted felony offenders that is under the 21108
control of the department of rehabilitation and correction but 21109
does not include a violation sanction center operated under 21110
authority of section 2967.141 of the Revised Code.21111

       (BB) "Prison term" includes either of the following sanctions 21112
for an offender:21113

       (1) A stated prison term;21114

       (2) A term in a prison shortened by, or with the approval of, 21115
the sentencing court pursuant to section 2929.143, 2929.20, 21116
2967.26, 5120.031, 5120.032, or 5120.073 of the Revised Code.21117

       (CC) "Repeat violent offender" means a person about whom both 21118
of the following apply:21119

       (1) The person is being sentenced for committing or for 21120
complicity in committing any of the following:21121

       (a) Aggravated murder, murder, any felony of the first or 21122
second degree that is an offense of violence, or an attempt to 21123
commit any of these offenses if the attempt is a felony of the 21124
first or second degree;21125

       (b) An offense under an existing or former law of this state, 21126
another state, or the United States that is or was substantially 21127
equivalent to an offense described in division (CC)(1)(a) of this 21128
section.21129

       (2) The person previously was convicted of or pleaded guilty 21130
to an offense described in division (CC)(1)(a) or (b) of this 21131
section.21132

       (DD) "Sanction" means any penalty imposed upon an offender 21133
who is convicted of or pleads guilty to an offense, as punishment 21134
for the offense. "Sanction" includes any sanction imposed pursuant 21135
to any provision of sections 2929.14 to 2929.18 or 2929.24 to 21136
2929.28 of the Revised Code.21137

       (EE) "Sentence" means the sanction or combination of 21138
sanctions imposed by the sentencing court on an offender who is 21139
convicted of or pleads guilty to an offense.21140

       (FF) "Stated prison term" means the prison term, mandatory 21141
prison term, or combination of all prison terms and mandatory 21142
prison terms imposed by the sentencing court pursuant to section 21143
2929.14, 2929.142, or 2971.03 of the Revised Code or under section 21144
2919.25 of the Revised Code. "Stated prison term" includes any 21145
credit received by the offender for time spent in jail awaiting 21146
trial, sentencing, or transfer to prison for the offense and any 21147
time spent under house arrest or house arrest with electronic 21148
monitoring imposed after earning credits pursuant to section 21149
2967.193 of the Revised Code. If an offender is serving a prison 21150
term as a risk reduction sentence under sections 2929.143 and 21151
5120.036 of the Revised Code, "stated prison term" includes any 21152
period of time by which the prison term imposed upon the offender 21153
is shortened by the offender's successful completion of all 21154
assessment and treatment or programming pursuant to those 21155
sections.21156

       (GG) "Victim-offender mediation" means a reconciliation or 21157
mediation program that involves an offender and the victim of the 21158
offense committed by the offender and that includes a meeting in 21159
which the offender and the victim may discuss the offense, discuss 21160
restitution, and consider other sanctions for the offense.21161

       (HH) "Fourth degree felony OVI offense" means a violation of 21162
division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code that, under 21163
division (G) of that section, is a felony of the fourth degree.21164

       (II) "Mandatory term of local incarceration" means the term 21165
of sixty or one hundred twenty days in a jail, a community-based 21166
correctional facility, a halfway house, or an alternative 21167
residential facility that a sentencing court may impose upon a 21168
person who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a fourth degree 21169
felony OVI offense pursuant to division (G)(1) of section 2929.13 21170
of the Revised Code and division (G)(1)(d) or (e) of section 21171
4511.19 of the Revised Code.21172

       (JJ) "Designated homicide, assault, or kidnapping offense," 21173
"violent sex offense," "sexual motivation specification," 21174
"sexually violent offense," "sexually violent predator," and 21175
"sexually violent predator specification" have the same meanings 21176
as in section 2971.01 of the Revised Code.21177

       (KK) "Sexually oriented offense," "child-victim oriented 21178
offense," and "tier III sex offender/child-victim offender," have 21179
the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the Revised Code.21180

       (LL) An offense is "committed in the vicinity of a child" if 21181
the offender commits the offense within thirty feet of or within 21182
the same residential unit as a child who is under eighteen years 21183
of age, regardless of whether the offender knows the age of the 21184
child or whether the offender knows the offense is being committed 21185
within thirty feet of or within the same residential unit as the 21186
child and regardless of whether the child actually views the 21187
commission of the offense.21188

       (MM) "Family or household member" has the same meaning as in 21189
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code.21190

       (NN) "Motor vehicle" and "manufactured home" have the same 21191
meanings as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.21192

       (OO) "Detention" and "detention facility" have the same 21193
meanings as in section 2921.01 of the Revised Code.21194

       (PP) "Third degree felony OVI offense" means a violation of 21195
division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code that, under 21196
division (G) of that section, is a felony of the third degree.21197

       (QQ) "Random drug testing" has the same meaning as in section 21198
5120.63 of the Revised Code.21199

       (RR) "Felony sex offense" has the same meaning as in section 21200
2967.28 of the Revised Code.21201

       (SS) "Body armor" has the same meaning as in section 21202
2941.1411 of the Revised Code.21203

       (TT) "Electronic monitoring" means monitoring through the use 21204
of an electronic monitoring device.21205

       (UU) "Electronic monitoring device" means any of the 21206
following:21207

        (1) Any device that can be operated by electrical or battery 21208
power and that conforms with all of the following:21209

        (a) The device has a transmitter that can be attached to a 21210
person, that will transmit a specified signal to a receiver of the 21211
type described in division (UU)(1)(b) of this section if the 21212
transmitter is removed from the person, turned off, or altered in 21213
any manner without prior court approval in relation to electronic 21214
monitoring or without prior approval of the department of 21215
rehabilitation and correction in relation to the use of an 21216
electronic monitoring device for an inmate on transitional control 21217
or otherwise is tampered with, that can transmit continuously and 21218
periodically a signal to that receiver when the person is within a 21219
specified distance from the receiver, and that can transmit an 21220
appropriate signal to that receiver if the person to whom it is 21221
attached travels a specified distance from that receiver.21222

        (b) The device has a receiver that can receive continuously 21223
the signals transmitted by a transmitter of the type described in 21224
division (UU)(1)(a) of this section, can transmit continuously 21225
those signals by a wireless or landline telephone connection to a 21226
central monitoring computer of the type described in division 21227
(UU)(1)(c) of this section, and can transmit continuously an 21228
appropriate signal to that central monitoring computer if the 21229
device has been turned off or altered without prior court approval 21230
or otherwise tampered with. The device is designed specifically 21231
for use in electronic monitoring, is not a converted wireless 21232
phone or another tracking device that is clearly not designed for 21233
electronic monitoring, and provides a means of text-based or voice 21234
communication with the person.21235

        (c) The device has a central monitoring computer that can 21236
receive continuously the signals transmitted by a wireless or 21237
landline telephone connection by a receiver of the type described 21238
in division (UU)(1)(b) of this section and can monitor 21239
continuously the person to whom an electronic monitoring device of 21240
the type described in division (UU)(1)(a) of this section is 21241
attached.21242

        (2) Any device that is not a device of the type described in 21243
division (UU)(1) of this section and that conforms with all of the 21244
following:21245

       (a) The device includes a transmitter and receiver that can 21246
monitor and determine the location of a subject person at any 21247
time, or at a designated point in time, through the use of a 21248
central monitoring computer or through other electronic means.21249

        (b) The device includes a transmitter and receiver that can 21250
determine at any time, or at a designated point in time, through 21251
the use of a central monitoring computer or other electronic means 21252
the fact that the transmitter is turned off or altered in any 21253
manner without prior approval of the court in relation to the 21254
electronic monitoring or without prior approval of the department 21255
of rehabilitation and correction in relation to the use of an 21256
electronic monitoring device for an inmate on transitional control 21257
or otherwise is tampered with.21258

        (3) Any type of technology that can adequately track or 21259
determine the location of a subject person at any time and that is 21260
approved by the director of rehabilitation and correction, 21261
including, but not limited to, any satellite technology, voice 21262
tracking system, or retinal scanning system that is so approved.21263

       (VV) "Non-economic loss" means nonpecuniary harm suffered by 21264
a victim of an offense as a result of or related to the commission 21265
of the offense, including, but not limited to, pain and suffering; 21266
loss of society, consortium, companionship, care, assistance, 21267
attention, protection, advice, guidance, counsel, instruction, 21268
training, or education; mental anguish; and any other intangible 21269
loss.21270

       (WW) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 21271
of the Revised Code.21272

       (XX) "Continuous alcohol monitoring" means the ability to 21273
automatically test and periodically transmit alcohol consumption 21274
levels and tamper attempts at least every hour, regardless of the 21275
location of the person who is being monitored.21276

       (YY) A person is "adjudicated a sexually violent predator" if 21277
the person is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violent sex 21278
offense and also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a sexually 21279
violent predator specification that was included in the 21280
indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging that 21281
violent sex offense or if the person is convicted of or pleads 21282
guilty to a designated homicide, assault, or kidnapping offense 21283
and also is convicted of or pleads guilty to both a sexual 21284
motivation specification and a sexually violent predator 21285
specification that were included in the indictment, count in the 21286
indictment, or information charging that designated homicide, 21287
assault, or kidnapping offense.21288

       (ZZ) An offense is "committed in proximity to a school" if 21289
the offender commits the offense in a school safety zone or within 21290
five hundred feet of any school building or the boundaries of any 21291
school premises, regardless of whether the offender knows the 21292
offense is being committed in a school safety zone or within five 21293
hundred feet of any school building or the boundaries of any 21294
school premises.21295

       (AAA) "Human trafficking" means a scheme or plan to which all 21296
of the following apply:21297

       (1) Its object is to subject a victim or victims to 21298
involuntary servitude, as defined in section 2905.31 of the 21299
Revised Code, to compel a victim or victims to engage in sexual 21300
activity for hire, to engage in a performance that is obscene, 21301
sexually oriented, or nudity oriented, or to be a model or 21302
participant in the production of material that is obscene, 21303
sexually oriented, or nudity oriented.21304

       (2) It involves at least two felony offenses, whether or not 21305
there has been a prior conviction for any of the felony offenses, 21306
to which all of the following apply:21307

       (a) Each of the felony offenses is a violation of section 21308
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.32, 2907.21, 2907.22, or 2923.32, division 21309
(A)(1) or (2) of section 2907.323, or division (B)(1), (2), (3), 21310
(4), or (5) of section 2919.22 of the Revised Code or is a 21311
violation of a law of any state other than this state that is 21312
substantially similar to any of the sections or divisions of the 21313
Revised Code identified in this division.21314

       (b) At least one of the felony offenses was committed in this 21315
state.21316

       (c) The felony offenses are related to the same scheme or 21317
plan and are not isolated instances.21318

       (BBB) "Material," "nudity," "obscene," "performance," and 21319
"sexual activity" have the same meanings as in section 2907.01 of 21320
the Revised Code.21321

       (CCC) "Material that is obscene, sexually oriented, or nudity 21322
oriented" means any material that is obscene, that shows a person 21323
participating or engaging in sexual activity, masturbation, or 21324
bestiality, or that shows a person in a state of nudity.21325

       (DDD) "Performance that is obscene, sexually oriented, or 21326
nudity oriented" means any performance that is obscene, that shows 21327
a person participating or engaging in sexual activity, 21328
masturbation, or bestiality, or that shows a person in a state of 21329
nudity.21330

       Sec. 2929.19.  (A) The court shall hold a sentencing hearing 21331
before imposing a sentence under this chapter upon an offender who 21332
was convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony and before 21333
resentencing an offender who was convicted of or pleaded guilty to 21334
a felony and whose case was remanded pursuant to section 2953.07 21335
or 2953.08 of the Revised Code. At the hearing, the offender, the 21336
prosecuting attorney, the victim or the victim's representative in 21337
accordance with section 2930.14 of the Revised Code, and, with the 21338
approval of the court, any other person may present information 21339
relevant to the imposition of sentence in the case. The court 21340
shall inform the offender of the verdict of the jury or finding of 21341
the court and ask the offender whether the offender has anything 21342
to say as to why sentence should not be imposed upon the offender.21343

       (B)(1) At the sentencing hearing, the court, before imposing 21344
sentence, shall consider the record, any information presented at 21345
the hearing by any person pursuant to division (A) of this 21346
section, and, if one was prepared, the presentence investigation 21347
report made pursuant to section 2951.03 of the Revised Code or 21348
Criminal Rule 32.2, and any victim impact statement made pursuant 21349
to section 2947.051 of the Revised Code.21350

       (2) Subject to division (B)(3) of this section, if the 21351
sentencing court determines at the sentencing hearing that a 21352
prison term is necessary or required, the court shall do all of 21353
the following:21354

       (a) Impose a stated prison term and, if the court imposes a 21355
mandatory prison term, notify the offender that the prison term is 21356
a mandatory prison term;21357

       (b) In addition to any other information, include in the 21358
sentencing entry the name and section reference to the offense or 21359
offenses, the sentence or sentences imposed and whether the 21360
sentence or sentences contain mandatory prison terms, if sentences 21361
are imposed for multiple counts whether the sentences are to be 21362
served concurrently or consecutively, and the name and section 21363
reference of any specification or specifications for which 21364
sentence is imposed and the sentence or sentences imposed for the 21365
specification or specifications;21366

       (c) Notify the offender that the offender will be supervised 21367
under section 2967.28 of the Revised Code after the offender 21368
leaves prison if the offender is being sentenced for a felony of 21369
the first degree or second degree, for a felony sex offense, or 21370
for a felony of the third degree that is not a felony sex offense 21371
and in the commission of which the offender caused or threatened 21372
to cause physical harm to a person. This division applies with 21373
respect to all prison terms imposed for an offense of a type 21374
described in this division, including a term imposed for any such 21375
offense that is a risk reduction sentence, as defined in section 21376
2967.28 of the Revised Code. If a court imposes a sentence 21377
including a prison term of a type described in division (B)(2)(c) 21378
of this section on or after July 11, 2006, the failure of a court 21379
to notify the offender pursuant to division (B)(2)(c) of this 21380
section that the offender will be supervised under section 2967.28 21381
of the Revised Code after the offender leaves prison or to include 21382
in the judgment of conviction entered on the journal a statement 21383
to that effect does not negate, limit, or otherwise affect the 21384
mandatory period of supervision that is required for the offender 21385
under division (B) of section 2967.28 of the Revised Code. Section 21386
2929.191 of the Revised Code applies if, prior to July 11, 2006, a 21387
court imposed a sentence including a prison term of a type 21388
described in division (B)(2)(c) of this section and failed to 21389
notify the offender pursuant to division (B)(2)(c) of this section 21390
regarding post-release control or to include in the judgment of 21391
conviction entered on the journal or in the sentence a statement 21392
regarding post-release control.21393

       (d) Notify the offender that the offender may be supervised 21394
under section 2967.28 of the Revised Code after the offender 21395
leaves prison if the offender is being sentenced for a felony of 21396
the third, fourth, or fifth degree that is not subject to division 21397
(B)(2)(c) of this section. This division applies with respect to 21398
all prison terms imposed for an offense of a type described in 21399
this division, including a term imposed for any such offense that 21400
is a risk reduction sentence, as defined in section 2967.28 of the 21401
Revised Code. Section 2929.191 of the Revised Code applies if, 21402
prior to July 11, 2006, a court imposed a sentence including a 21403
prison term of a type described in division (B)(2)(d) of this 21404
section and failed to notify the offender pursuant to division 21405
(B)(2)(d) of this section regarding post-release control or to 21406
include in the judgment of conviction entered on the journal or in 21407
the sentence a statement regarding post-release control.21408

       (e) Notify the offender that, if a period of supervision is 21409
imposed following the offender's release from prison, as described 21410
in division (B)(2)(c) or (d) of this section, and if the offender 21411
violates that supervision or a condition of post-release control 21412
imposed under division (B) of section 2967.131 of the Revised 21413
Code, the parole board may impose a prison term, as part of the 21414
sentence, of up to one-half of the stated prison term originally 21415
imposed upon the offender. If a court imposes a sentence including 21416
a prison term on or after July 11, 2006, the failure of a court to 21417
notify the offender pursuant to division (B)(2)(e) of this section 21418
that the parole board may impose a prison term as described in 21419
division (B)(2)(e) of this section for a violation of that 21420
supervision or a condition of post-release control imposed under 21421
division (B) of section 2967.131 of the Revised Code or to include 21422
in the judgment of conviction entered on the journal a statement 21423
to that effect does not negate, limit, or otherwise affect the 21424
authority of the parole board to so impose a prison term for a 21425
violation of that nature if, pursuant to division (D)(1) of 21426
section 2967.28 of the Revised Code, the parole board notifies the 21427
offender prior to the offender's release of the board's authority 21428
to so impose a prison term. Section 2929.191 of the Revised Code 21429
applies if, prior to July 11, 2006, a court imposed a sentence 21430
including a prison term and failed to notify the offender pursuant 21431
to division (B)(2)(e) of this section regarding the possibility of 21432
the parole board imposing a prison term for a violation of 21433
supervision or a condition of post-release control.21434

       (f) Require that the offender not ingest or be injected with 21435
a drug of abuse and submit to random drug testing as provided in 21436
section 341.26, 753.33, or 5120.63 of the Revised Code, whichever 21437
is applicable to the offender who is serving a prison term, and 21438
require that the results of the drug test administered under any 21439
of those sections indicate that the offender did not ingest or was 21440
not injected with a drug of abuse.21441

       (g) Include in the offender's sentence a statement notifying 21442
the offender of the information described in division (F)(3) of 21443
section 2929.14 of the Revised Code regarding earned credits under 21444
section 2967.193 of the Revised Code.21445

       (h)(i) Determine, notify the offender of, and include in the 21446
sentencing entry the number of days that the offender has been 21447
confined for any reason arising out of the offense for which the 21448
offender is being sentenced and by which the department of 21449
rehabilitation and correction must reduce the stated prison term 21450
under section 2967.191 of the Revised Code. The court's 21451
calculation shall not include the number of days, if any, that the 21452
offender previously served in the custody of the department of 21453
rehabilitation and correction arising out of the offense for which 21454
the prisoner was convicted and sentenced.21455

        (ii) In making a determination under division (B)(2)(h)(i) of 21456
this section, the court shall consider the arguments of the 21457
parties and conduct a hearing if one is requested.21458

       (iii) The sentencing court retains continuing jurisdiction to 21459
correct any error not previously raised at sentencing in making a 21460
determination under division (B)(2)(h)(i) of this section. The 21461
offender may, at any time after sentencing, file a motion in the 21462
sentencing court to correct any error made in making a 21463
determination under division (B)(2)(h)(i) of this section, and the 21464
court may in its discretion grant or deny that motion. If the 21465
court changes the number of days in its determination or 21466
redetermination, the court shall cause the entry granting that 21467
change to be delivered to the department of rehabilitation and 21468
correction without delay. Sections 2931.15 and 2953.21 of the 21469
Revised Code do not apply to a motion made under this section.21470

        (iv) An inaccurate determination under division (B)(2)(h)(i) 21471
of this section is not grounds for setting aside the offender's 21472
conviction or sentence and does not otherwise render the sentence 21473
void or voidable.21474

       (3)(a) The court shall include in the offender's sentence a 21475
statement that the offender is a tier III sex 21476
offender/child-victim offender, and the court shall comply with 21477
the requirements of section 2950.03 of the Revised Code if any of 21478
the following apply:21479

       (i) The offender is being sentenced for a violent sex offense 21480
or designated homicide, assault, or kidnapping offense that the 21481
offender committed on or after January 1, 1997, and the offender 21482
is adjudicated a sexually violent predator in relation to that 21483
offense.21484

       (ii) The offender is being sentenced for a sexually oriented 21485
offense that the offender committed on or after January 1, 1997, 21486
and the offender is a tier III sex offender/child-victim offender 21487
relative to that offense.21488

       (iii) The offender is being sentenced on or after July 31, 21489
2003, for a child-victim oriented offense, and the offender is a 21490
tier III sex offender/child-victim offender relative to that 21491
offense.21492

       (iv) The offender is being sentenced under section 2971.03 of 21493
the Revised Code for a violation of division (A)(1)(b) of section 21494
2907.02 of the Revised Code committed on or after January 2, 2007.21495

       (v) The offender is sentenced to a term of life without 21496
parole under division (B) of section 2907.02 of the Revised Code.21497

       (vi) The offender is being sentenced for attempted rape 21498
committed on or after January 2, 2007, and a specification of the 21499
type described in section 2941.1418, 2941.1419, or 2941.1420 of 21500
the Revised Code.21501

       (vii) The offender is being sentenced under division 21502
(B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of section 2971.03 of the Revised Code 21503
for an offense described in those divisions committed on or after 21504
January 1, 2008.21505

       (b) Additionally, if any criterion set forth in divisions 21506
(B)(3)(a)(i) to (vii) of this section is satisfied, in the 21507
circumstances described in division (E) of section 2929.14 of the 21508
Revised Code, the court shall impose sentence on the offender as 21509
described in that division.21510

       (4) If the sentencing court determines at the sentencing 21511
hearing that a community control sanction should be imposed and 21512
the court is not prohibited from imposing a community control 21513
sanction, the court shall impose a community control sanction. The 21514
court shall notify the offender that, if the conditions of the 21515
sanction are violated, if the offender commits a violation of any 21516
law, or if the offender leaves this state without the permission 21517
of the court or the offender's probation officer, the court may 21518
impose a longer time under the same sanction, may impose a more 21519
restrictive sanction, or may impose a prison term on the offender 21520
and shall indicate the specific prison term that may be imposed as 21521
a sanction for the violation, as selected by the court from the 21522
range of prison terms for the offense pursuant to section 2929.14 21523
of the Revised Code.21524

       (5) Before imposing a financial sanction under section 21525
2929.18 of the Revised Code or a fine under section 2929.32 of the 21526
Revised Code, the court shall consider the offender's present and 21527
future ability to pay the amount of the sanction or fine.21528

       (6) If the sentencing court sentences the offender to a 21529
sanction of confinement pursuant to section 2929.14 or 2929.16 of 21530
the Revised Code that is to be served in a local detention 21531
facility, as defined in section 2929.36 of the Revised Code, and 21532
if the local detention facility is covered by a policy adopted 21533
pursuant to section 307.93, 341.14, 341.19, 341.21, 341.23, 21534
753.02, 753.04, 753.16, 2301.56, or 2947.19 of the Revised Code 21535
and section 2929.37 of the Revised Code, both of the following 21536
apply:21537

       (a) The court shall specify both of the following as part of 21538
the sentence:21539

       (i) If the offender is presented with an itemized bill 21540
pursuant to section 2929.37 of the Revised Code for payment of the 21541
costs of confinement, the offender is required to pay the bill in 21542
accordance with that section.21543

       (ii) If the offender does not dispute the bill described in 21544
division (B)(6)(a)(i) of this section and does not pay the bill by 21545
the times specified in section 2929.37 of the Revised Code, the 21546
clerk of the court may issue a certificate of judgment against the 21547
offender as described in that section.21548

       (b) The sentence automatically includes any certificate of 21549
judgment issued as described in division (B)(6)(a)(ii) of this 21550
section.21551

       (7) The failure of the court to notify the offender that a 21552
prison term is a mandatory prison term pursuant to division 21553
(B)(2)(a) of this section or to include in the sentencing entry 21554
any information required by division (B)(2)(b) of this section 21555
does not affect the validity of the imposed sentence or sentences. 21556
If the sentencing court notifies the offender at the sentencing 21557
hearing that a prison term is mandatory but the sentencing entry 21558
does not specify that the prison term is mandatory, the court may 21559
complete a corrected journal entry and send copies of the 21560
corrected entry to the offender and the department of 21561
rehabilitation and correction, or, at the request of the state, 21562
the court shall complete a corrected journal entry and send copies 21563
of the corrected entry to the offender and department of 21564
rehabilitation and correction.21565

       (C)(1) If the offender is being sentenced for a fourth degree 21566
felony OVI offense under division (G)(1) of section 2929.13 of the 21567
Revised Code, the court shall impose the mandatory term of local 21568
incarceration in accordance with that division, shall impose a 21569
mandatory fine in accordance with division (B)(3) of section 21570
2929.18 of the Revised Code, and, in addition, may impose 21571
additional sanctions as specified in sections 2929.15, 2929.16, 21572
2929.17, and 2929.18 of the Revised Code. The court shall not 21573
impose a prison term on the offender except that the court may 21574
impose a prison term upon the offender as provided in division 21575
(A)(1) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code.21576

       (2) If the offender is being sentenced for a third or fourth 21577
degree felony OVI offense under division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 21578
of the Revised Code, the court shall impose the mandatory prison 21579
term in accordance with that division, shall impose a mandatory 21580
fine in accordance with division (B)(3) of section 2929.18 of the 21581
Revised Code, and, in addition, may impose an additional prison 21582
term as specified in section 2929.14 of the Revised Code. In 21583
addition to the mandatory prison term or mandatory prison term and 21584
additional prison term the court imposes, the court also may 21585
impose a community control sanction on the offender, but the 21586
offender shall serve all of the prison terms so imposed prior to 21587
serving the community control sanction.21588

       (D) The sentencing court, pursuant to division (I)(1) of 21589
section 2929.14 of the Revised Code, may recommend placement of 21590
the offender in a program of shock incarceration under section 21591
5120.031 of the Revised Code or an intensive program prison under 21592
section 5120.032 of the Revised Code, disapprove placement of the 21593
offender in a program or prison of that nature, or make no 21594
recommendation. If the court recommends or disapproves placement, 21595
it shall make a finding that gives its reasons for its 21596
recommendation or disapproval.21597

       Sec. 2935.01.  As used in this chapter:21598

       (A) "Magistrate" has the same meaning as in section 2931.01 21599
of the Revised Code.21600

       (B) "Peace officer" includes, except as provided in section 21601
2935.081 of the Revised Code, a sheriff; deputy sheriff; marshal; 21602
deputy marshal; member of the organized police department of any 21603
municipal corporation, including a member of the organized police 21604
department of a municipal corporation in an adjoining state 21605
serving in Ohio under a contract pursuant to section 737.04 of the 21606
Revised Code; member of a police force employed by a metropolitan 21607
housing authority under division (D) of section 3735.31 of the 21608
Revised Code; member of a police force employed by a regional 21609
transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.05 of the 21610
Revised Code; state university law enforcement officer appointed 21611
under section 3345.04 of the Revised Code; enforcement agent of 21612
the department of public safety designated under section 5502.14 21613
of the Revised Code; employee of the department of taxation to 21614
whom investigation powers have been delegated under section 21615
5743.45 of the Revised Code; employee of the department of natural 21616
resources who is a natural resources law enforcement staff officer 21617
designated pursuant to section 1501.013 of the Revised Code, a 21618
forest officer designated pursuant to section 1503.29 of the 21619
Revised Code, a preserve officer designated pursuant to section 21620
1517.10 of the Revised Code, a wildlife officer designated 21621
pursuant to section 1531.13 of the Revised Code, a park officer 21622
designated pursuant to section 1541.10 of the Revised Code, or a 21623
state watercraft officer designated pursuant to section 1547.521 21624
of the Revised Code; individual designated to perform law 21625
enforcement duties under section 511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of 21626
the Revised Code; veterans' home police officer appointed under 21627
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code; special police officer 21628
employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of 21629
the Revised Code; police constable of any township; police officer 21630
of a township or joint police district; a special police officer 21631
employed by a municipal corporation at a municipal airport, or 21632
other municipal air navigation facility, that has scheduled 21633
operations, as defined in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of 21634
Federal Regulations, 14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is 21635
required to be under a security program and is governed by 21636
aviation security rules of the transportation security 21637
administration of the United States department of transportation 21638
as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. of Title 49 of the Code of 21639
Federal Regulations, as amended; the house of representatives 21640
sergeant at arms if the house of representatives sergeant at arms 21641
has arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 21642
101.311 of the Revised Code; and an assistant house of 21643
representatives sergeant at arms; the senate sergeant at arms; an 21644
assistant senate sergeant at arms; officer or employee of the 21645
bureau of criminal identification and investigation established 21646
pursuant to section 109.51 of the Revised Code who has been 21647
awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace 21648
officer training commission attesting to the officer's or 21649
employee's satisfactory completion of an approved state, county, 21650
municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic 21651
training program and who is providing assistance upon request to a 21652
law enforcement officer or emergency assistance to a peace officer 21653
pursuant to section 109.54 or 109.541 of the Revised Code; a state 21654
fire marshal law enforcement officer described in division (A)(23) 21655
of section 109.71 of the Revised Code; and, for the purpose of 21656
arrests within those areas, for the purposes of Chapter 5503. of 21657
the Revised Code, and the filing of and service of process 21658
relating to those offenses witnessed or investigated by them, the 21659
superintendent and troopers of the state highway patrol.21660

       (C) "Prosecutor" includes the county prosecuting attorney and 21661
any assistant prosecutor designated to assist the county 21662
prosecuting attorney, and, in the case of courts inferior to 21663
courts of common pleas, includes the village solicitor, city 21664
director of law, or similar chief legal officer of a municipal 21665
corporation, any such officer's assistants, or any attorney 21666
designated by the prosecuting attorney of the county to appear for 21667
the prosecution of a given case.21668

       (D) "Offense," except where the context specifically 21669
indicates otherwise, includes felonies, misdemeanors, and 21670
violations of ordinances of municipal corporations and other 21671
public bodies authorized by law to adopt penal regulations.21672

       Sec. 2935.03.  (A)(1) A sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, 21673
deputy marshal, municipal police officer, township constable, 21674
police officer of a township or joint police district, member of a 21675
police force employed by a metropolitan housing authority under 21676
division (D) of section 3735.31 of the Revised Code, member of a 21677
police force employed by a regional transit authority under 21678
division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised Code, state 21679
university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 21680
of the Revised Code, veterans' home police officer appointed under 21681
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code, special police officer 21682
employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of 21683
the Revised Code, or a special police officer employed by a 21684
municipal corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal 21685
air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined 21686
in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 21687
14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 21688
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 21689
transportation security administration of the United States 21690
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 21691
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended, shall 21692
arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a person found 21693
violating, within the limits of the political subdivision, 21694
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 21695
authority facilities or areas of a municipal corporation that have 21696
been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a municipal 21697
corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, college, 21698
university, veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. of the 21699
Revised Code, port authority, or municipal airport or other 21700
municipal air navigation facility, in which the peace officer is 21701
appointed, employed, or elected, a law of this state, an ordinance 21702
of a municipal corporation, or a resolution of a township.21703

       (2) A peace officer of the department of natural resources, a 21704
state fire marshal law enforcement officer described in division 21705
(A)(23) of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, or an individual 21706
designated to perform law enforcement duties under section 21707
511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code shall arrest and 21708
detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a person found violating, 21709
within the limits of the peace officer's, state fire marshal law 21710
enforcement officer's, or individual's territorial jurisdiction, a 21711
law of this state.21712

       (3) The house sergeant at arms, if the house sergeant at arms 21713
has arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 21714
101.311 of the Revised Code, and an assistant house sergeant at 21715
arms shall arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a 21716
person found violating, within the limits of the sergeant at 21717
arms's or assistant sergeant at arms's territorial jurisdiction 21718
specified in division (D)(1)(a) of section 101.311 of the Revised 21719
Code or while providing security pursuant to division (D)(1)(f) of 21720
section 101.311 of the Revised Code, a law of this state, an 21721
ordinance of a municipal corporation, or a resolution of a 21722
township.21723

       (4) The senate sergeant at arms and an assistant senate 21724
sergeant at arms shall arrest and detain, until a warrant can be 21725
obtained, a person found violating, within the limits of the 21726
sergeant at arms's or assistant sergeant at arms's territorial 21727
jurisdiction specified in division (B) of section 101.312 of the 21728
Revised Code, a law of this state, an ordinance of a municipal 21729
corporation, or a resolution of a township.21730

       (B)(1) When there is reasonable ground to believe that an 21731
offense of violence, the offense of criminal child enticement as 21732
defined in section 2905.05 of the Revised Code, the offense of 21733
public indecency as defined in section 2907.09 of the Revised 21734
Code, the offense of domestic violence as defined in section 21735
2919.25 of the Revised Code, the offense of violating a protection 21736
order as defined in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code, the 21737
offense of menacing by stalking as defined in section 2903.211 of 21738
the Revised Code, the offense of aggravated trespass as defined in 21739
section 2911.211 of the Revised Code, a theft offense as defined 21740
in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code, or a felony drug abuse 21741
offense as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, has 21742
been committed within the limits of the political subdivision, 21743
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 21744
authority facilities or those areas of a municipal corporation 21745
that have been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a 21746
municipal corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, 21747
college, university, veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. 21748
of the Revised Code, port authority, or municipal airport or other 21749
municipal air navigation facility, in which the peace officer is 21750
appointed, employed, or elected or within the limits of the 21751
territorial jurisdiction of the peace officer, a peace officer 21752
described in division (A) of this section may arrest and detain 21753
until a warrant can be obtained any person who the peace officer 21754
has reasonable cause to believe is guilty of the violation.21755

       (2) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, the 21756
execution of any of the following constitutes reasonable ground to 21757
believe that the offense alleged in the statement was committed 21758
and reasonable cause to believe that the person alleged in the 21759
statement to have committed the offense is guilty of the 21760
violation:21761

       (a) A written statement by a person alleging that an alleged 21762
offender has committed the offense of menacing by stalking or 21763
aggravated trespass;21764

       (b) A written statement by the administrator of the 21765
interstate compact on mental health appointed under section 21766
5119.51 of the Revised Code alleging that a person who had been 21767
hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in any facility under 21768
an order made pursuant to or under authority of section 2945.37, 21769
2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the 21770
Revised Code has escaped from the facility, from confinement in a 21771
vehicle for transportation to or from the facility, or from 21772
supervision by an employee of the facility that is incidental to 21773
hospitalization, institutionalization, or confinement in the 21774
facility and that occurs outside of the facility, in violation of 21775
section 2921.34 of the Revised Code;21776

       (c) A written statement by the administrator of any facility 21777
in which a person has been hospitalized, institutionalized, or 21778
confined under an order made pursuant to or under authority of 21779
section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 21780
2945.402 of the Revised Code alleging that the person has escaped 21781
from the facility, from confinement in a vehicle for 21782
transportation to or from the facility, or from supervision by an 21783
employee of the facility that is incidental to hospitalization, 21784
institutionalization, or confinement in the facility and that 21785
occurs outside of the facility, in violation of section 2921.34 of 21786
the Revised Code.21787

       (3)(a) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, a 21788
peace officer described in division (A) of this section has 21789
reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of domestic 21790
violence or the offense of violating a protection order has been 21791
committed and reasonable cause to believe that a particular person 21792
is guilty of committing the offense if any of the following 21793
occurs:21794

       (i) A person executes a written statement alleging that the 21795
person in question has committed the offense of domestic violence 21796
or the offense of violating a protection order against the person 21797
who executes the statement or against a child of the person who 21798
executes the statement.21799

       (ii) No written statement of the type described in division 21800
(B)(3)(a)(i) of this section is executed, but the peace officer, 21801
based upon the peace officer's own knowledge and observation of 21802
the facts and circumstances of the alleged incident of the offense 21803
of domestic violence or the alleged incident of the offense of 21804
violating a protection order or based upon any other information, 21805
including, but not limited to, any reasonably trustworthy 21806
information given to the peace officer by the alleged victim of 21807
the alleged incident of the offense or any witness of the alleged 21808
incident of the offense, concludes that there are reasonable 21809
grounds to believe that the offense of domestic violence or the 21810
offense of violating a protection order has been committed and 21811
reasonable cause to believe that the person in question is guilty 21812
of committing the offense.21813

       (iii) No written statement of the type described in division 21814
(B)(3)(a)(i) of this section is executed, but the peace officer 21815
witnessed the person in question commit the offense of domestic 21816
violence or the offense of violating a protection order.21817

       (b) If pursuant to division (B)(3)(a) of this section a peace 21818
officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of 21819
domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order 21820
has been committed and reasonable cause to believe that a 21821
particular person is guilty of committing the offense, it is the 21822
preferred course of action in this state that the officer arrest 21823
and detain that person pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section 21824
until a warrant can be obtained.21825

       If pursuant to division (B)(3)(a) of this section a peace 21826
officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of 21827
domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order 21828
has been committed and reasonable cause to believe that family or 21829
household members have committed the offense against each other, 21830
it is the preferred course of action in this state that the 21831
officer, pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, arrest and 21832
detain until a warrant can be obtained the family or household 21833
member who committed the offense and whom the officer has 21834
reasonable cause to believe is the primary physical aggressor. 21835
There is no preferred course of action in this state regarding any 21836
other family or household member who committed the offense and 21837
whom the officer does not have reasonable cause to believe is the 21838
primary physical aggressor, but, pursuant to division (B)(1) of 21839
this section, the peace officer may arrest and detain until a 21840
warrant can be obtained any other family or household member who 21841
committed the offense and whom the officer does not have 21842
reasonable cause to believe is the primary physical aggressor.21843

       (c) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 21844
section does not arrest and detain a person whom the officer has 21845
reasonable cause to believe committed the offense of domestic 21846
violence or the offense of violating a protection order when it is 21847
the preferred course of action in this state pursuant to division 21848
(B)(3)(b) of this section that the officer arrest that person, the 21849
officer shall articulate in the written report of the incident 21850
required by section 2935.032 of the Revised Code a clear statement 21851
of the officer's reasons for not arresting and detaining that 21852
person until a warrant can be obtained.21853

       (d) In determining for purposes of division (B)(3)(b) of this 21854
section which family or household member is the primary physical 21855
aggressor in a situation in which family or household members have 21856
committed the offense of domestic violence or the offense of 21857
violating a protection order against each other, a peace officer 21858
described in division (A) of this section, in addition to any 21859
other relevant circumstances, should consider all of the 21860
following:21861

       (i) Any history of domestic violence or of any other violent 21862
acts by either person involved in the alleged offense that the 21863
officer reasonably can ascertain;21864

       (ii) If violence is alleged, whether the alleged violence was 21865
caused by a person acting in self-defense;21866

       (iii) Each person's fear of physical harm, if any, resulting 21867
from the other person's threatened use of force against any person 21868
or resulting from the other person's use or history of the use of 21869
force against any person, and the reasonableness of that fear;21870

       (iv) The comparative severity of any injuries suffered by the 21871
persons involved in the alleged offense.21872

       (e)(i) A peace officer described in division (A) of this 21873
section shall not require, as a prerequisite to arresting or 21874
charging a person who has committed the offense of domestic 21875
violence or the offense of violating a protection order, that the 21876
victim of the offense specifically consent to the filing of 21877
charges against the person who has committed the offense or sign a 21878
complaint against the person who has committed the offense.21879

       (ii) If a person is arrested for or charged with committing 21880
the offense of domestic violence or the offense of violating a 21881
protection order and if the victim of the offense does not 21882
cooperate with the involved law enforcement or prosecuting 21883
authorities in the prosecution of the offense or, subsequent to 21884
the arrest or the filing of the charges, informs the involved law 21885
enforcement or prosecuting authorities that the victim does not 21886
wish the prosecution of the offense to continue or wishes to drop 21887
charges against the alleged offender relative to the offense, the 21888
involved prosecuting authorities, in determining whether to 21889
continue with the prosecution of the offense or whether to dismiss 21890
charges against the alleged offender relative to the offense and 21891
notwithstanding the victim's failure to cooperate or the victim's 21892
wishes, shall consider all facts and circumstances that are 21893
relevant to the offense, including, but not limited to, the 21894
statements and observations of the peace officers who responded to 21895
the incident that resulted in the arrest or filing of the charges 21896
and of all witnesses to that incident.21897

       (f) In determining pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(a) to (g) of 21898
this section whether to arrest a person pursuant to division 21899
(B)(1) of this section, a peace officer described in division (A) 21900
of this section shall not consider as a factor any possible 21901
shortage of cell space at the detention facility to which the 21902
person will be taken subsequent to the person's arrest or any 21903
possibility that the person's arrest might cause, contribute to, 21904
or exacerbate overcrowding at that detention facility or at any 21905
other detention facility.21906

       (g) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 21907
section intends pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(a) to (g) of this 21908
section to arrest a person pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 21909
section and if the officer is unable to do so because the person 21910
is not present, the officer promptly shall seek a warrant for the 21911
arrest of the person.21912

       (h) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 21913
section responds to a report of an alleged incident of the offense 21914
of domestic violence or an alleged incident of the offense of 21915
violating a protection order and if the circumstances of the 21916
incident involved the use or threatened use of a deadly weapon or 21917
any person involved in the incident brandished a deadly weapon 21918
during or in relation to the incident, the deadly weapon that was 21919
used, threatened to be used, or brandished constitutes contraband, 21920
and, to the extent possible, the officer shall seize the deadly 21921
weapon as contraband pursuant to Chapter 2981. of the Revised 21922
Code. Upon the seizure of a deadly weapon pursuant to division 21923
(B)(3)(h) of this section, section 2981.12 of the Revised Code 21924
shall apply regarding the treatment and disposition of the deadly 21925
weapon. For purposes of that section, the "underlying criminal 21926
offense" that was the basis of the seizure of a deadly weapon 21927
under division (B)(3)(h) of this section and to which the deadly 21928
weapon had a relationship is any of the following that is 21929
applicable:21930

       (i) The alleged incident of the offense of domestic violence 21931
or the alleged incident of the offense of violating a protection 21932
order to which the officer who seized the deadly weapon responded;21933

       (ii) Any offense that arose out of the same facts and 21934
circumstances as the report of the alleged incident of the offense 21935
of domestic violence or the alleged incident of the offense of 21936
violating a protection order to which the officer who seized the 21937
deadly weapon responded.21938

       (4) If, in the circumstances described in divisions (B)(3)(a) 21939
to (g) of this section, a peace officer described in division (A) 21940
of this section arrests and detains a person pursuant to division 21941
(B)(1) of this section, or if, pursuant to division (B)(3)(h) of 21942
this section, a peace officer described in division (A) of this 21943
section seizes a deadly weapon, the officer, to the extent 21944
described in and in accordance with section 9.86 or 2744.03 of the 21945
Revised Code, is immune in any civil action for damages for 21946
injury, death, or loss to person or property that arises from or 21947
is related to the arrest and detention or the seizure.21948

       (C) When there is reasonable ground to believe that a 21949
violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of section 21950
4506.15 or a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code has 21951
been committed by a person operating a motor vehicle subject to 21952
regulation by the public utilities commission of Ohio under Title 21953
XLIX of the Revised Code, a peace officer with authority to 21954
enforce that provision of law may stop or detain the person whom 21955
the officer has reasonable cause to believe was operating the 21956
motor vehicle in violation of the division or section and, after 21957
investigating the circumstances surrounding the operation of the 21958
vehicle, may arrest and detain the person.21959

       (D) If a sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, 21960
municipal police officer, member of a police force employed by a 21961
metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 21962
3735.31 of the Revised Code, member of a police force employed by 21963
a regional transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 21964
of the Revised Code, special police officer employed by a port 21965
authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code, 21966
special police officer employed by a municipal corporation at a 21967
municipal airport or other municipal air navigation facility 21968
described in division (A) of this section, township constable, 21969
police officer of a township or joint police district, state 21970
university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 21971
of the Revised Code, peace officer of the department of natural 21972
resources, individual designated to perform law enforcement duties 21973
under section 511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code, 21974
the house sergeant at arms if the house sergeant at arms has 21975
arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 101.311 of 21976
the Revised Code, or an assistant house sergeant at arms is 21977
authorized by division (A) or (B) of this section to arrest and 21978
detain, within the limits of the political subdivision, 21979
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 21980
authority facilities or those areas of a municipal corporation 21981
that have been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a 21982
municipal corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, 21983
port authority, municipal airport or other municipal air 21984
navigation facility, college, or university in which the officer 21985
is appointed, employed, or elected or within the limits of the 21986
territorial jurisdiction of the peace officer, a person until a 21987
warrant can be obtained, the peace officer, outside the limits of 21988
that territory, may pursue, arrest, and detain that person until a 21989
warrant can be obtained if all of the following apply:21990

       (1) The pursuit takes place without unreasonable delay after 21991
the offense is committed;21992

       (2) The pursuit is initiated within the limits of the 21993
political subdivision, metropolitan housing authority housing 21994
project, regional transit authority facilities or those areas of a 21995
municipal corporation that have been agreed to by a regional 21996
transit authority and a municipal corporation located within its 21997
territorial jurisdiction, port authority, municipal airport or 21998
other municipal air navigation facility, college, or university in 21999
which the peace officer is appointed, employed, or elected or 22000
within the limits of the territorial jurisdiction of the peace 22001
officer;22002

       (3) The offense involved is a felony, a misdemeanor of the 22003
first degree or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, a 22004
misdemeanor of the second degree or a substantially equivalent 22005
municipal ordinance, or any offense for which points are 22006
chargeable pursuant to section 4510.036 of the Revised Code.22007

       (E) In addition to the authority granted under division (A) 22008
or (B) of this section:22009

       (1) A sheriff or deputy sheriff may arrest and detain, until 22010
a warrant can be obtained, any person found violating section 22011
4503.11, 4503.21, or 4549.01, sections 4549.08 to 4549.12, section 22012
4549.62, or Chapter 4511. or 4513. of the Revised Code on the 22013
portion of any street or highway that is located immediately 22014
adjacent to the boundaries of the county in which the sheriff or 22015
deputy sheriff is elected or appointed.22016

       (2) A member of the police force of a township police 22017
district created under section 505.48 of the Revised Code, a 22018
member of the police force of a joint police district created 22019
under section 505.482 of the Revised Code, or a township constable 22020
appointed in accordance with section 509.01 of the Revised Code, 22021
who has received a certificate from the Ohio peace officer 22022
training commission under section 109.75 of the Revised Code, may 22023
arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, any person 22024
found violating any section or chapter of the Revised Code listed 22025
in division (E)(1) of this section, other than sections 4513.33 22026
and 4513.34 of the Revised Code, on the portion of any street or 22027
highway that is located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of 22028
the township police district or joint police district, in the case 22029
of a member of a township police district or joint police district 22030
police force, or the unincorporated territory of the township, in 22031
the case of a township constable. However, if the population of 22032
the township that created the township police district served by 22033
the member's police force, or the townships and municipal 22034
corporations that created the joint police district served by the 22035
member's police force, or the township that is served by the 22036
township constable, is sixty thousand or less, the member of the 22037
township police district or joint police district police force or 22038
the township constable may not make an arrest under division 22039
(E)(2) of this section on a state highway that is included as part 22040
of the interstate system.22041

       (3) A police officer or village marshal appointed, elected, 22042
or employed by a municipal corporation may arrest and detain, 22043
until a warrant can be obtained, any person found violating any 22044
section or chapter of the Revised Code listed in division (E)(1) 22045
of this section on the portion of any street or highway that is 22046
located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of the municipal 22047
corporation in which the police officer or village marshal is 22048
appointed, elected, or employed.22049

       (4) A peace officer of the department of natural resources, a 22050
state fire marshal law enforcement officer described in division 22051
(A)(23) of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, or an individual 22052
designated to perform law enforcement duties under section 22053
511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code may arrest and 22054
detain, until a warrant can be obtained, any person found 22055
violating any section or chapter of the Revised Code listed in 22056
division (E)(1) of this section, other than sections 4513.33 and 22057
4513.34 of the Revised Code, on the portion of any street or 22058
highway that is located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of 22059
the lands and waters that constitute the territorial jurisdiction 22060
of the peace officer or state fire marshal law enforcement 22061
officer.22062

       (F)(1) A department of mental health special police officer 22063
or a department of developmental disabilities special police 22064
officer may arrest without a warrant and detain until a warrant 22065
can be obtained any person found committing on the premises of any 22066
institution under the jurisdiction of the particular department a 22067
misdemeanor under a law of the state.22068

       A department of mental health special police officer or a 22069
department of developmental disabilities special police officer 22070
may arrest without a warrant and detain until a warrant can be 22071
obtained any person who has been hospitalized, institutionalized, 22072
or confined in an institution under the jurisdiction of the 22073
particular department pursuant to or under authority of section 22074
2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 22075
2945.402 of the Revised Code and who is found committing on the 22076
premises of any institution under the jurisdiction of the 22077
particular department a violation of section 2921.34 of the 22078
Revised Code that involves an escape from the premises of the 22079
institution.22080

       (2)(a) If a department of mental health special police 22081
officer or a department of developmental disabilities special 22082
police officer finds any person who has been hospitalized, 22083
institutionalized, or confined in an institution under the 22084
jurisdiction of the particular department pursuant to or under 22085
authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 22086
2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code committing a violation 22087
of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code that involves an escape 22088
from the premises of the institution, or if there is reasonable 22089
ground to believe that a violation of section 2921.34 of the 22090
Revised Code has been committed that involves an escape from the 22091
premises of an institution under the jurisdiction of the 22092
department of mental health or the department of developmental 22093
disabilities and if a department of mental health special police 22094
officer or a department of developmental disabilities special 22095
police officer has reasonable cause to believe that a particular 22096
person who has been hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined 22097
in the institution pursuant to or under authority of section 22098
2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 22099
2945.402 of the Revised Code is guilty of the violation, the 22100
special police officer, outside of the premises of the 22101
institution, may pursue, arrest, and detain that person for that 22102
violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code, until a warrant 22103
can be obtained, if both of the following apply:22104

       (i) The pursuit takes place without unreasonable delay after 22105
the offense is committed;22106

       (ii) The pursuit is initiated within the premises of the 22107
institution from which the violation of section 2921.34 of the 22108
Revised Code occurred.22109

       (b) For purposes of division (F)(2)(a) of this section, the 22110
execution of a written statement by the administrator of the 22111
institution in which a person had been hospitalized, 22112
institutionalized, or confined pursuant to or under authority of 22113
section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 22114
2945.402 of the Revised Code alleging that the person has escaped 22115
from the premises of the institution in violation of section 22116
2921.34 of the Revised Code constitutes reasonable ground to 22117
believe that the violation was committed and reasonable cause to 22118
believe that the person alleged in the statement to have committed 22119
the offense is guilty of the violation.22120

       (G) As used in this section:22121

       (1) A "department of mental health special police officer" 22122
means a special police officer of the department of mental health 22123
designated under section 5119.14 of the Revised Code who is 22124
certified by the Ohio peace officer training commission under 22125
section 109.77 of the Revised Code as having successfully 22126
completed an approved peace officer basic training program.22127

       (2) A "department of developmental disabilities special 22128
police officer" means a special police officer of the department 22129
of developmental disabilities designated under section 5123.13 of 22130
the Revised Code who is certified by the Ohio peace officer 22131
training council under section 109.77 of the Revised Code as 22132
having successfully completed an approved peace officer basic 22133
training program.22134

       (3) "Deadly weapon" has the same meaning as in section 22135
2923.11 of the Revised Code.22136

       (4) "Family or household member" has the same meaning as in 22137
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code.22138

       (5) "Street" or "highway" has the same meaning as in section 22139
4511.01 of the Revised Code.22140

       (6) "Interstate system" has the same meaning as in section 22141
5516.01 of the Revised Code.22142

       (7) "Peace officer of the department of natural resources" 22143
means an employee of the department of natural resources who is a 22144
natural resources law enforcement staff officer designated 22145
pursuant to section 1501.013 of the Revised Code, a forest officer 22146
designated pursuant to section 1503.29 of the Revised Code, a 22147
preserve officer designated pursuant to section 1517.10 of the 22148
Revised Code, a wildlife officer designated pursuant to section 22149
1531.13 of the Revised Code, a park officer designated pursuant to 22150
section 1541.10 of the Revised Code, or a state watercraft officer 22151
designated pursuant to section 1547.521 of the Revised Code.22152

       (8) "Portion of any street or highway" means all lanes of the 22153
street or highway irrespective of direction of travel, including 22154
designated turn lanes, and any berm, median, or shoulder.22155

       Sec. 2945.371.  (A) If the issue of a defendant's competence 22156
to stand trial is raised or if a defendant enters a plea of not 22157
guilty by reason of insanity, the court may order one or more 22158
evaluations of the defendant's present mental condition or, in the 22159
case of a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, of the 22160
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged. 22161
An examiner shall conduct the evaluation.22162

       (B) If the court orders more than one evaluation under 22163
division (A) of this section, the prosecutor and the defendant may 22164
recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers to perform 22165
one of the evaluations. If a defendant enters a plea of not guilty 22166
by reason of insanity and if the court does not designate an 22167
examiner recommended by the defendant, the court shall inform the 22168
defendant that the defendant may have independent expert 22169
evaluation and that, if the defendant is unable to obtain 22170
independent expert evaluation, it will be obtained for the 22171
defendant at public expense if the defendant is indigent.22172

       (C) If the court orders an evaluation under division (A) of 22173
this section, the defendant shall be available at the times and 22174
places established by the examiners who are to conduct the 22175
evaluation. The court may order a defendant who has been released 22176
on bail or recognizance to submit to an evaluation under this 22177
section. If a defendant who has been released on bail or 22178
recognizance refuses to submit to a complete evaluation, the court 22179
may amend the conditions of bail or recognizance and order the 22180
sheriff to take the defendant into custody and deliver the 22181
defendant to a center, program, or facility operated or certified 22182
by the department of mental health or the department of 22183
developmental disabilities where the defendant may be held for 22184
evaluation for a reasonable period of time not to exceed twenty 22185
days.22186

       (D) A defendant who has not been released on bail or 22187
recognizance may be evaluated at the defendant's place of 22188
detention. Upon the request of the examiner, the court may order 22189
the sheriff to transport the defendant to a program or facility 22190
operated or certified by the department of mental health or the 22191
department of developmental disabilities, where the defendant may 22192
be held for evaluation for a reasonable period of time not to 22193
exceed twenty days, and to return the defendant to the place of 22194
detention after the evaluation. A municipal court may make an 22195
order under this division only upon the request of a certified 22196
forensic center examiner.22197

       (E) If a court orders the evaluation to determine a 22198
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, 22199
the court shall inform the examiner of the offense with which the 22200
defendant is charged.22201

       (F) In conducting an evaluation of a defendant's mental 22202
condition at the time of the offense charged, the examiner shall 22203
consider all relevant evidence. If the offense charged involves 22204
the use of force against another person, the relevant evidence to 22205
be considered includes, but is not limited to, any evidence that 22206
the defendant suffered, at the time of the commission of the 22207
offense, from the "battered woman syndrome."22208

       (G) The examiner shall file a written report with the court 22209
within thirty days after entry of a court order for evaluation, 22210
and the court shall provide copies of the report to the prosecutor 22211
and defense counsel. The report shall include all of the 22212
following:22213

       (1) The examiner's findings;22214

       (2) The facts in reasonable detail on which the findings are 22215
based;22216

       (3) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the 22217
defendant's competence to stand trial, all of the following 22218
findings or recommendations that are applicable:22219

       (a) Whether the defendant is capable of understanding the 22220
nature and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or 22221
of assisting in the defendant's defense;22222

       (b) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 22223
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 22224
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 22225
defendant's defense, whether the defendant presently is mentally 22226
ill or mentally retarded and, if the examiner's opinion is that 22227
the defendant presently is mentally retarded, whether the 22228
defendant appears to be a mentally retarded person subject to 22229
institutionalization by court order;22230

       (c) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 22231
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 22232
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 22233
defendant's defense, the examiner's opinion as to the likelihood 22234
of the defendant becoming capable of understanding the nature and 22235
objective of the proceedings against the defendant and of 22236
assisting in the defendant's defense within one year if the 22237
defendant is provided with a course of treatment;22238

       (d) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 22239
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 22240
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 22241
defendant's defense and that the defendant presently is mentally 22242
ill or mentally retarded, the examiner's recommendation as to the 22243
least restrictive placement or commitment alternative, consistent 22244
with the defendant's treatment needs for restoration to competency 22245
and with the safety of the community;22246

       (e) If the defendant is charged with a misdemeanor offense 22247
that is not an offense of violence and the examiner's opinion is 22248
that the defendant is incapable of understanding the nature and 22249
objective of the proceedings against the defendant or of assisting 22250
in the defendant's defense and that the defendant is presently 22251
mentally ill or mentally retarded, the examiner's recommendation 22252
as to whether the defendant is amenable to engagement in mental 22253
health treatment or developmental disability services.22254

       (4) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the 22255
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, 22256
the examiner's findings as to whether the defendant, at the time 22257
of the offense charged, did not know, as a result of a severe 22258
mental disease or defect, the wrongfulness of the defendant's acts 22259
charged.22260

       (H) If the examiner's report filed under division (G) of this 22261
section indicates that in the examiner's opinion the defendant is 22262
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 22263
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 22264
defendant's defense and that in the examiner's opinion the 22265
defendant appears to be a mentally retarded person subject to 22266
institutionalization by court order, the court shall order the 22267
defendant to undergo a separate mental retardation evaluation 22268
conducted by a psychologist designated by the director of 22269
developmental disabilities. Divisions (C) to (F) of this section 22270
apply in relation to a separate mental retardation evaluation 22271
conducted under this division. The psychologist appointed under 22272
this division to conduct the separate mental retardation 22273
evaluation shall file a written report with the court within 22274
thirty days after the entry of the court order requiring the 22275
separate mental retardation evaluation, and the court shall 22276
provide copies of the report to the prosecutor and defense 22277
counsel. The report shall include all of the information described 22278
in divisions (G)(1) to (4) of this section. If the court orders a 22279
separate mental retardation evaluation of a defendant under this 22280
division, the court shall not conduct a hearing under divisions 22281
(B) to (H) of section 2945.37 of the Revised Code regarding that 22282
defendant until a report of the separate mental retardation 22283
evaluation conducted under this division has been filed. Upon the 22284
filing of that report, the court shall conduct the hearing within 22285
the period of time specified in division (C) of section 2945.37 of 22286
the Revised Code.22287

       (I) An examiner appointed under divisions (A) and (B) of this 22288
section or under division (H) of this section to evaluate a 22289
defendant to determine the defendant's competence to stand trial 22290
also may be appointed to evaluate a defendant who has entered a 22291
plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, but an examiner of that 22292
nature shall prepare separate reports on the issue of competence 22293
to stand trial and the defense of not guilty by reason of 22294
insanity.22295

       (J) No statement that a defendant makes in an evaluation or 22296
hearing under divisions (A) to (H) of this section relating to the 22297
defendant's competence to stand trial or to the defendant's mental 22298
condition at the time of the offense charged shall be used against 22299
the defendant on the issue of guilt in any criminal action or 22300
proceeding, but, in a criminal action or proceeding, the 22301
prosecutor or defense counsel may call as a witness any person who 22302
evaluated the defendant or prepared a report pursuant to a 22303
referral under this section. Neither the appointment nor the 22304
testimony of an examiner appointed under this section precludes 22305
the prosecutor or defense counsel from calling other witnesses or 22306
presenting other evidence on competency or insanity issues.22307

       (K) Persons appointed as examiners under divisions (A) and 22308
(B) of this section or under division (H) of this section shall be 22309
paid a reasonable amount for their services and expenses, as 22310
certified by the court. The certified amount shall be paid by the 22311
county in the case of county courts and courts of common pleas and 22312
by the legislative authority, as defined in section 1901.03 of the 22313
Revised Code, in the case of municipal courts.22314

       Sec. 2945.38.  (A) If the issue of a defendant's competence 22315
to stand trial is raised and if the court, upon conducting the 22316
hearing provided for in section 2945.37 of the Revised Code, finds 22317
that the defendant is competent to stand trial, the defendant 22318
shall be proceeded against as provided by law. If the court finds 22319
the defendant competent to stand trial and the defendant is 22320
receiving psychotropic drugs or other medication, the court may 22321
authorize the continued administration of the drugs or medication 22322
or other appropriate treatment in order to maintain the 22323
defendant's competence to stand trial, unless the defendant's 22324
attending physician advises the court against continuation of the 22325
drugs, other medication, or treatment.22326

       (B)(1)(a) If, after taking into consideration all relevant 22327
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 22328
defendant is incompetent to stand trial and that there is a 22329
substantial probability that the defendant will become competent 22330
to stand trial within one year if the defendant is provided with a 22331
course of treatment, the court shall order the defendant to 22332
undergo treatment. If the defendant has been charged with a felony 22333
offense and if, after taking into consideration all relevant 22334
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 22335
defendant is incompetent to stand trial, but the court is unable 22336
at that time to determine whether there is a substantial 22337
probability that the defendant will become competent to stand 22338
trial within one year if the defendant is provided with a course 22339
of treatment, the court shall order continuing evaluation and 22340
treatment of the defendant for a period not to exceed four months 22341
to determine whether there is a substantial probability that the 22342
defendant will become competent to stand trial within one year if 22343
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment.22344

       (b) The court order for the defendant to undergo treatment or 22345
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(a) of 22346
this section shall specify that the defendant, if determined to 22347
require mental health treatment or continuing evaluation and 22348
treatment, either shall be committed to the department of mental 22349
health for treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment at a 22350
hospital, facility, or agency, as determined to be clinically 22351
appropriate by the department of mental health andor shall be 22352
committed to a facility certified by the department of mental 22353
health as being qualified to treat mental illness, to a public or 22354
community mental health facility, or to a psychiatrist or another 22355
mental health professional for treatment or continuing evaluation 22356
and treatment. Prior to placing the defendant, the department of 22357
mental health shall obtain court approval for that placement 22358
following a hearing. The court order for the defendant to undergo 22359
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment under division 22360
(B)(1)(a) of this section shall specify that the defendant, if 22361
determined to require treatment or continuing evaluation and 22362
treatment for a developmental disabilitymental retardation, 22363
shall receive treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment at 22364
an institution or facility operated by the department of 22365
developmental disabilities, at a facility certified by the 22366
department of developmental disabilities as being qualified to 22367
treat mental retardation, at a public or private community mental 22368
retardation facility, or by a psychiatrist or another mental 22369
retardation professional. TheIn any case, the order may restrict 22370
the defendant's freedom of movement as the court considers 22371
necessary. The prosecutor in the defendant's case shall send to 22372
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 22373
where the defendant is placed by the department of mental health, 22374
or to the managing officer of the institution, the director of the 22375
program or facility, or the person to which the defendant is 22376
committed, copies of relevant police reports and other background 22377
information that pertains to the defendant and is available to the 22378
prosecutor unless the prosecutor determines that the release of 22379
any of the information in the police reports or any of the other 22380
background information to unauthorized persons would interfere 22381
with the effective prosecution of any person or would create a 22382
substantial risk of harm to any person.22383

       In committing the defendant to the department of mental 22384
health, the court shall consider the extent to which the person is 22385
a danger to the person and to others, the need for security, and 22386
the type of crime involved and, if the court finds that 22387
restrictions on the defendant's freedom of movement are necessary, 22388
shall specify the least restrictive limitations on the person's 22389
freedom of movement determined to be necessary to protect public 22390
safety. In determining the place of commitment alternatives for 22391
defendants determined to require treatment or continuing 22392
evaluation and treatment for developmental disabilities, the court 22393
shall consider the extent to which the person is a danger to the 22394
person and to others, the need for security, and the type of crime 22395
involved and shall order the least restrictive alternative 22396
available that is consistent with public safety and treatment 22397
goals. In weighing these factors, the court shall give preference 22398
to protecting public safety.22399

       (c) If the defendant is found incompetent to stand trial, if 22400
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 22401
where the defendant is placed, or the managing officer of the 22402
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 22403
person to which the defendant is committed for treatment or 22404
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(b) of 22405
this section determines that medication is necessary to restore 22406
the defendant's competency to stand trial, and if the defendant 22407
lacks the capacity to give informed consent or refuses medication, 22408
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 22409
where the defendant is placed, or the managing officer of the 22410
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 22411
person to which the defendant is committed for treatment or 22412
continuing evaluation and treatment may petition the court for 22413
authorization for the involuntary administration of medication. 22414
The court shall hold a hearing on the petition within five days of 22415
the filing of the petition if the petition was filed in a 22416
municipal court or a county court regarding an incompetent 22417
defendant charged with a misdemeanor or within ten days of the 22418
filing of the petition if the petition was filed in a court of 22419
common pleas regarding an incompetent defendant charged with a 22420
felony offense. Following the hearing, the court may authorize the 22421
involuntary administration of medication or may dismiss the 22422
petition.22423

       (d) If the defendant is charged with a misdemeanor offense 22424
that is not an offense of violence, the prosecutor may hold the 22425
charges in abeyance while the defendant engages in mental health 22426
treatment or developmental disability services.22427

       (2) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 22428
stand trial and that, even if the defendant is provided with a 22429
course of treatment, there is not a substantial probability that 22430
the defendant will become competent to stand trial within one 22431
year, the court shall order the discharge of the defendant, unless 22432
upon motion of the prosecutor or on its own motion, the court 22433
either seeks to retain jurisdiction over the defendant pursuant to 22434
section 2945.39 of the Revised Code or files an affidavit in the 22435
probate court for the civil commitment of the defendant pursuant 22436
to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code alleging that the 22437
defendant is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 22438
court order or a mentally retarded person subject to 22439
institutionalization by court order. If an affidavit is filed in 22440
the probate court, the trial court shall send to the probate court 22441
copies of all written reports of the defendant's mental condition 22442
that were prepared pursuant to section 2945.371 of the Revised 22443
Code.22444

       The trial court may issue the temporary order of detention 22445
that a probate court may issue under section 5122.11 or 5123.71 of 22446
the Revised Code, to remain in effect until the probable cause or 22447
initial hearing in the probate court. Further proceedings in the 22448
probate court are civil proceedings governed by Chapter 5122. or 22449
5123. of the Revised Code.22450

       (C) No defendant shall be required to undergo treatment, 22451
including any continuing evaluation and treatment, under division 22452
(B)(1) of this section for longer than whichever of the following 22453
periods is applicable:22454

       (1) One year, if the most serious offense with which the 22455
defendant is charged is one of the following offenses:22456

       (a) Aggravated murder, murder, or an offense of violence for 22457
which a sentence of death or life imprisonment may be imposed;22458

       (b) An offense of violence that is a felony of the first or 22459
second degree;22460

       (c) A conspiracy to commit, an attempt to commit, or 22461
complicity in the commission of an offense described in division 22462
(C)(1)(a) or (b) of this section if the conspiracy, attempt, or 22463
complicity is a felony of the first or second degree.22464

       (2) Six months, if the most serious offense with which the 22465
defendant is charged is a felony other than a felony described in 22466
division (C)(1) of this section;22467

       (3) Sixty days, if the most serious offense with which the 22468
defendant is charged is a misdemeanor of the first or second 22469
degree;22470

       (4) Thirty days, if the most serious offense with which the 22471
defendant is charged is a misdemeanor of the third or fourth 22472
degree, a minor misdemeanor, or an unclassified misdemeanor.22473

       (D) Any defendant who is committed pursuant to this section 22474
shall not voluntarily admit the defendant or be voluntarily 22475
admitted to a hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02, 22476
5122.15, 5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code.22477

       (E) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a 22478
defendant who is charged with an offense and is committed by the 22479
court under this section to the department of mental health with 22480
restrictions on the defendant's freedom of movement or is 22481
committed to an institution or facility for the treatment of 22482
developmental disabilitiesmental retardation shall not be granted 22483
unsupervised on-grounds movement, supervised off-grounds movement, 22484
or nonsecured status except in accordance with the court order. 22485
The court may grant a defendant supervised off-grounds movement to 22486
obtain medical treatment or specialized habilitation treatment 22487
services if the person who supervises the treatment or the 22488
continuing evaluation and treatment of the defendant ordered under 22489
division (B)(1)(a) of this section informs the court that the 22490
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment cannot be 22491
provided at the hospital or facility where the defendant is placed 22492
by the department of mental health or the institution or facility 22493
to which the defendant is committed. The chief clinical officer of 22494
the hospital or facility where the defendant is placed by the 22495
department of mental health or the managing officer of the 22496
institution or director of the facility to which the defendant is 22497
committed, or a designee of any of those persons, may grant a 22498
defendant movement to a medical facility for an emergency medical 22499
situation with appropriate supervision to ensure the safety of the 22500
defendant, staff, and community during that emergency medical 22501
situation. The chief clinical officer of the hospital or facility 22502
where the defendant is placed by the department of mental health 22503
or the managing officer of the institution or director of the 22504
facility to which the defendant is committed shall notify the 22505
court within twenty-four hours of the defendant's movement to the 22506
medical facility for an emergency medical situation under this 22507
division.22508

       (F) The person who supervises the treatment or continuing 22509
evaluation and treatment of a defendant ordered to undergo 22510
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment under division 22511
(B)(1)(a) of this section shall file a written report with the 22512
court at the following times:22513

       (1) Whenever the person believes the defendant is capable of 22514
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 22515
the defendant and of assisting in the defendant's defense;22516

       (2) For a felony offense, fourteen days before expiration of 22517
the maximum time for treatment as specified in division (C) of 22518
this section and fourteen days before the expiration of the 22519
maximum time for continuing evaluation and treatment as specified 22520
in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, and, for a misdemeanor 22521
offense, ten days before the expiration of the maximum time for 22522
treatment, as specified in division (C) of this section;22523

       (3) At a minimum, after each six months of treatment;22524

       (4) Whenever the person who supervises the treatment or 22525
continuing evaluation and treatment of a defendant ordered under 22526
division (B)(1)(a) of this section believes that there is not a 22527
substantial probability that the defendant will become capable of 22528
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 22529
the defendant or of assisting in the defendant's defense even if 22530
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment.22531

       (G) A report under division (F) of this section shall contain 22532
the examiner's findings, the facts in reasonable detail on which 22533
the findings are based, and the examiner's opinion as to the 22534
defendant's capability of understanding the nature and objective 22535
of the proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 22536
defendant's defense. If, in the examiner's opinion, the defendant 22537
remains incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 22538
proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 22539
defendant's defense and there is a substantial probability that 22540
the defendant will become capable of understanding the nature and 22541
objective of the proceedings against the defendant and of 22542
assisting in the defendant's defense if the defendant is provided 22543
with a course of treatment, if in the examiner's opinion the 22544
defendant remains mentally ill or mentally retarded, and if the 22545
maximum time for treatment as specified in division (C) of this 22546
section has not expired, the report also shall contain the 22547
examiner's recommendation as to the least restrictive placement or 22548
commitment alternative that is consistent with the defendant's 22549
treatment needs for restoration to competency and with the safety 22550
of the community. The court shall provide copies of the report to 22551
the prosecutor and defense counsel.22552

       (H) If a defendant is committed pursuant to division (B)(1) 22553
of this section, within ten days after the treating physician of 22554
the defendant or the examiner of the defendant who is employed or 22555
retained by the treating facility advises that there is not a 22556
substantial probability that the defendant will become capable of 22557
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 22558
the defendant or of assisting in the defendant's defense even if 22559
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment, within ten 22560
days after the expiration of the maximum time for treatment as 22561
specified in division (C) of this section, within ten days after 22562
the expiration of the maximum time for continuing evaluation and 22563
treatment as specified in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, 22564
within thirty days after a defendant's request for a hearing that 22565
is made after six months of treatment, or within thirty days after 22566
being advised by the treating physician or examiner that the 22567
defendant is competent to stand trial, whichever is the earliest, 22568
the court shall conduct another hearing to determine if the 22569
defendant is competent to stand trial and shall do whichever of 22570
the following is applicable:22571

       (1) If the court finds that the defendant is competent to 22572
stand trial, the defendant shall be proceeded against as provided 22573
by law.22574

       (2) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 22575
stand trial, but that there is a substantial probability that the 22576
defendant will become competent to stand trial if the defendant is 22577
provided with a course of treatment, and the maximum time for 22578
treatment as specified in division (C) of this section has not 22579
expired, the court, after consideration of the examiner's 22580
recommendation, shall order that treatment be continued, may 22581
change the least restrictive limitations on the defendant's 22582
freedom of movementfacility or program at which the treatment is 22583
to be continued, and, if applicable, shall specify whether the 22584
treatment for developmental disabilities is to be continued at the 22585
same or a different facility or institutionprogram.22586

       (3) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 22587
stand trial, if the defendant is charged with an offense listed in 22588
division (C)(1) of this section, and if the court finds that there 22589
is not a substantial probability that the defendant will become 22590
competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided with a 22591
course of treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment relative 22592
to that offense as specified in division (C) of this section has 22593
expired, further proceedings shall be as provided in sections 22594
2945.39, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised Code.22595

       (4) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 22596
stand trial, if the most serious offense with which the defendant 22597
is charged is a misdemeanor or a felony other than a felony listed 22598
in division (C)(1) of this section, and if the court finds that 22599
there is not a substantial probability that the defendant will 22600
become competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided 22601
with a course of treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment 22602
relative to that offense as specified in division (C) of this 22603
section has expired, the court shall dismiss the indictment, 22604
information, or complaint against the defendant. A dismissal under 22605
this division is not a bar to further prosecution based on the 22606
same conduct. The court shall discharge the defendant unless the 22607
court or prosecutor files an affidavit in probate court for civil 22608
commitment pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. 22609
If an affidavit for civil commitment is filed, the court may 22610
detain the defendant for ten days pending civil commitment. All of 22611
the following provisions apply to persons charged with a 22612
misdemeanor or a felony other than a felony listed in division 22613
(C)(1) of this section who are committed by the probate court 22614
subsequent to the court's or prosecutor's filing of an affidavit 22615
for civil commitment under authority of this division:22616

       (a) The chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 22617
facility, the managing officer of the institution, the director of 22618
the program, or the person to which the defendant is committed or 22619
admitted shall do all of the following:22620

       (i) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, of the discharge of 22621
the defendant, send the notice at least ten days prior to the 22622
discharge unless the discharge is by the probate court, and state 22623
in the notice the date on which the defendant will be discharged;22624

       (ii) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, when the defendant is 22625
absent without leave or is granted unsupervised, off-grounds 22626
movement, and send this notice promptly after the discovery of the 22627
absence without leave or prior to the granting of the 22628
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, whichever is applicable;22629

       (iii) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, of the change of the 22630
defendant's commitment or admission to voluntary status, send the 22631
notice promptly upon learning of the change to voluntary status, 22632
and state in the notice the date on which the defendant was 22633
committed or admitted on a voluntary status.22634

       (b) Upon receiving notice that the defendant will be granted 22635
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, the prosecutor either shall 22636
re-indict the defendant or promptly notify the court that the 22637
prosecutor does not intend to prosecute the charges against the 22638
defendant.22639

       (I) If a defendant is convicted of a crime and sentenced to a 22640
jail or workhouse, the defendant's sentence shall be reduced by 22641
the total number of days the defendant is confined for evaluation 22642
to determine the defendant's competence to stand trial or 22643
treatment under this section and sections 2945.37 and 2945.371 of 22644
the Revised Code or by the total number of days the defendant is 22645
confined for evaluation to determine the defendant's mental 22646
condition at the time of the offense charged.22647

       Sec. 2945.39.  (A) If a defendant who is charged with an 22648
offense described in division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the 22649
Revised Code is found incompetent to stand trial, after the 22650
expiration of the maximum time for treatment as specified in 22651
division (C) of that section or after the court finds that there 22652
is not a substantial probability that the defendant will become 22653
competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided with a 22654
course of treatment, one of the following applies:22655

       (1) The court or the prosecutor may file an affidavit in 22656
probate court for civil commitment of the defendant in the manner 22657
provided in Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. If the 22658
court or prosecutor files an affidavit for civil commitment, the 22659
court may detain the defendant for ten days pending civil 22660
commitment. If the probate court commits the defendant subsequent 22661
to the court's or prosecutor's filing of an affidavit for civil 22662
commitment, the chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 22663
facility, the managing officer of the institution, the director of 22664
the program, or the person to which the defendant is committed or 22665
admitted shall send to the prosecutor the notices described in 22666
divisions (H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 2945.38 of the Revised 22667
Code within the periods of time and under the circumstances 22668
specified in those divisions.22669

       (2) On the motion of the prosecutor or on its own motion, the 22670
court may retain jurisdiction over the defendant if, at a hearing, 22671
the court finds both of the following by clear and convincing 22672
evidence:22673

       (a) The defendant committed the offense with which the 22674
defendant is charged.22675

       (b) The defendant is a mentally ill person subject to 22676
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 22677
subject to institutionalization by court order.22678

       (B) In making its determination under division (A)(2) of this 22679
section as to whether to retain jurisdiction over the defendant, 22680
the court may consider all relevant evidence, including, but not 22681
limited to, any relevant psychiatric, psychological, or medical 22682
testimony or reports, the acts constituting the offense charged, 22683
and any history of the defendant that is relevant to the 22684
defendant's ability to conform to the law.22685

       (C) If the court conducts a hearing as described in division 22686
(A)(2) of this section and if the court does not make both 22687
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 22688
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall dismiss the 22689
indictment, information, or complaint against the defendant. Upon 22690
the dismissal, the court shall discharge the defendant unless the 22691
court or prosecutor files an affidavit in probate court for civil 22692
commitment of the defendant pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of 22693
the Revised Code. If the court or prosecutor files an affidavit 22694
for civil commitment, the court may order that the defendant be 22695
detained for up to ten days pending the civil commitment. If the 22696
probate court commits the defendant subsequent to the court's or 22697
prosecutor's filing of an affidavit for civil commitment, the 22698
chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or facility, the 22699
managing officer of the institution, the director of the program,22700
or the person to which the defendant is committed or admitted 22701
shall send to the prosecutor the notices described in divisions 22702
(H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 2945.38 of the Revised Code 22703
within the periods of time and under the circumstances specified 22704
in those divisions. A dismissal of charges under this division is 22705
not a bar to further criminal proceedings based on the same 22706
conduct.22707

       (D)(1) If the court conducts a hearing as described in 22708
division (A)(2) of this section and if the court makes the 22709
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 22710
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall commit the 22711
defendant, if determined to require mental health treatment, 22712
either to the department of mental health for treatment at a 22713
hospital, facility, or agency as determined clinically appropriate 22714
by the department of mental health or to another medical or 22715
psychiatric facility, as appropriate. Prior to placing the 22716
defendant, the department of mental health shall obtain court 22717
approval for that placement. If the court conducts such a hearing 22718
and if it makes those findings by clear and convincing evidence, 22719
the court shall commit the defendant, if determined to require 22720
treatment for developmental disabilitiesmental retardation, to a 22721
facility operated by the department of developmental disabilities, 22722
or another facility, as appropriate. In committing the defendant 22723
to the department of mental health, the court shall specify the 22724
least restrictive limitations on the defendant's freedom of 22725
movement determined to be necessary to protect public safety. In 22726
determining the place and nature of the commitment to a facility 22727
operated by the department of developmental disabilities or 22728
another facility for treatment of developmental disabilities, the 22729
courtIn determining the place of commitment, the court shall 22730
consider the extent to which the person is a danger to the person 22731
and to others, the need for security, and the type of crime 22732
involved and shall order the least restrictive commitment22733
alternative available that is consistent with public safety and 22734
the welfare of the defendant. In weighing these factors, the court 22735
shall give preference to protecting public safety.22736

       (2) If a court makes a commitment of a defendant under 22737
division (D)(1) of this section, the prosecutor shall send to the 22738
hospital, facility, or agency where the defendant is placed by the 22739
department of mental health or to the defendant's place of 22740
commitment all reports of the defendant's current mental condition 22741
and, except as otherwise provided in this division, any other 22742
relevant information, including, but not limited to, a transcript 22743
of the hearing held pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, 22744
copies of relevant police reports, and copies of any prior arrest 22745
and conviction records that pertain to the defendant and that the 22746
prosecutor possesses. The prosecutor shall send the reports of the 22747
defendant's current mental condition in every case of commitment, 22748
and, unless the prosecutor determines that the release of any of 22749
the other relevant information to unauthorized persons would 22750
interfere with the effective prosecution of any person or would 22751
create a substantial risk of harm to any person, the prosecutor 22752
also shall send the other relevant information. Upon admission of 22753
a defendant committed under division (D)(1) of this section, the 22754
place of commitment shall send to the board of alcohol, drug 22755
addiction, and mental health services or the community mental 22756
health board serving the county in which the charges against the 22757
defendant were filed a copy of all reports of the defendant's 22758
current mental condition and a copy of the other relevant 22759
information provided by the prosecutor under this division, 22760
including, if provided, a transcript of the hearing held pursuant 22761
to division (A)(2) of this section, the relevant police reports, 22762
and the prior arrest and conviction records that pertain to the 22763
defendant and that the prosecutor possesses.22764

       (3) If a court makes a commitment under division (D)(1) of 22765
this section, all further proceedings shall be in accordance with 22766
sections 2945.401 and 2945.402 of the Revised Code.22767

       Sec. 2945.40.  (A) If a person is found not guilty by reason 22768
of insanity, the verdict shall state that finding, and the trial 22769
court shall conduct a full hearing to determine whether the person 22770
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order 22771
or a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 22772
court order. Prior to the hearing, if the trial judge believes 22773
that there is probable cause that the person found not guilty by 22774
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 22775
hospitalization by court order or mentally retarded person subject 22776
to institutionalization by court order, the trial judge may issue 22777
a temporary order of detention for that person to remain in effect 22778
for ten court days or until the hearing, whichever occurs first.22779

       Any person detained pursuant to a temporary order of 22780
detention issued under this division shall be held in a suitable 22781
facility, taking into consideration the place and type of 22782
confinement prior to and during trial.22783

       (B) The court shall hold the hearing under division (A) of 22784
this section to determine whether the person found not guilty by 22785
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 22786
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 22787
subject to institutionalization by court order within ten court 22788
days after the finding of not guilty by reason of insanity. 22789
Failure to conduct the hearing within the ten-day period shall 22790
cause the immediate discharge of the respondent, unless the judge 22791
grants a continuance for not longer than ten court days for good 22792
cause shown or for any period of time upon motion of the 22793
respondent.22794

       (C) If a person is found not guilty by reason of insanity, 22795
the person has the right to attend all hearings conducted pursuant 22796
to sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code. At any 22797
hearing conducted pursuant to one of those sections, the court 22798
shall inform the person that the person has all of the following 22799
rights:22800

       (1) The right to be represented by counsel and to have that 22801
counsel provided at public expense if the person is indigent, with 22802
the counsel to be appointed by the court under Chapter 120. of the 22803
Revised Code or under the authority recognized in division (C) of 22804
section 120.06, division (E) of section 120.16, division (E) of 22805
section 120.26, or section 2941.51 of the Revised Code;22806

       (2) The right to have independent expert evaluation and to 22807
have that independent expert evaluation provided at public expense 22808
if the person is indigent;22809

       (3) The right to subpoena witnesses and documents, to present 22810
evidence on the person's behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses 22811
against the person;22812

       (4) The right to testify in the person's own behalf and to 22813
not be compelled to testify;22814

       (5) The right to have copies of any relevant medical or 22815
mental health document in the custody of the state or of any place 22816
of commitment other than a document for which the court finds that 22817
the release to the person of information contained in the document 22818
would create a substantial risk of harm to any person.22819

       (D) The hearing under division (A) of this section shall be 22820
open to the public, and the court shall conduct the hearing in 22821
accordance with the Rules of Civil Procedure. The court shall make 22822
and maintain a full transcript and record of the hearing 22823
proceedings. The court may consider all relevant evidence, 22824
including, but not limited to, any relevant psychiatric, 22825
psychological, or medical testimony or reports, the acts 22826
constituting the offense in relation to which the person was found 22827
not guilty by reason of insanity, and any history of the person 22828
that is relevant to the person's ability to conform to the law.22829

       (E) Upon completion of the hearing under division (A) of this 22830
section, if the court finds there is not clear and convincing 22831
evidence that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 22832
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 22833
subject to institutionalization by court order, the court shall 22834
discharge the person, unless a detainer has been placed upon the 22835
person by the department of rehabilitation and correction, in 22836
which case the person shall be returned to that department.22837

       (F) If, at the hearing under division (A) of this section, 22838
the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the person 22839
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 22840
order, the court shall commit the person either to the department 22841
of mental health for placementtreatment in a hospital, facility, 22842
or agency as determined clinically appropriate by the department 22843
of mental health or to another medical or psychiatric facility, as 22844
appropriate. Prior to placing the defendant, the department of 22845
mental health shall obtain court approval for that placement. If, 22846
at the hearing under division (A) of this section, the court finds22847
determines by clear and convincing evidence that the person is a 22848
mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court 22849
orderrequires treatment for mental retardation, it shall commit 22850
the person to a facility operated by the department of 22851
developmental disabilities or another facility, as appropriate. 22852
Further proceedings shall be in accordance with sections 2945.401 22853
and 2945.402 of the Revised Code. In committing the person to the 22854
department of mental health, the court shall specify the least 22855
restrictive limitations to the defendant's freedom of movement 22856
determined to be necessary to protect public safety. In 22857
determining the place and nature of the commitment of a mentally 22858
retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order, 22859
the court shall consider the extent to which the person is a 22860
danger to the person and to others, the need for security, and the 22861
type of crime involved and shall order the least restrictive 22862
commitment alternative available that is consistent with public 22863
safety and the welfare of the person. In weighing these factors, 22864
the court shall give preference to protecting public safety.22865

       (G) If a court makes a commitment of a person under division 22866
(F) of this section, the prosecutor shall send to the hospital, 22867
facility, or agency where the person is placed by the department 22868
of mental health or to the defendant's place of commitment all 22869
reports of the person's current mental condition, and, except as 22870
otherwise provided in this division, any other relevant 22871
information, including, but not limited to, a transcript of the 22872
hearing held pursuant to division (A) of this section, copies of 22873
relevant police reports, and copies of any prior arrest and 22874
conviction records that pertain to the person and that the 22875
prosecutor possesses. The prosecutor shall send the reports of the 22876
person's current mental condition in every case of commitment, 22877
and, unless the prosecutor determines that the release of any of 22878
the other relevant information to unauthorized persons would 22879
interfere with the effective prosecution of any person or would 22880
create a substantial risk of harm to any person, the prosecutor 22881
also shall send the other relevant information. Upon admission of 22882
a person committed under division (F) of this section, the place 22883
of commitment shall send to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 22884
and mental health services or the community mental health board 22885
serving the county in which the charges against the person were 22886
filed a copy of all reports of the person's current mental 22887
condition and a copy of the other relevant information provided by 22888
the prosecutor under this division, including, if provided, a 22889
transcript of the hearing held pursuant to division (A) of this 22890
section, the relevant police reports, and the prior arrest and 22891
conviction records that pertain to the person and that the 22892
prosecutor possesses.22893

       (H) A person who is committed pursuant to this section shall 22894
not voluntarily admit the person or be voluntarily admitted to a 22895
hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02, 5122.15, 22896
5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code.22897

       Sec. 2945.401.  (A) A defendant found incompetent to stand 22898
trial and committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised 22899
Code or a person found not guilty by reason of insanity and 22900
committed pursuant to section 2945.40 of the Revised Code shall 22901
remain subject to the jurisdiction of the trial court pursuant to 22902
that commitment, and to the provisions of this section, until the 22903
final termination of the commitment as described in division 22904
(J)(1) of this section. If the jurisdiction is terminated under 22905
this division because of the final termination of the commitment 22906
resulting from the expiration of the maximum prison term or term 22907
of imprisonment described in division (J)(1)(b) of this section, 22908
the court or prosecutor may file an affidavit for the civil 22909
commitment of the defendant or person pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 22910
5123. of the Revised Code.22911

       (B) A hearing conducted under any provision of sections 22912
2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code shall not be conducted in 22913
accordance with Chapters 5122. and 5123. of the Revised Code. Any 22914
person who is committed pursuant to section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of 22915
the Revised Code shall not voluntarily admit the person or be 22916
voluntarily admitted to a hospital or institution pursuant to 22917
section 5122.02, 5122.15, 5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code. 22918
All other provisions of Chapters 5122. and 5123. of the Revised 22919
Code regarding hospitalization or institutionalization shall apply 22920
to the extent they are not in conflict with this chapter. A 22921
commitment under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code 22922
shall not be terminated and the conditions of the commitment shall 22923
not be changed except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 22924
this section with respect to a mentally retarded person subject to 22925
institutionalization by court order or except by order of the 22926
trial court.22927

       (C) The department of mental health or the institution or,22928
facility, or program to which a defendant or person has been 22929
committed under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code 22930
shall report in writing to the trial court, at the times specified 22931
in this division, as to whether the defendant or person remains a 22932
mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order or a 22933
mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court 22934
order and, in the case of a defendant committed under section 22935
2945.39 of the Revised Code, as to whether the defendant remains 22936
incompetent to stand trial. The department, institution, or22937
facility, or program shall make the reports after the initial six 22938
months of treatment and every two years after the initial report 22939
is made. The trial court shall provide copies of the reports to 22940
the prosecutor and to the counsel for the defendant or person. 22941
Within thirty days after its receipt pursuant to this division of 22942
a report from the department, institution, or facility, or 22943
program, the trial court shall hold a hearing on the continued 22944
commitment of the defendant or person or on any changes in the 22945
conditions of the commitment of the defendant or person. The 22946
defendant or person may request a change in the conditions of 22947
confinement, and the trial court shall conduct a hearing on that 22948
request if six months or more have elapsed since the most recent 22949
hearing was conducted under this section.22950

       (D)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 22951
this section, when a defendant or person has been committed under 22952
section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code, at any time after 22953
evaluating the risks to public safety and the welfare of the 22954
defendant or person, the designee of the department of mental 22955
health or the managing officer of the institution or director of 22956
the facility or program to which the defendant or person is 22957
committed may recommend a termination of the defendant's or 22958
person's commitment or a change in the conditions of the 22959
defendant's or person's commitment.22960

       Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of this 22961
section, if the designee of the department of mental health 22962
recommends on-grounds unsupervised movement, off-grounds 22963
supervised movement, or nonsecured status for the defendant or 22964
person or termination of the defendant's or person's commitment, 22965
the following provisions apply:22966

       (a) If the department's designee recommends on-grounds 22967
unsupervised movement or off-grounds supervised movement, the 22968
department's designee shall file with the trial court an 22969
application for approval of the movement and shall send a copy of 22970
the application to the prosecutor. Within fifteen days after 22971
receiving the application, the prosecutor may request a hearing on 22972
the application and, if a hearing is requested, shall so inform 22973
the department's designee. If the prosecutor does not request a 22974
hearing within the fifteen-day period, the trial court shall 22975
approve the application by entering its order approving the 22976
requested movement or, within five days after the expiration of 22977
the fifteen-day period, shall set a date for a hearing on the 22978
application. If the prosecutor requests a hearing on the 22979
application within the fifteen-day period, the trial court shall 22980
hold a hearing on the application within thirty days after the 22981
hearing is requested. If the trial court, within five days after 22982
the expiration of the fifteen-day period, sets a date for a 22983
hearing on the application, the trial court shall hold the hearing 22984
within thirty days after setting the hearing date. At least 22985
fifteen days before any hearing is held under this division, the 22986
trial court shall give the prosecutor written notice of the date, 22987
time, and place of the hearing. At the conclusion of each hearing 22988
conducted under this division, the trial court either shall 22989
approve or disapprove the application and shall enter its order 22990
accordingly.22991

       (b) If the department's designee recommends termination of 22992
the defendant's or person's commitment at any time or if the 22993
department's designee recommends the first of any nonsecured 22994
status for the defendant or person, the department's designee 22995
shall send written notice of this recommendation to the trial 22996
court and to the local forensic center. The local forensic center 22997
shall evaluate the committed defendant or person and, within 22998
thirty days after its receipt of the written notice, shall submit 22999
to the trial court and the department's designee a written report 23000
of the evaluation. The trial court shall provide a copy of the 23001
department's designee's written notice and of the local forensic 23002
center's written report to the prosecutor and to the counsel for 23003
the defendant or person. Upon the local forensic center's 23004
submission of the report to the trial court and the department's 23005
designee, all of the following apply:23006

       (i) If the forensic center disagrees with the recommendation 23007
of the department's designee, it shall inform the department's 23008
designee and the trial court of its decision and the reasons for 23009
the decision. The department's designee, after consideration of 23010
the forensic center's decision, shall either withdraw, proceed 23011
with, or modify and proceed with the recommendation. If the 23012
department's designee proceeds with, or modifies and proceeds 23013
with, the recommendation, the department's designee shall proceed 23014
in accordance with division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section.23015

       (ii) If the forensic center agrees with the recommendation of 23016
the department's designee, it shall inform the department's 23017
designee and the trial court of its decision and the reasons for 23018
the decision, and the department's designee shall proceed in 23019
accordance with division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section.23020

       (iii) If the forensic center disagrees with the 23021
recommendation of the department's designee and the department's 23022
designee proceeds with, or modifies and proceeds with, the 23023
recommendation or if the forensic center agrees with the 23024
recommendation of the department's designee, the department's 23025
designee shall work with community mental health agencies, 23026
programs, facilities, or boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 23027
mental health services or community mental health boards to 23028
develop a plan to implement the recommendation. If the defendant 23029
or person is on medication, the plan shall include, but shall not 23030
be limited to, a system to monitor the defendant's or person's 23031
compliance with the prescribed medication treatment plan. The 23032
system shall include a schedule that clearly states when the 23033
defendant or person shall report for a medication compliance 23034
check. The medication compliance checks shall be based upon the 23035
effective duration of the prescribed medication, taking into 23036
account the route by which it is taken, and shall be scheduled at 23037
intervals sufficiently close together to detect a potential 23038
increase in mental illness symptoms that the medication is 23039
intended to prevent.23040

       The department's designee, after consultation with the board 23041
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services or the 23042
community mental health board serving the area, shall send the 23043
recommendation and plan developed under division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of 23044
this section, in writing, to the trial court, the prosecutor, and 23045
the counsel for the committed defendant or person. The trial court 23046
shall conduct a hearing on the recommendation and plan developed 23047
under division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section. Divisions (D)(1)(c) 23048
and (d) and (E) to (J) of this section apply regarding the 23049
hearing.23050

       (c) If the department's designee's recommendation is for 23051
nonsecured status or termination of commitment, the prosecutor may 23052
obtain an independent expert evaluation of the defendant's or 23053
person's mental condition, and the trial court may continue the 23054
hearing on the recommendation for a period of not more than thirty 23055
days to permit time for the evaluation.23056

       The prosecutor may introduce the evaluation report or present 23057
other evidence at the hearing in accordance with the Rules of 23058
Evidence.23059

       (d) The trial court shall schedule the hearing on a 23060
department's designee's recommendation for nonsecured status or 23061
termination of commitment and shall give reasonable notice to the 23062
prosecutor and the counsel for the defendant or person. Unless 23063
continued for independent evaluation at the prosecutor's request 23064
or for other good cause, the hearing shall be held within thirty 23065
days after the trial court's receipt of the recommendation and 23066
plan.23067

       (2)(a) Division (D)(1) of this section does not apply to 23068
on-grounds unsupervised movement of a defendant or person who has 23069
been committed under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised 23070
Code, who is a mentally retarded person subject to 23071
institutionalization by court order, and who is being provided 23072
residential habilitation, care, and treatment in a facility 23073
operated by the department of developmental disabilities.23074

       (b) If, pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code, the 23075
trial court commits a defendant who is found incompetent to stand 23076
trial and who is a mentally retarded person subject to 23077
institutionalization by court order, if the defendant is being 23078
provided residential habilitation, care, and treatment in a 23079
facility operated by the department of developmental disabilities, 23080
if an individual who is conducting a survey for the department of 23081
health to determine the facility's compliance with the 23082
certification requirements of the medicaid program under Chapter 23083
5111. of the Revised Code and Title XIX of the "Social Security 23084
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, cites the 23085
defendant's receipt of the residential habilitation, care, and 23086
treatment in the facility as being inappropriate under the 23087
certification requirements, if the defendant's receipt of the 23088
residential habilitation, care, and treatment in the facility 23089
potentially jeopardizes the facility's continued receipt of 23090
federal medicaid moneys, and if as a result of the citation the 23091
chief clinical officer of the facility determines that the 23092
conditions of the defendant's commitment should be changed, the 23093
department of developmental disabilities may cause the defendant 23094
to be removed from the particular facility and, after evaluating 23095
the risks to public safety and the welfare of the defendant and 23096
after determining whether another type of placement is consistent 23097
with the certification requirements, may place the defendant in 23098
another facility that the department selects as an appropriate 23099
facility for the defendant's continued receipt of residential 23100
habilitation, care, and treatment and that is a no less secure 23101
setting than the facility in which the defendant had been placed 23102
at the time of the citation. Within three days after the 23103
defendant's removal and alternative placement under the 23104
circumstances described in division (D)(2)(b) of this section, the 23105
department of developmental disabilities shall notify the trial 23106
court and the prosecutor in writing of the removal and alternative 23107
placement.23108

       The trial court shall set a date for a hearing on the removal 23109
and alternative placement, and the hearing shall be held within 23110
twenty-one days after the trial court's receipt of the notice from 23111
the department of developmental disabilities. At least ten days 23112
before the hearing is held, the trial court shall give the 23113
prosecutor, the department of developmental disabilities, and the 23114
counsel for the defendant written notice of the date, time, and 23115
place of the hearing. At the hearing, the trial court shall 23116
consider the citation issued by the individual who conducted the 23117
survey for the department of health to be prima-facie evidence of 23118
the fact that the defendant's commitment to the particular 23119
facility was inappropriate under the certification requirements of 23120
the medicaid program under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and 23121
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 23122
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and potentially jeopardizes the 23123
particular facility's continued receipt of federal medicaid 23124
moneys. At the conclusion of the hearing, the trial court may 23125
approve or disapprove the defendant's removal and alternative 23126
placement. If the trial court approves the defendant's removal and 23127
alternative placement, the department of developmental 23128
disabilities may continue the defendant's alternative placement. 23129
If the trial court disapproves the defendant's removal and 23130
alternative placement, it shall enter an order modifying the 23131
defendant's removal and alternative placement, but that order 23132
shall not require the department of developmental disabilities to 23133
replace the defendant for purposes of continued residential 23134
habilitation, care, and treatment in the facility associated with 23135
the citation issued by the individual who conducted the survey for 23136
the department of health.23137

       (E) In making a determination under this section regarding 23138
nonsecured status or termination of commitment, the trial court 23139
shall consider all relevant factors, including, but not limited 23140
to, all of the following:23141

       (1) Whether, in the trial court's view, the defendant or 23142
person currently represents a substantial risk of physical harm to 23143
the defendant or person or others;23144

       (2) Psychiatric and medical testimony as to the current 23145
mental and physical condition of the defendant or person;23146

       (3) Whether the defendant or person has insight into the 23147
dependant's defendant's or person's condition so that the 23148
defendant or person will continue treatment as prescribed or seek 23149
professional assistance as needed;23150

       (4) The grounds upon which the state relies for the proposed 23151
commitment;23152

       (5) Any past history that is relevant to establish the 23153
defendant's or person's degree of conformity to the laws, rules, 23154
regulations, and values of society;23155

       (6) If there is evidence that the defendant's or person's 23156
mental illness is in a state of remission, the medically suggested 23157
cause and degree of the remission and the probability that the 23158
defendant or person will continue treatment to maintain the 23159
remissive state of the defendant's or person's illness should the 23160
defendant's or person's commitment conditions be altered.23161

       (F) At any hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) or 23162
(2) of this section, the defendant or the person shall have all 23163
the rights of a defendant or person at a commitment hearing as 23164
described in section 2945.40 of the Revised Code.23165

       (G) In a hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) of 23166
this section, the prosecutor has the burden of proof as follows:23167

       (1) For a recommendation of termination of commitment, to 23168
show by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant or person 23169
remains a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 23170
order or a mentally retarded person subject to 23171
institutionalization by court order;23172

       (2) For a recommendation for a change in the conditions of 23173
the commitment to a less restrictive status, to show by clear and 23174
convincing evidence that the proposed change represents a threat 23175
to public safety or a threat to the safety of any person.23176

       (H) In a hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) or 23177
(2) of this section, the prosecutor shall represent the state or 23178
the public interest.23179

       (I) At the conclusion of a hearing conducted under division 23180
(D)(1) of this section regarding a recommendation from the 23181
designee of the department of mental health, managing officer of 23182
the institution, or director of a facility or program, the trial 23183
court may approve, disapprove, or modify the recommendation and 23184
shall enter an order accordingly.23185

       (J)(1) A defendant or person who has been committed pursuant 23186
to section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code continues to be 23187
under the jurisdiction of the trial court until the final 23188
termination of the commitment. For purposes of division (J) of 23189
this section, the final termination of a commitment occurs upon 23190
the earlier of one of the following:23191

       (a) The defendant or person no longer is a mentally ill 23192
person subject to hospitalization by court order or a mentally 23193
retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order, as 23194
determined by the trial court;23195

       (b) The expiration of the maximum prison term or term of 23196
imprisonment that the defendant or person could have received if 23197
the defendant or person had been convicted of the most serious 23198
offense with which the defendant or person is charged or in 23199
relation to which the defendant or person was found not guilty by 23200
reason of insanity;23201

       (c) The trial court enters an order terminating the 23202
commitment under the circumstances described in division 23203
(J)(2)(a)(ii) of this section.23204

       (2)(a) If a defendant is found incompetent to stand trial and 23205
committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code, if 23206
neither of the circumstances described in divisions (J)(1)(a) and 23207
(b) of this section applies to that defendant, and if a report 23208
filed with the trial court pursuant to division (C) of this 23209
section indicates that the defendant presently is competent to 23210
stand trial or if, at any other time during the period of the 23211
defendant's commitment, the prosecutor, the counsel for the 23212
defendant, or the designee of the department of mental health or 23213
the managing officer of the institution or director of the 23214
facility or program to which the defendant is committed files an 23215
application with the trial court alleging that the defendant 23216
presently is competent to stand trial and requesting a hearing on 23217
the competency issue or the trial court otherwise has reasonable 23218
cause to believe that the defendant presently is competent to 23219
stand trial and determines on its own motion to hold a hearing on 23220
the competency issue, the trial court shall schedule a hearing on 23221
the competency of the defendant to stand trial, shall give the 23222
prosecutor, the counsel for the defendant, and the department's 23223
designee or the managing officer of the institution or the 23224
director of the facility to which the defendant is committed 23225
notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing at least 23226
fifteen days before the hearing, and shall conduct the hearing 23227
within thirty days of the filing of the application or of its own 23228
motion. If, at the conclusion of the hearing, the trial court 23229
determines that the defendant presently is capable of 23230
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 23231
the defendant and of assisting in the defendant's defense, the 23232
trial court shall order that the defendant is competent to stand 23233
trial and shall be proceeded against as provided by law with 23234
respect to the applicable offenses described in division (C)(1) of 23235
section 2945.38 of the Revised Code and shall enter whichever of 23236
the following additional orders is appropriate:23237

       (i) If the trial court determines that the defendant remains 23238
a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order or 23239
a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 23240
court order, the trial court shall order that the defendant's 23241
commitment to the department of mental health or to an institution 23242
or, facility, or program for the treatment of developmental 23243
disabilitiesmental retardation be continued during the pendency 23244
of the trial on the applicable offenses described in division 23245
(C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the Revised Code.23246

       (ii) If the trial court determines that the defendant no 23247
longer is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 23248
court order or a mentally retarded person subject to 23249
institutionalization by court order, the trial court shall order 23250
that the defendant's commitment to the department of mental health 23251
or to an institution or, facility, or program for the treatment of 23252
developmental disabilitiesmental retardation shall not be 23253
continued during the pendency of the trial on the applicable 23254
offenses described in division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the 23255
Revised Code. This order shall be a final termination of the 23256
commitment for purposes of division (J)(1)(c) of this section.23257

       (b) If, at the conclusion of the hearing described in 23258
division (J)(2)(a) of this section, the trial court determines 23259
that the defendant remains incapable of understanding the nature 23260
and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or of 23261
assisting in the defendant's defense, the trial court shall order 23262
that the defendant continues to be incompetent to stand trial, 23263
that the defendant's commitment to the department of mental health 23264
or to an institution or, facility, or program for the treatment of 23265
developmental disabilitiesmental retardation shall be continued, 23266
and that the defendant remains subject to the jurisdiction of the 23267
trial court pursuant to that commitment, and to the provisions of 23268
this section, until the final termination of the commitment as 23269
described in division (J)(1) of this section.23270

       Sec. 2961.22.  (A)(1) Any prisoner serving a prison term in a 23271
state correctional institution who satisfies all of the following 23272
is eligible to apply to the department of rehabilitation and 23273
correction at a time specified in division (A)(2) of this section 23274
and in accordance with division (D) of this section for a 23275
certificate of achievement and employability:23276

       (a) The prisoner has satisfactorily completed one or more 23277
in-prison vocational programs approved by rule by the department 23278
of rehabilitation and correction.23279

       (b) The prisoner has demonstrated exemplary performance as 23280
determined by completion of one or more cognitive or behavioral 23281
improvement programs approved by rule by the department while 23282
incarcerated in a state correctional institution, while under 23283
supervision, or during both periods of time.23284

       (c) The prisoner has completed community service hours.23285

       (d) The prisoner shows other evidence of achievement and 23286
rehabilitation while under the jurisdiction of the department.23287

       (2) An eligible prisoner may apply to the department of 23288
rehabilitation and correction under division (A)(1) of this 23289
section for a certificate of achievement and employability no 23290
earlier than one year prior to the date scheduled for the release 23291
of the prisoner from department custody and no later than the date 23292
of release of the prisoner.23293

       (B)(1) Any prisoner who has been released from a state 23294
correctional institution, who is under supervision on parole or 23295
under a post-release control sanction, and who satisfies all of 23296
the criteria set forth in division (A)(1) of this section is 23297
eligible to apply to the adult parole authority at a time 23298
specified in division (B)(2) of this section and in accordance 23299
with division (D) of this section for a certificate of achievement 23300
and employability.23301

       (2) An eligible prisoner may apply to the adult parole 23302
authority under division (B)(1) of this section for a certificate 23303
of achievement and employability at any time while the prisoner is 23304
under supervision on parole or under a post-release control 23305
sanction.23306

       (C)(1) An eligible prisoner may apply to the department of 23307
rehabilitation and correction or to the adult parole authority at 23308
a time specified in division (A) or (B) of this section, whichever 23309
is applicable, for a certificate of achievement and employability 23310
that grants the prisoner relief from one or more mandatory civil 23311
impacts that would affect a potential job within a field in which 23312
the prisoner trained as part of the prisoner's in-prison 23313
vocational program. The prisoner shall specify the mandatory civil 23314
impacts from which the prisoner is requesting relief under the 23315
certificate. Upon application by a prisoner in accordance with 23316
this division, if the mandatory civil impact of any licensing 23317
agency would be affected by the issuance of the certificate to the 23318
prisoner, the department or authority shall notify the licensing 23319
agency of the filing of the application, provide the licensing 23320
agency with a copy of the application and all evidence that the 23321
department, authority, or court has regarding the prisoner, and 23322
afford the licensing agency with an opportunity to object in 23323
writing to the issuance of the certificate to the prisoner.23324

       (2) Upon application by a prisoner in accordance with 23325
division (C)(1) of this section, the department of rehabilitation 23326
and correction or the adult parole authority, whichever is 23327
applicable, shall consider the application and all objections to 23328
the issuance of a certificate of achievement and employability to 23329
the prisoner, if any, that were made by a licensing agency under 23330
division (C)(1) of this section. If the department or authority 23331
determines that the prisoner is an eligible prisoner, that the 23332
application was filed at a time specified in division (B) of this 23333
section, and that any licensing agency objections to the issuance 23334
of the certificate to the prisoner are not sufficient to deny the 23335
issuance of the certificate to the prisoner, subject to division 23336
(C)(3) of this section, the department or authority shall issue 23337
the prisoner a certificate of achievement and employability that 23338
grants the prisoner relief from the mandatory civil impacts that 23339
are specified in the prisoner's application and that would affect 23340
a potential job within a field in which the prisoner trained as 23341
part of the prisoner's in-prison vocational program.23342

       (3) The mandatory civil impacts identified in division (A)(1) 23343
of section 2961.01 and in division (B) of section 2961.02 of the 23344
Revised Code shall not be affected by any certificate of 23345
achievement and employability issued under this section. No 23346
certificate of achievement and employability issued to a prisoner 23347
under this section grants the prisoner relief from the mandatory 23348
civil impacts identified in division (A)(1) of section 2961.01 and 23349
in division (B) of section 2961.02 of the Revised Code.23350

       (E) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 23351
adopt rules that define in-prison vocational programs and 23352
cognitive or behavioral improvement programs that a prisoner may 23353
complete to satisfy the criteria described in divisions (A)(1)(a) 23354
and (b) of this section.23355

       (F) The department of rehabilitation and correction and the 23356
adult parole authority shall not be liable for any claim for 23357
damages arising from the department's or authority's issuance, 23358
denial, or revocation of a certificate of achievement and 23359
employability or for the department's or authority's failure to 23360
revoke a certificate of achievement and employability under the 23361
circumstances described in section 2961.24 of the Revised Code.23362

       Sec. 2967.03.  The adult parole authority may exercise its 23363
functions and duties in relation to the pardon, commutation of 23364
sentence, or reprieve of a convict upon direction of the governor 23365
or upon its own initiative. It may exercise its functions and 23366
duties in relation to the parole of a prisoner who is eligible for 23367
parole upon the initiative of the head of the institution in which 23368
the prisoner is confined or upon its own initiative. When a 23369
prisoner becomes eligible for parole, the head of the institution 23370
in which the prisoner is confined shall notify the authority in 23371
the manner prescribed by the authority. The authority may 23372
investigate and examine, or cause the investigation and 23373
examination of, prisoners confined in state correctional 23374
institutions concerning their conduct in the institutions, their 23375
mental and moral qualities and characteristics, their knowledge of 23376
a trade or profession, their former means of livelihood, their 23377
family relationships, and any other matters affecting their 23378
fitness to be at liberty without being a threat to society.23379

       The authority may recommend to the governor the pardon, 23380
commutation of sentence, medical release, or reprieve of any 23381
convict or prisoner or grant a parole to any prisoner for whom 23382
parole is authorized, if in its judgment there is reasonable 23383
ground to believe that granting a pardon, commutation, medical 23384
release, or reprieve to the convict or paroling the prisoner would 23385
further the interests of justice and be consistent with the 23386
welfare and security of society. However, the authority shall not 23387
recommend a pardon,or commutation of sentence, or medical release 23388
of, or grant a parole to, any convict or prisoner until the 23389
authority has complied with the applicable notice requirements of 23390
sections 2930.16 and 2967.12 of the Revised Code and until it has 23391
considered any statement made by a victim or a victim's 23392
representative that is relevant to the convict's or prisoner's 23393
case and that was sent to the authority pursuant to section 23394
2930.17 of the Revised Code, any other statement made by a victim 23395
or a victim's representative that is relevant to the convict's or 23396
prisoner's case and that was received by the authority after it 23397
provided notice of the pendency of the action under sections 23398
2930.16 and 2967.12 of the Revised Code, and any written statement 23399
of any person submitted to the court pursuant to division (G) of 23400
section 2967.12 of the Revised Code. If a victim, victim's 23401
representative, or the victim's spouse, parent, sibling, or child 23402
appears at a full board hearing of the parole board and gives 23403
testimony as authorized by section 5149.101 of the Revised Code, 23404
the authority shall consider the testimony in determining whether 23405
to grant a parole. The trial judge and prosecuting attorney of the 23406
trial court in which a person was convicted shall furnish to the 23407
authority, at the request of the authority, a summarized statement 23408
of the facts proved at the trial and of all other facts having 23409
reference to the propriety of recommending a pardon, commutation, 23410
or medical release, or granting a parole, together with a 23411
recommendation for or against a pardon, commutation, medical 23412
release, or parole, and the reasons for the recommendation. The 23413
trial judge, the prosecuting attorney, specified law enforcement 23414
agency members, and a representative of the prisoner may appear at 23415
a full board hearing of the parole board and give testimony in 23416
regard to the grant of a parole to the prisoner as authorized by 23417
section 5149.101 of the Revised Code. All state and local 23418
officials shall furnish information to the authority, when so 23419
requested by it in the performance of its duties.23420

       The adult parole authority shall exercise its functions and 23421
duties in relation to the release of prisoners who are serving a 23422
stated prison term in accordance with section 2967.28 of the 23423
Revised Code.23424

       Sec. 2967.05.  (A) As used in this section:23425

       (1) "Imminent danger of death" means that the inmate has a 23426
medically diagnosable condition that will cause death to occur 23427
within a short period of time.23428

       As used in division (A)(1) of this section, "within a short 23429
period of time" means generally within six months.23430

       (2)(a) "Medically incapacitated" means any diagnosable 23431
medical condition, including mental dementia and severe, permanent 23432
medical or cognitive disability, that prevents the inmate from 23433
completing activities of daily living without significant 23434
assistance, that incapacitates the inmate to the extent that 23435
institutional confinement does not offer additional restrictions, 23436
that is likely to continue throughout the entire period of parole, 23437
and that is unlikely to improve noticeably. 23438

       (b) "Medically incapacitated" does not include conditions 23439
related solely to mental illness unless the mental illness is 23440
accompanied by injury, disease, or organic defect.23441

       (3)(a) "Terminal illness" means a condition that satisfies 23442
all of the following criteria:23443

       (i) The condition is irreversible and incurable and is caused 23444
by disease, illness, or injury from which the inmate is unlikely 23445
to recover.23446

       (ii) In accordance with reasonable medical standards and a 23447
reasonable degree of medical certainty, the condition is likely to 23448
cause death to the inmate within twelve months.23449

       (iii) Institutional confinement of the inmate does not offer 23450
additional protections for public safety or against the inmate's 23451
risk to reoffend.23452

       (b) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 23453
adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 23454
implement the definition of "terminal illness" in division 23455
(A)(3)(a) of this section.23456

       (B) Upon the recommendation of the director of rehabilitation 23457
and correction, accompanied by a certificate of the attending 23458
physician that an inmate is terminally ill, medically 23459
incapacitated, or in imminent danger of death, the governor may 23460
order the inmate's release as if on parole, reserving the right to 23461
return the inmate to the institution pursuant to this section. If, 23462
subsequent to the inmate's release, the inmate's health improves 23463
so that the inmate is no longer terminally ill, medically 23464
incapacitated, or in imminent danger of death, the inmate shall be 23465
returned, by order of the governor, to the institution from which 23466
the inmate was released. If the inmate violates any rules or 23467
conditions applicable to the inmate, the inmate may be returned to 23468
an institution under the control of the department of 23469
rehabilitation and correction. The governor may direct the adult 23470
parole authority to investigate or cause to be investigated the 23471
inmate and make a recommendation in the manner set forth in 23472
section 2967.03 of the Revised Code. An inmate released under this 23473
section shall be subject to supervision by the adult parole 23474
authority in accordance with any recommendation of the adult 23475
parole authority that is approved by the governor. The adult 23476
parole authority shall adopt rules pursuant to section 119.03 of 23477
the Revised Code to establish the procedure for medical release of 23478
an inmate when an inmate is terminally ill, medically 23479
incapacitated, or in imminent danger of death.23480

       (C) No inmate is eligible for release under this section if 23481
the inmate is serving a death sentence, a sentence of life without 23482
parole, a sentence under Chapter 2971. of the Revised Code for a 23483
felony of the first or second degree, a sentence for aggravated 23484
murder or murder, or a mandatory prison term for an offense of 23485
violence or any specification described in Chapter 2941. of the 23486
Revised Code.23487

       Sec. 2967.14.  (A) The department of rehabilitation and 23488
correction or the adult parole authority may require or allow a 23489
parolee, a releasee, or a prisoner otherwise released from a state 23490
correctional institution to reside in a halfway house or other 23491
suitable community residential center that has been licensed by 23492
the division of parole and community services pursuant to division 23493
(C) of this section during a part or for the entire period of the 23494
offender's or parolee's conditional release or of the releasee's 23495
term of post-release control. The court of common pleas that 23496
placed an offender under a sanction consisting of a term in a 23497
halfway house or in an alternative residential sanction may 23498
require the offender to reside in a halfway house or other 23499
suitable community residential center that is designated by the 23500
court and that has been licensed by the division pursuant to 23501
division (C) of this section during a part or for the entire 23502
period of the offender's residential sanction.23503

       (B) The division of parole and community services may 23504
negotiate and enter into agreements with any public or private 23505
agency or a department or political subdivision of the state that 23506
operates a halfway house, reentry center, or community residential 23507
center that has been licensed by the division pursuant to division 23508
(C) of this section. An agreement under this division shall 23509
provide for the purchase of beds, shall set limits of supervision 23510
and levels of occupancy, and shall determine the scope of services 23511
for all eligible offenders, including those subject to a 23512
residential sanction, as defined in rules adopted by the director 23513
of rehabilitation and correction in accordance with Chapter 119. 23514
of the Revised Code, or those released from prison without 23515
supervision. The payments for beds and services shall not exceed 23516
the total operating costs of the halfway house, reentry center, or 23517
community residential center during the term of an agreement. The 23518
director of rehabilitation and correction shall adopt rules in 23519
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for determining 23520
includable and excludable costs and income to be used in computing 23521
the agency's average daily per capita costs with its facility at 23522
full occupancy.23523

       The departmentdirector of rehabilitation and correction may23524
shall adopt rules providing for the use of no more than ten23525
fifteen per cent of the amount appropriated to the department each 23526
fiscal year for the halfway house, reentry center, and community 23527
residential center program to pay for contracts with licensed 23528
halfway houses for nonresidential services for offenders under the 23529
supervision of the adult parole authority, including but not 23530
limited to, offenders supervised pursuant to an agreement entered 23531
into by the adult parole authority and a court of common pleas 23532
under section 2301.32 of the Revised Code. The nonresidential 23533
services may include, but are not limited to, treatment for 23534
substance abuse, mental health counseling, counseling for sex 23535
offenders, and electronic monitoring services, aftercare, and 23536
other nonresidential services that the director identifies by 23537
rule.23538

       (C) The division of parole and community services may license 23539
a halfway house, reentry center, or community residential center 23540
as a suitable facility for the care and treatment of adult 23541
offenders, including offenders sentenced under section 2929.16 or 23542
2929.26 of the Revised Code, only if the halfway house, reentry 23543
center, or community residential center complies with the 23544
standards that the division adopts in accordance with Chapter 119. 23545
of the Revised Code for the licensure of halfway houses, reentry 23546
centers, and community residential centers. The division shall 23547
annually inspect each licensed halfway house, licensed reentry 23548
center, and licensed community residential center to determine if 23549
it is in compliance with the licensure standards.23550

       Sec. 2967.19.  (A) As used in this section:23551

       (1) "Deadly weapon" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same 23552
meanings as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.23553

       (2) "Disqualifying prison term" means any of the following: 23554

       (a) A prison term imposed for aggravated murder, murder, 23555
voluntary manslaughter, involuntary manslaughter, felonious 23556
assault, kidnapping, rape, aggravated arson, aggravated burglary, 23557
or aggravated robbery;23558

       (b) A prison term imposed for complicity in, an attempt to 23559
commit, or conspiracy to commit any offense listed in division 23560
(A)(2)(a) of this section;23561

       (c) A prison term of life imprisonment, including any term of 23562
life imprisonment that has parole eligibility;23563

       (d) A prison term imposed for any felony other than carrying 23564
a concealed weapon an essential element of which is any conduct or 23565
failure to act expressly involving any deadly weapon or dangerous 23566
ordnance;23567

       (e) A prison term imposed for any violation of section 23568
2925.03 of the Revised Code that is a felony of the first or 23569
second degree;23570

       (f) A prison term imposed for engaging in a pattern of 23571
corrupt activity in violation of section 2923.32 of the Revised 23572
Code;23573

       (g) A prison term imposed pursuant to section 2971.03 of the 23574
Revised Code;23575

       (h) A prison term imposed for any sexually oriented offense.23576

       (3) "Eligible prison term" means any prison term that is not 23577
a disqualifying prison term and is not a restricting prison term. 23578

       (4) "Restricting prison term" means any of the following: 23579

       (a) A mandatory prison term imposed under division 23580
(D)(B)(1)(a), (D)(B)(1)(c), (D)(B)(1)(f), (D)(B)(1)(g), 23581
(D)(B)(2), or (D)(B)(7) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code for 23582
a specification of the type described in that division;23583

       (b) In the case of an offender who has been sentenced to a 23584
mandatory prison term for a specification of the type described in 23585
division (A)(4)(a) of this section, the prison term imposed for 23586
the felony offense for which the specification was stated at the 23587
end of the body of the indictment, count in the indictment, or 23588
information charging the offense;23589

       (c) A prison term imposed for trafficking in persons;23590

       (d) A prison term imposed for any offense that is described 23591
in division (A)(4)(d)(i) of this section if division (A)(4)(d)(ii) 23592
of this section applies to the offender:23593

       (i) The offense is a felony of the first or second degree 23594
that is an offense of violence and that is not described in 23595
division (A)(2)(a) or (b) of this section, an attempt to commit a 23596
felony of the first or second degree that is an offense of 23597
violence and that is not described in division (A)(2)(a) or (b) of 23598
this section if the attempt is a felony of the first or second 23599
degree, or an offense under an existing or former law of this 23600
state, another state, or the United States that is or was 23601
substantially equivalent to any other offense described in this 23602
division. 23603

       (ii) The offender previously was convicted of or pleaded 23604
guilty to any offense listed in division (A)(2) or (A)(4)(d)(i) of 23605
this section. 23606

       (5) "Sexually oriented offense" has the same meaning as in 23607
section 2950.01 of the Revised Code.23608

        (B) The director of the department of rehabilitation and 23609
correction may petitionrecommend in writing to the sentencing 23610
court for the releasethat the court consider releasing from 23611
prison of any offender who, on or after September 30, 2011, is23612
confined in a state correctional institution under, who is serving23613
a stated prison term of one year or more, and who is eligible 23614
under division (C) of this section for a release under this 23615
section and who has served at least eighty per cent of that stated 23616
prison term that remains to be served after the offender becomes 23617
eligible as described in that division. If the director wishes to 23618
submit a petition for releaserecommend that the sentencing court 23619
consider releasing an offender under this section, the director 23620
shall submit the petitionnotify the sentencing court in writing 23621
of the offender's eligibility not earlier than ninety days prior 23622
to the date on which the offender has served eighty per cent of 23623
the offender's stated prison term that remains to be served after 23624
the offender becomes eligible as described in division (C) of this 23625
section. The director's submission of a petition for release under 23626
this sectionthe written notice constitutes a recommendation by 23627
the director that the court strongly consider release of the 23628
offender consistent with the purposes and principles of sentencing 23629
set forth in sections 2929.11 and 2929.13 of the Revised Code. 23630
Only an offender recommended by the director under division (B) of 23631
this section may be considered for early release under this 23632
section.23633

       (C)(1) An offender serving a stated prison term of one year 23634
or more and who has commenced service of that stated prison term 23635
becomes eligible for release from prison under this section only 23636
as described in this division. An offender serving a stated prison 23637
term that includes a disqualifying prison term is not eligible for 23638
release from prison under this section. An offender serving a 23639
stated prison term that consists solely of one or more restricting 23640
prison terms is not eligible for release under this section. An 23641
offender serving a stated prison term of one year or more that 23642
includes one or more restricting prison terms and one or more 23643
eligible prison terms becomes eligible for release under this 23644
section after having fully served eachall restricting prison term23645
terms and having served eighty per cent of the stated prison term 23646
that remains to be served after all restricting prison terms have 23647
been fully served. An offender serving a stated prison term that 23648
consists solely of one or more eligible prison terms becomes 23649
eligible for release under this section upon the offender's 23650
commencement of serviceafter having served eighty per cent of 23651
that stated prison term. After an offender becomes eligible for 23652
release under this section, the director of rehabilitation and 23653
correction may petition for the release of the offender under 23654
division (C)(2) of this section no earlier than ninety days before 23655
the offender has served the portion of the offender's stated 23656
prison term specified in that division. For purposes of 23657
determining an offender's eligibility for release under this 23658
section, if the offender's stated prison term includes consecutive 23659
prison terms, any restricting prison terms shall be deemed served 23660
prior to any eligible prison terms that run consecutively to the 23661
restricting prison terms, and the eligible prison terms are deemed 23662
to commence after all of the restricting prison terms have been 23663
fully served. 23664

       An offender serving a stated prison term oneof one year or 23665
more that includes a mandatory prison term that is not a 23666
disqualifying prison term and is not a restricting prison term is 23667
not automatically ineligible as a result of the offender's service 23668
of that mandatory term for release from prison under this section, 23669
and the offender's eligibility for release from prison under this 23670
section is determined in accordance with this division.23671

       (2) If an offender confined in a state correctional 23672
institution under a stated prison term is eligible for release 23673
under this section as described in division (C)(1) of this 23674
section, the director of the department of rehabilitation and 23675
correction may petitionrecommend in writing that the sentencing 23676
court pursuant to division (B) of this section for the release23677
consider releasing the offender from prison of the offenderunder 23678
this section by submitting to the sentencing court the written 23679
notice described in division (B) of this section.23680

       (D) The director shall include with any petitionnotice23681
submitted to the sentencing court under division (B) of this 23682
section an institutional summary report that covers the offender's 23683
participation while confined in a state correctional institution 23684
in school, training, work, treatment, and other rehabilitative 23685
activities and any disciplinary action taken against the offender 23686
while so confined. The director shall include with the petition a 23687
post-release control assessment and placement plan, when relevant, 23688
andnotice any other documentation requested by the court, if 23689
available. 23690

       (E) When the director submits a petitionwritten notice to a 23691
sentencing court that an offender is eligible to be considered for 23692
early release under this section for release of an offender, the 23693
department promptly shall provide to the prosecuting attorney of 23694
the county in which the offender was indicted a copy of the 23695
petitionwritten notice, a copy of the institutional summary 23696
report, and any other information provided to the court. The 23697
department also promptly shall give written notice of the filing 23698
of the petitionsubmission to any victim of the offender or 23699
victim's representative of any victim of the offender who is 23700
registered with the office of victim's services. 23701

       The department also shall post a copy of the written notice 23702
of the petition on the database it maintains under section 5120.66 23703
of the Revised Code and include information on where a person may 23704
send comments regarding the petitionrecommendation of early 23705
release. 23706

       The information provided to the court, the prosecutor, and 23707
the victim or victim's representative under divisions (D) and (E) 23708
of this section shall include the name and contact information of 23709
a specific department of rehabilitation and correction employee 23710
who is available to answer questions about the offender who is the 23711
subject of the written notice submitted by the director, 23712
including, but not limited to, the offender's institutional 23713
conduct and rehabilitative activities while incarcerated.23714

       (F) Upon receipt of a petition for release of an offender23715
written notice submitted by the director under division (B) of23716
this section, the court may deny the petition withouteither 23717
shall, on its own motion, schedule a hearing to consider releasing 23718
the offender who is the subject of the notice or shall inform the 23719
department that it will not be conducting a hearing relative to 23720
the offender. The court shall not grant a petition foran early23721
release ofto an offender without holding a hearing. If a court 23722
denies a petition for release of an offender withoutdeclines to 23723
hold a hearing relative to an offender with respect to a written 23724
notice submitted by the director, the court may later consider 23725
release of that offender under this section on a subsequent 23726
petition. The court shall enter its ruling withinits own motion 23727
by scheduling a hearing for that purpose. Within thirty days after 23728
the petitionwritten notice is filedsubmitted, the court shall 23729
inform the department whether or not the court is scheduling a 23730
hearing on the offender who is the subject of the notice. 23731

       (G) If the court grantsschedules a hearing onupon receiving23732
a petition for release of an offenderwritten notice submitted 23733
under division (B) of this section or upon its own motion under 23734
division (F) of this section, the court shall notify the head of 23735
the state correctional institution in which the offender is 23736
confined of the hearing prior to the hearing. If the court makes a 23737
journal entry ordering the offender to be conveyed to the hearing, 23738
except as otherwise provided in this division, the head of the 23739
correctional institution shall deliver the offender to the sheriff 23740
of the county in which the hearing is to be held, and the sheriff 23741
shall convey the offender to and from the hearing. Upon the 23742
court's own motion or the motion of the offender or the 23743
prosecuting attorney of the county in which the offender was 23744
indicted, the court may permit the offender to appear at the 23745
hearing by video conferencing equipment if equipment of that 23746
nature is available and compatible.23747

       Upon receipt of notice from a court of a hearing on the 23748
release of an offender under this division, the head of the state 23749
correctional institution in which the offender is confined 23750
immediately shall notify the appropriate person at the department 23751
of rehabilitation and correction of the hearing, and the 23752
department within twenty-four hours after receipt of the notice 23753
shall post on the database it maintains pursuant to section 23754
5120.66 of the Revised Code the offender's name and all of the 23755
information specified in division (A)(1)(c)(i) of that section. If 23756
the court grantsschedules a hearing on a petition for release of 23757
an offender under this section, the court promptly shall give 23758
notice of the hearing to the prosecuting attorney of the county in 23759
which the offender was indicted. Upon receipt of the notice from 23760
the court, the prosecuting attorney shall notify pursuant to 23761
section 2930.16 of the Revised Code any victim of the offender or 23762
the victim's representative of the hearing.23763

       (H) If the court grantsschedules a hearing on a petition for 23764
release of an offender under this section, at the hearing, the 23765
court shall afford the offender and the offender's attorney an 23766
opportunity to present written information and, if present, oral 23767
information relevant to the motionoffender's early release. The 23768
court shall afford a similar opportunity to the prosecuting 23769
attorney, victim or victim's representative, as defined in section 23770
2930.01 of the Revised Code, and any other person the court 23771
determines is likely to present additional relevant information. 23772
If the court pursuant to division (G) of this section permits the 23773
offender to appear at the hearing by video conferencing equipment, 23774
the offender's opportunity to present oral information shall be as 23775
a part of the video conferencing. The court shall consider any 23776
statement of a victim made under section 2930.14 or 2930.17 of the 23777
Revised Code, any victim impact statement prepared under section23778
2947.051 of the Revised Code, and any report, plan, and other 23779
documentation submitted by the director under division (D) of this 23780
section. After ruling on the motionwhether to grant the offender 23781
early release, the court shall notify the victim in accordance 23782
with sections 2930.03 and 2930.16 of the Revised Code. 23783

       (I) If the court grants a petition for release of an offender 23784
early release under this section, it shall order the release of 23785
the offender, shall place the offender under one or more 23786
appropriate community control sanctions, under appropriate 23787
conditions, and under the supervision of the department of 23788
probation that serves the court, and shall reserve the right to 23789
reimpose the sentence that it reduced and from which the offender 23790
was released if the offender violates the sanction. The court 23791
shall not make a release under this section effective prior to the 23792
date on which the offender has served at least eighty per cent of 23793
the offender's stated prison term that remains to be served after 23794
the offender becomes eligible as described in division (C) of this 23795
section. If the sentence under which the offender is confined in a 23796
state correctional institution and from which the offender is 23797
being released was imposed for a felony of the first or second 23798
degree, the court shall consider ordering that the offender be 23799
monitored by means of a global positioning device. If the court 23800
reimposes the sentence that it reduced and from which the offender 23801
was released and if the violation of the sanction is a new 23802
offense, the court may order that the reimposed sentence be served 23803
either concurrently with, or consecutive to, any new sentence 23804
imposed upon the offender as a result of the violation that is a 23805
new offense. The period of all community control sanctions imposed 23806
under this division shall not exceed five years. The court, in its 23807
discretion, may reduce the period of community control sanctions 23808
by the amount of time the offender spent in jail or prison for the 23809
offense. 23810

       If the court grants a petition for release of an offender 23811
early release under this section, it shall notify the appropriate 23812
person at the department of rehabilitation and correction of the 23813
release, and the department shall post notice of the release on 23814
the database it maintains pursuant to section 5120.66 of the 23815
Revised Code.23816

       (J) The department shall adopt under Chapter 119. of the 23817
Revised Code any rules necessary to implement this section.23818

       Sec. 2967.191.  The department of rehabilitation and 23819
correction shall reduce the stated prison term of a prisoner or, 23820
if the prisoner is serving a term for which there is parole 23821
eligibility, the minimum and maximum term or the parole 23822
eligibility date of the prisoner by the total number of days that 23823
the prisoner was confined for any reason arising out of the 23824
offense for which the prisoner was convicted and sentenced, 23825
including confinement in lieu of bail while awaiting trial, 23826
confinement for examination to determine the prisoner's competence 23827
to stand trial or sanity, and confinement while awaiting 23828
transportation to the place where the prisoner is to serve the 23829
prisoner's prison term, as determined by the sentencing court 23830
under division (B)(2)(h)(i) of section 2929.19 of the Revised 23831
Code. The department of rehabilitation and correction also shall 23832
reduce the stated prison term of a prisoner or, if the prisoner is 23833
serving a term for which there is parole eligibility, the minimum 23834
and maximum term or the parole eligibility date of the prisoner by 23835
the total number of days, if any, that the prisoner previously 23836
served in the custody of the department of rehabilitation and 23837
correction arising out of the offense for which the prisoner was 23838
convicted and sentenced.23839

       Sec. 2967.26.  (A)(1) The department of rehabilitation and 23840
correction, by rule, may establish a transitional control program 23841
for the purpose of closely monitoring a prisoner's adjustment to 23842
community supervision during the final one hundred eighty days of 23843
the prisoner's confinement. If the department establishes a 23844
transitional control program under this division, the adult parole 23845
authority may transfer eligible prisoners to transitional control 23846
status under the program during the final one hundred eighty days 23847
of their confinement and under the terms and conditions 23848
established by the department, shall provide for the confinement 23849
as provided in this division of each eligible prisoner so 23850
transferred, and shall supervise each eligible prisoner so 23851
transferred in one or more community control sanctions. Each 23852
eligible prisoner who is transferred to transitional control 23853
status under the program shall be confined in a suitable facility 23854
that is licensed pursuant to division (C) of section 2967.14 of 23855
the Revised Code, or shall be confined in a residence the 23856
department has approved for this purpose and be monitored pursuant 23857
to an electronic monitoring device, as defined in section 2929.01 23858
of the Revised Code. If the department establishes a transitional 23859
control program under this division, the rules establishing the 23860
program shall include criteria that define which prisoners are 23861
eligible for the program, criteria that must be satisfied to be 23862
approved as a residence that may be used for confinement under the 23863
program of a prisoner that is transferred to it and procedures for 23864
the department to approve residences that satisfy those criteria, 23865
and provisions of the type described in division (C) of this 23866
section. At a minimum, the criteria that define which prisoners 23867
are eligible for the program shall provide all of the following:23868

       (a) That a prisoner is eligible for the program if the 23869
prisoner is serving a prison term or term of imprisonment for an 23870
offense committed prior to March 17, 1998, and if, at the time at 23871
which eligibility is being determined, the prisoner would have 23872
been eligible for a furlough under this section as it existed 23873
immediately prior to March 17, 1998, or would have been eligible 23874
for conditional release under former section 2967.23 of the 23875
Revised Code as that section existed immediately prior to March 23876
17, 1998;23877

       (b) That no prisoner who is serving a mandatory prison term 23878
is eligible for the program until after expiration of the 23879
mandatory term;23880

       (c) That no prisoner who is serving a prison term or term of 23881
life imprisonment without parole imposed pursuant to section 23882
2971.03 of the Revised Code is eligible for the program.23883

       (2) At least three weeks prior to transferring to 23884
transitional control under this section a prisoner who is serving 23885
a term of imprisonment or prison term for an offense committed on 23886
or after July 1, 1996, the adultdivision of parole authorityand 23887
community services of the department of rehabilitation and 23888
correction shall give notice of the pendency of the transfer to 23889
transitional control to the court of common pleas of the county in 23890
which the indictment against the prisoner was found and of the 23891
fact that the court may disapprove the transfer of the prisoner to 23892
transitional control and shall include a report prepared by the 23893
head of the state correctional institution in which the prisoner 23894
is confined. The head of the state correctional institution in 23895
which the prisoner is confined, upon the request of the adult 23896
parole authority, shall provide to the authority for inclusion in 23897
the notice sent to the court under this division a report on the 23898
prisoner's conduct in the institution and in any institution from 23899
which the prisoner may have been transferred. The report shall 23900
cover the prisoner's participation in school, vocational training, 23901
work, treatment, and other rehabilitative activities and any 23902
disciplinary action taken against the prisoner. If the court 23903
disapproves of the transfer of the prisoner to transitional 23904
control, the court shall notify the authority of the disapproval 23905
within thirty days after receipt of the notice. If the court 23906
timely disapproves the transfer of the prisoner to transitional 23907
control, the authority shall not proceed with the transfer. If the 23908
court does not timely disapprove the transfer of the prisoner to 23909
transitional control, the authority may transfer the prisoner to 23910
transitional control.23911

       (3) If the victim of an offense for which a prisoner was 23912
sentenced to a prison term or term of imprisonment has requested 23913
notification under section 2930.16 of the Revised Code and has 23914
provided the department of rehabilitation and correction with the 23915
victim's name and address, the adult parole authority, at least 23916
three weeks prior to transferring the prisoner to transitional 23917
control pursuant to this section, shall notify the victim of the 23918
pendency of the transfer and of the victim's right to submit a 23919
statement to the authority regarding the impact of the transfer of 23920
the prisoner to transitional control. If the victim subsequently 23921
submits a statement of that nature to the authority, the authority 23922
shall consider the statement in deciding whether to transfer the 23923
prisoner to transitional control.23924

       (4) The department of rehabilitation and correction, at least 23925
three weeks prior to transferring a prisoner to transitional 23926
control pursuant to this section, shall post on the database it 23927
maintains pursuant to section 5120.66 of the Revised Code the 23928
prisoner's name and all of the information specified in division 23929
(A)(1)(c)(iv) of that section. In addition to and independent of 23930
the right of a victim to submit a statement as described in 23931
division (A)(3) of this section or to otherwise make a statement 23932
and in addition to and independent of any other right or duty of a 23933
person to present information or make a statement, any person may 23934
send to the adult parole authority at any time prior to the 23935
authority's transfer of the prisoner to transitional control a 23936
written statement regarding the transfer of the prisoner to 23937
transitional control. In addition to the information, reports, and 23938
statements it considers under divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this 23939
section or that it otherwise considers, the authority shall 23940
consider each statement submitted in accordance with this division 23941
in deciding whether to transfer the prisoner to transitional 23942
control.23943

       (B) Each prisoner transferred to transitional control under 23944
this section shall be confined in the manner described in division 23945
(A) of this section during any period of time that the prisoner is 23946
not actually working at the prisoner's approved employment, 23947
engaged in a vocational training or another educational program, 23948
engaged in another program designated by the director, or engaged 23949
in other activities approved by the department.23950

       (C) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 23951
adopt rules for transferring eligible prisoners to transitional 23952
control, supervising and confining prisoners so transferred, 23953
administering the transitional control program in accordance with 23954
this section, and using the moneys deposited into the transitional 23955
control fund established under division (E) of this section.23956

       (D) The department of rehabilitation and correction may adopt 23957
rules for the issuance of passes for the limited purposes 23958
described in this division to prisoners who are transferred to 23959
transitional control under this section. If the department adopts 23960
rules of that nature, the rules shall govern the granting of the 23961
passes and shall provide for the supervision of prisoners who are 23962
temporarily released pursuant to one of those passes. Upon the 23963
adoption of rules under this division, the department may issue 23964
passes to prisoners who are transferred to transitional control 23965
status under this section in accordance with the rules and the 23966
provisions of this division. All passes issued under this division 23967
shall be for a maximum of forty-eight hours and may be issued only 23968
for the following purposes:23969

       (1) To visit a relative in imminent danger of death;23970

       (2) To have a private viewing of the body of a deceased 23971
relative;23972

       (3) To visit with family;23973

       (4) To otherwise aid in the rehabilitation of the prisoner.23974

       (E) The adult parole authority may require a prisoner who is 23975
transferred to transitional control to pay to the division of 23976
parole and community services the reasonable expenses incurred by 23977
the division in supervising or confining the prisoner while under 23978
transitional control. Inability to pay those reasonable expenses 23979
shall not be grounds for refusing to transfer an otherwise 23980
eligible prisoner to transitional control. Amounts received by the 23981
division of parole and community services under this division 23982
shall be deposited into the transitional control fund, which is 23983
hereby created in the state treasury and which hereby replaces and 23984
succeeds the furlough services fund that formerly existed in the 23985
state treasury. All moneys that remain in the furlough services 23986
fund on March 17, 1998, shall be transferred on that date to the 23987
transitional control fund. The transitional control fund shall be 23988
used solely to pay costs related to the operation of the 23989
transitional control program established under this section. The 23990
director of rehabilitation and correction shall adopt rules in 23991
accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code for the use of 23992
the fund.23993

       (F) A prisoner who violates any rule established by the 23994
department of rehabilitation and correction under division (A), 23995
(C), or (D) of this section may be transferred to a state 23996
correctional institution pursuant to rules adopted under division 23997
(A), (C), or (D) of this section, but the prisoner shall receive 23998
credit towards completing the prisoner's sentence for the time 23999
spent under transitional control.24000

       If a prisoner is transferred to transitional control under 24001
this section, upon successful completion of the period of 24002
transitional control, the prisoner may be released on parole or 24003
under post-release control pursuant to section 2967.13 or 2967.28 24004
of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the department of 24005
rehabilitation and correction. If the prisoner is released under 24006
post-release control, the duration of the post-release control, 24007
the type of post-release control sanctions that may be imposed, 24008
the enforcement of the sanctions, and the treatment of prisoners 24009
who violate any sanction applicable to the prisoner are governed 24010
by section 2967.28 of the Revised Code.24011

       Sec. 2967.28.  (A) As used in this section:24012

       (1) "Monitored time" means the monitored time sanction 24013
specified in section 2929.17 of the Revised Code.24014

       (2) "Deadly weapon" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same 24015
meanings as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.24016

       (3) "Felony sex offense" means a violation of a section 24017
contained in Chapter 2907. of the Revised Code that is a felony.24018

       (4) "Risk reduction sentence" means a prison term imposed by 24019
a court, when the court recommends pursuant to section 2929.143 of 24020
the Revised Code that the offender serve the sentence under 24021
section 5120.036 of the Revised Code, and the offender may 24022
potentially be released from imprisonment prior to the expiration 24023
of the prison term if the offender successfully completes all 24024
assessment and treatment or programming required by the department 24025
of rehabilitation and correction under section 5120.036 of the 24026
Revised Code.24027

       (B) Each sentence to a prison term for a felony of the first 24028
degree, for a felony of the second degree, for a felony sex 24029
offense, or for a felony of the third degree that is not a felony 24030
sex offense and in the commission of which the offender caused or 24031
threatened to cause physical harm to a person shall include a 24032
requirement that the offender be subject to a period of 24033
post-release control imposed by the parole board after the 24034
offender's release from imprisonment. This division applies with 24035
respect to all prison terms of a type described in this division, 24036
including a term of any such type that is a risk reduction 24037
sentence. If a court imposes a sentence including a prison term of 24038
a type described in this division on or after July 11, 2006, the 24039
failure of a sentencing court to notify the offender pursuant to 24040
division (B)(2)(c) of section 2929.19 of the Revised Code of this 24041
requirement or to include in the judgment of conviction entered on 24042
the journal a statement that the offender's sentence includes this 24043
requirement does not negate, limit, or otherwise affect the 24044
mandatory period of supervision that is required for the offender 24045
under this division. Section 2929.191 of the Revised Code applies 24046
if, prior to July 11, 2006, a court imposed a sentence including a 24047
prison term of a type described in this division and failed to 24048
notify the offender pursuant to division (B)(2)(c) of section 24049
2929.19 of the Revised Code regarding post-release control or to 24050
include in the judgment of conviction entered on the journal or in 24051
the sentence pursuant to division (D)(1) of section 2929.14 of the 24052
Revised Code a statement regarding post-release control. Unless 24053
reduced by the parole board pursuant to division (D) of this 24054
section when authorized under that division, a period of 24055
post-release control required by this division for an offender 24056
shall be of one of the following periods:24057

       (1) For a felony of the first degree or for a felony sex 24058
offense, five years;24059

       (2) For a felony of the second degree that is not a felony 24060
sex offense, three years;24061

       (3) For a felony of the third degree that is not a felony sex 24062
offense and in the commission of which the offender caused or 24063
threatened physical harm to a person, three years.24064

       (C) Any sentence to a prison term for a felony of the third, 24065
fourth, or fifth degree that is not subject to division (B)(1) or 24066
(3) of this section shall include a requirement that the offender 24067
be subject to a period of post-release control of up to three 24068
years after the offender's release from imprisonment, if the 24069
parole board, in accordance with division (D) of this section, 24070
determines that a period of post-release control is necessary for 24071
that offender. This division applies with respect to all prison 24072
terms of a type described in this division, including a term of 24073
any such type that is a risk reduction sentence. Section 2929.191 24074
of the Revised Code applies if, prior to July 11, 2006, a court 24075
imposed a sentence including a prison term of a type described in 24076
this division and failed to notify the offender pursuant to 24077
division (B)(2)(d) of section 2929.19 of the Revised Code 24078
regarding post-release control or to include in the judgment of 24079
conviction entered on the journal or in the sentence pursuant to 24080
division (D)(2) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code a statement 24081
regarding post-release control. Pursuant to an agreement entered 24082
into under section 2967.29 of the Revised Code, a court of common 24083
pleas or parole board may impose sanctions or conditions on an 24084
offender who is placed on post-release control under this 24085
division.24086

       (D)(1) Before the prisoner is released from imprisonment, the 24087
parole board or, pursuant to an agreement under section 2967.29 of 24088
the Revised Code, the court shall impose upon a prisoner described 24089
in division (B) of this section, shall impose upon a prisoner 24090
described in division (C) of this section who is to be released 24091
before the expiration of the prisoner's stated prison term under a 24092
risk reduction sentence, may impose upon a prisoner described in 24093
division (C) of this section who is not to be released before the 24094
expiration of the prisoner's stated prison term under a risk 24095
reduction sentence, and shall impose upon a prisoner described in 24096
division (B)(2)(b) of section 5120.031 or in division (B)(1) of 24097
section 5120.032 of the Revised Code, one or more post-release 24098
control sanctions to apply during the prisoner's period of 24099
post-release control. Whenever the board or court imposes one or 24100
more post-release control sanctions upon a prisoner, the board or 24101
court, in addition to imposing the sanctions, also shall include 24102
as a condition of the post-release control that the offender not 24103
leave the state without permission of the court or the offender's 24104
parole or probation officer and that the offender abide by the 24105
law. The board or court may impose any other conditions of release 24106
under a post-release control sanction that the board or court 24107
considers appropriate, and the conditions of release may include 24108
any community residential sanction, community nonresidential 24109
sanction, or financial sanction that the sentencing court was 24110
authorized to impose pursuant to sections 2929.16, 2929.17, and 24111
2929.18 of the Revised Code. Prior to the release of a prisoner 24112
for whom it will impose one or more post-release control sanctions 24113
under this division, the parole board or court shall review the 24114
prisoner's criminal history, results from the single validated 24115
risk assessment tool selected by the department of rehabilitation 24116
and correction under section 5120.114 of the Revised Code, all 24117
juvenile court adjudications finding the prisoner, while a 24118
juvenile, to be a delinquent child, and the record of the 24119
prisoner's conduct while imprisoned. The parole board or court 24120
shall consider any recommendation regarding post-release control 24121
sanctions for the prisoner made by the office of victims' 24122
services. After considering those materials, the board or court 24123
shall determine, for a prisoner described in division (B) of this 24124
section, division (B)(2)(b) of section 5120.031, or division 24125
(B)(1) of section 5120.032 of the Revised Code and for a prisoner 24126
described in division (C) of this section who is to be released 24127
before the expiration of the prisoner's stated prison term under a 24128
risk reduction sentence, which post-release control sanction or 24129
combination of post-release control sanctions is reasonable under 24130
the circumstances or, for a prisoner described in division (C) of 24131
this section who is not to be released before the expiration of 24132
the prisoner's stated prison term under a risk reduction sentence, 24133
whether a post-release control sanction is necessary and, if so, 24134
which post-release control sanction or combination of post-release 24135
control sanctions is reasonable under the circumstances. In the 24136
case of a prisoner convicted of a felony of the fourth or fifth 24137
degree other than a felony sex offense, the board or court shall 24138
presume that monitored time is the appropriate post-release 24139
control sanction unless the board or court determines that a more 24140
restrictive sanction is warranted. A post-release control sanction 24141
imposed under this division takes effect upon the prisoner's 24142
release from imprisonment.24143

        Regardless of whether the prisoner was sentenced to the 24144
prison term prior to, on, or after July 11, 2006, prior to the 24145
release of a prisoner for whom it will impose one or more 24146
post-release control sanctions under this division, the parole 24147
board shall notify the prisoner that, if the prisoner violates any 24148
sanction so imposed or any condition of post-release control 24149
described in division (B) of section 2967.131 of the Revised Code 24150
that is imposed on the prisoner, the parole board may impose a 24151
prison term of up to one-half of the stated prison term originally 24152
imposed upon the prisoner.24153

       (2) If a prisoner who is placed on post-release control under 24154
this section is released before the expiration of the prisoner's 24155
stated prison term by reason of credit earned under section 24156
2967.193 of the Revised Code and if the prisoner earned sixty or 24157
more days of credit, the adult parole authority shall supervise 24158
the offender with an active global positioning system device for 24159
the first fourteen days after the offender's release from 24160
imprisonment. This division does not prohibit or limit the 24161
imposition of any post-release control sanction otherwise 24162
authorized by this section.24163

       (3) At any time after a prisoner is released from 24164
imprisonment and during the period of post-release control 24165
applicable to the releasee, the adult parole authority or, 24166
pursuant to an agreement under section 2967.29 of the Revised 24167
Code, the court may review the releasee's behavior under the 24168
post-release control sanctions imposed upon the releasee under 24169
this section. The authority or court may determine, based upon the 24170
review and in accordance with the standards established under 24171
division (E) of this section, that a more restrictive or a less 24172
restrictive sanction is appropriate and may impose a different 24173
sanction. The authority also may recommend that the parole board 24174
or court increase or reduce the duration of the period of 24175
post-release control imposed by the court. If the authority 24176
recommends that the board or court increase the duration of 24177
post-release control, the board or court shall review the 24178
releasee's behavior and may increase the duration of the period of 24179
post-release control imposed by the court up to eight years. If 24180
the authority recommends that the board or court reduce the 24181
duration of control for an offense described in division (B) or 24182
(C) of this section, the board or court shall review the 24183
releasee's behavior and may reduce the duration of the period of 24184
control imposed by the court. In no case shall the board or court 24185
reduce the duration of the period of control imposed for an 24186
offense described in division (B)(1) of this section to a period 24187
less than the length of the stated prison term originally imposed, 24188
and in no case shall the board or court permit the releasee to 24189
leave the state without permission of the court or the releasee's 24190
parole or probation officer.24191

       (E) The department of rehabilitation and correction, in 24192
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt 24193
rules that do all of the following:24194

       (1) Establish standards for the imposition by the parole 24195
board of post-release control sanctions under this section that 24196
are consistent with the overriding purposes and sentencing 24197
principles set forth in section 2929.11 of the Revised Code and 24198
that are appropriate to the needs of releasees;24199

       (2) Establish standards that provide for a period of 24200
post-release control of up to three years for all prisoners 24201
described in division (C) of this section who are to be released 24202
before the expiration of their stated prison term under a risk 24203
reduction sentence and standards by which the parole board can 24204
determine which prisoners described in division (C) of this 24205
section who are not to be released before the expiration of their 24206
stated prison term under a risk reduction sentence should be 24207
placed under a period of post-release control;24208

       (3) Establish standards to be used by the parole board in 24209
reducing the duration of the period of post-release control 24210
imposed by the court when authorized under division (D) of this 24211
section, in imposing a more restrictive post-release control 24212
sanction than monitored time upon a prisoner convicted of a felony 24213
of the fourth or fifth degree other than a felony sex offense, or 24214
in imposing a less restrictive control sanction upon a releasee 24215
based on the releasee's activities including, but not limited to, 24216
remaining free from criminal activity and from the abuse of 24217
alcohol or other drugs, successfully participating in approved 24218
rehabilitation programs, maintaining employment, and paying 24219
restitution to the victim or meeting the terms of other financial 24220
sanctions;24221

       (4) Establish standards to be used by the adult parole 24222
authority in modifying a releasee's post-release control sanctions 24223
pursuant to division (D)(2) of this section;24224

       (5) Establish standards to be used by the adult parole 24225
authority or parole board in imposing further sanctions under 24226
division (F) of this section on releasees who violate post-release 24227
control sanctions, including standards that do the following:24228

       (a) Classify violations according to the degree of 24229
seriousness;24230

       (b) Define the circumstances under which formal action by the 24231
parole board is warranted;24232

       (c) Govern the use of evidence at violation hearings;24233

       (d) Ensure procedural due process to an alleged violator;24234

       (e) Prescribe nonresidential community control sanctions for 24235
most misdemeanor and technical violations;24236

       (f) Provide procedures for the return of a releasee to 24237
imprisonment for violations of post-release control.24238

       (F)(1) Whenever the parole board imposes one or more 24239
post-release control sanctions upon an offender under this 24240
section, the offender upon release from imprisonment shall be 24241
under the general jurisdiction of the adult parole authority and 24242
generally shall be supervised by the field services section 24243
through its staff of parole and field officers as described in 24244
section 5149.04 of the Revised Code, as if the offender had been 24245
placed on parole. If the offender upon release from imprisonment 24246
violates the post-release control sanction or any conditions 24247
described in division (A) of section 2967.131 of the Revised Code 24248
that are imposed on the offender, the public or private person or 24249
entity that operates or administers the sanction or the program or 24250
activity that comprises the sanction shall report the violation 24251
directly to the adult parole authority or to the officer of the 24252
authority who supervises the offender. The authority's officers 24253
may treat the offender as if the offender were on parole and in 24254
violation of the parole, and otherwise shall comply with this 24255
section.24256

       (2) If the adult parole authority or, pursuant to an 24257
agreement under section 2967.29 of the Revised Code, the court 24258
determines that a releasee has violated a post-release control 24259
sanction or any conditions described in division (A) of section 24260
2967.131 of the Revised Code imposed upon the releasee and that a 24261
more restrictive sanction is appropriate, the authority or court 24262
may impose a more restrictive sanction upon the releasee, in 24263
accordance with the standards established under division (E) of 24264
this section or in accordance with the agreement made under 24265
section 2967.29 of the Revised Code, or may report the violation 24266
to the parole board for a hearing pursuant to division (F)(3) of 24267
this section. The authority or court may not, pursuant to this 24268
division, increase the duration of the releasee's post-release 24269
control or impose as a post-release control sanction a residential 24270
sanction that includes a prison term, but the authority or court 24271
may impose on the releasee any other residential sanction, 24272
nonresidential sanction, or financial sanction that the sentencing 24273
court was authorized to impose pursuant to sections 2929.16, 24274
2929.17, and 2929.18 of the Revised Code.24275

       (3) The parole board or, pursuant to an agreement under 24276
section 2967.29 of the Revised Code, the court may hold a hearing 24277
on any alleged violation by a releasee of a post-release control 24278
sanction or any conditions described in division (A) of section 24279
2967.131 of the Revised Code that are imposed upon the releasee. 24280
If after the hearing the board or court finds that the releasee 24281
violated the sanction or condition, the board or court may 24282
increase the duration of the releasee's post-release control up to 24283
the maximum duration authorized by division (B) or (C) of this 24284
section or impose a more restrictive post-release control 24285
sanction. When appropriate, the board or court may impose as a 24286
post-release control sanction a residential sanction that includes 24287
a prison term. The board or court shall consider a prison term as 24288
a post-release control sanction imposed for a violation of 24289
post-release control when the violation involves a deadly weapon 24290
or dangerous ordnance, physical harm or attempted serious physical 24291
harm to a person, or sexual misconduct, or when the releasee 24292
committed repeated violations of post-release control sanctions. 24293
Unless a releasee's stated prison term was reduced pursuant to 24294
section 5120.032 of the Revised Code, the period of a prison term 24295
that is imposed as a post-release control sanction under this 24296
division shall not exceed nine months, and the maximum cumulative 24297
prison term for all violations under this division shall not 24298
exceed one-half of the stated prison term originally imposed upon 24299
the offender as part of this sentence. If a releasee's stated 24300
prison term was reduced pursuant to section 5120.032 of the 24301
Revised Code, the period of a prison term that is imposed as a 24302
post-release control sanction under this division and the maximum 24303
cumulative prison term for all violations under this division 24304
shall not exceed the period of time not served in prison under the 24305
sentence imposed by the court. The period of a prison term that is 24306
imposed as a post-release control sanction under this division 24307
shall not count as, or be credited toward, the remaining period of 24308
post-release control.24309

       If an offender is imprisoned for a felony committed while 24310
under post-release control supervision and is again released on 24311
post-release control for a period of time determined by division 24312
(F)(4)(d) of this section, the maximum cumulative prison term for 24313
all violations under this division shall not exceed one-half of 24314
the total stated prison terms of the earlier felony, reduced by 24315
any prison term administratively imposed by the parole board or 24316
court, plus one-half of the total stated prison term of the new 24317
felony.24318

       (4) Any period of post-release control shall commence upon an 24319
offender's actual release from prison. If an offender is serving 24320
an indefinite prison term or a life sentence in addition to a 24321
stated prison term, the offender shall serve the period of 24322
post-release control in the following manner:24323

       (a) If a period of post-release control is imposed upon the 24324
offender and if the offender also is subject to a period of parole 24325
under a life sentence or an indefinite sentence, and if the period 24326
of post-release control ends prior to the period of parole, the 24327
offender shall be supervised on parole. The offender shall receive 24328
credit for post-release control supervision during the period of 24329
parole. The offender is not eligible for final release under 24330
section 2967.16 of the Revised Code until the post-release control 24331
period otherwise would have ended.24332

       (b) If a period of post-release control is imposed upon the 24333
offender and if the offender also is subject to a period of parole 24334
under an indefinite sentence, and if the period of parole ends 24335
prior to the period of post-release control, the offender shall be 24336
supervised on post-release control. The requirements of parole 24337
supervision shall be satisfied during the post-release control 24338
period.24339

       (c) If an offender is subject to more than one period of 24340
post-release control, the period of post-release control for all 24341
of the sentences shall be the period of post-release control that 24342
expires last, as determined by the parole board or court. Periods 24343
of post-release control shall be served concurrently and shall not 24344
be imposed consecutively to each other.24345

       (d) The period of post-release control for a releasee who 24346
commits a felony while under post-release control for an earlier 24347
felony shall be the longer of the period of post-release control 24348
specified for the new felony under division (B) or (C) of this 24349
section or the time remaining under the period of post-release 24350
control imposed for the earlier felony as determined by the parole 24351
board or court.24352

       Sec. 2981.11. (A)(1) Any property that has been lost, 24353
abandoned, stolen, seized pursuant to a search warrant, or 24354
otherwise lawfully seized or forfeited and that is in the custody 24355
of a law enforcement agency shall be kept safely by the agency, 24356
pending the time it no longer is needed as evidence or for another 24357
lawful purpose, and shall be disposed of pursuant to sections 24358
2981.12 and 2981.13 of the Revised Code.24359

       (2) This chapter does not apply to the custody and disposal 24360
of any of the following:24361

       (a) Vehicles subject to forfeiture under Title XLV of the 24362
Revised Code, except as provided in division (A)(6) of section 24363
2981.12 of the Revised Code;24364

       (b) Abandoned junk motor vehicles or other property of 24365
negligible value;24366

       (c) Property held by a department of rehabilitation and 24367
correction institution that is unclaimed, that does not have an 24368
identified owner, that the owner agrees to dispose of, or that is 24369
identified by the department as having little value;24370

       (d) Animals taken, and devices used in unlawfully taking 24371
animals, under section 1531.20 of the Revised Code;24372

       (e) Controlled substances sold by a peace officer in the 24373
performance of the officer's official duties under section 24374
3719.141 of the Revised Code;24375

       (f) Property recovered by a township law enforcement agency 24376
under sections 505.105 to 505.109 of the Revised Code;24377

       (g) Property held and disposed of under an ordinance of the 24378
municipal corporation or under sections 737.29 to 737.33 of the 24379
Revised Code, except that a municipal corporation that has 24380
received notice of a citizens' reward program as provided in 24381
division (F) of section 2981.12 of the Revised Code and disposes 24382
of property under an ordinance shall pay twenty-five per cent of 24383
any moneys acquired from any sale or auction to the citizens' 24384
reward program.24385

       (B)(1) Each law enforcement agency that has custody of any 24386
property that is subject to this section shall adopt and comply 24387
with a written internal control policy that does all of the 24388
following:24389

       (a) Provides for keeping detailed records as to the amount of 24390
property acquired by the agency and the date property was 24391
acquired;24392

       (b) Provides for keeping detailed records of the disposition 24393
of the property, which shall include, but not be limited to, both 24394
of the following:24395

       (i) The manner in which it was disposed, the date of 24396
disposition, detailed financial records concerning any property 24397
sold, and the name of any person who received the property. The 24398
record shall not identify or enable identification of the 24399
individual officer who seized any item of property.24400

       (ii) The general types of expenditures made with amounts that 24401
are gained from the sale of the property and that are retained by 24402
the agency, including the specific amount expended on each general 24403
type of expenditure, except that the policy shall not provide for 24404
or permit the identification of any specific expenditure that is 24405
made in an ongoing investigation.24406

       (c) Complies with section 2981.13 of the Revised Code if the 24407
agency has a law enforcement trust fund or similar fund created 24408
under that section.24409

       (2) Each law enforcement agency that during any calendar year 24410
has any seized or forfeited property covered by this section in 24411
its custody, including amounts distributed under section 2981.13 24412
of the Revised Code to its law enforcement trust fund or a similar 24413
fund created for the state highway patrol, department of public 24414
safety, department of taxation, or state board of pharmacy, shall 24415
prepare a report covering the calendar year that cumulates all of 24416
the information contained in all of the public records kept by the 24417
agency pursuant to this section for that calendar year. The agency 24418
shall send a copy of the cumulative report to the attorney general 24419
not later than the first day of March in the calendar year 24420
following the calendar year covered by the report.24421

       (3) The records kept under the internal control policy shall 24422
be open to public inspection during the agency's regular business 24423
hours. The policy adopted under this section and each report 24424
received by the attorney general is a public record open for 24425
inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.24426

       (4) Not later than the fifteenth day of April in each 24427
calendar year in which reports are sent to the attorney general 24428
under division (B)(2) of this section, the attorney general shall 24429
send to the president of the senate and the speaker of the house 24430
of representatives a written notice that indicates that the 24431
attorney general received reports that cover the previous calendar 24432
year, that the reports are open for inspection under section 24433
149.43 of the Revised Code, and that the attorney general will 24434
provide a copy of any or all of the reports to the president of 24435
the senate or the speaker of the house of representatives upon 24436
request.24437

       (C) A law enforcement agency with custody of property to be 24438
disposed of under section 2981.12 or 2981.13 of the Revised Code 24439
shall make a reasonable effort to locate persons entitled to 24440
possession of the property, to notify them of when and where it 24441
may be claimed, and to return the property to them at the earliest 24442
possible time. In the absence of evidence identifying persons 24443
entitled to possession, it is sufficient notice to advertise in a 24444
newspaper of general circulation in the county and to briefly 24445
describe the nature of the property in custody and inviting 24446
persons to view and establish their right to it.24447

       (D) As used in sections 2981.11 to 2981.13 of the Revised 24448
Code:24449

       (1) "Citizens' reward program" has the same meaning as in 24450
section 9.92 of the Revised Code.24451

       (2) "Law enforcement agency" includes correctional 24452
institutions.24453

       (3) "Township law enforcement agency" means an organized 24454
police department of a township, a township police district, a 24455
joint police district, or the office of a township constable.24456

       Sec. 2981.14. (A) Nothing in this chapter precludes the head 24457
of a law enforcement agency that seizes property from seeking 24458
forfeiture under federal law. If the property is forfeitable under 24459
this chapter and federal forfeiture is not sought, the property is 24460
subject only to this chapter.24461

       (B) Any law enforcement agency that receives moneys from a 24462
sale of forfeited property under federal law shall deposit, use, 24463
and account for the amounts, including any interest derived, in 24464
accordance with applicable federal law. If the state highway 24465
patrol or the investigative unit of the department of public 24466
safety receives such federal forfeiture moneys, the appropriate 24467
official shall deposit all interest or other earnings derived from 24468
the investment of the moneys into the contraband, forfeiture, and 24469
other fund of the highway patrol treasury contraband fund, the 24470
highway patrol justice contraband fund, the investigative unit 24471
treasury contraband fund, or the departmentinvestigative unit 24472
justice contraband fund, whichever is appropriate.24473

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the highway 24474
patrol treasury contraband fund, the highway patrol justice 24475
contraband fund, the investigative unit treasury contraband fund, 24476
and the investigative unit justice contraband fund. Each fund 24477
shall consist of moneys received under division (B) of this 24478
section and shall be used in accordance with any federal or other 24479
requirements associated with moneys received.24480

       Sec. 3109.14.  (A) As used in this section, "birth record" 24481
and "certification of birth" have the meanings given in section 24482
3705.01 of the Revised Code.24483

       (B)(1) The director of health, a person authorized by the 24484
director, a local commissioner of health, or a local registrar of 24485
vital statistics shall charge and collect a fee for each certified 24486
copy of a birth record, for each certification of birth, and for 24487
each copy of a death record. The fee shall be three dollars. The 24488
fee is in addition to the fee imposed by section 3705.24 or any 24489
other section of the Revised Code. A local commissioner of health 24490
or a local registrar of vital statistics may retain an amount of 24491
each additional fee collected, not to exceed three per cent of the 24492
amount of the additional fee, to be used for costs directly 24493
related to the collection of the fee and the forwarding of the fee 24494
to the treasurer of statedepartment of health. The24495

       The additional fees collected by the director of health or a 24496
person authorized by the director and the additional fees24497
collected, but not retained, under division (B)(1) of this section24498
by a local commissioner of health or a local registrar of vital 24499
statistics shall be forwarded to the treasurer of statedepartment 24500
of health not later than thirty days following the end of each 24501
quarter. Not later than two days after the fees are forwarded to 24502
the department each quarter, the department shall pay the 24503
collected fees to the treasurer of state in accordance with rules 24504
adopted by the treasurer of state under section 113.08 of the 24505
Revised Code.24506

       (2) Upon the filing for a divorce decree under section 24507
3105.10 or a decree of dissolution under section 3105.65 of the 24508
Revised Code, a court of common pleas shall charge and collect a 24509
fee. The fee shall be eleven dollars. The fee is in addition to 24510
any other court costs or fees. The county clerk of courts may 24511
retain an amount of each additional fee collected, not to exceed 24512
three per cent of the amount of the additional fee, to be used for 24513
costs directly related to the collection of the fee and the 24514
forwarding of the fee to the treasurer of state. The additional 24515
fees collected, but not retained, under division (B)(2) of this 24516
section shall be forwarded to the treasurer of state not later 24517
than twenty days following the end of each month.24518

       (C) The treasurer of state shall deposit the fees paid or24519
forwarded under this section in the state treasury to the credit 24520
of the children's trust fund, which is hereby created. A person or 24521
government entity that fails to forward the fees in a timely 24522
manner, as determined by the treasurer of state, shall forward24523
send to the treasurer of state, in addition to the fees, a penalty 24524
equal to ten per cent of the fees.24525

       The treasurer of state shall invest the moneys in the fund, 24526
and all earnings resulting from investment of the fund shall be 24527
credited to the fund, except that actual administrative costs 24528
incurred by the treasurer of state in administering the fund may 24529
be deducted from the earnings resulting from investments. The 24530
amount that may be deducted shall not exceed three per cent of the 24531
total amount of fees credited to the fund in each fiscal year, 24532
except that the children's trust fund board may approve an amount 24533
for actual administrative costs exceeding three per cent but not 24534
exceeding four per cent of such amount. The balance of the 24535
investment earnings shall be credited to the fund. Moneys credited 24536
to the fund shall be used only for the purposes described in 24537
sections 3109.13 to 3109.18 of the Revised Code.24538

       Sec. 3125.41.  (A) As used in this section:24539

       (1) "Cable television service" has the same meaning as in 24540
section 2913.01 of the Revised Code.24541

       (2) "Public utility" means a person or entity, including an 24542
entity owned or operated by a municipal corporation or other 24543
government entity, that is described in division (A) of section 24544
4905.03 of the Revised Code as a telephone company, electric light 24545
company, gas company, natural gas company, water-works company, 24546
heating or cooling company, or sewage disposal system company, or 24547
that is providing cable television service.24548

       (B) Except as provided in section 3125.43 of the Revised 24549
Code, the office of child support shall have access to all of the 24550
following unless release of the information is prohibited by 24551
federal or state law:24552

       (1) Any information in the possession of any officer or 24553
entity of the state or any political subdivision of the state that 24554
would aid the office in locating an absent parent or child 24555
pursuant to section 3125.06 of the Revised Code;24556

       (2) Any information concerning the employment, compensation, 24557
and benefits of any obligor or obligee subject to a support order 24558
in the possession of any person;24559

       (3) The name and address of any obligor or obligee subject to 24560
a support order and the obligor's or obligee's employer in the 24561
customer records of a public utility.24562

       Sec. 3301.55.  (A) A school district, county DD board, or 24563
eligible nonpublic school operating a preschool program shall 24564
house the program in buildings that meet the following 24565
requirements:24566

       (1) The building is operated by the district, county DD 24567
board, or eligible nonpublic school and has been approved by the 24568
division of laborindustrial compliance in the department of 24569
commerce or a certified municipal, township, or county building 24570
department for the purpose of operating a program for preschool 24571
children. Any such structure shall be constructed, equipped, 24572
repaired, altered, and maintained in accordance with applicable 24573
provisions of Chapters 3781. and 3791. and with rules adopted by 24574
the board of building standards under Chapter 3781. of the Revised 24575
Code for the safety and sanitation of structures erected for this 24576
purpose.24577

       (2) The building is in compliance with fire and safety laws 24578
and regulations as evidenced by reports of annual school fire and 24579
safety inspections as conducted by appropriate local authorities.24580

       (3) The school is in compliance with rules established by the 24581
state board of education regarding school food services.24582

       (4) The facility includes not less than thirty-five square 24583
feet of indoor space for each child in the program. Safe play 24584
space, including both indoor and outdoor play space, totaling not 24585
less than sixty square feet for each child using the space at any 24586
one time, shall be regularly available and scheduled for use.24587

       (5) First aid facilities and space for temporary placement or 24588
isolation of injured or ill children are provided.24589

       (B) Each school district, county DD board, or eligible 24590
nonpublic school that operates, or proposes to operate, a 24591
preschool program shall submit a building plan including all 24592
information specified by the state board of education to the board 24593
not later than the first day of September of the school year in 24594
which the program is to be initiated. The board shall determine 24595
whether the buildings meet the requirements of this section and 24596
section 3301.53 of the Revised Code, and notify the superintendent 24597
of its determination. If the board determines, on the basis of the 24598
building plan or any other information, that the buildings do not 24599
meet those requirements, it shall cause the buildings to be 24600
inspected by the department of education. The department shall 24601
make a report to the superintendent specifying any aspects of the 24602
building that are not in compliance with the requirements of this 24603
section and section 3301.53 of the Revised Code and the time 24604
period that will be allowed the district, county DD board, or 24605
school to meet the requirements.24606

       Sec. 3304.14. (A) The governor shall appoint an administrator 24607
of the rehabilitation services commission to serve at the pleasure 24608
of the governor and shall fix the administrator's compensation. 24609
The administrator shall devote the administrator's entire time to 24610
the duties of the administrator's office, shall hold no other 24611
office or position of trust and profit, and shall engage in no 24612
other business during the administrator's term of office. The 24613
governor may grant the administrator the authority to appoint, 24614
remove, and discipline without regard to sex, race, creed, color, 24615
age, or national origin, such other professional, administrative, 24616
and clerical staff members as are necessary to carry out the 24617
functions and duties of the commission.24618

       (B)(1) The administrator shall have exclusive authority to 24619
administer the daily operation and provision of vocational 24620
rehabilitation services under this chapter.24621

       (2) The administrator shall establish a fee schedule for 24622
vocational rehabilitation services in accordance with 34 C.F.R. 24623
361.50.24624

       Sec. 3304.16.  In carrying out the purposes of sections 24625
3304.11 to 3304.27 of the Revised Code, the rehabilitation 24626
services commission:24627

       (A) Shall develop all necessary rules;24628

       (B) Shall prepare and submit to the governor annual reports 24629
of activities and expenditures and, prior to each first regular 24630
session of the general assembly, an estimate of sums required to 24631
carry out the commission's responsibilities;24632

       (C) Shall certify any disbursement of funds available to the 24633
commission for vocational rehabilitation activities;24634

       (D) Shall serve as the sole state agency designated to 24635
administer the plan under the "Rehabilitation Act of 1973," 87 24636
Stat. 355, 29 U.S.C. 701, as amended;24637

       (E) Shall take appropriate action to guarantee rights of and 24638
services to handicapped persons;24639

       (F) Shall consult with and advise other state agencies to 24640
assist them in meeting the needs of handicapped persons more 24641
effectively and to achieve maximum coordination among programs for 24642
the handicapped;24643

       (G) Shall establish an administrative division of consumer 24644
affairs and advocacy within the commission to promote and help 24645
guarantee the rights of handicapped persons;24646

       (H) Shall maintain an inventory of state services that are 24647
available to handicapped persons;24648

       (I) Shall utilize, support, assist, and cooperate with the 24649
governor's committee on employment of the handicapped;24650

       (J) May delegate to any officer or employee of the commission 24651
any necessary powers and duties, except that the commission shall 24652
delegate to the administrator of the commission, as provided in 24653
section 3304.14 of the Revised Code, the power and duty to 24654
administer the daily operation and provision of vocational 24655
rehabilitation services;24656

       (K) May take any other necessary or appropriate action for 24657
cooperation with public and private agencies and organizations 24658
which may include:24659

       (1) Reciprocal agreements with other states to provide for 24660
the vocational rehabilitation of individuals within the states 24661
concerned;24662

       (2) Contracts or other arrangements with public and other 24663
nonprofit agencies and organizations for the construction or 24664
establishment and operation of vocational rehabilitation programs 24665
and facilities;24666

       (3) Cooperative arrangements with the federal government for 24667
carrying out sections 3304.11 to 3304.27 of the Revised Code, the 24668
"Vocational Rehabilitation Act," 41 Stat. 735 (1920), 29 U.S.C. 24669
31, as amended, or other federal statutes pertaining to vocational 24670
rehabilitation, and to this end, may adopt plans and methods of 24671
administration found necessary by the federal government for the 24672
efficient operation of any joint arrangements or the efficient 24673
application of any federal statutes;24674

       (4) Upon the designation of the governor, performing 24675
functions and services for the federal government relating to 24676
individuals under a physical or mental disability.24677

        (L) Shall comply withMay take any requirementsappropriate 24678
action necessary to obtain federal funds in the maximum amount and 24679
most advantageous proportion possible.;24680

       (M) May conduct research and demonstration projects, 24681
including inquiries concerning the causes of blindness and its 24682
prevention, provide training and instruction, including the 24683
establishment and maintenance of research fellowships and 24684
traineeships along with all necessary stipends and allowances, 24685
disseminate information, and provide technical assistance relating 24686
to vocational rehabilitation;24687

       (N) May plan, establish, and operate programs, facilities, 24688
and services relating to vocational rehabilitation;24689

       (O) May accept and hold, invest, reinvest, or otherwise use 24690
gifts made for the purpose of furthering vocational 24691
rehabilitation;24692

       (P) May ameliorate the condition of the aged blind or other 24693
severely disabled individuals by establishing a program of home 24694
visitation by commission employees for the purpose of instruction;24695

       (Q) May establish and manage small business enterprises that 24696
are operated by persons with a substantial handicap to employment, 24697
including blind persons;24698

       (R) May purchase from insurance companies licensed to do 24699
business in this state any insurance deemed necessary by the 24700
commission for the efficient operation of a suitable vending 24701
facility as defined in division (A) of section 3304.28 of the 24702
Revised Code;24703

       (S) May accept directly from any state agency, and any state 24704
agency may transfer directly to the commission, surplus computers 24705
and computer equipment to be used for any purposes the commission 24706
considers appropriate, notwithstanding sections 125.12 to 125.14 24707
of the Revised Code.24708

       Sec. 3304.181.  If the total of all funds available from 24709
nonfederal sources to support the activities of the rehabilitation 24710
services commission does not comply with the expenditure 24711
requirements of 34 C.F.R. 361.60 and 361.62 for those activities 24712
or would cause the state to lose an allotment or fail to receive a 24713
reallotment under 34 C.F.R. 361.65, the commission shallmay24714
solicit additional funds from, and enter into agreements for the 24715
use of those funds with, private or public entities, including 24716
local government entities of this state. The commission shallmay24717
continue to solicit additional funds and enter into agreements 24718
until the total funding available is sufficient for the commission 24719
to receive federal funds at the maximum amount and in the most 24720
advantageous proportion possible.24721

       Any agreement entered into between the commission and a 24722
private or public entity to provide funds under this section shall 24723
be in accordance with 34 C.F.R. 361.28 and section 3304.182 of the 24724
Revised Code.24725

       Sec. 3304.182.  Any agreement between the rehabilitation 24726
services commission and a private or public entity providing funds 24727
under section 3304.181 of the Revised Code may permit the 24728
commission to receive a specified percentage of the funds, but the 24729
percentage shall be not more than twenty-five per cent of the 24730
total funds available under the agreement. The agreement shall not 24731
be for less than six months or be discontinued by the commission 24732
without the commission first providing three months notice of 24733
intent to discontinue the agreement. The commission may terminate 24734
an agreement onlyat any time for goodjust cause. It may 24735
terminate an agreement for any other reason by giving at least 24736
thirty days' notice to the public or private entity.24737

       Any services provided under an agreement entered into under 24738
section 3304.181 of the Revised Code shall be provided by a person 24739
or government entity that meets the accreditation standards 24740
established in rules adopted by the commission under section 24741
3304.16 of the Revised Code.24742

       Sec. 3305.01.  As used in this chapter:24743

       (A) "Public institution of higher education" means a state 24744
university as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, the 24745
northeast Ohio medical university, or a university branch, 24746
technical college, state community college, community college, or 24747
municipal university established or operating under Chapter 3345., 24748
3349., 3354., 3355., 3357., or 3358. of the Revised Code.24749

       (B) "State retirement system" means the public employees 24750
retirement system created under Chapter 145. of the Revised Code, 24751
the state teachers retirement system created under Chapter 3307. 24752
of the Revised Code, or the school employees retirement system 24753
created under Chapter 3309. of the Revised Code.24754

       (C) "Eligible employee" means any person employed as a 24755
full-time employee of a public institution of higher education.24756

       In all cases of doubt, the board of trustees of the public 24757
institution of higher education shall determine whether any person 24758
is an eligible employee for purposes of this chapter, and the 24759
board's decision shall be final.24760

       (D) "Electing employee" means any eligible employee who 24761
elects, pursuant to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised 24762
Code, to participate in an alternative retirement plan provided 24763
pursuant to this chapter or an eligible employee who is required 24764
to participate in an alternative retirement plan pursuant to 24765
division (C)(4)(3) of section 3305.05 or division (F) of section 24766
3305.051 of the Revised Code.24767

       (E) "Compensation," for purposes of an electing employee, has 24768
the same meaning as the applicable one of the following:24769

       (1) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 145. 24770
of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election pursuant 24771
to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, "earnable 24772
salary" as defined in division (R) of section 145.01 of the 24773
Revised Code;24774

       (2) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 24775
3307. of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election 24776
pursuant to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, 24777
"compensation" as defined in division (L) of section 3307.01 of 24778
the Revised Code;24779

       (3) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 24780
3309. of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election 24781
pursuant to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, 24782
"compensation" as defined in division (V) of section 3309.01 of 24783
the Revised Code.24784

       (F) "ProviderVendor" means an entity designated under 24785
section 3305.03 of the Revised Code as eligible to be a provider 24786
of investment options for an alternative retirement plan.24787

       (G) "Provider" means, with respect to each public institution 24788
of higher education, a vendor that has entered into an agreement 24789
with that public institution of higher education in accordance 24790
with section 3305.04 of the Revised Code.24791

       Sec. 3305.02.  An alternative retirement program is hereby 24792
established in accordance with this chapter for the purpose of 24793
providing to eligible employees the opportunity of participating 24794
in an alternative retirement plan as an alternative to 24795
participating in a state retirement system. The employer is the 24796
sponsor of each alternative retirement plan offered under this 24797
chapter.24798

       Each alternative retirement plan offered under this program 24799
shall be a defined contribution plan qualified under section 401 24800
(a) of the Internal Revenue Code that provides retirement and, to 24801
the extent applicable, death benefits through investment options. 24802
The options shall be offered to electing employees pursuant to 24803
trust or custodial accounts or pursuant to group or individual 24804
annuity contracts, and certificates issued under group contracts, 24805
and. The options may include life insurance, annuities, variable 24806
annuities, regulated investment trusts, pooled investment funds, 24807
or other forms of investment, at the option of each electing 24808
employee.24809

       Notwithstanding this chapter, any retirement plan established 24810
by a public institution of higher education prior to March 31, 24811
1997, as an alternative to participating in any state retirement 24812
system may continue in effect and be modified without regard to 24813
this chapter for all employees at the public institution eligible 24814
to participate in the plan.24815

       Sec. 3305.03.  (A) The department of insuranceOhio board of 24816
regents shall designate three or morethe entities that are 24817
eligible to provide investment options under alternative 24818
retirement plans establishedmaintained by public institutions of 24819
higher education in accordance with this chapter. An entity shall 24820
be designated a provider under this section if the entity meets. 24821
The board shall accept and review applications from entities 24822
seeking designation as a vendor. The board shall not designate an 24823
entity as a vendor unless the entity meets the requirements 24824
described in division (B) of this section.24825

       (B) To be eligible for designation as a vendor, an entity 24826
must meet both of the following requirements:24827

       (1) It isThe entity must be authorized to conduct business 24828
in this state with regard to the investment options to be offered 24829
under an alternative retirement plan;maintained by a public 24830
institution of higher education.24831

       (2) It providesThe entity must offer the same or similar 24832
investment options to be offered under alternative retirement 24833
plans, as group or individual contracts, or a combination thereof,24834
optional retirement plans, or similar types of plans with respect 24835
to which all of the following apply:24836

       (a) The plans are defined contribution plans that are 24837
qualified plans under Internal Revenue Code 401(a) or 403(b).24838

       (b) The plans are maintained by institutions of higher 24839
education in at least ten other states.24840

       (B)(c) The plans are established as primary retirement plans 24841
that are alternatives to or a component of the applicable state 24842
retirement system.24843

       (C) In designating a provider under this sectiondetermining 24844
whether to designate an entity as a vendor, the department of 24845
insuranceboard of regents shall identify, consider, and evaluate24846
all of the following:24847

       (1) The experience of the providerentity in providing in 24848
other states investment options under alternative retirement 24849
programs in other statesplans, optional retirement plans, or 24850
similar types of plans that meet the requirements of division 24851
(B)(2) of this section;24852

       (2) The potential effectiveness of the providerentity in 24853
recruiting eligible employees to enter into contractsselect that 24854
entity for purposes of participating in an alternative retirement 24855
plan and in retaining those contractsemployees' accounts;24856

       (3) Whether the entity intends to offer a broad range of 24857
investment options to the electing employees;24858

       (4) The suitability of the investment options to the needs 24859
and interests of the electing employees and their beneficiaries;24860

       (5) The capability of the entity to offer sufficient 24861
information to the electing employees and their beneficiaries to 24862
make informed decisions with regard to investment options offered 24863
by the entity;24864

       (6) The capability of the entity to perform in a manner that 24865
is in the best interests of the electing employees and their 24866
beneficiaries;24867

       (7) The fees and expenses associated with the entity's 24868
investment options and the manner in which the entity intends to 24869
disclose those fees and expenses;24870

       (8) The nature and extent of the rights and benefits to be 24871
provided under the investment options;24872

       (4) The relationship between the rights and benefits under 24873
the investment options and the amount of the contributions made 24874
under those options;24875

       (5) The suitability of the rights and benefits under the 24876
investment options to the needs and interests of eligible 24877
employees;24878

       (6)(9) The capability of the providerentity to provide the 24879
rights and benefits under the investment options;24880

       (7)(10) Comments submitted by a public institution of higher 24881
education under section 3305.031 of the Revised Code;24882

       (11) Any other matters itthe board of regents considers 24883
relevant.24884

       (C)(D) The department of insuranceboard of regents shall 24885
periodically reviewconduct periodic reviews of each provider24886
entity designated under division (A) of this sectionas a vendor24887
and the investment options being offered to ensure that the 24888
requirements and purposes of this chapter are being met. If the 24889
departmentThe reviews of a vendor shall occur not less frequently 24890
than once every three years.24891

       If it finds that the providervendor is not in compliance 24892
with any requirementthe requirements of this chapter or the 24893
providervendor is not satisfactorily meeting the purposes of this 24894
chapter, the department mayboard shall rescind the provider's24895
vendor's designation.24896

       (D)(E) Notwithstanding sections 125.01 to 125.11 of the 24897
Revised Code, designation of a providervendor or the execution of 24898
any contractagreement under this chapter is not subject to 24899
competitive bidding under those sections.24900

       Sec. 3305.031.  (A) As part of the process established under 24901
section 3305.03 of the Revised Code for designating an entity as a 24902
vendor and conducting periodic reviews of a vendor, the Ohio board 24903
of regents shall do all of the following:24904

       (1) Provide written notice to each public institution of 24905
higher education that an entity has applied to be designated as a 24906
vendor under section 3305.03 of the Revised Code;24907

       (2) Provide written notice to each public institution of 24908
higher education that a vendor is scheduled for a review;24909

       (3) Establish a comment period of not less than thirty days 24910
during which a public institution of higher education is 24911
authorized to comment about an entity's application for 24912
designation or a vendor's review and to request a meeting with the 24913
board of regents concerning the application or review;24914

       (4) Not later than fourteen days after the board makes a 24915
decision with respect to an application or review, including any 24916
rescission of a vendor's designation, provide written notice to 24917
each public institution of higher education of the board's 24918
decision.24919

       (B) If a meeting is requested by a public institution of 24920
higher education under division (A)(3) of this section, the board 24921
of regents shall do all of the following:24922

       (1) Notify each public institution of higher education of the 24923
meeting and its time and place;24924

       (2) Hold the meeting not less than ten but not more than 24925
thirty days after the end of the comment period;24926

       (3) Continue to accept comments concerning the application or 24927
review, as applicable, until five business days after the meeting 24928
is held.24929

       (C) The board of regents shall adopt rules under section 24930
3305.032 of the Revised Code specifying the method to be used by 24931
public institutions of higher education in submitting comments to 24932
the board concerning an application or review.24933

       Sec. 3305.032.  The Ohio board of regents shall adopt rules 24934
as the board considers necessary to carry out its duties and 24935
responsibilities under this chapter. The rules shall be adopted in 24936
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The rules may 24937
provide for fees to be charged providers by the board to cover 24938
administrative and marketing expenses of the board.24939

       Sec. 3305.04. (A) The board of trustees of each public 24940
institution of higher education shall adopt an alternative 24941
retirement plan in accordance with this chapter. Each public 24942
institution of higher education shall enter into a contract with 24943
each provider designated pursuant to section 3305.03 of the 24944
Revised Code that is willing to provide investment options under 24945
an alternative retirement plan at that public institution. Each 24946
contract shall provide for termination of the contract if the 24947
provider ceases to be a designated provider. In24948

       In accordance with this chapter, each board may perform such 24949
functions and provide as necessary for the administration of its 24950
alternative retirement plan.24951

       (B)(1) In implementing the alternative retirement plan 24952
established by the board, the public institution of higher 24953
education shall develop agreements to be entered into with 24954
entities designated under section 3305.03 of the Revised Code as 24955
vendors. Each agreement shall include such terms and conditions as 24956
are determined by the public institution of higher education in 24957
its sole discretion.24958

       (2) Except as provided in division (B)(3) of this section, 24959
the public institution of higher education shall enter into 24960
agreements with a minimum of four vendors or, if fewer than four 24961
vendors are available, with the number of vendors available.24962

       (3) Division (B)(2) of this section does not require a public 24963
institution of higher education to enter into an agreement with a 24964
vendor if either of the following is the case:24965

       (a) The vendor is not willing to provide investment options 24966
under the alternative retirement plan at that public institution.24967

       (b) The vendor is not willing to agree to the terms and 24968
conditions of the agreement.24969

       (4) After an agreement has been entered into, both of the 24970
following apply with respect to termination of the agreement with 24971
the provider:24972

       (a) The agreement shall be terminated if the provider ceases 24973
to be an entity designated as a vendor.24974

       (b) The agreement may be terminated if the provider fails to 24975
comply with the terms and conditions of such agreement.24976

       Sec. 3305.05.  (A) As used in this section and section 24977
3305.051 of the Revised Code, "academic or administrative 24978
employee" means any full-time employee not receiving any benefit, 24979
allowance, or other payment granted on the employee's account from 24980
a state retirement system who, before the effective date of this 24981
sectionAugust 1, 2005, met one of the following requirements:24982

       (1) The employee was a member of the faculty of a public 24983
institution of higher education.24984

       (2) The employee was a member of the administrative staff of 24985
a public institution of higher education serving in a position in 24986
the unclassified civil service pursuant to section 124.11 of the 24987
Revised Code.24988

       (3) If section 124.11 of the Revised Code did not apply to 24989
the public institution of higher education, the employee was a 24990
member of the administrative staff of a public institution of 24991
higher education serving in a position comparable to a position in 24992
the unclassified civil service.24993

       In all cases of doubt, the board of trustees of the public 24994
institution of higher education shall determine whether any person 24995
is an academic or administrative employee for purposes of this 24996
chapter, and the board's decision shall be final.24997

       (B)(1) Each person who, on the effective date of this section24998
August 1, 2005, is an eligible employee of a public institution of 24999
higher education and has accrued less than five years of service 25000
credit in a state retirement system may, not later than one 25001
hundred twenty days after the effective date of this section25002
August 1, 2005, make an election to participate in an alternative 25003
retirement plan available at the employing public institution, 25004
unless, prior to the effective date of this sectionAugust 1, 25005
2005, the person had an opportunity pursuant to former section 25006
3305.05 of the Revised Code to make such an election as an 25007
academic or administrative employee of that public institution of 25008
higher education.25009

       (2) An eligible employee whose employment with a public 25010
institution of higher education commences on or after the 25011
effective date of this sectionAugust 1, 2005, may, not later than 25012
one hundred twenty days after the starting date of the employment, 25013
make an election to participate in an alternative retirement plan 25014
available at the employing public institution.25015

        (3) An eligible employee who, on or after the effective date 25016
of this sectionAugust 1, 2005, terminates employment at one 25017
public institution of higher education and subsequently is 25018
employed by another public institution of higher education in a 25019
position for which an alternative retirement plan is available 25020
may, not later than one hundred twenty days after the starting 25021
date of the employment, elect to participate in an alternative 25022
retirement plan available at that public institution.25023

        (C)(1) An eligible employee who makes an election under 25024
division (B) of this section shall submit the election in writing 25025
to the designated officer of the employee's employing public 25026
institution of higher education. Once submitted, the election is 25027
irrevocable while the eligible employee continues to be employed 25028
by the public institution of higher education. Not later than ten 25029
days after the election becomes irrevocable, the officer shall 25030
file a certified copy of the election with the state retirement 25031
system to which, apart from the election, the employee's 25032
employment would be subject.25033

        Each public institution of higher education that employs a 25034
person eligible to make an election under division (B) of this 25035
section shall notify, in writing, within ten days of the person's 25036
employment, the state retirement system that applies to that 25037
employment in the manner specified by that state retirement 25038
system. The notice shall include the person's name and address. 25039
The notice shall be given not later than ten days after the first 25040
date the person is on the institution's payroll.25041

        (2) Elections made under division (B) of this section take 25042
effect as follows:25043

        (a) An election under division (B)(1) of this section is 25044
effective as of the date on which the employee's election to 25045
participate in the alternative retirement plan becomes 25046
irrevocable.25047

        (b) An election under division (B)(2) or (3) of this section 25048
is effective as of the electing employee's starting date of 25049
employment.25050

        (3) An eligible employee's election under division (B) of 25051
this section applies to the employee's employment in all positions 25052
at that public institution, unless the employee terminates 25053
employment at the public institution and does not return to 25054
employment in any position at that public institution prior to one 25055
yearfor at least three hundred sixty-five days after the date of 25056
termination.25057

        (4) An eligible employee who makes an election under division 25058
(B) of this section is forever barred from claiming or purchasing 25059
service credit under any state retirement system for the period of 25060
employment while the election is in effect.25061

        (D)(1) An eligible employee who fails to make an election 25062
under division (B) of this section within the one-hundred-twenty 25063
day election period shall be deemed to have elected to participate 25064
in the state retirement system that applies to the employee's 25065
employment.25066

        (2) An eligible employee who fails to make an election under 25067
division (B) of this section shall not be permitted to make an 25068
election for employment in any other position at the public 25069
institution of higher education while employed at that public 25070
institution, unless the employee terminates employment at the 25071
public institution and does not return to employment in any 25072
position at the public institution prior to one yearfor at least 25073
three hundred sixty-five days after the date of termination.25074

       Sec. 3305.053.  The board of trustees of a public institution 25075
of higher education shall permit an employee who makes an election 25076
under section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code to do all of 25077
the following:25078

       (A) Select, from among the providers that have entered into a 25079
contractan agreement with the public institution of higher 25080
education under section 3305.04 of the Revised Code, the provider 25081
of an investment option for that employee;25082

       (B) Except as permitted under division (C) of this section, 25083
contract with only one provider in any plan year;25084

       (C) ChangeSubject to any terms and conditions established by 25085
the public institution of higher education, change the provider 25086
selected under division (A) of this section at the following 25087
times:25088

       (1) Once during the first payroll period in any plan year;25089

       (2) Any time the provider that the employee selected ceases, 25090
under division (C) of section 3305.03 of the Revised Code, to be 25091
designatedany time during the plan year.25092

       (D)(C) If under division (C)(B) of this section an employee 25093
changes providers, the employee may direct the provider shallto25094
transfer to the new provider the employee's account balance either 25095
in whole or in part, as directed by the employee, except that the 25096
provider is not required to immediately transfer any part of the 25097
account invested at the employee's election in a fixed annuity 25098
account if the contract with the employee under which the 25099
investment was made permits the provider to make such a transfer 25100
over a period of time not exceeding ten years and the contract was 25101
filed with and approved by the department of insurance pursuant to 25102
section 3911.011 of the Revised Code.25103

       Sec. 3305.06.  (A) Each electing employee shall contribute an 25104
amount, which shall be a certain percentage of the employee's 25105
compensation, to the provider of the investment option the 25106
employee has selected. This percentage shall be the percentage the 25107
electing employee would have otherwise been required to contribute 25108
to the state retirement system that applies to the employee's 25109
position, except that the percentage shall not be less than three 25110
per cent. Employee contributions under this division may be 25111
treated as employer contributions in accordance with Internal 25112
Revenue Code 414(h).25113

       (B) Each public institution of higher education employing an 25114
electing employee shall contribute a percentage of the employee's 25115
compensation to the provider of the investment option the employee 25116
has selected. This percentage shall be equal to the percentage 25117
that the public institution of higher education would otherwise 25118
contribute on behalf of that employee to the state retirement 25119
system that would otherwise cover that employee's position, less 25120
the percentage contributed by the public institution of higher 25121
education under division (D) of this section.25122

       (C)(1) In no event shall the amount contributed by the 25123
electing employee pursuant to division (A) of this section and on 25124
the electing employee's behalf pursuant to division (B) of this 25125
section be less than the amount necessary to qualify the plan as a 25126
state retirement system pursuant to Internal Revenue Code 25127
3121(B)(b)(7) and the regulations adopted thereunder.25128

       (2) The full amount of the electing employee's contribution 25129
under division (A) of this section and the full amount of the 25130
employer's contribution made on behalf of that employee under 25131
division (B) of this section shall be paid to the appropriate 25132
provider for application to the electing employee's investment 25133
option.25134

       (D) Each public institution of higher education employing an 25135
electing employee shall contribute on behalf of that employee to 25136
the state retirement system that otherwise applies to the electing 25137
employee's position a percentage of the electing employee's 25138
compensation to mitigate any negative financial impact of the 25139
alternative retirement program on the state retirement system. The 25140
percentage shall be six per cent, except that the percentage may 25141
be adjusted by the Ohio retirement study council to reflect the 25142
determinations made by actuarial studies conducted under section 25143
171.07 of the Revised Code. Any adjustment shall become effective 25144
on the first day of the second month following submission of the 25145
actuarial study to the Ohio board of regents under section 171.07 25146
of the Revised Code.25147

       Contributions on behalf of an electing employee shall 25148
continue in accordance with this division until the occurrence of 25149
the following:25150

       (1) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 145. 25151
of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election pursuant 25152
to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, until the 25153
unfunded actuarial accrued liability for all benefits, except 25154
health care benefits provided under section 145.325 or 145.58 of 25155
the Revised Code and benefit increases provided after March 31, 25156
1997, is fully amortized, as determined by the annual actuarial 25157
valuation prepared under section 145.22 of the Revised Code;25158

       (2) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 25159
3307. of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election 25160
pursuant to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, until 25161
the unfunded actuarial accrued liability for all benefits, except 25162
health care benefits provided under section 3307.39 or 3307.61 of 25163
the Revised Code and benefit increases provided after March 31, 25164
1997, is fully amortized, as determined by the annual actuarial 25165
valuation prepared under section 3307.51 of the Revised Code;25166

       (3) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 25167
3309. of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election 25168
pursuant to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, until 25169
the unfunded actuarial accrued liability for all benefits, except 25170
health care benefits provided under section 3309.375 or 3309.69 of 25171
the Revised Code and benefit increases provided after March 31, 25172
1997, is fully amortized, as determined by the annual actuarial 25173
valuation prepared under section 3309.21 of the Revised Code.25174

       Sec. 3313.65.  (A) As used in this section and section 25175
3313.64 of the Revised Code:25176

       (1) A person is "in a residential facility" if the person is 25177
a resident or a resident patient of an institution, home, or other 25178
residential facility that is:25179

       (a) Licensed as a nursing home, residential care facility, or 25180
home for the aging by the director of health under section 3721.02 25181
of the Revised Code;25182

       (b) Licensed as an adult care facility by the director of 25183
mental health under sections 5119.70 to 5119.88 of the Revised 25184
Code;25185

       (c) Maintained as a county home or district home by the board 25186
of county commissioners or a joint board of county commissioners 25187
under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;25188

       (d)(c) Operated or administered by a board of alcohol, drug 25189
addiction, and mental health services under section 340.03 or 25190
340.06 of the Revised Code, or provides residential care pursuant 25191
to contracts made under section 340.03 or 340.033 of the Revised 25192
Code;25193

       (e)(d) Maintained as a state institution for the mentally ill 25194
under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code;25195

       (f)(e) Licensed by the department of mental health under 25196
section 5119.20 or 5119.22 of the Revised Code;25197

       (g)(f) Licensed as a residential facility by the department 25198
of developmental disabilities under section 5123.19 of the Revised 25199
Code;25200

       (h)(g) Operated by the veteran's administration or another 25201
agency of the United States government;25202

       (i)(h) Operated by the Ohio veterans' home.25203

       (2) A person is "in a correctional facility" if any of the 25204
following apply:25205

       (a) The person is an Ohio resident and is:25206

       (i) Imprisoned, as defined in section 1.05 of the Revised 25207
Code;25208

       (ii) Serving a term in a community-based correctional 25209
facility or a district community-based correctional facility;25210

       (iii) Required, as a condition of parole, a post-release 25211
control sanction, a community control sanction, transitional 25212
control, or early release from imprisonment, as a condition of 25213
shock parole or shock probation granted under the law in effect 25214
prior to July 1, 1996, or as a condition of a furlough granted 25215
under the version of section 2967.26 of the Revised Code in effect 25216
prior to March 17, 1998, to reside in a halfway house or other 25217
community residential center licensed under section 2967.14 of the 25218
Revised Code or a similar facility designated by the court of 25219
common pleas that established the condition or by the adult parole 25220
authority.25221

       (b) The person is imprisoned in a state correctional 25222
institution of another state or a federal correctional institution 25223
but was an Ohio resident at the time the sentence was imposed for 25224
the crime for which the person is imprisoned.25225

       (3) A person is "in a juvenile residential placement" if the 25226
person is an Ohio resident who is under twenty-one years of age 25227
and has been removed, by the order of a juvenile court, from the 25228
place the person resided at the time the person became subject to 25229
the court's jurisdiction in the matter that resulted in the 25230
person's removal.25231

       (4) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 25232
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.25233

       (5) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 25234
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.25235

       (B) If the circumstances described in division (C) of this 25236
section apply, the determination of what school district must 25237
admit a child to its schools and what district, if any, is liable 25238
for tuition shall be made in accordance with this section, rather 25239
than section 3313.64 of the Revised Code.25240

       (C) A child who does not reside in the school district in 25241
which the child's parent resides and for whom a tuition obligation 25242
previously has not been established under division (C)(2) of 25243
section 3313.64 of the Revised Code shall be admitted to the 25244
schools of the district in which the child resides if at least one 25245
of the child's parents is in a residential or correctional 25246
facility or a juvenile residential placement and the other parent, 25247
if living and not in such a facility or placement, is not known to 25248
reside in this state.25249

       (D) Regardless of who has custody or care of the child, 25250
whether the child resides in a home, or whether the child receives 25251
special education, if a district admits a child under division (C) 25252
of this section, tuition shall be paid to that district as 25253
follows:25254

       (1) If the child's parent is in a juvenile residential 25255
placement, by the district in which the child's parent resided at 25256
the time the parent became subject to the jurisdiction of the 25257
juvenile court;25258

       (2) If the child's parent is in a correctional facility, by 25259
the district in which the child's parent resided at the time the 25260
sentence was imposed;25261

       (3) If the child's parent is in a residential facility, by 25262
the district in which the parent resided at the time the parent 25263
was admitted to the residential facility, except that if the 25264
parent was transferred from another residential facility, tuition 25265
shall be paid by the district in which the parent resided at the 25266
time the parent was admitted to the facility from which the parent 25267
first was transferred;25268

       (4) In the event of a disagreement as to which school 25269
district is liable for tuition under division (C)(1), (2), or (3) 25270
of this section, the superintendent of public instruction shall 25271
determine which district shall pay tuition.25272

       (E) If a child covered by division (D) of this section 25273
receives special education in accordance with Chapter 3323. of the 25274
Revised Code, the tuition shall be paid in accordance with section 25275
3323.13 or 3323.14 of the Revised Code. Tuition for children who 25276
do not receive special education shall be paid in accordance with 25277
division (J) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code.25278

       Sec. 3313.71.  School physicians may make examinations, which 25279
shall include tests to determine the existence of hearing defects, 25280
and diagnoses of all children referred to them. They may make such 25281
examination of teachers and other school employees and inspection 25282
of school buildings as in their opinion the protection of health 25283
of the pupils, teachers, and other school employees requires.25284

       Boards of education shall require and provide, in accordance 25285
with section 3313.67 of the Revised Code, such tests and 25286
examinations for tuberculosis of pupils in selected grades and of 25287
school employees as may be required by the Ohio publicdirector of25288
health council.25289

       Boards may require annual tuberculin tests of any grades. All 25290
pupils with positive reactions to the test shall have chest x-rays 25291
and all positive reactions and x-ray findings shall be reported 25292
promptly to the county record bureau of tuberculosis cases 25293
provided for in section 339.74 of the Revised Code. Boards shall 25294
waive the required test where a pupil presents a written statement 25295
from the pupil's family physician certifying that such test has 25296
been given and that such pupil is free from tuberculosis in a 25297
communicable stage, or that such test is inadvisable for medical 25298
reasons, or from the pupil's parent or guardian objecting to such 25299
test because of religious convictions.25300

       Whenever a pupil, teacher, or other school employee is found 25301
to be ill or suffering from tuberculosis in a communicable stage 25302
or other communicable disease, the school physician shall promptly 25303
send such pupil, teacher, or other school employee home, with a 25304
statement, in the case of a pupil, to the pupil's parents or 25305
guardian, briefly setting forth the discovered facts, and advising 25306
that the family physician be consulted. School physicians shall 25307
keep accurate card-index records of all examinations, and said 25308
records, that they may be uniform throughout the state, shall be 25309
according to the form prescribed by the state board of education, 25310
and the reports shall be made according to the method of said 25311
form. If the parent or guardian of any pupil or any teacher or 25312
other school employee, after notice from the board of education, 25313
furnishes within two weeks thereafter the written certificate of 25314
any reputable physician that the pupil, teacher, or other school 25315
employee has been examined, in such cases the service of the 25316
school physician shall be dispensed with, and such certificate 25317
shall be furnished by such parent or guardian, as required by the 25318
board of education. Such individual records shall not be open to 25319
the public and shall be solely for the use of the boards of 25320
education and boards of health officer. If any teacher or other 25321
school employee is found to have tuberculosis in a communicable 25322
stage or other communicable disease, the teacher's or employee's 25323
employment shall be discontinued or suspended upon such terms as 25324
to salary as the board deems just until the school physician has 25325
certified to a recovery from such disease. The methods of making 25326
the tuberculin tests and chest x-rays required by this section 25327
shall be such as are approved by the director of health.25328

       Sec. 3313.976.  (A) No private school may receive scholarship 25329
payments from parents pursuant to section 3313.979 of the Revised 25330
Code until the chief administrator of the private school registers 25331
the school with the superintendent of public instruction. The 25332
state superintendent shall register any school that meets the 25333
following requirements:25334

       (1) The school is located within the boundaries of the pilot 25335
project school district;25336

       (2) The school indicates in writing its commitment to follow 25337
all requirements for a state-sponsored scholarship program 25338
specified under sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code, 25339
including, but not limited to, the requirements for admitting 25340
students pursuant to section 3313.977 of the Revised Code;25341

       (3) The school meets all state minimum standards for 25342
chartered nonpublic schools in effect on July 1, 1992, except that 25343
the state superintendent at the superintendent's discretion may 25344
register nonchartered nonpublic schools meeting the other 25345
requirements of this division;25346

       (4) The school does not discriminate on the basis of race, 25347
religion, or ethnic background;25348

       (5) The school enrolls a minimum of ten students per class or 25349
a sum of at least twenty-five students in all the classes offered;25350

       (6) The school does not advocate or foster unlawful behavior 25351
or teach hatred of any person or group on the basis of race, 25352
ethnicity, national origin, or religion;25353

       (7) The school does not provide false or misleading 25354
information about the school to parents, students, or the general 25355
public;25356

       (8) For students in grades kindergarten through eight with 25357
family incomes at or below two hundred per cent of the federal 25358
poverty guidelines, as defined in section 5104.46 of the Revised 25359
Code, the school agrees not to charge any tuition to low-income 25360
families receiving ninety per cent of the scholarship amount 25361
through the scholarship program, pursuant to division (A) of 25362
section 3313.978 of the Revised Code, in excess of ten per cent of25363
the scholarship amount established pursuant to division (C)(1) of 25364
section 3313.978 of the Revised Code, excluding any increase 25365
described in division (C)(2) of that section. The school shall 25366
permit any such tuition, at the discretion of the parent, to be 25367
satisfied by the low-income family's provision of in-kind 25368
contributions or services.25369

       (9) For students in grades kindergarten through eight with 25370
family incomes above two hundred per cent of the federal poverty 25371
guidelines, whose scholarship amounts are less than the actual 25372
tuition charge of the school, the school agrees not to charge any 25373
tuition to low-income families receiving a seventy-five per cent 25374
scholarship amount through the scholarship program, pursuant to 25375
division (A) of section 3313.978 of the Revised Code, in excess of 25376
the difference between the actual tuition charge of the school and 25377
seventy-five per cent of the scholarship amount established 25378
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 3313.978 of the Revised 25379
Code, excluding any increase described in division (C)(2) of that 25380
section. The school shall permit such tuition, at the discretion 25381
of the parent, to be satisfied by the low-income family's 25382
provision of in-kind contributions or services.25383

       (10) The school agrees not to charge any tuition to families 25384
of students in grades nine through twelve receiving a scholarship 25385
in excess of the actual tuition charge of the school less 25386
seventy-five or ninety per cent of the scholarship amount 25387
established pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 3313.978 of the 25388
Revised Code, as applicable, excluding any increase described in 25389
division (C)(2) of that section.25390

       (11) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 3301.0711 of the 25391
Revised Code, the school annually administers the assessments 25392
prescribed by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code to each 25393
scholarship student enrolled in the school in accordance with 25394
section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code and reports to the 25395
department of education the results of each such assessment 25396
administered to each scholarship student.25397

       (B) The state superintendent shall revoke the registration of 25398
any school if, after a hearing, the superintendent determines that 25399
the school is in violation of any of the provisions of division 25400
(A) of this section.25401

       (C) Any public school located in a school district adjacent 25402
to the pilot project district may receive scholarship payments on 25403
behalf of parents pursuant to section 3313.979 of the Revised Code 25404
if the superintendent of the district in which such public school 25405
is located notifies the state superintendent prior to the first 25406
day of March that the district intends to admit students from the 25407
pilot project district for the ensuing school year pursuant to 25408
section 3327.06 of the Revised Code.25409

       (D) Any parent wishing to purchase tutorial assistance from 25410
any person or governmental entity pursuant to the pilot project 25411
program under sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code 25412
shall apply to the state superintendent. The state superintendent 25413
shall approve providers who appear to possess the capability of 25414
furnishing the instructional services they are offering to 25415
provide.25416

       Sec. 3313.978.  (A) Annually by the first day of November, 25417
the superintendent of public instruction shall notify the pilot 25418
project school district of the number of initial scholarships that 25419
the state superintendent will be awarding in each of grades 25420
kindergarten through twelve.25421

       The state superintendent shall provide information about the 25422
scholarship program to all students residing in the district, 25423
shall accept applications from any such students until such date 25424
as shall be established by the state superintendent as a deadline 25425
for applications, and shall establish criteria for the selection 25426
of students to receive scholarships from among all those applying 25427
prior to the deadline, which criteria shall give preference to 25428
students from low-income families. For each student selected, the 25429
state superintendent shall also determine whether the student 25430
qualifies for seventy-five or ninety per cent of the scholarship 25431
amount. Students whose family income is at or above two hundred 25432
per cent of the maximum income level established by the state 25433
superintendent for low-income families shall qualify for 25434
seventy-five per cent of the scholarship amount and students whose 25435
family income is below two hundred per cent of that maximum income 25436
level shall qualify for ninety per cent of the scholarship amount.25437
The state superintendent shall notify students of their selection 25438
prior to the fifteenth day of January and whether they qualify for 25439
seventy-five or ninety per cent of the scholarship amount.25440

       (1) A student receiving a pilot project scholarship may 25441
utilize it at an alternative public school by notifying the 25442
district superintendent, at any time before the beginning of the 25443
school year, of the name of the public school in an adjacent 25444
school district to which the student has been accepted pursuant to 25445
section 3327.06 of the Revised Code.25446

       (2) A student may decide to utilize a pilot project 25447
scholarship at a registered private school in the district if all 25448
of the following conditions are met:25449

       (a) By the fifteenth day of February of the preceding school 25450
year, or at any time prior to the start of the school year, the 25451
parent makes an application on behalf of the student to a 25452
registered private school.25453

       (b) The registered private school notifies the parent and the 25454
state superintendent as follows that the student has been 25455
admitted:25456

       (i) By the fifteenth day of March of the preceding school 25457
year if the student filed an application by the fifteenth day of 25458
February and was admitted by the school pursuant to division (A) 25459
of section 3313.977 of the Revised Code;25460

       (ii) Within one week of the decision to admit the student if 25461
the student is admitted pursuant to division (C) of section 25462
3313.977 of the Revised Code.25463

       (c) The student actually enrolls in the registered private 25464
school to which the student was first admitted or in another 25465
registered private school in the district or in a public school in 25466
an adjacent school district.25467

       (B) The state superintendent shall also award in any school 25468
year tutorial assistance grants to a number of students equal to 25469
the number of students who receive scholarships under division (A) 25470
of this section. Tutorial assistance grants shall be awarded 25471
solely to students who are enrolled in the public schools of the 25472
district in a grade level covered by the pilot project. Tutorial 25473
assistance grants may be used solely to obtain tutorial assistance 25474
from a provider approved pursuant to division (D) of section 25475
3313.976 of the Revised Code.25476

       All students wishing to obtain tutorial assistance grants 25477
shall make application to the state superintendent by the first 25478
day of the school year in which the assistance will be used. The 25479
state superintendent shall award assistance grants in accordance 25480
with criteria the superintendent shall establish. For each student 25481
awarded a grant, the state superintendent shall also determine 25482
whether the student qualifies for seventy-five or ninety per cent 25483
of the grant amount and so notify the student. Students whose 25484
family income is at or above two hundred per cent of the maximum 25485
income level established by the state superintendent for 25486
low-income families shall qualify for seventy-five per cent of the 25487
grant amount and students whose family income is below two hundred 25488
per cent of that maximum income level shall qualify for ninety per 25489
cent of the grant amount.25490

       (C)(1) In the case of basic scholarships for students in 25491
grades kindergarten through eight, the scholarship amount shall 25492
not exceed the lesser of the net tuition charges of the 25493
alternative school the scholarship recipient attends or three 25494
thousand dollars before fiscal year 2007, three thousand four 25495
hundred fifty dollars in fiscal year 2007 through fiscal year 25496
2011, and four thousand two hundred fifty dollars in fiscal year 25497
2012 and thereafter.25498

       In the case of basic scholarships for students in grades nine 25499
through twelve, the scholarship amount shall not exceed the lesser 25500
of the net tuition charges of the alternative school the 25501
scholarship recipient attends or two thousand seven hundred 25502
dollars before fiscal year 2007, three thousand four hundred fifty 25503
dollars in fiscal year 2007 through fiscal year 2011, and five 25504
thousand dollars in fiscal year 2012 and thereafter.25505

       The net tuition and fees charged to a student shall be the 25506
tuition amount specified by the alternative school minus all other 25507
financial aid, discounts, and adjustments received for the 25508
student. In cases where discounts are offered for multiple 25509
students from the same family, and not all students in the same 25510
family are scholarship recipients, the net tuition amount 25511
attributable to the scholarship recipient shall be the lowest net 25512
tuition to which the family is entitled.25513

       (2) The state superintendent shall provide for an increase in 25514
the basic scholarship amount in the case of any student who is a 25515
mainstreamed student with a disability and shall further increase 25516
such amount in the case of any separately educated student with a 25517
disability. Such increases shall take into account the 25518
instruction, related services, and transportation costs of 25519
educating such students.25520

       (3) In the case of tutorial assistance grants, the grant 25521
amount shall not exceed the lesser of the provider's actual 25522
charges for such assistance or:25523

       (a) Before fiscal year 2007, a percentage established by the 25524
state superintendent, not to exceed twenty per cent, of the amount 25525
of the pilot project school district's average basic scholarship 25526
amount;25527

       (b) In fiscal year 2007 and thereafter, four hundred dollars.25528

       (4) No scholarship or tutorial assistance grant shall be 25529
awarded unless the state superintendent determines that 25530
twenty-five or ten per cent, as applicable, of the amount 25531
specified for such scholarship or grant pursuant to division 25532
(C)(1), (2), or (3) of this section will be furnished by a 25533
political subdivision, a private nonprofit or for profit entity, 25534
or another person. Only seventy-five or ninety per cent of such 25535
amounts, as applicable, shall be paid from state funds pursuant to 25536
section 3313.979 of the Revised Code.25537

       (D)(1) Annually by the first day of November, the state 25538
superintendent shall estimate the maximum per-pupil scholarship 25539
amounts for the ensuing school year. The state superintendent 25540
shall make this estimate available to the general public at the 25541
offices of the district board of education together with the forms 25542
required by division (D)(2) of this section.25543

       (2) Annually by the fifteenth day of January, the chief 25544
administrator of each registered private school located in the 25545
pilot project district and the principal of each public school in 25546
such district shall complete a parental information form and 25547
forward it to the president of the board of education. The 25548
parental information form shall be prescribed by the department of 25549
education and shall provide information about the grade levels 25550
offered, the numbers of students, tuition amounts, achievement 25551
test results, and any sectarian or other organizational 25552
affiliations.25553

       (E)(1) Only for the purpose of administering the pilot 25554
project scholarship program, the department may request from any 25555
of the following entities the data verification code assigned 25556
under division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code to 25557
any student who is seeking a scholarship under the program:25558

        (a) The school district in which the student is entitled to 25559
attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 25560
Code;25561

        (b) If applicable, the community school in which the student 25562
is enrolled;25563

        (c) The independent contractor engaged to create and maintain 25564
data verification codes.25565

        (2) Upon a request by the department under division (E)(1) of 25566
this section for the data verification code of a student seeking a 25567
scholarship or a request by the student's parent for that code, 25568
the school district or community school shall submit that code to 25569
the department or parent in the manner specified by the 25570
department. If the student has not been assigned a code, because 25571
the student will be entering kindergarten during the school year 25572
for which the scholarship is sought, the district shall assign a 25573
code to that student and submit the code to the department or 25574
parent by a date specified by the department. If the district does 25575
not assign a code to the student by the specified date, the 25576
department shall assign a code to the student.25577

       The department annually shall submit to each school district 25578
the name and data verification code of each student residing in 25579
the district who is entering kindergarten, who has been awarded a 25580
scholarship under the program, and for whom the department has 25581
assigned a code under this division.25582

       (3) The department shall not release any data verification 25583
code that it receives under division (E) of this section to any 25584
person except as provided by law.25585

       (F) Any document relative to the pilot project scholarship 25586
program that the department holds in its files that contains both 25587
a student's name or other personally identifiable information and 25588
the student's data verification code shall not be a public record 25589
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.25590

       (G)(1) The department annually shall compile the scores 25591
attained by scholarship students enrolled in registered private 25592
schools on the assessments administered to the students pursuant 25593
to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of the Revised Code. The 25594
scores shall be aggregated as follows:25595

       (a) By school district, which shall include all scholarship 25596
students residing in the pilot project school district who are 25597
enrolled in a registered private school and were required to take 25598
an assessment pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of 25599
the Revised Code;25600

       (b) By registered private school, which shall include all 25601
scholarship students enrolled in that school who were required to 25602
take an assessment pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 25603
3313.976 of the Revised Code.25604

       (2) The department shall disaggregate the student performance 25605
data described in division (G)(1) of this section according to the 25606
following categories:25607

       (a) Age;25608

       (b) Race and ethnicity;25609

       (c) Gender;25610

       (d) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 25611
for three or more years;25612

       (e) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 25613
for more than one year and less than three years;25614

       (f) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 25615
for one year or less;25616

       (g) Economically disadvantaged students.25617

       (3) The department shall post the student performance data 25618
required under divisions (G)(1) and (2) of this section on its web 25619
site and shall include that data in the information about the 25620
scholarship program provided to students under division (A) of 25621
this section. In reporting student performance data under this 25622
division, the department shall not include any data that is 25623
statistically unreliable or that could result in the 25624
identification of individual students. For this purpose, the 25625
department shall not report performance data for any group that 25626
contains less than ten students.25627

       (4) The department shall provide the parent of each 25628
scholarship student enrolled in a registered private school with 25629
information comparing the student's performance on the assessments 25630
administered pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of 25631
the Revised Code with the average performance of similar students 25632
enrolled in the building operated by the pilot project school 25633
district that the scholarship student would otherwise attend. In 25634
calculating the performance of similar students, the department 25635
shall consider age, grade, race and ethnicity, gender, and 25636
socioeconomic status.25637

       Sec. 3313.979.  Each scholarship to be used for payments to a 25638
registered private school is payable to the parents of the student 25639
entitled to the scholarship. Each scholarship to be used for 25640
payments to a public school in an adjacent school district is 25641
payable to the school district of attendance by the superintendent 25642
of public instruction. Each grant to be used for payments to an 25643
approved tutorial assistance provider is payable to the approved 25644
tutorial assistance provider.25645

       (A)(1) By the fifteenth day of each month of the school year 25646
that any scholarship students are enrolled in a registered private 25647
school, the chief administrator of that school shall notify the 25648
state superintendent of:25649

       (a) The number of scholarship students who were reported to 25650
the school district as having been admitted by that private school 25651
pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of section 3313.978 of the Revised 25652
Code and who were still enrolled in the private school as of the 25653
first day of such month, and the numbers of such students who 25654
qualify for seventy-five and ninety per cent of the scholarship 25655
amount;25656

       (b) The number of scholarship students who were reported to 25657
the school district as having been admitted by another private 25658
school pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of section 3313.978 of the 25659
Revised Code and since the date of admission have transferred to 25660
the school providing the notification under division (A)(1) of 25661
this section, and the numbers of such students who qualify for 25662
seventy-five and ninety per cent of the scholarship amount.25663

       (2) From time to time, the state superintendent shall make a 25664
payment to the parent of each student entitled to a scholarship. 25665
Each payment shall include for each student reported under 25666
division (A)(1) of this section, a portion of seventy-five or 25667
ninety per cent, as applicable, of the scholarship amount 25668
specified in divisions (C)(1) and (2) of section 3313.978 of the 25669
Revised Code. This amount shall be proportionately reduced in the 25670
case of any such student who is not enrolled in a registered 25671
private school for the entire school year.25672

       (3) The first payment under this division shall be made by 25673
the last day of November and shall equal one-third of seventy-five 25674
or ninety per cent, as applicable, of the estimated total amount 25675
that will be due to the parent for the school year pursuant to 25676
division (A)(2) of this section.25677

       (B) The state superintendent, on behalf of the parents of a 25678
scholarship student enrolled in a public school in an adjacent 25679
school district pursuant to section 3327.06 of the Revised Code, 25680
shall make the tuition payments required by that section to the 25681
school district admitting the student, except that, 25682
notwithstanding sections 3323.13, 3323.14, and 3327.06 of the 25683
Revised Code, the total payments in any school year shall not 25684
exceed seventy-five or ninety per cent, as applicable, of the 25685
scholarship amount provided in divisions (C)(1) and (2) of section 25686
3313.978 of the Revised Code.25687

       (C) Whenever an approved provider provides tutorial 25688
assistance to a student, the state superintendent shall pay the 25689
approved provider for such costs upon receipt of a statement 25690
specifying the services provided and the costs of the services, 25691
which statement shall be signed by the provider and verified by 25692
the chief administrator having supervisory control over the 25693
tutoring site. The total payments to any approved provider under 25694
this division for all provider services to any individual student 25695
in any school year shall not exceed seventy-five or ninety per 25696
cent, as applicable, of the grant amount provided in division 25697
(C)(3) of section 3313.978 of the Revised Code.25698

       Sec. 3318.034.  (A) This section applies to both of the 25699
following:25700

       (1) Any school district that has not executed an agreement 25701
for a project under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised 25702
Code prior to June 24, 2008;25703

       (2) Any school district that is eligible for additional 25704
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code 25705
pursuant to division (B)(2) of section 3318.04 of the Revised 25706
Code.25707

       Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the 25708
contrary, with the approval of the Ohio school facilities 25709
commission, any school district to which this section applies may 25710
opt to divide the district's entire classroom facilities needs, as 25711
those needs are jointly determined by the staff of the commission 25712
and the school district, into discrete segments and shall comply 25713
with all of the provisions of those sections unless otherwise 25714
provided in this section.25715

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each 25716
segment shall comply with all of the following:25717

       (1) The segment shall consist of the new construction of one 25718
or more entire buildings or the complete renovation of one or more 25719
entire existing buildings, with any necessary additions to that 25720
building.25721

       (2) The segment shall not include any construction of or 25722
renovation or repair to any building that does not complete the 25723
needs of the district with respect to that particular building at 25724
the time the segment is completed.25725

       (3) The segment shall consist of new construction, 25726
renovations, additions, reconstruction, or repair of classroom 25727
facilities to the extent that the school district portion, as 25728
determined under section 3318.032 of the Revised Code, is an 25729
amount not less than the product of 0.040 times the district's 25730
valuation at the time the agreement for the segment is executed, 25731
unless the district previously has undertaken a segment under this 25732
section and the district's portion of the estimated basic project 25733
cost of the remainder of its entire classroom facilities needs, as 25734
determined jointly by the staff of the commission and the 25735
district, is less than the amount otherwise required by this 25736
division.25737

       (C) A district described in division (A)(2) of this section 25738
that has not received the additional assistance authorized under 25739
division (B)(2) of section 3318.04 of the Revised Code may 25740
undertake a segment, with commission approval, for the purpose of 25741
renovating or replacing work performed on a facility under the 25742
district's prior project. The commission may approve that segment 25743
if the commission determines that the renovation or replacement is 25744
necessary to protect the facility. The basic project cost of the 25745
segment shall be allocated between the state and the district in 25746
accordance with section 3318.032 of the Revised Code. However, the 25747
requirements of division (B) of this section shall not apply to a 25748
segment undertaken under this division. 25749

       (D) The commission shall conditionally approve and seek 25750
controlling board approval in accordance with division (A) of 25751
section 3318.04 of the Revised Code of each segment.25752

       (E) The school district's maintenance levy requirement, as 25753
defined in section 3318.18 of the Revised Code,(1) When 25754
undertaking a segment under this section, a school district may 25755
elect to prorate its full maintenance amount by setting aside for 25756
maintenance the amount calculated under division (E)(2) of this 25757
section to maintain the classroom facilities acquired under the 25758
segment, if the district will use one or more of the alternative 25759
methods authorized in sections 3318.051, 3318.052, and 3318.084 of 25760
the Revised Code to generate the entire amount calculated under 25761
that division. If the district so elects, the commission and the 25762
district shall include in the agreement entered into under section 25763
3318.08 of the Revised Code a statement specifying that the 25764
district will use the amount calculated under that division only 25765
to maintain the classroom facilities acquired under the segment.25766

       (2) The commission shall calculate the amount for a school 25767
district to maintain the classroom facilities acquired under a 25768
segment as follows:25769

       The full maintenance amount X (the school district's portion 25770
of the basic project cost for the segment / the school district's 25771
portion of the basic project cost for the district's entire 25772
classroom facilities needs, as determined jointly by the staff of 25773
the commission and the district)25774

       (3) A school district may elect to prorate its full 25775
maintenance amount for any number of segments, provided the 25776
district will use one or more of the alternative methods 25777
authorized in sections 3318.051, 3318.052, and 3318.084 of the 25778
Revised Code to generate the entire amount calculated under 25779
division (E)(2) of this section to maintain the classroom 25780
facilities acquired under each segment for which it so elects. If 25781
the district cannot use one or more of those alternative methods 25782
to generate the entire amount calculated under that division, the 25783
district shall levy the tax described in division (B) of section 25784
3318.05 of the Revised Code or an extension of that tax under 25785
section 3318.061 of the Revised Code in an amount necessary to 25786
generate the remainder of its full maintenance amount. The 25787
commission shall calculate the remainder of the district's full 25788
maintenance amount as follows:25789

       The full maintenance amount - the sum of the amounts 25790
calculated for the district under division (E)(2) of this section 25791
for each prior segment of the district's project25792

       (4) In no case shall the sum of the amounts calculated for a 25793
school district's maintenance of classroom facilities under 25794
divisions (E)(2) and (3) of this section exceed the amount that 25795
would have been required for maintenance if the district had 25796
elected to undertake its project in its entirety instead of 25797
segmenting the project under this section.25798

       (5) If a school district commenced a segment under this 25799
section prior to the effective date of this amendment but has not 25800
completed that segment, and has not levied the tax described in 25801
division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code or an 25802
extension of that tax under section 3318.061 of the Revised Code, 25803
the district may request approval from the commission to prorate 25804
its full maintenance amount in accordance with divisions (E)(1) to 25805
(4) of this section. If the commission approves the request, the 25806
commission and the district shall amend the agreement entered into 25807
under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code to reflect the change.25808

       (F) If a school district levies the tax described in division 25809
(B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code or an extension of that 25810
tax under section 3318.061 of the Revised Code, the tax shall run 25811
for twenty-three years from the date the first segment for which 25812
the tax is initially levied is undertaken; however, the. The25813
maintenance levy requirement, as defined in section 3318.18 of the 25814
Revised Code, does not apply to a segment undertaken under 25815
division (C) of this section.25816

       (G) As used in this section, "full maintenance amount" means 25817
the amount of total revenue that a school district likely would 25818
generate by one-half mill of the tax described in division (B) of 25819
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code over the entire 25820
twenty-three-year period required under that section, as 25821
determined by the commission in consultation with the department 25822
of taxation.25823

       Sec. 3318.08.  Except in the case of a joint vocational 25824
school district that receives assistance under sections 3318.40 to 25825
3318.45 of the Revised Code, if the requisite favorable vote on 25826
the election is obtained, or if the school district board has 25827
resolved to apply the proceeds of a property tax levy or the 25828
proceeds of an income tax, or a combination of proceeds from such 25829
taxes, as authorized in section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, the 25830
Ohio school facilities commission, upon certification to it of 25831
either the results of the election or the resolution under section 25832
3318.052 of the Revised Code, shall enter into a written agreement 25833
with the school district board for the construction and sale of 25834
the project. In the case of a joint vocational school district 25835
that receives assistance under sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the 25836
Revised Code, if the school district board of education and the 25837
school district electors have satisfied the conditions prescribed 25838
in division (D)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code, the 25839
commission shall enter into an agreement with the school district 25840
board for the construction and sale of the project. In either 25841
case, the agreement shall include, but need not be limited to, the 25842
following provisions:25843

       (A) The sale and issuance of bonds or notes in anticipation 25844
thereof, as soon as practicable after the execution of the 25845
agreement, in an amount equal to the school district's portion of 25846
the basic project cost, including any securities authorized under 25847
division (J) of section 133.06 of the Revised Code and dedicated 25848
by the school district board to payment of the district's portion 25849
of the basic project cost of the project; provided, that if at 25850
that time the county treasurer of each county in which the school 25851
district is located has not commenced the collection of taxes on 25852
the general duplicate of real and public utility property for the 25853
year in which the controlling board approved the project, the 25854
school district board shall authorize the issuance of a first 25855
installment of bond anticipation notes in an amount specified by 25856
the agreement, which amount shall not exceed an amount necessary 25857
to raise the net bonded indebtedness of the school district as of 25858
the date of the controlling board's approval to within five 25859
thousand dollars of the required level of indebtedness for the 25860
preceding year. In the event that a first installment of bond 25861
anticipation notes is issued, the school district board shall, as 25862
soon as practicable after the county treasurer of each county in 25863
which the school district is located has commenced the collection 25864
of taxes on the general duplicate of real and public utility 25865
property for the year in which the controlling board approved the 25866
project, authorize the issuance of a second and final installment 25867
of bond anticipation notes or a first and final issue of bonds.25868

       The combined value of the first and second installment of 25869
bond anticipation notes or the value of the first and final issue 25870
of bonds shall be equal to the school district's portion of the 25871
basic project cost. The proceeds of any such bonds shall be used 25872
first to retire any bond anticipation notes. Otherwise, the 25873
proceeds of such bonds and of any bond anticipation notes, except 25874
the premium and accrued interest thereon, shall be deposited in 25875
the school district's project construction fund. In determining 25876
the amount of net bonded indebtedness for the purpose of fixing 25877
the amount of an issue of either bonds or bond anticipation notes, 25878
gross indebtedness shall be reduced by moneys in the bond 25879
retirement fund only to the extent of the moneys therein on the 25880
first day of the year preceding the year in which the controlling 25881
board approved the project. Should there be a decrease in the tax 25882
valuation of the school district so that the amount of 25883
indebtedness that can be incurred on the tax duplicates for the 25884
year in which the controlling board approved the project is less 25885
than the amount of the first installment of bond anticipation 25886
notes, there shall be paid from the school district's project 25887
construction fund to the school district's bond retirement fund to 25888
be applied against such notes an amount sufficient to cause the 25889
net bonded indebtedness of the school district, as of the first 25890
day of the year following the year in which the controlling board 25891
approved the project, to be within five thousand dollars of the 25892
required level of indebtedness for the year in which the 25893
controlling board approved the project. The maximum amount of 25894
indebtedness to be incurred by any school district board as its 25895
share of the cost of the project is either an amount that will 25896
cause its net bonded indebtedness, as of the first day of the year 25897
following the year in which the controlling board approved the 25898
project, to be within five thousand dollars of the required level 25899
of indebtedness, or an amount equal to the required percentage of 25900
the basic project costs, whichever is greater. All bonds and bond 25901
anticipation notes shall be issued in accordance with Chapter 133. 25902
of the Revised Code, and notes may be renewed as provided in 25903
section 133.22 of the Revised Code.25904

       (B) The transfer of such funds of the school district board 25905
available for the project, together with the proceeds of the sale 25906
of the bonds or notes, except premium, accrued interest, and 25907
interest included in the amount of the issue, to the school 25908
district's project construction fund;25909

       (C) For all school districts except joint vocational school 25910
districts that receive assistance under sections 3318.40 to 25911
3318.45 of the Revised Code, the following provisions as 25912
applicable:25913

       (1) If section 3318.052 of the Revised Code applies, the 25914
earmarking of the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.21 25915
of the Revised Code for general permanent improvements or under 25916
section 5705.218 of the Revised Code for the purpose of permanent 25917
improvements, or the proceeds of a school district income tax 25918
levied under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code, or the proceeds 25919
from a combination of those two taxes, in an amount to pay all or 25920
part of the service charges on bonds issued to pay the school 25921
district portion of the project and an amount equivalent to all or 25922
part of the tax required under division (B) of section 3318.05 of 25923
the Revised Code;25924

       (2) If section 3318.052 of the Revised Code does not apply, 25925
one of the following:25926

       (a) The levy of the tax authorized at the election for the 25927
payment of maintenance costs, as specified in division (B) of 25928
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code;25929

       (b) If the school district electors have approved a 25930
continuing tax for general permanent improvements under section 25931
5705.21 of the Revised Code and that tax can be used for 25932
maintenance, the earmarking of an amount of the proceeds from such 25933
tax for maintenance of classroom facilities as specified in 25934
division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code;25935

       (c) If, in lieu of the tax otherwise required under division 25936
(B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code, the commission has 25937
approved the transfer of money to the maintenance fund in 25938
accordance with section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, a 25939
requirement that the district board comply with the provisions 25940
that section. The district board may rescind the provision 25941
prescribed under division (C)(2)(c) of this section only so long 25942
as the electors of the district have approved, in accordance with 25943
section 3318.063 of the Revised Code, the levy of a tax for the 25944
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under the 25945
district's project and that levy continues to be collected as 25946
approved by the electors.25947

       (D) For joint vocational school districts that receive 25948
assistance under sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the Revised Code, 25949
provision for deposit of school district moneys dedicated to 25950
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under those 25951
sections as prescribed in section 3318.43 of the Revised Code;25952

       (E) Dedication of any local donated contribution as provided 25953
for under section 3318.084 of the Revised Code, including a 25954
schedule for depositing such moneys applied as an offset of the 25955
district's obligation to levy the tax described in division (B) of 25956
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code as required under division 25957
(D)(2) of section 3318.084 of the Revised Code;25958

       (F) Ownership of or interest in the project during the period 25959
of construction, which shall be divided between the commission and 25960
the school district board in proportion to their respective 25961
contributions to the school district's project construction fund;25962

       (G) Maintenance of the state's interest in the project until 25963
any obligations issued for the project under section 3318.26 of 25964
the Revised Code are no longer outstanding;25965

       (H) The insurance of the project by the school district from 25966
the time there is an insurable interest therein and so long as the 25967
state retains any ownership or interest in the project pursuant to 25968
division (F) of this section, in such amounts and against such 25969
risks as the commission shall require; provided, that the cost of 25970
any required insurance until the project is completed shall be a 25971
part of the basic project cost;25972

       (I) The certification by the director of budget and 25973
management that funds are available and have been set aside to 25974
meet the state's share of the basic project cost as approved by 25975
the controlling board pursuant to either section 3318.04 or 25976
division (B)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code;25977

       (J) Authorization of the school district board to advertise 25978
for and receive construction bids for the project, for and on 25979
behalf of the commission, and to award contracts in the name of 25980
the state subject to approval by the commission;25981

       (K) Provisions for the disbursement of moneys from the school 25982
district's project account upon issuance by the commission or the 25983
commission's designated representative of vouchers for work done 25984
to be certified to the commission by the treasurer of the school 25985
district board;25986

       (L) Disposal of any balance left in the school district's 25987
project construction fund upon completion of the project;25988

       (M) Limitations upon use of the project or any part of it so 25989
long as any obligations issued to finance the project under 25990
section 3318.26 of the Revised Code are outstanding;25991

       (N) Provision for vesting the state's interest in the project 25992
to the school district board when the obligations issued to 25993
finance the project under section 3318.26 of the Revised Code are 25994
outstanding;25995

       (O) Provision for deposit of an executed copy of the 25996
agreement in the office of the commission;25997

       (P) Provision for termination of the contract and release of 25998
the funds encumbered at the time of the conditional approval, if 25999
the proceeds of the sale of the bonds of the school district board 26000
are not paid into the school district's project construction fund 26001
and if bids for the construction of the project have not been 26002
taken within such period after the execution of the agreement as 26003
may be fixed by the commission;26004

       (Q) Provision for the school district to maintain the project 26005
in accordance with a plan approved by the commission;26006

       (R) Provision that all state funds reserved and encumbered to 26007
pay the state share of the cost of the project and the funds 26008
provided by the school district to pay for its share of the 26009
project cost, including the respective shares of the cost of a 26010
segment if the project is divided into segments, be spent on the 26011
construction and acquisition of the project or segment 26012
simultaneously in proportion to the state's and the school 26013
district's respective shares of that basic project cost as 26014
determined under section 3318.032 of the Revised Code or, if the 26015
district is a joint vocational school district, under section 26016
3318.42 of the Revised Code. However, if the school district 26017
certifies to the commission that expenditure by the school 26018
district is necessary to maintain the federal tax status or 26019
tax-exempt status of notes or bonds issued by the school district 26020
to pay for its share of the project cost or to comply with 26021
applicable temporary investment periods or spending exceptions to 26022
rebate as provided for under federal law in regard to those notes 26023
or bonds, the school district may commit to spend, or spend, a 26024
greater portion of the funds it provides during any specific 26025
period than would otherwise be required under this division.26026

       (S) A provision stipulating that the commission may prohibit 26027
the district from proceeding with any project if the commission 26028
determines that the site is not suitable for construction 26029
purposes. The commission may perform soil tests in its 26030
determination of whether a site is appropriate for construction 26031
purposes.26032

       (T) A provision stipulating that, unless otherwise authorized 26033
by the commission, any contingency reserve portion of the 26034
construction budget prescribed by the commission shall be used 26035
only to pay costs resulting from unforeseen job conditions, to 26036
comply with rulings regarding building and other codes, to pay 26037
costs related to design clarifications or corrections to contract 26038
documents, and to pay the costs of settlements or judgments 26039
related to the project as provided under section 3318.086 of the 26040
Revised Code;26041

       (U) Provision stipulating that for continued release of 26042
project funds the school district board shall comply with section 26043
3313.41 of the Revised Code throughout the project and shall 26044
notify the department of education and the Ohio community school 26045
association when the board plans to dispose of facilities by sale 26046
under that section;26047

       (V) Provision that the commission shall not approve a 26048
contract for demolition of a facility until the school district 26049
board has complied with section 3313.41 of the Revised Code 26050
relative to that facility, unless demolition of that facility is 26051
to clear a site for construction of a replacement facility 26052
included in the district's project;26053

       (W) A requirement for the school district to adhere to a 26054
facilities maintenance plan approved by the commission.26055

       Sec. 3318.10.  When such working drawings, specifications, 26056
and estimates of cost have been approved by the school district 26057
board and the Ohio school facilities commission, the treasurer of 26058
the school district board shall advertise for construction bids in 26059
accordance with section 3313.46 of the Revised Code. Such notices 26060
shall state that plans and specifications for the project are on 26061
file in the office of the commission and such other place as may 26062
be designated in such notice, and the time and place when and 26063
where bids therefor will be received.26064

       The form of proposal to be submitted by bidders shall be 26065
supplied by the commission. Bidders may be permitted to bid upon 26066
all the branches of work and materials to be furnished and 26067
supplied, upon any branch thereof, or upon all or any thereof.26068

       When the construction bids for all branches of work and 26069
materials have been tabulated, the commission shall cause to be 26070
prepared a revised estimate of the basic project cost based upon 26071
the lowest responsible bids received. If such revised estimate 26072
exceeds the estimated basic project cost as approved by the 26073
controlling board pursuant to section 3318.04 or division (B)(1) 26074
of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code, no contracts may be 26075
entered into pursuant to this section unless such revised estimate 26076
is approved by the commission and by the controlling board. When 26077
such revised estimate has been prepared, and after such approvals 26078
are given, if necessary, and if the school district board has 26079
caused to be transferred to the project construction fund the 26080
proceeds from the sale of the first or first and final installment 26081
of its bonds or bond anticipation notes pursuant to the provision 26082
of the written agreement required by division (B) of section 26083
3318.08 of the Revised Code, and when the director of budget and 26084
management has certified that there is a balance in the 26085
appropriation, not otherwise obligated to pay precedent 26086
obligations, pursuant to which the state's share of such revised 26087
estimate is required to be paid, the contract for all branches of 26088
work and materials to be furnished and supplied, or for any branch 26089
thereof as determined by the school district board, shall be 26090
awarded by the school district board to the lowest responsible 26091
bidder subject to the approval of the commission. Such award shall 26092
be made within sixty days after the date on which the bids are 26093
opened, and the successful bidder shall enter into a contract 26094
within ten days after the successful bidder is notified of the 26095
award of the contract.26096

       Subject to the approval of the commission, the school 26097
district board may reject all bids and readvertise. Any contract 26098
made under this section shall be made in the name of the state and 26099
executed on its behalf by the president and treasurer of the 26100
school district board.26101

       The provisions of sections 9.312 and 3313.46 of the Revised 26102
Code, which are applicable to construction contracts of boards of 26103
education, shall apply to construction contracts for the project.26104

       The remedies afforded to any subcontractor, materials 26105
supplier, laborer, mechanic, or persons furnishing material or 26106
machinery for the project under sections 1311.26 to 1311.32 of the 26107
Revised Code, shall apply to contracts entered into under this 26108
section and the itemized statement required by section 1311.26 of 26109
the Revised Code shall be filed with the school district board.26110

       Notwithstanding any other requirement of this section, a 26111
school district, with the approval of the commission, may utilize 26112
any otherwise lawful alternative construction delivery method for 26113
the construction of the project.26114

       Sec. 3318.30.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio school 26115
facilities commission as an independent agency of the state within 26116
the Ohio facilities construction commission, which is created 26117
under section 123.20 of the Revised Code. The Ohio school 26118
facilities commission shall administer the provision of financial 26119
assistance to school districts for the acquisition or construction 26120
of classroom facilities in accordance with sections 3318.01 to 26121
3318.33 of the Revised Code.26122

       The Ohio school facilities commission is a body corporate and 26123
politic, an agency of state government and an instrumentality of 26124
the state, performing essential governmental functions of this 26125
state. The carrying out of the purposes and the exercise by the 26126
Ohio school facilities commission of its powers conferred by 26127
sections 3318.01 to 3318.33 of the Revised Code are essential 26128
public functions and public purposes of the state. The Ohio school 26129
facilities commission may, in its own name, sue and be sued, enter 26130
into contracts, and perform all the powers and duties given to it 26131
by sections 3318.01 to 3318.33 of the Revised Code, but it does 26132
not have and shall not exercise the power of eminent domain. In 26133
its discretion and as it determines appropriate, the Ohio school 26134
facilities commission may delegate to any of its members, 26135
executive director, or other employees any of the Ohio school 26136
facilities commission's powers and duties to carry out its 26137
functions.26138

       (B) The Ohio school facilities commission shall consist of 26139
seven members, three of whom are voting members. The voting 26140
members of the Ohio school facilities commission shall be the 26141
director of the office of budget and management, the director of 26142
administrative services, and the superintendent of public 26143
instruction, or their designees. Of the nonvoting members, two 26144
shall be members of the senate appointed by the president of the 26145
senate, and two shall be members of the house of representatives 26146
appointed by the speaker of the house. Each of the appointees of 26147
the president, and each of the appointees of the speaker, shall be 26148
members of different political parties.26149

       Nonvoting members shall serve as members of the Ohio school 26150
facilities commission during the legislative biennium for which 26151
they are appointed, except that any such member who ceases to be a 26152
member of the legislative house from which the member was 26153
appointed shall cease to be a member of the Ohio school facilities26154
commission. Each nonvoting member shall be appointed within 26155
thirty-one days of the end of the term of that member's 26156
predecessor. Such members may be reappointed. Vacancies of 26157
nonvoting members shall be filled in the manner provided for 26158
original appointments.26159

       Members of the Ohio school facilities commission shall serve 26160
without compensation.26161

       After the initial nonvoting members of the Ohio school 26162
facilities commission have been appointed, the Ohio school 26163
facilities commission shall meet and organize by electing voting 26164
members as the chairperson and vice-chairperson of the Ohio school 26165
facilities commission, who shall hold their offices until the next 26166
organizational meeting of the Ohio school facilities commission. 26167
Organizational meetings of the Ohio school facilities commission 26168
shall be held at the first meeting of each calendar year. At each 26169
organizational meeting, the Ohio school facilities commission 26170
shall elect from among its voting members a chairperson and 26171
vice-chairperson, who shall serve until the next annual 26172
organizational meeting. The Ohio school facilities commission 26173
shall adopt rules pursuant to section 111.15 of the Revised Code 26174
for the conduct of its internal business and shall keep a journal 26175
of its proceedings. Including the organizational meeting, the Ohio 26176
school facilities commission shall meet at least once each 26177
calendar quarter.26178

       Two voting members of the Ohio school facilities commission 26179
constitute a quorum, and the affirmative vote of two members is 26180
necessary for approval of any action taken by the Ohio school 26181
facilities commission. A vacancy in the membership of the Ohio 26182
school facilities commission does not impair a quorum from 26183
exercising all the rights and performing all the duties of the 26184
Ohio school facilities commission. Meetings of the Ohio school 26185
facilities commission may be held anywhere in the state and shall 26186
be held in compliance with section 121.22 of the Revised Code.26187

       (C) The Ohio school facilities commission shall file an 26188
annual report of its activities and finances with the governor, 26189
speaker of the house of representatives, president of the senate, 26190
and chairpersons of the house and senate finance committees.26191

       (D) The Ohio school facilities commission shall be exempt 26192
from the requirements of sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised 26193
Code.26194

       (E) The Ohio school facilities commission may share employees 26195
and facilities with the Ohio facilities construction commission.26196

       Sec. 3318.31.  (A) The Ohio school facilities commission may 26197
perform any act and ensure the performance of any function 26198
necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of, and 26199
exercise the powers granted under, Chapter 3318. of the Revised 26200
Code, including any of the following:26201

       (1) Adopt, amend, and rescind, pursuant to section 111.15 of 26202
the Revised Code, rules for the administration of programs 26203
authorized under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code.26204

       (2) Contract with, retain the services of, or designate, and 26205
fix the compensation of, such agents, accountants, consultants, 26206
advisers, and other independent contractors as may be necessary or 26207
desirable to carry out the programs authorized under Chapter 3318. 26208
of the Revised Code, or authorize the executive director to 26209
perform such powers and duties.26210

       (3) Receive and accept any gifts, grants, donations, and 26211
pledges, and receipts therefrom, to be used for the programs 26212
authorized under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code.26213

       (4) Make and enter into all contracts, commitments, and 26214
agreements, and execute all instruments, necessary or incidental 26215
to the performance of its duties and the execution of its rights 26216
and powers under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, or authorize 26217
the executive director to perform such powers and duties.26218

       (5) Request the director of administrative servicesOhio 26219
facilities construction commission to debar a contractor as 26220
provided in section 153.02 of the Revised Code.26221

       (B) The Ohio school facilities commission shall appoint and 26222
fix the compensation of an executive director who shall serve at 26223
the pleasure of the Ohio school facilities commission. The 26224
executive director shall exercise all powers that the Ohio school 26225
facilities commission possesses, supervise the operations of the 26226
Ohio school facilities commission and perform such other duties as 26227
delegated by the Ohio school facilities commission. The executive 26228
director also shall employ and fix the compensation of such 26229
employees as will facilitate the activities and purposes of the 26230
Ohio school facilities commission, who shall serve at the pleasure 26231
of the executive director. The employees of the Ohio school 26232
facilities commission shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. of the 26233
Revised Code and shall not be public employees as defined in 26234
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code. Any agreement entered into 26235
prior to July 1, 2012, between the office of collective bargaining 26236
and the exclusive representative for employees of the commission 26237
is binding and shall continue to have effect.26238

       (C) The Ohio school facilities commission may adopt, amend, 26239
and rescind rules pertaining to the administration of the 26240
construction of school facilities of the state under Chapter 119. 26241
of the Revised Code.26242

       (D) The attorney general shall serve as the legal 26243
representative for the Ohio school facilities commission and may 26244
appoint other counsel as necessary for that purpose in accordance 26245
with section 109.07 of the Revised Code.26246

       Sec. 3318.37.  (A)(1) As used in this section:26247

       (a) "Full maintenance amount" has the same meaning as in 26248
section 3318.034 of the Revised Code.26249

       (b) "Large land area school district" means a school district 26250
with a territory of greater than three hundred square miles in any 26251
percentile as determined under section 3318.011 of the Revised 26252
Code.26253

       (b)(c) "Low wealth school district" means a school district 26254
in the first through seventy-fifth percentiles as determined under 26255
section 3318.011 of the Revised Code.26256

       (c)(d) A "school district with an exceptional need for 26257
immediate classroom facilities assistance" means a low wealth or 26258
large land area school district with an exceptional need for new 26259
facilities in order to protect the health and safety of all or a 26260
portion of its students.26261

       (2) No school district that participates in the school 26262
building assistance expedited local partnership program under 26263
section 3318.36 of the Revised Code shall receive assistance under 26264
the program established under this section unless the following 26265
conditions are satisfied:26266

       (a) The district board adopted a resolution certifying its 26267
intent to participate in the school building assistance expedited 26268
local partnership program under section 3318.36 of the Revised 26269
Code prior to September 14, 2000.26270

       (b) The district was selected by the Ohio school facilities 26271
commission for participation in the school building assistance 26272
expedited local partnership program under section 3318.36 of the 26273
Revised Code in the manner prescribed by the commission under that 26274
section as it existed prior to September 14, 2000.26275

       (B)(1) There is hereby established the exceptional needs 26276
school facilities assistance program. Under the program, the Ohio 26277
school facilities commission may set aside from the moneys 26278
annually appropriated to it for classroom facilities assistance 26279
projects up to twenty-five per cent for assistance to school 26280
districts with exceptional needs for immediate classroom 26281
facilities assistance.26282

       (2)(a) After consulting with education and construction 26283
experts, the commission shall adopt guidelines for identifying 26284
school districts with an exceptional need for immediate classroom 26285
facilities assistance.26286

       (b) The guidelines shall include application forms and 26287
instructions for school districts to use in applying for 26288
assistance under this section.26289

       (3) The commission shall evaluate the classroom facilities, 26290
and the need for replacement classroom facilities from the 26291
applications received under this section. The commission, 26292
utilizing the guidelines adopted under division (B)(2)(a) of this 26293
section, shall prioritize the school districts to be assessed.26294

       Notwithstanding section 3318.02 of the Revised Code, the 26295
commission may conduct on-site evaluation of the school districts 26296
prioritized under this section and approve and award funds until 26297
such time as all funds set aside under division (B)(1) of this 26298
section have been encumbered. However, the commission need not 26299
conduct the evaluation of facilities if the commission determines 26300
that a district's assessment conducted under section 3318.36 of 26301
the Revised Code is sufficient for purposes of this section.26302

       (4) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 3318.05 of the 26303
Revised Code, the school district's portion of the basic project 26304
cost under this section shall be the "required percentage of the 26305
basic project costs," as defined in division (K) of section 26306
3318.01 of the Revised Code.26307

       (5) Except as otherwise specified in this section, any 26308
project undertaken with assistance under this section shall comply 26309
with all provisions of sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised 26310
Code. A school district may receive assistance under sections 26311
3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code for the remainder of the 26312
district's classroom facilities needs as assessed under this 26313
section when the district is eligible for such assistance pursuant 26314
to section 3318.02 of the Revised Code, but any classroom facility 26315
constructed with assistance under this section shall not be 26316
included in a district's project at that time unless the 26317
commission determines the district has experienced the increased 26318
enrollment specified in division (B)(1) of section 3318.04 of the 26319
Revised Code.26320

       (C) No school district shall receive assistance under this 26321
section for a classroom facility that has been included in the 26322
discrete part of the district's classroom facilities needs 26323
identified and addressed in the district's project pursuant to an 26324
agreement entered into under section 3318.36 of the Revised Code, 26325
unless the district's entire classroom facilities plan consists of 26326
only a single building designed to house grades kindergarten 26327
through twelve.26328

       (D)(1) When undertaking a project under this section, a 26329
school district may elect to prorate its full maintenance amount 26330
by setting aside for maintenance the amount calculated under 26331
division (D)(2) of this section to maintain the classroom 26332
facilities acquired under the project, if the district will use 26333
one or more of the alternative methods authorized in sections 26334
3318.051, 3318.052, and 3318.084 of the Revised Code to generate 26335
the entire amount calculated under that division. If the district 26336
so elects, the commission and the district shall include in the 26337
agreement entered into under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code a 26338
statement specifying that the district will use the amount 26339
calculated under that division only to maintain the classroom 26340
facilities acquired under the project under this section.26341

       (2) The commission shall calculate the amount for a school 26342
district to maintain the classroom facilities acquired under a 26343
project under this section as follows:26344

       The full maintenance amount X (the school district's portion 26345
of the basic project cost under this section / the school 26346
district's portion of the basic project cost for the district's 26347
entire classroom facilities needs, as determined jointly by the 26348
staff of the commission and the district)26349

       (3) A school district may elect to prorate its full 26350
maintenance amount for any number of projects under this section, 26351
provided the district will use one or more of the alternative 26352
methods authorized in sections 3318.051, 3318.052, and 3318.084 of 26353
the Revised Code to generate the entire amount calculated under 26354
division (D)(2) of this section to maintain the classroom 26355
facilities acquired under each project for which it so elects. If 26356
the district cannot use one or more of those alternative methods 26357
to generate the entire amount calculated under that division, the 26358
district shall levy the tax described in division (B) of section 26359
3318.05 of the Revised Code or an extension of that tax under 26360
section 3318.061 of the Revised Code in an amount necessary to 26361
generate the remainder of its full maintenance amount. The 26362
commission shall calculate the remainder of the district's full 26363
maintenance amount as follows:26364

       The full maintenance amount - the sum of the amounts 26365
calculated for the district under division (D)(2) of this section 26366
for each of the district's prior projects under this section26367

       (4) In no case shall the sum of the amounts calculated for a 26368
school district's maintenance of classroom facilities under 26369
divisions (D)(2) and (3) of this section exceed the amount that 26370
would have been required for maintenance if the district had 26371
elected to meet its entire classroom facilities needs with a 26372
project under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code and 26373
had not undertaken one or more projects under this section.26374

       (5) If a school district commenced a project under this 26375
section prior to the effective date of this amendment but has not 26376
completed that project, and has not levied the tax described in 26377
division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code or an 26378
extension of that tax under section 3318.061 of the Revised Code, 26379
the district may request approval from the commission to prorate 26380
its full maintenance amount in accordance with divisions (D)(1) to 26381
(4) of this section. If the commission approves the request, the 26382
commission and the district shall amend the agreement entered into 26383
under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code to reflect the change.26384

       Sec. 3333.04.  The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 26385
shall:26386

       (A) Make studies of state policy in the field of higher 26387
education and formulate a master plan for higher education for the 26388
state, considering the needs of the people, the needs of the 26389
state, and the role of individual public and private institutions 26390
within the state in fulfilling these needs;26391

       (B)(1) Report annually to the governor and the general 26392
assembly on the findings from the chancellor's studies and the 26393
master plan for higher education for the state;26394

       (2) Report at least semiannually to the general assembly and 26395
the governor the enrollment numbers at each state-assisted 26396
institution of higher education.26397

       (C) Approve or disapprove the establishment of new branches 26398
or academic centers of state colleges and universities;26399

       (D) Approve or disapprove the establishment of state 26400
technical colleges or any other state institution of higher 26401
education;26402

       (E) Recommend the nature of the programs, undergraduate, 26403
graduate, professional, state-financed research, and public 26404
services which should be offered by the state colleges, 26405
universities, and other state-assisted institutions of higher 26406
education in order to utilize to the best advantage their 26407
facilities and personnel;26408

       (F) Recommend to the state colleges, universities, and other 26409
state-assisted institutions of higher education graduate or 26410
professional programs, including, but not limited to, doctor of 26411
philosophy, doctor of education, and juris doctor programs, that 26412
could be eliminated because they constitute unnecessary 26413
duplication, as shall be determined using the process developed 26414
pursuant to this division, or for other good and sufficient cause. 26415
Prior to recommending a program for elimination, the chancellor 26416
shall request the board of regents to hold at least one public 26417
hearing on the matter and advise the chancellor on whether the 26418
program should be recommended for elimination. The board shall 26419
provide notice of each hearing within a reasonable amount of time 26420
prior to its scheduled date. Following the hearing, the board 26421
shall issue a recommendation to the chancellor. The chancellor 26422
shall consider the board's recommendation but shall not be 26423
required to accept it.26424

       For purposes of determining the amounts of any state 26425
instructional subsidies paid to state colleges, universities, and 26426
other state-assisted institutions of higher education, the 26427
chancellor may exclude students enrolled in any program that the 26428
chancellor has recommended for elimination pursuant to this 26429
division except that the chancellor shall not exclude any such 26430
student who enrolled in the program prior to the date on which the 26431
chancellor initially commences to exclude students under this 26432
division.26433

       The chancellor and state colleges, universities, and other 26434
state-assisted institutions of higher education shall jointly 26435
develop a process for determining which existing graduate or 26436
professional programs constitute unnecessary duplication.26437

       (G) Recommend to the state colleges, universities, and other 26438
state-assisted institutions of higher education programs which 26439
should be added to their present programs;26440

       (H) Conduct studies for the state colleges, universities, and 26441
other state-assisted institutions of higher education to assist 26442
them in making the best and most efficient use of their existing 26443
facilities and personnel;26444

       (I) Make recommendations to the governor and general assembly 26445
concerning the development of state-financed capital plans for 26446
higher education; the establishment of new state colleges, 26447
universities, and other state-assisted institutions of higher 26448
education; and the establishment of new programs at the existing 26449
state colleges, universities, and other institutions of higher 26450
education;26451

       (J) Review the appropriation requests of the public community 26452
colleges and the state colleges and universities and submit to the 26453
office of budget and management and to the chairpersons of the 26454
finance committees of the house of representatives and of the 26455
senate the chancellor's recommendations in regard to the biennial 26456
higher education appropriation for the state, including 26457
appropriations for the individual state colleges and universities 26458
and public community colleges. For the purpose of determining the 26459
amounts of instructional subsidies to be paid to state-assisted 26460
colleges and universities, the chancellor shall define "full-time 26461
equivalent student" by program per academic year. The definition 26462
may take into account the establishment of minimum enrollment 26463
levels in technical education programs below which support 26464
allowances will not be paid. Except as otherwise provided in this 26465
section, the chancellor shall make no change in the definition of 26466
"full-time equivalent student" in effect on November 15, 1981, 26467
which would increase or decrease the number of subsidy-eligible 26468
full-time equivalent students, without first submitting a fiscal 26469
impact statement to the president of the senate, the speaker of 26470
the house of representatives, the legislative service commission, 26471
and the director of budget and management. The chancellor shall 26472
work in close cooperation with the director of budget and 26473
management in this respect and in all other matters concerning the 26474
expenditures of appropriated funds by state colleges, 26475
universities, and other institutions of higher education.26476

       (K) Seek the cooperation and advice of the officers and 26477
trustees of both public and private colleges, universities, and 26478
other institutions of higher education in the state in performing 26479
the chancellor's duties and making the chancellor's plans, 26480
studies, and recommendations;26481

       (L) Appoint advisory committees consisting of persons 26482
associated with public or private secondary schools, members of 26483
the state board of education, or personnel of the state department 26484
of education;26485

       (M) Appoint advisory committees consisting of college and 26486
university personnel, or other persons knowledgeable in the field 26487
of higher education, or both, in order to obtain their advice and 26488
assistance in defining and suggesting solutions for the problems 26489
and needs of higher education in this state;26490

       (N) Approve or disapprove all new degrees and new degree 26491
programs at all state colleges, universities, and other 26492
state-assisted institutions of higher education;26493

       (O) Adopt such rules as are necessary to carry out the 26494
chancellor's duties and responsibilities. The rules shall 26495
prescribe procedures for the chancellor to follow when taking 26496
actions associated with the chancellor's duties and 26497
responsibilities and shall indicate which types of actions are 26498
subject to those procedures. The procedures adopted under this 26499
division shall be in addition to any other procedures prescribed 26500
by law for such actions. However, if any other provision of the 26501
Revised Code or rule adopted by the chancellor prescribes 26502
different procedures for such an action, the procedures adopted 26503
under this division shall not apply to that action to the extent 26504
they conflict with the procedures otherwise prescribed by law. The 26505
procedures adopted under this division shall include at least the 26506
following:26507

       (1) Provision for public notice of the proposed action;26508

        (2) An opportunity for public comment on the proposed action, 26509
which may include a public hearing on the action by the board of 26510
regents;26511

        (3) Methods for parties that may be affected by the proposed 26512
action to submit comments during the public comment period;26513

       (4) Submission of recommendations from the board of regents 26514
regarding the proposed action, at the request of the chancellor;26515

        (5) Written publication of the final action taken by the 26516
chancellor and the chancellor's rationale for the action;26517

       (6) A timeline for the process described in divisions (O)(1) 26518
to (5) of this section.26519

       (P) Establish and submit to the governor and the general 26520
assembly a clear and measurable set of goals and timetables for 26521
their achievement for each program under the chancellor's 26522
supervision that is designed to accomplish any of the following:26523

       (1) Increased access to higher education;26524

       (2) Job training;26525

       (3) Adult literacy;26526

       (4) Research;26527

       (5) Excellence in higher education;26528

       (6) Reduction in the number of graduate programs within the 26529
same subject area.26530

       In July of each odd-numbered year, the chancellor shall 26531
submit to the governor and the general assembly a report on 26532
progress made toward these goals.26533

       (Q) Make recommendations to the governor and the general 26534
assembly regarding the design and funding of the student financial 26535
aid programs specified in sections 3333.12, 3333.122, 3333.21 to 26536
3333.26, and 5910.02 of the Revised Code;26537

       (R)(Q) Participate in education-related state or federal 26538
programs on behalf of the state and assume responsibility for the 26539
administration of such programs in accordance with applicable 26540
state or federal law;26541

       (S)(R) Adopt rules for student financial aid programs as 26542
required by sections 3333.12, 3333.122, 3333.21 to 3333.26, 26543
3333.28, and 5910.02 of the Revised Code, and perform any other 26544
administrative functions assigned to the chancellor by those 26545
sections;26546

       (T)(S) Conduct enrollment audits of state-supported 26547
institutions of higher education;26548

       (U)(T) Appoint consortia of college and university personnel 26549
to advise or participate in the development and operation of 26550
statewide collaborative efforts, including the Ohio supercomputer 26551
center, the Ohio academic resources network, OhioLink, and the 26552
Ohio learning network. For each consortium, the chancellor shall 26553
designate a college or university to serve as that consortium's 26554
fiscal agent, financial officer, and employer. Any funds 26555
appropriated for the consortia shall be distributed to the fiscal 26556
agents for the operation of the consortia. A consortium shall 26557
follow the rules of the college or university that serves as its 26558
fiscal agent. The chancellor may restructure existing consortia, 26559
appointed under this division, in accordance with procedures 26560
adopted under divisions (D)(O)(1) to (6) of this section.26561

       (V)(U) Adopt rules establishing advisory duties and 26562
responsibilities of the board of regents not otherwise prescribed 26563
by law;26564

       (W)(V) Respond to requests for information about higher 26565
education from members of the general assembly and direct staff to 26566
conduct research or analysis as needed for this purpose.26567

       Sec. 3333.041. (A) On or before the last day of December of 26568
each year, the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents shall 26569
submit a report to the governor and, in accordance with section 26570
101.68 of the Revised Code, the general assembly, the state board 26571
of education, and the board of education of each city, exempted 26572
village, and local school district on thea report or reports 26573
concerning all of the following:26574

       (1) The status of graduates of Ohio school districts at26575
state-assisted colleges or universitiesstate institutions of 26576
higher education during the twelve-month period ending on the 26577
thirtieth day of September of the current calendar year. The 26578
report shall list, by school district, the number of graduates of 26579
each school district who attended such a college or university26580
state institution of higher education and the percentage of each 26581
district's graduates enrolled in such a college or university26582
state institution of higher education during the reporting period 26583
who were required during such period by the college or university, 26584
as a prerequisite to enrolling in those courses generally required 26585
for first-year students, to enroll in a remedial course in 26586
English, including composition or reading, mathematics, and any 26587
other area designated by the boardchancellor. The chancellor also 26588
shall make the information described in division (A)(1) of this 26589
section available to the board of education of each city, exempted 26590
village, and local school district.26591

       Each state-assisted college and universitystate institution 26592
of higher education shall, by the first day of November of each 26593
year, submit to the chancellor in the form specified by the 26594
chancellor the information the chancellor requires to compile the 26595
report.26596

       (2) Aggregate academic growth data for students assigned to 26597
graduates of teacher preparation programs approved under section 26598
3333.048 of the Revised Code who teach English language arts or 26599
mathematics in any of grades four to eight in a public school in 26600
Ohio. For this purpose, the chancellor shall use the value-added 26601
progress dimension prescribed by section 3302.021 of the Revised 26602
Code. The chancellor shall aggregate the data by graduating class 26603
for each approved teacher preparation program, except that if a 26604
particular class has ten or fewer graduates to which this section 26605
applies, the chancellor shall report the data for a group of 26606
classes over a three-year period. In no case shall the report 26607
identify any individual graduate. The department of education 26608
shall share any data necessary for the report with the chancellor.26609

       (3) The following information with respect to the Ohio 26610
tuition trust authority:26611

       (a) The name of each investment manager that is a minority 26612
business enterprise or a women's business enterprise with which 26613
the chancellor contracts;26614

       (b) The amount of assets managed by investment managers that 26615
are minority business enterprises or women's business enterprises, 26616
expressed as a percentage of assets managed by investment managers 26617
with which the chancellor has contracted;26618

       (c) Efforts by the chancellor to increase utilization of 26619
investment managers that are minority business enterprises or 26620
women's business enterprises.26621

       (4) The status of implementation of faculty improvement 26622
programs under section 3345.28 of the Revised Code. The report 26623
shall include, but need not be limited to, the following: the 26624
number of professional leave grants made by each institution; the 26625
purpose of each professional leave; and a statement of the cost to 26626
the institution of each professional leave, to the extent that the 26627
cost exceeds the salary of the faculty member on professional 26628
leave.26629

       (5) The number and types of biobased products purchased under 26630
section 125.092 of the Revised Code and the amount of money spent 26631
by state institutions of higher education for those biobased 26632
products as that information is provided to the chancellor under 26633
division (A) of section 3345.692 of the Revised Code.26634

       (6) A description of dual enrollment programs, as defined in 26635
section 3313.6013 of the Revised Code, that are offered by school 26636
districts, community schools established under Chapter 3314. of 26637
the Revised Code, STEM schools established under Chapter 3326. of 26638
the Revised Code, college-preparatory boarding schools established 26639
under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code, and chartered nonpublic 26640
high schools. The chancellor also shall post the information on 26641
the chancellor's web site.26642

        (7) The academic and economic impact of the Ohio innovation 26643
partnership established under section 3333.61 of the Revised Code. 26644
At a minimum, the report shall include the following:26645

        (a) Progress and performance metrics for each initiative that 26646
received an award in the previous fiscal year;26647

        (b) Economic indicators of the impact of each initiative, and 26648
all initiatives as a whole, on the regional economies and the 26649
statewide economy;26650

        (c) The chancellor's strategy in assigning choose Ohio first 26651
scholarships among state universities and colleges and how the 26652
actual awards fit that strategy.26653

        (8) The academic and economic impact of the Ohio 26654
co-op/internship program established under section 3333.72 of the 26655
Revised Code. At a minimum, the report shall include the 26656
following:26657

        (a) Progress and performance metrics for each initiative that 26658
received an award in the previous fiscal year;26659

        (b) Economic indicators of the impact of each initiative, and 26660
all initiatives as a whole, on the regional economies and the 26661
statewide economy;26662

        (c) The chancellor's strategy in allocating awards among 26663
state institutions of higher education and how the actual awards 26664
fit that strategy.26665

       (B) As used in this section, "state-assisted college or 26666
university" means a state university or college as defined in 26667
division (A)(1) of section 3345.12 of the Revised Code, community 26668
colleges, state community colleges, university branches, and 26669
technical colleges.:26670

       (1) "Minority business enterprise" has the same meaning as in 26671
section 122.71 of the Revised Code.26672

       (2) "State institution of higher education" and "state 26673
university" have the same meanings as in section 3345.011 of the 26674
Revised Code.26675

       (3) "State university or college" has the same meaning as in 26676
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code.26677

        (4) "Women's business enterprise" means a business, or a 26678
partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or joint 26679
venture of any kind, that is owned and controlled by women who are 26680
United States citizens and residents of this state.26681

       Sec. 3333.123.  (A) As used in this section:26682

        (1) "The Ohio college opportunity grant program" means the 26683
program established under section 3333.122 of the Revised Code.26684

        (2) "Rules for the Ohio college opportunity grant program" 26685
means the rules authorized in division (S)(R) of section 3333.04 26686
of the Revised Code for the implementation of the program.26687

        (B) In adopting rules for the Ohio college opportunity grant 26688
program, the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents may include 26689
provisions that give preferential or priority funding to 26690
low-income students who in their primary and secondary school work 26691
participate in or complete rigorous academic coursework, attain 26692
passing scores on the assessments prescribed in section 3301.0710 26693
of the Revised Code, or meet other high academic performance 26694
standards determined by the chancellor to reduce the need for 26695
remediation and ensure academic success at the postsecondary 26696
education level. Any such rules shall include a specification of 26697
procedures needed to certify student achievement of primary and 26698
secondary standards as well as the timeline for implementation of 26699
the provisions authorized by this section.26700

       Sec. 3333.21.  As used in sections 3333.21 to 3333.23 of the 26701
Revised Code, "term" and "academic year" mean "term" and "academic 26702
year" as defined by the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents.26703

       The chancellor shall establish and administer an academic 26704
scholarship program. Under the program, a total of one thousand 26705
new scholarships shall be awarded annually in the amount of not 26706
less than two thousand dollars per award. At least one such new 26707
scholarship shall be awarded annually to a student in each public 26708
high school and joint vocational school and each nonpublic high 26709
school for which the state board of education prescribes minimum 26710
standards in accordance with section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.26711

       To be eligible for the award of a scholarship, a student 26712
shall be a resident of Ohio and shall be enrolled as a full-time 26713
undergraduate student in an Ohio institution of higher education 26714
that meets the requirements of Title VI of the "Civil Rights Act 26715
of 1964" and is state-assisted, is nonprofit and holds a 26716
certificate of authorization issued under section 1713.02 of the 26717
Revised Code, is a private institution exempt from regulation 26718
under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as prescribed in section 26719
3333.046 of the Revised Code, or holds a certificate of 26720
registration and program authorization issued under section 26721
3332.05 of the Revised Code and awards an associate or bachelor's 26722
degree. Students who attend an institution holding a certificate 26723
of registration shall be enrolled in a program leading to an 26724
associate or bachelor's degree for which associate or bachelor's 26725
degree program the institution has program authorization to offer 26726
the program issued under section 3332.05 of the Revised Code.26727

       "Resident" and "full-time student" shall be defined in rules 26728
adopted by the chancellor.26729

       The chancellor shall award the scholarships on the basis of a 26730
formula designed by the chancellor to identify students with the 26731
highest capability for successful college study. The formula shall 26732
weigh the factor of achievement, as measured by grade point 26733
average, and the factor of ability, as measured by performance on 26734
a competitive examination specified by the chancellor. Students 26735
receiving scholarships shall be known as "Ohio academic scholars."26736
Annually, not later than the thirty-first day of July, the 26737
chancellor shall report to the governor and the general assembly 26738
on the performance of current Ohio academic scholars and the 26739
effectiveness of the formula.26740

       Sec. 3333.60.  As used in sections 3333.61 to 3333.703333.6926741
of the Revised Code:26742

       (A) "State university or college" has the same meaning as in 26743
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code.26744

       (B) "State university" and "state institution of higher 26745
education" have the same meanings as in section 3345.011 of the 26746
Revised Code.26747

       Sec. 3333.61.  The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 26748
shall establish and administer the Ohio innovation partnership, 26749
which shall consist of the choose Ohio first scholarship program 26750
and the Ohio research scholars program. Under the programs, the 26751
chancellor, subject to approval by the controlling board, shall 26752
make awards to state universities or colleges for programs and 26753
initiatives that recruit students and scientists in the fields of 26754
science, technology, engineering, mathematics, and medicine to 26755
state universities or colleges, in order to enhance regional 26756
educational and economic strengths and meet the needs of the 26757
state's regional economies. Awards may be granted for programs and 26758
initiatives to be implemented by a state university or college 26759
alone or in collaboration with other state institutions of higher 26760
education, nonpublic Ohio universities and colleges, or other 26761
public or private Ohio entities. If the chancellor makes an award 26762
to a program or initiative that is intended to be implemented by a 26763
state university or college in collaboration with other state 26764
institutions of higher education or nonpublic Ohio universities or 26765
colleges, the chancellor may provide that some portion of the 26766
award be received directly by the collaborating universities or 26767
colleges consistent with all terms of the Ohio innovation 26768
partnership.26769

       The choose Ohio first scholarship program shall assign a 26770
number of scholarships to state universities and colleges to 26771
recruit Ohio residents as undergraduate, or as provided in section 26772
3333.66 of the Revised Code graduate, students in the fields of 26773
science, technology, engineering, mathematics, and medicine, or in 26774
science, technology, engineering, mathematics, or medical 26775
education. Choose Ohio first scholarships shall be awarded to each 26776
participating eligible student as a grant to the state university 26777
or college the student is attending and shall be reflected on the 26778
student's tuition bill. Choose Ohio first scholarships are 26779
student-centered grants from the state to students to use to 26780
attend a university or college and are not grants from the state 26781
to universities or colleges.26782

       Notwithstanding any other provision of this section or 26783
sections 3333.62 to 3333.703333.69 of the Revised Code, a 26784
nonpublic four-year Ohio institution of higher education may 26785
submit a proposal for choose Ohio first scholarships or Ohio 26786
research scholars grants. If the chancellor awards a nonpublic 26787
institution scholarships or grants, the nonpublic institution 26788
shall comply with all requirements of this section, sections 26789
3333.62 to 3333.703333.69 of the Revised Code, and the rules 26790
adopted under this section that apply to state universities or 26791
colleges awarded choose Ohio first scholarships or Ohio research 26792
scholars grants.26793

       The Ohio research scholars program shall award grants to use 26794
in recruiting scientists to the faculties of state universities or 26795
colleges.26796

       The chancellor shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 26797
119. of the Revised Code to administer the programs.26798

       Sec. 3333.71.  As used in sections 3333.71 to 3333.803333.7926799
of the Revised Code:26800

       (A) "Cooperative education program" means a partnership 26801
between students, institutions of higher education, and employers 26802
that formally integrates students' academic study with work 26803
experience in cooperating employer organizations and that meets 26804
all of the following conditions:26805

       (1) Alternates or combines periods of academic study and work 26806
experience in appropriate fields as an integral part of student 26807
education;26808

       (2) Provides students with compensation from the cooperative 26809
employer in the form of wages or salaries for work performed;26810

       (3) Evaluates each participating student's performance in the 26811
cooperative position, both from the perspective of the student's 26812
institution of higher education and the student's cooperative 26813
employer;26814

       (4) Provides participating students with academic credit from 26815
the institution of higher education upon successful completion of 26816
their cooperative education;26817

       (5) Is part of an overall degree or certificate program for 26818
which a percentage of the total program acceptable to the 26819
chancellor of the Ohio board of regents involves cooperative 26820
education.26821

       (B) "Internship program" means a partnership between 26822
students, institutions of higher education, and employers that 26823
formally integrates students' academic study with work or 26824
community service experience and that does both of the following:26825

       (1) Offers internships of specified and definite duration;26826

       (2) Evaluates each participating student's performance in the 26827
internship position, both from the perspective of the student's 26828
institution of higher education and the student's internship 26829
employer.26830

       An internship program may provide participating students with 26831
academic credit upon successful completion of the internship, and 26832
may provide students with compensation in the form of wages or 26833
salaries, stipends, or scholarships.26834

       (C) "Nonpublic university or college" means a nonprofit 26835
institution holding a certificate of authorization issued under 26836
Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code.26837

       (D) "State institution of higher education" has the same 26838
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.26839

       Sec. 3333.72.  The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 26840
shall establish and administer the Ohio co-op/internship program 26841
to promote and encourage cooperative education programs or 26842
internship programs at Ohio institutions of higher education for 26843
the purpose of recruiting Ohio students to stay in the state, and 26844
recruiting Ohio residents who left Ohio to attend out-of-state 26845
institutions of higher education back to Ohio institutions of 26846
higher education, to participate in high quality academic programs 26847
that use cooperative education programs or significant internship 26848
programs, in order to support the growth of Ohio's businesses by 26849
providing businesses with Ohio's most talented students and 26850
providing Ohio graduates with job opportunities with Ohio's 26851
growing companies.26852

       The chancellor, subject to approval by the controlling board, 26853
shall make awards to state institutions of higher education for 26854
new or existing programs and initiatives meeting the goals of the 26855
Ohio co-op/internship program. Awards may be granted for programs 26856
and initiatives to be implemented by a state institution of higher 26857
education alone or in collaboration with other state institutions 26858
of higher education or nonpublic Ohio universities and colleges. 26859
If the chancellor makes an award to a program or initiative that 26860
is intended to be implemented by a state institution of higher 26861
education in collaboration with other state institutions of higher 26862
education or nonpublic Ohio universities or colleges, the 26863
chancellor may provide that some portion of the award be received 26864
directly by the collaborating universities or colleges consistent 26865
with all terms of the Ohio co-op/internship program.26866

       The Ohio co-op/internship program shall support the creation 26867
and maintenance of high quality academic programs that utilize an 26868
intensive cooperative education or internship program for students 26869
at state institutions of higher education, or assign a number of 26870
scholarships to institutions to recruit Ohio residents as students 26871
in a high quality academic program, or both. If scholarships are 26872
included in an award to an institution of higher education, the 26873
scholarships shall be awarded to each participating eligible 26874
student as a grant to the state institution of higher education 26875
the student is attending and shall be reflected on the student's 26876
tuition bill.26877

        Notwithstanding any other provision of this section or 26878
sections 3333.73 to 3333.803333.79 of the Revised Code, an Ohio 26879
four-year nonpublic university or college may submit a proposal as 26880
lead applicant or co-lead applicant for an award under the Ohio 26881
co-op/internship program if the proposal is to be implemented in 26882
collaboration with a state institution of higher education. If the 26883
chancellor grants a nonpublic university or college an award, the 26884
nonpublic university or college shall comply with all requirements 26885
of this section, sections 3333.73 to 3333.803333.79 of the 26886
Revised Code, and the rules adopted under this section that apply 26887
to state institutions of higher education that receive awards 26888
under the program.26889

       The chancellor shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 26890
119. of the Revised Code to administer the Ohio co-op/internship 26891
program.26892

       Sec. 3334.08.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, 26893
in addition to any other powers conferred by this chapter, the 26894
Ohio tuition trust authority may do any of the following:26895

       (1) Impose reasonable residency requirements for 26896
beneficiaries of tuition units;26897

       (2) Impose reasonable limits on the number of tuition unit 26898
participants;26899

       (3) Impose and collect administrative fees and charges in 26900
connection with any transaction under this chapter;26901

       (4) Purchase insurance from insurers licensed to do business 26902
in this state providing for coverage against any loss in 26903
connection with the authority's property, assets, or activities or 26904
to further ensure the value of tuition units;26905

       (5) Indemnify or purchase policies of insurance on behalf of 26906
members, officers, and employees of the authority from insurers 26907
licensed to do business in this state providing for coverage for 26908
any liability incurred in connection with any civil action, 26909
demand, or claim against a director, officer, or employee by 26910
reason of an act or omission by the director, officer, or employee 26911
that was not manifestly outside the scope of the employment or 26912
official duties of the director, officer, or employee or with 26913
malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless 26914
manner;26915

       (6) Make, execute, and deliver contracts, conveyances, and 26916
other instruments necessary to the exercise and discharge of the 26917
powers and duties of the authority;26918

       (7) Promote, advertise, and publicize the Ohio college 26919
savings program and the variable college savings program;26920

       (8) Adopt rules under section 111.15 of the Revised Code for 26921
the implementation of the Ohio college savings program;26922

       (9) Contract, for the provision of all or part of the 26923
services necessary for the management and operation of the Ohio 26924
college savings program and the variable college savings program, 26925
with a bank, trust company, savings and loan association, 26926
insurance company, or licensed dealer in securities if the bank, 26927
company, association, or dealer is authorized to do business in 26928
this state and information about the contract is filed with the 26929
controlling board pursuant to division (D)(6) of section 127.16 of 26930
the Revised Code; provided, however, that any funds of the Ohio 26931
college savings program and the variable college savings program 26932
that are not needed for immediate use shall be deposited by the 26933
treasurer of state in the same manner provided under Chapter 135. 26934
of the Revised Code for public moneys of the state. All interest 26935
earned on those deposits shall be credited to the Ohio college 26936
savings program or the variable college savings program, as 26937
applicable.26938

       (10) Contract for other services, or for goods, needed by the 26939
authority in the conduct of its business, including but not 26940
limited to credit card services;26941

       (11) Employ an executive director and other personnel as 26942
necessary to carry out its responsibilities under this chapter, 26943
and fix the compensation of these persons. All employees of the 26944
authority shall be in the unclassified civil service and shall be 26945
eligible for membership in the public employees retirement system. 26946
In the hiring of the executive director, the Ohio tuition trust 26947
authority shall obtain the advice and consent of the Ohio tuition 26948
trust board created in section 3334.03 of the Revised Code, 26949
provided that the executive director shall not be hired unless a 26950
majority of the board votes in favor of the hiring. In addition, 26951
the board may remove the executive director at any time subject to 26952
the advice and consent of the chancellor of the Ohio board of 26953
regents.26954

       (12) Contract with financial consultants, actuaries, 26955
auditors, and other consultants as necessary to carry out its 26956
responsibilities under this chapter;26957

       (13) Enter into agreements with any agency of the state or 26958
its political subdivisions or with private employers under which 26959
an employee may agree to have a designated amount deducted in each 26960
payroll period from the wages or salary due the employee for the 26961
purpose of purchasing tuition units pursuant to a tuition payment 26962
contract or making contributions pursuant to a variable college 26963
savings program contract;26964

       (14) Enter into an agreement with the treasurer of state 26965
under which the treasurer of state will receive, and credit to the 26966
Ohio tuition trust fund or variable college savings program fund, 26967
from any bank or savings and loan association authorized to do 26968
business in this state, amounts that a depositor of the bank or 26969
association authorizes the bank or association to withdraw 26970
periodically from the depositor's account for the purpose of 26971
purchasing tuition units pursuant to a tuition payment contract or 26972
making contributions pursuant to a variable college savings 26973
program contract;26974

       (15) Solicit and accept gifts, grants, and loans from any 26975
person or governmental agency and participate in any governmental 26976
program;26977

       (16) Impose limits on the number of units which may be 26978
purchased on behalf of or assigned or awarded to any beneficiary 26979
and on the total amount of contributions that may be made on 26980
behalf of a beneficiary;26981

       (17) Impose restrictions on the substitution of another 26982
individual for the original beneficiary under the Ohio college 26983
savings program;26984

       (18) Impose a limit on the age of a beneficiary, above which 26985
tuition units may not be purchased on behalf of that beneficiary;26986

       (19) Enter into a cooperative agreement with the treasurer of 26987
state to provide for the direct disbursement of payments under 26988
tuition payment or variable college savings program contracts;26989

       (20) Determine the other higher education expenses for which 26990
tuition units or contributions may be used;26991

       (21) Terminate any tuition payment or variable college 26992
savings program contract if no purchases or contributions are made 26993
for a period of three years or more and there are fewer than a 26994
total of five tuition units or less than a dollar amount set by 26995
rule on account, provided that notice of a possible termination 26996
shall be provided in advance, explaining any options to prevent 26997
termination, and a reasonable amount of time shall be provided 26998
within which to act to prevent a termination;26999

       (22) Maintain a separate account for each tuition payment or 27000
variable college savings program contract;27001

       (23) Perform all acts necessary and proper to carry out the 27002
duties and responsibilities of the authority pursuant to this 27003
chapter.27004

       (B) The authority shall adopt rules under section 111.15 of 27005
the Revised Code for the implementation and administration of the 27006
variable college savings program. The rules shall provide 27007
taxpayers with the maximum tax advantages and flexibility 27008
consistent with section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code and 27009
regulations adopted thereunder with regard to disposition of 27010
contributions and earnings, designation of beneficiaries, and 27011
rollover of account assets to other programs.27012

       (C) Except as otherwise specified in this chapter, the 27013
provisions of Chapters 123., 125., and 4117. of the Revised Code 27014
shall not apply to the authority. The department of administrative 27015
services shall, upon the request of the authority, act as the 27016
authority's agent for the purchase of equipment, supplies, 27017
insurance, or services, or the performance of administrative 27018
services pursuant to Chapter 125. of the Revised Code.27019

       Sec. 3345.16.  The board of trustees of a state college or 27020
university may receive, and hold in trust, for the use and benefit 27021
of the college or university any grant or devise of land, and 27022
donation or bequest of money or other personal property, to be 27023
applied to the general or special use of the college or 27024
university, including use for student loan and scholarship 27025
purposes, unless otherwise directed in the donation or bequest.27026

       The board of trustees of a state college or university may 27027
utilize trust funds to invest in property, real and personal, as a 27028
portion of the holdings in the endowment portfolio under the trust 27029
powers imparted to the board of trustees. Such property, real and 27030
personal, acquired for investment purposes shall be managed by the 27031
board of trustees in the same manner as are other investments in 27032
the college's or university's endowment portfolio. The board of 27033
trustees may lease, lease back, or otherwise contract for the use 27034
of such property in such manner as to provide earning power for 27035
the college or university investment portfolio. Sections 123.01, 27036
123.04123.02, 123.15123.10, and 123.47123.13 of the Revised 27037
Code do not apply to properties, real and personal, held under 27038
this section as earning-power properties in the college or 27039
university endowment portfolio.27040

       Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the 27041
contrary, the title in properties, real and personal, purchased by 27042
a board of trustees as an investment and held in the college's or 27043
university's endowment portfolio shall not be vested in the state, 27044
but shall be held in trust by the board.27045

       Sec. 3345.28.  The board of trustees of any state university, 27046
medical university, technical college, state community college, 27047
community college, or the board of trustees or managing authority 27048
of any university branch may establish and administer a faculty 27049
improvement program, under which any full-time faculty member with 27050
at least seven academic years of teaching service at the college, 27051
university, or branch may be granted professional leave for a 27052
period not to exceed one academic year to engage in further 27053
education, research, or any other purpose approved by the board. A 27054
board of trustees or managing authority that establishes such a 27055
program shall, by rule, adopt a definition of "academic years of 27056
teaching service" and of "full-time faculty member."27057

       No such board or authority shall pay any faculty member for 27058
or during a period of professional leave any salary exceeding the 27059
amount that would have been paid to such faculty member for 27060
performing the faculty member's regular duties during the period 27061
of the leave. No faculty member shall, by virtue of being on 27062
professional leave, suffer a reduction or termination of the 27063
faculty member's regular employee retirement or insurance benefits 27064
or of any other benefit or privilege being received as a faculty 27065
member at the college, university, or branch where the faculty 27066
member is employed. Whenever such a benefit would be reduced 27067
because of a reduction in the faculty member's salary during the 27068
period of professional leave, the faculty member shall be given a 27069
chance to have the benefit increased to its normal level, in 27070
accordance with rules adopted by the board of trustees or the 27071
managing authority. A faculty member who has been granted 27072
professional leave shall complete another seven years of service 27073
at the college, university, or branch at which the faculty member 27074
is employed before becoming eligible for another grant of 27075
professional leave at that college, university, or branch. 27076
Professional leave taken as part of a faculty improvement program 27077
established under this section shall not be deemed to be in lieu 27078
of released time or assigned duty in connection with a specific 27079
research, scholarly, or creative program.27080

       Boards of trustees and managing authorities may accept moneys 27081
from any person, political subdivision, or the federal government 27082
to support a faculty improvement program, and may establish such 27083
additional rules as are necessary to establish and administer it.27084

       Each grant of professional leave shall be in accordance with 27085
a professional improvement policy for professional leaves that has 27086
been approved by the board of trustees or the managing authority. 27087
No professional leave shall be granted that requires a 27088
compensating addition to the permanent faculty or staff of the 27089
college, university, or branch. No professional leave shall be 27090
approved unless a specific plan for the professional improvement 27091
of the faculty member while on leave has been submitted to and 27092
accepted by the president of the university, college, or branch. 27093
At the completion of the leave, the faculty member shall submit to 27094
the president a report detailing the attainments of the faculty 27095
member under this professional improvement plan.27096

       Not later than the thirtieth day of June of each year, the 27097
chancellor of the board of regents shall report to the 27098
chairpersons of the education committees of the house of 27099
representatives and the senate on the status of implementation of 27100
faculty improvement programs. The report shall include, but need 27101
not be limited to, the following: the number of professional leave 27102
grants made by each institution; the purpose of each professional 27103
leave; and a statement of the cost to the institution of each 27104
professional leave, to the extent that such cost exceeds the 27105
salary of the faculty member on professional leave.27106

       Sec. 3345.50.  Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in 27107
sections 123.01 and 123.15123.10 of the Revised Code, a state 27108
university, a state community college, or the northeast Ohio 27109
medical university not certified pursuant to section 123.17123.2427110
of the Revised Code may administer any capital facilities project 27111
for the construction, reconstruction, improvement, renovation, 27112
enlargement, or alteration of a public improvement under its 27113
jurisdiction for which the total amount of funds expected to be 27114
appropriated by the general assembly does not exceed four million 27115
dollars without the supervision, control, or approval of the 27116
department of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction 27117
commission as specified in those sections, if both of the 27118
following occur:27119

       (A) Within sixty days after the effective date of the section 27120
of an act in which the general assembly initially makes an 27121
appropriation for the project, the board of trustees of the 27122
institution notifies the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 27123
in writing of its intent to administer the capital facilities 27124
project;27125

       (B) The board of trustees complies with the guidelines 27126
established pursuant to section 153.16 of the Revised Code and all 27127
laws that govern the selection of consultants, preparation and 27128
approval of contract documents, receipt of bids, and award of 27129
contracts with respect to the project.27130

       The chancellor shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 27131
119. of the Revised Code that establish criteria for the 27132
administration by any such institution of higher education of a 27133
capital facilities project for which the total amount of funds 27134
expected to be appropriated by the general assembly exceeds four 27135
million dollars. The criteria, to be developed with the department 27136
of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission27137
and higher education representatives selected by the chancellor, 27138
shall include such matters as the adequacy of the staffing levels 27139
and expertise needed for the institution to administer the 27140
project, past performance of the institution in administering such 27141
projects, and the amount of institutional or other nonstate money 27142
to be used in financing the project. The chancellor and the 27143
department of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction 27144
commission shall approve the request of any such institution of 27145
higher education that seeks to administer any such capital 27146
facilities project and meets the criteria set forth in the rules 27147
and in the requirements of division (B) of this section.27148

       Sec. 3345.51.  (A) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary 27149
in sections 123.01123.20 and 123.15123.21 of the Revised Code, a 27150
state university, the northeast Ohio medical university, or a 27151
state community college may administer any capital facilities 27152
project for the construction, reconstruction, improvement, 27153
renovation, enlargement, or alteration of a public improvement 27154
under its jurisdiction for which funds are appropriated by the 27155
general assembly without the supervision, control, or approval of 27156
the department of administrative servicesOhio facilities 27157
construction commission as specified in those sections, if all of 27158
the following occur:27159

       (1) The institution is certified by the state architect27160
commission under section 123.17123.24 of the Revised Code;27161

       (2) Within sixty days after the effective date of the section 27162
of an act in which the general assembly initially makes an 27163
appropriation for the project, the board of trustees of the 27164
institution notifies the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 27165
in writing of its request to administer the capital facilities 27166
project and the chancellor approves that request pursuant to 27167
division (B) of this section;27168

       (3) The board of trustees passes a resolution stating its 27169
intent to comply with section 153.13 of the Revised Code and the 27170
guidelines established pursuant to section 153.16 of the Revised 27171
Code and all laws that govern the selection of consultants, 27172
preparation and approval of contract documents, receipt of bids, 27173
and award of contracts with respect to the project.27174

       (B) The chancellor shall adopt rules in accordance with 27175
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish criteria for the 27176
administration by any such institution of higher education of a 27177
capital facilities project for which the general assembly 27178
appropriates funds. The criteria, to be developed with the 27179
department of administrative servicescommission and higher 27180
education representatives selected by the chancellor, shall 27181
include such matters as the adequacy of the staffing levels and 27182
expertise needed for the institution to administer the project, 27183
past performance of the institution in administering such 27184
projects, and the amount of institutional or other nonstate money 27185
to be used in financing the project. The chancellor shall approve 27186
the request of any such institution of higher education that seeks 27187
to administer any such capital facilities project and meets the 27188
criteria set forth in the rules and the requirements of division 27189
(A) of this section.27190

       (C) Any institution that administers a capital facilities 27191
project under this section shall conduct biennial audits for the 27192
duration of the project to ensure that the institution is 27193
complying with Chapters 9., 123., and 153. of the Revised Code and 27194
that the institution is using its certification issued under 27195
section 123.17123.24 of the Revised Code appropriately. The 27196
chancellor, in consultation with higher education representatives 27197
selected by the chancellor, shall adopt rules in accordance with 27198
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish criteria for the 27199
conduct of the audits. The criteria shall include documentation 27200
necessary to determine compliance with Chapters 9., 123., and 153. 27201
of the Revised Code and a method to determine whether an 27202
institution is using its certification issued under section 123.1727203
123.24 of the Revised Code appropriately.27204

       (D) The chancellor, in consultation with higher education 27205
representatives selected by the chancellor, shall adopt rules in 27206
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 27207
criteria for monitoring capital facilities projects administered 27208
by institutions under this section. The criteria shall include the 27209
following:27210

       (1) Conditions under which the chancellor may revoke the 27211
authority of an institution to administer a capital facilities 27212
project under this section, including the failure of an 27213
institution to maintain a sufficient number of employees who have 27214
successfully completed the certification program under section 27215
123.17123.24 of the Revised Code;27216

       (2) A process for institutions to remedy any problems found 27217
by an audit conducted pursuant to division (C) of this section, 27218
including the improper use of state funds or violations of Chapter 27219
9., 123., or 153. of the Revised Code.27220

       (E) If the chancellor revokes an institution's authority to 27221
administer a capital facilities project, the department of 27222
administrative servicescommission shall administer the capital 27223
facilities project. The chancellor also may require an 27224
institution, for which the chancellor revoked authority to 27225
administer a capital facilities project, to acquire a new local 27226
administration competency certification pursuant to section 123.1727227
123.24 of the Revised Code.27228

       Sec. 3345.54. (A) As used in this section:27229

       (1) "Auxiliary facilities" has the same meaning as in section 27230
3345.12 of the Revised Code.27231

       (2) "Conduit entity" means an organization described in 27232
section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code qualified as a 27233
public charity under section 509(a)(2) or 509(a)(3) of the 27234
Internal Revenue Code, or any other appropriate legal entity 27235
selected by the state institution, whose corporate purpose allows 27236
it to perform the functions and obligations of a conduit entity 27237
pursuant to the terms of a financing agreement.27238

       (3) "Conveyed property" means auxiliary facilities conveyed 27239
by a state institution to a conduit entity pursuant to a financing 27240
agreement.27241

       (4) "Financing agreement" means a contract described in 27242
division (C) of this section. 27243

       (5) "Independent funding source" means a private entity that 27244
enters into a financing agreement with a conduit entity and a 27245
state institution.27246

       (6) "State institution" means a state institution of higher 27247
education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.27248

       (B) The board of trustees of a state institution, with the 27249
approval of the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents and the 27250
controlling board, may enter into a financing agreement with a 27251
conduit entity and an independent funding source selected either 27252
through a competitive selection process or by direct negotiations, 27253
and may convey to the conduit entity title to any auxiliary 27254
facilities owned by the state institution pursuant to the terms of 27255
a financing agreement.27256

       (C) A financing agreement under this section is a written 27257
contract entered into among a state institution, a conduit entity, 27258
and an independent funding source that provides for:27259

       (1) The conveyance of auxiliary facilities owned by a state 27260
institution to the conduit entity for consideration deemed 27261
adequate by the state institution;27262

       (2) The lease of the conveyed property by the conduit entity 27263
to the independent funding source and leaseback of the conveyed 27264
property to the conduit entity for a term not to exceed 27265
ninety-nine years; 27266

       (3) Such other terms and conditions that may be negotiated 27267
and agreed upon by the parties, including, but not limited to, 27268
terms regarding:27269

       (a) Payment to the state institution by the conduit entity of 27270
revenues received by it from the operations of the conveyed 27271
property in excess of the payments it is required to make to the 27272
independent funding source under the lease-leaseback arrangement 27273
described in division (C)(2) of this section;27274

       (b) Pledge, assignment, or creation of a lien in favor of the 27275
independent funding source by the conduit entity of any revenues 27276
derived from the conveyed property;27277

       (c) Reverter or conveyance of title to the conveyed property 27278
to the state institution when the conveyed property is no longer 27279
subject to a lease with the independent funding source.27280

       (4) Terms and conditions required by the chancellor or the 27281
controlling board as a condition of approval of the financing 27282
agreement. 27283

       (D) The state institution and the conduit entity may enter 27284
into such other management agreements or other contracts regarding 27285
the conveyed property the parties deem appropriate, including 27286
agreements pursuant to which the state institution may maintain or 27287
administer the conveyed property and collect and disburse revenues 27288
from the conveyed property on behalf of the conduit entity.27289

       (E) The parties may modify or extend the term of the 27290
financing agreement with the approval of the chancellor and the 27291
controlling board.27292

       (F) The conveyed property shall retain its exemption from 27293
property taxes and assessments as though title to the conveyed 27294
property were held by the state institution during any part of a 27295
tax year that title is held by the state institution or the 27296
conduit entity and, if held by the conduit entity, remains subject 27297
to the lease-leaseback arrangement described in division (C)(2) of 27298
this section. However, as a condition of the continued exemption 27299
of the conveyed property during the term of the lease-leaseback 27300
arrangement the conduit entity shall apply for and maintain the 27301
exemption as provided by law.27302

       (G) Nothing in this section is intended to abrogate, amend, 27303
limit, or replace any existing authority state institutions may 27304
have with respect to the conveyance, lease, lease-leaseback, 27305
finance, or acquisition of auxiliary facilities including, but not 27306
limited to, authority granted under sections 3345.07, 3345.11, and 27307
3345.12 of the Revised Code.27308

       Sec. 3345.69.  (A) As used in this section:27309

       (1) "State institution of higher education" has the same 27310
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.27311

       (2) "Board of trustees of a state institution of higher 27312
education" has the same meaning as in section 3345.61 of the 27313
Revised Code.27314

       (B) The chairperson of the interuniversity council of Ohio 27315
and the secretary of the Ohio association of community colleges 27316
shall assist in coordinating the organization and operation of a 27317
committee to carry out this section. The committee shall be 27318
comprised of the presidents of the state institutions of higher 27319
education or their designees. The committee, in consultation with 27320
the office of energy services of the department of administrative 27321
servicesOhio facilities construction commission, shall develop 27322
guidelines for the board of trustees of each state institution of 27323
higher education to use in ensuring energy efficiency and 27324
conservation in on- and off-campus buildings. Initial guidelines 27325
shall be adopted not later than ninety days after the effective 27326
date of this section. At a minimum, guidelines under this section 27327
shall do all of the following:27328

       (1) Include a goal to reduce on- and off-campus building 27329
energy consumption by at least twenty per cent by 2014, using 27330
calendar year 2004 as the benchmark year, while recognizing the 27331
diverse nature and different energy demands and uses of such 27332
buildings and measures already taken to increase building energy 27333
efficiency and conservation;27334

       (2) Prescribe minimum energy efficiency and conservation 27335
standards for any new, on- or off-campus capital improvement 27336
project with a construction cost of one hundred thousand dollars 27337
or more, which standards shall be based on general building type 27338
and cost-effectiveness;27339

       (3) Prescribe minimum energy efficiency and conservation 27340
standards for the leasing of an off-campus space of at least 27341
twenty-thousand square feet;27342

       (4) Incorporate best practices into energy efficiency and 27343
conservation standards and plans;27344

       (5) Provide that each board develop its own fifteen-year plan 27345
for phasing in energy efficiency and conservation projects;27346

       (6) Provide that project impact assessments include the 27347
fiscal effects of energy efficiency and conservation 27348
recommendations and plans;27349

       (7) Establish mechanisms for each board to report 27350
periodically to the committee on its progress relative to the 27351
guidelines.27352

       (C) The board of trustees of a state institution of higher 27353
education shall adopt rules under section 111.15 of the Revised 27354
Code to carry out the guidelines established pursuant to division 27355
(B) of this section, including in the execution of the board's 27356
authority under sections 3345.62 to 3345.66 of the Revised Code.27357

       Sec. 3345.692.  (A) Not later than September 15, 2010, and 27358
the fifteenth day of September each year thereafter, a state 27359
institution of higher education shall prepare and submit to the 27360
chancellor of the board of regents a report that describes the 27361
number and types of biobased products purchased under section 27362
125.092 of the Revised Code and the amount of money spent by the 27363
state institution of higher education for those biobased products.27364

       (B) Not later than September 30, 2010, and the thirtieth day 27365
of September each year thereafter, the chancellor of the board of 27366
regents shall prepare and submit to the governor, the president of 27367
the senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives a 27368
report that describes the number and types of biobased products 27369
purchased under section 125.092 of the Revised Code and the amount 27370
of money spent by state institutions of higher education for those 27371
biobased products as that information is provided to the 27372
chancellor under division (A) of this section.27373

       (C) As used in this section, "state institution of higher 27374
education" has the same meaning as in section 3345.011 of the 27375
Revised Code.27376

       Sec. 3347.03.  Each commission created by section 3347.01 of 27377
the Revised Code may acquire property of any kind by purchase, 27378
gift, or devise and hold and use any such property, or may use 27379
state lands at their respective universities upon consent of the 27380
respective boards of trustees thereof, for the erection, 27381
remodeling, or improving and equipping of buildings for suitable 27382
housing, dormitory, dining hall, and recreational accommodations, 27383
referred to as "buildings" in sections 3347.03 to 3347.08 of the 27384
Revised Code, for students, instructors, members of the faculty, 27385
the administration and maintenance staff of the universities with 27386
which each commission is identified, and their families. The 27387
construction, remodeling, or improving of any such buildings shall 27388
be in accordance with plans and specifications approved by the 27389
commission and with sections 153.01 and 153.04 to 153.20 of the 27390
Revised Code, except that the commission may act in all instances 27391
where the department of administrative servicesOhio facilities 27392
construction commission is mentioned in such sections.27393

       Sec. 3356.10.  During the five-year period after the 27394
effective date of this section, the governor may execute deeds in 27395
the name of the state conveying to one or more purchasers and the 27396
purchasers' heirs and assigns or successors and assigns all of the 27397
state's right, title, and interest in any or all parcels of real 27398
estate held for the use and benefit of Youngstown state university 27399
and located in the city of Youngstown, Mahoning county, in an area 27400
known as "smokey hollow" and bounded on the north by the 27401
east-bound service road of the Madison avenue expressway, on the 27402
east by Andrews avenue, on the south by Rayen avenue, and on the 27403
west by Wick avenue. The parcel or parcels of real estate may be 27404
transferred individually or as a group or multiple groups to a 27405
single purchaser or to multiple purchasers.27406

        The consideration for conveyance of the parcel or parcels of 27407
real estate shall be a purchase price and any terms and conditions 27408
acceptable to the board of trustees of Youngstown state 27409
university. The consideration may include in whole or in part the 27410
benefit that will inure to the university and the students 27411
attending the university from development of a mixed-use urban 27412
neighborhood that will provide convenient housing, retail outlets, 27413
parks, and employment opportunities on a site adjacent to the 27414
university's core campus.27415

        All costs of the conveyance of the parcel or parcels of real 27416
estate shall be paid by the board of trustees of the Youngstown 27417
state university unless otherwise specified in the agreement for 27418
transfer of the property.27419

       Upon adoption of a resolution by the board of trustees of 27420
Youngstown state university specifically describing the parcel or 27421
parcels of real estate to be conveyed, identifying the purchaser 27422
or purchasers of the real estate, and specifying the consideration 27423
paid or to be paid, the auditor of state, with the assistance of 27424
the attorney general, shall prepare a deed or deeds to the parcel 27425
or parcels of real estate described in the resolution. The deed or 27426
deeds shall state the consideration specified in the resolution. 27427
The deed or deeds shall be executed by the governor in the name of 27428
the state, countersigned by the secretary of state, sealed with 27429
the great seal of the state, presented in the office of the 27430
auditor of state for recording, and delivered to the purchaser or 27431
purchasers. The purchaser or purchasers shall present the deed or 27432
deeds for recording in the office of the Mahoning county recorder.27433

        Each deed to any property described in this section shall 27434
contain any exceptions, reservations, or conditions and any right 27435
of reentry or reverter clause specified in the resolution. Any 27436
exceptions, reservations, or conditions or any right of reentry or 27437
reverter clause contained in any deed authorized by this section 27438
may be released by the university without the necessity of further 27439
legislation, provided the release is specifically authorized by 27440
the board of trustees of Youngstown state university.27441

        The net proceeds of the sale of the parcel or parcels of real 27442
estate shall be paid to Youngstown state university and deposited 27443
in university accounts for purposes to be determined by the board 27444
of trustees.27445

       Sec. 3366.05.  The issuing authority, as an eligible 27446
not-for-profit holder of federal education loans, may act as an 27447
eligible not-for-profit servicer of certain student loans owned by 27448
the federal government under Section 2212 of the "Health Care and 27449
Education Reconciliation Act of 2010," Pub. L. No. 111-152. The 27450
issuing authority is authorized to take such actions and to enter 27451
into such contracts and to execute all instruments necessary or 27452
appropriate to act as an eligible not-for-profit servicer. 27453
Notwithstanding division (C) of section 3366.03 and division (B) 27454
of section 3366.04 of the Revised Code, revenues received by the 27455
issuing authority under this section shall be deposited in an 27456
account in the custody of the treasurer of state that is not part 27457
of the state treasury and shall be used to pay administrative 27458
costs incurred by the issuing authority. Unexpended amounts shall 27459
be deposited in the state treasury and credited to the treasurer 27460
of state's administrative fund created under section 113.20 of the 27461
Revised Code.27462

       Sec. 3375.405.  (A) As used in this section, "energy 27463
conservation measure" means the construction of, installation or 27464
modification of an installation in, or remodeling of, a new or 27465
existing building, to reduce energy consumption. It includes:27466

       (1) Insulation of the building structure and of systems 27467
within the building;27468

       (2) Storm windows and doors, multiglazed windows and doors, 27469
heat-absorbing or heat-reflective glazed and coated window and 27470
door systems, additional glazing, reductions in glass area, and 27471
other window and door system modifications that reduce energy 27472
consumption;27473

       (3) Automatic energy control systems;27474

       (4) Heating, ventilating, or air conditioning system 27475
modifications or replacements;27476

       (5) Caulking and weather-stripping;27477

       (6) Replacement or modification of lighting fixtures to 27478
increase the energy efficiency of the system without increasing 27479
the overall illumination of a facility, unless such an increase in 27480
illumination is necessary to conform to the applicable state or 27481
local building code for the proposed lighting system;27482

       (7) Energy recovery systems;27483

       (8) Cogeneration systems that produce steam or forms of 27484
energy such as heat, as well as electricity, for use primarily 27485
within a building or complex of buildings;27486

       (9) Acquiring, constructing, furnishing, equipping, improving 27487
the site of, or otherwise improving a central utility plant to 27488
provide heating and cooling services to a building together with 27489
distribution piping and ancillary distribution controls, 27490
equipment, and related facilities from the central utility plant 27491
to the building; and27492

       (10) Any other construction, modification, installation, or 27493
remodeling approved by a board of library trustees as an energy 27494
conservation measure.27495

       (B) For the purpose of evaluating library buildings for 27496
energy conservation measures, a board of library trustees 27497
appointed pursuant to section 3375.06, 3375.10, 3375.12, 3375.15, 27498
3375.22, or 3375.30 of the Revised Code may contract with an 27499
architect, professional engineer, energy services company, 27500
contractor, or other person experienced in the design and 27501
implementation of energy conservation measures for an energy 27502
conservation report. Such a report shall include all of the 27503
following:27504

       (1) Analyses of the energy needs of library buildings and 27505
recommendations for building installations, modifications of 27506
existing installations, or building remodeling that would 27507
significantly reduce energy consumption in the buildings;27508

       (2) Estimates of all costs of the recommended installations, 27509
modifications, or remodeling, including costs of design, 27510
engineering, installation, maintenance, and repair;27511

       (3) Estimates of the amounts by which energy consumption 27512
could be reduced;27513

       (4) The interest rate used to estimate the costs of any 27514
energy conservation measures that are to be financed by the 27515
library;27516

       (5) The average system life of the energy conservation 27517
measures;27518

       (6) Estimates of the likely savings that will result from the 27519
reduction in energy consumption over the average system life of 27520
the energy conservation measures, including the methods used to 27521
estimate the savings; and27522

       (7) A certification under the seal of a registered 27523
professional engineer that the energy conservation report uses 27524
reasonable methods of analysis and estimation.27525

       (C)(1) A board of library trustees appointed pursuant to 27526
section 3375.06, 3375.10, 3375.12, 3375.15, 3375.22, or 3375.30 of 27527
the Revised Code desiring to implement energy conservation 27528
measures may proceed under any of the following methods:27529

       (a) Procure the energy conservation measures in any manner 27530
authorized by existing authority.27531

       (b) Advertise for bids using an energy conservation report or 27532
any part of an energy conservation report prepared under division 27533
(B) of this section, and, except as otherwise provided in this 27534
section, comply with competitive bidding requirements applicable 27535
to the board of library trustees.27536

       (c) Notwithstanding any requirement in the Revised Code that 27537
requires competitive bidding or specifies bidding procedures, 27538
request proposals from at least three vendors for the 27539
implementation of energy conservation measures. A request for 27540
proposals shall require the vendor that is awarded a contract 27541
under division (C)(2)(b) of this section to prepare an energy 27542
conservation report in accordance with division (B) of this 27543
section.27544

       Prior to sending any vendor a copy of any request for 27545
proposals, the board of library trustees shall advertise its 27546
intent to request proposals for the installation of energy 27547
conservation measures in a newspaper of general circulation within 27548
the territorial boundaries of the political subdivision or 27549
district over which it has jurisdiction of free public library 27550
services once a week for two consecutive weeks. The notice shall 27551
state that the board of trustees intends to request proposals for 27552
the installation of energy conservation measures, indicate the 27553
date on which the request for proposals will be mailed to vendors, 27554
which shall be at least ten days after the second publication in 27555
the newspaper, and state that any vendor interested in receiving 27556
the request for proposals shall submit written notice to the board 27557
of library trustees not later than noon of the day on which the 27558
request for proposals is to be mailed.27559

       (2)(a) Upon receiving bids under division (C)(1)(b) of this 27560
section, the board of library trustees shall analyze them and 27561
select the lowest and best bid or bids most likely to result in 27562
the greatest energy savings considering the cost of the project 27563
and the board of library trustees' ability to pay for the 27564
improvements with current revenues or by financing the 27565
improvements.27566

       (b) Upon receiving proposals under division (C)(1)(c) of this 27567
section, the board of library trustees shall analyze the proposals 27568
and the vendors' qualifications and select the most qualified 27569
vendor to prepare an energy conservation report in accordance with 27570
division (B) of this section. After receipt and review of the 27571
energy conservation report, the board of library trustees may 27572
award a contract to the selected vendor to install the energy 27573
conservation measures that are most likely to result in the 27574
greatest energy savings considering the cost of the project and 27575
the board of library trustees' ability to pay for the improvements 27576
with current revenues or by financing the improvements.27577

       (c) The awarding of a contract to install energy conservation 27578
measures under division (C)(2)(a) or (b) of this section shall be 27579
conditioned upon a finding by the board of library trustees that 27580
the amount of money spent on energy conservation measures is not 27581
likely to exceed the amount of money the library would save in 27582
energy, operating, maintenance, and avoided capital costs over the 27583
average system life of the energy conservation measures as 27584
specified in the energy conservation report. In making such a 27585
finding, the board of trustees may take into account the increased 27586
costs due to inflation as shown in the energy conservation report. 27587
Nothing in this division prohibits a board of library trustees 27588
from rejecting all bids or proposals under division (C)(1)(b) or 27589
(c) of this section or from selecting more than one bid or 27590
proposal.27591

       (D) A board of library trustees appointed pursuant to section 27592
3375.06, 3375.10, 3375.12, 3375.15, 3375.22, or 3375.30 of the 27593
Revised Code may contract for the purchase and installation of 27594
energy conservation measures as provided in division (C) of 27595
section 3375.40 of the Revised Code.27596

       Sec. 3383.02.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio cultural 27597
facilities commission. The commission shall engage in and provide 27598
for the development, performance, and presentation or making 27599
available of culture and professional sports and athletics to the 27600
public in this state, and the provision of training or education 27601
in culture, by the exercise of its powers under this chapter, 27602
including the provision, operation, management, and cooperative 27603
use of Ohio cultural facilities and Ohio sports facilities. The 27604
commission is a body corporate and politic, an agency of state 27605
government and an instrumentality of the state, performing 27606
essential governmental functions of this state. The carrying out 27607
of the purposes and the exercise by the commission of its powers 27608
conferred by this chapter are essential public functions and 27609
public purposes of the state and of state government. The 27610
commission may, in its own name, sue and be sued, enter into 27611
contracts, and perform all the powers and duties given to it by 27612
this chapter; however, it does not have and shall not exercise the 27613
power of eminent domain.27614

       (B) The commission shall consist of twelve members, nine of 27615
whom shall be voting members and three of whom shall be nonvoting 27616
members. The nine voting members shall be appointed by the 27617
governor, with the advice and consent of the senate, from 27618
different geographical regions of the state. In addition, one of 27619
the voting members shall represent the state architectOhio 27620
facilities construction commission. Not more than five of the 27621
members appointed by the governor shall be affiliated with the 27622
same political party. The nonvoting members shall be the staff 27623
director of the Ohio arts council, a member of the senate 27624
appointed by the president of the senate, and a member of the 27625
house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house.27626

       (C) Of the five initial appointments made by the governor, 27627
one shall be for a term expiring December 31, 1989, two shall be 27628
for terms expiring December 31, 1990, and two shall be for terms 27629
expiring December 31, 1991. Of the initial appointments of the 27630
sixth and seventh voting members made by the governor, one shall 27631
be for a term expiring December 31, 2003, and one shall be for a 27632
term expiring December 31, 2004. Of the initial appointments of 27633
the eighth and ninth voting members made by the governor, one 27634
shall be for a term expiring December 31, 2007, and one shall be 27635
for a term expiring December 31, 2008. These voting members shall 27636
be appointed within sixty days after the effective date of this 27637
amendmentSeptember 29, 2005. Thereafter, each such term shall be 27638
for three years, commencing on the first day of January and ending 27639
on the thirty-first day of December. Each appointment by the 27640
president of the senate and by the speaker of the house of 27641
representatives shall be for the balance of the then legislative 27642
biennium. Each member shall hold office from the date of the 27643
member's appointment until the end of the term for which the 27644
member was appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy 27645
occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the 27646
member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 27647
remainder of such term. Any member shall continue in office 27648
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 27649
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 27650
has elapsed, whichever occurs first.27651

       (D) Members of the commission shall serve without 27652
compensation.27653

       (E) Organizational meetings of the commission shall be held 27654
at the first meeting of each calendar year. At each organizational 27655
meeting, the commission shall elect from among its voting members 27656
a chairperson, a vice-chairperson, and a secretary-treasurer, who 27657
shall serve until the next annual meeting. The commission shall 27658
adopt rules pursuant to section 111.15 of the Revised Code for the 27659
conduct of its internal business and shall keep a journal of its 27660
proceedings.27661

       (F) Five voting members of the commission constitute a 27662
quorum, and the affirmative vote of five members is necessary for 27663
approval of any action taken by the commission. A vacancy in the 27664
membership of the commission does not impair a quorum from 27665
exercising all the rights and performing all the duties of the 27666
commission. Meetings of the commission may be held anywhere in the 27667
state, and shall be held in compliance with section 121.22 of the 27668
Revised Code.27669

       (G) All expenses incurred in carrying out this chapter are 27670
payable solely from money accrued under this chapter or 27671
appropriated for these purposes by the general assembly, and the 27672
commission shall incur no liability or obligation beyond such 27673
money.27674

       (H) The commission shall file an annual report of its 27675
activities and finances with the governor, director of budget and 27676
management, speaker of the house of representatives, president of 27677
the senate, and chairpersons of the house and senate finance 27678
committees.27679

       (I) There is hereby established in the state treasury the 27680
Ohio cultural facilities commission administration fund. All 27681
revenues of the commission shall be credited to that fund and to 27682
any accounts created in that fund with the commission's approval. 27683
All expenses of the commission, including reimbursement of, or 27684
payment to, any other fund or any governmental agency for advances 27685
made or services rendered to or on behalf of the commission, shall 27686
be paid from that fund as determined by or pursuant to directions 27687
of the commission. All investment earnings of that fund shall be 27688
credited to it and shall be allocated among any accounts created 27689
in the fund in the manner determined by the commission.27690

       (J) Title to all real property and lesser interests in real 27691
property acquired by the commission, including leasehold and other 27692
interests, pursuant to this chapter shall be taken in the name of 27693
the state and shall be held for the use and benefit of the 27694
commission. The commission shall not mortgage such real property 27695
and interests in real property. Title to other property and 27696
interests in it acquired by the commission pursuant to this 27697
chapter shall be taken in its name.27698

       Sec. 3383.07.  (A) The department of administrative services27699
Ohio facilities construction commission shall provide for the 27700
construction of a cultural project in conformity with Chapter 153. 27701
of the Revised Code, except as follows:27702

       (1) For a cultural project other than a state historical 27703
facility, construction services may be provided on behalf of the 27704
state by the Ohio cultural facilities commission, or by a 27705
governmental agency or a cultural organization that occupies, will 27706
occupy, or is responsible for the Ohio cultural facility, as 27707
determined by the Ohio cultural facilities commission. For a 27708
project receiving a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars 27709
or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission may delegate to 27710
its executive director the authority to approve the provision of 27711
construction services by such an agency or organization, but not 27712
the authority to disapprove that provision. Construction services 27713
to be provided by a governmental agency or a cultural organization 27714
shall be specified in an agreement between the Ohio cultural 27715
facilities commission and the governmental agency or cultural 27716
organization. The agreement, or any actions taken under it, are 27717
not subject to Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except 27718
for sections 123.081 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be 27719
subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.27720

       (2) For a cultural project that is a state historical 27721
facility, construction services may be provided by the Ohio 27722
cultural facilities commission or by a cultural organization that 27723
occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the facility, as 27724
determined by the Ohio cultural facilities commission. For a 27725
facility receiving a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars 27726
or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission may delegate to 27727
its executive director the authority to approve the provision of 27728
construction services by such an organization, but not the 27729
authority to disapprove that provision. The construction services 27730
to be provided by the cultural organization shall be specified in 27731
an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities commission and 27732
the cultural organization. That agreement, and any actions taken 27733
under it, are not subject to Chapter 123., 153., or 4115. of the 27734
Revised Code.27735

       (B) For an Ohio sports facility that is financed in part by 27736
obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, 27737
construction services shall be provided on behalf of the state by 27738
or at the direction of the governmental agency or nonprofit 27739
corporation that will own or be responsible for the management of 27740
the facility, all as determined by the Ohio cultural facilities 27741
commission. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of 27742
fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities27743
commission may delegate to its executive director the authority to 27744
approve the provision of construction services by or at the 27745
direction of the agency or corporation, but not the authority to 27746
disapprove that provision. Any construction services to be 27747
provided by a governmental agency or nonprofit corporation shall 27748
be specified in an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities27749
commission and the governmental agency or nonprofit corporation. 27750
That agreement, and any actions taken under it, are not subject to 27751
Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except for sections 27752
123.081 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be subject to 27753
Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.27754

       (C) General building services for an Ohio cultural facility 27755
shall be provided by the Ohio cultural facilities commission or by 27756
a cultural organization that occupies, will occupy, or is 27757
responsible for the facility, as determined by the Ohio cultural 27758
facilities commission. For a facility receiving a state 27759
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 27760
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 27761
authority to approve the provision of general building services by 27762
such an organization, but not the authority to disapprove that 27763
provision. Alternatively, the Ohio building authority may elect to 27764
provide those services for Ohio cultural facilities financed with 27765
proceeds of state bonds issued by the authority. The costs of 27766
management and general building services shall be paid by the 27767
cultural organization that occupies, will occupy, or is 27768
responsible for the facility as provided in an agreement between 27769
the Ohio cultural facilities commission and the cultural 27770
organization, except that the state may pay for general building 27771
services for state-owned cultural facilities constructed on 27772
state-owned land.27773

       General building services for an Ohio sports facility shall 27774
be provided by or at the direction of the governmental agency or 27775
nonprofit corporation that will be responsible for the management 27776
of the facility, all as determined by the Ohio cultural facilities27777
commission. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of 27778
fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities27779
commission may delegate to its executive director the authority to 27780
approve the provision of general building services by or at the 27781
direction of the agency or corporation, but not the authority to 27782
disapprove that provision. Any general building services to be 27783
provided by a governmental agency or nonprofit corporation for an 27784
Ohio sports facility shall be specified in an agreement between 27785
the Ohio cultural facilities commission and the governmental 27786
agency or nonprofit corporation. That agreement, and any actions 27787
taken under it, are not subject to Chapter 123. or 153. of the 27788
Revised Code, except for sections 123.081 and 153.011 of the 27789
Revised Code, and shall be subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised 27790
Code.27791

       (D) This division does not apply to a state historical 27792
facility. No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 27793
be spent on the construction of any cultural project under this 27794
chapter unless, with respect to the cultural project and to the 27795
Ohio cultural facility related to the project, all of the 27796
following apply:27797

       (1) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 27798
that there is a need for the cultural project and the Ohio 27799
cultural facility related to the project in the region of the 27800
state in which the Ohio cultural facility is located or for which 27801
the facility is proposed. For a project receiving a state 27802
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 27803
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 27804
authority to determine need but only in the affirmative.27805

       (2) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 27806
that, as an indication of substantial regional support for the 27807
cultural project, the cultural organization has made provision 27808
satisfactory to the Ohio cultural facilities commission, in its 27809
sole discretion, for local contributions amounting to not less 27810
than fifty per cent of the total state funding for the cultural 27811
project. For a project receiving a state appropriation of fifty 27812
thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission 27813
may delegate to its executive director the authority to determine 27814
the adequacy of the regional support but only in the affirmative.27815

       (3) The general assembly has specifically authorized the 27816
spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the 27817
construction of the cultural project, or for rental payments 27818
relating to the financing of the construction of the cultural 27819
project. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, for 27820
planning the cultural project does not constitute authorization to 27821
spend money on, or an appropriation for, construction of the 27822
cultural project.27823

       (E) No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 27824
be spent on the construction of any state historical facility 27825
under this chapter unless the general assembly has specifically 27826
authorized the spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, 27827
the construction of the state historical project related to the 27828
facility, or for rental payments relating to the financing of the 27829
construction of the state historical project. Authorization to 27830
spend money, or an appropriation, for planning the state 27831
historical project does not constitute authorization to spend 27832
money on, or an appropriation for, the construction of the state 27833
historical project.27834

       (F) State funds shall not be used to pay or reimburse more 27835
than fifteen per cent of the initial estimated construction cost 27836
of an Ohio sports facility, excluding any site acquisition cost, 27837
and no state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall be 27838
spent on any Ohio sports facility under this chapter unless, with 27839
respect to that facility, all of the following apply:27840

       (1) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 27841
that there is a need for the facility in the region of the state 27842
for which the facility is proposed to provide the function of an 27843
Ohio sports facility as provided for in this chapter. For a 27844
facility receiving a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars 27845
or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission may delegate to 27846
its executive director the authority to determine need but only in 27847
the affirmative.27848

       (2) As an indication of substantial local support for the 27849
facility, the Ohio cultural facilities commission has received a 27850
financial and development plan satisfactory to it, and provision 27851
has been made, by agreement or otherwise, satisfactory to the Ohio 27852
cultural facilities commission, for a contribution amounting to 27853
not less than eighty-five per cent of the total estimated 27854
construction cost of the facility, excluding any site acquisition 27855
cost, from sources other than the state. For a facility receiving 27856
a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio 27857
cultural facilities commission may delegate to its executive 27858
director the authority to evaluate the financial and development 27859
plan and the contribution and to determine their adequacy but only 27860
in the affirmative.27861

       (3) The general assembly has specifically authorized the 27862
spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the 27863
construction of the facility, or for rental payments relating to 27864
state financing of all or a portion of the costs of constructing 27865
the facility. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, 27866
for planning or determining the feasibility of or need for the 27867
facility does not constitute authorization to spend money on, or 27868
an appropriation for, costs of constructing the facility.27869

       (4) If state bond proceeds are being used for the Ohio sports 27870
facility, the state or a governmental agency owns or has 27871
sufficient property interests in the facility or in the site of 27872
the facility or in the portion or portions of the facility 27873
financed from proceeds of state bonds, which may include, but is 27874
not limited to, the right to use or to require the use of the 27875
facility for the presentation of sport and athletic events to the 27876
public at the facility.27877

       (G) In addition to the requirements of division (F) of this 27878
section, no state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 27879
be spent on any Ohio sports facility that is a motorsports 27880
complex, unless, with respect to that facility, both of the 27881
following apply:27882

       (1) Motorsports events shall be presented at the facility 27883
pursuant to a lease entered into with the owner of the facility. 27884
The term of the lease shall be for a period of not less than the 27885
greater of the useful life of the portion of the facility financed 27886
from proceeds of state bonds as determined using the guidelines 27887
for maximum maturities as provided under divisions (B) and (C) of 27888
section 133.20 of the Revised Code, or the period of time 27889
remaining to the date of payment or provision for payment of 27890
outstanding state bonds allocable to costs of the facility, all as 27891
determined by the director of budget and management and certified 27892
by the director to the Ohio cultural facilities commission and to 27893
the treasurer of state. 27894

       (2) Any motorsports organization that commits to using the 27895
facility for an established period of time shall give the 27896
political subdivision in which the facility is located not less 27897
than six months' advance notice if the organization intends to 27898
cease utilizing the facility prior to the expiration of that 27899
established period. Such a motorsports organization shall be 27900
liable to the state for any state funds used on the construction 27901
costs of the facility.27902

       (H) In addition to the requirements of division (F) of this 27903
section, no state bond proceeds shall be spent on any Ohio sports 27904
facility that is a tennis facility, unless the owner or manager of 27905
the facility provides contractual commitments from a national or 27906
international professional tennis organization in a form 27907
acceptable to the cultural facilities commission that assures that 27908
one or more sanctioned professional tennis events will be 27909
presented at the facility during each year that the bonds remain 27910
outstanding.27911

       Sec. 3517.20.  (A)(1) As used in this section:27912

       (a) "Political publication for or against a candidate" means 27913
a notice, placard, advertisement, sample ballot, brochure, flyer, 27914
direct mailer, or other form of general publication that is 27915
designed to promote the nomination, election, or defeat of a 27916
candidate.27917

       (b) "Political publication for or against an issue" means a 27918
notice, placard, advertisement, sample ballot, brochure, flyer, 27919
direct mailer, or other form of general publication that is 27920
designed to promote the adoption or defeat of a ballot issue or 27921
question or to influence the voters in an election.27922

       (c) "Public political advertising" means newspapers, 27923
magazines, outdoor advertising facilities, direct mailings, or 27924
other similar types of general public political advertising, or 27925
flyers, handbills, or other nonperiodical printed matter.27926

       (d) "Statewide candidate" has the same meaning as in section 27927
3517.102 of the Revised Code.27928

       (e) "Legislative candidate" means a candidate for the office 27929
of member of the general assembly.27930

       (f) "Local candidate" means a candidate for an elective 27931
office of a political subdivision of this state.27932

       (g) "Legislative campaign fund" has the same meaning as in 27933
section 3517.01 of the Revised Code.27934

       (h) "Limited political action committee" means a political 27935
action committee of fewer than ten members.27936

       (i) "Limited political contributing entity" means a political 27937
contributing entity of fewer than ten members.27938

        (j) "Designated amount" means one hundred dollars in the case 27939
of a local candidate or a local ballot issue, two hundred fifty 27940
dollars in the case of a legislative candidate, or five hundred 27941
dollars in the case of a statewide candidate or a statewide ballot 27942
issue.27943

       (k) "To issue" includes to print, post, distribute, reproduce 27944
for distribution, or cause to be issued, printed, posted, 27945
distributed, or reproduced for distribution.27946

       (l) "Telephone bank" means more than five hundred telephone 27947
calls of an identical or substantially similar nature within any 27948
thirty-day period, whether those telephone calls are made by 27949
individual callers or by recording.27950

       (2)(a) No candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign 27951
fund, political party, or other entity, except a political action 27952
committee or, a political contributing entity, or a campaign 27953
committee, shall issue a form of political publication for or 27954
against a candidate, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose 27955
of financing political communications in support of or opposition 27956
to a candidate through public political advertising, unless the 27957
name and residence or business address of the candidate or the 27958
chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the campaign committee,27959
legislative campaign fund, political party, or other entity that 27960
issues or otherwise is responsible for that political publication 27961
or that makes an expenditure for that political communication 27962
appears in a conspicuous place on that political publication or is 27963
contained within that political communication. 27964

       (b) No campaign committee shall issue a form of political 27965
publication for or against a candidate, or shall make an 27966
expenditure for the purpose of financing political communications 27967
in support of or opposition to a candidate through public 27968
political advertising, unless the name of the campaign committee 27969
appears in a conspicuous place on that political publication or is 27970
contained within that political communication.27971

       (3) No limited political action committee or limited 27972
political contributing entity shall do either of the following 27973
unless the name and residence or business address of the 27974
chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the limited political 27975
action committee or limited political contributing entity involved 27976
appears in a conspicuous place in the political publication for or 27977
against a candidate described in division (A)(3)(a) of this 27978
section or is contained within the political communication 27979
described in division (A)(3)(b) of this section:27980

       (a) Issue a form of political publication for or against a 27981
candidate that costs in excess of the designated amount or that is 27982
issued in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the 27983
request or suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a 27984
legislative campaign fund, a political party, a political action 27985
committee with ten or more members, a political contributing 27986
entity with ten or more members, or a limited political action 27987
committee or limited political contributing entity that spends in 27988
excess of the designated amount on a related or the same or 27989
similar political publication for or against a candidate;27990

       (b) Make an expenditure in excess of the designated amount in 27991
support of or opposition to a candidate or make an expenditure in 27992
cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the request or 27993
suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a legislative 27994
campaign fund, a political party, a political action committee 27995
with ten or more members, a political contributing entity with ten 27996
or more members, or a limited political action committee or 27997
limited political contributing entity that spends in excess of the 27998
designated amount in support of or opposition to the same 27999
candidate, for the purpose of financing political communications 28000
in support of or opposition to that candidate through public 28001
political advertising.28002

       (4) No political action committee with ten or more members 28003
and no political contributing entity with ten or more members 28004
shall issue a form of political publication for or against a 28005
candidate, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose of 28006
financing political communications in support of or opposition to 28007
a candidate through public political advertising, unless the name 28008
and residence or business address of the chairperson, treasurer, 28009
or secretary of the political action committee or political 28010
contributing entity that issues or otherwise is responsible for 28011
that political publication or that makes an expenditure for that 28012
political communication through public political advertising 28013
appears in a conspicuous place in that political publication or is 28014
contained within that political communication.28015

       (5)(a) No corporation, labor organization, campaign 28016
committee, legislative campaign fund, political party, or other 28017
entity, except a political action committee or a campaign 28018
committee, shall issue a form of political publication for or 28019
against an issue, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose of 28020
financing political communications in support of or opposition to 28021
a ballot issue or question through public political advertising, 28022
unless the name and residence or business address of the 28023
chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the corporation, labor 28024
organization, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, 28025
political party, or other entity that issues or otherwise is 28026
responsible for that political publication or that makes an 28027
expenditure for that political communication through public 28028
political advertising appears in a conspicuous place in that 28029
political publication or is contained within that political 28030
communication.28031

       (b) No campaign committee shall issue a form of political 28032
publication for or against an issue, or shall make an expenditure 28033
for the purpose of financing political communications in support 28034
of or opposition to a ballot issue or question through public 28035
political advertising, unless the name of the campaign committee 28036
appears in a conspicuous place in that political publication or is 28037
contained within that political communication.28038

       (6) No limited political action committee shall do either of 28039
the following unless the name and residence or business address of 28040
the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the limited political 28041
action committee involved appears in a conspicuous place in the 28042
political publication for or against a ballot issue described in 28043
division (A)(6)(a) of this section or is contained within the 28044
political communication described in division (A)(6)(b) of this 28045
section:28046

       (a) Issue a form of political publication for or against a 28047
ballot issue that costs in excess of the designated amount or that 28048
is issued in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the 28049
request or suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a 28050
legislative campaign fund, a political party, a political action 28051
committee with ten or more members, or a limited political action 28052
committee that spends in excess of the designated amount for a 28053
related or the same or similar political publication for or 28054
against an issue;28055

       (b) Make an expenditure in excess of the designated amount in 28056
support of or opposition to a ballot issue or make an expenditure 28057
in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the request 28058
or suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a legislative 28059
campaign fund, a political party, a political action committee 28060
with ten or more members, or a limited political action committee 28061
that spends in excess of the designated amount in support of or 28062
opposition to the same ballot issue, for the purpose of financing 28063
political communications in support of or opposition to that 28064
ballot issue through public political advertising.28065

       (7) No political action committee with ten or more members 28066
shall issue a form of political publication for or against an 28067
issue, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose of financing 28068
political communications in support of or opposition to a ballot 28069
issue or question through public political advertising, unless the 28070
name and residence or business address of the chairperson, 28071
treasurer, or secretary of the political action committee that 28072
issues or otherwise is responsible for that political publication 28073
or that makes an expenditure for that political communication 28074
appears in a conspicuous place in that political publication or is 28075
contained within that political communication.28076

       (8) The disclaimer "paid political advertisement" is not 28077
sufficient to meet the requirements of this section. 28078

       (9) If the political publication described in division (A) of 28079
this section is issued by the regularly constituted central or 28080
executive committee of a political party that is organized as 28081
provided in this chapter, it shall be sufficiently identified if 28082
it bears the name of the committee and its chairperson or 28083
treasurer. 28084

       (10) If more than one piece of printed matter or printed 28085
political communications are mailed as a single packet, the 28086
requirements of division (A) of this section are met if one of the 28087
pieces of printed matter or printed political communications in 28088
the packet contains the name and residence or business address of 28089
the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the organization or 28090
entity that issues or is responsible for the printed matter or 28091
other printed political communications, except that if a campaign 28092
committee mails more than one piece of printed matter or printed 28093
political communications as a single packet, the requirements of 28094
division (A) of this section are met if one of the pieces of 28095
printed matter or printed political communications in the packet 28096
contains the name of the campaign committee.28097

       (11) This section does not apply to the transmittal of 28098
personal correspondence that is not reproduced by machine for 28099
general distribution.28100

       (12) The secretary of state, by rule, may exempt from the 28101
requirements of this section, printed matter and certain other 28102
kinds of printed communications such as campaign buttons, 28103
balloons, pencils, or similar items, the size or nature of which 28104
makes it unreasonable to add an identification or disclaimer. 28105

       (13) The disclaimer or identification described in division 28106
(A) of this section, when paid for by a campaign committee, shall 28107
be identified by the words "paid for by" followed by the name and 28108
address of the campaign committee and the appropriate officer of 28109
the committee, identified by name and title. The identification or 28110
disclaimer may use reasonable abbreviations for common terms such 28111
as "treasurer" or "committee".28112

       (B)(1) No candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign 28113
fund, political party, political action committee, limited 28114
political action committee, political contributing entity, limited 28115
political contributing entity, or other entity shall utter or 28116
cause to be uttered, over the broadcasting facilities of any radio 28117
or television station within this state, any communication that is 28118
designed to promote the nomination, election, or defeat of a 28119
candidate, or the adoption or defeat of an issue or to influence 28120
the voters in an election, unless the speaker identifies the 28121
speaker with the speaker's name and residence address or unless 28122
the communication identifies the chairperson, treasurer, or 28123
secretary of the organization responsible for the communication 28124
with the name and residence or business address of that officer, 28125
except that communications by radio need not broadcast the 28126
residence or business address of the officer. However, a radio 28127
station, for a period of at least six months, shall keep the 28128
residence or business address on file and divulge it to any person 28129
upon request.28130

       No person operating a broadcast station or an organ of 28131
printed media shall broadcast or print a paid political 28132
communication that does not contain the identification required by 28133
this section.28134

       (2) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any 28135
communications made on behalf of a radio or television station or 28136
network by any employee of such radio or television station or 28137
network while acting in the course of the employee's employment.28138

       (3) No candidate or entity described in division (B)(1) of 28139
this section shall use or cause to be used a false, fictitious, or 28140
fraudulent name or address in the making or issuing of a 28141
publication or communication included within the provisions of 28142
this section.28143

       (C) No candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign 28144
fund, political party, political action committee, limited 28145
political action committee, political contributing entity, limited 28146
political contributing entity, or other person or entity shall 28147
conduct a telephone bank for the purpose of promoting the 28148
nomination, election, or defeat of a candidate or the adoption or 28149
defeat of an issue or to influence the voters in an election, 28150
unless the call includes a disclaimer that identifies the name of 28151
the candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, 28152
political party, political action committee, limited political 28153
action committee, political contributing entity, limited political 28154
contributing entity, or other person or entity paying for the 28155
telephone bank.28156

        (D) Before a prosecution may commence under this section, a 28157
complaint shall be filed with the Ohio elections commission under 28158
section 3517.153 of the Revised Code. After the complaint is 28159
filed, the commission shall proceed in accordance with sections 28160
3517.154 to 3517.157 of the Revised Code.28161

       Sec. 3701.021.  (A) The publicdirector of health council28162
shall adopt, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 28163
such rules as are necessary to carry out sections 3701.021 to 28164
3701.0210 of the Revised Code, including, but not limited to, 28165
rules to establish the following:28166

       (1) Medical and financial eligibility requirements for the 28167
program for medically handicapped children;28168

       (2) Eligibility requirements for providers of services for 28169
medically handicapped children;28170

       (3) Procedures to be followed by the department of health in 28171
disqualifying providers for violating requirements adopted under 28172
division (A)(2) of this section;28173

       (4) Procedures to be used by the department regarding 28174
application for diagnostic services under division (B) of section 28175
3701.023 of the Revised Code and payment for those services under 28176
division (E) of that section;28177

       (5) Standards for the provision of service coordination by 28178
the department of health and city and general health districts;28179

       (6) Procedures for the department to use to determine the 28180
amount to be paid annually by each county for services for 28181
medically handicapped children and to allow counties to retain 28182
funds under divisions (A)(2) and (3) of section 3701.024 of the 28183
Revised Code;28184

       (7) Financial eligibility requirements for services for Ohio 28185
residents twenty-one years of age or older who have cystic 28186
fibrosis;28187

       (8) Criteria for payment of approved providers who provide 28188
services for medically handicapped children;28189

       (9) Criteria for the department to use in determining whether 28190
the payment of health insurance premiums of participants in the 28191
program for medically handicapped children is cost-effective;28192

       (10) Procedures for appeal of denials of applications under 28193
divisions (A) and (D) of section 3701.023 of the Revised Code, 28194
disqualification of providers, and amounts paid for services;28195

       (11) Terms of appointment for members of the medically 28196
handicapped children's medical advisory council created in section 28197
3701.025 of the Revised Code;28198

       (12) Eligibility requirements for the hemophilia program, 28199
including income and hardship requirements;28200

       (13) If a manufacturer discount program is established under 28201
division (J)(1) of section 3701.023 of the Revised Code, 28202
procedures for administering the program, including criteria and 28203
other requirements for participation in the program by 28204
manufacturers of drugs and nutritional formulas.28205

       (B) The department of health shall develop a manual of 28206
operational procedures and guidelines for the program for 28207
medically handicapped children to implement sections 3701.021 to 28208
3701.0210 of the Revised Code.28209

       Sec. 3701.023.  (A) The department of health shall review 28210
applications for eligibility for the program for medically 28211
handicapped children that are submitted to the department by city 28212
and general health districts and physician providers approved in 28213
accordance with division (C) of this section. The department shall 28214
determine whether the applicants meet the medical and financial 28215
eligibility requirements established by the publicdirector of28216
health council pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 3701.021 of 28217
the Revised Code, and by the department in the manual of 28218
operational procedures and guidelines for the program for 28219
medically handicapped children developed pursuant to division (B) 28220
of that section. Referrals of potentially eligible children for 28221
the program may be submitted to the department on behalf of the 28222
child by parents, guardians, public health nurses, or any other 28223
interested person. The department of health may designate other 28224
agencies to refer applicants to the department of health.28225

       (B) In accordance with the procedures established in rules 28226
adopted under division (A)(4) of section 3701.021 of the Revised 28227
Code, the department of health shall authorize a provider or 28228
providers to provide to any Ohio resident under twenty-one years 28229
of age, without charge to the resident or the resident's family 28230
and without restriction as to the economic status of the resident 28231
or the resident's family, diagnostic services necessary to 28232
determine whether the resident has a medically handicapping or 28233
potentially medically handicapping condition.28234

       (C) The department of health shall review the applications of 28235
health professionals, hospitals, medical equipment suppliers, and 28236
other individuals, groups, or agencies that apply to become 28237
providers. The department shall enter into a written agreement 28238
with each applicant who is determined, pursuant to the 28239
requirements set forth in rules adopted under division (A)(2) of 28240
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, to be eligible to be a 28241
provider in accordance with the provider agreement required by the 28242
medical assistance program established under section 5111.01 of 28243
the Revised Code. No provider shall charge a medically handicapped 28244
child or the child's parent or guardian for services authorized by 28245
the department under division (B) or (D) of this section.28246

       The department, in accordance with rules adopted under 28247
division (A)(3) of section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may 28248
disqualify any provider from further participation in the program 28249
for violating any requirement set forth in rules adopted under 28250
division (A)(2) of that section. The disqualification shall not 28251
take effect until a written notice, specifying the requirement 28252
violated and describing the nature of the violation, has been 28253
delivered to the provider and the department has afforded the 28254
provider an opportunity to appeal the disqualification under 28255
division (H) of this section.28256

       (D) The department of health shall evaluate applications from 28257
city and general health districts and approved physician providers 28258
for authorization to provide treatment services, service 28259
coordination, and related goods to children determined to be 28260
eligible for the program for medically handicapped children 28261
pursuant to division (A) of this section. The department shall 28262
authorize necessary treatment services, service coordination, and 28263
related goods for each eligible child in accordance with an 28264
individual plan of treatment for the child. As an alternative, the 28265
department may authorize payment of health insurance premiums on 28266
behalf of eligible children when the department determines, in 28267
accordance with criteria set forth in rules adopted under division 28268
(A)(9) of section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, that payment of 28269
the premiums is cost-effective.28270

       (E) The department of health shall pay, from appropriations 28271
to the department, any necessary expenses, including but not 28272
limited to, expenses for diagnosis, treatment, service 28273
coordination, supportive services, transportation, and accessories 28274
and their upkeep, provided to medically handicapped children, 28275
provided that the provision of the goods or services is authorized 28276
by the department under division (B) or (D) of this section. Money 28277
appropriated to the department of health may also be expended for 28278
reasonable administrative costs incurred by the program. The 28279
department of health also may purchase liability insurance 28280
covering the provision of services under the program for medically 28281
handicapped children by physicians and other health care 28282
professionals.28283

       Payments made to providers by the department of health 28284
pursuant to this division for inpatient hospital care, outpatient 28285
care, and all other medical assistance furnished to eligible 28286
recipients shall be made in accordance with rules adopted by the 28287
publicdirector of health council pursuant to division (A) of 28288
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code.28289

       The departments of health and job and family services shall 28290
jointly implement procedures to ensure that duplicate payments are 28291
not made under the program for medically handicapped children and 28292
the medical assistance program established under section 5111.01 28293
of the Revised Code and to identify and recover duplicate 28294
payments.28295

       (F) At the time of applying for participation in the program 28296
for medically handicapped children, a medically handicapped child 28297
or the child's parent or guardian shall disclose the identity of 28298
any third party against whom the child or the child's parent or 28299
guardian has or may have a right of recovery for goods and 28300
services provided under division (B) or (D) of this section. The 28301
department of health shall require a medically handicapped child 28302
who receives services from the program or the child's parent or 28303
guardian to apply for all third-party benefits for which the child 28304
may be eligible and require the child, parent, or guardian to 28305
apply all third-party benefits received to the amount determined 28306
under division (E) of this section as the amount payable for goods 28307
and services authorized under division (B) or (D) of this section. 28308
The department is the payer of last resort and shall pay for 28309
authorized goods or services, up to the amount determined under 28310
division (E) of this section for the authorized goods or services, 28311
only to the extent that payment for the authorized goods or 28312
services is not made through third-party benefits. When a third 28313
party fails to act on an application or claim for benefits by a 28314
medically handicapped child or the child's parent or guardian, the 28315
department shall pay for the goods or services only after ninety 28316
days have elapsed since the date the child, parents, or guardians 28317
made an application or claim for all third-party benefits. 28318
Third-party benefits received shall be applied to the amount 28319
determined under division (E) of this section. Third-party 28320
payments for goods and services not authorized under division (B) 28321
or (D) of this section shall not be applied to payment amounts 28322
determined under division (E) of this section. Payment made by the 28323
department shall be considered payment in full of the amount 28324
determined under division (E) of this section. Medicaid payments 28325
for persons eligible for the medical assistance program 28326
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code shall be 28327
considered payment in full of the amount determined under division 28328
(E) of this section.28329

       (G) The department of health shall administer a program to 28330
provide services to Ohio residents who are twenty-one or more 28331
years of age who have cystic fibrosis and who meet the eligibility 28332
requirements established by thein rules ofadopted by the public28333
director of health council pursuant to division (A)(7) of section 28334
3701.021 of the Revised Code, subject to all provisions of this 28335
section, but not subject to section 3701.024 of the Revised Code.28336

       (H) The department of health shall provide for appeals, in 28337
accordance with rules adopted under section 3701.021 of the 28338
Revised Code, of denials of applications for the program for 28339
medically handicapped children under division (A) or (D) of this 28340
section, disqualification of providers, or amounts paid under 28341
division (E) of this section. Appeals under this division are not 28342
subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.28343

       The department may designate ombudspersons to assist 28344
medically handicapped children or their parents or guardians, upon 28345
the request of the children, parents, or guardians, in filing 28346
appeals under this division and to serve as children's, parents', 28347
or guardians' advocates in matters pertaining to the 28348
administration of the program for medically handicapped children 28349
and eligibility for program services. The ombudspersons shall 28350
receive no compensation but shall be reimbursed by the department, 28351
in accordance with rules of the office of budget and management, 28352
for their actual and necessary travel expenses incurred in the 28353
performance of their duties.28354

       (I) The department of health, and city and general health 28355
districts providing service coordination pursuant to division 28356
(A)(2) of section 3701.024 of the Revised Code, shall provide 28357
service coordination in accordance with the standards set forth in 28358
the rules adopted under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, 28359
without charge, and without restriction as to economic status.28360

       (J)(1) The department of health may establish a manufacturer 28361
discount program under which a manufacturer of a drug or 28362
nutritional formula is permitted to enter into an agreement with 28363
the department to provide a discount on the price of the drug or 28364
nutritional formula distributed to medically handicapped children 28365
participating in the program for medically handicapped children. 28366
The program shall be administered in accordance with rules adopted 28367
under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code.28368

       (2) If a manufacturer enters into an agreement with the 28369
department as described in division (J)(1) of this section, the 28370
manufacturer and the department may negotiate the amount and terms 28371
of the discount.28372

       (3) In lieu of establishing a discount program as described 28373
in division (J)(1) of this section, the department and a 28374
manufacturer of a drug or nutritional formula may discuss a 28375
donation of drugs, nutritional formulas, or money by the 28376
manufacturer to the department.28377

       Sec. 3701.024.  (A)(1) Under a procedure established in rules 28378
adopted under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, the department 28379
of health shall determine the amount each county shall provide 28380
annually for the program for medically handicapped children, based 28381
on a proportion of the county's total general property tax 28382
duplicate, not to exceed one-tenth of a mill, and charge the 28383
county for any part of expenses incurred under the program for 28384
treatment services on behalf of medically handicapped children 28385
having legal settlement in the county that is not paid from 28386
federal funds or through the medical assistance program 28387
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code. The 28388
department shall not charge the county for expenses exceeding the 28389
difference between the amount determined under division (A)(1) of 28390
this section and any amounts retained under divisions (A)(2) and 28391
(3) of this section.28392

       All amounts collected by the department under division (A)(1) 28393
of this section shall be deposited into the state treasury to the 28394
credit of the medically handicapped children-county assessment 28395
fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall be used by the 28396
department to comply with sections 3701.021 to 3701.028 of the 28397
Revised Code.28398

       (2) The department, in accordance with rules adopted under 28399
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may allow each county to 28400
retain up to ten per cent of the amount determined under division 28401
(A)(1) of this section to provide funds to city or general health 28402
districts of the county with which the districts shall provide 28403
service coordination, public health nursing, or transportation 28404
services for medically handicapped children.28405

       (3) In addition to any amount retained under division (A)(2) 28406
of this section, the department, in accordance with rules adopted 28407
under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may allow counties 28408
that it determines have significant numbers of potentially 28409
eligible medically handicapped children to retain an amount equal 28410
to the difference between:28411

       (a) Twenty-five per cent of the amount determined under 28412
division (A)(1) of this section;28413

       (b) Any amount retained under division (A)(2) of this 28414
section.28415

       Counties shall use amounts retained under division (A)(3) of 28416
this section to provide funds to city or general health districts 28417
of the county with which the districts shall conduct outreach 28418
activities to increase participation in the program for medically 28419
handicapped children.28420

       (4) Prior to any increase in the millage charged to a county, 28421
the publicdirector of health council shall hold a public hearing 28422
on the proposed increase and shall give notice of the hearing to 28423
each board of county commissioners that would be affected by the 28424
increase at least thirty days prior to the date set for the 28425
hearing. Any county commissioner may appear and give testimony at 28426
the hearing. Any increase in the millage any county is required to 28427
provide for the program for medically handicapped children shall 28428
be determined, and notice of the amount of the increase shall be 28429
provided to each affected board of county commissioners, no later 28430
than the first day of June of the fiscal year next preceding the 28431
fiscal year in which the increase will take effect.28432

       (B) Each board of county commissioners shall establish a 28433
medically handicapped children's fund and shall appropriate 28434
thereto an amount, determined in accordance with division (A)(1) 28435
of this section, for the county's share in providing medical, 28436
surgical, and other aid to medically handicapped children residing 28437
in such county and for the purposes specified in divisions (A)(2) 28438
and (3) of this section. Each county shall use money retained 28439
under divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this section only for the 28440
purposes specified in those divisions.28441

       Sec. 3701.025.  There is hereby created the medically 28442
handicapped children's medical advisory council consisting of 28443
twenty-one members to be appointed by the director of health for 28444
terms set in accordance with rules adopted by the public health 28445
councildirector under division (A)(11) of section 3701.021 of the 28446
Revised Code. The medically handicapped children's medical 28447
advisory council shall advise the director regarding the 28448
administration of the program for medically handicapped children, 28449
the suitable quality of medical practice for providers, and the 28450
requirements for medical eligibility for the program.28451

       All members of the council shall be licensed physicians, 28452
surgeons, dentists, and other professionals in the field of 28453
medicine, representative of the various disciplines involved in 28454
the treatment of children with medically handicapping conditions, 28455
and representative of the treatment facilities involved, such as 28456
hospitals, private and public health clinics, and private 28457
physicians' offices, and shall be eligible for the program.28458

       Members of the council shall receive no compensation, but 28459
shall receive their actual and necessary travel expenses incurred 28460
in the performance of their official duties in accordance with the 28461
rules of the office of budget and management.28462

       Sec. 3701.03.  (A) The director of health shall perform 28463
duties that are incident to the director's position as chief 28464
executive officer of the department of health. The director shall 28465
administer the laws relating to health and sanitation and the 28466
rules of the department of health. The director may designate 28467
employees of the department and, during a public health emergency, 28468
other persons to administer the laws and rules on the director's 28469
behalf.28470

       (B) Nothing in this section authorizes any action that 28471
prevents the fulfillment of duties or impairs the exercise of 28472
authority established by law for any other person or entity.28473

       (C) The director shall prepare sanitary and public health 28474
rules for consideration by the public health council and submit to 28475
the council recommendations for new legislation. The director 28476
shall sit at meetings of the council but shall have no vote.28477

       Sec. 3701.05.  The director of health shall keep the public 28478
health council, health officials, and the general public fully 28479
informed in a printed annual report in regard to the work of the 28480
department of health and on the progress that is being made in 28481
studying the cause and prevention of disease and such kindred 28482
subjects as may contribute to the welfare of the people of the 28483
state.28484

       Sec. 3701.07.  (A) The publicdirector of health council28485
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 28486
Code defining and classifying hospitals and dispensaries and 28487
providing for the reporting of information by hospitals and 28488
dispensaries. Except as otherwise provided in the Revised Code, 28489
the rules providing for the reporting of information shall not 28490
require inclusion of any confidential patient data or any 28491
information concerning the financial condition, income, expenses, 28492
or net worth of the facilities other than that financial 28493
information already contained in those portions of the medicare or 28494
medicaid cost report that is necessary for the department of 28495
health to certify the per diem cost under section 3701.62 of the 28496
Revised Code. The rules may require the reporting of information 28497
in the following categories:28498

       (1) Information needed to identify and classify the 28499
institution;28500

       (2) Information on facilities and type and volume of services 28501
provided by the institution;28502

       (3) The number of beds listed by category of care provided;28503

       (4) The number of licensed or certified professional 28504
employees by classification;28505

       (5) The number of births that occurred at the institution the 28506
previous calendar year;28507

       (6) Any other information that the councildirector considers 28508
relevant to the safety of patients served by the institution.28509

       Every hospital and dispensary, public or private, annually 28510
shall register with and report to the department of health. 28511
Reports shall be submitted in the manner prescribed in rules 28512
adopted under this division.28513

       (B) Every governmental entity or private nonprofit 28514
corporation or association whose employees or representatives are 28515
defined as residents' rights advocates under divisions (E)(1) and 28516
(2) of section 3721.10 of the Revised Code shall register with the 28517
department of health on forms furnished by the director of health 28518
and shall provide such reasonable identifying information as the 28519
director may prescribe.28520

       The department shall compile a list of the governmental 28521
entities, corporations, or associations registering under this 28522
division and shall update the list annually. Copies of the list 28523
shall be made available to nursing home administrators as defined 28524
in division (C) of section 3721.10 of the Revised Code and to 28525
adult care facility managers as defined in section 5119.70 of the 28526
Revised Code.28527

       Sec. 3701.072. (A) As used in this chapter:28528

        (1) "Bioterrorism" has the same meaning as in section 28529
3701.232 of the Revised Code.28530

        (2) "Surveillance" in the public health service means the 28531
systematic collection, analysis, interpretation, and dissemination 28532
of health data on an ongoing basis, to gain knowledge of the 28533
pattern of disease occurrence and potential in a community in 28534
order to control and prevent disease in the community.28535

       (3) "Trauma center" has the same meaning as in section 28536
4765.01 of the Revised Code.28537

        (B) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 28538
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that require a 28539
trauma center to report information to the director of health 28540
describing the trauma center's preparedness and capacity to 28541
respond to disasters, mass casualties, and bioterrorism. The 28542
council'sdirector's rules may require the reporting of any 28543
information the councildirector considers necessary for an 28544
accurate description of a trauma center's preparedness and 28545
capacity to respond to disasters, mass casualties, and 28546
bioterrorism. Information reported pursuant to this division is 28547
not a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.28548

        (C) Upon request, the department of health shall provide a 28549
summary report of the public health council's rules adopted 28550
pursuant to this section.28551

       (D) The director shall review all information received 28552
pursuant to this section. After reviewing the information, the 28553
director may conduct an evaluation of a trauma center's 28554
preparedness and capacity to respond to disasters, mass 28555
casualties, and bioterrorism. An evaluation conducted pursuant to 28556
this division is not a public record under section 149.43 of the 28557
Revised Code.28558

       Sec. 3701.11.  The director of health and the secretary of 28559
the public health council shall have power to administer oaths in 28560
all parts of the state so far as the exercise of such power is 28561
incidental to the performance of the duties of the director or of 28562
the council.28563

       Sec. 3701.132.  The department of health is hereby designated 28564
as the state agency to administer the "special supplemental 28565
nutrition program for women, infants, and children" established 28566
under the "Child Nutrition Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 28567
1786, as amended. The publicdirector of health council may adopt 28568
rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary 28569
for administering the program. The rules may include civil money 28570
penalties for violations of the rules.28571

       In determining eligibility for services provided under the 28572
program, the department may use the application form established 28573
under section 5111.013 of the Revised Code for the healthy start 28574
program. The department may require applicants to furnish their 28575
social security numbers.28576

       If the department determines that a vendor has committed an 28577
act with respect to the program that federal statutes or 28578
regulations or state statutes or rules prohibit, the department 28579
shall take action against the vendor in the manner required by 7 28580
C.F.R. part 246, including imposition of a civil money penalty in 28581
accordance with 7 C.F.R. 246.12, or rules adopted under this 28582
section.28583

       Sec. 3701.146. (A) In taking actions regarding tuberculosis, 28584
the director of health has all of the following duties and powers:28585

       (1) The director shall maintain registries of hospitals, 28586
clinics, physicians, or other care providers to whom the director 28587
shall refer persons who make inquiries to the department of health 28588
regarding possible exposure to tuberculosis.28589

       (2) The director shall engage in tuberculosis surveillance 28590
activities, including the collection and analysis of 28591
epidemiological information relative to the frequency of 28592
tuberculosis infection, demographic and geographic distribution of 28593
tuberculosis cases, and trends pertaining to tuberculosis.28594

       (3) The director shall maintain a tuberculosis registry to 28595
record the incidence of tuberculosis in this state.28596

       (4) The director may appoint physicians to serve as 28597
tuberculosis consultants for geographic regions of the state 28598
specified by the director. Each tuberculosis consultant shall act 28599
in accordance with rules the director establishes and shall be 28600
responsible for advising and assisting physicians and other health 28601
care practitioners who participate in tuberculosis control 28602
activities and for reviewing medical records pertaining to the 28603
treatment provided to individuals with tuberculosis.28604

       (B)(1) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 28605
establishing standards for the following:28606

       (a) Performing tuberculosis screenings;28607

       (b) Performing examinations of individuals who have been 28608
exposed to tuberculosis and individuals who are suspected of 28609
having tuberculosis;28610

       (c) Providing treatment to individuals with tuberculosis;28611

       (d) Preventing individuals with communicable tuberculosis 28612
from infecting other individuals;28613

       (e) Performing laboratory tests for tuberculosis and studies 28614
of the resistance of tuberculosis to one or more drugs;28615

       (f) Selecting laboratories that provide in a timely fashion 28616
the results of a laboratory test for tuberculosis. The standards 28617
shall include a requirement that first consideration be given to 28618
laboratories located in this state.28619

       (2) Rules adopted pursuant to this section shall be adopted 28620
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and may be 28621
consistent with any recommendations or guidelines on tuberculosis 28622
issued by the United States centers for disease control and 28623
prevention or by the American thoracic society. The rules shall 28624
apply to county or district tuberculosis control units, physicians 28625
who examine and treat individuals for tuberculosis, and 28626
laboratories that perform tests for tuberculosis.28627

       Sec. 3701.161.  The director of health shall make necessary 28628
arrangements for the production and distribution of diphtheria 28629
antitoxin. Such antitoxin shall in all respects be equal in purity 28630
and potency to the standard of requirements of the United States 28631
public health service for antitoxin for interstate commerce. 28632
Diphtheria antitoxin shall be distributed in accordance with rules 28633
the public health councildirector adopts pursuant to Chapter 119. 28634
of the Revised Code.28635

       Sec. 3701.20.  (A) In accordance with rules adopted by the 28636
public health council, under division (C) of this section, the 28637
director of health shall establish, promote, and maintain the Ohio 28638
poison control network; designate regions within the network; and 28639
designate poison prevention and treatment centers within each 28640
region. The purposes of the network are to:28641

       (1) Reduce the mortality resulting from and the expenditures 28642
incurred because of accidental, homicidal, suicidal, occupational, 28643
or environmental poisoning;28644

       (2) Educate the public and health care professionals 28645
concerning the prevention and treatment of exposure to poison;28646

       (3) Organize poison prevention and treatment activities on a 28647
regional basis to avoid duplication and waste.28648

       (B) To be eligible for designation as a poison prevention and 28649
treatment center and to retain the designation, a center must 28650
maintain compliance with the standards established by the public 28651
health councildirector pursuant to division (C) of this section. 28652
A poison prevention and treatment center may be operated by an 28653
individual, hospital, institution of higher education, political 28654
subdivision, association, corporation, or public or private 28655
agency.28656

       (C) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 28657
public health councildirector shall adopt rules that do the 28658
following:28659

       (1) Establish guidelines, based on population density and 28660
other relevant factors, and procedures to be followed by the 28661
director of health in designating poison control network regions 28662
and centers;28663

       (2) Establish standards for the operation of poison 28664
prevention and treatment centers;28665

       (3) Establish standards and procedures to be followed by the 28666
director of health in making grants to poison prevention and 28667
treatment centers;28668

       (4) Establish procedures, other than those prescribed by 28669
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, for reconsideration, at the 28670
request of the entity affected, of the denial or revocation of a 28671
designation as a poison prevention and treatment center.28672

       (D) In accordance with rules adopted by the public health 28673
councilunder division (C) of this section, the director of health 28674
shall make grants to poison prevention and treatment centers. A 28675
center is not eligible for a grant unless, prior to receiving the 28676
grant, the entity that operates the center agrees in writing that 28677
the level of the total funds, labor, and services devoted by the 28678
entity to the center during the period of the grant will 28679
approximate, as determined by the director of health, the level of 28680
the total funds, labor, and services devoted to the center by that 28681
entity in the fiscal year preceding the fiscal year in which the 28682
grant begins.28683

       (E) Each poison prevention and treatment center shall do all 28684
of the following:28685

       (1) Maintain and staff a twenty-four-hour per day, toll-free, 28686
telephone line to respond to inquiries and provide information 28687
about poison prevention and treatment and available services;28688

       (2) Provide specialized treatment, consultation, information, 28689
and educational programs to health care professionals and the 28690
public;28691

       (3) Compile information on the types and frequency of 28692
treatment it provides.28693

       A center may provide the services described in divisions 28694
(E)(1) and (2) of this section either directly or through contract 28695
with other facilities, as the director of health considers 28696
appropriate. Each center shall take measures to ensure the 28697
confidentiality of information about individuals to whom treatment 28698
or services are provided.28699

       (F) The director of health may revoke the designation of a 28700
poison treatment and control center, or deny an application for 28701
designation, if the center or applicant fails to meet or maintain 28702
the standards established by rule of the public health councilin 28703
rules adopted under division (C) of this section. The entity 28704
seeking the designation may have the revocation or denial 28705
reconsidered in accordance with rules adopted by the public health 28706
councilunder division (C) of this section.28707

       (G)(1) A poison prevention and treatment center, its 28708
officers, employees, volunteers, or other persons associated with 28709
the center, and a person, organization, or institution that 28710
advises or assists a poison prevention and treatment center are 28711
not liable in damages in a tort action for harm that allegedly 28712
arises from advice or assistance rendered to any person unless the 28713
advice or assistance is given in a manner that constitutes willful 28714
or wanton misconduct or intentionally tortious conduct.28715

       (2) This section does not create, and shall not be construed 28716
as creating, a new cause of action or substantive legal right 28717
against a poison prevention and treatment center, its officers, 28718
employees, volunteers, or other persons associated with the 28719
center, or a person, organization, or institution that advises or 28720
assists a poison prevention and treatment center.28721

       (3) This section does not affect, and shall not be construed 28722
as affecting, any immunities from civil liability or defenses 28723
conferred by any other section of the Revised Code or available at 28724
common law, to which a poison prevention and treatment center, its 28725
officers, employees, volunteers, or other persons associated with 28726
the center or a person, organization, or institution that advises 28727
or assists a poison prevention and treatment center may be 28728
entitled under circumstances not specified by this section.28729

       (H) The director shall annually report to the general 28730
assembly findings and recommendations concerning the 28731
effectiveness, impact, and benefits of the poison prevention and 28732
treatment centers.28733

       Sec. 3701.201. (A) As used in this section, "bioterrorism" 28734
has the same meaning as in section 3701.232 of the Revised Code.28735

        (B) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 28736
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code under which a 28737
poison prevention and treatment center or other health-related 28738
entity is required to report events that may be caused by 28739
bioterrorism, epidemic or pandemic disease, or established or 28740
novel infectious agents or biological or chemical toxins posing a 28741
risk of human fatality or disability. Rules adopted under this 28742
section may require a report of any of the following:28743

       (1) An unexpected pattern or increase in the number of 28744
telephone inquiries or requests to provide information about 28745
poison prevention and treatment and available services;28746

       (2) An unexpected pattern or increase in the number of 28747
requests to provide specialized treatment, consultation, 28748
information, and educational programs to health care professionals 28749
and the public;28750

       (3) An unexpected pattern or increase in the number of 28751
requests for information on established or novel infectious agents 28752
or biological or chemical toxins posing a risk of human fatality 28753
or disability that is relatively uncommon and may have been caused 28754
by bioterrorism.28755

       (C) Each poison prevention and treatment center and other 28756
health-related entity shall comply with any reporting requirement 28757
established in rules adopted under division (B) of this section.28758

       (D) Information reported under this section that is protected 28759
health information pursuant to section 3701.17 of the Revised Code 28760
shall be released only in accordance with that section. 28761
Information that does not identify an individual may be released 28762
in summary, statistical, or aggregate form.28763

       Sec. 3701.21.  (A) As used in this section:28764

       (1) "Amblyopia" means reduced vision in an eye that has not 28765
received adequate use during early childhood.28766

       (2) "501(c) organization" means an organization exempt from 28767
federal income taxation pursuant to 26 U.S.C.A. 501(a) and (c).28768

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the save 28769
our sight fund. The fund shall consist of voluntary contributions 28770
deposited as provided in section 4503.104 of the Revised Code. All 28771
investment earnings from the fund shall be credited to the fund.28772

       (C) The director of health shall use the money in the save 28773
our sight fund as follows:28774

       (1) To provide support to 501(c) organizations that offer 28775
vision services in all counties of the state and have demonstrated 28776
experience in the delivery of vision services to do one or more of 28777
the following:28778

       (a) Implement a voluntary children's vision screening 28779
training and certification program for volunteers, child care 28780
providers, nurses, teachers, health care professionals practicing 28781
in primary care settings, and others serving children;28782

       (b) Provide materials for the program implemented under 28783
division (C)(1)(a) of this section;28784

       (c) Develop and implement a registry and targeted voluntary 28785
case management system to determine whether children with 28786
amblyopia are receiving professional eye care and to provide their 28787
parents with information and support regarding their child's 28788
vision care;28789

       (d) Establish a matching grant program for the purchase and 28790
distribution of protective eyewear to children;28791

       (e) Provide vision health and safety programs and materials 28792
for classrooms.28793

       (2) For the purpose of section 4503.104 of the Revised Code, 28794
to develop and distribute informational materials on the 28795
importance of eye care and safety to the registrar of motor 28796
vehicles and each deputy registrar;28797

       (3) To pay costs incurred by the director in administering 28798
the fund;28799

       (4) To reimburse the bureau of motor vehicles for the 28800
administrative costs incurred in performing its duties under 28801
section 4503.104 of the Revised Code.28802

       (D) A 501(c) organization seeking funding from the save our 28803
sight fund for any of the projects specified in division (C) of 28804
this section shall submit a request for the funding to the 28805
director in accordance with rules adopted under division (E) of 28806
this section. The director shall determine the appropriateness of 28807
and approve or disapprove projects for funding and approve or 28808
disapprove the disbursement of money from the save our sight fund.28809

       (E) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules in 28810
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 28811
section. The rules shall include the parameters of the projects 28812
specified in division (C)(1) of this section that may be funded 28813
with money in the save our sight fund and procedures for 501(c) 28814
organizations to request funding from the fund.28815

       Sec. 3701.221.  (A) The director of health shall have charge 28816
of the public health laboratory authorized by section 3701.22 of 28817
the Revised Code. The director may employ an assistant for the 28818
laboratory who shall be a person skilled in chemistry and 28819
bacteriology, and receive compensation as the director determines. 28820
All expenses of the laboratory shall be paid from appropriations 28821
made for the department of health.28822

       (B) The public health councildirector, in accordance with 28823
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt, and may amend or 28824
rescind, rules establishing reasonable fees for services the 28825
laboratory performs. The councildirector need not prescribe fees 28826
where the councildirector believes that charging fees would 28827
significantly and adversely affect the public health. All fees 28828
collected for services the laboratory performs shall be deposited 28829
into the state treasury to the credit of the "laboratory handling 28830
fee fund," which is hereby created for the purpose of defraying 28831
expenses of operating the laboratory.28832

       Sec. 3701.23. (A) As used in this section, "health care 28833
provider" means any person or government entity that provides 28834
health care services to individuals. "Health care provider" 28835
includes, but is not limited to, hospitals, medical clinics and 28836
offices, special care facilities, medical laboratories, 28837
physicians, pharmacists, dentists, physician assistants, 28838
registered and licensed practical nurses, laboratory technicians, 28839
emergency medical service organization personnel, and ambulance 28840
service organization personnel.28841

       (B) Boards of health, health authorities or officials, health 28842
care providers in localities in which there are no health 28843
authorities or officials, and coroners or medical examiners shall 28844
report promptly to the department of health the existence of any 28845
of the following:28846

        (1) Asiatic cholera;28847

        (2) Yellow fever;28848

        (3) Diphtheria;28849

        (4) Typhus or typhoid fever;28850

        (5) As specified by the publicdirector of health council, 28851
other contagious or infectious diseases, illnesses, health 28852
conditions, or unusual infectious agents or biological toxins 28853
posing a risk of human fatality or disability.28854

       (C) No person shall fail to comply with the reporting 28855
requirements established under division (B) of this section.28856

        (D) The reports required by this section shall be submitted 28857
on forms, as required by statute or rule, and in the manner the 28858
director of health prescribes.28859

       (E) Information reported under this section that is protected 28860
health information pursuant to section 3701.17 of the Revised Code 28861
shall be released only in accordance with that section. 28862
Information that does not identify an individual may be released 28863
in summary, statistical, or aggregate form.28864

       Sec. 3701.232. (A) As used in this section:28865

        (1) "Bioterrorism" means the intentional use of any 28866
microorganism, virus, infectious substance, or biological product 28867
that may be engineered as a result of biotechnology, or any 28868
naturally occurring or bioengineered component of a microorganism, 28869
virus, infectious substance, or biological product, to cause 28870
death, disease, or other biological malfunction in a human, 28871
animal, plant, or other living organism as a means of influencing 28872
the conduct of government or intimidating or coercing a 28873
population.28874

        (2) "Pharmacist" means an individual licensed under Chapter 28875
4729. of the Revised Code to engage in the practice of pharmacy as 28876
a pharmacist.28877

        (3) "Pharmacy" and "prescription" have the same meanings as 28878
in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.28879

        (B) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 28880
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code under which a 28881
pharmacy or pharmacist is required to report significant changes 28882
in medication usage that may be caused by bioterrorism, epidemic 28883
or pandemic disease, or established or novel infectious agents or 28884
biological toxins posing a risk of human fatality or disability. 28885
Rules adopted under this section may require a report of any of 28886
the following:28887

        (1) An unexpected increase in the number of prescriptions for 28888
antibiotics;28889

        (2) An unexpected increase in the number of prescriptions for 28890
medication to treat fever or respiratory or gastrointestinal 28891
complaints;28892

       (3) An unexpected increase in sales of, or the number of 28893
requests for information on, over-the-counter medication to treat 28894
fever or respiratory or gastrointestinal complaints;28895

        (4) Any prescription for medication used to treat a disease 28896
that is relatively uncommon and may have been caused by 28897
bioterrorism.28898

       (C) No person shall fail to comply with any reporting 28899
requirement established in rules adopted under division (B) of 28900
this section.28901

        (D) Information reported under this section that is protected 28902
health information pursuant to section 3701.17 of the Revised Code 28903
shall be released only in accordance with that section. 28904
Information that does not identify an individual may be released 28905
in summary, statistical, or aggregate form.28906

       Sec. 3701.24.  (A) As used in this section and sections 28907
3701.241 to 3701.249 of the Revised Code:28908

       (1) "AIDS" means the illness designated as acquired 28909
immunodeficiency syndrome.28910

       (2) "HIV" means the human immunodeficiency virus identified 28911
as the causative agent of AIDS.28912

       (3) "AIDS-related condition" means symptoms of illness 28913
related to HIV infection, including AIDS-related complex, that are 28914
confirmed by a positive HIV test.28915

       (4) "HIV test" means any test for the antibody or antigen to 28916
HIV that has been approved by the director of health under 28917
division (B) of section 3701.241 of the Revised Code.28918

       (5) "Health care facility" has the same meaning as in section 28919
1751.01 of the Revised Code.28920

       (6) "Director" means the director of health or any employee 28921
of the department of health acting on the director's behalf.28922

       (7) "Physician" means a person who holds a current, valid 28923
certificate issued under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code 28924
authorizing the practice of medicine or surgery and osteopathic 28925
medicine and surgery.28926

       (8) "Nurse" means a registered nurse or licensed practical 28927
nurse who holds a license or certificate issued under Chapter 28928
4723. of the Revised Code.28929

       (9) "Anonymous test" means an HIV test administered so that 28930
the individual to be tested can give informed consent to the test 28931
and receive the results by means of a code system that does not 28932
link the identity of the individual tested to the request for the 28933
test or the test results.28934

       (10) "Confidential test" means an HIV test administered so 28935
that the identity of the individual tested is linked to the test 28936
but is held in confidence to the extent provided by sections 28937
3701.24 to 3701.248 of the Revised Code.28938

       (11) "Health care provider" means an individual who provides 28939
diagnostic, evaluative, or treatment services. Pursuant to Chapter 28940
119. of the Revised Code, the public health councildirector may 28941
adopt rules further defining the scope of the term "health care 28942
provider."28943

       (12) "Significant exposure to body fluids" means a 28944
percutaneous or mucous membrane exposure of an individual to the 28945
blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or spinal, synovial, pleural, 28946
peritoneal, pericardial, or amniotic fluid of another individual.28947

       (13) "Emergency medical services worker" means all of the 28948
following:28949

       (a) A peace officer;28950

       (b) An employee of an emergency medical service organization 28951
as defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code;28952

       (c) A firefighter employed by a political subdivision;28953

       (d) A volunteer firefighter, emergency operator, or rescue 28954
operator;28955

       (e) An employee of a private organization that renders rescue 28956
services, emergency medical services, or emergency medical 28957
transportation to accident victims and persons suffering serious 28958
illness or injury.28959

       (14) "Peace officer" has the same meaning as in division (A) 28960
of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, except that it also 28961
includes a sheriff and the superintendent and troopers of the 28962
state highway patrol.28963

       (B) Persons designated by rule adopted by the public health 28964
councildirector under section 3701.241 of the Revised Code shall 28965
report promptly every case of AIDS, every AIDS-related condition, 28966
and every confirmed positive HIV test to the department of health 28967
on forms and in a manner prescribed by the director. In each 28968
county the director shall designate the health commissioner of a 28969
health district in the county to receive the reports.28970

       (C) No person shall fail to comply with the reporting 28971
requirements established under division (B) of this section.28972

        (D) Information reported under this section that identifies 28973
an individual is confidential and may be released only with the 28974
written consent of the individual except as the director 28975
determines necessary to ensure the accuracy of the information, as 28976
necessary to provide treatment to the individual, as ordered by a 28977
court pursuant to section 3701.243 or 3701.247 of the Revised 28978
Code, or pursuant to a search warrant or a subpoena issued by or 28979
at the request of a grand jury, prosecuting attorney, city 28980
director of law or similar chief legal officer of a municipal 28981
corporation, or village solicitor, in connection with a criminal 28982
investigation or prosecution. Information that does not identify 28983
an individual may be released in summary, statistical, or 28984
aggregate form.28985

       Sec. 3701.241.  (A) The director of health shall develop and 28986
administer the following:28987

       (1) A surveillance system to determine the number of cases of 28988
AIDS and the HIV infection rate in various population groups;28989

       (2) Counseling and testing programs for groups determined by 28990
the director to be at risk of HIV infection, including procedures 28991
for both confidential and anonymous tests, counseling training 28992
programs for health care providers, and development of counseling 28993
guidelines;28994

       (3) A confidential partner notification system to alert and 28995
counsel sexual contacts of individuals with HIV infection;28996

       (4) Risk reduction and education programs for groups 28997
determined by the director to be at risk of HIV infection, and, in 28998
consultation with a wide range of community leaders, education 28999
programs for the public;29000

       (5) Pilot programs for the long-term care of individuals with 29001
AIDS or AIDS-related condition, including care in nursing homes 29002
and in alternative settings;29003

       (6) Programs to expand regional outpatient treatment of 29004
individuals with AIDS or AIDS-related condition;29005

       (7) A program to assist communities, including communities of 29006
less than one hundred thousand population, in establishing AIDS 29007
task forces and support groups for individuals with AIDS, 29008
AIDS-related condition, and HIV infection. The program may include 29009
the award of grants if they are matched by local funds.29010

       Information obtained or maintained under the partner 29011
notification system is not a public record under section 149.43 of 29012
the Revised Code and may be released only in accordance with 29013
division (C) of section 3701.243 of the Revised Code.29014

       (B) The director shall:29015

       (1) Approve a test or tests to be used to determine whether 29016
an individual has HIV infection, define a confirmed positive test 29017
result, and develop guidelines for interpreting test results;29018

       (2) Establish sites for confidential and anonymous HIV tests, 29019
and prepare a list of sites where an individual may obtain an 29020
anonymous test;29021

       (3) Prepare a list of counseling services;29022

       (4) Make available a copy of the list of anonymous testing 29023
sites or a copy of the list of counseling services to anyone who 29024
requests it.29025

       (C) The director of health shall require the director or 29026
administrator of each site where anonymous or confidential HIV 29027
tests are given to submit a report every three months evaluating 29028
from an epidemiologic perspective the effectiveness of the HIV 29029
testing program at that site. Not later than January 31, 1991, and 29030
each year thereafter, the director of health shall make a report 29031
evaluating the anonymous and confidential testing programs 29032
throughout the state with regard to their effectiveness as 29033
epidemiologic programs. The report shall be submitted to the 29034
speaker of the house of representatives and the president of the 29035
senate and shall be made available to the public.29036

       The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 29037
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the 29038
implementation of the requirements of division (B)(1) of this 29039
section and division (D) of section 3701.24 of the Revised Code.29040

       (D) The director of health shall administer funds received 29041
under Title XXVI of the "Public Health Services Act," 104 Stat. 29042
576 (1990), 42 U.S.C.A. 2601, as amended, for programs to improve 29043
the quality and availability of care for individuals with AIDS, 29044
AIDS-related condition, and HIV infection. In administering these 29045
funds, the director may enter into contracts with any person or 29046
entity for the purpose of administering the programs, including 29047
contracts with the department of job and family services for 29048
establishment of a program of reimbursement of drugs used for 29049
treatment and care of such individuals. The director of health may 29050
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 29051
and issue orders as necessary for administration of the funds. If 29052
the department of job and family services enters into a contract 29053
under this division, the director of job and family services may 29054
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as 29055
necessary for carrying out the department's duties under the 29056
contract.29057

       Sec. 3701.242.  (A) An HIV test may be performed by or on the 29058
order of a health care provider who, in the exercise of the 29059
provider's professional judgment, determines the test to be 29060
necessary for providing diagnosis and treatment to the individual 29061
to be tested, if the individual or the individual's parent or 29062
guardian has given consent to the provider for medical or other 29063
health care treatment. The health care provider shall inform the 29064
individual of the individual's right under division (D) of this 29065
section to an anonymous test.29066

       (B) A minor may consent to be given an HIV test. The consent 29067
is not subject to disaffirmance because of minority. The parents 29068
or guardian of a minor giving consent under this division are not 29069
liable for payment and shall not be charged for an HIV test given 29070
to the minor without the consent of a parent or the guardian.29071

       (C) The health care provider ordering an HIV test shall 29072
provide post-test counseling for an individual who receives an 29073
HIV-positive test result. The publicdirector of health council29074
may adopt rules, pursuant to recommendations from the director of 29075
health and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code,29076
specifying the information to be provided in post-test counseling.29077

       (D) An individual shall have the right to an anonymous test. 29078
A health care facility or health care provider that does not 29079
provide anonymous testing shall refer an individual requesting an 29080
anonymous test to a site where it is available.29081

       (E) Divisions (B) to (D) of this section do not apply to the 29082
performance of an HIV test in any of the following circumstances:29083

       (1) When the test is performed in a medical emergency by a 29084
nurse or physician and the test results are medically necessary to 29085
avoid or minimize an immediate danger to the health or safety of 29086
the individual to be tested or another individual, except that 29087
post-test counseling shall be given to the individual if the 29088
individual receives an HIV-positive test result;29089

       (2) When the test is performed for the purpose of research if 29090
the researcher does not know and cannot determine the identity of 29091
the individual tested;29092

       (3) When the test is performed by a person who procures, 29093
processes, distributes, or uses a human body part from a deceased 29094
person donated for a purpose specified in Chapter 2108. of the 29095
Revised Code, if the test is medically necessary to ensure that 29096
the body part is acceptable for its intended purpose;29097

       (4) When the test is performed on a person incarcerated in a 29098
correctional institution under the control of the department of 29099
rehabilitation and correction if the head of the institution has 29100
determined, based on good cause, that a test is necessary;29101

       (5) When the test is performed in accordance with section 29102
2907.27 of the Revised Code;29103

       (6) When the test is performed on an individual after the 29104
infection control committee of a health care facility, or other 29105
body of a health care facility performing a similar function 29106
determines that a health care provider, emergency medical services 29107
worker, or peace officer, while rendering health or emergency care 29108
to an individual, has sustained a significant exposure to the body 29109
fluids of that individual, and the individual has refused to give 29110
consent for testing.29111

       Sec. 3701.248.  (A) As used in this section:29112

       (1) "Contagious or infectious disease" means a disease 29113
specified by rulein rules adopted by the publicdirector of29114
health council pursuant to division (F) of this section.29115

       (2) "Patient" means either of the following:29116

       (a) A person, whether alive or dead, who has been treated, or 29117
handled, or transported for medical care by an emergency medical 29118
services worker;29119

       (b) A deceased person whose body is handled by a funeral 29120
services worker.29121

       (3) "Significant exposure" means:29122

       (a) A percutaneous or mucous membrane exposure of an 29123
individual to the blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or spinal, 29124
synovial, pleural, peritoneal, pericardial, or amniotic fluid of 29125
another person;29126

       (b) Exposure to a contagious or infectious disease.29127

       (4) "Funeral services worker" means a person licensed as a 29128
funeral director or embalmer under Chapter 4717. of the Revised 29129
Code or an individual responsible for the direct final disposition 29130
of a deceased person.29131

       (B)(1) An emergency medical services worker or funeral 29132
services worker who believes that significant exposure has 29133
occurred through the worker's contact with a patient may submit to 29134
the health care facility or coroner that received the patient a 29135
written request to be notified of the results of any test 29136
performed on the patient to determine the presence of a contagious 29137
or infectious disease. The request shall include:29138

       (a) The name, address, and telephone number of the individual 29139
submitting the request;29140

       (b) The name of the individual's employer, or, in the case of 29141
a volunteer emergency medical services worker, the entity for 29142
which the worker volunteers, and the individual's supervisor;29143

       (c) The date, time, location, and manner of the exposure.29144

       (2) The request for notification that is submitted by an 29145
emergency medical services worker pursuant to division (B)(1) of 29146
this section is valid for ten days after it is made. If at the end 29147
of that ten-day period no test has been performed to determine the 29148
presence of a contagious or infectious disease, no diagnosis has 29149
been made, or the result of the test is negative, the health care 29150
facility or coroner shall notify the emergency medical services 29151
worker. The notification shall not include the name of the 29152
patient. If necessary, the request may be renewed in accordance 29153
with the same procedures and requirements as the original request.29154

       (3) A health care facility or coroner shall respond 29155
immediately to a request for notification submitted pursuant to 29156
division (B)(1) of this section by a funeral services worker. If 29157
no test has been performed to determine the presence of a 29158
contagious or infectious disease, no diagnosis has been made, or 29159
the result of a test that was performed is negative, the health 29160
care facility or coroner shall immediately notify the funeral 29161
services worker. The notification shall not include the name of 29162
the patient.29163

       On receipt of notification that no test has been performed to 29164
determine the presence of a contagious or infectious disease in a 29165
patient, the funeral services worker may have a test performed on 29166
the patient. The test shall be performed in accordance with rules 29167
adopted by the department of health pursuant to division (G) of 29168
this section.29169

       The consent of the patient's family is not required for 29170
performance of a test pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section.29171

       (C) The health care facility or coroner that receives a 29172
written request for notification shall give an oral notification 29173
of the presence of a contagious or infectious disease, or of a 29174
confirmed positive test result, if known, to the person who made 29175
the request and the person's supervisor and to the infection 29176
control committee or other body described in division (E)(6) of 29177
section 3701.242 of the Revised Code within two days after 29178
determining the presence of a contagious or infectious disease or 29179
after a confirmed positive test result. A written notification 29180
shall follow oral notification within three days. If a contagious 29181
or infectious disease is present, or the test results are 29182
confirmed positive, both the oral and written notification shall 29183
include the name of the disease, its signs and symptoms, the date 29184
of exposure, the incubation period, the mode of transmission of 29185
the disease, the medical precautions necessary to prevent 29186
transmission to other persons, and the appropriate prophylaxis, 29187
treatment, and counseling for the disease. The notification shall 29188
not include the name of the patient.29189

       If the request is made by an emergency medical services 29190
worker and the information is not available from the health care 29191
facility to which the request is made because the patient has been 29192
transferred from that health care facility, the facility shall 29193
assist the emergency medical services worker in locating the 29194
patient and securing the requested information from the health 29195
care facility that treated or is treating the patient. If the 29196
patient has died, the health care facility shall give the 29197
emergency medical services worker the name and address of the 29198
coroner who received the patient.29199

       (D) Each health care facility and coroner shall develop 29200
written procedures to implement the notification procedures 29201
required by this section. A health care facility or coroner may 29202
take measures in addition to those required in this section to 29203
notify emergency medical services workers and funeral services 29204
workers of possible exposure to a contagious or infectious disease 29205
as long as the confidentiality of the information is maintained.29206

       (E) No person shall knowingly fail to comply with division 29207
(C) of this section.29208

       (F) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 29209
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that specify 29210
the diseases that are reasonably likely to be transmitted by air 29211
or blood during the normal course of duties performed by an 29212
emergency medical services worker or funeral services worker. In 29213
adopting such rules, the councildirector shall consider the types 29214
of contact that typically occur between patients and emergency 29215
medical services workers and funeral services workers.29216

       (G) The department of health shall adopt rules in accordance 29217
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code specifying the procedures a 29218
funeral services worker must follow when having a test performed 29219
on a patient pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section. The 29220
rules shall specify how and by whom the test is to be performed. 29221
The rules shall require the funeral services worker or the funeral 29222
services worker's employer to pay the cost of the test. No health 29223
care facility shall be required to perform the test.29224

       Sec. 3701.33. (A) There is hereby created the Ohio public 29225
health advisory board. The board shall consist of the following 29226
members:29227

       (1) The following members appointed by the director of health 29228
from among individuals who are not employed by the state and are 29229
recommended by statewide trade or professional organizations that 29230
represent interests in public health:29231

       (a) One individual authorized under Chapter 4731. of the 29232
Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 29233
medicine and surgery;29234

       (b) One individual authorized under Chapter 4723. of the 29235
Revised Code to practice nursing as a registered nurse;29236

       (c) Three members of the public, two of whom are 29237
representatives of entities licensed by the department of health 29238
or boards of health.29239

       (2) One representative of the association of Ohio health 29240
commissioners, appointed by the association;29241

       (3) One representative of the Ohio public health association, 29242
appointed by the association;29243

       (4) One representative of the Ohio environmental health 29244
association, appointed by the association, who is registered as a 29245
sanitarian under Chapter 4736. of the Revised Code;29246

       (5) One representative of the Ohio association of boards of 29247
health, appointed by the association;29248

       (6) One representative of the Ohio society for public health 29249
education, appointed by the society;29250

       (7) One representative of the Ohio hospital association, 29251
appointed by the association.29252

       The director of health or the director's designee shall serve 29253
as an ex officio, nonvoting member of the board.29254

       (B) Not later than thirty days after the effective date of 29255
this section, initial appointments shall be made to the board. Of 29256
the initial appointments, the members specified in divisions 29257
(A)(5), (6), and (7) and division (A)(1)(c) of this section 29258
representing entities licensed by the department of health or 29259
boards of health shall serve terms ending June 30, 2014, and the 29260
members specified in divisions (A)(1)(a) and (b), divisions 29261
(A)(2), (3), and (4), and division (A)(1)(c) of this section not 29262
representing entities licensed by the department or boards of 29263
health shall serve terms ending June 30, 2015. Thereafter, terms 29264
of office for all members shall be three years, with each term 29265
ending on the same day of the same month as the term it succeeds. 29266
Each member shall hold office from the date of appointment until 29267
the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Members 29268
may be reappointed, except that no member who has served two 29269
consecutive terms may be reappointed until three years have 29270
elapsed since the member's last term ended.29271

       Each member shall hold office from the date of appointment 29272
until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. 29273
Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as original 29274
appointments.29275

       Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 29276
expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was 29277
appointed shall hold office for the remainder of that term. A 29278
member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date 29279
of the member's term until the member's successor takes office or 29280
until a period of ninety days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.29281

       (C) The board shall annually select from among its members a 29282
chairperson and vice-chairperson. The director shall designate an 29283
officer or employee of the department to act as the board's 29284
secretary. The secretary shall be a nonvoting board member. 29285

       The board may adopt by laws governing its operation. The 29286
chairperson may appoint subcommittees as the chairperson considers 29287
necessary.29288

       (D) The board shall meet at the call of the chairperson, but 29289
not less than four times per year. A majority of the members of 29290
the board constitutes a quorum. Special meetings may be called by 29291
the chairperson and shall be called by the chairperson at the 29292
request of the director. In a request for a special meeting, the 29293
director shall specify the purpose of the meeting and the date and 29294
place the meeting is to be held. No other business shall be 29295
considered at a special meeting except by a unanimous vote of 29296
members present at the meeting. 29297

       In conducting any meeting, the board and its subcommittees 29298
may use an interactive video teleconferencing system. If 29299
provisions are made that allow public attendance at a designated 29300
location with respect to a meeting using such a system, the board 29301
members who attend the meeting by video teleconference shall be 29302
counted for purposes of determining whether a quorum is present 29303
and shall be permitted to vote.29304

       Members shall be expected to attend a majority of meetings of 29305
the board. Unexcused absence from three consecutive meetings shall 29306
be considered notice of a member's intent to resign from the 29307
board. 29308

       (E)(1) The department shall provide meeting space and staff 29309
and other administrative support for the board to carry out its 29310
duties. 29311

       (2) To facilitate the board's review of proposed rules under 29312
division (A)(1) of section 3701.34 of the Revised Code, the 29313
department shall establish and maintain an electronic web-based 29314
database of board meeting agendas, board meeting minutes, proposed 29315
rules, public comments, and other documents relevant to the work 29316
of the board.29317

       (F) Notice of meetings shall be provided to members through 29318
the board's mailing list, the department's web site, or any other 29319
means available to the board.29320

       The minutes of previous meetings, the next meeting's agenda, 29321
and information on any matters to be presented to the board at any 29322
regular or special meeting shall be provided to the board in an 29323
electronic format. 29324

       (G) Members shall attend annual ethics training provided by 29325
the Ohio ethics commission.29326

       (H) Members shall serve without compensation, but may be 29327
reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 29328
performance of their official duties.29329

       (I) Sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code do not 29330
apply to the Ohio public health advisory board.29331

       Sec. 3701.34. (A) The Ohio public health advisory board shall 29332
review and make recommendations to the director of health on all 29333
of the following:29334

       (1) Developing and adopting proposed rules under Chapters 29335
3701 and 3717 of the Administrative Code;29336

       (2) Prescribing proposed fees for services provided by the 29337
office of vital statistics and the bureau of environmental health;29338

       (3) Issues to improve public health and increase awareness of 29339
public health issues at the state level, local level, or both;29340

       (4) Any other public health issues that the director requests 29341
the board to consider.29342

       (B) In making recommendations to the director under division 29343
(A)(1) of this section, all of the following apply: 29344

       (1) Prior to filing a proposed rule with the joint committee 29345
on agency rule review, the department of health shall provide each 29346
board member with a copy of the proposed rule, copies of public 29347
comments received by the department during the public comment 29348
period, and written evidence of stakeholder involvement. 29349

       (2) Prior to board meetings, copies of proposed rules shall 29350
be provided to members. On request of a member, the department 29351
shall ensure that appropriate department employees attend board 29352
meetings to answer questions concerning proposed rules. 29353

       (3)(a) Not later than sixty days after receiving a copy of a 29354
proposed rule, the board shall recommend approval or disapproval 29355
of the rule and submit its recommendation by board action to the 29356
director. In making its recommendation, the board may consider 29357
public comments provided to the department or the board. 29358

       (b) If the board fails to make a recommendation within sixty 29359
days of receiving a copy of the proposed rule, the director may 29360
file the proposed rule.29361

       (4) Except as provided in division (B)(3)(b) of this section, 29362
the director shall consider the board's recommendation before 29363
filing a proposed rule. On request of the board, the director 29364
shall meet with the board to discuss the board's recommendation. 29365

       (5) If the director disagrees with the board's 29366
recommendation, the director shall inform the board in writing of 29367
the director's decision and the reason for the decision prior to 29368
the next quarterly meeting. The director or the director's 29369
designee may meet with the board at the next quarterly meeting to 29370
answer questions regarding why the director disagreed with the 29371
board's recommendation.29372

       (C) To the extent the board believes that a proposed rule 29373
does not comply with requirements established by the joint 29374
committee on agency rule review or the common sense initiative 29375
office, nothing in this section prohibits the board, in carrying 29376
out its duties under division (A)(1) of this section, from 29377
contacting the joint committee on agency rule review or the common 29378
sense initiative office.29379

       (D) In making recommendations under division (A)(2) of this 29380
section for prescribing proposed fees for services provided by the 29381
bureau of environmental health, the board and the department shall 29382
develop a cost methodology subject to approval by the director.29383

       (E) This section does not apply to the following:29384

       (1) A proposed rule that is to be refiled with the joint 29385
committee on agency rule review solely because of technical or 29386
other nonsubstantive revisions;29387

       (2) The emergency adoption, amendment, or rescission of a 29388
rule under division (F) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code.29389

       Sec. 3701.341.  (A) The publicdirector of health council, 29390
pursuant to Chapter 119. and consistent with section 2317.56 of 29391
the Revised Code, shall adopt rules relating to abortions and the 29392
following subjects:29393

       (1) Post-abortion procedures to protect the health of the 29394
pregnant woman;29395

       (2) Pathological reports;29396

       (3) Humane disposition of the product of human conception;29397

       (4) Counseling.29398

       (B) The director of health shall implement the rules and 29399
shall apply to the court of common pleas for temporary or 29400
permanent injunctions restraining a violation or threatened 29401
violation of the rules. This action is an additional remedy not 29402
dependent on the adequacy of the remedy at law.29403

       Sec. 3701.342.  After consultation with the public health 29404
standards task force established under section 3701.343 of the 29405
Revised Code, the publicdirector of health council shall adopt 29406
rules establishing minimum standards and optimum achievable 29407
standards for boards of health and local health departments. The 29408
minimum standards shall assure that boards of health and local 29409
health departments provide for:29410

       (A) Analysis and prevention of communicable disease;29411

       (B) Analysis of the causes of, and appropriate treatment for, 29412
the leading causes of morbidity and mortality;29413

       (C) The administration and management of the local health 29414
department;29415

       (D) Access to primary health care by medically underserved 29416
individuals;29417

       (E) Environmental health management programs;29418

       (F) Health promotion services designed to encourage 29419
individual and community wellness.29420

       The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 29421
establishing a formula for distribution of state health district 29422
subsidy funds to boards of health and local health departments. 29423
The formula shall provide no subsidy funds to a board or 29424
department unless it meets minimum standards and shall provide 29425
higher funding levels for boards and districts that meet optimum 29426
achievable standards.29427

       Notwithstanding section 119.03 of the Revised Code, rules 29428
adopted under this section shall not take effect unless approved 29429
by concurrent resolution of the general assembly.29430

       Sec. 3701.343.  The chairmandirector of the public health29431
council shall, with the advice of the association of Ohio health 29432
commissioners and the director of health, appoint a public health 29433
standards task force to assist and advise the public health 29434
councildirector in formulating and evaluating the standards 29435
established under section 3701.342 of the Revised Code for the 29436
provision of public health services. The task force shall 29437
recommend its standards for all categories mentioned in section 29438
3701.342 of the Revised Code on or before March 1, 1983.29439

       The task force shall have nine members, consisting of:29440

       (A) A sanitarian registered in accordance with Chapter 4736. 29441
of the Revised Code;29442

       (B) A registered nurse licensed in accordance with Chapter 29443
4723. of the Revised Code;29444

       (C) A physician licensed in accordance withwho is authorized 29445
under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and 29446
surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery;29447

       (D) Three health commissioners;29448

       (E) Two representatives of the department of health;29449

       (F) One individual with recognized ability in public health 29450
law, public health laboratories, epidemiology, nutrition, or 29451
health education.29452

       The public health standards task force shall complete its 29453
work within three years after the effective date of this section 29454
and shall cease to exist upon completion of its work, provided, 29455
that the public health council may reconstitute the public health 29456
standards task force, for the purpose of reviewing, evaluating, 29457
and revising the standards mandated in section 3701.342 of the 29458
Revised Code.29459

       Members of the task force shall elect a chairmanchairperson. 29460
Five members of the task force constitute a quorum and six votes 29461
are necessary to validate an action.29462

       Within ninety days of the effective date of this section, the 29463
chairman of the public health council shall make the appointments 29464
to the task force. Within sixty days of their appointment, the 29465
task force members shall meet, organize, and begin their work.29466
Vacancies occurring on the task force shall be filled in the same 29467
manner as the initial appointments.29468

       Members of the task force shall serve without compensation, 29469
but may be reimbursed for necessary expenses.29470

       Sec. 3701.344.  As used in this section and sections 29471
3701.345, 3701.346, and 3701.347 of the Revised Code:29472

       (A) "Private water system" means any water system for the 29473
provision of water for human consumption, if such system has fewer 29474
than fifteen service connections and does not regularly serve an 29475
average of at least twenty-five individuals daily at least sixty 29476
days out of the year. A private water system includes any well, 29477
spring, cistern, pond, or hauled water and any equipment for the 29478
collection, transportation, filtration, disinfection, treatment, 29479
or storage of such water extending from and including the source 29480
of the water to the point of discharge from any pressure tank or 29481
other storage vessel; to the point of discharge from the water 29482
pump where no pressure tank or other storage vessel is present; 29483
or, in the case of multiple service connections serving more than 29484
one dwelling, to the point of discharge from each service 29485
connection. "Private water system" does not include the water 29486
service line extending from the point of discharge to a structure.29487

       (B) Notwithstanding section 3701.347 of the Revised Code and 29488
subject to division (C) of this section, rules adopted by the29489
publicdirector of health council regarding private water systems 29490
shall provide for the following:29491

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in this division, boards of 29492
health of city or general health districts shall be given the 29493
exclusive power to establish fees in accordance with section 29494
3709.09 of the Revised Code for administering and enforcing such 29495
rules. Such fees shall establish a different rate for 29496
administering and enforcing the rules relative to private water 29497
systems serving single-family dwelling houses and nonsingle-family 29498
dwelling houses. Except for an amount established by the public 29499
health councildirector, pursuant to division (B)(5) of this 29500
section, for each new private water system installation, no 29501
portion of any fee for administering and enforcing such rules 29502
shall be returned to the department of health. If the director of 29503
health determines that a board of health of a city or general 29504
health district is unable to administer and enforce a private 29505
water system program in the district, the director shall 29506
administer and enforce such a program in the district and 29507
establish fees for such administration and enforcement.29508

       (2) Boards of health of city or general health districts 29509
shall be given the exclusive power to determine the number of 29510
inspections necessary for determining the safe drinking 29511
characteristics of a private water system.29512

       (3) Private water systems contractors, as a condition of 29513
doing business in this state, shall annually register with, and 29514
comply with surety bonding requirements of, the department of 29515
health. No such contractor shall be permitted to register if the 29516
contractor fails to comply with all applicable rules adopted by 29517
the public health councildirector and the board of health of the 29518
city or general health district. The annual registration fee for 29519
private water systems contractors shall be sixty-five dollars. The 29520
public health councildirector, by rule adopted in accordance with 29521
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may increase the annual 29522
registration fee. Before January 1, 1993, the fee shall not be 29523
increased by more than fifty per cent of the amount prescribed by 29524
this section.29525

       (4) BoardsSubject to rules adopted by the director, boards29526
of health of city or general health districts subject to such 29527
rules of the public health council shall have the option of 29528
determining whether bacteriological examinations shall be 29529
performed at approved laboratories of the state or at approved 29530
private laboratories.29531

       (5) The public health councildirector may establish fees for 29532
each new private water system installation, which shall be 29533
collected by the appropriate board of health and transmitted to 29534
the director of health pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised 29535
Code.29536

       (6) All fees received by the director of health under 29537
divisions (B)(1), (3), and (5) of this section shall be deposited 29538
in the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 29539
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code for use in the 29540
administration and enforcement of sections 3701.344 to 3701.347 of 29541
the Revised Code and the rules pertaining to private water systems 29542
adopted under those sections or section 3701.34 of the Revised 29543
Code.29544

       (C) To the extent that rules adopted under division (B) of 29545
this section require health districts to follow specific 29546
procedures or use prescribed forms, no such procedure or form 29547
shall be implemented until it is approved by majority vote of an 29548
approval board of health commissioners, hereby created. Members of 29549
the board shall be the officers of the association of Ohio health 29550
commissioners, or any successor organization, and membership on 29551
the board shall be coterminous with holding an office of the 29552
association. No health district is required to follow a procedure 29553
or use a form required by a rule adopted under division (B) of 29554
this section without the approval of the board.29555

       (D) A board of health shall collect well log filing fees on 29556
behalf of the division of soil and water resources in the 29557
department of natural resources in accordance with section 1521.05 29558
of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it. The fees shall be 29559
submitted to the division quarterly as provided in those rules.29560

       Sec. 3701.345.  Any applicant for a permit to construct, 29561
develop, install, or modify a private water system required by 29562
rules adopted by the publicdirector of health council under 29563
sections 3701.34 andsection 3701.347 of the Revised Code may 29564
apply to the board of health of the city or general health 29565
district administering and enforcing the private water supply 29566
program in the health district in which the private water system 29567
is or is to be located or, if the health district is not 29568
administering and enforcing the program, may apply to the 29569
department of health for a variance from such rules governing the 29570
design, construction, development, installation, or modification 29571
of private water systems. The application for a variance shall be 29572
made in writing and shall include a statement of the particular 29573
rule or rules from which a variance is sought, a description of 29574
the proposed system or modification, and the necessity for the 29575
variance. The board of health or the department of health shall 29576
not grant a variance unless the applicant demonstrates that:29577

       (A) There will be an unusual and unnecessary hardship in 29578
complying with the rules from which the variance is sought;29579

       (B) Contamination of the private water system will not occur 29580
as a result of construction and operation of the system as 29581
proposed by the variance application;29582

       (C) The health of persons using water from the private water 29583
system will not be endangered as a result of construction and 29584
operation of the system as proposed by the variance application; 29585
and29586

       (D) No other technically feasible and economically reasonable 29587
means exist for obtaining water from the proposed type of water 29588
source.29589

       Sec. 3701.347.  Notwithstanding division (E) of section 29590
6111.42 of the Revised Code, rules adopted under such division and 29591
in effect on December 14, 1978, shall continue in effect until 29592
repealed by the environmental protection agency or superseded by 29593
rules ofadopted by the publicdirector of health council as 29594
hereinafter provided, as fully as if such section had not been 29595
amended by Amended Substitute Senate Bill No. 445 of the 112th 29596
general assembly on such date. Insofar as these rules affect wells 29597
for the provision of water for human consumption not used or for 29598
use by a public water system, they shall remain in effect 29599
notwithstanding repeal by the environmental protection agency 29600
until the public health councildirector adopts rules superseding 29601
them which prescribe uniform standards and procedures for the 29602
design, construction, inspection, installation, development, 29603
maintenance, and abandonment of private water systems, to protect 29604
the health of the persons served by such water systems and to 29605
establish fees at a level calculated to pay the cost of 29606
administering and enforcing such rules by the director health or 29607
by boards of health of city and general health districts approved 29608
by the director of health. For purposes of this section "public 29609
water system" has the meaning ascribed to it in section 6109.01 of 29610
the Revised Code.29611

       Sec. 3701.352.  No person shall violate any rule the public 29612
health council, director of health, or department of health adopts 29613
or any order the director or department of health issues under 29614
this chapter to prevent a threat to the public caused by a 29615
pandemic, epidemic, or bioterrorism event.29616

       Sec. 3701.40.  The publicdirector of health council shall by 29617
rule prescribe minimum standards for the maintenance and operation 29618
of hospitals and medical facilities which shall receive federal 29619
aid for construction under the state plan provided for by section 29620
3701.39 of the Revised Code.29621

       Boards of trustees or directors of institutions required to 29622
comply with sections 3701.01, 3701.04, 3701.08, 3701.09, and 29623
3701.37 to 3701.45 of the Revised Code shall have the right to 29624
select the professional staff members of such institutions and to 29625
select and employ interns, nurses, and other personnel, and no 29626
rules, regulations, or standards of the director of health or the 29627
public health council adopted or promulgated severally or jointly 29628
shall be valid which, if enforced, would interfere in such 29629
selection or employment.29630

       The director of health may petition the common pleas court of 29631
the county in which any hospital or medical facility is located 29632
for an order enjoining any person, firm, partnership, association, 29633
corporation, or other entity, private or public, from operating a 29634
hospital or medical facility in violation of any rules adopted 29635
under this section. Irrespective of any other remedy the director 29636
may have in law or equity the court has jurisdiction to grant such 29637
injunctive relief upon a showing that the respondent named in the 29638
petition is operating in violation of such rules.29639

       Sec. 3701.503.  As used in sections 3701.504 to 3701.509 of 29640
the Revised Code:29641

       (A) "Parent" means either parent, unless the parents are 29642
separated or divorced or their marriage has been dissolved or 29643
annulled, in which case "parent" means the parent who is the 29644
residential parent and legal custodian.29645

       (B) "Guardian" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 of 29646
the Revised Code.29647

       (C) "Custodian" means, except as used in division (A) of this 29648
section, a government agency or an individual, other than the 29649
parent or guardian, with legal or permanent custody of a child as 29650
defined in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.29651

       (D) "Hearing screening" means the identification of newborns 29652
and infants who may have a hearing impairment, through the use of 29653
a physiologic test.29654

       (E) "Hearing evaluation" means evaluation through the use of 29655
audiological procedures by an audiologist or physician.29656

       (F) "Hearing impairment" means a loss of hearing in one or 29657
both ears in the frequency region important for speech recognition 29658
and comprehension.29659

       (G) "Newborn" means a child who is less than thirty days old.29660

       (H) "Infant" means a child who is at least thirty days but 29661
less than twenty-four months old.29662

       (I) "Freestanding birthing center" has the same meaning as in 29663
section 3702.513702.141 of the Revised Code.29664

       (J) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 29665
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 29666
osteopathic medicine and surgery.29667

       (K) "Audiologist" means an individual authorized under 29668
section 4753.07 of the Revised Code to practice audiology.29669

       (L) "Hospital" means a hospital that has a maternity unit or 29670
newborn nursery.29671

       (M) "Maternity unit" means any unit or place in a hospital 29672
where women are regularly received and provided care during all or 29673
part of the maternity cycle, except that "maternity unit" does not 29674
include an emergency department or similar place dedicated to 29675
providing emergency health care.29676

       (N) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or 29677
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 29678
board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code.29679

       Sec. 3701.507.  (A) To assist in implementing sections 29680
3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised Code, the medically 29681
handicapped children's medical advisory council created in section 29682
3701.025 of the Revised Code shall appoint a permanent infant 29683
hearing screening subcommittee. The subcommittee shall consist of 29684
the following members:29685

       (1) One otolaryngologist;29686

       (2) One neonatologist;29687

       (3) One pediatrician;29688

       (4) One neurologist;29689

       (5) One hospital administrator;29690

       (6) Two or more audiologists who are experienced in infant 29691
hearing screening and evaluation;29692

       (7) One speech-language pathologist licensed under section 29693
4753.07 of the Revised Code;29694

       (8) Two persons who are each a parent of a hearing-impaired 29695
child;29696

       (9) One geneticist;29697

       (10) One epidemiologist;29698

       (11) One adult who is deaf or hearing impaired;29699

       (12) One representative from an organization for the deaf or 29700
hearing impaired;29701

       (13) One family advocate;29702

       (14) One nurse from a well-baby neonatal nursery;29703

       (15) One nurse from a special care neonatal nursery;29704

       (16) One teacher of the deaf who works with infants and 29705
toddlers;29706

       (17) One representative of the health insurance industry;29707

       (18) One representative of the bureau for children with 29708
medical handicaps;29709

       (19) One representative of the department of education;29710

       (20) One representative of the Ohio department of job and 29711
family services who has responsibilities regarding medicaid;29712

       (21) Any other person the advisory council appoints.29713

       (B) The infant hearing subcommittee shall:29714

       (1) Consult with the director of health regarding the 29715
administration of sections 3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised 29716
Code;29717

       (2) Advise and make recommendations regarding proposed rules 29718
prior to their adoption by the public health councildirector29719
under section 3701.508 of the Revised Code;29720

       (3) Consult with the director of health and advise and make 29721
recommendations regarding program development and implementation 29722
under sections 3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised Code, including 29723
all of the following:29724

       (a) Establishment under section 3701.504 of the Revised Code 29725
of the statewide hearing screening, tracking, and early 29726
intervention program to identify newborn and infant hearing 29727
impairment;29728

       (b) Identification of locations where hearing evaluations may 29729
be conducted;29730

       (c) Recommendations for methods and techniques of hearing 29731
screening and hearing evaluation;29732

       (d) Referral, data recording and compilation, and procedures 29733
to encourage follow-up hearing care;29734

       (e) Maintenance of a register of newborns and infants who do 29735
not pass the hearing screening;29736

       (f) Preparation of the information required by section 29737
3701.506 of the Revised Code and any other information the public 29738
health council requires the department of health to provide.29739

       Sec. 3701.508.  (A) The publicdirector of health council29740
shall adopt rules governing the statewide hearing screening, 29741
tracking, and early intervention program established under section 29742
3701.504 of the Revised Code, including rules that do all of the 29743
following:29744

       (1) Specify how hospitals and freestanding birthing centers 29745
are to comply with the requirements of section 3701.505 of the 29746
Revised Code, including methods to be used for hearing screening, 29747
except that with regard to the physiologic equipment to be used 29748
for hearing screening, the rules may require only that the 29749
equipment be capable of giving reliable results and may not 29750
specify particular equipment or a particular type of equipment;29751

       (2) Provide that no newborn or infant shall be required to 29752
undergo a hearing screening if the parent, guardian, or custodian 29753
of the newborn or infant objects on the grounds that the screening 29754
conflicts with the parent's, guardian's, or custodian's religious 29755
tenets and practices;29756

       (3) Provide for situations in which the parent, guardian, or 29757
custodian of a newborn or infant objects to a hearing screening 29758
for reasons other than religious tenets and practices;29759

       (4) Specify how the department of health will determine 29760
whether a person is financially unable to pay for a hearing 29761
screening and define "third-party payer" for the purpose of 29762
reimbursement of hearing screening by the department under section 29763
3701.505 of the Revised Code;29764

       (5) Specify an inexpensive and efficient format and 29765
procedures for the submission of hearing screening information 29766
from hospitals and freestanding birthing centers to the department 29767
of health;29768

       (6) Specify a procedure whereby the department may conduct 29769
timely reviews of hearing screening information submissions for 29770
purposes of quality assurance, training, and disease prevention 29771
and control;29772

       (7) Specify any additional information that hospitals and 29773
freestanding birthing centers are to provide to the medically 29774
handicapped children's medical advisory council's infant hearing 29775
screening subcommittee under section 3701.509 of the Revised Code.29776

       (B) In addition to the rules adopted under division (A) of 29777
this section, the councildirector shall adopt rules that specify 29778
the training that must be completed by persons who will conduct 29779
hearing screenings. In adopting these rules, the councildirector29780
shall consider incorporating cost-saving training methods, 29781
including computer-assisted learning and on-site training. Neither 29782
the rules nor the director of health may establish a minimum 29783
educational level for persons conducting hearing screenings.29784

       (C) All rules adopted under this section shall be adopted in 29785
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and shall be 29786
adopted so as to take effect not later than six months after the 29787
effective date of this sectionAugust 1, 2002.29788

       Sec. 3701.509.  (A) The department of health shall develop a 29789
mechanism to analyze and interpret the hearing screening 29790
information to be reported under division (B) of this section. The 29791
department shall notify all hospitals and freestanding birthing 29792
centers subject to the reporting requirements of the date the 29793
department anticipates that the mechanism will be complete. After 29794
the mechanism is complete, the department shall notify each 29795
hospital and freestanding birthing center subject to the reporting 29796
requirement of the date by which the hospital or center must 29797
submit its first report.29798

       (B) Subject to division (A) of this section and in accordance 29799
with rules adopted by the publicdirector of health council under 29800
section 3701.508 of the Revised Code, each hospital and 29801
freestanding birthing center that has conducted a hearing 29802
screening required by section 3701.505 of the Revised Code shall 29803
provide to the department of health for use by the medically 29804
handicapped children's medical advisory council's infant hearing 29805
screening subcommittee information specifying all of the 29806
following:29807

       (1) The number of newborns born in the hospital or 29808
freestanding birthing center and the number of newborns and 29809
infants not screened because they were transferred to another 29810
hospital;29811

       (2) The number of newborns and infants referred to the 29812
hospital or freestanding birthing center for a hearing screening 29813
and the number of those newborns and infants who received a 29814
hearing screening;29815

       (3) The number of newborns and infants who did not pass the 29816
hearing screenings conducted by the hospital or freestanding 29817
birthing center;29818

       (4) Any other information concerning the program established 29819
under section 3701.504 of the Revised Code.29820

       (C) The department of health shall conduct a timely review of 29821
the information submitted by hospitals and freestanding birthing 29822
centers in accordance with rules adopted by the public health 29823
councildirector under section 3701.508 of the Revised Code.29824

       (D) The infant hearing screening subcommittee, with the 29825
support of the department of health, shall compile and summarize 29826
the information submitted to the department by hospitals and 29827
freestanding birthing centers under division (B) of this section. 29828
Beginning with the first year after the mechanism developed under 29829
division (A) of this section is complete, the subcommittee shall 29830
annually prepare and transmit a report to the director of health, 29831
the speaker of the house of representatives, and the president of 29832
the senate. The council shall make the report available to the 29833
public.29834

       (E) The department and all members of the subcommittee shall 29835
maintain the confidentiality of patient-identifying information 29836
submitted under division (B) of this section and section 3701.505 29837
of the Revised Code. The information is not a public record under 29838
section 149.43 of the Revised Code, except to the extent that the 29839
information is used in preparing reports under this section.29840

       Nothing in this division prohibits the department from 29841
providing patient-identifying information to other entities as it 29842
considers necessary to implement the statewide tracking and early 29843
intervention components of the program established under section 29844
3701.504 of the Revised Code. Any entity that receives 29845
patient-identifying information from the department shall maintain 29846
the confidentiality of the information.29847

       Sec. 3701.57.  All prosecutions and proceedings by the 29848
department of health for the violation of sections 3701.01 to 29849
3701.56, 3705.01 to 3705.29, 3707.06, 3709.01 to 3709.04, 3709.07 29850
to 3709.11, 3709.13, 3709.17, 3709.18, and 3709.21 to 3709.36 of 29851
the Revised Code, or for the violation of any of the orders or 29852
rules of the department, shall be instituted by the director of 29853
health. Except as provided in division (C) of section 3701.571 of 29854
the Revised Code, all fines or judgments the department collects 29855
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the general 29856
revenue fund.29857

       The director of health, the board of health of a general or 29858
city health district, or any person charged with enforcing the 29859
rules of the department of health as provided in section 3701.56 29860
of the Revised Code may petition the court of common pleas for 29861
injunctive or other appropriate relief requiring any person 29862
violating a rule adopted by the public health council under 29863
section 3701.34 of the Revised Code or any order issued by the 29864
director of health under this chapter to comply with such rule or 29865
order. The court of common pleas of the county in which the 29866
offense is alleged to be occurring may grant such injunctive or 29867
other appropriate relief as the equities of the case require.29868

       Sec. 3701.63. (A) As used in this section and section 3701.64 29869
of the Revised Code:29870

        (1) "Child day-care center," "type A family day-care home," 29871
and "certified type B family day-care home" have the same meanings 29872
as in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.29873

       (2) "Child care facility" means a child day-care center, a 29874
type A family day-care home, or a certified type B family day-care 29875
home.29876

        (3) "Freestanding birthing center" has the same meaning as in 29877
section 3702.513702.141 of the Revised Code.29878

       (4) "Hospital" means a hospital classified pursuant to rules 29879
adopted under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a general 29880
hospital or children's hospital.29881

        (5) "Maternity unit" means any unit or place in a hospital 29882
where women are regularly received and provided care during all or 29883
part of the maternity cycle, except that "maternity unit" does not 29884
include an emergency department or similar place dedicated to 29885
providing emergency health care.29886

       (6) "Parent" means either parent, unless the parents are 29887
separated or divorced or their marriage has been dissolved or 29888
annulled, in which case "parent" means the parent who is the 29889
residential parent and legal custodian of the child. "Parent" also 29890
means a prospective adoptive parent with whom a child is placed.29891

       (7) "Shaken Baby Syndrome" means signs and symptoms, 29892
including, but not limited to, retinal hemorrhages in one or both 29893
eyes, subdural hematoma, or brain swelling, resulting from the 29894
violent shaking or the shaking and impacting of the head of an 29895
infant or small child.29896

        (B) The director of health shall establish the shaken baby 29897
syndrome education program by doing all of the following:29898

       (1) By not later than one year after February 29, 2008, 29899
developing educational materials that present readily 29900
comprehendible information on shaken baby syndrome;29901

        (2) Making available on the department of health web site in 29902
an easily accessible format the educational materials developed 29903
under division (B)(1) of this section;29904

        (3) Beginning in 2009, annually assessing the effectiveness 29905
of the shaken baby syndrome education program by evaluating the 29906
reports received pursuant to section 5101.135 of the Revised Code.29907

       (C) In meeting the requirements under division (B) of this 29908
section, the director shall not develop educational materials that 29909
will impose an administrative or financial burden on any of the 29910
entities or persons listed in section 3701.64 of the Revised Code.29911

       Sec. 3701.74.  (A) As used in this section and section 29912
3701.741 of the Revised Code:29913

       (1) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides 29914
medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not 29915
require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory 29916
surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic 29917
imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home 29918
health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation 29919
therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. 29920
"Ambulatory care facility" does not include the private office of 29921
a physician or dentist, whether the office is for an individual or 29922
group practice.29923

       (2) "Chiropractor" means an individual licensed under Chapter 29924
4734. of the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.29925

       (3) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency 29926
department or any other facility that provides emergency medical 29927
services.29928

       (4) "Health care practitioner" means all of the following:29929

       (a) A dentist or dental hygienist licensed under Chapter 29930
4715. of the Revised Code;29931

       (b) A registered or licensed practical nurse licensed under 29932
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;29933

       (c) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the 29934
Revised Code;29935

       (d) A dispensing optician, spectacle dispensing optician, 29936
contact lens dispensing optician, or spectacle-contact lens 29937
dispensing optician licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised 29938
Code;29939

       (e) A pharmacist licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised 29940
Code;29941

       (f) A physician;29942

       (g) A physician assistant authorized under Chapter 4730. of 29943
the Revised Code to practice as a physician assistant;29944

       (h) A practitioner of a limited branch of medicine issued a 29945
certificate under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code;29946

       (i) A psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. of the 29947
Revised Code;29948

       (j) A chiropractor;29949

       (k) A hearing aid dealer or fitter licensed under Chapter 29950
4747. of the Revised Code;29951

       (l) A speech-language pathologist or audiologist licensed 29952
under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;29953

       (m) An occupational therapist or occupational therapy 29954
assistant licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;29955

       (n) A physical therapist or physical therapy assistant 29956
licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;29957

       (o) A professional clinical counselor, professional 29958
counselor, social worker, or independent social worker licensed, 29959
or a social work assistant registered, under Chapter 4757. of the 29960
Revised Code;29961

       (p) A dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised 29962
Code;29963

       (q) A respiratory care professional licensed under Chapter 29964
4761. of the Revised Code;29965

       (r) An emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical 29966
technician-intermediate, or emergency medical technician-paramedic 29967
certified under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code.29968

       (5) "Health care provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care 29969
facility, long-term care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, 29970
or health care practitioner.29971

       (6) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 29972
the Revised Code.29973

       (7) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, 29974
residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms 29975
are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; an adult care29976
a residential facility, as defined inlicensed under section 29977
5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 29978
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 29979
unrelated adults; a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 29980
for the mentally retarded, as those terms are defined in section 29981
5111.20 of the Revised Code; a facility or portion of a facility 29982
certified as a skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII of the 29983
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as 29984
amended.29985

       (8) "Medical record" means data in any form that pertains to 29986
a patient's medical history, diagnosis, prognosis, or medical 29987
condition and that is generated and maintained by a health care 29988
provider in the process of the patient's health care treatment.29989

       (9) "Medical records company" means a person who stores, 29990
locates, or copies medical records for a health care provider, or 29991
is compensated for doing so by a health care provider, and charges 29992
a fee for providing medical records to a patient or patient's 29993
representative.29994

       (10) "Patient" means either of the following:29995

       (a) An individual who received health care treatment from a 29996
health care provider;29997

       (b) A guardian, as defined in section 1337.11 of the Revised 29998
Code, of an individual described in division (A)(10)(a) of this 29999
section.30000

       (11) "Patient's personal representative" means a minor 30001
patient's parent or other person acting in loco parentis, a 30002
court-appointed guardian, or a person with durable power of 30003
attorney for health care for a patient, the executor or 30004
administrator of the patient's estate, or the person responsible 30005
for the patient's estate if it is not to be probated. "Patient's 30006
personal representative" does not include an insurer authorized 30007
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code to do the business of 30008
sickness and accident insurance in this state, a health insuring 30009
corporation holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. 30010
of the Revised Code, or any other person not named in this 30011
division.30012

       (12) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of 30013
the Revised Code.30014

       (13) "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 30015
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, 30016
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and 30017
surgery.30018

       (14) "Authorized person" means a person to whom a patient has 30019
given written authorization to act on the patient's behalf 30020
regarding the patient's medical record.30021

       (B) A patient, a patient's personal representative or an 30022
authorized person who wishes to examine or obtain a copy of part 30023
or all of a medical record shall submit to the health care 30024
provider a written request signed by the patient, personal 30025
representative, or authorized person dated not more than one year 30026
before the date on which it is submitted. The request shall 30027
indicate whether the copy is to be sent to the requestor, 30028
physician or chiropractor, or held for the requestor at the office 30029
of the health care provider. Within a reasonable time after 30030
receiving a request that meets the requirements of this division 30031
and includes sufficient information to identify the record 30032
requested, a health care provider that has the patient's medical 30033
records shall permit the patient to examine the record during 30034
regular business hours without charge or, on request, shall 30035
provide a copy of the record in accordance with section 3701.741 30036
of the Revised Code, except that if a physician or chiropractor 30037
who has treated the patient determines for clearly stated 30038
treatment reasons that disclosure of the requested record is 30039
likely to have an adverse effect on the patient, the health care 30040
provider shall provide the record to a physician or chiropractor 30041
designated by the patient. The health care provider shall take 30042
reasonable steps to establish the identity of the person making 30043
the request to examine or obtain a copy of the patient's record.30044

       (C) If a health care provider fails to furnish a medical 30045
record as required by division (B) of this section, the patient, 30046
personal representative, or authorized person who requested the 30047
record may bring a civil action to enforce the patient's right of 30048
access to the record.30049

       (D)(1) This section does not apply to medical records whose 30050
release is covered by section 173.20 or 3721.13 of the Revised 30051
Code, by Chapter 1347. or 5122. of the Revised Code, by 42 C.F.R. 30052
part 2, "Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient 30053
Records," or by 42 C.F.R. 483.10.30054

       (2) Nothing in this section is intended to supersede the 30055
confidentiality provisions of sections 2305.24, 2305.25, 2305.251, 30056
and 2305.252 of the Revised Code.30057

       Sec. 3701.77. (A) The department of health may establish, 30058
promote, and maintain a lupus education and awareness program with 30059
an emphasis on at-risk communities to raise public awareness, 30060
educate consumers, and educate and train health professionals, 30061
human services providers, and other audiences.30062

       (B) The department, in creating and implementing the program, 30063
may do all of the following:30064

       (1) Provide sufficient staff and appropriate training to 30065
implement the program;30066

       (2) Establish a grant program to support nonprofit voluntary 30067
health organizations with expertise in lupus to increase public 30068
awareness and enhance health professional education and 30069
understanding of the symptoms and consequences of lupus and the 30070
populations most at risk;30071

       (3) Establish an intergovernmental council and advisory panel 30072
to oversee the implementation of the program;30073

       (4) Identify the appropriate entities to carry out the 30074
program;30075

       (5) Base the program on the most current scientific 30076
information and findings;30077

       (6) Work with government entities, community and business 30078
leaders, community organizations, health and human services 30079
providers, and national, state, and local lupus organizations, 30080
such as the lupus foundation of America, inc., to coordinate 30081
efforts to maximize state resources in the areas of lupus 30082
education and awareness;30083

       (7) Identify and use other successful lupus education and 30084
awareness programs and procure related materials and services from 30085
organizations with appropriate expertise and knowledge of lupus.30086

       (C) The department may accept gifts, grants, and donations 30087
from the federal government, foundations, organizations, medical 30088
schools, and other entities for fulfilling the obligations of the 30089
program.30090

       (D) The department may seek any federal waiver that may be 30091
necessary to maximize funds from the federal government to 30092
implement the program.30093

       Sec. 3701.771. (A)(1) The department of health may conduct a 30094
needs assessment to identify all of the following:30095

       (a) The level of statewide health professional and public 30096
awareness about lupus;30097

       (b) The existence of lupus education, awareness, and 30098
treatment programs and related technical assistance available in 30099
the state and nationwide;30100

       (c) The lupus-related educational and support service needs 30101
of health care providers in the state, including physicians, 30102
nurses, health plans, and other health professionals and health 30103
care entities;30104

       (d) The needs of people with lupus, their families, and 30105
caregivers, including health care providers, physicians, nurses, 30106
health plans, and other health professionals and health care 30107
entities;30108

       (e) The services available to individuals with lupus, 30109
including the existence and availability of lupus treatment and 30110
specialty care, lupus support groups, and other related care and 30111
management services.30112

       (2) Based on the needs assessment, the department may develop 30113
and maintain a directory of lupus-related services and health care 30114
providers with specialization in services to diagnose and treat 30115
lupus. The department may disseminate the directory to all 30116
stakeholders, including individuals with lupus, families, 30117
representatives from voluntary organizations, health 30118
professionals, health plans, and state and local health agencies.30119

       (B) The department may undertake activities to raise public 30120
awareness about the symptoms of lupus, personal risk factors, and 30121
options for diagnosing and treating the disease with a particular 30122
focus on populations at elevated risk for lupus. Such activities 30123
may include, but are not limited to, the following:30124

       (1) Implementing a statewide campaign to educate the general 30125
public about lupus by utilizing print, radio, and television 30126
public service announcements, advertisements, posters, and other 30127
materials;30128

       (2) Disseminating health information and conducting 30129
individual risk assessments at public events, such as health fairs 30130
and community forums sponsored by the department;30131

       (3) Distributing information through local health 30132
departments; schools; area agencies on aging; employer wellness 30133
programs; physicians and other health professionals; hospitals and 30134
health plans; health, nonprofit, and community-based 30135
organizations; and regional offices of the department.30136

       Sec. 3701.772. (A) The department of health may establish a 30137
program to award grants to educate and train physicians, health 30138
professionals, and other service providers on the most current, 30139
accurate scientific and medical information on lupus diagnosis, 30140
treatment, and therapeutic decision-making, including medical best 30141
practices for detecting and treating the disease in special 30142
populations, risks and benefits of medications, and research 30143
advances. If a program to award grants is established, the 30144
department shall allocate the total amount available for the 30145
grants in amounts that are proportionate to the populations of the 30146
areas served by the Ohio chapters of the lupus foundation of 30147
America, inc.30148

        To be eligible for a grant, an applicant must be affiliated 30149
with the foundation.30150

       (B) Each grant recipient shall do all of the following:30151

       (1) Develop health professional educational materials that 30152
identify the latest scientific and medical information and 30153
clinical applications;30154

       (2) Work to increase knowledge among physicians, nurses, and 30155
other health and human services professionals about the importance 30156
of lupus diagnosis, treatment, and rehabilitation;30157

       (3) Use available curricula for training of health and human 30158
services providers and community leaders on lupus detection and 30159
treatment;30160

       (4) Support continuing medical education programs in all 30161
geographical areas of the state presented by the leading state 30162
academic institutions by providing the most current information;30163

       (5) Provide workshops and seminars for in-depth professional 30164
development in the field of care and management of lupus patients 30165
to bring the latest information on clinical advances to health 30166
care providers;30167

       (6) Conduct statewide conferences on lupus at appropriate 30168
intervals;30169

       (7) Prepare an annual report that describes the recipient's 30170
use of the grant and submit a copy of the report to the 30171
department.30172

       Sec. 3701.773. (A) If the department of health establishes 30173
the intergovernmental council as permitted by division (B)(3) of 30174
section 3701.77 of the Revised Code, the department shall seek to 30175
ensure coordination of lupus education and awareness efforts. The 30176
director of health shall serve as the council's chairperson. The 30177
council shall include representatives from appropriate state 30178
departments and agencies, including entities with responsibility 30179
for health disparities, medicaid, public health programs, 30180
education, and public welfare.30181

       (B) The council shall do all of the following:30182

       (1) Provide oversight to the lupus education and awareness 30183
program, as well as other lupus programs conducted by the 30184
department;30185

       (2) Develop and issue grant applications and policies and 30186
procedures for programs aimed at health professionals and the 30187
public;30188

       (3) Establish a mechanism for sharing information on lupus 30189
among all officials and employees involved in carrying out 30190
lupus-related programs;30191

       (4) Assist the department and other offices in developing and 30192
coordinating plans for education and health promotion on lupus and 30193
ensure that issues related to lupus are integrated into other 30194
statewide plans;30195

       (5) Prepare an annual report that describes educational 30196
initiatives on lupus sponsored by the state and make 30197
recommendations for new educational initiatives on lupus. The 30198
report shall be transmitted to the general assembly and be made 30199
available to the public.30200

       Sec. 3701.774. (A) If the department of health establishes 30201
the advisory panel as permitted by division (B)(3) of section 30202
3701.77 of the Revised Code, the department shall coordinate the 30203
panel to provide input and counsel regarding the lupus education 30204
and awareness program.30205

       (B) If the panel is established, all of the following apply:30206

       (1) Individuals and organizations may submit to the 30207
department nominations for appointments to the panel. Each panel 30208
member shall have familiarity with lupus and issues that surround 30209
lupus.30210

       (2) The panel shall be comprised of the following members to 30211
be appointed by the director of health:30212

       (a) At least three individuals with lupus;30213

       (b) Not more than two representatives from the department;30214

       (c) At least five individuals from lupus nonprofit health 30215
organizations, with preference given to individuals from the lupus 30216
foundation of America, inc.;30217

       (d) At least five scientists or clinicians with experience in 30218
lupus who participate in various fields of scientific endeavor, 30219
including the fields of biomedical research, social, 30220
translational, behavioral and epidemiological research, and public 30221
health.30222

       (3) The department shall select from among the panel members 30223
one member to serve as chairperson of the panel.30224

       Members of the panel shall serve terms of two years each. 30225
Members may be named to serve a total of two terms and terms may 30226
be consecutive.30227

       A majority of the members of the panel constitutes a quorum. 30228
A majority vote of a quorum is required for any official action of 30229
the panel.30230

       The panel shall meet at the call of the panel chairperson, 30231
but not fewer than four times per year.30232

       All members shall serve without compensation, but may be 30233
reimbursed for actual, necessary expenses incurred in the 30234
performance of their duties.30235

       (4) The panel shall be responsible for advising the 30236
department and the intergovernmental council with respect to the 30237
implementation of the lupus education and awareness program. The 30238
department shall consult with the advisory panel on a regular 30239
basis.30240

       Sec. 3701.775. There is hereby created in the state treasury 30241
the lupus education and awareness program fund. If the department 30242
of health establishes the lupus education and awareness program, 30243
as authorized under section 3701.77 of the Revised Code, all 30244
moneys accepted under division (C) of that section shall be 30245
credited to the fund. Money in the fund shall be used solely to 30246
administer the lupus education and awareness program.30247

       Sec. 3701.87.  The governor may authorize the department of 30248
health to enter into an agreement on behalf of the state with the 30249
United States secretary of health, education, and welfarehuman 30250
services whereby the department may serve as the agency for review 30251
of proposed capital expenditures by health care facilities 30252
pursuant to section 1122 of the "Social Security Act" as amended 30253
by Public Law 92-603, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-1, and the regulations 30254
adopted thereunder. Such agreement shall be subject to and include 30255
the following terms and conditions:30256

       (A) All applications, notices, requests for information, and 30257
other official communications shall be on written forms prescribed 30258
by and approved by the director of health and approved by the 30259
public health council.30260

       (B) The councildirector, subject to Chapter 119. of the 30261
Revised Code, shall propose, modify, amend, and adopt rules, 30262
standards, guidelines, and official policies which are consistent 30263
with federal law, as it deems necessary to implement the capital 30264
expenditures review program.30265

       (C) The director shall make all findings and recommendations 30266
required by federal law and shall give due consideration to the 30267
findings, reviews, and comments of areawide health planning 30268
agencies performing reviews pursuant to section 314 (b)(2) of the 30269
"Public Health Service Act," 42 U.S.C. 246, or the appropriate 30270
health systems agency.30271

       (D) The findings and recommendations of the director shall be 30272
in writing and shall clearly specify the provisions of the state 30273
health facilities plan with which any application is found to be 30274
inconsistent. Any applicant adversely affected by the findings and 30275
recommendations of the director may request a hearing before the 30276
councildirector pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The 30277
findings and recommendations of the councildirector are an 30278
adjudication as defined in Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and 30279
may be appealed as provided in that chapter.30280

       Sec. 3701.881.  (A) As used in this section:30281

       (1) "Applicant" means both of the following:30282

       (a) Aa person who is under final consideration for 30283
appointment to or employment with a home health agency in a 30284
position as a person responsible for the care, custody, or control 30285
of a child;30286

       (b) A person who is under final consideration for employment 30287
with a home health agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 30288
position that involves providing direct care to an older adult30289
individual or is referred to a home health agency by an employment 30290
service for such a position. With regard to persons providing 30291
direct care to older adults, "applicant" does not include a person 30292
who provides direct care as a volunteer without receiving or 30293
expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than 30294
reimbursement for actual expenses.30295

       (2) "Criminal records check" and "older adult" havehas the 30296
same meaningsmeaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.30297

       (3) "Direct care" means any of the following:30298

       (a) Any service identified in divisions (A)(6)(a) to (f) of 30299
this section that is provided in a patient's place of residence 30300
used as the patient's home;30301

       (b) Any activity that requires the person performing the 30302
activity to be routinely alone with a patient or to routinely have 30303
access to a patient's personal property or financial documents 30304
regarding a patient;30305

       (c) For each home health agency individually, any other 30306
routine service or activity that the chief administrator of the 30307
home health agency designates as direct care.30308

       (4) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:30309

       (a) One or more violations of section 959.13, 2903.01, 30310
2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 30311
2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 30312
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 30313
2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 30314
2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 30315
2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 30316
2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 30317
2913.02, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 30318
2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 30319
2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 30320
2917.03, 2917.12, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.22, 30321
2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 30322
2921.24, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 30323
2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 30324
2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 30325
2925.09, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 30326
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;30327

       (b) One or more violations of felonious sexual penetration 30328
under former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;30329

       (c) One or more violations of section 2905.04 of the Revised 30330
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;30331

       (d) One violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code when 30332
the violation is not a minor drug possession offense;30333

       (e) Two or more violations of section 2925.11 of the Revised 30334
Code, regardless of whether any of the violations are a minor drug 30335
possession offense;30336

       (f) One or more violations of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 30337
2923.03 of the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is 30338
the object of the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the 30339
offenses listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of this section;30340

       (g) One or more violations of an existing or former municipal 30341
ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United 30342
States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses 30343
listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (f) of this section.30344

       (5) "Employee" means a person employed by a home health 30345
agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that 30346
involves providing direct care to an individual and a person who 30347
works in such a position due to being referred to a home health 30348
agency by an employment service.30349

       (6) "Home health agency" means a person or government entity, 30350
other than a nursing home, residential care facility, or hospice 30351
care program, that has the primary function of providing any of 30352
the following services to a patient at a place of residence used 30353
as the patient's home:30354

       (a) Skilled nursing care;30355

       (b) Physical therapy;30356

       (c) Speech-language pathology;30357

       (d) Occupational therapy;30358

       (e) Medical social services;30359

       (f) Home health aide services.30360

       (4)(7) "Home health aide services" means any of the following 30361
services provided by an individual employed with or contracted for 30362
byemployee of a home health agency:30363

       (a) Hands-on bathing or assistance with a tub bath or shower;30364

       (b) Assistance with dressing, ambulation, and toileting;30365

       (c) Catheter care but not insertion;30366

       (d) Meal preparation and feeding.30367

       (5)(8) "Hospice care program" has the same meaning as in 30368
section 3712.01 of the Revised Code.30369

       (6)(9) "Medical social services" means services provided by a 30370
social worker under the direction of a patient's attending 30371
physician.30372

       (7)(10) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning 30373
as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.30374

       (8)(11) "Nursing home," "residential care facility," and 30375
"skilled nursing care" have the same meanings as in section 30376
3721.01 of the Revised Code.30377

       (9)(12) "Occupational therapy" has the same meaning as in 30378
section 4755.04 of the Revised Code.30379

       (10)(13) "Physical therapy" has the same meaning as in 30380
section 4755.40 of the Revised Code.30381

       (11)(14) "Social worker" means a person licensed under 30382
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code to practice as a social worker 30383
or independent social worker.30384

       (12)(15) "Speech-language pathology" has the same meaning as 30385
in section 4753.01 of the Revised Code.30386

       (B) No home health agency shall employ an applicant or 30387
continue to employ an employee in a position that involves 30388
providing direct care to an individual if any of the following 30389
apply:30390

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 30391
section reveals any of the following:30392

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 30393
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 30394
section;30395

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 30396
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 30397
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 30398
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 30399
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 30400
such a resident;30401

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 30402
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 30403
section and the rules prohibit the home health agency from 30404
employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee 30405
included in such a database in a position that involves providing 30406
direct care to an individual.30407

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 30408
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 30409
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 30410
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 30411
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 30412
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 30413
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.30414

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 30415
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 30416
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 30417
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 30418
for a disqualifying offense.30419

       (C) Except as provided by division (F) of this section, the 30420
chief administrator of a home health agency shall inform each 30421
applicant of both of the following at the time of the applicant's 30422
initial application for employment or referral to the home health 30423
agency by an employment service for a position that involves 30424
providing direct care to an individual:30425

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 30426
this section will be conducted to determine whether the home 30427
health agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section 30428
from employing the applicant in the position;30429

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 30430
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 30431
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 30432
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 30433
impressions as part of the criminal records check.30434

       (D) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 30435
that involves providing direct care to an individual, the chief 30436
administrator of a home health agency shall conduct a database 30437
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under 30438
this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 30439
chief administrator of a home health agency shall conduct a 30440
database review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a 30441
condition of continuing to employ the employee in a position that 30442
involves providing direct care to an individual. However, the 30443
chief administrator is not required to conduct a database review 30444
of an applicant or employee if division (F) of this section 30445
applies. A database review shall determine whether the applicant 30446
or employee is included in any of the following:30447

       (1) The excluded parties list system maintained by the United 30448
States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of 30449
the federal acquisition regulation;30450

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 30451
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 30452
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 30453
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as 30454
amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 30455
388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;30456

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 30457
5123.52 of the Revised Code;30458

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 30459
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 30460
the Revised Code;30461

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 30462
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;30463

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 30464
3721.32 of the Revised Code;30465

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 30466
under this section.30467

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this sectionAs 30468
a condition of employing any applicant in a position that involves 30469
providing direct care to an individual, the chief administrator of 30470
a home health agency shall request the superintendent of the 30471
bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a 30472
criminal records check with respect to eachof the applicant. If 30473
the position may involve both responsibility for the care, 30474
custody, or control of a child and provision of direct care to an 30475
older adult, the chief administrator shall request that the 30476
superintendent conduct a single criminal records check for the 30477
applicant.If rules adopted under this section so require, the 30478
chief administrator of a home health agency shall request the 30479
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check of an employee 30480
at times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to 30481
employ the employee in a position that involves providing direct 30482
care to an individual. However, the chief administrator is not 30483
required to request the criminal records check of the applicant or 30484
the employee if division (F) of this section applies or the home 30485
health agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section 30486
from employing the applicant or continuing to employ the employee 30487
in a position that involves providing direct care to an 30488
individual. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 30489
records check request is required underby this divisionsection30490
does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for 30491
the five-year period immediately prior to the date upon which the 30492
criminal records check is requested or does not provide evidence 30493
that within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 30494
information about the applicant from the federal bureau of 30495
investigation in a criminal records check, the chief administrator 30496
shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the 30497
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 30498
check for the applicant. Even if an applicant or employee for whom 30499
a criminal records check request is required underby this30500
divisionsection presents proof that the applicant or employee has 30501
been a resident of this state for that five-year period, the chief 30502
administrator may request that the superintendent include 30503
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 30504
criminal records check.30505

       (2) Any person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 30506
request a criminal records checkThe chief administrator shall 30507
providedo all of the following:30508

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 30509
criminal records check request is required under that divisionby 30510
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 30511
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 30512
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that30513
section 109.572 of the Revised Code, obtain;30514

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 30515
from each applicant, and forwardemployee;30516

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 30517
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 30518
investigation at the time the chief administrator requests athe30519
criminal records check pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 30520
section.30521

       (3) An applicant who receives pursuant to division (B)(2) of 30522
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 30523
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of an 30524
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 30525
section and who is requested to complete the form and provide a 30526
set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form or provide 30527
all the information necessary to complete the form and shall 30528
provide the impression sheets with the impressions of the 30529
applicant's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails to 30530
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 30531
provide fingerprint impressions, the home health agency shall not 30532
employ that applicant for any position for which a criminal 30533
records check is required by division (B)(1) of this section.30534

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the department 30535
of health in accordance with division (F) of this section and 30536
subject to division (C)(3) of this section, no home health agency 30537
shall employ a person as a person responsible for the care, 30538
custody, or control of a child if the person previously has been 30539
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:30540

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 30541
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 30542
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 30543
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 30544
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 30545
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 30546
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 30547
2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 30548
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a 30549
violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have 30550
been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 30551
existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed 30552
prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised 30553
Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, or felonious 30554
sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the 30555
Revised Code;30556

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 30557
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 30558
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 30559
this section.30560

       (2) Except as provided in rules adopted by the department of 30561
health in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 30562
to division (C)(3) of this section, no home health agency shall 30563
employ a person in a position that involves providing direct care 30564
to an older adult if the person previously has been convicted of 30565
or pleaded guilty to any of the following:30566

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 30567
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 30568
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 30569
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 30570
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 30571
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 30572
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 30573
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 30574
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.30575

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 30576
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 30577
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(2)(a) of 30578
this section.30579

       (3)(a)A home health agency shall pay to the bureau of 30580
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 30581
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 30582
for each criminal records check the agency requests under this 30583
section. A home health agency may charge an applicant a fee not 30584
exceeding the amount the agency pays to the bureau under this 30585
section if both of the following apply:30586

       (a) The home health agency notifies the applicant at the time 30587
of initial application for employment of the amount of the fee and 30588
that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be considered 30589
for employment.30590

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 30591
the Revised Code does not reimburse the home health agency for the 30592
fee it pays to the bureau under this section.30593

       (F) Divisions (C) to (E) of this section do not apply with 30594
regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is 30595
referred to a home health agency by an employment service that 30596
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 30597
that involve providing direct care to an individual and both of 30598
the following apply:30599

       (1) The chief administrator of the home health agency 30600
receives from the employment service confirmation that a review of 30601
the databases listed in division (D) of this section was conducted 30602
with regard to the applicant or employee.30603

       (2) The chief administrator of the home health agency 30604
receives from the employment service, applicant, or employee a 30605
report of the results of a criminal records check of the applicant 30606
or employee that has been conducted by the superintendent within 30607
the one-year period immediately preceding the following:30608

       (a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's 30609
referral by the employment service to the home health agency;30610

       (b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the home 30611
health agency would otherwise have to request a criminal records 30612
check of the employee under division (E) of this section.30613

       (G)(1) A home health agency may employ conditionally an 30614
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required30615
under division (B) ofby this section as a person responsible for 30616
the care, custody, or control of a child until the criminal 30617
records check regarding the applicant required by this section is 30618
completed and the agency receivesbefore obtaining the results of 30619
the criminal records check if the agency is not prohibited by 30620
division (B) of this section from employing the applicant in a 30621
position that involves providing direct care to an individual and 30622
either of the following applies:30623

       (a) The chief administrator of the home health agency 30624
requests the criminal records check in accordance with division 30625
(E) of this section not later than five business days after the 30626
applicant begins conditional employment.30627

       (b) The applicant is referred to the home health agency by an 30628
employment service, the employment service or the applicant 30629
provides the chief administrator of the agency a letter that is on 30630
the letterhead of the employment service, the letter is dated and 30631
signed by a supervisor or another designated official of the 30632
employment service, and the letter states all of the following:30633

       (i) That the employment service has requested the 30634
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the 30635
applicant;30636

       (ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include 30637
a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, 30638
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 30639
of conviction for a disqualifying offense;30640

       (iii) That the employment service has not received the 30641
results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on 30642
the letter;30643

       (iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of 30644
the results of the criminal records check to the chief 30645
administrator of the home health agency when the employment 30646
service receives the results.30647

       (2) If a home health agency employs an applicant 30648
conditionally pursuant to division (G)(1)(b) of this section, the 30649
employment service, on its receipt of the results of the criminal 30650
records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the 30651
chief administrator of the agency. If the results of the criminal 30652
records check indicate that, pursuant to division (C)(1) of this 30653
section, the applicant does not qualify for employment, the agency 30654
shall release the applicant from employment unless the agency 30655
chooses to employ the applicant pursuant to division (F) of this 30656
section.30657

       (b)(i) A home health agency may employ conditionally an 30658
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required 30659
under division (B) of this section in a position that involves 30660
providing direct care to an older adult or in a position that 30661
involves both responsibility for the care, custody, and control of 30662
a child and the provision of direct care to older adults prior to 30663
obtaining the results of a criminal records check regarding the 30664
individual, provided that the agency shall request a criminal 30665
records check regarding the individual in accordance with division 30666
(B)(1) of this section not later than five business days after the 30667
individual begins conditional employment. In the circumstances 30668
described in division (I)(2) of this section, a home health agency 30669
may employ conditionally in a position that involves providing 30670
direct care to an older adult an applicant who has been referred 30671
to the home health agency by an employment service that supplies 30672
full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving 30673
the direct care of older adults and for whom, pursuant to that 30674
division, a criminal records check is not required under division 30675
(B) of this section. In the circumstances described in division 30676
(I)(4) of this section, a home health agency may employ 30677
conditionally in a position that involves both responsibility for 30678
the care, custody, and control of a child and the provision of 30679
direct care to older adults an applicant who has been referred to 30680
the home health agency by an employment service that supplies 30681
full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving 30682
both responsibility for the care, custody, and control of a child 30683
and the provision of direct care to older adults and for whom, 30684
pursuant to that division, a criminal records check is not 30685
required under division (B) of this section.30686

       (ii)(3) A home health agency that employs an individual30687
applicant conditionally under authority ofpursuant to division30688
(C)(3)(b)(i)(G)(1)(a) or (b) of this section shall terminate the30689
individual'sapplicant's employment if the results of the criminal 30690
records check requested under division (B)(1) of this section or 30691
described in division (I)(2) or (4) of this section, other than 30692
the results of any request for information from the federal bureau 30693
of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending thirty 30694
days after the date the request for the criminal records check is 30695
made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check 30696
are obtained, if the individual was employed conditionally in a 30697
position that involves the provision of direct care to older 30698
adults and the results indicate that the individualapplicant has 30699
been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed 30700
or described in division (C)(2) of this section, or if the 30701
individual was employed conditionally in a position that involves 30702
both responsibility for the care, custody, and control of a child 30703
and the provision of direct care to older adults and the results 30704
indicate that the individual has been convicted of or pleaded 30705
guilty to any of the offenses listed or described in division 30706
(C)(1) or (2) of this section, or been found eligible for 30707
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 30708
the home health agency shall terminate the individual's30709
applicant's employment unless circumstances specified in rules 30710
adopted under this section that permit the agency to employ the 30711
applicant exist and the agency chooses to employ the individual 30712
pursuant to division (F) of this sectionapplicant. Termination of 30713
employment under this division shall be considered just cause for 30714
discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of 30715
the Revised Code if the individualapplicant makes any attempt to 30716
deceive the home health agency about the individual'sapplicant's30717
criminal record.30718

       (D)(1) Each home health agency shall pay to the bureau of 30719
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 30720
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 30721
for each criminal records check conducted in accordance with that 30722
section upon the request pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 30723
section of the chief administrator of the home health agency.30724

       (2) A home health agency may charge an applicant a fee for 30725
the costs it incurs in obtaining a criminal records check under 30726
this section, unless the medical assistance program established 30727
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code reimburses the agency for 30728
the costs. A fee charged under division (D)(2) of this section 30729
shall not exceed the amount of fees the agency pays under division 30730
(D)(1) of this section. If a fee is charged under division (D)(2) 30731
of this section, the agency shall notify the applicant at the time 30732
of the applicant's initial application for employment of the 30733
amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is paid, the agency 30734
will not consider the applicant for employment.30735

       (E)(H) The report of any criminal records check conducted by 30736
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in 30737
accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant 30738
to a request made under division (B)(1) of this section is not a 30739
public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised 30740
Code and shall not be made available to any person other than the 30741
following:30742

       (1) The individualapplicant or employee who is the subject 30743
of the criminal records check or the individual'sapplicant's or 30744
employee's representative;30745

       (2) The home health agency requesting the criminal records 30746
check or its representative;30747

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 30748
program that provides direct care to older adultsindividuals that 30749
is owned or operated by the same entity that owns or operates the 30750
home health agency that requested the criminal records check;30751

       (4) The employment service that requested the criminal 30752
records check;30753

       (5) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 30754
involved in a case dealing with aany of the following:30755

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or dealing with 30756
employmentemployee;30757

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 30758
employee;30759

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 30760
and in accordance with, division (I)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this 30761
section(c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 30762
program.30763

       (F) The department of health shall adopt rules in accordance 30764
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 30765
The rules shall specify circumstances under which the home health 30766
agency may employ a person who has been convicted of or pleaded 30767
guilty to an offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of 30768
this section but who meets standards in regard to rehabilitation 30769
set by the department or employ a person who has been convicted of 30770
or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division 30771
(C)(2) of this section but meets personal character standards set 30772
by the department.30773

       (G) Any person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 30774
request a criminal records check shall inform each person, at the 30775
time of initial application for employment that the person is 30776
required to provide a set of fingerprint impressions and that a 30777
criminal records check is required to be conducted and 30778
satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 109.572 of the 30779
Revised Code if the person comes under final consideration for 30780
appointment or employment as a precondition to employment for that 30781
position.30782

       (H)(I) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 30783
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 30784
property caused by an individualapplicant or employee who a home 30785
health agency employs in a position that involves providing direct 30786
care to older adultsan individual, all of the following shall 30787
apply:30788

       (1) If the home health agency employed the individual30789
applicant or employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the 30790
report of a criminal records check requested under this section, 30791
the agency shall not be found negligent solely because of its 30792
reliance on the report, even if the information in the report is 30793
determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate;.30794

       (2) If the home health agency employed the individual30795
applicant in good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to 30796
division (C)(3)(b)(G) of this section, the agency shall not be 30797
found negligent solely because it employed the individual30798
applicant prior to receiving the report of a criminal records 30799
check requested under this section;.30800

       (3) If the home health agency in good faith employed the 30801
individualapplicant or employee according to the personal 30802
character standards established in rules adopted under division 30803
(F) of this section, the agency shall not be found negligent 30804
solely because the individual prior to being employedapplicant or 30805
employee had been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to an, or been 30806
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 30807
disqualifying offense listed or described in division (C)(1) or 30808
(2) of this section.30809

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a home health agency is not 30810
required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 30811
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 30812
records check of an applicant for a position that involves the 30813
provision of direct care to older adults if the applicant has been 30814
referred to the agency by an employment service that supplies 30815
full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving 30816
the direct care of older adults and both of the following apply:30817

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 30818
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 30819
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 30820
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 30821
preceding the applicant's referral;30822

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 30823
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 30824
offense listed or described in division (C)(2) of this section, or 30825
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 30826
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the home 30827
health agency chooses to employ the individual pursuant to 30828
division (F) of this section.30829

       (2) The chief administrator of a home health agency is not 30830
required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 30831
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 30832
records check of an applicant for a position that involves 30833
providing direct care to older adults and may employ the applicant 30834
conditionally in a position of that nature as described in this 30835
division, if the applicant has been referred to the agency by an 30836
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 30837
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 30838
adults and if the chief administrator receives from the employment 30839
service or the applicant a letter from the employment service that 30840
is on the letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed 30841
by a supervisor or another designated official of the employment 30842
service and that states that the employment service has requested 30843
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 30844
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 30845
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 30846
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 30847
in division (C)(2) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 30848
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 30849
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 30850
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 30851
promptly will send a copy of the results to the home health 30852
agency. If a home health agency employs an applicant conditionally 30853
in accordance with this division, the employment service, upon its 30854
receipt of the results of the criminal records check, promptly 30855
shall send a copy of the results to the home health agency, and 30856
division (C)(3)(b) of this section applies regarding the 30857
conditional employment.30858

       (3) The chief administrator of a home health agency is not 30859
required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 30860
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 30861
records check of an applicant for a position that involves both 30862
responsibility for the care, custody, and control of a child and 30863
the provision of direct care to older adults if the applicant has 30864
been referred to the agency by an employment service that supplies 30865
full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving 30866
both responsibility for the care, custody, and control of a child 30867
and the provision of direct care to older adults and both of the 30868
following apply:30869

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 30870
service or applicant a report of a criminal records check of the 30871
type described in division (I)(1)(a) of this section;30872

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 30873
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 30874
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) or (2) of this 30875
section, or the report demonstrates that the person has been 30876
convicted of or pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, 30877
but the home health agency chooses to employ the individual 30878
pursuant to division (F) of this section.30879

       (4) The chief administrator of a home health agency is not 30880
required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 30881
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 30882
records check of an applicant for a position that involves both 30883
responsibility for the care, custody, and control of a child and 30884
the provision of direct care to older adults and may employ the 30885
applicant conditionally in a position of that nature as described 30886
in this division, if the applicant has been referred to the agency 30887
by an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 30888
temporary staff for positions involving both responsibility for 30889
the care, custody, and control of a child and the direct care of 30890
older adults and if the chief administrator receives from the 30891
employment service or the applicant a letter from the employment 30892
service that is on the letterhead of the employment service, 30893
dated, and signed by a supervisor or another designated official 30894
of the employment service and that states that the employment 30895
service has requested the superintendent to conduct a criminal 30896
records check regarding the applicant, that the requested criminal 30897
records check will include a determination of whether the 30898
applicant has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense 30899
listed or described in division (C)(1) or (2) of this section, 30900
that, as of the date set forth on the letter, the employment 30901
service had not received the results of the criminal records 30902
check, and that, when the employment service receives the results 30903
of the criminal records check, it promptly will send a copy of the 30904
results to the home health agency. If a home health agency employs 30905
an applicant conditionally in accordance with this division, the 30906
employment service, upon its receipt of the results of the 30907
criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results 30908
to the home health agency, and division (C)(3)(b) of this section 30909
applies regarding the conditional employment.30910

       (J) The director of health shall adopt rules in accordance 30911
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 30912

       (1) The rules may do the following:30913

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 30914
criminal records checks under this section;30915

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 30916
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 30917
or more classes of employees from the requirements;30918

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 30919
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 30920
database review conducted under this section.30921

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:30922

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 30923
section;30924

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 30925
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 30926
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 30927
be conducted;30928

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 30929
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a home 30930
health agency is prohibited from employing an applicant or 30931
continuing to employ an employee who is found by a database review 30932
to be included in one or more of those databases;30933

       (d) Circumstances under which a home health agency may employ 30934
an applicant or employee who is found by a criminal records check 30935
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 30936
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 30937
for a disqualifying offense but meets personal character 30938
standards.30939

       Sec. 185.01.        Sec. 3701.92.  As used in this chaptersections 30940
3701.921 to 3701.929 of the Revised Code:30941

       (A) "Advanced practice nurse" has the same meaning as in 30942
section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.30943

       (B) "Collaboration" has the same meaning as in section 30944
4723.01 of the Revised Code.30945

       (C) "Patient centered medical home education advisory group" 30946
means the entity established under section 185.033701.924 of the 30947
Revised Code to implement and administer the patient centered 30948
medical home education pilot project.30949

       (D) "Patient centered medical home education program" means 30950
the program established under section 3701.921 of the Revised Code 30951
and any pilot projects operated pursuant to that section.30952

       (E) "Patient centered medical home education pilot project" 30953
means the pilot project established under section 185.023701.92330954
of the Revised Code.30955

       (F) "Physician assistant" has the same meaning as in section 30956
4730.01 of the Revised Code.30957

       Sec. 3701.921.  There is hereby established the patient 30958
centered medical home education program in the department of 30959
health. For the purpose of advancing education in the patient 30960
centered medical home model of care, the director of health may 30961
implement and administer the program pursuant to sections 3701.922 30962
to 3701.929 of the Revised Code. The patient centered medical home 30963
model of care is an enhanced model of primary care in which care 30964
teams attend to the multifaceted needs of patients, providing 30965
whole person comprehensive and coordinate patient centered care.30966

       To the extent that funds are available, the program shall 30967
include the patient centered medical home education pilot project 30968
and may include any other pilot projects the director establishes 30969
pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 3701.922 of the Revised 30970
Code.30971

       Sec. 3701.922.  (A) The director of health may do any of the 30972
following to implement and administer the patient centered medical 30973
home education program:30974

       (1) Develop and implement programs of education or training 30975
on the patient centered medical home model of care or other 30976
similar enhanced models of coordinated patient centered care that 30977
are intended to address the multifaceted needs of patients and 30978
provide whole person comprehensive and coordinated patient 30979
centered care;30980

       (2) Advise, consult, cooperate with, and assist, by contract 30981
or other arrangement, government agencies or institutions or 30982
private organizations, corporations, or associations in the 30983
development and promotion of programs pertaining to the evaluation 30984
and implementation of the patient centered medical home model of 30985
care or other similar enhanced models of coordinated patient 30986
centered care;30987

       (3) Establish pilot projects that do any of the following:30988

       (a) Evaluate or implement the patient centered medical home 30989
model of care or other similar enhanced models of coordinated 30990
patient centered care;30991

       (b) Provide education or training on the patient centered 30992
medical home model of care or other similar enhanced models of 30993
coordinated patient centered care.30994

       (4) Seek and administer state funds or grants from other 30995
sources to carry out any functions of the patient centered medical 30996
home education program.30997

        Any funds or grants received by the director for purposes of 30998
the program shall be used for the program.30999

       (B) The director may adopt rules as necessary to implement 31000
and administer the patient centered medical home education 31001
program, including rules that define what constitutes a "patient 31002
centered medical home" for purposes of an entity authorized to 31003
provide care coordination services. The rules shall be adopted in 31004
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.31005

       Sec. 185.02.        Sec. 3701.923. (A) There is hereby established the 31006
patient centered medical home education pilot project. The pilot 31007
project shall be implemented and administered by the patient 31008
centered medical home education advisory group.31009

       (B) The pilot project shall be operated to advance medical 31010
education in the patient centered medical home model of care. The 31011
patient centered medical home model of care is an enhanced model 31012
of primary care in which care teams attend to the multifaceted 31013
needs of patients, providing whole person comprehensive and 31014
coordinated patient centered care.31015

       (C)To the extent that funds are available, the director of 31016
health shall establish the patient centered medical home education 31017
pilot project. If the director establishes the project, all of the 31018
following apply:31019

       (1) The director shall select practices led by physicians and 31020
primary care practices led by advanced practice nurses to 31021
participate in the project. The director may consider the 31022
recommendations of the advisory group made in accordance with 31023
section 3701.925 of the Revised Code, but may not select a 31024
practice unless the practice complies with any applicable 31025
requirements under section 3701.926 of the Revised Code.31026

       (2) The director shall conduct the project in a manner that 31027
advances education in the patient centered medical home model of 31028
care.31029

       (3) The director shall evaluate all of the following:31030

       (a) Learning opportunities generated by the project;31031

        (b) Training of physicians and advanced practice nurses under 31032
the project;31033

       (c) Costs of the project;31034

       (d) The extent to which the project met the expected outcomes 31035
developed under division (A) of section 3701.924 of the Revised 31036
Code.31037

       (4) The director shall assess and review results of the 31038
project.31039

       (5) The director shall recommend best practices and 31040
opportunities for improving technology, education, comprehensive 31041
training, consultation, and technical assistance for health care 31042
service providers in the patient centered medical home model of 31043
care.31044

       (B) The director may contract with an entity that has 31045
significant experience in assisting physician-led practices and 31046
advanced practice nurse-led primary care practices in 31047
transitioning to the patient centered medical home model of care. 31048
The contract shall require the entity to do both of the following:31049

       (1) Provide, to each practice that enters into a contract 31050
with the director pursuant to section 3701.927 of the Revised 31051
Code, comprehensive training, consultation, and technical 31052
assistance in the operation of a patient centered medical home, 31053
including assistance with leadership training, scheduling changes, 31054
staff support, and care management for chronic health conditions;31055

       (2) Assist the director in identifying necessary financial 31056
and operational requirements and any barriers or challenges 31057
associated with transitioning to a patient centered medical home 31058
model of care.31059

       (C) The project established under this section shall begin 31060
not later than the date the first practice enters into a contract 31061
with the director pursuant to section 3701.927 of the Revised Code 31062
and shall cease not later than the date the final report is 31063
submitted pursuant to division (B)(3) of section 3701.929 of the 31064
Revised Code.31065

       (D) The pilot project shall not be operated in a manner that 31066
requires a patient, unless otherwise required by the Revised Code, 31067
to receive a referral from a physician in a practice selected for 31068
inclusion in the pilot project under division (A)(1) of this31069
section 185.05 of the Revised Code as a condition of being 31070
authorized to receive specialized health care services from an 31071
individual licensed or certified under Title XLVII of the Revised 31072
Code to provide those services.31073

       Sec. 185.03.        Sec. 3701.924. (A) The patient centered medical home 31074
education advisory group is hereby created for the purpose of 31075
implementing and administeringadvising the director of health on 31076
the implementation and administration of the patient centered 31077
medical home pilot projecteducation program. The advisory group 31078
shall develop and provide to the director a set of expected 31079
outcomes for the pilot project. The advisory group shall consider 31080
and provide other recommendations to the director and complete 31081
other duties as the director considers appropriate. 31082

       (B) The advisory group shall consist of the following voting31083
members:31084

       (1) The following members appointed by the director of 31085
health:31086

       (1)(a) One individual with expertise in the training and 31087
education of primary care physicians who is appointedrecommended31088
by the dean of the university of Toledo college of medicine;31089

       (2)(b) One individual with expertise in the training and 31090
education of primary care physicians who is appointedrecommended31091
by the dean of the Boonshoft school of medicine at Wright state 31092
university;31093

       (3)(c) One individual with expertise in the training and 31094
education of primary care physicians who is appointedrecommended31095
by the president and dean of the northeast Ohio medical 31096
university;31097

       (4)(d) One individual with expertise in the training and 31098
education of primary care physicians who is appointedrecommended31099
by the dean of the Ohio university college of osteopathic 31100
medicine;31101

       (5)(e) Two individuals appointedrecommended by the governing 31102
board of the Ohio academy of family physicians;31103

       (6)(f) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 31104
board of the Ohio chapter of the American college of physicians;31105

       (7)(g) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 31106
board of the Ohio chapter of the American academy of pediatrics;31107

       (8)(h) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 31108
board of the Ohio osteopathic association;31109

       (9)(i) One individual with expertise in the training and 31110
education of advanced practice nurses who is appointed, 31111
recommended by the governing board of the Ohio council of deans 31112
and directors of baccalaureate and higher degree programs in 31113
nursing;31114

       (10)(j) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 31115
board of the Ohio nurses association;31116

       (11)(k) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 31117
board of the Ohio association of advanced practice nurses;31118

       (12)(l) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 31119
board of the Ohio council for home care and hospice;31120

       (13)(m) One individual appointedrecommended by the 31121
superintendent of insurance;31122

       (n) An employee of the department of health;31123

       (o) Not more than five additional members who have relevant 31124
expertise that the director considers appropriate.31125

       (C)(2) The advisory group shall consist of the following 31126
nonvoting, ex officio members:31127

       (1)(a) The executive director of the state medical board, or 31128
the director's designee;31129

       (2)(b) The executive director of the board of nursing or the 31130
director's designee;31131

       (3)(c) The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents, or the 31132
chancellor's designee;31133

       (4)(d) The individual within the department of job and family 31134
services who serves as themedical assistance director of 31135
medicaid, or the director's designee;31136

       (5) The director of health or the director's designee.31137

       (D) Advisory group members who are appointed shall serve at 31138
the pleasure of their appointing authorities. Terms of office of 31139
appointed members shall be three years, except that a member's 31140
term ends if the pilot project ceases operation during the 31141
member's term.31142

       (C)(1) In making the original appointments of the members 31143
specified in divisions (B)(1)(a) to (m) of this section, the 31144
director shall appoint the member who served in that capacity in 31145
the patient centered medical home advisory group, as it existed 31146
immediately prior to the effective date of this section. If for 31147
any reason the member who served immediately prior to the 31148
effective date of this section is unable to serve on the advisory 31149
group, the director shall request from the specified recommending 31150
authority a list of not less than two persons qualified to serve 31151
as members of the advisory group. The director shall appoint as a 31152
member one person from the list submitted by the recommending 31153
authority.31154

        (2) The advisory group members specified in divisions 31155
(B)(1)(a) to (m) of this section shall serve at the pleasure of 31156
the director, in consultation with their respective recommending 31157
authorities. 31158

       (3) Vacancies shall be filled in the manner provided for 31159
original appointments.31160

       (D) Members shall serve without compensation, except to the 31161
extent that serving on the advisory group is considered part of 31162
their regular employment duties.31163

       (E) The advisory group shall selectdirector may appoint from 31164
among itsthe members of the advisory group a chairperson and 31165
vice-chairperson. The advisory group may select any other officers 31166
it considers necessary to conduct its business.31167

       A majority of the members of the advisory group constitutes a 31168
quorum for the transaction of official business. A majority of a 31169
quorum is necessary for the advisory group to take any action, 31170
except that when one or more members of a quorum are required to 31171
abstain from voting as provided in division (C)(1)(d) or (C)(2)(c) 31172
of section 185.05 of the Revised Code, the number of members 31173
necessary for a majority of a quorum shall be reduced accordingly31174
make any recommendations to the director.31175

       The advisory group shall meet as necessary to fulfill its 31176
duties. The times and places for the meetings shall be selected by 31177
the chairpersonat the call of the director. The director shall 31178
call the advisory group to meet not less than annually to discuss 31179
or consider recommendations to the director on the administration 31180
of the patient centered medical home education program.31181

       (F) Sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code do not 31182
apply to the advisory group.31183

       Sec. 185.05.        Sec. 3701.925. (A) The patient centered medical home 31184
education advisory group shall accept applications for inclusion 31185
in the patient centered medical home education pilot project from 31186
primary care practices with educational affiliations, as 31187
determined by the advisory group, with one or more of the 31188
following:31189

       (1) The Boonshoft school of medicine at Wright state 31190
university;31191

       (2) The university of Toledo college of medicine;31192

       (3) The northeast Ohio medical university;31193

       (4) The Ohio university college of osteopathic medicine;31194

       (5) The college of nursing at the university of Toledo;31195

        (6) The Wright state university college of nursing and 31196
health;31197

       (7) The college of nursing at Kent state university;31198

        (8) The university of Akron college of nursing;31199

       (9) The school of nursing at Ohio university.31200

       (B)(1) Subject to division (C)(1) of this section, the 31201
advisory group shall selectrecommend to the director of health31202
for inclusion in the pilot project not moreless than the 31203
following number of physician practices led by physicians:31204

       (a) Ten practices affiliated with the Boonshoft school of 31205
medicine at Wright state university;31206

       (b) Ten practices affiliated with the university of Toledo 31207
college of medicine;31208

       (c) Ten practices affiliated with the northeast Ohio medical 31209
university;31210

       (d) Ten practices affiliated with the centers for osteopathic 31211
research and education of the Ohio university college of 31212
osteopathic medicine.31213

       (2) Subject to division (C)(2) of this section, the advisory 31214
group shall selectrecommend to the director of health for 31215
inclusion in the pilot project not less than the following number 31216
of advanced practice nurse primary care practices led by advanced 31217
practice nurses:31218

        (a) One practice affiliated with the college of nursing at 31219
the university of Toledo;31220

        (b) One practice affiliated with the Wright state university 31221
college of nursing and health;31222

        (c) One practice affiliated with the college of nursing at 31223
Kent state university or the university of Akron college of 31224
nursing;31225

        (d) One practice affiliated with the school of nursing at 31226
Ohio university. 31227

       (C)(1) All of the following apply with respect to the 31228
selectionrecommendation of physicianphysician-led practices 31229
under division (B) of this section:31230

       (a) The advisory group shall strive to select physician31231
recommend physician-led practices in such a manner that the pilot 31232
project includes a diverse range of primary care specialties, 31233
including practices specializing in pediatrics, geriatrics, 31234
general internal medicine, or family medicine.31235

       (b) When evaluating an application, the advisory group shall 31236
consider the percentage of patients in the physicianphysician-led31237
practice who are part of a medically underserved population, 31238
including medicaid recipients and individuals without health 31239
insurance.31240

       (c) The advisory group shall selectrecommend not fewer than 31241
six practices that serve rural areas of this state, as those areas 31242
are determined by the advisory group.31243

       (d) A member of the advisory group shall abstain from 31244
participating in any vote taken regarding the selection31245
recommendation of a physicianphysician-led practice if the 31246
member would receive any financial benefit from having the 31247
practice included in the pilot project.31248

       (2) All of the following apply with respect to the selection31249
recommendation of advanced practice nursenurse-led primary care 31250
practices under division (B) of this section:31251

       (a) When evaluating an application, the advisory group shall 31252
consider the percentage of patients in the advanced practice nurse31253
nurse-led primary care practice who are part of a medically 31254
underserved population, including medicaid recipients and 31255
individuals without health insurance.31256

       (b) If the advisory group determines that it has not received 31257
an application from a sufficiently qualified advanced practice 31258
nursenurse-led primary care practice affiliated with a particular 31259
institution specified in division (B)(2) of this section, the 31260
advisory group shall make the selectionsrecommendations required 31261
under that division in such a manner that the greatest possible 31262
number of those institutions are representedrecommended to be 31263
included in the pilot project. To be selectedrecommended in this 31264
manner, a practice remains subject to the eligibility requirements 31265
specified in division (B) of section 185.063701.926 of the 31266
Revised Code. As specified in division (B)(2) of this section, the 31267
number of practices selectedrecommended for inclusion in the 31268
pilot project shall be at least four.31269

       (c) A member of the advisory group shall abstain from 31270
participating in any vote taken regarding the selection31271
recommendation of an advanced practice nursenurse-led primary 31272
care practice if the member would receive any financial benefit 31273
from having the practice included in the pilot project. 31274

       (D) The advisory group shall provide a copy of all 31275
applications received under this section to the director of health 31276
after making recommendations under division (B)(1) of this 31277
section.31278

       Sec. 185.06.        Sec. 3701.926. (A) To be eligible for inclusion in the 31279
patient centered medical home education pilot project, a physician31280
physician-led practice shall meet all of the following 31281
requirements: 31282

       (1) Consist of physicians who are board-certified in family 31283
medicine, general pediatrics, or internal medicine, as those 31284
designations are issued by a medical specialty certifying board 31285
recognized by the American board of medical specialties or 31286
American osteopathic association; 31287

       (2) Be capable of adapting the practice during the period in 31288
which the practice receives funding fromparticipates in the 31289
patient centered medical home education advisory grouppilot 31290
project in such a manner that the practice is fully compliant with 31291
the minimum standards for operation of a patient centered medical 31292
home, as those standards are established by the advisory group31293
director of health; 31294

        (3) Have submitted an application to participate in the 31295
project established under former section 185.05 of the Revised 31296
Code not later than April 15, 2011.31297

       (4) Meet any other criteria established by the advisory group31298
director as part of the selection process.31299

       (B) To be eligible for inclusion in the pilot project, an 31300
advanced practice nursenurse-led primary care practice shall meet 31301
all of the following requirements:31302

        (1) Consist of advanced practice nurses who meet, each of 31303
whom meets all of the following requirements:31304

        (a) HoldHolds a certificate to prescribe issued under 31305
section 4723.48 of the Revised Code;31306

       (b) AreIs board-certified as a family nurse practitioner or 31307
adult nurse practitioner by the American academy of nurse 31308
practitioners or American nurses credentialing center, 31309
board-certified as a geriatric nurse practitioner or women's 31310
health nurse practitioner by the American nurses credentialing 31311
center, or is board-certified as a pediatric nurse practitioner by 31312
the American nurses credentialing center or pediatric nursing 31313
certification board;31314

        (c) Has a collaboration agreementCollaborates under a 31315
standard care arrangement with a physician with board 31316
certification as specified in division (A)(1) of this section and 31317
who is an active participant on the health care team. 31318

       (2) Be capable of adapting the primary care practice during 31319
the period in which the practice receives funding from31320
participates in the advisory groupproject in such a manner that 31321
the practice is fully compliant with the minimum standards for 31322
operation of a patient centered medical home, as those standards 31323
are established by the advisory groupdirector;31324

        (3) Have submitted an application to participate in the 31325
project established under former section 185.05 of the Revised 31326
Code not later than April 15, 2011.31327

       (4) Meet any other criteria established by the advisory group31328
director as part of the selection process. 31329

       Sec. 185.07.        Sec. 3701.927. The patient centered medical home 31330
education advisory groupdirector of health shall enter into a 31331
contract with each primary care practice selected by the director31332
for inclusion in the patient centered medical home education pilot 31333
project. The contract shall specify the terms and conditions for 31334
inclusion in the pilot project, including a requirement that the 31335
practice provide comprehensive, coordinated primary care services 31336
to patients and serve as the patients' medical home. The contract 31337
shall also require the practice to participate in the training of 31338
medical students, advanced practice nursing students, orphysician 31339
assistant students, and primary care medical residents.31340

       The director may include as part of the contract any other 31341
requirements necessary for a practice to be included in the 31342
project, including requirements regarding the number of patients 31343
served who are medicaid recipients and individuals without health 31344
insurance.31345

       Sec. 185.09.        Sec. 3701.928. (A) The director of health or, at the 31346
director's request, the patient centered medical home education 31347
advisory group shall jointlymay work with all medical and,31348
nursing, and physician assistant schools or programs in this state 31349
to develop appropriate curricula designed to prepare primary care 31350
physicians and, advanced practice nurses, and physician assistants31351
to practice within the patient centered medical home model of 31352
care. In developing the curricula, the director or advisory group, 31353
medical schools, and nursingand the schools or programs shall 31354
include all of the following:31355

       (1) Components for use at the medical student, advanced 31356
practice nursing student, physician assistant student, and primary 31357
care resident training levels;31358

       (2) Components that reflect, as appropriate, the special 31359
needs of patients who are part of a medically underserved 31360
population, including medicaid recipients, individuals without 31361
health insurance, individuals with disabilities, individuals with 31362
chronic health conditions, and individuals within racial or ethnic 31363
minority groups;31364

       (3) Components that include training in interdisciplinary 31365
cooperation between physicians and, advanced practice nurses, and 31366
physician assistants in the patient centered medical home model of 31367
care, including curricula ensuring that a common conception of a 31368
patient centered medical home model of care is provided to medical 31369
students, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, and 31370
primary care residents.31371

       (B) The director or advisory group shallmay work in 31372
association with the medical and, nursing, and physician assistant31373
schools or programs to identify funding sources to ensure that the 31374
curricula developed under division (A) of this section are 31375
accessible to medical students, advanced practice nursing 31376
students, physician assistant students, and primary care 31377
residents. The director or advisory group shall consider 31378
scholarship options or incentives provided to students in addition 31379
to those provided under the choose Ohio first scholarship program 31380
operated under section 3333.61 of the Revised Code.31381

       Sec. 185.12.        Sec. 3701.929. (A) The patient centered medical home 31382
education advisory groupIf the director of health establishes the 31383
patient centered medical home education pilot project, the 31384
director shall prepare reports of its findings and recommendations 31385
from the patient centered medical home education pilot project. 31386
Each report shall include an evaluation of the learning 31387
opportunities generated by the pilot project, the physicians and 31388
advanced practice nurses trained in the pilot project, the costs 31389
of the pilot project, and the extent to which the pilot project 31390
has met the set of expected outcomes developed under division (A) 31391
of section 185.033701.924 of the Revised Code.31392

       (B) The reports shall be completed in accordance with the 31393
following schedule:31394

       (1) An interim report not later than six months after the 31395
date on which the first funding is releasedlast primary care 31396
practice selected to participate in the project enters into a 31397
contract with the department of health pursuant to section 185.1131398
3701.927 of the Revised Code;31399

       (2) An update of the interim report not later than one year 31400
after the date on which the first funding is releasedspecified 31401
under division (B)(1) of this section;31402

       (3) A final report not later than two years after the date on 31403
which the first funding is releasedspecified under division 31404
(B)(1) of this section.31405

       (C) The advisory groupdirector shall submit each of the 31406
reports to the governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of 31407
the Revised Code, to the general assembly.31408

       Sec. 3701.93. Subject to available funds, the director of 31409
health shall establish the Ohio violent death reporting system to 31410
collect and maintain information, data, and records regarding 31411
violent deaths in Ohio.31412

       Sec. 3701.931. The Ohio violent death reporting system shall 31413
do all of the following regarding violent death information, data, 31414
and records maintained in the system:31415

        (A) Monitor the incidence and causes of the various types of 31416
violent deaths;31417

        (B) Make appropriate epidemiologic studies of the violent 31418
deaths;31419

        (C) Analyze trends and patterns in, and circumstances related 31420
to, the violent deaths;31421

        (D) With the assistance of the advisory group established 31422
pursuant to section 3701.932 of the Revised Code, recommend 31423
actions to relevant entities to prevent violent deaths and make 31424
any other such recommendations the director of health determines 31425
necessary.31426

       Sec. 3701.932. The director of health shall establish an 31427
advisory group of interested parties and stakeholders to recommend 31428
actions to relevant entities to prevent violent deaths, and make 31429
other recommendations the director determines necessary, in 31430
accordance with division (D) of section 3701.931 of the Revised 31431
Code.31432

       Sec. 3701.933. The data collection model used by the Ohio 31433
violent death reporting system shall follow the data collection 31434
model used by the United States centers for disease control and 31435
prevention national violent death reporting system and any other 31436
data collection model set forth by the director of health pursuant 31437
to section 3701.934 of the Revised Code.31438

       Sec. 3701.934. The director of health, pursuant to rules 31439
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall 31440
do all of the following:31441

        (A) Specify the types of violent deaths that shall be 31442
included in the Ohio violent death reporting system;31443

        (B) Specify the information, data, and records to be 31444
collected for use by the Ohio violent death reporting system;31445

        (C) Specify the sources from which the information, data, and 31446
records are to be collected for use by the Ohio violent death 31447
reporting system;31448

        (D) If determined appropriate by the director, set forth any 31449
other data collection model to be used by the Ohio violent death 31450
reporting system. 31451

       Sec. 3701.935.  The director of health shall collect 31452
information about violent deaths in Ohio only from existing 31453
sources related to violent crimes and shall not conduct 31454
independent criminal investigations in order to obtain 31455
information, data, or records for use by the Ohio violent death 31456
reporting system.31457

       Sec. 3701.936. At the request of the director of health, 31458
every department, agency, and political subdivision of the state 31459
shall provide information, data, records, and otherwise assist in 31460
the execution of sections 3701.93 to 3701.9314 of the Revised 31461
Code.31462

       Sec. 3701.937. At the request of the director of health, any 31463
individual or entity not specified in section 3701.936 of the 31464
Revised Code, at the individual's or entity's discretion, may 31465
provide information, data, records, and otherwise assist in the 31466
execution of sections 3701.93 to 3701.9314 of the Revised Code. 31467
Any information, data, and records provided to the director by any 31468
other individual or entity shall contain only information, data, 31469
or records that are available or reasonably drawn from any 31470
information, data, and record developed and kept in the normal 31471
course of business.31472

       Sec. 3701.938. Notwithstanding any section of the Revised 31473
Code pertaining to confidentiality, any individual, public social 31474
service agency, or public agency that provides services to 31475
individuals or families, law enforcement agency, coroner, or 31476
public entity that provided services to an individual whose death 31477
is the type of death specified by the director of health under 31478
section 3701.934 of the Revised Code shall provide information, 31479
data, records, and otherwise assist in the execution of sections 31480
3701.93 to 3701.9314 of the Revised Code.31481

       Sec. 3701.9310. Except as otherwise provided in section 31482
3701.9212 of the Revised Code, all of the following are not public 31483
records under section 149.43 of the Revised Code, shall be 31484
confidential, and shall be published only in statistical form:31485

        (A) Information, data, and records collected for use and 31486
maintained by the Ohio violent death reporting system including, 31487
but not limited to, medical records, law enforcement investigative 31488
records, coroner investigative records, laboratory reports, and 31489
other records concerning a decedent;31490

        (B) Work products created in carrying out the purposes of the 31491
Ohio violent death reporting system.31492

       Sec. 3701.9311. Information, data, and records collected for 31493
use and maintained by, and all work products created in carrying 31494
out the purposes of, the Ohio violent death reporting system shall 31495
not be subject to subpoena or discovery while in the possession of 31496
the system or admissible in any criminal or civil proceeding if 31497
obtained through, or from, the system.31498

       Sec. 3701.9312. The director of health, pursuant to rules 31499
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall 31500
establish standards and procedures to make available to 31501
researchers confidential information collected by the Ohio violent 31502
death reporting system. Researchers complying with those standards 31503
and procedures also shall comply with the confidentiality 31504
requirements of section 3701.9310 of the Revised Code.31505

       Sec. 3701.9314. The director of health may adopt rules in 31506
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code necessary to 31507
establish, maintain, and carry out the purposes of the Ohio 31508
violent death reporting system under sections 3701.93 to 3701.9314 31509
of the Revised Code.31510

       Sec. 3702.141.  (A) As used in this section:31511

       (1) "Existing health care facility" means a health care 31512
facility that is licensed or otherwise approved to practice in 31513
this state, in accordance with applicable law, is staffed and 31514
equipped to provide health care services, and actively provides 31515
health services or has not been actively providing health services 31516
for less than twelve consecutive months.31517

       (2) "Freestanding birthing center" means any facility in 31518
which deliveries routinely occur, regardless of whether the 31519
facility is located on the campus of another health care facility, 31520
and which is not licensed under Chapter 3711. of the Revised Code 31521
as a level one, two, or three maternity unit or a limited 31522
maternity unit.31523

       (3) "Health care facility" and "health service" have the same 31524
meanings as in section 3702.51 of the Revised Codemeans:31525

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 31526
Revised Code;31527

       (b) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 31528
Revised Code, or by a political subdivision certified under 31529
section 3721.09 of the Revised Code;31530

       (c) A county home or a county nursing home as defined in 31531
section 5155.31 of the Revised Code that is certified under Title 31532
XVIII or XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 31533
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;31534

       (d) A freestanding dialysis center;31535

       (e) A freestanding inpatient rehabilitation facility;31536

       (f) An ambulatory surgical facility;31537

       (g) A freestanding cardiac catheterization facility;31538

       (h) A freestanding birthing center;31539

       (i) A freestanding or mobile diagnostic imaging center;31540

       (j) A freestanding radiation therapy center.31541

       A health care facility does not include the offices of 31542
private physicians and dentists whether for individual or group 31543
practice, residential facilities licensed under section 5123.19 of 31544
the Revised Code, or an institution for the sick that is operated 31545
exclusively for patients who use spiritual means for healing and 31546
for whom the acceptance of medical care is inconsistent with their 31547
religious beliefs, accredited by a national accrediting 31548
organization, exempt from federal income taxation under section 31549
501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 31550
U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and providing twenty-four hour nursing 31551
care pursuant to the exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 31552
of the Revised Code from the licensing requirements of Chapter 31553
4723. of the Revised Code.31554

       (4) "Health service" means a clinically related service, such 31555
as a diagnostic, treatment, rehabilitative, or preventive service.31556

       (B) Section 3702.14 of the Revised Code shall not be 31557
construed to require any existing health care facility that is 31558
conducting an activity specified in section 3702.11 of the Revised 31559
Code, which activity was initiated on or before March 20, 1997, to 31560
alter, upgrade, or otherwise improve the structure or fixtures of 31561
the facility in order to comply with any rule adopted under 31562
section 3702.11 of the Revised Code relating to that activity, 31563
unless one of the following applies:31564

       (1) The facility initiates a construction, renovation, or 31565
reconstruction project that involves a capital expenditure of at 31566
least fifty thousand dollars, not including expenditures for 31567
equipment or staffing or operational costs, and that directly 31568
involves the area in which the existing service is conducted.31569

       (2) The facility initiates another activity specified in 31570
section 3702.11 of the Revised Code.31571

       (3) The facility initiates a service level designation change 31572
for obstetric and newborn care.31573

       (4) The facility proposes to add a cardiac catheterization 31574
laboratory to an existing cardiac catheterization service.31575

       (5)(4) The facility proposes to add an open-heart operating 31576
room to an existing open-heart surgery service.31577

       (6)(5) The director of health determines, by clear and 31578
convincing evidence, that failure to comply with the rule would 31579
create an imminent risk to the health and welfare of any patient.31580

       (C) If division (B)(4)(3) or (5)(4) of this section applies, 31581
any alteration, upgrade, or other improvement required shall apply 31582
only to the proposed addition to the existing service if the cost 31583
of the addition is less than the capital expenditure threshold set 31584
forth in division (B)(1) of this section. 31585

       (D) No person or government entity shall divide or otherwise 31586
segment a construction, renovation, or reconstruction project in 31587
order to evade application of the capital expenditure threshold 31588
set forth in division (B)(1) of this section.31589

       Sec. 3702.31.  (A) The quality monitoring and inspection fund 31590
is hereby created in the state treasury. The director of health 31591
shall use the fund to administer and enforce this section and 31592
sections 3702.11 to 3702.20, 3702.30, 3702.301, and 3702.32, and 31593
3702.33 of the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to those 31594
sections. The director shall deposit in the fund any moneys 31595
collected pursuant to this section or section 3702.32 of the 31596
Revised Code. All investment earnings of the fund shall be 31597
credited to the fund.31598

       (B) The director of health shall adopt rules pursuant to 31599
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing fees for both of the 31600
following:31601

       (1) Initial and renewal license applications submitted under 31602
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code. The fees established under 31603
division (B)(1) of this section shall not exceed the actual and 31604
necessary costs of performing the activities described in division 31605
(A) of this section.31606

       (2) Inspections conducted under section 3702.15 or 3702.30 of 31607
the Revised Code. The fees established under division (B)(2) of 31608
this section shall not exceed the actual and necessary costs 31609
incurred during an inspection, including any indirect costs 31610
incurred by the department for staff, salary, or other 31611
administrative costs. The director of health shall provide to each 31612
health care facility or provider inspected pursuant to section 31613
3702.15 or 3702.30 of the Revised Code a written statement of the 31614
fee. The statement shall itemize and total the costs incurred. 31615
Within fifteen days after receiving a statement from the director, 31616
the facility or provider shall forward the total amount of the fee 31617
to the director.31618

       (3) The fees described in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this 31619
section shall meet both of the following requirements:31620

       (a) For each service described in section 3702.11 of the 31621
Revised Code, the fee shall not exceed one thousand seven hundred 31622
fifty dollars annually, except that the total fees charged to a 31623
health care provider under this section shall not exceed five 31624
thousand dollars annually.31625

       (b) The fee shall exclude any costs reimbursable by the 31626
United States centers for medicare and medicaid services as part 31627
of the certification process for the medicare program established 31628
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 31629
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as amended, and the medicaid program 31630
established under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 31631
286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396.31632

       (4) The director shall not establish a fee for any service 31633
for which a licensure or inspection fee is paid by the health care 31634
provider to a state agency for the same or similar licensure or 31635
inspection.31636

       Sec. 3702.51.  As used in sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the 31637
Revised Code:31638

       (A) "Applicant" means any person that submits an application 31639
for a certificate of need and who is designated in the application 31640
as the applicant.31641

       (B) "Person" means any individual, corporation, business 31642
trust, estate, firm, partnership, association, joint stock 31643
company, insurance company, government unit, or other entity.31644

       (C) "Certificate of need" means a written approval granted by 31645
the director of health to an applicant to authorize conducting a 31646
reviewable activity.31647

       (D) "Health serviceService area" means a geographic region 31648
designated by the director of health under section 3702.58 of the 31649
Revised Codethe current and projected primary and secondary 31650
service areas to which the long-term care facility is, or will be, 31651
providing long-term care services.31652

       (E) "HealthPrimary service area" means a clinically related 31653
service, such as a diagnostic, treatment, rehabilitative, or 31654
preventive servicethe geographic region, usually comprised of the 31655
Ohio zip code in which the long-term care facility is located and 31656
contiguous zip codes, from which approximately seventy-five to 31657
eighty per cent of the facility's residents currently originate or 31658
are expected to originate.31659

       (F) "HealthSecondary service agencyarea" means an agency 31660
designated to serve a health service area in accordance with 31661
section 3702.58 of the Revised Codethe geographic region, usually 31662
comprised of Ohio zip codes not included in the primary service 31663
area, excluding isolated exceptions, from which the facility's 31664
remaining residents currently originate or are expected to 31665
originate.31666

       (G) "Health care facility" means:31667

       (1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 31668
Revised Code;31669

       (2) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 31670
Revised Code, or by a political subdivision certified under 31671
section 3721.09 of the Revised Code;31672

       (3) A county home or a county nursing home as defined in 31673
section 5155.31 of the Revised Code that is certified under Title 31674
XVIII or XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 31675
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;31676

       (4) A freestanding dialysis center;31677

       (5) A freestanding inpatient rehabilitation facility;31678

       (6) An ambulatory surgical facility;31679

       (7) A freestanding cardiac catheterization facility;31680

       (8) A freestanding birthing center;31681

       (9) A freestanding or mobile diagnostic imaging center;31682

       (10) A freestanding radiation therapy center.31683

       A health care facility does not include the offices of 31684
private physicians and dentists whether for individual or group 31685
practice, residential facilities licensed under section 5123.19 of 31686
the Revised Code, or an institution for the sick that is operated 31687
exclusively for patients who use spiritual means for healing and 31688
for whom the acceptance of medical care is inconsistent with their 31689
religious beliefs, accredited by a national accrediting 31690
organization, exempt from federal income taxation under section 31691
501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 31692
U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and providing twenty-four hour nursing 31693
care pursuant to the exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 31694
of the Revised Code from the licensing requirements of Chapter 31695
4723. of the Revised Code.31696

       (H) "Medical equipment" means a single unit of medical 31697
equipment or a single system of components with related functions 31698
that is used to provide health services.31699

       (I) "Third-party payer" means a health insuring corporation 31700
licensed under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, a health 31701
maintenance organization as defined in division (K)(I) of this 31702
section, an insurance company that issues sickness and accident 31703
insurance in conformity with Chapter 3923. of the Revised Code, a 31704
state-financed health insurance program under Chapter 3701., 31705
4123., or 5111. of the Revised Code, or any self-insurance plan.31706

       (J)(H) "Government unit" means the state and any county, 31707
municipal corporation, township, or other political subdivision of 31708
the state, or any department, division, board, or other agency of 31709
the state or a political subdivision.31710

       (K)(I) "Health maintenance organization" means a public or 31711
private organization organized under the law of any state that is 31712
qualified under section 1310(d) of Title XIII of the "Public 31713
Health Service Act," 87 Stat. 931 (1973), 42 U.S.C. 300e-9.31714

       (L)(J) "Existing healthlong-term care facility" means either 31715
of the following:31716

       (1) A healthlong-term care facility that is licensed or 31717
otherwise authorized to operate in this state in accordance with 31718
applicable law, including a county home or a county nursing home 31719
that is certified as of February 1, 2008, under Title XVIII or 31720
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 31721
U.S.C. 301, as amended, is staffed and equipped to provide health31722
long-term care services, and is actively providing health31723
long-term care services;31724

       (2) A healthlong-term care facility that is licensed or 31725
otherwise authorized to operate in this state in accordance with 31726
applicable law, including a county home or a county nursing home 31727
that is certified as of February 1, 2008, under Title XVIII or 31728
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 31729
U.S.C. 301, as amended, or that has beds registered under section 31730
3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled nursing beds or long-term 31731
care beds and has provided long-term care services for at least 31732
three hundred sixty-five consecutive days within the twenty-four 31733
months immediately preceding the date a certificate of need 31734
application is filed with the director of health.31735

       (M)(K) "State" means the state of Ohio, including, but not 31736
limited to, the general assembly, the supreme court, the offices 31737
of all elected state officers, and all departments, boards, 31738
offices, commissions, agencies, institutions, and other 31739
instrumentalities of the state of Ohio. "State" does not include 31740
political subdivisions.31741

       (N)(L) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 31742
township, county, school district, and all other bodies corporate 31743
and politic responsible for governmental activities only in 31744
geographic areas smaller than that of the state to which the 31745
sovereign immunity of the state attaches.31746

       (O)(M) "Affected person" means:31747

       (1) An applicant for a certificate of need, including an 31748
applicant whose application was reviewed comparatively with the 31749
application in question;31750

       (2) The person that requested the reviewability ruling in 31751
question;31752

       (3) Any person that resides or regularly uses health31753
long-term care facilities within the geographicservice area 31754
served or to be served by the healthlong-term care services that 31755
would be provided under the certificate of need or reviewability 31756
ruling in question;31757

       (4) Any healthlong-term care facility that is located in the 31758
health service area where the healthlong-term care services would 31759
be provided under the certificate of need or reviewability ruling 31760
in question;31761

       (5) Third-party payers that reimburse healthlong-term care 31762
facilities for services in the health service area where the 31763
healthlong-term care services would be provided under the 31764
certificate of need or reviewability ruling in question;.31765

       (6) Any other person who testified at a public hearing held 31766
under division (B) of section 3702.52 of the Revised Code or 31767
submitted written comments in the course of review of the 31768
certificate of need application in question.31769

       (P) "Osteopathic hospital" means a hospital registered under 31770
section 3701.07 of the Revised Code that advocates osteopathic 31771
principles and the practice and perpetuation of osteopathic 31772
medicine by doing any of the following:31773

       (1) Maintaining a department or service of osteopathic 31774
medicine or a committee on the utilization of osteopathic 31775
principles and methods, under the supervision of an osteopathic 31776
physician;31777

       (2) Maintaining an active medical staff, the majority of 31778
which is comprised of osteopathic physicians;31779

       (3) Maintaining a medical staff executive committee that has 31780
osteopathic physicians as a majority of its members.31781

       (Q) "Ambulatory surgical facility" has the same meaning as in 31782
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code.31783

       (R) Except as provided in division (S) of this section, 31784
"reviewable activity" means any of the following activities:31785

       (1) The establishment, development, or construction of a new 31786
long-term care facility;31787

       (2) The replacement of an existing long-term care facility;31788

       (3) The renovation of a long-term care facility that involves 31789
a capital expenditure of two million dollars or more, not 31790
including expenditures for equipment, staffing, or operational 31791
costs;31792

       (4) Either of the following changes in long-term care bed 31793
capacity:31794

       (a) An increase in bed capacity;31795

       (b) A relocation of beds from one physical facility or site 31796
to another, excluding the relocation of beds within a long-term 31797
care facility or among buildings of a long-term care facility at 31798
the same site.31799

       (5) Any change in the health services, bed capacity, or site, 31800
or any other failure to conduct the reviewable activity in 31801
substantial accordance with the approved application for which a 31802
certificate of need concerning long-term care beds was granted, if 31803
the change is made within five years after the implementation of 31804
the reviewable activity for which the certificate was granted;31805

       (6) The expenditure of more than one hundred ten per cent of 31806
the maximum expenditure specified in a certificate of need 31807
concerning long-term care beds.31808

       (S) "Reviewable activity" does not include any of the 31809
following activities:31810

       (1) Acquisition of computer hardware or software;31811

       (2) Acquisition of a telephone system;31812

       (3) Construction or acquisition of parking facilities;31813

       (4) Correction of cited deficiencies that are in violation of 31814
federal, state, or local fire, building, or safety laws and rules 31815
and that constitute an imminent threat to public health or safety;31816

       (5) Acquisition of an existing health care facility that does 31817
not involve a change in the number of the beds, by service, or in 31818
the number or type of health services;31819

       (6) Correction of cited deficiencies identified by 31820
accreditation surveys of the joint commission on accreditation of 31821
healthcare organizations or of the American osteopathic 31822
association;31823

       (7) Acquisition of medical equipment to replace the same or 31824
similar equipment for which a certificate of need has been issued 31825
if the replaced equipment is removed from service;31826

       (8) Mergers, consolidations, or other corporate 31827
reorganizations of health care facilities that do not involve a 31828
change in the number of beds, by service, or in the number or type 31829
of health services;31830

       (9) Construction, repair, or renovation of bathroom 31831
facilities;31832

       (10) Construction of laundry facilities, waste disposal 31833
facilities, dietary department projects, heating and air 31834
conditioning projects, administrative offices, and portions of 31835
medical office buildings used exclusively for physician services;31836

       (11) Acquisition of medical equipment to conduct research 31837
required by the United States food and drug administration or 31838
clinical trials sponsored by the national institute of health. Use 31839
of medical equipment that was acquired without a certificate of 31840
need under division (S)(11) of this section and for which 31841
premarket approval has been granted by the United States food and 31842
drug administration to provide services for which patients or 31843
reimbursement entities will be charged shall be a reviewable 31844
activity.31845

       (12) Removal of asbestos from a health care facility.31846

       Only that portion of a project that meets the requirements of 31847
this division is not a reviewable activity.31848

       (T) "Small rural hospital" means a hospital that is located 31849
within a rural area, has fewer than one hundred beds, and to which 31850
fewer than four thousand persons were admitted during the most 31851
recent calendar year.31852

       (U) "Children's hospital" means any of the following:31853

       (1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 31854
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 31855
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 31856
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 31857
individuals less than eighteen years of age;31858

       (2) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 31859
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 31860
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 31861
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 31862
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 31863
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 31864
individuals less than eighteen years of age;31865

       (3) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 31866
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 31867
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 31868
requirements of division (U)(1) of this section.31869

       (V)(N) "Long-term care facility" means any of the following:31870

       (1) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 31871
Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 31872
3721.09 of the Revised Code;31873

       (2) The portion of any facility, including a county home or 31874
county nursing home, that is certified as a skilled nursing 31875
facility or a nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the 31876
"Social Security Act";31877

       (3) The portion of any hospital that contains beds registered 31878
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled nursing beds 31879
or long-term care beds.31880

       (W)(O) "Long-term care bed" or "bed" means a bed in a 31881
long-term care facilitythat is categorized as one of the 31882
following:31883

        (1) A bed that is located in a facility that is a nursing 31884
home licensed under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code or a 31885
facility licensed by a political subdivision certified under 31886
section 3721.09 of the Revised Code and is included in the 31887
authorized maximum licensed capacity of the facility;31888

       (2) A bed that is located in the portion of any facility, 31889
including a county home or county nursing home, that is certified 31890
as a skilled nursing facility under the medicare program or a 31891
nursing facility under the medicaid program and is included in the 31892
authorized maximum certified capacity of that portion of the 31893
facility;31894

       (3) A bed that is registered under section 3701.07 of the 31895
Revised Code as a skilled nursing bed, a long-term care bed, or a 31896
special skilled nursing bed;31897

       (4) A bed in a county home or county nursing home that has 31898
been certified under section 5155.38 of the Revised Code as having 31899
been in operation on July 1, 1993, and is eligible for licensure 31900
as a nursing home bed;31901

       (5) A bed held as an approved bed under a certificate of need 31902
approved by the director.31903

       A bed cannot simultaneously be both a bed described in 31904
division (O)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section and a bed 31905
described in division (O)(5) of this section.31906

       (X) "Freestanding birthing center" means any facility in 31907
which deliveries routinely occur, regardless of whether the 31908
facility is located on the campus of another health care facility, 31909
and which is not licensed under Chapter 3711. of the Revised Code 31910
as a level one, two, or three maternity unit or a limited 31911
maternity unit.31912

       (Y)(1)(P) "Reviewability ruling" means a ruling issued by the 31913
director of health under division (A) of section 3702.52 of the 31914
Revised Code as to whether a particular proposed project is or is 31915
not a reviewable activity.31916

       (2) "Nonreviewability ruling" means a ruling issued under 31917
that division that a particular proposed project is not a 31918
reviewable activity.31919

       (Z)(1) "Metropolitan statistical area" means an area of this 31920
state designated a metropolitan statistical area or primary 31921
metropolitan statistical area in United States office of 31922
management and budget bulletin no. 93-17, June 30, 1993, and its 31923
attachments.31924

       (2) "Rural area" means any area of this state not located 31925
within a metropolitan statistical area.31926

       (AA)(Q) "County nursing home" has the same meaning as in 31927
section 5155.31 of the Revised Code.31928

       (BB)(R) "Principal participant" means both of the following:31929

       (1) A person who has an ownership or controlling interest of 31930
at least five per cent in an applicant, in a healthlong-term care 31931
facility that is the subject of an application for a certificate 31932
of need, or in the owner or operator of the applicant or such a 31933
facility;31934

       (2) An officer, director, trustee, or general partner of an 31935
applicant, of a healthlong-term care facility that is the subject 31936
of an application for a certificate of need, or of the owner or 31937
operator of the applicant or such a facility.31938

       (CC)(S) "Actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiency" 31939
means a deficiency that, under 42 C.F.R. 488.404, either 31940
constitutes a pattern of deficiencies resulting in actual harm 31941
that is not immediate jeopardy or represents widespread 31942
deficiencies resulting in actual harm that is not immediate 31943
jeopardy.31944

       (DD)(T) "Immediate jeopardy deficiency" means a deficiency 31945
that, under 42 C.F.R. 488.404, either constitutes a pattern of 31946
deficiencies resulting in immediate jeopardy to resident health or 31947
safety or represents widespread deficiencies resulting in 31948
immediate jeopardy to resident health or safety.31949

       (U) "Existing bed" or "existing long-term care bed" means a 31950
bed from an existing long-term care facility, a bed described in 31951
division (O)(5) of this section, or a bed correctly reported as a 31952
long-term care bed pursuant to section 5155.38 of the Revised 31953
Code.31954

       Sec. 3702.511. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 31955
section, the following activities are reviewable under sections 31956
3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code:31957

       (1) Establishment, development, or construction of a new 31958
long-term care facility;31959

       (2) Replacement of an existing long-term care facility;31960

       (3) Renovation of or addition to a long-term care facility 31961
that involves a capital expenditure of two million dollars or 31962
more, not including expenditures for equipment, staffing, or 31963
operational costs;31964

       (4) Either of the following changes in long-term care bed 31965
capacity:31966

       (a) An increase in bed capacity;31967

       (b) A relocation of beds from one physical facility or site 31968
to another, excluding relocation of beds within a long-term care 31969
facility or among buildings of a long-term care facility at the 31970
same site.31971

       (5) Any change in the bed capacity or site, or any other 31972
failure to conduct a reviewable activity in substantial accordance 31973
with the approved application for which a certificate of need 31974
concerning long-term care beds was granted, if the change is made 31975
within five years after the implementation of the reviewable 31976
activity for which the certificate was granted;31977

       (6) Expenditure of more than one hundred ten per cent of the 31978
maximum expenditure specified in a certificate of need concerning 31979
long-term care beds.31980

       (B) The following activities are not subject to review under 31981
sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code:31982

       (1) Acquisition of computer hardware or software;31983

       (2) Acquisition of a telephone system;31984

       (3) Construction or acquisition of parking facilities;31985

       (4) Correction of cited deficiencies that constitute an 31986
imminent threat to public health or safety and are in violation of 31987
federal, state, or local fire, building, or safety statutes, 31988
ordinances, rules, or regulations;31989

       (5) Acquisition of an existing long-term care facility that 31990
does not involve a change in the number of the beds;31991

       (6) Mergers, consolidations, or other corporate 31992
reorganizations of long-term care facilities that do not involve a 31993
change in the number of beds;31994

       (7) Construction, repair, or renovation of bathroom 31995
facilities;31996

       (8) Construction of laundry facilities, waste disposal 31997
facilities, dietary department projects, heating and air 31998
conditioning projects, administrative offices, and portions of 31999
medical office buildings used exclusively for physician services;32000

       (9) Removal of asbestos from a health care facility.32001

       Only that portion of a project that is described in this 32002
division is not reviewable.32003

       Sec. 3702.52.  The director of health shall administer a 32004
state certificate of need program in accordance with sections 32005
3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 32006
those sections.32007

       (A) The director shall issue rulings on whether a particular 32008
proposed project is a reviewable activity. The director shall 32009
issue a ruling not later than forty-five days after receiving a 32010
request for a ruling accompanied by the information needed to make 32011
the ruling. If the director does not issue a ruling in that time, 32012
the project shall be considered to have been ruled not a 32013
reviewable activity.32014

       (B)(1) Each application for a certificate of need shall be 32015
submitted to the director on forms and in the manner prescribed by 32016
the director. Each application shall include a plan for obligating 32017
the capital expenditures or implementing the proposed project on a 32018
timely basis in accordance with section 3702.5253702.524 of the 32019
Revised Code. Each application shall also include all other 32020
information required by rules adopted under division (B) of 32021
section 3702.57 of the Revised Code.32022

       (2) Each application shall be accompanied by the application 32023
fee established in rules adopted under division (G) of section 32024
3702.57 of the Revised Code. Application fees received by the 32025
director under this division shall be deposited into the state 32026
treasury to the credit of the certificate of need fund, which is 32027
hereby created. The director shall use the fund only to pay the 32028
costs of administering sections 3702.11 to 3702.20, 3702.30, and 32029
3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 32030
those sections. An application fee is nonrefundable unless the 32031
director determines that the application cannot be accepted.32032

       (3) The director shall review applications for certificates 32033
of need. As part of a review, the director shall determine whether 32034
an application is complete. The director shall not consider an 32035
application to be complete unless the application meets all 32036
criteria for a complete application specified in rules adopted 32037
under section 3702.57 of the Revised Code. The director shall mail 32038
to the applicant a written notice that the application is 32039
complete, or a written request for additional information, not 32040
later than thirty days after receiving an application or a 32041
response to an earlier request for information. Except as provided 32042
in section 3702.5233702.522 of the Revised Code, the director 32043
shall not make more than two requests for additional information. 32044
The director's determination that an application is not complete 32045
is final and not subject to appeal.32046

       The director may conduct a public informational hearing in 32047
the course of reviewing any application for a certificate of need, 32048
and shall conduct one if requested to do so by any affected person 32049
not later than fifteen days after the director mails the notice 32050
that the application is complete. The hearing shall be conducted 32051
in the community in which the activities authorized by the 32052
certificate of need would be carried out. Any affected person may 32053
testify at the hearing. The director may, with the health service 32054
agency's consent, designate a health service agency to conduct the 32055
hearing.32056

       (4) Except during a public hearing or as necessary to comply 32057
with a subpoena issued under division (E)(F) of this section, 32058
after a notice of completeness has been received, no person shall 32059
make revisions to information that was submitted to the director 32060
before the director mailed the notice of completeness or knowingly 32061
discuss in person or by telephone the merits of the application 32062
with the director. A person may supplement an application after a 32063
notice of completeness has been received by submitting clarifying 32064
information to the director. If one or more persons request a 32065
meeting in person or by telephone, the director shall make a 32066
reasonable effort to invite interested parties to the meeting or 32067
conference call.32068

       (C) All of the following apply to the process of granting or 32069
denying a certificate of need:32070

        (1) If the project proposed in a certificate of need 32071
application meets all of the applicable certificate of need 32072
criteria for approval under sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the 32073
Revised Code and the rules adopted under those sections, the 32074
director shall grant a certificate of need for all or part of the 32075
project that is the subject of the application by the applicable 32076
deadline specified in division (C)(4) of this section or any 32077
extension of it under division (C)(5) of this section.32078

       (2) The director's grant of a certificate of need does not 32079
affect, and sets no precedent for, the director's decision to 32080
grant or deny other applications for similar reviewable activities 32081
proposed to be conducted in the same or different health service 32082
areas.32083

       (3) If the director receives written objections to an 32084
application from anyAny affected person may submit written 32085
comments regarding an application. The director shall consider all 32086
written comments received by the thirtieth day after mailing the 32087
notice of completeness, the director shall notify the applicant 32088
and assign a hearing examiner to conduct an adjudication hearing 32089
concerning the application in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 32090
Revised Code. Inor, in the case of applications under comparative 32091
review, if the director receives written objections to any of the 32092
applications from any affected person by the thirtieth day after 32093
the director mails the last notice of completeness, the director 32094
shall notify all of the applicants and appoint a hearing examiner 32095
to conduct a consolidated adjudication hearing concerning the 32096
applications in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 32097
The hearing examiner shall be employed by or under contract with 32098
the department of health.32099

       The adjudication hearings may be conducted in the health 32100
service area in which the reviewable activity is proposed to be 32101
conducted. Consolidated adjudication hearings for applications in 32102
comparative review may be conducted in the geographic region in 32103
which all of the reviewable activities will be conducted. The 32104
applicant, the director, and the affected persons that filed 32105
objections to the application shall be parties to the hearing. If 32106
none of the affected persons that submitted written objections to 32107
the application appears or prosecutes the hearing, the hearing 32108
examiner shall dismiss the hearing and the director shall grant a 32109
certificate of need for all or part of the project that is the 32110
subject of the application if the proposed project meets all of 32111
the applicable certificate of need criteria for approval under 32112
sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code and the rules 32113
adopted under those sections. The affected persons bear the burden 32114
of proving by a preponderance of evidence that the project is not 32115
needed or that granting the certificate would not be in accordance 32116
with sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code or the rules 32117
adopted under those sections.32118

       (4) Except as provided in division (C)(5) of this section, 32119
the director shall grant or deny certificate of need applications 32120
for which an adjudication hearing is not conducted under division 32121
(C)(3) of this section not later than sixty days after mailing the 32122
notice of completeness or, in the case of an application proposing 32123
addition of long-term care beds, not later than sixty days after 32124
such other time as is specified in rules adopted under section 32125
3702.57 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in division (C)(5) 32126
of this section, the director shall grant or deny certificate of 32127
need applications for which an adjudication hearing is conducted 32128
under division (C)(3) of this section not later than thirty days 32129
after the expiration of the time for filing objections to the 32130
report and recommendation of the hearing examiner under section 32131
119.09 of the Revised Code. The director shall base decisions 32132
concerning applications for which an adjudication hearing is 32133
conducted under division (C)(3) of this section on the report and 32134
recommendations of the hearing examiner.32135

       (5) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(6) of this 32136
section, the director or the applicant may extend the deadline 32137
prescribed in division (C)(4) of this section once, for no longer 32138
than thirty days, by written notice before the end of the deadline 32139
prescribed by division (C)(4) of this section. An extension by the 32140
director under division (C)(5) of this section shall apply to all 32141
applications that are in comparative review.32142

       (6) No applicant in a comparative review may extend the 32143
deadline specified in division (C)(4) of this section. 32144

       (7) If the director does not grant or deny the certificate by 32145
the applicable deadline specified in division (C)(4) of this 32146
section or any extension of it under division (C)(5) of this 32147
section, the certificate shall be considered to have been granted. 32148

       (8) In granting a certificate of need, the director shall 32149
specify as the maximum capital expenditure the certificate holder 32150
may obligate under the certificate a figure equal to one hundred 32151
ten per cent of the approved project cost.32152

       (9) In granting a certificate of need, the director may grant 32153
the certificate with conditions that must be met by the holder of 32154
the certificate.32155

       (D) When a certificate of need is granted for a project under 32156
which beds are to be relocated, upon completion of the project for 32157
which the certificate of need was granted a number of beds equal 32158
to the number of beds relocated shall cease to be operated in the 32159
long-term care facility from which they are relocated, except that 32160
the beds may continue to be operated for not more than fifteen 32161
days to allow relocation of residents to the facility to which the 32162
beds have been relocated. Notwithstanding section 3721.03 of the 32163
Revised Code, if the relocated beds are in a home licensed under 32164
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, the facility's license is 32165
automatically reduced by the number of beds relocated effective 32166
fifteen days after the beds are relocated. If the beds are in a 32167
facility that is certified as a skilled nursing facility or 32168
nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the "Social Security 32169
Act," the certification for the beds shall be surrendered. If the 32170
beds are registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as 32171
skilled nursing beds or long-term care beds, the director shall 32172
remove the beds from registration not later than fifteen days 32173
after the beds are relocated.32174

       (E) The director shall monitor the activities of persons 32175
granted certificates of need during the period beginning with the 32176
granting of the certificate of need and ending five years after 32177
implementation of the activity for which the certificate was 32178
granted.32179

       (E)(F) When reviewing applications for certificates of need, 32180
considering appeals under section 3702.60 of the Revised Code, or 32181
monitoring activities of persons granted certificates of need, the 32182
director may issue and enforce, in the manner provided in section 32183
119.09 of the Revised Code, subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum to 32184
compel the production ofa person to testify and produce documents 32185
relevant to review of the application, consideration of the 32186
appeal, or monitoring of the activities. In addition, the director 32187
or the director's designee, which may include a health service 32188
agency, may visit the sites where the activities are or will be 32189
conducted.32190

       (F)(G) The director may withdraw certificates of need.32191

       (G) The director shall conduct, on a regular basis, health 32192
system data collection and analysis activities and prepare 32193
reports. The director shall make recommendations based upon these 32194
activities to the public health council concerning the adoption of 32195
appropriate rules under section 3702.57 of the Revised Code.(H)32196
All healthlong-term care facilities and other health care 32197
providers shall submit to the director, upon request, any 32198
information prescribed by rules adopted under division (H) of 32199
section 3702.57 of the Revised Code that is necessary to conduct 32200
reviews of certificate of need applications and to develop 32201
recommendations for criteria for reviews, and that is prescribed 32202
by rules adopted under division (H) of section 3702.57 of the 32203
Revised Code.32204

       (H)(I) Any decision to grant or deny a certificate of need 32205
shall consider the special needs and circumstances resulting from 32206
moral and ethical values and the free exercise of religious rights 32207
of healthlong-term care facilities administered by religious 32208
organizations, and the special needs and circumstances of inner 32209
city and rural communities.32210

       Sec. 3702.522.        Sec. 3702.521.  (A) Reviews of applications for 32211
certificates of need to recategorize hospital beds to skilled 32212
nursing beds shall be conducted in accordance with this division 32213
and rules adopted by the publicdirector of health council.32214

       (1) No hospital recategorizing beds shall apply for a 32215
certificate of need for more than twenty skilled nursing beds.32216

       (2) No beds for which a certificate of need is requested 32217
under this division shall be reviewed under or counted in any 32218
formula developed under public health council rules adopted by the 32219
director for the purpose of determining the number of long-term 32220
care beds that may be needed within the state.32221

       (3) No beds shall be approved under this division unless the 32222
hospital certifies and demonstrates in the application that the 32223
beds will be dedicated to patients with a length of stay of no 32224
more than thirty days.32225

       (4) No beds shall be approved under this division unless the 32226
hospital can satisfactorily demonstrate in the application that it 32227
is routinely unable to place the patients planned for the beds in 32228
accessible skilled nursing facilities.32229

       (5) In developing rules to implement this division, the32230
public health councildirector shall give special attention to the 32231
required documentation of the need for such beds, including the 32232
efforts made by the hospital to place patients in suitable skilled 32233
nursing facilities, and special attention to the appropriate size 32234
of units with such beds given the historical pattern of the 32235
applicant hospital's documented difficulty in placing skilled 32236
nursing patients.32237

       (B) To assist the director of healthFor assistance in 32238
monitoring the use of hospital beds recategorized as skilled 32239
nursing beds after August 5, 1989, the public health council32240
director shall adopt rules specifying appropriate quarterly 32241
procedures for reporting to the department of health.32242

       (C) A patient may stay in a hospital bed that, after August 32243
5, 1989, has been recategorized as a skilled nursing bed for more 32244
than thirty days if the hospital is able to demonstrate that it 32245
made a good faith effort to place the patient in an accessible 32246
skilled nursing facility acceptable to the patient within the 32247
thirty-day period, but was unable to do so.32248

       (D) No hospital bed recategorized after August 5, 1989, as a 32249
skilled nursing bed shall be covered by a provider agreement under 32250
the medical assistance program established under Chapter 5111. of 32251
the Revised Code.32252

       (E) Nothing in this section requires a hospital to place a 32253
patient in any nursing home if the patient does not wish to be 32254
placed in the nursing home. Nothing in this section limits the 32255
ability of a hospital to file a certificate of need application 32256
for the addition of long-term care beds that meet the definition 32257
of "home" in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this 32258
section limits the ability of the director to grant certificates 32259
of need necessary for hospitals to engage in demonstration 32260
projects authorized by the federal government for the purpose of 32261
enhancing long-term quality of care and cost containment. Nothing 32262
in this section limits the ability of hospitals to develop swing 32263
bed programs in accordance with federal regulations.32264

       No hospital that is granted a certificate of need after 32265
August 5, 1989, to recategorize hospital beds as skilled nursing 32266
beds is subject to sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 of the Revised 32267
Code. If the portion of the hospital in which the recategorized 32268
beds are located is certified as a skilled nursing facility under 32269
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 32270
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, that portion of the hospital is subject 32271
to sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 and sections 3721.21 to 3721.34 of 32272
the Revised Code. If the beds are registered pursuant to section 32273
3701.07 of the Revised Code as long-term care beds, the beds are 32274
subject to sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 of the Revised Code.32275

       (F) The public health council shall adopt rules authorizing 32276
the creation of one or more nursing home placement clearinghouses. 32277
Any public or private agency or facility may apply to the 32278
department of health to serve as a nursing home placement 32279
clearinghouse, and the rules shall provide the procedure for 32280
application and process for designation of clearinghouses.32281

       The department may approve one or more clearinghouses, but in 32282
no event shall there be more than one nursing home placement 32283
clearinghouse in each county. Any nursing home may list with a 32284
nursing home placement clearinghouse the services it provides and 32285
the types of patients it is approved for and equipped to serve. 32286
The clearinghouse shall make reasonable efforts to update its 32287
information at least every six months.32288

       If an appropriate clearinghouse has been designated, each 32289
hospital granted a certificate of need after August 5, 1989, to 32290
recategorize hospital beds as skilled nursing beds shall, and any 32291
other hospital may, utilize the nursing home placement 32292
clearinghouse prior to admitting a patient to a skilled nursing 32293
bed within the hospital and prior to keeping a patient in a 32294
skilled nursing bed within a hospital in excess of thirty days.32295

       The department shall provide at least annually to all 32296
hospitals a list of the designated nursing home placement 32297
clearinghouses.32298

       Sec. 3702.523.        Sec. 3702.522.  A person who has an application for 32299
a certificate of need pending with the director of health may 32300
revise the application to change the site of the proposed project 32301
unless either of the following applies:32302

       (A) The director, under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code, 32303
has mailed the applicant a written notice that the application is 32304
complete.32305

       (B) The application is subject to a comparative review under 32306
section 3702.593 of the Revised Code.32307

       The only revision that may be made in the revised application 32308
is the site of the proposed project. The revised site of the 32309
proposed project must be located in the same county as the site of 32310
the proposed project specified in the original application. The 32311
director may not accept a revised application if it includes 32312
revisions other than the site of the proposed project or if the 32313
revised site is located in a different county than the county in 32314
which the site specified in the original application is located. 32315

       A revised application shall be accompanied by an additional, 32316
non-refundablenonrefundable fee equal to twenty-five per cent of 32317
the fee charged under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code for the 32318
original application. The additional fee shall be deposited into 32319
the certificate of need fund created under section 3702.52 of the 32320
Revised Code. 32321

       On acceptance of a revised application, the director shall 32322
continue to review the application as revised in accordance with 32323
section 3702.52 of the Revised Code to determine whether it is 32324
complete and, if necessary and regardless of whether the director 32325
previously made two requests for additional information, may make 32326
a final written request to the applicant for additional 32327
information not later than thirty days after the date the director 32328
accepts the revised application.32329

       Sec. 3702.524.        Sec. 3702.523.  (A) Except as provided in division 32330
(B) of this section, a certificate of need granted on or after 32331
April 20, 1995, is not transferable prior to the completion of the 32332
reviewable activity for which it was granted. If any person 32333
holding a certificate of need issued on or after that date32334
transfers the certificate of need to another person before the 32335
reviewable activity is completed, or enters into an agreement that 32336
contemplates the transfer of the certificate of need on the 32337
completion of the reviewable activity, the certificate of need is 32338
void. If the controlling interest in an entity that holds a 32339
certificate of need issued on or after that date is transferred 32340
prior to the completion of the reviewable activity, the 32341
certificate of need is void.32342

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not prohibit the 32343
transfer of a certificate of need issued on or after April 20, 32344
1995, between affiliated or related persons, as defined in rules 32345
adopted under section 3702.57 of the Revised Code, if the transfer 32346
does not result in a change in the person that holds the ultimate 32347
controlling interest, as defined in the rules, in the certificate 32348
of need.32349

       The transfer of a healthlong-term care facility after the 32350
completion of a reviewable activity for which a certificate of 32351
need was issued on or after April 20, 1995, is not a transfer of 32352
the certificate of need, unless the facility is transferred 32353
pursuant to an agreement entered into prior to the completion of 32354
the reviewable activity.32355

       Sec. 3702.525.        Sec. 3702.524.  (A) Not later than twenty-four 32356
months after the date the director of health mails the notice that 32357
the certificate of need has been granted or, if the grant or 32358
denial of the certificate of need is appealed under section 32359
3702.60 of the Revised Code, not later than twenty-four months 32360
after issuance of an order granting the certificate that is not 32361
subject to further appeal, each person holding a certificate of 32362
need granted on or after April 20, 1995, shall:32363

       (1) If the project for which the certificate of need was 32364
granted primarily involves construction and is to be financed 32365
primarily through external borrowing of funds, secure financial 32366
commitment for the stated purpose of developing the project and 32367
commence construction that continues uninterrupted except for 32368
interruptions or delays that are unavoidable due to reasons beyond 32369
the person's control, including labor strikes, natural disasters, 32370
material shortages, or comparable events;32371

       (2) If the project for which the certificate of need was 32372
granted primarily involves construction and is to be financed 32373
primarily internally, receive formal approval from the holder's 32374
board of directors or trustees or other governing authority to 32375
commit specified funds for implementation of the project and 32376
commence construction that continues uninterrupted except for 32377
interruptions or delays that are unavoidable due to reasons beyond 32378
the person's control, including labor strikes, natural disasters, 32379
material shortages, or comparable events;32380

       (3) If the project for which the certificate of need was 32381
granted primarily involves acquisition of medical equipment, enter 32382
into a contract to purchase or lease the equipment and to accept 32383
the equipment at the site for which the certificate was granted;32384

       (4) If the project for which the certificate of need was 32385
granted involves no capital expenditure or only minor renovations 32386
to existing structures, provide the healthlong-term care service 32387
or activity by the means specified in the approved application for 32388
the certificate;32389

       (5)(4) If the project for which the certificate of need was 32390
granted primarily involves leasing a building or space that 32391
requires only minor renovations to the existing space, execute a 32392
lease and provide the healthlong-term care service or activity by 32393
the means specified in the approved application for the 32394
certificate;32395

       (6)(5) If the project for which the certificate of need was 32396
granted primarily involves leasing a building or space that has 32397
not been constructed or requires substantial renovations to 32398
existing space, commence construction for the purpose of 32399
implementing the reviewable activity that continues uninterrupted 32400
except for interruptions or delays that are unavoidable due to 32401
reasons beyond the person's control, including labor strikes, 32402
natural disasters, material shortages, or comparable events.32403

       (B) The twenty-four-month period specified in division (A) of 32404
this section shall not be extended by any means, including the 32405
granting of a subsequent or replacement certificate of need. Each 32406
person holding a certificate of need granted on or after April 20, 32407
1995, shall provide the director of health documentation of 32408
compliance with that division not later than the earlier of thirty 32409
days after complying with that division or five days after the 32410
twenty-four-month period expires. Not later than the earlier of 32411
fifteen days after receiving the documentation or fifteen days 32412
after the twenty-four-month period expires, the director shall 32413
send by certified mail a notice to the holder of the certificate 32414
of need specifying whether the holder has complied with division 32415
(A) of this section.32416

       (C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, the 32417
twenty-four-month period specified in division (A) of this section 32418
shall be extended for an additional twenty-four months for any 32419
certificate of need granted for the purchase and relocation of 32420
licensed nursing home beds on February 26, 1999.32421

       (D) A certificate of need granted on or after April 20, 1995,32422
expires, regardless of whether the director sends a notice under 32423
division (B) of this section, if the holder fails to comply with 32424
division (A) or (C) of this section or to provide information 32425
under division (B) of this section as necessary for the director 32426
to determine compliance. The determination by the director that a 32427
certificate of need has expired is final and not appealable under 32428
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.32429

       Sec. 3702.526.        Sec. 3702.525.  Every six months after complying 32430
with section 3702.5253702.524 of the Revised Code, the holder of 32431
the certificate of need shall demonstrate to the director of 32432
health, in the form and manner required by rules adopted under 32433
section 3702.57 of the Revised Code, that reasonable progress is 32434
being made toward the completion of the reviewable activity. If 32435
the director determines, in accordance with standards specified in 32436
the rules, that reasonable progress is not being made, hethe 32437
director shall withdraw the certificate of need.32438

       Sec. 3702.526. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 32439
section, the director of health shall accept an application for a 32440
replacement certificate of need for an activity described in 32441
division (A)(5) of section 3702.511 of the Revised Code to replace 32442
an approved certificate of need for that activity if all of the 32443
following conditions are met:32444

       (1) The applicant is the same as the applicant for the 32445
approved certificate of need or an affiliated or related person as 32446
described in division (B) of section 3702.523 of the Revised Code.32447

       (2) The source of any long-term care beds to be relocated is 32448
the same as in the approved certificate of need.32449

       (3) The application for the approved certificate of need was 32450
not subject to comparative review under section 3702.593 of the 32451
Revised Code.32452

       (B) The director shall not accept an application for a 32453
replacement certificate that proposes to increase the number of 32454
long-term care beds to be relocated specified in the application 32455
for the approved certificate of need.32456

       (C) For the purpose of determining whether long-term care 32457
beds are from an existing long-term care facility, the director 32458
shall consider the date of filing of the application for a 32459
replacement certificate to be the same as the date of filing of 32460
the original application for the approved certificate of need.32461

       (D) Any long-term care beds that were approved in the 32462
approved certificate of need remain approved in the application 32463
for a replacement certificate.32464

       (E) The applicant shall submit with the application for a 32465
replacement certificate a nonrefundable fee equal to the 32466
application fee for the approved certificate of need.32467

       (F) Upon approval of the application for a replacement 32468
certificate, the original certificate of need is automatically 32469
voided.32470

       Sec. 3702.527.  A bed described in division (O)(5) of section 32471
3702.51 of the Revised Code may be converted to a bed described in 32472
division (O)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of that section only as provided 32473
in the certificate of need under which the beds were approved or 32474
its replacement certificate of need.32475

       Sec. 3702.53.  (A) No person shall carry out any reviewable 32476
activity unless a certificate of need for such activity has been 32477
granted under sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code or 32478
the person is exempted by division (S)(B) of section 3702.5132479
3702.511 or section 3702.5210 or 3702.62 of the Revised Code from 32480
the requirement that a certificate of need be obtained. No person 32481
shall carry out any reviewable activity if a certificate of need 32482
authorizing that activity has been withdrawn by the director of 32483
health under section 3702.52 or 3702.5263702.525 of the Revised 32484
Code. No person shall carry out a reviewable activity if the 32485
certificate of need authorizing that activity is void pursuant to 32486
section 3702.5243702.523 of the Revised Code or has expired 32487
pursuant to section 3702.5253702.524 of the Revised Code.32488

       (B) No person shall separate portions of any proposal for any 32489
reviewable activity to evade the requirements of sections 3702.51 32490
to 3702.62 of the Revised Code.32491

       (C) No person granted a certificate of need shall carry out 32492
the reviewable activity authorized by the certificate of need 32493
other than in substantial accordance with the approved application 32494
for the certificate of need.32495

       Sec. 3702.531.  The director of health shall evaluate and may 32496
investigate evidence that appears to demonstrate that any person 32497
has violated section 3702.53 of the Revised Code. If the director 32498
elects to conduct an investigation, hethe director shall mail to 32499
the alleged violator by certified mail, return receipt requested, 32500
a notice that an investigation is underway.32501

       When conducting an investigation under this section, the 32502
director may request any relevant information pertaining to the 32503
alleged violation, including the total operating cost of the 32504
activity in question during the period of the alleged violation 32505
and the total capital cost associated with implementation of the 32506
activity. A person shall provide information requested by the 32507
director not later than forty-five days after receiving the 32508
director's request. The director also may issue and enforce, in 32509
the manner provided in Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, subpoenas 32510
duces tecum to compel the production of documents relevant to the 32511
alleged violation. The subpoenas may be served in any manner 32512
authorized by the rules of civil procedure.32513

       The director or histhe director's designee, which may 32514
include a health service agency, may conduct a site visit to 32515
investigate an alleged violation of section 3702.53 of the Revised 32516
Code.32517

       Each investigation under this section shall be conducted in a 32518
manner that protects patient confidentiality. Names or other 32519
identifying information about any patient shall not be made public 32520
without the written consent of the patient or histhe patient's32521
guardian, or, if the patient is a minor, histhe patient's parent 32522
or guardian.32523

       Sec. 3702.54.  Except as provided in section 3702.541 of the 32524
Revised Code, divisions (A) and (B) of this section apply when the 32525
director of health determines that a person has violated section 32526
3702.53 of the Revised Code.32527

       (A) The director shall impose a civil penalty on the person 32528
in an amount equal to the greatest of the following:32529

       (1) Three thousand dollars;32530

       (2) Five per cent of the operating cost of the activity that 32531
constitutes the violation during the period of time it was 32532
conducted in violation of section 3702.53 of the Revised Code;32533

       (3) If a certificate of need was granted, two per cent of the 32534
total approved capital cost associated with implementation of the 32535
activity for which the certificate of need was granted.32536

       In no event, however, shall the penalty exceed two hundred 32537
fifty thousand dollars.32538

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding section 3702.52 of the Revised Code, 32539
the director shall refuse to accept for review any application for 32540
a certificate of need filed by or on behalf of the person, or any 32541
successor to the person or entity related to the person, for a 32542
period of not less than one year and not more than three years 32543
after the director mails the notice of the director's 32544
determination under section 3702.532 of the Revised Code or, if 32545
the determination is appealed under section 3702.60 of the Revised 32546
Code, the issuance of the order upholding the determination that 32547
is not subject to further appeal. In determining the length of 32548
time during which applications will not be accepted, the director 32549
may consider any of the following:32550

       (a) The nature and magnitude of the violation;32551

       (b) The ability of the person to have averted the violation;32552

       (c) Whether the person disclosed the violation to the 32553
director before the director commenced his investigation;32554

       (d) The person's history of compliance with sections 3702.51 32555
to 3702.62 and the rules adopted under section 3702.57 of the 32556
Revised Code;32557

       (e) Any community hardship that may result from refusing to 32558
accept future applications from the person.32559

       (2) Notwithstanding the one-year minimum imposed by division 32560
(B)(1) of this section, the director may establish a period of 32561
less than one year during which the director will refuse to accept 32562
certificate of need applications if, after reviewing all 32563
information available to the director, the director determines and 32564
expressly indicates in the notice mailed under section 3702.532 of 32565
the Revised Code that refusing to accept applications for a longer 32566
period would result in hardship to the community in which the 32567
person provides healthlong-term care services. The director's 32568
finding of community hardship shall not affect the granting or 32569
denial of any future certificate of need application filed by the 32570
person.32571

       Sec. 3702.55.  A person that the director of health 32572
determines has violated section 3702.53 of the Revised Code shall 32573
cease conducting the activity that constitutes the violation or 32574
utilizing the equipment or facility resulting from the violation 32575
not later than thirty days after the person receives the notice 32576
mailed under section 3702.532 of the Revised Code or, if the 32577
person appeals the director's determination under section 3702.60 32578
of the Revised Code, thirty days after the person receives an 32579
order upholding the director's determination that is not subject 32580
to further appeal. 32581

       If any person determined to have violated section 3702.53 of 32582
the Revised Code fails to cease conducting an activity or using32583
equipment or a facility as required by this section or if the 32584
person continues to seek payment or reimbursement for services 32585
rendered or costs incurred in conducting the activity as 32586
prohibited by section 3702.56 of the Revised Code, in addition to 32587
the penalties imposed under section 3702.54 or 3702.541 of the 32588
Revised Code:32589

       (A) The director of health may refuse to include any beds 32590
involved in the activity in the bed capacity of a hospital for 32591
purposes of registration under section 3701.07 of the Revised 32592
Code;32593

       (B) The director of health may refuse to license, or may 32594
revoke a license or reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a 32595
hospice care program under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code; a 32596
nursing home, rest homeresidential care facility, or home for the 32597
aging under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code; or any beds 32598
within any of those facilities that are involved in the activity;32599

       (C) A political subdivision certified under section 3721.09 32600
of the Revised Code may refuse to license, or may revoke a license 32601
or reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a nursing home, rest 32602
homeresidential care facility, or home for the aging, or any beds 32603
within any of those facilities that are involved in the activity;32604

       (D) The director of mental health may refuse to license under 32605
section 5119.20 of the Revised Code, or may revoke a license or 32606
reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a hospital receiving 32607
mentally ill persons or beds within such a hospital that are 32608
involved in the activity;32609

       (E) The department of job and family services may refuse to 32610
enter into a provider agreement that includes a facility, beds, or 32611
services that result from the activity.32612

       Sec. 3702.56.  No third-party payer or other person or 32613
government entity is required to pay, and no person shall seek or 32614
accept payment or reimbursement for, any service rendered or costs 32615
incurred in conducting an activity during the period of time in 32616
which the activity was conducted in violation of section 3702.53 32617
of the Revised Code. Each person that accepts any amount in 32618
violation of this division shall refund that amount on request of 32619
the person or government entity that paid it.32620

       Sec. 3702.57.  (A) The publicdirector of health council32621
shall adopt rules establishing procedures and criteria for reviews 32622
of applications for certificates of need and issuance, denial, or 32623
withdrawal of certificates.32624

       (1) In adopting rules that establish criteria for reviews of 32625
applications of certificates of need, the councildirector shall 32626
consider the availability of and need for long-term care beds to 32627
provide care and treatment to persons diagnosed as having 32628
traumatic brain injuries and shall prescribe criteria for 32629
reviewing applications that propose to add long-term care beds to 32630
provide care and treatment to persons diagnosed as having 32631
traumatic brain injuries.32632

       (2) The criteria for reviews of applications for certificates 32633
of need shall relate to the need for the reviewable activity and 32634
shall pertain to all of the following matters:32635

       (a) The impact of the reviewable activity on the cost and 32636
quality of healthlong-term care services in the relevant 32637
geographicservice area, including, but not limited, to the 32638
historical and projected utilization of the services to which the 32639
application pertains and the effect of the reviewable activity on 32640
utilization of other providers of similar services;32641

       (b) The quality of the services to be provided as the result 32642
of the activity, as evidenced by the historical performance of the 32643
persons that will be involved in providing the services and by the 32644
provisions that are proposed in the application to ensure quality, 32645
including but not limited to adequate available personnel, 32646
available ancillary and support services, available equipment, 32647
size and configuration of physical plant, and relations with other 32648
providers;32649

       (c) The impact of the reviewable activity on the availability 32650
and accessibility of the type of services proposed in the 32651
application to the population of the relevant geographicservice32652
area, and the level of access to the services proposed in the 32653
application that will be provided to medically underserved 32654
individuals such as recipients of public assistance and 32655
individuals who have no health insurance or whose health insurance 32656
is insufficient;32657

       (d) The activity's short- and long-term financial feasibility 32658
and cost-effectiveness, the impact of the activity on the 32659
applicant's costs and charges, and a comparison of the applicant's 32660
costs and charges with those of providers of similar services in 32661
the applicant's proposed service area;32662

       (e) The advantages, disadvantages, and costs of alternatives 32663
to the reviewable activity;32664

       (f) The impact of the activity on all other providers of 32665
similar services in the health service area or other relevant 32666
geographicservice area, including the impact on their 32667
utilization, market share, and financial status;32668

       (g) The historical performance of the applicant and related 32669
or affiliated parties in complying with previously granted 32670
certificates of need and any applicable certification, 32671
accreditation, or licensure requirements;32672

       (h) The relationship of the activity to the current edition 32673
of the state health resources plan issued under section 3702.521 32674
of the Revised Code;32675

       (i) The historical performance of the applicant and related 32676
or affiliated parties in providing cost-effective healthlong-term32677
care services;32678

       (j)(i) The special needs and circumstances of the applicant 32679
or population proposed to be served by the proposed project, 32680
including research activities, prevalence of particular diseases, 32681
unusual demographic characteristics, cost-effective contractual 32682
affiliations, and other special circumstances;32683

       (k)(j) The appropriateness of the zoning status of the 32684
proposed site of the activity;32685

       (l)(k) The participation by the applicant in research 32686
conducted by the United States food and drug administration or 32687
clinical trials sponsored by the national institutes of health.32688

       (3) The criteria for reviews of applications shall include a 32689
formula for determining each county's long-term care bed need for 32690
purposes of section 3702.593 of the Revised Code and may include 32691
other formulas for determining need for beds.32692

        Any rules prescribing criteria that establish ratios of beds 32693
to population shall specify the bases for establishing the ratios 32694
or mitigating factors or exceptions to the ratios.32695

       (B) The councildirector shall adopt rules specifying all of 32696
the following:32697

       (1) Information that must be provided in applications for 32698
certificates of need;32699

       (2) Procedures for reviewing applications for completeness of 32700
information;32701

       (3) Criteria for determining that the application is 32702
complete.32703

       (C) The councildirector shall adopt rules specifying 32704
requirements that holders of certificates of need must meet in 32705
order for the certificates to remain valid and establishing 32706
definitions and requirements for obligation of capital 32707
expenditures and implementation of projects authorized by 32708
certificates of need.32709

       (D) The councildirector shall adopt rules establishing 32710
criteria and procedures under which the director of health may 32711
withdraw a certificate of need if the holder fails to meet 32712
requirements for continued validity of the certificate.32713

       (E) The councildirector shall adopt rules establishing 32714
procedures under which the department of health shall monitor 32715
project implementation activities of holders of certificates of 32716
need. The rules adopted under this division also may establish 32717
procedures for monitoring implementation activities of persons 32718
that have received nonreviewability rulings.32719

       (F) The councildirector shall adopt rules establishing 32720
procedures under which the director of health shall review 32721
certificates of need whose holders exceed or appear likely to 32722
exceed an expenditure maximum specified in a certificate.32723

       (G) The councildirector shall adopt rules establishing 32724
certificate of need application fees sufficient to pay the costs 32725
incurred by the department for administering sections 3702.51 to 32726
3702.62 of the Revised Code and to pay health service agencies for 32727
the functions they perform under division (D)(5) of section 32728
3702.58 of the Revised Code. Unless rules are adopted under this 32729
division establishing different application fees, the application 32730
fee for a project not involving a capital expenditure shall be 32731
three thousand dollars and the application fee for a project 32732
involving a capital expenditure shall be nine-tenths of one per 32733
cent of the capital expenditure proposed subject to a minimum of 32734
three thousand dollars and a maximum of twenty thousand dollars.32735

       (H) The councildirector shall adopt rules specifying 32736
information that is necessary to conduct reviews of certificate of 32737
need applications and to develop recommendations for criteria for 32738
reviews that healthlong-term care facilities and other health 32739
care providers are to submit to the director under division (G)(H)32740
of section 3702.52 of the Revised Code.32741

       (I) The councildirector shall adopt rules defining 32742
"affiliated person," "related person," and "ultimate controlling 32743
interest" for purposes of section 3702.5243702.523 of the Revised 32744
Code.32745

       (J) The councildirector shall adopt rules prescribing 32746
requirements for holders of certificates of need to demonstrate to 32747
the director under section 3702.5263702.525 of the Revised Code 32748
that reasonable progress is being made toward completion of the 32749
reviewable activity and establishing standards by which the 32750
director shall determine whether reasonable progress is being 32751
made.32752

       (K) The public health councildirector shall adopt all rules 32753
under divisions (A) to (J) of this section in accordance with 32754
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The councildirector may adopt 32755
other rules as necessary to carry out the purposes of sections 32756
3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code.32757

       Sec. 3702.59.  (A) The director of health shall accept for 32758
review certificate of need applications as provided in sections 32759
3702.592, 3702.593, and 3702.594 of the Revised Code.32760

       (B)(1) The director shall not approve an application for a 32761
certificate of need for the addition of long-term care beds to an 32762
existing healthlong-term care facility or for the development of 32763
a new healthlong-term care facility if any of the following 32764
apply:32765

       (a) The existing healthlong-term care facility in which the 32766
beds are being placed has one or more waivers for life safety code 32767
deficiencies, one or more state fire code violations, or one or 32768
more state building code violations, and the project identified in 32769
the application does not propose to correct all life safety code 32770
deficiencies for which a waiver has been granted, all state fire 32771
code violations, and all state building code violations at the 32772
existing healthlong-term care facility in which the beds are 32773
being placed;32774

       (b) During the sixty-month period preceding the filing of the 32775
application, a notice of proposed license revocation was issued 32776
under section 3721.03 of the Revised Code for the existing health32777
long-term care facility in which the beds are being placed or a 32778
nursing home owned or operated by the applicant or a principal 32779
participant.32780

        (c) During the period that precedes the filing of the 32781
application and is encompassed by the three most recent standard 32782
surveys of the existing healthlong-term care facility in which 32783
the beds are being placed, any of the following occurred:32784

       (i) The facility was cited on three or more separate 32785
occasions for final, nonappealable actual harm but not immediate 32786
jeopardy deficiencies.32787

        (ii) The facility was cited on two or more separate occasions 32788
for final, nonappealable immediate jeopardy deficiencies.32789

        (iii) The facility was cited on two separate occasions for 32790
final, nonappealable actual harm but not immediate jeopardy 32791
deficiencies and on one occasion for a final, nonappealable 32792
immediate jeopardy deficiency.32793

       (d) More than two nursing homes owned or operated in this 32794
state by the applicant or a principal participant or, if the 32795
applicant or a principal participant owns or operates more than 32796
twenty nursing homes in this state, more than ten per cent of 32797
those nursing homes, were each cited during the period that 32798
precedes the filing of the application for the certificate of need 32799
and is encompassed by the three most recent standard surveys of 32800
the nursing homes that were so cited in any of the following 32801
manners:32802

       (i) On three or more separate occasions for final, 32803
nonappealable actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiencies;32804

       (ii) On two or more separate occasions for final, 32805
nonappealable immediate jeopardy deficiencies;32806

       (iii) On two separate occasions for final, nonappealable 32807
actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiencies and on one 32808
occasion for a final, nonappealable immediate jeopardy deficiency.32809

        (2) In applying divisions (B)(1)(a) to (d) of this section, 32810
the director shall not consider deficiencies or violations cited 32811
before the applicant or a principal participant acquired or began 32812
to own or operate the healthlong-term care facility at which the 32813
deficiencies or violations were cited. The director may disregard 32814
deficiencies and violations cited after the healthlong-term care 32815
facility was acquired or began to be operated by the applicant or 32816
a principal participant if the deficiencies or violations were 32817
attributable to circumstances that arose under the previous owner 32818
or operator and the applicant or principal participant has 32819
implemented measures to alleviate the circumstances. In the case 32820
of an application proposing development of a new healthlong-term32821
care facility by relocation of beds, the director shall not 32822
consider deficiencies or violations that were solely attributable 32823
to the physical plant of the existing healthlong-term care 32824
facility from which the beds are being relocated.32825

       (C) The director also shall accept for review any application 32826
for the conversion of infirmary beds to long-term care beds if the 32827
infirmary meets all of the following conditions:32828

       (1) Is operated exclusively by a religious order;32829

       (2) Provides care exclusively to members of religious orders 32830
who take vows of celibacy and live by virtue of their vows within 32831
the orders as if related;32832

       (3) Was providing care exclusively to members of such a 32833
religious order on January 1, 1994.32834

       (D) Notwithstanding division (C)(2) of this section, a 32835
facility that has been granted a certificate of need under 32836
division (C) of this section may provide care to any of the 32837
following family members of the individuals described in division 32838
(C)(2) of this section: mothers, fathers, brothers, sisters, 32839
brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, or children.32840

        The long-term care beds in a facility that have been granted 32841
a certificate of need under division (C) of this section may not 32842
be relocated pursuant to sections 3702.592 to 3702.594 of the 32843
Revised Code.32844

       Sec. 3702.592. (A) The director of health shall accept, for 32845
review under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code, certificate of 32846
need applications for any of the following purposes if the 32847
proposed increase in beds is attributable solely to a replacement 32848
or relocation of existing beds from an existing healthlong-term32849
care facility within the same county:32850

       (1) Approval of beds in a new healthlong-term care facility 32851
or an increase of beds in an existing healthlong-term care 32852
facility if the beds are proposed to be licensed as nursing home 32853
beds under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code;32854

       (2) Approval of beds in a new county home or new county 32855
nursing home, or an increase of beds in an existing county home or 32856
existing county nursing home if the beds are proposed to be 32857
certified as skilled nursing facility beds under the medicare 32858
program, Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 286 32859
(1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended, or nursing facility beds under 32860
the medicaid program, Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 32861
Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amended;32862

       (3) An increase of hospital beds registered pursuant to 32863
section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as long-term care beds;32864

       (4) An increase of hospital beds registered pursuant to 32865
section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as special skilled nursing 32866
beds that were originally authorized by and are operated in 32867
accordance with section 3702.5223702.521 of the Revised Code.32868

       (B) The director shall accept applications described in 32869
division (A) of this section at any time.32870

       Sec. 3702.593. (A) At the times specified in this section, 32871
the director of health shall accept, for review under section 32872
3702.52 of the Revised Code, certificate of need applications for 32873
any of the following purposes if the proposed increase in beds is 32874
attributable solely to relocation of existing beds from an 32875
existing healthlong-term care facility in a county with excess 32876
beds to a healthlong-term care facility in a county in which 32877
there are fewer long-term care beds than the county's bed need:32878

       (1) Approval of beds in a new healthlong-term care facility 32879
or an increase of beds in an existing healthlong-term care 32880
facility if the beds are proposed to be licensed as nursing home 32881
beds under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code;32882

       (2) Approval of beds in a new county home or new county 32883
nursing home, or an increase of beds in an existing county home or 32884
existing county nursing home if the beds are proposed to be 32885
certified as skilled nursing facility beds under the medicare 32886
program, Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 286 32887
(1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended, or nursing facility beds under 32888
the medicaid program, Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 32889
Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amended;32890

       (3) An increase of hospital beds registered pursuant to 32891
section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as long-term care beds.32892

       (B) For the purpose of implementing this section, the 32893
director shall do all of the following:32894

       (1) DetermineNot later than April 1, 2012, and every four 32895
years thereafter, determine the long-term care bed supply for each 32896
county, which shall consist of all of the following:32897

       (a) Nursing home beds licensed under Chapter 3721. of the 32898
Revised Code;32899

       (b) Beds certified as skilled nursing facility beds under the 32900
medicare program or nursing facility beds under the medicaid 32901
program;32902

       (c) Beds in any portion of a hospital that are properly 32903
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled 32904
nursing beds, long-term care beds, or special skilled nursing 32905
beds;32906

       (d) Beds in a county home or county nursing home that are 32907
certified under section 5155.38 of the Revised Code as having been 32908
in operation on July 1, 1993, and are eligible for licensure as 32909
nursing home beds;32910

       (d)(e) Beds held as approved long-term care beds under a 32911
certificate of need approved by the directordescribed in division 32912
(O)(5) of section 3702.51 of the Revised Code.32913

       (2) Determine the long-term care bed occupancy rate for the 32914
state at the time the determination is made;32915

       (3) For each county, determine the county's bed need by 32916
identifying the number of long-term care beds that would be needed 32917
in the county in order for the statewide occupancy rate for a 32918
projected population aged sixty-five and older to be ninety per 32919
cent.32920

       In determining each county's bed need, the director shall use 32921
the formula developed in rules adopted under section 3702.57 of 32922
the Revised Code. The director's first determination after the 32923
effective date of this section shall be made not later than April 32924
1, 2010. The second determination shall be made not later than 32925
April 1, 2012. Thereafter, aA determination shall be made every 32926
four years. After each determination is made, the director shall 32927
publish the county's bed need on the web site maintained by the 32928
department of health.32929

       (C) The director's consideration of a certificate of need 32930
that would increase the number of beds in a county shall be 32931
consistent with the county's bed need determined under division 32932
(B) of this section except as follows:32933

       (1) If a county's occupancy rate is less than eighty-five per 32934
cent, the county shall be considered to have no need for 32935
additional beds.32936

       (2) Even if a county is determined not to need any additional 32937
long-term care beds, the director may approve an increase in beds 32938
equal to up to ten per cent of the county's bed supply if the 32939
county's occupancy rate is greater than ninety per cent.32940

       (D)(1) Applications made under this section shall be subject 32941
to comparative review. The review period for the first comparative32942
review process after the effective date of this section shall 32943
begin July 1, 2010, and end June 30, 2012. The next review period 32944
shall begin July 1, 2012, and end June 30, 2016. Thereafter, the 32945
review period for each comparative review process shall begin on 32946
the first day of July following the end of the previous review 32947
period and shall be four years.32948

       (2) Certificate of need applications shall be accepted during 32949
the first month of the review period and reviewed from the first 32950
day of the review period through the thirtieth day of April of the 32951
following year.32952

       (3) Except for the first review period after the effective 32953
date of this sectionOctober 16, 2009, each review period may 32954
consist of two phases. The first phase of the review period shall 32955
be the period during which the director accepts and reviews 32956
certificate of need applications as provided in division (D)(2) of 32957
this section. If the director determines that there will be 32958
acceptance and review of additional certificate of need 32959
applications, the second phase of the review period shall begin on 32960
the first day of July of the third year of the review period. The 32961
second phase shall be limited to acceptance and review of 32962
applications for redistribution of beds made available pursuant to 32963
division (G)(2)(I) of this section. During the period between the 32964
first and second phases of the review period, the director shall 32965
act in accordance with division (H)(I) of this section.32966

       (E) The director shall consider certificate of need 32967
applications in accordance with all of the following:32968

       (1) The number of beds approved for a county shall include 32969
only beds available for relocation from another county and shall 32970
not exceed the bed need of the receiving county;32971

       (2) The director shall consider the existence of community 32972
resources serving persons who are age sixty-five or older or 32973
disabled that are demonstrably effective in providing alternatives 32974
to long-term care facility placement.32975

       (3) The director shall approve relocation of beds from a 32976
county only if, after the relocation, the number of beds remaining 32977
in the county will exceed the county's bed need by at least one 32978
hundred beds;32979

       (4) The director shall approve relocation of beds from a 32980
healthlong-term care facility only if, after the relocation, the 32981
number of beds in the facility's service area is at least equal to 32982
the state bed need rate. For purposes of this division, a 32983
facility's service area shall be either of the following:32984

       (a) The census tract in which the facility is located, if the 32985
facility is located in an area designated by the United States 32986
secretary of health and human services as a health professional 32987
shortage area under the "Public Health Service Act," 88 Stat. 682 32988
(1944), 42 U.S.C. 254(e), as amended;32989

       (b) The area that is within a fifteen-mile radius of the 32990
facility's location, if the facility is not located in a health 32991
professional shortage area.32992

       (F) Applications made under this section are subject to 32993
comparative review if two or more applications are submitted 32994
during the same review period and any of the following applies:32995

       (1) The applications propose to relocate beds from the same 32996
county and the number of beds for which certificates of need are 32997
being requested totals more than the number of beds available in 32998
the county from which the beds are to be relocated.32999

       (2) The applications propose to relocate beds to the same 33000
county and the number of beds for which certificates of need are 33001
being requested totals more than the number of beds needed in the 33002
county to which the beds are to be relocated.33003

       (3) The applications propose to relocate beds from the same 33004
service area and the number of beds left in the service area from 33005
which the beds are being relocated would be less than the state 33006
bed need rate determined by the director.33007

       (G) In determining which applicants should receive preference 33008
in the comparative review process, the director shall consider all 33009
of the following as weighted priorities:33010

       (1) Whether the beds will be part of a continuing care 33011
retirement community;33012

       (2) Whether the beds will serve an underserved population, 33013
such as low-income individuals, individuals with disabilities, or 33014
individuals who are members of racial or ethnic minority groups;33015

       (3) Whether the project in which the beds will be included 33016
will provide alternatives to institutional care, such as adult 33017
day-care, home health care, respite or hospice care, mobile meals, 33018
residential care, independent living, or congregate living 33019
services;33020

       (4) Whether the healthlong-term care facility's owner or 33021
operator will participate in medicaid waiver programs for 33022
alternatives to institutional care;33023

       (5) Whether the project in which the beds will be included 33024
will reduce alternatives to institutional care by converting 33025
residential care beds or other alternative care beds to long-term 33026
care beds;33027

       (6) Whether the facility in which the beds will be placed has 33028
positive resident and family satisfaction surveys;33029

       (7) Whether the facility in which the beds will be placed has 33030
fewer than fifty long-term care beds;33031

       (8) Whether the healthlong-term care facility in which the 33032
beds will be placed is located within the service area of a 33033
hospital and is designed to accept patients for rehabilitation 33034
after an in-patient hospital stay;33035

       (9) Whether the healthlong-term care facility in which the 33036
beds will be placed is or proposes to become a nurse aide training 33037
and testing site;33038

       (10) The rating, under the centers for medicare and medicaid 33039
services' five star nursing home quality rating system, of the 33040
healthlong-term care facility in which the beds will be placed.33041

       (G)(1) When a certificate of need application is approved 33042
during the initial phase of a four-year review period, on 33043
completion of the project under which the beds are relocated, that 33044
number of beds shall cease to be operated in the health care 33045
facility from which they were relocated and, if the licensure or 33046
certification of those beds cannot be or is not transferred to the 33047
facility to which the beds are relocated, the licensure or 33048
certification shall be surrendered.33049

       (2) In(H) A person who has submitted an application under 33050
this section that is not subject to comparative review may revise 33051
the site of the proposed project pursuant to section 3702.522 of 33052
the Revised Code.33053

       (I) When a certificate of need application is approved during 33054
the initial phase of a four-year review period, in addition to the 33055
actions required by division (G)(1)(D) of this section 3702.52 of 33056
the Revised Code, the healthlong-term care facility from which 33057
the beds were relocated shall reduce the number of beds operated 33058
in the facility by a number of beds equal to at least ten per cent 33059
of the number of beds relocated and shall surrender the licensure 33060
or certification of those beds. If these beds are in a home 33061
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, the long-term 33062
care facility shall have the beds removed from the license. If the 33063
beds are in a facility that is certified as a skilled nursing 33064
facility or nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the 33065
"Social Security Act," the facility shall surrender the 33066
certification of these beds. If the beds are registered as skilled 33067
nursing beds or long-term care beds under section 3701.07 of the 33068
Revised Code, the long-term care facility shall surrender the 33069
registration for these beds. This reduction shall be made not 33070
later than the completion date of the project for which the beds 33071
were relocated.33072

       (H)(J)(1) Once approval of certificate of need applications 33073
in the first phase of a four-year review period is complete, the 33074
director shall make a new determination of the bed need for each 33075
county by reducing the county's bed need by the number of beds 33076
approved for relocation to the county. The new bed-need 33077
determination shall be made not later than the first day of April 33078
of the third year of the review period.33079

       (2) The director may publish on the department's web site the 33080
remaining bed need for counties that will be considered for 33081
redistribution of beds that, in accordance with division (G)(2)(I)33082
of this section, have ceased or will cease to be operated. The 33083
director shall base the determination of whether to include a 33084
county on all of the following:33085

       (a) The statewide number of beds that, in accordance with 33086
division (G)(2)(I) of this section, have ceased or will cease to 33087
be operated;33088

       (b) The county's remaining bed need;33089

       (c) The county's bed occupancy rate.33090

       (I)(K) If the director publishes the remaining bed need for a 33091
county under division (H)(J)(2) of this section, the director may, 33092
beginning on the first day of the second phase of the review 33093
period, accept certificate of need applications for redistribution 33094
to healthlong-term care facilities in that county of beds that 33095
have ceased or will cease operation in accordance with division 33096
(G)(2)(I) of this section. The total number of beds approved for 33097
redistribution in the second phase of a review period shall not 33098
exceed the number that have ceased or will cease operation in 33099
accordance with division (G)(2)(I) of this section. Beds that are 33100
not approved for redistribution during the second phase of a 33101
review period shall not be available for redistribution at any 33102
future time.33103

       Sec. 3702.594.  (A) The director of health shall accept, for 33104
review under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code, certificate of 33105
need applications for an increase in beds in an existing nursing 33106
home if all of the following conditions are met:33107

       (1) The proposed increase is attributable solely to a 33108
relocation of licensed nursing home beds from an existing nursing 33109
home to another existing nursing home located in a county that is 33110
contiguous to the county from which the beds are to be relocated; 33111

       (2) Not more than a total of thirty nursing home beds are 33112
proposed for relocation to the same existing nursing home 33113
regardless of the number of applications filed. Once the 33114
cumulative total of beds relocated under this section to a nursing 33115
home reaches thirty, no further applications under this section 33116
will be accepted until the period of monitoring specified in 33117
division (E) of section 3702.52 of the Revised Code of the most 33118
recent reviewable activity implemented under this section has 33119
expired; 33120

       (3) After the proposed relocation, there will be existing 33121
nursing home beds remaining in the county from which the beds are 33122
relocated;33123

       (4) The beds are proposed to be licensed as nursing home beds 33124
under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code.33125

       (B) The director shall accept applications described in 33126
division (A) of this section at any time.33127

       Sec. 3702.60.  (A) Any affected person may appeal a 33128
reviewability ruling issued on or after April 20, 1995, to the 33129
director of health in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 33130
Code, and the director shall provide an adjudication hearing in 33131
accordance with that chapter. An affected person may appeal the 33132
director's ruling in the adjudication hearing to the tenth 33133
district court of appeals.33134

       (B) The certificate of need applicant or another affected 33135
person may appeal to the director in accordance with Chapter 119. 33136
of the Revised Code a decision issued by the director on or after 33137
April 20, 1995, to grant or deny a certificate of need application 33138
for which an adjudication hearing was not conducted under section 33139
3702.52 of the Revised Code, and the director shall provide an 33140
adjudication hearing in accordance with that chapter. The 33141
certificate of need applicant or other affected person that 33142
appeals the director's decision to grant or deny a certificate of 33143
need application must prove by a preponderance of the evidence 33144
that the director's decision is not in accordance with sections 33145
3702.52 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code or rules adopted under 33146
those sections. The certificate of need applicant or an affected 33147
person that was a party to and participated in an adjudication 33148
hearing conducted under this division or section 3702.52 of the 33149
Revised Code may appeal to the tenth district court of appeals the 33150
decision issued by the director following the adjudication 33151
hearing. No person may appeal to the director or a court the 33152
director's granting of a certificate of need prior to June 30, 33153
1995, under the version of section 3702.52 of the Revised Code in 33154
effect immediately prior to that date due to failure to submit 33155
timely written objections, no person may appeal to the director or 33156
a court the director's granting of a certificate of need under 33157
division (C)(1) of section 3702.52 of the Revised Code.33158

       (C) The certificate of need holder may appeal to the director 33159
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code a decision 33160
issued by the director under section 3702.52 or 3702.5263702.52533161
of the Revised Code on or after April 20, 1995, to withdraw a 33162
certificate of need, and the director shall provide an 33163
adjudication hearing in accordance with that chapter. The person 33164
may appeal the director's ruling in the adjudication hearing to 33165
the tenth district court of appeals.33166

       (D) Any person determined by the director to have violated 33167
section 3702.53 of the Revised Code may appeal that determination, 33168
or the penalties imposed under section 3702.54 or 3702.541 of the 33169
Revised Code, to the director in accordance with Chapter 119. of 33170
the Revised Code, and the director shall provide an adjudication 33171
hearing in accordance with that chapter. The person may appeal the 33172
director's ruling in the adjudication hearing to the tenth 33173
district court of appeals.33174

       (E) Each person appealing under this section to the director 33175
shall file with the director, not later than thirty days after the 33176
decision, ruling, or determination of the director was mailed, a 33177
notice of appeal designating the decision, ruling, or 33178
determination appealed from.33179

       (F) Each person appealing under this section to the tenth 33180
district court of appeals shall file with the court, not later 33181
than thirty days after the date the director's adjudication order 33182
was mailed, a notice of appeal designating the order appealed 33183
from. The appellant also shall file notice with the director not 33184
later than thirty days after the date the order was mailed.33185

       (1) Not later than thirty days after receipt of the notice of 33186
appeal, the director shall prepare and certify to the court the 33187
complete record of the proceedings out of which the appeal arises. 33188
The expense of preparing and transcribing the record shall be 33189
taxed as part of the costs of the appeal. In the event that the 33190
record or a part thereof is not certified within the time 33191
prescribed by this division, the appellant may apply to the court 33192
for an order that the record be certified.33193

       (2) In hearing the appeal, the court shall consider only the 33194
evidence contained in the record certified to it by the director. 33195
The court may remand the matter to the director for the admission 33196
of additional evidence on a finding that the additional evidence 33197
is material, newly discovered, and could not with reasonable 33198
diligence have been ascertained before the hearing before the 33199
director. Except as otherwise provided by statute, the court shall 33200
give the hearing on the appeal preference over all other civil 33201
matters, irrespective of the position of the proceedings on the 33202
calendar of the court.33203

       (3) The court shall affirm the director's order if it finds, 33204
upon consideration of the entire record and any additional 33205
evidence admitted under division (F)(2) of this section, that the 33206
order is supported by reliable, probative, and substantial 33207
evidence and is in accordance with law. In the absence of such a 33208
finding, it shall reverse, vacate, or modify the order.33209

       (4) If the court determines that the director committed 33210
material procedural error, the court shall remand the matter to 33211
the director for further consideration or action.33212

       (G) The court may award reasonable attorney's fees against 33213
the appellant if it determines that the appeal was frivolous. 33214
Sections 119.092, 119.093, and 2335.39 of the Revised Code do not 33215
apply to adjudication hearings under this section or section 33216
3702.52 of the Revised Code and judicial appeals under this 33217
section.33218

       (H) No person may intervene in an appeal brought under this 33219
section.33220

       Sec. 3702.62. (A) Any action pursuant to section 140.03, 33221
140.04, 140.05, 307.091, 313.21, 339.01, 339.021, 339.03, 339.06, 33222
339.08, 339.09, 339.12, 339.14, 513.05, 513.07, 513.08, 513.081, 33223
513.12, 513.15, 513.17, 513.171, 749.02, 749.03, 749.14, 749.16, 33224
749.20, 749.25, 749.28, 749.35, 1751.06, or 3707.29 of the Revised 33225
Code shall be taken in accordance with sections 3702.51 to 3702.61 33226
of the Revised Code.33227

       (B) A nursing home certified as an intermediate care facility 33228
for the mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security 33229
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, that is 33230
required to apply for licensure as a residential facility under 33231
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code is not, with respect to the 33232
portion of the home certified as an intermediate care facility for 33233
the mentally retarded, subject to sectionsSections 3702.51 to 33234
3702.61 of the Revised Code do not apply to any part of long-term 33235
care facility's campus that is certified as an intermediate care 33236
facility for the mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social 33237
Security Act," 79 Stat. 343 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq., as 33238
amended.33239

       Sec. 3703.01. (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 33240
section, the division of laborindustrial compliance in the 33241
department of commerce shall do all of the following:33242

       (1) Inspect all nonresidential buildings within the meaning 33243
of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code;33244

       (2) Condemn all unsanitary or defective plumbing that is 33245
found in connection with those places;33246

       (3) Order changes in plumbing necessary to insure the safety 33247
of the public health.33248

       (B)(1)(a) The division of laborindustrial compliance, boards 33249
of health of city and general health districts, and county 33250
building departments shall not inspect plumbing or collect fees 33251
for inspecting plumbing in particular types of buildings in any 33252
municipal corporation that is certified by the board of building 33253
standards under section 3781.10 of the Revised Code to exercise 33254
enforcement authority for plumbing in those types of buildings.33255

       (b) The division shall not inspect plumbing or collect fees 33256
for inspecting plumbing in particular types of buildings in any 33257
health district that employs one or more plumbing inspectors 33258
certified pursuant to division (D) of this section to enforce 33259
Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted 33260
pursuant to those chapters relating to plumbing in those types of 33261
buildings.33262

        (c) The division shall not inspect plumbing or collect fees 33263
for inspecting plumbing in particular types of buildings in any 33264
health district where the county building department is authorized 33265
to inspect those types of buildings pursuant to a contract 33266
described in division (C)(1) of this section.33267

       (d) The division shall not inspect plumbing or collect fees 33268
for inspecting plumbing in particular types of buildings in any 33269
health district where the board of health has entered into a 33270
contract with the board of health of another district to conduct 33271
inspections pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section.33272

       (2) No county building department shall inspect plumbing or 33273
collect fees for inspecting plumbing in any type of building in a 33274
health district unless the department is authorized to inspect 33275
that type of building pursuant to a contract described in division 33276
(C)(1) of this section.33277

        (3) No municipal corporation shall inspect plumbing or 33278
collect fees for inspecting plumbing in types of buildings for 33279
which it is not certified by the board of building standards under 33280
section 3781.10 of the Revised Code to exercise enforcement 33281
authority.33282

       (4) No board of health of a health district shall inspect 33283
plumbing or collect fees for inspecting plumbing in types of 33284
buildings for which it does not have a plumbing inspector 33285
certified pursuant to division (D) of this section.33286

       (C)(1) The board of health of a health district may enter 33287
into a contract with a board of county commissioners to authorize 33288
the county building department to inspect plumbing in buildings 33289
within the health district. The contract may designate that the 33290
department inspect either residential or nonresidential buildings, 33291
as those terms are defined in section 3781.06 of the Revised Code, 33292
or both types of buildings, so long as the department employs or 33293
contracts with a plumbing inspector certified pursuant to division 33294
(D) of this section to inspect the types of buildings the contract 33295
designates. The board of health may enter into a contract 33296
regardless of whether the health district employs any certified 33297
plumbing inspectors to enforce Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the 33298
Revised Code.33299

        (2) The board of health of a health district, regardless of 33300
whether it employs any certified plumbing inspectors to enforce 33301
Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code, may enter into a 33302
contract with the board of health of another health district to 33303
authorize that board to inspect plumbing in buildings within the 33304
contracting board's district. The contract may designate the 33305
inspection of either residential or nonresidential buildings as 33306
defined in section 3781.06 of the Revised Code, or both types of 33307
buildings, so long as the board that performs the inspections 33308
employs a plumbing inspector certified pursuant to division (D) of 33309
this section to inspect the types of buildings the contract 33310
designates.33311

       (D) The superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall 33312
adopt rules prescribing minimum qualifications based on education, 33313
training, experience, or demonstrated ability, that the 33314
superintendent shall use in certifying or recertifying plumbing 33315
inspectors to do plumbing inspections for health districts and 33316
county building departments that are authorized to perform 33317
inspections pursuant to a contract under division (C)(1) of this 33318
section, and for continuing education of plumbing inspectors. 33319
Those minimum qualifications shall be related to the types of 33320
buildings for which a person seeks certification.33321

       (E) The superintendent may enter into reciprocal 33322
registration, licensure, or certification agreements with other 33323
states and other agencies of this state relative to plumbing 33324
inspectors if both of the following apply:33325

        (1) The requirements for registration, licensure, or 33326
certification of plumbing inspectors under the laws of the other 33327
state or laws administered by the other agency are substantially 33328
equal to the requirements the superintendent adopts under division 33329
(D) of this section for certifying plumbing inspectors.33330

        (2) The other state or agency extends similar reciprocity to 33331
persons certified under this chapter.33332

       (F) The superintendent may select and contract with one or 33333
more persons to do all of the following regarding examinations for 33334
certification of plumbing inspectors:33335

        (1) Prepare, administer, score, and maintain the 33336
confidentiality of the examination;33337

        (2) Maintain responsibility for all expenses required to 33338
comply with division (F)(1) of this section;33339

        (3) Charge each applicant a fee for administering the 33340
examination in an amount the superintendent authorizes;33341

       (4) Design the examination for certification of plumbing 33342
inspectors to determine an applicant's competence to inspect 33343
plumbing.33344

       (G) Standards and methods prescribed in local plumbing 33345
regulations shall not be less than those prescribed in Chapters 33346
3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted pursuant 33347
to those chapters.33348

        (H) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the 33349
division shall make a plumbing inspection of any building or other 33350
place that there is reason to believe is in a condition to be a 33351
menace to the public health.33352

       Sec. 3703.03.  In the administration of sections 3703.01 to 33353
3703.08 of the Revised Code, the division of laborindustrial 33354
compliance shall enforce rules governing plumbing adopted by the 33355
board of building standards under authority of sections 3781.10 33356
and 3781.11 of the Revised Code, and register those persons 33357
engaged in or at the plumbing business.33358

       Plans and specifications for all plumbing to be installed in 33359
or for buildings coming within such sections shall be submitted to 33360
and approved by the division before the contract for plumbing is 33361
let.33362

       Sec. 3703.04.  The superintendent of laborindustrial 33363
compliance shall appoint such number of plumbing inspectors as is 33364
required. The inspectors shall be practical plumbers with at least 33365
seven years' experience, and skilled and well-trained in matters 33366
pertaining to sanitary regulations concerning plumbing work.33367

       Sec. 3703.05.  Plumbing inspectors employed by the division 33368
of laborindustrial compliance assigned to the enforcement of 33369
sections 3703.01 to 3703.08 of the Revised Code may, between 33370
sunrise and sunset, enter any building where there is good and 33371
sufficient reason to believe that the sanitary condition of the 33372
premises endangers the public health, for the purpose of making an 33373
inspection to ascertain the condition of the premises.33374

       Sec. 3703.06.  When any building is found to be in a sanitary 33375
condition or when changes which are ordered, under authority of 33376
this chapter, in the plumbing, drainage, or ventilation have been 33377
made, and after a thorough inspection and approval by the 33378
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance, the superintendent 33379
shall issue a certificate, which shall be posted in a conspicuous 33380
place for the benefit of the public at large. Upon notification by 33381
the superintendent, the certificate shall be revoked for any 33382
violation of those sections.33383

       Sec. 3703.07.  No plumbing work shall be done in any building 33384
or place coming within the jurisdiction of the division of labor33385
industrial compliance, except in cases of repairs or leaks in 33386
existing plumbing, until a permit has been issued by the division.33387

       Before granting such permit, an application shall be made by 33388
the owner of the property or by the person, firm, or corporation 33389
which is to do the work. The application shall be made on a form 33390
prepared by the division for the purpose, and each application 33391
shall be accompanied by a fee of twenty-seven dollars, and an 33392
additional fee of seven dollars for each trap, vented fixture, 33393
appliance, or device. Each application also shall be accompanied 33394
by a plan approval fee of eighteen dollars for work containing one 33395
through twenty fixtures; thirty-six dollars for work containing 33396
twenty-one through forty fixtures; and fifty-four dollars for work 33397
containing forty-one or more fixtures.33398

       Whenever a reinspection is made necessary by the failure of 33399
the applicant or plumbing contractor to have the work ready for 33400
inspection when so reported, or by reason of faulty or improper 33401
installation, the person shall pay a fee of forty-five dollars for 33402
each reinspection.33403

       All fees collected pursuant to this section shall be paid 33404
into the state treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial 33405
compliance operating fund created in section 121.084 of the 33406
Revised Code.33407

       The superintendent of laborindustrial compliance, by rule 33408
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may 33409
increase the fees required by this section and may establish fees 33410
to pay the costs of the division to fulfill its duties established 33411
by this chapter, including, but not limited to, fees for 33412
administering a program for continuing education for, and 33413
certifying and recertifying plumbing inspectors. The fees shall 33414
bear some reasonable relationship to the cost of administering and 33415
enforcing the provisions of this chapter.33416

       Sec. 3703.08.  Any owner, agent, or manager of a building in 33417
which an inspection is made by the division of laborindustrial 33418
compliance, a board of health of a health district, or a certified 33419
department of building inspection of a municipal corporation or a 33420
county shall have the entire system of drainage and ventilation 33421
repaired, as the division, board of health, or department of 33422
building inspection directs by its order. After due notice to 33423
repair that work is given, the owner, agent, or manager shall 33424
notify the public authority that issued the order when the work is 33425
ready for its inspection. No person shall fail to have the work 33426
ready for inspection at the time specified in the notice.33427

       Sec. 3703.10.  All prosecutions and proceedings by the 33428
division of laborindustrial compliance for the violation of 33429
sections 3703.01 to 3703.08 of the Revised Code, or for the 33430
violation of any of the orders or rules of the division under 33431
those sections, shall be instituted by the superintendent of 33432
laborindustrial compliance. All fines or judgments collected by 33433
the division shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit 33434
of the laborindustrial compliance operating fund created by 33435
section 121.084 of the Revised Code.33436

       The superintendent, the board of health of a general or city 33437
health district, or any person charged with enforcing the rules of 33438
the division adopted under sections 3703.01 to 3703.08 of the 33439
Revised Code may petition the court of common pleas for injunctive 33440
or other appropriate relief requiring any person violating a rule 33441
adopted or order issued by the superintendent under those sections 33442
to comply with the rule or order. The court of common pleas of the 33443
county in which the offense is alleged to be occurring may grant 33444
injunctive or other appropriate relief.33445

       The superintendent may do all of the following:33446

       (A) Deny an applicant certification as a plumbing inspector;33447

       (B) Suspend or revoke the certification of a plumbing 33448
inspector;33449

       (C) Examine any certified plumbing inspector under oath;33450

       (D) Examine the records and books of any certified plumbing 33451
inspector if the superintendent finds the material to be examined 33452
relevant to a determination described in division (A), (B), or (C) 33453
of this section.33454

       Sec. 3703.21.  (A) Within ninety days after September 16, 33455
2004, the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall 33456
appoint a backflow advisory board consisting of not more than ten 33457
members, who shall serve at the pleasure of the superintendent. 33458
The superintendent shall appoint a representative from the 33459
plumbing section of the division of laborindustrial compliance, 33460
three representatives recommended by the plumbing administrator of 33461
the division of laborindustrial compliance, a representative of 33462
the drinking water program of the Ohio environmental protection 33463
agency, three representatives recommended by the director of 33464
environmental protection, and not more than two members who are 33465
not employed by the plumbing or water industry.33466

       The board shall advise the superintendent on matters 33467
pertaining to the training and certification of backflow 33468
technicians.33469

       (B) The superintendent shall adopt rules in accordance with 33470
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to provide for the certification 33471
of backflow technicians. The rules shall establish all of the 33472
following requirements, specifications, and procedures:33473

       (1) Requirements and procedures for the initial certification 33474
of backflow technicians, including eligibility criteria and 33475
application requirements and fees;33476

       (2) Specifications concerning and procedures for taking 33477
examinations required for certification as a backflow technician, 33478
including eligibility criteria to take the examination and 33479
application requirements and fees for taking the examination;33480

       (3) Specifications concerning and procedures for renewing a 33481
certification as a backflow technician, including eligibility 33482
criteria, application requirements, and fees for renewal;33483

       (4) Specifications concerning and procedures for both of the 33484
following:33485

       (a) Approval of training agencies authorized to teach 33486
required courses to candidates for certification as backflow 33487
technicians or continuing education courses to certified backflow 33488
technicians;33489

       (b) Renewal of the approval described in division (B)(4)(a) 33490
of this section.33491

       (5) Education requirements that candidates for initial 33492
certification as backflow technicians must satisfy and continuing 33493
education requirements that certified backflow technicians must 33494
satisfy;33495

       (6) Grounds and procedures for denying, suspending, or 33496
revoking certification, or denying the renewal of certification, 33497
as a backflow technician;33498

       (7) Procedures for issuing administrative orders for the 33499
remedy of any violation of this section or any rule adopted 33500
pursuant to division (B) of this section, including, but not 33501
limited to, procedures for assessing a civil penalty authorized 33502
under division (D) of this section;33503

       (8) Any provision the superintendent determines is necessary 33504
to administer or enforce this section.33505

       (C) No individual shall engage in the installation, testing, 33506
or repair of any isolation backflow prevention device unless that 33507
individual possesses a valid certification as a backflow 33508
technician. This division does not apply with respect to the 33509
installation, testing, or repair of any containment backflow 33510
prevention device.33511

       (D) Whoever violates division (C) of this section or any rule 33512
adopted pursuant to division (B) of this section shall pay a civil 33513
penalty of not more than five thousand dollars for each day that 33514
the violation continues. The superintendent may, by order, assess 33515
a civil penalty under this division, or may request the attorney 33516
general to bring a civil action to impose the civil penalty in the 33517
court of common pleas of the county in which the violation 33518
occurred or where the violator resides.33519

       (E) Any action taken under a rule adopted pursuant to 33520
division (B)(6) of this section is subject to the appeal process 33521
of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. An administrative order 33522
issued pursuant to rules adopted under division (B)(7) of this 33523
section and an appeal to that type of administrative order shall 33524
be executed in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.33525

       (F) As used in this section:33526

       (1) "Isolation backflow prevention device" means a device for 33527
the prevention of the backflow of liquids, solids, or gases that 33528
is regulated by the building code adopted pursuant to section 33529
3781.10 of the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to this 33530
section.33531

       (2) "Containment backflow prevention device" means a device 33532
for the prevention of the backflow of liquids, solids, or gases 33533
that is installed by the supplier of, or as a requirement of, any 33534
public water system as defined in division (A) of section 6109.01 33535
of the Revised Code.33536

       Sec. 3703.99.  Whoever violates sections 3703.01 to 3703.08 33537
of the Revised Code, or any rule the division of laborindustrial 33538
compliance is required to enforce under such sections, shall be 33539
fined not less than ten nor more than one hundred dollars or 33540
imprisoned for not less than ten nor more than ninety days, or 33541
both. No person shall be imprisoned under this section for the 33542
first offense, and the prosecution always shall be as for a first 33543
offense unless the affidavit upon which the prosecution is 33544
instituted contains the allegation that the offense is a second or 33545
repeated offense.33546

       Sec. 3704.035. (A) There is hereby created in the state 33547
treasury the Title V clean air fund. Except as otherwise provided 33548
in division (K) of section 3745.11 of the Revised Code, all moneys 33549
collected under divisions (C), (D), (F), (G), (H), (I), and (J)33550
division (B) of that section and under section 3745.111 of the 33551
Revised Code, and any gifts, grants, or contributions received by 33552
the director of environmental protection for the purposes of the 33553
fund, shall be credited to the fund. The director shall expend 33554
moneys from the fund exclusively to pay the cost of administering 33555
and enforcing the laws of this state pertaining to the prevention, 33556
control, and abatement of air pollution and rules adopted and 33557
terms and conditions of permits, variances, and orders issued 33558
under those laws, except that the director shall not expend moneys 33559
credited to the fund for the administration and enforcement of 33560
motor vehicle inspection and maintenance programs and requirements 33561
under sections 3704.14, 3704.141, 3704.16, 3704.161, and 3704.162 33562
of the Revised Code.33563

       Specifically, theThe director shall expend all moneys 33564
credited to the fund from fees assessed under section 3745.11 of 33565
the Revised Code pursuant to the Title V permit program 33566
established under section 3704.036 of the Revised Code, and from 33567
any gifts, grants, or contributions received for the purposes of 33568
that program, solely to administer and enforce thatthe Title V33569
program pursuant to the federal Clean Air Act, this chapter, and 33570
rules adopted under it, except as costs relating to enforcement 33571
are limited by the federal Clean Air Act. The director shall 33572
establish separate and distinct accounting for all such moneys.33573

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 33574
non-Title V clean air fund. All money collected under divisions 33575
(D), (F), (G), (H), (I), and (J) of section 3745.11 of the Revised 33576
Code shall be credited to the fund. In addition, any gifts, 33577
grants, or contributions received by the director for the purposes 33578
of the fund shall be credited to the fund.33579

       The director shall expend money in the fund exclusively to 33580
pay the cost of administering and enforcing the laws of this state 33581
pertaining to the prevention, control, and abatement of air 33582
pollution, rules adopted under those laws, and terms and 33583
conditions of permits, variances, and orders issued under those 33584
laws. However, the director shall not expend money credited to the 33585
fund for the administration and enforcement of the Title V permit 33586
program established under this chapter and rules adopted under it 33587
or motor vehicle inspection and maintenance programs established 33588
under sections 3704.14, 3704.141, 3704.16, 3704.161, and 3704.162 33589
of the Revised Code.33590

       (C) The director shall report biennially to the general 33591
assembly the amounts of fees and other moneys credited to the fund33592
funds under this section and the amounts expended from itthem for 33593
each of the various air pollution control programs.33594

       Sec. 3705.24.  (A)(1) The publicdirector of health council33595
shall, in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code, 33596
adopt rules prescribing fees for the following items or services 33597
provided by the state office of vital statistics:33598

       (a) Except as provided in division (A)(4) of this section:33599

       (i) A certified copy of a vital record or a certification of 33600
birth;33601

       (ii) A search by the office of vital statistics of its files 33602
and records pursuant to a request for information, regardless of 33603
whether a copy of a record is provided;33604

       (iii) A copy of a record provided pursuant to a request.33605

       (b) Replacement of a birth certificate following an adoption, 33606
legitimation, paternity determination or acknowledgement, or court 33607
order;33608

       (c) Filing of a delayed registration of a vital record;33609

       (d) Amendment of a vital record that is requested later than 33610
one year after the filing date of the vital record;33611

       (e) Any other documents or services for which the public 33612
health councildirector considers the charging of a fee 33613
appropriate.33614

       (2) Fees prescribed under division (A)(1)(a) of this section 33615
shall not be less than twelve dollars.33616

       (3) Fees prescribed under division (A)(1) of this section 33617
shall be collected in addition to any fees required by sections 33618
3109.14 and 3705.242 of the Revised Code.33619

       (4) Fees prescribed under division (A) of this section shall 33620
not apply to certifications issued under division (H) of this 33621
section or copies provided under section 3705.241 of the Revised 33622
Code.33623

       (B) In addition to the fees prescribed under division (A) of 33624
this section or section 3709.09 of the Revised Code, the office of 33625
vital statistics, the board of health of a city or general health 33626
district, or a local registrar of vital statistics who is not a 33627
salaried employee of a city or general health district shall 33628
charge a five-dollar fee for each certified copy of a vital record 33629
and each certification of birth. This fee shall be deposited in 33630
the general operations fund created under section 3701.83 of the 33631
Revised Code and be used to support the operations, the 33632
modernization, and the automation of the vital records program in 33633
this state. A board of health or a local registrar shall forward 33634
all fees collected under this division to the department of health 33635
not later than thirty days after the end of each calendar quarter.33636

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (H) of this 33637
section, and except as provided in section 3705.241 of the Revised 33638
Code, fees collected by the director of health under sections 33639
3705.01 to 3705.29 of the Revised Code shall be paid into the 33640
state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 33641
created by section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. Except as provided 33642
in division (B) or (I) of this section, money generated by the 33643
fees shall be used only for administration and enforcement of this 33644
chapter and the rules adopted under it. Amounts submitted to the 33645
department of health for copies of vital records or services in 33646
excess of the fees imposed by this section shall be dealt with as 33647
follows:33648

       (1) An overpayment of two dollars or less shall be retained 33649
by the department and deposited in the state treasury to the 33650
credit of the general operations fund created by section 3701.83 33651
of the Revised Code.33652

       (2) An overpayment in excess of two dollars shall be returned 33653
to the person who made the overpayment.33654

       (D) If a local registrar is a salaried employee of a city or 33655
a general health district, any fees the local registrar receives 33656
pursuant to section 3705.23 of the Revised Code shall be paid into 33657
the general fund of the city or the health fund of the general 33658
health district.33659

       Each local registrar of vital statistics, or each health 33660
district where the local registrar is a salaried employee of the 33661
district, shall be entitled to a fee for each birth, fetal death, 33662
death, or military service certificate properly and completely 33663
made out and registered with the local registrar or district and 33664
correctly copied and forwarded to the office of vital statistics 33665
in accordance with the population of the primary registration 33666
district at the last federal census. The fee for each birth, fetal 33667
death, death, or military service certificate shall be:33668

       (1) In primary registration districts of over two hundred 33669
fifty thousand, twenty cents;33670

       (2) In primary registration districts of over one hundred 33671
twenty-five thousand and less than two hundred fifty thousand, 33672
sixty cents;33673

       (3) In primary registration districts of over fifty thousand 33674
and less than one hundred twenty-five thousand, eighty cents;33675

       (4) In primary registration districts of less than fifty 33676
thousand, one dollar.33677

       (E) The director of health shall annually certify to the 33678
county treasurers of the several counties the number of birth, 33679
fetal death, death, and military service certificates registered 33680
from their respective counties with the names of the local 33681
registrars and the amounts due each registrar and health district 33682
at the rates fixed in this section. Such amounts shall be paid by 33683
the treasurer of the county in which the registration districts 33684
are located. No fees shall be charged or collected by registrars 33685
except as provided by this chapter and section 3109.14 of the 33686
Revised Code.33687

       (F) A probate judge shall be paid a fee of fifteen cents for 33688
each certified abstract of marriage prepared and forwarded by the 33689
probate judge to the department of health pursuant to section 33690
3705.21 of the Revised Code. The fee shall be in addition to the 33691
fee paid for a marriage license and shall be paid by the 33692
applicants for the license.33693

       (G) The clerk of a court of common pleas shall be paid a fee 33694
of one dollar for each certificate of divorce, dissolution, and 33695
annulment of marriage prepared and forwarded by the clerk to the 33696
department pursuant to section 3705.21 of the Revised Code. The 33697
fee for the certified abstract of divorce, dissolution, or 33698
annulment of marriage shall be added to the court costs allowed in 33699
these cases.33700

       (H) The fee for an heirloom certification of birth issued 33701
pursuant to division (B)(2) of section 3705.23 of the Revised Code 33702
shall be an amount prescribed by rule by the director of health 33703
plus any fee required by section 3109.14 of the Revised Code. In 33704
setting the amount of the fee, the director shall establish a 33705
surcharge in addition to an amount necessary to offset the expense 33706
of processing heirloom certifications of birth. The fee prescribed 33707
by the director of health pursuant to this division shall be 33708
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the heirloom 33709
certification of birth fund which is hereby created. Money 33710
credited to the fund shall be used by the office of vital 33711
statistics to offset the expense of processing heirloom 33712
certifications of birth. However, the money collected for the 33713
surcharge, subject to the approval of the controlling board, shall 33714
be used for the purposes specified by the family and children 33715
first council pursuant to section 121.37 of the Revised Code.33716

       (I)(1) Four dollars of each fee collected by the board of 33717
health of a city or general health district for a certified copy 33718
of a vital record or a certification of birth shall be transferred 33719
to the office of vital statistics not later than thirty days after 33720
the end of each calendar quarter. The amount collected shall be 33721
used to support public health systems. Of each four dollars 33722
collected, one dollar shall be used by the director of health to 33723
pay subsidies to boards of health. The subsidies shall be 33724
distributed in accordance with the same formula established under 33725
section 3701.342 of the Revised Code for the distribution of state 33726
health district subsidy funds to boards of health and local health 33727
departments.33728

       (2) Four dollars of each fee collected by a local registrar 33729
of vital statistics who is not a salaried employee of a city or 33730
general health district, for a certified copy of a vital record or 33731
certification of birth, shall be transferred to the office of 33732
vital statistics not later than thirty days after the end of each 33733
calendar quarter. The amount collected shall be used to support 33734
public health systems.33735

       Sec. 3705.242. (A)(1) The director of health, a person 33736
authorized by the director, a local commissioner of health, or a 33737
local registrar of vital statistics shall charge and collect a fee 33738
of one dollar and fifty cents for each certified copy of a birth 33739
record, each certification of birth, and each copy of a death 33740
record. The fee is in addition to the fee imposed by section 33741
3705.24 or any other section of the Revised Code. A local 33742
commissioner of health or local registrar of vital statistics may 33743
retain an amount of each additional fee collected, not to exceed 33744
three per cent of the amount of the additional fee, to be used for 33745
costs directly related to the collection of the fee and the 33746
forwarding of the fee to the treasurer of statedepartment of 33747
health. The33748

       The additional fees collected by the director of health or a 33749
person authorized by the director and the additional fees33750
collected, but not retained, under division (A)(1) of this section33751
by a local commissioner of health or a local registrar of vital 33752
statistics shall be forwarded to the treasurer of statedepartment 33753
of health not later than thirty days following the end of each 33754
quarter. Not later than two days after the fees are forwarded to 33755
the department each quarter, the department shall pay the 33756
collected fees to the treasurer of state in accordance with rules 33757
adopted by the treasurer of state under section 113.08 of the 33758
Revised Code.33759

       (2) On the filing of a divorce decree under section 3105.10 33760
or a decree of dissolution under section 3105.65 of the Revised 33761
Code, a court of common pleas shall charge and collect a fee of 33762
five dollars and fifty cents. The fee is in addition to any other 33763
court costs or fees. The county clerk of courts may retain an 33764
amount of each additional fee collected, not to exceed three per 33765
cent of the amount of the additional fee, to be used for costs 33766
directly related to the collection of the fee and the forwarding 33767
of the fee to the treasurer of state. The additional fees 33768
collected, but not retained, under division (A)(2) of this section 33769
shall be forwarded to the treasurer of state not later than twenty 33770
days following the end of each month.33771

       (B) The treasurer of state shall deposit the fees paid or33772
forwarded under this section in the state treasury to the credit 33773
of the family violence prevention fund, which is hereby created. A 33774
person or government entity that fails to pay or forward the fees 33775
in a timely manner, as determined by the treasurer of state, shall 33776
forwardsend to the treasurer of state, in addition to the fees, a 33777
penalty equal to ten per cent of the fees.33778

       The treasurer of state shall invest the moneys in the fund. 33779
All earnings resulting from investment of the fund shall be 33780
credited to the fund, except that actual administration costs 33781
incurred by the treasurer of state in administering the fund may 33782
be deducted from the earnings resulting from investments. The 33783
amount that may be deducted shall not exceed three per cent of the 33784
total amount of fees credited to the fund in each fiscal year. The 33785
balance of the investment earnings shall be credited to the fund.33786

       (C) The director of public safety shall use money credited to 33787
the fund to provide grants to family violence shelters in Ohio and 33788
to operate the division of criminal justice services.33789

       Sec. 3705.30.  (A) As used in this section:33790

       (1) "Freestanding birthing center" has the same meaning as in 33791
section 3702.513702.141 of the Revised Code.33792

       (2) "Hospital" means a hospital classified under section 33793
3701.07 of the Revised Code as a general hospital or children's 33794
hospital.33795

       (3) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 33796
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 33797
osteopathic medicine and surgery.33798

       (B) The director of health shall establish and, if funds for 33799
this purpose are available, implement a statewide birth defects 33800
information system for the collection of information concerning 33801
congenital anomalies, stillbirths, and abnormal conditions of 33802
newborns.33803

       (C) If the system is implemented under division (B) of this 33804
section, all of the following apply:33805

       (1) The director may require each physician, hospital, and 33806
freestanding birthing center to report to the system information 33807
concerning all patients under five years of age with a primary 33808
diagnosis of a congenital anomaly or abnormal condition. The 33809
director shall not require a hospital, freestanding birthing 33810
center, or physician to report to the system any information that 33811
is reported to the director or department of health under another 33812
provision of the Revised Code or Administrative Code.33813

       (2) On request, each physician, hospital, and freestanding 33814
birthing center shall give the director or authorized employees of 33815
the department of health access to the medical records of any 33816
patient described in division (C)(1) of this section. The 33817
department shall pay the costs of copying any medical records 33818
pursuant to this division.33819

       (3) The director may review vital statistics records and 33820
shall consider expanding the list of congenital anomalies and 33821
abnormal conditions of newborns reported on birth certificates 33822
pursuant to section 3705.08 of the Revised Code.33823

       (D) A physician, hospital, or freestanding birthing center 33824
that provides information to the system under division (C) of this 33825
section shall not be subject to criminal or civil liability for 33826
providing the information.33827

       Sec. 3706.19.  (A) There is hereby created in the Ohio air 33828
quality development authority the office of ombudsmanombudsperson33829
for the small business stationary source technical and 33830
environmental compliance assistance program created under section 33831
3704.18 of the Revised Code. The office shall exercise its duties 33832
independently of any other state agency.33833

       (B) Not later than one year after the effective date of this 33834
section, theThe governor, with the advice and consent of the 33835
senate, shall appoint the initial ombudsmanombudsperson. The33836
ombudsmanombudsperson shall serve for a term of four years. The 33837
person who is appointed to serve as the ombudsmanombudsperson33838
shall be experienced in management and in working with private 33839
enterprise and government entities, knowledgeable in the areas of 33840
arbitration and negotiation, experienced in interpreting statutory 33841
and regulatory law, and knowledgeable in investigation techniques 33842
and procedures, recordkeeping, and report writing. The ombudsman33843
ombudsperson may be the highest ranking managerial employee of the 33844
authority.33845

       (C) The ombudsmanombudsperson shall do all of the following:33846

       (1) Ensure that the goals of the program are being met;33847

       (2) Conduct independent evaluations of all aspects of the 33848
program;33849

       (3) Review the development and implementation of air 33850
pollution control requirements that have an impact on small 33851
businesses in the state and provide comments and recommendations, 33852
as appropriate, to the environmental protection agency and the 33853
United States environmental protection agency;33854

       (4) Facilitate and promote the participation of small 33855
businesses in the development of rules to be adopted under Chapter 33856
3704. of the Revised Code that affect small businesses;33857

       (5) Aid in the dissemination of information, including air 33858
pollution requirements and control technologies, to small 33859
businesses and other interested persons;33860

       (6) Provide free, confidential assistance on individual 33861
source problems and grievances presented by small businesses;33862

       (7) Aid in investigating and resolving complaints against, 33863
and disputes involving, the agency from small businesses;33864

       (8) Refer small businesses to the appropriate specialist in 33865
the program from whom they may obtain information and assistance 33866
on affordable alternative technologies, process changes, and 33867
products and operational methods to help reduce air pollution and 33868
accidental releases;33869

       (9) Work with trade associations and small businesses to 33870
effect voluntary compliance with the federal Clean Air Act, 33871
Chapter 3704. of the Revised Code, and rules adopted under it;33872

       (10) Work with other states to establish a network for 33873
sharing information on small businesses and their efforts to 33874
comply with the federal Clean Air Act and state and local air 33875
pollution control laws;33876

       (11) Seek public and private funding sources that can 33877
financially assist small businesses that are in need of moneys to 33878
comply with air pollution control laws;33879

       (12) Conduct studies to evaluate the impacts of the federal 33880
Clean Air Act on the state's economy, local economies, and small 33881
businesses.33882

       (D) There is hereby created in the state treasury the small 33883
business ombudsmanombudsperson fund, which shall consist of 33884
moneys transferred to it from the Title V clean air fund created 33885
in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code. Moneys in the fund shall 33886
be used exclusively for the purposes of this section.33887

       The director of environmental protection and the executive 33888
director of the authority annually shall determine the amount of 33889
moneys necessary for the operation of the office of the ombudsman33890
ombudsperson. Thereafter, the director shall request the director 33891
of budget and management to, and that director shall, transfer 33892
that amount of moneys from the Title V clean air fund to the small 33893
business ombudsmanombudsperson fund.33894

       (E) There is hereby created in the state treasury the small 33895
business assistance fund, which shall consist of moneys credited 33896
to it under division (K) of section 3745.11 of the Revised Code. 33897
The ombudsmanombudsperson shall use moneys in the fund solely to 33898
provide financial assistance to small businesses that have one 33899
hundred or fewer employees and that are having financial 33900
difficulty complying with the "Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990," 33901
104 Stat. 2399, 42 U.S.C.A. 7401, and regulations adopted under 33902
it.33903

       In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the33904
ombudsmanombudsperson shall adopt rules establishing procedures 33905
and requirements governing grants awarded under this division.33906

       Sec. 3709.03.  (A) There is hereby created in each general 33907
health district a district advisory council. A council shall 33908
consist of the president of the board of county commissioners, the 33909
chief executive of each municipal corporation not constituting a 33910
city health district, and the president of the board of township 33911
trustees of each township. The board of county commissioners, the 33912
legislative body of a municipal corporation, and the board of 33913
township trustees of a township may select an alternate from among 33914
themselves to serve if the president, the chief executive, or the 33915
president of the board of township trustees is unable to attend 33916
any meeting of the district advisory council. When attending a 33917
meeting on behalf of a council member, the alternate may vote on 33918
any matter on which the member is authorized to vote.33919

       The council shall organize by selecting a chair and secretary 33920
from among its members. The council shall adopt bylaws governing 33921
its meetings, the transaction of business, and voting procedures.33922

       The council shall meet annually in March at a place 33923
determined by the chair and the health commissioner for the 33924
purpose of electing the chair and the secretary, making necessary 33925
appointments to the board of health, receiving and considering the 33926
annual or special reports from the board of health, and making 33927
recommendations to the board of health or to the department of 33928
health in regard to matters for the betterment of health and 33929
sanitation within the district or for needed legislation. The 33930
secretary of the council shall notify the district health 33931
commissioner and the director of health of the proceedings of such 33932
meeting.33933

       Special meetings of the council shall be held on the order of 33934
any of the following:33935

       (1) The director of health;33936

       (2) The board of health;33937

       (3) The lesser of five or a majority of district advisory 33938
council members.33939

       The district health commissioner shall attend all meetings of 33940
the council.33941

       (B) The district advisory council shall appoint four members 33942
of the board of health, and the remaining member shall be 33943
appointed by the health district licensing council established 33944
under section 3709.41 of the Revised Code. At least one member of 33945
the board of health shall be a physician. Appointments shall be 33946
made with due regard to equal representation of all parts of the 33947
district.33948

       (C) If at an annual or special meeting at which a member of 33949
the board of health is to be appointed fewer than a majority of 33950
the members of the district council are present, the council, by 33951
the majority vote of council members present, may organize an 33952
executive committee to make the appointment. An executive 33953
committee shall consist of five council members, including the 33954
president of the board of county commissioners, the council chair, 33955
the council secretary, and two additional council members selected 33956
by majority affirmative vote of the council members present at the 33957
meeting. The additional members selected shall include one 33958
representative of municipal corporations in the district that are 33959
not city health districts and one representative of townships in 33960
the district. If an individual is eligible for more than one 33961
position on the executive committee due to holding a particular 33962
office, the individual shall fill one position on the committee 33963
and the other position shall be filled by a member selected by a 33964
majority affirmative vote of the council members present at the 33965
meeting. A council member's alternate for annual meetings may 33966
serve as the member's alternate at meetings of the executive 33967
committee.33968

       Not later than thirty days after an executive committee is 33969
organized, the committee shall meet and the council chair shall 33970
present to the committee the matter of appointing a member of the 33971
board of health. The committee shall appoint the board member by 33972
majority affirmative vote. In the case of a combined health 33973
district, the executive committee shall appoint only members of 33974
the board of health that are to be appointed by the district 33975
advisory council, unless the contract for administration of health 33976
affairs in the combined district provides otherwise. If a majority 33977
affirmative vote is not reached within thirty days after the 33978
executive committee is organized, the director of health shall 33979
appoint the member of the board of health under the authority 33980
conferred by section 3709.03 of the Revised Code.33981

       If the council fails to meet or appoint a member of the board 33982
of health as required by this section or section 3709.02 of the 33983
Revised Code, the director of health, with the consent of the 33984
public health council, may appoint the member.33985

       Sec. 3709.04.  If in any general health district the district 33986
advisory council fails to meet or to select a board of health, the 33987
director of health may, with the consent of the public health 33988
council, appoint a board of health for such district which shall 33989
have and exercise all powers conferred on a board of health of a 33990
general health district.33991

       Sec. 3709.06.  If any city fails to establish a board of 33992
health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code, the director of 33993
health, with the approval of the public health council, may 33994
appoint a health commissioner for such city, and fix histhe 33995
commissioner's salary and term of office. Such commissioner shall 33996
have the same powers and perform the duties granted to or imposed 33997
upon a board of health of a city health district, except that 33998
rules, regulations, or orders of a general nature, made by himthe 33999
commissioner and required to be published, shall be approved by 34000
the director. The salary of such commissioner and all necessary 34001
expenses incurred by himthe commissioner in performing the duties 34002
of the board shall be paid by and be a valid claim against such 34003
city.34004

       Sec. 3709.085.  (A) The board of health of a city or general 34005
health district may enter into a contract with any political 34006
subdivision or other governmental agency to obtain or provide all 34007
or part of any services, including, but not limited to, 34008
enforcement services, for the purposes of Chapter 3704. of the 34009
Revised Code, the rules adopted and orders made pursuant thereto, 34010
or any other ordinances or rules for the prevention, control, and 34011
abatement of air pollution.34012

       (B)(1) As used in division (B)(2) of this section:34013

       (a) "Semipublic disposal system" means a disposal system that 34014
treats the sanitary sewage discharged from publicly or privately 34015
owned buildings or places of assemblage, entertainment, 34016
recreation, education, correction, hospitalization, housing, or 34017
employment, but does not include a disposal system that treats 34018
sewage in amounts of more than twenty-five thousand gallons per 34019
day; a disposal system for the treatment of sewage that is exempt 34020
from the requirements of section 6111.04 of the Revised Code 34021
pursuant to division (F)(7) of that section; or a disposal system 34022
for the treatment of industrial waste.34023

       (b) Terms defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised Code have 34024
the same meanings as in that section.34025

       (2) The board of health of a city or general health district 34026
may enter into a contract with the environmental protection agency 34027
to conduct on behalf of the agency inspection or enforcement 34028
services, for the purposes of Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code 34029
and rules adopted thereunder, for the disposal or treatment of 34030
sewage from semipublic disposal systems. The board of health of a 34031
city or general health district may charge a fee established 34032
pursuant to section 3709.09 of the Revised Code to be paid by the 34033
owner or operator of a semipublic disposal system for inspections 34034
conducted by the board pursuant to a contract entered into under 34035
division (B)(2) of this section, except that the board shall not 34036
charge a fee for those inspections conducted at any recreational 34037
vehicle park, recreation camp, or combined park-camp that is 34038
licensed under section 3729.05 of the Revised Code or at any 34039
manufactured home park that is licensed under section 3733.0334040
4781.27 of the Revised Code.34041

       Sec. 3709.09.  (A) The board of health of a city or general 34042
health district may, by rule, establish a uniform system of fees 34043
to pay the costs of any services provided by the board.34044

       The fee for issuance of a certified copy of a vital record or 34045
a certification of birth shall not be less than the fee prescribed 34046
for the same service under division (A)(1) of section 3705.24 of 34047
the Revised Code and shall include the fees required by division 34048
(B) of section 3705.24 and section 3109.14 of the Revised Code.34049

       Fees for services provided by the board for purposes 34050
specified in sections 3701.344, 3711.10, 3718.06, 3729.07, 34051
3730.03, and 3749.04 of the Revised Code shall be established in 34052
accordance with rules adopted under division (B) of this section. 34053
The district advisory council, in the case of a general health 34054
district, and the legislative authority of the city, in the case 34055
of a city health district, may disapprove any fee established by 34056
the board of health under this division, and any such fee, as 34057
disapproved, shall not be charged by the board of health.34058

       (B) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 34059
under section 111.15 of the Revised Code that establish fee 34060
categories and a uniform methodology for use in calculating the 34061
costs of services provided for purposes specified in sections 34062
3701.344, 3711.10, 3718.06, 3729.07, 3730.03, and 3749.04 of the 34063
Revised Code. In adopting the rules, the public health council34064
director shall consider recommendations it receives from advisory 34065
boards established either by statute or the director of health for 34066
entities subject to the fees.34067

       (C) Except when a board of health establishes a fee by 34068
adopting a rule as an emergency measure, the board of health shall 34069
hold a public hearing regarding each proposed fee for a service 34070
provided by the board for a purpose specified in section 3701.344, 34071
3711.10, 3718.06, 3729.07, 3730.03, or 3749.04 of the Revised 34072
Code. If a public hearing is held, at least twenty days prior to 34073
the public hearing the board shall give written notice of the 34074
hearing to each entity affected by the proposed fee. The notice 34075
shall be mailed to the last known address of each entity and shall 34076
specify the date, time, and place of the hearing and the amount of 34077
the proposed fee.34078

       (D) If payment of a fee established under this section is not 34079
received by the day on which payment is due, the board of health 34080
shall assess a penalty. The amount of the penalty shall be equal 34081
to twenty-five per cent of the applicable fee.34082

       (E) All rules adopted by a board of health under this section 34083
shall be adopted, recorded, and certified as are ordinances of 34084
municipal corporations and the record thereof shall be given in 34085
all courts the same effect as is given such ordinances, but the 34086
advertisements of such rules shall be by publication in one 34087
newspaper of general circulation within the health district. 34088
Publication shall be made once a week for two consecutive weeks or 34089
as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, and such rules 34090
shall take effect and be in force ten days from the date of the 34091
first publication.34092

       Sec. 3709.092. (A) A board of health of a city or general 34093
health district shall transmit to the director of health all fees 34094
or additional amounts that the public health councildirector34095
requires to be collected under sections 3701.344, 3718.06, 34096
3729.07, and 3749.04 of the Revised Code. The fees and amounts 34097
shall be transmitted according to the following schedule:34098

       (1) For fees and amounts received by the board on or after 34099
the first day of January but not later than the thirty-first day 34100
of March, transmit the fees and amounts not later than the 34101
fifteenth day of May; 34102

       (2) For fees and amounts received by the board on or after 34103
the first day of April but not later than the thirtieth day of 34104
June, transmit the fees and amounts not later than the fifteenth 34105
day of August; 34106

       (3) For fees and amounts received by the board on or after 34107
the first day of July but not later than the thirtieth day of 34108
September, transmit the fees and amounts not later than the 34109
fifteenth day of November; 34110

       (4) For fees and amounts received by the board on or after 34111
the first day of October but not later than the thirty-first day 34112
of December, transmit the fees and amounts not later than the 34113
fifteenth day of February of the following year. 34114

       (B) The director shall deposit the fees and amounts received 34115
under this section into the state treasury to the credit of the 34116
general operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the Revised 34117
Code. Each amount shall be used solely for the purpose for which 34118
it was collected.34119

       Sec. 3709.32.  The president of each board of health 34120
providing health services in one or more health districts and the 34121
chief executive officer of each health department providing health 34122
services in one or more health districts shall, on or before the 34123
first day of March of each year, certify the amounts expended 34124
during the preceding calendar year which qualify for state health 34125
district subsidy funds under section 3701.342 of the Revised Code 34126
and rules ofadopted by the publicdirector of health council. The 34127
director of health shall certify the amount payable under the 34128
state health district subsidy funds distribution formula adopted 34129
by the publicdirector of health council under section 3701.342 of 34130
the Revised Code to the director of budget and management for 34131
payment. Payment shall not be made unless:34132

       (A) The board or department has provided such information 34133
concerning services and costs as is requested by the director of 34134
health;34135

       (B) The certificate of the board of health or health 34136
department has been endorsed by the director of health;34137

       (C) The board or department has complied with section 34138
3701.342 of the Revised Code and public health council rules 34139
adopted by the director of health;34140

       (D) The municipal corporations and townships composing the 34141
health district have provided adequate local funding for public 34142
health services. The publicdirector of health council shall 34143
determine what constitutes adequate local funding, and may grant 34144
an exception to this requirement to a municipal corporation or 34145
township if unusually severe economic conditions prevent it from 34146
receiving adequate tax revenues to help support minimally 34147
acceptable public health services.34148

       No state health district subsidy funds shall be granted to 34149
any board or department that decreases its appropriation for 34150
public health services in anticipation of using state funds to 34151
provide public health services normally supported by local 34152
revenues.34153

       Sec. 3709.35.  If the director of health findscharges that 34154
the health commissioner or a member of the board of health of a 34155
health district is guilty of misfeasance, malfeasance, or 34156
nonfeasance or has failed to perform any or all of the duties 34157
required by sections 3701.10, 3701.29, 3701.81, 3707.08, 3707.14, 34158
3707.16, 3707.47, and 3709.01 to 3709.36 of the Revised Code, the 34159
director shall prefer a charge against the commissioner or board 34160
member before the public health council and shall notify the 34161
commissioner or board member as to the time and place at which 34162
such charges will be heard. If the councildirector, after 34163
hearing, finds the commissioner or board member guilty of the 34164
charge, it may remove such commissioner or member from office.34165

       If the lesser of three or one-fifth of the members of a 34166
district advisory council have reason to believe a member of the 34167
board of health of a general health district is guilty of 34168
misfeasance, malfeasance, or nonfeasance or has failed to perform 34169
any or all of the duties required by sections 3701.10, 3701.29, 34170
3701.81, 3707.14, 3707.16, 3707.47, and 3709.01 to 3709.36 of the 34171
Revised Code, the district advisory council members shall prefer a 34172
charge against the board member before the district advisory 34173
council and shall notify the board member as to the time and place 34174
at which such charges will be heard. If a majority of the council, 34175
after hearing, finds the board member guilty of the charge, it may 34176
remove the member from office.34177

       When any member of the board of health of a general or city 34178
health district is removed from office, the district advisory 34179
council or the chief executive of the city, upon notice of such 34180
removal, shall within thirty days after receipt of such notice 34181
fill the vacancy in accordance with section 3709.03 or 3709.05 of 34182
the Revised Code.34183

       Sec. 3710.01.  As used in this chapter:34184

       (A) "Asbestos" means the asbestiform varieties of chrysotile 34185
or serpentine, amosite or cummingtonitegrunerite, crocidolite or 34186
riebeckite, actinolite, tremolite, and anthophylite.34187

       (B) "Asbestos hazard abatement activity" means any activity 34188
involving the removal, renovation, enclosure, repair, or 34189
encapsulation of reasonably related friable asbestos-containing 34190
materials in an amount greater than fifty linear feet or fifty 34191
square feet. "Asbestos hazard abatement activity" also includes 34192
any such activity involving such asbestos-containing materials in 34193
an amount of fifty linear or fifty square feet or less if, when 34194
combined with any other reasonably related activity in terms of 34195
time and location of the activity, the total amount is in an 34196
amount greater than fifty linear or fifty square feet.34197

       (C) "Asbestos hazard abatement contractor" means a business 34198
entity or public entity that engages in or intends to engage in 34199
asbestos hazard abatement activities and that employs or 34200
supervises one or more asbestos hazard abatement specialists for 34201
asbestos hazard abatement activities. "Asbestos hazard abatement 34202
contractor" does not mean an employee of an asbestos hazard 34203
abatement contractor, a general contractor who subcontracts to an 34204
asbestos hazard abatement contractor an asbestos hazard abatement 34205
activity, or any individual who engages in asbestos hazard 34206
abatement activity in histhe individual's own home.34207

       (D) "Asbestos hazard abatement project" means one or more 34208
asbestos hazard abatement activities that are conducted by one 34209
asbestos hazard abatement contractor and that are reasonably 34210
related to each other.34211

       (E) "Asbestos hazard abatement specialist" means a person 34212
with responsibility for the oversight or supervision of asbestos 34213
hazard abatement activities, including asbestos hazard abatement 34214
project managers, hazard abatement project supervisors and 34215
foremen, and employees of school districts or other governmental 34216
or public entities who coordinate or directly supervise or oversee 34217
asbestos hazard abatement activities performed by school district, 34218
governmental, or other public employees in school district, 34219
governmental, or other public buildings.34220

       (F) "Asbestos hazard evaluation specialist" means a person 34221
responsible for the identification, detection, and assessment of 34222
asbestos-containing materials, the determination of appropriate 34223
response actions, or the preparation of asbestos management plans 34224
for the purpose of protecting the public health from the hazards 34225
associated with exposure to asbestos, including the performance of 34226
air and bulk sampling. This category of specialists includes 34227
management planners, health professionals, industrial hygienists, 34228
private consultants, or other individuals involved in asbestos 34229
risk identification or assessment or regulatory activities.34230

       (G) "Business entity" means a partnership, firm, association, 34231
corporation, sole proprietorship, or other business concern.34232

       (H) "Public entity" means the state or any of its political 34233
subdivisions or any agency or instrumentality of either.34234

       (I) "License" means a document issued by the department of 34235
health to a business entity or public entity affirming that the 34236
entity has met the requirements set forth in this chapter to 34237
engage in asbestos hazard abatement activities as an asbestos 34238
hazard abatement contractor.34239

       (J) "Certificate" means:34240

       (1) A document issued by the department to an individual 34241
affirming that the individual has successfully completed the 34242
training and other requirements set forth in this chapter to 34243
qualify as an asbestos hazard abatement specialist, an asbestos 34244
hazard evaluation specialist, an asbestos hazard abatement worker, 34245
an asbestos hazard abatement project designer, an asbestos hazard 34246
abatement air-monitoring technician, an approved asbestos hazard 34247
training provider, or other category of asbestos hazard specialist 34248
that the public health councildirector establishes by rule; or34249

       (2) A document issued by a training institution in accordance 34250
with rules adopted by the public health councildirector affirming 34251
that an individual has successfully completed the instruction 34252
required in all categories as provided in sections 3710.07 and 34253
3710.10 of the Revised Code.34254

       (K) "Person" means any individual, business entity, 34255
governmental body, or other public or private entity.34256

       (L) "Encapsulate" means to coat, bind, or resurface walls, 34257
ceilings, pipes, or other structures to prevent friable asbestos 34258
from becoming airborne.34259

       (M) "Friable asbestos-containing material" means any material 34260
that contains more than one per cent asbestos by weight and that 34261
can be crumbled, pulverized, or reduced to powder, when dry, by 34262
hand pressure.34263

       (N) "Enclosure" means the permanent confinement of friable 34264
asbestos-containing materials with an airtight barrier in an area 34265
not used as an air plenum.34266

       (O) "Renovation" means the removal or stripping of friable 34267
asbestos-containing materials used on any pipe, duct, boiler, 34268
tank, reactor, turbine, furnace, or load supporting member.34269

       (P) "Asbestos hazard abatement worker" means the person 34270
responsible in a nonsupervisory capacity for the performance of an 34271
asbestos hazard abatement activity.34272

       (Q) "Asbestos hazard abatement project designer" means the 34273
person responsible for the determination of the workscope, work 34274
sequence, or performance standards for an asbestos hazard 34275
abatement activity, including preparation of specifications, 34276
plans, and contract documents.34277

       (R) "Director" means the director of health or histhe 34278
director's authorized representative.34279

       (S) "Clearance air sampling" means an air sampling performed 34280
after the completion of any asbestos hazard abatement activity and 34281
prior to the reoccupation of the contained work area by the public 34282
and conducted for the purpose of protecting the public from the 34283
health hazards associated with exposure to friable 34284
asbestos-containing material.34285

       (T) "Asbestos hazard abatement air-monitoring technician" 34286
means the person who is responsible for environmental monitoring 34287
or work area clearance air sampling, including air monitoring 34288
performed to determine completion of response actions under the 34289
rules set forth in 40 C.F.R. 763 Subpart E, adopted by the United 34290
States environmental protection agency pursuant to the "Asbestos 34291
Hazard Emergency Response Act of 1986," Pub. L. 99-519, 100 Stat. 34292
2970. "Asbestos hazard abatement air-monitoring technician" does 34293
not mean an industrial hygienist or industrial hygienist in 34294
training, certified by the American board of industrial hygiene.34295

       Sec. 3710.02.  (A) Subject toIn accordance with Chapter 119. 34296
of the Revised Code, the publicdirector of health council shall, 34297
as itthe director determines necessary, adopt rules to carry out 34298
this chapter. The rules shall include all of the following:34299

       (1) Criteria and procedures for the certification of asbestos 34300
hazard abatement specialists, asbestos hazard evaluation 34301
specialists, asbestos hazard abatement workers, asbestos hazard 34302
abatement project designers, and asbestos hazard abatement 34303
air-monitoring technicians by the director of health;34304

       (2) Criteria and procedures for the director to examine the 34305
records of licensees, certificate holders, and asbestos hazard 34306
abatement training schools;34307

       (3) Procedures and criteria in addition to those provided in 34308
this chapter for the approval of courses for asbestos hazard 34309
training;34310

       (4) Fees for licenses, certifications, and course approvals 34311
in excess of the levels set in section 3710.05 of the Revised Code 34312
and fees for the certification of asbestos hazard abatement 34313
air-monitoring technicians;34314

       (5) Levels of asbestos exposure or other circumstances 34315
constituting a public health emergency that authorize the director 34316
to issue an emergency order under division (B) of section 3710.13 34317
of the Revised Code;34318

       (6) Employee training standards, work practices that reduce 34319
the risk of contamination and recontamination of the environment, 34320
record-keeping requirements, action levels, project clearance 34321
levels, and other requirements that asbestos hazard abatement 34322
contractors, asbestos hazard abatement specialists, asbestos 34323
hazard evaluation specialists, asbestos hazard abatement project 34324
designers, asbestos hazard abatement air-monitoring technicians, 34325
asbestos hazard abatement workers, and other persons involved with 34326
asbestos hazard abatement activities must follow for the 34327
prevention of hazard to the public;34328

       (7) Worker protection equipment and practices and other 34329
health and safety standards for employees and agents of public 34330
entities coming in contact with asbestos through asbestos hazard 34331
abatement activity;34332

       (8) Standards of acceptable conduct for licensees and 34333
certificate holders engaged in asbestos hazard abatement or 34334
evaluation activities and acts and omissions that constitute 34335
grounds for the suspension or revocation of a license or 34336
certificate, or the denial of an application or renewal of a 34337
license or certificate in addition to those otherwise provided in 34338
this chapter;34339

       (9) Training requirements for asbestos hazard abatement 34340
project designers and asbestos hazard abatement air-monitoring 34341
technicians;34342

       (10)(a) Subject to the condition specified in division 34343
(A)(10)(b) of this section, a standard requiring that the amount 34344
of asbestos contained in the air in areas accessible to the public 34345
in buildings that are owned, operated, or leased by a public 34346
entity be not more than ten thousand asbestos fibers longer than 34347
five microns per cubic meter of air calculated as an eight-hour 34348
time-weighted average, which is measured during periods of normal 34349
building occupancy, and a requirement that measurement of airborne 34350
asbestos be made by either or both of the following methods, 34351
provided that results derived by use of the method described in 34352
division (A)(10)(a)(i) of this section supersede results derived 34353
by use of the method described in division (A)(10)(a)(ii) of this 34354
section if both methods are used and the methods yield conflicting 34355
results concerning the presence of fibers in the tested air that 34356
may not be asbestos:34357

       (i) Transmission electron microscopy in the manner described 34358
in the measurement protocol established by the United States 34359
environmental protection agency as set forth in 40 C.F.R. 763;34360

       (ii) Optical phase contrast microscopy in the manner 34361
described in the measurement protocol established by the United 34362
States occupational safety and health administration as set forth 34363
in 29 C.F.R. 1910.34364

       (b) The public health councildirector periodically shall 34365
review the standard required by division (A)(10)(a) of this 34366
section and determine whether and how it should be amended and how 34367
it shall be used in conjunction with visual and physical 34368
assessment of asbestos-containing materials located in buildings 34369
that are owned, operated, or leased by a public entity to 34370
determine appropriate and cost-effective response actions to such 34371
asbestos-containing materials and shall amend the standard if it 34372
determines that such action is necessary.34373

       (11) Other rules that the public health councildirector34374
determines necessary for the implementation of this chapter and to 34375
protect the public health from the hazards associated with 34376
exposure to asbestos.34377

       (B) The director shall do all of the following:34378

       (1) Administer and enforce this chapter and the rules of the 34379
public health council adopted pursuant thereto;34380

       (2) Develop comprehensive programs and policies for the 34381
control and prevention of nonoccupational exposure of the public 34382
to friable asbestos-containing materials;34383

       (3) Ensure that persons are trained and licensed or 34384
certified, where appropriate, in accordance with this chapter and 34385
the rules of the public health council adopted pursuant thereto;34386

       (4) Examine those records of licensed asbestos hazard 34387
abatement contractors, certified asbestos hazard abatement 34388
specialists, asbestos hazard evaluation specialists, asbestos 34389
hazard abatement project designers, asbestos hazard abatement 34390
air-monitoring technicians, and asbestos hazard training courses 34391
in accordance with rules adopted by the public health council34392
director as hethe director determines necessary to determine 34393
compliance with this chapter and the rules of the public health 34394
council adopted pursuant thereto;34395

       (5) Prohibit and prevent improper asbestos hazard abatement 34396
procedures and require the modification or alteration of asbestos 34397
abatement procedures as they relate to this chapter and the rules 34398
of the public health council adopted pursuant thereto;34399

       (6) Collect and disseminate health education information 34400
relating to safe management of asbestos hazards;34401

       (7) Accept and administer grants from the federal government 34402
and other sources, both public and private, for carrying out any 34403
of histhe director's functions;34404

       (8) As hethe director determines appropriate, conduct 34405
on-site inspections at any location where an asbestos hazard 34406
abatement activity is planned, in progress, or has been completed, 34407
at any location where a public health emergency may occur, is 34408
occurring, or has occurred, or to evaluate the performance or 34409
compliance of any person subject to this chapter;34410

       (9) Conduct an on-site audit of each asbestos hazard training 34411
provider approved pursuant to this chapter, at least once 34412
biennially, during an actual course conducted by the provider 34413
within the state;34414

       (10) Cooperate and assist in investigations, as such relate 34415
to this chapter, conducted by local law enforcement agencies, the 34416
Ohio environmental protection agency, the United States 34417
occupational safety and health administration, and other local, 34418
state, and federal agencies.34419

       Sec. 3710.04.  (A) To qualify for an asbestos hazard 34420
abatement contractor's license, a business entity or public entity 34421
shall meet the requirements of this section.34422

       (B) Each employee or agent of the business entity or public 34423
entity applying for a license who will come in contact with 34424
asbestos or will be responsible for an asbestos hazard abatement 34425
project shall:34426

       (1) Be familiar with all applicable state and federal 34427
standards for asbestos hazard abatement projects;34428

       (2) Have successfully completed the course of instruction on 34429
asbestos hazard abatement activities, for their particular 34430
certification, approved by the department of health pursuant to 34431
section 3710.10 of the Revised Code, have passed an examination 34432
approved by the department, and demonstrate to the department that 34433
hethe employee or agent is capable of complying with all 34434
applicable standards of this state, the United States 34435
environmental protection agency, and the United States 34436
occupational safety and health administration.34437

       (C) A business entity or public entity applying for an 34438
asbestos hazard abatement contractor's license shall, in addition 34439
to the other requirements of this section, provide at least one 34440
asbestos hazard abatement specialist, certified pursuant to this 34441
chapter and the rules of the public health council adopted 34442
pursuant theretounder it, for each asbestos hazard abatement 34443
project, and demonstrate to the satisfaction of the department 34444
that hethe applicant:34445

       (1) Has access to at least one asbestos disposal site 34446
approved by the Ohio environmental protection agency that is 34447
sufficient for the deposit of all asbestos waste that hethe 34448
applicant will generate during the term of the license;34449

       (2) Is sufficiently qualified to safely remove asbestos, 34450
demonstrated by reliability as an asbestos hazard abatement 34451
contractor, possesses a work program that prevents the 34452
contamination or recontamination of the environment and protects 34453
the public health from the hazards of exposure to asbestos, 34454
possesses evidence of certification of each individual employee or 34455
agent who will be responsible for others who may come in contact 34456
with friable asbestos-containing materials, possesses evidence of 34457
training of workers required by section 3710.07 of the Revised 34458
Code, and has prior successful experience in asbestos hazard 34459
abatement projects or equivalent qualifications as determined by 34460
rulein accordance with rules adopted by the publicdirector of34461
health council;34462

       (3) Possesses a worker protection program consistent with 34463
requirements established by the public health councildirector if 34464
the contractor is a public entity, and a worker protection program 34465
consistent with the requirements of the United States occupational 34466
safety and health administration if the contractor is a business 34467
entity;34468

       (4) Is registered as a business entity with the secretary of 34469
state.34470

       (D) No applicant for licensure as an asbestos hazard 34471
abatement contractor, in order to meet the requirements of this 34472
chapter, shall list an employee of another contractor.34473

       (E) The business entity or public entity shall meet any other 34474
standards that the public health councildirector, by rule, sets.34475

       (F) Nothing in this chapter or the rules adopted pursuant 34476
thereto relating to asbestos hazard abatement project designers 34477
shall be interpreted as authorizing or permitting an individual 34478
who is certified as an asbestos hazard abatement project designer 34479
to perform the services of a registered architect or professional 34480
engineer unless that person is registered under Chapter 4703. or 34481
4733. of the Revised Code to perform such services.34482

       Sec. 3710.05.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 34483
chapter, no person shall engage in any asbestos hazard abatement 34484
activities in this state unless licensed or certified pursuant to 34485
this chapter.34486

       (B) To apply for licensure as an asbestos abatement 34487
contractor or certification as an asbestos hazard abatement 34488
specialist, an asbestos hazard evaluation specialist, an asbestos 34489
hazard abatement project designer, or an asbestos hazard abatement 34490
air-monitoring technician, a person shall do all of the following:34491

       (1) Submit a completed application to the department of 34492
health, on a form provided by the department;34493

       (2) Pay the requisite fee as provided in division (D) of this 34494
section;34495

       (3) Submit any other information the publicdirector of34496
health council by rule requires.34497

       (C) The application form for a business entity or public 34498
entity applying for an asbestos hazard abatement contractor's 34499
license shall include all of the following:34500

       (1) A description of the protective clothing and respirators 34501
that the public entity will use to comply with rules adopted by 34502
the public health councildirector and that the business entity 34503
will use to comply with requirements of the United States 34504
occupational safety and health administration;34505

       (2) A description of procedures the business entity or public 34506
entity will use for the selection, utilization, handling, removal, 34507
and disposal of clothing to prevent contamination or 34508
recontamination of the environment and to protect the public 34509
health from the hazards associated with exposure to asbestos;34510

       (3) The name and address of each asbestos disposal site that 34511
the business entity or public entity might use during the year;34512

       (4) A description of the site decontamination procedures that 34513
the business entity or public entity will use;34514

       (5) A description of the asbestos hazard abatement procedures 34515
that the business entity or public entity will use;34516

       (6) A description of the procedures that the business entity 34517
or public entity will use for handling waste containing asbestos;34518

       (7) A description of the air-monitoring procedures that the 34519
business entity or public entity will use to prevent contamination 34520
or recontamination of the environment and to protect the public 34521
health from the hazards of exposure to asbestos;34522

       (8) A description of the final clean-up procedures that the 34523
business entity or public entity will use;34524

       (9) A list of all partners, owners, and officers of the 34525
business entity along with their social security numbers;34526

       (10) The federal tax identification number of the business 34527
entity or the public entity.34528

       (D) The fees to be charged to each public entity and business 34529
entity and their employees and agents for licensure, 34530
certification, approval, and renewal of licenses, certifications, 34531
and approvals granted under this chapter, subject to division 34532
(A)(4) of section 3710.02 of the Revised Code, are:34533

       (1) Seven hundred fifty dollars for asbestos hazard abatement 34534
contractors;34535

       (2) Two hundred dollars for asbestos hazard abatement project 34536
designers;34537

       (3) Fifty dollars for asbestos hazard abatement workers;34538

       (4) Two hundred dollars for asbestos hazard abatement 34539
specialists;34540

       (5) Two hundred dollars for asbestos hazard evaluation 34541
specialists; and34542

       (6) Nine hundred dollars for approval or renewal of asbestos 34543
hazard training providers.34544

       (E) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, no business 34545
entity which engages in asbestos hazard abatement activities 34546
solely at its own place of business is required to be licensed as 34547
an asbestos hazard abatement contractor provided that the business 34548
entity is required to and does comply with all applicable 34549
standards of the United States environmental protection agency and 34550
the United States occupational safety and health administration 34551
and provided further that all persons employed by the business 34552
entity on the activity meet the requirements of this chapter.34553

       Sec. 3710.051.  No person shall enter into an agreement to 34554
perform any aspect of an asbestos hazard abatement project unless 34555
the agreement is written and contains at least all of the 34556
following:34557

       (A) A requirement that all persons working on the project are 34558
licensed or certified by the department of health as required by 34559
this chapter;34560

       (B) A requirement that all project clearance levels and 34561
sampling be in accordance with the public health council rules 34562
adopted by the director of health;34563

       (C) A requirement that all clearance air-monitoring be 34564
conducted by asbestos hazard abatement air-monitoring technicians 34565
or asbestos hazard evaluation specialists certified by the 34566
department.34567

       Sec. 3710.06.  (A) Within fifteen business days after 34568
receiving an application, the department of health shall 34569
acknowledge receipt of the application and notify the applicant of 34570
any deficiency in the application. Within sixty calendar days 34571
after receiving a completed application, including all additional 34572
information requested by the department, the department shall 34573
issue a license or certificate or deny the application. The 34574
department shall issue only one license or certificate that is in 34575
effect at one time to a business entity and its principal officers 34576
and a public entity and its principal officers.34577

       (B)(1) The department shall deny an application if it 34578
determines that the applicant has not demonstrated the ability to 34579
comply fully with all applicable federal and state requirements 34580
and all requirements, procedures, and standards established by the 34581
publicdirector of health council in this chapter.34582

       (2) The department shall deny any application for an asbestos 34583
hazard abatement contractor's license if the applicant or an 34584
officer or employee of the applicant has been convicted of a 34585
felony under any state or federal law designed to protect the 34586
environment.34587

       (3) The department shall send all denials of an application 34588
by certified mail to the applicant. If the department receives a 34589
timely request for a hearing from the applicant, as provided in 34590
division (D) of section 3710.13 of the Revised Code, the 34591
department shall hold a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of 34592
the Revised Code.34593

       (C) In an emergency that results from a sudden, unexpected 34594
event that is not a planned asbestos hazard abatement project, the 34595
department may waive the requirements for a license or 34596
certificate. For the purposes of this division, "emergency" 34597
includes operations necessitated by nonroutine failures of 34598
equipment or by actions of fire and emergency medical personnel 34599
pursuant to duties within their official capacities. Any person 34600
who performs an asbestos hazard abatement activity under emergency 34601
conditions shall notify the director within three days after 34602
performance thereof.34603

       (D) Each license or certificate issued under this chapter 34604
expires one year after the date of issue, but each licensee or 34605
certificate holder may apply to the department for the extension 34606
of histhe holder's license or certificate under the standard 34607
renewal procedures of Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code.34608

       To qualify for renewal of a license or certificate issued 34609
under this chapter, each licensee or certificate holder shall send 34610
the appropriate renewal fee set forth in division (D) of section 34611
3710.05 of the Revised Code or as adopted by rule by the public 34612
health councildirector pursuant to division (A)(4) of section 34613
3710.02 of the Revised Code.34614

       Certificate holders also shall successfully complete an 34615
annual renewal course approved by the department pursuant to 34616
section 3710.10 of the Revised Code.34617

       (E) The department may charge a fee in addition to those 34618
specified in division (D) of section 3710.05 of the Revised Code 34619
or in rule ofrules adopted by the public health councildirector34620
pursuant to division (A)(4) of section 3710.02 of the Revised Code 34621
if the licensee or certificate holder applies for renewal after 34622
the expiration thereof or requests a reissuance of any license or 34623
certificate, provided that no such fee shall exceed the original 34624
fees by more than fifty per cent.34625

       Sec. 3710.07.  (A) Prior to engaging in any asbestos hazard 34626
abatement project, an asbestos hazard abatement contractor shall 34627
do all of the following:34628

       (1) Prepare a written respiratory protection program as 34629
defined by the publicdirector of health council pursuant to rule, 34630
and make the program available to the department of health, and 34631
workers at the job site if the contractor is a public entity or 34632
prepare a written respiratory protection program, consistent with 34633
29 C.F.R. 1910.134 and make the program available to the 34634
department, and workers at the job site if the contractor is a 34635
business entity;34636

       (2) Ensure that each worker who will be involved in any 34637
asbestos hazard abatement project has been examined within the 34638
preceding year and has been declared by a physician to be 34639
physically capable of working while wearing a respirator;34640

       (3) Ensure that each of the contractor's employees or agents 34641
who will come in contact with asbestos-containing materials or 34642
will be responsible for an asbestos hazard abatement project 34643
receives the appropriate certification or licensure required by 34644
this chapter and the following training:34645

       (a) An initial course approved by the department pursuant to 34646
section 3710.10 of the Revised Code, completed before engaging in 34647
any asbestos hazard abatement project; and34648

       (b) An annual review course approved by the department 34649
pursuant to section 3710.10 of the Revised Code.34650

       (B) After obtaining or renewing a license, an asbestos hazard 34651
abatement contractor shall notify the department, on a form 34652
approved by the director of health, at least ten days before 34653
beginning each asbestos hazard abatement project conducted during 34654
the term of the contractor's license.34655

       (C) In addition to any other fee imposed under this chapter, 34656
an asbestos hazard abatement contractor shall pay, at the time of 34657
providing notice under division (B) of this section, the 34658
department a fee of sixty-five dollars for each asbestos hazard 34659
abatement project conducted.34660

       Sec. 3710.08.  (A) An asbestos hazard abatement contractor 34661
engaging in any asbestos hazard abatement project shall, during 34662
the course of the project:34663

       (1) Conduct each project in a manner that is in compliance 34664
with the requirements the director of environmental protection 34665
adopts pursuant to section 3704.03 of the Revised Code and the 34666
asbestos requirements of the United States occupational safety and 34667
health administration set forth in 29 C.F.R. 1926.58;34668

       (2) Comply with all applicable rules adopted by the public34669
director of health council pursuant to section 3710.02 of the 34670
Revised Code.34671

       (B) An asbestos hazard abatement contractor that is a public 34672
entity shall:34673

       (1) Provide workers with protective clothing and equipment 34674
and ensure that the workers involved in any asbestos hazard 34675
abatement project use the items properly. Protective clothing and 34676
equipment shall include:34677

       (a) Respirators approved by the national institute of 34678
occupational safety and health. These respirators shall be fit 34679
tested in accordance with requirements of the United States 34680
occupational safety and health administration set forth in 29 34681
C.F.R. 1926.58(h). At the request of an employee, the asbestos 34682
hazard abatement contractor shall provide the employee with a 34683
powered air purifying respirator, in which case, the testing 34684
requirements of division (B)(1)(a) of this section do not apply.34685

       (b) Items required by the publicdirector of health council34686
by rule as provided in division (A)(7) of section 3710.02 of the 34687
Revised Code.34688

       (2) Comply with all applicable standards of conduct and 34689
requirements adopted by the public health council and the director 34690
of health pursuant to section 3710.02 of the Revised Code.34691

       (C) An asbestos hazard abatement specialist engaging in any 34692
asbestos hazard abatement project shall, during the course of the 34693
project:34694

       (1) Conduct each project in a manner that will meet 34695
decontamination procedures, project containment procedures, and 34696
asbestos fiber dispersal methods as provided in division (A)(6) of 34697
section 3710.02 of the Revised Code;34698

       (2) Ensure that workers utilize, handle, remove, and dispose 34699
of the disposable clothing provided by abatement contractors in a 34700
manner that will prevent contamination or recontamination of the 34701
environment and protect the public health from the hazards of 34702
exposure to asbestos;34703

       (3) Ensure that workers utilize protective clothing and 34704
equipment and comply with the applicable health and safety 34705
standards set forth in division (A) of section 3710.08 of the 34706
Revised Code;34707

       (4) Ensure that there is no smoking, eating, or drinking in 34708
the work area;34709

       (5) Comply with all applicable standards of conduct and 34710
requirements adopted by the public health council and director of 34711
health pursuant to section 3710.02 of the Revised Code.34712

       (D) An asbestos hazard evaluation specialist engaged in the 34713
identification, detection, and assessment of asbestos-containing 34714
materials, the determination of appropriate response actions, or 34715
other activities associated with an abatement project or the 34716
preparation of management plans, shall comply with the applicable 34717
standards of conduct and requirements adopted by the public health 34718
council and the director of health pursuant to section 3710.02 of 34719
the Revised Code.34720

       (E) Every asbestos hazard abatement worker shall comply with 34721
all applicable standards adopted by the publicdirector of health34722
council pursuant to section 3710.02 of the Revised Code.34723

       (F) The department may, on a case-by-case basis, approve an 34724
alternative to the worker protection requirements of divisions 34725
(A), (B), and (C) of this section for an asbestos hazard abatement 34726
project conducted by a public entity, provided that the asbestos 34727
hazard abatement contractor submits the alternative procedure to 34728
the department in writing and demonstrates to the satisfaction of 34729
the department that the proposed alternative procedure provides 34730
equivalent worker protection.34731

       Sec. 3710.09.  (A) As a means of protecting the public, each 34732
asbestos hazard abatement contractor licensed under this chapter 34733
shall maintain records of all asbestos hazard abatement projects 34734
which hethe contractor performs and make these records available 34735
to the department of health upon request. The licensee shall 34736
maintain the records for at least thirty years.34737

       (B) The records required by this section shall include all of 34738
the following:34739

       (1) The name, social security number, and address of the 34740
person who supervised the asbestos hazard abatement project;34741

       (2) The names and social security numbers of all workers at 34742
the job site;34743

       (3) The location and description of the asbestos hazard 34744
abatement project and the amount of asbestos-containing material 34745
that was removed;34746

       (4) The starting and completion dates of each asbestos hazard 34747
abatement project;34748

       (5) A summary of the procedures that were used to comply with 34749
all applicable federal, state, and local standards;34750

       (6) The name and address of each asbestos disposal site where 34751
the waste containing asbestos was deposited;34752

       (7) Any other information that the publicdirector of health 34753
council, by rule, requires.34754

       Sec. 3710.10.  (A) No person other than the department of 34755
health shall conduct or offer to conduct any initial or review 34756
training course or examination required by this chapter unless 34757
that person is approved to sponsor the courses and examinations 34758
under this section. In conducting any such course or examination, 34759
the department and the approved person shall administer the 34760
courses and examinations according to the United States 34761
environmental protection agency "Model Accreditation Plan," 40 34762
C.F.R. 763, Subpart E, Appendix C, and the rules of the public34763
director of health council adopted pursuant to division (A)(3) of 34764
section 3710.02 of the Revised Code. A person may apply for 34765
approval or renewal of a course on the health and safety aspects 34766
of asbestos hazard abatement activities which meets the 34767
requirements of division (A)(3) of section 3710.07 of the Revised 34768
Code by submitting a written application on forms provided by the 34769
department.34770

       (B) In order to obtain or renew department approval, a person 34771
sponsoring a course shall substantially satisfy all of the 34772
following criteria:34773

       (1) Provide courses of instruction and examinations that meet 34774
the requirements of division (A) of this section;34775

       (2) Ensure that instruction is given or supervised by 34776
personnel with sufficient education and experience as determined, 34777
by rule,in rules adopted by the public health councildirector;34778

       (3) Maintain lists of students trained and the dates on which 34779
training occurred for at least twenty years, and make this 34780
information available to the department upon request.34781

       (C) In order to obtain or renew department approval, a person 34782
sponsoring an initial course or a review course annually shall 34783
apply to the department for approval. In applying, the person 34784
shall submit the fee set forth in division (D) of section 3710.05 34785
of the Revised Code along with any increase in fee adopted 34786
pursuant to division (A)(4) of section 3710.02 of the Revised 34787
Code.34788

       (D)(1) The department shall act or acknowledge receipt of an 34789
application within ten working days after receiving the 34790
application.34791

       (2) The department shall act on the application within ninety 34792
days after it is complete.34793

       (3) The department shall grant contingent approval of an 34794
application if the department determines the course substantially 34795
satisfies or will substantially satisfy the criteria in this 34796
chapter and the rules adopted by the public health council34797
director.34798

       (4) The department may deny or revoke approval of a course if 34799
the department determines the course does not or will not 34800
substantially satisfy the criteria in this chapter or the rules 34801
adopted by the public health councildirector.34802

       (5) The department shall grant final approval of a course 34803
only after an on-site audit by the department which reveals that 34804
the course substantially satisfies the criteria in this chapter 34805
and the rules adopted by the public health councildirector. 34806
Course approvals expire one year from the date of final approval 34807
under division (D)(5) of this section.34808

       (E) Each course approval issued under this section expires 34809
one year after the date of issue, but a person who received 34810
approval may apply to the department for renewal under the 34811
standard renewal procedures of Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code. 34812
The fee prescribed in section 3710.05 of the Revised Code must 34813
accompany the application.34814

       Sec. 3710.12.  Subject to the hearing provisions of this 34815
chapter, the department of health may deny, suspend, or revoke any 34816
license or certificate, or renewal thereof, if the licensee or 34817
certificate holder:34818

       (A) Fraudulently or deceptively obtains or attempts to obtain 34819
a license or certificate;34820

       (B) Fails at any time to meet the qualifications for a 34821
license or certificate;34822

       (C) Is violating or threatening to violate any provisions of 34823
any of the following:34824

       (1) This chapter or the rules of the public health council or34825
director of health adopted pursuant thereto;34826

       (2) The "National Emission Standard for Hazardous Air 34827
Pollutants" regulations of the United States environmental 34828
protection agency as the regulations pertain to asbestos; or34829

       (3) The regulations of the United States occupational safety 34830
and health administration as the regulations pertain to asbestos.34831

       Sec. 3710.13.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in Chapter 34832
119. of the Revised Code or this section, before the department of 34833
health takes any action under section 3710.12 of the Revised Code, 34834
it shall give the licensee or certificate holder against whom 34835
action is contemplated an opportunity for a hearing.34836

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, the department 34837
shall give notice and hold the hearing in accordance with Chapter 34838
119. of the Revised Code.34839

       (B) The department, without notice or hearing and in 34840
accordance with the rules ofadopted by the publicdirector of34841
health council, may issue an order requiring any action necessary 34842
to meet a public health emergency involving asbestos. Any person 34843
to whom an order is directed shall immediately comply with the 34844
order. Upon application to the director of health, the person 34845
shall be afforded a hearing as soon as possible, but no more than 34846
twenty days after receipt of the application by the director.34847

       (C) If the director determines, pursuant to division (B) of 34848
this section, that a public health emergency exists, hethe 34849
director may order, without a hearing, the denial, suspension, or 34850
revocation of any license or certificate issued under this chapter 34851
of the parties involved, provided that an opportunity for a 34852
hearing is provided to the affected party as soon as reasonably 34853
possible.34854

       (D) All proceedings under this chapter are subject to Chapter 34855
119. of the Revised Code, except that:34856

       (1) Upon the request of a licensee or certificate holder, the 34857
location of an adjudicatory hearing is the county seat of the 34858
county in which the licensee or certificate holder conducts 34859
business.34860

       (2) The director shall notify, by certified mail or personal 34861
delivery, a licensee or certificate holder that hethe licensee or 34862
certificate holder is entitled to a hearing if hethe licensee or 34863
certificate holder requests it, in writing, within ten days of the 34864
time that hethe licensee or certificate holder receives the 34865
notice. If the licensee or certificate holder requests such a 34866
hearing, the director shall set the hearing date no later than ten 34867
days after the director receives the request.34868

       (3) The director shall not apply for or receive a 34869
postponement or continuation of an adjudication hearing. If a 34870
licensee or certificate holder requests a postponement or 34871
continuation of an adjudication hearing, the director only shall 34872
grant the request if the licensee or certificate holder 34873
demonstrates extreme hardship in complying with the hearing date. 34874
If the director grants a postponement or continuation on the 34875
grounds of extreme hardship, the director shall include in the 34876
record of the case, the nature and cause of the extreme hardship.34877

       (4) In lieu of an adjudicatory hearing required by this 34878
chapter, a licensee or certificate holder, by no later than the 34879
date set for a hearing pursuant to division (A)(3) of this 34880
section, may by written request to the director, request that the 34881
matter be resolved by the licensee or certificate holder 34882
submitting documents, papers, and other written evidence to the 34883
director to support histhe licensee's or certificate holder's34884
claim.34885

       (5) If the director appoints a referee or an examiner to 34886
conduct a hearing, all of the following apply:34887

       (a) The examiner or referee shall serve, by certified mail 34888
and within three business days of the conclusion of the hearing, a 34889
copy of the written adjudication report and histhe referee's or 34890
examiner's recommendations, on the director and the affected 34891
licensee or certificate holder or the licensee's or certificate 34892
holder's attorney or other representative of record.34893

       (b) The licensee or certificate holder, within three business 34894
days of receipt of the report under division (D)(5)(a) of this 34895
section, may file with the director written objections to the 34896
report and recommendations.34897

       (c) The director shall consider any objections received under 34898
division (D)(5)(b) of this section prior to approving, modifying, 34899
or disapproving the report and recommendations. Within six 34900
business days of receiving the report under division (D)(5)(a) of 34901
this section, the director shall serve histhe director's order, 34902
by certified mail, on the affected licensee or certificate holder 34903
or the licensee's or certificate holder's attorney or other 34904
representative of record.34905

       (6) If the director conducts an adjudicatory hearing under 34906
this chapter, hethe director shall serve histhe director's34907
decision, by certified mail and within three business days of the 34908
conclusion of the hearing, on the affected licensee or certificate 34909
holder or the licensee's or certificate holder's attorney or other 34910
representative of record.34911

       (7) If no hearing is held, the director shall issue an order, 34912
by certified mail and within three business days of the last date 34913
possible for a hearing, based upon the record available to himthe 34914
director, to the affected licensee or certificate holder or the 34915
licensee's or certificate holder's attorney or other 34916
representative of record.34917

       (8) A licensee or certificate holder shall file a notice of 34918
appeal to an adverse adjudication decision within fifteen days 34919
after receipt of the director's order.34920

       Sec. 3710.17.  (A) Where any person is certified or licensed 34921
by the department of health to engage in asbestos hazard abatement 34922
or evaluation activity pursuant to this chapter, the liability of 34923
that person when performing such activity in accordance with 34924
procedures established pursuant to state or federal law for an 34925
injury to any individual or property caused or related to this 34926
activity shall be limited to acts or omissions of the person 34927
during the course of performing the activity which can be shown, 34928
based on a preponderance of the evidence, to have been negligent. 34929
For the purposes of this section, the demonstration that acts or 34930
omissions of a person performing asbestos hazard abatement or 34931
evaluation activities were in accordance with generally accepted 34932
practice and with procedures established by state or federal law 34933
at the time the abatement or evaluation activity was performed 34934
creates a rebuttable presumption that the acts or omissions were 34935
not negligent.34936

       (B) Where any person contracts with a certified asbestos 34937
hazard abatement specialist, asbestos hazard evaluation 34938
specialist, or other category of asbestos hazard specialist 34939
established by the publicdirector of health council, or a 34940
licensed asbestos hazard abatement contractor, the liability of 34941
that person for asbestos-related injuries caused by histhe 34942
person's contractee in the performance of asbestos hazard 34943
abatement or evaluation activities shall be limited to those 34944
asbestos-related injuries arising from acts which the person knew 34945
or could reasonably have been expected to know were not in 34946
accordance with generally accepted practice or with procedures 34947
established by state or federal law at the time the abatement 34948
activity took place.34949

       (C) Notwithstanding any other provisions of the Revised Code 34950
or rules of a court to the contrary, this section governs all 34951
claims for asbestos-related injuries arising from asbestos hazard 34952
abatement or evaluation activities.34953

       Sec. 3711.04. Each person seeking to operate a maternity 34954
unit, newborn care nursery, or maternity home shall apply to the 34955
director of health for a license under this chapter. The 34956
application shall be submitted in the form and manner prescribed 34957
by the public health councildirector in rules adopted under 34958
section 3711.12 of the Revised Code.34959

       A single application and license is required if an applicant 34960
will operate both a maternity unit and newborn care nursery.34961

       Sec. 3711.06. The director of health shall inspect each 34962
maternity unit, newborn care nursery, or maternity home for which 34963
a person has applied for an initial license under section 3711.04 34964
of the Revised Code prior to issuing the license. Inspections 34965
shall be conducted in accordance with inspection criteria, 34966
procedures, and guidelines adopted by the public health council34967
director under section 3711.12 of the Revised Code.34968

       Sec. 3711.08. A license issued under this chapter is valid 34969
for three years, unless earlier revoked or suspended under section 34970
3711.14 of the Revised Code. The license may be renewed in the 34971
manner prescribed by the publicdirector of health council in 34972
rules adopted under section 3711.12 of the Revised Code. The 34973
license renewal fee specified in the rules shall be paid not later 34974
than sixty days after the director of health mails an invoice for 34975
the fee to the license holder. A penalty of ten per cent of the 34976
amount of the renewal fee shall be assessed for each month the fee 34977
is overdue.34978

       Sec. 3711.12. (A) The publicdirector of health council shall 34979
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as 34980
the councildirector considers necessary to implement the 34981
requirements of this chapter for licensure and operation of 34982
maternity units, newborn care nurseries, and maternity homes. The 34983
rules shall include provisions for the following:34984

       (1) Licensure application forms and procedures;34985

       (2) Renewal procedures, including procedures that address the 34986
right of the director of health, at the director's sole 34987
discretion, to conduct an inspection prior to renewal of a 34988
license;34989

       (3) Initial license fees and license renewal fees;34990

       (4) Fees for inspections conducted by the director under 34991
section 3711.10 of the Revised Code;34992

       (5) Safety standards, quality-of-care standards, and 34993
quality-of-care data reporting requirements;34994

       (6) Reporting and auditing requirements;34995

       (7) Inspection criteria, procedures, and guidelines;34996

       (8) Any other rules necessary to implement this chapter.34997

       (B) When adopting rules under this section, the public health 34998
councildirector shall give consideration to recommendations 34999
regarding obstetric and newborn care issued by the American 35000
college of obstetricians and gynecologists; American academy of 35001
pediatrics; American academy of family physicians; American 35002
society of anesthesiologists; American college of nurse-midwives; 35003
United States centers for disease control and prevention; 35004
association of women's health, obstetric and neonatal nurses; and 35005
association of perioperative registered nurses, or their successor 35006
organizations. The councildirector shall also consider the 35007
recommendations of the maternity and newborn advisory council 35008
established in section 3711.20 of the Revised Code.35009

       Sec. 3711.21. The maternity and newborn advisory council 35010
shall do all of the following:35011

       (A) Advise and consult with the director of health in the 35012
development of rules to be presented to the public health council 35013
for proposed adoptionadopted under this chapter;35014

       (B) Advise and consult with the director concerning the 35015
implementation and enforcement of this chapter;35016

       (C) Advise and consult with the director in the development 35017
of inspection criteria, procedures, and guidelines to be used in 35018
enforcement of this chapter;35019

       (D) Advise and consult with the director regarding 35020
recommendations to be presented to the public health council35021
regarding improving maternity and newborn care in this state;35022

       (E) Prepare and submit to the director an annual report 35023
evaluating the department's enforcement of this chapter.35024

       Sec. 3712.03.  (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 35025
Revised Code, the publicdirector of health council shall adopt, 35026
and may amend and rescind, rules:35027

       (1) Providing for the licensing of persons or public agencies 35028
providing hospice care programs within this state by the 35029
department of health and for the suspension and revocation of 35030
licenses;35031

       (2) Establishing a license fee and license renewal fee, 35032
neither of which shall, except as provided in division (B) of this 35033
section, exceed six hundred dollars. The fees shall cover the 35034
three-year period during which an existing license is valid as 35035
provided in division (B) of section 3712.04 of the Revised Code.35036

       (3) Establishing an inspection fee not to exceed, except as 35037
provided in division (B) of this section, one thousand seven 35038
hundred fifty dollars;35039

       (4) Establishing requirements for hospice care program 35040
facilities and services;35041

       (5) Providing for a waiver of the requirement for the 35042
provision of physical, occupational, or speech or language therapy 35043
contained in division (A)(2) of section 3712.01 of the Revised 35044
Code when the requirement would create a hardship because such 35045
therapy is not readily available in the geographic area served by 35046
the provider of a hospice care program;35047

       (6) Providing for the granting of licenses to provide hospice 35048
care programs to persons and public agencies that are accredited 35049
or certified to provide such programs by an entity whose standards 35050
for accreditation or certification equal or exceed those provided 35051
for licensure under this chapter and rules adopted under it;35052

       (7) Establishing interpretive guidelines for each rule.35053

       (B) Subject to the approval of the controlling board, the35054
public health councildirector may establish fees in excess of the 35055
maximum amounts specified in this section, provided that the fees 35056
do not exceed those amounts by greater than fifty per cent.35057

       (C) The department of health shall:35058

       (1) Grant, suspend, and revoke licenses for hospice care 35059
programs in accordance with this chapter and rules adopted under 35060
it;35061

       (2) Make such inspections as are necessary to determine 35062
whether hospice care program facilities and services meet the 35063
requirements of this chapter and rules adopted under it; and35064

       (3) Implement and enforce this chapter and rules adopted 35065
under it.35066

       Sec. 3712.04.  (A) Every person or public agency that 35067
proposes to provide a hospice care program shall apply to the 35068
department of health for a license. Application shall be made on 35069
forms prescribed and provided by the department, shall include 35070
such information as the department requires, and shall be 35071
accompanied by the license fee established by rules of the public35072
director of health council adopted under division (A) of section 35073
3712.03 of the Revised Code.35074

       The department shall grant a license to the applicant if the 35075
applicant is in compliance with this chapter and rules adopted 35076
under it.35077

       (B) A license granted under this section shall be valid for 35078
three years. Application for renewal of a license shall be made at 35079
least ninety days before the expiration of the license in the same 35080
manner as for an initial license. The department shall renew the 35081
license if the applicant meets the requirements of this chapter 35082
and rules adopted under it.35083

       (C) Subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 35084
department may suspend or revoke a license if the licensee made 35085
any material misrepresentation in the application for the license 35086
or no longer meets the requirements of this chapter or rules 35087
adopted under it.35088

       (D) A hospital, nursing home, home for the aged, county 35089
medical care facility, or other health facility or agency that 35090
provides a hospice care program shall be licensed to provide a 35091
hospice care program under this section.35092

       (E) A nursing home licensed under Chapter 3721. of the 35093
Revised Code that does not hold itself out to be a hospice, does 35094
not hold itself out as providing a hospice care program, does not 35095
use the term hospice to describe or refer to its activities or 35096
facilities, and that does not provide all of the services 35097
enumerated in division (A) of section 3712.01 of the Revised Code 35098
is not subject to the licensing provisions of this chapter.35099

       Sec. 3712.09.  (A) As used in this section:35100

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 35101
consideration for employment with a hospice care program in a 35102
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 35103
providing direct care to an older adult. "Applicant" does not 35104
include a person who provides direct care as a volunteer without 35105
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 35106
than reimbursement for actual expenses.35107

       (2) "Criminal records check" and "older adult" havehas the 35108
same meaningsmeaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.35109

       (3) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.35110

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, 35111
the chief administrator of a hospice care program shall request 35112
that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification 35113
and investigation conduct a criminal records check with respect to35114
of each applicant. If an applicant for whom a criminal records 35115
check request is required under this division does not present 35116
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 35117
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 35118
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 35119
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 35120
from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records 35121
check, the chief administrator shall request that the 35122
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 35123
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 35124
applicant. Even if an applicant for whom a criminal records check 35125
request is required under this division presents proof of having 35126
been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief 35127
administrator may request that the superintendent include 35128
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 35129
criminal records check.35130

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 35131
request a criminal records check shall do both of the following:35132

       (a) Provide to each applicant for whom a criminal records 35133
check request is required under that division a copy of the form 35134
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 35135
Revised Code and a standard fingerprint impression sheet 35136
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, and obtain 35137
the completed form and impression sheet from the applicant;35138

       (b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the 35139
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 35140
investigation.35141

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 35142
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 35143
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 35144
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 35145
required by this section.35146

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the public35147
director of health council in accordance with division (F) of this 35148
section and subject to division (C)(2) of this section, no hospice 35149
care program shall employ a person in a position that involves 35150
providing direct care to an older adult if the person has been 35151
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:35152

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 35153
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 35154
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 35155
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 35156
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 35157
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 35158
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 35159
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 35160
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.35161

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 35162
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 35163
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 35164
this section.35165

       (2)(a) A hospice care program may employ conditionally an 35166
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required 35167
under division (B) of this section prior to obtaining the results 35168
of a criminal records check regarding the individual, provided 35169
that the program shall request a criminal records check regarding 35170
the individual in accordance with division (B)(1) of this section 35171
not later than five business days after the individual begins 35172
conditional employment. In the circumstances described in division 35173
(I)(2) of this section, a hospice care program may employ 35174
conditionally an applicant who has been referred to the hospice 35175
care program by an employment service that supplies full-time, 35176
part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving the direct 35177
care of older adults and for whom, pursuant to that division, a 35178
criminal records check is not required under division (B) of this 35179
section.35180

       (b) A hospice care program that employs an individual 35181
conditionally under authority of division (C)(2)(a) of this 35182
section shall terminate the individual's employment if the results 35183
of the criminal records check requested under division (B) of this 35184
section or described in division (I)(2) of this section, other 35185
than the results of any request for information from the federal 35186
bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending 35187
thirty days after the date the request is made. Regardless of when 35188
the results of the criminal records check are obtained, if the 35189
results indicate that the individual has been convicted of or 35190
pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed or described in 35191
division (C)(1) of this section, the program shall terminate the 35192
individual's employment unless the program chooses to employ the 35193
individual pursuant to division (F) of this section. Termination 35194
of employment under this division shall be considered just cause 35195
for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 35196
of the Revised Code if the individual makes any attempt to deceive 35197
the program about the individual's criminal record.35198

       (D)(1) Each hospice care program shall pay to the bureau of 35199
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 35200
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 35201
for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to a request 35202
made under division (B) of this section.35203

       (2) A hospice care program may charge an applicant a fee not 35204
exceeding the amount the program pays under division (D)(1) of 35205
this section. A program may collect a fee only if both of the 35206
following apply:35207

       (a) The program notifies the person at the time of initial 35208
application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, 35209
unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered for 35210
employment;35211

       (b) The medical assistance program established under Chapter 35212
5111. of the Revised Code does not reimburse the program the fee 35213
it pays under division (D)(1) of this section.35214

       (E) The report of a criminal records check conducted pursuant 35215
to a request made under this section is not a public record for 35216
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 35217
be made available to any person other than the following:35218

       (1) The individual who is the subject of the criminal records 35219
check or the individual's representative;35220

       (2) The chief administrator of the program requesting the 35221
criminal records check or the administrator's representative;35222

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 35223
program that provides direct care to older adults that is owned or 35224
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the hospice care 35225
program;35226

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 35227
involved in a case dealing with a denial of employment of the 35228
applicant or dealing with employment or unemployment benefits of 35229
the applicant;35230

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 35231
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section.35232

       (F) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 35233
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 35234
this section. The rules shall specify circumstances under which a 35235
hospice care program may employ a person who has been convicted of 35236
or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division 35237
(C)(1) of this section but meets personal character standards set 35238
by the councildirector.35239

       (G) The chief administrator of a hospice care program shall 35240
inform each individual, at the time of initial application for a 35241
position that involves providing direct care to an older adult, 35242
that the individual is required to provide a set of fingerprint 35243
impressions and that a criminal records check is required to be 35244
conducted if the individual comes under final consideration for 35245
employment.35246

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 35247
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 35248
property caused by an individual who a hospice care program 35249
employs in a position that involves providing direct care to older 35250
adults, all of the following shall apply:35251

       (1) If the program employed the individual in good faith and 35252
reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records check 35253
requested under this section, the program shall not be found 35254
negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, even if 35255
the information in the report is determined later to have been 35256
incomplete or inaccurate;35257

       (2) If the program employed the individual in good faith on a 35258
conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section, the 35259
program shall not be found negligent solely because it employed 35260
the individual prior to receiving the report of a criminal records 35261
check requested under this section;35262

       (3) If the program in good faith employed the individual 35263
according to the personal character standards established in rules 35264
adopted under division (F) of this section, the program shall not 35265
be found negligent solely because the individual prior to being 35266
employed had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 35267
listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section.35268

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a hospice care program is 35269
not required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 35270
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 35271
records check of an applicant if the applicant has been referred 35272
to the program by an employment service that supplies full-time, 35273
part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving the direct 35274
care of older adults and both of the following apply:35275

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 35276
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 35277
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 35278
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 35279
preceding the applicant's referral;35280

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 35281
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 35282
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 35283
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 35284
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the hospice 35285
care program chooses to employ the individual pursuant to division 35286
(F) of this section.35287

       (2) The chief administrator of a hospice care program is not 35288
required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 35289
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 35290
records check of an applicant and may employ the applicant 35291
conditionally as described in this division, if the applicant has 35292
been referred to the program by an employment service that 35293
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 35294
involving the direct care of older adults and if the chief 35295
administrator receives from the employment service or the 35296
applicant a letter from the employment service that is on the 35297
letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed by a 35298
supervisor or another designated official of the employment 35299
service and that states that the employment service has requested 35300
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 35301
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 35302
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 35303
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 35304
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 35305
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 35306
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 35307
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 35308
promptly will send a copy of the results to the hospice care 35309
program. If a hospice care program employs an applicant 35310
conditionally in accordance with this division, the employment 35311
service, upon its receipt of the results of the criminal records 35312
check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the hospice 35313
care program, and division (C)(2)(b) of this section applies 35314
regarding the conditional employment.35315

       Sec. 3713.01.  As used in sections 3713.01 to 3713.10 of the 35316
Revised Code:35317

       (A) "Person" has the same meaning as used in division (C) of 35318
section 1.59 of the Revised Code and also means any limited 35319
company, limited liability partnership, joint stock company, or 35320
other association.35321

       (B) "Bedding" means any upholstered furniture, any mattress, 35322
upholstered spring, comforter, bolster, pad, cushion, pillow, 35323
mattress protector, quilt, and any other upholstered article, to 35324
be used for sleeping, resting, or reclining purposes, and any 35325
glider, hammock, or other substantially similar article that is 35326
wholly or partly upholstered.35327

       (C) "Secondhand" means any article, or material, or portion 35328
thereof of which prior use has been made in any manner whatsoever.35329

       (D) "Remade, repaired, or renovated articles not for sale" 35330
means any article that is remade, repaired, or renovated for and 35331
is returned to the owner for the owner's own use.35332

       (E) "Sale," "sell," or "sold" shall, in the corresponding 35333
tense, mean sell, offer to sell, or deliver or consign in sale, or 35334
possess with intent to sell, or deliver in sale.35335

       (F) "Upholstered furniture" means any article of furniture 35336
wholly or partly stuffed or filled with material and that is used 35337
or intended for use for sitting, resting, or reclining purposes.35338

       (G) "Stuffed toy" means any article intended for use as a 35339
plaything or for an educational or recreational purpose that is 35340
wholly or partially stuffed with material.35341

       (H) "Tag" or "label" means any material prescribed by the 35342
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance to be attached to an 35343
article that contains information required under this chapter.35344

       Sec. 3713.02. (A) Except as provided in section 3713.05 of 35345
the Revised Code, no person shall import, manufacture, renovate, 35346
wholesale, or reupholster stuffed toys or articles of bedding in 35347
this state without first registering to do so with the 35348
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance in accordance with 35349
section 3713.05 of the Revised Code.35350

       (B) No person shall manufacture, offer for sale, sell, 35351
deliver, or possess for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, or 35352
delivering, an article of bedding or a stuffed toy that is not 35353
labeled in accordance with section 3713.08 of the Revised Code.35354

       (C) No person shall manufacture, offer for sale, sell, 35355
deliver, or possess for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, or 35356
delivering, an article of bedding or a stuffed toy that is falsely 35357
labeled.35358

       (D) No person shall sell or offer for sale any secondhand 35359
article of bedding or any secondhand stuffed toy that has not been 35360
sanitized in accordance with section 3713.08 of the Revised Code.35361

       (E) The possession of any article of bedding or stuffed toy 35362
in the course of business by a person required to obtain 35363
registration under this chapter, or by that person's agent or 35364
servant shall be prima-facie evidence of the person's intent to 35365
sell the article of bedding or stuffed toy.35366

       Sec. 3713.03. The superintendent of laborindustrial 35367
compliance in the department of commerce shall administer and 35368
enforce this chapter.35369

       Sec. 3713.04.  (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 35370
Revised Code, the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance35371
shall:35372

       (1) Adopt rules pertaining to the definition, name, and 35373
description of materials necessary to carry out this chapter;35374

       (2) Determine the testing standards, fees, and charges to be 35375
paid for making any test or analysis required pursuant to section 35376
3713.08 of the Revised Code.35377

       (B) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 35378
superintendent may adopt rules regarding the following:35379

       (1) Establishing an initial application fee or an annual 35380
registration renewal fee not more than fifty per cent higher than 35381
the fees set forth in section 4713.05 of the Revised Code;35382

       (2) Establishing standards, on a reciprocal basis, for the 35383
acceptance of labels and laboratory analyses from other states 35384
where the labeling requirements and laboratory analysis standards 35385
are substantially equal to the requirements of this state, 35386
provided the other state extends similar reciprocity to labels and 35387
laboratory analysis conducted under this chapter;35388

       (3) Any other rules necessary to administer and carry out 35389
this chapter.35390

       (C) The superintendent may do any of the following:35391

       (1) Issue administrative orders, conduct hearings, and take 35392
all actions necessary under the authority of Chapter 119. of the 35393
Revised Code for the administration of this chapter. The authority 35394
granted under this division shall include the authority to 35395
suspend, revoke, or deny registration under this chapter.35396

       (2) Establish and maintain facilities within the department 35397
of commerce to make tests and analysis of materials used in the 35398
manufacture of bedding and stuffed toys. The superintendent also 35399
may designate established laboratories in various sections of the 35400
state that are qualified to make these tests. If the 35401
superintendent exercises this authority, the superintendent shall 35402
adopt rules to determine the fees and charges to be paid for 35403
making the tests or analyses authorized under this section.35404

       (3) Exercise such other powers and duties as are necessary to 35405
carry out the purpose and intent of this chapter.35406

       Sec. 3713.05. (A) Applications to register to import, 35407
manufacture, renovate, wholesale, make, or reupholster stuffed 35408
toys or bedding in this state shall be made in writing on forms 35409
provided by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance. The 35410
application shall be accompanied by a registration fee of fifty 35411
dollars per person unless the applicant engages only in 35412
renovation, in which case the registration fee shall be 35413
thirty-five dollars.35414

       (B) Upon receipt of the application and the appropriate fee, 35415
the superintendent shall register the applicant and assign a 35416
registration number to the registrant.35417

       (C) Notwithstanding section 3713.02 of the Revised Code and 35418
division (A) of this section, the following are exempt from 35419
registration:35420

       (1) An organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the 35421
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," and exempt from income tax under 35422
section 501(a) of that code and that is operated exclusively to 35423
provide recreation or social services;35424

       (2) A person who is not regularly engaged in the business of 35425
manufacturing, making, wholesaling, or importing stuffed toys but 35426
who manufactures or makes stuffed toys as a leisure pursuit and 35427
who sells one hundred or fewer stuffed toys within one calendar 35428
year;35429

       (3) A person who is not regularly engaged in the business of 35430
manufacturing, making, wholesaling, or importing quilts, 35431
comforters, pillows, or cushions, but who manufactures or makes 35432
these items as a leisure pursuit and who sells five or fewer 35433
quilts, ten or fewer comforters, or twenty or fewer pillows or 35434
cushions within one calendar year.35435

       (D) Notwithstanding division (C)(2) or (3) of this section, a 35436
person exempt under that division must attach a label to each 35437
stuffed toy that contains all of the following information:35438

       (1) The person's name and address;35439

       (2) A statement that the person is not registered by the 35440
state of Ohio;35441

       (3) A statement that the contents of the product have not 35442
been inspected.35443

       Sec. 3713.06. (A) Any person required to register under 35444
division (A) of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code who imports 35445
bedding or stuffed toys into this state for retail sale or use in 35446
this state and any person required to register under division (A) 35447
of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code who manufactures bedding or 35448
stuffed toys in this state for retail sale or use in this state 35449
shall submit a report to the superintendent of laborindustrial 35450
compliance, in a form and manner prescribed by the superintendent. 35451
The form shall be submitted once every six months and shall show 35452
the total number of items of bedding or stuffed toys imported into 35453
this state or manufactured in this state. Each report shall be 35454
accompanied by a fee of four cents for each item of bedding or 35455
stuffed toy imported into this state or manufactured in this 35456
state.35457

       (B) Every importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed 35458
toys or articles of bedding, and every mobile home and 35459
recreational vehicle dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand 35460
dealer, and auction house shall retain records, designated by the 35461
superintendent in rule, for the time period established in rule.35462

       (C) Every importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed 35463
toys or articles of bedding, and every mobile home and 35464
recreational vehicle dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand 35465
dealer, and auction house shall make sufficient investigation of 35466
its records to ensure that the information reported to the 35467
superintendent under division (A) of this section is accurate.35468

       Sec. 3713.07. (A) Registration obtained under this chapter 35469
expires annually on the last day of the month in the month that 35470
the registration was obtained. The superintendent of labor35471
industrial compliance shall renew the registration in accordance 35472
with Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code.35473

       (B) Failure on the part of any registrant to renew 35474
registration prior to its expiration, when notified as required in 35475
this section, shall not deprive the person of the right to renewal 35476
within the ninety days that follow expiration, but the fee to be 35477
paid for renewal after its expiration shall be one hundred dollars 35478
plus the standard registration fee for the registrant.35479

       (C) If a registrant fails to renew registration within ninety 35480
days of the date that it expired, the former registrant shall 35481
comply with the registration requirements under section 3713.05 of 35482
the Revised Code to obtain valid registration.35483

       Sec. 3713.08. (A) All persons required to register under 35484
division (A) of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code manufacturing, 35485
making, or wholesaling bedding or stuffed toys, or both, that are 35486
sold or offered for sale shall have the material content of their 35487
products tested and analyzed at an established laboratory 35488
designated by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance35489
before the bedding or stuffed toys are sold or offered for sale.35490

       (B) Every stuffed toy or item of bedding sold or offered for 35491
sale shall have a label affixed to it that reports the contents of 35492
the stuffed toy or bedding material in conformity with 35493
requirements established by the superintendent, a registration 35494
number, and any other identifying information as required by the 35495
superintendent.35496

       (C) The seller of any secondhand articles of bedding or 35497
stuffed toys shall sanitize all items in accordance with rules 35498
established by the superintendent prior to the sale of or the 35499
offering for sale of any secondhand articles.35500

       (D) This section does not apply to any of the following:35501

       (1) Persons who meet the qualifications of division (C)(2) or 35502
(3) of section 3713.05 of the Revised Code;35503

       (2) The sale of furniture more than fifty years old;35504

       (3) The sale of furniture from the home of the owner directly 35505
to the purchaser.35506

       Sec. 3713.09. (A) The superintendent of laborindustrial 35507
compliance may appoint inspectors and periodically inspect and 35508
investigate any establishment where bedding or stuffed toys are 35509
manufactured, made, remade, renovated, repaired, sanitized, sold, 35510
or offered for sale, or where previously used material is 35511
processed for use in the manufacture of bedding or stuffed toys.35512

       (1) Each inspector shall make a written report to the 35513
superintendent of each examination and inspection complete with 35514
the inspector's findings and recommendations. Inspectors may place 35515
"off sale" any article of bedding or stuffed toy offered for sale, 35516
or found in the possession of any person with the intent to sell, 35517
in violation of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code. Inspectors 35518
shall perform other duties related to inspection and examination 35519
as prescribed by the superintendent.35520

       (2) When articles are placed "off sale" under division (A)(1) 35521
of this section, they shall be tagged, and the tag shall not be 35522
removed except by an authorized representative of the division of 35523
laborindustrial compliance after the violator demonstrates to the 35524
satisfaction of the superintendent proof of compliance with the 35525
requirements of section 3713.08 of the Revised Code.35526

       (B)(1) When an inspector has cause to believe that any 35527
bedding or stuffed toy is not tagged or labeled in accordance with 35528
section 3713.08 of the Revised Code, the inspector may open any 35529
seam of the bedding or stuffed toy in question to examine the 35530
material used or contained within it and take a reasonable amount 35531
of the material for testing and analysis and, if necessary, 35532
examine any and all purchase records in order to determine the 35533
contents or the kind of material used in the bedding or stuffed 35534
toy in question. An inspector may seize and hold evidence of any 35535
article of bedding, stuffed toy, or material manufactured, made, 35536
possessed, renovated, remade, or repaired, sold, or offered for 35537
sale contrary to this chapter.35538

       (2) Immediately after seizing articles believed to be in 35539
violation of this chapter, the inspector immediately shall report 35540
the seizure to the superintendent. The superintendent shall hold a 35541
hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code or 35542
make a ruling in the matter. If the superintendent finds that the 35543
article of bedding, stuffed toy, or material is not in violation 35544
of this chapter, the superintendent shall order the item or items 35545
returned to the owner. If the superintendent finds a violation of 35546
this chapter, the superintendent may do either of the following:35547

       (a) Return the articles to the owner for proper treatment, 35548
tagging or labeling, or other action as ordered by the 35549
superintendent, subject to the requirement that the articles be 35550
reinspected at cost to the owner, prior to being sold or offered 35551
for sale;35552

       (b) Report the violation to the appropriate prosecuting 35553
attorney or city law director.35554

       (C) The superintendent, at reasonable times and upon 35555
reasonable notice, may examine or cause to be examined the records 35556
of any importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed toys or 35557
articles of bedding, mobile home and recreational vehicle dealer, 35558
conversion van dealer, secondhand dealer, or auction house to 35559
determine compliance with this chapter. The superintendent may 35560
enter into contracts, pursuant to procedures prescribed by the 35561
superintendent, with persons to examine these records to determine 35562
compliance with this chapter. These persons may collect and remit 35563
to the superintendent any amounts due under this chapter.35564

       (D) Records audited pursuant to division (C) of this section 35565
are confidential and shall not be disclosed except as required by 35566
section 149.43 of the Revised Code, or as the superintendent finds 35567
necessary for the proper administration of this chapter.35568

       (E) In the case of any investigation or examination, or both, 35569
that requires investigation or examination outside of this state 35570
of any importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed toys or 35571
articles of bedding, or of any mobile home or recreational vehicle 35572
dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand dealer, or auction 35573
house, the superintendent may require the investigated or examined 35574
person to pay the actual expense of the investigation or 35575
examination. The superintendent shall provide an itemized 35576
statement of actual expenses to the investigated or examined 35577
person.35578

       (F) Whenever the superintendent has reason to believe, from 35579
the superintendent's own information, upon complaint, or 35580
otherwise, that any person has engaged in, is engaging in, or is 35581
about to engage in any practice prohibited by this chapter, or 35582
when the superintendent has reason to believe that it is necessary 35583
for public health and safety, the superintendent may do any of the 35584
following:35585

       (1) Investigate violations of this chapter, and for that 35586
purpose, may subpoena witnesses in connection with the 35587
investigation. The superintendent may make application to the 35588
appropriate court of common pleas for an order enjoining the 35589
violation of this chapter, and upon a showing by the 35590
superintendent that any registrant or person acting in a manner 35591
that requires registration has violated or is about to violate 35592
this chapter, an injunction, restraining order, or other order as 35593
may be appropriate shall be granted by the court.35594

       (2) Compel by subpoena the attendance of witnesses to testify 35595
in relation to any matter over which the superintendent has 35596
jurisdiction and that is the subject of inquiry and investigation 35597
by the superintendent, and require the production of any book, 35598
paper, or document pertaining to the matter. In case any person 35599
fails to file any statement or report, obey any subpoena, give 35600
testimony, or produce any books, records, or papers as required by 35601
a subpoena, the court of common pleas of any county in the state, 35602
upon application made to it by the superintendent, shall compel 35603
obedience by attachment proceedings for contempt.35604

       (3) Suspend or revoke the registration of any importer, 35605
manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed toys or articles of 35606
bedding, mobile home or recreational vehicle dealer, conversion 35607
van dealer, secondhand dealer, or auction house;35608

       (4) Submit evidence of the violation or violations to any 35609
city prosecutor, city director of law, or prosecuting attorney 35610
with authority to prosecute. If the city prosecutor, city director 35611
of law, or prosecuting attorney with authority to prosecute fails 35612
to prosecute, the superintendent shall submit the evidence to the 35613
attorney general who may proceed with the prosecution.35614

       Sec. 3713.10.  All money collected under this chapter shall 35615
be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the labor35616
industrial compliance operating fund created under section 121.084 35617
of the Revised Code.35618

       Sec. 3714.073. (A) In addition to the fee levied under 35619
division (A)(1) of section 3714.07 of the Revised Code, beginning 35620
July 1, 2005, there is hereby levied on the disposal of 35621
construction and demolition debris at a construction and 35622
demolition debris facility that is licensed under this chapter or 35623
at a solid waste facility that is licensed under Chapter 3734. of 35624
the Revised Code the following fees:35625

       (1) A fee of twelve and one-half cents per cubic yard or 35626
twenty-five cents per ton, as applicable, the proceeds of which 35627
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the soil 35628
and water conservation district assistance fund created in section 35629
1515.14 of the Revised Code;35630

        (2) A fee of thirty-seven and one-half cents per cubic yard 35631
or seventy-five cents per ton, as applicable, the proceeds of 35632
which shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of 35633
the recycling and litter prevention fund created in section 35634
1502.023736.03 of the Revised Code.35635

        (B) The owner or operator of a construction and demolition 35636
debris facility or a solid waste facility, as a trustee of the 35637
state, shall collect the fees levied under this section and remit 35638
the money from the fees in the manner that is established in 35639
divisions (A)(2) and (3) of section 3714.07 of the Revised Code 35640
for the fee that is levied under division (A)(1) of that section 35641
and may enter into an agreement for the quarterly payment of the 35642
fees in the manner established in division (B) of that section for 35643
the quarterly payment of the fee that is levied under division 35644
(A)(1) of that section.35645

        (C) The money that is collected from a construction and 35646
demolition debris facility or a solid waste facility and remitted 35647
to a board of health or the director of environmental protection, 35648
as applicable, pursuant to this section shall be transmitted by 35649
the board or director to the treasurer of state not later than 35650
forty-five days after the receipt of the money to be credited to 35651
the soil and water conservation district assistance fund or the 35652
recycling and litter prevention fund, as applicable.35653

       (D) This section does not apply to the disposal of 35654
construction and demolition debris at a solid waste facility that 35655
is licensed under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code if the owner 35656
or operator of the facility chooses to collect fees on the 35657
disposal of the construction and demolition debris that are 35658
identical to the fees that are collected under Chapters 343. and 35659
3734. of the Revised Code on the disposal of solid wastes at that 35660
facility.35661

       (E) This section does not apply to the disposal of source 35662
separated materials that are exclusively composed of reinforced or 35663
nonreinforced concrete, asphalt, clay tile, building or paving 35664
brick, or building or paving stone at a construction and 35665
demolition debris facility that is licensed under this chapter 35666
when either of the following applies:35667

       (1) The materials are placed within the limits of 35668
construction and demolition debris placement at the facility as 35669
specified in the license issued to the facility under section 35670
3714.06 of the Revised Code, are not placed within the unloading 35671
zone of the facility, and are used as a fire prevention measure in 35672
accordance with rules adopted by the director under section 35673
3714.02 of the Revised Code.35674

       (2) The materials are not placed within the unloading zone of 35675
the facility or within the limits of construction and demolition 35676
debris placement at the facility as specified in the license 35677
issued to the facility under section 3714.06 of the Revised Code, 35678
but are used as fill material, either alone or in conjunction with 35679
clean soil, sand, gravel, or other clean aggregates, in legitimate 35680
fill operations for construction purposes at the facility or to 35681
bring the facility up to a consistent grade.35682

       Sec. 3715.01.  (A) As used in this chapter:35683

       (1) "Public health council" means the public health council 35684
established by section 3701.33 of the Revised Code.35685

       (2) "Person" means an individual, partnership, corporation, 35686
or association.35687

       (3)(2) "Food" means:35688

       (a) Articles used for food or drink for humans or animals;35689

       (b) Chewing gum;35690

       (c) Articles used for components of any such articles.35691

       (4)(3) "Drug" means:35692

       (a) Articles recognized in the United States pharmacopoeia 35693
and national formulary, or any supplement to them;35694

       (b) Articles intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, 35695
mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in humans or 35696
animals;35697

       (c) Articles, other than food, intended to affect the 35698
structure or any function of the body of humans or other animals;35699

       (d) Articles intended for use as a component of any of the 35700
foregoing articles, other than devices or their components, parts, 35701
or accessories.35702

       (5)(4) "Device," except when used in division (B)(1) of this 35703
section and in division (A)(10) of section 3715.52, division (F) 35704
of section 3715.60, division (A)(5) of section 3715.64, and 35705
division (C) of section 3715.67 of the Revised Code, means any 35706
instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, contrivance, implant, 35707
in vitro reagent, or other similar or related article, including 35708
any component, part, or accessory, that is any of the following:35709

       (a) Recognized in the United States pharmacopoeia and 35710
national formulary, or any supplement to them;35711

       (b) Intended for use in the diagnosis of disease or other 35712
conditions, or in the cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention 35713
of disease in humans or animals;35714

       (c) Intended to affect the structure or any function of the 35715
body of humans or animals, and that does not achieve any of its 35716
principal intended purposes through chemical action within or on 35717
the body of humans or animals and is not dependent upon being 35718
metabolized for the achievement of any of its principal intended 35719
purposes.35720

       (6)(5) "Cosmetic" means:35721

       (a) Articles intended to be rubbed, poured, sprinkled, or 35722
sprayed on, introduced into, or otherwise applied to the human 35723
body or any part thereof for cleansing, beautifying, promoting 35724
attractiveness, or altering the appearance;35725

       (b) Articles intended for use as a component of any such 35726
article, except that "cosmetic" does not include soap.35727

       (7)(6) "Label" means a display of written, printed, or 35728
graphic matter upon the immediate container, exclusive of package 35729
liners, of any article.35730

       Any word, statement, or other information required by this 35731
chapter to appear on the label must appear on the outside 35732
container or wrapper, if any, of the retail package of the 35733
article, or the label must be easily legible through the outside 35734
container or wrapper.35735

       (8)(7) "Labeling" means all labels and other written, 35736
printed, or graphic matter:35737

       (a) Upon an article or any of its containers or wrappers;35738

       (b) Accompanying such article.35739

       (9)(8) "Advertisement" means all representations disseminated 35740
in any manner or by any means, other than by labeling, for the 35741
purpose of inducing, or that are likely to induce, directly or 35742
indirectly, the purchase of food, drugs, devices, or cosmetics.35743

       (10)(9) "New drug" means:35744

       (a) Any drug the composition of which is such that the drug 35745
is not generally recognized among experts qualified by scientific 35746
training and experience to evaluate the safety of drugs, as safe 35747
for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested 35748
in the labeling thereof;35749

       (b) Any drug the composition of which is such that the drug, 35750
as a result of investigation to determine its safety for use under 35751
such conditions, has become so recognized, but that has not, other 35752
than in an investigation, been used to a material extent or for a 35753
material time under such conditions.35754

       (11)(10) "Contaminated with filth" applies to any food, drug, 35755
device, or cosmetic that has not been protected as far as may be 35756
necessary by all reasonable means from dust, dirt, and all foreign 35757
or injurious substances.35758

       (12)(11) "Honey" means the nectar and saccharine exudation of 35759
plants that has been gathered, modified, and stored in a honeycomb 35760
by honeybees.35761

       (13)(12) "Finished dosage form" means the form of a drug that 35762
is, or is intended to be, dispensed or administered to humans or 35763
animals and requires no further manufacturing or processing other 35764
than packaging, reconstituting, or labeling.35765

       (14)(13)(a) "Manufacture" means the planting, cultivating, 35766
harvesting, processing, making, preparing, or otherwise engaging 35767
in any part of the production of a drug by propagating, 35768
compounding, converting, or processing, either directly or 35769
indirectly by extracting from substances of natural origin, or 35770
independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination 35771
of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes the following:35772

       (i) Any packaging or repackaging of the drug or labeling or 35773
relabeling of its container, the promotion and marketing of the 35774
drug, and other activities incident to production;35775

       (ii) The preparation and promotion of commercially available 35776
products from bulk compounds for resale by pharmacies, licensed 35777
health professionals authorized to prescribe drugs, or other 35778
persons.35779

       (b) "Manufacture" does not include the preparation, 35780
compounding, packaging, or labeling of a drug by a pharmacist as 35781
an incident to either of the following:35782

       (i) Dispensing a drug in the usual course of professional 35783
practice;35784

       (ii) Providing a licensed health professional authorized to 35785
prescribe drugs with a drug for the purpose of administering to 35786
patients or for using the drug in treating patients in the 35787
professional's office.35788

       (15)(14) "Dangerous drug" has the same meaning as in section 35789
4729.01 of the Revised Code.35790

       (16)(15) "Generically equivalent drug" means a drug that 35791
contains identical amounts of the identical active ingredients, 35792
but not necessarily containing the same inactive ingredients, that 35793
meets the identical compendial or other applicable standard of 35794
identity, strength, quality, and purity, including potency, and 35795
where applicable, content uniformity, disintegration times, or 35796
dissolution rates, as the prescribed brand name drug and the 35797
manufacturer or distributor holds, if applicable, either an 35798
approved new drug application or an approved abbreviated new drug 35799
application unless other approval by law or from the federal food 35800
and drug administration is required.35801

       No drug shall be considered a generically equivalent drug for 35802
the purposes of this chapter if it has been listed by the federal 35803
food and drug administration as having proven bioequivalence 35804
problems.35805

       (17)(16) "Licensed health professional authorized to 35806
prescribe drugs" and "prescriber" have the same meanings as in 35807
section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.35808

       (18)(17) "Home" means the primary residence occupied by the 35809
residence's owner, on the condition that the residence contains 35810
only one stove or oven used for cooking, which may be a double 35811
oven, designed for common residence usage and not for commercial 35812
usage, and that the stove or oven be operated in an ordinary 35813
kitchen within the residence.35814

       (19)(18) "Potentially hazardous food" means a food that is 35815
natural or synthetic, to which any of the following apply:35816

       (a) It has a pH level greater than 4.6 when measured at 35817
seventy-five degrees fahrenheit or twenty-four degrees celsius.35818

       (b) It has a water activity value greater than 0.85.35819

       (c) It requires temperature control because it is in a form 35820
capable of supporting the rapid and progressive growth of 35821
infectious or toxigenic microorganisms, the growth and toxin 35822
production of clostridium botulinium, or in the case of raw shell 35823
eggs, the growth of salmonella enteritidis.35824

       (20)(19) "Cottage food production operation" means a person 35825
who, in the person's home, produces food items that are not 35826
potentially hazardous foods, including bakery products, jams, 35827
jellies, candy, fruit butter, and similar products specified in 35828
rules adopted pursuant to section 3715.025 of the Revised Code.35829

       (B) For the purposes of sections 3715.52 to 3715.72 of the 35830
Revised Code:35831

       (1) If an article is alleged to be misbranded because the 35832
labeling is misleading, or if an advertisement is alleged to be 35833
false because it is misleading, then in determining whether the 35834
labeling or advertisement is misleading, there shall be taken into 35835
account, among other things, not only representations made or 35836
suggested by statement, word, design, device, sound, or in any 35837
combination thereof, but also the extent to which the labeling or 35838
advertisement fails to reveal facts material in the light of such 35839
representations or material with respect to consequence which may 35840
result from the use of the article to which the labeling or 35841
advertisement relates under the conditions of use prescribed in 35842
the labeling or advertisement thereof or under such conditions of 35843
use as are customary or usual.35844

       (2) The provisions regarding the selling of food, drugs, 35845
devices, or cosmetics include the manufacture, production, 35846
processing, packing, exposure, offer, possession, and holding of 35847
any such article for sale; and the sale, dispensing, and giving of 35848
any such article, and the supplying or applying of any such 35849
articles in the conduct of any food, drug, or cosmetic 35850
establishment. The provisions do not prohibit a licensed health 35851
professional authorized to prescribe drugs from administering or 35852
personally furnishing a drug or device to a patient.35853

       (3) The representation of a drug, in its labeling or 35854
advertisement, as an antiseptic is a representation that it is a 35855
germicide, except in the case of a drug purporting to be, or 35856
represented as, an antiseptic for inhibitory use as a wet 35857
dressing, ointment, dusting powder, or other use that involves 35858
prolonged contact with the body.35859

       (4) Whenever jurisdiction is vested in the director of 35860
agriculture or the state board of pharmacy, the jurisdiction of 35861
the board shall be limited to the sale, offering for sale, giving 35862
away, delivery, or dispensing in any manner of drugs at the 35863
wholesale and retail levels or to the consumer and shall be 35864
exclusive in the case of such sale, offering for sale, giving 35865
away, delivery, or dispensing in any manner of drugs at the 35866
wholesale and retail levels or to the consumer in any place where 35867
prescriptions are dispensed or compounded.35868

       (5) To assist in effectuating the provisions of those 35869
sections, the director of agriculture or state board of pharmacy 35870
may request assistance or data from any government or private 35871
agency or individual.35872

       Sec. 3715.025. (A) A cottage food production operation shall 35873
not process acidified foods, low acid canned foods, or potentially 35874
hazardous foods.35875

       (B) The director of agriculture shall adopt rules in 35876
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code specifying the 35877
food items a cottage food production operation may produce that 35878
are in addition to the food items identified by name in division 35879
(A)(20)(19) of section 3715.01 of the Revised Code. The director 35880
shall not adopt rules that permit a cottage food production 35881
operation to produce any food that is a potentially hazardous 35882
food.35883

       Sec. 3715.60.  Food is misbranded within the meaning of 35884
sections 3715.01, 3715.02, 3715.022, and 3715.52 to 3715.72 of the 35885
Revised Code, if:35886

       (A) Its labeling is false or misleading in any particular.35887

       (B) It is offered for sale under the name of another food.35888

       (C) Its container is so made, formed, or filled as to be 35889
misleading.35890

       (D) It is an imitation of another food, unless its label 35891
bears in type of uniform size and prominence, the word 35892
"imitation," and immediately thereafter the name of the food 35893
imitated.35894

       (E) When it is in package form, it does not bear a label 35895
containing:35896

       (1) The name and place of business of the manufacturer, 35897
packer, or distributor;35898

       (2) An accurate statement of the quantity of the contents in 35899
terms of weight, measure, or numerical count; provided, that 35900
reasonable variations shall be permitted, and exemptions as to 35901
small packages shall be established by rules adopted by the 35902
director of agriculture;35903

       (3) In the case of food subject to section 3715.023 of the 35904
Revised Code, the information specified in that section.35905

       (F) Any word, statement, or other information required by or 35906
under authority of sections 3715.01, 3715.02, and 3715.52 to 35907
3715.72 of the Revised Code, to appear on the label or labeling is 35908
not prominently placed thereon with such conspicuousness as 35909
compared with other words, statements, designs, or devices, in the 35910
labeling, and in such terms as to render it likely to be read and 35911
understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions 35912
of purchase and use.35913

       (G) It purports to be, or is represented as, a food for which 35914
a definition and standard of identity have been prescribed by 35915
statute, or by any rule adopted under an existing statute, or by 35916
rule as provided by section 3715.02 of the Revised Code, unless:35917

       (1) It conforms to such definition and standard.35918

       (2) Its label bears the name of the food specified in the 35919
definition and standard, and, insofar as may be required by such 35920
statute or rules, the common names of optional ingredients, other 35921
than spices, flavoring, and coloring, present in such food.35922

       (H) It purports to be or is represented as:35923

       (1) A food for which a standard of quality has been 35924
prescribed by rule as provided by section 3715.02 of the Revised 35925
Code and its quality falls below the standard unless its label 35926
bears, in the manner and form that the rules specify, a statement 35927
that it falls below the standard;35928

       (2) A food for which a standard or standards of fill of 35929
container have been prescribed by rule as provided by section 35930
3715.02 of the Revised Code, and it falls below the standard of 35931
fill of container applicable thereto, unless its label bears, in 35932
the manner and form that the rules specify, a statement that it 35933
falls below the standard.35934

       (I) It is not subject to the provisions of division (G) of 35935
this section, unless it bears labeling clearly giving:35936

       (1) The common or usual name of the food, if any;35937

       (2) In case it is fabricated from two or more ingredients, 35938
the common or usual name of each ingredient; except that spices, 35939
flavorings, and colorings, other than those sold as such, may be 35940
designated as spices, flavorings, and colorings, without naming 35941
each; provided, that, to the extent that compliance with the 35942
requirements of division (I)(2) of this section is impractical or 35943
results in deception or unfair competition, exemptions shall be 35944
established by rules adopted by the director; and provided that 35945
these requirements shall not apply to any carbonated beverage of 35946
which a full and correct statement of the ingredients, to the 35947
extent prescribed by division (I)(2) of this section, has been 35948
filed under oath with the director.35949

       (J) It purports to be or is represented to be for special 35950
dietary uses, unless its label bears such information concerning 35951
its vitamin, mineral, and other dietary properties as is provided 35952
by rules proposedadopted by the director and adopted by the 35953
public health council, as necessary, in order to fully inform 35954
purchasers as to its value for such uses.35955

       (K) It bears or contains any artificial flavoring, artificial 35956
coloring, or chemical preservative, unless it bears labeling 35957
stating that fact; provided, that to the extent that compliance 35958
with the requirements of this division is impracticable, 35959
exemptions shall be established by rules proposedadopted by the 35960
director and adopted by the public health council.35961

       Sec. 3715.61.  (A) Whenever the director of agriculture finds 35962
after investigation that the distribution in this state of any 35963
class of food may, by reason of contamination with microorganisms 35964
during manufacture, processing, or packing thereof in any 35965
locality, be injurious to health, and that such injurious nature 35966
cannot be adequately determined after such articles have entered 35967
commerce, and in such case only, hethe director shall propose 35968
regulations for adoption by the public health counciladopt rules35969
providing for the issuance, to manufacturers, processor, or 35970
packers of such class of food in such locality, of permits to 35971
which shall be attached such conditions governing the manufacture, 35972
processing, or packing of such class food, for such temporary 35973
period of time, as may be necessary to protect the public health; 35974
and after the effective date of such regulations, and during such 35975
temporary period, no person shall introduce or deliver for 35976
introduction into commerce any such food manufactured, processed, 35977
or packed by any such manufacturer, processor, or packer unless 35978
such manufacturer, processor, or packer holds a permit issued by 35979
the director as provided by such regulationsrules.35980

       (B) The director is authorized to suspend immediately upon 35981
notice any permit issued under authority of this section if it is 35982
found that any of the conditions of the permit have been violated. 35983
The holder of a permit so suspended shall be privileged at any 35984
time to apply for the reinstatement of such permit, and the 35985
director shall, immediately after prompt hearing and on inspection 35986
of the establishment, reinstate such permit if it is found that 35987
adequate measures have been taken to comply with and maintain the 35988
conditions of the permit, as originally issued, or as amended.35989

       (C) The director shall have access to any factory or 35990
establishment, the operator of which holds a permit from the 35991
director for the purpose of ascertaining whether or not the 35992
conditions of the permit are being complied with, and denial of 35993
access for such inspection shall be ground for suspension of the 35994
permit until such access is freely given by the operator.35995

       Sec. 3715.62.  Any poisonous or deleterious substance added 35996
to any food, except where such substance is required in the 35997
production thereof or cannot be avoided by good manufacturing 35998
practice, shall be unsafe for purposes of the application of 35999
division (B) of section 3715.59 of the Revised Code, but when such 36000
substance is so required or cannot be so avoided, the director of 36001
agriculture shall propose regulations for adoption by the public 36002
health counciladopt rules limiting the quantity therein or 36003
thereon to such extent as the director finds necessary for the 36004
protection of public health, and any quantity exceeding the limits 36005
so fixed shall also be deemed to be unsafe for purposes of the 36006
application of division (B) of section 3715.59 of the Revised 36007
Code. While such a regulation is in effect limiting the quantity 36008
of any such substance in the case of any food, such food shall 36009
not, by reason of bearing or containing any added amount of such 36010
substance, be considered to be adulterated within the meaning of 36011
division (A) of section 3715.59 of the Revised Code. In 36012
determining the quantity of such added substance to be tolerated 36013
in or on different articles of food, the director shall take into 36014
account the extent to which the use of such substance is required 36015
or cannot be avoided in the production of each such article and 36016
the other ways in which the consumer may be affected by the same 36017
or other poisonous or deleterious substances.36018

       Sec. 3715.68.  (A) An advertisement of food, drug, device, or 36019
cosmetic is false if it is false or misleading in any particular.36020

       (B) For the purpose of sections 3715.01 and 3715.52 to 36021
3715.72 of the Revised Code, the advertisement of a drug or device 36022
representing it to have any effect in albuminuria, appendicitis, 36023
arteriosclerosis, blood poison, bone disease, Bright's disease, 36024
cancer, carbuncles, cholecystitis, diabetes, diphtheria, dropsy, 36025
erysipelas, gallstones, heart and vascular diseases, high blood 36026
pressure, mastoiditis, measles, meningitis, mumps, nephritis, 36027
otitis media, paralysis, pneumonia, poliomyelitis (infantile 36028
paralysis), prostate gland disorders, pyelitis, scarlet fever, 36029
sexual impotence, sinus infection, tuberculosis, tumors, typhoid, 36030
uremia, venereal disease, is also false, except that no 36031
advertisement not in violation of division (A) of this section is 36032
false under this division if it is disseminated only to members of 36033
the medical, dental, pharmaceutical, or veterinary profession, or 36034
appears only in the scientific periodicals of these professions; 36035
provided, that whenever the director of agriculture determines 36036
that an advance in medical science has made any type of 36037
self-medication safe as to any of the diseases named above, the 36038
director shall propose regulations for adoption by the public 36039
health counciladopt rules authorizing the advertisement of drugs 36040
having curative or therapeutic effect for such disease, subject to 36041
such conditions and restrictions as the director may deem 36042
necessary in the interests of public health; provided, that this 36043
division shall not be construed as indicating that self-medication 36044
for diseases other than those named in this section is safe or 36045
efficacious.36046

       Sec. 3715.87. (A) As used in this section and in sections 36047
3715.871, 3715.872, and 3715.873 of the Revised Code:36048

       (1) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 36049
3719.01 of the Revised Code.36050

       (2) "Health care facility" has the same meaning as in section 36051
1337.11 of the Revised Code.36052

       (3) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 36053
the Revised Code.36054

       (4) "Nonprofit clinic" means a charitable nonprofit 36055
corporation organized and operated pursuant to Chapter 1702. of 36056
the Revised Code, or any charitable organization not organized and 36057
not operated for profit, that provides health care services to 36058
indigent and uninsured persons as defined in section 2305.234 of 36059
the Revised Code. "Nonprofit clinic" does not include a hospital 36060
as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, a facility 36061
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, or a facility 36062
that is operated for profit.36063

       (5) "Prescription drug" means any drug to which the following 36064
applies:36065

       (a) Under the "Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act," 52 Stat. 1040 36066
(1938), 21 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, the drug is required to bear 36067
a label containing the legend, "Caution: Federal law prohibits 36068
dispensing without prescription" or "Caution: Federal law 36069
restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed 36070
veterinarian" or any similar restrictive statement, or the drug 36071
may be dispensed only upon a prescription.36072

       (b) Under Chapter 3715. or 3719. of the Revised Code, the 36073
drug may be dispensed only upon a prescription.36074

       (B) The state board of pharmacy shall establish a drug 36075
repository program to accept and dispense prescription drugs 36076
donated or given for the purpose of being dispensed to individuals 36077
who are residents of this state and meet eligibility standards 36078
established in rules adopted by the board under section 3715.873 36079
of the Revised Code. Except as provided in division (C) of this 36080
section, all of the following conditions shall apply to the 36081
program:36082

       (1) Only drugs in their original sealed and tamper-evident 36083
unit dose packaging may be accepted and dispensed;36084

       (2) The packaging must be unopened, except that drugs 36085
packaged in single unit doses may be accepted and dispensed when 36086
the outside packaging is opened if the single unit dose packaging 36087
is undisturbed;36088

       (3) Drugs donated by individuals bearing an expiration date 36089
that is less than six months from the date the drug is donated 36090
shall not be accepted or dispensed;36091

       (4) A drug shall not be accepted or dispensed if there is 36092
reason to believe that it is adulterated as described in section 36093
3715.63 of the Revised Code. 36094

       (C) Orally administered cancer drugs that are not controlled 36095
substances and that do not require refrigeration, freezing, or 36096
storage at a special temperature may be accepted and dispensed 36097
even if not in original sealed and tamper-evident unit dose 36098
packaging, subject to rules adopted by the board pursuant to 36099
section 3715.873 of the Revised Code.36100

       (D) Subject to the limitations specified in divisions (B) and 36101
(C) of this section, unused drugs dispensed for purposes of the 36102
medicaid program may be accepted and dispensed under the drug 36103
repository program.36104

       Sec. 3716.01.  As used in sections 3716.01 to 3716.07, 36105
inclusive, of the Revised Code:36106

       (A) "Department" means the department of health.36107

       (B) "Director" means the director of health.36108

       (C) "Person" includes an individual, partnership, 36109
corporation, or association.36110

       (D) "Hazardous substance" means any substance or mixture of 36111
substances which is toxic, corrosive, an irritant, strong 36112
sensitizer, flammable, or which generates pressure through 36113
decomposition, heat, or other means, if such substance or mixture 36114
of substances may cause substantial personal injury or illness 36115
during any customary or reasonably anticipated handling or use.36116

       (E) "Toxic" applies to any substance which has the inherent 36117
capacity to produce bodily injury to man through ingestion, 36118
inhalation, or absorption through any body surface.36119

       (F)(1) "Highly toxic" means any substance which falls within 36120
any of the following categories:36121

       (a) Produces death within fourteen days in half or more than 36122
half of a group of ten or more laboratory white rats each weighing 36123
between two hundred and three hundred grams, at a single dose of 36124
fifty milligrams or less per kilogram of body weight, when orally 36125
administered;36126

       (b) Produces death within fourteen days in half or more than 36127
half of a group of ten or more laboratory white rats each weighing 36128
between two hundred and three hundred grams, when inhaled 36129
continuously for a period of one hour or less at an atmospheric 36130
concentration of two hundred parts per million by volume or less 36131
of gas, vapor, mist, or dust provided such concentration is likely 36132
to be encountered by mana human being when the substance is used 36133
in any reasonably foreseeable manner;36134

       (c) Produces death within fourteen days in half or more than 36135
half of a group of ten or more rabbits tested in a dosage of two 36136
hundred milligrams or less per kilogram of body weight, when 36137
administered by continuous contact with the bare skin for 36138
twenty-four hours or less.36139

       (2) If the director finds that available data on human 36140
experience with any substance indicates results different from 36141
those obtained on animals in the above named dosages or 36142
concentrations, the human data shall take precedence.36143

       (G) "Corrosive" means any substance which in contact with 36144
living tissue will cause destruction of tissue by chemical action; 36145
but shall not refer to action on inanimate surfaces.36146

       (H) "Irritant" means any substance not corrosive within the 36147
meaning of division (G) of this section which on immediate, 36148
prolonged, or repeated contact with normal living tissue will 36149
induce a local inflammatory reaction.36150

       (I) "Strong sensitizer" means any substance which will cause 36151
on normal living tissue, through an allergic or photodynamic 36152
process, a hypersensitivity which becomes evident on reapplication 36153
of the same substance and which is designated as such by the 36154
director. Before designating any substance as a strong sensitizer, 36155
the director shall, after public hearing following due notice, 36156
find that the frequency of occurrence and severity of the reaction 36157
indicate a significant potential for causing hypersensitivity.36158

       (J) "Extremely flammable" applies to any substance which has 36159
a flash point at or below twenty degrees Fahrenheit as determined 36160
by the tagliabue open cut tester.36161

       (K) "Flammable" applies to any substance which has a flash 36162
point of above twenty degrees to and including eighty degrees 36163
Fahrenheit, as determined by the tagliabue open cut tester; except 36164
that the flammability of the contents of self-pressurized 36165
containers shall be determined by methods generally applicable to 36166
such containers and established by regulation of the public health 36167
councildirector.36168

       (L) "Label" means a display of written, printed, or graphic 36169
matter upon or attached to the immediate package or container of 36170
any substance. Any word, statement, or other information required 36171
by sections 3716.01 to 3716.07, inclusive, of the Revised Code, to 36172
appear on the label must also appear (1) on the outside container 36173
or wrapper, if any, unless it is easily legible through the 36174
outside container or wrapper, and (2) on all accompanying 36175
literature where there are directions for use, written or 36176
otherwise.36177

       (M) "Immediate container" does not include package liners.36178

       (N) "Misbranded package" means any container of a hazardous 36179
substance intended or suitable for household use which fails to 36180
bear a label:36181

       (1) Which states conspicuously:36182

       (a) The name and place of business of the manufacturer, 36183
packer, or distributor;36184

       (b) The common or usual name, or the chemical name or the 36185
recognized generic name (not trade name only) of the hazardous 36186
substance or of each component which contributes substantially to 36187
its hazard;36188

       (c) The signal word "DANGER" on substances which are 36189
extremely flammable, corrosive, or which:36190

       (i) Produce death within fourteen days in half or more than 36191
half of a group of ten or more laboratory white rats each weighing 36192
between two hundred and three hundred grams, at a single dose of 36193
one gram or less per kilogram of body weight, when orally 36194
administered;36195

       (ii) Produce death within fourteen days in half or more than 36196
half of a group of ten or more laboratory white rats each weighing 36197
between two hundred and three hundred grams, when inhaled 36198
continuously for a period of one hour or less at an atmospheric 36199
concentration of two thousand parts per million by volume of gas, 36200
vapor, mist, or dust, provided such concentration is likely to be 36201
encountered by mana human being when the substances are used in 36202
any reasonably foreseeable manner;36203

       (iii) Produce death within fourteen days in half or more than 36204
half of a group of ten or more rabbits tested in a dosage of one 36205
gram or less per kilogram of body weight, when administered by 36206
continuous contact with the bare skin for twenty-four hours or 36207
less;36208

       (iv) If the director finds that available data on human 36209
experience with any substance indicates results different from 36210
those obtained on animals in the above named dosages or 36211
concentrations, hethe director may require the use of the signal 36212
word "DANGER" on such substance or permit use of the signal word 36213
"WARNING" or "CAUTION" on such substance.36214

       (d) The signal word "WARNING" or "CAUTION" on all other 36215
hazardous substances;36216

       (e) An affirmative statement of the principal hazard or 36217
hazards, such as "Flammable," "Vapor Harmful," "Causes Burns," 36218
"Absorbed Through Skin," or similar wording descriptive of the 36219
hazard;36220

       (f) Precautionary measures describing the action to be 36221
followed or avoided;36222

       (g) Instructions, when necessary, for the first-aid treatment 36223
in case of contact or exposure, if the substance is hazardous 36224
through contact or exposure;36225

       (h) The word "poison" for any hazardous substance which is 36226
defined as "highly toxic" by division (F) of this section;36227

       (i) Instructions for handling and storage of packages which 36228
require special care in handling or storage;36229

       (j) The statement "Keep out of the reach of children," or its 36230
practical equivalent.36231

       (2) On which any statements required under division (N) (1) 36232
of this section are located prominently and are in the English 36233
language in legible type in contrast by typography, layout, or 36234
color with other printed matter on the label.36235

       The public health councildirector shall, by regulations, 36236
provide for minimum information which shall appear on the labels 36237
for small packages, which labels need not include all of the 36238
information required by this section. The director may permit less 36239
than the foregoing statement of the hazard or precautionary 36240
measures for labels of hazardous substances presenting only minor 36241
hazards; and the term "misbranded package" does not apply to 36242
packages of economic poisons subject to the "Federal Insecticide, 36243
Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act," 61 Stat. 163 (1947), 7 U.S.C.A. 36244
135, nor to packages of foods, drugs, and cosmetics subject to the 36245
"Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act," nor to sections 3715.01 to 36246
3715.72, inclusive, of the Revised Code.36247

       Sec. 3716.03.  The director of health shall:36248

       (A) Propose and submit regulations for adoption by the public 36249
health council, subject to sections 119.01 to 119.13, inclusive,36250
Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code,36251
for the efficient enforcement of section 3716.02 of the Revised 36252
Code;36253

       (B) Conduct examinations, inspections, and investigations for 36254
the purpose of establishing such regulations, through such 36255
officers of the department of health or the boards of health, as36256
hethe director delegates;36257

       (C) Designate officers and employees to enter at reasonable 36258
times any factory, warehouse, or establishment in which hazardous 36259
substances are held, or to enter any vehicle being used to 36260
transport or hold such hazardous substance:36261

       (1) For the purpose of determining the nature of such 36262
substances;36263

       (2) To inspect or copy all records showing the movement of 36264
any such hazardous substance, or the holding thereof during or 36265
after such movement, and the quantity, shipper, and consignee 36266
thereof; provided, evidence obtained under this subdivision shall 36267
not be used in a criminal prosecution of the person from whom 36268
obtained;36269

       (D) Inspect and sample, upon tender of reasonable price for 36270
such sample, at reasonable times and within reasonable limits and 36271
in a reasonable manner, finished hazardous substances in retail 36272
packages and labeling thereon in such factory, warehouse, 36273
establishment, or vehicle.36274

       Sec. 3717.01.  As used in this chapter:36275

       (A) "Ohio uniform food safety code" means the food safety and 36276
related standards adopted under section 3717.05 of the Revised 36277
Code.36278

       (B) "Food" means any raw, cooked, or processed edible 36279
substance used or intended for use in whole or in part for human 36280
consumption. "Food" includes ice, water or any other beverage, 36281
food ingredients, and chewing gum.36282

       (C) "Retail food establishment" means a premises or part of a 36283
premises where food is stored, processed, prepared, manufactured, 36284
or otherwise held or handled for retail sale. Except when 36285
expressly provided otherwise, "retail food establishment" includes 36286
a mobile retail food establishment, seasonal retail food 36287
establishment, and temporary retail food establishment.36288

       As used in this division:36289

       (1) "Retail" means the sale of food to a person who is the 36290
ultimate consumer.36291

       (2) "Prepared" means any action that affects a food, 36292
including receiving and maintaining it at the temperature at which 36293
it was received.36294

       (D) "Seasonal retail food establishment" means a retail food 36295
establishment, other than a mobile retail food establishment, that 36296
is operated for not more than six months in a licensing period.36297

       (E) "Temporary retail food establishment" means a retail food 36298
establishment that is operated at an event for not more than five 36299
consecutive days, except when operated for more than five 36300
consecutive days pursuant to division (E)(2) of section 3717.23 of 36301
the Revised Code.36302

       (F) "Food service operation" means a place, location, site, 36303
or separate area where food intended to be served in individual 36304
portions is prepared or served for a charge or required donation. 36305
As used in this division, "served" means a response made to an 36306
order for one or more individual portions of food in a form that 36307
is edible without washing, cooking, or additional preparation and 36308
"prepared" means any action that affects a food other than 36309
receiving or maintaining it at the temperature at which it was 36310
received.36311

       Except when expressly provided otherwise, "food service 36312
operation" includes a catering food service operation, food 36313
delivery sales operation, mobile food service operation, seasonal 36314
food service operation, temporary food service operation, and 36315
vending machine location.36316

       (G) "Catering food service operation" means a food service 36317
operation where food is prepared for serving at a function or 36318
event held at an off-premises site, for a charge determined on a 36319
per-function or per-event basis.36320

       (H) "Food delivery sales operation" means a food service 36321
operation from which individual portions of food are ordered by a 36322
customer, prepared at another food service operation or a retail 36323
food establishment, and delivered to the customer by a person 36324
other than an employee of the food service operation or retail 36325
food establishment that prepared the food.36326

       (I) "Mobile food service operation" means a food service 36327
operation that is operated from a movable vehicle, portable 36328
structure, or watercraft and that routinely changes location, 36329
except that if the operation remains at any one location for more 36330
than forty consecutive days, the operation is no longer a mobile 36331
food service operation. "Mobile food service operation" includes a 36332
food service operation that does not remain at any one location 36333
for more than forty consecutive days and serves, in a manner 36334
consistent with division (F) of this section, only frozen 36335
desserts; beverages, nuts, popcorn, candy, or similar confections; 36336
bakery products identified in section 911.01 of the Revised Code; 36337
or any combination of those items.36338

       (J) "Seasonal food service operation" means a food service 36339
operation, other than a mobile food service operation, that is 36340
operated for not more than six months in a licensing period.36341

       (K) "Temporary food service operation" means a food service 36342
operation that is operated at an event for not more than five 36343
consecutive days, except when operated for more than five 36344
consecutive days pursuant to division (E)(2) of section 3717.43 of 36345
the Revised Code.36346

       (L) "Vending machine location" means an area or room where 36347
one or more vending machines are installed and operated, except 36348
that if the machines within an area are separated by more than one 36349
hundred fifty feet, each area separated by that distance 36350
constitutes a separate vending machine location. As used in this 36351
division, "vending machine" means a self-service device that 36352
automatically dispenses on the insertion of currency, tokens, or 36353
similar means a predetermined unit serving of food, either in bulk 36354
or in package, without having to be replenished after each use.36355

       (M) "Board of health" means a board of health of a city or 36356
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 36357
board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code.36358

       (N) "Government entity" means this state, a political 36359
subdivision of this state, another state, or a political 36360
subdivision or other local government body of another state.36361

       (O) "Licensor" means one of the following:36362

       (1) A board of health approved under section 3717.11 of the 36363
Revised Code;36364

       (2) The director of agriculture acting pursuant to section 36365
3717.11 of the Revised Code with respect to the licensing of 36366
retail food establishments;36367

       (3) The director of health acting pursuant to section 3717.11 36368
of the Revised Code with respect to the licensing of food service 36369
operations.36370

       (P) "Licensing period" means the first day of March to the 36371
last day of February of the next succeeding year.36372

       (Q) "Mobile retail food establishment" means a retail food 36373
establishment that is operated from a movable vehicle or other 36374
portable structure, and that routinely changes location, except 36375
that if the establishment operates from any one location for more 36376
than forty consecutive days, the establishment is no longer a 36377
mobile retail food establishment.36378

       (R) "Unprocessed," when used with respect to fruits and 36379
vegetables, means that the fruits and vegetables are not processed 36380
beyond merely rough trimming and rinsing.36381

       (S) "Cottage food production operation" has the same meaning 36382
as in division (A)(20)(19) of section 3715.01 of the Revised Code.36383

       Sec. 3717.04.  The director of agriculture, the public health 36384
council, and the director of health have the exclusive power in 36385
this state to adopt rules regarding retail food establishments and 36386
food service operations. The rules adopted under this chapter 36387
shall be applied uniformly throughout this state.36388

       All rules adopted under this chapter shall be adopted in 36389
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Subject to the 36390
approval of the joint committee on agency rule review, portions of 36391
the rules may be adopted by referencing all or any part of any 36392
federal regulations pertaining to food safety.36393

       Sec. 3717.05.  (A) The director of agriculture and the public36394
director of health council shall adopt rules establishing 36395
standards for safe food handling and sanitation in retail food 36396
establishments and food service operations. The rules shall be 36397
compiled as the Ohio uniform food safety code, which shall be used 36398
by the licensors of retail food establishments and food service 36399
operations in ensuring the safe handling of food in this state. 36400
All scientific provisions of the Ohio uniform food safety code 36401
that are relevant to both retail food establishments and food 36402
service operations shall be adopted by the director of agriculture 36403
and the publicdirector of health council with each other's 36404
concurrence.36405

       The Ohio uniform food safety code shall include the 36406
following:36407

       (1) Criteria for sanitation in retail food establishments and 36408
food service operations;36409

       (2) Criteria for equipment in retail food establishments and 36410
food service operations;36411

       (3) Criteria for reviewing the facility layout and equipment 36412
specifications of retail food establishments and food service 36413
operations;36414

       (4) A definition of "potentially hazardous" as it pertains to 36415
food in retail food establishments and to food in food service 36416
operations;36417

       (5) Criteria to be used in evaluating the primary business of 36418
a person or government entity for purposes of determining whether 36419
the person or entity should be licensed as a retail food 36420
establishment or food service operation.36421

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 36422
if a model food code is established by the United States food and 36423
drug administration, the Ohio uniform food safety code shall be 36424
based on the most current version of the food and drug 36425
administration's model food code. If the food and drug 36426
administration adopts, modifies, or rescinds a provision in the 36427
model food code, not later than twelve months after the 36428
administration's action, the director of agriculture and public36429
director of health council shall adopt, amend, or rescind 36430
provisions in the Ohio uniform food safety code to ensure that it 36431
continues to conform with the model food code.36432

       (2) The Ohio uniform food safety code may contain or omit 36433
provisions that do not correspond to the food and drug 36434
administration's model food code if the director of agriculture or 36435
the publicdirector of health council, with each other's 36436
concurrence, determines either of the following:36437

       (a) That rules can be adopted under this chapter that provide 36438
protection at least as effective as that which would be provided 36439
by basing the rules on the model food code;36440

       (b) That local conditions warrant the adoption of standards 36441
that are different from the model food code.36442

       Sec. 3717.07.  (A) For purposes of establishing a licensing 36443
fee under sections 3717.25 and 3717.45 of the Revised Code, the 36444
director of agriculture and the publicdirector of health council36445
shall adopt rules establishing uniform methodologies for use in 36446
calculating the costs of licensing retail food establishments in 36447
the categories specified by the director of agriculture and the 36448
costs of licensing food service operations in the categories 36449
specified by the councildirector of health. In adopting the 36450
rules, the director of agriculture and the publicdirector of36451
health council shall consider any recommendations received from 36452
advisory boards or other entities representing the interests of 36453
retail food establishments and food service operations.36454

       (B) The rules shall include provisions that do all of the 36455
following:36456

       (1) Provide for calculations to be made according to fiscal 36457
years rather than licensing periods;36458

       (2) Limit the direct costs that may be attributed to the use 36459
of sanitarians by establishing appropriate statewide averages that 36460
may not be exceeded;36461

       (3) Limit the indirect costs that may be included in the 36462
calculation of fees to an amount that does not exceed thirty per 36463
cent of the cost of the licensing program;36464

       (4) Provide for a proportionate reduction in the fees to be 36465
charged if a licensor included anticipated costs in the 36466
immediately preceding calculation of licensing fees and the total 36467
amount of the anticipated costs was not incurred;36468

       (5) Provide for a proportionate reduction in the fees to be 36469
charged if it is discovered through an audit by the auditor of 36470
state or through any other means that the licensor has charged or 36471
is charging a licensing fee that exceeds the amount that should 36472
have been charged;36473

       (6) Provide for a twenty per cent reduction in the fees to be 36474
charged when the reduction is imposed as a penalty under division 36475
(C) of section 3717.071 of the Revised Code;36476

       (7) With regard to any fees charged for licensing vending 36477
machine locations, the rules shall prohibit a licensor from 36478
increasing fees by a percentage of increase over the previous 36479
year's fee that exceeds the percentage of increase in the consumer 36480
price index for all urban consumers (United States city average, 36481
all items), prepared by the United States department of labor, 36482
bureau of labor statistics, for the immediately preceding calendar 36483
year.36484

       Sec. 3717.45.  (A) A licensor may charge fees for issuing and 36485
renewing food service operation licenses. Any licensing fee 36486
charged shall be used solely for the administration and 36487
enforcement of the provisions of this chapter and the rules 36488
adopted under it applicable to food service operations.36489

       Any licensing fee charged under this section shall be based 36490
on the licensor's costs of regulating food service operations, as 36491
determined according to the uniform methodologies established 36492
under section 3717.07 of the Revised Code. If the licensor is a 36493
board of health, a fee may be disapproved by the district advisory 36494
council in the case of a general health district or the 36495
legislative authority of the city in the case of a city health 36496
district. A disapproved fee shall not be charged by the board of 36497
health.36498

        Except when a licensing fee is established as an emergency 36499
measure, the licensor shall hold a public hearing regarding the 36500
proposed fee. At least twenty days prior to holding a public 36501
hearing, the licensor shall give written notice of the hearing to 36502
each person or government entity holding a food service operation 36503
license that may be affected by the proposed fee. The notice shall 36504
be mailed to the last known address of the licensee and shall 36505
specify the date, time, and place of the hearing and the amount of 36506
the proposed fee. On request, the licensor shall provide the 36507
completed uniform methodology used in the calculation of the 36508
licensor's costs and the proposed fee.36509

       (B) In addition to licensing fees, a licensor may charge fees 36510
for the following:36511

       (1) Review of facility layout and equipment specifications 36512
pertaining to food service operations, other than mobile and 36513
temporary food service operations, or similar reviews conducted 36514
for vending machine locations;36515

       (2) Any necessary collection and bacteriological examination 36516
of samples from food service operations, or similar services 36517
specified in rules adopted under this chapter by the public36518
director of health council;36519

       (3) Attendance at a course of study offered by the licensor 36520
in food protection as it pertains to food service operations, if 36521
the course is approved under section 3717.09 of the Revised Code.36522

       (C)(1) The public health councildirector may determine by 36523
rule an amount to be collected from applicants for food service 36524
operation licenses for use by the director of health in 36525
administering and enforcing the provisions of this chapter and the 36526
rules adopted under it applicable to food service operations. 36527
Licensors shall collect the amount prior to issuing an applicant's 36528
new or renewed license. If a licensing fee is charged under this 36529
section, the licensor shall collect the amount at the same time 36530
the fee is collected. Licensors are not required to provide notice 36531
or hold public hearings regarding amounts to be collected.36532

       (2) A licensor shall certify the amount collected under 36533
division (C)(1) of this section and transmit the amount to the 36534
treasurer of state according to the following schedule:36535

       (a) For amounts received by the licensor on or after the 36536
first day of January but not later than the thirty-first day of 36537
March, transmit the amounts not later than the fifteenth day of 36538
May;36539

       (b) For amounts received by the licensor on or after the 36540
first day of April but not later than the thirtieth day of June, 36541
transmit the amounts not later than the fifteenth day of August;36542

       (c) For amounts received by the licensor on or after the 36543
first day of July but not later than the thirtieth day of 36544
September, transmit the amounts not later than the fifteenth day 36545
of November;36546

       (d) For amounts received by the licensor on or after the 36547
first day of October but not later than the thirty-first day of 36548
December, transmit the amounts not later than the fifteenth day of 36549
February of the following year.36550

       (3) All amounts received under division (C)(2) of this 36551
section shall be deposited into the general operations fund 36552
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The director shall 36553
use the amounts solely for the administration and enforcement of 36554
the provisions of this chapter and the rules adopted under it 36555
applicable to food service operations.36556

       (4) The director may submit recommendations to the public 36557
health council regarding the amounts collected under division 36558
(C)(1) of this section. When making recommendations, the director 36559
shall submit a report stating the current and projected expenses 36560
of administering and enforcing the provisions of this chapter and 36561
the rules adopted under it applicable to food service operations 36562
and the total of all amounts that have been deposited in the 36563
general operations fund pursuant to division (C)(3) of this 36564
section. The director may include in the report any 36565
recommendations for modifying the department's administration and 36566
enforcement of the provisions of this chapter and the rules 36567
adopted under it applicable to food service operations.36568


       Sec. 3717.51.  Pursuant to section 3717.04 of the Revised 36570
Code, the publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 36571
regarding food service operations, as follows:36572

       (A) Licensing categories for food service operations and 36573
licensing requirements for each category;36574

       (B) Standards and procedures, including a schedule of 36575
frequency, for conducting inspections of food service operations;36576

       (C) Standards and procedures for conducting investigations of 36577
complaints pertaining to food service operations;36578

       (D) Procedures to be used by the director of health in 36579
approving courses of study for persons seeking certification in 36580
food protection, standards that must be met to receive and 36581
maintain the director's approval, and procedures for withdrawing 36582
the director's approval of a course if the standards for approval 36583
are no longer being met;36584

       (E) Standards for the provision of assistance to choking 36585
victims;36586

       (F) Any other matter the councildirector considers relevant 36587
to the administration and enforcement of the provisions of this 36588
chapter applicable to food service operations.36589

       Sec. 3718.02. (A) The publicdirector of health council, in 36590
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt, and 36591
subsequently may amend and rescind, rules of general application 36592
throughout the state to administer this chapter. Rules adopted 36593
under division (A) of this section shall do at least all of the 36594
following:36595

       (1) Require that the appropriate board of health approve or 36596
disapprove the installation, operation, and alteration of a sewage 36597
treatment system if it is not connected to a sanitary sewerage 36598
system;36599

        (2) Require a board of health, or other person as established 36600
by rule, to conduct a site evaluation for any proposed 36601
installation of a sewage treatment system;36602

        (3) Prescribe standards for the siting, design, installation, 36603
operation, monitoring, maintenance, and abandonment of sewage 36604
treatment systems that may be used in this state and for the 36605
progressive or incremental alteration or repair of an existing 36606
sewage treatment system or the progressive or incremental 36607
installation of a new system to replace an existing sewage 36608
treatment system. The rules shall be adopted so as to establish a 36609
preference for the repair of an existing sewage treatment system, 36610
when technically and economically feasible, rather than its 36611
replacement with a new system. The standards shall include at a 36612
minimum all of the following:36613

        (a) Soil absorption specifications and vertical separation 36614
distances.36615

       (i) Soil absorption specifications established in rules shall 36616
include standards regarding the sizing of sewage treatment systems 36617
in use in the state.36618

       (ii) In establishing soil absorption specifications and 36619
vertical separation distances, the rules shall identify those soil 36620
conditions that present a low or moderate risk of inadequate 36621
treatment or dispersal of sewage from sewage treatment systems. 36622
For low and moderate risk conditions, the required vertical 36623
separation distance shall not exceed eighteen inches except as 36624
authorized pursuant to rules adopted under divisions 36625
(A)(3)(a)(iii) and (iv) of this section.36626

       In addition, the rules shall identify those soil conditions 36627
that present a high risk of inadequate treatment or dispersal of 36628
sewage. For such high risk conditions, the vertical separation 36629
distance shall be set at a depth from twenty-four to thirty-six 36630
inches and shall not be lowered unless a reduction of vertical 36631
separation is granted in accordance with rules adopted under 36632
division (A)(3)(a)(iii) of this section.36633

       (iii) The rules shall establish options to be utilized by a 36634
board of health when approving the reductions of or compliance 36635
with vertical separation distances that are established in rules 36636
adopted under division (A)(3)(a)(ii) of this section. The options 36637
for a board of health in providing such approval shall include, 36638
but not be limited to: the use where deemed appropriate for a 36639
particular site of subsurface interceptor drains, perimeter 36640
drains, or engineered drainage; pretreatment of sewage; or soil 36641
elevation.36642

       (iv) The rules shall provide that a board of health may 36643
petition the director to increase the vertical separation 36644
distances required for sewage treatment systems in the applicable 36645
health district or a portion of the district when conditions 36646
present a high risk of inadequate treatment or dispersal of 36647
sewage. The rules also shall provide that the director may approve 36648
such a request upon a demonstration by the board of health that 36649
unusual or unique local conditions relating to terrain, bedrock, 36650
water table, soil fragments, or soil textures require the 36651
establishment of greater vertical separation distances within the 36652
jurisdiction of the board of health or a portion thereof. If, 36653
under the rules, the director of health approves a greater 36654
vertical separation distance, a board of health still may approve 36655
a reduction of that vertical separation distance for an individual 36656
sewage treatment system pursuant to rules adopted under division 36657
(A)(3)(a)(iii) of this section. Further, if, under the rules, the 36658
director approves a greater vertical separation distance, a person 36659
who is denied permission by a board of health to install or 36660
replace a sewage treatment system as a result of the director's 36661
approval may request a hearing in accordance with section 3718.11 36662
of the Revised Code.36663

        (b) Specifications for the quality of treated sewage effluent 36664
from household sewage treatment systems that is applied to soil on 36665
the property where a household sewage treatment system is located. 36666
The specifications established in the rules for the quality of 36667
effluent from discharging systems shall comply with discharge 36668
requirements imposed by the national pollutant discharge 36669
elimination system permit program established under section 36670
6111.03 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it.36671

       (c) Requirements for the reasonable maintenance of a system 36672
according to maintenance requirements approved by the director of 36673
health as recommended by the sewage treatment system technical 36674
advisory committee or according to accepted standards and 36675
practices established in rules, as applicable. The requirements 36676
may include standards for service contracts or other arrangements 36677
that assure regular maintenance and upkeep of the system. In 36678
determining the reasonableness of a maintenance requirement, the 36679
director shall consider a manufacturer's maintenance requirements 36680
as well as all other maintenance alternatives.36681

       (4) Prescribe procedures for notification to boards of health 36682
of the approval of a sewage treatment system or components of a 36683
system by the director of health under section 3718.04 of the 36684
Revised Code;36685

       (5) Prescribe criteria and procedures under which boards of 36686
health shall issue installation permits, operation permits, and 36687
alteration permits for sewage treatment systems. The rules shall 36688
require as a condition of an installation permit that the 36689
installer of a system must warrant that the system was installed 36690
in accordance with all applicable rules and design requirements. 36691
In addition, the rules shall require a board of health, not later 36692
than sixty days after the issuance of an installation, operation, 36693
or alteration permit, to notify the director that the permit was 36694
issued. The rules shall require the notification to be in a format 36695
prescribed by the director and to include information related to 36696
the issuance of the permit. With the assistance of the department 36697
of health, a board of health, to the extent practicable, shall 36698
computerize the process of the issuance of permits for sewage 36699
treatment systems.36700

       (6) Require a board of health to inspect a sewage treatment 36701
system not later than twelve months after its installation to 36702
ensure that the system is operating properly. The rules shall 36703
require a board of health, not later than sixty days after the 36704
inspection, to certify to the director on a form provided by the 36705
director that the inspection was performed.36706

        (7) Require each board of health to develop a program for the 36707
administration of maintenance requirements established in rules 36708
adopted under division (A)(3)(c) of this section. The rules shall 36709
include requirements and procedures under which a person may 36710
demonstrate the required maintenance of a system in lieu of having 36711
an inspection conducted when an inspection otherwise is required. 36712
The rules shall require a board of health to provide written 36713
notice to a person that is demonstrating maintenance of a system 36714
in lieu of an inspection that if proof of the required maintenance 36715
of the system is not provided as required by rules, the system is 36716
subject to inspection by the board and the reasonable cost of the 36717
inspection must be paid by the person. The rules shall authorize a 36718
board of health to inspect any sewage treatment system if there is 36719
a good-faith complaint regarding the system, there is probable 36720
cause for the inspection, or proof of the required maintenance of 36721
the system has not been provided as required by rules. In 36722
addition, the rules shall authorize a board of health to inspect a 36723
sewage treatment system without prior notice in any instance in 36724
which the board has probable cause to believe that the system is 36725
endangering or threatening to endanger public health. The rules 36726
shall require that the reasonable costs for sewage effluent 36727
testing or evaluation be paid by the owner of a sewage treatment 36728
system that is being investigated. Further, the rules shall 36729
establish a methodology for determining the reasonable costs of an 36730
inspection in accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code. 36731
The rules shall allow, but shall not require, a board of health to 36732
continue an inspection program that was established by the board 36733
prior to the effective date of the rules, provided that the 36734
program authorizes a person to demonstrate the required 36735
maintenance of a system in lieu of an inspection.36736

       (8) Require a board of health to register installers, service 36737
providers, and septage haulers that perform work within the health 36738
district; prescribe criteria and procedures for the registration; 36739
and prescribe criteria for a demonstration of competency as a part 36740
of the registration. The rules shall establish uniform statewide 36741
bonding requirements or other financial security requirements for 36742
installers, service providers, and septage haulers as a condition 36743
of registration within any health district. The rules shall 36744
establish a methodology by which the required amount of a bond or 36745
other security may be calculated for each installer, service 36746
provider, and septage hauler. The methodology, at a minimum, shall 36747
consider the number of systems installed or serviced and the type 36748
of system installed or serviced by an installer, service provider, 36749
or septage hauler on an annual basis. The rules shall provide that 36750
no board of health shall require an additional or different bond 36751
or security requirement as a condition of registration beyond the 36752
bonding and security requirements established in the rules adopted 36753
under division (A)(8) of this section.36754

       The rules shall establish a cost methodology for determining 36755
the fee for the registration of an installer, service provider, or 36756
septage hauler in any health district.36757

        (9) Prescribe requirements for the collection, 36758
transportation, disposal, and land application of domestic septage 36759
in this state from a sewage treatment system;36760

        (10) Require boards of health to maintain records that are 36761
determined necessary to ascertain compliance with this chapter and 36762
the rules adopted under it;36763

       (11) Require the manufacturer of a sewage treatment system 36764
that is authorized for use in this state in rules adopted under 36765
this section or that is approved for use in this state under 36766
section 3718.04 of the Revised Code to provide instructions for 36767
the operation and maintenance of the system. The rules shall 36768
provide that a board of health may require a copy of a 36769
manufacturer's instructions for the operation and maintenance of a 36770
system to be filed with the board prior to the installation and 36771
use of the system in the health district in which the board has 36772
jurisdiction. In addition, the rules shall require a board of 36773
health and a manufacturer to provide a copy of the operation and 36774
maintenance instructions, if available, when a board of health or 36775
a manufacturer receives a written request for instructions.36776

       (12) Prescribe criteria for the provision of written evidence 36777
of compliance with rules pertaining to sewage treatment for 36778
purposes of sections 711.05 and 711.10 of the Revised Code;36779

       (13) Pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (3) of this section, 36780
prescribe standards for the siting, design, installation, 36781
operation, monitoring, maintenance, and abandonment of small flow 36782
on-site sewage treatment systems that may be used in this state;36783

       (14) Prescribe minimum criteria and procedures under which 36784
boards of health may establish household sewage treatment district 36785
management programs for the purpose of providing a responsive 36786
approach toward preventing or solving sewage treatment problems 36787
resulting from household sewage treatment systems within the 36788
districts established under the program. For purposes of division 36789
(A)(14) of this section, a board of health may enter into a 36790
contract with any entity to administer a household sewage 36791
treatment district management program.36792

       (15) Prescribe standards for the use of subsurface 36793
interceptor drains, perimeter drains, and engineered drainage to 36794
remove or divert any subsurface water from an area to be used for 36795
soil absorption of sewage in the soil of a sewage treatment 36796
system;36797

       (16) Prescribe standards for the inspection of septage 36798
hauling truck tanks by boards of health, including, but not 36799
limited to, tank seal safety specifications;36800

       (17) Establish standards and testing methods to ensure that 36801
all septic tanks, other disposal component tanks, dosing tanks, 36802
pump vaults, household sewage treatment disposal system holding 36803
tanks and privy vaults, or other applicable sewage disposal system 36804
components manufactured after the effective date of this section36805
September 17, 2010, and used in this state are watertight and 36806
structurally sound;36807

       (18) Require a board of health to give notice and an 36808
opportunity for a hearing, pursuant to section 3718.11 of the 36809
Revised Code, to an affected property owner regarding any of the 36810
following:36811

       (a) The denial of an installation, operation, or alteration 36812
permit for a sewage treatment system;36813

       (b) The imposition of a condition on the installation of a 36814
sewage treatment system;36815

       (c) The required replacement of a sewage treatment system;36816

       (d) Any other final order or decision of a board of health 36817
that is made under this chapter concerning which a property owner 36818
is claiming to be aggrieved or adversely affected.36819

       The rules also shall establish procedures for giving such 36820
notice and for conducting the hearing required in rules adopted 36821
under division (A)(18) of this section.36822

       (19) Prescribe standards for the regulation of gray water 36823
recycling systems;36824

       (20) Prohibit a sewage treatment system from causing a public 36825
health nuisance;36826

       (21) Define economic impact for purposes of division (B) of 36827
this section and section 3718.022 of the Revised Code.36828

        The councildirector may adopt other rules under division (A) 36829
of this section that itthe director determines are necessary to 36830
implement this chapter and to protect the public health and 36831
welfare.36832

        At least sixty days prior to adopting a rule under division 36833
(A) of this section, the councildirector shall provide boards of 36834
health and any other interested parties an opportunity to comment 36835
on the rule.36836

        (B)(1) In accordance with section 3709.20 or 3709.21 of the 36837
Revised Code, as applicable, and subject to review by and approval 36838
of the director under division (C) of section 3718.05 of the 36839
Revised Code, a board of health may adopt rules necessary for the 36840
public health providing for more stringent standards than those 36841
established in rules of the public health council adopted by the 36842
director under division (A) of this section. In proposing or 36843
adopting the rules, a board of health shall consider and document 36844
the economic impact of the rules on property owners within the 36845
applicable health district.36846

       (2) A board that intends to adopt rules shall notify the 36847
department of health of the proposed rules and submit a copy of 36848
the proposed rules and the documentation of the economic impact of 36849
the rules at least ninety days prior to the proposed date of 36850
adoption. The director shall approve or disapprove any such 36851
proposed rule within ninety days after receiving a copy of the 36852
proposed rule from the board of health. 36853

       (3) In reviewing a proposed rule, the director shall approve 36854
the rule if all of the following apply:36855

       (a) The proposed rule is not in conflict with this chapter or 36856
rules adopted under it.36857

       (b) The proposed rule is authorized by division (B) of this 36858
section.36859

       (c) The proposed rule is no less stringent than rules adopted 36860
by the public health councildirector.36861

       (d) Unless otherwise authorized by this chapter or rules 36862
adopted under it, the proposed rule does not require design 36863
changes to a sewage treatment system, or component thereof, that 36864
differ from a design authorized in rules adopted under division 36865
(A) of this section, including rules adopted under division (A)(1) 36866
or (A)(3)(a)(iii) or (iv) of this section, or approved by the 36867
director under section 3718.04 of the Revised Code.36868

       (e) The proposed rule does not require operation or 36869
maintenance procedures for a sewage treatment system that conflict 36870
with operation or maintenance procedures authorized in rules 36871
adopted under division (A) of this section, including rules 36872
adopted under division (A)(1) or (A)(3)(a)(iii) or (iv) of this 36873
section, or approved by the director under section 3718.04 of the 36874
Revised Code.36875

        (4) If a board of health fails to submit a proposed rule to 36876
the director or fails to demonstrate that the board has considered 36877
the economic impact of the proposed rule, the rule shall have no 36878
force or effect and is not enforceable.36879

       Sec. 3718.021. (A) A board of health may regulate the siting, 36880
design, installation, operation, monitoring, maintenance, and 36881
abandonment of small flow on-site sewage treatment systems in 36882
accordance with rules adopted by the publicdirector of health 36883
council under division (A)(13) of section 3718.02 of the Revised 36884
Code. If a board of health chooses to regulate small flow on-site 36885
sewage treatment systems, the board first shall send written 36886
notification to the director of health and the director of 36887
environmental protection.36888

       (B) If a board of health chooses to regulate small flow 36889
on-site sewage treatment systems under division (A) of this 36890
section and later determines that it no longer wants to regulate 36891
those systems, the board shall notify the director of health and 36892
the director of environmental protection. Upon the receipt of the 36893
notification by the director of environmental protection, the 36894
board of health shall cease regulating small flow on-site sewage 36895
treatment systems, and the environmental protection agency shall 36896
regulate those systems.36897

       (C) If after a survey conducted under section 3718.07 of the 36898
Revised Code the director of health finds that a board of health 36899
that has chosen to regulate small flow on-site sewage treatment 36900
systems is not complying with the rules adopted under division 36901
(A)(13) of section 3718.02 of the Revised Code, the director shall 36902
notify the director of environmental protection and the board of 36903
health. Upon receipt of the notification, the board shall cease 36904
regulating small flow on-site sewage treatment systems, and the 36905
environmental protection agency shall regulate those systems.36906

       Sec. 3718.022. Notwithstanding any provision in this chapter 36907
to the contrary, in adopting rules under division (A) of section 36908
3718.02 of the Revised Code, the publicdirector of health council36909
shall consider the economic impact of the rules on property 36910
owners, the state of available technology, and the nature and 36911
economics of the available alterativesalternatives.36912

       Sec. 3718.05. The director of health shall do all of the 36913
following:36914

        (A) Administer and enforce this chapter and the rules of the 36915
public health council adopted under it;36916

        (B) Examine records of boards of health, in accordance with 36917
rules adopted by the councildirector, that are determined 36918
necessary to ascertain compliance with this chapter and rules 36919
adopted under it;36920

        (C) Review and approve or disapprove rules proposed by boards 36921
of health under division (B) of section 3718.02 of the Revised 36922
Code. The director shall not disapprove a proposed rule unless the 36923
director determines that the proposed rule conflicts with this 36924
chapter or rules adopted under division (A) of section 3718.02 of 36925
the Revised Code by the public health council or fails to promote 36926
public health or environmental protection. If the director 36927
disapproves a proposed rule, the director shall provide a written 36928
explanation of the director's disapproval to the board of health 36929
that proposed the rule.36930

        (D) Survey boards of health as required by section 3718.07 of 36931
the Revised Code;36932

        (E) Develop with the sewage treatment system technical 36933
advisory committee standards, guidelines, and protocols for use by 36934
the director in approving or disapproving a sewage treatment 36935
system under section 3718.04 of the Revised Code and an 36936
application form for use by applicants for that approval, 36937
including identification of the information that must be included 36938
with the form;36939

       (F) Provide instructions on the operation and maintenance of 36940
a sewage treatment system. The director shall provide the 36941
operation and maintenance instructions on the department of 36942
health's web site. In addition, the director shall provide a copy 36943
of the operation and maintenance instructions when the director 36944
receives a written request for the instructions.36945

       (G) Develop educational programs, in conjunction with boards 36946
of health, to educate owners of sewage treatment systems regarding 36947
the proper operation and maintenance of those systems.36948

       Sec. 3718.06. (A)(1) A board of health shall establish fees 36949
in accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code for the 36950
purpose of carrying out its duties under this chapter and rules 36951
adopted under it, including fees for installation permits, 36952
operation permits, and alteration permits issued by the board. All 36953
fees so established and collected by the board shall be deposited 36954
in a special fund of the district to be used exclusively by the 36955
board in carrying out those duties.36956

       (2)(B) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 36957
the publicdirector of health council may establish by rule a fee 36958
to be collected from applicants for installation permits and 36959
alteration permits issued under rules adopted under this chapter. 36960
The director of health shall use not more than seventy-five per 36961
cent of the proceeds from that fee for administering and enforcing 36962
this chapter and the rules adopted under it by the council36963
director. The director shall use not less than twenty-five per 36964
cent of the proceeds from that fee to establish a program in 36965
cooperation with boards of health to fund installation and 36966
evaluation of sewage treatment system new technology pilot 36967
projects through grants or other agreements. In the selection of 36968
pilot projects, the director shall consult with the sewage 36969
treatment system technical advisory committee. A board of health 36970
shall collect and transmit the fee to the director pursuant to 36971
section 3709.092 of the Revised Code. 36972

        (B) The director may submit recommendations to the public 36973
health council regarding the amount of the fee collected under 36974
division (A)(2) of this section for installation and alteration 36975
permits. When making the recommendations, the director shall 36976
submit a report stating the current and projected expenses of 36977
administering and enforcing this chapter and the rules adopted 36978
under it and of the sewage treatment system new technology pilot 36979
projects program established under this section and the total of 36980
all money that has been deposited to the credit of the general 36981
operations fund under division (A)(2) of this section. The 36982
director may include in the report any recommendations for 36983
modifying the requirements established under this chapter and the 36984
rules adopted under it by the council.36985


       Sec. 3718.07. The director of health shall survey each city 36987
and general health district at least once every three years to 36988
determine whether there is substantial compliance with the 36989
requirements of this chapter pertaining to health districts and 36990
the applicable rules adopted by the public health councildirector36991
under this chapter. Upon determining that there is substantial 36992
compliance, the director shall place the district on an approved 36993
list. The director may resurvey an approved district if it is 36994
determined by the director to be necessary and may remove from the 36995
list a district that is found not to be substantially complying 36996
with the requirements of this chapter pertaining to health 36997
districts and the applicable rules.36998

        If the director determines that a district is not eligible to 36999
be placed on the approved list or to continue on the list after a 37000
resurvey, the director shall certify that determination to the 37001
board of health, and the director shall carry out the duties of 37002
the unapproved health district under this chapter and the 37003
applicable rules adopted under it within the district or shall 37004
contract with an approved health district to conduct those duties 37005
until the unapproved district is placed on or returned to the 37006
approved list. The director or the contracting district shall have 37007
within the unapproved district the authority to exercise powers 37008
and perform duties granted to or imposed on the board under this 37009
chapter and the applicable rules adopted under it.37010

        Until the unapproved district is placed on or returned to the 37011
approved list, the director or the contracting district shall 37012
collect all fees payable to the board of health under this chapter 37013
and all such fees previously paid to the unapproved district that 37014
have not been expended or encumbered. The director shall deposit 37015
those fees in the state treasury to the credit of a special fund, 37016
which is hereby created, to be used by the director for the 37017
purpose of carrying out the duties of the unapproved health 37018
district under this chapter and the applicable rules adopted under 37019
it. A contracting district shall deposit those fees to the credit 37020
of its fund created under section 3718.06 of the Revised Code to 37021
be used by the district for the purpose of carrying out the duties 37022
of the unapproved district under this chapter and the applicable 37023
rules adopted under it. The director or contracting district shall 37024
repay to the unapproved district any balance remaining in the 37025
applicable fund from all sources when the unapproved district is 37026
placed on or returned to the approved list by the director.37027

       If a health district is removed from the approved list under 37028
this section and the board of health of the district is regulating 37029
small flow on-site sewage treatment systems in the district under 37030
section 3718.021 of the Revised Code, the director of 37031
environmental protection shall regulate those systems in that 37032
district in accordance with division (C) of that section.37033

       Sec. 3718.09. (A) A board of health may issue, modify, 37034
suspend, or revoke enforcement orders to a registration or permit 37035
holder or other person directing the holder or person to abate a 37036
violation of this chapter, any rule adopted or order issued under 37037
it, or a condition of a registration or permit issued under it 37038
within a specified, reasonable time. If an order issued under this 37039
division is neglected or disregarded, the applicable board of 37040
health may proceed in accordance with section 3707.02 of the 37041
Revised Code.37042

        (B) The health commissioner or the commissioner's designated 37043
representative, without prior notice or hearing and in accordance 37044
with the rules ofadopted by the publicdirector of health 37045
council, may issue an emergency order requiring any action 37046
necessary to meet a public health emergency or to prevent or abate 37047
an imminent and substantial threat to surface water or ground 37048
water regarding domestic septage management or regarding a sewage 37049
treatment system that is being operated in a manner that does not 37050
comply with this chapter or rules adopted under it. A person to 37051
whom such an emergency order is issued immediately shall comply 37052
with the order. A person so ordered may apply to the issuer of the 37053
order for a hearing, which shall be held as soon as possible, but 37054
not later than twenty days after the issuer's receipt of the 37055
application for a hearing.37056

       Sec. 3721.01.  (A) As used in sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 and 37057
3721.99 of the Revised Code:37058

       (1)(a) "Home" means an institution, residence, or facility 37059
that provides, for a period of more than twenty-four hours, 37060
whether for a consideration or not, accommodations to three or 37061
more unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of 37062
others, including a nursing home, residential care facility, home 37063
for the aging, and a veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. 37064
of the Revised Code.37065

       (b) "Home" also means both of the following:37066

       (i) Any facility that a person, as defined in section 3702.51 37067
of the Revised Code, proposes for certification as a skilled 37068
nursing facility or nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of 37069
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, 37070
as amended, and for which a certificate of need, other than a 37071
certificate to recategorize hospital beds as described in section 37072
3702.5223702.521 of the Revised Code or division (R)(7)(d) of the 37073
version of section 3702.51 of the Revised Code in effect 37074
immediately prior to April 20, 1995, has been granted to the 37075
person under sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code after 37076
August 5, 1989;37077

       (ii) A county home or district home that is or has been 37078
licensed as a residential care facility.37079

       (c) "Home" does not mean any of the following:37080

       (i) Except as provided in division (A)(1)(b) of this section, 37081
a public hospital or hospital as defined in section 3701.01 or 37082
5122.01 of the Revised Code;37083

       (ii) A residential facility for mentally ill persons as 37084
defined underin section 5119.22 of the Revised Code;37085

       (iii) A residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 of 37086
the Revised Code;37087

       (iv) An adult care facility as defined in section 5119.70 of 37088
the Revised Code;37089

       (v) An alcohol or drug addiction program as defined in 37090
section 3793.01 of the Revised Code;37091

       (vi)(v) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment 37092
under section 3793.11 of the Revised Code;37093

       (vii)(vi) A facility providing services under contract with 37094
the department of developmental disabilities under section 5123.18 37095
of the Revised Code unless section 5123.192 of the Revised Code 37096
makes the facility subject to the requirements of this chapter;37097

       (viii)(vii) A facility operated by a hospice care program 37098
licensed under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code that is used 37099
exclusively for care of hospice patients;37100

       (ix)(viii) A facility, infirmary, or other entity that is 37101
operated by a religious order, provides care exclusively to 37102
members of religious orders who take vows of celibacy and live by 37103
virtue of their vows within the orders as if related, and does not 37104
participate in the medicare program established under Title XVIII 37105
of the "Social Security Act" or the medical assistance program 37106
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and Title XIX 37107
of the "Social Security Act," if on January 1, 1994, the facility, 37108
infirmary, or entity was providing care exclusively to members of 37109
the religious order;37110

       (x)(ix) A county home or district home that has never been 37111
licensed as a residential care facility.37112

       (2) "Unrelated individual" means one who is not related to 37113
the owner or operator of a home or to the spouse of the owner or 37114
operator as a parent, grandparent, child, grandchild, brother, 37115
sister, niece, nephew, aunt, uncle, or as the child of an aunt or 37116
uncle.37117

       (3) "Mental impairment" does not mean mental illness as 37118
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code or mental 37119
retardation as defined in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.37120

       (4) "Skilled nursing care" means procedures that require 37121
technical skills and knowledge beyond those the untrained person 37122
possesses and that are commonly employed in providing for the 37123
physical, mental, and emotional needs of the ill or otherwise 37124
incapacitated. "Skilled nursing care" includes, but is not limited 37125
to, the following:37126

       (a) Irrigations, catheterizations, application of dressings, 37127
and supervision of special diets;37128

       (b) Objective observation of changes in the patient's 37129
condition as a means of analyzing and determining the nursing care 37130
required and the need for further medical diagnosis and treatment;37131

       (c) Special procedures contributing to rehabilitation;37132

       (d) Administration of medication by any method ordered by a 37133
physician, such as hypodermically, rectally, or orally, including 37134
observation of the patient after receipt of the medication;37135

       (e) Carrying out other treatments prescribed by the physician 37136
that involve a similar level of complexity and skill in 37137
administration.37138

       (5)(a) "Personal care services" means services including, but 37139
not limited to, the following:37140

       (i) Assisting residents with activities of daily living;37141

       (ii) Assisting residents with self-administration of 37142
medication, in accordance with rules adopted under section 3721.04 37143
of the Revised Code;37144

       (iii) Preparing special diets, other than complex therapeutic 37145
diets, for residents pursuant to the instructions of a physician 37146
or a licensed dietitian, in accordance with rules adopted under 37147
section 3721.04 of the Revised Code.37148

       (b) "Personal care services" does not include "skilled 37149
nursing care" as defined in division (A)(4) of this section. A 37150
facility need not provide more than one of the services listed in 37151
division (A)(5)(a) of this section to be considered to be 37152
providing personal care services.37153

       (6) "Nursing home" means a home used for the reception and 37154
care of individuals who by reason of illness or physical or mental 37155
impairment require skilled nursing care and of individuals who 37156
require personal care services but not skilled nursing care. A 37157
nursing home is licensed to provide personal care services and 37158
skilled nursing care.37159

       (7) "Residential care facility" means a home that provides 37160
either of the following:37161

       (a) Accommodations for seventeen or more unrelated 37162
individuals and supervision and personal care services for three 37163
or more of those individuals who are dependent on the services of 37164
others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment;37165

       (b) Accommodations for three or more unrelated individuals, 37166
supervision and personal care services for at least three of those 37167
individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason 37168
of age or physical or mental impairment, and, to at least one of 37169
those individuals, any of the skilled nursing care authorized by 37170
section 3721.011 of the Revised Code.37171

       (8) "Home for the aging" means a home that provides services 37172
as a residential care facility and a nursing home, except that the 37173
home provides its services only to individuals who are dependent 37174
on the services of others by reason of both age and physical or 37175
mental impairment.37176

       The part or unit of a home for the aging that provides 37177
services only as a residential care facility is licensed as a 37178
residential care facility. The part or unit that may provide 37179
skilled nursing care beyond the extent authorized by section 37180
3721.011 of the Revised Code is licensed as a nursing home.37181

       (9) "County home" and "district home" mean a county home or 37182
district home operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.37183

       (B) The publicdirector of health council may further 37184
classify homes. For the purposes of this chapter, any residence, 37185
institution, hotel, congregate housing project, or similar 37186
facility that meets the definition of a home under this section is 37187
such a home regardless of how the facility holds itself out to the 37188
public.37189

       (C) For purposes of this chapter, personal care services or 37190
skilled nursing care shall be considered to be provided by a 37191
facility if they are provided by a person employed by or 37192
associated with the facility or by another person pursuant to an 37193
agreement to which neither the resident who receives the services 37194
nor the resident's sponsor is a party.37195

       (D) Nothing in division (A)(4) of this section shall be 37196
construed to permit skilled nursing care to be imposed on an 37197
individual who does not require skilled nursing care.37198

       Nothing in division (A)(5) of this section shall be construed 37199
to permit personal care services to be imposed on an individual 37200
who is capable of performing the activity in question without 37201
assistance.37202

       (E) Division (A)(1)(c)(ix)(viii) of this section does not 37203
prohibit a facility, infirmary, or other entity described in that 37204
division from seeking licensure under sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 37205
of the Revised Code or certification under Title XVIII or XIX of 37206
the "Social Security Act." However, such a facility, infirmary, or 37207
entity that applies for licensure or certification must meet the 37208
requirements of those sections or titles and the rules adopted 37209
under them and obtain a certificate of need from the director of 37210
health under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code.37211

       (F) Nothing in this chapter, or rules adopted pursuant to it, 37212
shall be construed as authorizing the supervision, regulation, or 37213
control of the spiritual care or treatment of residents or 37214
patients in any home who rely upon treatment by prayer or 37215
spiritual means in accordance with the creed or tenets of any 37216
recognized church or religious denomination.37217

       Sec. 3721.011.  (A) In addition to providing accommodations, 37218
supervision, and personal care services to its residents, a 37219
residential care facility may do the following:37220

       (1) Provide the following skilled nursing care to its 37221
residents:37222

       (a) Supervision of special diets;37223

       (b) Application of dressings, in accordance with rules 37224
adopted under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code;37225

       (c) Subject to division (B)(1) of this section, 37226
administration of medication.37227

       (2) Subject to division (C) of this section, provide other 37228
skilled nursing care on a part-time, intermittent basis for not 37229
more than a total of one hundred twenty days in a twelve-month 37230
period;37231

        (3) Provide skilled nursing care for more than one hundred 37232
twenty days in a twelve-month period to a resident when the 37233
requirements of division (D) of this section are met.37234

       A residential care facility may not admit or retain an 37235
individual requiring skilled nursing care that is not authorized 37236
by this section. A residential care facility may not provide 37237
skilled nursing care beyond the limits established by this 37238
section.37239

       (B)(1) A residential care facility may admit or retain an 37240
individual requiring medication, including biologicals, only if 37241
the individual's personal physician has determined in writing that 37242
the individual is capable of self-administering the medication or 37243
the facility provides for the medication to be administered to the 37244
individual by a home health agency certified under Title XVIII of 37245
the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 620 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as 37246
amended; a hospice care program licensed under Chapter 3712. of 37247
the Revised Code; or a member of the staff of the residential care 37248
facility who is qualified to perform medication administration. 37249
Medication may be administered in a residential care facility only 37250
by the following persons authorized by law to administer 37251
medication:37252

       (a) A registered nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the 37253
Revised Code;37254

       (b) A licensed practical nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. 37255
of the Revised Code who holds proof of successful completion of a 37256
course in medication administration approved by the board of 37257
nursing and who administers the medication only at the direction 37258
of a registered nurse or a physician authorized under Chapter 37259
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 37260
osteopathic medicine and surgery;37261

       (c) A medication aide certified under Chapter 4723. of the 37262
Revised Code;37263

       (d) A physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 37264
Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and 37265
surgery.37266

       (2) In assisting a resident with self-administration of 37267
medication, any member of the staff of a residential care facility 37268
may do the following:37269

       (a) Remind a resident when to take medication and watch to 37270
ensure that the resident follows the directions on the container;37271

       (b) Assist a resident by taking the medication from the 37272
locked area where it is stored, in accordance with rules adopted 37273
pursuant to section 3721.04 of the Revised Code, and handing it to 37274
the resident. If the resident is physically unable to open the 37275
container, a staff member may open the container for the resident.37276

       (c) Assist a physically impaired but mentally alert resident, 37277
such as a resident with arthritis, cerebral palsy, or Parkinson's 37278
disease, in removing oral or topical medication from containers 37279
and in consuming or applying the medication, upon request by or 37280
with the consent of the resident. If a resident is physically 37281
unable to place a dose of medicine to the resident's mouth without 37282
spilling it, a staff member may place the dose in a container and 37283
place the container to the mouth of the resident.37284

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, a 37285
residential care facility may admit or retain individuals who 37286
require skilled nursing care beyond the supervision of special 37287
diets, application of dressings, or administration of medication, 37288
only if the care will be provided on a part-time, intermittent 37289
basis for not more than a total of one hundred twenty days in any 37290
twelve-month period. In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 37291
Revised Code, the publicdirector of health council shall adopt 37292
rules specifying what constitutes the need for skilled nursing 37293
care on a part-time, intermittent basis. The councildirector37294
shall adopt rules that are consistent with rules pertaining to 37295
home health care adopted by the director of job and family 37296
services for the medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. 37297
of the Revised Code. Skilled nursing care provided pursuant to 37298
this division may be provided by a home health agency certified 37299
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," a hospice care 37300
program licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code, or a 37301
member of the staff of a residential care facility who is 37302
qualified to perform skilled nursing care.37303

       A residential care facility that provides skilled nursing 37304
care pursuant to this division shall do both of the following:37305

       (1) Evaluate each resident receiving the skilled nursing care 37306
at least once every seven days to determine whether the resident 37307
should be transferred to a nursing home;37308

       (2) Meet the skilled nursing care needs of each resident 37309
receiving the care.37310

       (D)(1) A residential care facility may admit or retain an 37311
individual who requires skilled nursing care for more than one 37312
hundred twenty days in any twelve-month period only if the 37313
facility has entered into a written agreement with each of the 37314
following:37315

        (a) The individual or individual's sponsor;37316

        (b) The individual's personal physician;37317

        (c) Unless the individual's personal physician oversees the 37318
skilled nursing care, the provider of the skilled nursing care;37319

        (d) If the individual is a hospice patient as defined in 37320
section 3712.01 of the Revised Code, a hospice care program 37321
licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code. 37322

       (2) The agreement required by division (D)(1) of this section 37323
shall include all of the following provisions:37324

        (a) That the individual will be provided skilled nursing care 37325
in the facility only if a determination has been made that the 37326
individual's needs can be met at the facility;37327

       (b) That the individual will be retained in the facility only 37328
if periodic redeterminations are made that the individual's needs 37329
are being met at the facility;37330

       (c) That the redeterminations will be made according to a 37331
schedule specified in the agreement;37332

        (d) If the individual is a hospice patient, that the 37333
individual has been given an opportunity to choose the hospice 37334
care program that best meets the individual's needs;37335

       (e) Unless the individual is a hospice patient, that the 37336
individual's personal physician has determined that the skilled 37337
nursing care the individual needs is routine.37338

       (E) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, a 37339
residential care facility in which residents receive skilled 37340
nursing care pursuant to this section is not a nursing home.37341

       Sec. 3721.02. (A) As used in this section, "residential 37342
facility" means a residential facility licensed under section 37343
5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 37344
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 37345
unrelated adults.37346

        (B) The director of health shall license homes and establish 37347
procedures to be followed in inspecting and licensing homes. The 37348
director may inspect a home at any time. Each home shall be 37349
inspected by the director at least once prior to the issuance of a 37350
license and at least once every fifteen months thereafter. The 37351
state fire marshal or a township, municipal, or other legally 37352
constituted fire department approved by the marshal shall also 37353
inspect a home prior to issuance of a license, at least once every 37354
fifteen months thereafter, and at any other time requested by the 37355
director. A home does not have to be inspected prior to issuance 37356
of a license by the director, state fire marshal, or a fire 37357
department if ownership of the home is assigned or transferred to 37358
a different person and the home was licensed under this chapter 37359
immediately prior to the assignment or transfer. The director may 37360
enter at any time, for the purposes of investigation, any 37361
institution, residence, facility, or other structure that has been 37362
reported to the director or that the director has reasonable cause 37363
to believe is operating as a nursing home, residential care 37364
facility, or home for the aging without a valid license required 37365
by section 3721.05 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a county 37366
home or district home, is operating despite the revocation of its 37367
residential care facility license. The director may delegate the 37368
director's authority and duties under this chapter to any 37369
division, bureau, agency, or official of the department of health.37370

       (B)(C) A single facility may be licensed both as a nursing 37371
home pursuant to this chapter and as an adult carea residential37372
facility pursuant to Chapter 5119.section 5119.22 of the Revised 37373
Code if the director determines that the part or unit to be 37374
licensed as a nursing home can be maintained separate and discrete 37375
from the part or unit to be licensed as an adult carea 37376
residential facility.37377

       (C)(D) In determining the number of residents in a home for 37378
the purpose of licensing, the director shall consider all the 37379
individuals for whom the home provides accommodations as one group 37380
unless one of the following is the case:37381

       (1) The home is a home for the aging, in which case all the 37382
individuals in the part or unit licensed as a nursing home shall 37383
be considered as one group, and all the individuals in the part or 37384
unit licensed as a rest home shall be considered as another group.37385

       (2) The home is both a nursing home and an adult carea 37386
residential facility. In that case, all the individuals in the 37387
part or unit licensed as a nursing home shall be considered as one 37388
group, and all the individuals in the part or unit licensed as an 37389
adult care facility shall be considered as another group.37390

       (3) The home maintains, in addition to a nursing home or 37391
residential care facility, a separate and discrete part or unit 37392
that provides accommodations to individuals who do not require or 37393
receive skilled nursing care and do not receive personal care 37394
services from the home, in which case the individuals in the 37395
separate and discrete part or unit shall not be considered in 37396
determining the number of residents in the home if the separate 37397
and discrete part or unit is in compliance with the Ohio basic 37398
building code established by the board of building standards under 37399
Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and the home permits 37400
the director, on request, to inspect the separate and discrete 37401
part or unit and speak with the individuals residing there, if 37402
they consent, to determine whether the separate and discrete part 37403
or unit meets the requirements of this division.37404

       (D)(E)(1) The director of health shall charge the following 37405
application fee and annual renewal licensing and inspection fee 37406
for each fifty persons or part thereof of a home's licensed 37407
capacity:37408

       (a) For state fiscal year 2010, two hundred twenty dollars;37409

       (b) For state fiscal year 2011, two hundred seventy dollars;37410

       (c) For each state fiscal year thereafter, three hundred 37411
twenty dollars. 37412

       (2) All fees collected by the director for the issuance or 37413
renewal of licenses shall be deposited into the state treasury to 37414
the credit of the general operations fund created in section 37415
3701.83 of the Revised Code for use only in administering and 37416
enforcing this chapter and rules adopted under it.37417

       (E)(F)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the 37418
results of an inspection or investigation of a home that is 37419
conducted under this section, including any statement of 37420
deficiencies and all findings and deficiencies cited in the 37421
statement on the basis of the inspection or investigation, shall 37422
be used solely to determine the home's compliance with this 37423
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code in any action or 37424
proceeding other than an action commenced under division (I) of 37425
section 3721.17 of the Revised Code. Those results of an 37426
inspection or investigation, that statement of deficiencies, and 37427
the findings and deficiencies cited in that statement shall not be 37428
used in any court or in any action or proceeding that is pending 37429
in any court and are not admissible in evidence in any action or 37430
proceeding unless that action or proceeding is an appeal of an 37431
action by the department of health under this chapter or is an 37432
action by any department or agency of the state to enforce this 37433
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code.37434

       (2) Nothing in division (E)(1) of this section prohibits the 37435
results of an inspection or investigation conducted under this 37436
section from being used in a criminal investigation or 37437
prosecution.37438

       Sec. 3721.03.  (A) As used in this section, "person" has the 37439
same meaning as in section 1.59 of the Revised Code.37440

        (B) The director of health shall enforce the provisions of 37441
sections 3721.01 to 3721.13 and 3721.99 of the Revised Code and 37442
may issue orders to secure compliance with the provisions of these 37443
sections and the rules adopted under them. The director may hold 37444
hearings, issue subpoenas, compel testimony, and make 37445
adjudications. 37446

       The director may issue an order revoking a license in the 37447
event the director finds, upon hearing or opportunity afforded 37448
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that any of the 37449
following apply to a person, county home, or district home 37450
licensed under section 3721.07 of the Revised Code:37451

       (1) Has violated any of the provisions of Chapter 3721. of 37452
the Revised Code or rules adopted by the public health council37453
director under it; 37454

       (2) Has violated any order issued by the director; 37455

       (3) Is not, or any of its principals are not suitable, 37456
morally or financially to operate such an institution; 37457

       (4) Is not furnishing humane, kind, and adequate treatment 37458
and care;37459

       (5) Has had a long-standing pattern of violations of this 37460
chapter or the rules adopted under it that has caused physical, 37461
emotional, mental, or psychosocial harm to one or more residents. 37462

       Upon the issuance of any order of revocation, the person 37463
whose license is revoked, or the county home or district home that 37464
has its license revoked, may appeal in accordance with Chapter 37465
119. of the Revised Code.37466

        (C) Once the director notifies a person, county home, or 37467
district home licensed to operate a home that the license may be 37468
revoked or issues any order under this section, the person, county 37469
home, or district home shall not assign or transfer to another 37470
person or entity the right to operate the home. This prohibition 37471
shall remain in effect until proceedings under Chapter 119. of the 37472
Revised Code concerning the order or license revocation have been 37473
concluded or the director notifies the person, county home, or 37474
district home that the prohibition has been lifted.37475

        If a license is revoked under this section, the former 37476
license holder shall not assign or transfer or consent to 37477
assignment or transfer of the right to operate the home. Any 37478
attempted assignment or transfer to another person or entity is 37479
void.37480

       On revocation of a license, the former licensee shall take 37481
all necessary steps to cease operation of the home.37482

       The director of health shall not accept a certificate of need 37483
application under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code regarding a 37484
home if the license to operate the home has been revoked under 37485
this section.37486

       Sec. 3721.032. The state fire marshal shall enforce all 37487
statutes and rules pertaining to fire safety in homes and shall 37488
adopt rules pertaining to fire safety in homes as the marshal 37489
determines necessary. The rules adopted by the marshal shall be in 37490
addition to those fire safety rules that the board of building 37491
standards and the publicdirector of health council are empowered 37492
to adopt. In the event of a dispute between the marshal and 37493
another officer having responsibilities under sections 3721.01 to 37494
3721.09 of the Revised Code with respect to the interpretation or 37495
application of a specific fire safety statute or rule, the 37496
interpretation of the marshal shall prevail.37497

       Sec. 3721.04.  (A) The publicdirector of health council37498
shall adopt and publish rules governing the operation of homes, 37499
which shall have uniform application throughout the state, and 37500
shall prescribe standards for homes with respect to, but not 37501
limited to, the following matters:37502

       (1) The minimum space requirements for occupants and 37503
equipping of the buildings in which homes are housed so as to 37504
ensure healthful, safe, sanitary, and comfortable conditions for 37505
all residents, so long as they are not inconsistent with Chapters 37506
3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code or with any rules adopted by 37507
the board of building standards and by the state fire marshal;37508

       (2) The number and qualifications of personnel, including 37509
management and nursing staff, for each class of home, and the 37510
qualifications of nurse aides, as defined in section 3721.21 of 37511
the Revised Code, used by long-term care facilities, as defined in 37512
that section;37513

       (3) The medical, rehabilitative, and recreational services to 37514
be provided by each class of home;37515

       (4) Dietetic services, including but not limited to 37516
sanitation, nutritional adequacy, and palatability of food;37517

       (5) The personal and social services to be provided by each 37518
class of home;37519

       (6) The business and accounting practices to be followed and 37520
the type of patient and business records to be kept by such homes;37521

       (7) The operation of adult day-care programs provided by and 37522
on the same site as homes licensed under this chapter;37523

       (8) The standards and procedures to be followed by 37524
residential care facilities in admitting and retaining a resident 37525
who requires the application of dressings, including requirements 37526
for charting and evaluating on a weekly basis;37527

       (9) The requirements for conducting weekly evaluations of 37528
residents receiving skilled nursing care in residential care 37529
facilities.37530

       (B) The public health councildirector may adopt whatever 37531
additional rules are necessary to carry out or enforce the 37532
provisions of sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 and 3721.99 of the 37533
Revised Code.37534

       (C) The following apply to the public health councildirector37535
when adopting rules under division (A)(1) of this section 37536
regarding the equipping of the buildings in which homes are 37537
housed:37538

       (1) The rules shall not require that each resident sleeping 37539
room, or a percentage of the resident sleeping rooms, have a 37540
bathtub or shower that is directly accessible from or exclusively 37541
for the room.37542

       (2) The rules shall require that the privacy and dignity of 37543
residents be protected when the residents are transported to and 37544
from bathing facilities, prepare for bathing, and bathe.37545

       (D) The following apply to the public health councildirector37546
when adopting rules under division (A)(2) of this section 37547
regarding the number and qualifications of personnel in homes:37548

       (1) When adopting rules applicable to residential care 37549
facilities, the public health councildirector shall take into 37550
consideration the effect that the following may have on the number 37551
of personnel needed:37552

        (a) Provision of personal care services;37553

       (b) Provision of part-time, intermittent skilled nursing care 37554
pursuant to division (C) of section 3721.011 of the Revised Code;37555

        (c) Provision of skilled nursing care to residents pursuant 37556
to division (D) of section 3721.011 of the Revised Code.37557

       (2) When adopting rules applicable to nursing homes, the 37558
public health councildirector shall require each nursing home to 37559
do both of the following:37560

       (a) Have sufficient direct care staff on each shift to meet 37561
the needs of the residents in an appropriate and timely manner;37562

       (b) Have the following individuals provide a minimum daily 37563
average of two and one-half hours of direct care per resident:37564

       (i) Registered nurses, including registered nurses who 37565
perform administrative and supervisory duties;37566

       (ii) Licensed practical nurses, including licensed practical 37567
nurses who perform administrative and supervisory duties;37568

       (iii) Nurse aides.37569

       (3) The rules prescribing qualifications of nurse aides used 37570
by long-term care facilities, as those terms are defined in 37571
section 3721.21 of the Revised Code, shall be no less stringent 37572
than the requirements, guidelines, and procedures established by 37573
the United States secretary of health and human services under 37574
sectionssection 1819 and 1919 of the "Social Security Act," 4937575
101 Stat. 6201330-160 (19351987), 42 U.S.C. 3011395i-3, as 37576
amended, and section 1919 of the "Social Security Act," 101 Stat. 37577
1330-182 (1987), 42 U.S.C. 1396r, as amended.37578

       (E) The following apply to the director when adopting rules 37579
under division (A)(2) of this section regarding the number and 37580
qualifications of personnel in nursing homes or rules under 37581
division (A)(5) of this section regarding social services to be 37582
provided by nursing homes:37583

        (1) The rules shall not prescribe the number of individuals 37584
licensed as social workers under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code 37585
that a nursing home with one hundred twenty or fewer beds must 37586
employ.37587

        (2) The rules shall require each nursing home with more than 37588
one hundred twenty beds to employ on a full-time basis one 37589
individual licensed as a social worker under Chapter 4757. of the 37590
Revised Code.37591

        (3) The rules shall require each nursing home to offer its 37592
residents medically related social services that assist the 37593
residents in attaining or maintaining their highest practicable 37594
physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being.37595

       Sec. 3721.07.  Every person desiring to operate a home and 37596
the superintendent or administrator of each county home or 37597
district home for which a license as a residential care facility 37598
is sought shall apply for a license to the director of health. The 37599
director shall issue a license for the home, if after 37600
investigation of the applicant and, if required by section 3721.02 37601
of the Revised Code, inspection of the home, the following 37602
requirements or conditions are satisfied or complied with:37603

       (A) The applicant has not been convicted of a felony or a 37604
crime involving moral turpitude;37605

       (B) The applicant is not violating any of the rules made37606
adopted by the publicdirector of health council or any order 37607
issued by the director of health;37608

       (C) The applicant has not had a license to operate the home 37609
revoked pursuant to section 3721.03 of the Revised Code because of 37610
any act or omission that jeopardized a resident's health, welfare, 37611
or safety nor has the applicant had a long-standing pattern of 37612
violations of this chapter or rules adopted under it that caused 37613
physical, emotional, mental, or psychosocial harm to one or more 37614
residents.37615

        (D) The buildings in which the home is housed have been 37616
approved by the state fire marshal or a township, municipal, or 37617
other legally constituted fire department approved by the marshal. 37618
In the approval of a home such agencies shall apply standards 37619
prescribed by the board of building standards, and by the state 37620
fire marshal, and by section 3721.071 of the Revised Code.37621

       (E) The applicant, if it is an individual, or the principal 37622
participants, if it is an association or a corporation, is or are 37623
suitable financially and morally to operate a home;37624

       (F) The applicant is equipped to furnish humane, kind, and 37625
adequate treatment and care;37626

       (G) The home does not maintain or contain:37627

       (1) Facilities for the performance of major surgical 37628
procedures;37629

       (2) Facilities for providing therapeutic radiation;37630

       (3) An emergency ward;37631

       (4) A clinical laboratory unless it is under the supervision 37632
of a clinical pathologist who is a licensed physician in this 37633
state;37634

       (5) Facilities for radiological examinations unless such 37635
examinations are performed only by a person licensed to practice 37636
medicine, surgery, or dentistry in this state.37637

       (H) The home does not accept or treat outpatients, except 37638
upon the written orders of a physician licensed in this state, 37639
maternity cases, boarding children, and does not house transient 37640
guests, other than participants in an adult day-care program, for 37641
twenty-four hours or less;37642

       (I) The home is in compliance with sections 3721.28 and 37643
3721.29 of the Revised Code.37644

       When the director issues a license, the license shall remain 37645
in effect until revoked by the director or voided at the request 37646
of the applicant; provided, there shall be an annual renewal fee 37647
payable during the month of January of each calendar year. Any 37648
licensed home that does not pay its renewal fee in January shall 37649
pay, beginning the first day of February, a late fee of one 37650
hundred dollars for each week or part thereof that the renewal fee 37651
is not paid. If either the renewal fee or the late fee is not paid 37652
by the fifteenth day of February, the director may, in accordance 37653
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, revoke the home's license.37654

        If, under division (B)(5) of section 3721.03 of the Revised 37655
Code, the license of a person has been revoked or the license of a 37656
county home or district home to operate as a residential care 37657
facility has been revoked, the director of health shall not issue 37658
a license to the person or home at any time. A person whose 37659
license is revoked, and a county home or district home that has 37660
its license as a residential care facility revoked other than 37661
under division (B)(5) of section 3721.03 of the Revised Code, for 37662
any reason other than nonpayment of the license renewal fee or 37663
late fees shall not be issued a new license under this chapter 37664
until a period of one year following the date of revocation has 37665
elapsed.37666

       Any applicant who is denied a license may appeal in 37667
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.37668

       Sec. 3721.071.  The buildings in which a home is housed shall 37669
be equipped with both an automatic fire extinguishing system and 37670
fire alarm system. Such systems shall conform to standards set 37671
forth in the regulations of the board of building standards and 37672
the state fire marshal.37673

       The time for compliance with the requirements imposed by this 37674
section shall be January 1, 1975, except that the date for 37675
compliance with the automatic fire extinguishing requirements is 37676
extended to January 1, 1976, provided the buildings of the home 37677
are otherwise in compliance with fire safety laws and regulations 37678
and:37679

       (A) The home within thirty days after August 4, 1975, files a 37680
written plan with the state fire marshal's office that:37681

       (1) Outlines the interim safety procedures which shall be 37682
carried out to reduce the possibility of a fire;37683

       (2) Provides evidence that the home has entered into an 37684
agreement for a fire safety inspection to be conducted not less 37685
than monthly by a qualified independent safety engineer consultant 37686
or a township, municipal, or other legally constituted fire 37687
department, or by a township or municipal fire prevention officer;37688

       (3) Provides verification that the home has entered into a 37689
valid contract for the installation of an automatic fire 37690
extinguishing system or fire alarm system, or both, as required to 37691
comply with this section;37692

       (4) Includes a statement regarding the expected date for the 37693
completion of the fire extinguishing system or fire alarm system, 37694
or both.37695

       (B) Inspections by a qualified independent safety engineer 37696
consultant or a township, municipal, or other legally constituted 37697
fire department, or by a township or municipal fire prevention 37698
officer are initiated no later than sixty days after August 4, 37699
1975, and are conducted no less than monthly thereafter, and 37700
reports of the consultant, fire department, or fire prevention 37701
officer identifying existing hazards and recommended corrective 37702
actions are submitted to the state fire marshal, the division of 37703
laborindustrial compliance in the department of commerce, and the 37704
department of health.37705

       It is the express intent of the general assembly that the 37706
department of job and family services shall terminate payments 37707
under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 37708
42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, to those homes which do not comply with 37709
the requirements of this section for the submission of a written 37710
fire safety plan and the deadline for entering into contracts for 37711
the installation of systems.37712

       Sec. 3721.121.  (A) As used in this section:37713

       (1) "Adult day-care program" means a program operated 37714
pursuant to rules adopted by the publicdirector of health council37715
under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code and provided by and on 37716
the same site as homes licensed under this chapter.37717

       (2) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 37718
consideration for employment with a home or adult day-care program 37719
in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 37720
providing direct care to an older adult. "Applicant" does not 37721
include a person who provides direct care as a volunteer without 37722
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 37723
than reimbursement for actual expenses.37724

       (3) "Criminal records check" and "older adult" havehas the 37725
same meaningsmeaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.37726

       (4) "Home" means a home as defined in section 3721.10 of the 37727
Revised Code.37728

       (5) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.37729

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, 37730
the chief administrator of a home or adult day-care program shall 37731
request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 37732
identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check 37733
with respect toof each applicant. If an applicant for whom a 37734
criminal records check request is required under this division 37735
does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for 37736
the five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal 37737
records check is requested or provide evidence that within that 37738
five-year period the superintendent has requested information 37739
about the applicant from the federal bureau of investigation in a 37740
criminal records check, the chief administrator shall request that 37741
the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 37742
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 37743
applicant. Even if an applicant for whom a criminal records check 37744
request is required under this division presents proof of having 37745
been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief 37746
administrator may request that the superintendent include 37747
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 37748
criminal records check.37749

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 37750
request a criminal records check shall do both of the following:37751

       (a) Provide to each applicant for whom a criminal records 37752
check request is required under that division a copy of the form 37753
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 37754
Revised Code and a standard fingerprint impression sheet 37755
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, and obtain 37756
the completed form and impression sheet from the applicant;37757

       (b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the 37758
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 37759
investigation.37760

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 37761
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 37762
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 37763
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 37764
required by this section.37765

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the director of 37766
health in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 37767
to division (C)(2) of this section, no home or adult day-care 37768
program shall employ a person in a position that involves 37769
providing direct care to an older adult if the person has been 37770
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:37771

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 37772
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 37773
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 37774
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 37775
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 37776
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 37777
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 37778
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 37779
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.37780

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 37781
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 37782
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 37783
this section.37784

       (2)(a) A home or an adult day-care program may employ 37785
conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal records check 37786
request is required under division (B) of this section prior to 37787
obtaining the results of a criminal records check regarding the 37788
individual, provided that the home or program shall request a 37789
criminal records check regarding the individual in accordance with 37790
division (B)(1) of this section not later than five business days 37791
after the individual begins conditional employment. In the 37792
circumstances described in division (I)(2) of this section, a home 37793
or adult day-care program may employ conditionally an applicant 37794
who has been referred to the home or adult day-care program by an 37795
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 37796
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 37797
adults and for whom, pursuant to that division, a criminal records 37798
check is not required under division (B) of this section.37799

       (b) A home or adult day-care program that employs an 37800
individual conditionally under authority of division (C)(2)(a) of 37801
this section shall terminate the individual's employment if the 37802
results of the criminal records check requested under division (B) 37803
of this section or described in division (I)(2) of this section, 37804
other than the results of any request for information from the 37805
federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the 37806
period ending thirty days after the date the request is made. 37807
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 37808
obtained, if the results indicate that the individual has been 37809
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed or 37810
described in division (C)(1) of this section, the home or program 37811
shall terminate the individual's employment unless the home or 37812
program chooses to employ the individual pursuant to division (F) 37813
of this section. Termination of employment under this division 37814
shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of 37815
division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the 37816
individual makes any attempt to deceive the home or program about 37817
the individual's criminal record.37818

       (D)(1) Each home or adult day-care program shall pay to the 37819
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 37820
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 37821
Revised Code for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to 37822
a request made under division (B) of this section.37823

       (2) A home or adult day-care program may charge an applicant 37824
a fee not exceeding the amount the home or program pays under 37825
division (D)(1) of this section. A home or program may collect a 37826
fee only if both of the following apply:37827

       (a) The home or program notifies the person at the time of 37828
initial application for employment of the amount of the fee and 37829
that, unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered 37830
for employment;37831

       (b) The medical assistance program established under Chapter 37832
5111. of the Revised Code does not reimburse the home or program 37833
the fee it pays under division (D)(1) of this section.37834

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted 37835
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 37836
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 37837
shall not be made available to any person other than the 37838
following:37839

       (1) The individual who is the subject of the criminal records 37840
check or the individual's representative;37841

       (2) The chief administrator of the home or program requesting 37842
the criminal records check or the administrator's representative;37843

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 37844
program that provides direct care to older adults that is owned or 37845
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the home or 37846
program;37847

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 37848
involved in a case dealing with a denial of employment of the 37849
applicant or dealing with employment or unemployment benefits of 37850
the applicant;37851

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 37852
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section;37853

       (6) The board of nursing for purposes of accepting and 37854
processing an application for a medication aide certificate issued 37855
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code.37856

       (F) In accordance with section 3721.11 of the Revised Code, 37857
the director of health shall adopt rules to implement this 37858
section. The rules shall specify circumstances under which a home 37859
or adult day-care program may employ a person who has been 37860
convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described 37861
in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal character 37862
standards set by the director.37863

       (G) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 37864
program shall inform each individual, at the time of initial 37865
application for a position that involves providing direct care to 37866
an older adult, that the individual is required to provide a set 37867
of fingerprint impressions and that a criminal records check is 37868
required to be conducted if the individual comes under final 37869
consideration for employment.37870

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 37871
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 37872
property caused by an individual who a home or adult day-care 37873
program employs in a position that involves providing direct care 37874
to older adults, all of the following shall apply:37875

       (1) If the home or program employed the individual in good 37876
faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records 37877
check requested under this section, the home or program shall not 37878
be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, 37879
even if the information in the report is determined later to have 37880
been incomplete or inaccurate;37881

       (2) If the home or program employed the individual in good 37882
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2) of this 37883
section, the home or program shall not be found negligent solely 37884
because it employed the individual prior to receiving the report 37885
of a criminal records check requested under this section;37886

       (3) If the home or program in good faith employed the 37887
individual according to the personal character standards 37888
established in rules adopted under division (F) of this section, 37889
the home or program shall not be found negligent solely because 37890
the individual prior to being employed had been convicted of or 37891
pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division 37892
(C)(1) of this section.37893

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 37894
program is not required to request that the superintendent of the 37895
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 37896
criminal records check of an applicant if the applicant has been 37897
referred to the home or program by an employment service that 37898
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 37899
involving the direct care of older adults and both of the 37900
following apply:37901

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 37902
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 37903
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 37904
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 37905
preceding the applicant's referral;37906

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 37907
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 37908
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 37909
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 37910
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the home or 37911
adult day-care program chooses to employ the individual pursuant 37912
to division (F) of this section.37913

       (2) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 37914
program is not required to request that the superintendent of the 37915
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 37916
criminal records check of an applicant and may employ the 37917
applicant conditionally as described in this division, if the 37918
applicant has been referred to the home or program by an 37919
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 37920
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 37921
adults and if the chief administrator receives from the employment 37922
service or the applicant a letter from the employment service that 37923
is on the letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed 37924
by a supervisor or another designated official of the employment 37925
service and that states that the employment service has requested 37926
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 37927
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 37928
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 37929
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 37930
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 37931
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 37932
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 37933
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 37934
promptly will send a copy of the results to the home or adult 37935
day-care program. If a home or adult day-care program employs an 37936
applicant conditionally in accordance with this division, the 37937
employment service, upon its receipt of the results of the 37938
criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results 37939
to the home or adult day-care program, and division (C)(2)(b) of 37940
this section applies regarding the conditional employment.37941

       Sec. 3721.13.  (A) The rights of residents of a home shall 37942
include, but are not limited to, the following:37943

       (1) The right to a safe and clean living environment pursuant 37944
to the medicare and medicaid programs and applicable state laws 37945
and regulations prescribedrules adopted by the publicdirector of37946
health council;37947

       (2) The right to be free from physical, verbal, mental, and 37948
emotional abuse and to be treated at all times with courtesy, 37949
respect, and full recognition of dignity and individuality;37950

       (3) Upon admission and thereafter, the right to adequate and 37951
appropriate medical treatment and nursing care and to other 37952
ancillary services that comprise necessary and appropriate care 37953
consistent with the program for which the resident contracted. 37954
This care shall be provided without regard to considerations such 37955
as race, color, religion, national origin, age, or source of 37956
payment for care.37957

       (4) The right to have all reasonable requests and inquiries 37958
responded to promptly;37959

       (5) The right to have clothes and bed sheets changed as the 37960
need arises, to ensure the resident's comfort or sanitation;37961

       (6) The right to obtain from the home, upon request, the name 37962
and any specialty of any physician or other person responsible for 37963
the resident's care or for the coordination of care;37964

       (7) The right, upon request, to be assigned, within the 37965
capacity of the home to make the assignment, to the staff 37966
physician of the resident's choice, and the right, in accordance 37967
with the rules and written policies and procedures of the home, to 37968
select as the attending physician a physician who is not on the 37969
staff of the home. If the cost of a physician's services is to be 37970
met under a federally supported program, the physician shall meet 37971
the federal laws and regulations governing such services.37972

       (8) The right to participate in decisions that affect the 37973
resident's life, including the right to communicate with the 37974
physician and employees of the home in planning the resident's 37975
treatment or care and to obtain from the attending physician 37976
complete and current information concerning medical condition, 37977
prognosis, and treatment plan, in terms the resident can 37978
reasonably be expected to understand; the right of access to all 37979
information in the resident's medical record; and the right to 37980
give or withhold informed consent for treatment after the 37981
consequences of that choice have been carefully explained. When 37982
the attending physician finds that it is not medically advisable 37983
to give the information to the resident, the information shall be 37984
made available to the resident's sponsor on the resident's behalf, 37985
if the sponsor has a legal interest or is authorized by the 37986
resident to receive the information. The home is not liable for a 37987
violation of this division if the violation is found to be the 37988
result of an act or omission on the part of a physician selected 37989
by the resident who is not otherwise affiliated with the home.37990

       (9) The right to withhold payment for physician visitation if 37991
the physician did not visit the resident;37992

       (10) The right to confidential treatment of personal and 37993
medical records, and the right to approve or refuse the release of 37994
these records to any individual outside the home, except in case 37995
of transfer to another home, hospital, or health care system, as 37996
required by law or rule, or as required by a third-party payment 37997
contract;37998

       (11) The right to privacy during medical examination or 37999
treatment and in the care of personal or bodily needs;38000

       (12) The right to refuse, without jeopardizing access to 38001
appropriate medical care, to serve as a medical research subject;38002

       (13) The right to be free from physical or chemical 38003
restraints or prolonged isolation except to the minimum extent 38004
necessary to protect the resident from injury to self, others, or 38005
to property and except as authorized in writing by the attending 38006
physician for a specified and limited period of time and 38007
documented in the resident's medical record. Prior to authorizing 38008
the use of a physical or chemical restraint on any resident, the 38009
attending physician shall make a personal examination of the 38010
resident and an individualized determination of the need to use 38011
the restraint on that resident.38012

       Physical or chemical restraints or isolation may be used in 38013
an emergency situation without authorization of the attending 38014
physician only to protect the resident from injury to self or 38015
others. Use of the physical or chemical restraints or isolation 38016
shall not be continued for more than twelve hours after the onset 38017
of the emergency without personal examination and authorization by 38018
the attending physician. The attending physician or a staff 38019
physician may authorize continued use of physical or chemical 38020
restraints for a period not to exceed thirty days, and at the end 38021
of this period and any subsequent period may extend the 38022
authorization for an additional period of not more than thirty 38023
days. The use of physical or chemical restraints shall not be 38024
continued without a personal examination of the resident and the 38025
written authorization of the attending physician stating the 38026
reasons for continuing the restraint.38027

       If physical or chemical restraints are used under this 38028
division, the home shall ensure that the restrained resident 38029
receives a proper diet. In no event shall physical or chemical 38030
restraints or isolation be used for punishment, incentive, or 38031
convenience.38032

       (14) The right to the pharmacist of the resident's choice and 38033
the right to receive pharmaceutical supplies and services at 38034
reasonable prices not exceeding applicable and normally accepted 38035
prices for comparably packaged pharmaceutical supplies and 38036
services within the community;38037

       (15) The right to exercise all civil rights, unless the 38038
resident has been adjudicated incompetent pursuant to Chapter 38039
2111. of the Revised Code and has not been restored to legal 38040
capacity, as well as the right to the cooperation of the home's 38041
administrator in making arrangements for the exercise of the right 38042
to vote;38043

       (16) The right of access to opportunities that enable the 38044
resident, at the resident's own expense or at the expense of a 38045
third-party payer, to achieve the resident's fullest potential, 38046
including educational, vocational, social, recreational, and 38047
habilitation programs;38048

       (17) The right to consume a reasonable amount of alcoholic 38049
beverages at the resident's own expense, unless not medically 38050
advisable as documented in the resident's medical record by the 38051
attending physician or unless contradictory to written admission 38052
policies;38053

       (18) The right to use tobacco at the resident's own expense 38054
under the home's safety rules and under applicable laws and rules 38055
of the state, unless not medically advisable as documented in the 38056
resident's medical record by the attending physician or unless 38057
contradictory to written admission policies;38058

       (19) The right to retire and rise in accordance with the 38059
resident's reasonable requests, if the resident does not disturb 38060
others or the posted meal schedules and upon the home's request 38061
remains in a supervised area, unless not medically advisable as 38062
documented by the attending physician;38063

       (20) The right to observe religious obligations and 38064
participate in religious activities; the right to maintain 38065
individual and cultural identity; and the right to meet with and 38066
participate in activities of social and community groups at the 38067
resident's or the group's initiative;38068

       (21) The right upon reasonable request to private and 38069
unrestricted communications with the resident's family, social 38070
worker, and any other person, unless not medically advisable as 38071
documented in the resident's medical record by the attending 38072
physician, except that communications with public officials or 38073
with the resident's attorney or physician shall not be restricted. 38074
Private and unrestricted communications shall include, but are not 38075
limited to, the right to:38076

       (a) Receive, send, and mail sealed, unopened correspondence;38077

       (b) Reasonable access to a telephone for private 38078
communications;38079

       (c) Private visits at any reasonable hour.38080

       (22) The right to assured privacy for visits by the spouse, 38081
or if both are residents of the same home, the right to share a 38082
room within the capacity of the home, unless not medically 38083
advisable as documented in the resident's medical record by the 38084
attending physician;38085

       (23) The right upon reasonable request to have room doors 38086
closed and to have them not opened without knocking, except in the 38087
case of an emergency or unless not medically advisable as 38088
documented in the resident's medical record by the attending 38089
physician;38090

       (24) The right to retain and use personal clothing and a 38091
reasonable amount of possessions, in a reasonably secure manner, 38092
unless to do so would infringe on the rights of other residents or 38093
would not be medically advisable as documented in the resident's 38094
medical record by the attending physician;38095

       (25) The right to be fully informed, prior to or at the time 38096
of admission and during the resident's stay, in writing, of the 38097
basic rate charged by the home, of services available in the home, 38098
and of any additional charges related to such services, including 38099
charges for services not covered under the medicare or medicaid 38100
program. The basic rate shall not be changed unless thirty days'38101
notice is given to the resident or, if the resident is unable to 38102
understand this information, to the resident's sponsor.38103

       (26) The right of the resident and person paying for the care 38104
to examine and receive a bill at least monthly for the resident's 38105
care from the home that itemizes charges not included in the basic 38106
rates;38107

       (27)(a) The right to be free from financial exploitation;38108

       (b) The right to manage the resident's own personal financial 38109
affairs, or, if the resident has delegated this responsibility in 38110
writing to the home, to receive upon written request at least a 38111
quarterly accounting statement of financial transactions made on 38112
the resident's behalf. The statement shall include:38113

       (i) A complete record of all funds, personal property, or 38114
possessions of a resident from any source whatsoever, that have 38115
been deposited for safekeeping with the home for use by the 38116
resident or the resident's sponsor;38117

       (ii) A listing of all deposits and withdrawals transacted, 38118
which shall be substantiated by receipts which shall be available 38119
for inspection and copying by the resident or sponsor.38120

       (28) The right of the resident to be allowed unrestricted 38121
access to the resident's property on deposit at reasonable hours, 38122
unless requests for access to property on deposit are so 38123
persistent, continuous, and unreasonable that they constitute a 38124
nuisance;38125

       (29) The right to receive reasonable notice before the 38126
resident's room or roommate is changed, including an explanation 38127
of the reason for either change.38128

       (30) The right not to be transferred or discharged from the 38129
home unless the transfer is necessary because of one of the 38130
following:38131

       (a) The welfare and needs of the resident cannot be met in 38132
the home.38133

       (b) The resident's health has improved sufficiently so that 38134
the resident no longer needs the services provided by the home.38135

       (c) The safety of individuals in the home is endangered.38136

       (d) The health of individuals in the home would otherwise be 38137
endangered.38138

       (e) The resident has failed, after reasonable and appropriate 38139
notice, to pay or to have the medicare or medicaid program pay on 38140
the resident's behalf, for the care provided by the home. A 38141
resident shall not be considered to have failed to have the 38142
resident's care paid for if the resident has applied for medicaid, 38143
unless both of the following are the case:38144

       (i) The resident's application, or a substantially similar 38145
previous application, has been denied by the county department of 38146
job and family services.38147

       (ii) If the resident appealed the denial pursuant to division 38148
(C) of section 5101.35 of the Revised Code, the director of job 38149
and family services has upheld the denial.38150

       (f) The home's license has been revoked, the home is being 38151
closed pursuant to section 3721.08, sections 5111.35 to 5111.62, 38152
or section 5155.31 of the Revised Code, or the home otherwise 38153
ceases to operate.38154

       (g) The resident is a recipient of medicaid, and the home's 38155
participation in the medicaid program is involuntarily terminated 38156
or denied.38157

       (h) The resident is a beneficiary under the medicare program, 38158
and the home's participation in the medicare program is 38159
involuntarily terminated or denied.38160

       (31) The right to voice grievances and recommend changes in 38161
policies and services to the home's staff, to employees of the 38162
department of health, or to other persons not associated with the 38163
operation of the home, of the resident's choice, free from 38164
restraint, interference, coercion, discrimination, or reprisal. 38165
This right includes access to a residents' rights advocate, and 38166
the right to be a member of, to be active in, and to associate 38167
with persons who are active in organizations of relatives and 38168
friends of nursing home residents and other organizations engaged 38169
in assisting residents.38170

       (32) The right to have any significant change in the 38171
resident's health status reported to the resident's sponsor. As 38172
soon as such a change is known to the home's staff, the home shall 38173
make a reasonable effort to notify the sponsor within twelve 38174
hours.38175

       (B) A sponsor may act on a resident's behalf to assure that 38176
the home does not deny the residents' rights under sections 38177
3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.38178

       (C) Any attempted waiver of the rights listed in division (A) 38179
of this section is void.38180

       Sec. 3721.21.  As used in sections 3721.21 to 3721.34 of the 38181
Revised Code:38182

       (A) "Long-term care facility" means either of the following:38183

       (1) A nursing home as defined in section 3721.01 of the 38184
Revised Code, other than a nursing home or part of a nursing home 38185
certified as an intermediate care facility for the mentally 38186
retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 38187
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;38188

       (2) A facility or part of a facility that is certified as a 38189
skilled nursing facility or a nursing facility under Title XVIII 38190
or XIX of the "Social Security Act."38191

       (B) "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 38192
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.38193

       (C) "Abuse" means knowingly causing physical harm or 38194
recklessly causing serious physical harm to a resident by physical 38195
contact with the resident or by use of physical or chemical 38196
restraint, medication, or isolation as punishment, for staff 38197
convenience, excessively, as a substitute for treatment, or in 38198
amounts that preclude habilitation and treatment.38199

       (D) "Neglect" means recklessly failing to provide a resident 38200
with any treatment, care, goods, or service necessary to maintain 38201
the health or safety of the resident when the failure results in 38202
serious physical harm to the resident. "Neglect" does not include 38203
allowing a resident, at the resident's option, to receive only 38204
treatment by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the 38205
tenets of a recognized religious denomination.38206

       (E) "Misappropriation" means depriving, defrauding, or 38207
otherwise obtaining the real or personal property of a resident by 38208
any means prohibited by the Revised Code, including violations of 38209
Chapter 2911. or 2913. of the Revised Code.38210

       (F) "Resident" includes a resident, patient, former resident 38211
or patient, or deceased resident or patient of a long-term care 38212
facility or a residential care facility.38213

       (G) "Physical restraint" has the same meaning as in section 38214
3721.10 of the Revised Code.38215

       (H) "Chemical restraint" has the same meaning as in section 38216
3721.10 of the Revised Code.38217

       (I) "Nursing and nursing-related services" means the personal 38218
care services and other services not constituting skilled nursing 38219
care that are specified in rules the publicdirector of health 38220
council shall adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 38221
Code.38222

       (J) "Personal care services" has the same meaning as in 38223
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.38224

       (K)(1) Except as provided in division (K)(2) of this section, 38225
"nurse aide" means an individual who provides nursing and 38226
nursing-related services to residents in a long-term care 38227
facility, either as a member of the staff of the facility for 38228
monetary compensation or as a volunteer without monetary 38229
compensation.38230

       (2) "Nurse aide" does not include either of the following:38231

        (a) A licensed health professional practicing within the 38232
scope of the professional's license;38233

        (b) An individual providing nursing and nursing-related 38234
services in a religious nonmedical health care institution, if the 38235
individual has been trained in the principles of nonmedical care 38236
and is recognized by the institution as being competent in the 38237
administration of care within the religious tenets practiced by 38238
the residents of the institution.38239

       (L) "Licensed health professional" means all of the 38240
following:38241

       (1) An occupational therapist or occupational therapy 38242
assistant licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;38243

       (2) A physical therapist or physical therapy assistant 38244
licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;38245

       (3) A physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 38246
Code to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and 38247
surgery, or podiatry;38248

       (4) A physician assistant authorized under Chapter 4730. of 38249
the Revised Code to practice as a physician assistant;38250

       (5) A registered nurse or licensed practical nurse licensed 38251
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;38252

       (6) A social worker or independent social worker licensed 38253
under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code or a social work assistant 38254
registered under that chapter;38255

       (7) A speech-language pathologist or audiologist licensed 38256
under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;38257

       (8) A dentist or dental hygienist licensed under Chapter 38258
4715. of the Revised Code;38259

       (9) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the 38260
Revised Code;38261

       (10) A pharmacist licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised 38262
Code;38263

       (11) A psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. of the 38264
Revised Code;38265

       (12) A chiropractor licensed under Chapter 4734. of the 38266
Revised Code;38267

       (13) A nursing home administrator licensed or temporarily 38268
licensed under Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code;38269

       (14) A professional counselor or professional clinical 38270
counselor licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code.38271

       (M) "Religious nonmedical health care institution" means an 38272
institution that meets or exceeds the conditions to receive 38273
payment under the medicare program established under Title XVIII 38274
of the "Social Security Act" for inpatient hospital services or 38275
post-hospital extended care services furnished to an individual in 38276
a religious nonmedical health care institution, as defined in 38277
section 1861(ss)(1) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 38278
(1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395x(ss)(1), as amended.38279

       (N) "Competency evaluation program" means a program through 38280
which the competency of a nurse aide to provide nursing and 38281
nursing-related services is evaluated.38282

       (O) "Training and competency evaluation program" means a 38283
program of nurse aide training and evaluation of competency to 38284
provide nursing and nursing-related services.38285

       Sec. 3721.28.  (A)(1) Each nurse aide used by a long-term 38286
care facility on a full-time, temporary, per diem, or other basis 38287
on July 1, 1989, shall be provided by the facility a competency 38288
evaluation program approved by the director of health under 38289
division (A) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code or conducted 38290
by himthe director under division (C) of that section. Each 38291
long-term care facility using a nurse aide on July 1, 1989, shall 38292
provide the nurse aide the preparation necessary to complete the 38293
competency evaluation program by January 1, 1990.38294

       (2) Each nurse aide used by a long-term care facility on a 38295
full-time, temporary, per diem, or other basis on January 1, 1990, 38296
who either was not used by the facility on July 1, 1989, or was 38297
used by the facility on July 1, 1989, but had not successfully 38298
completed a competency evaluation program by January 1, 1990, 38299
shall be provided by the facility a competency evaluation program 38300
approved by the director under division (A) of section 3721.31 of 38301
the Revised Code or conducted by himthe director under division 38302
(C) of that section. Each long-term care facility using a nurse 38303
aide described in division (A)(2) of this section shall provide 38304
the nurse aide the preparation necessary to complete the 38305
competency evaluation program by October 1, 1990, and shall assist 38306
the nurse aide in registering for the program.38307

       (B) Effective June 1, 1990, no long-term care facility shall 38308
use an individual as a nurse aide for more than four months unless 38309
the individual is competent to provide the services hethe 38310
individual is to provide, the facility has received from the nurse 38311
aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised 38312
Code the information concerning the individual provided through 38313
the registry, and one of the following is the case:38314

       (1) The individual was used by a facility as a nurse aide on 38315
a full-time, temporary, per diem, or other basis at any time 38316
during the period commencing July 1, 1989, and ending January 1, 38317
1990, and successfully completed, not later than October 1, 1990, 38318
a competency evaluation program approved by the director under 38319
division (A) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code or conducted 38320
by himthe director under division (C) of that section.38321

       (2) The individual has successfully completed a training and 38322
competency evaluation program approved by the director under 38323
division (A) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code or conducted 38324
by himthe director under division (C) of that section or has met 38325
the conditions specified in division (F) of this section and, in 38326
addition, if the training and competency evaluation program or the 38327
training, instruction, or education the individual completed in 38328
meeting the conditions specified in division (F) of this section 38329
was conducted by or in a long-term care facility, or if the 38330
director pursuant to division (E) of section 3721.31 of the 38331
Revised Code so requires, the individual has successfully 38332
completed a competency evaluation program conducted by the 38333
director.38334

       (3) Prior to July 1, 1989, if the long-term care facility is 38335
certified as a skilled nursing facility or a nursing facility 38336
under Title XVIII or XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 38337
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, or prior to January 1, 38338
1990, if the facility is not so certified, the individual 38339
completed a program that the director determines included a 38340
competency evaluation component no less stringent than the 38341
competency evaluation programs approved by himthe director under 38342
division (A) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code or conducted 38343
by himthe director under division (C) of that section, and was 38344
otherwise comparable to the training and competency evaluation 38345
programs being approved by the director under division (A) of that 38346
section.38347

       (4) The individual is listed in a nurse aide registry 38348
maintained by another state and that state certifies that its 38349
program for training and evaluation of competency of nurse aides 38350
complies with Titles XVIII and XIX of the "Social Security Act" 38351
and regulations adopted thereunder.38352

       (5) Prior to July 1, 1989, the individual was found competent 38353
to serve as a nurse aide after the completion of a course of nurse 38354
aide training of at least one hundred hours' duration.38355

       (6) The individual is enrolled in a prelicensure program of 38356
nursing education approved by the board of nursing or by an agency 38357
of another state that regulates nursing education, has provided 38358
the long-term care facility with a certificate from the program 38359
indicating that the individual has successfully completed the 38360
courses that teach basic nursing skills including infection 38361
control, safety and emergency procedures, and personal care, and 38362
has successfully completed a competency evaluation program 38363
conducted by the director under division (C) of section 3721.31 of 38364
the Revised Code.38365

       (7) The individual has the equivalent of twelve months or 38366
more of full-time employment in the preceding five years as a 38367
hospital aide or orderly and has successfully completed a 38368
competency evaluation program conducted by the director under 38369
division (C) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code.38370

       (C) Effective June 1, 1990, no long-term care facility shall 38371
continue for longer than four months to use as a nurse aide an 38372
individual who previously met the requirements of division (B) of 38373
this section but since most recently doing so has not performed 38374
nursing and nursing-related services for monetary compensation for 38375
twenty-four consecutive months, unless the individual successfully 38376
completes additional training and competency evaluation by 38377
complying with divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section:38378

       (1) Doing one of the following:38379

       (a) Successfully completing a training and competency 38380
evaluation program approved by the director under division (A) of 38381
section 3721.31 of the Revised Code or conducted by himthe 38382
director under division (C) of that section;38383

       (b) Successfully completing a training and competency 38384
evaluation program described in division (B)(4) of this section;38385

       (c) Meeting the requirements specified in division (B)(6) or 38386
(7) of this section.38387

       (2) If the training and competency evaluation program 38388
completed under division (C)(1)(a) of this section was conducted 38389
by or in a long-term care facility, or if the director pursuant to 38390
division (E) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code so requires, 38391
successfully completing a competency evaluation program conducted 38392
by the director.38393

       (D)(1) The four-month periods provided for in divisions (B) 38394
and (C) of this section include any time, on or after June 1, 38395
1990, that an individual is used as a nurse aide on a full-time, 38396
temporary, per diem, or any other basis by the facility or any 38397
other long-term care facility.38398

       (2) During the four-month period provided for in division (B) 38399
of this section, during which a long-term care facility may, 38400
subject to division (E) of this section, use as a nurse aide an 38401
individual who does not have the qualifications specified in 38402
divisions (B)(1) to (7) of this section, a facility shall require 38403
the individual to comply with divisions (D)(2)(a) and (b) of this 38404
section:38405

       (a) Participate in one of the following:38406

       (i) If the individual has successfully completed a training 38407
and competency evaluation program approved by the director under 38408
division (A) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code, and the 38409
program was conducted by or in a long-term care facility, or the 38410
director pursuant to division (E) of section 3721.31 of the 38411
Revised Code so requires, a competency evaluation program 38412
conducted by the director;38413

       (ii) If the individual is enrolled in a prelicensure program 38414
of nursing education described in division (B)(6) of this section 38415
and has completed or is working toward completion of the courses 38416
described in that division, or the individual has the experience 38417
described in division (B)(7) of this section, a competency 38418
evaluation program conducted by the director;38419

       (iii) A training and competency evaluation program approved 38420
by the director under division (A) of section 3721.31 of the 38421
Revised Code or conducted by himthe director under division (C) 38422
of that section.38423

       (b) If the individual participates in or has successfully 38424
completed a training and competency evaluation program under 38425
division (D)(2)(a)(iii) of this section that is conducted by or in 38426
a long-term care facility, or the director pursuant to division 38427
(E) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code so requires, paticipate38428
participate in a competency evaluation program conducted by the 38429
director.38430

       (3) During the four-month period provided for in division (C) 38431
of this section, during which a long-term care facility may, 38432
subject to division (E) of this section, use as a nurse aide an 38433
individual who does not have the qualifications specified in 38434
divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section, a facility shall require 38435
the individual to comply with divisions (D)(3)(a) and (b) of this 38436
section:38437

       (a) Participate in one of the following:38438

       (i) If the individual has successfully completed a training 38439
and competency evaluation program approved by the director, and 38440
the program was conducted by or in a long-term care facility, or 38441
the director pursuant to division (E) of section 3721.31 of the 38442
Revised Code so requires, a competency evaluation program 38443
conducted by the director;38444

       (ii) If the individual is enrolled in a prelicensure program 38445
of nursing education described in division (B)(6) of this section 38446
and has completed or is working toward completion of the courses 38447
described in that division, or the individual has the experience 38448
described in division (B)(7) of this section, a competency 38449
evaluation program conducted by the director;38450

       (iii) A training and competency evaluation program approved 38451
or conducted by the director.38452

       (b) If the individual participates in or has successfully 38453
completed a training and competency evaluation program under 38454
division (D)(3)(a)(iii) of this section that is conducted by or in 38455
a long-term care facility, or the director pursuant to division 38456
(E) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code so requires, 38457
participate in a competency evaluation program conducted by the 38458
director.38459

       (E) A long-term care facility shall not permit an individual 38460
used by the facility as a nurse aide while participating in a 38461
training and competency evaluation program to provide nursing and 38462
nursing-related services unless both of the following are the 38463
case:38464

       (1) The individual has completed the number of hours of 38465
training that he must completebe completed prior to providing 38466
services to residents as prescribed by rules that shall be adopted 38467
by the director in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 38468
Code;38469

       (2) The individual is under the personal supervision of a 38470
registered or licensed practical nurse licensed under Chapter 38471
4723. of the Revised Code.38472

       (F) An individual shall be considered to have satisfied the 38473
requirement, under division (B)(2) of this section, of having 38474
successfully completed a training and competency evaluation 38475
program conducted or approved by the director, if the individual 38476
meets both of the following conditions:38477

       (1) The individual, as of July 1, 1989, completed at least 38478
sixty hours divided between skills training and classroom 38479
instruction in the topic areas described in divisions (B)(1) to 38480
(8) of section 3721.30 of the Revised Code;38481

       (2) The individual received, as of that date, at least the 38482
difference between seventy-five hours and the number of hours 38483
actually spent in training and competency evaluation in supervised 38484
practical nurse aide training or regular in-service nurse aide 38485
education.38486

       (G) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules in 38487
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code specifying 38488
persons, in addition to the director, who may establish competence 38489
of nurse aides under division (B)(5) of this section, and 38490
establishing criteria for determining whether an individual meets 38491
the conditions specified in division (F) of this section.38492

       (H) The rules adopted pursuant to divisions (E)(1) and (G) of 38493
this section shall be no less stringent than the requirements, 38494
guidelines, and procedures established by the United States 38495
secretary of health and human services under sections 1819 and 38496
1919 of the "Social Security Act."38497

       Sec. 3721.29.  In addition to competency evaluation programs 38498
and training and competency evaluation programs required by this 38499
chapter, each long-term care facility shall provide both of the 38500
following to each nurse aide it uses:38501

       (A) An orientation program that includes at least an 38502
explanation of the organizational structure of the facility, its 38503
policies and procedures, its philosophy of care, a description of 38504
its resident population, and an enumeration of its employee rules;38505

       (B) Regular performance review and in-service education to 38506
assure that individuals working in the facility as nurse aides are 38507
competent to perform the nursing and nursing-related services they 38508
perform. In-service education shall include training for nurse 38509
aides providing nursing and nursing-related services to residents 38510
and patients with cognitive impairments.38511

       The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules to 38512
implement the purposes of this section. The rules shall be no less 38513
stringent than the requirements, guidelines, and procedures 38514
established by the United States secretary of health and human 38515
services under sections 1819 and 1919 of the "Social Security 38516
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended.38517

       Sec. 3721.50.  As used in sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 of the 38518
Revised Code:38519

       (A) "Bed surrender" means the following:38520

        (1) In the case of a nursing home, the removal of a bed from 38521
a nursing home's licensed capacity in a manner that reduces the 38522
total licensed capacity of all nursing homes;38523

        (2) In the case of a hospital, the removal of a hospital bed 38524
from registration under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 38525
skilled nursing facility bed or long-term care bed in a manner 38526
that reduces the total number of hospital beds registered under 38527
that section as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term care 38528
beds.38529

        (B) "Change of operator" means an entering operator becoming 38530
the operator of a nursing home or hospital in the place of the 38531
exiting operator.38532

       (1) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the 38533
following:38534

       (a) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal 38535
organization, including the formation of a partnership or 38536
corporation from a sole proprietorship;38537

       (b) A transfer of all the exiting operator's ownership 38538
interest in the operation of the nursing home or hospital to the 38539
entering operator, regardless of whether ownership of any or all 38540
of the real property or personal property associated with the 38541
nursing home or hospital is also transferred;38542

       (c) A lease of the nursing home or hospital to the entering 38543
operator or the exiting operator's termination of the exiting 38544
operator's lease;38545

       (d) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of 38546
the partnership;38547

       (e) If the exiting operator is a partnership, a change in 38548
composition of the partnership unless both of the following apply:38549

       (i) The change in composition does not cause the 38550
partnership's dissolution under state law.38551

       (ii) The partners agree that the change in composition does 38552
not constitute a change in operator.38553

       (f) If the operator is a corporation, dissolution of the 38554
corporation, a merger of the corporation into another corporation 38555
that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of one or 38556
more other corporations to form a new corporation.38557

       (2) The following, alone, do not constitute a change of 38558
operator:38559

       (a) A contract for an entity to manage a nursing home or 38560
hospital as the operator's agent, subject to the operator's 38561
approval of daily operating and management decisions;38562

       (b) A change of ownership, lease, or termination of a lease 38563
of real property or personal property associated with a nursing 38564
home or hospital if an entering operator does not become the 38565
operator in place of an exiting operator;38566

       (c) If the operator is a corporation, a change of one or more 38567
members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of 38568
ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the 38569
same corporation continues to be the operator.38570

       (C) "Effective date of a change of operator" means the day an 38571
entering operator becomes the operator of a nursing home or 38572
hospital.38573

       (D) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity 38574
that will become the operator of a nursing home or hospital on the 38575
effective date of a change of operator.38576

       (E) "Exiting operator" means an operator that will cease to 38577
be the operator of a nursing home or hospital on the effective 38578
date of a change of operator.38579

       (F) "Franchise permit fee rate" means the following:38580

       (1) For fiscal year 2012, eleven dollars and forty-seven 38581
cents;38582

       (2) For fiscal year 2013 and each fiscal year thereafter, 38583
eleven dollars and sixty-seven cents.38584

       (G) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 38585
the Revised Code.38586

       (H) "Hospital long-term care unit" means any distinct part of 38587
a hospital in which any of the following beds are located:38588

       (1) Beds registered pursuant to section 3701.07 of the 38589
Revised Code as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term care 38590
beds;38591

       (2) Beds licensed as nursing home beds under section 3721.02 38592
or 3721.09 of the Revised Code.38593

       (I) "Indirect guarantee percentage" means the percentage 38594
specified in section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii) of the "Social Security 38595
Act," 120 Stat. 2994 (2006), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w)(4)(C)(ii) that is 38596
to be used in determining whether a class of providers is 38597
indirectly held harmless for any portion of the costs of a 38598
broad-based health-care-related tax. If the indirect guarantee 38599
percentage changes during a fiscal year, the indirect guarantee 38600
percentage is the following:38601

       (1) For the part of the fiscal year before the change takes 38602
effect, the percentage in effect before the change;38603

       (2) For the part of the fiscal year beginning with the date 38604
the indirect guarantee percentage changes, the new percentage.38605

       (J) "Inpatient days" means all days during which a resident 38606
of a nursing facility, regardless of payment source, occupies a 38607
bed in the nursing facility that is included in the facility's 38608
certified capacity under Title XIX. Therapeutic or hospital leave 38609
days for which payment is made under section 5111.26 of the 38610
Revised Code are considered inpatient days proportionate to the 38611
percentage of the facility's per resident per day rate paid for 38612
those days.38613

       (K) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 38614
the Revised Code.38615

       (L) "Medicaid day" means all days during which a resident who 38616
is a medicaid recipient occupies a bed in a nursing facility that 38617
is included in the facility's certified capacity under Title XIX. 38618
Therapeutic or hospital leave days for which payment is made under 38619
section 5111.26 of the Revised Code are considered medicaid days 38620
proportionate to the percentage of the nursing facility's per 38621
resident per day rate for those days.38622

       (M)(K) "Medicare" means the program established by Title 38623
XVIII.38624

       (N)(L) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 38625
5111.20 of the Revised Code.38626

       (O)(M)(1) "Nursing home" means all of the following:38627

       (a) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 or 3721.09 38628
of the Revised Code, including any part of a home for the aging 38629
licensed as a nursing home;38630

       (b) A facility or part of a facility, other than a hospital, 38631
that is certified as a skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII;38632

       (c) A nursing facility, other than a portion of a hospital 38633
certified as a nursing facility.38634

       (2) "Nursing home" does not include anyeither of the 38635
following:38636

       (a) A county home, county nursing home, or district home 38637
operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;38638

       (b) A nursing home maintained and operated by the department 38639
of veterans services under section 5907.01 of the Revised Code;38640

       (c) A nursing home or part of a nursing home licensed under 38641
section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code that is certified 38642
as an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under 38643
Title XIX.38644

       (P)(N) "Operator" means the person or government entity 38645
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for a 38646
nursing home or hospital.38647

       (Q)(O) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 38648
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amended.38649

       (R)(P) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social 38650
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended.38651

       Sec. 3721.51.  The department of job and family services 38652
shall do all of the following:38653

       (A) Subject to sections 3721.512, 3721.513, and 3721.531 of 38654
the Revised Code and divisions (C) and (D) of this section and for 38655
the purposes specified in section 3721.56 of the Revised Code, 38656
determine an annual franchise permit fee on each nursing home in 38657
an amount equal to the franchise permit fee rate multiplied by the 38658
product of the following:38659

       (1) The number of beds licensed as nursing home beds, plus 38660
any other beds certified as skilled nursing facility beds under 38661
Title XVIII or nursing facility beds under Title XIX on the first 38662
day of May of the calendar year in which the fee is determined 38663
pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.53 of the Revised Code;38664

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year beginning on the 38665
first day of July of the calendar year in which the fee is 38666
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.53 of the 38667
Revised Code.38668

       (B) Subject to sections 3721.512, 3721.513, and 3721.531 of 38669
the Revised Code and divisions (C) and (D) of this section and for 38670
the purposes specified in section 3721.56 of the Revised Code, 38671
determine an annual franchise permit fee on each hospital in an 38672
amount equal to the franchise permit fee rate multiplied by the 38673
product of the following:38674

       (1) The number of beds registered pursuant to section 3701.07 38675
of the Revised Code as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term 38676
care beds, plus any other beds licensed as nursing home beds under 38677
section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code, on the first day 38678
of May of the calendar year in which the fee is determined 38679
pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.53 of the Revised Code;38680

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year beginning on the 38681
first day of July of the calendar year in which the fee is 38682
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.53 of the 38683
Revised Code.38684

       (C) If the total amount of the franchise permit fee assessed 38685
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section for a fiscal year 38686
exceeds the indirect guarantee percentage of the actual net 38687
patient revenue for all nursing homes and hospital long-term care 38688
units for that fiscal year and seventy-five per cent or more of 38689
the combined total number of nursing homes and hospital long-term 38690
care units receive enhanced medicaid payments or other state 38691
payments equal to seventy-five per cent or more of their total 38692
franchise permit fee assessments, do both of the following:38693

       (1) Recalculate the assessments under divisions (A) and (B) 38694
of this section using a per bed per day rate equal to the indirect 38695
guarantee percentage of actual net patient revenue for all nursing 38696
homes and hospital long-term care units for that fiscal year;38697

       (2) Refund the difference between the amount of the franchise 38698
permit fee assessed for that fiscal year under divisions (A) and 38699
(B) of this section and the amount recalculated under division 38700
(C)(1) of this section as a credit against the assessments imposed 38701
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section for the subsequent 38702
fiscal year.38703

       (D) If the United States centers for medicare and medicaid 38704
services determines that the franchise permit fee established by 38705
sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 of the Revised Code is an 38706
impermissible health care-related tax under section 1903(w) of the 38707
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as 38708
amended, take all necessary actions to cease implementation of 38709
sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 of the Revised Code in accordance with 38710
rules adopted under section 3721.58 of the Revised Code.38711

       Sec. 3723.06.  (A) The director of health shall license radon 38712
testers, mitigation specialists, and mitigation contractors. Each 38713
applicant for a license shall submit a completed application to 38714
the director on a form the director shall prescribe and furnish.38715

       (B) In accordance with rules adopted by the public health 38716
council under section 3723.09 of the Revised Code, the director 38717
shall issue the appropriate license to each applicant that pays 38718
the license fee prescribed by the councildirector, meets the 38719
licensing criteria established by the councildirector, and 38720
complies with any other licensing and training requirements 38721
established by the councildirector. An individual, business 38722
entity, or government entity may hold more than one license issued 38723
under this section, but a separate application is required for 38724
each license.38725

       (C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, the 38726
director shall issue a radon mitigation contractor license on 38727
request to the holder of a radon mitigation specialist license if 38728
the license holder is the owner or chief stockholder of a business 38729
entity for which hethe license holder is the only individual who 38730
will work as a radon mitigation specialist. The licensing criteria 38731
and any other licensing and training requirements the individual 38732
was required to meet to qualify for the radon mitigation 38733
specialist license are hereby deemed to satisfy any and all 38734
criteria and requirements for a radon mitigation contractor 38735
license. A license issued under this division shall expire at the 38736
same time as the individual's radon mitigation specialist license. 38737
No license fee shall be imposed for a license issued under this 38738
division.38739

       (D) A license issued under this section expires biennially 38740
and may be renewed by the director in accordance with criteria and 38741
procedures established by the public health councilin rules 38742
adopted under section 3723.09 of the Revised Code and on payment 38743
of the license renewal fee prescribed by the councilin those 38744
rules.38745

       (E) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 38746
director may do either of the following:38747

       (1) Refuse to issue a license to an individual, business 38748
entity, or government entity that does not meet the requirements 38749
of this chapter or the rules adopted under it or has been in 38750
violation of those requirements;38751

       (2) Suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew the license of an 38752
individual, business entity, or government entity that is or has 38753
been in violation of the requirements of this chapter or the rules 38754
adopted under it.38755

       Sec. 3723.07.  The director of health shall approve all of 38756
the following:38757

       (A) Licensure training courses for radon testers and 38758
mitigation specialists;38759

       (B) Training courses for employees of mitigation contractors;38760

       (C) Radon laboratories.38761

       Each applicant for approval shall submit a completed 38762
application to the director on a form the director shall prescribe 38763
and furnish.38764

       In accordance with rules adopted by the public health council38765
under section 3723.09 of the Revised Code, the director shall 38766
issue the appropriate approval to each applicant that pays the 38767
approval fee prescribed by the councildirector and meets the 38768
criteria for approval established by the councildirector.38769

       In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 38770
director may refuse to issue an approval and may revoke or suspend 38771
an approval issued under this section if the operator of the 38772
course or laboratory fails to meet the criteria established by the 38773
public health councildirector.38774

       Sec. 3723.09.  (A) To protect the health of individuals 38775
inhabiting, occupying, or frequenting buildings, the public38776
director of health council shall adopt rules to implement the 38777
requirements of this chapter. All rules adopted under this section 38778
shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 38779
Code.38780

       (B) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 38781
establishing criteria and procedures to be followed by the 38782
director of health infor issuing and renewing licenses under 38783
section 3723.06 of the Revised Code to radon testers, mitigation 38784
specialists, and mitigation contractors. The rules may require 38785
that all applicants for licensure as a radon tester or mitigation 38786
specialist pass an examination. If an examination is required, the 38787
rules may require applicants to pass an examination conducted by 38788
the department or an appropriate examination conducted by the 38789
United States environmental protection agency.38790

       (C) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 38791
establishing criteria and procedures to be followed by the 38792
director of health infor approving training courses under section 38793
3723.07 of the Revised Code. The rules may require that 38794
participants in training courses pass an examination conducted by 38795
the operator of the course and may require that the examinations 38796
be approved by the director of health.38797

       (D) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 38798
establishing criteria and procedures to be followed by the 38799
director of health infor approving radon laboratories under 38800
section 3723.07 of the Revised Code.38801

       (E) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 38802
establishing reasonable fees for licenses, license renewals, radon 38803
laboratory approvals, and training course approvals.38804

       (F) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 38805
establishing standards to be followed by licensed radon testers, 38806
mitigation specialists, and mitigation contractors for the 38807
prevention of hazards to the public health, including standards 38808
for worker protection, record keeping, and training of employees 38809
of licensed radon mitigation contractors.38810

       (G) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 38811
establishing procedures to be followed by any individual, business 38812
entity, or government entity licensed by another state to practice 38813
as a radon tester, mitigation specialist, or mitigation contractor 38814
in providing notice to the director of health prior to commencing 38815
practice in this state pursuant to section 3723.03 of the Revised 38816
Code.38817

       (H) The public health councildirector may adopt rules that 38818
require licensed radon testers and mitigation specialists to 38819
report to the director of health, by street address, radon test 38820
results that indicate the presence of radon at a level considered 38821
to be dangerous as determined by the councildirector. The rules 38822
may require the reporting of screening measurements, follow-up 38823
measurements, post-mitigation measurements, and, if it is known 38824
that radon mitigation has been performed, the methods of 38825
mitigation that were used. Any information required to be reported 38826
to the director under these rules is not a public record under 38827
section 149.43 of the Revised Code, and shall not be released 38828
except in aggregate statistical form.38829

       Sec. 3725.02.  (A) No person other than a hospital shall 38830
collect plasma, regardless of the use for which the plasma is 38831
intended, except at a plasmapheresis center holding a current, 38832
valid certificate of approval issued by the director of health.38833

       Whoever violates this division is guilty of a misdemeanor of 38834
the fourth degree.38835

       (B) The public health councildirector shall adopt such rules 38836
as are necessary to carry out this chapter.38837

       Sec. 3727.01. (A) As used in this section, "health 38838
maintenance organization" means a public or private organization 38839
organized under the law of any state that is qualified under 38840
section 1310(d) of Title XIII of the "Public Health Service Act," 38841
87 Stat. 931 (1973), 42 U.S.C. 300e-9, or that does all of the 38842
following:38843

       (1) Provides or otherwise makes available to enrolled 38844
participants health care services including at least the following 38845
basic health care services: usual physician services, 38846
hospitalization, laboratory, x-ray, emergency and preventive 38847
service, and out-of-area coverage;38848

       (2) Is compensated, except for copayments, for the provision 38849
of basic health care services to enrolled participants by a 38850
payment that is paid on a periodic basis without regard to the 38851
date the health care services are provided and that is fixed 38852
without regard to the frequency, extent, or kind of health service 38853
actually provided;38854

       (3) Provides physician services primarily in either of the 38855
following ways:38856

       (a) Directly through physicians who are either employees or 38857
partners of the organization;38858

       (b) Through arrangements with individual physicians or one or 38859
more groups of physicians organized on a group-practice or 38860
individual-practice basis.38861

       (B) As used in this chapter:38862

       (1) "Children's hospital" has the same meaning as in section 38863
3702.51 of the Revised Codemeans any of the following:38864

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 38865
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 38866
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 38867
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 38868
individuals less than eighteen years of age; 38869

       (b) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 38870
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 38871
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 38872
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 38873
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 38874
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 38875
individuals less than eighteen years of age; 38876

       (c) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 38877
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 38878
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 38879
requirements of division (B)(1)(a) of this section.38880

        (2) "Hospital" means an institution classified as a hospital 38881
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code in which are provided to 38882
inpatients diagnostic, medical, surgical, obstetrical, 38883
psychiatric, or rehabilitation care for a continuous period longer 38884
than twenty-four hours or a hospital operated by a health 38885
maintenance organization. "Hospital" does not include a facility 38886
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a health care 38887
facility operated by the department of mental health or the 38888
department of developmental disabilities, a health maintenance 38889
organization that does not operate a hospital, the office of any 38890
private licensed health care professional, whether organized for 38891
individual or group practice, or a clinic that provides ambulatory 38892
patient services and where patients are not regularly admitted as 38893
inpatients. "Hospital" also does not include an institution for 38894
the sick that is operated exclusively for patients who use 38895
spiritual means for healing and for whom the acceptance of medical 38896
care is inconsistent with their religious beliefs, accredited by a 38897
national accrediting organization, exempt from federal income 38898
taxation under section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 38899
100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and providing 38900
twenty-four hour nursing care pursuant to the exemption in 38901
division (E) of section 4723.32 of the Revised Code from the 38902
licensing requirements of Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code.38903

       (3) "Joint commission" means the commission formerly known as 38904
the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations 38905
or the joint commission on accreditation of hospitals.38906

       Sec. 3727.42.  (A) Every hospital shall compile and make 38907
available for inspection by the public a price information list 38908
containing the information specified in division (B) of this 38909
section and shall periodically update the list to maintain current 38910
information. The price information list shall be compiled and made 38911
available in a format that complies with the electronic 38912
transaction standards and code sets adopted by the United States 38913
secretary of health and human services under 42 U.S.C. 1320d-2.38914

        (B) Each price information list required by division (A) of 38915
this section shall contain all of the following information:38916

       (1) The usual and customary room and board charges for each 38917
level of care within the hospital, including but not limited to 38918
private rooms, semiprivate rooms, other multiple patient rooms, 38919
and intensive care and other specialty units;38920

       (2) Rates charged for nursing care, if the hospital charges 38921
separately for nursing care;38922

       (3) The usual and customary charges, stated separately for 38923
inpatients and outpatients if different charges are imposed, for 38924
any of the following services provided by the hospital:38925

       (a) The thirty most common x-ray and radiological procedures;38926

       (b) The thirty most common laboratory procedures;38927

       (c) Emergency room services;38928

       (d) Operating room services;38929

       (e) Delivery room services;38930

       (f) Physical, occupational, and pulmonary therapy services;38931

       (g) Any other services designated as high volume services by 38932
a rule which shall be adopted by the publicdirector of health 38933
council.38934

        (4) The hospital's billing policies, including whether the 38935
hospital charges interest on an amount not paid in full by any 38936
person or government entity and the interest rate charged;38937

        (5) Whether or not the charges listed include fees for the 38938
services of hospital-based anesthesiologists, radiologists, 38939
pathologists, and emergency room physicians and, if a charge does 38940
not include such fees, how such fee information can be obtained.38941

       (C) Every hospital shall do all of the following with the 38942
price information list required by this section:38943

       (1) At the time of admission, or as soon as practical 38944
thereafter, inform each patient of the availability of the list 38945
and on request provide the patient with a free copy of the list;38946

       (2) On request, provide a paper copy of the list to any 38947
person or governmental agency, subject to payment of a reasonable 38948
fee for copying and processing;38949

       (3) Make the list available free of charge on the hospital's 38950
internet web site.38951

       Sec. 3729.01.  As used in this chapter:38952

       (A) "Camp operator" means the operator of a recreational 38953
vehicle park, recreation camp, combined park-camp, or temporary 38954
park-camp.38955

       (B) "Campsite user" means a person who enters into a campsite 38956
use agreement with a camp operator for the use of a campsite at a 38957
recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, combined park-camp, or 38958
temporary park-camp.38959

       (C) "Combined park-camp" means any tract of land upon which a 38960
combination of five or more self-contained recreational vehicles 38961
or portable camping units are placed and includes any roadway, 38962
building, structure, vehicle, or enclosure used or intended for 38963
use as part of the park facilities. A tract of land that is 38964
subdivided for lease or other contract of the individual lots is a 38965
combined park-camp if a combination of five or more recreational 38966
vehicles or portable camping units are placed on it for 38967
recreation, vacation, or business purposes.38968

       "Combined park-camp" does not include any tract of land used 38969
solely as a temporary park-camp or solely as a manufactured home 38970
park.38971

       (D) "Dependent recreational vehicle" means a recreational 38972
vehicle other than a self-contained recreational vehicle. 38973
"Dependent recreational vehicle" includes a park model.38974

       (E) "Development" means any artificial change to improved or 38975
unimproved real estate, including, without limitation, buildings 38976
or structures, dredging, filling, grading, paving, excavation or 38977
drilling operations, or storage of equipment or materials, and the 38978
construction, expansion, or substantial alteration of a 38979
recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, or combined park-camp, 38980
for which plan review is required under division (A) of section 38981
3729.03 of the Revised Code. "Development" does not include the 38982
building, construction, erection, or manufacture of any building 38983
to which section 3781.06 of the Revised Code is applicable.38984

       (F) "Director of health" means the director of health or the 38985
director's authorized representative.38986

       (G) "Flood" or "flooding" means either of the following:38987

       (1) A general and temporary condition of partial or complete 38988
inundation of normally dry land areas from any of the following:38989

       (a) The overflow of inland or tidal waters;38990

       (b) The unusual and rapid accumulation or runoff of surface 38991
waters from any source;38992

       (c) Mudslides that are proximately caused by flooding as 38993
defined in division (G)(1)(b) of this section and that are akin to 38994
a river of liquid and flowing mud on the surface of normally dry 38995
land areas, as when earth is carried by a current of water and 38996
deposited along the path of the current.38997

       (2) The collapse or subsidence of land along the shore of a 38998
lake or other body of water as a result of erosion or undermining 38999
that is caused by waves or currents of water exceeding anticipated 39000
cyclical levels or that is suddenly caused by an unusually high 39001
water level in a natural body of water, and that is accompanied by 39002
a severe storm, by an unanticipated force of nature, such as a 39003
flash flood, by an abnormal tidal surge, or by some similarly 39004
unusual and unforeseeable event, that results in flooding as 39005
defined in division (G)(1)(a) of this section.39006

       (H) "Flood plain" means the area adjoining any river, stream, 39007
watercourse, or lake that has been or may be covered by flood 39008
water.39009

       (I) "Licensor" means either the board of health of a city or 39010
general health district, or the authority having the duties of a 39011
board of health in any city as authorized by section 3709.05 of 39012
the Revised Code, or the director of health, when required under 39013
division (B) of section 3729.06 of the Revised Code. "Licensor" 39014
also means an authorized representative of any of those entities 39015
or of the director.39016

       (J) "Manufactured home park" has the same meaning as in 39017
section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code.39018

       (K) "One-hundred-year flood" means a flood having a one per 39019
cent chance of being equaled or exceeded in any given year.39020

       (L) "One-hundred-year flood plain" means that portion of a 39021
flood plain inundated by a one-hundred-year flood.39022

       (M) "Operator" means the person who has responsible charge of 39023
a recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, combined park-camp, 39024
or temporary park-camp and who is licensed under this chapter.39025

       (N) "Park model" means a recreational vehicle that meets the 39026
American national standard institute standard A119.5(1988) for 39027
park trailers, is built on a single chassis, has a gross trailer 39028
area of not more than four hundred square feet when set up, is 39029
designed for seasonal or temporary living quarters, and may be 39030
connected to utilities necessary for operation of installed 39031
features and appliances.39032

       (O) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 39033
Revised Code and also includes this state, any political 39034
subdivision of this state, and any other state or local body of 39035
this state.39036

       (P) "Portable camping units" means dependent recreational 39037
vehicles, tents, portable sleeping equipment, and similar camping 39038
equipment used for travel, recreation, vacation, or business 39039
purposes.39040

       (Q) "Recreation camp" means any tract of land upon which five 39041
or more portable camping units are placed and includes any 39042
roadway, building, structure, vehicle, or enclosure used or 39043
intended for use as a part of the facilities of the camp. A tract 39044
of land that is subdivided for lease or other contract of the 39045
individual lots is a recreation camp if five or more portable 39046
camping units are placed on it for recreation, vacation, or 39047
business purposes.39048

       "Recreation camp" does not include any tract of land used 39049
solely for the storage or display for sale of dependent 39050
recreational vehicles, solely as a temporary park-camp, or solely 39051
as a manufactured home park.39052

       (R) "Recreational vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 39053
4501.01 of the Revised Code.39054

       (S) "Recreational vehicle park" means any tract of land used 39055
for parking five or more self-contained recreational vehicles and 39056
includes any roadway, building, structure, vehicle, or enclosure 39057
used or intended for use as part of the park facilities and any 39058
tract of land that is subdivided for lease or other contract of 39059
the individual lots for the express or implied purpose of placing 39060
self-contained recreational vehicles for recreation, vacation, or 39061
business purposes.39062

       "Recreational vehicle park" does not include any tract of 39063
land used solely for the storage or display for sale of 39064
self-contained recreational vehicles, solely as a temporary 39065
park-camp, or solely as a manufactured home park.39066

       (T) "Self-contained recreational vehicle" means a 39067
recreational vehicle that can operate independent of connections 39068
to sewer and water and has plumbing fixtures or appliances all of 39069
which are connected to sewage holding tanks located within the 39070
vehicle. "Self-contained recreational vehicle" includes a park 39071
model.39072

       (U) "Substantially alter" means a change in the layout or 39073
design of a recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, combined 39074
park-camp, or temporary park-camp, including, without limitation, 39075
the movement of utilities or changes in established streets, lots, 39076
or sites or in other facilities.39077

       (V) "Temporary park-camp" means any tract of land used for a 39078
period not to exceed a total of twenty-one days per calendar year 39079
for the purpose of parking five or more recreational vehicles, 39080
dependent recreational vehicles, or portable camping units, or any 39081
combination thereof, for one or more periods of time that do not 39082
exceed seven consecutive days or parts thereof.39083

       (W) "Tract" means a contiguous area of land that consists of 39084
one or more parcels, lots, or sites that have been separately 39085
surveyed regardless of whether the individual parcels, lots, or 39086
sites have been recorded and regardless of whether the one or more 39087
parcels, lots, or sites are under common or different ownership.39088

       Sec. 3729.02.  (A) The publicdirector of health council, 39089
subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules of 39090
uniform application throughout the state governing the review of 39091
plans and issuance of licenses for and the location, layout, 39092
construction, drainage, sanitation, safety, and operation of 39093
recreational vehicle parks, recreation camps, and combined 39094
park-camps. The rules shall not apply to the construction, 39095
erection, or manufacture of any building to which section 3781.06 39096
of the Revised Code is applicable.39097

       (B) The public health councildirector, subject to Chapter 39098
119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules of uniform application 39099
throughout the state governing the review of plans and issuance of 39100
licenses for and the layout, sanitation, safety, and operation of 39101
temporary park-camps. The rules shall not apply to the 39102
construction, erection, or manufacture of any building to which 39103
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code is applicable.39104

       Sec. 3729.03.  (A) No person shall cause development to occur 39105
within any portion of a recreational vehicle park, recreation 39106
camp, or combined park-camp until the plans for the development 39107
have been submitted to and reviewed and approved by the director 39108
of health. This division does not require that plans be submitted 39109
to the director for approval for the replacement of recreational 39110
vehicles or portable camping units on previously approved sites in 39111
a recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, or combined 39112
park-camp when no development is to occur in connection with the 39113
replacement. Within thirty days after receipt of the plans, all 39114
supporting documents and materials required to complete the 39115
review, and the applicable plan review fee established under 39116
division (D) of this section, the director shall approve or 39117
disapprove the plans.39118

       (B) Any person aggrieved by the director's disapproval of a 39119
set of plans under division (A) of this section may request a 39120
hearing on the matter within thirty days after receipt of the 39121
director's notice of the disapproval. The hearing shall be held in 39122
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Thereafter, the 39123
disapproval may be appealed in the manner provided in section 39124
119.12 of the Revised Code.39125

       (C) The director shall establish a system by which 39126
development occurring within a recreational vehicle park, 39127
recreation camp, or combined park-camp is inspected or verified in 39128
accordance with rules adopted under division (A) of section 39129
3729.02 of the Revised Code to ensure that the development 39130
complies with the plans approved under division (A) of this 39131
section.39132

       (D) The public health councildirector shall establish fees 39133
for reviewing plans under division (A) of this section and 39134
conducting inspections under division (C) of this section.39135

       (E) The director shall charge the appropriate fees 39136
established under division (D) of this section for reviewing plans 39137
under division (A) of this section and conducting inspections 39138
under division (C) of this section. All such plan review and 39139
inspection fees received by the director shall be transmitted to 39140
the treasurer of state and shall be credited to the general 39141
operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. 39142
Moneys so credited to the fund shall be used only for the purpose 39143
of administering and enforcing this chapter and rules adopted 39144
under it.39145

       (F) Plan approvals issued under this section do not 39146
constitute an exemption from the land use and building 39147
requirements of the political subdivision in which the 39148
recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, or combined park-camp 39149
is or is to be located.39150

       Sec. 3729.04.  (A) No person shall cause development to occur 39151
within any portion of a recreational vehicle park, recreation 39152
camp, combined park-camp, or temporary park-camp that is located 39153
within a one-hundred-year flood plain in a municipal corporation 39154
unless the person first obtains a permit therefor from the 39155
municipal corporation in accordance with the flood plain 39156
management ordinance of the municipal corporation.39157

       (B) No person shall cause development to occur within any 39158
portion of a recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, combined 39159
park-camp, or temporary park-camp that is located within a 39160
one-hundred-year flood plain in an unincorporated area unless the 39161
person first obtains a permit therefor from the board of county 39162
commissioners of the county in which the development is to occur 39163
in accordance with the flood plain management resolution of the 39164
county adopted under section 307.37 of the Revised Code.39165

       (C) If development for which a permit is required under 39166
division (A) or (B) of this section is to occur on a site where a 39167
recreational vehicle or portable camping unit is or is to be 39168
located, the owner of the recreational vehicle or portable camping 39169
unit and the operator of the recreational vehicle park, recreation 39170
camp, or combined park-camp shall jointly obtain the permit. Each 39171
of the persons to whom a permit is jointly issued is responsible 39172
for compliance with the provisions of the approved permit that are 39173
applicable to that person.39174

       If development for which a permit is required under division 39175
(A) or (B) of this section is to occur within a temporary 39176
park-camp on a site where a recreational vehicle or portable 39177
camping unit is or is to be located, the owner of the temporary 39178
park-camp shall obtain the permit.39179

       (D) Fees established by a municipal corporation or county for 39180
the issuance of permits under division (A) or (B) of this section 39181
are not subject to regulation by the publicdirector of health39182
council.39183

       Sec. 3729.07.  The licensor of a recreational vehicle park, 39184
recreation camp, or combined park-camp may charge a fee for an 39185
annual license to operate such a park, camp, or park-camp. In the 39186
case of a temporary park-camp, the licensor may charge a fee for a 39187
license to operate the temporary park-camp for the period 39188
specified in division (A) of section 3729.05 of the Revised Code. 39189
The fees for both types of licenses shall be determined in 39190
accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code and shall 39191
include the cost of licensing and all inspections.39192

       Except for the fee for a temporary park-camp license, the fee 39193
also shall include any additional amount determined by rule of the 39194
publicdirector of health council, which shall be collected and 39195
transmitted by the board of health to the director of health39196
pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code and used only for 39197
the purpose of administering and enforcing this chapter and rules 39198
adopted under it. The portion of any fee retained by the board of 39199
health shall be paid into a special fund and used only for the 39200
purpose of administering and enforcing this chapter and rules 39201
adopted under it.39202

       Sec. 3729.08.  The licensor of the health district in which a 39203
recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, combined park-camp, or 39204
temporary park-camp is or is to be located, in accordance with 39205
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may refuse to grant, may 39206
suspend, or may revoke any license granted to any person for 39207
failure to comply with this chapter or with any rule adopted by 39208
the publicdirector of health council under section 3729.02 of the 39209
Revised Code.39210

       Sec. 3730.10.  (A) Not later than ninety days after the 39211
effective date of this section, the publicThe director of health 39212
council shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 39213
Revised Code as necessary for the implementation and enforcement 39214
of this chapter. The rules shall include all of the following:39215

       (1) Safety and sanitation standards and procedures to be 39216
followed to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases during 39217
the performance of tattooing and body piercing procedures;39218

       (2) Standards and procedures to be followed for appropriate 39219
disinfection and sterilization of all invasive equipment or parts 39220
of equipment used in tattooing procedures, body piercing 39221
procedures, and ear piercing procedures performed with an ear 39222
piercing gun;39223

       (3) Procedures for suspending and revoking approvals under 39224
section 3730.05 of the Revised Code.39225

       (B) The rules adopted under division (A)(1) of this section 39226
shall establish universal blood and body fluid precautions to be 39227
used by any individual who performs tattooing or body piercing 39228
procedures. The precautions shall include all of the following:39229

       (1) The appropriate use of hand washing;39230

       (2) The handling and disposal of all needles and other sharp 39231
instruments used in tattooing or body piercing procedures;39232

       (3) The wearing and disposal of gloves and other protective 39233
garments and devices.39234

       (C) The rules adopted under division (A) of this section may 39235
include standards and procedures to be followed by a business that 39236
offers tattooing or body piercing services to ensure that the 39237
individuals who perform tattooing or body piercing procedures for 39238
the business are adequately trained to perform the procedures 39239
properly.39240

       Sec. 3733.41.  As used in sections 3733.41 to 3733.49 of the 39241
Revised Code:39242

       (A) "Agricultural labor camp" means one or more buildings or 39243
structures, trailers, tents, or vehicles, together with any land 39244
appertaining thereto, established, operated, or used as temporary 39245
living quarters for two or more families or five or more persons 39246
intending to engage in or engaged in agriculture or related food 39247
processing, whether occupancy is by rent, lease, or mutual 39248
agreement. "Agricultural labor camp" does not include a hotel or 39249
motel, or a manufactured home park regulated pursuant to section 39250
3733.01sections 4781.26 to 4781.52 of the Revised Code, and rules 39251
adopted thereunder.39252

       (B) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or 39253
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 39254
board of health in any city as authorized by section 3709.05 of 39255
the Revised Code or an authorized representative of the board of 39256
health.39257

       (C) "Director" means the director of the department of health 39258
or the authorized representative of the director of health.39259

       (D) "Licensor" means the director of health.39260

       (E) "Person" means the state, any political subdivision, 39261
public or private corporation, partnership, association, trust, 39262
individual, or other entity.39263

       (F) "Public health council" means the public health council 39264
as created by section 3701.33 of the Revised Code.39265

       Sec. 3733.42.  The publicdirector of health council, subject 39266
to sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code, shall adopt 39267
rules having a uniform application throughout the state, governing 39268
the issuance of licenses, location, layout, construction, approval 39269
of plans, sanitation, safety, operation, use, and maintenance of 39270
agricultural labor camps. The rules shall establish minimum 39271
standards of habitability with which a licensee shall comply in 39272
operating an agricultural labor camp. The rules shall establish, 39273
beyond minimum standards of habitability, additional standards of 39274
habitability for those camps and shall establish priorities for 39275
those additional standards with which a licensee may voluntary39276
voluntarily comply.39277

       In addition to meeting the requirements of section 119.03 of 39278
the Revised Code, the director of health shall mail a notice of 39279
the date, time, and place of any hearing on the adoption, 39280
amendment, or rescission of such rules and the full text of the 39281
proposed rule, amendment, or rule to be rescinded, at least thirty 39282
days prior to the hearing date, to all persons currently 39283
authorized or licensed to operate camps by the department of 39284
health, or authorized or licensed to operate camps in the previous 39285
calendar year.39286

       Sec. 3734.01.  As used in this chapter:39287

       (A) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or 39288
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 39289
board of health in any city as authorized by section 3709.05 of 39290
the Revised Code.39291

       (B) "Director" means the director of environmental 39292
protection.39293

       (C) "Health district" means a city or general health district 39294
as created by or under authority of Chapter 3709. of the Revised 39295
Code.39296

       (D) "Agency" means the environmental protection agency.39297

       (E) "Solid wastes" means such unwanted residual solid or 39298
semisolid material as results from industrial, commercial, 39299
agricultural, and community operations, excluding earth or 39300
material from construction, mining, or demolition operations, or 39301
other waste materials of the type that normally would be included 39302
in demolition debris, nontoxic fly ash and bottom ash, including 39303
at least ash that results from the combustion of coal and ash that 39304
results from the combustion of coal in combination with scrap 39305
tires where scrap tires comprise not more than fifty per cent of 39306
heat input in any month, spent nontoxic foundry sand, and slag and 39307
other substances that are not harmful or inimical to public 39308
health, and includes, but is not limited to, garbage, scrap tires, 39309
combustible and noncombustible material, street dirt, and debris. 39310
"Solid wastes" does not include any material that is an infectious 39311
waste or a hazardous waste.39312

       (F) "Disposal" means the discharge, deposit, injection, 39313
dumping, spilling, leaking, emitting, or placing of any solid 39314
wastes or hazardous waste into or on any land or ground or surface 39315
water or into the air, except if the disposition or placement 39316
constitutes storage or treatment or, if the solid wastes consist 39317
of scrap tires, the disposition or placement constitutes a 39318
beneficial use or occurs at a scrap tire recovery facility 39319
licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code.39320

       (G) "Person" includes the state, any political subdivision 39321
and other state or local body, the United States and any agency or 39322
instrumentality thereof, and any legal entity defined as a person 39323
under section 1.59 of the Revised Code.39324

       (H) "Open burning" means the burning of solid wastes in an 39325
open area or burning of solid wastes in a type of chamber or 39326
vessel that is not approved or authorized in rules adopted by the 39327
director under section 3734.02 of the Revised Code or, if the 39328
solid wastes consist of scrap tires, in rules adopted under 39329
division (V) of this section or section 3734.73 of the Revised 39330
Code, or the burning of treated or untreated infectious wastes in 39331
an open area or in a type of chamber or vessel that is not 39332
approved in rules adopted by the director under section 3734.021 39333
of the Revised Code.39334

       (I) "Open dumping" means the depositing of solid wastes into 39335
a body or stream of water or onto the surface of the ground at a 39336
site that is not licensed as a solid waste facility under section 39337
3734.05 of the Revised Code or, if the solid wastes consist of 39338
scrap tires, as a scrap tire collection, storage, monocell, 39339
monofill, or recovery facility under section 3734.81 of the 39340
Revised Code; the depositing of solid wastes that consist of scrap 39341
tires onto the surface of the ground at a site or in a manner not 39342
specifically identified in divisions (C)(2) to (5), (7), or (10) 39343
of section 3734.85 of the Revised Code; the depositing of 39344
untreated infectious wastes into a body or stream of water or onto 39345
the surface of the ground; or the depositing of treated infectious 39346
wastes into a body or stream of water or onto the surface of the 39347
ground at a site that is not licensed as a solid waste facility 39348
under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code.39349

       (J) "Hazardous waste" means any waste or combination of 39350
wastes in solid, liquid, semisolid, or contained gaseous form that 39351
in the determination of the director, because of its quantity, 39352
concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, may do 39353
either of the following:39354

       (1) Cause or significantly contribute to an increase in 39355
mortality or an increase in serious irreversible or incapacitating 39356
reversible illness;39357

       (2) Pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human 39358
health or safety or to the environment when improperly stored, 39359
treated, transported, disposed of, or otherwise managed.39360

       "Hazardous waste" includes any substance identified by 39361
regulation as hazardous waste under the "Resource Conservation and 39362
Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as 39363
amended, and does not include any substance that is subject to the 39364
"Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 68 Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as 39365
amended.39366

       (K) "Treat" or "treatment," when used in connection with 39367
hazardous waste, means any method, technique, or process designed 39368
to change the physical, chemical, or biological characteristics or 39369
composition of any hazardous waste; to neutralize the waste; to 39370
recover energy or material resources from the waste; to render the 39371
waste nonhazardous or less hazardous, safer to transport, store, 39372
or dispose of, or amenable for recovery, storage, further 39373
treatment, or disposal; or to reduce the volume of the waste. When 39374
used in connection with infectious wastes, "treat" or "treatment" 39375
means any method, technique, or process designed to render the 39376
wastes noninfectious, including, without limitation, steam 39377
sterilization and incineration, or, in the instance of wastes 39378
identified in division (R)(7) of this section, to substantially 39379
reduce or eliminate the potential for the wastes to cause 39380
lacerations or puncture wounds.39381

       (L) "Manifest" means the form used for identifying the 39382
quantity, composition, origin, routing, and destination of 39383
hazardous waste during its transportation from the point of 39384
generation to the point of disposal, treatment, or storage.39385

       (M) "Storage," when used in connection with hazardous waste, 39386
means the holding of hazardous waste for a temporary period in 39387
such a manner that it remains retrievable and substantially 39388
unchanged physically and chemically and, at the end of the period, 39389
is treated; disposed of; stored elsewhere; or reused, recycled, or 39390
reclaimed in a beneficial manner. When used in connection with 39391
solid wastes that consist of scrap tires, "storage" means the 39392
holding of scrap tires for a temporary period in such a manner 39393
that they remain retrievable and, at the end of that period, are 39394
beneficially used; stored elsewhere; placed in a scrap tire 39395
monocell or monofill facility licensed under section 3734.81 of 39396
the Revised Code; processed at a scrap tire recovery facility 39397
licensed under that section or a solid waste incineration or 39398
energy recovery facility subject to regulation under this chapter; 39399
or transported to a scrap tire monocell, monofill, or recovery 39400
facility, any other solid waste facility authorized to dispose of 39401
scrap tires, or a facility that will beneficially use the scrap 39402
tires, that is located in another state and is operating in 39403
compliance with the laws of the state in which the facility is 39404
located.39405

       (N) "Facility" means any site, location, tract of land, 39406
installation, or building used for incineration, composting, 39407
sanitary landfilling, or other methods of disposal of solid wastes 39408
or, if the solid wastes consist of scrap tires, for the 39409
collection, storage, or processing of the solid wastes; for the 39410
transfer of solid wastes; for the treatment of infectious wastes; 39411
or for the storage, treatment, or disposal of hazardous waste.39412

       (O) "Closure" means the time at which a hazardous waste 39413
facility will no longer accept hazardous waste for treatment, 39414
storage, or disposal, the time at which a solid waste facility 39415
will no longer accept solid wastes for transfer or disposal or, if 39416
the solid wastes consist of scrap tires, for storage or 39417
processing, or the effective date of an order revoking the permit 39418
for a hazardous waste facility or the registration certificate, 39419
permit, or license for a solid waste facility, as applicable. 39420
"Closure" includes measures performed to protect public health or 39421
safety, to prevent air or water pollution, or to make the facility 39422
suitable for other uses, if any, including, but not limited to, 39423
the removal of processing residues resulting from solid wastes 39424
that consist of scrap tires; the establishment and maintenance of 39425
a suitable cover of soil and vegetation over cells in which 39426
hazardous waste or solid wastes are buried; minimization of 39427
erosion, the infiltration of surface water into such cells, the 39428
production of leachate, and the accumulation and runoff of 39429
contaminated surface water; the final construction of facilities 39430
for the collection and treatment of leachate and contaminated 39431
surface water runoff, except as otherwise provided in this 39432
division; the final construction of air and water quality 39433
monitoring facilities, except as otherwise provided in this 39434
division; the final construction of methane gas extraction and 39435
treatment systems; or the removal and proper disposal of hazardous 39436
waste or solid wastes from a facility when necessary to protect 39437
public health or safety or to abate or prevent air or water 39438
pollution. With regard to a solid waste facility that is a scrap 39439
tire facility, "closure" includes the final construction of 39440
facilities for the collection and treatment of leachate and 39441
contaminated surface water runoff and the final construction of 39442
air and water quality monitoring facilities only if those actions 39443
are determined to be necessary.39444

       (P) "Premises" means either of the following:39445

       (1) Geographically contiguous property owned by a generator;39446

       (2) Noncontiguous property that is owned by a generator and 39447
connected by a right-of-way that the generator controls and to 39448
which the public does not have access. Two or more pieces of 39449
property that are geographically contiguous and divided by public 39450
or private right-of-way or rights-of-way are a single premises.39451

       (Q) "Post-closure" means that period of time following 39452
closure during which a hazardous waste facility is required to be 39453
monitored and maintained under this chapter and rules adopted 39454
under it, including, without limitation, operation and maintenance 39455
of methane gas extraction and treatment systems, or the period of 39456
time after closure during which a scrap tire monocell or monofill 39457
facility licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code is 39458
required to be monitored and maintained under this chapter and 39459
rules adopted under it.39460

       (R) "Infectious wastes" includes all of the following 39461
substances or categories of substances:39462

       (1) Cultures and stocks of infectious agents and associated 39463
biologicals, including, without limitation, specimen cultures, 39464
cultures and stocks of infectious agents, wastes from production 39465
of biologicals, and discarded live and attenuated vaccines;39466

       (2) Laboratory wastes that were, or are likely to have been, 39467
in contact with infectious agents that may present a substantial 39468
threat to public health if improperly managed;39469

       (3) Pathological wastes, including, without limitation, human 39470
and animal tissues, organs, and body parts, and body fluids and 39471
excreta that are contaminated with or are likely to be 39472
contaminated with infectious agents, removed or obtained during 39473
surgery or autopsy or for diagnostic evaluation, provided that, 39474
with regard to pathological wastes from animals, the animals have 39475
or are likely to have been exposed to a zoonotic or infectious 39476
agent;39477

       (4) Waste materials from the rooms of humans, or the 39478
enclosures of animals, that have been isolated because of 39479
diagnosed communicable disease that are likely to transmit 39480
infectious agents. Such waste materials from the rooms of humans 39481
do not include any wastes of patients who have been placed on 39482
blood and body fluid precautions under the universal precaution 39483
system established by the centers for disease control in the 39484
public health service of the United States department of health 39485
and human services, except to the extent specific wastes generated 39486
under the universal precautions system have been identified as 39487
infectious wastes by rules adopted under division (R)(8) of this 39488
section.39489

       (5) Human and animal blood specimens and blood products that 39490
are being disposed of, provided that, with regard to blood 39491
specimens and blood products from animals, the animals were or are 39492
likely to have been exposed to a zoonotic or infectious agent. 39493
"Blood products" does not include patient care waste such as 39494
bandages or disposable gowns that are lightly soiled with blood or 39495
other body fluids unless those wastes are soiled to the extent 39496
that the generator of the wastes determines that they should be 39497
managed as infectious wastes.39498

       (6) Contaminated carcasses, body parts, and bedding of 39499
animals that were intentionally exposed to infectious agents from 39500
zoonotic or human diseases during research, production of 39501
biologicals, or testing of pharmaceuticals, and carcasses and 39502
bedding of animals otherwise infected by zoonotic or infectious 39503
agents that may present a substantial threat to public health if 39504
improperly managed;39505

       (7) Sharp wastes used in the treatment, diagnosis, or 39506
inoculation of human beings or animals or that have, or are likely 39507
to have, come in contact with infectious agents in medical, 39508
research, or industrial laboratories, including, without 39509
limitation, hypodermic needles and syringes, scalpel blades, and 39510
glass articles that have been broken;39511

       (8) Any other waste materials generated in the diagnosis, 39512
treatment, or immunization of human beings or animals, in research 39513
pertaining thereto, or in the production or testing of 39514
biologicals, that the publicdirector of health council created in 39515
section 3701.33 of the Revised Code, by rules adopted in 39516
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, identifies as 39517
infectious wastes after determining that the wastes present a 39518
substantial threat to human health when improperly managed because 39519
they are contaminated with, or are likely to be contaminated with, 39520
infectious agents.39521

       (S) "Infectious agent" means a type of microorganism, 39522
helminth, or virus that causes, or significantly contributes to 39523
the cause of, increased morbidity or mortality of human beings.39524

       (T) "Zoonotic agent" means a type of microorganism, helminth, 39525
or virus that causes disease in vertebrate animals and that is 39526
transmissible to human beings and causes or significantly 39527
contributes to the cause of increased morbidity or mortality of 39528
human beings.39529

       (U) "Solid waste transfer facility" means any site, location, 39530
tract of land, installation, or building that is used or intended 39531
to be used primarily for the purpose of transferring solid wastes 39532
that were generated off the premises of the facility from vehicles 39533
or containers into other vehicles for transportation to a solid 39534
waste disposal facility. "Solid waste transfer facility" does not 39535
include any facility that consists solely of portable containers 39536
that have an aggregate volume of fifty cubic yards or less nor any 39537
facility where legitimate recycling activities are conducted.39538

       (V) "Beneficially use" means to use a scrap tire in a manner 39539
that results in a commodity for sale or exchange or in any other 39540
manner authorized as a beneficial use in rules adopted by the 39541
director in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.39542

       (W) "Commercial car," "commercial tractor," "farm machinery," 39543
"motor bus," "vehicles," "motor vehicle," and "semitrailer" have 39544
the same meanings as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.39545

       (X) "Construction equipment" means road rollers, traction 39546
engines, power shovels, power cranes, and other equipment used in 39547
construction work, or in mining or producing or processing 39548
aggregates, and not designed for or used in general highway 39549
transportation.39550

       (Y) "Motor vehicle salvage dealer" has the same meaning as in 39551
section 4738.01 of the Revised Code.39552

       (Z) "Scrap tire" means an unwanted or discarded tire.39553

       (AA) "Scrap tire collection facility" means any facility that 39554
meets all of the following qualifications:39555

       (1) The facility is used for the receipt and storage of whole 39556
scrap tires from the public prior to their transportation to a 39557
scrap tire storage, monocell, monofill, or recovery facility 39558
licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code; a solid waste 39559
incineration or energy recovery facility subject to regulation 39560
under this chapter; a premises within the state where the scrap 39561
tires will be beneficially used; or a scrap tire storage, 39562
monocell, monofill, or recovery facility, any other solid waste 39563
disposal facility authorized to dispose of scrap tires, or a 39564
facility that will beneficially use the scrap tires, that is 39565
located in another state, and that is operating in compliance with 39566
the laws of the state in which the facility is located.39567

       (2) The facility exclusively stores scrap tires in portable 39568
containers.39569

       (3) The aggregate storage of the portable containers in which 39570
the scrap tires are stored does not exceed five thousand cubic 39571
feet.39572

       (BB) "Scrap tire monocell facility" means an individual site 39573
within a solid waste landfill that is used exclusively for the 39574
environmentally sound storage or disposal of whole scrap tires or 39575
scrap tires that have been shredded, chipped, or otherwise 39576
mechanically processed.39577

       (CC) "Scrap tire monofill facility" means an engineered 39578
facility used or intended to be used exclusively for the storage 39579
or disposal of scrap tires, including at least facilities for the 39580
submergence of whole scrap tires in a body of water.39581

       (DD) "Scrap tire recovery facility" means any facility, or 39582
portion thereof, for the processing of scrap tires for the purpose 39583
of extracting or producing usable products, materials, or energy 39584
from the scrap tires through a controlled combustion process, 39585
mechanical process, or chemical process. "Scrap tire recovery 39586
facility" includes any facility that uses the controlled 39587
combustion of scrap tires in a manufacturing process to produce 39588
process heat or steam or any facility that produces usable heat or 39589
electric power through the controlled combustion of scrap tires in 39590
combination with another fuel, but does not include any solid 39591
waste incineration or energy recovery facility that is designed, 39592
constructed, and used for the primary purpose of incinerating 39593
mixed municipal solid wastes and that burns scrap tires in 39594
conjunction with mixed municipal solid wastes, or any tire 39595
retreading business, tire manufacturing finishing center, or tire 39596
adjustment center having on the premises of the business a single, 39597
covered scrap tire storage area at which not more than four 39598
thousand scrap tires are stored.39599

       (EE) "Scrap tire storage facility" means any facility where 39600
whole scrap tires are stored prior to their transportation to a 39601
scrap tire monocell, monofill, or recovery facility licensed under 39602
section 3734.81 of the Revised Code; a solid waste incineration or 39603
energy recovery facility subject to regulation under this chapter; 39604
a premises within the state where the scrap tires will be 39605
beneficially used; or a scrap tire storage, monocell, monofill, or 39606
recovery facility, any other solid waste disposal facility 39607
authorized to dispose of scrap tires, or a facility that will 39608
beneficially use the scrap tires, that is located in another 39609
state, and that is operating in compliance with the laws of the 39610
state in which the facility is located.39611

       (FF) "Used oil" means any oil that has been refined from 39612
crude oil, or any synthetic oil, that has been used and, as a 39613
result of that use, is contaminated by physical or chemical 39614
impurities. "Used oil" includes only those substances identified 39615
as used oil by the United States environmental protection agency 39616
under the "Used Oil Recycling Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2055, 42 39617
U.S.C.A. 6901a, as amended.39618

       (GG) "Accumulated speculatively" has the same meaning as in 39619
rules adopted by the director under section 3734.12 of the Revised 39620
Code.39621

       Sec. 3734.131.  (A)(1) Except as provided in divisions (D)(1) 39622
and (2) of this section, no person shall transport any solid 39623
wastes from outside this state to a solid waste facility in this 39624
state unless that person has first irrevocably consented in 39625
writing to the jurisdiction of the courts of this state and 39626
service of process in this state, including, without limitation, 39627
summonses and subpoenas, for any civil or criminal proceeding 39628
arising out of or relating to the wastes that are shipped to a 39629
facility in this state.39630

       (2) The original of the consent-to-jurisdiction document 39631
shall be legible and shall be filed with the director of 39632
environmental protection on a form provided by the director. A 39633
legible copy of the completed document shall be filed with the 39634
owner or operator of each solid waste facility to which the wastes 39635
are transported. A consent-to-jurisdiction document applies only 39636
to shipments into this state of wastes described in division 39637
(A)(1) of this section.39638

       (3) All consent-to-jurisdiction documents required under 39639
division (A)(1) or (3) of this section shall be refiled during the 39640
month of December, 1995, and during the month of December of every 39641
fourth year thereafter. Except as provided in division (D)(1) of 39642
this section, after December 31, 1995, or after the thirty-first 39643
day of December of every fourth year thereafter, whichever is 39644
applicable, no person shall continue to transport any solid wastes 39645
from outside this state to a solid waste facility in this state 39646
unless the person refiles with the director and the owner or 39647
operator of each facility to which the wastes are transported 39648
consent-to-jurisdiction documents, in the manner prescribed in 39649
division (A)(2) of this section, during the month of December next 39650
preceding the period for which the refiled document is required.39651

       (4) If the address of a person changes from that listed on 39652
the current consent-to-jurisdiction document filed under division 39653
(A)(1) or (3) of this section, the person shall file amended 39654
consent-to-jurisdiction documents containing the new address with 39655
the director and the owner or operator of each facility to which 39656
the wastes are transported.39657

       (5)(a) Except as provided in division (D)(1) of this section, 39658
no person identified in divisions (D)(2)(a) to (d) of this section 39659
shall transport any solid wastes from outside this state to a 39660
solid waste facility in this state unless the person has first 39661
filed a notification and authorization document naming the 39662
person's agent who is authorized to accept service of process in 39663
this state, including, without limitation, summonses and 39664
subpoenas, for any civil or criminal proceeding arising out of or 39665
relating to the wastes that are shipped to a facility in this 39666
state.39667

       The original of the notification and authorization document 39668
shall be legible and shall be filed with the director on a form 39669
provided by the director. A legible copy of the completed document 39670
shall be filed with the owner or operator of each solid waste 39671
facility to which the wastes are transported.39672

       (b) All notification and authorization documents required 39673
under division (A)(5) of this section shall be refiled during the 39674
month of December, 1995, and during the month of December of every 39675
fourth year thereafter. Except as provided in division (D)(1) of 39676
this section, after December 31, 1995, or after the thirty-first 39677
day of December of every fourth year thereafter, whichever is 39678
applicable, no person identified in divisions (D)(2)(a) to (d) of 39679
this section shall continue to transport any solid wastes from 39680
outside this state to a solid waste facility in this state unless 39681
the person refiles with the director and the owner or operator of 39682
each facility to which the wastes are transported notification and 39683
authorization documents, in the manner prescribed in division 39684
(A)(5)(a) of this section, during the month of December next 39685
preceding the period for which the refiled document is required.39686

       (c) If a person's agent or the address of a person's agent 39687
changes from that listed on the current notification and 39688
authorization document filed under division (A)(5)(a) or (b) of 39689
this section, the person shall file amended notification and 39690
authorization documents containing the name and address of the new 39691
agent or the agent's new address with the director and the owner 39692
or operator of each facility to which the wastes are transported.39693

       (B) A person who enters this state pursuant to a summons, 39694
subpoena, or other form of process authorized by this section is 39695
not subject to arrest or the service of process, whether civil or 39696
criminal, in connection with other matters that arose before his 39697
entrance into this state pursuant to the summons, subpoena, or 39698
other form of process authorized by this section.39699

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(1) of this section, 39700
no owner, operator, or employee of a solid waste facility shall 39701
accept for treatment, transfer, storage, or disposal at the 39702
facility any solid wastes from outside the boundaries of this 39703
state unless the facility has received a copy of the 39704
consent-to-jurisdiction document or notification and authorization 39705
document required under this section and applicable to the wastes.39706

       (2) The owner or operator of a solid waste facility shall 39707
keep the consent-to-jurisdiction documents and the notification 39708
and authorization documents filed with him under this section at 39709
the facility in such a location and manner that they are readily 39710
accessible to the director or his authorized representative, and 39711
the board of health having jurisdiction over the facility and its 39712
authorized representative, for the purposes of sections 3734.07 39713
and 3734.10 of the Revised Code.39714

       (D)(1) Divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section do not 39715
apply to the transportation, transfer, or disposal of solid wastes 39716
from residential premises located less than ten miles outside the 39717
boundaries of this state.39718

       (2) Divisions (A)(1) to (4) of this section do not apply to 39719
any of the following:39720

       (a) A corporation incorporated under the laws of this state 39721
that has appointed a statutory agent pursuant to section 1701.07 39722
of the Revised Code;39723

       (b) A foreign corporation licensed to transact business in 39724
this state that has appointed a designated agent pursuant to 39725
section 1703.041 of the Revised Code;39726

       (c) A nonresident motor carrier that has designated an agent 39727
pursuant to, as defined in section 4919.774923.01 of the Revised 39728
Code, that is a nonresident;39729

       (d) Any other person who is a resident of this state.39730

       Sec. 3734.15.  (A) No person shall transport hazardous waste 39731
anywhere in this state unless hethe person has first registered 39732
with and obtained a uniform permit from the public utilities 39733
commission in accordance with section 4905.80Chapter 4921. of the 39734
Revised Code.39735

       For the purposes of this section, "registered transporter" 39736
means any person who is registered with and has received a uniform 39737
permit from the public utilities commission pursuant to section 39738
4905.80Chapter 4921. of the Revised Code.39739

       (B) A registered transporter of hazardous waste shall be 39740
responsible for the safe delivery of any hazardous waste that he39741
the registered transporter transports from such time as hethe 39742
registered transporter obtains the waste until hethe registered 39743
transporter delivers it to a treatment, storage, or disposal 39744
facility specified in division (F) of section 3734.02 of the 39745
Revised Code, as recorded on the manifest required in division (B) 39746
of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code. Any registered transporter 39747
who violates this chapter or any rule adopted under the chapter 39748
while transporting hazardous waste shall be liable for any damage 39749
or injury caused by the violation and for the costs of rectifying 39750
the violation and conditions caused by the violation.39751

       (C) No person who generates hazardous waste shall cause the 39752
waste to be transported by any person who is not a registered 39753
transporter. No person shall accept for treatment, storage, or 39754
disposal any hazardous waste from an unregistered transporter. Any 39755
person who is requested to accept such waste for treatment, 39756
storage, or disposal shall notify the director, the board of 39757
health in histhe person's location, and the public utilities 39758
commission of the request.39759

       If a generator causes an unregistered transporter to 39760
transport the hazardous waste, the generator of the waste, the 39761
transporter, and any person who accepts the waste for treatment, 39762
storage, or disposal shall be jointly and severally liable for any 39763
damage or injury caused by the handling of the waste and for the 39764
costs of rectifying their violation and conditions caused by their 39765
violation.39766

       Sec. 3734.51.  There is hereby created within the 39767
environmental protection agency the solid waste management 39768
advisory council consisting of the directors of environmental 39769
protection,and development, and natural resources, or their 39770
designees, as members ex officio, one member of the senate to be 39771
appointed by the president of the senate, one member of the house 39772
of representatives to be appointed by the speaker of the house of 39773
representatives, and fourteen members to be appointed by the 39774
governor with the advice and consent of the senate. Of the 39775
appointed members, one shall be an employee of a health district 39776
whose duties include enforcement of the solid waste provisions of 39777
this chapter, two shall represent the interests of counties, two 39778
shall represent the interests of municipal corporations, two shall 39779
represent the interests of townships, one shall represent the 39780
interests of county solid waste management districts, one shall 39781
represent the interests of joint solid waste management districts, 39782
one shall represent the interests of industrial generators of 39783
solid wastes, one shall be from the private recycling industry, 39784
one shall be from the private solid waste management industry, one 39785
shall be from a statewide environmental advocacy organization, and 39786
one shall represent the public. Within ninety days after June 24, 39787
1988, the governor shall make the initial appointments to the 39788
advisory council. Of those initial appointments, six shall be for 39789
a term ending June 24, 1989, and six shall be for a term ending 39790
June 24, 1990. The governor shall make the initial appointments to 39791
the advisory council of the members representing county and joint 39792
solid waste management districts within ninety days after the 39793
effective date of this amendment. Of the initial appointments of 39794
the members representing solid waste management districts, one 39795
shall be for a term ending June 24, 1993, and one shall be for a 39796
term ending June 24, 1994. Thereafter, termsTerms of office shall 39797
be for two years with each term ending on the same day of the same 39798
month as did the term that it succeeds. Each member shall hold 39799
office from the date of his appointment until the end of the term 39800
for which hethe member was appointed. Members may be reappointed. 39801
Vacancies shall be filled in the manner provided for original 39802
appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 39803
prior to the expiration of the term for which histhe member's39804
predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of 39805
that term. A member shall continue in office subsequent to the 39806
expiration of histhe member's term or until a period of sixty 39807
days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.39808

       The advisory council shall hold at least four regular 39809
quarterly meetings each year. Special meetings may be held at the 39810
behest of the chairmanchairperson or a majority of the members. 39811
The director of environmental protection shall serve as chairman39812
chairperson of the advisory council. The advisory council annually 39813
shall select from among its members a vice-chairmanchairperson39814
and a secretary to keep a record of its proceedings. A majority 39815
vote of the members of the advisory council is necessary to take 39816
action on any matter.39817

       Serving as an appointed member of the advisory council does 39818
not constitute holding a public office or position of employment 39819
under the laws of this state and does not constitute grounds for 39820
removal of public officers or employees from their offices or 39821
positions of employment. The governor may remove an appointed 39822
member of the advisory council at any time for misfeasance, 39823
nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office.39824

       Appointed members of the advisory council shall serve without 39825
compensation for attending council meetings. Members of the 39826
advisory council shall be reimbursed for their actual and 39827
necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties as 39828
members of the council from moneys appropriated to the 39829
environmental protection agency for administration and enforcement 39830
of the solid waste provisions of this chapter.39831

       The advisory council shall do all of the following:39832

       (A) Advise and assist the director of environmental 39833
protection with preparation of the state solid waste management 39834
plan and periodic revisions to the plan under section 3734.50 of 39835
the Revised Code;39836

       (B) Approve or disapprove the draft state solid waste 39837
management plan and periodic revisions prior to adoption of the 39838
plan under section 3734.50 of the Revised Code;39839

       (C) Annually review implementation of the state solid waste 39840
management plan and the solid waste management plans of county and 39841
joint solid waste management districts approved or ordered to be 39842
implemented under section 3734.521 or 3734.55 of the Revised Code 39843
or amendments to those plans approved or ordered to be implemented 39844
under section 3734.521 or 3734.56 of the Revised Code, and report 39845
its findings to the director.39846

       Sec. 3734.55.  (A) Upon completion of its draft solid waste 39847
management plan under section 3734.54 of the Revised Code, the 39848
solid waste management policy committee of a county or joint solid 39849
waste management district shall send a copy of the draft plan to 39850
the director of environmental protection for preliminary review 39851
and comment. Within forty-five days after receiving the draft 39852
plan, the director shall provide the committee with a written, 39853
nonbinding advisory opinion regarding the draft plan and any 39854
recommended changes to it that the director considers necessary to 39855
effect its approval. After receipt of the director's written 39856
opinion, the committee may make such revisions to the draft plan 39857
based on the director's opinion as it considers appropriate. Upon 39858
receipt of the director's opinion and after making any such 39859
revisions to the draft plan, the committee shall prepare and 39860
publish in at least one newspaper of general circulation within 39861
the county or joint district a public notice that describes the 39862
draft plan, specifies the location where it is available for 39863
review, and establishes a period of thirty days for comments 39864
concerning the draft plan. The committee shall send written notice 39865
of the draft plan to adjacent county and joint districts and shall 39866
make it available for review by those districts, by the board of 39867
county commissioners of each county forming the district, by all 39868
municipal corporations and townships within the county or joint 39869
district, and by the public. The committee also shall send written 39870
notice of the plan to the director and to the fifty industrial, 39871
commercial, or institutional generators of solid wastes within the 39872
district that generate the largest quantities of solid wastes, as 39873
determined by the board, and their local trade associations. The 39874
board shall make good faith efforts to identify those generators 39875
within the district and their local trade associations, but the 39876
nonprovision of notice under this division to a particular 39877
industrial, commercial, or institutional generator or local trade 39878
association does not invalidate the proceedings under this 39879
section. All such written notices shall include the date, time, 39880
and location of the public hearing; the dates when the comment 39881
period begins and ends; and a description of the plan that 39882
includes, without limitation, the proposed amount of the fees to 39883
be levied under the plan pursuant to division (B) of section 39884
3734.57 or division (A) of section 3734.573 of the Revised Code, 39885
if any, and an indication as to whether the provision required to 39886
be included in the plan under division (E)(1) of section 3734.53 39887
of the Revised Code authorizes the board of county commissioners 39888
or directors of the district to establish, or precludes the board 39889
from establishing, facility designations under section 343.014 of 39890
the Revised Code. Within fifteen days after expiration of the 39891
comment period, the committee shall conduct a public hearing 39892
concerning the draft plan and, at least fifteen days before the 39893
hearing, shall publish in at least one newspaper of general 39894
circulation within the county or joint district a notice 39895
containing the time and place of the hearing and the location 39896
where the draft plan is available for review.39897

       (B) After the public hearing, the committee may modify the 39898
draft plan based upon the public's comments and shall adopt or 39899
reject it by a majority vote. Within thirty days after adoption of 39900
the draft plan, the committee shall deliver a copy of it to the 39901
board of county commissioners of each county forming the district 39902
and to the legislative authority of each municipal corporation and 39903
township under the jurisdiction of the district. Within ninety 39904
days after receiving a copy of the draft plan adopted by the 39905
committee, each such board and legislative authority shall approve 39906
or disapprove the draft plan, by ordinance or resolution, and 39907
deliver a copy of the ordinance or resolution to the committee.39908

       The solid waste management policy committee of a county 39909
district or a joint district formed by two or three counties shall 39910
declare the draft plan to be ratified as the solid waste 39911
management plan of the district upon determining that the board of 39912
county commissioners of each county forming the district has 39913
approved the draft plan and that the legislative authorities of a 39914
combination of municipal corporations and townships with a 39915
combined population within the county or joint district comprising 39916
at least sixty per cent of the total population of the district 39917
have approved the draft plan, provided that in the case of a 39918
county district, that combination shall include the municipal 39919
corporation having the largest population within the boundaries of 39920
the district, and provided further that in the case of a joint 39921
district formed by two or three counties, that combination shall 39922
include for each county forming the joint district the municipal 39923
corporation having the largest population within the boundaries of 39924
both the county in which the municipal corporation is located and 39925
the joint district. The solid waste management policy committee of 39926
a joint district formed by four or more counties shall declare the 39927
draft plan to be ratified as the solid waste management plan of 39928
the joint district upon determining that the boards of county 39929
commissioners of a majority of the counties forming the district 39930
have approved the draft plan; that, in each of a majority of the 39931
counties forming the joint district, the draft plan has been 39932
approved by the municipal corporation having the largest 39933
population within the county and the joint district; and that the 39934
legislative authorities of a combination of municipal corporations 39935
and townships with a combined population within the joint district 39936
comprising at least sixty per cent of the total population of the 39937
joint district have approved the draft plan.39938

       For the purposes of this division and division (C)(2) of this 39939
section, only the population of the unincorporated area of a 39940
township shall be considered. For the purpose of determining the 39941
largest municipal corporation within each county under this 39942
division and division (C)(2) of this section, a municipal 39943
corporation that is located in more than one solid waste 39944
management district, but that is under the jurisdiction of one 39945
county or joint solid waste management district in accordance with 39946
division (A) of section 3734.52 of the Revised Code shall be 39947
considered to be within the boundaries of the county in which a 39948
majority of the population of the municipal corporation resides.39949

       (C)(1) Upon ratification of the draft plan under division (B) 39950
of this section, the committee shall submit it to the director for 39951
review and approval for compliance with the requirements of 39952
divisions (A), (B), (D), and (E)(1) of section 3734.53 of the 39953
Revised Code. The director, by order, shall approve or disapprove 39954
the plan within ninety days after its submission. The director 39955
shall include with an order disapproving a plan a statement 39956
outlining the deficiencies in the plan and directing the committee 39957
to submit, within ninety days after issuance of the order, a 39958
revised plan that remedies those deficiencies, except that if the 39959
committee, by resolution, requests an extension of the time for 39960
submission of a revised plan, the director, for good cause shown, 39961
may grant one such extension for a period of not more than sixty 39962
additional days.39963

       (2) Within sixty days after issuance of the order 39964
disapproving its plan, the committee shall prepare a draft revised 39965
plan, adopt a draft revised plan by a majority vote, and deliver a 39966
copy of the draft revised plan to the board of county 39967
commissioners of each county forming the district and to the 39968
legislative authority of each municipal corporation and township 39969
under the jurisdiction of the district. Within twenty-one days 39970
after the delivery of the draft revised plan, each such board and 39971
legislative authority shall approve or disapprove the draft 39972
revised plan, by ordinance or resolution, and deliver a copy of 39973
the ordinance or resolution to the committee. In the case of a 39974
county district or a joint district formed by two or three 39975
counties, the committee shall declare the draft revised plan to be 39976
ratified as the solid waste management plan of the county or joint 39977
district upon determining that the board of county commissioners 39978
of each county forming the district has approved the draft revised 39979
plan and that the legislative authorities of a combination of 39980
municipal corporations and townships with a combined population 39981
within the district comprising at least sixty per cent of the 39982
total population of the district have approved the draft revised 39983
plan, provided that in the case of a county district, that 39984
combination shall include the municipal corporation having the 39985
largest population within the boundaries of the district, and 39986
provided further that in the case of a joint district formed by 39987
two or three counties, that combination shall include for each 39988
county forming the joint district the municipal corporation having 39989
the largest population within the boundaries of both the county in 39990
which the municipal corporation is located and the joint district. 39991
In the case of a joint district formed by four or more counties, 39992
the committee shall declare the draft revised plan to be ratified 39993
as the solid waste management plan of the joint district upon 39994
determining that the boards of county commissioners of a majority 39995
of the counties forming the district have approved the draft 39996
revised plan; that, in each of a majority of the counties forming 39997
the joint district, the draft revised plan has been approved by 39998
the municipal corporation having the largest population within the 39999
county and the joint district; and that the legislative 40000
authorities of a combination of municipal corporations and 40001
townships with a combined population within the joint district 40002
comprising at least sixty per cent of the total population of the 40003
joint district have approved the draft revised plan. Upon 40004
ratification of the draft revised plan, the committee shall submit 40005
it to the director for approval in accordance with division (C)(1) 40006
of this section. The director, by order, shall approve or 40007
disapprove the draft revised plan within thirty days after 40008
receiving it.40009

       (3) Notwithstanding section 119.06 of the Revised Code, the 40010
director may approve or disapprove a plan or revised plan 40011
submitted under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section by issuance 40012
of a final order that is effective upon issuance, without the 40013
necessity to hold any adjudication hearing in connection with the 40014
order and without issuance of a proposed action under section 40015
3745.07 of the Revised Code. In any appeal taken under section 40016
3745.04 of the Revised Code pertaining to the director's 40017
disapproval of the solid waste management plan or revised plan of 40018
a county or joint district, the solid waste management policy 40019
committee of the county or joint district and the director shall 40020
be the parties. Upon a showing by the policy committee that there 40021
is a substantial likelihood that it will prevail on the merits, 40022
the environmental review appeals commission, within thirty days 40023
after filing of the notice of appeal under that section and 40024
pending final determination of the appeal, may grant temporary 40025
relief from the director's order disapproving the district's plan, 40026
including the issuance of appropriate orders to the director to 40027
refrain from acting under division (D) of this section.40028

       (4) After approval of the plan or revised plan by the 40029
director, the board of county commissioners of a county district 40030
or board of directors of a joint district shall implement the plan 40031
in compliance with the implementation schedule contained in the 40032
approved plan.40033

       The committee annually shall review implementation of the 40034
plan approved under this section or section 3734.521 of the 40035
Revised Code and subsequent amended plans approved under section 40036
3734.521 or 3734.56 of the Revised Code and report its findings 40037
and recommendations regarding implementation of the plan to the 40038
board of county commissioners or board of directors of the 40039
district.40040

       (D) If the director finds that a county or joint solid waste 40041
management district has failed to obtain approval of its solid 40042
waste management plan within eighteen months after the applicable 40043
date prescribed for submission of its plan under division (A) of 40044
section 3734.54 of the Revised Code or within twenty-four months 40045
after that date if the date for submission was extended under that 40046
division, the director shall prepare a solid waste management plan 40047
for the county or joint district that complies with divisions (A) 40048
and (D) of section 3734.53 of the Revised Code. The plan shall not 40049
contain any of the provisions required or authorized to be 40050
included in plans submitted by districts under division (B), (C), 40051
or (E) of that section. Upon completion of the plan, the director 40052
shall issue an order in accordance with Chapter 3745. of the 40053
Revised Code directing the board of county commissioners or board 40054
of directors of the district to implement the plan in compliance 40055
with the implementation schedule contained in it.40056

       Within thirty days after the effective date of the order to 40057
implement the plan, the board of county commissioners or board of 40058
directors of the district shall determine whether the solid waste 40059
management policy committee of the district should continue to 40060
exist to monitor implementation of the plan or for the purposes of 40061
division (B) of section 3734.57 or section 3734.574 of the Revised 40062
Code. The board, by resolution, may abolish the committee if it 40063
determines that the committee is not necessary for any of those 40064
purposes. If the board of county commissioners or directors of a 40065
district that has so abolished the policy committee of the 40066
district finds that it is necessary or appropriate for the 40067
district to consider levying fees under section 3734.574 of the 40068
Revised Code, the board shall reestablish and convene the policy 40069
committee to initiate proceedings to levy the fees. If the fees 40070
are levied, the policy committee shall continue to exist for as 40071
long as the district is levying the fees. If, after a policy 40072
committee is convened to initiate proceedings to levy those fees, 40073
the fees are not levied or are abolished under section 3734.574 of 40074
the Revised Code, the board, by resolution, may abolish the 40075
committee if it determines that the committee is not necessary to 40076
monitor implementation of the plan.40077

       (E) If the director finds that the board of county 40078
commissioners or the board of directors of a district has 40079
materially failed to implement the district's plan or amended plan 40080
approved under division (C) of this section or section 3734.521 or 40081
3734.56 of the Revised Code, or prepared and ordered to be 40082
implemented under division (D) of this section or section 3734.521 40083
or 3734.56 of the Revised Code, in compliance with the 40084
implementation schedule contained in the plan or amended plan, the 40085
director shall issue an enforcement order under division (A) of 40086
section 3734.13 of the Revised Code directing the board to comply 40087
with the implementation schedule in the plan or amended plan 40088
within a specified, reasonable time. If the director finds that 40089
the board of county commissioners or directors of a district for 40090
which the provision included in the district's initial or amended 40091
plan approved under section 3734.521, 3734.55, or 3734.56 of the 40092
Revised Code pursuant to division (E)(1) or (2)(b) or (c) of 40093
section 3734.53 of the Revised Code, or an amendment to the 40094
district's approved initial or amended plan adopted and ratified 40095
under division (F) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, 40096
precludes the board from establishing facility designations under 40097
section 343.014 of the Revised Code has initiated proceedings to 40098
establish facility designations in violation of that section and 40099
the district's initial or amended plan, the director shall issue 40100
an enforcement order under division (A) of section 3734.13 of the 40101
Revised Code directing the board, at the board's discretion, to 40102
either abandon the proceedings or suspend them until after the 40103
board has adopted and obtained ratification of an amendment to the 40104
district's initial or amended plan under division (F) of section 40105
3734.56 of the Revised Code that authorizes the board to establish 40106
facility designations under section 343.014 of the Revised Code. 40107
If the director finds that a board of county commissioners or 40108
directors of a district for which the provision included in the 40109
district's initial or amended plan approved under section 40110
3734.521, 3734.55, or 3734.56 of the Revised Code pursuant to 40111
division (E)(1) or (2)(b) or (c) of section 3734.53 of the Revised 40112
Code, or an amendment to the district's approved initial or 40113
amended plan adopted and ratified under division (F) of section 40114
3734.56 of the Revised Code, authorizes the board to establish 40115
facility designations under section 343.014 of the Revised Code 40116
has established facility designations under section 343.014 of the 40117
Revised Code or continued facility designations under section 40118
343.015 of the Revised Code and subsequently has initiated 40119
proceedings to terminate any such facility designations in 40120
violation of section 343.014 of the Revised Code and the 40121
district's initial or amended plan, the director shall issue an 40122
enforcement order under division (A) of section 3734.13 of the 40123
Revised Code directing the board, at the board's discretion, to 40124
either abandon the proceedings or adopt and obtain ratification of 40125
an amendment to the district's initial or amended plan under 40126
division (F) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code that precludes 40127
the board from establishing facility designations under section 40128
343.014 of the Revised Code.40129

       (F) The director shall maintain a record of the county and 40130
joint solid waste management district solid waste management plans 40131
and amended plans that the director has approved or ordered to be 40132
implemented under this section, section 3734.521, and section 40133
3734.56 of the Revised Code. Upon determining that each county 40134
within the state is subject to such a plan or amended plan, the 40135
director shall notify the chief of recycling and litter prevention 40136
in the department of natural resources of that fact.40137

       (G)(1) As used in divisions (C)(4), (D)(1) and (2), and (E) 40138
of this section and section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, any 40139
reference to a board of county commissioners of a county or a 40140
board of directors of a joint solid waste management district is 40141
deemed to include the board of trustees of a regional solid waste 40142
management authority formed under section 343.011 of the Revised 40143
Code.40144

       (2) As used in this section and sections 3734.521 and 3734.57 40145
of the Revised Code, "deliver" includes mailing as well as 40146
delivery by a means other than mailing.40147

       Sec. 3734.79.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 40148
section, each application for a permit submitted under sections 40149
3734.76 to 3734.78 of the Revised Code shall be accompanied by a 40150
nonrefundable application fee of four hundred dollars that shall 40151
be credited to the scrap tire management fund created in section 40152
3734.82 of the Revised Code. If a permit is issued, the amount of 40153
the application fee paid shall be deducted from the amount of the 40154
applicable permit fee due under division (G)(R) of section 3745.11 40155
of the Revised Code.40156

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to an 40157
application for a permit for a scrap tire storage facility 40158
submitted under section 3734.76 of the Revised Code if the owner 40159
or operator of the facility or proposed facility is a motor 40160
vehicle salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised 40161
Code.40162

       Sec. 3734.82.  (A) The annual fee for a scrap tire recovery 40163
facility license issued under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code 40164
shall be in accordance with the following schedule:40165

Daily Design Annual 40166
Input Capacity License 40167
(Tons) Fee 40168

1 or less $  100 40169
2 to 25 500 40170
26 to 50 1,000 40171
51 to 100 1,500 40172
101 to 200 2,500 40173
201 to 500 3,500 40174
501 or more 5,500 40175

       For the purpose of determining the applicable license fee 40176
under this division, the daily design input capacity shall be the 40177
quantity of scrap tires the facility is designed to process daily 40178
as set forth in the registration certificate or permit for the 40179
facility, and any modifications to the permit, if applicable, 40180
issued under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code.40181

       (B) The annual fee for a scrap tire monocell or monofill 40182
facility license shall be in accordance with the following 40183
schedule:40184

Authorized Maximum Annual 40185
Daily Waste Receipt License 40186
(Tons) Fee 40187
100 or less $ 5,000 40188
101 to 200  12,500 40189
201 to 500  30,000 40190
501 or more  60,000 40191

       For the purpose of determining the applicable license fee 40192
under this division, the authorized maximum daily waste receipt 40193
shall be the maximum amount of scrap tires the facility is 40194
authorized to receive daily that is established in the permit for 40195
the facility, and any modification to that permit, issued under 40196
section 3734.77 of the Revised Code.40197

       (C)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of 40198
this section, the annual fee for a scrap tire storage facility 40199
license shall equal one thousand dollars times the number of acres 40200
on which scrap tires are to be stored at the facility during the 40201
license year, as set forth on the application for the annual 40202
license, except that the total annual license fee for any such 40203
facility shall not exceed three thousand dollars.40204

       (2) The annual fee for a scrap tire storage facility license 40205
for a storage facility that is owned or operated by a motor 40206
vehicle salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised 40207
Code is one hundred dollars.40208

       (D)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 40209
this section, the annual fee for a scrap tire collection facility 40210
license is two hundred dollars.40211

       (2) The annual fee for a scrap tire collection facility 40212
license for a collection facility that is owned or operated by a 40213
motor vehicle salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 4738. of the 40214
Revised Code is fifty dollars.40215

       (E) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (C)(2) and 40216
(D)(2) of this section, the same fees apply to private operators 40217
and to the state and its political subdivisions and shall be paid 40218
within thirty days after the issuance of a license. The fees 40219
include the cost of licensing, all inspections, and other costs 40220
associated with the administration of the scrap tire provisions of 40221
this chapter and rules adopted under them. Each license shall 40222
specify that it is conditioned upon payment of the applicable fee 40223
to the board of health or the director of environmental 40224
protection, as appropriate, within thirty days after the issuance 40225
of the license.40226

       (F) The board of health shall retain fifteen thousand dollars 40227
of each license fee collected by the board under division (B) of 40228
this section, or the entire amount of any such fee that is less 40229
than fifteen thousand dollars, and the entire amount of each 40230
license fee collected by the board under divisions (A), (C), and 40231
(D) of this section. The moneys retained shall be paid into a 40232
special fund, which is hereby created in each health district, and 40233
used solely to administer and enforce the scrap tire provisions of 40234
this chapter and rules adopted under them. The remainder, if any, 40235
of each license fee collected by the board under division (B) of 40236
this section shall be transmitted to the director within 40237
forty-five days after receipt of the fee.40238

       (G) The director shall transmit the moneys received by the 40239
director from license fees collected under division (B) of this 40240
section to the treasurer of state to be credited to the scrap tire 40241
management fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. 40242
The fund shall consist of all federal moneys received by the 40243
environmental protection agency for the scrap tire management 40244
program; all grants, gifts, and contributions made to the director 40245
for that program; and all other moneys that may be provided by law 40246
for that program. The director shall use moneys in the fund as 40247
follows:40248

       (1) Expend amounts determined necessary by the director to 40249
implement, administer, and enforce the scrap tire provisions of 40250
this chapter and rules adopted under them;40251

       (2) During each fiscal year, request the director of budget 40252
and management to, and the director of budget and management 40253
shall, transfer one million dollars to the scrap tire grant fund 40254
created in section 1502.123734.822 of the Revised Code for 40255
supporting market development activities for scrap tires and 40256
synthetic rubber from tire manufacturing processes and tire 40257
recycling processes. In addition, during a fiscal year, the 40258
director of environmental protection may request the director of 40259
budget and management to, and the director of budget and 40260
management shall, transfer up to an additional five hundred 40261
thousand dollars to the scrap tire grant fund for scrap tire 40262
amnesty events and scrap tire cleanup events.40263

       (3) After the expenditures and transfers are made under 40264
divisions (G)(1) and (2) of this section, expend the balance of 40265
the money in the scrap tire management fund remaining in each 40266
fiscal year to conduct removal actions under section 3734.85 of 40267
the Revised Code and to provide grants to boards of health under 40268
section 3734.042 of the Revised Code.40269

       Sec. 1502.12.        Sec. 3734.822. (A) There is hereby created in the 40270
state treasury the scrap tire grant fund, consisting of moneys 40271
transferred to the fund under section 3734.82 of the Revised Code. 40272
The chief of the division of recycling and litter prevention, with 40273
the approval of the director of natural resources,environmental 40274
protection may make grants from the fund for the following 40275
purposes:40276

       (1) Supporting market development activities for scrap tires 40277
and synthetic rubber from tire manufacturing processes and tire 40278
recycling processes;40279

       (2) Supporting scrap tire amnesty and cleanup events 40280
sponsored by solid waste management districts. 40281

       Grants awarded under division (A)(1) of this section may be 40282
awarded to individuals, businesses, and entities certified under 40283
division (A) of section 1502.043736.04 of the Revised Code.40284

       (B) Projects and activities that are eligible for grants 40285
under division (A)(1) of this section shall be evaluated for 40286
funding using, at a minimum, the following criteria:40287

       (1) The degree to which a proposed project contributes to the 40288
increased use of scrap tires generated in this state;40289

       (2) The degree of local financial support for a proposed 40290
project;40291

       (3) The technical merit and quality of a proposed project.40292

       Sec. 3735.37.  A metropolitan housing authority shall keep an 40293
accurate account of all its activities and of all receipts and 40294
expenditures and make an annual report thereof to the director of 40295
developmentof these publicly available. All moneys received in 40296
excess of operating expenditures shall be devoted to the payment 40297
of interest and sinking fund charges for the retirement of 40298
indebtedness, whether secured by mortgage or otherwise, and from 40299
the excess there shall be set aside such fund as the authority 40300
deems proper for the purpose of covering repairs, depreciation, 40301
and reserves. Whatever balance then remains shall be applied to 40302
the reduction of rentals thereafter falling due.40303

       Sec. 1502.01.        Sec. 3736.01.  As used in this chapter:40304

       (A) "Litter" means garbage, trash, waste, rubbish, ashes, 40305
cans, bottles, wire, paper, cartons, boxes, automobile parts, 40306
furniture, glass, or anything else of an unsightly or unsanitary 40307
nature thrown, dropped, discarded, placed, or deposited by a 40308
person on public property, on private property not owned by the 40309
person, or in or on waters of the state unless one of the 40310
following applies:40311

       (1) The person has been directed to do so by a public 40312
official as part of a litter collection drive.40313

       (2) The person has thrown, dropped, discarded, placed, or 40314
deposited the material in a receptacle in a manner that prevented 40315
its being carried away by the elements.40316

       (3) The person has been issued a permit or license covering 40317
the material pursuant to Chapter 3734. or 6111. of the Revised 40318
Code.40319

       (B) "Recycling" means the process of collecting, sorting, 40320
cleansing, treating, and reconstituting waste or other discarded 40321
materials for the purpose of recovering and reusing the materials.40322

       (C) "Agency of the state" includes, but is not limited to, an 40323
"agency" subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and a "state 40324
university or college" as defined in section 3345.12 of the 40325
Revised Code.40326

       (D) "Source reduction" means activities that decrease the 40327
initial production of waste materials at their point of origin.40328

       (E) "Enterprise" means a business with its principal place of 40329
business in this state and that proposes to engage in research and 40330
development or recycling in this state.40331

       (F) "Research and development" means inquiry, 40332
experimentation, or demonstration to advance basic scientific or 40333
technical knowledge or the application, adaptation, or use of 40334
existing or newly discovered scientific or technical knowledge 40335
regarding recycling, source reduction, or litter prevention.40336

       (G) "Recyclables" means waste materials that are collected, 40337
separated, or processed and used as raw materials or products.40338

       (H) "Recycling market development" means activities that 40339
stimulate the demand for recycled products, provide for a 40340
consistent supply of recyclables to meet the needs of recycling 40341
industries, or both.40342

       (I) "Solid waste management districts" means solid waste 40343
management districts established under Chapter 343. of the Revised 40344
Code.40345

       (J) "Synthetic rubber" means produced or extended rubber and 40346
products made from a synthetic rubber base material originating 40347
from petrochemical feedstocks, including scrap tires, tire molds, 40348
automobile engine belts, brake pads and hoses, weather stripping, 40349
fittings, electrical insulation, and other molded objects and 40350
parts.40351

       Sec. 1502.03.        Sec. 3736.02.  (A) The chiefdirector of the division 40352
of recycling and litter preventionenvironmental protection shall 40353
establish and implement statewide source reduction, recycling, 40354
recycling market development, and litter prevention programs that 40355
are consistent with the state solid waste management plan adopted 40356
under section 3734.50 of the Revised Code. The programs shall40357
include all of the following:40358

       (1) The assessment of waste generation within the state and 40359
implementation of source reduction practices;40360

       (2) The implementation of recycling and recycling market 40361
development activities and projects, including all of the 40362
following:40363

       (a) Collection of recyclables;40364

       (b) Separation of recyclables;40365

       (c) Processing of recyclables;40366

       (d) Facilitation and encouragement of the use of recyclables 40367
and products made with recyclables;40368

       (e) Education and training concerning recycling and products 40369
manufactured with recyclables;40370

       (f) Public awareness campaigns to promote recycling;40371

       (g) Other activities and projects that promote recycling and 40372
recycling market development.40373

       (3) Litter prevention assistance to enforce antilitter laws, 40374
educate the public, and stimulate collection and containment of 40375
litter;40376

       (4) Research and development regarding source reduction, 40377
recycling, and litter prevention, including, without limitation, 40378
research and development regarding materials or products 40379
manufactured with recyclables.40380

       (B) The chief, with the approval of the director of natural 40381
resources, may enter into contracts or other agreements and may 40382
execute any instruments necessary or incidental to the discharge 40383
of the chief'sdirector's responsibilities under this chapter.40384

       Sec. 1502.02.        Sec. 3736.03.  (A) There is hereby created in the 40385
department of natural resources the division of recycling and 40386
litter prevention to be headed by the chief of recycling and 40387
litter prevention.40388

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 40389
recycling and litter prevention fund, consisting of moneys 40390
distributed to it from fees, including the fee levied under 40391
division (A)(2) of section 3714.073 of the Revised Code, gifts, 40392
donations, grants, reimbursements, and other sources, including 40393
investment earnings.40394

       (C)(B) The chiefdirector of recycling and litter prevention40395
environmental protection shall do all of the following:40396

       (1) Use moneys credited to the fund exclusively for the 40397
purposes set forth in sections 1502.033736.02, 1502.043736.04, 40398
3736.05, and 1502.053745.014 of the Revised Code, with particular 40399
emphasis on programs relating to recycling;40400

       (2) Expend for administration of the division not more than 40401
ten per cent of any fiscal year's appropriation to the division, 40402
excluding the amount assessed to the division for direct and 40403
indirect central support charges;40404

       (3) Require recipients of grants under section 1502.0540405
3736.05 of the Revised Code, as a condition of receiving and 40406
retaining them, to do all of the following:40407

       (a) Create a separate account for the grants and any cash 40408
donations received that qualify for the donor credit allowed by 40409
section 5733.064 of the Revised Code;40410

       (b) Make expenditures from the account exclusively for the 40411
purposes for which the grants were received;40412

       (c) Use any auditing and accounting practices the chief40413
director considers necessary regarding the account;40414

       (d) Report to the chiefdirector information regarding the 40415
amount and donor of cash donations received as described by 40416
section 5733.064 of the Revised Code;40417

       (e) Use grants received to supplement and not to replace any 40418
existing funding for such purposes.40419

       (4)(3) Report to the tax commissioner information the chief40420
director receives pursuant to division (C)(3)(B)(2)(d) of this 40421
section.40422

       Sec. 1502.04.        Sec. 3736.04.  There is hereby created within the 40423
division of recycling and litter preventionenvironmental 40424
protection agency the recycling and litter prevention advisory 40425
council consisting of thirteen members. The speaker of the house 40426
of representatives shall appoint one member of the house of 40427
representatives to the council, and the president of the senate 40428
shall appoint one member of the senate to the council. If the 40429
president of the senate belongs to the same political party as the 40430
speaker of the house of representatives, the president shall 40431
appoint a member of the senate who belongs to a different 40432
political party as recommended by the minority leader of the 40433
senate. The speaker of the house of representatives and the 40434
president of the senate shall make their initial appointments to 40435
the council within sixty days after July 20, 1994. Each member 40436
appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives or the 40437
president of the senate shall serve for a term of office of three 40438
years. The appropriate appointing authority may fill any vacancy 40439
occurring during the term of any member whom the appointing 40440
authority has appointed to the advisory council.40441

       The remaining eleven members shall be appointed by the 40442
governor with the advice and consent of the senate and shall be 40443
persons with knowledge of or experience in recycling or litter 40444
prevention programs. The council shall have broad-based 40445
representation of interests including agriculture, labor, the 40446
environment, manufacturing, wholesale and retail industry, and the 40447
public. One of the business members shall be from the commercial 40448
recycling industry, and another shall be from an industry required 40449
to pay taxes under section 5733.065 of the Revised Code. The 40450
director of natural resourcesenvironmental protection shall not 40451
be a member of the council. The governor shall make initial 40452
appointments to the council within thirty days after October 20, 40453
1987. Of the governor's initial appointments to the council, five 40454
shall be for a term of one year, and six shall be for a term of 40455
two years. Thereafter, termsTerms of office shall be for three 40456
years. Each member appointed by the governor shall hold office 40457
from the date of the member's appointment until the end of the 40458
term for which the member was appointed. In the event of death, 40459
removal, resignation, or incapacity of a member of the council 40460
appointed by the governor, the governor, with the advice and 40461
consent of the senate, shall appoint a successor who shall hold 40462
office for the remainder of the term for which the successor's 40463
predecessor was appointed. A member shall continue in office 40464
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 40465
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 40466
has elapsed, whichever occurs first. The governor at any time may 40467
remove any of the governor's appointees from the council for 40468
misfeasance, nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office.40469

       Members of the council may be reappointed.40470

       The council shall hold at least four regular quarterly 40471
meetings each year. Special meetings may be held at the behest of 40472
the chairperson or a majority of the members. The council annually 40473
shall select from among its members a chairperson, a 40474
vice-chairperson, and a secretary to keep a record of its 40475
proceedings.40476

       A majority vote of the members of the council is necessary to 40477
take action inon any matter.40478

       A member of the council shall serve without compensation for 40479
attending council meetings, but shall be reimbursed for all 40480
traveling, hotel, and other ordinary and necessary expenses 40481
incurred in the performance of the member's work as a member of 40482
the council.40483

       Membership on the council does not constitute holding a 40484
public office or position of employment under the laws of this 40485
state and does not constitute grounds for removal of public 40486
officers or employees from their offices or positions of 40487
employment.40488

       The council shall do all of the following:40489

       (A) In conjunction with the chief of recycling and litter 40490
prevention and withWith the approval of the director of natural 40491
resourcesenvironmental protection, establish criteria by which to 40492
certify, and certify, agencies of the state, municipal 40493
corporations with a population of more than fifty thousand, 40494
counties, and solid waste management districts as eligible to 40495
receive grants under section 1502.053736.05 of the Revised Code;40496

       (B) In conjunction with the chief and withWith the approval 40497
of the director, establish criteria by which to certify, and 40498
certify, political subdivisions for receipt of special grants for 40499
activities or projects that are intended to accomplish the 40500
purposes of any of the programs established under section 1502.0340501
3736.02 of the Revised Code;40502

       (C) Advise the chiefdirector in carrying out the chief's40503
director's duties under this chapter.40504

       Sec. 1502.05.        Sec. 3736.05.  (A) The chiefdirector of recycling 40505
and litter preventionenvironmental protection, pursuant to 40506
division (A) of section 1502.043736.04 of the Revised Code and 40507
with the approval of the director of natural resources, may make 40508
grants from the recycling and litter prevention fund created in 40509
section 1502.023736.03 of the Revised Code to accomplish the 40510
purposes of the programs established under section 1502.033736.0240511
of the Revised Code.40512

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 40513
chief, with the approval of the director, may require any eligible 40514
applicant certified by the recycling and litter prevention 40515
advisory council under division (A) of section 1502.043736.04 of 40516
the Revised Code that applies for a grant for an activity or 40517
project that is intended to further the purposes of any program 40518
established under division (A)(1), (2), or (4) of section 1502.0340519
3736.02 of the Revised Code to provide a matching contribution of 40520
not more than fifty per cent of the grant.40521

       (C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, any grant 40522
awarded under division (A) of this section to foster cooperative 40523
research and development regarding recycling or the cooperative 40524
establishment or expansion of private recycling facilities or 40525
programs shall be made in conjunction with a contribution to the 40526
project by a cooperating enterprise that maintains or proposes to 40527
maintain a relevant research and development or recycling facility 40528
or program in this state or by an agency of the state, provided 40529
that funding provided by a state agency shall not be provided from 40530
general revenue funds appropriated by the general assembly. No 40531
grant made under division (A) of this section for the purposes 40532
described in this division shall exceed the contribution made by 40533
the cooperating enterprise or state agency. The chiefdirector may 40534
consider cooperating contributions in the form of state of the art 40535
new equipment or in other forms if the chiefdirector determines 40536
that the contribution is essential to the successful 40537
implementation of the project.40538

       Grants made under division (A) of this section for the 40539
purposes described in this division shall be made in such form and 40540
conditioned on such terms as the chiefdirector considers to be 40541
appropriate.40542

       (D)(1) The chief, with the approval of the director, may 40543
require any eligible applicant certified by the recycling and 40544
litter prevention advisory council under division (A) of section 40545
1502.043736.04 of the Revised Code that applies for a grant that 40546
is intended to further the purposes of the program established 40547
under division (A)(3) of section 1502.033736.02 of the Revised 40548
Code, except any eligible applicant that is or is located in a 40549
county that has a per capita income equal to or below ninety per 40550
cent of the median county per capita income of the state as 40551
determined by the chiefdirector using the most recently available 40552
figures from the United States census bureau, to provide a 40553
matching contribution as follows:40554

       (a) Up to ten per cent of the grant from any eligible 40555
applicant that is or is located in a county that has a per capita 40556
income above ninety per cent of the median county per capita 40557
income of the state, but equal to or below one hundred per cent of 40558
the median county per capita income of the state;40559

       (b) Up to twenty per cent of the grant from any eligible 40560
applicant that is or is located in a county that has a per capita 40561
income above the median county per capita income of the state.40562

       (2) If the eligible applicant is a joint solid waste 40563
management district or is filing a joint application on behalf of 40564
two or more counties, the matching contribution required under 40565
division (D)(1) of this section shall be the average of the 40566
matching contributions of all of the counties covered by the 40567
application as determined in accordance with that division. The 40568
matching contribution of a county that has a per capita income 40569
equal to or below ninety per cent of the median county per capita 40570
income of the state shall be included as zero in calculating the 40571
average matching contribution.40572

       (E) After receiving notice from theThe director of 40573
environmental protection that each county within the state is 40574
subject to the solid waste management plan of a solid waste 40575
management district, the chief shall ensure that not less than 40576
fifty per cent of the moneys distributed as grants under this 40577
section shall be expended for the purposes of recycling and 40578
recycling market development.40579

       (F) No information that is submitted to, acquired by, or 40580
exchanged with employees of the environmental protection agency 40581
who administer or provide services under this section and that is 40582
submitted, acquired, or exchanged in order to obtain a grant 40583
pursuant to division (A) of this section shall be used in any 40584
manner for the purpose of the enforcement of any requirement 40585
established in an environmental law or used as evidence in any 40586
judicial or administrative enforcement proceeding unless that 40587
information reveals a clear and immediate danger to the 40588
environment or to the health, safety, or welfare of the public.40589

       (G) Nothing in this section confers immunity on persons from 40590
enforcement that is based on information that is obtained by the 40591
director or the director's authorized representatives who are not 40592
employees of the agency who administer or provide services under 40593
this section.40594

       (H) As used in this section, "environmental law" means a law 40595
that is administered by the environmental protection agency.40596

       Sec. 1502.06.        Sec. 3736.06.  (A) Agencies of the state certified 40597
pursuant to section 1502.043736.04 of the Revised Code as 40598
eligible to receive a grant shall designate an employee as the 40599
liaison with the chiefdirector of recycling and litter prevention40600
environmental protection to cooperate with himthe director in 40601
carrying out histhe director's duties under this chapter.40602

       (B) The executive and legislative authorities of municipal 40603
corporations, counties, and townships and the boards of park 40604
commissioners of township park districts created under section 40605
511.18 of the Revised Code, boards of park commissioners of park 40606
districts created under section 1545.04 of the Revised Code, and 40607
boards of education of city, exempted village, local, and joint 40608
vocational school districts may participate in the programs 40609
established under section 1502.033736.02 of the Revised Code.40610

       Sec. 1502.07.        Sec. 3736.07.  No person, agency of the state, 40611
municipal corporation, county, or township shall sell or offer for 40612
sale any beer or mixed beverages as defined in section 4301.01 of 40613
the Revised Code, or any soft drink as defined in section 913.22 40614
of the Revised Code, in a metal container that is so designed that 40615
it may be opened by removing from the container a part of the 40616
container without using a separate opener. However, nothing in 40617
this section prohibits the sale or offering for sale of a 40618
container the only detachable part of which is a piece of tape or 40619
other similar adhesive material.40620

       Sec. 1502.99.        Sec. 3736.99.  Whoever violates section 1502.0740621
3736.07 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. Each 40622
day of violation constitutes a separate offense.40623

       Sec. 3737.83.  The fire marshal shall, as part of the state 40624
fire code, adopt rules to:40625

       (A) Establish minimum standards of performance for fire 40626
protection equipment and fire fighting equipment;40627

       (B) Establish minimum standards of training, fix minimum 40628
qualifications, and require certificates for all persons who 40629
engage in the business for profit of installing, testing, 40630
repairing, or maintaining fire protection equipment;40631

       (C) Provide for the issuance of certificates required under 40632
division (B) of this section and establish the fees to be charged 40633
for such certificates. A certificate shall be granted, renewed, or 40634
revoked according to rules the fire marshal shall adopt.40635

       (D) Establish minimum standards of flammability for consumer 40636
goods in any case where the federal government or any department 40637
or agency thereof has established, or may from time to time 40638
establish standards of flammability for consumer goods. The 40639
standards established by the fire marshal shall be identical to 40640
the minimum federal standards.40641

       In any case where the federal government or any department or 40642
agency thereof, establishes standards of flammability for consumer 40643
goods subsequent to the adoption of a flammability standard by the 40644
fire marshal, standards previously adopted by the fire marshal 40645
shall not continue in effect to the extent such standards are not 40646
identical to the minimum federal standards.40647

       With respect to the adoption of minimum standards of 40648
flammability, this division shall supersede any authority granted 40649
a political subdivision by any other section of the Revised Code.40650

       (E) Establish minimum standards pursuant to section 5104.05 40651
of the Revised Code for fire prevention and fire safety in child 40652
day-care centers and in type A family day-care homes, as defined 40653
in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.40654

       (F) Establish minimum standards for fire prevention and 40655
safety an adult group home seeking licensure as an adult carein a 40656
residential facility must meetlicensed under section 5119.7140657
5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 40658
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 40659
unrelated adults. The fire marshal shall adopt the rules under 40660
this division in consultation with the directorsdirector of 40661
mental health and aging and interested parties designated by the 40662
directorsdirector of mental health and aging.40663

       Sec. 3737.841.  As used in this section and section 3737.842 40664
of the Revised Code:40665

       (A) "Public occupancy" means all of the following:40666

       (1) Any state correctional institution as defined in section 40667
2967.01 of the Revised Code and any county, multicounty, 40668
municipal, or municipal-county jail or workhouse;40669

       (2) Any hospital as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised 40670
Code, any hospital licensed by the department of mental health 40671
under section 5119.20 of the Revised Code, and any institution, 40672
hospital, or other place established, controlled, or supervised by 40673
the department of mental health under Chapter 5119. of the Revised 40674
Code;40675

       (3) Any nursing home, residential care facility, or home for 40676
the aging as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code and 40677
any adult careresidential facility as defined inlicensed under40678
section 5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that provides 40679
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three 40680
to sixteen unrelated adults;40681

       (4) Any child day-care center and any type A family day-care 40682
home as defined in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code;40683

       (5) Any public auditorium or stadium;40684

       (6) Public assembly areas of hotels and motels containing 40685
more than ten articles of seating furniture.40686

       (B) "Sell" includes sell, offer or expose for sale, barter, 40687
trade, deliver, give away, rent, consign, lease, possess for sale, 40688
or dispose of in any other commercial manner.40689

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, 40690
"seating furniture" means any article of furniture, including 40691
children's furniture, that can be used as a support for an 40692
individual, or an individual's limbs or feet, when sitting or 40693
resting in an upright or reclining position and that either:40694

       (1) Is made with loose or attached cushions or pillows;40695

       (2) Is stuffed or filled in whole or in part with any filling 40696
material;40697

       (3) Is or can be stuffed or filled in whole or in part with 40698
any substance or material, concealed by fabric or any other 40699
covering.40700

       "Seating furniture" includes the cushions or pillows 40701
belonging to or forming a part of the furniture, the structural 40702
unit, and the filling material and its container or covering.40703

       (D) "Seating furniture" does not include, except if intended 40704
for use by children or in facilities designed for the care or 40705
treatment of humans, any of the following:40706

       (1) Cushions or pads intended solely for outdoor use;40707

       (2) Any article with a smooth surface that contains no more 40708
than one-half inch of filling material, if that article does not 40709
have an upholstered horizontal surface meeting an upholstered 40710
vertical surface;40711

       (3) Any article manufactured solely for recreational use or 40712
physical fitness purposes, including weight-lifting benches, 40713
gymnasium mats or pads, and sidehorses.40714

       (E) "Filling material" means cotton, wool, kapok, feathers, 40715
down, hair, liquid, or any other natural or artificial material or 40716
substance that is used or can be used as stuffing in seating 40717
furniture.40718

       Sec. 3742.01.  As used in this chapter:40719

       (A) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or 40720
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 40721
board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code.40722

       (B) "Child care facility" means each area of any of the 40723
following in which child care, as defined in section 5104.01 of 40724
the Revised Code, is provided to children under six years of age:40725

       (1) A child day-care center, type A family day-care home, or 40726
type B family day-care home as defined in section 5104.01 of the 40727
Revised Code;40728

        (2) A type C family day-care home authorized to provide child 40729
care by Sub. H.B. 62 of the 121st general assembly, as amended by 40730
Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st general assembly and Sub. H.B. 407 40731
of the 123rd general assembly;40732

       (3) A preschool program or school child program as defined in 40733
section 3301.52 of the Revised Code.40734

       (C) "Clearance examination" means an examination to determine 40735
whether the lead hazards in a residential unit, child care 40736
facility, or school have been sufficiently controlled. A clearance 40737
examination includes a visual assessment, collection, and analysis 40738
of environmental samples.40739

       (D) "Clearance technician" means a person, other than a 40740
licensed lead inspector or licensed lead risk assessor, who 40741
performs a clearance examination.40742

       (E) "Clinical laboratory" means a facility for the 40743
biological, microbiological, serological, chemical, 40744
immunohematological, hematological, biophysical, cytological, 40745
pathological, or other examination of substances derived from the 40746
human body for the purpose of providing information for the 40747
diagnosis, prevention, or treatment of any disease, or in the 40748
assessment or impairment of the health of human beings. "Clinical 40749
laboratory" does not include a facility that only collects or 40750
prepares specimens, or serves as a mailing service, and does not 40751
perform testing.40752

       (F) "Encapsulation" means the coating and sealing of surfaces 40753
with durable surface coating specifically formulated to be 40754
elastic, able to withstand sharp and blunt impacts, long-lasting, 40755
and resilient, while also resistant to cracking, peeling, algae, 40756
fungus, and ultraviolet light, so as to prevent any part of 40757
lead-containing paint from becoming part of house dust or 40758
otherwise accessible to children.40759

       (G) "Enclosure" means the resurfacing or covering of surfaces 40760
with durable materials such as wallboard or paneling, and the 40761
sealing or caulking of edges and joints, so as to prevent or 40762
control chalking, flaking, peeling, scaling, or loose 40763
lead-containing substances from becoming part of house dust or 40764
otherwise accessible to children.40765

       (H) "Environmental lead analytical laboratory" means a 40766
facility that analyzes air, dust, soil, water, paint, film, or 40767
other substances, other than substances derived from the human 40768
body, for the presence and concentration of lead.40769

       (I) "HEPA" means the designation given to a product, device, 40770
or system that has been equipped with a high-efficiency 40771
particulate air filter, which is a filter capable of removing 40772
particles of 0.3 microns or larger from air at 99.97 per cent or 40773
greater efficiency.40774

       (J) "Interim controls" means a set of measures designed to 40775
reduce temporarily human exposure or likely human exposure to lead 40776
hazards. Interim controls include specialized cleaning, repairs, 40777
painting, temporary containment, ongoing lead hazard maintenance 40778
activities, and the establishment and operation of management and 40779
resident education programs.40780

       (K)(1) "Lead abatement" means a measure or set of measures 40781
designed for the single purpose of permanently eliminating lead 40782
hazards. "Lead abatement" includes all of the following:40783

       (a) Removal of lead-based paint and lead-contaminated dust;40784

       (b) Permanent enclosure or encapsulation of lead-based paint;40785

       (c) Replacement of surfaces or fixtures painted with 40786
lead-based paint;40787

       (d) Removal or permanent covering of lead-contaminated soil;40788

       (e) Preparation, cleanup, and disposal activities associated 40789
with lead abatement.40790

       (2) "Lead abatement" does not include any of the following:40791

       (a) Preventive treatments performed pursuant to section 40792
3742.41 of the Revised Code;40793

        (b) Implementation of interim controls;40794

        (c) Activities performed by a property owner on a residential 40795
unit to which both of the following apply:40796

       (i) It is a freestanding single-family home used as the 40797
property owner's private residence.40798

       (ii) No child under six years of age who has lead poisoning 40799
resides in the unit.40800

       (L) "Lead abatement contractor" means any individual who 40801
engages in or intends to engage in lead abatement and employs or 40802
supervises one or more lead abatement workers, including on-site 40803
supervision of lead abatement projects, or prepares 40804
specifications, plans, or documents for a lead abatement project.40805

       (M) "Lead abatement project" means one or more lead abatement 40806
activities that are conducted by a lead abatement contractor and 40807
are reasonably related to each other.40808

       (N) "Lead abatement project designer" means a person who is 40809
responsible for designing lead abatement projects and preparing a 40810
pre-abatement plan for all designed projects.40811

       (O) "Lead abatement worker" means an individual who is 40812
responsible in a nonsupervisory capacity for the performance of 40813
lead abatement.40814

       (P) "Lead-based paint" means any paint or other similar 40815
surface-coating substance containing lead at or in excess of the 40816
level that is hazardous to human health, as that level is40817
established by rule of the public health councilin rules adopted40818
under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code.40819

       (Q) "Lead-contaminated dust" means dust that contains an area 40820
or mass concentration of lead at or in excess of the level that is 40821
hazardous to human health, as that level is established by rule of 40822
the public health councilin rules adopted under section 3742.50 40823
of the Revised Code.40824

       (R) "Lead-contaminated soil" means soil that contains lead at 40825
or in excess of the level that is hazardous to human health, as 40826
that level is established by rule of the public health councilin 40827
rules adopted under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code.40828

       (S) "Lead hazard" means material that is likely to cause lead 40829
exposure and endanger an individual's health as determined by the 40830
publicdirector of health council in rules adopted under section 40831
3742.50 of the Revised Code. "Lead hazard" includes lead-based 40832
paint, lead-contaminated dust, lead-contaminated soil, and 40833
lead-contaminated water pipes.40834

       (T) "Lead inspection" means a surface-by-surface 40835
investigation to determine the presence of lead-based paint. The 40836
inspection shall use a sampling or testing technique approved by 40837
the public health councildirector in rules adopted by the council40838
under section 3742.03 of the Revised Code. A licensed lead 40839
inspector or laboratory approved under section 3742.09 of the 40840
Revised Code shall certify in writing the precise results of the 40841
inspection.40842

       (U) "Lead inspector" means any individual who conducts a lead 40843
inspection, provides professional advice regarding a lead 40844
inspection, or prepares a report explaining the results of a lead 40845
inspection.40846

       (V) "Lead poisoning" means the level of lead in human blood 40847
that is hazardous to human health, as specified in rules adopted 40848
under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code.40849

       (W) "Lead risk assessment" means an on-site investigation to 40850
determine and report the existence, nature, severity, and location 40851
of lead hazards in a residential unit, child care facility, or 40852
school, including information gathering from the unit, facility, 40853
or school's current owner's knowledge regarding the age and 40854
painting history of the unit, facility, or school and occupancy by 40855
children under six years of age, visual inspection, limited wipe 40856
sampling or other environmental sampling techniques, and any other 40857
activity as may be appropriate.40858

       (X) "Lead risk assessor" means a person who is responsible 40859
for developing a written inspection, risk assessment, and analysis 40860
plan; conducting inspections for lead hazards in a residential 40861
unit, child care facility, or school; interpreting results of 40862
inspections and risk assessments; identifying hazard control 40863
strategies to reduce or eliminate lead exposures; and completing a 40864
risk assessment report.40865

       (Y) "Lead-safe renovation" means the supervision or 40866
performance of services for the general improvement of all or part 40867
of an existing structure, including a residential unit, child care 40868
facility, or school, when the services are supervised or performed 40869
by a lead-safe renovator.40870

        (Z) "Lead-safe renovator" means a person who has successfully 40871
completed a training program in lead-safe renovation approved 40872
under section 3742.47 of the Revised Code.40873

       (AA) "Manager" means a person, who may be the same person as 40874
the owner, responsible for the daily operation of a residential 40875
unit, child care facility, or school.40876

       (BB) "Permanent" means an expected design life of at least 40877
twenty years.40878

       (CC) "Replacement" means an activity that entails removing 40879
components such as windows, doors, and trim that have lead hazards 40880
on their surfaces and installing components free of lead hazards.40881

        (DD) "Residential unit" means a dwelling or any part of a 40882
building being used as an individual's private residence.40883

       (EE) "School" means a public or nonpublic school in which 40884
children under six years of age receive education.40885

       Sec. 3742.02.  (A) No person shall do any of the following:40886

       (1) Violate any provision of this chapter or the rules 40887
adopted pursuant to it;40888

       (2) Apply or cause to be applied any lead-based paint on or 40889
inside a residential unit, child care facility, or school, unless 40890
the publicdirector of health council has determined by rule under 40891
section 3742.50 of the Revised Code that no suitable substitute 40892
exists;40893

       (3) Interfere with an investigation conducted by the director 40894
of health or a board of health in accordance with section 3742.35 40895
of the Revised Code.40896

       (B) No person shall knowingly authorize or employ an 40897
individual to perform lead abatement on a residential unit, child 40898
care facility, or school unless the individual who will perform 40899
the lead abatement holds a valid license issued under section 40900
3742.05 of the Revised Code.40901

       (C) No person shall do any of the following when a 40902
residential unit, child care facility, or school is involved:40903

       (1) Perform a lead inspection without a valid lead inspector 40904
license issued under section 3742.05 of the Revised Code;40905

       (2) Perform a lead risk assessment or provide professional 40906
advice regarding lead abatement without a valid lead risk assessor 40907
license issued under section 3742.05 of the Revised Code;40908

       (3) Act as a lead abatement contractor without a valid lead 40909
abatement contractor's license issued under section 3742.05 of the 40910
Revised Code;40911

       (4) Act as a lead abatement project designer without a valid 40912
lead abatement project designer license issued under section 40913
3742.05 of the Revised Code;40914

       (5) Perform lead abatement without a valid lead abatement 40915
worker license issued under section 3742.05 of the Revised Code;40916

       (6) Effective one year after April 7, 2003, perform a 40917
clearance examination without a valid clearance technician license 40918
issued under section 3742.05 of the Revised Code, unless the 40919
person holds a valid lead inspector license or valid lead risk 40920
assessor license issued under that section;40921

        (7) Perform lead training for the licensing purposes of this 40922
chapter without a valid approval from the director of health under 40923
section 3742.08 of the Revised Code;40924

       (8) Perform interim controls without complying with 24 C.F.R. 40925
Part 35.40926

       Sec. 3742.03.  The publicdirector of health council shall 40927
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 40928
for the administration and enforcement of sections 3742.01 to 40929
3742.19 and 3742.99 of the Revised Code. The rules shall specify 40930
all of the following:40931

       (A) Procedures to be followed by a lead abatement contractor, 40932
lead abatement project designer, lead abatement worker, lead 40933
inspector, or lead risk assessor licensed under section 3742.05 of 40934
the Revised Code for undertaking lead abatement activities and 40935
procedures to be followed by a clearance technician, lead 40936
inspector, or lead risk assessor in performing a clearance 40937
examination;40938

       (B)(1) Requirements for training and licensure, in addition 40939
to those established under section 3742.08 of the Revised Code, to 40940
include levels of training and periodic refresher training for 40941
each class of worker, and to be used for licensure under section 40942
3742.05 of the Revised Code. Except in the case of clearance 40943
technicians, these requirements shall include at least twenty-four 40944
classroom hours of training based on the Occupational Safety and 40945
Health Act training program for lead set forth in 29 C.F.R. 40946
1926.62. For clearance technicians, the training requirements to 40947
obtain an initial license shall not exceed six hours and the 40948
requirements for refresher training shall not exceed two hours 40949
every four years. In establishing the training and licensure 40950
requirements, the public health councildirector shall consider 40951
the core of information that is needed by all licensed persons, 40952
and establish the training requirements so that persons who would 40953
seek licenses in more than one area would not have to take 40954
duplicative course work.40955

       (2) Persons certified by the American board of industrial 40956
hygiene as a certified industrial hygienist or as an industrial 40957
hygienist-in-training, and persons registered as a sanitarian or 40958
sanitarian-in-training under Chapter 4736. of the Revised Code, 40959
shall be exempt from any training requirements for initial 40960
licensure established under this chapter, but shall be required to 40961
take any examinations for licensure required under section 3742.05 40962
of the Revised Code.40963

       (C) Fees for licenses issued under section 3742.05 of the 40964
Revised Code and for their renewal;40965

       (D) Procedures to be followed by lead inspectors, lead 40966
abatement contractors, environmental lead analytical laboratories, 40967
lead risk assessors, lead abatement project designers, and lead 40968
abatement workers to prevent public exposure to lead hazards and 40969
ensure worker protection during lead abatement projects;40970

       (E)(1) Record-keeping and reporting requirements for clinical 40971
laboratories, environmental lead analytical laboratories, lead 40972
inspectors, lead abatement contractors, lead risk assessors, lead 40973
abatement project designers, and lead abatement workers for lead 40974
abatement projects and record-keeping and reporting requirements 40975
for clinical laboratories, environmental lead analytical 40976
laboratories, and clearance technicians for clearance 40977
examinations;40978

       (2) Record-keeping and reporting requirements regarding lead 40979
poisoning for physicians, in addition to the requirements of 40980
section 3701.25 of the Revised Code;40981

       (3) Information that is required to be reported under rules 40982
based on divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section and that is a 40983
medical record is not a public record under section 149.43 of the 40984
Revised Code and shall not be released, except in aggregate 40985
statistical form.40986

       (F) Environmental sampling techniques for use in collecting 40987
samples of air, water, dust, paint, and other materials;40988

       (G) Requirements for a respiratory protection plan prepared 40989
in accordance with section 3742.07 of the Revised Code;40990

       (H) Requirements under which a manufacturer of encapsulants 40991
must demonstrate evidence of the safety and durability of its 40992
encapsulants by providing results of testing from an independent 40993
laboratory indicating that the encapsulants meet the standards 40994
developed by the "E06.23.30 task group on encapsulants," which is 40995
the task group of the lead hazards associated with buildings 40996
subcommittee of the performance of buildings committee of the 40997
American society for testing and materials.40998

       Sec. 3742.04.  (A) The director of health shall do all of the 40999
following:41000

       (1) Administer and enforce the requirements of sections 41001
3742.01 to 3742.19 and 3742.99 of the Revised Code and the rules 41002
adopted pursuant to those sections;41003

       (2) Examine records and reports submitted by lead inspectors, 41004
lead abatement contractors, lead risk assessors, lead abatement 41005
project designers, lead abatement workers, and clearance 41006
technicians in accordance with section 3742.05 of the Revised Code 41007
to determine whether the requirements of this chapter are being 41008
met;41009

       (3) Examine records and reports submitted by physicians, 41010
clinical laboratories, and environmental lead analytical 41011
laboratories under section 3701.25 or 3742.09 of the Revised Code;41012

       (4) Issue approval to manufacturers of encapsulants that have 41013
done all of the following:41014

       (a) Submitted an application for approval to the director on 41015
a form prescribed by the director;41016

       (b) Paid the application fee established by the director;41017

       (c) Submitted results from an independent laboratory 41018
indicating that the manufacturer's encapsulants satisfy the 41019
requirements established in rules adopted under division (H) of 41020
section 3742.03 of the Revised Code;41021

       (d) Complied with rules adopted by the public health council41022
director regarding durability and safety to workers and residents.41023

       (5) Establish liaisons and cooperate with the directors or 41024
agencies in states having lead abatement, licensing, 41025
accreditation, certification, and approval programs to promote 41026
consistency between the requirements of this chapter and those of 41027
other states in order to facilitate reciprocity of the programs 41028
among states;41029

       (6) Establish a program to monitor and audit the quality of 41030
work of lead inspectors, lead risk assessors, lead abatement 41031
project designers, lead abatement contractors, lead abatement 41032
workers, and clearance technicians. The director may refer 41033
improper work discovered through the program to the attorney 41034
general for appropriate action.41035

       (B) In addition to any other authority granted by this 41036
chapter, the director of health may do any of the following:41037

       (1) Employ persons who have received training from a program 41038
the director has determined provides the necessary background. The 41039
appropriate training may be obtained in a state that has an 41040
ongoing lead abatement program under which it conducts educational 41041
programs.41042

       (2) Cooperate with the United States environmental protection 41043
agency in any joint oversight procedures the agency may propose 41044
for laboratories that offer lead analysis services and are 41045
accredited under the agency's laboratory accreditation program;41046

       (3) Advise, consult, cooperate with, or enter into contracts 41047
or cooperative agreements with any person, government entity, 41048
interstate agency, or the federal government as the director 41049
considers necessary to fulfill the requirements of this chapter 41050
and the rules adopted under it.41051

       Sec. 3742.05.  (A)(1) The director of health shall issue lead 41052
inspector, lead abatement contractor, lead risk assessor, lead 41053
abatement project designer, lead abatement worker, and clearance 41054
technician licenses. The director shall issue a license to an 41055
applicant who meets all of the following requirements:41056

       (a) Submits an application to the director on a form 41057
prescribed by the director;41058

       (b) Meets the licensing and training requirements established 41059
by the public health councilin rules adopted under section 41060
3742.03 of the Revised Code;41061

       (c) Successfully completes the licensing examination for the 41062
applicant's area of expertise administered under section 3742.08 41063
of the Revised Code and any training required by the director 41064
under that section;41065

       (d) Pays the license fee established by the public health 41066
councilin rules adopted under section 3742.03 of the Revised 41067
Code;41068

       (e) Provides the applicant's social security number and any 41069
information the director may require to demonstrate the 41070
applicant's compliance with this chapter and the rules adopted 41071
under it.41072

       (2) An individual may hold more than one license issued under 41073
this section, but a separate application is required for each 41074
license.41075

       (B) A license issued under this section expires two years 41076
after the date of issuance. The director shall renew a license in 41077
accordance with the standard renewal procedure set forth in 41078
Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code, if the licensee does all of the 41079
following:41080

       (1) Continues to meet the requirements of division (A) of 41081
this section;41082

       (2) Demonstrates compliance with procedures to prevent public 41083
exposure to lead hazards and for worker protection during lead 41084
abatement projects established by rulein rules adopted by the 41085
public health council under section 3742.03 of the Revised Code;41086

       (3) Meets the record-keeping and reporting requirements for 41087
lead abatement projects or clearance examinations established by 41088
rulein rules adopted by the public health council under section 41089
3742.03 of the Revised Code;41090

       (4) Pays the license renewal fee established by rulein rules41091
adopted by the public health council under section 3742.03 of the 41092
Revised Code.41093

       (C) An individual licensed, certified, or otherwise approved 41094
under the law of another state to perform functions substantially 41095
similar to those of a lead inspector, lead abatement contractor, 41096
lead risk assessor, lead abatement project designer, lead 41097
abatement worker, or clearance technician may apply to the 41098
director of health for licensure in accordance with the procedures 41099
set forth in division (A) of this section. The director shall 41100
license an individual under this division on a determination that 41101
the standards for licensure, certification, or approval in that 41102
state are at least substantially equivalent to those established 41103
by this chapter and the rules adopted under it. The director may 41104
require an examination for licensure under this division.41105

       Sec. 3742.30. Each child at risk of lead poisoning shall 41106
undergo a blood lead screening test to determine whether the child 41107
has lead poisoning. The at-risk children shall undergo the test at 41108
times determined by rules the publicdirector of health council41109
shall adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 41110
that are consistent with the guidelines established by the centers 41111
for disease control and prevention in the public health service of 41112
the United States department of health and human services. The 41113
rules shall specify which children are at risk of lead poisoning.41114

       Neither this section nor the rules adopted under it affect 41115
the coverage of blood lead screening tests by any publicly funded 41116
health program, including the medicaid program established by 41117
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. Neither this section nor the 41118
rules adopted under it apply to a child if a parent of the child 41119
objects to the test on the grounds that the test conflicts with 41120
the parent's religious tenets and practices.41121

       Sec. 3742.31.  (A) The director of health shall establish, 41122
promote, and maintain a child lead poisoning prevention program. 41123
The program shall provide statewide coordination of screening, 41124
diagnosis, and treatment services for children under age six, 41125
including both of the following:41126

       (1) Collecting the social security numbers of all children 41127
screened, diagnosed, or treated as part of the program's case 41128
management system;41129

       (2) Disclosing to the office of Ohio health plansmedical 41130
assistance in the department of job and family services on at 41131
least an annual basis the identity and lead screening test results 41132
of each child screened pursuant to section 3742.30 of the Revised 41133
Code. The director shall collect and disseminate information 41134
relating to child lead poisoning and controlling lead hazards.41135

       (B) The director of health shall operate the child lead 41136
poisoning prevention program in accordance with rules adopted 41137
under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code. The director may enter 41138
into an interagency agreement with one or more other state 41139
agencies to perform one or more of the program's duties. The 41140
director shall supervise and direct an agency's performance of 41141
such a duty.41142

       Sec. 3742.32. (A) The director of health shall appoint an 41143
advisory council to assist in the ongoing development and 41144
implementation of the child lead poisoning prevention program 41145
created under section 3742.31 of the Revised Code. The advisory 41146
council shall consist of the following members:41147

       (1) A representative of the office of Ohio health plans41148
medical assistance in the department of job and family services;41149

       (2) A representative of the bureau of child care in the 41150
department of job and family services;41151

       (3) A representative of the department of environmental 41152
protection;41153

       (4) A representative of the department of education;41154

       (5) A representative of the department of development;41155

       (6) A representative of the Ohio apartment owner's 41156
association;41157

       (7) A representative of the Ohio help end lead poisoning 41158
coalition;41159

       (8) A representative of the Ohio environmental health 41160
association;41161

        (9) An Ohio representative of the national paint and coatings 41162
association.41163

       (B) The advisory council shall do both of the following:41164

       (1) Provide the director with advice regarding the policies 41165
the child lead poisoning prevention program should emphasize, 41166
preferred methods of financing the program, and any other matter 41167
relevant to the program's operation;41168

       (2) Submit a report of the state's activities to the 41169
governor, president of the senate, and speaker of the house of 41170
representatives on or before the first day of March each year.41171

       (C) The advisory council is not subject to sections 101.82 to 41172
101.87 of the Revised Code.41173

       Sec. 3742.47.  (A) A person seeking approval of a training 41174
program in either essential maintenance practices or lead-safe 41175
renovation shall apply for approval to the director of health. The 41176
application shall be made on a form prescribed by the director and 41177
shall include the fee established under division (B) of this 41178
section. The director shall issue approval to the applicant if the 41179
applicant demonstrates to the satisfaction of the director that 41180
the training program will meet the following requirements and any 41181
other training program requirements established by rules adopted 41182
under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code:41183

       (1) Conducts the training program in a period of time that 41184
does not exceed six hours;41185

        (2) Administers an examination established by rule of the41186
public health councildirector at the end of the training program 41187
to each person who completes the training;41188

       (3) Grades each examination not later than one week after its 41189
completion and determines whether the person who took the 41190
examination received a passing score;41191

       (4) Not later than one week after the examination is 41192
completed provides written proof of training program completion to 41193
each person who completes the program and passes the examination.41194

       (B) The director of health shall establish an application fee 41195
for approving training programs under this section. The fee shall 41196
be reasonable and shall not exceed the expenses incurred in 41197
conducting the approval of training programs. An application fee 41198
submitted under division (A) of this section is nonrefundable.41199

       Sec. 3742.50.  (A) The publicdirector of health council41200
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 41201
Code establishing all of the following:41202

       (1) Procedures necessary for the development and operation of 41203
the child lead poisoning prevention program established under 41204
section 3742.31 of the Revised Code;41205

       (2) Standards and procedures for conducting investigations 41206
and risk assessments under sections 3742.35 and 3742.36 of the 41207
Revised Code;41208

       (3) Standards and procedures for issuing lead hazard control 41209
orders under section 3742.37 of the Revised Code, including 41210
standards and procedures for determining appropriate deadlines for 41211
complying with lead hazard control orders;41212

       (4) The level of lead in human blood that is hazardous to 41213
human health, consistent with the guidelines issued by the centers 41214
for disease control and prevention in the public health service of 41215
the United States department of health and human services;41216

       (5) The level of lead in paint, dust, and soil that is 41217
hazardous to human health;41218

       (6) Standards and procedures to be followed when implementing 41219
preventive treatments for the control of lead hazards pursuant to 41220
section 3742.41 of the Revised Code that are based on information 41221
from the United States environmental protection agency, department 41222
of housing and urban development, occupational safety and health 41223
administration, or other agencies with recommendations or 41224
guidelines regarding implementation of preventive treatments;41225

       (7) Standards that must be met to pass a clearance 41226
examination;41227

       (8) Procedures for approving under section 3742.47 of the 41228
Revised Code training programs in essential maintenance practices 41229
and lead-safe renovation and requirements, in addition to those 41230
specified in section 3742.47 of the Revised Code, that a program 41231
must meet to receive approval;41232

       (9) The examination to be administered by a training program 41233
approved under section 3742.47 of the Revised Code and the 41234
examination's passing score.41235

       (B) The public health councildirector shall establish 41236
procedures for revising its rules to ensure that the child lead 41237
poisoning prevention activities conducted under this chapter 41238
continue to meet the requirements necessary to obtain any federal 41239
funding available for those activities, including requirements 41240
established by the United States environmental protection agency, 41241
United States department of housing and urban development, or any 41242
other federal agency with jurisdiction over activities pertaining 41243
to child lead poisoning prevention.41244

       Sec. 3743.04.  (A) The license of a manufacturer of fireworks 41245
is effective for one year beginning on the first day of December. 41246
The state fire marshal shall issue or renew a license only on that 41247
date and at no other time. If a manufacturer of fireworks wishes 41248
to continue manufacturing fireworks at the designated fireworks 41249
plant after its then effective license expires, it shall apply no 41250
later than the first day of October for a new license pursuant to 41251
section 3743.02 of the Revised Code. The state fire marshal shall 41252
send a written notice of the expiration of its license to a 41253
licensed manufacturer at least three months before the expiration 41254
date.41255

       (B) If, during the effective period of its licensure, a 41256
licensed manufacturer of fireworks wishes to construct, locate, or 41257
relocate any buildings or other structures on the premises of its 41258
fireworks plant, to make any structural change or renovation in 41259
any building or other structure on the premises of its fireworks 41260
plant, or to change the nature of its manufacturing of fireworks 41261
so as to include the processing of fireworks, the manufacturer 41262
shall notify the state fire marshal in writing. The state fire 41263
marshal may require a licensed manufacturer also to submit 41264
documentation, including, but not limited to, plans covering the 41265
proposed construction, location, relocation, structural change or 41266
renovation, or change in manufacturing of fireworks, if the state 41267
fire marshal determines the documentation is necessary for 41268
evaluation purposes in light of the proposed construction, 41269
location, relocation, structural change or renovation, or change 41270
in manufacturing of fireworks.41271

       Upon receipt of the notification and additional documentation 41272
required by the state fire marshal, the state fire marshal shall 41273
inspect the premises of the fireworks plant to determine if the 41274
proposed construction, location, relocation, structural change or 41275
renovation, or change in manufacturing of fireworks conforms to 41276
sections 3743.02 to 3743.08 of the Revised Code and the rules 41277
adopted by the state fire marshal pursuant to section 3743.05 of 41278
the Revised Code. The state fire marshal shall issue a written 41279
authorization to the manufacturer for the construction, location, 41280
relocation, structural change or renovation, or change in 41281
manufacturing of fireworks if the state fire marshal determines, 41282
upon the inspection and a review of submitted documentation, that 41283
the construction, location, relocation, structural change or 41284
renovation, or change in manufacturing of fireworks conforms to 41285
those sections and rules. Upon authorizing a change in 41286
manufacturing of fireworks to include the processing of fireworks, 41287
the state fire marshal shall make notations on the manufacturer's 41288
license and in the list of licensed manufacturers in accordance 41289
with section 3743.03 of the Revised Code.41290

       On or before June 1, 1998, a licensed manufacturer shall 41291
install, in every licensed building in which fireworks are 41292
manufactured, stored, or displayed and to which the public has 41293
access, interlinked fire detection, smoke exhaust, and smoke 41294
evacuation systems that are approved by the superintendent of 41295
laborindustrial compliance, and shall comply with floor plans 41296
showing occupancy load limits and internal circulation and egress 41297
patterns that are approved by the state fire marshal and 41298
superintendent, and that are submitted under seal as required by 41299
section 3791.04 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding section 41300
3743.59 of the Revised Code, the construction and safety 41301
requirements established in this division are not subject to any 41302
variance, waiver, or exclusion.41303

       (C) The license of a manufacturer of fireworks authorizes the 41304
manufacturer to engage only in the following activities:41305

       (1) The manufacturing of fireworks on the premises of the 41306
fireworks plant as described in the application for licensure or 41307
in the notification submitted under division (B) of this section, 41308
except that a licensed manufacturer shall not engage in the 41309
processing of fireworks unless authorized to do so by its license.41310

       (2) To possess for sale at wholesale and sell at wholesale 41311
the fireworks manufactured by the manufacturer, to persons who are 41312
licensed wholesalers of fireworks, to out-of-state residents in 41313
accordance with section 3743.44 of the Revised Code, to residents 41314
of this state in accordance with section 3743.45 of the Revised 41315
Code, or to persons located in another state provided the 41316
fireworks are shipped directly out of this state to them by the 41317
manufacturer. A person who is licensed as a manufacturer of 41318
fireworks on June 14, 1988, also may possess for sale and sell 41319
pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section fireworks other than 41320
those the person manufactures. The possession for sale shall be on 41321
the premises of the fireworks plant described in the application 41322
for licensure or in the notification submitted under division (B) 41323
of this section, and the sale shall be from the inside of a 41324
licensed building and from no other structure or device outside a 41325
licensed building. At no time shall a licensed manufacturer sell 41326
any class of fireworks outside a licensed building.41327

       (3) Possess for sale at retail and sell at retail the 41328
fireworks manufactured by the manufacturer, other than 1.4G 41329
fireworks as designated by the state fire marshal in rules adopted 41330
pursuant to division (A) of section 3743.05 of the Revised Code, 41331
to licensed exhibitors in accordance with sections 3743.50 to 41332
3743.55 of the Revised Code, and possess for sale at retail and 41333
sell at retail the fireworks manufactured by the manufacturer, 41334
including 1.4G fireworks, to out-of-state residents in accordance 41335
with section 3743.44 of the Revised Code, to residents of this 41336
state in accordance with section 3743.45 of the Revised Code, or 41337
to persons located in another state provided the fireworks are 41338
shipped directly out of this state to them by the manufacturer. A 41339
person who is licensed as a manufacturer of fireworks on June 14, 41340
1988, may also possess for sale and sell pursuant to division 41341
(C)(3) of this section fireworks other than those the person 41342
manufactures. The possession for sale shall be on the premises of 41343
the fireworks plant described in the application for licensure or 41344
in the notification submitted under division (B) of this section, 41345
and the sale shall be from the inside of a licensed building and 41346
from no other structure or device outside a licensed building. At 41347
no time shall a licensed manufacturer sell any class of fireworks 41348
outside a licensed building.41349

       A licensed manufacturer of fireworks shall sell under 41350
division (C) of this section only fireworks that meet the 41351
standards set by the consumer product safety commission or by the 41352
American fireworks standard laboratories or that have received an 41353
EX number from the United States department of transportation.41354

       (D) The license of a manufacturer of fireworks shall be 41355
protected under glass and posted in a conspicuous place on the 41356
premises of the fireworks plant. Except as otherwise provided in 41357
this division, the license is not transferable or assignable. A 41358
license may be transferred to another person for the same 41359
fireworks plant for which the license was issued if the assets of 41360
the plant are transferred to that person by inheritance or by a 41361
sale approved by the state fire marshal. The license is subject to 41362
revocation in accordance with section 3743.08 of the Revised Code.41363

       (E) The state fire marshal shall not place the license of a 41364
manufacturer of fireworks in a temporarily inactive status while 41365
the holder of the license is attempting to qualify to retain the 41366
license.41367

       (F) Each licensed manufacturer of fireworks that possesses 41368
fireworks for sale and sells fireworks under division (C) of 41369
section 3743.04 of the Revised Code, or a designee of the 41370
manufacturer, whose identity is provided to the state fire marshal 41371
by the manufacturer, annually shall attend a continuing education 41372
program. The state fire marshal shall develop the program and the 41373
state fire marshal or a person or public agency approved by the 41374
state fire marshal shall conduct it. A licensed manufacturer or 41375
the manufacturer's designee who attends a program as required 41376
under this division, within one year after attending the program, 41377
shall conduct in-service training as approved by the state fire 41378
marshal for other employees of the licensed manufacturer regarding 41379
the information obtained in the program. A licensed manufacturer 41380
shall provide the state fire marshal with notice of the date, 41381
time, and place of all in-service training. For any program 41382
conducted under this division, the state fire marshal shall, in 41383
accordance with rules adopted by the state fire marshal under 41384
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, establish the subjects to be 41385
taught, the length of classes, the standards for approval, and 41386
time periods for notification by the licensee to the state fire 41387
marshal of any in-service training.41388

       (G) A licensed manufacturer shall maintain comprehensive 41389
general liability insurance coverage in the amount and type 41390
specified under division (B)(2) of section 3743.02 of the Revised 41391
Code at all times. Each policy of insurance required under this 41392
division shall contain a provision requiring the insurer to give 41393
not less than fifteen days' prior written notice to the state fire 41394
marshal before termination, lapse, or cancellation of the policy, 41395
or any change in the policy that reduces the coverage below the 41396
minimum required under this division. Prior to canceling or 41397
reducing the amount of coverage of any comprehensive general 41398
liability insurance coverage required under this division, a 41399
licensed manufacturer shall secure supplemental insurance in an 41400
amount and type that satisfies the requirements of this division 41401
so that no lapse in coverage occurs at any time. A licensed 41402
manufacturer who secures supplemental insurance shall file 41403
evidence of the supplemental insurance with the state fire marshal 41404
prior to canceling or reducing the amount of coverage of any 41405
comprehensive general liability insurance coverage required under 41406
this division.41407

       (H) The state fire marshal shall adopt rules for the 41408
expansion or contraction of a licensed premises and for approval 41409
of such expansions or contractions. The boundaries of a licensed 41410
premises, including any geographic expansion or contraction of 41411
those boundaries, shall be approved by the state fire marshal in 41412
accordance with rules the state fire marshal adopts. If the 41413
licensed premises consists of more than one parcel of real estate, 41414
those parcels shall be contiguous unless an exception is allowed 41415
pursuant to division (I) of this section.41416

       (I)(1) A licensed manufacturer may expand its licensed 41417
premises within this state to include not more than two storage 41418
locations that are located upon one or more real estate parcels 41419
that are noncontiguous to the licensed premises as that licensed 41420
premises exists on the date a licensee submits an application as 41421
described below, if all of the following apply:41422

       (a) The licensee submits an application to the state fire 41423
marshal and an application fee of one hundred dollars per storage 41424
location for which the licensee is requesting approval.41425

       (b) The identity of the holder of the license remains the 41426
same at the storage location.41427

       (c) The storage location has received a valid certificate of 41428
zoning compliance as applicable and a valid certificate of 41429
occupancy for each building or structure at the storage location 41430
issued by the authority having jurisdiction to issue the 41431
certificate for the storage location, and those certificates 41432
permit the distribution and storage of fireworks regulated under 41433
this chapter at the storage location and in the buildings or 41434
structures. The storage location shall be in compliance with all 41435
other applicable federal, state, and local laws and regulations.41436

       (d) Every building or structure located upon the storage 41437
location is separated from occupied residential and nonresidential 41438
buildings or structures, railroads, highways, or any other 41439
buildings or structures on the licensed premises in accordance 41440
with the distances specified in the rules adopted by the state 41441
fire marshal pursuant to section 3743.05 of the Revised Code.41442

       (e) Neither the licensee nor any person holding, owning, or 41443
controlling a five per cent or greater beneficial or equity 41444
interest in the licensee has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 41445
to a felony under the laws of this state, any other state, or the 41446
United States, after September 29, 2005.41447

       (f) The state fire marshal approves the application for 41448
expansion.41449

       (2) The state fire marshal shall approve an application for 41450
expansion requested under division (I)(1) of this section if the 41451
state fire marshal receives the application fee and proof that the 41452
requirements of divisions (I)(1)(b) to (e) of this section are 41453
satisfied. The storage location shall be considered part of the 41454
original licensed premises and shall use the same distinct number 41455
assigned to the original licensed premises with any additional 41456
designations as the state fire marshal deems necessary in 41457
accordance with section 3743.03 of the Revised Code.41458

       (J)(1) A licensee who obtains approval for the use of a 41459
storage location in accordance with division (I) of this section 41460
shall use the storage location exclusively for the following 41461
activities, in accordance with division (C) of this section:41462

       (a) The packaging, assembling, or storing of fireworks, which 41463
shall only occur in buildings or structures approved for such 41464
hazardous uses by the building code official having jurisdiction 41465
for the storage location or, for 1.4G fireworks, in containers or 41466
trailers approved for such hazardous uses by the state fire 41467
marshal if such containers or trailers are not subject to 41468
regulation by the building code adopted in accordance with Chapter 41469
3781. of the Revised Code. All such storage shall be in accordance 41470
with the rules adopted by the state fire marshal under division 41471
(G) of section 3743.05 of the Revised Code for the packaging, 41472
assembling, and storage of fireworks.41473

       (b) Distributing fireworks to other parcels of real estate 41474
located on the manufacturer's licensed premises, to licensed 41475
wholesalers or other licensed manufacturers in this state or to 41476
similarly licensed persons located in another state or country;41477

       (c) Distributing fireworks to a licensed exhibitor of 41478
fireworks pursuant to a properly issued permit in accordance with 41479
section 3743.54 of the Revised Code.41480

       (2) A licensed manufacturer shall not engage in any sales 41481
activity, including the retail sale of fireworks otherwise 41482
permitted under division (C)(2) or (C)(3) of this section, or 41483
pursuant to section 3743.44 or 3743.45 of the Revised Code, at the 41484
storage location approved under this section.41485

       (3) A storage location may not be relocated for a minimum 41486
period of five years after the storage location is approved by the 41487
state fire marshal in accordance with division (I) of this 41488
section.41489

       (K) The licensee shall prohibit public access to the storage 41490
location. The state fire marshal shall adopt rules to describe the 41491
acceptable measures a manufacturer shall use to prohibit access to 41492
the storage site.41493

       Sec. 3743.06.  In addition to conforming to the rules of the 41494
fire marshal adopted pursuant to section 3743.05 of the Revised 41495
Code, licensed manufacturers of fireworks shall operate their 41496
fireworks plants in accordance with the following:41497

       (A) Signs indicating that smoking is generally forbidden and 41498
trespassing is prohibited on the premises of a fireworks plant 41499
shall be posted on the premises in a manner determined by the fire 41500
marshal.41501

       (B) Reasonable precautions shall be taken to protect the 41502
premises of a fireworks plant from trespass, loss, theft, or 41503
destruction. Only persons employed by the manufacturer, authorized 41504
governmental personnel, and persons who have obtained permission 41505
from a member of the manufacturer's office to be on the premises, 41506
are to be allowed to enter and remain on the premises.41507

       (C) Smoking or the carrying of pipes, cigarettes, or cigars, 41508
matches, lighters, other flame-producing items, or open flame on, 41509
or the carrying of a concealed source of ignition into, the 41510
premises of a fireworks plant is prohibited, except that a 41511
manufacturer may permit smoking in specified lunchrooms or 41512
restrooms in buildings or other structures in which no 41513
manufacturing, handling, sales, or storage of fireworks takes 41514
place. "NO SMOKING" signs shall be posted on the premises as 41515
required by the fire marshal.41516

       (D) Fire and explosion prevention and other reasonable safety 41517
measures and precautions shall be implemented by a manufacturer.41518

       (E) Persons shall not be permitted to have in their 41519
possession or under their control, while they are on the premises 41520
of the fireworks plant, any intoxicating liquor, beer, or 41521
controlled substance, and they shall not be permitted to enter or 41522
remain on the premises if they are found to be under the influence 41523
of any intoxicating liquor, beer, or controlled substance.41524

       (F) A manufacturer shall conform to all building, safety, and 41525
zoning statutes, ordinances, rules, or other enactments that apply 41526
to the premises of its fireworks plant.41527

       (G) Each fireworks plant shall have at least one class 1 41528
magazine that is approved by the bureau of alcohol, tobacco, and 41529
firearms of the United States department of the treasury and that 41530
is otherwise in conformity with federal law. This division does 41531
not apply to fireworks plants existing on or before August 3, 41532
1931.41533

       (H) Awnings, tents, and canopies shall not be used as 41534
facilities for the sale or storage of fireworks. This division 41535
does not prohibit the use of an awning or canopy attached to a 41536
public access showroom for storing nonflammable shopping 41537
convenience items such as shopping carts or baskets or providing a 41538
shaded area for patrons waiting to enter the public sales area.41539

       (I) Fireworks may be stored in trailers if the trailers are 41540
properly enclosed, secured, and grounded and are separated from 41541
any structure to which the public is admitted by a distance that 41542
will, in the fire marshal's judgment, allow fire-fighting 41543
equipment to have full access to the structures on the licensed 41544
premises. Such trailers may be moved into closer proximity to any 41545
structure only to accept or discharge cargo for a period not to 41546
exceed forty-eight hours. Only two such trailers may be placed in 41547
such closer proximity at any one time. At no time may trailers be 41548
used for conducting sales of any class of fireworks, nor may 41549
members of the public have access to the trailers.41550

       Storage areas for fireworks that are in the same building 41551
where fireworks are displayed and sold to the public shall be 41552
separated from the areas to which the public has access by an 41553
appropriately rated fire wall.41554

       (J) A fire suppression system as defined in section 3781.108 41555
of the Revised Code may be turned off only for repair, drainage of 41556
the system to prevent damage by freezing during the period of 41557
time, approved by the fire marshal, that the facility is closed to 41558
all public access during winter months, or maintenance of the 41559
system. If any repair or maintenance is necessary during times 41560
when the facility is open for public access and business as 41561
approved by the fire marshal, the licensed manufacturer shall 41562
notify in advance the appropriate insurance company and fire chief 41563
or fire prevention officer regarding the nature of the maintenance 41564
or repair and the time when it will be performed.41565

       (K) If any fireworks item is removed from its original 41566
package or is manufactured with any fuse other than a safety fuse 41567
approved by the consumer product safety commission, then the item 41568
shall be covered completely by repackaging or bagging or it shall 41569
otherwise be covered so as to prevent ignition prior to sale.41570

       (L) A safety officer shall be present during regular business 41571
hours at a building open to the public during the period 41572
commencing fourteen days before, and ending two days after, each 41573
fourth day of July. The officer shall be highly visible, enforce 41574
this chapter and any applicable building codes to the extent the 41575
officer is authorized by law, and be one of the following:41576

       (1) A deputy sheriff;41577

       (2) A law enforcement officer of a municipal corporation, 41578
township, or township or joint police district;41579

       (3) A private uniformed security guard registered under 41580
section 4749.06 of the Revised Code.41581

       (M) All doors of all buildings on the licensed premises shall 41582
swing outward.41583

       (N) All wholesale and commercial sales of fireworks shall be 41584
packaged, shipped, placarded, and transported in accordance with 41585
United States department of transportation regulations applicable 41586
to the transportation, and the offering for transportation, of 41587
hazardous materials. For purposes of this division, "wholesale and 41588
commercial sales" includes all sales for resale and any nonretail 41589
sale made in furtherance of a commercial enterprise. For purposes 41590
of enforcement of these regulations under section 4905.834923.9941591
of the Revised Code, any sales transaction exceeding one thousand 41592
pounds shall be rebuttably presumed to be a wholesale or 41593
commercial sale.41594

       Sec. 3743.19.  In addition to conforming to the rules of the 41595
fire marshal adopted pursuant to section 3743.18 of the Revised 41596
Code, licensed wholesalers of fireworks shall conduct their 41597
business operations in accordance with the following:41598

       (A) A wholesaler shall conduct its business operations from 41599
the location described in its application for licensure or in a 41600
notification submitted under division (B) of section 3743.17 of 41601
the Revised Code.41602

       (B) Signs indicating that smoking is generally forbidden and 41603
trespassing is prohibited on the premises of a wholesaler shall be 41604
posted on the premises as determined by the fire marshal.41605

       (C) Reasonable precautions shall be taken to protect the 41606
premises of a wholesaler from trespass, loss, theft, or 41607
destruction.41608

       (D) Smoking or the carrying of pipes, cigarettes, or cigars, 41609
matches, lighters, other flame-producing items, or open flame on, 41610
or the carrying of a concealed source of ignition into, the 41611
premises of a wholesaler is prohibited, except that a wholesaler 41612
may permit smoking in specified lunchrooms or restrooms in 41613
buildings or other structures in which no sales, handling, or 41614
storage of fireworks takes place. "NO SMOKING" signs shall be 41615
posted on the premises as required by the fire marshal.41616

       (E) Fire and explosion prevention and other reasonable safety 41617
measures and precautions shall be implemented by a wholesaler.41618

       (F) Persons shall not be permitted to have in their 41619
possession or under their control, while they are on the premises 41620
of a wholesaler, any intoxicating liquor, beer, or controlled 41621
substance, and they shall not be permitted to enter or remain on 41622
the premises if they are found to be under the influence of any 41623
intoxicating liquor, beer, or controlled substance.41624

       (G) A wholesaler shall conform to all building, safety, and 41625
zoning statutes, ordinances, rules, or other enactments that apply 41626
to its premises.41627

       (H) Each building used in the sale of fireworks shall be kept 41628
open to the public for at least four hours each day between the 41629
hours of eight a.m. and five p.m., five days of each week, every 41630
week of the year. Upon application from a licensed wholesaler, the 41631
fire marshal may waive any of the requirements of this division.41632

       (I) Awnings, tents, or canopies shall not be used as 41633
facilities for the storage or sale of fireworks. This division 41634
does not prohibit the use of an awning or canopy attached to a 41635
public access showroom for storing nonflammable shopping 41636
convenience items such as shopping carts or baskets or providing a 41637
shaded area for patrons waiting to enter the public sales area.41638

       (J) 1.4G fireworks may be stored in trailers if the trailers 41639
are properly enclosed, secured, and grounded and are separated 41640
from any structure to which the public is admitted by a distance 41641
that will, in the fire marshal's judgment, allow fire-fighting 41642
equipment to have full access to the structures on the licensed 41643
premises. Such trailers may be moved into closer proximity to any 41644
structure only to accept or discharge cargo for a period not to 41645
exceed forty-eight hours. Only two such trailers may be placed in 41646
such closer proximity at any one time. At no time may trailers be 41647
used for conducting sales of any class of fireworks nor may 41648
members of the public have access to the trailers.41649

       Storage areas for fireworks that are in the same building 41650
where fireworks are displayed and sold to the public shall be 41651
separated from the areas to which the public has access by an 41652
appropriately rated fire wall. If the licensee installs and 41653
properly maintains an early suppression fast response sprinkler 41654
system or equivalent fire suppression system as described in the 41655
fire code adopted by the fire marshal in accordance with section 41656
3737.82 of the Revised Code throughout the structure, a fire 41657
barrier wall may be substituted for a fire wall between the areas 41658
to which the public has access and the storage portions of the 41659
structure.41660

       (K) A fire suppression system as defined in section 3781.108 41661
of the Revised Code may be turned off only for repair, drainage of 41662
the system to prevent damage by freezing during the period of 41663
time, approved by the fire marshal under division (I) of this 41664
section, that the facility is closed to public access during 41665
winter months, or maintenance of the system. If any repair or 41666
maintenance is necessary during times when the facility is open 41667
for public access and business, the licensed wholesaler shall 41668
notify in advance the appropriate insurance company and fire chief 41669
or fire prevention officer regarding the nature of the maintenance 41670
or repair and the time when it will be performed.41671

       (L) If any fireworks item is removed from its original 41672
package or is manufactured with any fuse other than a fuse 41673
approved by the consumer product safety commission, then the item 41674
shall be covered completely by repackaging or bagging or it shall 41675
otherwise be covered so as to prevent ignition prior to sale.41676

       (M) A safety officer shall be present during regular business 41677
hours at a building open to the public during the period 41678
commencing fourteen days before, and ending two days after, each 41679
fourth day of July. The officer shall be highly visible, enforce 41680
this chapter and any applicable building codes to the extent the 41681
officer is authorized by law, and be one of the following:41682

       (1) A deputy sheriff;41683

       (2) A law enforcement officer of a municipal corporation, 41684
township, or township or joint police district;41685

       (3) A private uniformed security guard registered under 41686
section 4749.06 of the Revised Code.41687

       (N) All doors of all buildings on the licensed premises shall 41688
swing outward.41689

       (O) All wholesale and commercial sales of fireworks shall be 41690
packaged, shipped, placarded, and transported in accordance with 41691
United States department of transportation regulations applicable 41692
to the transportation, and the offering for transportation, of 41693
hazardous materials. For purposes of this division, "wholesale and 41694
commercial sales" includes all sales for resale and any nonretail 41695
sale made in furtherance of a commercial enterprise. For purposes 41696
of enforcement of these regulations under section 4905.834923.9941697
of the Revised Code, any sales transaction exceeding one thousand 41698
pounds shall be rebuttably presumed to be a wholesale or 41699
commercial sale.41700

       Sec. 3743.25.  (A)(1) Except as described in division (A)(2) 41701
of this section, all retail sales of 1.4G fireworks by a licensed 41702
manufacturer or wholesaler shall only occur from an approved 41703
retail sales showroom on a licensed premises or from a 41704
representative sample showroom as described in this section on a 41705
licensed premises. For the purposes of this section, a retail sale 41706
includes the transfer of the possession of the 1.4G fireworks from 41707
the licensed manufacturer or wholesaler to the purchaser of the 41708
fireworks.41709

       (2) Sales of 1.4G fireworks to a licensed exhibitor for a 41710
properly permitted exhibition shall occur in accordance with the 41711
provisions of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the state fire 41712
marshal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Such rules shall 41713
specify, at a minimum, that the licensed exhibitor holds a license 41714
under section 3743.51 of the Revised Code, that the exhibitor 41715
possesses a valid exhibition permit issued in accordance with 41716
section 3743.54 of the Revised Code, and that the fireworks 41717
shipped are to be used at the specifically permitted exhibition.41718

       (B) All wholesale sales of fireworks by a licensed 41719
manufacturer or wholesaler shall only occur from a licensed 41720
premises to persons who intend to resell the fireworks purchased 41721
at wholesale. A wholesale sale by a licensed manufacturer or 41722
wholesaler may occur as follows:41723

       (1) The direct sale and shipment of fireworks to a person 41724
outside of this state;41725

       (2) From an approved retail sales showroom as described in 41726
this section;41727

       (3) From a representative sample showroom as described in 41728
this section;41729

       (4) By delivery of wholesale fireworks to a purchaser at a 41730
licensed premises outside of a structure or building on that 41731
premises. All other portions of the wholesale sales transaction 41732
may occur at any location on a licensed premises.41733

       (5) Any other method as described in rules adopted by the 41734
state fire marshal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.41735

       (C) A licensed manufacturer or wholesaler shall only sell 41736
1.4G fireworks from a representative sample showroom or a retail 41737
sales showroom. Each licensed premises shall only contain one 41738
sales structure.41739

       A representative sample showroom shall consist of a structure 41740
constructed and maintained in accordance with the nonresidential 41741
building code adopted under Chapter 3781. of the Revised Code and 41742
the fire code adopted under section 3737.82 of the Revised Code 41743
for a use and occupancy group that permits mercantile sales. A 41744
representative sample showroom shall not contain any pyrotechnics, 41745
pyrotechnic materials, fireworks, explosives, explosive materials, 41746
or any similar hazardous materials or substances. A representative 41747
sample showroom shall be used only for the public viewing of 41748
fireworks product representations, including paper materials, 41749
packaging materials, catalogs, photographs, or other similar 41750
product depictions. The delivery of product to a purchaser of 41751
fireworks at a licensed premises that has a representative sample 41752
structure shall not occur inside any structure on a licensed 41753
premises. Such product delivery shall occur on the licensed 41754
premises in a manner prescribed by rules adopted by the state fire 41755
marshal pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 41756

       If a manufacturer or wholesaler elects to conduct sales from 41757
a retail sales showroom, the showroom structures, to which the 41758
public may have any access and in which employees are required to 41759
work, on all licensed premises, shall comply with the following 41760
safety requirements:41761

       (1) A fireworks showroom that is constructed or upon which 41762
expansion is undertaken on and after June 30, 1997, shall be 41763
equipped with interlinked fire detection, fire suppression, smoke 41764
exhaust, and smoke evacuation systems that are approved by the 41765
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance in the department of 41766
commerce.41767

       (2) A fireworks showroom that first begins to operate on or 41768
after June 30, 1997, and to which the public has access for retail 41769
purposes shall not exceed five thousand square feet in floor area.41770

       (3) A newly constructed or an existing fireworks showroom 41771
structure that exists on September 23, 2008, but that, on or after 41772
September 23, 2008, is altered or added to in a manner requiring 41773
the submission of plans, drawings, specifications, or data 41774
pursuant to section 3791.04 of the Revised Code, shall comply with 41775
a graphic floor plan layout that is approved by the state fire 41776
marshal and superintendent showing width of aisles, parallel 41777
arrangement of aisles to exits, number of exits per wall, maximum 41778
occupancy load, evacuation plan for occupants, height of storage 41779
or display of merchandise, and other information as may be 41780
required by the state fire marshal and superintendent.41781

       (4) A fireworks showroom structure that exists on June 30, 41782
1997, shall be in compliance on or after June 30, 1997, with floor 41783
plans showing occupancy load limits and internal circulation and 41784
egress patterns that are approved by the state fire marshal and 41785
superintendent, and that are submitted under seal as required by 41786
section 3791.04 of the Revised Code.41787

       (D) The safety requirements established in division (C) of 41788
this section are not subject to any variance, waiver, or exclusion 41789
pursuant to this chapter or any applicable building code.41790

       Sec. 3745.01.  There is hereby created the environmental 41791
protection agency, headed by the director of environmental 41792
protection. The agency, under the supervision of the director, 41793
shall administer the laws pertaining to chemical emergency 41794
planning, community right-to-know, and toxic chemical release 41795
reporting; the cessation of chemical handling operations; the 41796
prevention, control, and abatement of air and water pollution; 41797
public water supply; comprehensive water resource management 41798
planning; products that contain mercury as defined in section 41799
3734.61 of the Revised Code; and the disposal and treatment of 41800
solid wastes, infectious wastes, construction and demolition 41801
debris, hazardous waste, sewage, industrial waste, and other 41802
wastes. The director may do all of the following:41803

       (A) Provide such methods of administration, appoint such 41804
personnel, make such reports, and take such other action as may be 41805
necessary to comply with the requirements of the federal laws and 41806
regulations pertaining to chemical emergency planning, community 41807
right-to-know, and toxic chemical release reporting; air and water 41808
pollution control; public water supply; water resource planning; 41809
and waste disposal and treatment;41810

       (B) Procure by contract the temporary or intermittent 41811
services of experts or consultants, or organizations thereof, when 41812
those services are to be performed on a part-time or 41813
fee-for-service basis and do not involve the performance of 41814
administrative duties;41815

       (C) Advise, consult, cooperate, and enter into contracts or 41816
agreements, including consensual administrative order agreements,41817
with any other agencies of the state, the federal government, 41818
other states, and interstate agencies, and persons and with 41819
affected groups, political subdivisions, and industries in 41820
furtherance of the purposes of this chapter and Chapters 3704., 41821
3714., 3734., 3751., 3752., 6109., and 6111. of the Revised Code;41822

       (D) Establish advisory boards in accordance with section 41823
121.13 of the Revised Code;41824

       (E) Accept on behalf of the state any grant, gift, or 41825
contribution made for toxic chemical release reporting, air or 41826
water pollution control, public water supply, water resource 41827
planning, waste disposal or treatment, or related purposes, and 41828
expend it for those purposes;41829

       (F) Make an annual report to the governor and the general 41830
assembly on activities and expenditures as well as recommendations 41831
for such additional legislation as the director considers 41832
appropriate to carry out the director's duties or accomplish the 41833
purposes of this section;41834

       (G) Enter into environmental covenants in accordance with 41835
sections 5301.80 to 5301.92 of the Revised Code, and grant or 41836
accept easements or sell real property pursuant to section 41837
3734.22, 3734.24, 3734.25, or 3734.26 of the Revised Code, as 41838
applicable.41839

       The agency shall utilize the laboratory facilities of the 41840
department of health and other state institutions and agencies to 41841
the maximum extent that the utilization is practicable, 41842
economical, and technically satisfactory.41843

       The director shall maintain and keep available for public 41844
inspection, at the director's principal office, a current register 41845
of all applications filed for permits, leases, licenses, 41846
variances, certificates, and approval of plans and specifications 41847
and of publicly owned treatment works pretreatment programs under 41848
the director's jurisdiction, hearings pending, the director's 41849
final action thereon, and the dates on which the filings, 41850
hearings, and final actions occur. The director shall maintain and 41851
keep available for public inspection at the director's principal 41852
office all plans, reports, and other documents required to be 41853
filed with the emergency response commission under Chapter 3750. 41854
of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it, and all reports 41855
and other documents required to be filed with the director under 41856
Chapter 3751. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it, 41857
subject to the requirements of those chapters and rules adopted 41858
under them for the protection of trade secrets and confidential 41859
business information from disclosure to persons not authorized 41860
under those laws to receive trade secret or confidential business 41861
information.41862

       Sec. 3745.11.  (A) Applicants for and holders of permits, 41863
licenses, variances, plan approvals, and certifications issued by 41864
the director of environmental protection pursuant to Chapters 41865
3704., 3734., 6109., and 6111. of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 41866
to the environmental protection agency for each such issuance and 41867
each application for an issuance as provided by this section. No 41868
fee shall be charged for any issuance for which no application has 41869
been submitted to the director.41870

       (B) Each person who is issued a permit to install prior to 41871
July 1, 2003, pursuant to rules adopted under division (F) of 41872
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the fees specified 41873
in the following schedules:41874

       (1) Fuel-burning equipment (boilers)41875

Input capacity (maximum)   41876
(million British thermal units per hour) Permit to install 41877

Greater than 0, but less than 10 $ 200 41878
10 or more, but less than 100     400 41879
100 or more, but less than 300     800 41880
300 or more, but less than 500    1500 41881
500 or more, but less than 1000    2500 41882
1000 or more, but less than 5000  4000 41883
5000 or more  6000 41884

       Units burning exclusively natural gas, number two fuel oil, 41885
or both shall be assessed a fee that is one-half of the applicable 41886
amount established in division (F)(1) of this section.41887

       (2) Incinerators41888

Input capacity (pounds per hour) Permit to install 41889

0 to 100 $ 100 41890
101 to 500     400 41891
501 to 2000     750 41892
2001 to 20,000    1000 41893
more than 20,000    2500 41894

       (3)(a) Process41895

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 41896

0 to 1000 $ 200 41897
1001 to 5000     400 41898
5001 to 10,000     600 41899
10,001 to 50,000     800 41900
more than 50,000    1000 41901

       In any process where process weight rate cannot be 41902
ascertained, the minimum fee shall be assessed.41903

       (b) Notwithstanding division (B)(3)(a) of this section, any 41904
person issued a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 41905
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the 41906
fees established in division (B)(3)(c) of this section for a 41907
process used in any of the following industries, as identified by 41908
the applicable four-digit standard industrial classification code 41909
according to the Standard Industrial Classification Manual 41910
published by the United States office of management and budget in 41911
the executive office of the president, 1972, as revised:41912

       1211 Bituminous coal and lignite mining;41913

       1213 Bituminous coal and lignite mining services;41914

       1411 Dimension stone;41915

       1422 Crushed and broken limestone;41916

       1427 Crushed and broken stone, not elsewhere classified;41917

       1442 Construction sand and gravel;41918

       1446 Industrial sand;41919

       3281 Cut stone and stone products;41920

       3295 Minerals and earth, ground or otherwise treated.41921

       (c) The fees established in the following schedule apply to 41922
the issuance of a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted 41923
under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code for a 41924
process listed in division (B)(3)(b) of this section:41925

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 41926

0 to 1000 $ 200 41927
10,001 to 50,000   300 41928
50,001 to 100,000   400 41929
100,001 to 200,000   500 41930
200,001 to 400,000   600 41931
400,001 or more   700 41932

       (4) Storage tanks41933

Gallons (maximum useful capacity) Permit to install 41934

0 to 20,000 $ 100 41935
20,001 to 40,000   150 41936
40,001 to 100,000   200 41937
100,001 to 250,000   250 41938
250,001 to 500,000   350 41939
500,001 to 1,000,000     500 41940
1,000,001 or greater     750 41941

       (5) Gasoline/fuel dispensing facilities41942

For each gasoline/fuel dispensing Permit to install 41943
facility $ 100 41944

       (6) Dry cleaning facilities41945

For each dry cleaning facility Permit to install 41946
(includes all units at the facility) $ 100 41947

       (7) Registration status41948

For each source covered Permit to install 41949
by registration status $  75 41950

       (C)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of 41951
this section, beginning July 1, 1994, each person who owns or 41952
operates an air contaminant source and who is required to apply 41953
for and obtain a Title V permit under section 3704.036 of the 41954
Revised Code shall pay the fees set forth in this division (C)(1) 41955
of this section. For the purposes of thatthis division, total 41956
emissions of air contaminants may be calculated using engineering 41957
calculations, emissions factors, material balance calculations, or 41958
performance testing procedures, as authorized by the director.41959

       The following fees shall be assessed on the total actual 41960
emissions from a source in tons per year of the regulated 41961
pollutants particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, 41962
organic compounds, and lead:41963

       (a)(1) Fifteen dollars per ton on the total actual emissions 41964
of each such regulated pollutant during the period July through 41965
December 1993, to be collected no sooner than July 1, 1994;41966

       (b)(2) Twenty dollars per ton on the total actual emissions 41967
of each such regulated pollutant during calendar year 1994, to be 41968
collected no sooner than April 15, 1995;41969

       (c)(3) Twenty-five dollars per ton on the total actual 41970
emissions of each such regulated pollutant in calendar year 1995, 41971
and each subsequent calendar year, to be collected no sooner than 41972
the fifteenth day of April of the year next succeeding the 41973
calendar year in which the emissions occurred.41974

       The fees levied under this division (C)(1) of this section do 41975
not apply to that portion of the emissions of a regulated 41976
pollutant at a facility that exceed four thousand tons during a 41977
calendar year.41978

       (2)(C)(1) The fees assessed under division (C)(1)(B) of this 41979
section are for the purpose of providing funding for the Title V 41980
permit program.41981

       (3)(2) The fees assessed under division (C)(1)(B) of this 41982
section do not apply to emissions from any electric generating 41983
unit designated as a Phase I unit under Title IV of the federal 41984
Clean Air Act prior to calendar year 2000. Those fees shall be 41985
assessed on the emissions from such a generating unit commencing 41986
in calendar year 2001 based upon the total actual emissions from 41987
the generating unit during calendar year 2000 and shall continue 41988
to be assessed each subsequent calendar year based on the total 41989
actual emissions from the generating unit during the preceding 41990
calendar year.41991

       (4)(3) The director shall issue invoices to owners or 41992
operators of air contaminant sources who are required to pay a fee 41993
assessed under division (C)(B) or (D) of this section. Any such 41994
invoice shall be issued no sooner than the applicable date when 41995
the fee first may be collected in a year under the applicable 41996
division, shall identify the nature and amount of the fee 41997
assessed, and shall indicate that the fee is required to be paid 41998
within thirty days after the issuance of the invoice.41999

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 42000
from January 1, 1994, through December 31, 2003, each person who 42001
owns or operates an air contaminant source; who is required to 42002
apply for a permit to operate pursuant to rules adopted under 42003
division (G), or a variance pursuant to division (H), of section 42004
3704.03 of the Revised Code; and who is not required to apply for 42005
and obtain a Title V permit under section 3704.036 of the Revised 42006
Code shall pay a single fee based upon the sum of the actual 42007
annual emissions from the facility of the regulated pollutants 42008
particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, organic 42009
compounds, and lead in accordance with the following schedule:42010

Total tons per year 42011
of regulated pollutants Annual fee 42012
emitted per facility 42013
More than 0, but less than 50    $ 75 42014
50 or more, but less than 100     300 42015
100 or more     700 42016

       (2) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 42017
beginning January 1, 2004, each person who owns or operates an air 42018
contaminant source; who is required to apply for a permit to 42019
operate pursuant to rules adopted under division (G), or a 42020
variance pursuant to division (H), of section 3704.03 of the 42021
Revised Code; and who is not required to apply for and obtain a 42022
Title V permit under section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay 42023
a single fee based upon the sum of the actual annual emissions 42024
from the facility of the regulated pollutants particulate matter, 42025
sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, organic compounds, and lead in 42026
accordance with the following schedule:42027

Total tons per year 42028
of regulated pollutants Annual fee 42029
emitted per facility 42030
More than 0, but less than 10    $ 100 42031
10 or more, but less than 50      200 42032
50 or more, but less than 100      300 42033
100 or more      700 42034

       (3)(a) As used in division (D) of this section, "synthetic 42035
minor facility" means a facility for which one or more permits to 42036
install or permits to operate have been issued for the air 42037
contaminant sources at the facility that include terms and 42038
conditions that lower the facility's potential to emit air 42039
contaminants below the major source thresholds established in 42040
rules adopted under section 3704.036 of the Revised Code.42041

       (b) Beginning January 1, 2000, through June 30, 2014, each 42042
person who owns or operates a synthetic minor facility shall pay 42043
an annual fee based on the sum of the actual annual emissions from 42044
the facility of particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen 42045
dioxide, organic compounds, and lead in accordance with the 42046
following schedule:42047

Combined total tons 42048
per year of all regulated Annual fee 42049
pollutants emitted per facility 42050

Less than 10 $ 170 42051
10 or more, but less than 20   340 42052
20 or more, but less than 30   670 42053
30 or more, but less than 40 1,010 42054
40 or more, but less than 50 1,340 42055
50 or more, but less than 60 1,680 42056
60 or more, but less than 70 2,010 42057
70 or more, but less than 80 2,350 42058
80 or more, but less than 90 2,680 42059
90 or more, but less than 100 3,020 42060
100 or more 3,350 42061

       (4) The fees assessed under division (D)(1) of this section 42062
shall be collected annually no sooner than the fifteenth day of 42063
April, commencing in 1995. The fees assessed under division (D)(2) 42064
of this section shall be collected annually no sooner than the 42065
fifteenth day of April, commencing in 2005. The fees assessed 42066
under division (D)(3) of this section shall be collected no sooner 42067
than the fifteenth day of April, commencing in 2000. The fees 42068
assessed under division (D) of this section in a calendar year 42069
shall be based upon the sum of the actual emissions of those 42070
regulated pollutants during the preceding calendar year. For the 42071
purpose of division (D) of this section, emissions of air 42072
contaminants may be calculated using engineering calculations, 42073
emission factors, material balance calculations, or performance 42074
testing procedures, as authorized by the director. The director, 42075
by rule, may require persons who are required to pay the fees 42076
assessed under division (D) of this section to pay those fees 42077
biennially rather than annually.42078

       (E)(1) Consistent with the need to cover the reasonable costs 42079
of the Title V permit program, the director annually shall 42080
increase the fees prescribed in division (C)(1)(B) of this section 42081
by the percentage, if any, by which the consumer price index for 42082
the most recent calendar year ending before the beginning of a 42083
year exceeds the consumer price index for calendar year 1989. Upon 42084
calculating an increase in fees authorized by division (E)(1) of 42085
this section, the director shall compile revised fee schedules for 42086
the purposes of division (C)(1)(B) of this section and shall make 42087
the revised schedules available to persons required to pay the 42088
fees assessed under that division and to the public.42089

       (2) For the purposes of division (E)(1) of this section:42090

       (a) The consumer price index for any year is the average of 42091
the consumer price index for all urban consumers published by the 42092
United States department of labor as of the close of the 42093
twelve-month period ending on the thirty-first day of August of 42094
that year.42095

       (b) If the 1989 consumer price index is revised, the director 42096
shall use the revision of the consumer price index that is most 42097
consistent with that for calendar year 1989.42098

       (F) Each person who is issued a permit to install pursuant to 42099
rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised 42100
Code on or after July 1, 2003, shall pay the fees specified in the 42101
following schedules:42102

       (1) Fuel-burning equipment (boilers, furnaces, or process 42103
heaters used in the process of burning fuel for the primary 42104
purpose of producing heat or power by indirect heat transfer)42105

Input capacity (maximum) 42106
(million British thermal units per hour) Permit to install 42107
Greater than 0, but less than 10    $ 200 42108
10 or more, but less than 100      400 42109
100 or more, but less than 300     1000 42110
300 or more, but less than 500     2250 42111
500 or more, but less than 1000     3750 42112
1000 or more, but less than 5000     6000 42113
5000 or more     9000 42114

       Units burning exclusively natural gas, number two fuel oil, 42115
or both shall be assessed a fee that is one-half the applicable 42116
amount shown in division (F)(1) of this section.42117

       (2) Combustion turbines and stationary internal combustion 42118
engines designed to generate electricity42119

Generating capacity (mega watts) Permit to install 42120
0 or more, but less than 10    $  25 42121
10 or more, but less than 25      150 42122
25 or more, but less than 50      300 42123
50 or more, but less than 100      500 42124
100 or more, but less than 250     1000 42125
250 or more     2000 42126

       (3) Incinerators42127

Input capacity (pounds per hour) Permit to install 42128
0 to 100    $ 100 42129
101 to 500      500 42130
501 to 2000     1000 42131
2001 to 20,000     1500 42132
more than 20,000     3750 42133

       (4)(a) Process42134

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 42135
0 to 1000    $ 200 42136
1001 to 5000      500 42137
5001 to 10,000      750 42138
10,001 to 50,000     1000 42139
more than 50,000     1250 42140

       In any process where process weight rate cannot be 42141
ascertained, the minimum fee shall be assessed. A boiler, furnace, 42142
combustion turbine, stationary internal combustion engine, or 42143
process heater designed to provide direct heat or power to a 42144
process not designed to generate electricity shall be assessed a 42145
fee established in division (F)(4)(a) of this section. A 42146
combustion turbine or stationary internal combustion engine 42147
designed to generate electricity shall be assessed a fee 42148
established in division (F)(2) of this section.42149

       (b) Notwithstanding division (F)(4)(a) of this section, any 42150
person issued a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 42151
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the 42152
fees set forth in division (F)(4)(c) of this section for a process 42153
used in any of the following industries, as identified by the 42154
applicable two-digit, three-digit, or four-digit standard 42155
industrial classification code according to the Standard 42156
Industrial Classification Manual published by the United States 42157
office of management and budget in the executive office of the 42158
president, 1987, as revised:42159

        Major group 10, metal mining;42160

       Major group 12, coal mining;42161

       Major group 14, mining and quarrying of nonmetallic minerals;42162

       Industry group 204, grain mill products;42163

       2873 Nitrogen fertilizers;42164

       2874 Phosphatic fertilizers;42165

       3281 Cut stone and stone products;42166

       3295 Minerals and earth, ground or otherwise treated;42167

       4221 Grain elevators (storage only);42168

       5159 Farm related raw materials;42169

       5261 Retail nurseries and lawn and garden supply stores.42170

       (c) The fees set forth in the following schedule apply to the 42171
issuance of a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 42172
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code for a process 42173
identified in division (F)(4)(b) of this section:42174

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 42175
0 to 10,000   $  200 42176
10,001 to 50,000      400 42177
50,001 to 100,000      500 42178
100,001 to 200,000      600 42179
200,001 to 400,000      750 42180
400,001 or more      900 42181

       (5) Storage tanks42182

Gallons (maximum useful capacity) Permit to install 42183
0 to 20,000   $  100 42184
20,001 to 40,000      150 42185
40,001 to 100,000      250 42186
100,001 to 500,000      400 42187
500,001 or greater      750 42188

       (6) Gasoline/fuel dispensing facilities42189

For each gasoline/fuel 42190
dispensing facility (includes all Permit to install 42191
units at the facility)     $ 100 42192

       (7) Dry cleaning facilities42193

For each dry cleaning 42194
facility (includes all units Permit to install 42195
at the facility)     $ 100 42196

       (8) Registration status42197

For each source covered Permit to install 42198
by registration status     $  75 42199

       (G) An owner or operator who is responsible for an asbestos 42200
demolition or renovation project pursuant to rules adopted under 42201
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the fees set forth 42202
in the following schedule:42203

Action Fee 42204
Each notification $75 42205
Asbestos removal $3/unit 42206
Asbestos cleanup $4/cubic yard 42207

For purposes of this division, "unit" means any combination of 42208
linear feet or square feet equal to fifty.42209

       (H) A person who is issued an extension of time for a permit 42210
to install an air contaminant source pursuant to rules adopted 42211
under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall 42212
pay a fee equal to one-half the fee originally assessed for the 42213
permit to install under this section, except that the fee for such 42214
an extension shall not exceed two hundred dollars.42215

       (I) A person who is issued a modification to a permit to 42216
install an air contaminant source pursuant to rules adopted under 42217
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee equal to 42218
one-half of the fee that would be assessed under this section to 42219
obtain a permit to install the source. The fee assessed by this 42220
division only applies to modifications that are initiated by the 42221
owner or operator of the source and shall not exceed two thousand 42222
dollars.42223

       (J) Notwithstanding division (B) or (F) of this section, a 42224
person who applies for or obtains a permit to install pursuant to 42225
rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised 42226
Code after the date actual construction of the source began shall 42227
pay a fee for the permit to install that is equal to twice the fee 42228
that otherwise would be assessed under the applicable division 42229
unless the applicant received authorization to begin construction 42230
under division (W) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code. This 42231
division only applies to sources for which actual construction of 42232
the source begins on or after July 1, 1993. The imposition or 42233
payment of the fee established in this division does not preclude 42234
the director from taking any administrative or judicial 42235
enforcement action under this chapter, Chapter 3704., 3714., 42236
3734., or 6111. of the Revised Code, or a rule adopted under any 42237
of them, in connection with a violation of rules adopted under 42238
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code.42239

       As used in this division, "actual construction of the source" 42240
means the initiation of physical on-site construction activities 42241
in connection with improvements to the source that are permanent 42242
in nature, including, without limitation, the installation of 42243
building supports and foundations and the laying of underground 42244
pipework.42245

       (K) Fifty(1) Money received under division (B) of this 42246
section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of 42247
the Title V clean air fund created in section 3704.035 of the 42248
Revised Code. Annually, fifty cents per ton of each fee assessed 42249
under division (C)(B) of this section on actual emissions from a 42250
source and received by the environmental protection agency 42251
pursuant to that division shall be deposited intotransferred 42252
using an interstate transfer voucher to the state treasury to the 42253
credit of the small business assistance fund created in section 42254
3706.19 of the Revised Code. The remainder of the moneysIn 42255
addition, annually, the amount of money necessary for the 42256
operation of the office of ombudsperson as determined under 42257
division (B) of that section shall be transferred to the state 42258
treasury to the credit of the small business ombudsperson fund 42259
created by that section.42260

       (2) Money received by the division pursuant to that division 42261
and moneys received by the agency pursuant to divisions (D), (F), 42262
(G), (H), (I), and (J) of this section shall be deposited in the 42263
state treasury to the credit of the non-Title V clean air fund 42264
created in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code.42265

       (L)(1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (L)(1)(b) 42266
or (c) of this section, a person issued a water discharge permit 42267
or renewal of a water discharge permit pursuant to Chapter 6111. 42268
of the Revised Code shall pay a fee based on each point source to 42269
which the issuance is applicable in accordance with the following 42270
schedule:42271

Design flow discharge (gallons per day) Fee  42272
0 to 1000 $  0 42273
1,001 to 5000 100 42274
5,001 to 50,000 200 42275
50,001 to 100,000 300 42276
100,001 to 300,000 525 42277
over 300,000 750 42278

       (b) Notwithstanding the fee schedule specified in division 42279
(L)(1)(a) of this section, the fee for a water discharge permit 42280
that is applicable to coal mining operations regulated under 42281
Chapter 1513. of the Revised Code shall be two hundred fifty 42282
dollars per mine.42283

       (c) Notwithstanding the fee schedule specified in division 42284
(L)(1)(a) of this section, the fee for a water discharge permit 42285
for a public discharger identified by I in the third character of 42286
the permittee's NPDES permit number shall not exceed seven hundred 42287
fifty dollars.42288

       (2) A person applying for a plan approval for a wastewater 42289
treatment works pursuant to section 6111.44, 6111.45, or 6111.46 42290
of the Revised Code shall pay a fee of one hundred dollars plus 42291
sixty-five one-hundredths of one per cent of the estimated project 42292
cost through June 30, 2014, and one hundred dollars plus 42293
two-tenths of one per cent of the estimated project cost on and 42294
after July 1, 2014, except that the total fee shall not exceed 42295
fifteen thousand dollars through June 30, 2014, and five thousand 42296
dollars on and after July 1, 2014. The fee shall be paid at the 42297
time the application is submitted.42298

       (3) A person issued a modification of a water discharge 42299
permit shall pay a fee equal to one-half the fee that otherwise 42300
would be charged for a water discharge permit, except that the fee 42301
for the modification shall not exceed four hundred dollars.42302

       (4) A person who has entered into an agreement with the 42303
director under section 6111.14 of the Revised Code shall pay an 42304
administrative service fee for each plan submitted under that 42305
section for approval that shall not exceed the minimum amount 42306
necessary to pay administrative costs directly attributable to 42307
processing plan approvals. The director annually shall calculate 42308
the fee and shall notify all persons who have entered into 42309
agreements under that section, or who have applied for agreements, 42310
of the amount of the fee.42311

       (5)(a)(i) Not later than January 30, 2012, and January 30, 42312
2013, a person holding an NPDES discharge permit issued pursuant 42313
to Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code with an average daily 42314
discharge flow of five thousand gallons or more shall pay a 42315
nonrefundable annual discharge fee. Any person who fails to pay 42316
the fee at that time shall pay an additional amount that equals 42317
ten per cent of the required annual discharge fee.42318

       (ii) The billing year for the annual discharge fee 42319
established in division (L)(5)(a)(i) of this section shall consist 42320
of a twelve-month period beginning on the first day of January of 42321
the year preceding the date when the annual discharge fee is due. 42322
In the case of an existing source that permanently ceases to 42323
discharge during a billing year, the director shall reduce the 42324
annual discharge fee, including the surcharge applicable to 42325
certain industrial facilities pursuant to division (L)(5)(c) of 42326
this section, by one-twelfth for each full month during the 42327
billing year that the source was not discharging, but only if the 42328
person holding the NPDES discharge permit for the source notifies 42329
the director in writing, not later than the first day of October 42330
of the billing year, of the circumstances causing the cessation of 42331
discharge.42332

       (iii) The annual discharge fee established in division 42333
(L)(5)(a)(i) of this section, except for the surcharge applicable 42334
to certain industrial facilities pursuant to division (L)(5)(c) of 42335
this section, shall be based upon the average daily discharge flow 42336
in gallons per day calculated using first day of May through 42337
thirty-first day of October flow data for the period two years 42338
prior to the date on which the fee is due. In the case of NPDES 42339
discharge permits for new sources, the fee shall be calculated 42340
using the average daily design flow of the facility until actual 42341
average daily discharge flow values are available for the time 42342
period specified in division (L)(5)(a)(iii) of this section. The 42343
annual discharge fee may be prorated for a new source as described 42344
in division (L)(5)(a)(ii) of this section.42345

       (b) An NPDES permit holder that is a public discharger shall 42346
pay the fee specified in the following schedule:42347

Average daily Fee due by 42348
discharge flow January 30, 42349
2012, and 42350
January 30, 2013 42351

5,000 to 49,999 $ 200 42352
50,000 to 100,000 500 42353
100,001 to 250,000 1,050 42354
250,001 to 1,000,000 2,600 42355
1,000,001 to 5,000,000 5,200 42356
5,000,001 to 10,000,000 10,350 42357
10,000,001 to 20,000,000 15,550 42358
20,000,001 to 50,000,000 25,900 42359
50,000,001 to 100,000,000 41,400 42360
100,000,001 or more 62,100 42361

       Public dischargers owning or operating two or more publicly 42362
owned treatment works serving the same political subdivision, as 42363
"treatment works" is defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised 42364
Code, and that serve exclusively political subdivisions having a 42365
population of fewer than one hundred thousand shall pay an annual 42366
discharge fee under division (L)(5)(b) of this section that is 42367
based on the combined average daily discharge flow of the 42368
treatment works.42369

       (c) An NPDES permit holder that is an industrial discharger, 42370
other than a coal mining operator identified by P in the third 42371
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number, shall pay the 42372
fee specified in the following schedule:42373

Average daily Fee due by 42374
discharge flow January 30, 42375
2012, and 42376
January 30, 2013 42377

5,000 to 49,999 $ 250 42378
50,000 to 250,000 1,200 42379
250,001 to 1,000,000 2,950 42380
1,000,001 to 5,000,000 5,850 42381
5,000,001 to 10,000,000 8,800 42382
10,000,001 to 20,000,000 11,700 42383
20,000,001 to 100,000,000 14,050 42384
100,000,001 to 250,000,000 16,400 42385
250,000,001 or more 18,700 42386

       In addition to the fee specified in the above schedule, an 42387
NPDES permit holder that is an industrial discharger classified as 42388
a major discharger during all or part of the annual discharge fee 42389
billing year specified in division (L)(5)(a)(ii) of this section 42390
shall pay a nonrefundable annual surcharge of seven thousand five 42391
hundred dollars not later than January 30, 2012, and not later 42392
than January 30, 2013. Any person who fails to pay the surcharge 42393
at that time shall pay an additional amount that equals ten per 42394
cent of the amount of the surcharge.42395

       (d) Notwithstanding divisions (L)(5)(b) and (c) of this 42396
section, a public discharger identified by I in the third 42397
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number and an industrial 42398
discharger identified by I, J, L, V, W, X, Y, or Z in the third 42399
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number shall pay a 42400
nonrefundable annual discharge fee of one hundred eighty dollars 42401
not later than January 30, 2012, and not later than January 30, 42402
2013. Any person who fails to pay the fee at that time shall pay 42403
an additional amount that equals ten per cent of the required fee.42404

       (6) Each person obtaining a national pollutant discharge 42405
elimination system general or individual permit for municipal 42406
storm water discharge shall pay a nonrefundable storm water 42407
discharge fee of one hundred dollars per square mile of area 42408
permitted. The fee shall not exceed ten thousand dollars and shall 42409
be payable on or before January 30, 2004, and the thirtieth day of 42410
January of each year thereafter. Any person who fails to pay the 42411
fee on the date specified in division (L)(6) of this section shall 42412
pay an additional amount per year equal to ten per cent of the 42413
annual fee that is unpaid.42414

       (7) The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 42415
division (L) of this section to the treasurer of state for deposit 42416
into the state treasury to the credit of the surface water 42417
protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code.42418

       (8) As used in division (L) of this section:42419

       (a) "NPDES" means the federally approved national pollutant 42420
discharge elimination system program for issuing, modifying, 42421
revoking, reissuing, terminating, monitoring, and enforcing 42422
permits and imposing and enforcing pretreatment requirements under 42423
Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it.42424

       (b) "Public discharger" means any holder of an NPDES permit 42425
identified by P in the second character of the NPDES permit number 42426
assigned by the director.42427

       (c) "Industrial discharger" means any holder of an NPDES 42428
permit identified by I in the second character of the NPDES permit 42429
number assigned by the director.42430

       (d) "Major discharger" means any holder of an NPDES permit 42431
classified as major by the regional administrator of the United 42432
States environmental protection agency in conjunction with the 42433
director.42434

       (M) Through June 30, 2014, a person applying for a license or 42435
license renewal to operate a public water system under section 42436
6109.21 of the Revised Code shall pay the appropriate fee 42437
established under this division at the time of application to the 42438
director. Any person who fails to pay the fee at that time shall 42439
pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent of the required 42440
fee. The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 42441
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 42442
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 42443
Code.42444

        Except as provided in division (M)(4) of this section, fees 42445
required under this division shall be calculated and paid in 42446
accordance with the following schedule:42447

       (1) For the initial license required under division (A)(1) of42448
section 6109.21 of the Revised Code for any public water system 42449
that is a community water system as defined in section 6109.01 of 42450
the Revised Code, and for each license renewal required for such a 42451
system prior to January 31, 2014, the fee is:42452

Number of service connections Fee amount 42453
Not more than 49    $ 112 42454
50 to 99      176 42455

Number of service connections Average cost per connection 42456
100 to 2,499 $ 1.92 42457
2,500 to 4,999   1.48 42458
5,000 to 7,499   1.42 42459
7,500 to 9,999   1.34 42460
10,000 to 14,999   1.16 42461
15,000 to 24,999   1.10 42462
25,000 to 49,999   1.04 42463
50,000 to 99,999   .92 42464
100,000 to 149,999   .86 42465
150,000 to 199,999   .80 42466
200,000 or more   .76 42467

       A public water system may determine how it will pay the total 42468
amount of the fee calculated under division (M)(1) of this 42469
section, including the assessment of additional user fees that may 42470
be assessed on a volumetric basis.42471

       As used in division (M)(1) of this section, "service 42472
connection" means the number of active or inactive pipes, 42473
goosenecks, pigtails, and any other fittings connecting a water 42474
main to any building outlet.42475

       (2) For the initial license required under division (A)(2) of42476
section 6109.21 of the Revised Code for any public water system 42477
that is not a community water system and serves a nontransient 42478
population, and for each license renewal required for such a 42479
system prior to January 31, 2014, the fee is:42480

Population served Fee amount 42481
Fewer than 150 $    112 42482
150 to 299      176 42483
300 to 749      384 42484
750 to 1,499      628 42485
1,500 to 2,999    1,268 42486
3,000 to 7,499    2,816 42487
7,500 to 14,999    5,510 42488
15,000 to 22,499    9,048 42489
22,500 to 29,999   12,430 42490
30,000 or more   16,820 42491

       As used in division (M)(2) of this section, "population 42492
served" means the total number of individuals having access to the 42493
water supply during a twenty-four-hour period for at least sixty 42494
days during any calendar year. In the absence of a specific 42495
population count, that number shall be calculated at the rate of 42496
three individuals per service connection.42497

       (3) For the initial license required under division (A)(3) of42498
section 6109.21 of the Revised Code for any public water system 42499
that is not a community water system and serves a transient 42500
population, and for each license renewal required for such a 42501
system prior to January 31, 2014, the fee is:42502

  Number of wells or sources, other than surface water, supplying system Fee amount 42503
1 $112 42504
2  112 42505
3  176 42506
4  278 42507
5  568 42508
System designated as using a 42509
surface water source  792 42510

       As used in division (M)(3) of this section, "number of wells 42511
or sources, other than surface water, supplying system" means 42512
those wells or sources that are physically connected to the 42513
plumbing system serving the public water system.42514

       (4) A public water system designated as using a surface water 42515
source shall pay a fee of seven hundred ninety-two dollars or the 42516
amount calculated under division (M)(1) or (2) of this section, 42517
whichever is greater.42518

       (N)(1) A person applying for a plan approval for a public 42519
water supply system under section 6109.07 of the Revised Code 42520
shall pay a fee of one hundred fifty dollars plus thirty-five 42521
hundredths of one per cent of the estimated project cost, except 42522
that the total fee shall not exceed twenty thousand dollars 42523
through June 30, 2014, and fifteen thousand dollars on and after 42524
July 1, 2014. The fee shall be paid at the time the application is 42525
submitted.42526

       (2) A person who has entered into an agreement with the 42527
director under division (A)(2) of section 6109.07 of the Revised 42528
Code shall pay an administrative service fee for each plan 42529
submitted under that section for approval that shall not exceed 42530
the minimum amount necessary to pay administrative costs directly 42531
attributable to processing plan approvals. The director annually 42532
shall calculate the fee and shall notify all persons that have 42533
entered into agreements under that division, or who have applied 42534
for agreements, of the amount of the fee.42535

       (3) Through June 30, 2014, the following fee, on a per survey 42536
basis, shall be charged any person for services rendered by the 42537
state in the evaluation of laboratories and laboratory personnel 42538
for compliance with accepted analytical techniques and procedures 42539
established pursuant to Chapter 6109. of the Revised Code for 42540
determining the qualitative characteristics of water:42541

microbiological 42542
MMO-MUG $2,000 42543
MF 2,100 42544
MMO-MUG and MF 2,550 42545
organic chemical 5,400 42546
trace metals 5,400 42547
standard chemistry 2,800 42548
limited chemistry 1,550 42549

       On and after July 1, 2014, the following fee, on a per survey 42550
basis, shall be charged any such person:42551

microbiological $ 1,650 42552
organic chemicals 3,500 42553
trace metals 3,500 42554
standard chemistry 1,800 42555
limited chemistry 1,000 42556

The fee for those services shall be paid at the time the request 42557
for the survey is made. Through June 30, 2014, an individual 42558
laboratory shall not be assessed a fee under this division more 42559
than once in any three-year period unless the person requests the 42560
addition of analytical methods or analysts, in which case the 42561
person shall pay eighteen hundred dollars for each additional 42562
survey requested.42563

       As used in division (N)(3) of this section:42564

        (a) "MF" means microfiltration.42565

        (b) "MMO" means minimal medium ONPG.42566

        (c) "MUG" means 4-methylumbelliferyl-beta-D-glucuronide.42567

        (d) "ONPG" means o-nitrophenyl-beta-D-galactopyranoside.42568

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 42569
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 42570
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 42571
Code.42572

        (O) Any person applying to the director forto take an42573
examination for certification as an operator of a water supply 42574
system or wastewater system under Chapter 6109. or 6111. of the 42575
Revised Code that is administered by the director, at the time the 42576
application is submitted, shall pay an application fee of 42577
forty-five dollars through November 30, 2014, and twenty-five 42578
dollars on and after December 1, 2014. Upon approval from the 42579
director that the applicant is eligible to take the examination 42580
therefor, the applicant shall pay a fee in accordance with the 42581
following schedule through November 30, 2014:42582

Class A operator $35 80 42583
Class I operator  60 105 42584
Class II operator  75 120 42585
Class III operator  85 130 42586
Class IV operator  100 145 42587

       On and after December 1, 2014, the applicant shall pay a fee 42588
in accordance with the following schedule:42589

Class A operator $25 50 42590
Class I operator $45 70 42591
Class II operator  55 80 42592
Class III operator  65 90 42593
Class IV operator  75 100 42594

       Any person applying to the director for certification as an 42595
operator of a water supply system or wastewater system who has 42596
passed an examination administered by an examination provider 42597
approved by the director shall pay a certification fee of 42598
forty-five dollars.42599

       A person shall pay a biennial certification renewal fee for 42600
each applicable class of certification in accordance with the 42601
following schedule:42602

Class A operator $25 42603
Class I operator  35 42604
Class II operator  45 42605
Class III operator  55 42606
Class IV operator  65 42607

        If a certification renewal fee is received by the director 42608
more than thirty days, but not more than one year after the 42609
expiration date of the certification, the person shall pay a 42610
certification renewal fee in accordance with the following 42611
schedule:42612

Class A operator $45 42613
Class I operator  55 42614
Class II operator  65 42615
Class III operator  75 42616
Class IV operator  85 42617

       A person who requests a replacement certificate shall pay a 42618
fee of twenty-five dollars at the time the request is made.42619

       Any person applying to be a water supply system or wastewater 42620
treatment system examination provider shall pay an application fee 42621
of five hundred dollars. Any person approved by the director as a 42622
water supply system or wastewater treatment system examination 42623
provider shall pay an annual fee that is equal to ten per cent of 42624
the fees that the provider assesses and collects for administering 42625
water supply system or wastewater treatment system certification 42626
examinations in this state for the calendar year. The fee shall be 42627
paid not later than forty-five days after the end of a calendar 42628
year.42629

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 42630
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 42631
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 42632
Code.42633

       (P) Any person submitting an application for an industrial 42634
water pollution control certificate under section 6111.31 of the 42635
Revised Code, as that section existed before its repeal by H.B. 95 42636
of the 125th general assembly, shall pay a nonrefundable fee of 42637
five hundred dollars at the time the application is submitted. The 42638
director shall transmit all moneys collected under this division 42639
to the treasurer of state for deposit into the surface water 42640
protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code. A 42641
person paying a certificate fee under this division shall not pay 42642
an application fee under division (S)(1) of this section. On and 42643
after June 26, 2003, persons shall file such applications and pay 42644
the fee as required under sections 5709.20 to 5709.27 of the 42645
Revised Code, and proceeds from the fee shall be credited as 42646
provided in section 5709.212 of the Revised Code.42647

       (Q) Except as otherwise provided in division (R) of this 42648
section, a person issued a permit by the director for a new solid 42649
waste disposal facility other than an incineration or composting 42650
facility, a new infectious waste treatment facility other than an 42651
incineration facility, or a modification of such an existing 42652
facility that includes an increase in the total disposal or 42653
treatment capacity of the facility pursuant to Chapter 3734. of 42654
the Revised Code shall pay a fee of ten dollars per thousand cubic 42655
yards of disposal or treatment capacity, or one thousand dollars, 42656
whichever is greater, except that the total fee for any such 42657
permit shall not exceed eighty thousand dollars. A person issued a 42658
modification of a permit for a solid waste disposal facility or an 42659
infectious waste treatment facility that does not involve an 42660
increase in the total disposal or treatment capacity of the 42661
facility shall pay a fee of one thousand dollars. A person issued 42662
a permit to install a new, or modify an existing, solid waste 42663
transfer facility under that chapter shall pay a fee of two 42664
thousand five hundred dollars. A person issued a permit to install 42665
a new or to modify an existing solid waste incineration or 42666
composting facility, or an existing infectious waste treatment 42667
facility using incineration as its principal method of treatment, 42668
under that chapter shall pay a fee of one thousand dollars. The 42669
increases in the permit fees under this division resulting from 42670
the amendments made by Amended Substitute House Bill 592 of the 42671
117th general assembly do not apply to any person who submitted an 42672
application for a permit to install a new, or modify an existing, 42673
solid waste disposal facility under that chapter prior to 42674
September 1, 1987; any such person shall pay the permit fee 42675
established in this division as it existed prior to June 24, 1988. 42676
In addition to the applicable permit fee under this division, a 42677
person issued a permit to install or modify a solid waste facility 42678
or an infectious waste treatment facility under that chapter who 42679
fails to pay the permit fee to the director in compliance with 42680
division (V) of this section shall pay an additional ten per cent 42681
of the amount of the fee for each week that the permit fee is 42682
late.42683

       Permit and late payment fees paid to the director under this 42684
division shall be credited to the general revenue fund.42685

       (R)(1) A person issued a registration certificate for a scrap 42686
tire collection facility under section 3734.75 of the Revised Code 42687
shall pay a fee of two hundred dollars, except that if the 42688
facility is owned or operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer 42689
licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall 42690
pay a fee of twenty-five dollars.42691

       (2) A person issued a registration certificate for a new 42692
scrap tire storage facility under section 3734.76 of the Revised 42693
Code shall pay a fee of three hundred dollars, except that if the 42694
facility is owned or operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer 42695
licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall 42696
pay a fee of twenty-five dollars.42697

       (3) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire storage 42698
facility under section 3734.76 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 42699
of one thousand dollars, except that if the facility is owned or 42700
operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 42701
4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall pay a fee of fifty 42702
dollars.42703

       (4) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire monocell or 42704
monofill facility under section 3734.77 of the Revised Code shall 42705
pay a fee of ten dollars per thousand cubic yards of disposal 42706
capacity or one thousand dollars, whichever is greater, except 42707
that the total fee for any such permit shall not exceed eighty 42708
thousand dollars.42709

       (5) A person issued a registration certificate for a scrap 42710
tire recovery facility under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code 42711
shall pay a fee of one hundred dollars.42712

       (6) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire recovery 42713
facility under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 42714
of one thousand dollars.42715

       (7) In addition to the applicable registration certificate or 42716
permit fee under divisions (R)(1) to (6) of this section, a person 42717
issued a registration certificate or permit for any such scrap 42718
tire facility who fails to pay the registration certificate or 42719
permit fee to the director in compliance with division (V) of this 42720
section shall pay an additional ten per cent of the amount of the 42721
fee for each week that the fee is late.42722

       (8) The registration certificate, permit, and late payment 42723
fees paid to the director under divisions (R)(1) to (7) of this 42724
section shall be credited to the scrap tire management fund 42725
created in section 3734.82 of the Revised Code.42726

       (S)(1) Except as provided by divisions (L), (M), (N), (O), 42727
(P), and (S)(2) of this section, division (A)(2) of section 42728
3734.05 of the Revised Code, section 3734.79 of the Revised Code, 42729
and rules adopted under division (T)(1) of this section, any 42730
person applying for a registration certificate under section 42731
3734.75, 3734.76, or 3734.78 of the Revised Code or a permit, 42732
variance, or plan approval under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code 42733
shall pay a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the time the 42734
application is submitted.42735

       Except as otherwise provided, any person applying for a 42736
permit, variance, or plan approval under Chapter 6109. or 6111. of 42737
the Revised Code shall pay a nonrefundable fee of one hundred 42738
dollars at the time the application is submitted through June 30, 42739
2014, and a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the time the 42740
application is submitted on and after July 1, 2014. Except as 42741
provided in division (S)(3) of this section, through June 30, 42742
2014, any person applying for a national pollutant discharge 42743
elimination system permit under Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code 42744
shall pay a nonrefundable fee of two hundred dollars at the time 42745
of application for the permit. On and after July 1, 2014, such a 42746
person shall pay a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the 42747
time of application.42748

       In addition to the application fee established under division 42749
(S)(1) of this section, any person applying for a national 42750
pollutant discharge elimination system general storm water 42751
construction permit shall pay a nonrefundable fee of twenty 42752
dollars per acre for each acre that is permitted above five acres 42753
at the time the application is submitted. However, the per acreage 42754
fee shall not exceed three hundred dollars. In addition, any 42755
person applying for a national pollutant discharge elimination 42756
system general storm water industrial permit shall pay a 42757
nonrefundable fee of one hundred fifty dollars at the time the 42758
application is submitted.42759

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 42760
division (S)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 6109. of the 42761
Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit into the 42762
drinking water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the 42763
Revised Code.42764

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 42765
division (S)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 6111. of the 42766
Revised Code and under division (S)(3) of this section to the 42767
treasurer of state for deposit into the surface water protection 42768
fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code.42769

       If a registration certificate is issued under section 42770
3734.75, 3734.76, or 3734.78 of the Revised Code, the amount of 42771
the application fee paid shall be deducted from the amount of the 42772
registration certificate fee due under division (R)(1), (2), or 42773
(5) of this section, as applicable.42774

       If a person submits an electronic application for a 42775
registration certificate, permit, variance, or plan approval for 42776
which an application fee is established under division (S)(1) of 42777
this section, the person shall pay the applicable application fee 42778
as expeditiously as possible after the submission of the 42779
electronic application. An application for a registration 42780
certificate, permit, variance, or plan approval for which an 42781
application fee is established under division (S)(1) of this 42782
section shall not be reviewed or processed until the applicable 42783
application fee, and any other fees established under this 42784
division, are paid.42785

       (2) Division (S)(1) of this section does not apply to an 42786
application for a registration certificate for a scrap tire 42787
collection or storage facility submitted under section 3734.75 or 42788
3734.76 of the Revised Code, as applicable, if the owner or 42789
operator of the facility or proposed facility is a motor vehicle 42790
salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code.42791

       (3) A person applying for coverage under a national pollutant 42792
discharge elimination system general discharge permit for 42793
household sewage treatment systems shall pay the following fees:42794

       (a) A nonrefundable fee of two hundred dollars at the time of 42795
application for initial permit coverage;42796

       (b) A nonrefundable fee of one hundred dollars at the time of 42797
application for a renewal of permit coverage.42798

       (T) The director may adopt, amend, and rescind rules in 42799
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that do all of 42800
the following:42801

       (1) Prescribe fees to be paid by applicants for and holders 42802
of any license, permit, variance, plan approval, or certification 42803
required or authorized by Chapter 3704., 3734., 6109., or 6111. of 42804
the Revised Code that are not specifically established in this 42805
section. The fees shall be designed to defray the cost of 42806
processing, issuing, revoking, modifying, denying, and enforcing 42807
the licenses, permits, variances, plan approvals, and 42808
certifications.42809

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under rules 42810
adopted under division (T)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 42811
6109. of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit 42812
into the drinking water protection fund created in section 6109.30 42813
of the Revised Code.42814

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under rules 42815
adopted under division (T)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 42816
6111. of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit 42817
into the surface water protection fund created in section 6111.038 42818
of the Revised Code.42819

       (2) Exempt the state and political subdivisions thereof, 42820
including education facilities or medical facilities owned by the 42821
state or a political subdivision, or any person exempted from 42822
taxation by section 5709.07 or 5709.12 of the Revised Code, from 42823
any fee required by this section;42824

       (3) Provide for the waiver of any fee, or any part thereof, 42825
otherwise required by this section whenever the director 42826
determines that the imposition of the fee would constitute an 42827
unreasonable cost of doing business for any applicant, class of 42828
applicants, or other person subject to the fee;42829

       (4) Prescribe measures that the director considers necessary 42830
to carry out this section.42831

       (U) When the director reasonably demonstrates that the direct 42832
cost to the state associated with the issuance of a permit to 42833
install, license, variance, plan approval, or certification 42834
exceeds the fee for the issuance or review specified by this 42835
section, the director may condition the issuance or review on the 42836
payment by the person receiving the issuance or review of, in 42837
addition to the fee specified by this section, the amount, or any 42838
portion thereof, in excess of the fee specified under this 42839
section. The director shall not so condition issuances for which 42840
fees area fee is prescribed in divisions (B)(7) anddivision42841
(L)(1)(b) of this section.42842

       (V) Except as provided in divisions (L), (M), and (P) of this 42843
section or unless otherwise prescribed by a rule of the director 42844
adopted pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, all fees 42845
required by this section are payable within thirty days after the 42846
issuance of an invoice for the fee by the director or the 42847
effective date of the issuance of the license, permit, variance, 42848
plan approval, or certification. If payment is late, the person 42849
responsible for payment of the fee shall pay an additional ten per 42850
cent of the amount due for each month that it is late.42851

       (W) As used in this section, "fuel-burning equipment," 42852
"fuel-burning equipment input capacity," "incinerator," 42853
"incinerator input capacity," "process," "process weight rate," 42854
"storage tank," "gasoline dispensing facility," "dry cleaning 42855
facility," "design flow discharge," and "new source treatment 42856
works" have the meanings ascribed to those terms by applicable 42857
rules or standards adopted by the director under Chapter 3704. or 42858
6111. of the Revised Code.42859

       (X) As used in divisions (B), (C), (D), (E), (F), (H), (I), 42860
and (J) of this section, and in any other provision of this 42861
section pertaining to fees paid pursuant to Chapter 3704. of the 42862
Revised Code:42863

       (1) "Facility," "federal Clean Air Act," "person," and "Title 42864
V permit" have the same meanings as in section 3704.01 of the 42865
Revised Code.42866

       (2) "Title V permit program" means the following activities 42867
as necessary to meet the requirements of Title V of the federal 42868
Clean Air Act and 40 C.F.R. part 70, including at least:42869

       (a) Preparing and adopting, if applicable, generally 42870
applicable rules or guidance regarding the permit program or its 42871
implementation or enforcement;42872

       (b) Reviewing and acting on any application for a Title V 42873
permit, permit revision, or permit renewal, including the 42874
development of an applicable requirement as part of the processing 42875
of a permit, permit revision, or permit renewal;42876

       (c) Administering the permit program, including the 42877
supporting and tracking of permit applications, compliance 42878
certification, and related data entry;42879

       (d) Determining which sources are subject to the program and 42880
implementing and enforcing the terms of any Title V permit, not 42881
including any court actions or other formal enforcement actions;42882

       (e) Emission and ambient monitoring;42883

       (f) Modeling, analyses, or demonstrations;42884

       (g) Preparing inventories and tracking emissions;42885

       (h) Providing direct and indirect support to small business 42886
stationary sources to determine and meet their obligations under 42887
the federal Clean Air Act pursuant to the small business 42888
stationary source technical and environmental compliance 42889
assistance program required by section 507 of that act and 42890
established in sections 3704.18, 3704.19, and 3706.19 of the 42891
Revised Code.42892

       (Y)(1) Except as provided in divisions (Y)(2), (3), and (4) 42893
of this section, each sewage sludge facility shall pay a 42894
nonrefundable annual sludge fee equal to three dollars and fifty 42895
cents per dry ton of sewage sludge, including the dry tons of 42896
sewage sludge in materials derived from sewage sludge, that the 42897
sewage sludge facility treats or disposes of in this state. The 42898
annual volume of sewage sludge treated or disposed of by a sewage 42899
sludge facility shall be calculated using the first day of January 42900
through the thirty-first day of December of the calendar year 42901
preceding the date on which payment of the fee is due.42902

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (Y)(2)(d) of this 42903
section, each sewage sludge facility shall pay a minimum annual 42904
sewage sludge fee of one hundred dollars.42905

       (b) The annual sludge fee required to be paid by a sewage 42906
sludge facility that treats or disposes of exceptional quality 42907
sludge in this state shall be thirty-five per cent less per dry 42908
ton of exceptional quality sludge than the fee assessed under 42909
division (Y)(1) of this section, subject to the following 42910
exceptions:42911

       (i) Except as provided in division (Y)(2)(d) of this section, 42912
a sewage sludge facility that treats or disposes of exceptional 42913
quality sludge shall pay a minimum annual sewage sludge fee of one 42914
hundred dollars.42915

       (ii) A sewage sludge facility that treats or disposes of 42916
exceptional quality sludge shall not be required to pay the annual 42917
sludge fee for treatment or disposal in this state of exceptional 42918
quality sludge generated outside of this state and contained in 42919
bags or other containers not greater than one hundred pounds in 42920
capacity.42921

       A thirty-five per cent reduction for exceptional quality 42922
sludge applies to the maximum annual fees established under 42923
division (Y)(3) of this section.42924

       (c) A sewage sludge facility that transfers sewage sludge to 42925
another sewage sludge facility in this state for further treatment 42926
prior to disposal in this state shall not be required to pay the 42927
annual sludge fee for the tons of sewage sludge that have been 42928
transferred. In such a case, the sewage sludge facility that 42929
disposes of the sewage sludge shall pay the annual sludge fee. 42930
However, the facility transferring the sewage sludge shall pay the 42931
one-hundred-dollar minimum fee required under division (Y)(2)(a) 42932
of this section.42933

       In the case of a sewage sludge facility that treats sewage 42934
sludge in this state and transfers it out of this state to another 42935
entity for disposal, the sewage sludge facility in this state 42936
shall be required to pay the annual sludge fee for the tons of 42937
sewage sludge that have been transferred.42938

       (d) A sewage sludge facility that generates sewage sludge 42939
resulting from an average daily discharge flow of less than five 42940
thousand gallons per day is not subject to the fees assessed under 42941
division (Y) of this section.42942

       (3) No sewage sludge facility required to pay the annual 42943
sludge fee shall be required to pay more than the maximum annual 42944
fee for each disposal method that the sewage sludge facility uses. 42945
The maximum annual fee does not include the additional amount that 42946
may be charged under division (Y)(5) of this section for late 42947
payment of the annual sludge fee. The maximum annual fee for the 42948
following methods of disposal of sewage sludge is as follows:42949

       (a) Incineration: five thousand dollars;42950

       (b) Preexisting land reclamation project or disposal in a 42951
landfill: five thousand dollars;42952

       (c) Land application, land reclamation, surface disposal, or 42953
any other disposal method not specified in division (Y)(3)(a) or 42954
(b) of this section: twenty thousand dollars.42955

       (4)(a) In the case of an entity that generates sewage sludge 42956
or a sewage sludge facility that treats sewage sludge and 42957
transfers the sewage sludge to an incineration facility for 42958
disposal, the incineration facility, and not the entity generating 42959
the sewage sludge or the sewage sludge facility treating the 42960
sewage sludge, shall pay the annual sludge fee for the tons of 42961
sewage sludge that are transferred. However, the entity or 42962
facility generating or treating the sewage sludge shall pay the 42963
one-hundred-dollar minimum fee required under division (Y)(2)(a) 42964
of this section.42965

       (b) In the case of an entity that generates sewage sludge and 42966
transfers the sewage sludge to a landfill for disposal or to a 42967
sewage sludge facility for land reclamation or surface disposal, 42968
the entity generating the sewage sludge, and not the landfill or 42969
sewage sludge facility, shall pay the annual sludge fee for the 42970
tons of sewage sludge that are transferred.42971

       (5) Not later than the first day of April of the calendar 42972
year following March 17, 2000, and each first day of April 42973
thereafter, the director shall issue invoices to persons who are 42974
required to pay the annual sludge fee. The invoice shall identify 42975
the nature and amount of the annual sludge fee assessed and state 42976
the first day of May as the deadline for receipt by the director 42977
of objections regarding the amount of the fee and the first day of 42978
July as the deadline for payment of the fee.42979

       Not later than the first day of May following receipt of an 42980
invoice, a person required to pay the annual sludge fee may submit 42981
objections to the director concerning the accuracy of information 42982
regarding the number of dry tons of sewage sludge used to 42983
calculate the amount of the annual sludge fee or regarding whether 42984
the sewage sludge qualifies for the exceptional quality sludge 42985
discount established in division (Y)(2)(b) of this section. The 42986
director may consider the objections and adjust the amount of the 42987
fee to ensure that it is accurate.42988

       If the director does not adjust the amount of the annual 42989
sludge fee in response to a person's objections, the person may 42990
appeal the director's determination in accordance with Chapter 42991
119. of the Revised Code.42992

       Not later than the first day of June, the director shall 42993
notify the objecting person regarding whether the director has 42994
found the objections to be valid and the reasons for the finding. 42995
If the director finds the objections to be valid and adjusts the 42996
amount of the annual sludge fee accordingly, the director shall 42997
issue with the notification a new invoice to the person 42998
identifying the amount of the annual sludge fee assessed and 42999
stating the first day of July as the deadline for payment.43000

       Not later than the first day of July, any person who is 43001
required to do so shall pay the annual sludge fee. Any person who 43002
is required to pay the fee, but who fails to do so on or before 43003
that date shall pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent 43004
of the required annual sludge fee.43005

       (6) The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 43006
division (Y) of this section to the treasurer of state for deposit 43007
into the surface water protection fund created in section 6111.038 43008
of the Revised Code. The moneys shall be used to defray the costs 43009
of administering and enforcing provisions in Chapter 6111. of the 43010
Revised Code and rules adopted under it that govern the use, 43011
storage, treatment, or disposal of sewage sludge.43012

       (7) Beginning in fiscal year 2001, and every two years 43013
thereafter, the director shall review the total amount of moneys 43014
generated by the annual sludge fees to determine if that amount 43015
exceeded six hundred thousand dollars in either of the two 43016
preceding fiscal years. If the total amount of moneys in the fund 43017
exceeded six hundred thousand dollars in either fiscal year, the 43018
director, after review of the fee structure and consultation with 43019
affected persons, shall issue an order reducing the amount of the 43020
fees levied under division (Y) of this section so that the 43021
estimated amount of moneys resulting from the fees will not exceed 43022
six hundred thousand dollars in any fiscal year.43023

       If, upon review of the fees under division (Y)(7) of this 43024
section and after the fees have been reduced, the director 43025
determines that the total amount of moneys collected and 43026
accumulated is less than six hundred thousand dollars, the 43027
director, after review of the fee structure and consultation with 43028
affected persons, may issue an order increasing the amount of the 43029
fees levied under division (Y) of this section so that the 43030
estimated amount of moneys resulting from the fees will be 43031
approximately six hundred thousand dollars. Fees shall never be 43032
increased to an amount exceeding the amount specified in division 43033
(Y)(7) of this section.43034

       Notwithstanding section 119.06 of the Revised Code, the 43035
director may issue an order under division (Y)(7) of this section 43036
without the necessity to hold an adjudicatory hearing in 43037
connection with the order. The issuance of an order under this 43038
division is not an act or action for purposes of section 3745.04 43039
of the Revised Code.43040

       (8) As used in division (Y) of this section:43041

       (a) "Sewage sludge facility" means an entity that performs 43042
treatment on or is responsible for the disposal of sewage sludge.43043

       (b) "Sewage sludge" means a solid, semi-solid, or liquid 43044
residue generated during the treatment of domestic sewage in a 43045
treatment works as defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised Code. 43046
"Sewage sludge" includes, but is not limited to, scum or solids 43047
removed in primary, secondary, or advanced wastewater treatment 43048
processes. "Sewage sludge" does not include ash generated during 43049
the firing of sewage sludge in a sewage sludge incinerator, grit 43050
and screenings generated during preliminary treatment of domestic 43051
sewage in a treatment works, animal manure, residue generated 43052
during treatment of animal manure, or domestic septage.43053

       (c) "Exceptional quality sludge" means sewage sludge that 43054
meets all of the following qualifications:43055

       (i) Satisfies the class A pathogen standards in 40 C.F.R. 43056
503.32(a);43057

       (ii) Satisfies one of the vector attraction reduction 43058
requirements in 40 C.F.R. 503.33(b)(1) to (b)(8);43059

       (iii) Does not exceed the ceiling concentration limitations 43060
for metals listed in table one of 40 C.F.R. 503.13;43061

       (iv) Does not exceed the concentration limitations for metals 43062
listed in table three of 40 C.F.R. 503.13.43063

       (d) "Treatment" means the preparation of sewage sludge for 43064
final use or disposal and includes, but is not limited to, 43065
thickening, stabilization, and dewatering of sewage sludge.43066

       (e) "Disposal" means the final use of sewage sludge, 43067
including, but not limited to, land application, land reclamation, 43068
surface disposal, or disposal in a landfill or an incinerator.43069

       (f) "Land application" means the spraying or spreading of 43070
sewage sludge onto the land surface, the injection of sewage 43071
sludge below the land surface, or the incorporation of sewage 43072
sludge into the soil for the purposes of conditioning the soil or 43073
fertilizing crops or vegetation grown in the soil.43074

       (g) "Land reclamation" means the returning of disturbed land 43075
to productive use.43076

       (h) "Surface disposal" means the placement of sludge on an 43077
area of land for disposal, including, but not limited to, 43078
monofills, surface impoundments, lagoons, waste piles, or 43079
dedicated disposal sites.43080

       (i) "Incinerator" means an entity that disposes of sewage 43081
sludge through the combustion of organic matter and inorganic 43082
matter in sewage sludge by high temperatures in an enclosed 43083
device.43084

       (j) "Incineration facility" includes all incinerators owned 43085
or operated by the same entity and located on a contiguous tract 43086
of land. Areas of land are considered to be contiguous even if 43087
they are separated by a public road or highway.43088

       (k) "Annual sludge fee" means the fee assessed under division 43089
(Y)(1) of this section.43090

       (l) "Landfill" means a sanitary landfill facility, as defined 43091
in rules adopted under section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, that 43092
is licensed under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code.43093

       (m) "Preexisting land reclamation project" means a 43094
property-specific land reclamation project that has been in 43095
continuous operation for not less than five years pursuant to 43096
approval of the activity by the director and includes the 43097
implementation of a community outreach program concerning the 43098
activity.43099

       Sec. 3745.112.  During the month of August 1997, and 43100
biennially thereafter, the director of environmental protection 43101
shall enter into a contract for the performance of an independent 43102
evaluation of the Title V permit program to be conducted under the 43103
supervision of an independent certified public accountant. The 43104
evaluation shall review the finances, operations, revenues, costs, 43105
and expenditures of the Title V permit program under section 43106
3704.036 of the Revised Code and the Title V clean air fund 43107
created in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code. The findings of 43108
each such evaluation shall be set forth in a written report that 43109
shall include, without limitation, all of the following:43110

       (A) A review and analysis of all expenditures from the Title 43111
V clean air fund for the Title V permit program;43112

       (B) A review and analysis of all costs incurred by the 43113
environmental protection agency designated by the director to be 43114
costs of the Title V permit program;43115

       (C) A review and analysis of all expenditures from the Title 43116
V clean air fund for costs not designated by the director as costs 43117
of the Title V permit program;43118

       (D) A review and analysis of the adequacy of the fees 43119
assessed under division (C)(B) of section 3745.11 for meeting the 43120
costs of the Title V permit program during the period reviewed by 43121
the evaluation.43122

       Upon completion of the written report of each evaluation 43123
required by this section, the director shall provide copies of the 43124
report to the governor and the general assembly and shall make 43125
copies of it available to the public.43126

       The reasonable and necessary expenses for conducting an 43127
evaluation required under this section are hereby deemed to be 43128
reasonable costs to administer the Title V permit program and 43129
shall be paid from moneys credited to the Title V clean air fund 43130
arising from the fees assessed under division (C)(B) of section 43131
3745.11 of the Revised Code.43132

       Sec. 3748.04.  The publicdirector of health council, in 43133
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt and 43134
may amend or rescind rules doing all of the following:43135

       (A) Listing types of radioactive material for which licensure 43136
by its handler is required and types of radiation-generating 43137
equipment for which registration by its handler is required, and 43138
establishing requirements governing them. Rules adopted under 43139
division (A) of this section shall be compatible with applicable 43140
federal regulations and shall establish all of the following, 43141
without limitation:43142

       (1) Requirements governing both of the following:43143

       (a) The licensing and inspection of handlers of radioactive 43144
material. Standards established in rules adopted under division 43145
(A)(1)(a) of this section regarding byproduct material or any 43146
activity that results in the production of that material, to the 43147
extent practicable, shall be equivalent to or more stringent than 43148
applicable standards established by the United States nuclear 43149
regulatory commission.43150

       (b) The registration and inspection of handlers of 43151
radiation-generating equipment. Standards established in rules 43152
adopted under division (A)(1)(b) of this section, to the extent 43153
practicable, shall be equivalent to applicable standards 43154
established by the food and drug administration in the United 43155
States department of health and human services.43156

       (2) Identification of and requirements governing possession 43157
and use of specifically licensed and generally licensed quantities 43158
of radioactive material as either sealed sources or unsealed 43159
sources;43160

       (3) A procedure for the issuance of and the frequency of 43161
renewal of the licenses of handlers of radioactive material, other 43162
than a license for a facility for the disposal of low-level 43163
radioactive waste, and of the certificates of registration of 43164
handlers of radiation-generating equipment;43165

       (4) Procedures for suspending and revoking the licenses of 43166
handlers of radioactive material and the certificates of 43167
registration of handlers of radiation-generating equipment;43168

       (5) Criteria to be used by the director of health in amending 43169
the license of a handler of radioactive material or the 43170
certificate of registration of a handler of radiation-generating 43171
equipment subsequent to its issuance;43172

       (6) Criteria for achieving and maintaining compliance with 43173
this chapter and rules adopted under it by licensees and 43174
registrants;43175

       (7) Criteria governing environmental monitoring of licensed 43176
and registered activities to assess compliance with this chapter 43177
and rules adopted under it;43178

       (8) Fees for both of the following:43179

       (a) The licensing of handlers, other than facilities for the 43180
disposal of low-level radioactive waste, of radioactive material;43181

       (b) The registration of handlers, other than facilities that 43182
are, or are operated by, medical practitioners or 43183
medical-practitioner groups, of radiation-generating equipment.43184

       (9) A fee schedule for both of the following that includes 43185
fees for reviews, conducted during an inspection, of shielding 43186
plans or the adequacy of shielding: 43187

       (a) The inspection of handlers of radioactive material; 43188

       (b) The inspection of handlers, other than facilities that 43189
are, or are operated by, medical practitioners or 43190
medical-practitioner groups, of radiation-generating equipment.43191

       (B)(1) Identifying sources of radiation, circumstances of 43192
possession, use, or disposal of sources of radiation, and levels 43193
of radiation that constitute an unreasonable or unnecessary risk 43194
to human health or the environment;43195

       (2) Establishing requirements for the achievement and 43196
maintenance of compliance with standards for the receipt, 43197
possession, use, storage, installation, transfer, servicing, and 43198
disposal of sources of radiation to prevent levels of radiation 43199
that constitute an unreasonable or unnecessary risk to human 43200
health or the environment;43201

       (3) Requiring the maintenance of records on the receipt, use, 43202
storage, transfer, and disposal of radioactive material and on the 43203
radiological safety aspects of the use and maintenance of 43204
radiation-generating equipment.43205

       In adopting rules under divisions (A) and (B) of this 43206
section, the councildirector shall use standards no less 43207
stringent than the "suggested state regulations for control of 43208
radiation" prepared by the conference of radiation control program 43209
directors, inc., and regulations adopted by the United States 43210
nuclear regulatory commission, the United States environmental 43211
protection agency, and the United States department of health and 43212
human services and shall consider reports of the national council 43213
on radiation protection and measurement and the relevant standards 43214
of the American national standards institute.43215

       (C) Establishing fees, procedures, and requirements for 43216
certification as a radiation expert, including all of the 43217
following, without limitation:43218

       (1) Minimum training and experience requirements;43219

       (2) Procedures for applying for certification;43220

       (3) Procedures for review of applications and issuance of 43221
certificates;43222

       (4) Procedures for suspending and revoking certification.43223

       (D) Establishing a schedule for inspection of sources of 43224
radiation and their shielding and surroundings;43225

       (E) Establishing the responsibilities of a radiation expert;43226

       (F) Establishing criteria for quality assurance programs for 43227
licensees of radioactive material and registrants of 43228
radiation-generating equipment;43229

       (G) Establishing fees to be paid by any facility that, on 43230
September 8, 1995, holds a license from the United States nuclear 43231
regulatory commission in order to provide moneys necessary for the 43232
transfer of licensing and other regulatory authority from the 43233
commission to the state pursuant to section 3748.03 of the Revised 43234
Code. Rules adopted under this division shall stipulate that fees 43235
so established do not apply to any functions dealing specifically 43236
with a facility for the disposal of low-level radioactive waste. 43237
Fees collected under this division shall be deposited into the 43238
state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 43239
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be 43240
used solely to administer and enforce this chapter and rules 43241
adopted under it.43242

       (H) Establishing fees to be collected annually from 43243
generators of low-level radioactive waste, which shall be based 43244
upon the volume and radioactivity of the waste generated and the 43245
costs of administering low-level radioactive waste management 43246
activities under this chapter and rules adopted under it. All fees 43247
collected under this division shall be deposited into the state 43248
treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created in 43249
section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be used solely 43250
to administer and enforce this chapter and rules adopted under it. 43251
Any fee required under this division that has not been paid within 43252
ninety daysremains unpaid on the ninety-first day after the 43253
original invoice date shall be assessed at two timesan additional 43254
amount equal to ten per cent of the original invoiced fee. Any fee 43255
that has not been paid within one hundred eighty days after the 43256
invoice date shall be assessed at five times the original invoiced 43257
fee.43258

       (I) Establishing requirements governing closure, 43259
decontamination, decommissioning, reclamation, and long-term 43260
surveillance and care of a facility licensed under this chapter 43261
and rules adopted under it. Rules adopted under division (I) of 43262
this section shall include, without limitation, all of the 43263
following:43264

       (1) Standards and procedures to ensure that a licensee 43265
prepares a decommissioning funding plan that provides an adequate 43266
financial guaranty to permit the completion of all requirements 43267
governing the closure, decontamination, decommissioning, and 43268
reclamation of sites, structures, and equipment used in 43269
conjunction with a licensed activity;43270

       (2) For licensed activities where radioactive material that 43271
will require surveillance or care is likely to remain at the site 43272
after the licensed activities cease, as indicated in the 43273
application for the license submitted under section 3748.07 of the 43274
Revised Code, standards and procedures to ensure that the licensee 43275
prepares an additional decommissioning funding plan for long-term 43276
surveillance and care, before termination of the license, that 43277
provides an additional adequate financial guaranty as necessary to 43278
provide for that surveillance and care;43279

       (3) For the purposes of the decommissioning funding plans 43280
required in rules adopted under divisions (I)(1) and (2) of this 43281
section, the types of acceptable financial guaranties, which shall 43282
include bonds issued by fidelity or surety companies authorized to 43283
do business in the state, certificates of deposit, deposits of 43284
government securities, irrevocable letters or lines of credit, 43285
trust funds, escrow accounts, or other similar types of 43286
arrangements, but shall not include any arrangement that 43287
constitutes self-insurance;43288

       (4) A requirement that the decommissioning funding plans 43289
required in rules adopted under divisions (I)(1) and (2) of this 43290
section contain financial guaranties in amounts sufficient to 43291
ensure compliance with any standards established by the United 43292
States nuclear regulatory commission, or by the state if it has 43293
become an agreement state pursuant to section 3748.03 of the 43294
Revised Code, pertaining to closure, decontamination, 43295
decommissioning, reclamation, and long-term surveillance and care 43296
of licensed activities and sites of licensees.43297

       Standards established in rules adopted under division (I) of 43298
this section regarding any activity that resulted in the 43299
production of byproduct material, as defined in division (A)(2) of 43300
section 3748.01 of the Revised Code, to the extent practicable, 43301
shall be equivalent to or more stringent than standards 43302
established by the United States nuclear regulatory commission for 43303
sites at which ores were processed primarily for their source 43304
material content and at which byproduct material, as defined in 43305
division (A)(2) of section 3748.01 of the Revised Code, is 43306
deposited.43307

       (J) Establishing criteria governing inspections of a facility 43308
for the disposal of low-level radioactive waste, including, 43309
without limitation, the establishment of a resident inspector 43310
program at such a facility;43311

       (K) Establishing requirements and procedures governing the 43312
filing of complaints under section 3748.16 of the Revised Code, 43313
including, without limitation, those governing intervention in a 43314
hearing held under division (B)(3) of that section.43315

       Sec. 3748.05.  (A) The director of health shall do all of the 43316
following:43317

       (1) Administer and enforce this chapter and the rules adopted 43318
under it;43319

       (2) Collect and make available information relating to 43320
sources of radiation;43321

       (3) Ensure the review of plans and specifications, submitted 43322
in accordance with rules adopted by the public health council43323
director, for the control of radiation that constitutes an 43324
unreasonable or unnecessary risk to human health or the 43325
environment;43326

       (4) Review reports of quality assurance audits performed by 43327
certified radiation experts under this chapter and the rules 43328
adopted under it;43329

       (5) Ensure that programs for the control of sources of 43330
radiation are developed with due regard for compatibility with 43331
federal programs for the regulation of byproduct, source, and 43332
special nuclear materials;43333

       (6) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 43334
adopt, and subsequently may amend and rescind, rules providing for 43335
the administrative assessment and collection of monetary penalties 43336
for failure by any facility licensed under this chapter and rules 43337
adopted under it to comply with this chapter and those rules. The 43338
director may require the submission of compliance schedules and 43339
other related information. Any orders issued or payments or other 43340
requirements imposed pursuant to rules adopted under division 43341
(A)(6) of this section shall not affect any civil or criminal 43342
enforcement proceeding brought under this chapter or any other 43343
provision of state or local law. Moneys collected as 43344
administrative penalties imposed pursuant to rules adopted under 43345
division (A)(6) of this section shall be deposited in the state 43346
treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created in 43347
section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The moneys shall be used 43348
solely to administer and enforce this chapter and the rules 43349
adopted under it.43350

       (7) Maintain files of both of the following:43351

       (a) All license and registration applications, issuances, 43352
denials, amendments, renewals, suspensions, and revocations and 43353
any administrative or judicial action pertaining to them;43354

       (b) All rules adopted under this chapter, or proposed to be 43355
adopted, relating to the regulation of sources of radiation and 43356
proceedings on them.43357

       (B) The director may do any or all of the following:43358

       (1) Advise, consult, and cooperate with other agencies of the 43359
state, the federal government, other states, interstate agencies, 43360
political subdivisions, industries, and other affected groups in 43361
furtherance of the purposes of this chapter and the rules adopted 43362
under it;43363

       (2) Accept and administer grants from the federal government 43364
and from other sources, public or private, for carrying out any of 43365
the director's functions under this chapter and the rules adopted 43366
under it;43367

       (3) Encourage, participate in, or conduct studies, 43368
investigations, training, research, and demonstrations relating to 43369
the detection and control of radiation that constitutes an 43370
unreasonable or unnecessary risk to human health or the 43371
environment, the measurement of radiation, the evaluation of 43372
potential effects on health of cumulative or acute exposure to 43373
radiation, the development and improvement of methods to limit and 43374
reduce the generation of radioactive waste, and related problems 43375
as the director considers necessary or advisable;43376

       (4) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 43377
adopt rules establishing criteria under which other agencies of 43378
the state or private entities may perform inspections of x-ray 43379
equipment at registered dental facilities at the request of the 43380
facility or pursuant to contract with the department;43381

       (5) Exercise all incidental powers necessary to carry out the 43382
purposes of this chapter and the rules adopted under it, 43383
including, without limitation, the issuance of orders.43384

       Sec. 3748.07.  (A) Every facility that proposes to handle 43385
radioactive material or radiation-generating equipment for which 43386
licensure or registration, respectively, by its handler is 43387
required shall apply in writing to the director of health on forms 43388
prescribed and provided by the director for licensure or 43389
registration. Terms and conditions of licenses and certificates of 43390
registration may be amended in accordance with rules adopted under 43391
section 3748.04 of the Revised Code or orders issued by the 43392
director pursuant to section 3748.05 of the Revised Code.43393

       (B)(1) An applicant proposing to handle radioactive material 43394
shall pay for a license or renewal of a license the appropriate 43395
fee specified in rules adopted under section 3748.04 of the 43396
Revised Code and listed on an invoice provided by the director. 43397
The applicant shall pay the fee on receipt of the invoice.43398

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(b) of this 43399
section, until fees are established in rules adopted under 43400
division (A)(8)(b) of section 3748.04 of the Revised Code, an 43401
applicant proposing to handle radiation-generating equipment shall 43402
pay for a certificate of registration or renewal of a certificate 43403
a biennial registration fee of two hundred sixty-two dollars.43404

       Except as provided in division (B)(2)(b) of this section, on 43405
and after the effective date of the rules in which fees are 43406
established under division (A)(8)(b) of section 3748.04 of the 43407
Revised Code, an applicant proposing to handle 43408
radiation-generating equipment shall pay for a certificate of 43409
registration or renewal of a certificate the appropriate fee 43410
established in those rules.43411

       The applicant shall pay the fees described in division 43412
(B)(2)(a) of this section at the time of applying for a 43413
certificate of registration or renewal of a certificate.43414

       (b) An applicant that is, or is operated by, a medical 43415
practitioner or medical-practitioner group and proposes to handle 43416
radiation-generating equipment shall pay for a certificate of 43417
registration or renewal of a certificate a biennial registration 43418
fee of two hundred sixty-two dollars. The applicant shall pay the 43419
fee at the time of applying for a certificate of registration or 43420
renewal of the certificate.43421

       (C) All fees collected under this section shall be deposited 43422
in the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 43423
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be 43424
used solely to administer and enforce this chapter and rules 43425
adopted under it.43426

       (D) Any fee required under this section that has not been 43427
paid within ninety daysremains unpaid on the ninety-first day43428
after the original invoice date shall be assessed at two timesan 43429
additional amount equal to ten per cent of the original invoiced43430
fee. Any fee that has not been paid within one hundred eighty days 43431
after the invoice date shall be assessed at five times the 43432
original invoiced fee.43433

       (E) The director shall grant a license or registration to any 43434
applicant who has paid the required fee and is in compliance with 43435
this chapter and rules adopted under it.43436

        (F) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 43437
licenses and certificates of registration shall be effective for 43438
the applicable period established in rules adopted under section 43439
3748.04 of the Revised Code. Licenses and certificates of 43440
registration shall be renewed in accordance with the renewal 43441
procedure established in rules adopted under section 3748.04 of 43442
the Revised Code.43443

       Sec. 3748.10.  (A) As used in this section, "person" means 43444
any legal entity defined as a person under section 1.59 of the 43445
Revised Code, the state or any agency of the state, any political 43446
subdivision or agency of a political subdivision, and the United 43447
States or any agency or instrumentality of the United States other 43448
than the United States department of energy or the United States 43449
nuclear regulatory commission where state regulation of the 43450
treatment, recycling, storage, or disposal of low-level 43451
radioactive waste by either of those agencies is prohibited by 43452
federal law.43453

       (B) No person shall treat, recycle, store, or dispose of any 43454
low-level radioactive waste except at a facility that is licensed 43455
for treatment, recycling, storage, or disposal of that waste by 43456
the director of health under this chapter and rules adopted under 43457
it or, until the state becomes an agreement state pursuant to 43458
section 3748.03 of the Revised Code, by the United States nuclear 43459
regulatory commission under the "Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 68 43460
Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as amended, and regulations adopted 43461
under it regardless of whether the waste has been reclassified as 43462
"below regulatory concern" by the United States nuclear regulatory 43463
commission pursuant to any rule or standard adopted after January 43464
1, 1990.43465

       (C) Division (B) of this section does not apply to either of 43466
the following:43467

       (1) Any low-level radioactive waste that on or before January 43468
1, 1990, was authorized under the "Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 68 43469
Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as amended, and regulations adopted 43470
under it to be treated, recycled, stored, or disposed of at a 43471
facility that has not been licensed under that act and regulations 43472
adopted under it;43473

       (2) Any low-level radioactive waste that has received an 43474
exemption from the director of health under division (C)(2) of 43475
this section. If the United States nuclear regulatory commission 43476
declares its intent to institute a policy regarding the 43477
reclassification of waste as "below regulatory concern," the 43478
public health councildirector, in consultation with the 43479
environmental protection agency, shall adopt rules in accordance 43480
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that govern the granting of 43481
such exemptions and that do at least all of the following:43482

       (a) Establish an application procedure to be followed by the 43483
generator of a low-level radioactive waste who wishes to obtain an 43484
exemption for that waste under division (C)(2) of this section;43485

       (b) Require that in order to receive an exemption, a 43486
low-level radioactive waste shall have been reclassified as "below 43487
regulatory concern" by the United States nuclear regulatory 43488
commission after August 19, 1992. The rules adopted under division 43489
(C)(2)(b) of this section shall stipulate that such a 43490
reclassification does not automatically qualify a low-level 43491
radioactive waste for an exemption under division (C)(2) of this 43492
section.43493

       (c) Require an applicant to demonstrate with clear and 43494
convincing evidence that the low-level radioactive waste that is 43495
the subject of the application does not present a higher 43496
radioactive hazard than any low-level radioactive waste to which 43497
division (C)(1) of this section applies and that treatment, 43498
recycling, storage, or disposal of the waste at a facility that 43499
has not been licensed by the director under this chapter and rules 43500
adopted under it or, until the state becomes an agreement state 43501
pursuant to section 3748.03 of the Revised Code, by the United 43502
States nuclear regulatory commission under the "Atomic Energy Act 43503
of 1954," 68 Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as amended, and 43504
regulations adopted under it, will not harm public health or 43505
safety or the environment;43506

       (d) Establish public notification procedures to be followed 43507
by the director for any public hearing held by him under division 43508
(C)(2) of this section.43509

       The director shall review an application submitted to him43510
under division (C)(2) of this section and shall hold a public 43511
hearing concerning the application before granting or denying the 43512
exemption requested. The director may grant an exemption to the 43513
low-level radioactive waste that is the subject of the application 43514
if he determinesafter determining that the generator has complied 43515
with the rules adopted under division (C)(2)(a) of this section 43516
and that the waste satisfies the requirements established in the 43517
rules adopted under divisions (C)(2)(b) and (c) of this section. 43518
The director shall maintain a list of all low-level radioactive 43519
wastes to which hethe director has granted such an exemption.43520

       Division (C)(2) of this section does not apply to any 43521
low-level radioactive waste generated at a nuclear power station.43522

       Sec. 3748.12.  The director of health shall certify radiation 43523
experts pursuant to rules adopted under division (C) of section 43524
3748.04 of the Revised Code. The director shall issue a 43525
certificate to each person certified under this section. An 43526
individual certified by the director is qualified to develop, 43527
provide periodic review of, and conduct audits of the quality 43528
assurance program for sources of radiation for which such a 43529
program is required under division (A) of section 3748.13 of the 43530
Revised Code.43531

       The public health councildirector shall establish an 43532
application fee for applying for certification and a biennial 43533
certification renewal fee in rules adopted under division (C) of 43534
section 3748.04 of the Revised Code. A certificate issued under 43535
this section shall expire two years after the date of its 43536
issuance. To maintain certification, a radiation expert shall 43537
apply to the director for renewal of certification in accordance 43538
with the standard renewal procedures established in Chapter 4745. 43539
of the Revised Code. The certification renewal fee is not required 43540
for initial certification, but shall be paid for every renewal of 43541
certification. Fees collected under this section shall be 43542
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the general 43543
operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. 43544
The fees shall be used solely to administer and enforce this 43545
chapter and rules adopted under it. Any fee required under this 43546
section that has not been paid within ninety daysremains unpaid 43547
on the ninety-first day after the original invoice date shall be 43548
assessed at two timesan additional amount equal to ten per cent 43549
of the original invoiced fee. Any fee that has not been paid 43550
within one hundred eighty days after the invoice date shall be 43551
assessed at five times the original invoiced fee.43552

       Sec. 3748.13.  (A) The director of health shall inspect 43553
sources of radiation for which licensure or registration by the 43554
handler is required, and the sources' shielding and surroundings, 43555
according to the schedule established in rules adopted under 43556
division (D) of section 3748.04 of the Revised Code. In accordance 43557
with rules adopted under section 3748.04 of the Revised Code, the 43558
director shall inspect all records and operating procedures of 43559
handlers that install or service sources of radiation and all 43560
sources of radiation for which licensure of radioactive material 43561
or registration of radiation-generating equipment by the handler 43562
is required. The director may make other inspections upon 43563
receiving complaints or other evidence of a violation of this 43564
chapter or rules adopted under it.43565

       The director shall require any hospital registered under 43566
division (A) of section 3701.07 of the Revised Code to develop and 43567
maintain a quality assurance program for all sources of 43568
radiation-generating equipment. A certified radiation expert shall 43569
conduct oversight and maintenance of the program and shall file a 43570
report of audits of the program with the director on forms 43571
prescribed by the director. The audit reports shall become part of 43572
the inspection record.43573

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 43574
a facility shall pay inspection fees for radioactive material and 43575
radiation-generating equipment according to the schedule and 43576
categories established in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of 43577
section 3748.04 of the Revised Code.43578

       (2) A facility that is, or is operated by, a medical 43579
practitioner or medical-practitioner group shall pay inspection 43580
fees for radiation-generating equipment according to the following 43581
schedule and categories:43582

First dental x-ray tube $ 155.00 43583
Each additional dental x-ray tube at the same location $ 77.00 43584
First medical x-ray tube $ 307.00 43585
Each additional medical x-ray tube at the same location $ 163.00 43586
Each unit of ionizing radiation-generating equipment capable of operating at or above 250 kilovoltage peak $ 610.00 43587
First nonionizing radiation-generating equipment of any kind $ 307.00 43588
Each additional nonionizing radiation-generating equipment of any kind at the same location $ 163.00 43589

        (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 43590
the fee for the inspection of a facility that proposes to handle 43591
radioactive material or radiation-generating equipment and is not 43592
licensed or registered, and for which no license or registration 43593
application is pending at the time of inspection, is four hundred 43594
seventy-four dollars plus the applicable fee specified in rules 43595
adopted under division (A)(9) of section 3748.04 of the Revised 43596
Code.43597

       (2) For a facility that is, or is operated by, a medical 43598
practitioner or medical-practitioner group and proposes to handle 43599
radiation-generating equipment, the fee for an inspection if the 43600
facility is not licensed or registered, and no license or 43601
registration is pending at the time of inspection, is four hundred 43602
seventy-four dollars plus the fee applicable under the schedule in 43603
division (B)(2) of this section.43604

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 43605
for a facility that handles radioactive material or 43606
radiation-generating equipment, the fee for an inspection to 43607
determine whether violations cited in a previous inspection have 43608
been corrected is the amount specified in rules adopted under 43609
division (A)(9) of section 3748.04 of the Revised Code.43610

       (2) For a facility that is, or is operated by, a medical 43611
practitioner or medical-practitioner group and handles 43612
radiation-generating equipment, the fee for an inspection to 43613
determine whether violations cited in a previous inspection have 43614
been corrected is fifty per cent of the applicable fee under the 43615
schedule in division (B)(2) of this section.43616

       (E) The director may conduct a review of shielding plans or 43617
the adequacy of shielding on the request of a licensee or 43618
registrant or an applicant for licensure or registration or during 43619
an inspection when the director considers a review to be 43620
necessary.43621

       (1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 43622
the fee for the review is the applicable amount specified in rules 43623
adopted under division (A)(9) of section 3748.04 of the Revised 43624
Code.43625

       (2) For a facility that is, or is operated by, a medical 43626
practitioner or medical-practitioner group and handles or proposes 43627
to handle radiation-generating equipment, the fee for the review 43628
is seven hundred sixty-two dollars for each room where a source of 43629
radiation is used and is in addition to any other fee applicable 43630
under the schedule in division (B)(2) of this section.43631

       (F) All fees shall be paid to the department of health no 43632
later than thirty days after the invoice for the fee is mailed. 43633
Fees shall be deposited in the general operations fund created in 43634
section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be used solely 43635
to administer and enforce this chapter and rules adopted under it.43636

       (G) Any fee required under this section that has not been 43637
paid within ninety daysremains unpaid on the ninety-first day43638
after the original invoice date shall be assessed at two timesan 43639
additional amount equal to ten per cent of the original invoiced43640
fee. Any fee that has not been paid within one hundred eighty days 43641
after the invoice date shall be assessed at five times the 43642
original invoiced fee.43643

       (H) If the director determines that a board of health of a 43644
city or general health district is qualified to conduct 43645
inspections of radiation-generating equipment, the director may 43646
delegate to the board, by contract, the authority to conduct such 43647
inspections. In making a determination of the qualifications of a 43648
board of health to conduct those inspections, the director shall 43649
evaluate the credentials of the individuals who are to conduct the 43650
inspections of radiation-generating equipment and the radiation 43651
detection and measuring equipment available to them for that 43652
purpose. If a contract is entered into, the board shall have the 43653
same authority to make inspections of radiation-generating 43654
equipment as the director has under this chapter and rules adopted 43655
under it. The contract shall stipulate that only individuals 43656
approved by the director as qualified shall be permitted to 43657
inspect radiation-generating equipment under the contract's 43658
provisions. The contract shall provide for such compensation for 43659
services as is agreed to by the director and the board of health 43660
of the contracting health district. The director may reevaluate 43661
the credentials of the inspection personnel and their radiation 43662
detecting and measuring equipment as often as the director 43663
considers necessary and may terminate any contract with the board 43664
of health of any health district that, in the director's opinion, 43665
is not satisfactorily performing the terms of the contract.43666

       (I) The director may enter at all reasonable times upon any 43667
public or private property to determine compliance with this 43668
chapter and rules adopted under it.43669

       Sec. 3748.15.  No facility shall violate or fail to comply 43670
with any duty imposed by this chapter, fail to pay any 43671
administrative penalty assessed in accordance with rules adopted 43672
under division (A)(6) of section 3748.05 of the Revised Code, or 43673
violate or fail to comply with any valid order ofissued or rule 43674
adopted by the director of health issued or rule of the public 43675
health council adopted under this chapter. Each day a violation 43676
continues is a separate offense.43677

       Sec. 3748.20.  (A) The governor, with the advice and consent 43678
of the senate, shall appoint a radiation advisory council, which 43679
shall consist of the following members:43680

       (1) One individual who has recognized ability and credentials 43681
in the field of medical radiation physics;43682

       (2) One individual who has recognized ability and credentials 43683
in the field of health physics;43684

       (3) One individual holding the degree of doctor of medicine 43685
or doctor of osteopathy and licensed to practice medicine or 43686
surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery, as applicable, under 43687
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code who has recognized ability and 43688
credentials in the practice of radiology;43689

       (4) One individual who is licensed to practice dentistry 43690
under Chapter 4715. of the Revised Code;43691

       (5) One individual holding the degree of doctor of medicine 43692
and licensed to practice medicine or surgery under Chapter 4731. 43693
of the Revised Code who has recognized ability and credentials in 43694
the field of nuclear medicine;43695

       (6) One individual who has recognized ability and credentials 43696
in the field of public health or environmental science;43697

       (7) One individual licensed as a podiatrist under Chapter 43698
4731. of the Revised Code;43699

       (8) One individual licensed as a chiropractor under Chapter 43700
4734. of the Revised Code;43701

       (9) One individual who is a qualified radiation safety 43702
officer or radiation protection manager from a facility in this 43703
state that is licensed for the use of radiation materials;43704

       (10) One individual who has recognized ability and 43705
credentials in the field of radon measurement, mitigation, or 43706
health risk management;43707

       (11) One individual who is a member of a statewide consumer 43708
or environmental advocacy organization;43709

       (12) One individual representing the public;43710

       (13) One individual who has recognized ability and experience 43711
in the administration and enforcement of federal radiation 43712
protection regulations, who shall be a nonvoting member.43713

       The governor shall make the initial appointments to the 43714
council not later than December 7, 1995. Of the initial 43715
appointments, four shall be for a term of office of three years, 43716
four shall be for a term of office of four years, and four shall 43717
be for a term of office of five years. Thereafter, terms of office 43718
for the members of the council shall be five years with each term 43719
ending on the same day of the same month as did the term that it 43720
succeeds. Each member shall hold office from the date of the 43721
member's appointment until the end of the term for which the 43722
member was appointed. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall 43723
be filled in the manner provided for original appointment. Any 43724
member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 43725
expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was 43726
appointed shall hold office for the remainder of that term. A 43727
member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration of 43728
the member's term or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 43729
whichever occurs first.43730

       The council shall hold four regular quarterly meetings each 43731
year. Special meetings may be held at the request of the 43732
chairperson of the council or the director of health. The 43733
chairperson shall be selected annually by members of the council 43734
during the first meeting of the calendar year. Following each 43735
meeting, the chairperson shall submit a report to the director 43736
summarizing the activities, discussion, and recommendations of the 43737
council. Seven voting members of the council constitute a quorum.43738

       Members of the radiation advisory council shall receive a per 43739
diem compensation in an amount approved by the director and also 43740
shall be reimbursed for actual expenses incurred in the 43741
performance of their official duties.43742

       The department of health shall provide the council the 43743
administrative support necessary to execute its duties.43744

       (B) The radiation advisory council shall do all of the 43745
following:43746

       (1) Advise and consult with the public health council43747
director in the development of rules proposed for adoptionto be 43748
adopted under section 3748.04 of the Revised Code;43749

       (2) Advise and consult with the director concerning the 43750
administration, implementation, and enforcement of this chapter, 43751
including the implementation of the specific responsibilities 43752
delineated in section 3748.05 of the Revised Code;43753

       (3) Advise and consult with the director in the development 43754
of inspection criteria, procedures, and guidelines to be used in 43755
the radiation control program established under this chapter and 43756
rules adopted under it;43757

       (4) Prepare and submit to the director an annual report 43758
evaluating the department's administration of the radiation 43759
control program.43760

       (C) The council shall establish committees to focus on 43761
specific components of the radiation control program established 43762
under this chapter and rules adopted under it. Chairpersons of the 43763
committees shall be appointed by the chairperson of the council 43764
and shall be members of the council. Other members of the 43765
committees shall be appointed by the chairperson of the council 43766
and may include individuals who are not members of the council.43767

       The membership and responsibilities of each committee 43768
established under this division shall be subject to the approval 43769
of the director. Members of the committees shall be reimbursed for 43770
actual expenses incurred in the performance of their official 43771
duties.43772

       Committee reports shall be presented to the council at each 43773
regular meeting of the council.43774

       Sec. 3749.02.  The publicdirector of health council shall, 43775
subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, adopt rules of 43776
general application throughout the state governing the issuance of 43777
licenses, approval of plans, layout, construction, sanitation, 43778
safety, and operation of public swimming pools, public spas, and 43779
special use pools. Such rules shall not be applied to the 43780
construction, erection, or manufacture of any building to which 43781
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code is applicable when the 43782
building or structure is either integral to or appurtenant to a 43783
public swimming pool, a public spa, or a special use pool.43784

       Sec. 3749.03.  (A) No person shall construct or install, or 43785
renovate or otherwise substantially alter, a public swimming pool, 43786
public spa, or special-usespecial use pool after September 10, 43787
1987, until the plans for the pool or spa have been submitted to 43788
and approved by the director of health. Within thirty days of 43789
receipt of the plans, the director shall approve or disapprove 43790
them. The plans and approval required under this division do not 43791
apply to repairs or ordinary maintenance that does not 43792
substantially affect the manner of water recirculation or basic 43793
design of the public swimming pool, public spa, or special-use43794
special use pool.43795

       Any person aggrieved by the director's disapproval of plans 43796
under this division may, within thirty days following receipt of 43797
the director's notice of disapproval, request a hearing on the 43798
matter. The hearing shall be held in accordance with Chapter 119. 43799
of the Revised Code and may be appealed in the manner provided in 43800
that chapter.43801

       (B) Prior to the issuance of a license to operate a newly 43802
constructed or altered public swimming pool, public spa, or43803
special-usespecial use pool, the director or a licensor 43804
authorized by the director shall verify that the construction or 43805
alterations are consistent with the plans submitted and approved 43806
under division (A) of this section. The director or licensor 43807
authorized by the director shall have two working days from the 43808
time notification is received that a public swimming pool, public 43809
spa, or special-usespecial use pool is ready for an inspection to 43810
verify the construction or alterations.43811

       (C) The(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this 43812
section, the fees for the approval of plans are as follows:43813

       (1)(a) Five per cent of the total cost of the equipment and 43814
installation not to exceed two hundred seventy-five dollars for a 43815
public swimming pool, public spa, or special-usespecial use pool, 43816
or a combination thereof, that has less than two thousand square 43817
feet of surface area;43818

       (2)(b) Five per cent of the total cost of the equipment and 43819
installation not to exceed five hundred fifty dollars for a public 43820
swimming pool, public spa, special-usespecial use pool, or a 43821
combination thereof, that has two thousand or more square feet of 43822
surface area.43823

       After December 31, 1992, the public health council(2) The 43824
director may, by rule adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 43825
the Revised Code, increase the fees established by this section.43826

       (D) All plan approval fees shall be paid into the state 43827
treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created by 43828
section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be 43829
administered by the director and shall be used solely for the 43830
administration and enforcement of this chapter and the rules 43831
adopted thereunder.43832

       (E) Plan approvals issued under this section shall not 43833
constitute an exemption from the land use and building 43834
requirements of the political subdivision in which the public 43835
swimming pool, public spa, or special-usespecial use pool is or 43836
is to be located.43837

       Sec. 3749.04.  (A) No person shall operate or maintain a 43838
public swimming pool, public spa, or special-usespecial use pool 43839
without a license issued by the licensor having jurisdiction.43840

       (B) Every person who intends to operate or maintain an 43841
existing public swimming pool, public spa, or special-usespecial 43842
use pool shall, during the month of April of each year, apply to 43843
the licensor having jurisdiction for a license to operate the pool 43844
or spa. Any person proposing to operate or maintain a new or 43845
otherwise unlicensed public swimming pool, public spa, or43846
special-usespecial use pool shall apply to the licensor having 43847
jurisdiction at least thirty days prior to the intended start of 43848
operation of the pool or spa. Within thirty days of receipt of an 43849
application for licensure of a public swimming pool, public spa, 43850
or special-usespecial use pool, the licensor shall process the 43851
application and either issue a license or otherwise respond to the 43852
applicant regarding the application.43853

       (C) Each license issued shall be effective from the date of 43854
issuance until the last day of May of the following year.43855

       (D) Each licensor administering and enforcing sections 43856
3749.01 to 3749.09 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted 43857
thereunder may establish licensing and inspection fees in 43858
accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code, which shall 43859
not exceed the cost of licensing and inspecting public swimming 43860
pools, public spas, and special-usespecial use pools.43861

       (E) Except as provided in division (F) of this section and in 43862
division (B) of section 3749.07 of the Revised Code, all license 43863
fees collected by a licensor shall be deposited into a swimming 43864
pool fund, which is hereby created in each health district. The 43865
fees shall be used by the licensor solely for the purpose of 43866
administering and enforcing this chapter and the rules adopted 43867
under this chapter.43868

       (F) An annual license fee established under division (D) of 43869
this section shall include any additional amount determined by 43870
rule of the publicdirector of health council, which the board of 43871
health shall collect and transmit to the director of health43872
pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code. The amounts 43873
collected under this division shall be administered by the 43874
director of health and shall be used solely for the administration 43875
and enforcement of this chapter and the rules adopted under this 43876
chapter.43877

       Sec. 3752.06.  (A) Unless the owner or operator of a 43878
reporting facility has submitted to the director of environmental 43879
protection in connection with the facility a notice of the 43880
temporary discontinuation of all regulated operations at the 43881
facility in compliance with division (A)(1) of section 3752.09 of 43882
the Revised Code, has submitted an application for a waiver in 43883
compliance with or been issued a waiver under division (A) of 43884
section 3752.10 of the Revised Code, or, pursuant to division (B) 43885
of this section, has been granted an extension of time for 43886
compliance with divisions (A)(4) to (6) of this section, and 43887
except as provided in division (C) of this section, the owner or 43888
operator, not later than ninety days after the cessation of all 43889
regulated operations at the facility, shall do all of the 43890
following:43891

       (1) Submit to the director a copy of the most recent 43892
emergency and hazardous chemical inventory form for the facility 43893
submitted to the emergency response commission in accordance with 43894
section 3750.08 of the Revised Code accompanied by a statement 43895
indicating whether any asbestos-containing materials are present 43896
at the facility;43897

       (2) Submit to the director a copy of the current hazardous 43898
chemical list, or of each of the material safety data sheets, that 43899
the owner or operator is required to have on file with the 43900
commission under section 3750.07 of the Revised Code in connection 43901
with the facility;43902

       (3) Submit to the director a list of every stationary tank, 43903
vat, electrical transformer, and vessel of any type that contains 43904
or is contaminated with regulated substances and that is to remain 43905
at the facility; a precise description of the location of each; 43906
and an identification of the regulated substances that are in or 43907
contaminate each;43908

       (4) Drain or remove all regulated substances from each 43909
stationary vat, tank, electrical transformer, and vessel, and from 43910
all piping, that is to remain at the facility and do any or a 43911
combination of the following:43912

       (a) Transfer the regulated substances to another facility 43913
owned or operated by the owner or operator. If any regulated 43914
substances are transferred to another facility of the owner or 43915
operator located within this state, they shall be transferred to a 43916
facility that is operating. If any regulated substances are 43917
transferred to another facility of the owner or operator located 43918
outside this state, they shall be transferred in compliance with 43919
the applicable laws governing the receiving facility of the state 43920
in which the receiving facility is located.43921

       (b) Lawfully transfer ownership of the regulated substances 43922
to another person through sale or otherwise;43923

       (c) Cause the regulated substances to be transported off the 43924
premises of the facility and managed in compliance with the 43925
applicable provisions of Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code and 43926
rules adopted under that chapter; the "Toxic Substances Control 43927
Act," 90 Stat. 2003 (1976), 15 U.S.C.A. 2601, as amended, and 43928
regulations adopted under it; or the "Resource Conservation and 43929
Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as 43930
amended, and regulations adopted under it; or, if transported out 43931
of state, to be managed in compliance with the waste management 43932
laws of the state to which the regulated substances are 43933
transported.43934

       In the case of any regulated substance that also is a 43935
hazardous material identified or listed in regulations adopted 43936
under the "Hazardous Materials Transportation Act," 88 Stat. 2156 43937
(1975), 49 U.S.C.A. 1801, as amended, and that is to be 43938
transported off the premises of the facility, the owner or 43939
operator of the facility shall transport the regulated substance, 43940
or cause it to be transported, in compliance with the applicable 43941
rules adopted under division (A) of section 4919.85, division (E) 43942
of section 4921.04, division (C) of section 4923.03, or division 43943
(C) of section 4923.20Chapters 4905., 4921., and 4923. of the 43944
Revised Code.43945

       (5) Remove from the facility all debris, nonstationary 43946
equipment and furnishings, nonstationary containers, and motor 43947
vehicles and rolling stock that contain or are contaminated with a 43948
regulated substance and do any or a combination of the following:43949

       (a) Transfer the debris, equipment, furnishings, containers, 43950
and motor vehicles and rolling stock to another facility owned or 43951
operated by the owner or operator. If any such debris, equipment, 43952
furnishings, containers, or motor vehicles and rolling stock is 43953
transferred to another facility of the owner or operator located 43954
in this state, it shall be transferred to a facility that is 43955
operating. If any such debris, equipment, furnishings, containers, 43956
or motor vehicles and rolling stock is transferred to another 43957
facility of the owner or operator located outside this state, it 43958
only shall be transferred in compliance with the applicable laws 43959
governing the receiving facility of the state in which the 43960
receiving facility is located.43961

       (b) Lawfully transfer ownership of the debris, equipment, 43962
furnishings, containers, and motor vehicles and rolling stock to 43963
another person through sale or otherwise;43964

       (c) Cause the debris, equipment, furnishings, and containers 43965
to be transported off the premises of the facility and managed in 43966
compliance with the applicable provisions of Chapter 3734. of the 43967
Revised Code and rules adopted under that chapter; the "Toxic 43968
Substances Control Act," 90 Stat. 2003 (1976), 15 U.S.C.A. 2601, 43969
as amended, and regulations adopted under it; or the "Resource 43970
Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 43971
6921, as amended, and regulations adopted under it; or, if 43972
transported out of state, to be managed in compliance with the 43973
waste management laws of the state to which the debris, equipment, 43974
furnishings, and containers are transported.43975

       (6) Make a written certification to the director that the 43976
actions required by divisions (A)(4) and (5) of this section have 43977
been completed in compliance with those divisions and any 43978
applicable rules adopted under section 3752.03 of the Revised 43979
Code. The certification shall be made on a form prescribed by the 43980
director and, in addition to the information required in division 43981
(A) of this section, shall include, without limitation, the 43982
owner's or operator's name and the address of the owner's or 43983
operator's principal office.43984

       (B) Upon the written request of the owner or operator of a 43985
facility who is subject to division (A) of this section, the 43986
director, at histhe director's discretion, may extend the length 43987
of time required for compliance with divisions (A)(4) to (6) of 43988
this section for any period of time the director considers 43989
reasonable and necessary if the director finds from the request 43990
that either of the following applies:43991

       (1) The inability of the owner or operator to complete the 43992
required actions within the time prescribed in that division is 43993
due to circumstances that are temporary in nature and are beyond 43994
the control of the owner or operator;43995

       (2) The owner or operator, exercising reasonable diligence, 43996
is unable to complete the required actions within the time 43997
prescribed in that division due to facility size, operational 43998
complexity, or other such relevant factors.43999

       Upon making a decision on a request submitted under division 44000
(B) of this section, the director shall mail notice of histhe44001
decision to the owner or operator by certified mail, return 44002
receipt requested, and, if the request was approved, notice of the 44003
length of the extension.44004

       (C) An owner or operator of a reporting facility who is 44005
subject to this section is not required to perform the removal 44006
actions required by it or to make the certification required by 44007
division (A)(6) of this section with respect to hazardous waste 44008
stored, treated, or disposed of at the facility, or portion of the 44009
facility, for which the owner holds a valid hazardous waste 44010
facility installation and operation permit or renewal permit 44011
issued under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code or has obtained a 44012
generator identification number pursuant to rules adopted under 44013
section 3734.12 of the Revised Code. Instead, the owner shall 44014
comply with the applicable closure and post-closure care 44015
requirements established in rules adopted under section 3734.12 of 44016
the Revised Code.44017

       (D) No person shall fail to comply with any provision of 44018
division (A) of this section within the time required by that 44019
division and any extension of that time granted under division (B) 44020
of this section, as appropriate.44021

       Sec. 3770.06.  (A) There is hereby created the state lottery 44022
gross revenue fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer 44023
of state but shall not be part of the state treasury. All gross 44024
revenues received from sales of lottery tickets, fines, fees, and 44025
related proceeds in connection with the statewide lottery and all 44026
gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery games shall be 44027
deposited into the fund. The treasurer of state shall invest any 44028
portion of the fund not needed for immediate use in the same 44029
manner as, and subject to all provisions of law with respect to 44030
the investment of, state funds. The treasurer of state shall 44031
disburse money from the fund on order of the director of the state 44032
lottery commission or the director's designee.44033

       Except for gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery games, 44034
all revenues of the state lottery gross revenue fund that are not 44035
paid to holders of winning lottery tickets, that are not required 44036
to meet short-term prize liabilities, that are not credited to 44037
lottery sales agents in the form of bonuses, commissions, or 44038
reimbursements, that are not paid to financial institutions to 44039
reimburse those institutions for sales agent nonsufficient funds, 44040
and that are collected from sales agents for remittance to 44041
insurers under contract to provide sales agent bonding services 44042
shall be transferred to the state lottery fund, which is hereby 44043
created in the state treasury. In addition, all revenues of the 44044
state lottery gross revenue fund that represent the gross proceeds 44045
from the statewide joint lottery games and that are not paid to 44046
holders of winning lottery tickets, that are not required to meet 44047
short-term prize liabilities, that are not credited to lottery 44048
sales agents in the form of bonuses, commissions, or 44049
reimbursements, and that are not necessary to cover operating 44050
expenses associated with those games or to otherwise comply with 44051
the agreements signed by the governor that the director enters 44052
into under division (J) of section 3770.02 of the Revised Code or 44053
the rules the commission adopts under division (B)(5) of section 44054
3770.03 of the Revised Code shall be transferred to the state 44055
lottery fund. All investment earnings of the fund shall be 44056
credited to the fund. Moneys shall be disbursed from the fund 44057
pursuant to vouchers approved by the director. Total disbursements 44058
for monetary prize awards to holders of winning lottery tickets in 44059
connection with the statewide lottery and purchases of goods and 44060
services awarded as prizes to holders of winning lottery tickets 44061
shall be of an amount equal to at least fifty per cent of the 44062
total revenue accruing from the sale of lottery tickets.44063

       (B) Pursuant to Section 6 of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, 44064
there is hereby established in the state treasury the lottery 44065
profits education fund. Whenever, in the judgment of the director 44066
of budget and managementthe state lottery commission, the amount 44067
to the credit of the state lottery fund that does not represent 44068
proceeds from statewide joint lottery games is in excess of that 44069
needed to meet the maturing obligations of the commission and as 44070
working capital for its further operations, the director of the 44071
state lottery commission shall recommend the amount of the excess 44072
to be transferred to the lottery profits education fund, and the 44073
director of budget and management may transfer the excess to the 44074
lottery profits education fund in connection with the statewide 44075
lottery. In addition, whenever, in the judgment of the director of 44076
budget and managementthe state lottery commission, the amount to 44077
the credit of the state lottery fund that represents proceeds from 44078
statewide joint lottery games equals the entire net proceeds of 44079
those games as described in division (B)(5) of section 3770.03 of 44080
the Revised Code and the rules adopted under that division, the 44081
director of the state lottery commission shall recommend the 44082
amount of the proceeds to be transferred to the lottery profits 44083
education fund, and the director of budget and management may44084
transfer those proceeds to the lottery profits education fund. 44085
There shall also be credited to the fund any repayments of moneys 44086
loaned from the educational excellence investment fund. Investment 44087
earnings of the lottery profits education fund shall be credited 44088
to the fund.44089

       The lottery profits education fund shall be used solely for 44090
the support of elementary, secondary, vocational, and special 44091
education programs as determined in appropriations made by the 44092
general assembly, or as provided in applicable bond proceedings 44093
for the payment of debt service on obligations issued to pay costs 44094
of capital facilities, including those for a system of common 44095
schools throughout the state pursuant to section 2n of Article 44096
VIII, Ohio Constitution. When determining the availability of 44097
money in the lottery profits education fund, the director of 44098
budget and management may consider all balances and estimated 44099
revenues of the fund.44100

        (C) There is hereby established in the state treasury the 44101
deferred prizes trust fund. With the approval of the director of 44102
budget and management, an amount sufficient to fund annuity prizes 44103
shall be transferred from the state lottery fund and credited to 44104
the trust fund. The treasurer of state shall credit all earnings 44105
arising from investments purchased under this division to the 44106
trust fund. Within sixty days after the end of each fiscal year, 44107
the treasurer of state shall certify to the director of budget and 44108
management whether the actuarial amount of the trust fund is 44109
sufficient over the fund's life for continued funding of all 44110
remaining deferred prize liabilities as of the last day of the 44111
fiscal year just ended. Also, within that sixty days, the director 44112
of budget and management shall certify the amount of investment 44113
earnings necessary to have been credited to the trust fund during 44114
the fiscal year just ending to provide for such continued funding 44115
of deferred prizes. Any earnings credited in excess of the latter 44116
certified amount shall be transferred to the lottery profits 44117
education fund.44118

       To provide all or a part of the amounts necessary to fund 44119
deferred prizes awarded by the commission in connection with the 44120
statewide lottery, the treasurer of state, in consultation with 44121
the commission, may invest moneys contained in the deferred prizes 44122
trust fund which represents proceeds from the statewide lottery in 44123
obligations of the type permitted for the investment of state 44124
funds but whose maturities are thirty years or less. 44125
Notwithstanding the requirements of any other section of the 44126
Revised Code, to provide all or part of the amounts necessary to 44127
fund deferred prizes awarded by the commission in connection with 44128
statewide joint lottery games, the treasurer of state, in 44129
consultation with the commission, may invest moneys in the trust 44130
fund which represent proceeds derived from the statewide joint 44131
lottery games in accordance with the rules the commission adopts 44132
under division (B)(5) of section 3770.03 of the Revised Code. 44133
Investments of the trust fund are not subject to the provisions of 44134
division (A)(10) of section 135.143 of the Revised Code limiting 44135
to twenty-five per cent the amount of the state's total average 44136
portfolio that may be invested in debt interests and limiting to 44137
one-half of one per cent the amount that may be invested in debt 44138
interests of a single issuer.44139

       All purchases made under this division shall be effected on a 44140
delivery versus payment method and shall be in the custody of the 44141
treasurer of state.44142

       The treasurer of state may retain an investment advisor, if 44143
necessary. The commission shall pay any costs incurred by the 44144
treasurer of state in retaining an investment advisor.44145

       (D) The auditor of state shall conduct annual audits of all 44146
funds and any other audits as the auditor of state or the general 44147
assembly considers necessary. The auditor of state may examine all 44148
records, files, and other documents of the commission, and records 44149
of lottery sales agents that pertain to their activities as 44150
agents, for purposes of conducting authorized audits.44151

       The state lottery commission shall establish an internal 44152
audit program before the beginning of each fiscal year, subject to 44153
the approval of the auditor of state. At the end of each fiscal 44154
year, the commission shall prepare and submit an annual report to 44155
the auditor of state for the auditor of state's review and 44156
approval, specifying the internal audit work completed by the end 44157
of that fiscal year and reporting on compliance with the annual 44158
internal audit program. The form and content of the report shall 44159
be prescribed by the auditor of state under division (C) of 44160
section 117.20 of the Revised Code.44161

       (E) Whenever, in the judgment of the director of budget and 44162
management, an amount of net state lottery proceeds is necessary 44163
to be applied to the payment of debt service on obligations, all 44164
as defined in sections 151.01 and 151.03 of the Revised Code, the 44165
director shall transfer that amount directly from the state 44166
lottery fund or from the lottery profits education fund to the 44167
bond service fund defined in those sections. The provisions of 44168
this division are subject to any prior pledges or obligation of 44169
those amounts to the payment of bond service charges as defined in 44170
division (C) of section 3318.21 of the Revised Code, as referred 44171
to in division (B) of this section.44172

       Sec. 3781.03. (A) The state fire marshal, the fire chief of a 44173
municipal corporation that has a fire department, or the fire 44174
chief of a township that has a fire department shall enforce the 44175
provisions of this chapter and Chapter 3791. of the Revised Code 44176
that relate to fire prevention.44177

       (B) The superintendent of laborindustrial compliance, or the 44178
building inspector or commissioner of buildings in a municipal 44179
corporation, county, or township in which the building department 44180
is certified by the board of building standards under section 44181
3781.10 of the Revised Code shall enforce in the jurisdiction of 44182
each entity all the provisions in this chapter and Chapter 3791. 44183
of the Revised Code and any rules adopted pursuant to those 44184
chapters that relate to the construction, arrangement, and 44185
erection of all buildings or parts of buildings, as defined in 44186
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code, including the sanitary 44187
condition of those buildings in relation to heating and 44188
ventilation.44189

       (C) The division of laborindustrial compliance in the 44190
department of commerce, boards of health of health districts, 44191
certified departments of building inspection of municipal 44192
corporations, and county building departments that have authority 44193
to perform inspections pursuant to a contract under division 44194
(C)(1) of section 3703.01 of the Revised Code, subject to Chapter 44195
3703. of the Revised Code, shall enforce this chapter and Chapter 44196
3791. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted pursuant to those 44197
chapters that relate to plumbing. Building drains are considered 44198
plumbing for the purposes of enforcement of those chapters.44199

       (D)(1) In accordance with Chapter 3703. of the Revised Code, 44200
the department of the city engineer, in cities having such 44201
departments, the boards of health of health districts, or the 44202
sewer purveyor, as appropriate, shall have complete authority to 44203
supervise and regulate the entire sewerage and drainage system in 44204
the jurisdiction in which it is exercising the authority described 44205
in this division, including the building sewer and all laterals 44206
draining into the street sewers.44207

       (2) In accordance with Chapter 3703. of the Revised Code, the 44208
department of the city engineer, the boards of health of health 44209
districts, or the sewer purveyor, as appropriate, shall control 44210
and supervise the installation and construction of all drains and 44211
sewers that become a part of the sewerage system and shall issue 44212
all the necessary permits and licenses for the construction and 44213
installation of all building sewers and of all other lateral 44214
drains that empty into the main sewers. The department of the city 44215
engineer, the boards of health of health districts, and the sewer 44216
purveyor, as appropriate, shall keep a permanent record of the 44217
installation and location of every drain and sewer of the drainage 44218
and sewerage system of the jurisdiction in which it has exercised 44219
the authority described in this division.44220

       (E) This section does not exempt any officer or department 44221
from the obligation to enforce this chapter and Chapter 3791. of 44222
the Revised Code.44223

       Sec. 3781.06.  (A)(1) Any building that may be used as a 44224
place of resort, assembly, education, entertainment, lodging, 44225
dwelling, trade, manufacture, repair, storage, traffic, or 44226
occupancy by the public, any residential building, and all other 44227
buildings or parts and appurtenances of those buildings erected 44228
within this state, shall be so constructed, erected, equipped, and 44229
maintained that they shall be safe and sanitary for their intended 44230
use and occupancy.44231

       (2) Nothing in sections 3781.06 to 3781.18 and 3791.04 of the 44232
Revised Code shall be construed to limit the power of the public 44233
health councilmanufactured homes commission to adopt rules of 44234
uniform application governing manufactured home parks pursuant to 44235
section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code.44236

       (B) Sections 3781.06 to 3781.18 and 3791.04 of the Revised 44237
Code do not apply to either of the following:44238

       (1) Buildings or structures that are incident to the use for 44239
agricultural purposes of the land on which the buildings or 44240
structures are located, provided those buildings or structures are 44241
not used in the business of retail trade. For purposes of this 44242
division, a building or structure is not considered used in the 44243
business of retail trade if fifty per cent or more of the gross 44244
income received from sales of products in the building or 44245
structure by the owner or operator is from sales of products 44246
produced or raised in a normal crop year on farms owned or 44247
operated by the seller.44248

       (2) Existing single-family, two-family, and three-family 44249
detached dwelling houses for which applications have been 44250
submitted to the director of job and family services pursuant to 44251
section 5104.03 of the Revised Code for the purposes of operating 44252
type A family day-care homes as defined in section 5104.01 of the 44253
Revised Code.44254

       (C) As used in sections 3781.06 to 3781.18 and 3791.04 of the 44255
Revised Code:44256

       (1) "Agricultural purposes" include agriculture, farming, 44257
dairying, pasturage, apiculture, horticulture, floriculture, 44258
viticulture, ornamental horticulture, olericulture, pomiculture, 44259
and animal and poultry husbandry.44260

       (2) "Building" means any structure consisting of foundations, 44261
walls, columns, girders, beams, floors, and roof, or a combination 44262
of any number of these parts, with or without other parts or 44263
appurtenances.44264

       (3) "Industrialized unit" means a building unit or assembly 44265
of closed construction fabricated in an off-site facility, that is 44266
substantially self-sufficient as a unit or as part of a greater 44267
structure, and that requires transportation to the site of 44268
intended use. "Industrialized unit" includes units installed on 44269
the site as independent units, as part of a group of units, or 44270
incorporated with standard construction methods to form a 44271
completed structural entity. "Industrialized unit" does not 44272
include a manufactured home as defined by division (C)(4) of this 44273
section or a mobile home as defined by division (O) of section 44274
4501.01 of the Revised Code.44275

       (4) "Manufactured home" means a building unit or assembly of 44276
closed construction that is fabricated in an off-site facility and 44277
constructed in conformance with the federal construction and 44278
safety standards established by the secretary of housing and urban 44279
development pursuant to the "Manufactured Housing Construction and 44280
Safety Standards Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 700, 42 U.S.C.A. 5401, 44281
5403, and that has a permanent label or tag affixed to it, as 44282
specified in 42 U.S.C.A. 5415, certifying compliance with all 44283
applicable federal construction and safety standards.44284

       (5) "Permanent foundation" means permanent masonry, concrete, 44285
or a footing or foundation approved by the manufactured homes 44286
commission pursuant to Chapter 4781. of the Revised Code, to which 44287
a manufactured or mobile home may be affixed.44288

       (6) "Permanently sited manufactured home" means a 44289
manufactured home that meets all of the following criteria:44290

       (a) The structure is affixed to a permanent foundation and is 44291
connected to appropriate facilities;44292

       (b) The structure, excluding any addition, has a width of at 44293
least twenty-two feet at one point, a length of at least 44294
twenty-two feet at one point, and a total living area, excluding 44295
garages, porches, or attachments, of at least nine hundred square 44296
feet;44297

       (c) The structure has a minimum 3:12 residential roof pitch, 44298
conventional residential siding, and a six-inch minimum eave 44299
overhang, including appropriate guttering;44300

       (d) The structure was manufactured after January 1, 1995;44301

       (e) The structure is not located in a manufactured home park 44302
as defined by section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code.44303

       (7) "Safe," with respect to a building, means it is free from 44304
danger or hazard to the life, safety, health, or welfare of 44305
persons occupying or frequenting it, or of the public and from 44306
danger of settlement, movement, disintegration, or collapse, 44307
whether such danger arises from the methods or materials of its 44308
construction or from equipment installed therein, for the purpose 44309
of lighting, heating, the transmission or utilization of electric 44310
current, or from its location or otherwise.44311

       (8) "Sanitary," with respect to a building, means it is free 44312
from danger or hazard to the health of persons occupying or 44313
frequenting it or to that of the public, if such danger arises 44314
from the method or materials of its construction or from any 44315
equipment installed therein, for the purpose of lighting, heating, 44316
ventilating, or plumbing.44317

       (9) "Residential building" means a one-family, two-family, or 44318
three-family dwelling house, and any accessory structure 44319
incidental to that dwelling house. "Residential building" includes 44320
a one-family, two-family, or three-family dwelling house that is 44321
used as a model to promote the sale of a similar dwelling house. 44322
"Residential building" does not include an industrialized unit as 44323
defined by division (C)(3) of this section, a manufactured home as 44324
defined by division (C)(4) of this section, or a mobile home as 44325
defined by division (O) of section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.44326

        (10) "Nonresidential building" means any building that is not 44327
a residential building or a manufactured or mobile home.44328

       (11) "Accessory structure" means a structure that is attached 44329
to a residential building and serves the principal use of the 44330
residential building. "Accessory structure" includes, but is not 44331
limited to, a garage, porch, or screened-in patio.44332

       Sec. 3781.102.  (A) Any county or municipal building 44333
department certified pursuant to division (E) of section 3781.10 44334
of the Revised Code as of September 14, 1970, and that, as of that 44335
date, was inspecting single-family, two-family, and three-family 44336
residences, and any township building department certified 44337
pursuant to division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code, 44338
is hereby declared to be certified to inspect single-family, 44339
two-family, and three-family residences containing industrialized 44340
units, and shall inspect the buildings or classes of buildings 44341
subject to division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code.44342

       (B) Each board of county commissioners may adopt, by 44343
resolution, rules establishing standards and providing for the 44344
licensing of electrical and heating, ventilating, and air 44345
conditioning contractors who are not required to hold a valid and 44346
unexpired license pursuant to Chapter 4740. of the Revised Code.44347

       Rules adopted by a board of county commissioners pursuant to 44348
this division may be enforced within the unincorporated areas of 44349
the county and within any municipal corporation where the 44350
legislative authority of the municipal corporation has contracted 44351
with the board for the enforcement of the county rules within the 44352
municipal corporation pursuant to section 307.15 of the Revised 44353
Code. The rules shall not conflict with rules adopted by the board 44354
of building standards pursuant to section 3781.10 of the Revised 44355
Code or by the department of commerce pursuant to Chapter 3703. of 44356
the Revised Code. This division does not impair or restrict the 44357
power of municipal corporations under Section 3 of Article XVIII, 44358
Ohio Constitution, to adopt rules concerning the erection, 44359
construction, repair, alteration, and maintenance of buildings and 44360
structures or of establishing standards and providing for the 44361
licensing of specialty contractors pursuant to section 715.27 of 44362
the Revised Code.44363

       A board of county commissioners, pursuant to this division, 44364
may require all electrical contractors and heating, ventilating, 44365
and air conditioning contractors, other than those who hold a 44366
valid and unexpired license issued pursuant to Chapter 4740. of 44367
the Revised Code, to successfully complete an examination, test, 44368
or demonstration of technical skills, and may impose a fee and 44369
additional requirements for a license to engage in their 44370
respective occupations within the jurisdiction of the board's 44371
rules under this division.44372

       (C) No board of county commissioners shall require any 44373
specialty contractor who holds a valid and unexpired license 44374
issued pursuant to Chapter 4740. of the Revised Code to 44375
successfully complete an examination, test, or demonstration of 44376
technical skills in order to engage in the type of contracting for 44377
which the license is held, within the unincorporated areas of the 44378
county and within any municipal corporation whose legislative 44379
authority has contracted with the board for the enforcement of 44380
county regulations within the municipal corporation, pursuant to 44381
section 307.15 of the Revised Code.44382

       (D) A board may impose a fee for registration of a specialty 44383
contractor who holds a valid and unexpired license issued pursuant 44384
to Chapter 4740. of the Revised Code before that specialty 44385
contractor may engage in the type of contracting for which the 44386
license is held within the unincorporated areas of the county and 44387
within any municipal corporation whose legislative authority has 44388
contracted with the board for the enforcement of county 44389
regulations within the municipal corporation, pursuant to section 44390
307.15 of the Revised Code, provided that the fee is the same for 44391
all specialty contractors who wish to engage in that type of 44392
contracting. If a board imposes such a fee, the board immediately 44393
shall permit a specialty contractor who presents proof of holding 44394
a valid and unexpired license and pays the required fee to engage 44395
in the type of contracting for which the license is held within 44396
the unincorporated areas of the county and within any municipal 44397
corporation whose legislative authority has contracted with the 44398
board for the enforcement of county regulations within the 44399
municipal corporation, pursuant to section 307.15 of the Revised 44400
Code.44401

       (E) The political subdivision associated with each municipal, 44402
township, and county building department the board of building 44403
standards certifies pursuant to division (E) of section 3781.10 of 44404
the Revised Code may prescribe fees to be paid by persons, 44405
political subdivisions, or any department, agency, board, 44406
commission, or institution of the state, for the acceptance and 44407
approval of plans and specifications, and for the making of 44408
inspections, pursuant to sections 3781.03 and 3791.04 of the 44409
Revised Code.44410

       (F) Each political subdivision that prescribes fees pursuant 44411
to division (E) of this section shall collect, on behalf of the 44412
board of building standards, fees equal to the following:44413

       (1) Three per cent of the fees the political subdivision 44414
collects in connection with nonresidential buildings;44415

       (2) One per cent of the fees the political subdivision 44416
collects in connection with residential buildings.44417

        (G)(1) The board shall adopt rules, in accordance with 44418
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, specifying the manner in which 44419
the fee assessed pursuant to division (F) of this section shall be 44420
collected and remitted monthly to the board. The board shall pay 44421
the fees into the state treasury to the credit of the labor44422
industrial compliance operating fund created in section 121.084 of 44423
the Revised Code.44424

       (2) All money credited to the laborindustrial compliance44425
operating fund under this division shall be used exclusively for 44426
the following:44427

       (a) Operating costs of the board;44428

       (b) Providing services, including educational programs, for 44429
the building departments that are certified by the board pursuant 44430
to division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code;44431

       (c) Paying the expenses of the residential construction 44432
advisory committee, including the expenses of committee members as 44433
provided in section 4740.14 of the Revised Code.44434

       (H) A board of county commissioners that adopts rules 44435
providing for the licensing of electrical and heating, 44436
ventilating, and air conditioning contractors, pursuant to 44437
division (B) of this section, may accept, for purposes of 44438
satisfying the requirements of rules adopted under that division, 44439
a valid and unexpired license issued pursuant to Chapter 4740. of 44440
the Revised Code that is held by an electrical or heating, 44441
ventilating, and air conditioning contractor, for the 44442
construction, replacement, maintenance, or repair of one-family, 44443
two-family, or three-family dwelling houses or accessory 44444
structures incidental to those dwelling houses.44445

       (I) A board of county commissioners shall not register a 44446
specialty contractor who is required to hold a license under 44447
Chapter 4740. of the Revised Code but does not hold a valid 44448
license issued under that chapter.44449

       (J) As used in this section, "specialty contractor" means a 44450
heating, ventilating, and air conditioning contractor, 44451
refrigeration contractor, electrical contractor, plumbing 44452
contractor, or hydronics contractor, as those contractors are 44453
described in Chapter 4740. of the Revised Code.44454

       Sec. 3781.11.  (A) The rules of the board of building 44455
standards shall:44456

       (1) For nonresidential buildings, provide uniform minimum 44457
standards and requirements, and for residential buildings, provide 44458
standards and requirements that are uniform throughout the state, 44459
for construction and construction materials, including 44460
construction of industrialized units, to make residential and 44461
nonresidential buildings safe and sanitary as defined in section 44462
3781.06 of the Revised Code;44463

       (2) Formulate such standards and requirements, so far as may 44464
be practicable, in terms of performance objectives, so as to make 44465
adequate performance for the use intended the test of 44466
acceptability;44467

       (3) Permit, to the fullest extent feasible, the use of 44468
materials and technical methods, devices, and improvements, 44469
including the use of industrialized units which tend to reduce the 44470
cost of construction and erection without affecting minimum 44471
requirements for the health, safety, and security of the occupants 44472
or users of buildings or industrialized units and without 44473
preferential treatment of types or classes of materials or 44474
products or methods of construction;44475

       (4) Encourage, so far as may be practicable, the 44476
standardization of construction practices, methods, equipment, 44477
material, and techniques, including methods employed to produce 44478
industrialized units;44479

       (5) Not require any alteration or repair of any part of a 44480
school building owned by a chartered nonpublic school or a city, 44481
local, exempted village, or joint vocational school district and 44482
operated in conjunction with any primary or secondary school 44483
program that is not being altered or repaired if all of the 44484
following apply:44485

       (a) The school building meets all of the applicable building 44486
code requirements in existence at the time of the construction of 44487
the building.44488

       (b) The school building otherwise satisfies the requirements 44489
of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.44490

       (c) The part of the school building altered or repaired 44491
conforms to all rules of the board existing on the date of the 44492
repair or alteration.44493

       (6) Not require any alteration or repair to any part of a 44494
workshop or factory that is not otherwise being altered, repaired, 44495
or added to if all of the following apply:44496

       (a) The workshop or factory otherwise satisfies the 44497
requirements of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.44498

       (b) The part of the workshop or factory altered, repaired, or 44499
added conforms to all rules of the board existing on the date of 44500
plan approval of the repair, alteration, or addition.44501

       (B) The rules of the board shall supersede and govern any 44502
order, standard, or rule of the division of laborindustrial 44503
compliance in the department of commerce, division of the state 44504
fire marshal, the department of health, and of counties and 44505
townships, in all cases where such orders, standards, or rules are 44506
in conflict with the rules of the board, except that rules adopted 44507
and orders issued by the state fire marshal pursuant to Chapter 44508
3743. of the Revised Code prevail in the event of a conflict.44509

       (C) The construction, alteration, erection, and repair of 44510
buildings including industrialized units, and the materials and 44511
devices of any kind used in connection with them and the heating 44512
and ventilating of them and the plumbing and electric wiring in 44513
them shall conform to the statutes of this state or the rules 44514
adopted and promulgated by the board, and to provisions of local 44515
ordinances not inconsistent therewith. Any building, structure, or 44516
part thereof, constructed, erected, altered, manufactured, or 44517
repaired not in accordance with the statutes of this state or with 44518
the rules of the board, and any building, structure, or part 44519
thereof in which there is installed, altered, or repaired any 44520
fixture, device, and material, or plumbing, heating, or 44521
ventilating system, or electric wiring not in accordance with such 44522
statutes or rules is a public nuisance.44523

       (D) As used in this section:44524

       (1) "Nonpublic school" means a chartered school for which 44525
minimum standards are prescribed by the state board of education 44526
pursuant to division (D) of section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.44527

       (2) "Workshop or factory" includes manufacturing, mechanical, 44528
electrical, mercantile, art, and laundering establishments, 44529
printing, telegraph, and telephone offices, railroad depots, and 44530
memorial buildings, but does not include hotels and tenement and 44531
apartment houses.44532

       Sec. 3781.112. (A) As used in this section, "secured 44533
facility" means any of the following:44534

        (1) A maternity boardinghouse or lying-in hospitalunit, 44535
newborn care nursery, or maternity home licensed under section 44536
3711.02Chapter 3711. of the Revised Code;44537

        (2) A pediatric intensive care unit subject to rules adopted 44538
by the director of health pursuant to section 3702.11 of the 44539
Revised Code;44540

        (3) A children's hospital, as defined in section 3702.5144541
3727.01 of the Revised Code;44542

        (4) A hospital that is licensed under section 5119.20 of the 44543
Revised Code to receive mentally ill persons;44544

       (5) The portion of a nursing home licensed under section 44545
3721.02 of the Revised Code or in accordance with section 3721.09 44546
of the Revised Code in which specialized care is provided to 44547
residents of the nursing home who have physical or mental 44548
conditions that require a resident to be restricted in the 44549
resident's freedom of movement for the health and safety of the 44550
resident, the staff attending the resident, or the general public.44551

        (B) A secured facility may take reasonable steps in 44552
accordance with rules the board of building standards adopts under 44553
division (A) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and in 44554
accordance with the state fire code the fire marshal adopts under 44555
section 3737.82 of the Revised Code, to deny egress to confine and 44556
protect patients or residents of the secured facility who are not 44557
capable of self-preservation. A secured facility that wishes to 44558
deny egress to those patients or residents may use delayed-egress 44559
doors and electronically coded doors to deny egress, on the 44560
condition that those doors are installed and used in accordance 44561
with rules the board of building standards adopts under division 44562
(A) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and in accordance with 44563
the state fire code the fire marshal adopts under section 3737.82 44564
of the Revised Code. A secured facility also may install 44565
controlled-egress locks, in compliance with rules the board of 44566
building standards adopts under division (A) section 3781.10 of 44567
the Revised Code and in compliance with the state fire code the 44568
fire marshal adopts under section 3737.82 of the Revised Code, in 44569
areas of the secured facility where patients or residents who have 44570
physical or mental conditions that would endanger the patients or 44571
residents, the staff attending the patients or residents, or the 44572
general public if those patients or residents are not restricted 44573
in their freedom of movement. A secured facility that uses 44574
delayed-egress doors and electronically coded doors, 44575
controlled-egress locks, or both, shall do both of the following:44576

        (1) Provide continuous, twenty-four-hour custodial care to 44577
the patients or residents of the facility;44578

        (2) Establish a system to evacuate patients or residents in 44579
the event of fire or other emergency.44580

       Sec. 3783.05.  The board of building standards, in accordance 44581
with Chapters 119., 3781., and 3791. of the Revised Code, shall 44582
adopt, amend, or repeal such rules as may be reasonably necessary 44583
to administer this chapter. All fees collected by the board 44584
pursuant to this chapter shall be paid into the state treasury to 44585
the credit of the laborindustrial compliance operating fund 44586
created in section 121.084 of the Revised Code.44587

       Sec. 3791.02.  No owner, or person having the control as an 44588
officer or member of a board or committee or otherwise of any 44589
opera house, hall, theater, church, schoolhouse, college, academy, 44590
seminary, infirmary, sanitarium, children's home, hospital, 44591
medical institute, asylum, memorial building, armory, assembly 44592
hall, or other building for the assemblage or betterment of people 44593
shall fail to obey any order of the state fire marshal, boards of 44594
health of city and general health districts, the building 44595
inspector or commissioner in cities having a building inspection 44596
department, or the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance44597
in the department of commerce under Chapters 3781. and 3791. of 44598
the Revised Code or rules or regulations adopted pursuant thereto.44599

       Whoever violates this section shall be fined not more than 44600
one thousand dollars.44601

       Sec. 3791.04.  (A)(1) Before beginning the construction, 44602
erection, or manufacture of any building to which section 3781.06 44603
of the Revised Code applies, including all industrialized units, 44604
the owner of that building, in addition to any other submission 44605
required by law, shall submit plans or drawings, specifications, 44606
and data prepared for the construction, erection, equipment, 44607
alteration, or addition that indicate the portions that have been 44608
approved pursuant to section 3781.12 of the Revised Code and for 44609
which no further approval is required, to the municipal, township, 44610
or county building department having jurisdiction unless one of 44611
the following applies:44612

       (a) If no municipal, township, or county building department 44613
certified for nonresidential buildings pursuant to division (E) of 44614
section 3781.10 of the Revised Code has jurisdiction, the owner 44615
shall make the submissions described in division (A)(1) of this 44616
section to the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance.44617

       (b) If no certified municipal, township, or county building 44618
department certified for residential buildings pursuant to 44619
division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code has 44620
jurisdiction, the owner is not required to make the submissions 44621
described in division (A)(1) of this section.44622

       (2)(a) The seal of an architect registered under Chapter 44623
4703. of the Revised Code or an engineer registered under Chapter 44624
4733. of the Revised Code is required for any plans, drawings, 44625
specifications, or data submitted for approval, unless the plans, 44626
drawings, specifications, or data are permitted to be prepared by 44627
persons other than registered architects pursuant to division (C) 44628
or (D) of section 4703.18 of the Revised Code, or by persons other 44629
than registered engineers pursuant to division (C) or (D) of 44630
section 4733.18 of the Revised Code.44631

       (b) No seal is required for any plans, drawings, 44632
specifications, or data submitted for approval for any residential 44633
buildings, as defined in section 3781.06 of the Revised Code, or 44634
erected as industrialized one-, two-, or three-family units or 44635
structures within the meaning of "industrialized unit" as defined 44636
in section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.44637

       (c) No seal is required for approval of the installation of 44638
replacement equipment or systems that are similar in type or 44639
capacity to the equipment or systems being replaced. No seal is 44640
required for approval for any new construction, improvement, 44641
alteration, repair, painting, decorating, or other modification of 44642
any buildings or structures subject to sections 3781.06 to 3781.18 44643
and 3791.04 of the Revised Code if the proposed work does not 44644
involve technical design analysis, as defined by rule adopted by 44645
the board of building standards.44646

       (B) No owner shall proceed with the construction, erection, 44647
alteration, or equipment of any building until the plans or 44648
drawings, specifications, and data have been approved as this 44649
section requires, or the industrialized unit inspected at the 44650
point of origin. No plans or specifications shall be approved or 44651
inspection approval given unless the building represented would, 44652
if constructed, repaired, erected, or equipped, comply with 44653
Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and any rule made 44654
under those chapters.44655

       (C) The approval of plans or drawings and specifications or 44656
data pursuant to this section is invalid if construction, 44657
erection, alteration, or other work upon the building has not 44658
commenced within twelve months of the approval of the plans or 44659
drawings and specifications. One extension shall be granted for an 44660
additional twelve-month period if the owner requests at least ten 44661
days in advance of the expiration of the permit and upon payment 44662
of a fee not to exceed one hundred dollars. If in the course of 44663
construction, work is delayed or suspended for more than six 44664
months, the approval of plans or drawings and specifications or 44665
data is invalid. Two extensions shall be granted for six months 44666
each if the owner requests at least ten days in advance of the 44667
expiration of the permit and upon payment of a fee for each 44668
extension of not more than one hundred dollars. Before any work 44669
may continue on the construction, erection, alteration, or 44670
equipment of any building for which the approval is invalid, the 44671
owner of the building shall resubmit the plans or drawings and 44672
specifications for approval pursuant to this section.44673

       (D) Subject to section 3791.042 of the Revised Code, the 44674
board of building standards or the legislative authority of a 44675
municipal corporation, township, or county, by rule, may regulate 44676
the requirements for the submission of plans and specifications to 44677
the respective enforcing departments and for processing by those 44678
departments. The board of building standards or the legislative 44679
authority of a municipal corporation, township, or county may 44680
adopt rules to provide for the approval, subject to section 44681
3791.042 of the Revised Code, by the department having 44682
jurisdiction of the plans for construction of a foundation or any 44683
other part of a building or structure before the complete plans 44684
and specifications for the entire building or structure are 44685
submitted. When any plans are approved by the department having 44686
jurisdiction, the structure and every particular represented by 44687
and disclosed in those plans shall, in the absence of fraud or a 44688
serious safety or sanitation hazard, be conclusively presumed to 44689
comply with Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and any 44690
rule issued pursuant to those chapters, if constructed, altered, 44691
or repaired in accordance with those plans and any rule in effect 44692
at the time of approval.44693

       (E) The approval of plans and specifications, including 44694
inspection of industrialized units, under this section is a 44695
"license" and the failure to approve plans or specifications as 44696
submitted or to inspect the unit at the point of origin within 44697
thirty days after the plans or specifications are filed or the 44698
request to inspect the industrialized unit is made, the 44699
disapproval of plans and specifications, or the refusal to approve 44700
an industrialized unit following inspection at the point of origin 44701
is "an adjudication order denying the issuance of a license" 44702
requiring an "adjudication hearing" as provided by sections 119.07 44703
to 119.13 of the Revised Code and as modified by sections 3781.031 44704
and 3781.19 of the Revised Code. An adjudication order denying the 44705
issuance of a license shall specify the reasons for that denial.44706

       (F) The board of building standards shall not require the 44707
submission of site preparation plans or plot plans to the division 44708
of laborindustrial compliance when industrialized units are used 44709
exclusively as one-, two-, or three-family dwellings.44710

       (G) Notwithstanding any procedures the board establishes, if 44711
the agency having jurisdiction objects to any portion of the plans 44712
or specifications, the owner or the owner's representative may 44713
request the agency to issue conditional approval to proceed with 44714
construction up to the point of the objection. Approval shall be 44715
issued only when the objection results from conflicting 44716
interpretations of the rules of the board of building standards 44717
rather than the application of specific technical requirements of 44718
the rules. Approval shall not be issued where the correction of 44719
the objection would cause extensive changes in the building design 44720
or construction. The giving of conditional approval is a 44721
"conditional license" to proceed with construction up to the point 44722
where the construction or materials objected to by the agency are 44723
to be incorporated into the building. No construction shall 44724
proceed beyond that point without the prior approval of the agency 44725
or another agency that conducts an adjudication hearing relative 44726
to the objection. The agency having jurisdiction shall specify its 44727
objections to the plans or specifications, which is an 44728
"adjudication order denying the issuance of a license" and may be 44729
appealed pursuant to sections 119.07 to 119.13 of the Revised Code 44730
and as modified by sections 3781.031 and 3781.19 of the Revised 44731
Code.44732

       (H) A certified municipal, township, or county building 44733
department having jurisdiction, or the superintendent, as 44734
appropriate, shall review any plans, drawings, specifications, or 44735
data described in this section that are submitted to it or to the 44736
superintendent.44737

       (I) No owner or persons having control as an officer, or as a 44738
member of a board or committee, or otherwise, of a building to 44739
which section 3781.06 of the Revised Code is applicable, and no 44740
architect, designer, engineer, builder, contractor, subcontractor, 44741
or any officer or employee of a municipal, township, or county 44742
building department shall violate this section.44743

       (J) Whoever violates this section shall be fined not more 44744
than five hundred dollars.44745

       Sec. 3791.05.  No owner, lessee, agent, factor, architect, or 44746
contractor engaged in and having supervision or charge of the 44747
building, erection, or construction of a block, building, or 44748
structure, shall neglect or refuse to place or have placed upon 44749
the joists of each story thereof, as soon as joists are in 44750
position, counter floors of such quality and strength as to render 44751
perfectly safe the going to and from thereon of all mechanics, 44752
laborers, and other persons engaged upon the work of construction 44753
or supervision, or in placing materials for such construction.44754

       Whoever violates this section shall be fined not less than 44755
twenty-five nor more than two hundred dollars.44756

       Each day that such person neglects or refuses to have such 44757
counter floors so placed, after notice is given by a building 44758
inspector, a chief inspector, or deputy inspector of the city 44759
building inspection department in cities where such department is 44760
organized, or by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance44761
of the state, in cities where such departments are not organized, 44762
or from a person whose life or personal safety may be endangered 44763
by such neglect or refusal, is a separate offense.44764

       Sec. 3791.07.  (A) The board of building standards may 44765
establish such reasonable inspection fee schedules as it 44766
determines necessary or desirable relating to the inspection of 44767
all plans and specifications submitted for approval to the 44768
division of laborindustrial compliance, and all industrialized 44769
units inspected at the point of origin and at the construction 44770
site of the building. The inspection fee schedule established 44771
shall bear some reasonable relationship to the cost of 44772
administering and enforcing the provisions of Chapters 3781. and 44773
3791. of the Revised Code.44774

       (B) In addition to the fee assessed in division (A) of this 44775
section, the board shall assess a fee of not more than five 44776
dollars for each application for acceptance and approval of plans 44777
and specifications and for making inspections pursuant to section 44778
3791.04 of the Revised Code. The board shall adopt rules, in 44779
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, specifying the 44780
manner by which the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance44781
shall collect and remit to the board the fees assessed under this 44782
division and requiring that remittance of the fees be made at 44783
least quarterly.44784

       (C) Any person who fails to pay an inspection fee required 44785
for any inspection conducted by the department of commerce 44786
pursuant to Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code, except 44787
for fees charged for the inspection of plans and specifications, 44788
within forty-five days after the inspection is conducted, shall 44789
pay a late payment fee equal to twenty-five per cent of the 44790
inspection fee.44791

       (D) The board shall pay the fees assessed under this section 44792
into the state treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial 44793
compliance operating fund created in section 121.084 of the 44794
Revised Code.44795

       Sec. 3791.11.  (A) As used in this section and sections 44796
3791.12 and 3791.13 of the Revised Code:44797

       (1) "Service station" means any facility designed and 44798
constructed primarily for use in the retail sale of gasoline, 44799
other petroleum products, and related accessories; except that 44800
"service station" does not include any such facility that has been 44801
converted for use for another bona fide business purpose, on and 44802
after the date of commencement of such other use.44803

       (2) "Abandoned service station" means any service station 44804
that has not been used for the retail sale of gasoline, other 44805
petroleum products, and related accessories for a continuous 44806
period of six months, whenever failure to reasonably secure 44807
station buildings from ready access by unauthorized persons and to 44808
reasonably maintain the station's premises has resulted in 44809
conditions that endanger the public health, welfare, safety, or 44810
morals; provided, that such conditions include, but are not 44811
limited to, the presence of defective or deteriorated electrical 44812
wiring, heating apparatus, and gas connections, or of unprotected 44813
gasoline storage tanks, piping, and valves, or any combination of 44814
the foregoing; and provided further that the casual and 44815
intermittent use of a service station for the retail sale of any 44816
item described in division (A)(1) of this section during such 44817
six-month period shall not be held to prevent the station from 44818
being determined an abandoned service station if it meets the 44819
other qualifications of this division.44820

       (B) No person shall construct, renew operation of, or 44821
continue operation of a service station unless, prior to the 44822
commencement of construction or renewed operation and during the 44823
period of continued operation, a valid bond is on file as provided 44824
in division (C) or (D) of this section. The bond shall be obtained 44825
by the owner of the property if hethe owner is also the owner of 44826
the service station. If the owner of the property is not the owner 44827
of the service station, then the bond shall be obtained by the 44828
lessee of the property; except that such lessee shall be other 44829
than any person who leases and operates the service station 44830
pursuant to a contract with a supplier of gasoline and petroleum 44831
products. The bond shall identify and list the name and address of 44832
the property owner and any lessee other than a person who leases 44833
and operates the service station pursuant to a contract with a 44834
supplier of gasoline and petroleum products.44835

       (C) The bond required by division (B) of this section shall 44836
be filed annually with the executive authority of the municipal 44837
corporation in which the service station is, or is to be, located,44838
or with the clerk of the board of county commissioners if the 44839
service station is not, or is not to be, located within a 44840
municipal corporation. The bond shall either be a cash bond or 44841
have sufficient sureties approved by the executive authority or 44842
clerk with whom it is filed. The bond shall be for a term of one 44843
year and shall be renewed annually. The bond shall be in the 44844
amount of three thousand dollars for each service station to 44845
provide for the repair or removal of the service station and its 44846
appurtenances and restoration of the property. The bond shall be 44847
conditioned upon the repair or removal of the service station and 44848
restoration of the property if the service station is determined 44849
to be an abandoned service station as provided in section 3791.12 44850
of the Revised Code. If the service station is determined to be an 44851
abandoned service station, and division (D) or (F) of section 44852
3791.12 of the Revised Code applies, the bond shall be forfeited 44853
and the proceeds applied to the costs of repair or removal and 44854
restoration as provided in section 3791.13 of the Revised Code. If 44855
the amount of the bond exceeds the costs of repair or removal and 44856
restoration, the excess shall be returned to the depositor.44857

       (D) Whenever a property owner or lessee, other than a person 44858
leasing and operating a service station pursuant to a contract 44859
with a supplier of gasoline and other petroleum products, owns, 44860
leases, or is constructing two or more service stations in this 44861
state, such owner or lessee may deposit with the treasurer of 44862
state, in lieu of the bond required by division (C) of this 44863
section, money or a surety bond approved by the treasurer in the 44864
amount of one hundred fifty thousand dollars, or bonds of the 44865
United States, this state, or of a political subdivision of this 44866
state, having a market value, as determined by the treasurer, of 44867
one hundred fifty thousand dollars. The bond or deposit shall 44868
cover all service stations owned in the state, being constructed, 44869
leased, or operated by the depositor and shall be conditioned upon 44870
the repair or removal of any such station and its appurtenances 44871
and restoration of the property, if the station is determined to 44872
be an abandoned service station as provided in section 3791.12 of 44873
the Revised Code. If any such service station is determined to be 44874
an abandoned service station, and division (D) or (F) of section 44875
3791.12 of the Revised Code applies, the portion of the bond or 44876
deposit required to pay the costs of repair or removal and 44877
restoration shall be forfeited and paid to the executive authority 44878
of the municipal corporation or to the board of county 44879
commissioners of the county, upon request therefor. If the surety 44880
refuses to pay the costs of repair or removal and restoration to 44881
the treasurer, the treasurer shall forthwith file an action on the 44882
bond in the amount certified by the executive authority or board 44883
as the costs of repair or removal and restoration, and shall pay 44884
to the executive authority or board the proceeds of any judgment. 44885
A bond or deposit shall remain valid as long as it is sufficient 44886
to cover one hundred thousand dollars of liability. If the bond or 44887
deposit is reduced to a lesser amount, it shall be invalid unless 44888
sufficient additional bond or deposit is provided to restore the 44889
amount of liability covered to one hundred fifty thousand dollars.44890

       Sec. 3791.12.  (A) The executive authority of each municipal 44891
corporation and the board of county commissioners of each county 44892
shall designate a suitable person to make inspections, within 44893
their respective territorial jurisdictions, of any service 44894
stations that are, or appear to be, no longer in use for the 44895
purposes described in division (A)(1) of section 3791.11 of the 44896
Revised Code, or for any other bona fide business purpose. 44897
Inspections of service stations under this section shall be made 44898
at the order of the executive authority or board, or upon the 44899
complaint of any person claiming to be adversely affected by the 44900
condition of a service station. Any inspector designated under 44901
this section shall have the right to enter upon and inspect any 44902
service station that is, or appears to be, no longer in use as 44903
described in this section. No inspector, while in the lawful 44904
pursuit of hisofficial duties for such purpose, shall be subject 44905
to arrest for trespass while so engaged or for such cause 44906
thereafter.44907

       (B) Whenever an inspector, upon inspecting a service station 44908
as provided in this section, has reasonable cause to believe that 44909
it qualifies as an abandoned service station, hethe inspector44910
shall prepare a written report of the condition of the station's 44911
buildings and premises. The report shall be filed immediately with 44912
the executive authority or board. Upon receipt of the report, the 44913
executive authority or board shall fix a place and time, not less 44914
than thirty days nor more than sixty days after receipt of the 44915
report, for a hearing to determine whether the service station is 44916
an abandoned service station. The executive authority or board 44917
shall send written notice of the place and date of the hearing, 44918
together with a copy of the inspector's report and information 44919
that the service station may be ordered repaired or removed if 44920
determined to be abandoned, to all persons listed in the bond 44921
filed under division (C) or (D) of section 3791.11 of the Revised 44922
Code, and to all persons listed in the records of the county 44923
recorder or county clerk of courts as holding a lien on the 44924
affected property. Such notice shall be sent by certified mail to 44925
the address shown on such records.44926

       (C) In hearing the matter and deciding the issue, the 44927
executive authority or board shall consider the testimony of any 44928
persons appearing pursuant to the notice, or their authorized 44929
representatives, the testimony of any witnesses appearing on 44930
behalf of such persons, the inspector's report or testimony, or 44931
both, and any other evidence pertinent to the matter. If the 44932
executive authority or board thereupon determines that the service 44933
station is an abandoned service station in such condition as to 44934
constitute a danger to the public health, welfare, safety, or 44935
morals, it shall order the satisfactory repair, or removal, of the 44936
service station and its appurtenances, and restoration of the 44937
property, within such period of time, not less than thirty days, 44938
as the executive authority or board thereupon determines 44939
reasonable. Notice of the findings and order shall be sent to all 44940
persons required to be notified by division (B) of this section in 44941
the same manner as provided in that division.44942

       (D) If an abandoned service station is not satisfactorily 44943
repaired or removed within the period of time provided in an order 44944
made under division (C) of this section, the municipal corporation 44945
or county may enter the land and complete the repair, if repair 44946
was ordered, or remove the service station and its appurtenances, 44947
if removal was ordered, and restore the property.44948

       (E) Any person aggrieved by an order of an executive 44949
authority or board made under division (C) of this section, may 44950
appeal as provided in Chapter 2506. of the Revised Code within 44951
thirty days of the mailing of notice of the order.44952

       (F) In the event that no persons notified as provided in 44953
division (B) of this section, or their authorized representatives, 44954
appear at the hearing, respond to an order of the executive 44955
authority or board, or appeal within thirty days of the mailing of 44956
notice of the order as provided in division (E) of this section, 44957
the municipal corporation or county may proceed as provided in 44958
division (D) of this section.44959

       Sec. 3793.04.  The department of alcohol and drug addiction 44960
services shall develop, administer, and revise as necessary a 44961
comprehensive statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan 44962
for the implementation of this chapter. The plan shall emphasize 44963
abstinence from the use of alcohol and drugs of abuse as the 44964
primary goal of alcohol and drug addiction services. The council 44965
on alcohol and, drug, and gambling addiction services shall advise 44966
the department in the development and implementation of the plan.44967

       The plan shall provide for the allocation and distribution of 44968
funds appropriated to the department by the general assembly for 44969
services furnished by alcohol and drug addiction programs under 44970
contract with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 44971
services. The department shall exclude from the allocation and 44972
distribution any funds that are transferred to the department of 44973
job and family services to pay the nonfederal share of alcohol and 44974
drug addiction services covered by the medicaid program.44975

        The plan shall specify the methodology that the department 44976
will use for determining how the funds will be allocated and 44977
distributed. A portion of the funds shall be allocated on the 44978
basis of the ratio of the population of each alcohol, drug 44979
addiction, and mental health service district to the total 44980
population of the state as determined from the most recent federal 44981
census or the most recent official estimate made by the United 44982
States census bureau.44983

       The plan shall ensure that alcohol and drug addiction 44984
services of a high quality are accessible to, and responsive to 44985
the needs of, all persons, especially those who are members of 44986
underserved groups, including, but not limited to, African 44987
Americans, Hispanics, native Americans, Asians, juvenile and adult 44988
offenders, women, veterans, and persons with special services 44989
needs due to age or disability. The plan shall include a program 44990
to promote and protect the rights of those who receive services.44991

       To aid in formulating the plan and in evaluating the 44992
effectiveness and results of alcohol and drug addiction services, 44993
the department, in consultation with the department of mental 44994
health, shall establish and maintain an information system or 44995
systems. The department of alcohol and drug addiction services 44996
shall specify the information that must be provided by boards of 44997
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and by alcohol 44998
and drug addiction programs for inclusion in the system. The 44999
department shall not collect any personal information from the 45000
boards except as required or permitted by state or federal law for 45001
purposes related to payment, health care operations, program and 45002
service evaluation, reporting activities, research, system 45003
administration, and oversight.45004

       In consultation with boards, programs, and persons receiving 45005
services, the department shall establish guidelines for the use of 45006
funds allocated and distributed under this section and for the 45007
boards' development of plans for services required by sections 45008
340.033 and 3793.05 of the Revised Code.45009

       In any fiscal year, the department shall spend, or allocate 45010
to boards, for methadone maintenance programs or any similar 45011
programs not more than eight per cent of the total amount 45012
appropriated to the department for the fiscal year.45013

       Sec. 3793.041.  The department of alcohol and drug addiction 45014
services shall develop, administer, and revise as necessary a 45015
comprehensive statewide gambling addiction services plan. The 45016
council on alcohol, drug, and gambling addiction services shall 45017
advise the department in the development and implementation of the 45018
plan.45019

       The plan shall provide for allocation and distribution of 45020
funds from the problem casino gambling and addictions fund 45021
described in Section 6(C)(3)(g) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, 45022
and any funding to be distributed by the department for problem 45023
gambling.45024

        The plan shall specify the methodology that the department 45025
will use for determining how the funds will be allocated and 45026
distributed. A portion of the funds shall be allocated on the 45027
basis of the ratio of the population of each alcohol, drug 45028
addiction, and mental health service district to the total 45029
population of the state as determined from the most recent federal 45030
census or the most recent official estimate made by the United 45031
States census bureau.45032

       The plan shall ensure that gambling addiction services of a 45033
high quality are accessible to, and responsive to the needs of, 45034
all persons, especially those who are members of underserved 45035
groups, including, but not limited to, African Americans, 45036
Hispanics, native Americans, Asians, juvenile and adult offenders, 45037
women, veterans, and persons with special services needs due to 45038
age or disability. The plan shall include a program to promote and 45039
protect the rights of those who receive services.45040

       To aid in formulating the plan and in evaluating the 45041
effectiveness and results of gambling addiction services, the 45042
department, in consultation with the department of mental health, 45043
shall establish and maintain an information system or systems. The 45044
department of alcohol and drug addiction services shall specify 45045
the information that must be provided by boards of alcohol, drug 45046
addiction, and mental health services and by gambling addiction 45047
programs for inclusion in the system. The department shall not 45048
collect any personal information from the boards except as 45049
required or permitted by state or federal law for purposes related 45050
to payment, health care operations, program and service 45051
evaluation, reporting activities, research, system administration, 45052
and oversight.45053

       In consultation with boards, programs, and persons receiving 45054
services, the department shall establish guidelines for the use of 45055
funds allocated and distributed under this section.45056

       Sec. 3793.09.  (A) There is hereby created the council on 45057
alcohol and, drug, and gambling addiction services which shall 45058
consist of the public officials specified in division (B) of this 45059
section, or their designees, and thirteenfourteen members 45060
appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the 45061
senate. The members appointed by the governor shall be 45062
representatives of the following: boards of alcohol, drug 45063
addiction, and mental health services; the criminal and juvenile 45064
justice systems; and alcohol and drug addiction programs; and 45065
gambling addiction programs. At least four of the appointed 45066
members shall be persons who have received or are receiving 45067
alcohol or drug addiction services or are parents or other 45068
relatives of such persons; of these at least two shall be women 45069
and at least one shall be a member of a minority group.45070

       The governor shall make initial appointments to the council 45071
not later than thirty days after October 10, 1989. Of the initial 45072
appointments, six shall be for terms ending July 31, 1991, and 45073
seven shall be for terms ending July 31, 1992. Thereafter, terms45074
group. At least one appointed member shall be an individual who 45075
has received or is receiving gambling addiction services.45076

       Terms of office shall be two years, with each term ending on 45077
the same day of the same month as the term it succeeds. Each 45078
member shall hold office from the date of the member's appointment 45079
until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. 45080
Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the same 45081
manner as original appointments. Any member appointed to fill a 45082
vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which 45083
the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office as a 45084
member for the remainder of the term. A member shall continue in 45085
office subsequent to the expiration of the member's term until the 45086
member's successor takes office or until a period of sixty days 45087
has elapsed, whichever occurs first.45088

       (B) The directors of health, public safety, mental health, 45089
rehabilitation and correction, and youth services; the 45090
superintendents of public instruction and liquor control; the 45091
attorney general; the adjutant general; and the executive director 45092
of the division of criminal justice services in the department of 45093
public safety; the executive director of the casino control 45094
commission; the executive director of the lottery commission; and 45095
the executive director of the state racing commission shall be 45096
voting members of the council, except that any of these officials 45097
may designate an individual to serve in the official's place as a 45098
voting member of the council. The director of alcohol and drug 45099
addiction services shall serve as a nonvoting member of the 45100
council.45101

       (C) The governor shall annually appoint a chairperson from 45102
among the members of the council. The council shall meet quarterly 45103
and at other times the chairperson considers necessary. In 45104
addition to other duties specified in this chapter, the council 45105
shall review the development of the comprehensive statewide plan 45106
for alcohol and drug addiction services, the comprehensive 45107
statewide plan for gambling addiction services, revisions of the 45108
planthose plans, and other actions taken to implement the 45109
purposes of this chapter by the department of alcohol and drug 45110
addiction services and shall act as an advisory council to the 45111
director of alcohol and drug addiction services.45112

       (D) Members of the council shall serve without compensation, 45113
but shall be paid actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 45114
performance of their duties.45115

       Sec.  3798.01. As used in this chapter:45116

       (A) "Approved health information exchange" means a health 45117
information exchange that has been approved or reapproved by the 45118
director of job and family services pursuant to the approval or 45119
reapproval process, as applicable, the director establishes in 45120
rules adopted under division (A) of section 3798.15 of the Revised 45121
Code or that has been certified by the office of the national 45122
coordinator for health information technology in the United States 45123
department of health and human services.45124

       (B) "Covered entity," "disclosure," "health care provider," 45125
"health information," "individually identifiable health 45126
information," "protected health information," and "use" have the 45127
same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 160.103.45128

       (C) "Designated record set" has the same meaning as in 45 45129
C.F.R. 164.501.45130

       (D) "Direct exchange" means the activity of electronic 45131
transmission of health information through a direct connection 45132
between the electronic record systems of health care providers 45133
without the use of a health information exchange. 45134

       (E) "Health care component" and "hybrid entity" have the same 45135
meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 164.103.45136

       (F) "Health information exchange" means any person or 45137
governmental entity that provides in this state a technical 45138
infrastructure to connect computer systems or other electronic 45139
devices used by covered entities to facilitate the secure 45140
transmission of health information. "Health information exchange" 45141
excludes health care providers engaged in direct exchange, 45142
including direct exchange through the use of a health information 45143
service provider.45144

       (G) "HIPAA privacy rule" means the standards for privacy of 45145
individually identifiable health information in 45 C.F.R. part 160 45146
and in 45 C.F.R. part 164, subparts A and E.45147

       (H) "Interoperability" means the capacity of two or more 45148
information systems to exchange information in an accurate, 45149
effective, secure, and consistent manner.45150

       (I) "Minor" means an unemancipated person under eighteen 45151
years of age or a mentally or physically disabled person under 45152
twenty-one years of age who meets criteria specified in rules 45153
adopted by the director of job and family services under section 45154
3798.13 of the Revised Code.45155

       (J) "More stringent" has the same meaning as in 45 C.F.R. 45156
160.202.45157

        (K) "Office of health transformation" means the office of 45158
health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K or a 45159
successor governmental entity responsible for health system 45160
oversight in this state.45161

       (L) "Personal representative" means a person who has 45162
authority under applicable law to make decisions related to health 45163
care on behalf of an adult or emancipated minor, or the parent, 45164
legal guardian, or other person acting in loco parentis who is 45165
authorized under law to make health care decisions on behalf of an 45166
unemancipated minor. "Personal representative" does not include 45167
the parent or legal guardian of, or another person acting in loco 45168
parentis to, a minor who consents to the minor's own receipt of 45169
health care or a minor who makes medical decisions on the minor's 45170
own behalf pursuant to law, court approval, or because the minor's 45171
parent, legal guardian, or other person acting in loco parentis 45172
has assented to an agreement of confidentiality between the 45173
provider and the minor.45174

       (M) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 45175
township, county, school district, or other body corporate and 45176
politic responsible for governmental activities in a geographic 45177
area smaller than that of the state.45178

       (N) "State agency" means any one or more of the following:45179

       (1) The department of aging;45180

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;45181

       (3) The department of developmental disabilities;45182

       (4) The department of education;45183

       (5) The department of health;45184

       (6) The department of insurance;45185

       (7) The department of job and family services;45186

       (8) The department of mental health;45187

       (9) The department of rehabilitation and correction;45188

       (10) The department of youth services;45189

       (11) The bureau of workers' compensation;45190

       (12) The rehabilitation services commission;45191

       (13) The office of the attorney general;45192

       (14) A health care licensing board created under Title XLVII 45193
of the Revised Code that possesses individually identifiable 45194
health information.45195

       Sec.  3798.02. It is the intent of the general assembly in 45196
enacting this chapter to make the laws of this state governing the 45197
use and disclosure of protected health information by covered 45198
entities consistent with, but generally not more stringent than, 45199
the HIPAA privacy rule for the purpose of eliminating barriers to 45200
the adoption and use of electronic health records and health 45201
information exchanges. Therefore, it is also the general 45202
assembly's intent in enacting this chapter to supersede any 45203
judicial or administrative ruling issued in this state that is 45204
inconsistent with the provisions of this chapter.45205

       Sec. 3798.03. (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, a 45206
covered entity shall do both of the following:45207

       (1) If an individual's protected health information is 45208
maintained by the covered entity in a designated record set, 45209
provide the individual or the individual's personal representative 45210
with access to that information in a manner consistent with 45 45211
C.F.R. 164.524;45212

       (2) Implement and maintain appropriate administrative, 45213
technical, and physical safeguards to protect the privacy of 45214
protected health information in a manner consistent with 45 C.F.R. 45215
164.530(c).45216

       (B) If a covered entity is a hybrid entity, this section 45217
applies only to the health care component of the covered entity.45218

       Sec.  3798.04.  A covered entity shall not do either of the 45219
following:45220

       (A) Use or disclose protected health information without an 45221
authorization that is valid under 45 C.F.R. 164.508 and, if 45222
applicable, 42 C.F.R. part 2, except when the use or disclosure is 45223
required or permitted without such authorization by Subchapter C 45224
of Subtitle A of Title 45 of the Code of Federal Regulations and, 45225
if applicable, 42 C.F.R. part 2;45226

       (B) Use or disclose protected health information in a manner 45227
that is not consistent with 45 C.F.R. 164.502.45228

       Sec.  3798.06.  Except in the circumstances described in 45229
division (A) of section 3798.04 of the Revised Code when a covered 45230
entity is permitted to disclose protected health information 45231
without an authorization that is valid under 45 C.F.R. 164.508, a 45232
covered entity shall not disclose protected health information to 45233
a health information exchange without an authorization described 45234
in division (A) of section 3798.04 of the Revised Code unless all 45235
of the following are true:45236

       (A) The disclosure is to an approved health information 45237
exchange.45238

        (B) The covered entity is a party to a valid participation 45239
agreement with the approved health information exchange that meets 45240
the requirements of rules adopted under section 3798.16 of the 45241
Revised Code.45242

       (C) The disclosure is consistent with all procedures 45243
established by the approved health information exchange.45244

       (D) Prior to the disclosure, the covered entity furnishes to 45245
the individual or individual's personal representative a written 45246
notice that complies with rules adopted under division (A)(3) of 45247
section 3798.16 of the Revised Code.45248

       Sec. 3798.07. (A) In addition to being subject to the general 45249
prohibition in section 3798.06 of the Revised Code on disclosure 45250
of protected health information to a health information exchange 45251
without a valid authorization, a covered entity shall also be 45252
subject to the following conditions when it discloses protected 45253
health information to a health information exchange:45254

       (1) The covered entity shall restrict disclosure consistent 45255
with all applicable federal laws governing the disclosure;45256

       (2) If the protected health information concerns a minor, the 45257
covered entity shall restrict disclosure in a manner that complies 45258
with laws of this state pertaining to the circumstances under 45259
which a minor may consent to the minor's own receipt of health 45260
care or make medical decisions on the minor's own behalf, 45261
including sections 2907.29, 3709.241, 3719.012, 5120.172, 5122.04, 45262
and 5126.043 of the Revised Code unless the minor authorizes the 45263
disclosure. 45264

       (3) The covered entity shall restrict disclosure in a manner 45265
that is consistent with a written request from the individual or 45266
the individual's personal representative to restrict disclosure of 45267
all of the individual's protected health information.45268

       (4) The covered entity shall restrict disclosure in a manner 45269
that is consistent with a written request from the individual or 45270
the individual's personal representative concerning specific 45271
categories of protected health information to the extent that 45272
rules adopted pursuant to section 3798.16 of the Revised Code 45273
require the covered entity to comply with such a request.45274

       (B) The conditions in division (A) of this section on a 45275
covered entity's disclosure of protected health information to a 45276
health information exchange do not render unenforceable or 45277
restrict in any manner any of the following:45278

       (1) A provision of the Revised Code that on the effective 45279
date of this section requires a person or governmental entity to 45280
disclose protected health information to a state agency, political 45281
subdivision, or other governmental entity;45282

       (2) The confidential status of proceedings and records within 45283
the scope of a peer review committee of a health care entity as 45284
described in section 2305.252 of the Revised Code;45285

       (3) The confidential status of quality assurance program 45286
activities and quality assurance records as described in section 45287
5122.32 of the Revised Code;45288

       (4) The testimonial privilege established by division (B) of 45289
section 2317.02 of the Revised Code;45290

       (5) Any of the following items that govern the 45291
confidentiality, privacy, security, or privileged status of 45292
protected health information in the possession or custody of an 45293
agency; govern the process for obtaining from a patient consent to 45294
the provision of health care or consent for participation in 45295
medical or other scientific research; govern the process for 45296
determining whether an adult has a physical or mental impairment 45297
or an adult's capacity to make health care decisions for purposes 45298
of Chapter 5126. of the Revised Code; or govern the process for 45299
determining whether a minor has been emancipated:45300

       (a) A section of the Revised Code that is not in this 45301
chapter;45302

       (b) A rule as defined in section 119.01 of the Revised Code; 45303

       (c) An internal management rule as defined in section 111.15 45304
of the Revised Code;45305

       (d) Guidance issued by an agency; 45306

       (e) Orders or regulations of a board of health of a city 45307
health district made under section 3709.20 of the Revised Code;45308

       (f) Orders or regulations of a board of health of a general 45309
health district made under section 3709.21 of the Revised Code;45310

       (g) An ordinance or resolution adopted by a political 45311
subdivision;45312

       (h) A professional code of ethics;45313

       (i) When a minor is authorized to consent to the minor's own 45314
receipt of health care or make medical decisions on the minor's 45315
own behalf, including the circumstances described in sections 45316
2907.29, 3709.241, 3719.012, 5120.172, 5122.04, and 5126.043 of 45317
the Revised Code.45318

       Sec. 3798.08.  (A) A covered entity that uses or discloses 45319
protected health information in a manner that complies with 45320
sections 3798.03 and 3798.07 of the Revised Code and is not in 45321
violation of section 3798.04 or 3798.06 of the Revised Code is not 45322
liable in a civil action and is not subject to criminal 45323
prosecution or professional disciplinary action arising out of or 45324
relating to the access or disclosure.45325

       (B) An approved health information exchange is not liable in 45326
a civil action and not subject to criminal prosecution arising out 45327
of or relating to a covered entity's disclosure of protected 45328
health information to the approved health information exchange, or 45329
use of protected health information accessed from the approved 45330
health information exchange, if the disclosure or use complies 45331
with sections 3798.03 and 3798.07 of the Revised Code and is not 45332
in violation of section 3798.04 or 3798.06 of the Revised Code.45333

       Sec. 3798.10.  (A) Not later than six months after the 45334
effective date of this section, the director of job and family 45335
services, in consultation with the office of health 45336
transformation, shall prescribe by rules adopted in accordance 45337
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code a standard authorization 45338
form for the use and disclosure of protected health information by 45339
covered entities in this state. The form shall meet all 45340
requirements specified in 45 C.F.R. 164.508 and, where applicable, 45341
42 C.F.R. part 2. 45342

       (B) If a form the director prescribes under division (A) of 45343
this section is properly executed by an individual or the 45344
individual's personal representative, it shall be accepted by any 45345
person or governmental entity in this state as valid authorization 45346
for the use or disclosure of the individual's protected health 45347
information to the persons or governmental entities specified in 45348
the form.45349

       (C) This section does not preclude a person or governmental 45350
entity from accepting as valid authorization for the use or 45351
disclosure of protected health information a form other than the 45352
form prescribed under division (A) of this section if the other 45353
form meets all requirements specified in 45 C.F.R. 164.508 and, if 45354
applicable, 42 C.F.R. part 2.45355

       Sec. 3798.12.  As used in this section, "agency" has the same 45356
meaning as in section 111.15 of the Revised Code.45357

       (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, any 45358
of the following pertaining to the confidentiality, privacy, 45359
security, or privileged status of protected health information 45360
transacted, maintained in, or accessed through a health 45361
information exchange is unenforceable if it conflicts with this 45362
chapter: 45363

       (1) A section of the Revised Code that is not in this 45364
chapter;45365

       (2) A rule as defined in section 119.01 of the Revised Code;45366

       (3) An internal management rule as defined in section 111.15 45367
of the Revised Code;45368

       (4) Guidance issued by an agency;45369

       (5) Orders or regulations of a board of health of a city 45370
health district made under section 3709.20 of the Revised Code;45371

       (6) Orders or regulations of a board of health of a general 45372
health district made under section 3709.21 of the Revised Code;45373

       (7) An ordinance or resolution adopted by a political 45374
subdivision;45375

        (8) A professional code of ethics.45376

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not render 45377
unenforceable or restrict in any manner any of the following:45378

       (1) A provision of the Revised Code that on the effective 45379
date of this section requires a person or governmental entity to 45380
disclose protected health information to a state agency, political 45381
subdivision, or other governmental entity;45382

        (2) The confidential status of proceedings and records within 45383
the scope of a peer review committee of a health care entity as 45384
described in section 2305.252 of the Revised Code;45385

       (3) The confidential status of quality assurance program 45386
activities and quality assurance records as described in section 45387
5122.32 of the Revised Code;45388

        (4) The testimonial privilege established by division (B) of 45389
section 2317.02 of the Revised Code;45390

       (5) An item described in divisions (A)(1) to (8) of this 45391
section that governs any of the following:45392

       (a) The confidentiality, privacy, security, or privileged 45393
status of protected health information in the possession or 45394
custody of an agency;45395

       (b) The process for obtaining from a patient consent to the 45396
provision of health care or consent for participation in medical 45397
or other scientific research;45398

       (c) The process for determining whether an adult has a 45399
physical or mental impairment or an adult's capacity to make 45400
health care decisions for purposes of Chapter 5126. of the Revised 45401
Code;45402

       (d) The process for determining whether a minor has been 45403
emancipated.45404

       (6) When a minor is authorized to consent to the minor's own 45405
receipt of health care or make medical decisions on the minor's 45406
own behalf, including the circumstances described in sections 45407
2907.29, 3709.241, 3719.012, 5120.172, 5122.04, and 5126.043 of 45408
the Revised Code.45409

       Sec. 3798.13. The director of job and family services shall 45410
adopt rules for purposes of specifying the criteria a person who 45411
is mentally or physically disabled and who is under twenty-one 45412
years of age must meet to be considered a minor for purposes of 45413
sections 3798.07 and 3798.12 of the Revised Code.45414

       Sec.  3798.14. (A) The director of job and family services, in 45415
consultation with the office of health transformation, shall adopt 45416
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the 45417
purpose of establishing standards the director must use to approve 45418
health information exchanges operating in this state. The rules 45419
shall not be adopted until the earlier of sixty days following the 45420
adoption of a federal certification process for health information 45421
exchanges by the office of the national coordinator for health 45422
information technology in the United States department of health 45423
and human services or January 1, 2013. Subject to division (B) of 45424
this section, the rules may include standards and procedures to be 45425
followed by a health information exchange regarding the following:45426

       (1) Access to and use and disclosure of protected health 45427
information maintained by or on an approved health information 45428
exchange;45429

       (2) Demonstration of adequate financial resources to sustain 45430
continued operations in compliance with the rules adopted under 45431
this section;45432

       (3) Participation in outreach activities for individuals and 45433
covered entities;45434

       (4) Conduct of operations in a transparent manner to promote 45435
consumer confidence;45436

       (5) Implementation of security breach notification 45437
procedures.45438

       (B) The rules the director adopts pursuant to division (A) of 45439
this section shall be consistent with certification standards for 45440
health information exchanges established in federal statutes and 45441
regulations, including nationally recognized standards for 45442
interoperability.45443

       Sec.  3798.15.  (A) The director of job and family services, 45444
in consultation with the office of health transformation, shall 45445
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 45446
for the purpose of establishing processes for all of the 45447
following:45448

       (1) A health information exchange to obtain approval to 45449
operate as an approved health information exchange in this state 45450
and, at times specified by the director, obtain reapproval of such 45451
status;45452

       (2) The director to investigate and resolve concerns and 45453
complaints submitted to the director regarding an approved health 45454
information exchange;45455

       (3) A health information exchange to apply for 45456
reconsideration of a decision the director makes under a process 45457
established under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section;45458

       (4) Covered entities and approved health information 45459
exchanges to enter into participation agreements and enforce the 45460
terms of such agreements.45461

       (B) Any decision the director makes in relation to a request 45462
for reconsideration made in accordance with rules adopted under 45463
division (A)(3) of this section is not subject to appeal under 45464
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.45465

       Sec. 3798.16.  (A) The director of job and family services, 45466
in consultation with the office of health transformation, shall 45467
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 45468
for the purpose of specifying the content of agreements governing 45469
covered entities' participation in approved health information 45470
exchanges. At a minimum, the rules shall require the content of 45471
such participation agreements to include all of the following: 45472

       (1) Procedures for a covered entity to disclose an 45473
individual's protected health information to an approved health 45474
information exchange;45475

       (2) Procedures for a covered entity to access an individual's 45476
protected health information from an approved health information 45477
exchange;45478

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section, a written notice 45479
to be provided by a covered entity to an individual or the 45480
individual's personal representative prior to the covered entity's 45481
disclosure of the individual's protected health information to an 45482
approved health information exchange; 45483

       (4) Documentation the covered entity must use to verify that 45484
a notice described in division (A)(3) of this section has been 45485
provided by the covered entity to an individual or the 45486
individual's personal representative prior to the disclosure of 45487
the individual's protected health information to an approved 45488
health information exchange;45489

       (5) Procedures, which must take into consideration the 45490
technical capabilities of software available to health information 45491
exchanges, for an individual or the individual's personal 45492
representative to submit to the covered entity a written request 45493
to place restrictions on the covered entity's disclosure of 45494
protected health information to the approved health information 45495
exchange;45496

       (6) The standards a covered entity must use to determine 45497
whether, and to what extent, to comply with a written request 45498
described in division (A)(5) of this section;45499

       (7) The purposes for which a covered entity may access and 45500
use protected health information from the approved health 45501
information exchange.45502

       (B) With respect to the written notice described in division 45503
(A)(3) of this section, the rules may specify that the notice can 45504
be incorporated into the covered entity's notice of privacy 45505
practices required by 45 C.F.R. 164.520 and shall specify that the 45506
notice include the following statements:45507

       (1) The individual's protected health information will be 45508
disclosed to the approved health information exchange to 45509
facilitate the provision of health care to the individual.45510

       (2) The approved health information exchange maintains 45511
appropriate safeguards to protect the privacy and security of 45512
protected health information.45513

       (3) Only authorized individuals may access and use protected 45514
health information from the approved health information exchange.45515

       (4) The individual or the individual's personal 45516
representative has the right to request in writing that the 45517
covered entity do either or both of the following:45518

       (a) Not disclose any of the individual's protected health 45519
information to the approved health information exchange;45520

       (b) Not disclose specific categories of the individual's 45521
protected health information to the approved health information 45522
exchange.45523

       (5) Any restrictions on the disclosure of protected health 45524
information an individual requests as described in either division 45525
(B)(4)(a) or (b) of this section may result in a health care 45526
provider not having access to information that is necessary for 45527
the provider to render appropriate care to the individual.45528

       (6) Any restrictions on the disclosure of protected health 45529
information an individual requests as described in division 45530
(B)(4)(a) of this section must be honored by the covered entity.45531

       (7) Any restrictions on the disclosure of protected health 45532
information an individual requests as described in division 45533
(B)(4)(b) of this section must be honored if the restriction is 45534
consistent with rules adopted under this chapter.45535

       Sec. 3905.36.  (A) Every insured association, company, 45536
corporation, or other person that enters, directly or indirectly, 45537
into any independent procurement or direct placement agreement 45538
with any insurance company, association, individual, firm, 45539
underwriter, or Lloyd's, not authorized to do business in this 45540
state, whereby the insured shall procure, continue, or renew 45541
contracts of insurance with such unauthorized insurance company, 45542
association, individual, firm, underwriter, or Lloyd's, for which 45543
insurance there is a gross premium, shall file the details of the 45544
transaction annually, on or before the thirty-first day of March, 45545
and shall at the same time pay to the treasurer of state, or to 45546
the superintendent of insurance upon the mutual agreement of the 45547
superintendent and the treasurer, a tax of five per cent of such 45548
gross premium, after a deduction for return premium, if any, as 45549
calculated in the prescribed format or in compliance with any 45550
requirements of the compact entered into by the superintendent 45551
pursuant to division (D) of section 3905.33 of the Revised Code. 45552
An insurer may submit the required details of the transaction and 45553
remit the tax payment on behalf of an insured.45554

       All taxes collected under this section shall be paid into the 45555
general revenue fund. If the tax is not paid when due, the tax 45556
shall be increased by a penalty of twenty-five per cent. An 45557
interest charge computed as set forth in section 5725.221 of the 45558
Revised Code shall be made on the entire sum of the tax plus 45559
penalty, which interest shall be computed from the date the tax is 45560
due until it is paid. For purposes of this section, payment is 45561
considered made when it is received by the treasurer or the 45562
superintendent, irrespective of any United States postal service 45563
marking or other stamp or mark indicating the date on which the 45564
payment may have been mailed.45565

       The superintendent of insurance, in the superintendent's sole 45566
discretion, may waive the twenty-five per cent penalty and 45567
interest charge thereon for a first-time, inadvertent nonpayment 45568
of the tax when due if the nonpayment is reported immediately upon 45569
discovery and the outstanding tax is thereafter immediately paid 45570
to the superintendent.45571

       (B) Each person licensed under section 3905.30 of the Revised 45572
Code shall pay to the treasurer of state, or to the superintendent 45573
of insurance upon the mutual agreement of the superintendent and 45574
the treasurer, on or before the thirty-first day of March of each 45575
year, five per cent of the balance of the gross premiums charged 45576
for insurance placed or procured under the license after a 45577
deduction for return premiums in the prescribed format or in 45578
compliance with any requirements of the compact entered into by 45579
the superintendent pursuant to division (D) of section 3905.33 of 45580
the Revised Code. The tax shall be collected from the insured by 45581
the surplus lines broker who placed or procured the policy of 45582
insurance at the time the policy is delivered to the insured. No 45583
license issued under section 3905.30 of the Revised Code shall be 45584
renewed until payment is made. If the tax is not paid when due, 45585
the tax shall be increased by a penalty of twenty-five per cent. 45586
An interest charge computed as set forth in section 5725.221 of 45587
the Revised Code shall be made on the entire sum of the tax plus 45588
penalty, which interest shall be computed from the date the tax is 45589
due until it is paid. For purposes of this section, payment is 45590
considered made when it is received by the treasurer or the 45591
superintendent, irrespective of any United States postal service 45592
marking or other stamp or mark indicating the date on which the 45593
payment may have been mailed.45594

       The superintendent, in the superintendent's sole discretion, 45595
may waive the twenty-five per cent penalty and interest charge 45596
thereon for a first-time, inadvertent nonpayment of the tax when 45597
due if the nonpayment is reported immediately upon discovery and 45598
the outstanding tax is thereafter immediately paid to the 45599
superintendent.45600

       (C) This section does not apply to:45601

       (1) An insured otherwise exempt from the payment of premium 45602
or franchise taxes under state or federal law;45603

       (2) Attorneys-at-law acting on behalf of their clients in the 45604
adjustment of claims or losses;45605

       (3) Transactions involving policies issued by a captive 45606
insurer. For this purpose, a "captive insurer" means any of the 45607
following:45608

        (a) An insurer owned by one or more individuals or 45609
organizations, whose exclusive purpose is to insure risks of one 45610
or more of the parent organizations or individual owners and risks 45611
of one or more affiliates of the parent organizations or 45612
individual owners;45613

        (b) In the case of groups and associations, insurers owned by 45614
the group or association whose exclusive purpose is to insure 45615
risks of members of the group or association and affiliates of the 45616
members;45617

        (c) Other types of insurers, licensed and operated in 45618
accordance with the captive insurance laws of their jurisdictions 45619
of domicile and operated in a manner so as to self-insure risks of 45620
their owners and insureds.45621

       (4) Professional or medical liability insurance procured by a 45622
hospital organized under Chapter 3701. of the Revised Code;45623

       (5) Insurance with an initial policy period of more than 45624
three years and that is procured to cover known events related to 45625
environmental remediation that occurred prior to the effective 45626
date of that insurance;45627

       (6) Insurance procured on behalf of an entity that 45628
manufactures, packages, and sells, as more than fifty per cent of 45629
the entity's business, pharmaceutical products for human use where 45630
the production, packaging, and sale of such products are subject 45631
to regulation by an agency of the United States;45632

       (7) A political subdivision or any combination or consortium 45633
of two or more political subdivisions.45634

       (D) As used in this section:45635

       (1) "Political subdivision" means any county; municipal 45636
corporation; township; township police district; township fire 45637
district; joint fire district; joint ambulance district; joint 45638
emergency medical services district; fire and ambulance district; 45639
joint recreation district; township waste disposal district; 45640
township road district; community college district; technical 45641
college district; detention facility district; a district 45642
organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code; a combined 45643
district organized under sections 2151.65 and 2152.41 of the 45644
Revised Code; a joint-county alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 45645
health service district; a drainage improvement district created 45646
under section 6131.52 of the Revised Code; a union cemetery 45647
district; a county school financing district; a city, local, 45648
exempted village, cooperative education, or joint vocational 45649
school district; or a regional student education district created 45650
under section 3313.83 of the Revised Code, any public division, 45651
district, commission, authority, department, board, officer, or 45652
institution of any one or more of those political subdivisions, 45653
that is entirely or substantially supported by public tax moneys.45654

       (2) "Municipal corporation" means all municipal corporations, 45655
including those that have adopted a charter under Article XVIII, 45656
Ohio Constitution.45657

       Sec. 4104.01.  As used in sections 4104.01 to 4104.20 and 45658
section 4104.99 of the Revised Code:45659

       (A) "Board of building standards" or "board" means the board 45660
established by section 3781.07 of the Revised Code.45661

       (B) "Superintendent" means the superintendent of labor45662
industrial compliance created by section 121.04 of the Revised 45663
Code.45664

       (C) "Boiler" means a closed vessel in which water is heated, 45665
steam is generated, steam is superheated, or any combination 45666
thereof, under pressure or vacuum for use externally to itself by 45667
the direct application of heat from the combustion of fuels, or 45668
from electricity or nuclear energy. "Boiler" includes fired units 45669
for heating or vaporizing liquids other than water where these 45670
units are separate from processing systems and are complete within 45671
themselves.45672

       (D) "Power boiler" means a boiler in which steam or other 45673
vapor (to be used externally to itself) is generated at a pressure 45674
of more than fifteen psig.45675

       (E) "High pressure, high temperature water boiler" means a 45676
water heating boiler operating at pressures exceeding one hundred 45677
sixty psig or temperatures exceeding two hundred fifty degrees 45678
Fahrenheit.45679

       (F) "Low pressure boiler" means a steam boiler operating at 45680
pressures not exceeding fifteen psig, or a hot water heating 45681
boiler operating at pressures not exceeding one hundred sixty psig 45682
or temperatures not exceeding two hundred fifty degrees 45683
Fahrenheit.45684

       (G) "Pressure vessel" means a container for the containment 45685
of pressure, either internal or external. This pressure may be 45686
obtained from an external source or by the application of heat 45687
from a direct or indirect source or any combination thereof.45688

       (H) "Process boiler" means a boiler to which all of the 45689
following apply:45690

       (1) The steam in the boiler is either generated or 45691
superheated, or both, under pressure or vacuum for use external to 45692
itself.45693

       (2) The source of heat for the boiler is in part or in whole 45694
from a process other than the boiler itself.45695

       (3) The boiler is part of a continuous processing unit, such 45696
as used in chemical manufacture or petroleum refining, other than 45697
a steam-generated process unit.45698

       (I) "Stationary steam engine" means an engine or turbine in 45699
which the mechanical force arising from the elasticity and 45700
expansion action of steam or from its property of rapid 45701
condensation or from a combination of the two is made available as 45702
a motive power.45703

       Sec. 4104.02.  The board of building standards shall:45704

       (A) Formulate rules for the construction, installation, 45705
repair, conservation of energy, and operation of boilers and the 45706
construction and repair of pressure vessels and for ascertaining 45707
the safe working pressures to be carried on such boilers and 45708
pressure vessels and the qualification of inspectors of boilers 45709
and pressure vessels;45710

       (B) Prescribe tests, if it is considered necessary, to 45711
ascertain the qualities of materials used in the construction of 45712
boilers and pressure vessels;45713

       (C) Adopt rules regulating the construction and sizes of 45714
safety valves for boilers and pressure vessels of different sizes 45715
and pressures, for the construction, use, and location of fusible 45716
plugs, appliances for indicating the pressure of steam and level 45717
of water in the boiler or pressure vessels, and such other 45718
appliances as the board considers necessary to safety in operating 45719
boilers;45720

       (D) Establish reasonable fees for the performance of reviews, 45721
surveys, or audits of manufacturer's facilities by the division of 45722
laborindustrial compliance for certification by the American 45723
society of mechanical engineers and the national board of boiler 45724
and pressure vessel inspectors;45725

       (E) The definitions and rules adopted by the board for the 45726
construction, installation, repair, conservation of energy, and 45727
operation of boilers and the construction and repair of pressure 45728
vessels and for ascertaining the safe working pressures to be used 45729
on such boilers and pressure vessels shall be based upon and 45730
follow generally accepted engineering standards, formulae, and 45731
practices established and pertaining to boilers and pressure 45732
vessel construction, operation, and safety, and the board may, for 45733
this purpose, adopt existing published standards as well as 45734
amendments thereto subsequently published by the same authority.45735

       When a person desires to manufacture a special type of boiler 45736
or pressure vessel, the design of which is not covered by the 45737
rules of the board, the person shall submit drawings and 45738
specifications of such boiler or pressure vessel to the board for 45739
investigation, after which the board may permit its installation.45740

       The provisions of sections 119.03 and 119.11 of the Revised 45741
Code in particular, and the applicable provisions of Chapter 119. 45742
of the Revised Code in general, shall govern the proceedings of 45743
the board of building standards in adopting, amending, or 45744
rescinding rules pursuant to this section.45745

       Sec. 4104.06.  (A) The inspection of boilers and their 45746
appurtenances and pressure vessels shall be made by the inspectors 45747
mentioned in sections 4104.07 to 4104.20 of the Revised Code. The 45748
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall administer and 45749
enforce such sections and rules adopted by the board of building 45750
standards pursuant to section 4104.02 of the Revised Code.45751

       (B) The superintendent shall adopt, amend, and repeal rules 45752
exclusively for the issuance, renewal, suspension, and revocation 45753
of certificates of competency and certificates of operation, for 45754
conducting hearings in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 45755
Code related to these actions, and for the inspection of boilers 45756
and their appurtenances, and pressure vessels.45757

       (C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, the 45758
superintendent shall not adopt rules relating to construction, 45759
maintenance, or repair of boilers and their appurtenances, or 45760
repair of pressure vessels.45761

       (D) The superintendent and each general inspector may enter 45762
any premises and any building or room at all reasonable hours to 45763
perform an examination or inspection.45764

       Sec. 4104.07.  (A) An application for examination as an 45765
inspector of boilers and pressure vessels shall be in writing, 45766
accompanied by a fee of one hundred fifty dollars, upon a blank to 45767
be furnished by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance. 45768
Any moneys collected under this section shall be paid into the 45769
state treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial compliance45770
operating fund created in section 121.084 of the Revised Code.45771

       (B) The superintendent shall determine if an applicant meets 45772
all the requirements for examination in accordance with rules 45773
adopted by the board of building standards under section 4104.02 45774
of the Revised Code. An application shall be rejected which 45775
contains any willful falsification, or untruthful statements.45776

       (C) An applicant shall be examined by the superintendent, by 45777
a written examination, prescribed by the board, dealing with the 45778
construction, installation, operation, maintenance, and repair of 45779
boilers and pressure vessels and their appurtenances, and the 45780
applicant shall be accepted or rejected on the merits of the 45781
applicant's application and examination.45782

       (D) Upon a favorable report by the superintendent of the 45783
result of an examination, the superintendent shall immediately 45784
issue to the successful applicant a certificate of competency to 45785
that effect.45786

       Sec. 4104.08.  (A) The director of commerce may appoint from 45787
the holders of certificates of competency provided for in section 45788
4104.07 of the Revised Code, general inspectors of boilers and 45789
pressure vessels.45790

       (B) Any company authorized to insure boilers and pressure 45791
vessels against explosion in this state may designate from holders 45792
of certificates of competency issued by the superintendent of 45793
laborindustrial compliance, or holders of certificates of 45794
competency or commissions issued by other states or nations whose 45795
examinations for certificates or commissions have been approved by 45796
the board of building standards, persons to inspect and stamp 45797
boilers and pressure vessels covered by the company's policies, 45798
and the superintendent shall issue to such persons commissions 45799
authorizing them to act as special inspectors. Special inspectors 45800
shall be compensated by the company designating them.45801

       (C) The director shall establish an annual fee to be charged 45802
by the superintendent for each certificate of competency or 45803
commission the superintendent issues.45804

       (D) The superintendent shall issue to each general or special 45805
inspector a commission to the effect that the holder thereof is 45806
authorized to inspect boilers and pressure vessels in this state.45807

       (E) No person shall be authorized to act as a general 45808
inspector or a special inspector who is directly or indirectly 45809
interested in the manufacture or sale of boilers or pressure 45810
vessels.45811

       Sec. 4104.09.  The certificate of competency issued under 45812
section 4104.07 of the Revised Code or the commission provided for 45813
in section 4104.08 of the Revised Code may be revoked by the 45814
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance for the 45815
incompetence or untrustworthiness of the holder thereof, or for 45816
willful falsification of any matter or statement contained in the 45817
holder's application or in a report of any inspection in 45818
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If a certificate 45819
or commission is lost or destroyed, a new certificate or 45820
commission shall be issued in its place without another 45821
examination.45822

       Sec. 4104.10.  All unfired pressure vessels, except unfired 45823
pressure vessels exempt under section 4104.04 of the Revised Code, 45824
shall be thoroughly inspected during fabrication and upon 45825
completion and shall not be operated until a copy of the 45826
manufacturers' data report, properly executed and signed by the 45827
inspector is filed in the office of the superintendent of labor45828
industrial compliance. All unfired pressure vessels shall conform 45829
in every detail with applicable rules adopted by the board of 45830
building standards pursuant to section 4104.02 of the Revised 45831
Code.45832

       Sec. 4104.101.  (A) No person shall install or make major 45833
repairs or modifications to any boiler without first registering 45834
to do so with the division of laborindustrial compliance.45835

       (B) No person shall make any installation or major repair or 45836
modification of any boiler without first obtaining a permit to do 45837
so from the division. The permit application form shall provide 45838
the name and address of the owner, location of the boiler, and 45839
type of repair or modification that will be made. The application 45840
permit fee shall be one hundred dollars.45841

       (C) The superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall 45842
require annual registration of all contractors who install, make 45843
major repairs to, or modify any boiler. The board of building 45844
standards shall establish a reasonable fee to cover the cost of 45845
processing registrations.45846

       Sec. 4104.12.  All boilers, except boilers mentioned in 45847
section 4104.04 of the Revised Code, shall be inspected when 45848
installed and shall not be operated until an appropriate 45849
certificate of operation has been issued by the superintendent of 45850
laborindustrial compliance. The certificate of operation required 45851
by this section shall not be issued for any boiler which has not 45852
been thoroughly inspected during construction and upon completion, 45853
by either a general or special inspector, and which does not 45854
conform in every detail with the rules adopted by the board of 45855
building standards and unless, upon completion, such boiler is 45856
distinctly stamped under such rules by such inspector.45857

       Sec. 4104.15.  (A) All certificates of inspection for 45858
boilers, issued prior to October 15, 1965, are valid and effective 45859
for the period set forth in such certificates unless sooner 45860
withdrawn by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance. 45861
The owner or user of any such boiler shall obtain an appropriate 45862
certificate of operation for such boiler, and shall not operate 45863
such boiler, or permit it to be operated unless a certificate of 45864
operation has been obtained in accordance with section 4104.17 of 45865
the Revised Code.45866

       (B) If, upon making the internal and external inspection 45867
required under sections 4104.11, 4104.12, and 4104.13 of the 45868
Revised Code, the inspector finds the boiler to be in safe working 45869
order, with the fittings necessary to safety, and properly set up, 45870
upon the inspector's report to the superintendent, the 45871
superintendent shall issue to the owner or user thereof, or renew, 45872
upon application and upon compliance with sections 4104.17 and 45873
4104.18 of the Revised Code, a certificate of operation which 45874
shall state the maximum pressure at which the boiler may be 45875
operated, as ascertained by the rules of the board of building 45876
standards. Such certificates shall also state the name of the 45877
owner or user, the location, size, and number of each boiler, and 45878
the date of issuance, and shall be so placed as to be easily read 45879
in the engine room or boiler room of the plant where the boiler is 45880
located, except that the certificate of operation for a portable 45881
boiler shall be kept on the premises and shall be accessible at 45882
all times.45883

       (C) If an inspector at any inspection finds that the boiler 45884
or pressure vessel is not in safe working condition, or is not 45885
provided with the fittings necessary to safety, or if the fittings 45886
are improperly arranged, the inspector shall immediately notify 45887
the owner or user and person in charge of the boiler and shall 45888
report the same to the superintendent who may revoke, suspend, or 45889
deny the certificate of operation and not renew the same until the 45890
boiler or pressure vessel and its fittings are put in condition to 45891
insure safety of operation, and the owner or user shall not 45892
operate the boiler or pressure vessel, or permit it to be operated 45893
until such certificate has been granted or restored.45894

       (D) If the superintendent or a general boiler inspector finds 45895
that a pressure vessel or boiler or a part thereof poses an 45896
explosion hazard that reasonably can be regarded as posing an 45897
imminent danger of death or serious physical harm to persons, the 45898
superintendent or the general boiler inspector shall seal the 45899
pressure vessel or boiler and order, in writing, the operator or 45900
owner of the pressure vessel or boiler to immediately cease the 45901
pressure vessel's or boiler's operation. The order shall be 45902
effective until the nonconformities are eliminated, corrected, or 45903
otherwise remedied, or for a period of seventy-two hours from the 45904
time of issuance, whichever occurs first. During the 45905
seventy-two-hour period, the superintendent may request that the 45906
prosecuting attorney or city attorney of Franklin county or of the 45907
county in which the pressure vessel or boiler is located obtain an 45908
injunction restraining the operator or owner of the pressure 45909
vessel or boiler from continuing its operation after the 45910
seventy-two-hour period expires until the nonconformities are 45911
eliminated, corrected, or otherwise remedied.45912

       (E) Each boiler which has been inspected shall be assigned a 45913
number by the superintendent, which number shall be stamped on a 45914
nonferrous metal tag affixed to the boiler or its fittings by seal 45915
or otherwise. No person except an inspector shall deface or remove 45916
any such number or tag.45917

       (F) If the owner or user of any pressure vessel or boiler 45918
disagrees with the inspector as to the necessity for shutting down 45919
a pressure vessel or boiler or for making repairs or alterations 45920
in it, or taking any other measures for safety that are requested 45921
by an inspector, the owner or user may appeal from the decision of 45922
the inspector to the superintendent, who may, after such other 45923
inspection by a general inspector or special inspector as the 45924
superintendent deems necessary, decide the issue.45925

       (G) Neither sections 4104.01 to 4104.20 of the Revised Code, 45926
nor an inspection or report by any inspector, shall relieve the 45927
owner or user of a pressure vessel or boiler of the duty of using 45928
due care in the inspection, operation, and repair of the pressure 45929
vessel or boiler or of any liability for damages for failure to 45930
inspect, repair, or operate the pressure vessel or boiler safely.45931

       Sec. 4104.16.  The owner or user of any boiler required by 45932
sections 4104.01 to 4104.20 of the Revised Code, to be inspected, 45933
shall immediately notify the superintendent of laborindustrial 45934
compliance in case a defect affecting the safety of the boiler is 45935
discovered.45936

       The owner or user of any stationary boiler required by such 45937
sections to be inspected, who moves the same, shall report to the 45938
superintendent the new location of the boiler. Such boiler shall 45939
be inspected before it is again operated.45940

       Sec. 4104.17.  Certificates of operation issued for boilers 45941
subject to inspection under Chapter 4104. of the Revised Code 45942
shall be issued and renewed in accordance with and at dates 45943
prescribed by rules and regulations adopted by the superintendent 45944
of laborindustrial compliance.45945

       Sec. 4104.18.  (A) The owner or user of a boiler required 45946
under section 4104.12 of the Revised Code to be inspected upon 45947
installation, and the owner or user of a boiler for which a 45948
certificate of inspection has been issued which is replaced with 45949
an appropriate certificate of operation, shall pay to the 45950
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance a fee in the amount 45951
of fifty dollars for boilers subject to annual inspections under 45952
section 4104.11 of the Revised Code, one hundred dollars for 45953
boilers subject to biennial inspection under section 4104.13 of 45954
the Revised Code, one hundred fifty dollars for boilers subject to 45955
triennial inspection under section 4104.11 of the Revised Code, or 45956
two hundred fifty dollars for boilers subject to quinquennial 45957
inspection under section 4104.13 of the Revised Code.45958

       (B) The fee for complete inspection during construction by a 45959
general inspector on boilers and pressure vessels manufactured 45960
within the state shall be thirty-five dollars per hour. Boiler and 45961
pressure vessel manufacturers other than those located in the 45962
state may secure inspection by a general inspector on work during 45963
construction, upon application to the superintendent, and upon 45964
payment of a fee of thirty-five dollars per hour, plus the 45965
necessary traveling and hotel expenses incurred by the inspector.45966

       (C) The application fee for applicants for steam engineer, 45967
high pressure boiler operator, or low pressure boiler operator 45968
licenses is seventy-five dollars. The fee for each original or 45969
renewal steam engineer, high pressure boiler operator, or low 45970
pressure boiler operator license is fifty dollars.45971

       (D) The director of commerce, subject to the approval of the 45972
controlling board, may establish fees in excess of the fees 45973
provided in divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section. Any 45974
moneys collected under this section shall be paid into the state 45975
treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial compliance45976
operating fund created in section 121.084 of the Revised Code.45977

       (E) Any person who fails to pay an invoiced renewal fee or an 45978
invoiced inspection fee required for any inspection conducted by 45979
the division of laborindustrial compliance pursuant to this 45980
chapter within forty-five days of the invoice date shall pay a 45981
late payment fee equal to twenty-five per cent of the invoiced 45982
fee.45983

       (F) In addition to the fees assessed in divisions (A) and (B) 45984
of this section, the board of building standards shall assess the 45985
owner or user a fee of three dollars and twenty-five cents for 45986
each certificate of operation or renewal thereof issued under 45987
division (A) of this section and for each inspection conducted 45988
under division (B) of this section. The board shall adopt rules, 45989
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, specifying 45990
the manner by which the superintendent shall collect and remit to 45991
the board the fees assessed under this division and requiring that 45992
remittance of the fees be made at least quarterly.45993

       Sec. 4104.19. (A) Any person seeking a license to operate as 45994
a steam engineer, high pressure boiler operator, or low pressure 45995
boiler operator shall file a written application with the 45996
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance on a form prescribed 45997
by the superintendent with the appropriate application fee as set 45998
forth in section 4104.18 of the Revised Code. The application 45999
shall contain information satisfactory to the superintendent to 46000
demonstrate that the applicant meets the requirements of division 46001
(B) of this section. The application shall be filed with the 46002
superintendent not more than sixty days and not less than thirty 46003
days before the license examination is offered.46004

       (B) To qualify to take the examination required to obtain a 46005
steam engineer, high pressure boiler operator, or low pressure 46006
boiler operator license, a person shall meet both of the following 46007
requirements:46008

       (1) Be at least eighteen years of age;46009

       (2) Have one year of experience in the operation of steam 46010
engines, high pressure boilers, or low pressure boilers as 46011
applicable to the type of license being sought, or a combination 46012
of experience and education for the type of license sought as 46013
determined to be acceptable by the superintendent.46014

       (C) No applicant shall qualify to take an examination or to 46015
renew a license if the applicant has violated this chapter or if 46016
the applicant has obtained or renewed a license issued under this 46017
chapter by fraud, misrepresentation, or deception.46018

       (D) The superintendent shall issue a license to each 46019
applicant who receives a passing score on the examination, as 46020
determined by the superintendent, for the license for which the 46021
applicant applied.46022

       (E) The superintendent may select and contract with one or 46023
more persons to do all of the following relative to the 46024
examinations for a license to operate as a steam engineer, high 46025
pressure boiler operator, or low pressure boiler operator:46026

       (1) Prepare, administer, score, and maintain the 46027
confidentiality of the examination;46028

       (2) Maintain responsibility for all expenses required to 46029
fulfill division (E)(1) of this section;46030

       (3) Charge each applicant a fee for administering the 46031
examination, in an amount authorized by the superintendent;46032

       (4) Design the examination for each type of license to 46033
determine an applicant's competence to operate the equipment for 46034
which the applicant is seeking licensure.46035

       (F) Each license issued under this chapter expires one year 46036
after the date of issue. Each person holding a valid, unexpired 46037
license may renew the license, without reexamination, by applying 46038
to the superintendent not more than ninety days before the 46039
expiration of the license, and submitting with the application the 46040
renewal fee established in section 4104.18 of the Revised Code. 46041
Upon receipt of the renewal information and fee, the 46042
superintendent shall issue the licensee a certificate of renewal.46043

       (G) The superintendent, in accordance with Chapter 119. of 46044
the Revised Code, may suspend or revoke any license, or may refuse 46045
to issue a license under this chapter upon finding that a licensee 46046
or an applicant for a license has violated or is violating the 46047
requirements of this chapter.46048

       Sec. 4104.21.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 46049
3123.43 of the Revised Code, the superintendent of labor46050
industrial compliance shall comply with sections 3123.41 to 46051
3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted under 46052
section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to a certificate 46053
or license issued pursuant to this chapter.46054

       Sec. 4104.33. There is hereby created the historical boilers 46055
licensing board consisting of seven members, three of whom shall 46056
be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the 46057
senate. The governor shall make initial appointments to the board 46058
within ninety days after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members 46059
appointed by the governor, one shall be for a term ending three 46060
years after October 24, 2002, one shall be for a term ending four 46061
years after October 24, 2002, and one shall be for a term ending 46062
five years after October 24, 2002. Thereafter, terms of office 46063
shall be for five years, each term ending on the same day of the 46064
same month of the year as did the term that it succeeds. Of the 46065
three members the governor appoints, one member shall be an 46066
employee of the division of boiler inspection in the department of 46067
commerce; one member shall be an independent mechanical engineer 46068
who is not involved in selling or inspecting historical boilers; 46069
and one shall be an active member of an association that 46070
represents managers of fairs or festivals.46071

       Two members of the board shall be appointed by the president 46072
of the senate and two members of the board shall be appointed by 46073
the speaker of the house of representatives. The president and 46074
speaker shall make initial appointments to the board within ninety 46075
days after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members appointed by 46076
the president, one shall be for a term ending four years after 46077
October 24, 2002 and one shall be for a term ending five years 46078
after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members appointed by the 46079
speaker, one shall be for a term ending three years after October 46080
24, 2002 and one shall be for a term ending five years after 46081
October 24, 2002. Thereafter, terms of office shall be for five 46082
years, each term ending on the same day of the same month of the 46083
year as did the term that it succeeds. Of the four members 46084
appointed by the president and speaker, each shall own a 46085
historical boiler and also have at least ten years of experience 46086
in the operation of historical boilers, and each of these four 46087
members shall reside in a different region of the state.46088

       Each member shall hold office from the date of the member's 46089
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 46090
appointed. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled 46091
in the manner provided for initial appointments. Any member 46092
appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date 46093
of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall 46094
hold office as a member for the remainder of that term. A member 46095
shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of the 46096
member's term until the successor takes office or until a period 46097
of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.46098

       The members of the board, annually, shall elect, by majority 46099
vote, a chairperson from among their members. The board shall meet 46100
at least once annually and at other times at the call of the 46101
chairperson. Board members shall receive their actual and 46102
necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of their duties as 46103
board members.46104

       The superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall 46105
furnish office space, staff, and supplies to the board as the 46106
superintendent determines are necessary for the board to carry out 46107
its official duties under sections 4104.33 to 4104.37 of the 46108
Revised Code.46109

       Sec. 4104.42. (A) The owner of any power piping or process 46110
piping system shall ensure that all of the following are performed 46111
in compliance with applicable sections of the B31 standards 46112
contained in the code for pressure piping, published by the 46113
American society of mechanical engineers:46114

       (1) The design, fabrication, assembly, installation, testing, 46115
examination, and inspection of power and process piping systems;46116

       (2) Qualification of personnel and qualification of welding 46117
and brazing procedures;46118

       (3) The implementation of an inspection program.46119

       (B) The owner of a power piping or process piping system 46120
shall do both of the following:46121

       (1) Maintain for five years complete records documenting the 46122
design, examination, and testing of the piping system that include 46123
all of the following:46124

       (a) The specific edition of the code for pressure piping used 46125
in the design;46126

       (b) The design assumptions;46127

       (c) The calculations, piping material specifications, and 46128
construction documents for the piping;46129

       (d) The records of piping alterations;46130

       (e) The piping examination and inspection records.46131

       (2) Disclose the types and quantities of flammable, 46132
combustible, or hazardous materials proposed to be used in the 46133
facility to the building and fire code enforcement authorities who 46134
have inspection authority to enable those authorities to determine 46135
compliance with the rules the board of building standards adopts 46136
pursuant to section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and the rules the 46137
state fire marshal adopts pursuant to section 3737.82 of the 46138
Revised Code.46139

       (C) No person or state agency shall require that the records 46140
described in division (B)(1) of this section be submitted to the 46141
division of laborindustrial compliance in the department of 46142
commerce or to a certified building department for approval.46143

       (D) Nothing in this section limits the application of 46144
Chapters 4703. and 4733. of the Revised Code.46145

       Sec. 4104.43. (A)(1) The board of building standards shall 46146
adopt rules establishing requirements for the design, 46147
installation, inspection of and design review procedure for 46148
building services piping.46149

       (2) The board of building standards shall adopt rules 46150
establishing requirements for the design, installation, inspection 46151
of and design review procedure for nonflammable medical gas, 46152
medical oxygen, and medical vacuum piping systems.46153

       (B) A municipal, township, or county building department 46154
certified under division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised 46155
Code shall enforce the rules the board adopts pursuant to division 46156
(A)(2) of this section if that building department requests and 46157
obtains special certification to enforce those rules.46158

        (C) In a health district where no municipal, township, or 46159
county building department is specially certified under division 46160
(B) of this section, an employee of the health district shall 46161
enforce the rules adopted pursuant to division (A)(2) of this 46162
section if both of the following conditions are satisfied:46163

       (1) The health district employee requests and obtains special 46164
certification by the board to enforce those rules.46165

       (2) The health district notifies the superintendent of the 46166
division of laborindustrial compliance in the department of 46167
commerce that the health district's specially certified employee 46168
shall enforce those rules.46169

       (D) In a jurisdiction where enforcement authority as 46170
described in divisions (B) and (C) of this section does not exist, 46171
the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall enforce 46172
the rules the board adopts pursuant to division (A)(2) of this 46173
section.46174

       Sec. 4104.44. All welding and brazing of metallic piping 46175
systems shall be performed in accordance with section IX of the 46176
boiler and pressure vessel code, published by the American society 46177
of mechanical engineers. The owner shall maintain, at the job 46178
site, the certified performance qualification records of all 46179
welders and brazers employed at the facility. The owner shall 46180
submit copies of all certified welding and brazing procedure 46181
specifications, procedure qualification records, and performance 46182
qualification records for building services piping for review to 46183
the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance in the 46184
department of commerce in accordance with rules the superintendent 46185
adopts. The submission shall be accompanied by the fee the 46186
superintendent establishes.46187

       Sec. 4104.48.  (A) No person shall violate sections 4104.41 46188
to 4104.48 of the Revised Code, fail to perform any duty lawfully 46189
enjoined in connection with those sections, or fail to comply with 46190
any order issued by the superintendent of laborindustrial 46191
compliance or any judgment or decree issued by any court in 46192
connection with the enforcement of sections 4104.41 to 4104.48 of 46193
the Revised Code.46194

       (B) Every day during which a person violates sections 4104.41 46195
to 4104.48 of the Revised Code, fails to perform any duty lawfully 46196
enjoined in connection with those sections, or fails to comply 46197
with any order issued by the superintendent or any judgment or 46198
decree issued by any court in connection with the enforcement of 46199
sections 4104.41 to 4104.48 of the Revised Code constitutes a 46200
separate offense.46201

       Sec. 4105.01.  As used in this chapter:46202

       (A) "Elevator" means a hoisting and lowering apparatus 46203
equipped with a car, cage, or platform which moves on or between 46204
permanent rails or guides and serves two or more fixed landings in 46205
a building or structure to which section 3781.06 of the Revised 46206
Code applies. "Elevator" includes dumb-waiters other than 46207
hand-powered dumb-waiters, escalators, peopleliftsmanlifts, 46208
moving walks, of the endless belt type, other lifting or lowering 46209
apparatus permanently installed on or between rails or guides, and 46210
all equipment, machinery, and construction related to any 46211
elevator; but does not include construction hoists and other 46212
similar temporary lifting or lowering apparatuses, ski lifts, 46213
traveling, portable amusement rides or devices that are not 46214
affixed to a permanent foundation, or nonportable amusement rides 46215
or devices that are affixed to a permanent foundation.46216

       (B) "Passenger elevator" means an elevator that is designed 46217
to carry persons to its contract capacity.46218

       (C) "Freight elevator" means an elevator normally used for 46219
carrying freight and on which only the operator and employees in 46220
the pursuit of their duties, by the permission of the employer, 46221
are allowed to ride.46222

       (D) "Gravity elevator" means an elevator utilizing gravity to 46223
move.46224

       (E) "General inspector" means a state inspector examined and 46225
hired to inspect elevators and lifting apparatus for that state.46226

       (F) "Special inspector" means an inspector examined and 46227
commissioned by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance46228
to inspect elevators and lifting apparatus in the state.46229

       (G) "Inspector" means either a general or special inspector.46230

       Sec. 4105.02.  No person may act, either as a general 46231
inspector or as a special inspector, of elevators, unless the 46232
person holds a certificate of competency from the division of 46233
laborindustrial compliance.46234

       Application for examination as an inspector of elevators 46235
shall be in writing, accompanied by a fee to be established as 46236
provided in section 4105.17 of the Revised Code, and upon a blank 46237
to be furnished by the division, stating the school education of 46238
the applicant, a list of the applicant's employers, the 46239
applicant's period of employment, and the position held with each. 46240
An applicant shall also submit a letter from one or more of the 46241
applicant's previous employers certifying as to the applicant's 46242
character and experience.46243

       Applications shall be rejected which contain any willful 46244
falsification or untruthful statements. An applicant, if the 46245
division considers the applicant's history and experience 46246
sufficient, shall be examined by the superintendent of labor46247
industrial compliance by a written examination dealing with the 46248
construction, installation, operation, maintenance, and repair of 46249
elevators and their appurtenances, and the applicant shall be 46250
accepted or rejected on the merits of the applicant's application 46251
and examination.46252

       The superintendent shall issue a certificate of competency in 46253
the inspection of elevators to any applicant found competent upon 46254
examination. A rejected applicant shall be entitled, after the 46255
expiration of ninety days and upon payment of an examination fee 46256
to be established as provided in section 4105.17 of the Revised 46257
Code, to another examination. Should an applicant fail to pass the 46258
prescribed examination on second trial, the applicant will not be 46259
permitted to be an applicant for another examination for a period 46260
of one year after the second examination.46261

       Sec. 4105.03.  The superintendent of laborindustrial 46262
compliance, with the consent of the director of commerce, shall 46263
hire an assistant who has at least ten years of experience in the 46264
construction, installation, maintenance, and repair of elevators 46265
and their appurtenances.46266

       The superintendent, with the consent of the director, and in 46267
compliance with Chapter 124. of the Revised Code, may appoint and 46268
hire general inspectors of elevators from the holders of 46269
certificates of competency.46270

       Sec. 4105.04.  From the holders of certificates of competency 46271
in the inspection of elevators, any company that is authorized to 46272
insure elevators in the state, may designate persons to inspect 46273
elevators covered by such company's policies, and the department 46274
of public safety of any city and the clerk of any village may 46275
designate persons to inspect elevators in such city or village. 46276
Such persons shall, upon the payment of a fee to be established as 46277
provided in section 4105.17 of the Revised Code, have issued to 46278
them annually by the division of laborindustrial compliance, 46279
commissions to serve as special inspectors of elevators in the 46280
state.46281

       Sec. 4105.05.  A commission to serve as a special inspector 46282
may be suspended or revoked by the superintendent of labor46283
industrial compliance, for the incompetence or untrustworthiness 46284
of the holder thereof, or for the falsification of any matter or 46285
statement contained in the holder's application or in a report of 46286
any inspection.46287

       Sec. 4105.06.  If a certificate or commission issued under 46288
sections 4105.02 and 4105.04 of the Revised Code is lost or 46289
destroyed a new one shall be issued in its place by the division 46290
of laborindustrial compliance without another examination, upon 46291
the payment of a fee to be established as provided in section 46292
4105.07 of the Revised Code.46293

       Sec. 4105.09.  The owner or user of any elevator shall 46294
register, with the division of laborindustrial compliance, every 46295
elevator operated by the owner or user, giving the type, capacity, 46296
and description, name of manufacturer, and purpose for which each 46297
is used. Such registration shall be made on a form to be furnished 46298
by the division.46299

       Sec. 4105.11.  The inspection of elevators shall be made by 46300
the inspectors authorized in sections 4105.03 and 4105.04 of the 46301
Revised Code, under the supervision of the superintendent of 46302
laborindustrial compliance, and the superintendent shall enforce 46303
this chapter and any rules adopted pursuant thereto.46304

       Every inspector shall forward to the superintendent a full 46305
and complete report of each inspection made of any elevator and 46306
shall, on the day the inspection is completed, leave a copy of 46307
such report with the owner or operator of the elevator, or the 46308
owner's or operator's agent or representative. Such report shall 46309
indicate the exact condition of the elevator and shall list any 46310
and all of the provisions of this chapter and any rules adopted 46311
pursuant thereto, with which the elevator does not comply. Before 46312
attempting to enforce, by any remedy, civil or criminal, the 46313
provisions with which the inspected elevator does not comply, the 46314
chief shall issue an adjudication order within the meaning of 46315
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.46316

       The approval of construction plans, or an application of 46317
specifications under section 4105.16 of the Revised Code is a 46318
license, and the failure to approve such plans or specifications 46319
by the chief within sixty days after they are filed is an 46320
adjudication order denying the issuance of a license.46321

       Every adjudication order shall specify what appliances, site 46322
preparations, additions, repairs, or alterations to any elevators, 46323
plans, materials, assemblages, or procedures are necessary for the 46324
same to comply with this chapter, or any rules adopted pursuant 46325
thereto. Such adjudication order shall be issued pursuant to 46326
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and shall be effective without 46327
prior hearing, within thirty days after the receipt of such order, 46328
the owner of the elevator specified therein may appeal to the 46329
board of building appeals under section 3781.19 of the Revised 46330
Code.46331

       Notwithstanding the provisions of Chapter 119. of the Revised 46332
Code relating to adjudication hearings, a stenographic or 46333
mechanical record of the testimony and other evidence submitted 46334
before the board of building appeals shall be taken at the expense 46335
of the agency. A party adversely affected by an order issued 46336
following such adjudication hearing may appeal to the court of 46337
common pleas of the county in which the party is a resident or in 46338
which the elevator affected by such order is located. The court in 46339
such case shall not be confined to the record as certified to it 46340
by the agency, but any party may produce additional evidence and 46341
the court shall hear the matter upon such record and such 46342
additional evidence as is introduced by any party. The court shall 46343
not affirm the order of the agency unless the preponderance of the 46344
evidence before it supports the reasonableness and lawfulness of 46345
such order, and of any rules upon which the order of the agency is 46346
based in its application to the facts involved in the appeal.46347

       Failure to comply with the requirements of any order issued 46348
pursuant to this section or the continued operation of any 46349
elevator after it has been sealed pursuant to section 4105.21 of 46350
the Revised Code is hereby declared a public nuisance.46351

       Sec. 4105.12.  (A) The superintendent of laborindustrial 46352
compliance shall adopt, amend, and repeal rules exclusively for 46353
the issuance, renewal, suspension, and revocation of certificates 46354
of competency and certificates of operation, for the conduct of 46355
hearings related to these actions, and for the inspection of 46356
elevators.46357

       (B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, the 46358
superintendent shall not adopt rules relating to construction, 46359
maintenance, and repair of elevators.46360

       Sec. 4105.13.  Every elevator shall be constructed, equipped, 46361
maintained, and operated, with respect to the supporting members, 46362
elevator car, shaftways, guides, cables, doors, and gates, safety 46363
stops and mechanism, electrical apparatus and wiring, mechanical 46364
apparatus, counterweights, and all other appurtenances, in 46365
accordance with state laws and rules as are authorized in respect 46366
thereto. Where reasonable safety is obtained without complying to 46367
the literal requirements of such rules as in cases of practical 46368
difficulty or unnecessary hardship, the literal requirements of 46369
such rules shall not be required. The superintendent of labor46370
industrial compliance may permit the installation of vertical 46371
wheelchair lifts in public buildings to provide for handicapped 46372
accessibility where such lifts do not meet the literal 46373
requirements of the rules adopted by the board of building 46374
standards pursuant to section 4105.011 of the Revised Code, 46375
provided that reasonable safety may be obtained.46376

       Sec. 4105.15.  No certificate of operation for any elevator 46377
shall be issued by the director of commerce until such elevator 46378
has been inspected as required by this chapter. Certificates of 46379
operation shall be renewed by the owner or user of the elevator in 46380
accordance with rules adopted by the superintendent of labor46381
industrial compliance pursuant to section 4105.12 of the Revised 46382
Code.46383

       Sec. 4105.16.  Before any new installation of an elevator of 46384
permanent nature is erected or before any existing elevator is 46385
removed to and installed in a different location, an application 46386
of specifications in duplicate shall be submitted to the division 46387
of laborindustrial compliance giving such information concerning 46388
the construction, installation, and operation of said elevator as 46389
the division may require on forms to be furnished by the division, 46390
together with complete construction plans in duplicate. In all 46391
cases where any changes or repairs are made which alter its 46392
construction of classification, grade or rated lifting capacity, 46393
except when made pursuant to a report of an inspector, an 46394
application of specifications in duplicate shall be submitted to 46395
the division, containing such information, or approval, except in 46396
those municipal corporations which maintain their own elevator 46397
inspection departments, in which event such specifications shall 46398
be submitted to the elevator department of the municipal 46399
corporation for its approval, and if approved, a permit for the 46400
erection or repair of such elevator shall be issued by the 46401
municipal corporation. Upon approval of such application and 46402
construction plans, the superintendent of laborindustrial 46403
compliance shall issue a permit for the erection or repair of such 46404
elevator. No new elevator shall be operated until completion in 46405
accordance with the approved plans and specifications, unless a 46406
temporary permit is granted by the division.46407

       The final inspection, before operation, of a permanent, new 46408
or repaired elevator shall be made by a general inspector or a 46409
special inspector designated by the superintendent.46410

       Sec. 4105.17.  (A) The fee for each inspection, or attempted 46411
inspection that, due to no fault of a general inspector or the 46412
division of laborindustrial compliance, is not successfully 46413
completed, by a general inspector before the operation of a 46414
permanent new elevator prior to the issuance of a certificate of 46415
operation, before operation of an elevator being put back into 46416
service after a repair or after an adjudication under section 46417
4105.11 of the Revised Code, or as a result of the operation of 46418
section 4105.08 of the Revised Code and is an elevator required to 46419
be inspected under this chapter is one hundred twenty dollars plus 46420
ten dollars for each floor where the elevator stops. The 46421
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance may assess an 46422
additional fee of one hundred twenty dollars plus ten dollars for 46423
each floor where an elevator stops for the reinspection of an 46424
elevator when a previous attempt to inspect that elevator has been 46425
unsuccessful through no fault of a general inspector or the 46426
division of laborindustrial compliance.46427

       (B) The fee for each inspection, or attempted inspection, 46428
that due to no fault of the general inspector or the division, is 46429
not successfully completed by a general inspector before operation 46430
of a permanent new escalator or moving walk prior to the issuance 46431
of a certificate of operation, before operation of an escalator or 46432
moving walk being put back in service after a repair, or as a 46433
result of the operation of section 4105.08 of the Revised Code is 46434
three hundred dollars. The superintendent may assess an additional 46435
fee of one hundred fifty dollars for the reinspection of an 46436
escalator or moving walk when a previous attempt to inspect that 46437
escalator or moving walk has been unsuccessful through no fault of 46438
the general inspector or the division.46439

       (C) The fee for issuing or renewing a certificate of 46440
operation under section 4105.15 of the Revised Code for an 46441
elevator that is inspected every six months in accordance with 46442
division (A) of section 4105.10 of the Revised Code is two hundred 46443
twenty dollars plus twelve dollars for each floor where the 46444
elevator stops, except where the elevator has been inspected by a 46445
special inspector in accordance with section 4105.07 of the 46446
Revised Code.46447

       (D) The fee for issuing or renewing a certificate of 46448
operation under section 4105.05 of the Revised Code for an 46449
elevator that is inspected every twelve months in accordance with 46450
division (A) of section 4105.10 of the Revised Code is fifty-five 46451
dollars plus ten dollars for each floor where the elevator stops, 46452
except where the elevator has been inspected by a special 46453
inspector in accordance with section 4105.07 of the Revised Code.46454

       (E) The fee for issuing or renewing a certificate of 46455
operation under section 4105.15 of the Revised Code for an 46456
escalator or moving walk is three hundred dollars, except where 46457
the escalator or moving walk has been inspected by a special 46458
inspector in accordance section 4105.07 of the Revised Code.46459

       (F) All other fees to be charged for any examination given or 46460
other service performed by the division pursuant to this chapter 46461
shall be prescribed by the director of commerce. The fees shall be 46462
reasonably related to the costs of such examination or other 46463
service.46464

       (G) The director of commerce, subject to the approval of the 46465
controlling board, may establish fees in excess of the fees 46466
provided in divisions (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) of this section. 46467
Any moneys collected under this section shall be paid into the 46468
state treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial compliance46469
operating fund created in section 121.084 of the Revised Code.46470

       (H) Any person who fails to pay an inspection fee required 46471
for any inspection conducted by the division pursuant to this 46472
chapter within forty-five days after the inspection is conducted 46473
shall pay a late payment fee equal to twenty-five per cent of the 46474
inspection fee.46475

       (I) In addition to the fees assessed in divisions (A), (B), 46476
(C), (D), and (E) of this section, the board of building standards 46477
shall assess a fee of three dollars and twenty-five cents for each 46478
certificate of operation or renewal thereof issued under divisions 46479
(A), (B), (C), (D), or (E) of this section and for each permit 46480
issued under section 4105.16 of the Revised Code. The board shall 46481
adopt rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 46482
specifying the manner by which the superintendent shall collect 46483
and remit to the board the fees assessed under this division and 46484
requiring that remittance of the fees be made at least quarterly.46485

       (J) For purposes of this section:46486

       (1) "Escalator" means a power driven, inclined, continuous 46487
stairway used for raising or lowering passengers.46488

       (2) "Moving walk" means a passenger carrying device on which 46489
passengers stand or walk, with a passenger carrying surface that 46490
is uninterrupted and remains parallel to its direction of motion.46491

       Sec. 4105.191.  Any person owning or operating any elevator 46492
subject to this chapter shall file a written report with the 46493
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance within seventy-two 46494
hours after the occurrence of any accident involving such elevator 46495
which results in death or bodily injury to any person.46496

       Sec. 4105.20.  No person shall violate any law relative to 46497
the operation, construction, maintenance, and repair of elevators. 46498
All fines collected for violation of this section shall be 46499
forwarded to the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance, 46500
who shall pay them into the state treasury to the credit of the 46501
laborindustrial compliance operating fund created in section 46502
121.084 of the Revised Code.46503

       Sec. 4105.21.  The superintendent of laborindustrial 46504
compliance shall enforce this chapter. If the superintendent or a 46505
general inspector of elevators finds that an elevator or a part 46506
thereof does not afford reasonable safety as required by section 46507
4105.13 of the Revised Code, the superintendent or the general 46508
inspector may seal such elevator and post a notice thereon 46509
prohibiting further use of the elevator until the changes or 46510
alterations set forth in the notice have been made to the 46511
satisfaction of the superintendent or the inspector. The notice 46512
shall contain a statement that operators or passengers are subject 46513
to injury by its continued use, a description of the alteration or 46514
other change necessary to be made in order to secure safety of 46515
operation, date of such notice, name and signature of the 46516
superintendent or inspector issuing the notice.46517

       Sec. 4115.10.  (A) No person, firm, corporation, or public 46518
authority that constructs a public improvement with its own 46519
forces, the total overall project cost of which is fairly 46520
estimated to be more than the amounts set forth in division (B) of 46521
section 4115.03 of the Revised Code, adjusted biennially by the 46522
director of commerce pursuant to section 4115.034 of the Revised 46523
Code, as appropriate, shall violate the wage provisions of 46524
sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of the Revised Code, or suffer, 46525
permit, or require any employee to work for less than the rate of 46526
wages so fixed, or violate the provisions of section 4115.07 of 46527
the Revised Code. Any employee upon any public improvement, except 46528
an employee to whom or on behalf of whom restitution is made 46529
pursuant to division (C) of section 4115.13 of the Revised Code, 46530
who is paid less than the fixed rate of wages applicable thereto 46531
may recover from such person, firm, corporation, or public 46532
authority that constructs a public improvement with its own forces 46533
the difference between the fixed rate of wages and the amount paid 46534
to the employee and in addition thereto a sum equal to twenty-five 46535
per cent of that difference. The person, firm, corporation, or 46536
public authority who fails to pay the rate of wages so fixed also 46537
shall pay a penalty to the director of seventy-five per cent of 46538
the difference between the fixed rate of wages and the amount paid 46539
to the employees on the public improvement. The director shall 46540
deposit all moneys received from penalties paid to the director 46541
pursuant to this section into the laborindustrial compliance46542
operating fund. The director shall use the fund for the 46543
enforcement of sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of the Revised Code. 46544
The employee may file suit for recovery within ninety days of the 46545
director's determination of a violation of sections 4115.03 to 46546
4115.16 of the Revised Code or is barred from further action under 46547
this division. Where the employee prevails in a suit, the employer 46548
shall pay the costs and reasonable attorney's fees allowed by the 46549
court.46550

       (B) Any employee upon any public improvement who is paid less 46551
than the prevailing rate of wages applicable thereto may file a 46552
complaint in writing with the director upon a form furnished by 46553
the director. The complaint shall include documented evidence to 46554
demonstrate that the employee was paid less than the prevailing 46555
wage in violation of this chapter. Upon receipt of a properly 46556
completed written complaint of any employee paid less than the 46557
prevailing rate of wages applicable, the director shall take an 46558
assignment of a claim in trust for the assigning employee and 46559
bring any legal action necessary to collect the claim. The 46560
employer shall pay the costs and reasonable attorney's fees 46561
allowed by the court if the employer is found in violation of 46562
sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of the Revised Code.46563

       (C) If after investigation pursuant to section 4115.13 of the 46564
Revised Code, the director determines there is a violation of 46565
sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of the Revised Code and a period of 46566
sixty days has elapsed from the date of the determination, and if:46567

       (1) No employee has brought suit pursuant to division (A) of 46568
this section;46569

       (2) No employee has requested that the director take an 46570
assignment of a wage claim pursuant to division (B) of this 46571
section.46572

       The director shall bring any legal action necessary to 46573
collect any amounts owed to employees and the director. The 46574
director shall pay over to the affected employees the amounts 46575
collected to which the affected employees are entitled under 46576
division (A) of this section. In any action in which the director 46577
prevails, the employer shall pay the costs and reasonable 46578
attorney's fees allowed by the court.46579

       (D) Where persons are employed and their rate of wages has 46580
been determined as provided in section 4115.04 of the Revised 46581
Code, no person, either for self or any other person, shall 46582
request, demand, or receive, either before or after the person is 46583
engaged, that the person so engaged pay back, return, donate, 46584
contribute, or give any part or all of the person's wages, salary, 46585
or thing of value, to any person, upon the statement, 46586
representation, or understanding that failure to comply with such 46587
request or demand will prevent the procuring or retaining of 46588
employment, and no person shall, directly or indirectly, aid, 46589
request, or authorize any other person to violate this section. 46590
This division does not apply to any agent or representative of a 46591
duly constituted labor organization acting in the collection of 46592
dues or assessments of such organization.46593

       (E) The director shall enforce sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of 46594
the Revised Code.46595

       (F) For the purpose of supplementing existing resources and 46596
to assist in enforcing division (E) of this section, the director 46597
may contract with a person registered as a public accountant under 46598
Chapter 4701. of the Revised Code to conduct an audit of a person, 46599
firm, corporation, or public authority.46600

       (G) No contractor or subcontractor shall be responsible for 46601
the payment of the penalties provided in division (A) of this 46602
section resulting from a violation of sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 46603
of the Revised Code by its subcontractor, provided that the 46604
contractor or subcontractor has made a good faith effort to ensure 46605
that its subcontractor complied with the requirements of sections 46606
4115.03 to 4115.16 of the Revised Code.46607

       Sec. 4115.101.  There is hereby created the prevailing wage 46608
custodial fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 46609
state but shall not be part of the state treasury. The director of 46610
commerce shall deposit to the fund all money paid by employers to 46611
the director that are held in trust for employees to whom 46612
prevailing wages are due and owing. The director shall make 46613
disbursements from the fund in accordance with this chapter to 46614
employees affected by violations of this chapter. If the director 46615
determines that any funds in the prevailing wage custodial fund 46616
are not returnable to employees as required under this section, 46617
then the director shall certify to the treasurer of state the 46618
amount of the funds that are not returnable. Upon the receipt of a 46619
certification from the director in accordance with this section, 46620
the treasurer of state shall transfer the certified amount of the 46621
funds from the prevailing wage custodial fund to the labor46622
industrial compliance operating fund.46623

       Sec. 4121.04.  (A) There is hereby created the industrial 46624
commission nominating council consisting of five employer 46625
representatives, four labor representatives, one representative 46626
from the Ohio association for justice, and two members of the 46627
public, each of a different political party, who are appointed by 46628
the governor. The nominating council shall make recommendations to 46629
the governor for the appointment of members to the industrial 46630
commission as provided in section 4121.02 of the Revised Code.46631

       (B) In making the appointments, the governor shall select the 46632
members representing employees from a list of eight names 46633
submitted by the Ohio federation of labor, the member representing 46634
the Ohio association for justice from a list of two names 46635
submitted by the Ohio association of justice, and the members 46636
representing employers from a list of ten names submitted jointly 46637
by the Ohio industry organizations. The governor shall appoint at 46638
least one member from each of the Ohio industry organizations. Of 46639
the list submitted by the Ohio industry organizations, two 46640
individuals from each of the Ohio industry organizations shall be 46641
included in the list. Terms of office of employer and employee 46642
representatives are for four years, each term ending on the same 46643
day as the date of their original appointment. The Ohio federation 46644
of labor for a vacancy of an employee representative on the 46645
council, and the Ohio industry organizations, for a vacancy of an 46646
employer representative on the council, shall submit to the 46647
governor a list containing two names for appointment and the 46648
governor shall appoint an individual from the list to fill the 46649
vacancy provided that the list submitted to fill an industry 46650
representative vacancy shall contain the names of individuals who 46651
represent the organizations for which a vacancy has occurred. One 46652
public member shall represent the interests of small business. 46653
Public members shall serve for a term of two years, each term 46654
ending on the same day as the date of their original appointment. 46655
The governor shall fill a vacancy occurring on the nominating 46656
council for a public member in the same manner as for the original 46657
appointment but only for the unexpired part of the term. As used 46658
in this division, "small business" means any manufacturing 46659
establishment employing five hundred or fewer employees or any 46660
retail, or other service establishment employing one hundred or 46661
fewer employees. The representative from the Ohio association for 46662
justice shall serve for a term of four years, each term ending on 46663
the twentieth day of October of the appropriate year. The governor 46664
shall fill a vacancy occurring on the nominating council for the 46665
representative from the Ohio association for justice in the same 46666
manner as the original appointment. In the event that an 46667
appointment to the council does not conform to this division, such 46668
organizations may challenge the appointment pursuant to division 46669
(E) of this section, provided that the industry organizations only 46670
may challenge the appointment of an industry representative, and 46671
further provided that the labor organization only may challenge 46672
the appointment of a labor representative.46673

       (C) The nominating council annually shall meet and elect such 46674
officers as it determines appropriate and shall meet at such other 46675
times as it determines appropriate in order to make 46676
recommendations to the governor for the appointment of industrial 46677
commission members pursuant to section 4121.02 of the Revised 46678
Code. The nominating council may conduct a meeting by interactive 46679
video teleconference if provisions are made for public attendance 46680
at any location involved in the teleconference. Notwithstanding 46681
division (C) of section 121.22 of the Revised Code, all members of 46682
the nominating council, whether attending a meeting of the 46683
nominating council in person or by teleconference, are entitled to 46684
full and complete voting privileges on all nominating council 46685
matters.46686

       (D) Members of the nominating council shall be paid fifty 46687
dollars per day and their actual and necessary expenses while 46688
engaged in the performance of their duties as members of the 46689
nominating council, which the industrial commission shall pay from 46690
funds which the industrial commission uses to pay its operating 46691
expenses.46692

       (E) An association generally recognized as representing the 46693
interests of labor or industry may file, within fifteen days after 46694
the governor's appointment of a member, a challenge in the common 46695
pleas court of Franklin county asserting that a representative 46696
named to represent its interests is not representative of the 46697
interests the appointee has been appointed to represent. An 46698
appointee whose appointment has been challenged shall not receive 46699
any pay nor serve on the nominating council until the court, 46700
acting without a jury and following the expedited timetable 46701
provided for hearing on restraining orders in Civil Rule 65, makes 46702
a determination that the appointee is a true and qualified 46703
representative of the group for which the appointee is selected 46704
and possesses all of the qualifications.46705

       A challenged appointee may request the attorney general to 46706
represent the appointee in an action brought under this division 46707
and the attorney general shall provide the appointee with 46708
competent representation without charge.46709

       (F) As used in this section, "Ohio industry organizations" 46710
means all of the following organizations:46711

       (1) The Ohio self-insurers' association;46712

       (2) The Ohio manufacturers' association;46713

       (3) The Ohio council of retail merchants;46714

       (4) The Ohio chamber of commerce;46715

       (5) The national federation of independent business.46716

       Sec. 4121.123.  (A) There is hereby created the workers' 46717
compensation board of directors nominating committee consisting of 46718
the following:46719

       (1) Three individuals who are members of affiliated employee 46720
organizations of the Ohio chapter of the American federation of 46721
labor-congress of industrial organizations, who are selected by 46722
the Ohio chapter of the American federation of labor-congress of 46723
industrial organizations and who, on account of their previous 46724
vocation, employment, or affiliations, can be classed as 46725
representative of employees who are members of an employee 46726
organization. Terms of office shall be for one year, with each 46727
term ending on the same day of the same month as did the term that 46728
it succeeds.46729

       (2) Two individuals who, on account of their previous 46730
vocation, employment, or affiliations, can be classed as 46731
representative of employees, one of whom shall be an injured 46732
worker with a valid, open, and active workers' compensation claim 46733
and at least one of these two representatives also shall represent 46734
employees who are not members of an employee organization. The 46735
president of the senate and the speaker of the house of 46736
representatives each shall appoint annually one of these members. 46737
The member who is an injured worker shall serve for a full term 46738
even if the member's workers' compensation claim is invalidated, 46739
closed, or inactivated during the member's term.46740

       (3) The chief executive officer, or the equivalent of the 46741
chief executive officer, of the Ohio chamber of commerce, the Ohio 46742
manufacturers' association, the Ohio self-insurers' association, 46743
the Ohio council of retail merchants, the national federation of 46744
independent business, and the Ohio farm bureau;46745

       (4) The director of development;46746

       (5) The president of the Ohio township association and the 46747
president of the Ohio county commissioners association, or, inif 46748
any of the following circumstances apply:46749

       (a) In the event of a vacancy in theeither presidency, a 46750
designee appointed by the governing body authorized to appoint the 46751
president. A designee so appointed shall serve on the nominating 46752
committee only until the vacancy in the presidency is filled.46753

       (b) In the event that the president of the Ohio township 46754
association is unavailable, a designee selected by the president;46755

       (c) In the event that the president of the Ohio county 46756
commissioners association is unavailable, a designee selected by 46757
the president.46758

       (B) Each member appointed under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of 46759
this section shall hold office from the date of the member's 46760
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 46761
appointed. Such members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be 46762
filled in the manner provided for original appointments. Any such 46763
member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 46764
expiration date of the term for which the member's predecessor was 46765
appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of that 46766
term. Such a member shall continue in office subsequent to the 46767
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 46768
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 46769
whichever occurs first.46770

       (C) The nominating committee shall meet at the request of the 46771
governor or as the nominating committee determines appropriate in 46772
order to make recommendations to the governor for the appointment 46773
of members of the bureau of workers' compensation board of 46774
directors under section 4121.12 of the Revised Code.46775

       (D) The director of development shall serve as chairperson of 46776
the nominating committee and have no voting rights on matters 46777
coming before the nominating committee, except that the director 46778
may vote in the event of a tie vote of the nominating committee. 46779
Annually, the nominating committee shall select a secretary from 46780
among its members. The nominating committee may adopt by-laws 46781
governing its proceedings.46782

       (E) Members of the nominating committee shall be paid their 46783
reasonable and necessary expenses pursuant to section 126.31 of 46784
the Revised Code while engaged in the performance of their duties 46785
as members of the nominating committee.46786

       (F) The nominating committee shall:46787

       (1) Review and evaluate possible appointees for the board. In 46788
reviewing and evaluating possible appointees for the board, the 46789
nominating committee may accept comments from, cooperate with, and 46790
request information from any person.46791

       (2) Make recommendations to the governor for the appointment 46792
of members to the board as provided in division (C) of section 46793
4121.12 of the Revised Code.46794

       (G) The nominating committee may make recommendations to the 46795
general assembly concerning changes in legislation that will 46796
assist the nominating committee in the performance of its duties.46797

       Sec. 4121.30.  (A) All rules governing the operating 46798
procedure of the bureau of workers' compensation and the 46799
industrial commission shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 46800
119. of the Revised Code, except that determinations of the 46801
bureau, district hearing officers, staff hearing officers, and the 46802
commission, with respect to an individual employee's claim to 46803
participate in the state insurance fund are governed only by 46804
Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.46805

       The administrator of workers' compensation and commission 46806
shall proceed jointly, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 46807
Revised Code, including a joint hearing, to adopt joint rules 46808
governing the operating procedures of the bureau and commission.46809
The bureau shall publish the joint rules in a single publication.46810

       (B) Upon submission to the bureau or the commission of a 46811
petition containing not less than fifteen hundred signatures of 46812
adult residents of the state, any individual may propose a rule 46813
for adoption, amendment, or rescission by the bureau or the 46814
commission. If, upon investigation, the bureau or commission is 46815
satisfied that the signatures upon the petition are valid, it 46816
shall proceed, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 46817
Code, to consider adoption, amendment, or rescission of the rule.46818

       (C) The administrator shall publishmake available 46819
electronically all rules adopted by the bureau and the commission 46820
in a single publication and shall make available in a timely 46821
manner and at cost copies of all rules adopted by the bureau and 46822
the commission that are currently in force. For that purpose, the 46823
administrator shall maintain a mailing list of all persons 46824
requesting copies of the rules.46825

       (D) The rule-making authority granted to the administrator 46826
under this section does not limit the commission's rule-making 46827
authority relative to its overall adjudicatory policy-making and 46828
management duties under this chapter and Chapters 4123., 4127., 46829
and 4131. of the Revised Code. The administrator shall not 46830
disregard any rule adopted by the commission, provided that the 46831
rule is within the commission's rule-making authority.46832

       Sec. 4123.20.  The administrator of workers' compensation 46833
shall cause to be printed, in proper form for distributionmake 46834
available electronically to the public, its classifications, 46835
rates, rules, and rules of procedure, and shall furnish the same 46836
to any person upon application therefor, and the fact that the 46837
classifications, rates, rules, and rules of procedure are printed 46838
ready for distribution to all who apply for the same is a 46839
sufficient publication of the same as required by this chapter46840
request.46841

       Sec. 4123.35.  (A) Except as provided in this section, every 46842
employer mentioned in division (B)(2) of section 4123.01 of the 46843
Revised Code, and every publicly owned utility shall pay 46844
semiannually in the months of January and July into the state 46845
insurance fund the amount of annual premium the administrator of 46846
workers' compensation fixes for the employment or occupation of 46847
the employer, the amount of which premium to be paid by each 46848
employer to be determined by the classifications, rules, and rates 46849
made and published by the administrator. The employer shall pay 46850
semiannually a further sum of money into the state insurance fund 46851
as may be ascertained to be due from the employer by applying the 46852
rules of the administrator, and a receipt or certificate 46853
certifying that payment has been made, along with a written notice 46854
as is required in section 4123.54 of the Revised Code, shall be 46855
mailed immediately to the employer by the bureau of workers' 46856
compensation. The receipt or certificate is prima-facie evidence 46857
of the payment of the premium, and the proper posting of the 46858
notice constitutes the employer's compliance with the notice 46859
requirement mandated in section 4123.54 of the Revised Code.46860

       The bureau of workers' compensation shall verify with the 46861
secretary of state the existence of all corporations and 46862
organizations making application for workers' compensation 46863
coverage and shall require every such application to include the 46864
employer's federal identification number.46865

       An employer as defined in division (B)(2) of section 4123.01 46866
of the Revised Code who has contracted with a subcontractor is 46867
liable for the unpaid premium due from any subcontractor with 46868
respect to that part of the payroll of the subcontractor that is 46869
for work performed pursuant to the contract with the employer.46870

       Division (A) of this section providing for the payment of 46871
premiums semiannually does not apply to any employer who was a 46872
subscriber to the state insurance fund prior to January 1, 1914, 46873
or who may first become a subscriber to the fund in any month 46874
other than January or July. Instead, the semiannual premiums shall 46875
be paid by those employers from time to time upon the expiration 46876
of the respective periods for which payments into the fund have 46877
been made by them.46878

       The administrator shall adopt rules to permit employers to 46879
make periodic payments of the semiannual premium due under this 46880
division. The rules shall include provisions for the assessment of 46881
interest charges, where appropriate, and for the assessment of 46882
penalties when an employer fails to make timely premium payments. 46883
An employer who timely pays the amounts due under this division is 46884
entitled to all of the benefits and protections of this chapter. 46885
Upon receipt of payment, the bureau immediately shall mail a 46886
receipt or certificate to the employer certifying that payment has 46887
been made, which receipt is prima-facie evidence of payment. 46888
Workers' compensation coverage under this chapter continues 46889
uninterrupted upon timely receipt of payment under this division.46890

       Every public employer, except public employers that are 46891
self-insuring employers under this section, shall comply with 46892
sections 4123.38 to 4123.41, and 4123.48 of the Revised Code in 46893
regard to the contribution of moneys to the public insurance fund.46894

       (B) Employers who will abide by the rules of the 46895
administrator and who may be of sufficient financial ability to 46896
render certain the payment of compensation to injured employees or 46897
the dependents of killed employees, and the furnishing of medical, 46898
surgical, nursing, and hospital attention and services and 46899
medicines, and funeral expenses, equal to or greater than is 46900
provided for in sections 4123.52, 4123.55 to 4123.62, and 4123.64 46901
to 4123.67 of the Revised Code, and who do not desire to insure 46902
the payment thereof or indemnify themselves against loss sustained 46903
by the direct payment thereof, upon a finding of such facts by the 46904
administrator, may be granted the privilege to pay individually 46905
compensation, and furnish medical, surgical, nursing, and hospital 46906
services and attention and funeral expenses directly to injured 46907
employees or the dependents of killed employees, thereby being 46908
granted status as a self-insuring employer. The administrator may 46909
charge employers who apply for the status as a self-insuring 46910
employer a reasonable application fee to cover the bureau's costs 46911
in connection with processing and making a determination with 46912
respect to an application.46913

       All employers granted status as self-insuring employers shall 46914
demonstrate sufficient financial and administrative ability to 46915
assure that all obligations under this section are promptly met. 46916
The administrator shall deny the privilege where the employer is 46917
unable to demonstrate the employer's ability to promptly meet all 46918
the obligations imposed on the employer by this section.46919

       (1) The administrator shall consider, but is not limited to, 46920
the following factors, where applicable, in determining the 46921
employer's ability to meet all of the obligations imposed on the 46922
employer by this section:46923

       (a) The employer employs a minimum of five hundred employees 46924
in this state;46925

       (b) The employer has operated in this state for a minimum of 46926
two years, provided that an employer who has purchased, acquired, 46927
or otherwise succeeded to the operation of a business, or any part 46928
thereof, situated in this state that has operated for at least two 46929
years in this state, also shall qualify;46930

       (c) Where the employer previously contributed to the state 46931
insurance fund or is a successor employer as defined by bureau 46932
rules, the amount of the buyout, as defined by bureau rules;46933

       (d) The sufficiency of the employer's assets located in this 46934
state to insure the employer's solvency in paying compensation 46935
directly;46936

       (e) The financial records, documents, and data, certified by 46937
a certified public accountant, necessary to provide the employer's 46938
full financial disclosure. The records, documents, and data 46939
include, but are not limited to, balance sheets and profit and 46940
loss history for the current year and previous four years.46941

       (f) The employer's organizational plan for the administration 46942
of the workers' compensation law;46943

       (g) The employer's proposed plan to inform employees of the 46944
change from a state fund insurer to a self-insuring employer, the 46945
procedures the employer will follow as a self-insuring employer, 46946
and the employees' rights to compensation and benefits; and46947

       (h) The employer has either an account in a financial 46948
institution in this state, or if the employer maintains an account 46949
with a financial institution outside this state, ensures that 46950
workers' compensation checks are drawn from the same account as 46951
payroll checks or the employer clearly indicates that payment will 46952
be honored by a financial institution in this state.46953

       The administrator may waive the requirements of divisions 46954
(B)(1)(a) and (b) of this section and the requirement of division 46955
(B)(1)(e) of this section that the financial records, documents, 46956
and data be certified by a certified public accountant. The 46957
administrator shall adopt rules establishing the criteria that an 46958
employer shall meet in order for the administrator to waive the 46959
requirement of division (B)(1)(e) of this section. Such rules may 46960
require additional security of that employer pursuant to division 46961
(E) of section 4123.351 of the Revised Code.46962

       The administrator shall not grant the status of self-insuring 46963
employer to the state, except that the administrator may grant the 46964
status of self-insuring employer to a state institution of higher 46965
education, excludingincluding its hospitals, that meets the 46966
requirements of division (B)(2) of this section.46967

       (2) When considering the application of a public employer, 46968
except for a board of county commissioners described in division 46969
(G) of section 4123.01 of the Revised Code, a board of a county 46970
hospital, or a publicly owned utility, the administrator shall 46971
verify that the public employer satisfies all of the following 46972
requirements as the requirements apply to that public employer:46973

       (a) For the two-year period preceding application under this 46974
section, the public employer has maintained an unvoted debt 46975
capacity equal to at least two times the amount of the current 46976
annual premium established by the administrator under this chapter 46977
for that public employer for the year immediately preceding the 46978
year in which the public employer makes application under this 46979
section.46980

       (b) For each of the two fiscal years preceding application 46981
under this section, the unreserved and undesignated year-end fund 46982
balance in the public employer's general fund is equal to at least 46983
five per cent of the public employer's general fund revenues for 46984
the fiscal year computed in accordance with generally accepted 46985
accounting principles.46986

       (c) For the five-year period preceding application under this 46987
section, the public employer, to the extent applicable, has 46988
complied fully with the continuing disclosure requirements 46989
established in rules adopted by the United States securities and 46990
exchange commission under 17 C.F.R. 240.15c 2-12.46991

       (d) For the five-year period preceding application under this 46992
section, the public employer has not had its local government fund 46993
distribution withheld on account of the public employer being 46994
indebted or otherwise obligated to the state.46995

       (e) For the five-year period preceding application under this 46996
section, the public employer has not been under a fiscal watch or 46997
fiscal emergency pursuant to section 118.023, 118.04, or 3316.03 46998
of the Revised Code.46999

       (f) For the public employer's fiscal year preceding 47000
application under this section, the public employer has obtained 47001
an annual financial audit as required under section 117.10 of the 47002
Revised Code, which has been released by the auditor of state 47003
within seven months after the end of the public employer's fiscal 47004
year.47005

       (g) On the date of application, the public employer holds a 47006
debt rating of Aa3 or higher according to Moody's investors 47007
service, inc., or a comparable rating by an independent rating 47008
agency similar to Moody's investors service, inc.47009

       (h) The public employer agrees to generate an annual 47010
accumulating book reserve in its financial statements reflecting 47011
an actuarially generated reserve adequate to pay projected claims 47012
under this chapter for the applicable period of time, as 47013
determined by the administrator.47014

       (i) For a public employer that is a hospital, the public 47015
employer shall submit audited financial statements showing the 47016
hospital's overall liquidity characteristics, and the 47017
administrator shall determine, on an individual basis, whether the 47018
public employer satisfies liquidity standards equivalent to the 47019
liquidity standards of other public employers.47020

       (j) Any additional criteria that the administrator adopts by 47021
rule pursuant to division (E) of this section.47022

       The administrator may adopt rules establishing the criteria 47023
that a public employer shall satisfy in order for the 47024
administrator to waive any of the requirements listed in divisions 47025
(B)(2)(a) to (j) of this section. The rules may require additional 47026
security from that employer pursuant to division (E) of section 47027
4123.351 of the Revised Code. The administrator shall not waive 47028
any of the requirements listed in divisions (B)(2)(a) to (j) of 47029
this section for a public employer who does not satisfy the 47030
criteria established in the rules the administrator adopts.47031

       (C) A board of county commissioners described in division (G) 47032
of section 4123.01 of the Revised Code, as an employer, that will 47033
abide by the rules of the administrator and that may be of 47034
sufficient financial ability to render certain the payment of 47035
compensation to injured employees or the dependents of killed 47036
employees, and the furnishing of medical, surgical, nursing, and 47037
hospital attention and services and medicines, and funeral 47038
expenses, equal to or greater than is provided for in sections 47039
4123.52, 4123.55 to 4123.62, and 4123.64 to 4123.67 of the Revised 47040
Code, and that does not desire to insure the payment thereof or 47041
indemnify itself against loss sustained by the direct payment 47042
thereof, upon a finding of such facts by the administrator, may be 47043
granted the privilege to pay individually compensation, and 47044
furnish medical, surgical, nursing, and hospital services and 47045
attention and funeral expenses directly to injured employees or 47046
the dependents of killed employees, thereby being granted status 47047
as a self-insuring employer. The administrator may charge a board 47048
of county commissioners described in division (G) of section 47049
4123.01 of the Revised Code that applies for the status as a 47050
self-insuring employer a reasonable application fee to cover the 47051
bureau's costs in connection with processing and making a 47052
determination with respect to an application. All employers 47053
granted such status shall demonstrate sufficient financial and 47054
administrative ability to assure that all obligations under this 47055
section are promptly met. The administrator shall deny the 47056
privilege where the employer is unable to demonstrate the 47057
employer's ability to promptly meet all the obligations imposed on 47058
the employer by this section. The administrator shall consider, 47059
but is not limited to, the following factors, where applicable, in 47060
determining the employer's ability to meet all of the obligations 47061
imposed on the board as an employer by this section:47062

       (1) The board as an employer employs a minimum of five 47063
hundred employees in this state;47064

       (2) The board has operated in this state for a minimum of two 47065
years;47066

       (3) Where the board previously contributed to the state 47067
insurance fund or is a successor employer as defined by bureau 47068
rules, the amount of the buyout, as defined by bureau rules;47069

       (4) The sufficiency of the board's assets located in this 47070
state to insure the board's solvency in paying compensation 47071
directly;47072

       (5) The financial records, documents, and data, certified by 47073
a certified public accountant, necessary to provide the board's 47074
full financial disclosure. The records, documents, and data 47075
include, but are not limited to, balance sheets and profit and 47076
loss history for the current year and previous four years.47077

       (6) The board's organizational plan for the administration of 47078
the workers' compensation law;47079

       (7) The board's proposed plan to inform employees of the 47080
proposed self-insurance, the procedures the board will follow as a 47081
self-insuring employer, and the employees' rights to compensation 47082
and benefits;47083

       (8) The board has either an account in a financial 47084
institution in this state, or if the board maintains an account 47085
with a financial institution outside this state, ensures that 47086
workers' compensation checks are drawn from the same account as 47087
payroll checks or the board clearly indicates that payment will be 47088
honored by a financial institution in this state;47089

       (9) The board shall provide the administrator a surety bond 47090
in an amount equal to one hundred twenty-five per cent of the 47091
projected losses as determined by the administrator.47092

       (D) The administrator shall require a surety bond from all 47093
self-insuring employers, issued pursuant to section 4123.351 of 47094
the Revised Code, that is sufficient to compel, or secure to 47095
injured employees, or to the dependents of employees killed, the 47096
payment of compensation and expenses, which shall in no event be 47097
less than that paid or furnished out of the state insurance fund 47098
in similar cases to injured employees or to dependents of killed 47099
employees whose employers contribute to the fund, except when an 47100
employee of the employer, who has suffered the loss of a hand, 47101
arm, foot, leg, or eye prior to the injury for which compensation 47102
is to be paid, and thereafter suffers the loss of any other of the 47103
members as the result of any injury sustained in the course of and 47104
arising out of the employee's employment, the compensation to be 47105
paid by the self-insuring employer is limited to the disability 47106
suffered in the subsequent injury, additional compensation, if 47107
any, to be paid by the bureau out of the surplus created by 47108
section 4123.34 of the Revised Code.47109

       (E) In addition to the requirements of this section, the 47110
administrator shall make and publish rules governing the manner of 47111
making application and the nature and extent of the proof required 47112
to justify a finding of fact by the administrator as to granting 47113
the status of a self-insuring employer, which rules shall be 47114
general in their application, one of which rules shall provide 47115
that all self-insuring employers shall pay into the state 47116
insurance fund such amounts as are required to be credited to the 47117
surplus fund in division (B) of section 4123.34 of the Revised 47118
Code. The administrator may adopt rules establishing requirements 47119
in addition to the requirements described in division (B)(2) of 47120
this section that a public employer shall meet in order to qualify 47121
for self-insuring status.47122

       Employers shall secure directly from the bureau central 47123
offices application forms upon which the bureau shall stamp a 47124
designating number. Prior to submission of an application, an 47125
employer shall make available to the bureau, and the bureau shall 47126
review, the information described in division (B)(1) of this 47127
section, and public employers shall make available, and the bureau 47128
shall review, the information necessary to verify whether the 47129
public employer meets the requirements listed in division (B)(2) 47130
of this section. An employer shall file the completed application 47131
forms with an application fee, which shall cover the costs of 47132
processing the application, as established by the administrator, 47133
by rule, with the bureau at least ninety days prior to the 47134
effective date of the employer's new status as a self-insuring 47135
employer. The application form is not deemed complete until all 47136
the required information is attached thereto. The bureau shall 47137
only accept applications that contain the required information.47138

       (F) The bureau shall review completed applications within a 47139
reasonable time. If the bureau determines to grant an employer the 47140
status as a self-insuring employer, the bureau shall issue a 47141
statement, containing its findings of fact, that is prepared by 47142
the bureau and signed by the administrator. If the bureau 47143
determines not to grant the status as a self-insuring employer, 47144
the bureau shall notify the employer of the determination and 47145
require the employer to continue to pay its full premium into the 47146
state insurance fund. The administrator also shall adopt rules 47147
establishing a minimum level of performance as a criterion for 47148
granting and maintaining the status as a self-insuring employer 47149
and fixing time limits beyond which failure of the self-insuring 47150
employer to provide for the necessary medical examinations and 47151
evaluations may not delay a decision on a claim.47152

       (G) The administrator shall adopt rules setting forth 47153
procedures for auditing the program of self-insuring employers. 47154
The bureau shall conduct the audit upon a random basis or whenever 47155
the bureau has grounds for believing that a self-insuring employer 47156
is not in full compliance with bureau rules or this chapter.47157

       The administrator shall monitor the programs conducted by 47158
self-insuring employers, to ensure compliance with bureau 47159
requirements and for that purpose, shall develop and issue to 47160
self-insuring employers standardized forms for use by the 47161
self-insuring employer in all aspects of the self-insuring 47162
employers' direct compensation program and for reporting of 47163
information to the bureau.47164

       The bureau shall receive and transmit to the self-insuring 47165
employer all complaints concerning any self-insuring employer. In 47166
the case of a complaint against a self-insuring employer, the 47167
administrator shall handle the complaint through the 47168
self-insurance division of the bureau. The bureau shall maintain a 47169
file by employer of all complaints received that relate to the 47170
employer. The bureau shall evaluate each complaint and take 47171
appropriate action.47172

       The administrator shall adopt as a rule a prohibition against 47173
any self-insuring employer from harassing, dismissing, or 47174
otherwise disciplining any employee making a complaint, which rule 47175
shall provide for a financial penalty to be levied by the 47176
administrator payable by the offending self-insuring employer.47177

       (H) For the purpose of making determinations as to whether to 47178
grant status as a self-insuring employer, the administrator may 47179
subscribe to and pay for a credit reporting service that offers 47180
financial and other business information about individual 47181
employers. The costs in connection with the bureau's subscription 47182
or individual reports from the service about an applicant may be 47183
included in the application fee charged employers under this 47184
section.47185

       (I) The administrator, notwithstanding other provisions of 47186
this chapter, may permit a self-insuring employer to resume 47187
payment of premiums to the state insurance fund with appropriate 47188
credit modifications to the employer's basic premium rate as such 47189
rate is determined pursuant to section 4123.29 of the Revised 47190
Code.47191

       (J) On the first day of July of each year, the administrator 47192
shall calculate separately each self-insuring employer's 47193
assessments for the safety and hygiene fund, administrative costs 47194
pursuant to section 4123.342 of the Revised Code, and for the 47195
portion of the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 47196
of the Revised Code that is not used for handicapped 47197
reimbursement, on the basis of the paid compensation attributable 47198
to the individual self-insuring employer according to the 47199
following calculation:47200

       (1) The total assessment against all self-insuring employers 47201
as a class for each fund and for the administrative costs for the 47202
year that the assessment is being made, as determined by the 47203
administrator, divided by the total amount of paid compensation 47204
for the previous calendar year attributable to all amenable 47205
self-insuring employers;47206

       (2) Multiply the quotient in division (J)(1) of this section 47207
by the total amount of paid compensation for the previous calendar 47208
year that is attributable to the individual self-insuring employer 47209
for whom the assessment is being determined. Each self-insuring 47210
employer shall pay the assessment that results from this 47211
calculation, unless the assessment resulting from this calculation 47212
falls below a minimum assessment, which minimum assessment the 47213
administrator shall determine on the first day of July of each 47214
year with the advice and consent of the bureau of workers' 47215
compensation board of directors, in which event, the self-insuring 47216
employer shall pay the minimum assessment.47217

       In determining the total amount due for the total assessment 47218
against all self-insuring employers as a class for each fund and 47219
the administrative assessment, the administrator shall reduce 47220
proportionately the total for each fund and assessment by the 47221
amount of money in the self-insurance assessment fund as of the 47222
date of the computation of the assessment.47223

       The administrator shall calculate the assessment for the 47224
portion of the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 47225
of the Revised Code that is used for handicapped reimbursement in 47226
the same manner as set forth in divisions (J)(1) and (2) of this 47227
section except that the administrator shall calculate the total 47228
assessment for this portion of the surplus fund only on the basis 47229
of those self-insuring employers that retain participation in the 47230
handicapped reimbursement program and the individual self-insuring 47231
employer's proportion of paid compensation shall be calculated 47232
only for those self-insuring employers who retain participation in 47233
the handicapped reimbursement program. The administrator, as the 47234
administrator determines appropriate, may determine the total 47235
assessment for the handicapped portion of the surplus fund in 47236
accordance with sound actuarial principles.47237

       The administrator shall calculate the assessment for the 47238
portion of the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 47239
of the Revised Code that under division (D) of section 4121.66 of 47240
the Revised Code is used for rehabilitation costs in the same 47241
manner as set forth in divisions (J)(1) and (2) of this section, 47242
except that the administrator shall calculate the total assessment 47243
for this portion of the surplus fund only on the basis of those 47244
self-insuring employers who have not made the election to make 47245
payments directly under division (D) of section 4121.66 of the 47246
Revised Code and an individual self-insuring employer's proportion 47247
of paid compensation only for those self-insuring employers who 47248
have not made that election.47249

       The administrator shall calculate the assessment for the 47250
portion of the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 47251
of the Revised Code that is used for reimbursement to a 47252
self-insuring employer under division (H) of section 4123.512 of 47253
the Revised Code in the same manner as set forth in divisions 47254
(J)(1) and (2) of this section except that the administrator shall 47255
calculate the total assessment for this portion of the surplus 47256
fund only on the basis of those self-insuring employers that 47257
retain participation in reimbursement to the self-insuring 47258
employer under division (H) of section 4123.512 of the Revised 47259
Code and the individual self-insuring employer's proportion of 47260
paid compensation shall be calculated only for those self-insuring 47261
employers who retain participation in reimbursement to the 47262
self-insuring employer under division (H) of section 4123.512 of 47263
the Revised Code.47264

       An employer who no longer is a self-insuring employer in this 47265
state or who no longer is operating in this state, shall continue 47266
to pay assessments for administrative costs and for the portion of 47267
the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 of the 47268
Revised Code that is not used for handicapped reimbursement, based 47269
upon paid compensation attributable to claims that occurred while 47270
the employer was a self-insuring employer within this state.47271

       (K) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 47272
self-insurance assessment fund. All investment earnings of the 47273
fund shall be deposited in the fund. The administrator shall use 47274
the money in the self-insurance assessment fund only for 47275
administrative costs as specified in section 4123.341 of the 47276
Revised Code.47277

       (L) Every self-insuring employer shall certify, in affidavit 47278
form subject to the penalty for perjury, to the bureau the amount 47279
of the self-insuring employer's paid compensation for the previous 47280
calendar year. In reporting paid compensation paid for the 47281
previous year, a self-insuring employer shall exclude from the 47282
total amount of paid compensation any reimbursement the 47283
self-insuring employer receives in the previous calendar year from 47284
the surplus fund pursuant to section 4123.512 of the Revised Code 47285
for any paid compensation. The self-insuring employer also shall 47286
exclude from the paid compensation reported any amount recovered 47287
under section 4123.931 of the Revised Code and any amount that is 47288
determined not to have been payable to or on behalf of a claimant 47289
in any final administrative or judicial proceeding. The 47290
self-insuring employer shall exclude such amounts from the paid 47291
compensation reported in the reporting period subsequent to the 47292
date the determination is made. The administrator shall adopt 47293
rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that 47294
provide for all of the following:47295

       (1) Establishing the date by which self-insuring employers 47296
must submit such information and the amount of the assessments 47297
provided for in division (J) of this section for employers who 47298
have been granted self-insuring status within the last calendar 47299
year;47300

       (2) If an employer fails to pay the assessment when due, the 47301
administrator may add a late fee penalty of not more than five 47302
hundred dollars to the assessment plus an additional penalty 47303
amount as follows:47304

       (a) For an assessment from sixty-one to ninety days past due, 47305
the prime interest rate, multiplied by the assessment due;47306

       (b) For an assessment from ninety-one to one hundred twenty 47307
days past due, the prime interest rate plus two per cent, 47308
multiplied by the assessment due;47309

       (c) For an assessment from one hundred twenty-one to one 47310
hundred fifty days past due, the prime interest rate plus four per 47311
cent, multiplied by the assessment due;47312

       (d) For an assessment from one hundred fifty-one to one 47313
hundred eighty days past due, the prime interest rate plus six per 47314
cent, multiplied by the assessment due;47315

       (e) For an assessment from one hundred eighty-one to two 47316
hundred ten days past due, the prime interest rate plus eight per 47317
cent, multiplied by the assessment due;47318

       (f) For each additional thirty-day period or portion thereof 47319
that an assessment remains past due after it has remained past due 47320
for more than two hundred ten days, the prime interest rate plus 47321
eight per cent, multiplied by the assessment due.47322

        (3) An employer may appeal a late fee penalty and penalty 47323
assessment to the administrator.47324

        For purposes of division (L)(2) of this section, "prime 47325
interest rate" means the average bank prime rate, and the 47326
administrator shall determine the prime interest rate in the same 47327
manner as a county auditor determines the average bank prime rate 47328
under section 929.02 of the Revised Code.47329

       The administrator shall include any assessment and penalties 47330
that remain unpaid for previous assessment periods in the 47331
calculation and collection of any assessments due under this 47332
division or division (J) of this section.47333

       (M) As used in this section, "paid compensation" means all 47334
amounts paid by a self-insuring employer for living maintenance 47335
benefits, all amounts for compensation paid pursuant to sections 47336
4121.63, 4121.67, 4123.56, 4123.57, 4123.58, 4123.59, 4123.60, and 47337
4123.64 of the Revised Code, all amounts paid as wages in lieu of 47338
such compensation, all amounts paid in lieu of such compensation 47339
under a nonoccupational accident and sickness program fully funded 47340
by the self-insuring employer, and all amounts paid by a 47341
self-insuring employer for a violation of a specific safety 47342
standard pursuant to Section 35 of Article II, Ohio Constitution 47343
and section 4121.47 of the Revised Code.47344

       (N) Should any section of this chapter or Chapter 4121. of 47345
the Revised Code providing for self-insuring employers' 47346
assessments based upon compensation paid be declared 47347
unconstitutional by a final decision of any court, then that 47348
section of the Revised Code declared unconstitutional shall revert 47349
back to the section in existence prior to November 3, 1989, 47350
providing for assessments based upon payroll.47351

       (O) The administrator may grant a self-insuring employer the 47352
privilege to self-insure a construction project entered into by 47353
the self-insuring employer that is scheduled for completion within 47354
six years after the date the project begins, and the total cost of 47355
which is estimated to exceed one hundred million dollars or, for 47356
employers described in division (R) of this section, if the 47357
construction project is estimated to exceed twenty-five million 47358
dollars. The administrator may waive such cost and time criteria 47359
and grant a self-insuring employer the privilege to self-insure a 47360
construction project regardless of the time needed to complete the 47361
construction project and provided that the cost of the 47362
construction project is estimated to exceed fifty million dollars. 47363
A self-insuring employer who desires to self-insure a construction 47364
project shall submit to the administrator an application listing 47365
the dates the construction project is scheduled to begin and end, 47366
the estimated cost of the construction project, the contractors 47367
and subcontractors whose employees are to be self-insured by the 47368
self-insuring employer, the provisions of a safety program that is 47369
specifically designed for the construction project, and a 47370
statement as to whether a collective bargaining agreement 47371
governing the rights, duties, and obligations of each of the 47372
parties to the agreement with respect to the construction project 47373
exists between the self-insuring employer and a labor 47374
organization.47375

       A self-insuring employer may apply to self-insure the 47376
employees of either of the following:47377

       (1) All contractors and subcontractors who perform labor or 47378
work or provide materials for the construction project;47379

       (2) All contractors and, at the administrator's discretion, a 47380
substantial number of all the subcontractors who perform labor or 47381
work or provide materials for the construction project.47382

       Upon approval of the application, the administrator shall 47383
mail a certificate granting the privilege to self-insure the 47384
construction project to the self-insuring employer. The 47385
certificate shall contain the name of the self-insuring employer 47386
and the name, address, and telephone number of the self-insuring 47387
employer's representatives who are responsible for administering 47388
workers' compensation claims for the construction project. The 47389
self-insuring employer shall post the certificate in a conspicuous 47390
place at the site of the construction project.47391

       The administrator shall maintain a record of the contractors 47392
and subcontractors whose employees are covered under the 47393
certificate issued to the self-insured employer. A self-insuring 47394
employer immediately shall notify the administrator when any 47395
contractor or subcontractor is added or eliminated from inclusion 47396
under the certificate.47397

       Upon approval of the application, the self-insuring employer 47398
is responsible for the administration and payment of all claims 47399
under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code for the 47400
employees of the contractor and subcontractors covered under the 47401
certificate who receive injuries or are killed in the course of 47402
and arising out of employment on the construction project, or who 47403
contract an occupational disease in the course of employment on 47404
the construction project. For purposes of this chapter and Chapter 47405
4121. of the Revised Code, a claim that is administered and paid 47406
in accordance with this division is considered a claim against the 47407
self-insuring employer listed in the certificate. A contractor or 47408
subcontractor included under the certificate shall report to the 47409
self-insuring employer listed in the certificate, all claims that 47410
arise under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code in 47411
connection with the construction project for which the certificate 47412
is issued.47413

       A self-insuring employer who complies with this division is 47414
entitled to the protections provided under this chapter and 47415
Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code with respect to the employees of 47416
the contractors and subcontractors covered under a certificate 47417
issued under this division for death or injuries that arise out 47418
of, or death, injuries, or occupational diseases that arise in the 47419
course of, those employees' employment on that construction 47420
project, as if the employees were employees of the self-insuring 47421
employer, provided that the self-insuring employer also complies 47422
with this section. No employee of the contractors and 47423
subcontractors covered under a certificate issued under this 47424
division shall be considered the employee of the self-insuring 47425
employer listed in that certificate for any purposes other than 47426
this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code. Nothing in 47427
this division gives a self-insuring employer authority to control 47428
the means, manner, or method of employment of the employees of the 47429
contractors and subcontractors covered under a certificate issued 47430
under this division.47431

       The contractors and subcontractors included under a 47432
certificate issued under this division are entitled to the 47433
protections provided under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the 47434
Revised Code with respect to the contractor's or subcontractor's 47435
employees who are employed on the construction project which is 47436
the subject of the certificate, for death or injuries that arise 47437
out of, or death, injuries, or occupational diseases that arise in 47438
the course of, those employees' employment on that construction 47439
project.47440

       The contractors and subcontractors included under a 47441
certificate issued under this division shall identify in their 47442
payroll records the employees who are considered the employees of 47443
the self-insuring employer listed in that certificate for purposes 47444
of this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code, and the 47445
amount that those employees earned for employment on the 47446
construction project that is the subject of that certificate. 47447
Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary under this chapter 47448
and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code, the administrator shall 47449
exclude the payroll that is reported for employees who are 47450
considered the employees of the self-insuring employer listed in 47451
that certificate, and that the employees earned for employment on 47452
the construction project that is the subject of that certificate, 47453
when determining those contractors' or subcontractors' premiums or 47454
assessments required under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the 47455
Revised Code. A self-insuring employer issued a certificate under 47456
this division shall include in the amount of paid compensation it 47457
reports pursuant to division (L) of this section, the amount of 47458
paid compensation the self-insuring employer paid pursuant to this 47459
division for the previous calendar year.47460

       Nothing in this division shall be construed as altering the 47461
rights of employees under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the 47462
Revised Code as those rights existed prior to September 17, 1996. 47463
Nothing in this division shall be construed as altering the rights 47464
devolved under sections 2305.31 and 4123.82 of the Revised Code as 47465
those rights existed prior to September 17, 1996.47466

       As used in this division, "privilege to self-insure a 47467
construction project" means privilege to pay individually 47468
compensation, and to furnish medical, surgical, nursing, and 47469
hospital services and attention and funeral expenses directly to 47470
injured employees or the dependents of killed employees.47471

       (P) A self-insuring employer whose application is granted 47472
under division (O) of this section shall designate a safety 47473
professional to be responsible for the administration and 47474
enforcement of the safety program that is specifically designed 47475
for the construction project that is the subject of the 47476
application.47477

       A self-insuring employer whose application is granted under 47478
division (O) of this section shall employ an ombudsperson for the 47479
construction project that is the subject of the application. The 47480
ombudsperson shall have experience in workers' compensation or the 47481
construction industry, or both. The ombudsperson shall perform all 47482
of the following duties:47483

       (1) Communicate with and provide information to employees who 47484
are injured in the course of, or whose injury arises out of 47485
employment on the construction project, or who contract an 47486
occupational disease in the course of employment on the 47487
construction project;47488

       (2) Investigate the status of a claim upon the request of an 47489
employee to do so;47490

       (3) Provide information to claimants, third party 47491
administrators, employers, and other persons to assist those 47492
persons in protecting their rights under this chapter and Chapter 47493
4121. of the Revised Code.47494

       A self-insuring employer whose application is granted under 47495
division (O) of this section shall post the name of the safety 47496
professional and the ombudsperson and instructions for contacting 47497
the safety professional and the ombudsperson in a conspicuous 47498
place at the site of the construction project.47499

       (Q) The administrator may consider all of the following when 47500
deciding whether to grant a self-insuring employer the privilege 47501
to self-insure a construction project as provided under division 47502
(O) of this section:47503

       (1) Whether the self-insuring employer has an organizational 47504
plan for the administration of the workers' compensation law;47505

       (2) Whether the safety program that is specifically designed 47506
for the construction project provides for the safety of employees 47507
employed on the construction project, is applicable to all 47508
contractors and subcontractors who perform labor or work or 47509
provide materials for the construction project, and has as a 47510
component, a safety training program that complies with standards 47511
adopted pursuant to the "Occupational Safety and Health Act of 47512
1970," 84 Stat. 1590, 29 U.S.C.A. 651, and provides for continuing 47513
management and employee involvement;47514

       (3) Whether granting the privilege to self-insure the 47515
construction project will reduce the costs of the construction 47516
project;47517

       (4) Whether the self-insuring employer has employed an 47518
ombudsperson as required under division (P) of this section;47519

       (5) Whether the self-insuring employer has sufficient surety 47520
to secure the payment of claims for which the self-insuring 47521
employer would be responsible pursuant to the granting of the 47522
privilege to self-insure a construction project under division (O) 47523
of this section.47524

       (R) As used in divisions (O), (P), and (Q), "self-insuring 47525
employer" includes the following employers, whether or not they 47526
have been granted the status of being a self-insuring employer 47527
under division (B) of this section:47528

        (1) A state institution of higher education;47529

        (2) A school district;47530

        (3) A county school financing district;47531

        (4) An educational service center;47532

        (5) A community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 47533
Revised Code;47534

       (6) A municipal power agency as defined in section 3734.058 47535
of the Revised Code.47536

        (S) As used in this section:47537

       (1) "Unvoted debt capacity" means the amount of money that a 47538
public employer may borrow without voter approval of a tax levy;47539

       (2) "State institution of higher education" means the state 47540
universities listed in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, 47541
community colleges created pursuant to Chapter 3354. of the 47542
Revised Code, university branches created pursuant to Chapter 47543
3355. of the Revised Code, technical colleges created pursuant to 47544
Chapter 3357. of the Revised Code, and state community colleges 47545
created pursuant to Chapter 3358. of the Revised Code.47546

       Sec. 4123.57.  Partial disability compensation shall be paid 47547
as follows.47548

       Except as provided in this section, not earlier than 47549
twenty-six weeks after the date of termination of the latest 47550
period of payments under section 4123.56 of the Revised Code, or 47551
not earlier than twenty-six weeks after the date of the injury or 47552
contraction of an occupational disease in the absence of payments 47553
under section 4123.56 of the Revised Code, the employee may file 47554
an application with the bureau of workers' compensation for the 47555
determination of the percentage of the employee's permanent 47556
partial disability resulting from an injury or occupational 47557
disease.47558

       Whenever the application is filed, the bureau shall send a 47559
copy of the application to the employee's employer or the 47560
employer's representative and shall schedule the employee for a 47561
medical examination by the bureau medical section. The bureau 47562
shall send a copy of the report of the medical examination to the 47563
employee, the employer, and their representatives. Thereafter, the 47564
administrator of workers' compensation shall review the employee's 47565
claim file and make a tentative order as the evidence before the 47566
administrator at the time of the making of the order warrants. If 47567
the administrator determines that there is a conflict of evidence, 47568
the administrator shall send the application, along with the 47569
claimant's file, to the district hearing officer who shall set the 47570
application for a hearing.47571

       The administrator shall notify the employee, the employer, 47572
and their representatives, in writing, of the tentative order and 47573
of the parties' right to request a hearing. Unless the employee, 47574
the employer, or their representative notifies the administrator, 47575
in writing, of an objection to the tentative order within twenty 47576
days after receipt of the notice thereof, the tentative order 47577
shall go into effect and the employee shall receive the 47578
compensation provided in the order. In no event shall there be a 47579
reconsideration of a tentative order issued under this division.47580

       If the employee, the employer, or their representatives 47581
timely notify the administrator of an objection to the tentative 47582
order, the matter shall be referred to a district hearing officer 47583
who shall set the application for hearing with written notices to 47584
all interested persons. Upon referral to a district hearing 47585
officer, the employer may obtain a medical examination of the 47586
employee, pursuant to rules of the industrial commission.47587

       (A) The district hearing officer, upon the application, shall 47588
determine the percentage of the employee's permanent disability, 47589
except as is subject to division (B) of this section, based upon 47590
that condition of the employee resulting from the injury or 47591
occupational disease and causing permanent impairment evidenced by 47592
medical or clinical findings reasonably demonstrable. The employee 47593
shall receive sixty-six and two-thirds per cent of the employee's 47594
average weekly wage, but not more than a maximum of thirty-three 47595
and one-third per cent of the statewide average weekly wage as 47596
defined in division (C) of section 4123.62 of the Revised Code, 47597
per week regardless of the average weekly wage, for the number of 47598
weeks which equals the percentage of two hundred weeks. Except on 47599
application for reconsideration, review, or modification, which is 47600
filed within ten days after the date of receipt of the decision of 47601
the district hearing officer, in no instance shall the former 47602
award be modified unless it is found from medical or clinical 47603
findings that the condition of the claimant resulting from the 47604
injury has so progressed as to have increased the percentage of 47605
permanent partial disability. A staff hearing officer shall hear 47606
an application for reconsideration filed and the staff hearing 47607
officer's decision is final. An employee may file an application 47608
for a subsequent determination of the percentage of the employee's 47609
permanent disability. If such an application is filed, the bureau 47610
shall send a copy of the application to the employer or the 47611
employer's representative. No sooner than sixty days from the date 47612
of the mailing of the application to the employer or the 47613
employer's representative, the administrator shall review the 47614
application. The administrator may require a medical examination 47615
or medical review of the employee. The administrator shall issue a 47616
tentative order based upon the evidence before the administrator, 47617
provided that if the administrator requires a medical examination 47618
or medical review, the administrator shall not issue the tentative 47619
order until the completion of the examination or review.47620

       The employer may obtain a medical examination of the employee 47621
and may submit medical evidence at any stage of the process up to 47622
a hearing before the district hearing officer, pursuant to rules 47623
of the commission. The administrator shall notify the employee, 47624
the employer, and their representatives, in writing, of the nature 47625
and amount of any tentative order issued on an application 47626
requesting a subsequent determination of the percentage of an 47627
employee's permanent disability. An employee, employer, or their 47628
representatives may object to the tentative order within twenty 47629
days after the receipt of the notice thereof. If no timely 47630
objection is made, the tentative order shall go into effect. In no 47631
event shall there be a reconsideration of a tentative order issued 47632
under this division. If an objection is timely made, the 47633
application for a subsequent determination shall be referred to a 47634
district hearing officer who shall set the application for a 47635
hearing with written notice to all interested persons. No 47636
application for subsequent percentage determinations on the same 47637
claim for injury or occupational disease shall be accepted for 47638
review by the district hearing officer unless supported by 47639
substantial evidence of new and changed circumstances developing 47640
since the time of the hearing on the original or last 47641
determination.47642

       No award shall be made under this division based upon a 47643
percentage of disability which, when taken with all other 47644
percentages of permanent disability, exceeds one hundred per cent. 47645
If the percentage of the permanent disability of the employee 47646
equals or exceeds ninety per cent, compensation for permanent 47647
partial disability shall be paid for two hundred weeks.47648

       Compensation payable under this division accrues and is 47649
payable to the employee from the date of last payment of 47650
compensation, or, in cases where no previous compensation has been 47651
paid, from the date of the injury or the date of the diagnosis of 47652
the occupational disease.47653

       When an award under this division has been made prior to the 47654
death of an employee, all unpaid installments accrued or to accrue 47655
under the provisions of the award are payable to the surviving 47656
spouse, or if there is no surviving spouse, to the dependent 47657
children of the employee, and if there are no children surviving, 47658
then to other dependents as the administrator determines.47659

       (B) InFor purposes of this division, "payable per week" 47660
means the seven consecutive day period in which compensation is 47661
paid in installments according to the schedule associated with the 47662
applicable injury as set forth in this division.47663

       Compensation paid in weekly installments according to the 47664
schedule described in this division may only be commuted to one or 47665
more lump-sum payments pursuant to the procedure set forth in 47666
section 4123.64 of the Revised Code.47667

       In cases included in the following schedule the compensation 47668
payable per week to the employee is the statewide average weekly 47669
wage as defined in division (C) of section 4123.62 of the Revised 47670
Code per week and shall continue during the periods provided inbe 47671
paid in installments according to the following schedule:47672

       For the loss of a first finger, commonly known as a thumb, 47673
sixty weeks.47674

       For the loss of a second finger, commonly called index 47675
finger, thirty-five weeks.47676

       For the loss of a third finger, thirty weeks.47677

       For the loss of a fourth finger, twenty weeks.47678

       For the loss of a fifth finger, commonly known as the little 47679
finger, fifteen weeks.47680

       The loss of a second, or distal, phalange of the thumb is 47681
considered equal to the loss of one half of such thumb; the loss 47682
of more than one half of such thumb is considered equal to the 47683
loss of the whole thumb.47684

       The loss of the third, or distal, phalange of any finger is 47685
considered equal to the loss of one-third of the finger.47686

       The loss of the middle, or second, phalange of any finger is 47687
considered equal to the loss of two-thirds of the finger.47688

       The loss of more than the middle and distal phalanges of any 47689
finger is considered equal to the loss of the whole finger. In no 47690
case shall the amount received for more than one finger exceed the 47691
amount provided in this schedule for the loss of a hand.47692

       For the loss of the metacarpal bone (bones of the palm) for 47693
the corresponding thumb, or fingers, add ten weeks to the number 47694
of weeks under this division.47695

       For ankylosis (total stiffness of) or contractures (due to 47696
scars or injuries) which makes any of the fingers, thumbs, or 47697
parts of either useless, the same number of weeks apply to the 47698
members or parts thereof as given for the loss thereof.47699

       If the claimant has suffered the loss of two or more fingers 47700
by amputation or ankylosis and the nature of the claimant's 47701
employment in the course of which the claimant was working at the 47702
time of the injury or occupational disease is such that the 47703
handicap or disability resulting from the loss of fingers, or loss 47704
of use of fingers, exceeds the normal handicap or disability 47705
resulting from the loss of fingers, or loss of use of fingers, the 47706
administrator may take that fact into consideration and increase 47707
the award of compensation accordingly, but the award made shall 47708
not exceed the amount of compensation for loss of a hand.47709

       For the loss of a hand, one hundred seventy-five weeks.47710

       For the loss of an arm, two hundred twenty-five weeks.47711

       For the loss of a great toe, thirty weeks.47712

       For the loss of one of the toes other than the great toe, ten 47713
weeks.47714

       The loss of more than two-thirds of any toe is considered 47715
equal to the loss of the whole toe.47716

       The loss of less than two-thirds of any toe is considered no 47717
loss, except as to the great toe; the loss of the great toe up to 47718
the interphalangeal joint is co-equal to the loss of one-half of 47719
the great toe; the loss of the great toe beyond the 47720
interphalangeal joint is considered equal to the loss of the whole 47721
great toe.47722

       For the loss of a foot, one hundred fifty weeks.47723

       For the loss of a leg, two hundred weeks.47724

       For the loss of the sight of an eye, one hundred twenty-five 47725
weeks.47726

       For the permanent partial loss of sight of an eye, the 47727
portion of one hundred twenty-five weeks as the administrator in 47728
each case determines, based upon the percentage of vision actually 47729
lost as a result of the injury or occupational disease, but, in no 47730
case shall an award of compensation be made for less than 47731
twenty-five per cent loss of uncorrected vision. "Loss of 47732
uncorrected vision" means the percentage of vision actually lost 47733
as the result of the injury or occupational disease.47734

       For the permanent and total loss of hearing of one ear, 47735
twenty-five weeks; but in no case shall an award of compensation 47736
be made for less than permanent and total loss of hearing of one 47737
ear.47738

       For the permanent and total loss of hearing, one hundred 47739
twenty-five weeks; but, except pursuant to the next preceding 47740
paragraph, in no case shall an award of compensation be made for 47741
less than permanent and total loss of hearing.47742

       In case an injury or occupational disease results in serious 47743
facial or head disfigurement which either impairs or may in the 47744
future impair the opportunities to secure or retain employment, 47745
the administrator shall make an award of compensation as it deems 47746
proper and equitable, in view of the nature of the disfigurement, 47747
and not to exceed the sum of ten thousand dollars. For the purpose 47748
of making the award, it is not material whether the employee is 47749
gainfully employed in any occupation or trade at the time of the 47750
administrator's determination.47751

       When an award under this division has been made prior to the 47752
death of an employee all unpaid installments accrued or to accrue 47753
under the provisions of the award shall be payable to the 47754
surviving spouse, or if there is no surviving spouse, to the 47755
dependent children of the employee and if there are no such 47756
children, then to such dependents as the administrator determines.47757

       When an employee has sustained the loss of a member by 47758
severance, but no award has been made on account thereof prior to 47759
the employee's death, the administrator shall make an award in 47760
accordance with this division for the loss which shall be payable 47761
to the surviving spouse, or if there is no surviving spouse, to 47762
the dependent children of the employee and if there are no such 47763
children, then to such dependents as the administrator determines.47764

       (C) Compensation for partial impairment under divisions (A) 47765
and (B) of this section is in addition to the compensation paid 47766
the employee pursuant to section 4123.56 of the Revised Code. A 47767
claimant may receive compensation under divisions (A) and (B) of 47768
this section.47769

       In all cases arising under division (B) of this section, if 47770
it is determined by any one of the following: (1) the amputee 47771
clinic at University hospital, Ohio state university; (2) the 47772
rehabilitation services commission; (3) an amputee clinic or 47773
prescribing physician approved by the administrator or the 47774
administrator's designee, that an injured or disabled employee is 47775
in need of an artificial appliance, or in need of a repair 47776
thereof, regardless of whether the appliance or its repair will be 47777
serviceable in the vocational rehabilitation of the injured 47778
employee, and regardless of whether the employee has returned to 47779
or can ever again return to any gainful employment, the bureau 47780
shall pay the cost of the artificial appliance or its repair out 47781
of the surplus created by division (B) of section 4123.34 of the 47782
Revised Code.47783

       In those cases where a rehabilitation services commission 47784
recommendation that an injured or disabled employee is in need of 47785
an artificial appliance would conflict with their state plan, 47786
adopted pursuant to the "Rehabilitation Act of 1973," 87 Stat. 47787
355, 29 U.S.C.A. 701, the administrator or the administrator's 47788
designee or the bureau may obtain a recommendation from an amputee 47789
clinic or prescribing physician that they determine appropriate.47790

       (D) If an employee of a state fund employer makes application 47791
for a finding and the administrator finds that the employee has 47792
contracted silicosis as defined in division (X), or coal miners' 47793
pneumoconiosis as defined in division (Y), or asbestosis as 47794
defined in division (AA) of section 4123.68 of the Revised Code, 47795
and that a change of such employee's occupation is medically 47796
advisable in order to decrease substantially further exposure to 47797
silica dust, asbestos, or coal dust and if the employee, after the 47798
finding, has changed or shall change the employee's occupation to 47799
an occupation in which the exposure to silica dust, asbestos, or 47800
coal dust is substantially decreased, the administrator shall 47801
allow to the employee an amount equal to fifty per cent of the 47802
statewide average weekly wage per week for a period of thirty 47803
weeks, commencing as of the date of the discontinuance or change, 47804
and for a period of one hundred weeks immediately following the 47805
expiration of the period of thirty weeks, the employee shall 47806
receive sixty-six and two-thirds per cent of the loss of wages 47807
resulting directly and solely from the change of occupation but 47808
not to exceed a maximum of an amount equal to fifty per cent of 47809
the statewide average weekly wage per week. No such employee is 47810
entitled to receive more than one allowance on account of 47811
discontinuance of employment or change of occupation and benefits 47812
shall cease for any period during which the employee is employed 47813
in an occupation in which the exposure to silica dust, asbestos, 47814
or coal dust is not substantially less than the exposure in the 47815
occupation in which the employee was formerly employed or for any 47816
period during which the employee may be entitled to receive 47817
compensation or benefits under section 4123.68 of the Revised Code 47818
on account of disability from silicosis, asbestosis, or coal 47819
miners' pneumoconiosis. An award for change of occupation for a 47820
coal miner who has contracted coal miners' pneumoconiosis may be 47821
granted under this division even though the coal miner continues 47822
employment with the same employer, so long as the coal miner's 47823
employment subsequent to the change is such that the coal miner's 47824
exposure to coal dust is substantially decreased and a change of 47825
occupation is certified by the claimant as permanent. The 47826
administrator may accord to the employee medical and other 47827
benefits in accordance with section 4123.66 of the Revised Code.47828

       (E) If a firefighter or police officer makes application for 47829
a finding and the administrator finds that the firefighter or 47830
police officer has contracted a cardiovascular and pulmonary 47831
disease as defined in division (W) of section 4123.68 of the 47832
Revised Code, and that a change of the firefighter's or police 47833
officer's occupation is medically advisable in order to decrease 47834
substantially further exposure to smoke, toxic gases, chemical 47835
fumes, and other toxic vapors, and if the firefighter, or police 47836
officer, after the finding, has changed or changes occupation to 47837
an occupation in which the exposure to smoke, toxic gases, 47838
chemical fumes, and other toxic vapors is substantially decreased, 47839
the administrator shall allow to the firefighter or police officer 47840
an amount equal to fifty per cent of the statewide average weekly 47841
wage per week for a period of thirty weeks, commencing as of the 47842
date of the discontinuance or change, and for a period of 47843
seventy-five weeks immediately following the expiration of the 47844
period of thirty weeks the administrator shall allow the 47845
firefighter or police officer sixty-six and two-thirds per cent of 47846
the loss of wages resulting directly and solely from the change of 47847
occupation but not to exceed a maximum of an amount equal to fifty 47848
per cent of the statewide average weekly wage per week. No such 47849
firefighter or police officer is entitled to receive more than one 47850
allowance on account of discontinuance of employment or change of 47851
occupation and benefits shall cease for any period during which 47852
the firefighter or police officer is employed in an occupation in 47853
which the exposure to smoke, toxic gases, chemical fumes, and 47854
other toxic vapors is not substantially less than the exposure in 47855
the occupation in which the firefighter or police officer was 47856
formerly employed or for any period during which the firefighter 47857
or police officer may be entitled to receive compensation or 47858
benefits under section 4123.68 of the Revised Code on account of 47859
disability from a cardiovascular and pulmonary disease. The 47860
administrator may accord to the firefighter or police officer 47861
medical and other benefits in accordance with section 4123.66 of 47862
the Revised Code.47863

       (F) An order issued under this section is appealable pursuant 47864
to section 4123.511 of the Revised Code but is not appealable to 47865
court under section 4123.512 of the Revised Code.47866

       Sec. 4141.35.  (A) If the director of job and family services 47867
finds that any fraudulent misrepresentation has been made by an 47868
applicant for or a recipient of benefits with the object of 47869
obtaining benefits to which the applicant or recipient was not 47870
entitled, and in addition to any other penalty or forfeiture under 47871
this chapter, then the director:47872

       (1) Shall within four years after the end of the benefit year 47873
in which the fraudulent misrepresentation was made reject or 47874
cancel such person's entire weekly claim for benefits that was 47875
fraudulently claimed, or the person's entire benefit rights if the 47876
misrepresentation was in connection with the filing of the 47877
claimant's application for determination of benefit rights;47878

       (2) Shall by order declare that, for each application for 47879
benefit rights and for each weekly claim canceled, such person 47880
shall be ineligible for two otherwise valid weekly claims for 47881
benefits, claimed within six years subsequent to the discovery of 47882
such misrepresentation;47883

       (3) By order shall require that the total amount of benefits 47884
rejected or canceled under division (A)(1) of this section be 47885
repaid to the director before such person may become eligible for 47886
further benefits, and shall withhold such unpaid sums from future 47887
benefit payments accruing and otherwise payable to such claimant. 47888
Effective with orders issued on or after January 1, 1993, if such 47889
benefits are not repaid within thirty days after the director's 47890
order becomes final, interest on the amount remaining unpaid shall 47891
be charged to the person at a rate and calculated in the same 47892
manner as provided under section 4141.23 of the Revised Code. When 47893
a person ordered to repay benefits has repaid all overpaid 47894
benefits according to a plan approved by the director, the 47895
director may cancel the amount of interest that accrued during the 47896
period of the repayment plan. The director may take action in the 47897
courtsany court of this statecompetent jurisdiction to collect 47898
benefits and interest as provided in sections 4141.23 and 4141.27 47899
of the Revised Code, in regard to the collection of unpaid 47900
contributions, using the final repayment order as the basis for 47901
such action. NoExcept as otherwise provided in this division, no47902
administrative or legal proceedings for the collection of such 47903
benefits or interest due shall be initiated after the expiration 47904
of six years from the date on which the director's order requiring 47905
repayment became final and the amount of any benefits or interest 47906
not recovered at that time, and any liens thereon, shall be 47907
canceled as uncollectible. The time limit for instituting 47908
proceedings shall be extended by the period of any stay to the 47909
collection or by any other time period to which the parties 47910
mutually agree.47911

       (4) May take action to collect benefits fraudulently obtained 47912
under the unemployment compensation law of any other state or the 47913
United States or Canada. Such action may be initiated in the 47914
courts of this state in the same manner as provided for unpaid 47915
contributions in section 4141.41 of the Revised Code.47916

       (5) May take action to collect benefits that have been 47917
fraudulently obtained from the director, interest pursuant to 47918
division (A)(3) of this section, and court costs, through 47919
attachment proceedings under Chapter 2715. of the Revised Code and 47920
garnishment proceedings under Chapter 2716. of the Revised Code.47921

       (B) If the director finds that an applicant for benefits has 47922
been credited with a waiting period or paid benefits to which the 47923
applicant was not entitled for reasons other than fraudulent 47924
misrepresentation, the director shall:47925

       (1)(a) Within six months after the determination under which 47926
the claimant was credited with that waiting period or paid 47927
benefits becomes final pursuant to section 4141.28 of the Revised 47928
Code, or within three years after the end of the benefit year in 47929
which such benefits were claimed, whichever is later, by order 47930
cancel such waiting period and require that such benefits be 47931
repaid to the director or be withheld from any benefits to which 47932
such applicant is or may become entitled before any additional 47933
benefits are paid, provided that the repayment or withholding 47934
shall not be required where the overpayment is the result of the 47935
director's correcting a prior decision due to a typographical or 47936
clerical error in the director's prior decision, or an error in an 47937
employer's report under division (G) of section 4141.28 of the 47938
Revised Code.47939

       (b) The limitation specified in division (B)(1)(a) of this 47940
section shall not apply to cases involving the retroactive payment 47941
of remuneration covering periods for which benefits were 47942
previously paid to the claimant. However, in such cases, the 47943
director's order requiring repayment shall not be issued unless 47944
the director is notified of such retroactive payment within six 47945
months from the date the retroactive payment was made to the 47946
claimant.47947

       (2) The director may, by reciprocal agreement with the United 47948
States secretary of labor or another state, recover overpayment 47949
amounts from unemployment benefits otherwise payable to an 47950
individual under Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code. Any 47951
overpayments made to the individual that have not previously been 47952
recovered under an unemployment benefit program of the United 47953
States may be recovered in accordance with section 303(g) of the 47954
"Social Security Act" and sections 3304(a)(4) and 3306(f) of the 47955
"Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 47956
3301 to 3311.47957

       (3) If the amounts required to be repaid under division (B) 47958
of this section are not recovered within three years from the date 47959
the director's order requiring payment became final, initiate no 47960
further action to collect such benefits and the amount of any 47961
benefits not recovered at that time shall be canceled as 47962
uncollectible, provided that the time limit for collection shall 47963
be extended by the period of any stay to the collection or by any 47964
other time period to which the parties mutually agree.47965

       (C) The appeal provisions of sections 4141.281 and 4141.282 47966
of the Revised Code shall apply to all orders and determinations 47967
issued under this section, except that an individual's right of 47968
appeal under division (B)(2) of this section shall be limited to 47969
this state's authority to recover overpayment of benefits.47970

       (D) If an individual makes a full repayment or a repayment 47971
that is less than the full amount required by this section, the 47972
director shall apply the repayment to the mutualized account under 47973
division (B) of section 4141.25 of the Revised Code, except that 47974
the director shall credit the repayment to the accounts of the 47975
individual's base period employers that previously have not been 47976
credited for the amount of improperly paid benefits charged 47977
against their accounts based on the proportion of benefits charged 47978
against the accounts as determined pursuant to division (D) of 47979
section 4141.24 of the Revised Code.47980

       The director shall deposit any repayment collected under this 47981
section that the director determines to be payment of interest or 47982
court costs into the unemployment compensation special 47983
administrative fund established pursuant to section 4141.11 of the 47984
Revised Code.47985

       Sec. 4163.07.  (A)(1) Prior to transporting any high-level 47986
radioactive waste, spent nuclear fuel, transuranic waste, or any 47987
quantity of special nuclear material or by-product material that 47988
meets or exceeds the highway route controlled quantity, within, 47989
into, or through the state, the shipper of the material shall 47990
notify the executive director of the emergency management agency 47991
established under section 5502.22 of the Revised Code of the 47992
shipment. The notice shall be in writing and be sent by certified 47993
mail and shall include the name of the shipper; the name of the 47994
carrier; the type and quantity of the material; the transportation 47995
mode of the shipment; the proposed date and time of shipment of 47996
the material within, into, or through the state; and the starting 47997
point, termination or exit point, scheduled route, and each 47998
alternate route, if any, of the shipment. In order to constitute 47999
effective notification under division (A)(1) of this section, 48000
notification shall be received by the executive director at least 48001
four days prior to shipment within, into, or through the state.48002

       (2) The carrier or shipper of any shipment subject to 48003
division (A)(1) of this section shall immediately notify the 48004
executive director of any change in the date and time of the 48005
shipment or in the route of the shipment within, into, or through 48006
the state.48007

       (B) Upon receipt of a notice of any shipment of material that 48008
is subject to division (A)(1) of this section within, into, or 48009
through the state, the executive director of the emergency 48010
management agency shall immediately notify the director of public 48011
safety, the director of environmental protection, the director of 48012
health, the chairperson of the public utilities commission, and 48013
the county emergency management agency and sheriff of each county 48014
along the proposed route, or any alternate route, of the shipment.48015

       (C) The executive director of the emergency management agency 48016
shall not disclose to any person other than those persons 48017
enumerated in division (B) of this section any information 48018
pertaining to any shipment of special nuclear material or 48019
by-product material prior to the time that the shipment is 48020
completed.48021

       (D) This section does not apply to radioactive materials, 48022
other than by-products, shipped by or for the United States 48023
department of defense and United States department of energy for 48024
military or national defense purposes. Nothing in this section 48025
requires the disclosure of any defense information or restricted 48026
data as defined in the "Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 68 Stat. 919, 48027
42 U.S.C. 2011, as amended.48028

       (E) No person shall transport or cause to be transported 48029
within, into, or through the state any material that is subject to 48030
division (A)(1) of this section without first providing the notice 48031
required in that division.48032

       (F) Whoever violates division (E) of this section, in 48033
addition to any penalty imposed under section 4163.99 of the 48034
Revised Code, is liable for a civil penalty in an amount not to 48035
exceed the following, as applicable:48036

       (1) Twenty-five thousand dollars for a motor carrier, as 48037
defined in section 4923.01 of the Revised Code;48038

       (2) Forty-five thousand dollars for the first cask designated 48039
for transport by rail and thirty thousand dollars for each 48040
additional cask designated for transport by rail that is shipped 48041
by the same person or entity in the same shipment.48042

       The attorney general, upon the request of the executive 48043
director of the emergency management agency, shall bring a civil 48044
action to collect the penalty. Fines collected pursuant to this 48045
section shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit 48046
of the radioactive wastepublic utilities transportation safety48047
fund created in section 4905.8014921.21 of the Revised Code.48048

       Sec. 4169.02.  (A) For the purposes of regulating the 48049
construction, maintenance, mechanical operation, and inspection of 48050
passenger tramways that are associated with ski areas and of 48051
registering operators of passenger tramways in this state, there 48052
is hereby established in the division of laborindustrial 48053
compliance in the department of commerce a ski tramway board to be 48054
appointed by the governor, with the advice and consent of the 48055
senate. The board shall consist of three members, one of whom 48056
shall be a public member who is an experienced skier and familiar 48057
with ski areas in this state, one of whom shall be a ski area 48058
operator actively engaged in the business of recreational skiing 48059
in this state, and one of whom shall be a professional engineer 48060
who is knowledgeable in the design or operation of passenger 48061
tramways.48062

       Of the initial appointments, one member shall be appointed 48063
for a term of one year, one for a term of two years, and one for a 48064
term of three years. The member appointed to the term beginning on 48065
July 1, 1996, shall be appointed to a term ending on June 30, 48066
1997; the member appointed to a term beginning on July 1, 1997, 48067
shall be appointed to a term ending on June 30, 1999; and the 48068
member appointed to a term beginning on July 1, 1998, shall be 48069
appointed to a term ending on June 30, 2001. Thereafter, each of 48070
the members shall be appointed for a term of six years. Each 48071
member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the 48072
end of the term for which the member was appointed. In the event 48073
of a vacancy, the governor, with the advice and consent of the 48074
senate, shall appoint a successor who shall hold office for the 48075
remainder of the term for which the successor's predecessor was 48076
appointed. A member shall continue in office subsequent to the 48077
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 48078
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 48079
whichever occurs first. The board shall elect a chairperson from 48080
its members.48081

       The governor may remove any member of the board at any time 48082
for misfeasance, nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office after 48083
giving the member a copy of the charges against the member and an 48084
opportunity to be heard publicly in person or by counsel in the 48085
member's defense. Any such act of removal by the governor is 48086
final. A statement of the findings of the governor, the reason for 48087
the governor's action, and the answer, if any, of the member shall 48088
be filed by the governor with the secretary of state and shall be 48089
open to public inspection.48090

       Members of the board shall be paid two hundred fifty dollars 48091
for each meeting that the member attends, except that no member 48092
shall be paid or receive more than seven hundred fifty dollars for 48093
attending meetings during any calendar year. Each member shall be 48094
reimbursed for the member's actual and necessary expenses incurred 48095
in the performance of official board duties. The chairperson shall 48096
be paid two hundred fifty dollars annually in addition to any 48097
compensation the chairperson receives under this division for 48098
attending meetings and any other compensation the chairperson 48099
receives for serving on the board.48100

       The division shall provide the board with such offices and 48101
such clerical, professional, and other assistance as may be 48102
reasonably necessary for the board to carry on its work. The 48103
division shall maintain accurate copies of the board's rules as 48104
promulgated in accordance with division (B) of this section and 48105
shall keep all of the board's records, including business records, 48106
and inspection reports as well as its own records and reports. The 48107
cost of administering the board and conducting inspections shall 48108
be included in the budget of the division based on revenues 48109
generated by the registration fees established under section 48110
4169.03 of the Revised Code.48111

       (B) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 48112
board shall adopt and may amend or rescind rules relating to 48113
public safety in the construction, maintenance, mechanical 48114
operation, and inspection of passenger tramways. The rules shall 48115
be in accordance with established standards in the business of ski 48116
area operation, if any, and shall not discriminate in their 48117
application to ski area operators.48118

       No person shall violate the rules of the board.48119

       (C) The authority of the board shall not extend to any matter 48120
relative to the operation of a ski area other than the 48121
construction, maintenance, mechanical operation, and inspection of 48122
passenger tramways.48123

       (D) A majority of the board constitutes a quorum and may 48124
perform and exercise all the duties and powers devolving upon the 48125
board.48126

       Sec. 4169.03.  (A) Before a passenger tramway operator may 48127
operate any passenger tramway in the state, the operator shall 48128
apply to the ski tramway board, on forms prepared by it, for 48129
registration by the board. The application shall contain an 48130
inventory of the passenger tramways that the applicant intends to 48131
operate and other information as the board may reasonably require 48132
and shall be accompanied by the following annual fees:48133

       (1) Each aerial passenger tramway, five hundred dollars;48134

       (2) Each skimobile, two hundred dollars;48135

       (3) Each chair lift, two hundred dollars;48136

       (4) Each J bar, T bar, or platter pull, one hundred dollars;48137

       (5) Each rope tow, fifty dollars;48138

       (6) Each wire rope tow, seventy-five dollars;48139

        (7) Each conveyor, one hundred dollars.48140

       When an operator operates an aerial passenger tramway, a 48141
skimobile, or a chair lift during both a winter and summer season, 48142
the annual fee shall be one and one-half the above amount for the 48143
respective passenger tramway.48144

       (B) Upon payment of the appropriate annual fees in accordance 48145
with division (A) of this section, the board shall issue a 48146
registration certificate to the operator. Each certificate shall 48147
remain in force until the thirtieth day of September next ensuing. 48148
The board shall renew an operator's certificate in accordance with 48149
the standard renewal procedure in Chapter 4745. of the Revised 48150
Code upon payment of the appropriate annual fees.48151

       (C) Money received from the registration fees and from the 48152
fines collected pursuant to section 4169.99 of the Revised Code 48153
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the labor48154
industrial compliance operating fund created in section 121.084 of 48155
the Revised Code.48156

       (D) No person shall operate a passenger tramway in this state 48157
unless the person has been registered by the board.48158

       Sec. 4169.04.  (A) The division of laborindustrial 48159
compliance in the department of commerce shall make such 48160
inspection of the construction, maintenance, and mechanical 48161
operation of passenger tramways as the ski tramway board may 48162
reasonably require. The division may contract with other qualified 48163
engineers to make such inspection or may accept the inspection 48164
report by any qualified inspector of an insurance company 48165
authorized to insure passenger tramways in this state.48166

       (B) If, as the result of an inspection, an employee of the 48167
division or other agent with whom the division has contracted 48168
finds that a violation of the board's rules exists or a condition 48169
in passenger tramway construction, maintenance, or mechanical 48170
operation exists that endangers public safety, the employee or 48171
agent shall make an immediate report to the board for appropriate 48172
investigation and order.48173

       Sec. 4171.04.  (A) Before a person may operate any roller 48174
skating rink in the state, the person shall:48175

       (1) Apply to the superintendent of laborindustrial 48176
compliance in the department of commerce on forms designated by 48177
the superintendent for a certificate of registration;48178

       (2) Provide an inventory of all the roller skating rinks that 48179
the applicant intends to operate, and any other information the 48180
superintendent may reasonably require on the application;48181

       (3) Include with the application a registration fee of 48182
twenty-five dollars for each roller skating rink to be operated by 48183
the applicant.48184

       (B) Upon compliance with division (A) of this section, the 48185
superintendent shall issue a certificate of registration to the 48186
operator for each roller skating rink to be operated by the 48187
applicant. Each certificate shall remain in force as follows:48188

       (1) Until the thirty-first day of December next ensuing; or48189

       (2) For sixty days after the dissolution of a partnership.48190

       (C) In case of the dissolution of a partnership by death, the 48191
surviving partner or partners may operate a roller skating rink 48192
pursuant to the certificate of registration obtained by the 48193
partnership in accordance with this chapter for a period of sixty 48194
days following dissolution. The heirs or representatives of 48195
deceased persons and receivers or trustees in bankruptcy appointed 48196
by any competent authority may operate under the certificate of 48197
registration of the person succeeded in possession.48198

       (D) The superintendent shall renew an operator's certificate 48199
of registration in accordance with the standard license renewal 48200
procedure set forth in Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code upon 48201
payment of a renewal fee of twenty-five dollars for each roller 48202
skating rink to be operated by the applicant.48203

       (E) Money received from the registration and renewal fees 48204
collected pursuant to this chapter shall be paid into the state 48205
treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial compliance48206
operating fund created in section 121.084 of the Revised Code.48207

       Sec. 4301.30. (A) All fees collected by the division of 48208
liquor control shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 48209
credit of the undivided liquor permit fund, which is hereby 48210
created, at the time prescribed under section 4301.12 of the 48211
Revised Code. Each payment shall be accompanied by a statement 48212
showing separately the amount collected for each class of permits 48213
in each municipal corporation and in each township outside the 48214
limits of any municipal corporation in such township. An48215

       (B)(1) An amount equal to forty-five per cent of the fund 48216
shall be paid from the fund into the state liquor regulatory fund, 48217
which is hereby created in the state treasury. The state liquor 48218
regulatory fund shall be used to pay the operating expenses of the 48219
division of liquor control in administering and enforcing Title 48220
XLIII of the Revised Code and the operating expenses of the liquor 48221
control commission. Investment earnings of the fund shall be 48222
credited to the fund.48223

       (2) Whenever, in the judgment of the director of budget and 48224
management, the amount of money that is in the state liquor 48225
regulatory fund is in excess of the amount that is needed to pay 48226
the operating expenses of the division in administering and 48227
enforcing Title XLIII of the Revised Code and the operating 48228
expenses of the commission, the director shall credit the excess 48229
amount to the general revenue fund.48230

       (C) Twenty per cent of the undivided liquor permit fund shall 48231
be paid into the statewide treatment and prevention fund, which is 48232
hereby created in the state treasury. This amount shall be 48233
appropriated by the general assembly, together with an amount 48234
equal to one and one-half per cent of the gross profit of the 48235
division of liquor control derived under division (B)(4) of 48236
section 4301.10 of the Revised Code, to the department of alcohol 48237
and drug addiction services. In planning for the allocation of and 48238
in allocating these amounts for the purposes of Chapter 3793. of 48239
the Revised Code, the department of alcohol and drug addiction 48240
services shall comply with the nondiscrimination provisions of 48241
Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, and any rules adopted 48242
under that act.48243

       (D) Thirty-five per cent of the undivided liquor permit fund 48244
shall be distributed by the superintendent of liquor control at 48245
quarterly calendar periods as follows:48246

       (A)(1) To each municipal corporation, the aggregate amount 48247
shown by the statements to have been collected from permits in the 48248
municipal corporation, for the use of the general fund of the 48249
municipal corporation;48250

       (B)(2) To each township, the aggregate amount shown by the 48251
statements to have been collected from permits in its territory, 48252
outside the limits of any municipal corporation located in the 48253
township, for the use of the general fund of the township, or for 48254
fire protection purposes, including buildings and equipment in the 48255
township or in an established fire district within the township, 48256
to the extent that the funds are derived from liquor permits 48257
within the territory comprising such fire district.48258

       (E) For the purpose of the distribution required by this 48259
section, E, H, and D permits covering boats or vessels are deemed 48260
to have been issued in the municipal corporation or township 48261
wherein the owner or operator of the vehicle, boat, vessel, or 48262
dining car equipment to which the permit relates has the owner's 48263
or operator's principal office or place of business within the 48264
state.48265

       (F) If the liquor control commission determines that the 48266
police or other officers of any municipal corporation or township 48267
entitled to share in such distributions under this section are 48268
refusing or culpably neglecting to enforce this chapter and 48269
Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code, or the penal laws of this state 48270
relating to the manufacture, importation, transportation, 48271
distribution, and sale of beer and intoxicating liquors, or if the 48272
prosecuting officer of a municipal corporation or a municipal 48273
court fails to comply with the request of the commission 48274
authorized by division (A)(4) of section 4301.10 of the Revised 48275
Code, the commission, by certified mail, may notify the chief 48276
executive officer of the municipal corporation or the board of 48277
township trustees of the township of the failure and require the 48278
immediate cooperation of the responsible officers of the municipal 48279
corporation or township with the division of liquor control in the 48280
enforcement of those chapters and penal laws. Within thirty days 48281
after the notice is served, the commission shall determine whether 48282
the requirement has been complied with. If the commission 48283
determines that the requirement has not been complied with, it may 48284
issue an order to the superintendent to withhold the distributive 48285
share of the municipal corporation or township until further order 48286
of the commission. This action of the commission is reviewable 48287
within thirty days thereafter in the court of common pleas of 48288
Franklin county.48289

       (G) All fees collected by the division of liquor control from 48290
the issuance or renewal of B-2a and S permits, and paid by B-2a 48291
and S permit holders who do not also hold A-2 permits, shall be 48292
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the state liquor 48293
controlregulatory fund. Once during each fiscal year, an amount 48294
equal to fifty per cent of the fees collected shall be paid from 48295
the state liquor controlregulatory fund into the general revenue 48296
fund.48297

       Sec. 4303.181.  (A) Permit D-5a may be issued either to the 48298
owner or operator of a hotel or motel that is required to be 48299
licensed under section 3731.03 of the Revised Code, that contains 48300
at least fifty rooms for registered transient guests or is owned 48301
by a state institution of higher education as defined in section 48302
3345.011 of the Revised Code or a private college or university, 48303
and that qualifies under the other requirements of this section, 48304
or to the owner or operator of a restaurant specified under this 48305
section, to sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only 48306
by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for 48307
consumption on the premises where sold, and to registered guests 48308
in their rooms, which may be sold by means of a controlled access 48309
alcohol and beverage cabinet in accordance with division (B) of 48310
section 4301.21 of the Revised Code; and to sell the same products 48311
in the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises 48312
as may be sold by holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The premises of 48313
the hotel or motel shall include a retail food establishment or a 48314
food service operation licensed pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the 48315
Revised Code that operates as a restaurant for purposes of this 48316
chapter and that is affiliated with the hotel or motel and within 48317
or contiguous to the hotel or motel, and that serves food within 48318
the hotel or motel, but the principal business of the owner or 48319
operator of the hotel or motel shall be the accommodation of 48320
transient guests. In addition to the privileges authorized in this 48321
division, the holder of a D-5a permit may exercise the same 48322
privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.48323

       The owner or operator of a hotel, motel, or restaurant who 48324
qualified for and held a D-5a permit on August 4, 1976, may, if 48325
the owner or operator held another permit before holding a D-5a 48326
permit, either retain a D-5a permit or apply for the permit 48327
formerly held, and the division of liquor control shall issue the 48328
permit for which the owner or operator applies and formerly held, 48329
notwithstanding any quota.48330

       A D-5a permit shall not be transferred to another location. 48331
No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of D-5a permits 48332
that may be issued.48333

       The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 48334
forty-four dollars.48335

       (B) Permit D-5b may be issued to the owner, operator, tenant, 48336
lessee, or occupant of an enclosed shopping center to sell beer 48337
and intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 48338
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 48339
where sold; and to sell the same products in the same manner and 48340
amount not for consumption on the premises as may be sold by 48341
holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges 48342
authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5b permit may 48343
exercise the same privileges as a holder of a D-5 permit.48344

       A D-5b permit shall not be transferred to another location.48345

       One D-5b permit may be issued at an enclosed shopping center 48346
containing at least two hundred twenty-five thousand, but less 48347
than four hundred thousand, square feet of floor area.48348

       Two D-5b permits may be issued at an enclosed shopping center 48349
containing at least four hundred thousand square feet of floor 48350
area. No more than one D-5b permit may be issued at an enclosed 48351
shopping center for each additional two hundred thousand square 48352
feet of floor area or fraction of that floor area, up to a maximum 48353
of five D-5b permits for each enclosed shopping center. The number 48354
of D-5b permits that may be issued at an enclosed shopping center 48355
shall be determined by subtracting the number of D-3 and D-5 48356
permits issued in the enclosed shopping center from the number of 48357
D-5b permits that otherwise may be issued at the enclosed shopping 48358
center under the formulas provided in this division. Except as 48359
provided in this section, no quota shall be placed on the number 48360
of D-5b permits that may be issued. Notwithstanding any quota 48361
provided in this section, the holder of any D-5b permit first 48362
issued in accordance with this section is entitled to its renewal 48363
in accordance with section 4303.271 of the Revised Code.48364

       The holder of a D-5b permit issued before April 4, 1984, 48365
whose tenancy is terminated for a cause other than nonpayment of 48366
rent, may return the D-5b permit to the division of liquor 48367
control, and the division shall cancel that permit. Upon 48368
cancellation of that permit and upon the permit holder's payment 48369
of taxes, contributions, premiums, assessments, and other debts 48370
owing or accrued upon the date of cancellation to this state and 48371
its political subdivisions and a filing with the division of a 48372
certification of that payment, the division shall issue to that 48373
person either a D-5 permit, or a D-1, a D-2, and a D-3 permit, as 48374
that person requests. The division shall issue the D-5 permit, or 48375
the D-1, D-2, and D-3 permits, even if the number of D-1, D-2, 48376
D-3, or D-5 permits currently issued in the municipal corporation 48377
or in the unincorporated area of the township where that person's 48378
proposed premises is located equals or exceeds the maximum number 48379
of such permits that can be issued in that municipal corporation 48380
or in the unincorporated area of that township under the 48381
population quota restrictions contained in section 4303.29 of the 48382
Revised Code. Any D-1, D-2, D-3, or D-5 permit so issued shall not 48383
be transferred to another location. If a D-5b permit is canceled 48384
under the provisions of this paragraph, the number of D-5b permits 48385
that may be issued at the enclosed shopping center for which the 48386
D-5b permit was issued, under the formula provided in this 48387
division, shall be reduced by one if the enclosed shopping center 48388
was entitled to more than one D-5b permit under the formula.48389

       The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 48390
forty-four dollars.48391

       (C) Permit D-5c may be issued to the owner or operator of a 48392
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 48393
pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 48394
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that qualifies under 48395
the other requirements of this section to sell beer and any 48396
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 48397
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 48398
where sold, and to sell the same products in the same manner and 48399
amounts not for consumption on the premises as may be sold by 48400
holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges 48401
authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5c permit may 48402
exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.48403

       To qualify for a D-5c permit, the owner or operator of a 48404
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 48405
pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 48406
restaurant for purposes of this chapter, shall have operated the 48407
restaurant at the proposed premises for not less than twenty-four 48408
consecutive months immediately preceding the filing of the 48409
application for the permit, have applied for a D-5 permit no later 48410
than December 31, 1988, and appear on the division's quota waiting 48411
list for not less than six months immediately preceding the filing 48412
of the application for the permit. In addition to these 48413
requirements, the proposed D-5c permit premises shall be located 48414
within a municipal corporation and further within an election 48415
precinct that, at the time of the application, has no more than 48416
twenty-five per cent of its total land area zoned for residential 48417
use.48418

       A D-5c permit shall not be transferred to another location. 48419
No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of such permits 48420
that may be issued.48421

       Any person who has held a D-5c permit for at least two years 48422
may apply for a D-5 permit, and the division of liquor control 48423
shall issue the D-5 permit notwithstanding the quota restrictions 48424
contained in section 4303.29 of the Revised Code or in any rule of 48425
the liquor control commission.48426

       The fee for this permit is one thousand five hundred 48427
sixty-three dollars.48428

       (D) Permit D-5d may be issued to the owner or operator of a 48429
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 48430
pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 48431
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located at an 48432
airport operated by a board of county commissioners pursuant to 48433
section 307.20 of the Revised Code, at an airport operated by a 48434
port authority pursuant to Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code, or 48435
at an airport operated by a regional airport authority pursuant to 48436
Chapter 308. of the Revised Code. The holder of a D-5d permit may 48437
sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the 48438
individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption 48439
on the premises where sold, and may sell the same products in the 48440
same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where 48441
sold as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In 48442
addition to the privileges authorized in this division, the holder 48443
of a D-5d permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of 48444
a D-5 permit.48445

       A D-5d permit shall not be transferred to another location. 48446
No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of such 48447
permits that may be issued.48448

       The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 48449
forty-four dollars.48450

       (E) Permit D-5e may be issued to any nonprofit organization 48451
that is exempt from federal income taxation under the "Internal 48452
Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 501(c)(3), as 48453
amended, or that is a charitable organization under any chapter of 48454
the Revised Code, and that owns or operates a riverboat that meets 48455
all of the following:48456

       (1) Is permanently docked at one location;48457

       (2) Is designated as an historical riverboat by the Ohio 48458
historical society;48459

       (3) Contains not less than fifteen hundred square feet of 48460
floor area;48461

       (4) Has a seating capacity of fifty or more persons.48462

       The holder of a D-5e permit may sell beer and intoxicating 48463
liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from 48464
the container, for consumption on the premises where sold.48465

       A D-5e permit shall not be transferred to another location. 48466
No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of such permits 48467
that may be issued. The population quota restrictions contained in 48468
section 4303.29 of the Revised Code or in any rule of the liquor 48469
control commission shall not apply to this division, and the 48470
division shall issue a D-5e permit to any applicant who meets the 48471
requirements of this division. However, the division shall not 48472
issue a D-5e permit if the permit premises or proposed permit 48473
premises are located within an area in which the sale of 48474
spirituous liquor by the glass is prohibited.48475

       The fee for this permit is one thousand two hundred nineteen 48476
dollars.48477

       (F) Permit D-5f may be issued to the owner or operator of a 48478
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 48479
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 48480
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that meets all of the 48481
following:48482

       (1) It contains not less than twenty-five hundred square feet 48483
of floor area.48484

       (2) It is located on or in, or immediately adjacent to, the 48485
shoreline of, a navigable river.48486

       (3) It provides docking space for twenty-five boats.48487

       (4) It provides entertainment and recreation, provided that 48488
not less than fifty per cent of the business on the permit 48489
premises shall be preparing and serving meals for a consideration.48490

       In addition, each application for a D-5f permit shall be 48491
accompanied by a certification from the local legislative 48492
authority that the issuance of the D-5f permit is not inconsistent 48493
with that political subdivision's comprehensive development plan 48494
or other economic development goal as officially established by 48495
the local legislative authority.48496

       The holder of a D-5f permit may sell beer and intoxicating 48497
liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from 48498
the container, for consumption on the premises where sold.48499

       A D-5f permit shall not be transferred to another location.48500

       The division of liquor control shall not issue a D-5f permit 48501
if the permit premises or proposed permit premises are located 48502
within an area in which the sale of spirituous liquor by the glass 48503
is prohibited.48504

       A fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 48505
forty-four dollars.48506

       As used in this division, "navigable river" means a river 48507
that is also a "navigable water" as defined in the "Federal Power 48508
Act," 94 Stat. 770 (1980), 16 U.S.C. 796.48509

       (G) Permit D-5g may be issued to a nonprofit corporation that 48510
is either the owner or the operator of a national professional 48511
sports museum. The holder of a D-5g permit may sell beer and any 48512
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 48513
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 48514
where sold. The holder of a D-5g permit shall sell no beer or 48515
intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold 48516
after onetwo-thirty a.m. A D-5g permit shall not be transferred 48517
to another location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the 48518
number of D-5g permits that may be issued. The fee for this permit 48519
is one thousand eight hundred seventy-five dollars.48520

       (H)(1) Permit D-5h may be issued to any nonprofit 48521
organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under the 48522
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 48523
501(c)(3), as amended, that owns or operates any of the following:48524

       (a) A fine arts museum, provided that the nonprofit 48525
organization has no less than one thousand five hundred bona fide 48526
members possessing full membership privileges;48527

       (b) A community arts center. As used in division (H)(1)(b) of 48528
this section, "community arts center" means a facility that 48529
provides arts programming to the community in more than one arts 48530
discipline, including, but not limited to, exhibits of works of 48531
art and performances by both professional and amateur artists.48532

       (c) A community theater, provided that the nonprofit 48533
organization is a member of the Ohio arts council and the American 48534
community theatre association and has been in existence for not 48535
less than ten years. As used in division (H)(1)(c) of this 48536
section, "community theater" means a facility that contains at 48537
least one hundred fifty seats and has a primary function of 48538
presenting live theatrical performances and providing recreational 48539
opportunities to the community.48540

        (2) The holder of a D-5h permit may sell beer and any 48541
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 48542
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 48543
where sold. The holder of a D-5h permit shall sell no beer or 48544
intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold 48545
after one a.m. A D-5h permit shall not be transferred to another 48546
location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of 48547
D-5h permits that may be issued.48548

       (3) The fee for a D-5h permit is one thousand eight hundred 48549
seventy-five dollars.48550

       (I) Permit D-5i may be issued to the owner or operator of a 48551
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 48552
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 48553
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that meets all of the 48554
following requirements:48555

       (1) It is located in a municipal corporation or a township 48556
with a population of one hundred thousand or less.48557

       (2) It has inside seating capacity for at least one hundred 48558
forty persons.48559

       (3) It has at least four thousand square feet of floor area.48560

       (4) It offers full-course meals, appetizers, and sandwiches.48561

       (5) Its receipts from beer and liquor sales, excluding wine 48562
sales, do not exceed twenty-five per cent of its total gross 48563
receipts.48564

       (6) It has at least one of the following characteristics:48565

       (a) The value of its real and personal property exceeds seven 48566
hundred twenty-five thousand dollars.48567

       (b) It is located on property that is owned or leased by the 48568
state or a state agency, and its owner or operator has 48569
authorization from the state or the state agency that owns or 48570
leases the property to obtain a D-5i permit.48571

       The holder of a D-5i permit may sell beer and any 48572
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 48573
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 48574
where sold, and may sell the same products in the same manner and 48575
amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold as may be 48576
sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The holder of a D-5i 48577
permit shall sell no beer or intoxicating liquor for consumption 48578
on the premises where sold after two-thirty a.m. In addition to 48579
the privileges authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5i 48580
permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 48581
permit.48582

       A D-5i permit shall not be transferred to another location. 48583
The division of liquor control shall not renew a D-5i permit 48584
unless the retail food establishment or food service operation for 48585
which it is issued continues to meet the requirements described in 48586
divisions (I)(1) to (6) of this section. No quota restrictions 48587
shall be placed on the number of D-5i permits that may be issued. 48588
The fee for the D-5i permit is two thousand three hundred 48589
forty-four dollars.48590

       (J) Permit D-5j may be issued to the owner or the operator of 48591
a retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 48592
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code to sell beer and 48593
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 48594
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 48595
where sold and to sell beer and intoxicating liquor in the same 48596
manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold 48597
as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The holder 48598
of a D-5j permit may exercise the same privileges, and shall 48599
observe the same hours of operation, as the holder of a D-5 48600
permit.48601

        The D-5j permit shall be issued only within a community 48602
entertainment district that is designated under section 4301.80 of 48603
the Revised Code and that meets one of the following 48604
qualifications:48605

       (1) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 48606
population of at least one hundred thousand.48607

       (2) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 48608
population of at least twenty thousand, and either of the 48609
following applies:48610

       (a) It contains an amusement park the rides of which have 48611
been issued a permit by the department of agriculture under 48612
Chapter 1711. of the Revised Code.48613

       (b) Not less than fifty million dollars will be invested in 48614
development and construction in the community entertainment 48615
district's area located in the municipal corporation.48616

       (3) It is located in a township with a population of at least 48617
forty thousand.48618

       (4) It is located in a township with a population of at least 48619
twenty thousand, and not less than seventy million dollars will be 48620
invested in development and construction in the community 48621
entertainment district's area located in the township.48622

       (5) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 48623
population between ten thousand and twenty thousand, and both of 48624
the following apply:48625

       (a) The municipal corporation was incorporated as a village 48626
prior to calendar year 1840 and currently has a historic downtown 48627
business district.48628

       (b) The municipal corporation is located in the same county 48629
as another municipal corporation with at least one community 48630
entertainment district.48631

       (6) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 48632
population of at least ten thousand, and not less than seventy 48633
million dollars will be invested in development and construction 48634
in the community entertainment district's area located in the 48635
municipal corporation.48636

       (7) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 48637
population of at least five thousand, and not less than one 48638
hundred million dollars will be invested in development and 48639
construction in the community entertainment district's area 48640
located in the municipal corporation.48641

        The location of a D-5j permit may be transferred only within 48642
the geographic boundaries of the community entertainment district 48643
in which it was issued and shall not be transferred outside the 48644
geographic boundaries of that district.48645

        Not more than one D-5j permit shall be issued within each 48646
community entertainment district for each five acres of land 48647
located within the district. Not more than fifteen D-5j permits 48648
may be issued within a single community entertainment district. 48649
Except as otherwise provided in division (J)(4) of this section, 48650
no quota restrictions shall be placed upon the number of D-5j 48651
permits that may be issued.48652

        The fee for a D-5j permit is two thousand three hundred 48653
forty-four dollars.48654

       (K)(1) Permit D-5k may be issued to any nonprofit 48655
organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under the 48656
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 48657
501(c)(3), as amended, that is the owner or operator of a 48658
botanical garden recognized by the American association of 48659
botanical gardens and arboreta, and that has not less than 48660
twenty-five hundred bona fide members.48661

       (2) The holder of a D-5k permit may sell beer and any 48662
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 48663
glass and from the container, on the premises where sold.48664

       (3) The holder of a D-5k permit shall sell no beer or 48665
intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold 48666
after one a.m.48667

       (4) A D-5k permit shall not be transferred to another 48668
location.48669

       (5) No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of 48670
D-5k permits that may be issued.48671

       (6) The fee for the D-5k permit is one thousand eight hundred 48672
seventy-five dollars.48673

       (L)(1) Permit D-5l may be issued to the owner or the operator 48674
of a businessretail food establishment or a food service 48675
operation licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code to sell 48676
beer and intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual 48677
drink in glass and from the container, for consumption on the 48678
premises where sold and to sell beer and intoxicating liquor in 48679
the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises 48680
where sold as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. 48681
The holder of a D-5l permit may exercise the same privileges, and 48682
shall observe the same hours of operation, as the holder of a D-5 48683
permit.48684

       (2) The D-5l permit shall be issued only to a premises that 48685
has gross annual receipts from the sale of food and meals that 48686
constitute not less than seventy-five per cent of its total gross 48687
annual receipts, that is located within a revitalization district 48688
that is designated under section 4301.81 of the Revised Code, that 48689
is located in a municipal corporation or township in which the 48690
number of D-5 permits issued equals or exceeds the number of those 48691
permits that may be issued in that municipal corporation or 48692
township under section 4303.29 of the Revised Code, and that is 48693
located in a county with a population of one hundred twenty-five 48694
thousand or less according to the population estimates certified 48695
by the department of development for calendar year 2006.48696

       (3) The location of a D-5l permit may be transferred only 48697
within the geographic boundaries of the revitalization district in 48698
which it was issued and shall not be transferred outside the 48699
geographic boundaries of that district.48700

       (4) Not more than one D-5l permit shall be issued within each 48701
revitalization district for each five acres of land located within 48702
the district. Not more than fifteen D-5l permits may be issued 48703
within a single revitalization district. Except as otherwise 48704
provided in division (L)(4) of this section, no quota restrictions 48705
shall be placed upon the number of D-5l permits that may be 48706
issued.48707

       (5) No D-5l permit shall be issued to an adult entertainment 48708
establishment as defined in section 2907.39 of the Revised Code.48709

       (6) The fee for a D-5l permit is two thousand three hundred 48710
forty-four dollars.48711

       (M) Permit D-5m may be issued to either the owner or the 48712
operator of a retail food establishment or food service operation 48713
licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as 48714
a restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located in, 48715
or affiliated with, a center for the preservation of wild animals 48716
as defined in section 4301.404 of the Revised Code, to sell beer 48717
and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the glass and from 48718
the container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and to 48719
sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for 48720
consumption on the premises as may be sold by the holders of D-1 48721
and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges authorized by this 48722
division, the holder of a D-5m permit may exercise the same 48723
privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.48724

       A D-5m permit shall not be transferred to another location. 48725
No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of D-5m 48726
permits that may be issued. The fee for a permit D-5m is two 48727
thousand three hundred forty-four dollars.48728

       (N) Permit D-5n shall be issued to either a casino operator 48729
or a casino management company licensed under Chapter 3772. of the 48730
Revised Code that operates a casino facility under that chapter, 48731
to sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the 48732
individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption 48733
on the premises where sold, and to sell the same products in the 48734
same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises as may 48735
be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the 48736
privileges authorized by this division, the holder of a D-5n 48737
permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 48738
permit. A D-5n permit shall not be transferred to another 48739
location. Only one D-5n permit may be issued per casino facility 48740
and not more than four D-5n permits shall be issued in this state. 48741
The fee for a permit D-5n shall be twenty thousand dollars. The 48742
holder of a D-5n permit may conduct casino gaming on the permit 48743
premises notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code or 48744
Administrative Code.48745

       (O) Permit D-5o may be issued to the owner or operator of a 48746
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 48747
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 48748
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located within 48749
a casino facility for which a D-5n permit has been issued. The 48750
holder of a D-5o permit may sell beer and any intoxicating liquor 48751
at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the 48752
container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and may 48753
sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for 48754
consumption on the premises where sold as may be sold by the 48755
holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges 48756
authorized by this division, the holder of a D-5o permit may 48757
exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit. A D-5o 48758
permit shall not be transferred to another location. No quota 48759
restrictions shall be placed on the number of such permits that 48760
may be issued. The fee for this permit is two thousand three 48761
hundred forty-four dollars.48762

       Sec. 4303.22.  Permit H may be issued for a fee of three 48763
hundred dollars to a for-hire motor carrier by motor vehicle who 48764
also holds a license issued by the public utilities commission to 48765
transport beer, intoxicating liquor, and alcohol, or any of them, 48766
in this state for delivery or use in this state. This section does 48767
not prevent the division of liquor control from contracting with48768
common or contractfor-hire motor carriers for the delivery or 48769
transportation of liquor for the division, and any contract or 48770
commonfor-hire motor carrier so contracting with the division is 48771
eligible for an H permit. Manufacturers or wholesale distributors 48772
of beer or intoxicating liquor other than spirituous liquor who 48773
transport or deliver their own products to or from their premises 48774
licensed under this chapter and Chapter 4301. of the Revised Code 48775
by their own trucks as an incident to the purchase or sale of such 48776
beverages need not obtain an H permit. Carriers by rail shall 48777
receive an H permit upon application for it.48778

       This section does not prevent the division from issuing, upon 48779
the payment of the permit fee, an H permit to any person, 48780
partnership, firm, or corporation licensed by any other state to 48781
engage in the business of manufacturing and brewing or producing 48782
beer, wine, and mixed beverages or any person, partnership, firm, 48783
or corporation licensed by the United States or any other state to 48784
engage in the business of importing beer, wine, and mixed 48785
beverages manufactured outside the United States. The 48786
manufacturer, brewer, or importer of products manufactured outside 48787
the United States, upon the issuance of an H permit, may 48788
transport, ship, and deliver only its own products to holders of 48789
B-1 or B-5 permits in Ohio in motor trucks and equipment owned and 48790
operated by such class H permit holder. No H permit shall be 48791
issued by the division to such applicant until the applicant files 48792
with the division a liability insurance certificate or policy 48793
satisfactory to the division, in a sum of not less than one 48794
thousand nor more than five thousand dollars for property damage 48795
and for not less than five thousand nor more than fifty thousand 48796
dollars for loss sustained by reason of injury or death and with 48797
such other terms as the division considers necessary to adequately 48798
protect the interest of the public, having due regard for the 48799
number of persons and amount of property affected. The certificate 48800
or policy shall insure the manufacturer, brewer, or importer of 48801
products manufactured outside the United States against loss 48802
sustained by reason of the death of or injury to persons, and for 48803
loss of or damage to property, from the negligence of such class H 48804
permit holder in the operation of its motor vehicles or equipment 48805
in this state.48806

       Sec. 4313.02. (A) The state may transfer to JobsOhio, and 48807
JobsOhio may accept the transfer of, all or a portion of the 48808
enterprise acquisition project for a transfer price payable by 48809
JobsOhio to the state. Any such transfer shall be treated as an 48810
absolute conveyance and true sale of the interest in the 48811
enterprise acquisition project purported to be conveyed for all 48812
purposes, and not as a pledge or other security interest. The 48813
characterization of any such transfer as a true sale and absolute 48814
conveyance shall not be negated or adversely affected by the 48815
acquisition or retention by the state of a residual or 48816
reversionary interest in the enterprise acquisition project, the 48817
participation of any state officer or employee as a member or 48818
officer of, or contracting for staff support to, JobsOhio or any 48819
subsidiary of JobsOhio, any regulatory responsibility of an 48820
officer or employee of the state, including the authority to 48821
collect amounts to be received in connection therewith, the 48822
retention of the state of any legal title to or interest in any 48823
portion of the enterprise acquisition project for the purpose of 48824
regulatory activities, or any characterization of JobsOhio or 48825
obligations of JobsOhio under accounting, taxation, or securities 48826
regulations, or any other reason whatsoever. An absolute 48827
conveyance and true sale or lease shall exist under this section 48828
regardless of whether JobsOhio has any recourse against the state 48829
or the treatment or characterization of the transfer as a 48830
financing for any purpose. Upon and following the transfer, the 48831
state shall not have any right, title, or interest in the 48832
enterprise acquisition project so transferred other than any 48833
residual interest that may be described in the transfer agreement 48834
pursuant to the following paragraph and division (D) of this 48835
section. Any determination of the fair market value of the 48836
enterprise acquisition project reflected in the transfer agreement 48837
shall be conclusive and binding on the state and JobsOhio.48838

       Any transfer of the enterprise acquisition project that is a 48839
lease or grant of a franchise shall be for a term not to exceed 48840
twenty-five years. Any transfer of the enterprise acquisition 48841
project that is an assignment and sale, conveyance, or other 48842
transfer shall contain a provision that the state shall have the 48843
option to have conveyed or transferred back to it, at no cost, the 48844
enterprise acquisition project, as it then exists, no later than 48845
twenty-five years after the original transfer authorized in the 48846
transfer agreement on such other terms as shall be provided in the 48847
transfer agreement.48848

       The exercise of the powers granted by this section will be 48849
for the benefit of the people of the state. All or any portion of 48850
the enterprise acquisition project transferred pursuant to the 48851
transfer agreement that would be exempt from real property taxes 48852
or assessments or real property taxes or assessments in the 48853
absence of such transfer shall, as it may from time to time exist 48854
thereafter, remain exempt from real property taxes or assessments 48855
levied by the state and its subdivisions to the same extent as if 48856
not transferred. The gross receipts and income of JobsOhio derived 48857
from the enterprise acquisition project shall be exempt from 48858
taxation levied by the state and its subdivisions, including, but 48859
not limited to, the taxes levied pursuant to Chapters 718., 5739., 48860
5741., 5747., and 5751. of the Revised Code. Any transfer from the 48861
state to JobsOhio of the enterprise acquisition project, or item 48862
included or to be included in the project, shall be exempt from 48863
the taxes levied pursuant to Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the 48864
Revised Code.48865

       (B) The proceeds of any transfer under division (A) of this 48866
section may be expended as provided in the transfer agreement for 48867
any one or more of the following purposes:48868

       (1) Funding, payment, or defeasance of outstanding bonds 48869
issued pursuant to Chapters 151. and 166. of the Revised Code and 48870
secured by pledged liquor profits as defined in section 151.40 of 48871
the Revised Code;48872

       (2) Deposit into the general revenue fund;48873

       (3) Deposit into the clean Ohio revitalization fund created 48874
pursuant to section 122.658 of the Revised Code, the innovation 48875
Ohio loan fund created pursuant to section 166.16 of the Revised 48876
Code, the research and development loan fund created pursuant to 48877
section 166.20 of the Revised Code, the logistics and distribution 48878
infrastructure fund created pursuant to section 166.26 of the 48879
Revised Code, the advanced energy research and development fund 48880
created pursuant to section 3706.27 of the Revised Code, and the 48881
advanced energy research and development taxable fund created 48882
pursuant to section 3706.27 of the Revised Code; 48883

       (4) Conveyance to JobsOhio for the purposes for which it was 48884
created.48885

       (C)(1) The state may covenant, pledge, and agree in the 48886
transfer agreement, with and for the benefit of JobsOhio, that it 48887
shall maintain statutory authority for the enterprise acquisition 48888
project and the revenues of the enterprise acquisition project and 48889
not otherwise materially impair any obligations supported by a 48890
pledge of revenues of the enterprise acquisition project. The 48891
transfer agreement may provide or authorize the manner for 48892
determining material impairment of the security for any such 48893
outstanding obligations, including by assessing and evaluating the 48894
revenues of the enterprise acquisition project.48895

       (2) The director of budget and management, in consultation 48896
with the director of commerce, may, without need for any other 48897
approval, negotiate terms of any documents, including the transfer 48898
agreement, necessary to effect the transfer and the acceptance of 48899
the transfer of the enterprise acquisition project. The director 48900
of budget and management and the director of commerce shall 48901
execute the transfer agreement on behalf of the state. The 48902
director of budget and management may also, without need for any 48903
other approval, retain or contract for the services of commercial 48904
appraisers, underwriters, investment bankers, and financial 48905
advisers, as are necessary in the judgment of the director of 48906
budget and management to effect the transfer agreement. Any 48907
transfer agreement may contain terms and conditions established by 48908
the state to carry out and effectuate the purposes of this 48909
section, including, without limitation, covenants binding the 48910
state in favor of JobsOhio. Any such transfer agreement shall be 48911
sufficient to effectuate the transfer without regard to any other 48912
laws governing other property sales or financial transactions by 48913
the state. The director of budget and management may create any 48914
funds or accounts, within or without the state treasury, as are 48915
needed for the transactions and activities authorized by this 48916
section.48917

       (3) The transfer agreement may authorize JobsOhio, in the 48918
ordinary course of doing business, to convey, lease, release, or 48919
otherwise dispose of any regular inventory or tangible personal 48920
property. Ownership of the interest in the enterprise acquisition 48921
project that is transferred to JobsOhio under this section and the 48922
transfer agreement shall be maintained in JobsOhio or a nonprofit 48923
entity the sole member of which is JobsOhio until the enterprise 48924
acquisition project is transferred back to the state pursuant to 48925
the second paragraph of division (A) and division (D) of this 48926
section.48927

       (D) The transfer agreement may authorize JobsOhio to fix, 48928
alter, and collect rentals and other charges for the use and 48929
occupancy of all or any portion of the enterprise acquisition 48930
project and to lease any portion of the enterprise acquisition 48931
project to the state, and shall include a contract with, or the 48932
granting of an option to, the state to have the enterprise 48933
acquisition project, as it then exists, transferred back to it 48934
without charge in accordance with the terms of the transfer 48935
agreement after retirement or redemption, or provision therefor, 48936
of all obligations supported by a pledge of spirituous liquor 48937
profits.48938

       (E) JobsOhio, the director of budget and management, and the 48939
director of commerce shall, subject to approval by the controlling 48940
board, enter into a contract, which may be part of the transfer 48941
agreement, for the continuing operation by the division of liquor 48942
control of spirituous liquor distribution and merchandising 48943
subject to standards for performance provided in that contract 48944
that may relate to or support division (C)(1) of this section. The 48945
contract shall establish other terms and conditions for the 48946
assignment of duties to, and the provision of advice, services, 48947
and other assistance by, the division of liquor control, including 48948
providing for the necessary staffing and payment by JobsOhio of 48949
appropriate compensation to the division for the performance of 48950
such duties and the provision of such advice, services, and other 48951
assistance. The division of liquor control shall manage and 48952
actively supervise the activities required or authorized under 48953
sections 4301.10 and 4301.17 of the Revised Code as those sections 48954
exist on the effective date of this sectionSeptember 29, 2011, 48955
including, but not limited to, controlling the traffic in 48956
intoxicating liquor in this state and fixing the wholesale and 48957
retail prices at which the various classes, varieties, and brands 48958
of spirituous liquor are sold.48959

       (F) The transfer agreement shall require JobsOhio to pay for 48960
the operations of the division of liquor control with regard to 48961
the spirituous liquor merchandising operations of the division. 48962
The payments from JobsOhio shall be deposited into the state 48963
treasury to the credit of the liquor controloperating services48964
fund created in section 4301.12 of the Revised Code, which is 48965
hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall be used to 48966
pay for the operations of the division specified in this division.48967

       (G) The transaction and transfer provided for under this 48968
section shall comply with all applicable provisions of the Ohio 48969
Constitution.48970

       Sec. 4501.01.  As used in this chapter and Chapters 4503., 48971
4505., 4507., 4509., 4510., 4511., 4513., 4515., and 4517. of the 48972
Revised Code, and in the penal laws, except as otherwise provided:48973

       (A) "Vehicles" means everything on wheels or runners, 48974
including motorized bicycles, but does not mean electric personal 48975
assistive mobility devices, vehicles that are operated exclusively 48976
on rails or tracks or from overhead electric trolley wires, and 48977
vehicles that belong to any police department, municipal fire 48978
department, or volunteer fire department, or that are used by such 48979
a department in the discharge of its functions.48980

       (B) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle, including mobile homes 48981
and recreational vehicles, that is propelled or drawn by power 48982
other than muscular power or power collected from overhead 48983
electric trolley wires. "Motor vehicle" does not include utility 48984
vehicles as defined in division (VV) of this section, motorized 48985
bicycles, road rollers, traction engines, power shovels, power 48986
cranes, and other equipment used in construction work and not 48987
designed for or employed in general highway transportation, 48988
well-drilling machinery, ditch-digging machinery, farm machinery, 48989
and trailers that are designed and used exclusively to transport a 48990
boat between a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a 48991
marina, when drawn or towed on a public road or highway for a 48992
distance of no more than ten miles and at a speed of twenty-five 48993
miles per hour or less.48994

       (C) "Agricultural tractor" and "traction engine" mean any 48995
self-propelling vehicle that is designed or used for drawing other 48996
vehicles or wheeled machinery, but has no provisions for carrying 48997
loads independently of such other vehicles, and that is used 48998
principally for agricultural purposes.48999

       (D) "Commercial tractor," except as defined in division (C) 49000
of this section, means any motor vehicle that has motive power and 49001
either is designed or used for drawing other motor vehicles, or is 49002
designed or used for drawing another motor vehicle while carrying 49003
a portion of the other motor vehicle or its load, or both.49004

       (E) "Passenger car" means any motor vehicle that is designed 49005
and used for carrying not more than nine persons and includes any 49006
motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more than 49007
fifteen persons in a ridesharing arrangement.49008

       (F) "Collector's vehicle" means any motor vehicle or 49009
agricultural tractor or traction engine that is of special 49010
interest, that has a fair market value of one hundred dollars or 49011
more, whether operable or not, and that is owned, operated, 49012
collected, preserved, restored, maintained, or used essentially as 49013
a collector's item, leisure pursuit, or investment, but not as the 49014
owner's principal means of transportation. "Licensed collector's 49015
vehicle" means a collector's vehicle, other than an agricultural 49016
tractor or traction engine, that displays current, valid license 49017
tags issued under section 4503.45 of the Revised Code, or a 49018
similar type of motor vehicle that displays current, valid license 49019
tags issued under substantially equivalent provisions in the laws 49020
of other states.49021

       (G) "Historical motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle that 49022
is over twenty-five years old and is owned solely as a collector's 49023
item and for participation in club activities, exhibitions, tours, 49024
parades, and similar uses, but that in no event is used for 49025
general transportation.49026

       (H) "Noncommercial motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle, 49027
including a farm truck as defined in section 4503.04 of the 49028
Revised Code, that is designed by the manufacturer to carry a load 49029
of no more than one ton and is used exclusively for purposes other 49030
than engaging in business for profit.49031

       (I) "Bus" means any motor vehicle that has motor power and is 49032
designed and used for carrying more than nine passengers, except 49033
any motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more 49034
than fifteen passengers in a ridesharing arrangement.49035

       (J) "Commercial car" or "truck" means any motor vehicle that 49036
has motor power and is designed and used for carrying merchandise 49037
or freight, or that is used as a commercial tractor.49038

       (K) "Bicycle" means every device, other than a tricycle that 49039
is designed solely for use as a play vehicle by a child, that is 49040
propelled solely by human power upon which any person may ride, 49041
and that has two tandem wheels, or one wheel in front and two 49042
wheels in the rear, or two wheels in the front and one wheel in 49043
the rear, any of which is more than fourteen inches in diameter.49044

       (L) "Motorized bicycle" means any vehicle that either has two 49045
tandem wheels or one wheel in the front and two wheels in the 49046
rear, that is capable of being pedaled, and that is equipped with 49047
a helper motor of not more than fifty cubic centimeters piston 49048
displacement that produces no more than one brake horsepower and 49049
is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed of no greater than 49050
twenty miles per hour on a level surface.49051

       (M) "Trailer" means any vehicle without motive power that is 49052
designed or used for carrying property or persons wholly on its 49053
own structure and for being drawn by a motor vehicle, and includes 49054
any such vehicle that is formed by or operated as a combination of 49055
a semitrailer and a vehicle of the dolly type such as that 49056
commonly known as a trailer dolly, a vehicle used to transport 49057
agricultural produce or agricultural production materials between 49058
a local place of storage or supply and the farm when drawn or 49059
towed on a public road or highway at a speed greater than 49060
twenty-five miles per hour, and a vehicle that is designed and 49061
used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage 49062
and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a 49063
public road or highway for a distance of more than ten miles or at 49064
a speed of more than twenty-five miles per hour. "Trailer" does 49065
not include a manufactured home or travel trailer.49066

       (N) "Noncommercial trailer" means any trailer, except a 49067
travel trailer or trailer that is used to transport a boat as 49068
described in division (B) of this section, but, where applicable, 49069
includes a vehicle that is used to transport a boat as described 49070
in division (M) of this section, that has a gross weight of no 49071
more than ten thousand pounds, and that is used exclusively for 49072
purposes other than engaging in business for a profit, such as the 49073
transportation of personal items for personal or recreational 49074
purposes.49075

       (O) "Mobile home" means a building unit or assembly of closed 49076
construction that is fabricated in an off-site facility, is more 49077
than thirty-five body feet in length or, when erected on site, is 49078
three hundred twenty or more square feet, is built on a permanent 49079
chassis, is transportable in one or more sections, and does not 49080
qualify as a manufactured home as defined in division (C)(4) of 49081
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code or as an industrialized unit 49082
as defined in division (C)(3) of section 3781.06 of the Revised 49083
Code.49084

       (P) "Semitrailer" means any vehicle of the trailer type that 49085
does not have motive power and is so designed or used with another 49086
and separate motor vehicle that in operation a part of its own 49087
weight or that of its load, or both, rests upon and is carried by 49088
the other vehicle furnishing the motive power for propelling 49089
itself and the vehicle referred to in this division, and includes, 49090
for the purpose only of registration and taxation under those 49091
chapters, any vehicle of the dolly type, such as a trailer dolly, 49092
that is designed or used for the conversion of a semitrailer into 49093
a trailer.49094

       (Q) "Recreational vehicle" means a vehicular portable 49095
structure that meets all of the following conditions:49096

       (1) It is designed for the sole purpose of recreational 49097
travel.49098

       (2) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in business 49099
for profit.49100

       (3) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in intrastate 49101
commerce.49102

       (4) It is not used for the purpose of commerce as defined in 49103
49 C.F.R. 383.5, as amended.49104

       (5) It is not regulated by the public utilities commission 49105
pursuant to Chapter 49194905., 4921., or 4923. of the Revised 49106
Code.49107

       (6) It is classed as one of the following:49108

       (a) "Travel trailer" means a nonself-propelled recreational 49109
vehicle that does not exceed an overall length of thirty-five 49110
feet, exclusive of bumper and tongue or coupling, and contains 49111
less than three hundred twenty square feet of space when erected 49112
on site. "Travel trailer" includes a tent-type fold-out camping 49113
trailer as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised Code.49114

       (b) "Motor home" means a self-propelled recreational vehicle 49115
that has no fifth wheel and is constructed with permanently 49116
installed facilities for cold storage, cooking and consuming of 49117
food, and for sleeping.49118

       (c) "Truck camper" means a nonself-propelled recreational 49119
vehicle that does not have wheels for road use and is designed to 49120
be placed upon and attached to a motor vehicle. "Truck camper" 49121
does not include truck covers that consist of walls and a roof, 49122
but do not have floors and facilities enabling them to be used as 49123
a dwelling.49124

       (d) "Fifth wheel trailer" means a vehicle that is of such 49125
size and weight as to be movable without a special highway permit, 49126
that has a gross trailer area of four hundred square feet or less, 49127
that is constructed with a raised forward section that allows a 49128
bi-level floor plan, and that is designed to be towed by a vehicle 49129
equipped with a fifth-wheel hitch ordinarily installed in the bed 49130
of a truck.49131

       (e) "Park trailer" means a vehicle that is commonly known as 49132
a park model recreational vehicle, meets the American national 49133
standard institute standard A119.5 (1988) for park trailers, is 49134
built on a single chassis, has a gross trailer area of four 49135
hundred square feet or less when set up, is designed for seasonal 49136
or temporary living quarters, and may be connected to utilities 49137
necessary for the operation of installed features and appliances.49138

       (R) "Pneumatic tires" means tires of rubber and fabric or 49139
tires of similar material, that are inflated with air.49140

       (S) "Solid tires" means tires of rubber or similar elastic 49141
material that are not dependent upon confined air for support of 49142
the load.49143

       (T) "Solid tire vehicle" means any vehicle that is equipped 49144
with two or more solid tires.49145

       (U) "Farm machinery" means all machines and tools that are 49146
used in the production, harvesting, and care of farm products, and 49147
includes trailers that are used to transport agricultural produce 49148
or agricultural production materials between a local place of 49149
storage or supply and the farm, agricultural tractors, threshing 49150
machinery, hay-baling machinery, corn shellers, hammermills, and 49151
machinery used in the production of horticultural, agricultural, 49152
and vegetable products.49153

       (V) "Owner" includes any person or firm, other than a 49154
manufacturer or dealer, that has title to a motor vehicle, except 49155
that, in sections 4505.01 to 4505.19 of the Revised Code, "owner" 49156
includes in addition manufacturers and dealers.49157

       (W) "Manufacturer" and "dealer" include all persons and firms 49158
that are regularly engaged in the business of manufacturing, 49159
selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in motor 49160
vehicles, at an established place of business that is used 49161
exclusively for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, displaying, 49162
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles. A place of 49163
business that is used for manufacturing, selling, displaying, 49164
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles shall be deemed to 49165
be used exclusively for those purposes even though snowmobiles or 49166
all-purpose vehicles are sold or displayed for sale thereat, even 49167
though farm machinery is sold or displayed for sale thereat, or 49168
even though repair, accessory, gasoline and oil, storage, parts, 49169
service, or paint departments are maintained thereat, or, in any 49170
county having a population of less than seventy-five thousand at 49171
the last federal census, even though a department in a place of 49172
business is used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles 49173
by means of used parts, if such departments are operated for the 49174
purpose of furthering and assisting in the business of 49175
manufacturing, selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing 49176
in motor vehicles. Places of business or departments in a place of 49177
business used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles by 49178
means of using used parts are not considered as being maintained 49179
for the purpose of assisting or furthering the manufacturing, 49180
selling, displaying, and offering for sale or dealing in motor 49181
vehicles.49182

       (X) "Operator" includes any person who drives or operates a 49183
motor vehicle upon the public highways.49184

       (Y) "Chauffeur" means any operator who operates a motor 49185
vehicle, other than a taxicab, as an employee for hire; or any 49186
operator whether or not the owner of a motor vehicle, other than a 49187
taxicab, who operates such vehicle for transporting, for gain, 49188
compensation, or profit, either persons or property owned by 49189
another. Any operator of a motor vehicle who is voluntarily 49190
involved in a ridesharing arrangement is not considered an 49191
employee for hire or operating such vehicle for gain, 49192
compensation, or profit.49193

       (Z) "State" includes the territories and federal districts of 49194
the United States, and the provinces of Canada.49195

       (AA) "Public roads and highways" for vehicles includes all 49196
public thoroughfares, bridges, and culverts.49197

       (BB) "Manufacturer's number" means the manufacturer's 49198
original serial number that is affixed to or imprinted upon the 49199
chassis or other part of the motor vehicle.49200

       (CC) "Motor number" means the manufacturer's original number 49201
that is affixed to or imprinted upon the engine or motor of the 49202
vehicle.49203

       (DD) "Distributor" means any person who is authorized by a 49204
motor vehicle manufacturer to distribute new motor vehicles to 49205
licensed motor vehicle dealers at an established place of business 49206
that is used exclusively for the purpose of distributing new motor 49207
vehicles to licensed motor vehicle dealers, except when the 49208
distributor also is a new motor vehicle dealer, in which case the 49209
distributor may distribute at the location of the distributor's 49210
licensed dealership.49211

       (EE) "Ridesharing arrangement" means the transportation of 49212
persons in a motor vehicle where the transportation is incidental 49213
to another purpose of a volunteer driver and includes ridesharing 49214
arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.49215

       (FF) "Apportionable vehicle" means any vehicle that is used 49216
or intended for use in two or more international registration plan 49217
member jurisdictions that allocate or proportionally register 49218
vehicles, that is used for the transportation of persons for hire 49219
or designed, used, or maintained primarily for the transportation 49220
of property, and that meets any of the following qualifications:49221

       (1) Is a power unit having a gross vehicle weight in excess 49222
of twenty-six thousand pounds;49223

       (2) Is a power unit having three or more axles, regardless of 49224
the gross vehicle weight;49225

       (3) Is a combination vehicle with a gross vehicle weight in 49226
excess of twenty-six thousand pounds.49227

       "Apportionable vehicle" does not include recreational 49228
vehicles, vehicles displaying restricted plates, city pick-up and 49229
delivery vehicles, buses used for the transportation of chartered 49230
parties, or vehicles owned and operated by the United States, this 49231
state, or any political subdivisions thereof.49232

       (GG) "Chartered party" means a group of persons who contract 49233
as a group to acquire the exclusive use of a passenger-carrying 49234
motor vehicle at a fixed charge for the vehicle in accordance with 49235
the carrier's tariff, lawfully on file with the United States 49236
department of transportation, for the purpose of group travel to a 49237
specified destination or for a particular itinerary, either agreed 49238
upon in advance or modified by the chartered group after having 49239
left the place of origin.49240

       (HH) "International registration plan" means a reciprocal 49241
agreement of member jurisdictions that is endorsed by the American 49242
association of motor vehicle administrators, and that promotes and 49243
encourages the fullest possible use of the highway system by 49244
authorizing apportioned registration of fleets of vehicles and 49245
recognizing registration of vehicles apportioned in member 49246
jurisdictions.49247

       (II) "Restricted plate" means a license plate that has a 49248
restriction of time, geographic area, mileage, or commodity, and 49249
includes license plates issued to farm trucks under division (J) 49250
of section 4503.04 of the Revised Code.49251

       (JJ) "Gross vehicle weight," with regard to any commercial 49252
car, trailer, semitrailer, or bus that is taxed at the rates 49253
established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 of the Revised Code, 49254
means the unladen weight of the vehicle fully equipped plus the 49255
maximum weight of the load to be carried on the vehicle.49256

       (KK) "Combined gross vehicle weight" with regard to any 49257
combination of a commercial car, trailer, and semitrailer, that is 49258
taxed at the rates established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 49259
of the Revised Code, means the total unladen weight of the 49260
combination of vehicles fully equipped plus the maximum weight of 49261
the load to be carried on that combination of vehicles.49262

       (LL) "Chauffeured limousine" means a motor vehicle that is 49263
designed to carry nine or fewer passengers and is operated for 49264
hire on an hourly basis pursuant to a prearranged contract for the 49265
transportation of passengers on public roads and highways along a 49266
route under the control of the person hiring the vehicle and not 49267
over a defined and regular route. "Prearranged contract" means an 49268
agreement, made in advance of boarding, to provide transportation 49269
from a specific location in a chauffeured limousine at a fixed 49270
rate per hour or trip. "Chauffeured limousine" does not include 49271
any vehicle that is used exclusively in the business of funeral 49272
directing.49273

       (MM) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in division 49274
(C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.49275

       (NN) "Acquired situs," with respect to a manufactured home or 49276
a mobile home, means to become located in this state by the 49277
placement of the home on real property, but does not include the 49278
placement of a manufactured home or a mobile home in the inventory 49279
of a new motor vehicle dealer or the inventory of a manufacturer, 49280
remanufacturer, or distributor of manufactured or mobile homes.49281

       (OO) "Electronic" includes electrical, digital, magnetic, 49282
optical, electromagnetic, or any other form of technology that 49283
entails capabilities similar to these technologies.49284

       (PP) "Electronic record" means a record generated, 49285
communicated, received, or stored by electronic means for use in 49286
an information system or for transmission from one information 49287
system to another.49288

       (QQ) "Electronic signature" means a signature in electronic 49289
form attached to or logically associated with an electronic 49290
record.49291

       (RR) "Financial transaction device" has the same meaning as 49292
in division (A) of section 113.40 of the Revised Code.49293

       (SS) "Electronic motor vehicle dealer" means a motor vehicle 49294
dealer licensed under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code whom the 49295
registrar of motor vehicles determines meets the criteria 49296
designated in section 4503.035 of the Revised Code for electronic 49297
motor vehicle dealers and designates as an electronic motor 49298
vehicle dealer under that section.49299

       (TT) "Electric personal assistive mobility device" means a 49300
self-balancing two non-tandem wheeled device that is designed to 49301
transport only one person, has an electric propulsion system of an 49302
average of seven hundred fifty watts, and when ridden on a paved 49303
level surface by an operator who weighs one hundred seventy pounds 49304
has a maximum speed of less than twenty miles per hour.49305

       (UU) "Limited driving privileges" means the privilege to 49306
operate a motor vehicle that a court grants under section 4510.021 49307
of the Revised Code to a person whose driver's or commercial 49308
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege has 49309
been suspended.49310

       (VV) "Utility vehicle" means a self-propelled vehicle 49311
designed with a bed, principally for the purpose of transporting 49312
material or cargo in connection with construction, agricultural, 49313
forestry, grounds maintenance, lawn and garden, materials 49314
handling, or similar activities. "Utility vehicle" includes a 49315
vehicle with a maximum attainable speed of twenty miles per hour 49316
or less that is used exclusively within the boundaries of state 49317
parks by state park employees or volunteers for the operation or 49318
maintenance of state park facilities.49319

       Sec. 4501.06.  The taxes, fees, and fines levied, charged, or 49320
referred to in division (O) of section 4503.04, division (E) of 49321
section 4503.042, division (B) of section 4503.07, division (C)(1) 49322
of section 4503.10, division (D) of section 4503.182, division (A) 49323
of section 4503.19, division (D)(2) of section 4507.24, division 49324
(A) of section 4508.06, and sections 4503.40, 4503.42, 4505.11, 49325
4505.111, 4506.08, 4506.09, 4507.23, 4508.05, 4923.12, and 5502.12 49326
of the Revised Code, and the taxes charged in section 4503.65 that 49327
are distributed in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 49328
4501.044 of the Revised Code unless otherwise designated by law, 49329
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 49330
state highway safety fund, which is hereby created, and shall, 49331
after receipt of certifications from the commissioners of the 49332
sinking fund certifying that there are sufficient moneys to the 49333
credit of the highway obligations bond retirement fund created by 49334
section 5528.32 of the Revised Code to meet in full all payments 49335
of interest, principal, and charges for the retirement of highway 49336
obligations issued pursuant to Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 49337
Constitution, and sections 5528.30 and 5528.31 of the Revised Code 49338
due and payable during the current calendar year, be used for the 49339
purpose of enforcing and paying the expenses of administering the 49340
law relative to the registration and operation of motor vehicles 49341
on the public roads or highways. Amounts credited to the fund may 49342
also be used to pay the expenses of administering and enforcing 49343
the laws under which such fees were collected. All investment 49344
earnings of the state highway safety fund shall be credited to the 49345
fund.49346

       Sec. 4501.271.  (A)(1) A peace officer, correctional 49347
employee, or youth services employee may file a written request 49348
with the bureau of motor vehicles to do either or both of the 49349
following:49350

       (a) Prohibit disclosure of the officer's or employee's 49351
residence address as contained in motor vehicle records of the 49352
bureau;49353

       (b) Provide a business address to be displayed on the 49354
officer's or employee's driver's license or certificate of 49355
registration, or both.49356

       (2) The officer or employee shall file the request described 49357
in division (A)(1) of this section on a form provided by the 49358
registrar of motor vehicles and shall provide any documentary 49359
evidence verifying the person's status as a peace officer, 49360
correctional employee, or youth services employee and the 49361
officer's or employee's business address that the registrar 49362
requires pursuant to division (G) of this section.49363

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, if 49364
a peace officer, correctional employee, or youth services employee 49365
has filed a request under division (A) of this section, neither 49366
the registrar nor an employee or contractor of the bureau of motor 49367
vehicles shall knowingly disclose the residence address of the 49368
officer or employee that the bureau obtained in connection with a 49369
motor vehicle record.49370

       (2) In accordance with section 149.43 of the Revised Code, 49371
the registrar or an employee or contractor of the bureau shall 49372
make available for inspection or copying a motor vehicle record of 49373
a peace officer, correctional employee, or youth services employee 49374
who has filed a request under division (A) of this section if the 49375
record is a public record under that section, but shall obliterate 49376
the residence address of the officer or employee from the record 49377
before making the record available for inspection or copying. The 49378
business address of the officer or employee may be made available 49379
in response to a valid request under section 149.43 of the Revised 49380
Code.49381

       (C) Notwithstanding division (B)(2) of section 4501.27 of the 49382
Revised Code, the registrar or an employee or contractor of the 49383
bureau may disclose the residence address of a peace officer, 49384
correctional employee, or youth services employee who files a 49385
request under division (A) of this section only in accordance with 49386
division (B)(1) of section 4501.27 of the Revised Code or pursuant 49387
to a court order.49388

       (D) If a peace officer, correctional employee, or youth 49389
services employee files a request under division (A)(1)(b) of this 49390
section, the officer shall still provide a residence address in 49391
any application for a driver's license or license renewal and in 49392
any application for a motor vehicle registration or registration 49393
renewal. In accordance with sections 4503.101 and 4507.09 of the 49394
Revised Code, an officer or employee shall notify the registrar of 49395
any change in the officer's or employee's residence within ten 49396
days after the change occurs.49397

       (E) A certificate of registration issued to a peace officer, 49398
correctional employee, or youth services employee who files a 49399
request under division (A)(1)(b) of this section shall display the 49400
business address of the officer. Notwithstanding section 4507.13 49401
of the Revised Code, a driver's license issued to an officer or 49402
employee who files a request under division (A)(1)(b) of this 49403
section shall display the business address of the officer or 49404
employee.49405

       (F) The registrar may utilize the residence address of a 49406
peace officer, correctional employee, or youth services employee 49407
who files a request under division (A)(1)(b) of this section in 49408
carrying out the functions of the bureau of motor vehicles, 49409
including determining the district of registration for any 49410
applicable motor vehicle tax levied under Chapter 4504. of the 49411
Revised Code, determining whether tailpipe emissions inspections 49412
are required, and financial responsibility verification.49413

       (G) The registrar shall adopt rules governing a request for 49414
confidentiality of a peace officer's, correctional employee's, or 49415
youth services employee's residence address or use of a business 49416
address, including the documentary evidence required to verify the 49417
person's status as a peace officer, correctional employee, or 49418
youth services employee, the length of time that the request will 49419
be valid, procedures for ensuring that the bureau of motor 49420
vehicles receives notice of any change in a person's status as a 49421
peace officer, correctional employee, or youth services employee, 49422
and any other procedures the registrar considers necessary. The 49423
rules of the registrar may require an officer or employee to 49424
surrender any certificate of registration and any driver's license 49425
bearing the business address of the officer or employee and, upon 49426
payment of any applicable fees, to receive a certificate of 49427
registration and license bearing the officer's or employee's 49428
residence address, whenever the officer or employee no longer is 49429
associated with that business address.49430

       (H) As used in this section:49431

       (1) "Motor vehicle record" has the same meaning as in section 49432
4501.27 of the Revised Code.49433

       (2) "Peace officer" means those persons described in division 49434
(A)(1), (2), (4), (5), (6), (9), (10), (12), (13), or (15) of 49435
section 109.71 of the Revised Code, an officer, agent, or employee 49436
of the state or any of its agencies, instrumentalities, or 49437
political subdivisions, upon whom, by statute, a duty to conserve 49438
the peace or to enforce all or certain laws is imposed and the 49439
authority to arrest violators is conferred, within the limits of 49440
that statutory duty and authority, an investigator of the bureau 49441
of criminal identification and investigation as defined in section 49442
2903.11 of the Revised Code, the house sergeant at arms appointed 49443
under division (B)(1) of section 101.311 of the Revised Code, and49444
any assistant sergeant at arms appointed under division (C)(1) of 49445
section 101.311 of the Revised Code, the senate sergeant at arms, 49446
and an assistant senate sergeant at arms. "Peace officer" includes 49447
state highway patrol troopers but does not include the sheriff of 49448
a county or a supervisory employee who, in the absence of the 49449
sheriff, is authorized to stand in for, exercise the authority of, 49450
and perform the duties of the sheriff.49451

       (3) "Correctional employee" and "youth services employee" 49452
have the same meanings as in section 149.43 of the Revised Code.49453

       Sec. 4503.031.  (A)(1) If the registrar of motor vehicles49454
determines that space is available at a deputy registrar's office, 49455
the clerk of the court of common pleas in the county where the 49456
deputy is located shall be given the opportunity to use the space 49457
for the purpose of carrying out the clerk's duties related to the 49458
titling of motor vehicles. Each clerk of the court of common pleas 49459
using space in a deputy registrar's office shall remit to the 49460
deputy a rental fee equal to the percentage of space occupied by 49461
the clerk in the deputy's office multiplied by the rental fee or 49462
mortgage cost paid for the entire deputy registrar's office plus a 49463
pro rata share of all utility costs.49464

       (2) If the clerk of the court of common pleas determines that 49465
space is available at any location at which the clerk has an 49466
office, the clerk shall inform the registrar of that fact and 49467
shall provide the registrar with all pertinent information about 49468
the available space. After giving due consideration to the 49469
locations of deputy registrar offices existing in the county in 49470
which the clerk of the court of common pleas is located, the 49471
registrar shall inform the appropriate deputy registrars, if any, 49472
of the available space of the clerk of the court of common pleas. 49473
Each such deputy registrar shall be given the opportunity to use 49474
the space for the purpose of carrying out the deputy registrar's 49475
duties. Each deputy registrar using space in the office of the 49476
clerk of a court of common pleas shall remit to the clerk a rental 49477
fee equal to the percentage of space occupied by the deputy 49478
registrar in the clerk's office multiplied by the rental fee or 49479
mortgage cost, if any, paid for the entire clerk's office plus a 49480
pro rata share of all utility costs.49481

       If no current deputy registrar elects to utilize the 49482
available space of the clerk of the court of common pleas, the 49483
registrar shall inform all persons who express an interest to the 49484
registrar in becoming a deputy registrar in that county of the 49485
available space of the clerk if the space in fact continues to be 49486
available.49487

        (3) A clerk of the court of common pleas and a deputy 49488
registrar may elect to occupy a location at which neither the 49489
clerk nor the deputy currently is an occupant. Any such 49490
arrangement is subject to the approval of the registrar, who shall 49491
give due consideration to all issues and aspects of the proposed 49492
arrangement, including security at the location and service to the 49493
public.49494

       (B) TheWhen possible, as determined by the director of 49495
public safety and the registrar and the superintendent of the 49496
state highway patrol shall cooperate to the fullest extent 49497
possible in locating, a driver's license examination station shall 49498
be located at or near a deputy registrar's office. For each 49499
driver's license examination station located at a deputy 49500
registrar's office, the superintendent of the state highway patrol49501
director shall remit to the deputy a rental fee equal to the 49502
percentage of space occupied for the driver's license examination 49503
station multiplied by the rental fee or mortgage cost paid for the 49504
entire deputy registrar's office plus a pro rata share of all 49505
utility costs.49506

       (C) During the regular business hours of deputy registrars, 49507
the registrar shall keep the central office open and sufficiently 49508
staffed to be able to respond to the technical needs of the 49509
deputies.49510

       (D) The registrar shall adopt rules to promote public 49511
information regarding motor vehicle registration. The rules shall 49512
include:49513

       (1) The operation by the registrar, during the regular 49514
business hours of deputy registrars, of a toll-free telephone 49515
number to give information and receive complaints;49516

       (2) The listing by the registrar, of each deputy registrar, 49517
together with the toll-free telephone number required under 49518
division (D)(1) of this section, in the local business and 49519
advertising telephone directory for the area served by the deputy, 49520
under the heading of the bureau of motor vehicles.49521

       Sec. 4503.061.  (A) All manufactured and mobile homes shall 49522
be listed on either the real property tax list or the manufactured 49523
home tax list of the county in which the home has situs. Each 49524
owner shall follow the procedures in this section to identify the 49525
home to the county auditor of the county containing the taxing 49526
district in which the home has situs so that the auditor may place 49527
the home on the appropriate tax list.49528

       (B) When a manufactured or mobile home first acquires situs 49529
in this state and is subject to real property taxation pursuant to 49530
division (B)(1) or (2) of section 4503.06 of the Revised Code, the 49531
owner shall present to the auditor of the county containing the 49532
taxing district in which the home has its situs the certificate of 49533
title for the home, together with proof that all taxes due have 49534
been paid and proof that a relocation notice was obtained for the 49535
home if required under this section. Upon receiving the 49536
certificate of title and the required proofs, the auditor shall 49537
place the home on the real property tax list and proceed to treat 49538
the home as other properties on that list. After the auditor has 49539
placed the home on the tax list of real and public utility 49540
property, the auditor shall deliver the certificate of title to 49541
the clerk of the court of common pleas that issued it pursuant to 49542
section 4505.11 of the Revised Code, and the clerk shall 49543
inactivate the certificate of title.49544

       (C)(1) When a manufactured or mobile home subject to a 49545
manufactured home tax is relocated to or first acquires situs in 49546
any county that has adopted a permanent manufactured home 49547
registration system, as provided in division (F) of this section, 49548
the owner, within thirty days after the home is relocated or first 49549
acquires situs under section 4503.06 of the Revised Code, shall 49550
register the home with the county auditor of the county containing 49551
the taxing district in which the home has its situs. For the first 49552
registration in each county of situs, the owner or vendee in 49553
possession shall present to the county auditor an Ohio certificate 49554
of title, certified copy of the certificate of title, or 49555
memorandum certificate of title as such are required by law, and 49556
proof, as required by the county auditor, that the home, if it has 49557
previously been occupied and is being relocated, has been 49558
previously registered, that all taxes due and required to be paid 49559
under division (H)(1) of this section before a relocation notice 49560
may be issued have been paid, and that a relocation notice was 49561
obtained for the home if required by division (H) of this section. 49562
If the owner or vendee does not possess the Ohio certificate of 49563
title, certified copy of the certificate of title, or memorandum 49564
certificate of title at the time the owner or vendee first 49565
registers the home in a county, the county auditor shall register 49566
the home without presentation of the document, but the owner or 49567
vendee shall present the certificate of title, certified copy of 49568
the certificate of title, or memorandum certificate of title to 49569
the county auditor within fourteen days after the owner or vendee 49570
obtains possession of the document.49571

       (2) When a manufactured or mobile home is registered for the 49572
first time in a county and when the total tax due has been paid as 49573
required by division (F) of section 4503.06 of the Revised Code or 49574
divisions (E) and (H) of this section, the county treasurer shall 49575
note by writing or by a stamp on the certificate of title, 49576
certified copy of certificate of title, or memorandum certificate 49577
of title that the home has been registered and that the taxes due, 49578
if any, have been paid for the preceding five years and for the 49579
current year. The treasurer shall then issue a certificate 49580
evidencing registration and a decal to be displayed on the street 49581
side of the home. The certificate is valid in any county in this 49582
state during the year for which it is issued.49583

       (3) For each year thereafter, the county treasurer shall 49584
issue a tax bill stating the amount of tax due under section 49585
4503.06 of the Revised Code, as provided in division (D)(6) of 49586
that section. When the total tax due has been paid as required by 49587
division (F) of that section, the county treasurer shall issue a 49588
certificate evidencing registration that shall be valid in any 49589
county in this state during the year for which the certificate is 49590
issued.49591

       (4) The permanent decal issued under this division is valid 49592
during the period of ownership, except that when a manufactured 49593
home is relocated in another county the owner shall apply for a 49594
new registration as required by this section and section 4503.06 49595
of the Revised Code.49596

       (D)(1) All owners of manufactured or mobile homes subject to 49597
the manufactured home tax being relocated to or having situs in a 49598
county that has not adopted a permanent registration system, as 49599
provided in division (F) of this section, shall register the home 49600
within thirty days after the home is relocated or first acquires 49601
situs under section 4503.06 of the Revised Code and thereafter 49602
shall annually register the home with the county auditor of the 49603
county containing the taxing district in which the home has its 49604
situs.49605

       (2) Upon the annual registration, the county treasurer shall 49606
issue a tax bill stating the amount of annual manufactured home 49607
tax due under section 4503.06 of the Revised Code, as provided in 49608
division (D)(6) of that section. When a manufactured or mobile 49609
home is registered and when the tax for the current one-half year 49610
has been paid as required by division (F) of that section, the 49611
county treasurer shall issue a certificate evidencing registration 49612
and a decal. The certificate and decal are valid in any county in 49613
this state during the year for which they are issued. The decal 49614
shall be displayed on the street side of the home.49615

       (3) For the first annual registration in each county of 49616
situs, the county auditor shall require the owner or vendee to 49617
present an Ohio certificate of title, certified copy of the 49618
certificate of title, or memorandum certificate of title as such 49619
are required by law, and proof, as required by the county auditor, 49620
that the manufactured or mobile home has been previously 49621
registered, if such registration was required, that all taxes due 49622
and required to be paid under division (H)(1) of this section 49623
before a relocation notice may be issued have been paid, and that 49624
a relocation notice was obtained for the home if required by 49625
division (H) of this section. If the owner or vendee does not 49626
possess the Ohio certificate of title, certified copy of the 49627
certificate of title, or memorandum certificate of title at the 49628
time the owner or vendee first registers the home in a county, the 49629
county auditor shall register the home without presentation of the 49630
document, but the owner or vendee shall present the certificate of 49631
title, certified copy of the certificate of title, or memorandum 49632
certificate of title to the county auditor within fourteen days 49633
after the owner or vendee obtains possession of the document. When 49634
the county treasurer receives the tax payment, the county 49635
treasurer shall note by writing or by a stamp on the certificate 49636
of title, certified copy of the certificate of title, or 49637
memorandum certificate of title that the home has been registered 49638
for the current year and that the manufactured home taxes due, if 49639
any, have been paid for the preceding five years and for the 49640
current year.49641

       (4) For subsequent annual registrations, the auditor may 49642
require the owner or vendee in possession to present an Ohio 49643
certificate of title, certified copy of the certificate of title, 49644
or memorandum certificate of title to the county treasurer upon 49645
payment of the manufactured home tax that is due.49646

       (E)(1) Upon the application to transfer ownership of a 49647
manufactured or mobile home for which manufactured home taxes are 49648
paid pursuant to division (C) of section 4503.06 of the Revised 49649
Code the clerk of the court of common pleas shall not issue any 49650
certificate of title that does not contain or have attached both 49651
of the following:49652

       (a) An endorsement of the county treasurer stating that the 49653
home has been registered for each year of ownership and that all 49654
manufactured home taxes imposed pursuant to section 4503.06 of the 49655
Revised Code have been paid or that no tax is due;49656

       (b) An endorsement of the county auditor that the 49657
manufactured home transfer tax imposed pursuant to section 322.06 49658
of the Revised Code and any fees imposed under division (G) of 49659
section 319.54 of the Revised Code have been paid.49660

       (2) If all the taxes have not been paid, the clerk shall 49661
notify the vendee to contact the county treasurer of the county 49662
containing the taxing district in which the home has its situs at 49663
the time of the proposed transfer. The county treasurer shall then 49664
collect all the taxes that are due for the year of the transfer 49665
and all previous years not exceeding a total of five years. The 49666
county treasurer shall distribute that part of the collection owed 49667
to the county treasurer of other counties if the home had its 49668
situs in another county during a particular year when the unpaid 49669
tax became due and payable. The burden to prove the situs of the 49670
home in the years that the taxes were not paid is on the 49671
transferor of the home. Upon payment of the taxes, the county 49672
auditor shall remove all remaining taxes from the manufactured 49673
home tax list and the delinquent manufactured home tax list, and 49674
the county treasurer shall release all liens for such taxes. The 49675
clerk of courts shall issue a certificate of title, free and clear 49676
of all liens for manufactured home taxes, to the transferee of the 49677
home.49678

       (3) Once the transfer is complete and the certificate of 49679
title has been issued, the transferee shall register the 49680
manufactured or mobile home pursuant to division (C) or (D) of 49681
this section with the county auditor of the county containing the 49682
taxing district in which the home remains after the transfer or, 49683
if the home is relocated to another county, with the county 49684
auditor of the county to which the home is relocated. The 49685
transferee need not pay the annual tax for the year of acquisition 49686
if the original owner has already paid the annual tax for that 49687
year.49688

       (F) The county auditor may adopt a permanent registration 49689
system and issue a permanent decal with the first registration as 49690
prescribed by the tax commissioner.49691

       (G) When any manufactured or mobile home required to be 49692
registered by this section is not registered, the county auditor 49693
shall impose a penalty of one hundred dollars upon the owner and 49694
deposit the amount to the credit of the county real estate 49695
assessment fund to be used to pay the costs of administering this 49696
section and section 4503.06 of the Revised Code. If unpaid, the 49697
penalty shall constitute a lien on the home and shall be added by 49698
the county auditor to the manufactured home tax list for 49699
collection.49700

       (H)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this division, before 49701
moving a manufactured or mobile home on public roads from one 49702
address within this state to another address within or outside 49703
this state, the owner of the home shall obtain a relocation 49704
notice, as provided by this section, from the auditor of the 49705
county in which the home is located if the home is currently 49706
subject to taxation pursuant to section 4503.06 of the Revised 49707
Code. The auditor shall charge five dollars for the notice, and 49708
deposit the amount to the credit of the county real estate 49709
assessment fund to be used to pay the costs of administering this 49710
section and section 4503.06 of the Revised Code. The auditor shall 49711
not issue a relocation notice unless all taxes owed on the home 49712
under section 4503.06 of the Revised Code that were first charged 49713
to the home during the period of ownership of the owner seeking 49714
the relocation notice have been paid. If the home is being moved 49715
by a new owner of the home or by a party taking repossession of 49716
the home, the auditor shall not issue a relocation notice unless 49717
all of the taxes due for the preceding five years and for the 49718
current year have been paid. A relocation notice issued by a 49719
county auditor is valid until the last day of December of the year 49720
in which it was issued.49721

       If the home is being moved by a sheriff, police officer, 49722
constable, bailiff, or manufactured home park operator, as defined 49723
in section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code, or any agent of 49724
any of these persons, for purposes of removal from a manufactured 49725
home park and storage, sale, or destruction under section 1923.14 49726
of the Revised Code, the auditor shall issue a relocation notice 49727
without requiring payment of any taxes owed on the home under 49728
section 4503.06 of the Revised Code.49729

       (2) If a manufactured or mobile home is not yet subject to 49730
taxation under section 4503.06 of the Revised Code, the owner of 49731
the home shall obtain a relocation notice from the dealer of the 49732
home. Within thirty days after the manufactured or mobile home is 49733
purchased, the dealer of the home shall provide the auditor of the 49734
county in which the home is to be located written notice of the 49735
name of the purchaser of the home, the registration number or 49736
vehicle identification number of the home, and the address or 49737
location to which the home is to be moved. The county auditor 49738
shall provide to each manufactured and mobile home dealer, without 49739
charge, a supply of relocation notices to be distributed to 49740
purchasers pursuant to this section.49741

       (3) The notice shall be in the form of a one-foot square 49742
yellow sign with the words "manufactured home relocation notice" 49743
printed prominently on it. The name of the owner of the home, the 49744
home's registration number or vehicle identification number, the 49745
county and the address or location to which the home is being 49746
moved, and the county in which the notice is issued shall also be 49747
entered on the notice.49748

       (4) The relocation notice must be attached to the rear of the 49749
home when the home is being moved on a public road. Except as 49750
provided in divisions (H)(1) and (5) of this section, no person 49751
shall drive a motor vehicle moving a manufactured or mobile home 49752
on a public road from one address to another address within this 49753
state unless a relocation notice is attached to the rear of the 49754
home.49755

       (5) If the county auditor determines that a manufactured or 49756
mobile home has been moved without a relocation notice as required 49757
under this division, the auditor shall impose a penalty of one 49758
hundred dollars upon the owner of the home and upon the person who 49759
moved the home and deposit the amount to the credit of the county 49760
real estate assessment fund to pay the costs of administering this 49761
section and section 4503.06 of the Revised Code. If the home was 49762
relocated from one county in this state to another county in this 49763
state and the county auditor of the county to which the home was 49764
relocated imposes the penalty, that county auditor, upon 49765
collection of the penalty, shall cause an amount equal to the 49766
penalty to be transmitted from the county real estate assessment 49767
fund to the county auditor of the county from which the home was 49768
relocated, who shall deposit the amount to the credit of the 49769
county real estate assessment fund. If the penalty on the owner is 49770
unpaid, the penalty shall constitute a lien on the home and the 49771
auditor shall add the penalty to the manufactured home tax list 49772
for collection. If the county auditor determines that a dealer 49773
that has sold a manufactured or mobile home has failed to timely 49774
provide the information required under this division, the auditor 49775
shall impose a penalty upon the dealer in the amount of one 49776
hundred dollars. The penalty shall be credited to the county real 49777
estate assessment fund and used to pay the costs of administering 49778
this section and section 4503.06 of the Revised Code.49779

       (I) Whoever violates division (H)(4) of this section is 49780
guilty of a minor misdemeanor.49781

       Sec. 4503.062. (A) Every operator of a manufactured home 49782
court, or manufactured home park, as defined in section 3733.0149783
4781.01 of the Revised Code, or when there is no operator, every 49784
owner of property used for such purposes on which three or more 49785
manufactured or mobile homes are located, shall keep a register of 49786
all manufactured and mobile homes that make use of the court, 49787
park, or property. The register shall contain all of the 49788
following:49789

       (1) The name of the owner and all inhabitants of each home;49790

       (2) The ages of all inhabitants of each home;49791

       (3) The permanent and temporary post office addresses of all 49792
inhabitants of each home;49793

       (4) The license number of each home;49794

       (5) The state issuing each such license;49795

       (6) The date of arrival and of departure of each home;49796

       (7) The make and model of each home, if known and if either 49797
of the following applies:49798

       (a) The home enters the court, park, or property on or after 49799
January 1, 2003.49800

       (b) Ownership of the home in the court or park, or on the 49801
property, is transferred on or after January 1, 2003.49802

       (B) The register shall be open to inspection by the county 49803
auditor, the county treasurer, agents of the auditor or treasurer, 49804
and all law enforcement agencies at all times.49805

       (C) Any person who fails to comply with this section shall be 49806
fined not less than twenty-five nor more than one hundred dollars.49807

       Sec. 4503.49.  (A) As used in this section, "ambulance," 49808
"ambulette," "emergency medical service organization," 49809
"nonemergency medical service organization," and "nontransport 49810
vehicle" have the same meanings as in section 4766.01 of the 49811
Revised Code.49812

       (B) Each private emergency medical service organization and 49813
each private nonemergency medical service organization shall apply 49814
to the registrar of motor vehicles for the registration of any 49815
ambulance, ambulette, or nontransport vehicle it owns or leases. 49816
The application shall be accompanied by a copy of the certificate 49817
of licensure issued to the organization by the Ohiostate board of 49818
emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices and the 49819
following fees:49820

       (1) The regular license tax as prescribed under section 49821
4503.04 of the Revised Code;49822

       (2) Any local license tax levied under Chapter 4504. of the 49823
Revised Code;49824

       (3) An additional fee of seven dollars and fifty cents. The 49825
additional fee shall be for the purpose of compensating the bureau 49826
of motor vehicles for additional services required to be performed 49827
under this section and shall be transmitted by the registrar to 49828
the treasurer of state for deposit in the state bureau of motor 49829
vehicles fund created by section 4501.25 of the Revised Code.49830

       (C) On receipt of a complete application, the registrar shall 49831
issue to the applicant the appropriate certificate of registration 49832
for the vehicle and do one of the following:49833

       (1) Issue a set of license plates with a validation sticker 49834
and a set of stickers to be attached to the plates as an 49835
identification of the vehicle's classification as an ambulance, 49836
ambulette, or nontransport vehicle;49837

       (2) Issue a validation sticker alone when so required by 49838
section 4503.191 of the Revised Code.49839

       Sec. 4503.81.  As used in the bus taxation proration and 49840
reciprocity agreement authorized by section 4503.80 of the Revised 49841
Code, with reference to Ohio, "administrator" means the registrar 49842
of motor vehicles.49843

       The registrar may make such exemptions from the coverage of 49844
the agreement as may be appropriate and may make such changes in 49845
methods for the reporting of any information required to be 49846
furnished to this state pursuant to the agreement as, in histhe 49847
registrar's judgment, are suitable; provided that any such 49848
exemptions or changes shall not be contrary to the purposes set 49849
forth in article I of the agreement and shall be made in order to 49850
permit the continuance of uniformity of practice among the 49851
contracting states with respect to buses. Any such exemption or 49852
change shall be made by rule adopted under Chapter 119. of the 49853
Revised Code. Unless otherwise provided in any statute withdrawing 49854
this state from participation in the agreement, the governor shall 49855
be the officer to give notice of withdrawal therefrom.49856

       The fees referred to in article IV (a) of the agreement shall 49857
include the fees provided in section 4503.04 of the Revised Code 49858
and the annual tax provided in section 4921.184921.19 of the 49859
Revised Code. As to the state of Ohio, article V (d) shall mean 49860
that all fleets not subject to this compact shall continue to 49861
enjoy that reciprocity and those privileges extended by virtue of 49862
other provisions of the Revised Code.49863

       Nothing contained herein shall be construed so as to permit a 49864
fleet which is prorating under the laws of another state to avoid 49865
proration under this compact.49866

       The registrar of motor vehicles shall collect a fee of two 49867
dollars per bus for every bus registered under the provisions of 49868
article IV (a) for administration of the agreement, in addition to 49869
the fees provided in article IV (a).49870

       The registrar of motor vehicles shall assess the operator of 49871
buses registered under the provisions of article IV (a) the actual 49872
cost of histhe registrar's auditing the accuracy of the fees paid 49873
by the operator in accordance with article IV (a).49874

       The registrar of motor vehicles may renounce the 49875
participation of this state in the bus taxation proration and 49876
reciprocity agreement under article VI of section 4503.80 of the 49877
Revised Code, if he findsafter finding that further participation 49878
in the compact is not in the best interests of the state. The 49879
registrar shall set forth histhe registrar's reasons in writing 49880
and serve notice of intention to renounce the compact upon the 49881
owner of each registered fleet. HeThe registrar shall then 49882
certify the renunciation to the governor.49883

       Sec. 4506.01.  As used in this chapter:49884

       (A) "Alcohol concentration" means the concentration of 49885
alcohol in a person's blood, breath, or urine. When expressed as a 49886
percentage, it means grams of alcohol per the following:49887

       (1) One hundred milliliters of whole blood, blood serum, or 49888
blood plasma;49889

       (2) Two hundred ten liters of breath;49890

       (3) One hundred milliliters of urine.49891

       (B) "Commercial driver's license" means a license issued in 49892
accordance with this chapter that authorizes an individual to 49893
drive a commercial motor vehicle.49894

       (C) "Commercial driver's license information system" means 49895
the information system established pursuant to the requirements of 49896
the "Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 49897
3207-171, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 2701.49898

       (D) Except when used in section 4506.25 of the Revised Code, 49899
"commercial motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle designed or 49900
used to transport persons or property that meets any of the 49901
following qualifications:49902

       (1) Any combination of vehicles with a combined gross vehicle 49903
weight rating of twenty-six thousand one pounds or more, provided 49904
the gross vehicle weight rating of the vehicle or vehicles being 49905
towed is in excess of ten thousand pounds;49906

       (2) Any single vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating of 49907
twenty-six thousand one pounds or more, or any such vehicle towing 49908
a vehicle having a gross vehicle weight rating that is not in 49909
excess of ten thousand pounds;49910

       (3) Any single vehicle or combination of vehicles that is not 49911
a class A or class B vehicle, but is designed to transport sixteen 49912
or more passengers including the driver;49913

       (4) Any school bus with a gross vehicle weight rating of less 49914
than twenty-six thousand one pounds that is designed to transport 49915
fewer than sixteen passengers including the driver;49916

       (5) Is transporting hazardous materials for which placarding 49917
is required under subpart F of 49 C.F.R. part 172, as amended;49918

       (6) Any single vehicle or combination of vehicles that is 49919
designed to be operated and to travel on a public street or 49920
highway and is considered by the federal motor carrier safety 49921
administration to be a commercial motor vehicle, including, but 49922
not limited to, a motorized crane, a vehicle whose function is to 49923
pump cement, a rig for drilling wells, and a portable crane.49924

       (E) "Controlled substance" means all of the following:49925

       (1) Any substance classified as a controlled substance under 49926
the "Controlled Substances Act," 80 Stat. 1242 (1970), 21 U.S.C.A. 49927
802(6), as amended;49928

       (2) Any substance included in schedules I through V of 21 49929
C.F.R. part 1308, as amended;49930

       (3) Any drug of abuse.49931

       (F) "Conviction" means an unvacated adjudication of guilt or 49932
a determination that a person has violated or failed to comply 49933
with the law in a court of original jurisdiction or an authorized 49934
administrative tribunal, an unvacated forfeiture of bail or 49935
collateral deposited to secure the person's appearance in court, a 49936
plea of guilty or nolo contendere accepted by the court, the 49937
payment of a fine or court cost, or violation of a condition of 49938
release without bail, regardless of whether or not the penalty is 49939
rebated, suspended, or probated.49940

       (G) "Disqualification" means any of the following:49941

       (1) The suspension, revocation, or cancellation of a person's 49942
privileges to operate a commercial motor vehicle;49943

       (2) Any withdrawal of a person's privileges to operate a 49944
commercial motor vehicle as the result of a violation of state or 49945
local law relating to motor vehicle traffic control other than 49946
parking, vehicle weight, or vehicle defect violations;49947

       (3) A determination by the federal motor carrier safety 49948
administration that a person is not qualified to operate a 49949
commercial motor vehicle under 49 C.F.R. 391.49950

       (H) "Downgrade" means any of the following, as applicable:49951

       (1) A change in the commercial driver's license holder's 49952
self-certified status as described in division (A)(2) of section 49953
4506.10 of the Revised Code;49954

       (2) A change to a lesser class of vehicle;49955

       (3) Removal of commercial driver's license privileges from 49956
the individual's driver's license.49957

       (I) "Drive" means to drive, operate, or be in physical 49958
control of a motor vehicle.49959

       (J) "Driver" means any person who drives, operates, or is in 49960
physical control of a commercial motor vehicle or is required to 49961
have a commercial driver's license.49962

       (K) "Driver's license" means a license issued by the bureau 49963
of motor vehicles that authorizes an individual to drive.49964

       (L) "Drug of abuse" means any controlled substance, dangerous 49965
drug as defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code, or 49966
over-the-counter medication that, when taken in quantities 49967
exceeding the recommended dosage, can result in impairment of 49968
judgment or reflexes.49969

       (M) "Electronic device" includes a cellular telephone, a 49970
personal digital assistant, a pager, a computer, and any other 49971
device used to input, write, send, receive, or read text.49972

       (N) "Eligible unit of local government" means a village, 49973
township, or county that has a population of not more than three 49974
thousand persons according to the most recent federal census.49975

       (O) "Employer" means any person, including the federal 49976
government, any state, and a political subdivision of any state, 49977
that owns or leases a commercial motor vehicle or assigns a person 49978
to drive such a motor vehicle.49979

       (P) "Endorsement" means an authorization on a person's 49980
commercial driver's license that is required to permit the person 49981
to operate a specified type of commercial motor vehicle.49982

       (Q) "Farm truck" means a truck controlled and operated by a 49983
farmer for use in the transportation to or from a farm, for a 49984
distance of not more than one hundred fifty miles, of products of 49985
the farm, including livestock and its products, poultry and its 49986
products, floricultural and horticultural products, and in the 49987
transportation to the farm, from a distance of not more than one 49988
hundred fifty miles, of supplies for the farm, including tile, 49989
fence, and every other thing or commodity used in agricultural, 49990
floricultural, horticultural, livestock, and poultry production, 49991
and livestock, poultry, and other animals and things used for 49992
breeding, feeding, or other purposes connected with the operation 49993
of the farm, when the truck is operated in accordance with this 49994
division and is not used in the operations of a motor 49995
transportation company or private motor carrier, as defined in 49996
section 4923.01 of the Revised Code.49997

       (R) "Fatality" means the death of a person as the result of a 49998
motor vehicle accident occurring not more than three hundred 49999
sixty-five days prior to the date of death.50000

       (S) "Felony" means any offense under federal or state law 50001
that is punishable by death or specifically classified as a felony 50002
under the law of this state, regardless of the penalty that may be 50003
imposed.50004

       (T) "Foreign jurisdiction" means any jurisdiction other than 50005
a state.50006

       (U) "Gross vehicle weight rating" means the value specified 50007
by the manufacturer as the maximum loaded weight of a single or a 50008
combination vehicle. The gross vehicle weight rating of a 50009
combination vehicle is the gross vehicle weight rating of the 50010
power unit plus the gross vehicle weight rating of each towed 50011
unit.50012

       (V) "Hazardous materials" means any material that has been 50013
designated as hazardous under 49 U.S.C. 5103 and is required to be 50014
placarded under subpart F of 49 C.F.R. part 172 or any quantity of 50015
a material listed as a select agent or toxin in 42 C.F.R. part 73, 50016
as amended.50017

       (W) "Imminent hazard" means the existence of a condition that 50018
presents a substantial likelihood that death, serious illness, 50019
severe personal injury, or a substantial endangerment to health, 50020
property, or the environment may occur before the reasonably 50021
foreseeable completion date of a formal proceeding begun to lessen 50022
the risk of that death, illness, injury, or endangerment.50023

       (X) "Medical variance" means one of the following received by 50024
a driver from the federal motor carrier safety administration that 50025
allows the driver to be issued a medical certificate:50026

       (1) An exemption letter permitting operation of a commercial 50027
motor vehicle under 49 C.F.R. 381, subpart C or 49 C.F.R. 391.64;50028

       (2) A skill performance evaluation certificate permitting 50029
operation of a commercial motor vehicle pursuant to 49 C.F.R. 50030
391.49.50031

       (Y) "Motor vehicle" means a vehicle, machine, tractor, 50032
trailer, or semitrailer propelled or drawn by mechanical power 50033
used on highways, except that such term does not include a 50034
vehicle, machine, tractor, trailer, or semitrailer operated 50035
exclusively on a rail.50036

       (Z) "Out-of-service order" means a declaration by an 50037
authorized enforcement officer of a federal, state, local, 50038
Canadian, or Mexican jurisdiction declaring that a driver, 50039
commercial motor vehicle, or commercial motor carrier operation is 50040
out of service as defined in 49 C.F.R. 390.5.50041

       (AA) "Peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 50042
2935.01 of the Revised Code.50043

       (BB) "Portable tank" means a liquid or gaseous packaging 50044
designed primarily to be loaded onto or temporarily attached to a 50045
vehicle and equipped with skids, mountings, or accessories to 50046
facilitate handling of the tank by mechanical means.50047

       (CC) "Public safety vehicle" has the same meaning as in 50048
divisions (E)(1) and (3) of section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.50049

       (DD) "Recreational vehicle" includes every vehicle that is 50050
defined as a recreational vehicle in section 4501.01 of the 50051
Revised Code and is used exclusively for purposes other than 50052
engaging in business for profit.50053

       (EE) "Residence" means any person's residence determined in 50054
accordance with standards prescribed in rules adopted by the 50055
registrar.50056

       (FF) "School bus" has the same meaning as in section 4511.01 50057
of the Revised Code.50058

       (GG) "Serious traffic violation" means any of the following:50059

       (1) A conviction arising from a single charge of operating a 50060
commercial motor vehicle in violation of any provision of section 50061
4506.03 of the Revised Code;50062

       (2) A violation while operating a commercial motor vehicle of 50063
a law of this state, or any municipal ordinance or county or 50064
township resolution prohibiting texting while driving, or any 50065
other substantially similar law of another state or political 50066
subdivision of another state;50067

       (3) A conviction arising from the operation of any motor 50068
vehicle that involves any of the following:50069

       (a) A single charge of any speed in excess of the posted 50070
speed limit by fifteen miles per hour or more;50071

       (b) Violation of section 4511.20 or 4511.201 of the Revised 50072
Code or any similar ordinance or resolution, or of any similar law 50073
of another state or political subdivision of another state;50074

       (c) Violation of a law of this state or an ordinance or 50075
resolution relating to traffic control, other than a parking 50076
violation, or of any similar law of another state or political 50077
subdivision of another state, that results in a fatal accident;50078

       (d) Violation of section 4506.03 of the Revised Code or a 50079
substantially similar municipal ordinance or county or township 50080
resolution, or of any similar law of another state or political 50081
subdivision of another state, that involves the operation of a 50082
commercial motor vehicle without a valid commercial driver's 50083
license with the proper class or endorsement for the specific 50084
vehicle group being operated or for the passengers or type of 50085
cargo being transported;50086

       (e) Violation of section 4506.03 of the Revised Code or a 50087
substantially similar municipal ordinance or county or township 50088
resolution, or of any similar law of another state or political 50089
subdivision of another state, that involves the operation of a 50090
commercial motor vehicle without a valid commercial driver's 50091
license being in the person's possession;50092

       (f) Violation of section 4511.33 or 4511.34 of the Revised 50093
Code, or any municipal ordinance or county or township resolution 50094
substantially similar to either of those sections, or any 50095
substantially similar law of another state or political 50096
subdivision of another state;50097

       (g) Violation of any other law of this state or an ordinance 50098
or resolution relating to traffic control, other than a parking 50099
violation, that is determined to be a serious traffic violation by 50100
the United States secretary of transportation and the director 50101
designates as such by rule.50102

       (HH) "State" means a state of the United States and includes 50103
the District of Columbia.50104

       (II) "Tank vehicle" means any commercial motor vehicle that 50105
is designed to transport any liquid and has a maximum capacity 50106
greater than one hundred nineteen gallons or is designed to 50107
transport gaseous materials and has a water capacity greater than 50108
one thousand pounds within a tank that is either permanently or 50109
temporarily attached to the vehicle or its chassis. "Tank vehicle" 50110
does not include any of the following:50111

       (1) Any portable tank having a rated capacity of less than 50112
one thousand gallons;50113

       (2) Tanks used exclusively as a fuel tank for the motor 50114
vehicle to which it is attached;50115

        (3) An empty storage container tank that is not designed for 50116
transportation and that is readily distinguishable from a 50117
transportation tank;50118

        (4) Ready-mix concrete mixers.50119

       (JJ) "Tester" means a person or entity acting pursuant to a 50120
valid agreement entered into pursuant to division (B) of section 50121
4506.09 of the Revised Code.50122

       (KK) "Texting" means manually entering alphanumeric text 50123
into, or reading text from, an electronic device. Texting includes 50124
short message service, e-mail, instant messaging, a command or 50125
request to access a world wide web page, or engaging in any other 50126
form of electronic text retrieval or entry, for present or future 50127
communication. Texting does not include the following:50128

       (1) Reading, selecting, or entering a telephone number, an 50129
extension number, or voicemail retrieval codes and commands into 50130
an electronic device for the purpose of initiating or receiving a 50131
telephone call or using voice commands to initiate or receive a 50132
telephone call;50133

       (2) Inputting, selecting, or reading information on a global 50134
positioning system or navigation system.50135

       (LL) "Texting while driving" means texting while operating a 50136
commercial motor vehicle, with the motor running, including while 50137
temporarily stationary because of traffic, a traffic control 50138
device, or other momentary delays, but does not include operating 50139
a commercial motor vehicle with or without the motor running when 50140
the driver has moved the vehicle to the side of, or off, a highway 50141
and is stopped in a location where the vehicle can safely remain 50142
stationary.50143

        (MM) "United States" means the fifty states and the District 50144
of Columbia.50145

       (NN) "Upgrade" means a change in the class of vehicles, 50146
endorsements, or self-certified status as described in division 50147
(A)(2) of section 4506.10 of the Revised Code, that expands the 50148
ability of a current commercial driver's license holder to operate 50149
commercial motor vehicles under this chapter;50150

       (OO) "Vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 4511.01 of 50151
the Revised Code.50152

       Sec. 4506.03.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 50153
(C) of this section, the following shall apply:50154

       (1) No person shall drive a commercial motor vehicle on a 50155
highway in this state unless the person holds, and has in the 50156
person's possession, a valid commercial driver's license with 50157
proper endorsements for the motor vehicle being driven, issued by 50158
the registrar of motor vehicles, a valid examiner's commercial 50159
driving permit issued under section 4506.13 of the Revised Code, a 50160
valid restricted commercial driver's license and waiver for 50161
farm-related service industries issued under section 4506.24 of 50162
the Revised Code, or a valid commercial driver's license temporary 50163
instruction permit issued by the registrar and is accompanied by 50164
an authorized state driver's license examiner or tester or a 50165
person who has been issued and has in the person's immediate 50166
possession a current, valid commercial driver's license with 50167
proper endorsements for the motor vehicle being driven.50168

       (2) No person shall be issued a commercial driver's license 50169
until the person surrenders to the registrar of motor vehicles all 50170
valid licenses issued to the person by another jurisdiction 50171
recognized by this state. The registrar shall report the surrender 50172
of a license to the issuing authority, together with information 50173
that a license is now issued in this state. The registrar shall 50174
destroy any such license that is not returned to the issuing 50175
authority.50176

       (3) No person who has been a resident of this state for 50177
thirty days or longer shall drive a commercial motor vehicle under 50178
the authority of a commercial driver's license issued by another 50179
jurisdiction.50180

       (B) Nothing in division (A) of this section applies to any 50181
qualified person when engaged in the operation of any of the 50182
following:50183

       (1) A farm truck;50184

       (2) Fire equipment for a fire department, volunteer or 50185
nonvolunteer fire company, fire district, or joint fire district;50186

       (3) A public safety vehicle used to provide transportation or 50187
emergency medical service for ill or injured persons;50188

       (4) A recreational vehicle;50189

       (5) A commercial motor vehicle within the boundaries of an 50190
eligible unit of local government, if the person is employed by 50191
the eligible unit of local government and is operating the 50192
commercial motor vehicle for the purpose of removing snow or ice 50193
from a roadway by plowing, sanding, or salting, but only if either 50194
the employee who holds a commercial driver's license issued under 50195
this chapter and ordinarily operates a commercial motor vehicle 50196
for these purposes is unable to operate the vehicle, or the 50197
employing eligible unit of local government determines that a snow 50198
or ice emergency exists that requires additional assistance;50199

       (6) A vehicle operated for military purposes by any member or 50200
uniformed employee of the armed forces of the United States or 50201
their reserve components, including the Ohio national guard. This 50202
exception does not apply to United States reserve technicians.50203

       (7) A commercial motor vehicle that is operated for 50204
nonbusiness purposes. "Operated for nonbusiness purposes" means 50205
that the commercial motor vehicle is not used in commerce as 50206
"commerce" is defined in 49 C.F.R. 383.5, as amended, and is not 50207
regulated by the public utilities commission pursuant to Chapter50208
49194905., 4921., or 4923. of the Revised Code.50209

       (8) A motor vehicle that is designed primarily for the 50210
transportation of goods and not persons, while that motor vehicle 50211
is being used for the occasional transportation of personal 50212
property by individuals not for compensation and not in the 50213
furtherance of a commercial enterprise;50214

       (9) A police SWAT team vehicle;50215

       (10) A police vehicle used to transport prisoners.50216

       (C) Nothing contained in division (B)(5) of this section 50217
shall be construed as preempting or superseding any law, rule, or 50218
regulation of this state concerning the safe operation of 50219
commercial motor vehicles.50220

       (D) Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor 50221
of the first degree.50222

       Sec. 4506.22.  (A) The director of public safety and the 50223
registrar of motor vehicles, subject to approval by the director, 50224
may, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, adopt 50225
any rules necessary to carry out this chapter.50226

       (B) The department of public safety may do all of the 50227
following:50228

       (1) Enter into or make any agreements, arrangements, or 50229
declarations necessary to carry out this chapter;50230

       (2) Charge a fee for all publications that is equal to the 50231
cost of printing the publications.50232

       (C) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to restrict 50233
the authority of the public utilities commission specified in 50234
Chapters 4905., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code regarding 50235
safety rules applicable to motor carriers.50236

       Sec. 4506.25.  (A) As used in this section, "commercial motor 50237
vehicle" means any self-propelled or towed vehicle used on public 50238
highways in intrastate or interstate commerce to transport 50239
passengers or property that meets any of the following 50240
specifications:50241

       (1) The vehicle has a gross vehicle weight rating or gross 50242
combination weight rating of ten thousand one pounds or more.50243

       (2) The vehicle is designed to transport sixteen or more 50244
passengers, including the driver.50245

       (3) The vehicle is used in the transportation of hazardous 50246
materials in a quantity requiring placarding under the regulations 50247
issued by the United States secretary of transportation under the 50248
"Hazardous Materials Transportation Act," 88 Stat. 2156 (1975), 49 50249
U.S.C.A. 1801, as amended.50250

       (B) The registrar of motor vehicles shall disqualify any 50251
person from operating a commercial motor vehicle who receives a 50252
notice of a conviction for violation of an out-of-service order 50253
issued under rules of the public utilities commission adopted 50254
pursuant to section 4919.79, 4921.04Chapter 4905., 4921., or 50255
4923.204923. of the Revised Code, or a conviction for a violation 50256
of the same or similar laws of another state or jurisdiction 50257
applicable to vehicles in regulated commerce.50258

       Sec. 4507.01.  (A) As used in this chapter, "motor vehicle," 50259
"motorized bicycle," "state," "owner," "operator," "chauffeur," 50260
and "highways" have the same meanings as in section 4501.01 of the 50261
Revised Code.50262

       "Driver's license" means a class D license issued to any 50263
person to operate a motor vehicle or motor-driven cycle, other 50264
than a commercial motor vehicle, and includes "probationary 50265
license," "restricted license," and any operator's or chauffeur's 50266
license issued before January 1, 1990.50267

       "Probationary license" means the license issued to any person 50268
between sixteen and eighteen years of age to operate a motor 50269
vehicle.50270

       "Restricted license" means the license issued to any person 50271
to operate a motor vehicle subject to conditions or restrictions 50272
imposed by the registrar of motor vehicles.50273

       "Commercial driver's license" means the license issued to a 50274
person under Chapter 4506. of the Revised Code to operate a 50275
commercial motor vehicle.50276

       "Commercial motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 50277
4506.01 of the Revised Code.50278

       "Motorized bicycle license" means the license issued under 50279
section 4511.521 of the Revised Code to any person to operate a 50280
motorized bicycle including a "probationary motorized bicycle 50281
license."50282

       "Probationary motorized bicycle license" means the license 50283
issued under section 4511.521 of the Revised Code to any person 50284
between fourteen and sixteen years of age to operate a motorized 50285
bicycle.50286

       "Identification card" means a card issued under sections 50287
4507.50 and 4507.51 of the Revised Code.50288

       "Resident" means a person who, in accordance with standards 50289
prescribed in rules adopted by the registrar, resides in this 50290
state on a permanent basis.50291

       "Temporary resident" means a person who, in accordance with 50292
standards prescribed in rules adopted by the registrar, resides in 50293
this state on a temporary basis.50294

       (B) In the administration of this chapter and Chapter 4506. 50295
of the Revised Code, the registrar has the same authority as is 50296
conferred on the registrar by section 4501.02 of the Revised Code. 50297
Any act of an authorized deputy registrar of motor vehicles under 50298
direction of the registrar is deemed the act of the registrar.50299

       To carry out this chapter, the registrar shall appoint such 50300
deputy registrars in each county as are necessary.50301

       The registrar also shall provide at each place where an 50302
application for a driver's or commercial driver's license or 50303
identification card may be made the necessary equipment to take a 50304
color photograph of the applicant for such license or card as 50305
required under section 4506.11 or 4507.06 of the Revised Code, and 50306
to conduct the vision screenings required by section 4507.12 of 50307
the Revised Code, and equipment to laminate licenses, motorized 50308
bicycle licenses, and identification cards as required by sections 50309
4507.13, 4507.52, and 4511.521 of the Revised Code.50310

       The registrar shall assign one or more deputy registrars to 50311
any driver's license examining station operated under the 50312
supervision of the state highway patroldirector of public safety, 50313
whenever the registrar considers such assignment possible. Space 50314
shall be provided in the driver's license examining station for 50315
any such deputy registrar so assigned. The deputy registrars shall 50316
not exercise the powers conferred by such sections upon the 50317
registrar, unless they are specifically authorized to exercise 50318
such powers by such sections.50319

       (C) No agent for any insurance company, writing automobile 50320
insurance, shall be appointed deputy registrar, and any such 50321
appointment is void. No deputy registrar shall in any manner 50322
solicit any form of automobile insurance, nor in any manner 50323
advise, suggest, or influence any licensee or applicant for 50324
license for or against any kind or type of automobile insurance, 50325
insurance company, or agent, nor have the deputy registrar's 50326
office directly connected with the office of any automobile 50327
insurance agent, nor impart any information furnished by any 50328
applicant for a license or identification card to any person, 50329
except the registrar. This division shall not apply to any 50330
nonprofit corporation appointed deputy registrar.50331

       (D) The registrar shall immediately remove a deputy registrar 50332
who violates the requirements of this chapter.50333

       (E) The registrar shall periodically solicit bids and enter 50334
into a contract for the provision of laminating equipment and 50335
laminating materials to the registrar and all deputy registrars. 50336
The registrar shall not consider any bid that does not provide for 50337
the supplying of both laminating equipment and laminating 50338
materials. The laminating materials selected shall contain a 50339
security feature so that any tampering with the laminating 50340
material covering a license or identification card is readily 50341
apparent. In soliciting bids and entering into a contract for the 50342
provision of laminating equipment and laminating materials, the 50343
registrar shall observe all procedures required by law.50344

       Sec. 4507.011.  (A) Each deputy registrar assigned to a 50345
driver's license examining station by the registrar of motor 50346
vehicles as provided in section 4507.01 of the Revised Code shall 50347
remit to the superintendentdirector of the state highway patrol50348
public safety a rental fee equal to the percentage of space 50349
occupied by the deputy registrar in the driver's license examining 50350
station multiplied by the rental fee paid for the entire driver's 50351
license examining station plus a pro rata share of all utility 50352
costs. All such moneys received by the superintendentdirector50353
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 50354
registrar rental fund, which is hereby created. The moneys in the 50355
fund shall be used by the state highway patroldepartment of 50356
public safety only to pay the rent and expenses of the driver's 50357
license examining stations. All investment earnings of the fund 50358
shall be credited to the fund.50359

       (B) Each deputy registrar assigned to a bureau of motor 50360
vehicles' location shall reimburse the registrar a monthly 50361
building rental fee, including applicable utility charges. All 50362
such moneys received by the registrar shall be deposited into the 50363
state bureau of motor vehicles fund created in section 4501.25 of 50364
the Revised Code. 50365

       Sec. 4507.12.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) of 50366
section 4507.10 of the Revised Code, each person applying for the 50367
renewal of a driver's license shall submit to a screening of the 50368
person's vision before the license may be renewed. The vision 50369
screening shall be conducted at the office of the deputy registrar 50370
receiving the application for license renewal.50371

       (B) When the results of a vision screening given under 50372
division (A) of this section indicate that the vision of the 50373
person examined meets the standards required for licensing, the 50374
deputy registrar may renew the person's driver's license at that 50375
time.50376

       (C) When the results of a vision screening given under 50377
division (A) of this section indicate that the vision of the 50378
person screened may not meet the standards required for licensing, 50379
the deputy registrar shall not renew the person's driver's license 50380
at that time but shall refer the person to a driver's license 50381
examiner appointed by the superintendentdirector of the state 50382
highway patrolpublic safety under section 5503.215502.05 of the 50383
Revised Code for a further examination of the person's vision. 50384
When a person referred to a driver's license examiner by a deputy 50385
registrar does not meet the vision standards required for 50386
licensing, the driver's license examiner shall retain the person's 50387
operator's or chauffeur's license and shall immediately notify the 50388
registrar of motor vehicles of that fact. No driver's license 50389
shall be issued to any such person, until the person's vision is 50390
corrected to meet the standards required for licensing and the 50391
person passes the vision screening required by this section. Any 50392
person who operates a motor vehicle on a highway, or on any public 50393
or private property used by the public for purposes of vehicular 50394
travel or parking, during the time the person's driver's license 50395
is held by a driver's license examiner under this division, shall 50396
be deemed to be operating a motor vehicle in violation of division 50397
(A) of section 4510.12 of the Revised Code.50398

       (D) The registrar shall adopt rules and shall provide any 50399
forms necessary to properly conduct vision screenings at the 50400
office of a deputy registrar.50401

       (E) No person conducting vision screenings under this section 50402
shall be personally liable for damages for injury or loss to 50403
persons or property and for death caused by the operation of a 50404
motor vehicle by any person whose driver's license was renewed by 50405
the deputy registrar under division (B) of this section.50406

       Sec. 4507.51.  (A)(1) Every application for an identification 50407
card or duplicate shall be made on a form furnished by the 50408
registrar of motor vehicles, shall be signed by the applicant, and 50409
by the applicant's parent or guardian if the applicant is under 50410
eighteen years of age, and shall contain the following information 50411
pertaining to the applicant: name, date of birth, sex, general 50412
description including the applicant's height, weight, hair color, 50413
and eye color, address, and social security number. The 50414
application also shall state whether an applicant wishes to 50415
certify willingness to make an anatomical gift under section 50416
2108.05 of the Revised Code and shall include information about 50417
the requirements of sections 2108.01 to 2108.29 of the Revised 50418
Code that apply to persons who are less than eighteen years of 50419
age. The statement regarding willingness to make such a donation 50420
shall be given no consideration in the decision of whether to 50421
issue an identification card. Each applicant shall be photographed 50422
in color at the time of making application. 50423

       (2)(a) The application also shall state whether the applicant 50424
has executed a valid durable power of attorney for health care 50425
pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the Revised Code or has 50426
executed a declaration governing the use or continuation, or the 50427
withholding or withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant 50428
to sections 2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the 50429
applicant has executed either type of instrument, whether the 50430
applicant wishes the identification card issued to indicate that 50431
the applicant has executed the instrument. 50432

       (b) On and after October 7, 2009, the application also shall 50433
state whether the applicant is a veteran, active duty, or 50434
reservist of the armed forces of the United States and, if the 50435
applicant is such, whether the applicant wishes the identification 50436
card issued to indicate that the applicant is a veteran, active 50437
duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the United States by a 50438
military designation on the identification card. 50439

       (3) The registrar or deputy registrar, in accordance with 50440
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 50441
any person who applies for an identification card or duplicate if 50442
the applicant is eligible and wishes to be registered as an 50443
elector. The decision of an applicant whether to register as an 50444
elector shall be given no consideration in the decision of whether 50445
to issue the applicant an identification card or duplicate. 50446

       (B) The application for an identification card or duplicate 50447
shall be filed in the office of the registrar or deputy registrar. 50448
Each applicant shall present documentary evidence as required by 50449
the registrar of the applicant's age and identity, and the 50450
applicant shall swear that all information given is true. An 50451
identification card issued by the department of rehabilitation and 50452
correction under section 5120.59 of the Revised Code or an 50453
identification card issued by the department of youth services 50454
under section 5139.511 of the Revised Code shall be sufficient 50455
documentary evidence under this division upon verification of the 50456
applicant's social security number by the registrar or a deputy 50457
registrar. Upon issuing an identification card under this section 50458
for a person who has been issued an identification card under 50459
section 5120.59 or section 5139.511 of the Revised Code, the 50460
registrar or deputy registrar shall destroy the identification 50461
card issued under section 5120.59 or section 5139.511 of the 50462
Revised Code. 50463

       All applications for an identification card or duplicate 50464
shall be filed in duplicate, and if submitted to a deputy 50465
registrar, a copy shall be forwarded to the registrar. The 50466
registrar shall prescribe rules for the manner in which a deputy 50467
registrar is to file and maintain applications and other records. 50468
The registrar shall maintain a suitable, indexed record of all 50469
applications denied and cards issued or canceled. 50470

       (C) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 50471
after the date that is fifteen months after the effective date of 50472
this amendmentApril 7, 2009, the form furnished by the registrar 50473
of motor vehicles for an application for an identification card or 50474
duplicate shall inform applicants that the applicant must present 50475
a copy of the applicant's DD-214 or an equivalent document in 50476
order to qualify to have the card or duplicate indicate that the 50477
applicant is an honorably discharged veteran of the armed forces 50478
of the United States based on a request made pursuant to division 50479
(A)(2)(b) of this section. 50480

       Sec. 4508.02.  (A)(1) The director of public safety, subject 50481
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt and prescribe 50482
such rules concerning the administration and enforcement of this 50483
chapter as are necessary to protect the public. The director shall 50484
inspect the school facilities and equipment of applicants and 50485
licensees and examine applicants for instructor's licenses.50486

       (2) The director shall adopt rules governing online driver 50487
education courses that may be completed via the internet to 50488
satisfy the classroom instruction under division (C) of this 50489
section. The rules shall do all of the following:50490

       (a) Establish standards that an online driver training 50491
enterprise must satisfy to be licensed to offer an online driver 50492
education course via the internet, including, at a minimum, proven 50493
expertise in providing driver education and an acceptable 50494
infrastructure capable of providing secure online driver education 50495
in accord with advances in internet technology. The rules shall 50496
allow an online driver training enterprise to be affiliated with a 50497
licensed driver training school offering in-person classroom 50498
instruction, but shall not require such an affiliation.50499

        (b) Establish content requirements that an online driver 50500
education course must satisfy to be approved as equivalent to 50501
twenty-four hours of in-person classroom instruction;50502

        (c) Establish attendance standards, including a maximum 50503
number of course hours that may be completed in a twenty-four-hour 50504
period;50505

       (d) Allow an enrolled applicant to begin the required eight 50506
hours of actual behind-the-wheel instruction upon completing at 50507
least two hours of course instruction and being issued a 50508
certificate of enrollment by a licensed online driver training 50509
enterprise;50510

        (e) Establish any other requirements necessary to regulate 50511
online driver education.50512

       (B) The director shall administer and enforce this chapter.50513

       (C) The rules shall require twenty-four hours of in-person50514
classroom instruction or completion of an approved, equivalent 50515
online driver education course offered via the internet by a 50516
licensed online driver training enterprise, and eight hours of 50517
actual behind-the-wheel instruction conducted on public streets 50518
and highways of this state for all beginning drivers of 50519
noncommercial motor vehicles who are under age eighteen.50520

       (D) The rules shall state the minimum hours for classroom and 50521
behind-the-wheel instruction required for beginning drivers of 50522
commercial trucks, commercial cars, buses, and commercial 50523
tractors, trailers, and semi-trailerssemitrailers.50524

       (E)(1) The department of public safety may charge a fee to 50525
each online driver training enterprise in an amount sufficient to 50526
pay the actual expenses the department incurs in the regulation of 50527
online driver education courses.50528

        (2) The department shall supply to each licensed online 50529
driver training enterprise certificates to be used for certifying 50530
an applicant's enrollment in an approved online driver education 50531
course and a separate certificate to be issued upon successful 50532
completion of an approved online driver education course. The 50533
certificates shall be numbered serially. The department may charge 50534
a fee to each online driver training enterprise per certificate 50535
supplied to pay the actual expenses the department incurs in 50536
supplying the certificates.50537

       Sec. 4510.037.  (A) When the registrar of motor vehicles 50538
determines that the total points charged against any person under 50539
section 4510.036 of the Revised Code exceed five, the registrar 50540
shall send a warning letter to the person at the person's last 50541
known address by regular mail. The warning letter shall list the 50542
reported violations that are the basis of the points charged, list 50543
the number of points charged for each violation, and outline the 50544
suspension provisions of this section.50545

       (B) When the registrar determines that the total points 50546
charged against any person under section 4510.036 of the Revised 50547
Code within any two-year period beginning on the date of the first 50548
conviction within the two-year period is equal to twelve or more, 50549
the registrar shall send a written notice to the person at the 50550
person's last known address by regular mail. The notice shall list 50551
the reported violations that are the basis of the points charged, 50552
list the number of points charged for each violation, and state 50553
that, because the total number of points charged against the 50554
person within the applicable two-year period is equal to twelve or 50555
more, the registrar is imposing a class D suspension of the 50556
person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 50557
nonresident operating privileges for the period of time specified 50558
in division (B)(4) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The 50559
notice also shall state that the suspension is effective on the 50560
twentieth day after the mailing of the notice, unless the person 50561
files a petition appealing the determination and suspension in the 50562
municipal court, county court, or, if the person is under the age 50563
of eighteen, the juvenile division of the court of common pleas in 50564
whose jurisdiction the person resides or, if the person is not a 50565
resident of this state, in the Franklin county municipal court or 50566
juvenile division of the Franklin county court of common pleas. By 50567
filing the appeal of the determination and suspension, the person 50568
agrees to pay the cost of the proceedings in the appeal of the 50569
determination and suspension and alleges that the person can show 50570
cause why the person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 50571
permit or nonresident operating privileges should not be 50572
suspended.50573

       (C)(1) Any person against whom at least two but less than 50574
twelve points have been charged under section 4510.036 of the 50575
Revised Code may enroll in a course of remedial driving 50576
instruction that is approved by the director of public safety. 50577
Upon the person's completion of an approved course of remedial 50578
driving instruction, the person may apply to the registrar on a 50579
form prescribed by the registrar for a credit of two points on the 50580
person's driving record. Upon receipt of the application and proof 50581
of completion of the approved remedial driving course, the 50582
registrar shall approve the two-point credit. The registrar shall 50583
not approve any credits for a person who completes an approved 50584
course of remedial driving instruction pursuant to a judge's order 50585
under section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.50586

       (2) In any three-year period, the registrar shall approve 50587
only one two-point credit on a person's driving record under 50588
division (C)(1) of this section. The registrar shall approve not 50589
more than five two-point credits on a person's driving record 50590
under division (C)(1) of this section during that person's 50591
lifetime.50592

       (D) When a judge of a court of record suspends a person's 50593
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident 50594
operating privilege and charges points against the person under 50595
section 4510.036 of the Revised Code for the offense that resulted 50596
in the suspension, the registrar shall credit that period of 50597
suspension against the time of any subsequent suspension imposed 50598
under this section for which those points were used to impose the 50599
subsequent suspension. When a United States district court that 50600
has jurisdiction within this state suspends a person's driver's or 50601
commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating 50602
privileges pursuant to the "Assimilative Crimes Act," 102 Stat. 50603
4381 (1988), 18 U.S.C.A. 13, as amended, the district court 50604
prepares an abstract pursuant to section 4510.031 of the Revised 50605
Code, and the district court charges points against the person 50606
under section 4510.036 of the Revised Code for the offense that 50607
resulted in the suspension, the registrar shall credit the period 50608
of suspension imposed by the district court against the time of 50609
any subsequent suspension imposed under this section for which the 50610
points were used to impose the subsequent suspension.50611

       (E) The registrar, upon the written request of a licensee who 50612
files a petition under division (B) of this section, shall furnish 50613
the licensee a certified copy of the registrar's record of the 50614
convictions and bond forfeitures of the person. This record shall 50615
include the name, address, and date of birth of the licensee; the 50616
name of the court in which each conviction or bail forfeiture took 50617
place; the nature of the offense that was the basis of the 50618
conviction or bond forfeiture; and any other information that the 50619
registrar considers necessary. If the record indicates that twelve 50620
points or more have been charged against the person within a 50621
two-year period, it is prima-facie evidence that the person is a 50622
repeat traffic offender, and the registrar shall suspend the 50623
person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 50624
nonresident operating privilege pursuant to division (B) of this 50625
section.50626

       In hearing the petition and determining whether the person 50627
filing the petition has shown cause why the person's driver's or 50628
commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating 50629
privilege should not be suspended, the court shall decide the 50630
issue on the record certified by the registrar and any additional 50631
relevant, competent, and material evidence that either the 50632
registrar or the person whose license is sought to be suspended 50633
submits.50634

       (F) If a petition is filed under division (B) of this section 50635
in a county court, the prosecuting attorney of the county in which 50636
the case is pending shall represent the registrar in the 50637
proceedings, except that, if the petitioner resides in a municipal 50638
corporation within the jurisdiction of the county court, the city 50639
director of law, village solicitor, or other chief legal officer 50640
of the municipal corporation shall represent the registrar in the 50641
proceedings. If a petition is filed under division (B) of this 50642
section in a municipal court, the registrar shall be represented 50643
in the resulting proceedings as provided in section 1901.34 of the 50644
Revised Code.50645

       (G) If the court determines from the evidence submitted that 50646
a person who filed a petition under division (B) of this section 50647
has failed to show cause why the person's driver's or commercial 50648
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privileges 50649
should not be suspended, the court shall assess against the person 50650
the cost of the proceedings in the appeal of the determination and 50651
suspension and shall impose the applicable suspension under this 50652
section or suspend all or a portion of the suspension and impose 50653
any conditions upon the person that the court considers proper or 50654
impose upon the person a community control sanction pursuant to 50655
section 2929.15 or 2929.25 of the Revised Code. If the court 50656
determines from the evidence submitted that a person who filed a 50657
petition under division (B) of this section has shown cause why 50658
the person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 50659
nonresident operating privileges should not be suspended, the 50660
costs of the appeal proceeding shall be paid out of the county 50661
treasury of the county in which the proceedings were held.50662

       (H) Any person whose driver's or commercial driver's license 50663
or permit or nonresident operating privileges are suspended under 50664
this section is not entitled to apply for or receive a new 50665
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or to request or 50666
be granted nonresident operating privileges during the effective 50667
period of the suspension.50668

       (I) Upon the termination of any suspension or other penalty 50669
imposed under this section involving the surrender of license or 50670
permit and upon the request of the person whose license or permit 50671
was suspended or surrendered, the registrar shall return the 50672
license or permit to the person upon determining that the person 50673
has complied with all provisions of section 4510.038 of the 50674
Revised Code or, if the registrar destroyed the license or permit 50675
pursuant to section 4510.52 of the Revised Code, shall reissue the 50676
person's license or permit.50677

       (J) Any person whose driver's or commercial driver's license 50678
or permit or nonresident operating privileges are suspended as a 50679
repeat traffic offender under this section and who, during the 50680
suspension, operates any motor vehicle upon any public roads and 50681
highways is guilty of driving under a twelve-point suspension, a 50682
misdemeanor of the first degree. The court shall sentence the 50683
offender to a minimum term of three days in jail. No court shall 50684
suspend the first three days of jail time imposed pursuant to this 50685
division.50686

       (K) The registrar, in accordance with specific statutory 50687
authority, may suspend the privilege of driving a motor vehicle on 50688
the public roads and highways of this state that is granted to 50689
nonresidents by section 4507.04 of the Revised Code.50690

       (L) Any(1) Except as provided in division (L)(2) of this 50691
section, any course of remedial driving instruction the director 50692
of public safety approves under this section shall require its 50693
students to attend at least fifty per cent of the course in 50694
person. Theand the director shall not approve any course of 50695
remedial driving instruction that permits its students to take 50696
more than fifty per cent of the course in any other manner, 50697
including via video teleconferencing or the internet.50698

       (2) The director may approve a course of remedial instruction 50699
that permits students to take the entire course via video 50700
teleconferencing or the internet. In accordance with division (C) 50701
of this section, upon receiving an application with a certificate 50702
or other proof of completion of a course approved under this 50703
division, the registrar shall approve the two-point reduction.50704

       Sec. 4510.038. (A) Any person whose driver's or commercial 50705
driver's license or permit is suspended or who is granted limited 50706
driving privileges under section 4510.037, under division (H) of 50707
section 4511.19, or under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for 50708
a violation of a municipal ordinance that is substantially 50709
equivalent to division (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code 50710
is not eligible to retain the license, or to have the driving 50711
privileges reinstated, until each of the following has occurred:50712

       (1) The person successfully completes a course of remedial 50713
driving instruction approved by the director of public safety. A 50714
minimum of twenty-five per cent of the number of hours of 50715
instruction included in the course shall be devoted to instruction 50716
on driver attitude.50717

       The course also shall devote a number of hours to instruction 50718
in the area of alcohol and drugs and the operation of vehicles. 50719
The instruction shall include, but not be limited to, a review of 50720
the laws governing the operation of a vehicle while under the 50721
influence of alcohol, drugs, or a combination of them, the dangers 50722
of operating a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, 50723
drugs, or a combination of them, and other information relating to 50724
the operation of vehicles and the consumption of alcoholic 50725
beverages and use of drugs. The director, in consultation with the 50726
director of alcohol and drug addiction services, shall prescribe 50727
the content of the instruction. The number of hours devoted to the 50728
area of alcohol and drugs and the operation of vehicles shall 50729
comprise a minimum of twenty-five per cent of the number of hours 50730
of instruction included in the course.50731

       (2) The person is examined in the manner provided for in 50732
section 4507.20 of the Revised Code, and found by the registrar of 50733
motor vehicles to be qualified to operate a motor vehicle;50734

       (3) The person gives and maintains proof of financial 50735
responsibility, in accordance with section 4509.45 of the Revised 50736
Code.50737

       (B) Any(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this 50738
section, any course of remedial driving instruction the director 50739
of public safety approves under this section shall require its 50740
students to attend at least fifty per cent of the course in 50741
person. Theand the director shall not approve any course of 50742
remedial driving instruction that permits its students to take 50743
more than fifty per cent of the course in any other manner, 50744
including via video teleconferencing or the internet.50745

       (2) The director may approve a course of remedial instruction 50746
that permits students to take the entire course via video 50747
teleconferencing or the internet.50748

       Sec. 4511.191.  (A)(1) As used in this section:50749

        (a) "Physical control" has the same meaning as in section 50750
4511.194 of the Revised Code.50751

       (b) "Alcohol monitoring device" means any device that 50752
provides for continuous alcohol monitoring, any ignition interlock 50753
device, any immobilizing or disabling device other than an 50754
ignition interlock device that is constantly available to monitor 50755
the concentration of alcohol in a person's system, or any other 50756
device that provides for the automatic testing and periodic 50757
reporting of alcohol consumption by a person and that a court 50758
orders a person to use as a sanction imposed as a result of the 50759
person's conviction of or plea of guilty to an offense.50760

       (2) Any person who operates a vehicle, streetcar, or 50761
trackless trolley upon a highway or any public or private property 50762
used by the public for vehicular travel or parking within this 50763
state or who is in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or 50764
trackless trolley shall be deemed to have given consent to a 50765
chemical test or tests of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 50766
plasma, breath, or urine to determine the alcohol, drug of abuse, 50767
controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or 50768
combination content of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 50769
plasma, breath, or urine if arrested for a violation of division 50770
(A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 50771
4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent 50772
municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance.50773

       (3) The chemical test or tests under division (A)(2) of this 50774
section shall be administered at the request of a law enforcement 50775
officer having reasonable grounds to believe the person was 50776
operating or in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or 50777
trackless trolley in violation of a division, section, or 50778
ordinance identified in division (A)(2) of this section. The law 50779
enforcement agency by which the officer is employed shall 50780
designate which of the tests shall be administered.50781

       (4) Any person who is dead or unconscious, or who otherwise 50782
is in a condition rendering the person incapable of refusal, shall 50783
be deemed to have consented as provided in division (A)(2) of this 50784
section, and the test or tests may be administered, subject to 50785
sections 313.12 to 313.16 of the Revised Code.50786

       (5)(a) If a law enforcement officer arrests a person for a 50787
violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 50788
Code, section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially 50789
equivalent municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance and 50790
if the person if convicted would be required to be sentenced under 50791
division (G)(1)(c), (d), or (e) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 50792
Code, the law enforcement officer shall request the person to 50793
submit, and the person shall submit, to a chemical test or tests 50794
of the person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or 50795
urine for the purpose of determining the alcohol, drug of abuse, 50796
controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or 50797
combination content of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 50798
plasma, breath, or urine. A law enforcement officer who makes a 50799
request pursuant to this division that a person submit to a 50800
chemical test or tests is not required to advise the person of the 50801
consequences of submitting to, or refusing to submit to, the test 50802
or tests and is not required to give the person the form described 50803
in division (B) of section 4511.192 of the Revised Code, but the 50804
officer shall advise the person at the time of the arrest that if 50805
the person refuses to take a chemical test the officer may employ 50806
whatever reasonable means are necessary to ensure that the person 50807
submits to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood 50808
serum or plasma. The officer shall also advise the person at the 50809
time of the arrest that the person may have an independent 50810
chemical test taken at the person's own expense. Divisions (A)(3) 50811
and (4) of this section apply to the administration of a chemical 50812
test or tests pursuant to this division.50813

       (b) If a person refuses to submit to a chemical test upon a 50814
request made pursuant to division (A)(5)(a) of this section, the 50815
law enforcement officer who made the request may employ whatever 50816
reasonable means are necessary to ensure that the person submits 50817
to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood serum or 50818
plasma. A law enforcement officer who acts pursuant to this 50819
division to ensure that a person submits to a chemical test of the 50820
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma is immune from 50821
criminal and civil liability based upon a claim for assault and 50822
battery or any other claim for the acts, unless the officer so 50823
acted with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or 50824
reckless manner.50825

       (B)(1) Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement 50826
officer who arrested a person for a violation of division (A) or 50827
(B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 4511.194 of 50828
the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal 50829
ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance that was completed and 50830
sent to the registrar of motor vehicles and a court pursuant to 50831
section 4511.192 of the Revised Code in regard to a person who 50832
refused to take the designated chemical test, the registrar shall 50833
enter into the registrar's records the fact that the person's 50834
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident 50835
operating privilege was suspended by the arresting officer under 50836
this division and that section and the period of the suspension, 50837
as determined under this section. The suspension shall be subject 50838
to appeal as provided in section 4511.197 of the Revised Code. The 50839
suspension shall be for whichever of the following periods 50840
applies:50841

       (a) Except when division (B)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this 50842
section applies and specifies a different class or length of 50843
suspension, the suspension shall be a class C suspension for the 50844
period of time specified in division (B)(3) of section 4510.02 of 50845
the Revised Code.50846

       (b) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 50847
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 50848
test, had refused one previous request to consent to a chemical 50849
test or had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one violation 50850
of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 50851
one other equivalent offense, the suspension shall be a class B 50852
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 50853
(B)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.50854

       (c) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 50855
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 50856
test, had refused two previous requests to consent to a chemical 50857
test, had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two violations of 50858
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 50859
other equivalent offenses, or had refused one previous request to 50860
consent to a chemical test and also had been convicted of or 50861
pleaded guilty to one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 50862
4511.19 of the Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, which 50863
violation or offense arose from an incident other than the 50864
incident that led to the refusal, the suspension shall be a class 50865
A suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 50866
(B)(1) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.50867

       (d) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 50868
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 50869
test, had refused three or more previous requests to consent to a 50870
chemical test, had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or 50871
more violations of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the 50872
Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, or had refused a number 50873
of previous requests to consent to a chemical test and also had 50874
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a number of violations of 50875
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 50876
other equivalent offenses that cumulatively total three or more 50877
such refusals, convictions, and guilty pleas, the suspension shall 50878
be for five years.50879

       (2) The registrar shall terminate a suspension of the 50880
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit of a resident or 50881
of the operating privilege of a nonresident, or a denial of a 50882
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, imposed 50883
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section upon receipt of notice 50884
that the person has entered a plea of guilty to, or that the 50885
person has been convicted after entering a plea of no contest to, 50886
operating a vehicle in violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 50887
Code or in violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, if the offense 50888
for which the conviction is had or the plea is entered arose from 50889
the same incident that led to the suspension or denial.50890

       The registrar shall credit against any judicial suspension of 50891
a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 50892
nonresident operating privilege imposed pursuant to section 50893
4511.19 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to section 4510.07 of the 50894
Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, any 50895
time during which the person serves a related suspension imposed 50896
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section.50897

       (C)(1) Upon receipt of the sworn report of the law 50898
enforcement officer who arrested a person for a violation of 50899
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a 50900
municipal OVI ordinance that was completed and sent to the 50901
registrar and a court pursuant to section 4511.192 of the Revised 50902
Code in regard to a person whose test results indicate that the 50903
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine 50904
contained at least the concentration of alcohol specified in 50905
division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (e) of section 4511.19 of the 50906
Revised Code or at least the concentration of a listed controlled 50907
substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance 50908
specified in division (A)(1)(j) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 50909
Code, the registrar shall enter into the registrar's records the 50910
fact that the person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 50911
permit or nonresident operating privilege was suspended by the 50912
arresting officer under this division and section 4511.192 of the 50913
Revised Code and the period of the suspension, as determined under 50914
divisions (C)(1)(a) to (d) of this section. The suspension shall 50915
be subject to appeal as provided in section 4511.197 of the 50916
Revised Code. The suspension described in this division does not 50917
apply to, and shall not be imposed upon, a person arrested for a 50918
violation of section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a 50919
substantially equivalent municipal ordinance who submits to a 50920
designated chemical test. The suspension shall be for whichever of 50921
the following periods applies:50922

       (a) Except when division (C)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this 50923
section applies and specifies a different period, the suspension 50924
shall be a class E suspension imposed for the period of time 50925
specified in division (B)(5) of section 4510.02 of the Revised 50926
Code.50927

       (b) The suspension shall be a class C suspension for the 50928
period of time specified in division (B)(3) of section 4510.02 of 50929
the Revised Code if the person has been convicted of or pleaded 50930
guilty to, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 50931
one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the 50932
Revised Code or one other equivalent offense.50933

       (c) If, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 50934
the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two 50935
violations of a statute or ordinance described in division 50936
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the suspension shall be a class B 50937
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 50938
(B)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.50939

       (d) If, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 50940
the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to more than 50941
two violations of a statute or ordinance described in division 50942
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the suspension shall be a class A 50943
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 50944
(B)(1) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.50945

       (2) The registrar shall terminate a suspension of the 50946
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit of a resident or 50947
of the operating privilege of a nonresident, or a denial of a 50948
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, imposed 50949
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section upon receipt of notice 50950
that the person has entered a plea of guilty to, or that the 50951
person has been convicted after entering a plea of no contest to, 50952
operating a vehicle in violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 50953
Code or in violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, if the offense 50954
for which the conviction is had or the plea is entered arose from 50955
the same incident that led to the suspension or denial.50956

       The registrar shall credit against any judicial suspension of 50957
a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 50958
nonresident operating privilege imposed pursuant to section 50959
4511.19 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to section 4510.07 of the 50960
Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, any 50961
time during which the person serves a related suspension imposed 50962
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section.50963

       (D)(1) A suspension of a person's driver's or commercial 50964
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege 50965
under this section for the time described in division (B) or (C) 50966
of this section is effective immediately from the time at which 50967
the arresting officer serves the notice of suspension upon the 50968
arrested person. Any subsequent finding that the person is not 50969
guilty of the charge that resulted in the person being requested 50970
to take the chemical test or tests under division (A) of this 50971
section does not affect the suspension.50972

       (2) If a person is arrested for operating a vehicle, 50973
streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of division (A) or 50974
(B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a municipal OVI 50975
ordinance, or for being in physical control of a vehicle, 50976
streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of section 4511.194 50977
of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal 50978
ordinance, regardless of whether the person's driver's or 50979
commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating 50980
privilege is or is not suspended under division (B) or (C) of this 50981
section or Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code, the person's initial 50982
appearance on the charge resulting from the arrest shall be held 50983
within five days of the person's arrest or the issuance of the 50984
citation to the person, subject to any continuance granted by the 50985
court pursuant to section 4511.197 of the Revised Code regarding 50986
the issues specified in that division.50987

       (E) When it finally has been determined under the procedures 50988
of this section and sections 4511.192 to 4511.197 of the Revised 50989
Code that a nonresident's privilege to operate a vehicle within 50990
this state has been suspended, the registrar shall give 50991
information in writing of the action taken to the motor vehicle 50992
administrator of the state of the person's residence and of any 50993
state in which the person has a license.50994

       (F) At the end of a suspension period under this section, 50995
under section 4511.194, section 4511.196, or division (G) of 50996
section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, or under section 4510.07 of 50997
the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance and 50998
upon the request of the person whose driver's or commercial 50999
driver's license or permit was suspended and who is not otherwise 51000
subject to suspension, cancellation, or disqualification, the 51001
registrar shall return the driver's or commercial driver's license 51002
or permit to the person upon the occurrence of all of the 51003
conditions specified in divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section:51004

       (1) A showing that the person has proof of financial 51005
responsibility, a policy of liability insurance in effect that 51006
meets the minimum standards set forth in section 4509.51 of the 51007
Revised Code, or proof, to the satisfaction of the registrar, that 51008
the person is able to respond in damages in an amount at least 51009
equal to the minimum amounts specified in section 4509.51 of the 51010
Revised Code.51011

       (2) Subject to the limitation contained in division (F)(3) of 51012
this section, payment by the person to the registrar or an 51013
eligible deputy registrar of a license reinstatement fee of four 51014
hundred seventy-five dollars, which fee shall be deposited in the 51015
state treasury and credited as follows:51016

       (a) One hundred twelve dollars and fifty cents shall be 51017
credited to the statewide treatment and prevention fund created by 51018
section 4301.30 of the Revised Code. Money credited to the fund 51019
under this section shall be used for purposes identified in the 51020
comprehensive statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan 51021
developed under section 3793.04 of the Revised Code. 51022

       (b) Seventy-five dollars shall be credited to the reparations 51023
fund created by section 2743.191 of the Revised Code.51024

       (c) Thirty-seven dollars and fifty cents shall be credited to 51025
the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, which is hereby 51026
established in the state treasury. Except as otherwise provided in 51027
division (F)(2)(c) of this section, moneys in the fund shall be 51028
distributed by the department of alcohol and drug addiction 51029
services to the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, 51030
the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, and 51031
the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds that are 51032
required to be established by counties and municipal corporations 51033
pursuant to division (H) of this section, and shall be used only 51034
to pay the cost of an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program 51035
attended by an offender or juvenile traffic offender who is 51036
ordered to attend an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program 51037
by a county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and who is 51038
determined by the county, juvenile, or municipal court judge not 51039
to have the means to pay for the person's attendance at the 51040
program or to pay the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this 51041
section in accordance with that division. In addition, a county, 51042
juvenile, or municipal court judge may use moneys in the county 51043
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, county juvenile indigent 51044
drivers alcohol treatment fund, or municipal indigent drivers 51045
alcohol treatment fund to pay for the cost of the continued use of 51046
an alcohol monitoring device as described in divisions (H)(3) and 51047
(4) of this section. Moneys in the fund that are not distributed 51048
to a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county 51049
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal 51050
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under division (H) of this 51051
section because the director of alcohol and drug addiction 51052
services does not have the information necessary to identify the 51053
county or municipal corporation where the offender or juvenile 51054
offender was arrested may be transferred by the director of budget 51055
and management to the statewide treatment and prevention fund 51056
created by section 4301.30 of the Revised Code, upon certification 51057
of the amount by the director of alcohol and drug addiction 51058
services.51059

       (d) Seventy-five dollars shall be credited to the Ohio 51060
rehabilitation services commission established by section 3304.12 51061
of the Revised Code, to the services for rehabilitation fund, 51062
which is hereby established. The fund shall be used to match 51063
available federal matching funds where appropriate, and for any 51064
other purpose or program of the commission to rehabilitate people 51065
with disabilities to help them become employed and independent.51066

       (e) Seventy-five dollars shall be deposited into the state 51067
treasury and credited to the drug abuse resistance education 51068
programs fund, which is hereby established, to be used by the 51069
attorney general for the purposes specified in division (F)(4) of 51070
this section.51071

       (f) Thirty dollars shall be credited to the state bureau of 51072
motor vehicles fund created by section 4501.25 of the Revised 51073
Code.51074

       (g) Twenty dollars shall be credited to the trauma and 51075
emergency medical services grants fund created by section 4513.263 51076
of the Revised Code.51077

       (h) Fifty dollars shall be credited to the indigent drivers 51078
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, which is hereby established 51079
in the state treasury. Moneys in the fund shall be distributed by 51080
the department of public safety to the county indigent drivers 51081
interlock and alcohol monitoring funds, the county juvenile 51082
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds, and the 51083
municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds 51084
that are required to be established by counties and municipal 51085
corporations pursuant to this section, and shall be used only to 51086
pay the cost of an immobilizing or disabling device, including a 51087
certified ignition interlock device, or an alcohol monitoring 51088
device used by an offender or juvenile offender who is ordered to 51089
use the device by a county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and 51090
who is determined by the county, juvenile, or municipal court 51091
judge not to have the means to pay for the person's use of the 51092
device.51093

       (3) If a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 51094
permit is suspended under this section, under section 4511.196 or 51095
division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, under section 51096
4510.07 of the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI 51097
ordinance or under any combination of the suspensions described in 51098
division (F)(3) of this section, and if the suspensions arise from 51099
a single incident or a single set of facts and circumstances, the 51100
person is liable for payment of, and shall be required to pay to 51101
the registrar or an eligible deputy registrar, only one 51102
reinstatement fee of four hundred seventy-five dollars. The 51103
reinstatement fee shall be distributed by the bureau in accordance 51104
with division (F)(2) of this section.51105

       (4) The attorney general shall use amounts in the drug abuse 51106
resistance education programs fund to award grants to law 51107
enforcement agencies to establish and implement drug abuse 51108
resistance education programs in public schools. Grants awarded to 51109
a law enforcement agency under this section shall be used by the 51110
agency to pay for not more than fifty per cent of the amount of 51111
the salaries of law enforcement officers who conduct drug abuse 51112
resistance education programs in public schools. The attorney 51113
general shall not use more than six per cent of the amounts the 51114
attorney general's office receives under division (F)(2)(e) of 51115
this section to pay the costs it incurs in administering the grant 51116
program established by division (F)(2)(e) of this section and in 51117
providing training and materials relating to drug abuse resistance 51118
education programs.51119

       The attorney general shall report to the governor and the 51120
general assembly each fiscal year on the progress made in 51121
establishing and implementing drug abuse resistance education 51122
programs. These reports shall include an evaluation of the 51123
effectiveness of these programs.51124

       (5) In addition to the reinstatement fee under this section, 51125
if the person pays the reinstatement fee to a deputy registrar, 51126
the deputy registrar shall collect a service fee of ten dollars to 51127
compensate the deputy registrar for services performed under this 51128
section. The deputy registrar shall retain eight dollars of the 51129
service fee and shall transmit the reinstatement fee, plus two 51130
dollars of the service fee, to the registrar in the manner the 51131
registrar shall determine.51132

       (G) Suspension of a commercial driver's license under 51133
division (B) or (C) of this section shall be concurrent with any 51134
period of disqualification under section 3123.611 or 4506.16 of 51135
the Revised Code or any period of suspension under section 3123.58 51136
of the Revised Code. No person who is disqualified for life from 51137
holding a commercial driver's license under section 4506.16 of the 51138
Revised Code shall be issued a driver's license under Chapter 51139
4507. of the Revised Code during the period for which the 51140
commercial driver's license was suspended under division (B) or 51141
(C) of this section. No person whose commercial driver's license 51142
is suspended under division (B) or (C) of this section shall be 51143
issued a driver's license under Chapter 4507. of the Revised Code 51144
during the period of the suspension.51145

       (H)(1) Each county shall establish an indigent drivers 51146
alcohol treatment fund, each county shall establish a juvenile 51147
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, and each municipal 51148
corporation in which there is a municipal court shall establish an 51149
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund. All revenue that the 51150
general assembly appropriates to the indigent drivers alcohol 51151
treatment fund for transfer to a county indigent drivers alcohol 51152
treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 51153
treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 51154
fund, all portions of fees that are paid under division (F) of 51155
this section and that are credited under that division to the 51156
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in the state treasury for 51157
a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county 51158
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal 51159
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, all portions of 51160
additional costs imposed under section 2949.094 of the Revised 51161
Code that are specified for deposit into a county, county 51162
juvenile, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund by 51163
that section, and all portions of fines that are specified for 51164
deposit into a county or municipal indigent drivers alcohol 51165
treatment fund by section 4511.193 of the Revised Code shall be 51166
deposited into that county indigent drivers alcohol treatment 51167
fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or 51168
municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund. The portions of 51169
the fees paid under division (F) of this section that are to be so 51170
deposited shall be determined in accordance with division (H)(2) 51171
of this section. Additionally, all portions of fines that are paid 51172
for a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or of any 51173
prohibition contained in Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code, and 51174
that are required under section 4511.19 or any provision of 51175
Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code to be deposited into a county 51176
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund or municipal indigent 51177
drivers alcohol treatment fund shall be deposited into the 51178
appropriate fund in accordance with the applicable division of the 51179
section or provision.51180

       (2) That portion of the license reinstatement fee that is 51181
paid under division (F) of this section and that is credited under 51182
that division to the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund shall 51183
be deposited into a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment 51184
fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, 51185
or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund as follows:51186

       (a) Regarding a suspension imposed under this section, that 51187
portion of the fee shall be deposited as follows:51188

       (i) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 51189
county court with the violation that resulted in the suspension or 51190
in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 51191
deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund 51192
under the control of that court;51193

       (ii) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 51194
juvenile court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 51195
or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 51196
deposited into the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 51197
treatment fund established in the county served by the court;51198

       (iii) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 51199
municipal court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 51200
or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 51201
deposited into the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 51202
fund under the control of that court.51203

       (b) Regarding a suspension imposed under section 4511.19 of 51204
the Revised Code or under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for 51205
a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, that portion of the fee 51206
shall be deposited as follows:51207

       (i) If the fee is paid by a person whose license or permit 51208
was suspended by a county court, the portion shall be deposited 51209
into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the 51210
control of that court;51211

       (ii) If the fee is paid by a person whose license or permit 51212
was suspended by a municipal court, the portion shall be deposited 51213
into the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under 51214
the control of that court.51215

       (3) Expenditures from a county indigent drivers alcohol 51216
treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 51217
treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 51218
fund shall be made only upon the order of a county, juvenile, or 51219
municipal court judge and only for payment of the cost of an 51220
assessment or the cost of the attendance at an alcohol and drug 51221
addiction treatment program of a person who is convicted of, or 51222
found to be a juvenile traffic offender by reason of, a violation 51223
of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a 51224
substantially similar municipal ordinance, who is ordered by the 51225
court to attend the alcohol and drug addiction treatment program, 51226
and who is determined by the court to be unable to pay the cost of 51227
the assessment or the cost of attendance at the treatment program 51228
or for payment of the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this 51229
section in accordance with that division. The alcohol and drug 51230
addiction services board or the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 51231
and mental health services established pursuant to section 340.02 51232
or 340.021 of the Revised Code and serving the alcohol, drug 51233
addiction, and mental health service district in which the court 51234
is located shall administer the indigent drivers alcohol treatment 51235
program of the court. When a court orders an offender or juvenile 51236
traffic offender to obtain an assessment or attend an alcohol and 51237
drug addiction treatment program, the board shall determine which 51238
program is suitable to meet the needs of the offender or juvenile 51239
traffic offender, and when a suitable program is located and space 51240
is available at the program, the offender or juvenile traffic 51241
offender shall attend the program designated by the board. A 51242
reasonable amount not to exceed five per cent of the amounts 51243
credited to and deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol 51244
treatment fund, the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 51245
treatment fund, or the municipal indigent drivers alcohol 51246
treatment fund serving every court whose program is administered 51247
by that board shall be paid to the board to cover the costs it 51248
incurs in administering those indigent drivers alcohol treatment 51249
programs.51250

       In addition, upon exhaustion of moneys in the indigent 51251
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for the use of an 51252
alcohol monitoring device, a county, juvenile, or municipal court 51253
judge may use moneys in the county indigent drivers alcohol 51254
treatment fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment 51255
fund, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in the 51256
following manners:51257

       (a) If the source of the moneys was an appropriation of the 51258
general assembly, a portion of a fee that was paid under division 51259
(F) of this section, a portion of a fine that was specified for 51260
deposit into the fund by section 4511.193 of the Revised Code, or 51261
a portion of a fine that was paid for a violation of section 51262
4511.19 of the Revised Code or of a provision contained in Chapter 51263
4510. of the Revised Code that was required to be deposited into 51264
the fund, to pay for the continued use of an alcohol monitoring 51265
device by an offender or juvenile traffic offender, in conjunction 51266
with a treatment program approved by the department of alcohol and 51267
drug addiction services, when such use is determined clinically 51268
necessary by the treatment program and when the court determines 51269
that the offender or juvenile traffic offender is unable to pay 51270
all or part of the daily monitoring or cost of the device;51271

       (b) If the source of the moneys was a portion of an 51272
additional court cost imposed under section 2949.094 of the 51273
Revised Code, to pay for the continued use of an alcohol 51274
monitoring device by an offender or juvenile traffic offender when 51275
the court determines that the offender or juvenile traffic 51276
offender is unable to pay all or part of the daily monitoring or 51277
cost of the device. The moneys may be used for a device as 51278
described in this division if the use of the device is in 51279
conjunction with a treatment program approved by the department of 51280
alcohol and drug addiction services, when the use of the device is 51281
determined clinically necessary by the treatment program, but the 51282
use of a device is not required to be in conjunction with a 51283
treatment program approved by the department in order for the 51284
moneys to be used for the device as described in this division.51285

       (4) If a county, juvenile, or municipal court determines, in 51286
consultation with the alcohol and drug addiction services board or 51287
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 51288
established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised 51289
Code and serving the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 51290
district in which the court is located, that the funds in the 51291
county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the county 51292
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or the municipal 51293
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the control of the 51294
court are more than sufficient to satisfy the purpose for which 51295
the fund was established, as specified in divisions (H)(1) to (3) 51296
of this section, the court may declare a surplus in the fund. If 51297
the court declares a surplus in the fund, the court may expend the 51298
amount of the surplus in the fund for:51299

       (a) Alcohol and drug abuse assessment and treatment of 51300
persons who are charged in the court with committing a criminal 51301
offense or with being a delinquent child or juvenile traffic 51302
offender and in relation to whom both of the following apply:51303

       (i) The court determines that substance abuse was a 51304
contributing factor leading to the criminal or delinquent activity 51305
or the juvenile traffic offense with which the person is charged.51306

       (ii) The court determines that the person is unable to pay 51307
the cost of the alcohol and drug abuse assessment and treatment 51308
for which the surplus money will be used.51309

       (b) All or part of the cost of purchasing alcohol monitoring 51310
devices to be used in conjunction with division (H)(3) of this 51311
section, upon exhaustion of moneys in the indigent drivers 51312
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for the use of an alcohol 51313
monitoring device.51314

       (5) For the purpose of determining as described in division 51315
(F)(2)(c) of this section whether an offender does not have the 51316
means to pay for the offender's attendance at an alcohol and drug 51317
addiction treatment program or whether an alleged offender or 51318
delinquent child is unable to pay the costs specified in division 51319
(H)(4) of this section, the court shall use the indigent client 51320
eligibility guidelines and the standards of indigency established 51321
by the state public defender to make the determination.51322

       (6) The court shall identify and refer any alcohol and drug 51323
addiction program that is not certified under section 3793.06 of 51324
the Revised Code and that is interested in receiving amounts from 51325
the surplus in the fund declared under division (H)(4) of this 51326
section to the department of alcohol and drug addiction services 51327
in order for the program to become a certified alcohol and drug 51328
addiction program. The department shall keep a record of applicant 51329
referrals received pursuant to this division and shall submit a 51330
report on the referrals each year to the general assembly. If a 51331
program interested in becoming certified makes an application to 51332
become certified pursuant to section 3793.06 of the Revised Code, 51333
the program is eligible to receive surplus funds as long as the 51334
application is pending with the department. The department of 51335
alcohol and drug addiction services must offer technical 51336
assistance to the applicant. If the interested program withdraws 51337
the certification application, the department must notify the 51338
court, and the court shall not provide the interested program with 51339
any further surplus funds.51340

       (7)(a) Each alcohol and drug addiction services board and 51341
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 51342
established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised 51343
Code shall submit to the department of alcohol and drug addiction 51344
services an annual report for each indigent drivers alcohol 51345
treatment fund in that board's area. 51346

       (b) The report, which shall be submitted not later than sixty 51347
days after the end of the state fiscal year, shall provide the 51348
total payment that was made from the fund, including the number of 51349
indigent consumers that received treatment services and the number 51350
of indigent consumers that received an alcohol monitoring device. 51351
The report shall identify the treatment program and expenditure 51352
for an alcohol monitoring device for which that payment was made. 51353
The report shall include the fiscal year balance of each indigent 51354
drivers alcohol treatment fund located in that board's area. In 51355
the event that a surplus is declared in the fund pursuant to 51356
division (H)(4) of this section, the report also shall provide the 51357
total payment that was made from the surplus moneys and identify 51358
the treatment program and expenditure for an alcohol monitoring 51359
device for which that payment was made. The department may require 51360
additional information necessary to complete the comprehensive 51361
statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan as required by 51362
section 3793.04 of the Revised Code.51363

       (c) If a board is unable to obtain adequate information to 51364
develop the report to submit to the department for a particular 51365
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the board shall submit a 51366
report detailing the effort made in obtaining the information.51367

       (I)(1) Each county shall establish an indigent drivers 51368
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund and a juvenile indigent 51369
drivers interlock and alcohol treatment fund, and each municipal 51370
corporation in which there is a municipal court shall establish an 51371
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund. All 51372
revenue that the general assembly appropriates to the indigent 51373
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for transfer to a 51374
county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, a 51375
county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 51376
fund, or a municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol 51377
monitoring fund, all portions of license reinstatement fees that 51378
are paid under division (F)(2) of this section and that are 51379
credited under that division to the indigent drivers interlock and 51380
alcohol monitoring fund in the state treasury, and all portions of 51381
fines that are paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the 51382
Revised Code and that are credited by division (G)(5)(e) of that 51383
section to the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 51384
fund in the state treasury shall be deposited in the appropriate 51385
fund in accordance with division (I)(2) of this section.51386

       (2) That portion of the license reinstatement fee that is 51387
paid under division (F) of this section and that portion of the 51388
fine paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 51389
Code and that is credited under either division to the indigent 51390
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund shall be deposited 51391
into a county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 51392
fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol 51393
monitoring fund, or a municipal indigent drivers interlock and 51394
alcohol monitoring fund as follows:51395

       (a) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 51396
a county court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 51397
or fine, the portion shall be deposited into the county indigent 51398
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the control of 51399
that court.51400

       (b) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 51401
a juvenile court with the violation that resulted in the 51402
suspension or fine, the portion shall be deposited into the county 51403
juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund 51404
established in the county served by the court.51405

       (c) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 51406
a municipal court with the violation that resulted in the 51407
suspension, the portion shall be deposited into the municipal 51408
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the 51409
control of that court.51410

       Sec. 4511.78.  (A) As used in this section:51411

       (1) "Mass transit system" means any county transit system, 51412
regional transit authority, regional transit commission, 51413
municipally owned transportation system, mass transit company 51414
operating exclusively within the territorial limits of a municipal 51415
corporation, or within such limits and the territorial limits of 51416
municipal corporations immediately contiguous to such municipal 51417
corporation, and any common passenger carrier certified by the 51418
public utilities commission, that provides transportation for 51419
children to or from a school session or a school function.51420

       (2) "Bus" means every motor vehicle designed for carrying 51421
more than nine passengers and used for the transportation of 51422
persons, but does not mean any school bus as defined in section 51423
4511.01 of the Revised Code.51424

       (B) Whenever a mass transit system transports children to or 51425
from a school session or school function, the mass transit system 51426
shall provide for:51427

       (1) Periodic safety inspections of all buses used to provide 51428
transportation service. The inspections shall be based on rules 51429
adopted by the public utilities commission under Chapters 4921. 51430
and 4923. of the Revised Code to ensure the safety of operation of51431
motor transportation companies and private motor carriers.51432

       (2) The safety training of all drivers operating buses used 51433
to provide transportation service;51434

       (3) The equipping of every bus with outside rear-view mirrors 51435
meeting the motor carrier regulations for bus equipment adopted by 51436
the federal highway administration. No exclusions from this 51437
requirement granted under the federal regulations shall be 51438
considered exclusions for the purposes of this division.51439

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever 51440
violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within 51441
one year of the offense, the offender previously has been 51442
convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or 51443
traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a 51444
misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the 51445
offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more 51446
predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this 51447
section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.51448

       Sec. 4511.98. The director of transportation may establish 51449
speed limits within construction zones that vary based on the type 51450
of work being conducted, the time of day, or any other criteria 51451
the director may consider appropriate. The director, board of 51452
county commissioners, or board of township trustees shall cause 51453
signs to be erected advising motorists that increased penalties 51454
apply for certain traffic violations occurring on streets or 51455
highways in a construction zone. The increased penalties shall be 51456
effective only when signs are erected in accordance with the 51457
guidelines and design specifications established by the director 51458
under section 5501.27 of the Revised Code, and when a violation 51459
occurs during hours of actual work within the construction zone.51460

       Sec. 4513.18.  (A) The director of transportation shall adopt 51461
standards and specifications applicable to headlights, clearance 51462
lights, identification, and other lights, on snow removal 51463
equipment when operated on the highways, and on vehicles operating 51464
under special permits pursuant to section 4513.34 of the Revised 51465
Code, in lieu of the lights otherwise required on motor vehicles. 51466
Such standards and specifications may permit the use of flashing 51467
colored lights, other than blue or red in color, for purposes of 51468
identification on snow removal equipment, and oversize vehicles 51469
when in service upon the highways. The standards and 51470
specifications for lights referred to in this section shall 51471
correlate with and, so far as possible, conform with those 51472
approved by the American association of state highway officials.51473

       It is unlawful to operate snow removal equipment on a highway 51474
unless the lights thereon comply with and are lighted when and as 51475
required by the standards and specifications adopted as provided 51476
in this section.51477

       (B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor 51478
misdemeanor.51479

       Sec. 4513.263.  (A) As used in this section and in section 51480
4513.99 of the Revised Code:51481

       (1) "Automobile" means any commercial tractor, passenger car, 51482
commercial car, or truck that is required to be factory-equipped 51483
with an occupant restraining device for the operator or any 51484
passenger by regulations adopted by the United States secretary of 51485
transportation pursuant to the "National Traffic and Motor Vehicle 51486
Safety Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 719, 15 U.S.C.A. 1392.51487

       (2) "Occupant restraining device" means a seat safety belt, 51488
shoulder belt, harness, or other safety device for restraining a 51489
person who is an operator of or passenger in an automobile and 51490
that satisfies the minimum federal vehicle safety standards 51491
established by the United States department of transportation.51492

       (3) "Passenger" means any person in an automobile, other than 51493
its operator, who is occupying a seating position for which an 51494
occupant restraining device is provided.51495

       (4) "Commercial tractor," "passenger car," and "commercial 51496
car" have the same meanings as in section 4501.01 of the Revised 51497
Code.51498

       (5) "Vehicle" and "motor vehicle," as used in the definitions 51499
of the terms set forth in division (A)(4) of this section, have 51500
the same meanings as in section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.51501

       (6) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for 51502
injury, death, or loss to person or property. "Tort action" 51503
includes a product liability claim, as defined in section 2307.71 51504
of the Revised Code, and an asbestos claim, as defined in section 51505
2307.91 of the Revised Code, but does not include a civil action 51506
for damages for breach of contract or another agreement between 51507
persons.51508

       (B) No person shall do any of the following:51509

       (1) Operate an automobile on any street or highway unless 51510
that person is wearing all of the available elements of a properly 51511
adjusted occupant restraining device, or operate a school bus that 51512
has an occupant restraining device installed for use in its 51513
operator's seat unless that person is wearing all of the available 51514
elements of the device, as properly adjusted;51515

       (2) Operate an automobile on any street or highway unless 51516
each passenger in the automobile who is subject to the requirement 51517
set forth in division (B)(3) of this section is wearing all of the 51518
available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining 51519
device;51520

       (3) Occupy, as a passenger, a seating position on the front 51521
seat of an automobile being operated on any street or highway 51522
unless that person is wearing all of the available elements of a 51523
properly adjusted occupant restraining device;51524

       (4) Operate a taxicab on any street or highway unless all 51525
factory-equipped occupant restraining devices in the taxicab are 51526
maintained in usable form.51527

       (C) Division (B)(3) of this section does not apply to a 51528
person who is required by section 4511.81 of the Revised Code to 51529
be secured in a child restraint device or booster seat. Division 51530
(B)(1) of this section does not apply to a person who is an 51531
employee of the United States postal service or of a newspaper 51532
home delivery service, during any period in which the person is 51533
engaged in the operation of an automobile to deliver mail or 51534
newspapers to addressees. Divisions (B)(1) and (3) of this section 51535
do not apply to a person who has an affidavit signed by a 51536
physician licensed to practice in this state under Chapter 4731. 51537
of the Revised Code or a chiropractor licensed to practice in this 51538
state under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code that states that the 51539
person has a physical impairment that makes use of an occupant 51540
restraining device impossible or impractical.51541

       (D) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, no 51542
law enforcement officer shall cause an operator of an automobile 51543
being operated on any street or highway to stop the automobile for 51544
the sole purpose of determining whether a violation of division 51545
(B) of this section has been or is being committed or for the sole 51546
purpose of issuing a ticket, citation, or summons for a violation 51547
of that nature or causing the arrest of or commencing a 51548
prosecution of a person for a violation of that nature, and no law 51549
enforcement officer shall view the interior or visually inspect 51550
any automobile being operated on any street or highway for the 51551
sole purpose of determining whether a violation of that nature has 51552
been or is being committed.51553

       (E) All fines collected for violations of division (B) of 51554
this section, or for violations of any ordinance or resolution of 51555
a political subdivision that is substantively comparable to that 51556
division, shall be forwarded to the treasurer of state for deposit 51557
as follows:51558

       (1) Eight per cent shall be deposited into the elementary 51559
school program fund, which is hereby created in the state 51560
treasury, and shall be used by the department of public safety to 51561
establish and administer elementary school programs that encourage 51562
seat safety belt use.51563

       (2) Two per cent shall be deposited into the occupational 51564
licensing and regulatory fund created by section 4743.05 of the 51565
Revised Code.51566

       (3) Thirty-six per cent, plusinto the state treasury to the 51567
credit of the trauma and emergency medical services fund, which is 51568
hereby created. In addition, sixty cents of each fee collected 51569
under sections 4501.34, 4503.26, 4505.14, 4506.08, and 4509.05, 51570
plus on and after October 1, 2009, sixty cents of each fee 51571
collected under sections 4505.14 and 4519.63 of the Revised Code 51572
as specified in those sections, plus the portion of the driver's 51573
license reinstatement fee described in division (F)(2)(g) of 51574
section 4511.191 of the Revised Code, plus all fees collected 51575
under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code, plus all fines imposed 51576
under section 4765.55 of the Revised Code, plus the fees and other 51577
moneys specified in section 4766.05 of the Revised Code, and plus 51578
five per cent of fines and moneys arising from bail forfeitures as 51579
directed by section 5503.04 of the Revised Code, also shall be 51580
deposited into the trauma and emergency medical services fund, 51581
which is hereby created in the state treasury, and. All money 51582
deposited into the trauma and emergency medical services fund51583
shall be used by the department of public safety for the 51584
administration and operation of the division of emergency medical 51585
services and the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 51586
transportation services, except that theand by the state board 51587
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services to make 51588
grants, in accordance with section 4765.07 of the Revised Code and 51589
rules the board adopts under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. 51590
The director of budget and management may transfer excess money 51591
from the trauma and emergency medical services fund to the state 51592
highway safety fund if the director of public safety determines 51593
that the amount of money in the trauma and emergency medical 51594
services fund exceeds the amount required to cover such costs 51595
incurred by the emergency medical services agency and the grants 51596
made by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 51597
transportation services and requests the director of budget and 51598
management to make the transfer.51599

       (4) Fifty-four per cent shall be deposited into the trauma 51600
and emergency medical services grants fund, which is hereby 51601
created in the state treasury, and shall be used by the state 51602
board of emergency medical services to make grants, in accordance 51603
with section 4765.07 of the Revised Code and rules the board 51604
adopts under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.51605

       (F)(1) Subject to division (F)(2) of this section, the 51606
failure of a person to wear all of the available elements of a 51607
properly adjusted occupant restraining device in violation of 51608
division (B)(1) or (3) of this section or the failure of a person 51609
to ensure that each minor who is a passenger of an automobile 51610
being operated by that person is wearing all of the available 51611
elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device in 51612
violation of division (B)(2) of this section shall not be 51613
considered or used by the trier of fact in a tort action as 51614
evidence of negligence or contributory negligence. But, the trier 51615
of fact may determine based on evidence admitted consistent with 51616
the Ohio Rules of Evidence that the failure contributed to the 51617
harm alleged in the tort action and may diminish a recovery of 51618
compensatory damages that represents noneconomic loss, as defined 51619
in section 2307.011 of the Revised Code, in a tort action that 51620
could have been recovered but for the plaintiff's failure to wear 51621
all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant 51622
restraining device. Evidence of that failure shall not be used as 51623
a basis for a criminal prosecution of the person other than a 51624
prosecution for a violation of this section; and shall not be 51625
admissible as evidence in a criminal action involving the person 51626
other than a prosecution for a violation of this section.51627

       (2) If, at the time of an accident involving a passenger car 51628
equipped with occupant restraining devices, any occupant of the 51629
passenger car who sustained injury or death was not wearing an 51630
available occupant restraining device, was not wearing all of the 51631
available elements of such a device, or was not wearing such a 51632
device as properly adjusted, then, consistent with the Rules of 51633
Evidence, the fact that the occupant was not wearing the available 51634
occupant restraining device, was not wearing all of the available 51635
elements of such a device, or was not wearing such a device as 51636
properly adjusted is admissible in evidence in relation to any 51637
claim for relief in a tort action to the extent that the claim for 51638
relief satisfies all of the following:51639

       (a) It seeks to recover damages for injury or death to the 51640
occupant.51641

       (b) The defendant in question is the manufacturer, designer, 51642
distributor, or seller of the passenger car.51643

       (c) The claim for relief against the defendant in question is 51644
that the injury or death sustained by the occupant was enhanced or 51645
aggravated by some design defect in the passenger car or that the 51646
passenger car was not crashworthy.51647

       (G)(1) Whoever violates division (B)(1) of this section shall 51648
be fined thirty dollars.51649

       (2) Whoever violates division (B)(3) of this section shall be 51650
fined twenty dollars.51651

       (3) Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever 51652
violates division (B)(4) of this section is guilty of a minor 51653
misdemeanor. If the offender previously has been convicted of or 51654
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (B)(4) of this section, 51655
whoever violates division (B)(4) of this section is guilty of a 51656
misdemeanor of the third degree.51657

       Sec. 4513.50.  As used in sections 4513.50 to 4513.53 of the 51658
Revised Code:51659

       (A)(1) "Bus" means any vehicle used for the transportation of 51660
passengers that meets at least one of the following:51661

       (a) Was originally designed by the manufacturer to transport 51662
more than fifteen passengers, including the driver;51663

       (b) Either the gross vehicle weight rating or the gross 51664
vehicle weight exceeds ten thousand pounds.51665

       (2) "Bus" does not include a church bus as defined in section 51666
4503.07 of the Revised Code or a school bus unless the church bus 51667
or school bus is used in the transportation of passengers for hire51668
by a motor transportation company or a common carrier by motor 51669
vehicle or by a private motor carrier or contract carrier by motor 51670
vehicle.51671

       (3) "Bus" also does not include any of the following:51672

       (a) Any vehicle operated exclusively on a rail or rails;51673

       (b) A trolley bus operated by electric power derived from a 51674
fixed overhead wire furnishing local passenger transportation 51675
similar to street-railway service;51676

       (c) Vehicles owned or leased by government agencies or 51677
political subdivisions.51678

       (B)(1) "Motor transportation company" and "common carrier by 51679
motor vehicle" havehas the same meaningsmeaning as in section 51680
4921.024923.01 of the Revised Code.51681

       (2) "Private motor carrier" and "contract carrier by motor 51682
vehicle" have the same meanings as in section 4923.02 of the 51683
Revised Code.51684

       Sec. 4582.12.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in 51685
division (E) of section 307.671 of the Revised Code, division (A) 51686
of this section does not apply to a port authority educational and 51687
cultural facility acquired, constructed, and equipped pursuant to 51688
a cooperative agreement entered into under section 307.671 of the 51689
Revised Code.51690

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (C) of this section or 51691
except when the port authority elects to construct a building, 51692
structure, or other improvement pursuant to a contract made with a 51693
construction manager at risk under sections 9.33 to 9.335 of the 51694
Revised Code or with a design-build firm under sections 153.65 to 51695
153.73 of the Revised Code, when the cost of a contract for the 51696
construction of any building, structure, or other improvement 51697
undertaken by a port authority involves an expenditure exceeding 51698
the higher of onetwo hundred thousand dollars or the amount as 51699
adjusted under division (A)(2)(b) of this section and the port 51700
authority is the contracting entity, the port authority shall make 51701
a written contract after notice calling for bids for the award of 51702
the contract has been given by publication twice, with at least 51703
seven days between publications, in a newspaper of general 51704
circulation in the area of the jurisdiction of the port authority. 51705
Each such contract shall be let to the lowest responsive and 51706
responsible bidder in accordance with section 9.312 of the Revised 51707
Code. Every contract let shall be in writing and if the contract 51708
involves work or construction, it shall be accompanied by or shall 51709
refer to plans and specifications for the work to be done, 51710
prepared for and approved by the port authority, signed by an 51711
authorized officer of the port authority and by the contractor, 51712
and shall be executed in triplicate.51713

       Each bid shall be awarded in accordance with sections 153.54, 51714
153.57, and 153.571 of the Revised Code.51715

       The port authority may reject any and all bids.51716

       (b) On January 1, 2012, and the first day of January of every 51717
even-numbered year thereafter, the director of commerce shall 51718
adjust the threshold level for contracts subject to the bidding 51719
requirements contained in division (A)(2)(a) of this section. The 51720
director shall adjust this amount according to the average 51721
increase for each of the two years immediately preceding the 51722
adjustment as set forth in the producer price index for material 51723
and supply inputs for new nonresidential construction as 51724
determined by the bureau of labor statistics of the United States 51725
department of labor or, if that index no longer is published, a 51726
generally available comparable index. If there is no resulting 51727
increase, the threshold shall remain the same until the next 51728
scheduled adjustment on the first day of January of the next 51729
even-numbered year.51730

       (B) The board of directors of a port authority by rule may 51731
provide criteria for the negotiation and award without competitive 51732
bidding of any contract as to which the port authority is the 51733
contracting entity for the construction of any building, 51734
structure, or other improvement under any of the following 51735
circumstances:51736

       (1) There exists a real and present emergency that threatens 51737
damage or injury to persons or property of the port authority or 51738
other persons, provided that a statement specifying the nature of 51739
the emergency that is the basis for the negotiation and award of a 51740
contract without competitive bidding shall be signed by the 51741
officer of the port authority that executes that contract at the 51742
time of the contract's execution and shall be attached to the 51743
contract.51744

       (2) A commonly recognized industry or other standard or 51745
specification does not exist and cannot objectively be articulated 51746
for the improvement.51747

       (3) The contract is for any energy conservation measure as 51748
defined in section 307.041 of the Revised Code.51749

       (4) With respect to material to be incorporated into the 51750
improvement, only a single source or supplier exists for the 51751
material.51752

       (5) A single bid is received by the port authority after 51753
complying with the provisions of division (A) of this section.51754

       (C)(1) If a contract is to be negotiated and awarded without 51755
competitive bidding for the reason set forth in division (B)(2) of 51756
this section, the port authority shall publish a notice calling 51757
for technical proposals at least twice, with at least seven days 51758
between publications, in a newspaper of general circulation in the 51759
area of the port authority. After receipt of the technical 51760
proposals, the port authority may negotiate with and award a 51761
contract for the improvement to the proposer making the proposal 51762
considered to be the most advantageous to the port authority.51763

       (2) If a contract is to be negotiated and awarded without 51764
competitive bidding for the reason set forth in division (B)(4) of 51765
this section, any construction activities related to the 51766
incorporation of the material into the improvement also may be 51767
provided without competitive bidding by the source or supplier of 51768
that material.51769

       Sec. 4582.31.  (A) A port authority created in accordance 51770
with section 4582.22 of the Revised Code may:51771

       (1) Adopt bylaws for the regulation of its affairs and the 51772
conduct of its business;51773

       (2) Adopt an official seal;51774

       (3) Maintain a principal office within its jurisdiction, and 51775
maintain such branch offices as it may require;51776

       (4) Acquire, construct, furnish, equip, maintain, repair, 51777
sell, exchange, lease to or from, or lease with an option to 51778
purchase, convey other interests in real or personal property, or 51779
any combination thereof, related to, useful for, or in furtherance 51780
of any authorized purpose and operate any property in connection 51781
with transportation, recreational, governmental operations, or 51782
cultural activities;51783

       (5) Straighten, deepen, and improve any channel, river, 51784
stream, or other water course or way which may be necessary or 51785
proper in the development of the facilities of a port authority;51786

       (6) Make available the use or services of any port authority 51787
facility to one or more persons, one or more governmental 51788
agencies, or any combination thereof;51789

       (7) Issue bonds or notes for the acquisition, construction, 51790
furnishing, or equipping of any port authority facility or other 51791
permanent improvement that a port authority is authorized to 51792
acquire, construct, furnish, or equip, in compliance with Chapter 51793
133. of the Revised Code, except that such bonds or notes may only 51794
be issued pursuant to a vote of the electors residing within the 51795
area of jurisdiction of the port authority. The net indebtedness 51796
incurred by a port authority shall never exceed two per cent of 51797
the total value of all property within the territory comprising 51798
the port authority as listed and assessed for taxation.51799

       (8) Issue port authority revenue bonds beyond the limit of 51800
bonded indebtedness provided by law, payable solely from revenues 51801
as provided in section 4582.48 of the Revised Code, for the 51802
purpose of providing funds to pay the costs of any port authority 51803
facility or facilities or parts thereof;51804

       (9) Apply to the proper authorities of the United States 51805
pursuant to appropriate law for the right to establish, operate, 51806
and maintain foreign trade zones and establish, operate, and 51807
maintain foreign trade zones and to acquire, exchange, sell, lease 51808
to or from, lease with an option to purchase, or operate 51809
facilities, land, or property therefor in accordance with the 51810
"Foreign Trade Zones Act," 48 Stat. 998 (1934), 19 U.S.C. 81a to 51811
81u;51812

       (10) Enjoy and possess the same rights, privileges, and 51813
powers granted municipal corporations under sections 721.04 to 51814
721.11 of the Revised Code;51815

       (11) Maintain such funds as it considers necessary;51816

       (12) Direct its agents or employees, when properly identified 51817
in writing, and after at least five days' written notice, to enter 51818
upon lands within the confines of its jurisdiction in order to 51819
make surveys and examinations preliminary to location and 51820
construction of works for the purposes of the port authority, 51821
without liability of the port authority or its agents or employees 51822
except for actual damage done;51823

       (13) Promote, advertise, and publicize the port authority and 51824
its facilities; provide information to shippers and other 51825
commercial interests; and appear before rate-making authorities to 51826
represent and promote the interests of the port authority;51827

       (14) Adopt rules, not in conflict with general law, it finds 51828
necessary or incidental to the performance of its duties and the 51829
execution of its powers under sections 4582.21 to 4582.54 of the 51830
Revised Code. Any such rule shall be posted at no less than five 51831
public places in the port authority, as determined by the board of 51832
directors, for a period of not fewer than fifteen days, and shall 51833
be available for public inspection at the principal office of the 51834
port authority during regular business hours. No person shall 51835
violate any lawful rule adopted and posted as provided in this 51836
division.51837

       (15) Do any of the following, in regard to any interests in 51838
any real or personal property, or any combination thereof, 51839
including, without limitation, machinery, equipment, plants, 51840
factories, offices, and other structures and facilities related 51841
to, useful for, or in furtherance of any authorized purpose, for 51842
such consideration and in such manner, consistent with Article 51843
VIII of the Ohio Constitution, as the board in its sole discretion 51844
may determine:51845

       (a) Loan moneys to any person or governmental entity for the 51846
acquisition, construction, furnishing, and equipping of the 51847
property;51848

       (b) Acquire, construct, maintain, repair, furnish, and equip 51849
the property;51850

       (c) Sell to, exchange with, lease, convey other interests in, 51851
or lease with an option to purchase the same or any lesser 51852
interest in the property to the same or any other person or 51853
governmental entity;51854

       (d) Guarantee the obligations of any person or governmental 51855
entity.51856

       A port authority may accept and hold as consideration for the 51857
conveyance of property or any interest therein such property or 51858
interests therein as the board in its discretion may determine, 51859
notwithstanding any restrictions that apply to the investment of 51860
funds by a port authority.51861

       (16) Sell, lease, or convey other interests in real and 51862
personal property, and grant easements or rights-of-way over 51863
property of the port authority. The board of directors shall 51864
specify the consideration and any terms for the sale, lease, or 51865
conveyance of other interests in real and personal property. Any 51866
determination made by the board under this division shall be 51867
conclusive. The sale, lease, or conveyance may be made without 51868
advertising and the receipt of bids.51869

       (17) Exercise the right of eminent domain to appropriate any 51870
land, rights, rights-of-way, franchises, easements, or other 51871
property, necessary or proper for any authorized purpose, pursuant 51872
to the procedure provided in sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the 51873
Revised Code, if funds equal to the appraised value of the 51874
property to be acquired as a result of such proceedings are 51875
available for that purpose. However, nothing contained in sections 51876
4582.201 to 4582.59 of the Revised Code shall authorize a port 51877
authority to take or disturb property or facilities belonging to 51878
any agency or political subdivision of this state, public utility, 51879
cable operator, or common carrier, which property or facilities 51880
are necessary and convenient in the operation of the agency or 51881
political subdivision, public utility, cable operator, or common 51882
carrier, unless provision is made for the restoration, relocation, 51883
or duplication of such property or facilities, or upon the 51884
election of the agency or political subdivision, public utility, 51885
cable operator, or common carrier, for the payment of 51886
compensation, if any, at the sole cost of the port authority, 51887
provided that:51888

       (a) If any restoration or duplication proposed to be made 51889
under this section involves a relocation of the property or 51890
facilities, the new facilities and location shall be of at least 51891
comparable utilitarian value and effectiveness and shall not 51892
impair the ability of the public utility, cable operator, or 51893
common carrier to compete in its original area of operation;51894

       (b) If any restoration or duplication made under this section 51895
involves a relocation of the property or facilities, the port 51896
authority shall acquire no interest or right in or to the 51897
appropriated property or facilities, except as provided in 51898
division (A)(15) of this section, until the relocated property or 51899
facilities are available for use and until marketable title 51900
thereto has been transferred to the public utility, cable 51901
operator, or common carrier.51902

       As used in division (A)(17) of this section, "cable operator" 51903
has the same meaning as in the "Cable Communications Policy Act of 51904
1984," Pub. L. No. 98-549, 98 Stat. 2780, 47 U.S.C. 522, as 51905
amended by the "Telecommunications Act of 1996," Pub. L. No. 51906
104-104, 110 Stat. 56.51907

       (18)(a) Make and enter into all contracts and agreements and 51908
execute all instruments necessary or incidental to the performance 51909
of its duties and the execution of its powers under sections 51910
4582.21 to 4582.59 of the Revised Code.51911

       (b)(i) Except as provided in division (A)(18)(c) of this 51912
section or except when the port authority elects to construct a 51913
building, structure, or other improvement pursuant to a contract 51914
made with a construction manager at risk under sections 9.33 to 51915
9.335 of the Revised Code or with a design-build firm under 51916
section 153.65 to 153.73 of the Revised Code, when the cost of a 51917
contract for the construction of any building, structure, or other 51918
improvement undertaken by a port authority involves an expenditure 51919
exceeding the higher of onetwo hundred thousand dollars or the 51920
amount as adjusted under division (A)(18)(b)(ii) of this section, 51921
and the port authority is the contracting entity, the port 51922
authority shall make a written contract after notice calling for 51923
bids for the award of the contract has been given by publication 51924
twice, with at least seven days between publications, in a 51925
newspaper of general circulation in the area of the port authority 51926
or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code. Each such 51927
contract shall be let to the lowest responsive and responsible 51928
bidder in accordance with section 9.312 of the Revised Code. Every 51929
contract shall be accompanied by or shall refer to plans and 51930
specifications for the work to be done, prepared for and approved 51931
by the port authority, signed by an authorized officer of the port 51932
authority and by the contractor, and shall be executed in 51933
triplicate.51934

       Each bid shall be awarded in accordance with sections 153.54, 51935
153.57, and 153.571 of the Revised Code. The port authority may 51936
reject any and all bids.51937

       (ii) On January 1, 2012, and the first day of January of 51938
every even-numbered year thereafter, the director of commerce 51939
shall adjust the threshold level for contracts subject to the 51940
bidding requirements contained in division (A)(18)(b)(i) of this 51941
section. The director shall adjust this amount according to the 51942
average increase for each of the two years immediately preceding 51943
the adjustment as set forth in the producer price index for 51944
material and supply inputs for new nonresidential construction as 51945
determined by the bureau of labor statistics of the United States 51946
department of labor or, if that index no longer is published, a 51947
generally available comparable index. If there is no resulting 51948
increase, the threshold shall remain the same until the next 51949
scheduled adjustment on the first day of January of the next 51950
even-numbered year.51951

       (c) The board of directors by rule may provide criteria for 51952
the negotiation and award without competitive bidding of any 51953
contract as to which the port authority is the contracting entity 51954
for the construction of any building or structure or other 51955
improvement under any of the following circumstances:51956

       (i) There exists a real and present emergency that threatens 51957
damage or injury to persons or property of the port authority or 51958
other persons, provided that a statement specifying the nature of 51959
the emergency that is the basis for the negotiation and award of a 51960
contract without competitive bidding shall be signed by the 51961
officer of the port authority that executes that contract at the 51962
time of the contract's execution and shall be attached to the 51963
contract.51964

       (ii) A commonly recognized industry or other standard or 51965
specification does not exist and cannot objectively be articulated 51966
for the improvement.51967

       (iii) The contract is for any energy conservation measure as 51968
defined in section 307.041 of the Revised Code.51969

       (iv) With respect to material to be incorporated into the 51970
improvement, only a single source or supplier exists for the 51971
material.51972

       (v) A single bid is received by the port authority after 51973
complying with the provisions of division (A)(18)(b) of this 51974
section.51975

       (d)(i) If a contract is to be negotiated and awarded without 51976
competitive bidding for the reason set forth in division 51977
(A)(18)(c)(ii) of this section, the port authority shall publish a 51978
notice calling for technical proposals twice, with at least seven 51979
days between publications, in a newspaper of general circulation 51980
in the area of the port authority or as provided in section 7.16 51981
of the Revised Code. After receipt of the technical proposals, the 51982
port authority may negotiate with and award a contract for the 51983
improvement to the proposer making the proposal considered to be 51984
the most advantageous to the port authority.51985

       (ii) If a contract is to be negotiated and awarded without 51986
competitive bidding for the reason set forth in division 51987
(A)(18)(c)(iv) of this section, any construction activities 51988
related to the incorporation of the material into the improvement 51989
also may be provided without competitive bidding by the source or 51990
supplier of that material.51991

       (e)(i) Any purchase, exchange, sale, lease, lease with an 51992
option to purchase, conveyance of other interests in, or other 51993
contract with a person or governmental entity that pertains to the 51994
acquisition, construction, maintenance, repair, furnishing, 51995
equipping, or operation of any real or personal property, or any 51996
combination thereof, related to, useful for, or in furtherance of 51997
an activity contemplated by Section 13 or 16 of Article VIII, Ohio 51998
Constitution, shall be made in such manner and subject to such 51999
terms and conditions as may be determined by the board of 52000
directors in its discretion.52001

       (ii) Division (A)(18)(e)(i) of this section applies to all 52002
contracts that are subject to the division, notwithstanding any 52003
other provision of law that might otherwise apply, including, 52004
without limitation, any requirement of notice, any requirement of 52005
competitive bidding or selection, or any requirement for the 52006
provision of security.52007

       (iii) Divisions (A)(18)(e)(i) and (ii) of this section do not 52008
apply to either of the following: any contract secured by or to be 52009
paid from moneys raised by taxation or the proceeds of obligations 52010
secured by a pledge of moneys raised by taxation; or any contract 52011
secured exclusively by or to be paid exclusively from the general 52012
revenues of the port authority. For the purposes of this section, 52013
any revenues derived by the port authority under a lease or other 52014
agreement that, by its terms, contemplates the use of amounts 52015
payable under the agreement either to pay the costs of the 52016
improvement that is the subject of the contract or to secure 52017
obligations of the port authority issued to finance costs of such 52018
improvement, are excluded from general revenues.52019

       (19) Employ managers, superintendents, and other employees 52020
and retain or contract with consulting engineers, financial 52021
consultants, accounting experts, architects, attorneys, and any 52022
other consultants and independent contractors as are necessary in 52023
its judgment to carry out this chapter, and fix the compensation 52024
thereof. All expenses thereof shall be payable from any available 52025
funds of the port authority or from funds appropriated for that 52026
purpose by a political subdivision creating or participating in 52027
the creation of the port authority.52028

       (20) Receive and accept from any state or federal agency 52029
grants and loans for or in aid of the construction of any port 52030
authority facility or for research and development with respect to 52031
port authority facilities, and receive and accept aid or 52032
contributions from any source of money, property, labor, or other 52033
things of value, to be held, used, and applied only for the 52034
purposes for which the grants and contributions are made;52035

       (21) Engage in research and development with respect to port 52036
authority facilities;52037

       (22) Purchase fire and extended coverage and liability 52038
insurance for any port authority facility and for the principal 52039
office and branch offices of the port authority, insurance 52040
protecting the port authority and its officers and employees 52041
against liability for damage to property or injury to or death of 52042
persons arising from its operations, and any other insurance the 52043
port authority may agree to provide under any resolution 52044
authorizing its port authority revenue bonds or in any trust 52045
agreement securing the same;52046

       (23) Charge, alter, and collect rentals and other charges for 52047
the use or services of any port authority facility as provided in 52048
section 4582.43 of the Revised Code;52049

       (24) Provide coverage for its employees under Chapters 145., 52050
4123., and 4141. of the Revised Code;52051

       (25) Do all acts necessary or proper to carry out the powers 52052
expressly granted in sections 4582.21 to 4582.59 of the Revised 52053
Code.52054

       (B) Any instrument by which real property is acquired 52055
pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state 52056
that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in 52057
section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.52058

       (C) Whoever violates division (A)(14) of this section is 52059
guilty of a minor misdemeanor.52060

       Sec. 4712.01.  As used in sections 4712.01 to 4712.14 of the 52061
Revised Code:52062

       (A) "Buyer" means an individual who is solicited to purchase 52063
or who purchases the services of a credit services organization 52064
for purposes other than obtaining a business loan as described in 52065
division (B)(6) of section 1343.01 of the Revised Code.52066

       (B) "Consumer reporting agency" has the same meaning as in 52067
the "Fair Credit Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1128, 15 U.S.C.A. 1681a, 52068
as amended.52069

       (C)(1) "Credit services organization" means any person that, 52070
in return for the payment of money or other valuable consideration 52071
readily convertible into money for the following services, sells, 52072
provides, or performs, or represents that the person can or will 52073
sell, provide, or perform, one or more of the following services:52074

       (a) Improving a buyer's credit record, history, or rating;52075

       (b) Obtaining an extension of credit by others for a buyer;52076

       (c) Providing advice or assistance to a buyer in connection 52077
with division (C)(1)(a) or (b) of this section;52078

       (d) Removing adverse credit information that is accurate and 52079
not obsolete from the buyer's credit record, history, or rating;52080

       (e) Altering the buyer's identification to prevent the 52081
display of the buyer's credit record, history, or rating.52082

       (2) "Credit services organization" does not include any of 52083
the following:52084

       (a) A person that makes or collects loans, to the extent 52085
these activities are subject to licensure or registration by this 52086
state;52087

       (b) A mortgage broker, as defined in section 1322.01 of the 52088
Revised Code, that holds a valid certificate of registration under 52089
sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code;52090

       (c) A lender approved by the United States secretary of 52091
housing and urban development for participation in a mortgage 52092
insurance program under the "National Housing Act," 48 Stat. 1246 52093
(1934), 12 U.S.C.A. 1701, as amended;52094

       (d) A bank, savings bank, or savings and loan association, or 52095
a subsidiary or an affiliate of a bank, savings bank, or savings 52096
and loan association. For purposes of division (C)(2)(d) of this 52097
section, "affiliate" has the same meaning as in division (A) of 52098
section 1101.01 of the Revised Code and "bank," as used in 52099
division (A) of section 1101.01 of the Revised Code, is deemed to 52100
include a savings bank or savings and loan association.52101

       (e) A credit union organized and qualified under Chapter 52102
1733. of the Revised Code or the "Federal Credit Union Act," 84 52103
Stat. 994 (1970), 12 U.S.C.A. 1751, as amended;52104

       (f) A budget and debt counseling service, as defined in 52105
division (D) of section 2716.03 of the Revised Code, provided that 52106
the service is a nonprofit organization exempt from taxation under 52107
section 501(c)(3) of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 52108
Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 501, as amended, and that the service is 52109
in compliance with Chapter 4710. of the Revised Code;52110

       (g) A consumer reporting agency that is in substantial 52111
compliance with the "Fair Credit Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1128, 15 52112
U.S.C.A. 1681a, as amended.52113

       (h) A mortgage banker;52114

       (i) Any political subdivision, or any governmental or other 52115
public entity, corporation, or agency, in or of the United States 52116
or any state of the United States;52117

       (j) A college or university, or controlled entity of a 52118
college or university, as defined in section 1713.05 of the 52119
Revised Code;52120

       (k) A motor vehicle dealer licensed pursuant to Chapter 4517. 52121
of the Revised Code acting within the scope and authority of that 52122
license or a motor vehicle auction owner licensed pursuant to 52123
Chapters 4517. and 4707. of the Revised Code acting within the 52124
scope and authority of that license;52125

       (l) An attorney at law admitted to the practice of law in 52126
this state who offers, provides, or performs a legal service that 52127
is privileged by reason of the attorney-client relationship, 52128
provided that the service is not a service described in division 52129
(C)(1)(b) or (e) of this section.52130

       (D) "Extension of credit" means the right to defer payment of 52131
debt, or to incur debt and defer its payment, offered or granted 52132
primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. "Extension 52133
of credit" does not include a mortgage.52134

       (E) "Mortgage" means any indebtedness secured by a deed of 52135
trust, security deed, or other lien on real property.52136

       (F) "Mortgage banker" means any person that makes, services, 52137
or buys and sells mortgage loans and is approved by the United 52138
States department of housing and urban development, the United 52139
States department of veterans affairs, the federal national 52140
mortgage association, or the federal home loan mortgage 52141
corporation.52142

       (G) "Superintendent of financial institutions" includes the 52143
deputy superintendent for consumer finance as provided in section 52144
1181.21 of the Revised Code.52145

       Sec. 4723.481.  This section establishes standards and 52146
conditions regarding the authority of a clinical nurse specialist, 52147
certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner to 52148
prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices under a certificate to 52149
prescribe issued under section 4723.481 of the Revised Code.52150

       (A) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 52151
certified nurse practitioner shall not prescribe any drug or 52152
therapeutic device that is not included in the types of drugs and 52153
devices listed on the formulary established in rules adopted under 52154
section 4723.50 of the Revised Code.52155

       (B) The prescriptive authority of a clinical nurse 52156
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 52157
practitioner shall not exceed the prescriptive authority of the 52158
collaborating physician or podiatrist, including the collaborating 52159
physician's authority to treat chronic pain with controlled 52160
substances and products containing tramadol as described in 52161
section 4731.052 of the Revised Code.52162

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) or (3) of this 52163
section, a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 52164
certified nurse practitioner may prescribe to a patient a schedule 52165
II controlled substance only if all of the following are the case: 52166

       (a) The patient has a terminal condition, as defined in 52167
section 2133.01 of the Revised Code.52168

       (b) The collaborating physician of the clinical nurse 52169
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 52170
practitioner initially prescribed the substance for the patient.52171

       (c) The prescription is for an amount that does not exceed 52172
the amount necessary for the patient's use in a single, 52173
twenty-four hour period. 52174

       (2) The restrictions on prescriptive authority in division 52175
(C)(1) of this section do not apply if a clinical nurse 52176
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 52177
practitioner issues the prescription to the patient from any of 52178
the following locations:52179

        (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 52180
Revised Code;52181

       (b) An entity owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a 52182
hospital or by an entity that owns or controls, in whole or in 52183
part, one or more hospitals;52184

        (c) A health care facility operated by the department of 52185
mental health or the department of developmental disabilities;52186

        (d) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 52187
Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 52188
3721.09 of the Revised Code;52189

       (e) A county home or district home operated under Chapter 52190
5155. of the Revised Code that is certified under the medicare or 52191
medicaid program;52192

        (f) A hospice care program, as defined in section 3712.01 of 52193
the Revised Code;52194

       (g) A community mental health agency, as defined in section 52195
5122.01 of the Revised Code;52196

        (h) An ambulatory surgical facility, as defined in section 52197
3702.30 of the Revised Code;52198

       (i) A freestanding birthing center, as defined in section 52199
3702.51 of the Revised Code;52200

       (j) A federally qualified health center, as defined in 52201
section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;52202

       (k) A federally qualified health center look-alike, as 52203
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;52204

        (l) A health care office or facility operated by the board of 52205
health of a city or general health district or the authority 52206
having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of 52207
the Revised Code;52208

       (m) A site where a medical practice is operated, but only if 52209
the practice is comprised of one or more physicians who also are 52210
owners of the practice; the practice is organized to provide 52211
direct patient care; and the clinical nurse specialist, certified 52212
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner providing services 52213
at the site has a standard care arrangement and collaborates with 52214
at least one of the physician owners who practices primarily at 52215
that site.52216

       (3) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 52217
certified nurse practitioner shall not issue to a patient a 52218
prescription for a schedule II controlled substance from a 52219
convenience care clinic even if the clinic is owned or operated by 52220
an entity specified in division (C)(2) of this section.52221

       (D) A pharmacist who acts in good faith reliance on a 52222
prescription issued by a clinical nurse specialist, certified 52223
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner under division 52224
(C)(2) of this section is not liable for or subject to any of the 52225
following for relying on the prescription: damages in any civil 52226
action, prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional 52227
disciplinary action by the state board of pharmacy under Chapter 52228
4729. of the Revised Code.52229

       (E) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 52230
certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a 52231
sample of any drug or therapeutic device included in the types of 52232
drugs and devices listed on the formulary, except that all of the 52233
following conditions apply:52234

       (1) The amount of the sample furnished shall not exceed a 52235
seventy-two-hour supply, except when the minimum available 52236
quantity of the sample is packaged in an amount that is greater 52237
than a seventy-two-hour supply, in which case the packaged amount 52238
may be furnished.52239

       (2) No charge may be imposed for the sample or for furnishing 52240
it.52241

       (3) Samples of controlled substances may not be personally 52242
furnished.52243

        (F) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 52244
certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a 52245
complete or partial supply of a drug or therapeutic device 52246
included in the types of drugs and devices listed on the 52247
formulary, except that all of the following conditions apply:52248

       (1) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 52249
or certified nurse practitioner shall personally furnish only 52250
antibiotics, antifungals, scabicides, contraceptives, prenatal 52251
vitamins, antihypertensives, drugs and devices used in the 52252
treatment of diabetes, drugs and devices used in the treatment of 52253
asthma, and drugs used in the treatment of dyslipidemia.52254

       (2) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 52255
or certified nurse practitioner shall not furnish the drugs and 52256
devices in locations other than a health department operated by 52257
the board of health of a city or general health district or the 52258
authority having the duties of a board of health under section 52259
3709.05 of the Revised Code, a federally funded comprehensive 52260
primary care clinic, or a nonprofit health care clinic or program.52261

       (3) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 52262
or certified nurse practitioner shall comply with all safety 52263
standards for personally furnishing supplies of drugs and devices, 52264
as established in rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the 52265
Revised Code.52266

       Sec. 4730.42.  (A) In granting physician-delegated 52267
prescriptive authority to a particular physician assistant who 52268
holds a certificate to prescribe issued under this chapter, the 52269
supervising physician is subject to all of the following:52270

       (1) The supervising physician shall not grant 52271
physician-delegated prescriptive authority for any drug or 52272
therapeutic device that is not listed on the formulary established 52273
in rules adopted under section 4730.39 of the Revised Code as a 52274
drug or therapeutic device that may be included in the 52275
physician-delegated prescriptive authority granted to a physician 52276
assistant.52277

       (2) The supervising physician shall not grant 52278
physician-delegated prescriptive authority for any drug or device 52279
that may be used to perform or induce an abortion.52280

       (3) The supervising physician shall not grant 52281
physician-delegated prescriptive authority in a manner that 52282
exceeds the supervising physician's prescriptive authority, 52283
including the physician's authority to treat chronic pain with 52284
controlled substances and products containing tramadol as 52285
described in section 4731.052 of the Revised Code.52286

       (4) The supervising physician shall supervise the physician 52287
assistant in accordance with all of the following:52288

       (a) The supervision requirements specified in section 4730.21 52289
of the Revised Code and, in the case of supervision provided 52290
during a provisional period of physician-delegated prescriptive 52291
authority, the supervision requirements specified in section 52292
4730.45 of the Revised Code;52293

       (b) The physician supervisory plan approved for the 52294
supervising physician or the policies of the health care facility 52295
in which the physician and physician assistant are practicing;52296

       (c) The supervision agreement approved under section 4730.19 52297
of the Revised Code that applies to the supervising physician and 52298
the physician assistant.52299

       (B)(1) The supervising physician of a physician assistant may 52300
place conditions on the physician-delegated prescriptive authority 52301
granted to the physician assistant. If conditions are placed on 52302
that authority, the supervising physician shall maintain a written 52303
record of the conditions and make the record available to the 52304
state medical board on request.52305

       (2) The conditions that a supervising physician may place on 52306
the physician-delegated prescriptive authority granted to a 52307
physician assistant include the following:52308

       (a) Identification by class and specific generic nomenclature 52309
of drugs and therapeutic devices that the physician chooses not to 52310
permit the physician assistant to prescribe;52311

       (b) Limitations on the dosage units or refills that the 52312
physician assistant is authorized to prescribe;52313

       (c) Specification of circumstances under which the physician 52314
assistant is required to refer patients to the supervising 52315
physician or another physician when exercising physician-delegated 52316
prescriptive authority;52317

       (d) Responsibilities to be fulfilled by the physician in 52318
supervising the physician assistant that are not otherwise 52319
specified in the physician supervisory plan or otherwise required 52320
by this chapter.52321

       Sec. 4731.052.  (A) As used in this section:52322

       (1) "Dangerous drug" has the same meaning as in section 52323
4729.01 of the Revised Code.52324

       (2) "Chronic pain" means pain that has persisted after 52325
reasonable medical efforts have been made to relieve the pain or 52326
cure its cause and that has continued, either continuously or 52327
episodically, for longer than three continuous months. "Chronic 52328
pain" does not include pain associated with a terminal condition 52329
or with a progressive disease that, in the normal course of 52330
progression, may reasonably be expected to result in a terminal 52331
condition.52332

       (2) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 52333
3719.01 of the Revised Code.52334

       (3) "Physician" means an individual authorized under this 52335
chapter to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine 52336
and surgery.52337

       (B) The state medical board shall adopt rules in accordance 52338
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish standards and 52339
procedures to be followed by physicians in the diagnosis and 52340
treatment of chronic pain, including standards for a physician's 52341
consultation with one or more other physicians who specialize in 52342
the treatment of the area, system, or organ of the body perceived 52343
as the source of pain and managing chronic pain by prescribing, 52344
personally furnishing, or administering dangerous drugs in amounts 52345
or combinations that may not be appropriate when treating other 52346
medical conditions. In developing the rules, the board shall 52347
consult with and permit review by physicians who are experienced 52348
in the diagnosis and treatment of chronic paincontrolled 52349
substances or products containing tramadol.52350

       (C) When a physician diagnoses an individuala patient as 52351
having chronic pain, the physician may, subject to division (D) of 52352
this section, treat the pain by managing it with dangerous drugs 52353
in amounts or combinations that may not be appropriate when 52354
treating other medical conditionscontrolled substances and 52355
products containing tramadol. The physician's diagnosis and 52356
treatment decisions shall be made after having the individual52357
according to accepted and prevailing standards for medical care. 52358
For the purpose of assisting with the diagnosis of chronic pain, 52359
the physician shall obtain and review all available medical 52360
records or detailed written summaries of the patient's treatment 52361
for chronic pain or the condition causing the chronic pain. It is 52362
recommended that the physician also consider having the patient52363
evaluated by one or more other physicians who specialize in the 52364
treatment of the area, system, or organ of the body perceived as 52365
the source of the pain. The physician's diagnosis and treatment 52366
decisions shall be made according to accepted and prevailing 52367
standards for medical care. The52368

       (D) For each patient a physician diagnoses as having chronic 52369
pain, the physician shall maintain a written record of all of the 52370
following:52371

       (1) Medical history and physical examination of the 52372
individualpatient;52373

       (2) The diagnosis of chronic pain, including signs, symptoms, 52374
and causes;52375

       (3) The plan of treatment proposed, the patient's response to 52376
treatment, and any modification to the plan of treatment;, 52377
including all of the following:52378

        (a) Documentation that other medically reasonable treatments 52379
for relief of the patient's chronic pain have been offered or 52380
attempted without adequate or reasonable success;52381

        (b) Periodic assessment and documentation of the patient's 52382
functional status, including the ability to engage in work or 52383
other purposeful activities, the pain intensity and its 52384
interference with activities of daily living, quality of family 52385
life and social activities, and physical activity of the patient;52386

        (c) Periodic assessment and documentation of the patient's 52387
progress toward treatment objectives, including the intended role 52388
of controlled substances or products containing tramadol within 52389
the overall plan of treatment;52390

        (d) Periodic assessment and documentation for indicators of 52391
possible addiction, drug abuse, or drug diversion;52392

        (e) Notation of any adverse drug effects.52393

       (4) The dates on which dangerous drugscontrolled substances 52394
or products containing tramadol were prescribed, furnished, or 52395
administered, the name and address of the individualpatient to or 52396
for whom the dangerous drugscontrolled substances or products 52397
containing tramadol were prescribed, dispensedfurnished, or 52398
administered, and the amounts and dosage forms for the dangerous 52399
drugscontrolled substances or products containing tramadol52400
prescribed, furnished, or administered;52401

       (5) A copy of theany record or report made by theanother52402
physician or the physician to whom referral for evaluation was 52403
made under this divisionthat was used or consulted for the 52404
purpose of diagnosing the patient's chronic pain or treating the 52405
patient for chronic pain.52406

       (E) A physician shall not prescribe, personally furnish, or 52407
administer to a patient a controlled substance or product 52408
containing tramadol without taking into account the potential for 52409
abuse of the controlled substance or product, the possibility the 52410
controlled substance or product may lead to dependence, the 52411
possibility the patient will obtain the controlled substance or 52412
product for a nontherapeutic use or distribute it to other 52413
persons, and the potential existence of an illicit market for the 52414
controlled substance or product. In addition, the physician shall 52415
address with the patient the risks associated with protracted 52416
treatment with controlled substances or products containing 52417
tramadol, including informing the patient of the potential for 52418
dependence, tolerance, and addiction and the clinical or 52419
monitoring tools the physician may use if signs of addiction, drug 52420
abuse, or drug diversion are present.52421

       (D)(F) A physician who treats chronic pain by managing it 52422
with dangerous drugscontrolled substances or products containing 52423
tramadol is not subject to disciplinary action by the board under 52424
section 4731.22 of the Revised Code solely because the physician 52425
treated the chronic pain with dangerous drugscontrolled 52426
substances or products containing tramadol.52427

       Sec. 4731.22.  (A) The state medical board, by an affirmative 52428
vote of not fewer than six of its members, may revoke or may 52429
refuse to grant a certificate to a person found by the board to 52430
have committed fraud during the administration of the examination 52431
for a certificate to practice or to have committed fraud, 52432
misrepresentation, or deception in applying for or securing any 52433
certificate to practice or certificate of registration issued by 52434
the board.52435

       (B) The board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six 52436
members, shall, to the extent permitted by law, limit, revoke, or 52437
suspend an individual's certificate to practice, refuse to 52438
register an individual, refuse to reinstate a certificate, or 52439
reprimand or place on probation the holder of a certificate for 52440
one or more of the following reasons:52441

       (1) Permitting one's name or one's certificate to practice or 52442
certificate of registration to be used by a person, group, or 52443
corporation when the individual concerned is not actually 52444
directing the treatment given;52445

       (2) Failure to maintain minimal standards applicable to the 52446
selection or administration of drugs, or failure to employ 52447
acceptable scientific methods in the selection of drugs or other 52448
modalities for treatment of disease;52449

       (3) Selling, giving away, personally furnishing, prescribing, 52450
or administering drugs for other than legal and legitimate 52451
therapeutic purposes or a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of 52452
guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in 52453
lieu of conviction of, a violation of any federal or state law 52454
regulating the possession, distribution, or use of any drug;52455

       (4) Willfully betraying a professional confidence.52456

       For purposes of this division, "willfully betraying a 52457
professional confidence" does not include providing any 52458
information, documents, or reports to a child fatality review 52459
board under sections 307.621 to 307.629 of the Revised Code and 52460
does not include the making of a report of an employee's use of a 52461
drug of abuse, or a report of a condition of an employee other 52462
than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of 52463
the employee as described in division (B) of section 2305.33 of 52464
the Revised Code. Nothing in this division affects the immunity 52465
from civil liability conferred by that section upon a physician 52466
who makes either type of report in accordance with division (B) of 52467
that section. As used in this division, "employee," "employer," 52468
and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of 52469
the Revised Code.52470

       (5) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading 52471
statement in the solicitation of or advertising for patients; in 52472
relation to the practice of medicine and surgery, osteopathic 52473
medicine and surgery, podiatric medicine and surgery, or a limited 52474
branch of medicine; or in securing or attempting to secure any 52475
certificate to practice or certificate of registration issued by 52476
the board.52477

       As used in this division, "false, fraudulent, deceptive, or 52478
misleading statement" means a statement that includes a 52479
misrepresentation of fact, is likely to mislead or deceive because 52480
of a failure to disclose material facts, is intended or is likely 52481
to create false or unjustified expectations of favorable results, 52482
or includes representations or implications that in reasonable 52483
probability will cause an ordinarily prudent person to 52484
misunderstand or be deceived.52485

       (6) A departure from, or the failure to conform to, minimal 52486
standards of care of similar practitioners under the same or 52487
similar circumstances, whether or not actual injury to a patient 52488
is established;52489

       (7) Representing, with the purpose of obtaining compensation 52490
or other advantage as personal gain or for any other person, that 52491
an incurable disease or injury, or other incurable condition, can 52492
be permanently cured;52493

       (8) The obtaining of, or attempting to obtain, money or 52494
anything of value by fraudulent misrepresentations in the course 52495
of practice;52496

       (9) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a 52497
judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of 52498
conviction for, a felony;52499

       (10) Commission of an act that constitutes a felony in this 52500
state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was 52501
committed;52502

       (11) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or 52503
a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of 52504
conviction for, a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice;52505

       (12) Commission of an act in the course of practice that 52506
constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the 52507
jurisdiction in which the act was committed;52508

       (13) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or 52509
a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of 52510
conviction for, a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;52511

       (14) Commission of an act involving moral turpitude that 52512
constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the 52513
jurisdiction in which the act was committed;52514

       (15) Violation of the conditions of limitation placed by the 52515
board upon a certificate to practice;52516

       (16) Failure to pay license renewal fees specified in this 52517
chapter;52518

       (17) Except as authorized in section 4731.31 of the Revised 52519
Code, engaging in the division of fees for referral of patients, 52520
or the receiving of a thing of value in return for a specific 52521
referral of a patient to utilize a particular service or business;52522

       (18) Subject to section 4731.226 of the Revised Code, 52523
violation of any provision of a code of ethics of the American 52524
medical association, the American osteopathic association, the 52525
American podiatric medical association, or any other national 52526
professional organizations that the board specifies by rule. The 52527
state medical board shall obtain and keep on file current copies 52528
of the codes of ethics of the various national professional 52529
organizations. The individual whose certificate is being suspended 52530
or revoked shall not be found to have violated any provision of a 52531
code of ethics of an organization not appropriate to the 52532
individual's profession.52533

       For purposes of this division, a "provision of a code of 52534
ethics of a national professional organization" does not include 52535
any provision that would preclude the making of a report by a 52536
physician of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or of a 52537
condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a 52538
drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in 52539
division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in 52540
this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred 52541
by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report 52542
in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this 52543
division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same 52544
meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.52545

       (19) Inability to practice according to acceptable and 52546
prevailing standards of care by reason of mental illness or 52547
physical illness, including, but not limited to, physical 52548
deterioration that adversely affects cognitive, motor, or 52549
perceptive skills.52550

       In enforcing this division, the board, upon a showing of a 52551
possible violation, may compel any individual authorized to 52552
practice by this chapter or who has submitted an application 52553
pursuant to this chapter to submit to a mental examination, 52554
physical examination, including an HIV test, or both a mental and 52555
a physical examination. The expense of the examination is the 52556
responsibility of the individual compelled to be examined. Failure 52557
to submit to a mental or physical examination or consent to an HIV 52558
test ordered by the board constitutes an admission of the 52559
allegations against the individual unless the failure is due to 52560
circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default and 52561
final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or 52562
presentation of evidence. If the board finds an individual unable 52563
to practice because of the reasons set forth in this division, the 52564
board shall require the individual to submit to care, counseling, 52565
or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the board, as 52566
a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, or renewed 52567
authority to practice. An individual affected under this division 52568
shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the board the 52569
ability to resume practice in compliance with acceptable and 52570
prevailing standards under the provisions of the individual's 52571
certificate. For the purpose of this division, any individual who 52572
applies for or receives a certificate to practice under this 52573
chapter accepts the privilege of practicing in this state and, by 52574
so doing, shall be deemed to have given consent to submit to a 52575
mental or physical examination when directed to do so in writing 52576
by the board, and to have waived all objections to the 52577
admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute 52578
a privileged communication.52579

       (20) Except when civil penalties are imposed under section 52580
4731.225 or 4731.281 of the Revised Code, and subject to section 52581
4731.226 of the Revised Code, violating or attempting to violate, 52582
directly or indirectly, or assisting in or abetting the violation 52583
of, or conspiring to violate, any provisions of this chapter or 52584
any rule promulgated by the board.52585

       This division does not apply to a violation or attempted 52586
violation of, assisting in or abetting the violation of, or a 52587
conspiracy to violate, any provision of this chapter or any rule 52588
adopted by the board that would preclude the making of a report by 52589
a physician of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or of a 52590
condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a 52591
drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in 52592
division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in 52593
this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred 52594
by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report 52595
in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this 52596
division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same 52597
meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.52598

       (21) The violation of section 3701.79 of the Revised Code or 52599
of any abortion rule adopted by the publicdirector of health 52600
council pursuant to section 3701.341 of the Revised Code;52601

       (22) Any of the following actions taken by an agency 52602
responsible for authorizing, certifying, or regulating an 52603
individual to practice a health care occupation or provide health 52604
care services in this state or another jurisdiction, for any 52605
reason other than the nonpayment of fees: the limitation, 52606
revocation, or suspension of an individual's license to practice; 52607
acceptance of an individual's license surrender; denial of a 52608
license; refusal to renew or reinstate a license; imposition of 52609
probation; or issuance of an order of censure or other reprimand;52610

       (23) The violation of section 2919.12 of the Revised Code or 52611
the performance or inducement of an abortion upon a pregnant woman 52612
with actual knowledge that the conditions specified in division 52613
(B) of section 2317.56 of the Revised Code have not been satisfied 52614
or with a heedless indifference as to whether those conditions 52615
have been satisfied, unless an affirmative defense as specified in 52616
division (H)(2) of that section would apply in a civil action 52617
authorized by division (H)(1) of that section;52618

       (24) The revocation, suspension, restriction, reduction, or 52619
termination of clinical privileges by the United States department 52620
of defense or department of veterans affairs or the termination or 52621
suspension of a certificate of registration to prescribe drugs by 52622
the drug enforcement administration of the United States 52623
department of justice;52624

       (25) Termination or suspension from participation in the 52625
medicare or medicaid programs by the department of health and 52626
human services or other responsible agency for any act or acts 52627
that also would constitute a violation of division (B)(2), (3), 52628
(6), (8), or (19) of this section;52629

       (26) Impairment of ability to practice according to 52630
acceptable and prevailing standards of care because of habitual or 52631
excessive use or abuse of drugs, alcohol, or other substances that 52632
impair ability to practice.52633

       For the purposes of this division, any individual authorized 52634
to practice by this chapter accepts the privilege of practicing in 52635
this state subject to supervision by the board. By filing an 52636
application for or holding a certificate to practice under this 52637
chapter, an individual shall be deemed to have given consent to 52638
submit to a mental or physical examination when ordered to do so 52639
by the board in writing, and to have waived all objections to the 52640
admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute 52641
privileged communications.52642

       If it has reason to believe that any individual authorized to 52643
practice by this chapter or any applicant for certification to 52644
practice suffers such impairment, the board may compel the 52645
individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both. 52646
The expense of the examination is the responsibility of the 52647
individual compelled to be examined. Any mental or physical 52648
examination required under this division shall be undertaken by a 52649
treatment provider or physician who is qualified to conduct the 52650
examination and who is chosen by the board.52651

       Failure to submit to a mental or physical examination ordered 52652
by the board constitutes an admission of the allegations against 52653
the individual unless the failure is due to circumstances beyond 52654
the individual's control, and a default and final order may be 52655
entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of 52656
evidence. If the board determines that the individual's ability to 52657
practice is impaired, the board shall suspend the individual's 52658
certificate or deny the individual's application and shall require 52659
the individual, as a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, 52660
or renewed certification to practice, to submit to treatment.52661

       Before being eligible to apply for reinstatement of a 52662
certificate suspended under this division, the impaired 52663
practitioner shall demonstrate to the board the ability to resume 52664
practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of 52665
care under the provisions of the practitioner's certificate. The 52666
demonstration shall include, but shall not be limited to, the 52667
following:52668

       (a) Certification from a treatment provider approved under 52669
section 4731.25 of the Revised Code that the individual has 52670
successfully completed any required inpatient treatment;52671

       (b) Evidence of continuing full compliance with an aftercare 52672
contract or consent agreement;52673

       (c) Two written reports indicating that the individual's 52674
ability to practice has been assessed and that the individual has 52675
been found capable of practicing according to acceptable and 52676
prevailing standards of care. The reports shall be made by 52677
individuals or providers approved by the board for making the 52678
assessments and shall describe the basis for their determination.52679

       The board may reinstate a certificate suspended under this 52680
division after that demonstration and after the individual has 52681
entered into a written consent agreement.52682

       When the impaired practitioner resumes practice, the board 52683
shall require continued monitoring of the individual. The 52684
monitoring shall include, but not be limited to, compliance with 52685
the written consent agreement entered into before reinstatement or 52686
with conditions imposed by board order after a hearing, and, upon 52687
termination of the consent agreement, submission to the board for 52688
at least two years of annual written progress reports made under 52689
penalty of perjury stating whether the individual has maintained 52690
sobriety.52691

       (27) A second or subsequent violation of section 4731.66 or 52692
4731.69 of the Revised Code;52693

       (28) Except as provided in division (N) of this section:52694

       (a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or 52695
copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health 52696
care policy, contract, or plan that covers the individual's 52697
services, otherwise would be required to pay if the waiver is used 52698
as an enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive 52699
health care services from that individual;52700

       (b) Advertising that the individual will waive the payment of 52701
all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, 52702
pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or 52703
plan that covers the individual's services, otherwise would be 52704
required to pay.52705

       (29) Failure to use universal blood and body fluid 52706
precautions established by rules adopted under section 4731.051 of 52707
the Revised Code;52708

       (30) Failure to provide notice to, and receive acknowledgment 52709
of the notice from, a patient when required by section 4731.143 of 52710
the Revised Code prior to providing nonemergency professional 52711
services, or failure to maintain that notice in the patient's 52712
file;52713

       (31) Failure of a physician supervising a physician assistant 52714
to maintain supervision in accordance with the requirements of 52715
Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under that 52716
chapter;52717

       (32) Failure of a physician or podiatrist to enter into a 52718
standard care arrangement with a clinical nurse specialist, 52719
certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner with whom 52720
the physician or podiatrist is in collaboration pursuant to 52721
section 4731.27 of the Revised Code or failure to fulfill the 52722
responsibilities of collaboration after entering into a standard 52723
care arrangement;52724

       (33) Failure to comply with the terms of a consult agreement 52725
entered into with a pharmacist pursuant to section 4729.39 of the 52726
Revised Code;52727

       (34) Failure to cooperate in an investigation conducted by 52728
the board under division (F) of this section, including failure to 52729
comply with a subpoena or order issued by the board or failure to 52730
answer truthfully a question presented by the board at a 52731
deposition or in written interrogatories, except that failure to 52732
cooperate with an investigation shall not constitute grounds for 52733
discipline under this section if a court of competent jurisdiction 52734
has issued an order that either quashes a subpoena or permits the 52735
individual to withhold the testimony or evidence in issue;52736

       (35) Failure to supervise an acupuncturist in accordance with 52737
Chapter 4762. of the Revised Code and the board's rules for 52738
supervision of an acupuncturist;52739

       (36) Failure to supervise an anesthesiologist assistant in 52740
accordance with Chapter 4760. of the Revised Code and the board's 52741
rules for supervision of an anesthesiologist assistant;52742

       (37) Assisting suicide as defined in section 3795.01 of the 52743
Revised Code;52744

       (38) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 52745
2317.561 of the Revised Code;52746

       (39) Failure to supervise a radiologist assistant in 52747
accordance with Chapter 4774. of the Revised Code and the board's 52748
rules for supervision of radiologist assistants;52749

       (40) Performing or inducing an abortion at an office or 52750
facility with knowledge that the office or facility fails to post 52751
the notice required under section 3701.791 of the Revised Code;52752

       (41) Failure to comply with the standards and procedures 52753
established in rules under section 4731.054 of the Revised Code 52754
for the operation of or the provision of care at a pain management 52755
clinic;52756

        (42) Failure to comply with the standards and procedures 52757
established in rules under section 4731.054 of the Revised Code 52758
for providing supervision, direction, and control of individuals 52759
at a pain management clinic;52760

       (43) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 52761
4729.79 of the Revised Code, unless the state board of pharmacy no 52762
longer maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of 52763
the Revised Code;52764

       (41)(44) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 52765
2919.171 of the Revised Code or failure to submit to the 52766
department of health in accordance with a court order a complete 52767
report as described in section 2919.171 of the Revised Code.52768

       (C) Disciplinary actions taken by the board under divisions 52769
(A) and (B) of this section shall be taken pursuant to an 52770
adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that 52771
in lieu of an adjudication, the board may enter into a consent 52772
agreement with an individual to resolve an allegation of a 52773
violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. A consent 52774
agreement, when ratified by an affirmative vote of not fewer than 52775
six members of the board, shall constitute the findings and order 52776
of the board with respect to the matter addressed in the 52777
agreement. If the board refuses to ratify a consent agreement, the 52778
admissions and findings contained in the consent agreement shall 52779
be of no force or effect.52780

       A telephone conference call may be utilized for ratification 52781
of a consent agreement that revokes or suspends an individual's 52782
certificate to practice. The telephone conference call shall be 52783
considered a special meeting under division (F) of section 121.22 52784
of the Revised Code.52785

       If the board takes disciplinary action against an individual 52786
under division (B) of this section for a second or subsequent plea 52787
of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of 52788
section 2919.123 of the Revised Code, the disciplinary action 52789
shall consist of a suspension of the individual's certificate to 52790
practice for a period of at least one year or, if determined 52791
appropriate by the board, a more serious sanction involving the 52792
individual's certificate to practice. Any consent agreement 52793
entered into under this division with an individual that pertains 52794
to a second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding 52795
of guilt of, a violation of that section shall provide for a 52796
suspension of the individual's certificate to practice for a 52797
period of at least one year or, if determined appropriate by the 52798
board, a more serious sanction involving the individual's 52799
certificate to practice.52800

       (D) For purposes of divisions (B)(10), (12), and (14) of this 52801
section, the commission of the act may be established by a finding 52802
by the board, pursuant to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of 52803
the Revised Code, that the individual committed the act. The board 52804
does not have jurisdiction under those divisions if the trial 52805
court renders a final judgment in the individual's favor and that 52806
judgment is based upon an adjudication on the merits. The board 52807
has jurisdiction under those divisions if the trial court issues 52808
an order of dismissal upon technical or procedural grounds.52809

       (E) The sealing of conviction records by any court shall have 52810
no effect upon a prior board order entered under this section or 52811
upon the board's jurisdiction to take action under this section 52812
if, based upon a plea of guilty, a judicial finding of guilt, or a 52813
judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of 52814
conviction, the board issued a notice of opportunity for a hearing 52815
prior to the court's order to seal the records. The board shall 52816
not be required to seal, destroy, redact, or otherwise modify its 52817
records to reflect the court's sealing of conviction records.52818

       (F)(1) The board shall investigate evidence that appears to 52819
show that a person has violated any provision of this chapter or 52820
any rule adopted under it. Any person may report to the board in a 52821
signed writing any information that the person may have that 52822
appears to show a violation of any provision of this chapter or 52823
any rule adopted under it. In the absence of bad faith, any person 52824
who reports information of that nature or who testifies before the 52825
board in any adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the 52826
Revised Code shall not be liable in damages in a civil action as a 52827
result of the report or testimony. Each complaint or allegation of 52828
a violation received by the board shall be assigned a case number 52829
and shall be recorded by the board.52830

       (2) Investigations of alleged violations of this chapter or 52831
any rule adopted under it shall be supervised by the supervising 52832
member elected by the board in accordance with section 4731.02 of 52833
the Revised Code and by the secretary as provided in section 52834
4731.39 of the Revised Code. The president may designate another 52835
member of the board to supervise the investigation in place of the 52836
supervising member. No member of the board who supervises the 52837
investigation of a case shall participate in further adjudication 52838
of the case.52839

       (3) In investigating a possible violation of this chapter or 52840
any rule adopted under this chapter, the board may administer 52841
oaths, order the taking of depositions, inspect and copy any 52842
books, accounts, papers, records, or documents, issue subpoenas, 52843
and compel the attendance of witnesses and production of books, 52844
accounts, papers, records, documents, and testimony, except that a 52845
subpoena for patient record information shall not be issued 52846
without consultation with the attorney general's office and 52847
approval of the secretary and supervising member of the board. 52848
Before issuance of a subpoena for patient record information, the 52849
secretary and supervising member shall determine whether there is 52850
probable cause to believe that the complaint filed alleges a 52851
violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it and that 52852
the records sought are relevant to the alleged violation and 52853
material to the investigation. The subpoena may apply only to 52854
records that cover a reasonable period of time surrounding the 52855
alleged violation.52856

       On failure to comply with any subpoena issued by the board 52857
and after reasonable notice to the person being subpoenaed, the 52858
board may move for an order compelling the production of persons 52859
or records pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure.52860

       A subpoena issued by the board may be served by a sheriff, 52861
the sheriff's deputy, or a board employee designated by the board. 52862
Service of a subpoena issued by the board may be made by 52863
delivering a copy of the subpoena to the person named therein, 52864
reading it to the person, or leaving it at the person's usual 52865
place of residence. When the person being served is a person whose 52866
practice is authorized by this chapter, service of the subpoena 52867
may be made by certified mail, restricted delivery, return receipt 52868
requested, and the subpoena shall be deemed served on the date 52869
delivery is made or the date the person refuses to accept 52870
delivery.52871

       A sheriff's deputy who serves a subpoena shall receive the 52872
same fees as a sheriff. Each witness who appears before the board 52873
in obedience to a subpoena shall receive the fees and mileage 52874
provided for under section 119.094 of the Revised Code.52875

       (4) All hearings and investigations of the board shall be 52876
considered civil actions for the purposes of section 2305.252 of 52877
the Revised Code.52878

       (5) Information received by the board pursuant to an 52879
investigation is confidential and not subject to discovery in any 52880
civil action.52881

       The board shall conduct all investigations and proceedings in 52882
a manner that protects the confidentiality of patients and persons 52883
who file complaints with the board. The board shall not make 52884
public the names or any other identifying information about 52885
patients or complainants unless proper consent is given or, in the 52886
case of a patient, a waiver of the patient privilege exists under 52887
division (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code, except that 52888
consent or a waiver of that nature is not required if the board 52889
possesses reliable and substantial evidence that no bona fide 52890
physician-patient relationship exists.52891

       The board may share any information it receives pursuant to 52892
an investigation, including patient records and patient record 52893
information, with law enforcement agencies, other licensing 52894
boards, and other governmental agencies that are prosecuting, 52895
adjudicating, or investigating alleged violations of statutes or 52896
administrative rules. An agency or board that receives the 52897
information shall comply with the same requirements regarding 52898
confidentiality as those with which the state medical board must 52899
comply, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised 52900
Code or procedure of the agency or board that applies when it is 52901
dealing with other information in its possession. In a judicial 52902
proceeding, the information may be admitted into evidence only in 52903
accordance with the Rules of Evidence, but the court shall require 52904
that appropriate measures are taken to ensure that confidentiality 52905
is maintained with respect to any part of the information that 52906
contains names or other identifying information about patients or 52907
complainants whose confidentiality was protected by the state 52908
medical board when the information was in the board's possession. 52909
Measures to ensure confidentiality that may be taken by the court 52910
include sealing its records or deleting specific information from 52911
its records.52912

       (6) On a quarterly basis, the board shall prepare a report 52913
that documents the disposition of all cases during the preceding 52914
three months. The report shall contain the following information 52915
for each case with which the board has completed its activities:52916

       (a) The case number assigned to the complaint or alleged 52917
violation;52918

       (b) The type of certificate to practice, if any, held by the 52919
individual against whom the complaint is directed;52920

       (c) A description of the allegations contained in the 52921
complaint;52922

       (d) The disposition of the case.52923

       The report shall state how many cases are still pending and 52924
shall be prepared in a manner that protects the identity of each 52925
person involved in each case. The report shall be a public record 52926
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.52927

       (G) If the secretary and supervising member determine both of 52928
the following, they may recommend that the board suspend an 52929
individual's certificate to practice without a prior hearing:52930

       (1) That there is clear and convincing evidence that an 52931
individual has violated division (B) of this section;52932

       (2) That the individual's continued practice presents a 52933
danger of immediate and serious harm to the public. 52934

        Written allegations shall be prepared for consideration by 52935
the board. The board, upon review of those allegations and by an 52936
affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, excluding 52937
the secretary and supervising member, may suspend a certificate 52938
without a prior hearing. A telephone conference call may be 52939
utilized for reviewing the allegations and taking the vote on the 52940
summary suspension.52941

       The board shall issue a written order of suspension by 52942
certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of 52943
the Revised Code. The order shall not be subject to suspension by 52944
the court during pendency of any appeal filed under section 119.12 52945
of the Revised Code. If the individual subject to the summary 52946
suspension requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date 52947
set for the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier 52948
than seven days, after the individual requests the hearing, unless 52949
otherwise agreed to by both the board and the individual.52950

       Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall 52951
remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final 52952
adjudicative order issued by the board pursuant to this section 52953
and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board 52954
shall issue its final adjudicative order within seventy-five days 52955
after completion of its hearing. A failure to issue the order 52956
within seventy-five days shall result in dissolution of the 52957
summary suspension order but shall not invalidate any subsequent, 52958
final adjudicative order.52959

       (H) If the board takes action under division (B)(9), (11), or 52960
(13) of this section and the judicial finding of guilt, guilty 52961
plea, or judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu 52962
of conviction is overturned on appeal, upon exhaustion of the 52963
criminal appeal, a petition for reconsideration of the order may 52964
be filed with the board along with appropriate court documents. 52965
Upon receipt of a petition of that nature and supporting court 52966
documents, the board shall reinstate the individual's certificate 52967
to practice. The board may then hold an adjudication under Chapter 52968
119. of the Revised Code to determine whether the individual 52969
committed the act in question. Notice of an opportunity for a 52970
hearing shall be given in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 52971
Revised Code. If the board finds, pursuant to an adjudication held 52972
under this division, that the individual committed the act or if 52973
no hearing is requested, the board may order any of the sanctions 52974
identified under division (B) of this section.52975

       (I) The certificate to practice issued to an individual under 52976
this chapter and the individual's practice in this state are 52977
automatically suspended as of the date of the individual's second 52978
or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, 52979
a violation of section 2919.123 of the Revised Code, or the date 52980
the individual pleads guilty to, is found by a judge or jury to be 52981
guilty of, or is subject to a judicial finding of eligibility for 52982
intervention in lieu of conviction in this state or treatment or 52983
intervention in lieu of conviction in another jurisdiction for any 52984
of the following criminal offenses in this state or a 52985
substantially equivalent criminal offense in another jurisdiction: 52986
aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious 52987
assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual 52988
imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated 52989
burglary. Continued practice after suspension shall be considered 52990
practicing without a certificate.52991

       The board shall notify the individual subject to the 52992
suspension by certified mail or in person in accordance with 52993
section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If an individual whose 52994
certificate is automatically suspended under this division fails 52995
to make a timely request for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of 52996
the Revised Code, the board shall do whichever of the following is 52997
applicable:52998

       (1) If the automatic suspension under this division is for a 52999
second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of 53000
guilt of, a violation of section 2919.123 of the Revised Code, the 53001
board shall enter an order suspending the individual's certificate 53002
to practice for a period of at least one year or, if determined 53003
appropriate by the board, imposing a more serious sanction 53004
involving the individual's certificate to practice.53005

       (2) In all circumstances in which division (I)(1) of this 53006
section does not apply, enter a final order permanently revoking 53007
the individual's certificate to practice.53008

       (J) If the board is required by Chapter 119. of the Revised 53009
Code to give notice of an opportunity for a hearing and if the 53010
individual subject to the notice does not timely request a hearing 53011
in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, the board 53012
is not required to hold a hearing, but may adopt, by an 53013
affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, a final 53014
order that contains the board's findings. In that final order, the 53015
board may order any of the sanctions identified under division (A) 53016
or (B) of this section.53017

       (K) Any action taken by the board under division (B) of this 53018
section resulting in a suspension from practice shall be 53019
accompanied by a written statement of the conditions under which 53020
the individual's certificate to practice may be reinstated. The 53021
board shall adopt rules governing conditions to be imposed for 53022
reinstatement. Reinstatement of a certificate suspended pursuant 53023
to division (B) of this section requires an affirmative vote of 53024
not fewer than six members of the board.53025

       (L) When the board refuses to grant a certificate to an 53026
applicant, revokes an individual's certificate to practice, 53027
refuses to register an applicant, or refuses to reinstate an 53028
individual's certificate to practice, the board may specify that 53029
its action is permanent. An individual subject to a permanent 53030
action taken by the board is forever thereafter ineligible to hold 53031
a certificate to practice and the board shall not accept an 53032
application for reinstatement of the certificate or for issuance 53033
of a new certificate.53034

       (M) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, 53035
all of the following apply:53036

       (1) The surrender of a certificate issued under this chapter 53037
shall not be effective unless or until accepted by the board. A 53038
telephone conference call may be utilized for acceptance of the 53039
surrender of an individual's certificate to practice. The 53040
telephone conference call shall be considered a special meeting 53041
under division (F) of section 121.22 of the Revised Code. 53042
Reinstatement of a certificate surrendered to the board requires 53043
an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board.53044

       (2) An application for a certificate made under the 53045
provisions of this chapter may not be withdrawn without approval 53046
of the board.53047

       (3) Failure by an individual to renew a certificate of 53048
registration in accordance with this chapter shall not remove or 53049
limit the board's jurisdiction to take any disciplinary action 53050
under this section against the individual.53051

       (N) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (B)(28) of 53052
this section against any person who waives deductibles and 53053
copayments as follows:53054

       (1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly 53055
allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments 53056
shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan 53057
purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of 53058
the consent shall be made available to the board upon request.53059

       (2) For professional services rendered to any other person 53060
authorized to practice pursuant to this chapter, to the extent 53061
allowed by this chapter and rules adopted by the board.53062

       (O) Under the board's investigative duties described in this 53063
section and subject to division (F) of this section, the board 53064
shall develop and implement a quality intervention program 53065
designed to improve through remedial education the clinical and 53066
communication skills of individuals authorized under this chapter 53067
to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and 53068
surgery, and podiatric medicine and surgery. In developing and 53069
implementing the quality intervention program, the board may do 53070
all of the following:53071

       (1) Offer in appropriate cases as determined by the board an 53072
educational and assessment program pursuant to an investigation 53073
the board conducts under this section;53074

       (2) Select providers of educational and assessment services, 53075
including a quality intervention program panel of case reviewers;53076

       (3) Make referrals to educational and assessment service 53077
providers and approve individual educational programs recommended 53078
by those providers. The board shall monitor the progress of each 53079
individual undertaking a recommended individual educational 53080
program.53081

       (4) Determine what constitutes successful completion of an 53082
individual educational program and require further monitoring of 53083
the individual who completed the program or other action that the 53084
board determines to be appropriate;53085

       (5) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 53086
Revised Code to further implement the quality intervention 53087
program.53088

       An individual who participates in an individual educational 53089
program pursuant to this division shall pay the financial 53090
obligations arising from that educational program.53091

       Sec. 4731.297.  (A) As used in this section:53092

       (1) "Academic medical center" means a medical school and its 53093
affiliated teaching hospitals and clinics partnering to do all of 53094
the following:53095

       (a) Provide the highest quality of patient care from expert 53096
physicians;53097

       (b) Conduct groundbreaking research leading to medical 53098
advancements for current and future patients;53099

       (c) Provide medical education and graduate medical education 53100
to educate and train physicians. 53101

       (2) "Affiliated physician group practice" means a medical 53102
practice that consists of one or more physicians authorized under 53103
this chapter to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 53104
medicine and surgery and that is affiliated with an academic 53105
medical center to further the objectives described in divisions 53106
(A)(1)(a) to (c) of this section.53107

       (B) The state medical board shall issue, without examination, 53108
to an applicant who meets the requirements of this section a 53109
certificate of conceded eminence authorizing the practice of 53110
medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery as part 53111
of the applicant's employment with an academic medical center in 53112
this state or affiliated physician group practice in this state.53113

       (C) To be eligible for a certificate of conceded eminence, an 53114
applicant shall provide to the board all of the following:53115

       (1) Evidence satisfactory to the board of all of the 53116
following:53117

       (a) That the applicant is an international medical graduate 53118
who holds a medical degree from an educational institution listed 53119
in the international medical education directory;53120

       (b) That the applicant has been appointed to serve in this 53121
state as a full-time faculty member of a medical school accredited 53122
by the liaison committee on medical education or an osteopathic 53123
medical school accredited by the American osteopathic association;53124

       (c) That the applicant has accepted an offer of employment 53125
with an academic medical center in this state or affiliated 53126
physician group practice in this state;53127

       (d) That the applicant holds a license in good standing in 53128
another state or country authorizing the practice of medicine and 53129
surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery;53130

       (e) That the applicant has unique talents and extraordinary 53131
abilities not generally found within the applicant's specialty, as 53132
demonstrated by satisfying at least four of the following:53133

       (i) The applicant has achieved educational qualifications 53134
beyond those that are required for entry into the applicant's 53135
specialty, including advanced degrees, special certifications, or 53136
other academic credentials.53137

       (ii) The applicant has written multiple articles in journals 53138
listed in the index medicus or an equivalent scholarly publication 53139
acceptable to the board.53140

       (iii) The applicant has a sustained record of excellence in 53141
original research, at least some of which involves serving as the 53142
principal investigator or co-principal investigator for a research 53143
project.53144

       (iv) The applicant has received nationally or internationally 53145
recognized prizes or awards for excellence.53146

       (v) The applicant has participated in peer review in a field 53147
of specialization that is the same as or similar to the 53148
applicant's specialty.53149

       (vi) The applicant has developed new procedures or treatments 53150
for complex medical problems that are recognized by peers as a 53151
significant advancement in the applicable field of medicine.53152

       (vii) The applicant has held previous academic appointments 53153
with or been employed by a health care organization that has a 53154
distinguished national or international reputation.53155

       (viii) The applicant has been the recipient of a national 53156
institutes of health or other competitive grant award.53157

       (f) That the applicant has received staff membership or 53158
professional privileges from the academic medical center pursuant 53159
to standards adopted under section 3701.351 of the Revised Code on 53160
a basis that requires the applicant's medical education and 53161
graduate medical education to be at least equivalent to that of a 53162
physician educated and trained in the United States;53163

       (g) That the applicant has sufficient written and oral 53164
English skills to communicate effectively and reliably with 53165
patients, their families, and other medical professionals;53166

       (h) That the applicant will have professional liability 53167
insurance through the applicant's employment with the academic 53168
medical center or affiliated physician group practice.53169

       (2) An affidavit from the applicant agreeing to practice only 53170
within the clinical setting of the academic medical center;53171

       (3) Three letters of reference from distinguished experts in 53172
the applicant's specialty attesting to the unique capabilities of 53173
the applicant, at least one of which must be from outside the 53174
academic medical center or affiliated physician group practice;53175

       (4) An affidavit from the dean of the medical school where 53176
the applicant has been appointed to serve as a faculty member 53177
stating that the applicant meets all of the requirements of 53178
division (C)(1) of this section and that the letters of reference 53179
submitted under division (C)(3) of this section are from 53180
distinguished experts in the applicant's specialty, and 53181
documentation to support the affidavit;53182

       (5) A fee of one thousand dollars for the certificate. 53183

       (D)(1) The holder of a certificate of conceded eminence may 53184
practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery 53185
only within the clinical setting of the academic medical center 53186
with which the certificate holder is employed.53187

       (2) A certificate holder may supervise medical students, 53188
physicians participating in graduate medical education, advanced 53189
practice nurses, and physician assistants when performing clinical 53190
services in the certificate holder's area of specialty.53191

       (E) The board may revoke a certificate issued under this 53192
section on receiving proof satisfactory to the board that the 53193
certificate holder has engaged in practice in this state outside 53194
the scope of the certificate or that there are grounds for action 53195
against the certificate holder under section 4731.22 of the 53196
Revised Code.53197

       (F) A certificate of conceded eminence is valid for the 53198
shorter of two years or the duration of the certificate holder's 53199
employment with the academic medical center or affiliated 53200
physician group practice. The certificate ceases to be valid if 53201
the holder resigns or is otherwiseterminated from the academic 53202
medical center or affiliated physician group practice.53203

       (G) A certificate of conceded eminence may be renewed for an 53204
additional two-year period. There is no limit on the number of 53205
times a certificate may be renewed. A person seeking renewal of a 53206
certificate shall apply to the board and is eligible for renewal 53207
if the applicant does all of the following:53208

       (1) Pays the renewal fee of one thousand dollars;53209

       (2) Provides to the board an affidavit and supporting 53210
documentation from the academic medical center or affiliated 53211
physician group practice of all of the following:53212

       (a) That the applicant's initial appointment to the medical 53213
faculty is still valid or has been renewed;53214

       (b) That the applicant's clinical practice is consistent with 53215
the established standards in the field;53216

       (c) That the applicant has demonstrated continued scholarly 53217
achievement;53218

       (d) That the applicant has demonstrated continued 53219
professional achievement consistent with the academic medical 53220
center's requirements, established pursuant to standards adopted 53221
under section 3701.351 of the Revised Code, for physicians with 53222
staff membership or professional privileges with the academic 53223
medical center.53224

       (3) Satisfies the same continuing medical education 53225
requirements set forth in section 4731.281 of the Revised Code 53226
that apply to a person who holds a certificate to practice 53227
medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery issued 53228
under this chapter.53229

       (4) Complies with any other requirements established by the 53230
board.53231

       (H) The board may adopt any rules it considers necessary to 53232
implement this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance 53233
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.53234

       Sec. 4735.01.  As used in this chapter:53235

       (A) "Real estate broker" includes any person, partnership, 53236
association, limited liability company, limited liability 53237
partnership, or corporation, foreign or domestic, who for another, 53238
whether pursuant to a power of attorney or otherwise, and who for 53239
a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration, or with the 53240
intention, or in the expectation, or upon the promise of receiving 53241
or collecting a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration 53242
does any of the following:53243

       (1) Sells, exchanges, purchases, rents, or leases, or 53244
negotiates the sale, exchange, purchase, rental, or leasing of any 53245
real estate;53246

       (2) Offers, attempts, or agrees to negotiate the sale, 53247
exchange, purchase, rental, or leasing of any real estate;53248

       (3) Lists, or offers, attempts, or agrees to list, or 53249
auctions, or offers, attempts, or agrees to auction, any real 53250
estate;53251

       (4) Buys or offers to buy, sells or offers to sell, or 53252
otherwise deals in options on real estate;53253

       (5) Operates, manages, or rents, or offers or attempts to 53254
operate, manage, or rent, other than as custodian, caretaker, or 53255
janitor, any building or portions of buildings to the public as 53256
tenants;53257

       (6) Advertises or holds self out as engaged in the business 53258
of selling, exchanging, purchasing, renting, or leasing real 53259
estate;53260

       (7) Directs or assists in the procuring of prospects or the 53261
negotiation of any transaction, other than mortgage financing, 53262
which does or is calculated to result in the sale, exchange, 53263
leasing, or renting of any real estate;53264

       (8) Is engaged in the business of charging an advance fee or 53265
contracting for collection of a fee in connection with any 53266
contract whereby the broker undertakes primarily to promote the 53267
sale, exchange, purchase, rental, or leasing of real estate 53268
through its listing in a publication issued primarily for such 53269
purpose, or for referral of information concerning such real 53270
estate to brokers, or both, except that this division does not 53271
apply to a publisher of listings or compilations of sales of real 53272
estate by their owners;53273

       (9) Collects rental information for purposes of referring 53274
prospective tenants to rental units or locations of such units and 53275
charges the prospective tenants a fee.53276

       (B) "Real estate" includes leaseholds as well as any and 53277
every interest or estate in land situated in this state, whether 53278
corporeal or incorporeal, whether freehold or nonfreehold, and the 53279
improvements on the land, but does not include cemetery interment 53280
rights.53281

       (C) "Real estate salesperson" means any person associated 53282
with a licensed real estate broker to do or to deal in any acts or 53283
transactions set out or comprehended by the definition of a real 53284
estate broker, for compensation or otherwise.53285

       (D) "Institution of higher education" means either of the 53286
following:53287

       (1) A nonprofit institution as defined in section 1713.01 of 53288
the Revised Code that actually awards, rather than intends to 53289
award, degrees for fulfilling requirements of academic work beyond 53290
high school;53291

       (2) An institution operated for profit that otherwise 53292
qualifies under the definition of an institution in section 53293
1713.01 of the Revised Code and that actually awards, rather than 53294
intends to award, degrees for fulfilling requirements of academic 53295
work beyond high school.53296

       (E) "Foreign real estate" means real estate not situated in 53297
this state and any interest in real estate not situated in this 53298
state.53299

       (F) "Foreign real estate dealer" includes any person, 53300
partnership, association, limited liability company, limited 53301
liability partnership, or corporation, foreign or domestic, who 53302
for another, whether pursuant to a power of attorney or otherwise, 53303
and who for a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration, or 53304
with the intention, or in the expectation, or upon the promise of 53305
receiving or collecting a fee, commission, or other valuable 53306
consideration, does or deals in any act or transaction specified 53307
or comprehended in division (A) of this section with respect to 53308
foreign real estate.53309

       (G) "Foreign real estate salesperson" means any person 53310
associated with a licensed foreign real estate dealer to do or 53311
deal in any act or transaction specified or comprehended in 53312
division (A) of this section with respect to foreign real estate, 53313
for compensation or otherwise.53314

       (H) Any person, partnership, association, limited liability 53315
company, limited liability partnership, or corporation, who, for 53316
another, in consideration of compensation, by fee, commission, 53317
salary, or otherwise, or with the intention, in the expectation, 53318
or upon the promise of receiving or collecting a fee, does, or 53319
offers, attempts, or agrees to engage in, any single act or 53320
transaction contained in the definition of a real estate broker, 53321
whether an act is an incidental part of a transaction, or the 53322
entire transaction, shall be constituted a real estate broker or 53323
real estate salesperson under this chapter.53324

       (I)(1) The terms "real estate broker," "real estate 53325
salesperson," "foreign real estate dealer," and "foreign real 53326
estate salesperson" do not include a person, partnership, 53327
association, limited liability company, limited liability 53328
partnership, or corporation, or the regular employees thereof, who 53329
perform any of the acts or transactions specified or comprehended 53330
in division (A) of this section, whether or not for, or with the 53331
intention, in expectation, or upon the promise of receiving or 53332
collecting a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration:53333

       (a) With reference to real estate situated in this state 53334
owned by such person, partnership, association, limited liability 53335
company, limited liability partnership, or corporation, or 53336
acquired on its own account in the regular course of, or as an 53337
incident to the management of the property and the investment in 53338
it;53339

       (b) As receiver or trustee in bankruptcy, as guardian, 53340
executor, administrator, trustee, assignee, commissioner, or any 53341
person doing the things mentioned in this section, under authority 53342
or appointment of, or incident to a proceeding in, any court, or 53343
as a bona fide public officer, or as executor, trustee, or other 53344
bona fide fiduciary under any trust agreement, deed of trust, 53345
will, or other instrument that has been executed in good faith 53346
creating a like bona fide fiduciary obligation;53347

       (c) As a public officer while performing the officer's 53348
official duties;53349

       (d) As an attorney at law in the performance of the 53350
attorney's duties;53351

       (e) As a person who engages in the brokering of the sale of 53352
business assets, not including the sale, lease, exchange, or 53353
assignment of any interest in real estate;53354

       (f) As a person who engages in the sale of manufactured homes 53355
as defined in division (C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised 53356
Code, or of mobile homes as defined in division (O) of section 53357
4501.01 of the Revised Code, provided the sale does not include 53358
the negotiation, sale, lease, exchange, or assignment of any 53359
interest in real estate;53360

       (g) As a person who engages in the sale of commercial real 53361
estate pursuant to the requirements of section 4735.022 of the 53362
Revised Code.53363

       (2) A person, partnership, association, limited liability 53364
company, limited liability partnership, or corporation exempt 53365
under division (I)(1)(a) of this section shall be limited by the 53366
legal interest in the real estate held by that person or entity to 53367
performing any of the acts or transactions specified in or 53368
comprehended by division (A) of this section.53369

       (J) "Disabled licensee" means a person licensed pursuant to 53370
this chapter who is under a severe disability which is of such a 53371
nature as to prevent the person from being able to attend any 53372
instruction lasting at least three hours in duration.53373

       (K) "Division of real estate" may be used interchangeably 53374
with, and for all purposes has the same meaning as, "division of 53375
real estate and professional licensing."53376

       (L) "Superintendent" or "superintendent of real estate" means 53377
the superintendent of the division of real estate and professional 53378
licensing of this state. Whenever the division or superintendent 53379
of real estate is referred to or designated in any statute, rule, 53380
contract, or other document, the reference or designation shall be 53381
deemed to refer to the division or superintendent of real estate 53382
and professional licensing, as the case may be.53383

       (M) "Inactive license" means the license status in which a 53384
salesperson's license is in the possession of the division, 53385
renewed as required under this chapter or rules adopted under this 53386
chapter, and not associated with a real estate broker.53387

       (N) "Broker's license on deposit" means the license status in 53388
which a broker's license is in the possession of the division of 53389
real estate and professional licensing and renewed as required 53390
under this chapter or rules adopted under this chapter.53391

       (O) "Suspended license" means the license status that 53392
prohibits a licensee from providing services that require a 53393
license under this chapter for a specified interval of time.53394

       (P) "Reactivate" means the process prescribed by the 53395
superintendent of real estate and professional licensing to remove 53396
a license from an inactive, voluntary hold, suspended, or broker's 53397
license on deposit status to allow a licensee to provide services 53398
that require a license under this chapter.53399

       (Q) "Revoked" means the license status in which the license 53400
is void and not eligible for reactivation.53401

       (R) "Commercial real estate" means any parcel of real estate 53402
in this state other than real estate containing one to four 53403
residential units. "Commercial real estate" does not include 53404
single-family residential units such as condominiums, townhouses, 53405
manufactured homes, or homes in a subdivision when sold, leased, 53406
or otherwise conveyed on a unit-by-unit basis, even when those 53407
units are a part of a larger building or parcel of real estate 53408
containing more than four residential units.53409

       (S) "Out-of-state commercial broker" includes any person, 53410
partnership, association, limited liability company, limited 53411
liability partnership, or corporation that is licensed to do 53412
business as a real estate broker in a jurisdiction other than 53413
Ohio.53414

       (T) "Out-of-state commercial salesperson" includes any person 53415
affiliated with an out-of-state commercial broker who is not 53416
licensed as a real estate salesperson in Ohio.53417

       (U) "Exclusive right to sell or lease listing agreement" 53418
means an agency agreement between a seller and broker that meets 53419
the requirements of section 4735.55 of the Revised Code and does 53420
both of the following:53421

       (1) Grants the broker the exclusive right to represent the 53422
seller in the sale or lease of the seller's property;53423

       (2) Provides the broker will be compensated if the broker, 53424
the seller, or any other person or entity produces a purchaser or 53425
tenant in accordance with the terms specified in the listing 53426
agreement or if the property is sold or leased during the term of 53427
the listing agreement to anyone other than to specifically 53428
exempted persons or entities.53429

       (V) "Exclusive agency agreement" means an agency agreement 53430
between a seller and broker that meets the requirements of section 53431
4735.55 of the Revised Code and does both of the following:53432

       (1) Grants the broker the exclusive right to represent the 53433
seller in the sale or lease of the seller's property;53434

       (2) Provides the broker will be compensated if the broker or 53435
any other person or entity produces a purchaser or tenant in 53436
accordance with the terms specified in the listing agreement or if 53437
the property is sold or leased during the term of the listing 53438
agreement, unless the property is sold or leased solely through 53439
the efforts of the seller or to the specifically exempted persons 53440
or entities.53441

       (W) "Exclusive purchaser agency agreement" means an agency 53442
agreement between a purchaser and broker that meets the 53443
requirements of section 4735.55 of the Revised Code and does both 53444
of the following:53445

       (1) Grants the broker the exclusive right to represent the 53446
purchaser in the purchase or lease of property;53447

        (2) Provides the broker will be compensated in accordance 53448
with the terms specified in the exclusive agency agreement or if a 53449
property is purchased or leased by the purchaser during the term 53450
of the agency agreement unless the property is specifically 53451
exempted in the agency agreement.53452

        The agreement may authorize the broker to receive 53453
compensation from the seller or the seller's agent and may provide 53454
that the purchaser is not obligated to compensate the broker if 53455
the property is purchased or leased solely through the efforts of 53456
the purchaser.53457

       (X) "Seller" means a party in a real estate transaction who 53458
is the potential transferor of property. "Seller" includes an 53459
owner of property who is seeking to sell the property and a 53460
landlord who is seeking to rent or lease property to another 53461
person.53462

       (Y) "Voluntary hold" means the license status in which a 53463
license is in the possession of the division of real estate and 53464
professional licensing for a period of not more than twelve months 53465
pursuant to section 4735.142 of the Revised Code, is not renewed 53466
in accordance with the requirements specified in this chapter or 53467
the rules adopted pursuant to it, and is not associated with a 53468
real estate broker.53469

       (Z) "Resigned" means the license status in which a license 53470
has been voluntarily and permanently surrendered to or is 53471
otherwise in the possession of the division of real estate and 53472
professional licensing, ismay not be renewed or reactivated in 53473
accordance with the requirements specified in this chapter or the 53474
rules adopted pursuant to it, and is not associated with a real 53475
estate broker.53476

       (AA)(Z) "Bona fide" means made in good faith or without 53477
purpose of circumventing license law.53478

       Sec. 4735.02.  (A) Except as provided in section 4735.022 of 53479
the Revised Code, no person, partnership, association, limited 53480
liability company, limited liability partnership, or corporation 53481
shall act as a real estate broker or real estate salesperson, or 53482
advertise or assume to act as such, without first being licensed 53483
as provided in this chapter. No person, partnership, association, 53484
limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or 53485
corporation shall provide services that require a license under 53486
this chapter if the licensee's license is inactive, suspended, 53487
placed on voluntary hold, resigned, or a broker's license on 53488
deposit, or if the license has been revoked. Nothing contained in 53489
this chapter shall be construed as authorizing a real estate 53490
broker or salesperson to perform any service constituting the 53491
practice of law.53492

       (B) No partnership, association, limited liability company, 53493
limited liability partnership, or corporation holding a real 53494
estate license shall employ as an officer, director, manager, or 53495
principal employee any person previously holding a license as a 53496
real estate broker, real estate salesperson, foreign real estate 53497
dealer, or foreign real estate salesperson, whose license has been 53498
placed in inactive, voluntary hold, or resigned status, or is 53499
suspended, or revoked and who has not thereafter reactivated the 53500
license or received a new license.53501

       Sec. 4735.052. (A) Upon receipt of a written complaint or 53502
upon the superintendent's own motion, the superintendent may 53503
investigate any person that has allegedly violated section 4735.02 53504
or 4735.25 of the Revised Code, except that the superintendent 53505
shall not initiate an investigation, pursuant to this section, of 53506
any person who held a license on voluntary hold or a suspended or 53507
inactive license under this chapter on the date of the alleged 53508
violation.53509

       (B) If, after investigation, the superintendent determines 53510
there exists reasonable evidence of a violation of section 4735.02 53511
or 4735.25 of the Revised Code, within fourteen business days 53512
after that determination, the superintendent shall send the party 53513
who is the subject of the investigation, a written notice, by 53514
regular mail, that includes all of the following information:53515

       (1) A description of the activity in which the party 53516
allegedly is engaging or has engaged that is a violation of 53517
section 4735.02 or 4735.25 of the Revised Code;53518

       (2) The applicable law allegedly violated;53519

       (3) A statement informing the party that a hearing concerning 53520
the alleged violation will be held, upon the party's request, 53521
before a hearing examiner pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised 53522
Code.53523

       (C)(1) If a hearing is requested, the hearing examiner shall 53524
hear the testimony of all parties present at the hearing and 53525
consider any written testimony submitted pursuant to this section, 53526
and determine if there has been a violation of section 4735.02 or 53527
4735.25 of the Revised Code. 53528

        (2) After the conclusion of formal hearings, the hearing 53529
examiner shall file a report of findings of fact and conclusions 53530
of law with the superintendent, the commission, the complainant, 53531
and the parties. Within twenty days of receipt of such copy of the 53532
written report of findings of fact and conclusions of law, the 53533
parties and the division may file with the commission written 53534
objections to the report, which shall be considered by the 53535
commission before approving, modifying, or disapproving the 53536
report.53537

       (3) The commission shall review the hearing examiner's report 53538
at the next regularly scheduled commission meeting held at least 53539
twenty business days after receipt of the hearing examiner's 53540
report. The commission shall hear the testimony of the complainant 53541
or the parties upon request.53542

       (4) The commission shall decide whether to impose 53543
disciplinary sanctions upon a party for a violation of section 53544
4735.02 of the Revised Code. If the commission finds that a 53545
violation has occurred, the commission may assess a civil penalty, 53546
in an amount it determines, not to exceed one thousand dollars per 53547
violation. Each day a violation occurs or continues is a separate 53548
violation. The commission shall determine the terms of payment. 53549
The commission shall maintain a record of the proceedings of the 53550
hearing and issue a written opinion to all parties, citing its 53551
findings and grounds for any action taken.53552

       (D) Civil penalties collected under this section shall be 53553
deposited in the real estate operating fund, which is created in 53554
the state treasury under section 4735.211 of the Revised Code.53555

       (E) If a party fails to pay a civil penalty assessed pursuant 53556
to this section within the time prescribed by the commission, the 53557
superintendent shall forward to the attorney general the name of 53558
the party and the amount of the civil penalty, for the purpose of 53559
collecting that civil penalty. In addition to the civil penalty 53560
assessed pursuant to this section, the party also shall pay any 53561
fee assessed by the attorney general for collection of the civil 53562
penalty.53563

       (F) The superintendent may reserve the right to bring a civil 53564
action against a party that fails to pay a civil penalty for 53565
breach of contract in a court of competent jurisdiction.53566

       Sec. 4735.10.  (A)(1) The Ohio real estate commission may 53567
adopt reasonable rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 53568
Revised Code, necessary for implementing the provisions of this 53569
chapter relating, but not limited to, the following:53570

       (a) The form and manner of filing applications for licensure;53571

       (b) Times and form of examination for license;53572

       (c) Placing an existing broker's license on deposit or a 53573
salesperson's license on an inactive status for an indefinite 53574
period;53575

       (d) Specifying the process by which a licensee may place53576
resign the licensee's license on voluntary hold or resigned 53577
status;53578

       (e) Defining any additional license status that the 53579
commission determines is necessary and that is not otherwise 53580
defined in this chapter and establishing the process by which a 53581
licensee places the licensee's license in a status defined by the 53582
commission in the rules the commission adopts;53583

       (f) Clarification of the activities that require a license 53584
under this chapter.53585

       (2) The commission shall adopt reasonable rules in accordance 53586
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, for implementing the 53587
provisions of this chapter relating to the following:53588

       (a) The issuance, renewal, suspension, and revocation of 53589
licenses, other sanctions that may be imposed for violations of 53590
this chapter, the conduct of hearings related to these actions, 53591
and the process of reactivating a license;53592

       (b) A three-year license and a three-year license renewal 53593
system;53594

       (c) Standards for the approval of the ten-hour postlicensure 53595
courses as required by division (H)(G) of section 4735.07 and 53596
division (H) of section 4735.09 of the Revised Code, courses of 53597
study required for licenses, courses offered in preparation for 53598
license examinations, or courses required as continuing education 53599
for licenses. 53600

       (d) Guidelines to ensure that continuing education classes 53601
are open to all persons licensed under this chapter. The rules 53602
shall specify that an organization that sponsors a continuing 53603
education class may offer its members a reasonable reduction in 53604
the fees charged for the class.53605

       (e) Requirements for trust accounts and property management 53606
accounts. The rules shall specify that:53607

       (i) Brokerages engaged in the management of property for 53608
another may, pursuant to a written contract with the property 53609
owner, exercise signatory authority for withdrawals from property 53610
management accounts maintained in the name of the property owner. 53611
The exercise of authority for withdrawals does not constitute a 53612
violation of any provision of division (A) of section 4735.18 of 53613
the Revised Code.53614

       (ii) The interest earned on property management trust 53615
accounts maintained in the name of the property owner or the 53616
broker shall be payable to the property owner unless otherwise 53617
specified in a written contract.53618

       (f) Notice of renewal forms and filing deadlines;53619

       (g) Special assessments under division (A) of section 4735.12 53620
of the Revised Code.53621

       (B) The commission may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 53622
119. of the Revised Code establishing standards and guidelines 53623
with which the superintendent of real estate shall comply in the 53624
exercise of the following powers:53625

       (1) Appointment and recommendation of ancillary trustees 53626
under section 4735.05 of the Revised Code;53627

       (2) Rejection of names proposed to be used by partnerships, 53628
associations, limited liability companies, limited liability 53629
partnerships, and corporations, under division (A) of section 53630
4735.06 of the Revised Code;53631

       (3) Acceptance and rejection of applications to take the 53632
broker and salesperson examinations and licensure, with 53633
appropriate waivers pursuant to division (E) of section 4735.07 53634
and section 4735.09 of the Revised Code;53635

       (4) Approval of applications of brokers to place their 53636
licenses in an inactive status and to become salespersons under 53637
section 4735.13 of the Revised Code;53638

       (5) Appointment of hearing examiners under section 119.09 of 53639
the Revised Code;53640

       (6) Acceptance and rejection of applications to take the 53641
foreign real estate dealer and salesperson examinations and 53642
licensure, with waiver of examination, under sections 4735.27 and 53643
4735.28 of the Revised Code;53644

       (7) Qualification of foreign real estate under section 53645
4735.25 of the Revised Code.53646

       If at any time there is no rule in effect establishing a 53647
guideline or standard required by this division, the 53648
superintendent may adopt a rule in accordance with Chapter 119. of 53649
the Revised Code for such purpose.53650

       (C) The commission or superintendent may hear testimony in 53651
matters relating to the duties imposed upon them, and the 53652
president of the commission and superintendent may administer 53653
oaths. The commission or superintendent may require other proof of 53654
the honesty, truthfulness, and good reputation of any person named 53655
in an application for a real estate broker's or real estate 53656
salesperson's license before admitting the applicant to the 53657
examination or issuing a license.53658

       Sec. 4735.13.  (A) Every real estate broker licensed under 53659
this chapter shall have and maintain a definite place of business 53660
in this state. A post office box address is not a definite place 53661
of business for purposes of this section. The license of a real 53662
estate broker shall be prominently displayed in the office or 53663
place of business of the broker, and no license shall authorize 53664
the licensee to do business except from the location specified in 53665
it. If the broker maintains more than one place of business within 53666
the state, the broker shall apply for and procure a duplicate 53667
license for each branch office maintained by the broker. Each 53668
branch office shall be in the charge of a licensed broker or 53669
salesperson. The branch office license shall be prominently 53670
displayed at the branch office location.53671

       (B) The license of each real estate salesperson shall be 53672
mailed to and remain in the possession of the licensed broker with 53673
whom the salesperson is or is to be associated until the licensee 53674
places the license on inactive, voluntary hold, or resigned status 53675
or until the salesperson leaves the brokerage or is terminated. 53676
The broker shall keep each salesperson's license in a way that it 53677
can, and shall on request, be made immediately available for 53678
public inspection at the office or place of business of the 53679
broker. Except as provided in divisions (G) and (H) of this 53680
section, immediately upon the salesperson's leaving the 53681
association or termination of the association of a real estate 53682
salesperson with the broker, the broker shall return the 53683
salesperson's license to the superintendent of real estate.53684

       The failure of a broker to return the license of a real 53685
estate salesperson or broker who leaves or who is terminated, via 53686
certified mail return receipt requested, within three business 53687
days of the receipt of a written request from the superintendent 53688
for the return of the license, is prima-facie evidence of 53689
misconduct under division (A)(6) of section 4735.18 of the Revised 53690
Code.53691

       (C) AnyA licensee shall notify the superintendent in writing 53692
within fifteen days of any of the following occurrences:53693

       (1) The licensee is convicted of a felony.53694

       (2) The licensee is convicted of a crime involving moral 53695
turpitude.53696

       (3) The licensee is found to have violated any federal, 53697
state, or municipal civil rights law pertaining to discrimination 53698
in housing.53699

       (4) The licensee is found to have engaged in a discriminatory 53700
practice pertaining to housing accommodations described in 53701
division (H) of section 4112.02 of the Revised Code.53702

       (5) The licensee is found to have violated any municipal 53703
civil rights law pertaining to housing discrimination.53704

       (6) The licensee is the subject of an order by the department 53705
of commerce, the department of insurance, or the department of 53706
agriculture revoking or permanently surrendering any professional 53707
license, certificate, or registration.53708

       (7)(6) The licensee is the subject of an order by any 53709
government agency concerning real estate, financial matters, or 53710
the performance of fiduciary duties with respect to any license, 53711
certificate, or registration.53712

       If a licensee fails to notify the superintendent within the 53713
required time, the superintendent immediately may suspend the 53714
license of the licensee.53715

       Any court that convicts a licensee of a violation of any 53716
municipal civil rights law pertaining to housing discrimination 53717
also shall notify the Ohio civil rights commission within fifteen 53718
days of the conviction.53719

       (D) In case of any change of business location, a broker 53720
shall give notice to the superintendent, on a form prescribed by 53721
the superintendent, within thirty days after the change of 53722
location, whereupon the superintendent shall issue new licenses 53723
for the unexpired period without charge. If a broker changes a 53724
business location without giving the required notice and without 53725
receiving new licenses that action is prima-facie evidence of 53726
misconduct under division (A)(6) of section 4735.18 of the Revised 53727
Code.53728

       (E) If a real estate broker desires to associate with another 53729
real estate broker in the capacity of a real estate salesperson, 53730
the broker shall apply to the superintendent to deposit the 53731
broker's real estate broker's license with the superintendent and 53732
for the issuance of a real estate salesperson's license. The 53733
application shall be made on a form prescribed by the 53734
superintendent and shall be accompanied by the recommendation of 53735
the real estate broker with whom the applicant intends to become 53736
associated and a fee of twenty-five dollars for the real estate 53737
salesperson's license. One dollar of the fee shall be credited to 53738
the real estate education and research fund. If the superintendent 53739
is satisfied that the applicant is honest, truthful, and of good 53740
reputation, has not been convicted of a felony or a crime 53741
involving moral turpitude, and has not been finally adjudged by a 53742
court to have violated any municipal, state, or federal civil 53743
rights laws relevant to the protection of purchasers or sellers of 53744
real estate, and that the association of the real estate broker 53745
and the applicant will be in the public interest, the 53746
superintendent shall grant the application and issue a real estate 53747
salesperson's license to the applicant. Any license so deposited 53748
with the superintendent shall be subject to this chapter. A broker 53749
who intends to deposit the broker's license with the 53750
superintendent, as provided in this section, shall give written 53751
notice of this fact in a format prescribed by the superintendent 53752
to all salespersons associated with the broker when applying to 53753
place the broker's license on deposit.53754

       (F) If a real estate broker desires to become a member or 53755
officer of a partnership, association, limited liability company, 53756
limited liability partnership, or corporation that is or intends 53757
to become a licensed real estate broker, the broker shall notify 53758
the superintendent of the broker's intentions. The notice of 53759
intention shall be on a form prescribed by the superintendent and 53760
shall be accompanied by a fee of twenty-five dollars. One dollar 53761
of the fee shall be credited to the real estate education and 53762
research fund.53763

        A licensed real estate broker who is a member or officer of a 53764
partnership, association, limited liability company, limited 53765
liability partnership, or corporation shall only act as a real 53766
estate broker for such partnership, association, limited liability 53767
company, limited liability partnership, or corporation.53768

       (G) If a real estate broker or salesperson enters the armed 53769
forces, the broker or salesperson may place the broker's or 53770
salesperson's license on deposit with the Ohio real estate 53771
commission. The licensee shall not be required to renew the 53772
license until the renewal date that follows the date of discharge 53773
from the armed forces. Any license deposited with the commission 53774
shall be subject to this chapter. Any licensee whose license is on 53775
deposit under this division and who fails to meet the continuing 53776
education requirements of section 4735.141 of the Revised Code 53777
because the licensee is in the armed forces shall satisfy the 53778
commission that the licensee has complied with the continuing 53779
education requirements within twelve months of the licensee's 53780
first birthday after discharge. The superintendent shall notify 53781
the licensee of the licensee's obligations under section 4735.141 53782
of the Revised Code at the time the licensee applies for 53783
reactivation of the licensee's license.53784

       (H) If a licensed real estate salesperson submits an 53785
application to the superintendent to leave the association of one 53786
broker to associate with a different broker, the broker possessing 53787
the licensee's license need not return the salesperson's license 53788
to the superintendent. The superintendent may process the 53789
application regardless of whether the licensee's license is 53790
returned to the superintendent.53791

       Sec. 4735.14.  (A) Each license issued under this chapter, 53792
shall be valid without further recommendation or examination until 53793
it is placed in an inactive, voluntary hold, or resigned status, 53794
is revoked or suspended, or such license expires by operation of 53795
law.53796

       (B) Except for a licensee who has placed the licensee's 53797
license on voluntary hold orin resigned status pursuant to 53798
section 4735.142 of the Revised Code, each licensed broker, 53799
brokerage, or salesperson shall file, on or before the date the 53800
Ohio real estate commission has adopted by rule for that licensee 53801
in accordance with division (A)(2)(f) of section 4735.10 of the 53802
Revised Code, a notice of renewal on a form prescribed by the 53803
superintendent of real estate. The notice of renewal shall be 53804
mailed by the superintendent two months prior to the filing 53805
deadline to the personal residence address of each broker or 53806
salesperson that is on file with the division. If the licensee is 53807
a partnership, association, limited liability company, limited 53808
liability partnership, or corporation, the notice of renewal shall 53809
be mailed by the superintendent two months prior to the filing 53810
deadline to the brokerage's business address on file with the 53811
division. A licensee shall not renew the licensee's license any 53812
earlier than two months prior to the filing deadline.53813

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this 53814
section, the license of any real estate broker, brokerage, or 53815
salesperson that fails to file a notice of renewal on or before 53816
the filing deadline of each ensuing year shall be suspended 53817
automatically without the taking of any action by the 53818
superintendent. A suspended license may be reactivated within 53819
twelve months of the date of suspension, provided that the renewal 53820
fee plus a penalty fee of fifty per cent of the renewal fee is 53821
paid to the superintendent. Failure to reactivate the license as 53822
provided in this division shall result in automatic revocation of 53823
the license without the taking of any action by the 53824
superintendent. No person, partnership, association, corporation, 53825
limited liability company, or limited partnership shall engage in 53826
any act or acts for which a real estate license is required while 53827
that entity's license is placed in an inactive, voluntary hold, or 53828
resigned status, or is suspended, or revoked. The commission shall 53829
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 53830
provide to licensees notice of suspension or revocation or both.53831

       (D) Each licensee shall notify the commissionsuperintendent53832
of a change in personal residence address. A licensee's failure to 53833
notify the commissionsuperintendent of a change in personal 53834
residence address does not negate the requirement to file the 53835
license renewal by the required deadline established by the 53836
commission by rule under division (A)(2)(f) of section 4735.10 of 53837
the Revised Code.53838

       (E) The superintendent shall not renew a license if the 53839
licensee fails to comply with section 4735.141 of the Revised Code 53840
or is otherwise not in compliance with this chapter.53841

       (F) The superintendent shall make notice of successful 53842
renewal available electronically to licensees as soon as 53843
practicable, but not later than thirty days after receipt by the 53844
division of a complete application and renewal fee. This notice 53845
shall serve as a notice of renewal for purposes of section 4745.02 53846
of the Revised Code.53847

       Sec. 4735.141.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 53848
division and except for a licensee who has placed the licensee's 53849
license on voluntary hold orin resigned status pursuant to 53850
section 4735.142 of the Revised Code, each person licensed under 53851
section 4735.07 or 4735.09 of the Revised Code shall submit proof 53852
satisfactory to the superintendent of real estate that the 53853
licensee has satisfactorily completed thirty hours of continuing 53854
education, as prescribed by the Ohio real estate commission 53855
pursuant to section 4735.10 of the Revised Code, on or before the 53856
licensee's birthday occurring three years after the licensee's 53857
date of initial licensure, and on or before the licensee's 53858
birthday every three years thereafter.53859

       Persons licensed as real estate salespersons who subsequently 53860
become licensed real estate brokers shall continue to submit proof 53861
of continuing education in accordance with the time period 53862
established in this section.53863

       The requirements of this section shall not apply to any 53864
disabled licensee as provided in division (E) of this section.53865

       Each licensee who is seventy years of age or older, within a 53866
continuing education reporting period, shall submit proof 53867
satisfactory to the superintendent of real estate that the 53868
licensee has satisfactorily completed a total of nine classroom 53869
hours of continuing education, including instruction in Ohio real 53870
estate law; recently enacted state and federal laws affecting the 53871
real estate industry; municipal, state, and federal civil rights 53872
law; and canons of ethics for the real estate industry as adopted 53873
by the commission. The required proof of completion shall be 53874
submitted on or before the licensee's birthday that falls in the 53875
third year of that continuing education reporting period. A 53876
licensee who is seventy years of age or older whose license is in 53877
an inactive status is exempt from the continuing education 53878
requirements specified in this section. The commission shall adopt 53879
reasonable rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 53880
Code to carry out the purposes of this paragraph.53881

       (B) The continuing education requirements of this section 53882
shall be completed in schools, seminars, and educational 53883
institutions approved by the commission. Such approval shall be 53884
given according to rules established by the commission under the 53885
procedures of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, and shall not be 53886
limited to institutions providing two-year or four-year degrees. 53887
Each school, seminar, or educational institution approved under 53888
this division shall be open to all licensees on an equal basis.53889

       (C) If the requirements of this section are not met by a 53890
licensee within the period specified, the licensee's license shall 53891
be suspended automatically without the taking of any action by the 53892
superintendent. The superintendent shall notify the licensee of 53893
the license suspension, and such notification shall be sent by 53894
regular mail to the personal residence address of the licensee 53895
that is on file with the division. Any license so suspended shall 53896
remain suspended until it is reactivated by the superintendent. No 53897
such license shall be reactivated until it is established, to the 53898
satisfaction of the superintendent, that the requirements of this 53899
section have been met. If the requirements of this section are not 53900
met within twelve months from the date the license was suspended, 53901
the license shall be revoked automatically without the taking of 53902
any action by the superintendent.53903

       (D) If the license of a real estate broker is suspended 53904
pursuant to division (C) of this section, the license of a real 53905
estate salesperson associated with that broker correspondingly is 53906
suspended pursuant to division (H) of section 4735.20 of the 53907
Revised Code. A sole broker shall notify affiliated salespersons 53908
of the suspension in writing within three days of receiving the 53909
notice required by division (C) of this section.53910

       (1) The suspended license of the associated real estate 53911
salesperson shall be reactivated and no fee shall be charged or 53912
collected for that reactivation if that broker subsequently 53913
submits proof to the superintendent that the broker has complied 53914
with the requirements of this section and requests that the 53915
broker's license as a real estate broker be reactivated, and the 53916
superintendent then reactivates the broker's license as a real 53917
estate broker.53918

       (2) If the real estate salesperson submits an application to 53919
leave the association of the suspended broker in order to 53920
associate with a different broker, the suspended license of the 53921
associated real estate salesperson shall be reactivated and no fee 53922
shall be charged or collected for that reactivation. The 53923
superintendent may process the application regardless of whether 53924
the licensee's license is returned to the superintendent.53925

       Any person whose license is reactivated pursuant to this 53926
division shall comply with the requirements of this section and 53927
otherwise be in compliance with this chapter.53928

       (E) Any licensee who is a disabled licensee at any time 53929
during the last three months of the third year of the licensee's 53930
continuing education reporting period may receive an extension of 53931
time as deemed appropriate by the superintendent to submit proof 53932
to the superintendent that the licensee has satisfactorily 53933
completed the required thirty hours of continuing education. To 53934
receive an extension of time, the licensee shall submit a request 53935
to the division of real estate for the extension and proof 53936
satisfactory to the commission that the licensee was a disabled 53937
licensee at some time during the last three months of the 53938
three-year reporting period. The proof shall include, but is not 53939
limited to, a signed statement by the licensee's attending 53940
physician describing the disability, certifying that the 53941
licensee's disability is of such a nature as to prevent the 53942
licensee from attending any instruction lasting at least three 53943
hours in duration, and stating the expected duration of the 53944
disability. The licensee shall request the extension and provide 53945
the physician's statement to the division no later than one month 53946
prior to the end of the licensee's three-year continuing education 53947
reporting period, unless the disability did not arise until the 53948
last month of the three-year reporting period, in which event the 53949
licensee shall request the extension and provide the physician's 53950
statement as soon as practical after the occurrence of the 53951
disability. A licensee granted an extension pursuant to this 53952
division who is no longer a disabled licensee and who submits 53953
proof of completion of the continuing education during the 53954
extension period, shall submit, for future continuing education 53955
reporting periods, proof of completion of the continuing education 53956
requirements according to the schedule established in division (A) 53957
of this section.53958

       (F) The superintendent shall not renew a license if the 53959
licensee fails to comply with this section, and the licensee shall 53960
be required to pay the penalty fee provided in section 4735.14 of 53961
the Revised Code.53962

       (G) A licensee shall submit proof of completion of the 53963
required continuing education with the licensee's notice of 53964
renewal. The proof shall be submitted in the manner provided by 53965
the superintendent.53966

       Sec. 4735.142.  (A) Any person licensed under section 4735.07 53967
or 4735.09 of the Revised Code, at any time prior to the date the 53968
licensee is required to file a notice of renewal pursuant to 53969
division (B) of section 4735.14 of the Revised Code may apply to 53970
the superintendent of real estate and professional licensing to 53971
place the licensee's license on voluntary hold orin a permanently53972
resigned status.53973

       (B) If the superintendent has placed a license on voluntary 53974
hold pursuant to a request made under division (A) of this 53975
section, the licensee who requested that the licensee's license be 53976
placed on voluntary hold may apply to the superintendent to 53977
reactivate that license within twelve months after the date the 53978
license is placed on voluntary hold. The superintendent shall 53979
reactivate that license if the licensee complies with the 53980
requirements for such reactivation that are specified in rules 53981
adopted by the Ohio real estate commission pursuant to division 53982
(A) of section 4735.10 of the Revised Code and satisfies all of 53983
the following requirements:53984

       (1) The licensee complies with the postlicensure education 53985
requirements specified in section 4735.07 or 4735.09 of the 53986
Revised Code, as applicable; 53987

       (2) The licensee complies with the continuing education 53988
requirements specified in section 4735.141 of the Revised Code; 53989

       (3) The licensee renews the licensee's license in accordance 53990
with section 4735.14 of the Revised Code and, if applicable, pays 53991
the annual brokerage assessment fee in accordance with the 53992
requirements specified in rules adopted by the commission. 53993

       (C) If a licensee does not apply to reactivate a license on 53994
voluntary hold pursuant to division (B) of this section during the 53995
twelve-month time period specified in that division or does not 53996
satisfy the requirements specified in that division during that 53997
twelve-month period, the superintendent shall consider that 53998
license to be in a resigned status. The superintendent shall not 53999
reactivate a resigned license. The resignation of a license is 54000
considered to be final without the taking of any action by the 54001
superintendent. If a person whose license is in a resigned status 54002
pursuant to this division wishes to obtain an active license, the 54003
person shall apply for an active license in accordance with the 54004
requirements specified in section 4735.07 or 4735.09 of the 54005
Revised Code, as applicable.54006

       (D) A licensee, at any time during which a license has been 54007
suspended pursuant to division (G) of section 4735.07, division 54008
(H) of section 4735.09, division (E) of section 4735.12, division 54009
(C) of section 4735.14, division (C) of section 4735.141, or 54010
section 4735.182 of the Revised Code, may apply to the 54011
superintendent on a form prescribed by the superintendent to 54012
voluntarilypermanently resign the licensee's license voluntarily. 54013
The resignation of a license is considered to be final without the 54014
taking of any action by the superintendent. If54015

       (C) If a person whose license is in a permanently resigned 54016
status pursuant to a request made under this divisionsection54017
wishes to obtain an active or inactive license, the person shall 54018
apply for such a license in accordance with the requirements 54019
specified in section 4735.07 or 4735.09 of the Revised Code, as 54020
applicable, or in the rules adopted by the commission pursuant to 54021
division (A) of section 4735.10 of the Revised Code.54022

       (E)(D) If placing a broker's license on voluntary hold orin54023
a permanently resigned status will result in the closure of the 54024
broker's brokerage, the broker, within three days after applying 54025
to the superintendent to place the license on voluntary hold orin54026
a permanently resigned status, shall provide to each salesperson 54027
associated with that broker a written notice stating that fact.54028

       (F)(E) This section does not apply to any licensee whose 54029
license has been suspended pursuant to division (F) of section 54030
4735.181 of the Revised Code or due to disciplinary action ordered 54031
by the commission pursuant to section 4735.051 of the Revised 54032
Code.54033

       Sec. 4735.74.  Unless otherwise agreed in writing, a licensee 54034
owes no further duty to a client after performance of all duties 54035
or after any contract has terminated or expired, except for both 54036
of the following:54037

       (A) Providing the client with an accounting of all moneys and 54038
property relating to the transaction;54039

       (B) Keeping confidential all information received during the 54040
course of the transaction unless:54041

       (1) The client permits disclosure;54042

       (2) Disclosure is required by law or by court order;54043

       (3) The information becomes public from a source other than 54044
the licensee;54045

       (4) The information is necessary to prevent a crime the 54046
client intends to commit;54047

       (5) Disclosure is necessary to defend the brokerage or its 54048
licensees against an accusation of wrongful conduct or to 54049
establish or defend a claim that a commission is owed on a 54050
transaction.;54051

       (6) Disclosure is regarding sales information requested by a 54052
registeredreal estate appraiser assistant registered under 54053
Chapter 4763. of the Revised Code or a licensed or certifiedreal 54054
estate appraiser licensed or certified under Chapter 4763. of the 54055
Revised Code for the purposes of performing an appraisal. No cause 54056
of action shall arise on behalf of any person against a licensee 54057
for releasing information pursuant to this division.54058

       Sec. 4736.01.  As used in this chapter:54059

       (A) "Environmental health science" means the aspect of public 54060
health science that includes, but is not limited to, the following 54061
bodies of knowledge: air quality, food quality and protection, 54062
hazardous and toxic substances, consumer product safety, housing, 54063
institutional health and safety, community noise control, 54064
radiation protection, recreational facilities, solid and liquid 54065
waste management, vector control, drinking water quality, milk 54066
sanitation, and rabies control.54067

       (B) "Sanitarian" means a person who performs for compensation 54068
educational, investigational, technical, or administrative duties 54069
requiring specialized knowledge and skills in the field of 54070
environmental health science.54071

       (C) "Registered sanitarian" means a person who is registered 54072
as a sanitarian in accordance with this chapter.54073

       (D) "Sanitarian-in-training" means a person who is registered 54074
as a sanitarian-in-training in accordance with this chapter.54075

       (E) "Practice of environmental health" means consultation, 54076
instruction, investigation, inspection, or evaluation by an 54077
employee of a city health district, a general health district, the 54078
environmental protection agency, the department of health, or the 54079
department of agriculture requiring specialized knowledge, 54080
training, and experience in the field of environmental health 54081
science, with the primary purpose of improving or conducting 54082
administration or enforcement under any of the following:54083

       (1) Chapter 911., 913., 917., 3717., 3718., 3721., 3729., or 54084
3733. of the Revised Code;54085

       (2) Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code as it pertains to solid 54086
waste;54087

       (3) Section 955.26, 3701.344, 3707.01, or 3707.03, sections 54088
3707.38 to 3707.99, or section 3715.21 of the Revised Code;54089

       (4) Rules adopted under former section 3701.34 of the Revised 54090
Code pertaining to rabies control or swimming pools;54091

       (5) Rules adopted under section 3701.935 of the Revised Code 54092
for school health and safety network inspections and rules adopted 54093
under section 3707.26 of the Revised Code for sanitary 54094
inspections.54095

       "Practice of environmental health" does not include sampling, 54096
testing, controlling of vectors, reporting of observations, or 54097
other duties that do not require application of specialized 54098
knowledge and skills in environmental health science performed 54099
under the supervision of a registered sanitarian.54100

       The state board of sanitarian registration may further define 54101
environmental health science in relation to specific functions in 54102
the practice of environmental health through rules adopted by the 54103
board under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.54104

       Sec. 4740.03.  (A) The administrative section of the Ohio 54105
construction industry licensing board annually shall elect from 54106
among its members a chairperson and other officers as the board, 54107
by rule, designates. The chairperson shall preside over meetings 54108
of the administrative section or designate another member to 54109
preside in the chairperson's absence. The administrative section 54110
shall hold at least two regular meetings each year, but may meet 54111
at additional times as specified by rule, at the call of the 54112
chairperson, or upon the request of two or more members. A 54113
majority of the members of the administrative section constitutes 54114
a quorum for the transaction of all business. The administrative 54115
section may not take any action without the concurrence of at 54116
least three of its members.54117

       (B)(1) The administrative section shall employ a secretary, 54118
who is not a member of the board, to serve at the pleasure of the 54119
administrative section, and shall fix the compensation of the 54120
secretary. The secretary shall be in the unclassified civil 54121
service of the state.54122

       (2) The secretary shall do all of the following:54123

       (a) Keep or set standards for and delegate to another person 54124
the keeping of the minutes, books, and other records and files of 54125
the board and each section of the board;54126

       (b) Issue all licenses in the name of the board;54127

       (c) Send out all notices, including advance notices of 54128
meetings of the board and each section of the board, and attend to 54129
all correspondence of the board and each section of the board, 54130
under the direction of the administrative section;54131

       (d) Receive and deposit all fees payable pursuant to this 54132
chapter into the laborindustrial compliance operating fund 54133
created pursuant to section 121.084 of the Revised Code;54134

       (e) Perform all other duties incidental to the office of the 54135
secretary or properly assigned to the secretary by the 54136
administrative section of the board.54137

       (3) Before entering upon the discharge of the duties of the 54138
secretary, the secretary shall file with the treasurer of state a 54139
bond in the sum of five thousand dollars, payable to the state, to 54140
ensure the faithful performance of the secretary's duties. The 54141
board shall pay the premium of the bond in the same manner as it 54142
pays other expenditures of the board.54143

       (C) Upon the request of the administrative section of the 54144
board, the director of commerce shall supply the board and its 54145
sections with personnel, office space, and supplies, as the 54146
director determines appropriate. The administrative section of the 54147
board shall employ any additional staff it considers necessary and 54148
appropriate.54149

       (D) The chairperson of the board or the secretary, or both, 54150
as authorized by the board, shall approve all vouchers of the 54151
board.54152

       Sec. 4740.11.  The Ohio construction industry licensing board 54153
and its sections shall deposit all receipts and fines collected 54154
under this chapter into the state treasury to the credit of the 54155
laborindustrial compliance operating fund created in section 54156
121.084 of the Revised Code.54157

       Sec. 4740.14.  (A) There is hereby created within the 54158
department of commerce the residential construction advisory 54159
committee consisting of nine persons the director of commerce 54160
appoints. The advisory committee shall be made up of the following 54161
members:54162

       (1) Three shall be general contractors who have recognized 54163
ability and experience in the construction of residential 54164
buildings.54165

       (2) Two shall be building officials who have experience 54166
administering and enforcing a residential building code.54167

       (3) One, chosen from a list of three names the Ohio fire 54168
chief's association submits, shall be from the fire service 54169
certified as a fire safety inspector who has at least ten years of 54170
experience enforcing fire or building codes.54171

       (4) One shall be a residential contractor who has recognized 54172
ability and experience in the remodeling and construction of 54173
residential buildings.54174

       (5) One shall be an architect registered pursuant to Chapter 54175
4703. of the Revised Code, with recognized ability and experience 54176
in the architecture of residential buildings.54177

       (6) One, chosen from a list of three names the Ohio municipal 54178
league submits to the director, shall be a mayor of a municipal 54179
corporation in which the Ohio residential building code is being 54180
enforced in the municipal corporation by a certified building 54181
department.54182

       (B) Terms of office shall be for three years, with each term 54183
ending on the date three years after the date of appointment. Each 54184
member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the 54185
end of the term for which the member was appointed. Vacancies 54186
shall be filled in the manner provided for initial appointments. 54187
Any member appointed to fill a vacancy in an unexpired term shall 54188
hold office for the remainder of that term.54189

       (C) The advisory committee shall do all of the following:54190

       (1) Recommend to the board of building standards a building 54191
code for residential buildings. The committee shall recommend a 54192
code that it may model on a residential building code a national 54193
model code organization issues, with adaptations necessary to 54194
implement the code in this state. If the board of building 54195
standards decides not to adopt a code the committee recommends, 54196
the committee shall revise the code and resubmit it until the 54197
board adopts a code the committee recommends as the state 54198
residential building code;54199

       (2) Advise the board regarding the establishment of standards 54200
for certification of building officials who enforce the state 54201
residential building code;54202

       (3) Assist the board in providing information and guidance to 54203
residential contractors and building officials who enforce the 54204
state residential building code;54205

       (4) Advise the board regarding the interpretation of the 54206
state residential building code;54207

       (5) Provide other assistance the committee considers 54208
necessary;54209

       (6) Provide the board with a written report of the 54210
committee's findings for each consideration required by division 54211
(D) of this section.54212

       (D) The committee shall not make its recommendation to the 54213
board pursuant to divisions (C)(1), (2), and (4) of this section 54214
until the advisory committee has considered all of the following:54215

       (1) The impact that the state residential building code may 54216
have upon the health, safety, and welfare of the public;54217

       (2) The economic reasonableness of the residential building 54218
code;54219

       (3) The technical feasibility of the residential building 54220
code;54221

       (4) The financial impact that the residential building code 54222
may have on the public's ability to purchase affordable housing.54223

       (E) The advisory committee may provide the board with any 54224
rule the committee recommends to update or amend the state 54225
residential building code or any rule that the committee 54226
recommends to update or amend the state residential building code 54227
after receiving a petition described in division (A)(2) of section 54228
3781.12 of the Revised Code.54229

       (F) Members of the advisory committee shall receive no salary 54230
for the performance of their duties as members, but shall receive 54231
their actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of 54232
their duties as members of the advisory committee and shall 54233
receive a per diem for each day in attendance at an official 54234
meeting of the committee, to be paid from the laborindustrial 54235
compliance operating fund in the state treasury, using fees 54236
collected in connection with residential buildings pursuant to 54237
division (F)(2) of section 3781.102 of the Revised Code and 54238
deposited in that fund.54239

       (G) The advisory committee is not subject to divisions (A) 54240
and (B) of section 101.84 of the Revised Code.54241

       Sec. 4743.05.  Except as otherwise provided in sections 54242
4701.20, 4723.062, 4723.082, and 4729.65, 4781.121, and 4781.28 of 54243
the Revised Code, all money collected under Chapters 3773., 4701., 54244
4703., 4709., 4713., 4715., 4717., 4723., 4725., 4729., 4732., 54245
4733., 4734., 4736., 4741., 4753., 4755., 4757., 4758., 4759., 54246
4761., 4766., 4771., 4775., 4779., and 4781. of the Revised Code 54247
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 54248
occupational licensing and regulatory fund, which is hereby 54249
created for use in administering such chapters.54250

       At the end of each quarter, the director of budget and 54251
management shall transfer from the occupational licensing and 54252
regulatory fund to the nurse education assistance fund created in 54253
section 3333.28 of the Revised Code the amount certified to the 54254
director under division (B) of section 4723.08 of the Revised 54255
Code.54256

       At the end of each quarter, the director shall transfer from 54257
the occupational licensing and regulatory fund to the certified 54258
public accountant education assistance fund created in section 54259
4701.26 of the Revised Code the amount certified to the director 54260
under division (H)(2) of section 4701.10 of the Revised Code.54261

       Sec. 4763.05. (A)(1)(a) A person shall make application for 54262
an initial state-certified general real estate appraiser 54263
certificate, an initial state-certified residential real estate 54264
appraiser certificate, an initial state-licensed residential real 54265
estate appraiser license, or an initial state-registered real 54266
estate appraiser assistant registration in writing to the 54267
superintendent of real estate on a form the superintendent 54268
prescribes. The application shall include the address of the 54269
applicant's principal place of business and all other addresses at 54270
which the applicant currently engages in the business of preparing 54271
real estate appraisals and the address of the applicant's current 54272
residence. The superintendent shall retain the applicant's current 54273
residence address in a separate record which shalldoes not 54274
constitute a public record for purposes of section 149.03149.4354275
of the Revised Code. The application shall indicate whether the 54276
applicant seeks certification as a general real estate appraiser 54277
or as a residential real estate appraiser, licensure as a 54278
residential real estate appraiser, or registration as a real 54279
estate appraiser assistant and be accompanied by the prescribed 54280
examination and certification, registration, or licensure fees set 54281
forth in section 4763.09 of the Revised Code. The application also 54282
shall include a pledge, signed by the applicant, that the 54283
applicant will comply with the standards set forth in this 54284
chapter; and a statement that the applicant understands the types 54285
of misconduct for which disciplinary proceedings may be initiated 54286
against the applicant pursuant to this chapter.54287

       (b) Upon the filing of an application and payment of any 54288
examination and certification, registration, or licensure fees, 54289
the superintendent of real estate shall request the superintendent 54290
of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a 54291
vendor approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check 54292
based on the applicant's fingerprints in accordance with division 54293
(A)(11) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding 54294
division (K) of section 121.08 of the Revised Code, the 54295
superintendent of real estate shall request that criminal record 54296
information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained 54297
as part of the criminal records check. Any fee required under 54298
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be 54299
paid by the applicant.54300

       (2) For purposes of providing funding for the real estate 54301
appraiser recovery fund established by section 4763.16 of the 54302
Revised Code, the real estate appraiser board shall levy an 54303
assessment against each person issued an initial certificate, 54304
registration, or license and against current licensees, 54305
registrants, and certificate holders, as required by board rule. 54306
The assessment is in addition to the application and examination 54307
fees for initial applicants required by division (A)(1) of this 54308
section and the renewal fees required for current certificate 54309
holders, registrants, and licensees. The superintendent of real 54310
estate shall deposit the assessment into the state treasury to the 54311
credit of the real estate appraiser recovery fund. The assessment 54312
for initial certificate holders, registrants, and licensees shall 54313
be paid prior to the issuance of a certificate, registration, or 54314
license, and for current certificate holders, registrants, and 54315
licensees, at the time of renewal.54316

       (B) An applicant for an initial general real estate appraiser 54317
certificate, residential real estate appraiser certificate, or 54318
residential real estate appraiser license shall possess experience 54319
in real estate appraisal as the board prescribes by rule. In 54320
addition to any other information required by the board, the 54321
applicant shall furnish, under oath, a detailed listing of the 54322
appraisal reports or file memoranda for each year for which 54323
experience is claimed and, upon request of the superintendent or 54324
the board, shall make available for examination a sample of the 54325
appraisal reports prepared by the applicant in the course of the 54326
applicant's practice.54327

       (C) An applicant for an initial certificate, registration, or 54328
license shall be at least eighteen years of age, honest, truthful, 54329
and of good reputation and shall present satisfactory evidence to 54330
the superintendent that the applicant has successfully completed 54331
any education requirements the board prescribes by rule.54332

       (D) An applicant for an initial general real estate appraiser 54333
or residential real estate appraiser certificate or residential 54334
real estate appraiser license shall take and successfully complete 54335
a written examination in order to qualify for the certificate or 54336
license.54337

        The board shall prescribe the examination requirements by 54338
rule.54339

       (E)(1) A nonresident, natural person of this state who has 54340
complied with this section may obtain a certificate, registration, 54341
or license. The board shall adopt rules relating to the 54342
certification, registration, and licensure of a nonresident 54343
applicant whose state of residence the board determines to have 54344
certification, registration, or licensure requirements that are 54345
substantially similar to those set forth in this chapter and the 54346
rules adopted thereunder.54347

       (2) The board shall recognize on a temporary basis a 54348
certification or license issued in another state and shall 54349
register on a temporary basis an appraiser who is certified or 54350
licensed in another state if all of the following apply:54351

       (a) The temporary registration is to perform an appraisal 54352
assignment that is part of a federally related transaction.54353

       (b) The appraiser's business in this state is of a temporary 54354
nature.54355

       (c) The appraiser registers with the board pursuant to this 54356
division.54357

       An appraiser who is certified or licensed in another state 54358
shall register with the board for temporary practice before 54359
performing an appraisal assignment in this state in connection 54360
with a federally related transaction.54361

       The board shall adopt rules relating to registration for the 54362
temporary recognition of certification and licensure of appraisers 54363
from another state. The registration for temporary recognition of 54364
certified or licensed appraisers from another state shall not 54365
authorize completion of more than one appraisal assignment in this 54366
state. The board shall not issue more than two registrations for 54367
temporary practice to any one applicant in any calendar year.54368

       (3) In addition to any other information required to be 54369
submitted with the nonresident applicant's or appraiser's 54370
application for a certificate, registration, license, or temporary 54371
recognition of a certificate or license, each nonresident 54372
applicant or appraiser shall submit a statement consenting to the 54373
service of process upon the nonresident applicant or appraiser by 54374
means of delivering that process to the secretary of state if, in 54375
an action against the applicant, certificate holder, registrant, 54376
or licensee arising from the applicant's, certificate holder's, 54377
registrant's, or licensee's activities as a certificate holder, 54378
registrant, or licensee, the plaintiff, in the exercise of due 54379
diligence, cannot effect personal service upon the applicant, 54380
certificate holder, registrant, or licensee.54381

       (F) The superintendent shall not issue a certificate, 54382
registration, or license to, or recognize on a temporary basis an 54383
appraiser from another state that is a corporation, partnership, 54384
or association. This prohibition shall not be construed to prevent 54385
a certificate holder or licensee from signing an appraisal report 54386
on behalf of a corporation, partnership, or association.54387

       (G) Every person licensed, registered, or certified under 54388
this chapter shall notify the superintendent, on a form provided 54389
by the superintendent, of a change in the address of the 54390
licensee's, registrant's, or certificate holder's principal place 54391
of business or residence within thirty days of the change. If a 54392
licensee's, registrant's, or certificate holder's license, 54393
registration, or certificate is revoked or not renewed, the 54394
licensee, registrant, or certificate holder immediately shall 54395
return the annual and any renewal certificate, registration, or 54396
license to the superintendent.54397

       (H)(1) The superintendent shall not issue a certificate, 54398
registration, or license to any person, or recognize on a 54399
temporary basis an appraiser from another state, who does not meet 54400
applicable minimum criteria for state certification, registration, 54401
or licensure prescribed by federal law or rule.54402

       (2) The superintendent shall not issue a general real estate 54403
appraiser certificate, residential real estate appraiser 54404
certificate, residential real estate appraiser license, or real 54405
estate appraiser assistant registration to any person who has been 54406
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense involving 54407
theft, receiving stolen property, embezzlement, forgery, fraud, 54408
passing bad checks, money laundering, or drug trafficking, or any 54409
criminal offense involving money or securities, including a 54410
violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other 54411
state, or the United States that substantially is equivalent to 54412
such an offense. However, if the applicant has pleaded guilty to 54413
or been convicted of such an offense, the superintendent shall not 54414
consider the offense if the applicant has proven to the 54415
superintendent, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the 54416
applicant's activities and employment record since the conviction 54417
show that the applicant is honest, truthful, and of good 54418
reputation, and there is no basis in fact for believing that the 54419
applicant will commit such an offense again.54420

       Sec. 4765.02. (A)(1) There is hereby created the state board 54421
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services within the 54422
division of emergency medical services of the department of public 54423
safety. The board shall consist of the members specified in this 54424
section who are residents of this state. The governor, with the 54425
advice and consent of the senate, shall appoint all members of the 54426
board, except the employee of the department of public safety 54427
designated by the director of public safety under this section to 54428
be a member of the board. In making the appointments, the governor 54429
shall appoint only members with background or experience in 54430
emergency medical services or trauma care and shall attempt to 54431
include members representing urban and rural areas, various 54432
geographical regions of the state, and various schools of 54433
training.54434

       (2) One member of the board shall be a physician certified by 54435
the American board of emergency medicine or the American 54436
osteopathic board of emergency medicine who is active in the 54437
practice of emergency medicine and is actively involved with an 54438
emergency medical service organization. The governor shall appoint 54439
this member from among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter 54440
of the American college of emergency physicians and three persons 54441
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association. One member shall be 54442
a physician certified by the American board of surgery or the 54443
American osteopathic board of surgery who is active in the 54444
practice of trauma surgery and is actively involved with emergency 54445
medical services. The governor shall appoint this member from 54446
among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American 54447
college of surgeons and three persons nominated by the Ohio 54448
osteopathic association. One member shall be a physician certified 54449
by the American academy of pediatrics or American osteopathic 54450
board of pediatrics who is active in the practice of pediatric 54451
emergency medicine and actively involved with an emergency medical 54452
service organization. The governor shall appoint this member from 54453
among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American 54454
academy of pediatrics and three persons nominated by the Ohio 54455
osteopathic association. One member shall be the administrator of 54456
an adult or pediatric trauma center. The governor shall appoint 54457
this member from among three persons nominated by the OHA: the 54458
association for hospitals and health systems, three persons 54459
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three persons 54460
nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, and 54461
three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio. One member 54462
shall be the administrator of a hospital that is not a trauma 54463
centerlocated in this state. The governor shall appoint this 54464
member from among three persons nominated by OHA: the association 54465
for hospitals and health systems, three persons nominated by the 54466
Ohio osteopathic association, and three persons nominated by the 54467
association of Ohio children's hospitals, and three persons 54468
nominated by the health forum of Ohio. One member shall be a 54469
registered nurse with EMS certification who is in the active 54470
practice of emergency nursingperforms mobile intensive care or 54471
air medical transport. The governor shall appoint this member from 54472
among three persons nominated by the Ohio nurses association, 54473
three persons nominated by the Ohio association of critical care 54474
transport, and three persons nominated by the Ohio state council 54475
of the emergency nurses association. One member shall be the chief 54476
of a fire department that is also an emergency medical service 54477
organization in which more than fifty per cent of the persons who 54478
provide emergency medical services are full-time paid employees. 54479
The governor shall appoint this member from among three persons 54480
nominated by the Ohio fire chiefs' association. One member shall 54481
be the chief of a fire department that is also an emergency 54482
medical service organization in which more than fifty per cent of 54483
the persons who provide emergency medical services are volunteers. 54484
The governor shall appoint this member from among three persons 54485
nominated by the Ohio fire chiefs' association. One member shall 54486
be a person who is certified to teach under section 4765.23 of the 54487
Revised Code or, if the board has not yet certified persons to 54488
teach under that section, a person who is qualified to be 54489
certified to teach under that sectionand holds a valid 54490
certificate to practice as an EMT, advanced EMT, or paramedic. The 54491
governor shall appoint this member from among three persons 54492
nominated by the Ohio emergency medical technician instructors 54493
association and the Ohio instructor/coordinators' society. One 54494
member shall be an EMT-basic, one shall be an EMT-IEMT, advanced 54495
EMT, or paramedic, and one member shall be a paramedic. The 54496
governor shall appoint these members from among three EMTs-basic, 54497
three EMTs-I,EMTs or advanced EMTs and three paramedics nominated 54498
by the Ohio association of professional fire fighters and three 54499
EMTs-basic, three EMTs-I, and three paramedics nominated by the 54500
northern Ohio fire fighters. One member shall be an EMT-basic, 54501
one shall be an EMT-IEMT, advanced EMT, or paramedic, and one 54502
member shall be a paramedic whom the. The governor shall appoint 54503
these members from among three EMTs-basic, three EMTs-I,EMTs or 54504
advanced EMTs and three paramedics nominated by the Ohio state 54505
firefighter's association. One member shall be a person whom the 54506
governor shall appoint from among an EMT-basic, an EMT-I, andEMT, 54507
an advanced EMT, or a paramedic nominated by the Ohio association 54508
of emergency medical services or the Ohio ambulance and medical 54509
transportation association. One member shall be an EMT, an 54510
advanced EMT, or a paramedic, whom the governor shall appoint from 54511
among three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance and medical 54512
transportation association. One member shall be a paramedic, whom 54513
the governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by 54514
the Ohio ambulance and medical transportation association. The 54515
governor shall appoint one member who is an EMT-basic, EMT-I, or 54516
paramedic affiliated with an emergency medical services 54517
organization. One member shall be a member of the Ohio ambulance 54518
association whom the governor shall appoint from among three 54519
persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance association. One member 54520
shall be a physician certified by the American board of surgery, 54521
American board of osteopathic surgery, American osteopathic board 54522
of emergency medicine, or American board of emergency medicine who 54523
is the chief medical officer of an air medical agency and is 54524
currently active in providing emergency medical services. The 54525
governor shall appoint this member from among three persons 54526
nominated by the Ohio association of air medical services.One 54527
member shall be the owner or operator of a private emergency 54528
medical service organization whom the governor shall appoint from 54529
among three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance and medical 54530
transportation association. One member shall be a provider of 54531
mobile intensive care unit transportation in this state whom the 54532
governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by the 54533
Ohio association of critical care transport. One member shall be a 54534
provider of air-medical transportation in this state whom the 54535
governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by the 54536
Ohio association of critical care transport. One member shall be 54537
the owner or operator of a nonemergency medical service 54538
organization in this state that provides ambulette services whom 54539
the governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by 54540
the Ohio ambulance and medical transportation association.54541

       The governor may refuse to appoint any of the persons 54542
nominated by one or more organizations under division (A)(2) of54543
this section, except the employee of the department of public 54544
safety designated by the director of public safety under this 54545
section to be a member of the board. In that event, the 54546
organization or organizations shall continue to nominate the 54547
required number of persons until the governor appoints to the 54548
board one or more of the persons nominated by the organization or 54549
organizations.54550

       The director of public safety shall designate an employee of 54551
the department of public safety to serve as a member of the board 54552
at the director's pleasure. This member shall serve as a liaison 54553
between the department and the division of emergency medical 54554
services in cooperation with the executive director of the board.54555

       Initial appointments to the board by the governor and the 54556
director of public safety shall be made within ninety days after 54557
November 12, 1992. Of the initial appointments by the governor, 54558
five shall be for terms ending one year after November 12, 1992, 54559
six shall be for terms ending two years after November 12, 1992, 54560
and six shall be for terms ending three years after November 12, 54561
1992. Within ninety days after the effective date of this 54562
amendment, the governor shall appoint the member of the board who 54563
is the chief medical officer of an air medical agency for an 54564
initial term ending November 12, 2000. Thereafter, terms54565

       (B) Terms of office of all members appointed by the governor 54566
shall be for three years, each term ending on the same day of the 54567
same month as did the term it succeeds. Each member shall hold 54568
office from the date of appointment until the end of the term for 54569
which the member was appointed. A member shall continue in office 54570
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 54571
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 54572
has elapsed, whichever occurs first.54573

       Each vacancy shall be filled in the same manner as the 54574
original appointment. A member appointed to fill a vacancy 54575
occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the 54576
member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 54577
remainder of the unexpired term.54578

       The term of a member shall expire if the member ceases to 54579
meet any of the requirements to be appointed as that member. The 54580
governor may remove any member from office for neglect of duty, 54581
malfeasance, misfeasance, or nonfeasance, after an adjudication 54582
hearing held in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.54583

       (C) The members of the board shall serve without compensation 54584
but shall be reimbursed for their actual and necessary expenses 54585
incurred in carrying out their duties as board members.54586

       (D) The board shall organize by annually selecting a chair 54587
and vice-chair from among its members. The board may adopt bylaws 54588
to regulate its affairs. A majority of all members of the board 54589
shall constitute a quorum. No action shall be taken without the 54590
concurrence of a majority of all members of the board. The board 54591
shall meet at least four times annually and at the call of the 54592
chair. The chair shall call a meeting on the request of the 54593
executive director or the medical director of the board or on the 54594
written request of five members. The board shall maintain written 54595
or electronic records of its meetings.54596

       (E) Upon twenty-four hours' notice from a member of the 54597
board, the member's employer shall release the member from the 54598
member's employment duties to attend meetings of the full board. 54599
Nothing in this paragraphdivision requires the employer of a 54600
member of the board to compensate the member for time the member 54601
is released from employment duties under this paragraph, but any 54602
civil immunity, workers' compensation, disability, or similar 54603
coverage that applies to a member of the board as a result of the 54604
member's employment shall continue to apply while the member is 54605
released from employment duties under this paragraph.54606

       Sec. 4765.03.  (A) The director of public safety shall 54607
appoint a full-time executive director for the state board of 54608
emergency medical and transportation services. The executive 54609
director shall be knowledgeable in emergency medical services and 54610
trauma care and shall serve at the pleasure of the director of 54611
public safety. The director of public safety shall appoint the 54612
executive director from among three persons nominated by the 54613
board. The director of public safety may refuse, for cause, to 54614
appoint any of the board's nominees. If the director fails to 54615
appoint any of the board's nominees, the board shall continue to 54616
nominate groups of three persons until the director does appoint 54617
one of the board's nominees. The executive director shall serve as 54618
the chief executive officer of the board and as the executive 54619
director of the division of emergency medical services. The 54620
executive director shall attend each meeting of the board, except 54621
the board may exclude the executive director from discussions 54622
concerning the employment or performance of the executive director 54623
or medical director of the board. The executive director shall 54624
give a surety bond to the state in such sum as the board 54625
determines, conditioned on the faithful performance of the duties 54626
of the executive director's office. The executive director shall 54627
receive a salary from the board and shall be reimbursed for actual 54628
and necessary expenses incurred in carrying out duties as 54629
executive director.54630

       The executive director shall submit a report to the director 54631
of public safety at least every three months regarding the status 54632
of emergency medical services in this state. The executive 54633
director shall meet with the director of public safety at the 54634
director's request.54635

       (B) The board shall appoint a medical director, who shall 54636
serve at the pleasure of the board. The medical director shall be 54637
a physician certified by the American board of emergency medicine 54638
or the American osteopathic board of emergency medicine who is 54639
active in the practice of emergency medicine and has been actively 54640
involved with an emergency medical service organization for at 54641
least five years prior to being appointed. The board shall 54642
consider any recommendations for this appointment from the Ohio 54643
chapter of the American college of emergency physicians, the Ohio 54644
chapter of the American college of surgeons, the Ohio chapter of 54645
the American academy of pediatrics, the Ohio osteopathic 54646
association, and the Ohio state medical association.54647

       The medical director shall direct the executive director and 54648
advise the board with regard to adult and pediatric trauma and 54649
emergency medical services issues. The medical director shall 54650
attend each meeting of the board, except the board may exclude the 54651
medical director from discussions concerning the appointment or 54652
performance of the medical director or executive director of the 54653
board. The medical director shall be employed and paid by the 54654
board and shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses 54655
incurred in carrying out duties as medical director.54656

       (C) The board may appoint employees as it determines 54657
necessary. The board shall prescribe the duties and titles of its 54658
employees.54659

       Sec. 4765.04.  (A) The firefighter and fire safety inspector 54660
training committee of the state board of emergency medical, fire, 54661
and transportation services is hereby created and shall consist of 54662
the members of the board who are chiefs of fire departments, and 54663
the members of the board who are emergency medical 54664
technicians-basic, emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and 54665
emergency medical technicians-paramedic appointed from among 54666
persons nominated by the Ohio association of professional fire 54667
fighters or the northern Ohio fire fighters and from among persons 54668
nominated by the Ohio state firefighter's association. Each member 54669
of the committee, except the chairperson, may designate a person 54670
with fire experience to serve in that member's place. The members 54671
of the committee or their designees shall select a chairperson 54672
from among the members or their designees.54673

       The committee may conduct investigations in the course of 54674
discharging its duties under this chapter. In the course of an 54675
investigation, the committee may issue subpoenas. If a person 54676
subpoenaed fails to comply with the subpoena, the committee may 54677
authorize its chairperson to apply to the court of common pleas in 54678
the county where the person to be subpoenaed resides for an order 54679
compelling compliance in the same manner as compliance with a 54680
subpoena issued by the court is compelled.54681

       (B) The trauma committee of the state board of emergency 54682
medical, fire, and transportation services is hereby created and 54683
shall consist of the following members appointed by the director 54684
of public safety:54685

       (1) A physician who is certified by the American board of 54686
surgery or American osteopathic board of surgery and actively 54687
practices general trauma surgery, appointed from among three 54688
persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American college of 54689
surgeons, three persons nominated by the Ohio state medical 54690
association, and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 54691
association;54692

       (2) A physician who is certified by the American board of 54693
surgery or the American osteopathic board of surgery and actively 54694
practices orthopedic trauma surgery, appointed from among three 54695
persons nominated by the Ohio orthopedic society and three persons 54696
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association;54697

       (3) A physician who is certified by the American board of 54698
neurological surgeons or the American osteopathic board of surgery 54699
and actively practices neurosurgery on trauma victims, appointed 54700
from among three persons nominated by the Ohio state neurological 54701
society and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 54702
association;54703

       (4) A physician who is certified by the American board of 54704
surgeons or American osteopathic board of surgeons and actively 54705
specializes in treating burn victims, appointed from among three 54706
persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American college of 54707
surgeons and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 54708
association;54709

       (5) A dentist who is certified by the American board of oral 54710
and maxillofacial surgery and actively practices oral and 54711
maxillofacial surgery, appointed from among three persons 54712
nominated by the Ohio dental association;54713

       (6) A physician who is certified by the American board of 54714
physical medicine and rehabilitation or American osteopathic board 54715
of rehabilitation medicine and actively provides rehabilitative 54716
care to trauma victims, appointed from among three persons 54717
nominated by the Ohio society of physical medicine and 54718
rehabilitation and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 54719
association;54720

       (7) A physician who is certified by the American board of 54721
surgery or American osteopathic board of surgery with special 54722
qualifications in pediatric surgery and actively practices 54723
pediatric trauma surgery, appointed from among three persons 54724
nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American academy of 54725
pediatrics and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 54726
association;54727

       (8) A physician who is certified by the American board of 54728
emergency medicine or American osteopathic board of emergency 54729
medicine, actively practices emergency medicine, and is actively 54730
involved in emergency medical services, appointed from among three 54731
persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American college of 54732
emergency physicians and three persons nominated by the Ohio 54733
osteopathic association;54734

       (9) A physician who is certified by the American board of 54735
pediatrics, American osteopathic board of pediatrics, or American 54736
board of emergency medicine, is sub-boarded in pediatric emergency 54737
medicine, actively practices pediatric emergency medicine, and is 54738
actively involved in emergency medical services, appointed from 54739
among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American 54740
academy of pediatrics, three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter 54741
of the American college of emergency physicians, and three persons 54742
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association;54743

       (10) A physician who is certified by the American board of 54744
surgery, American osteopathic board of surgery, or American board 54745
of emergency medicine and is the chief medical officer of an air 54746
medical organization, appointed from among three persons nominated 54747
by the Ohio association of air medical services;54748

       (11) A coroner or medical examiner appointed from among three 54749
people nominated by the Ohio state coroners' association;54750

       (12) A registered nurse who actively practices trauma nursing 54751
at an adult or pediatric trauma center, appointed from among three 54752
persons nominated by the Ohio association of trauma nurse 54753
coordinators;54754

       (13) A registered nurse who actively practices emergency 54755
nursing and is actively involved in emergency medical services, 54756
appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter 54757
of the emergency nurses' association;54758

       (14) The chief trauma registrar of an adult or pediatric 54759
trauma center, appointed from among three persons nominated by the 54760
alliance of Ohio trauma registrars;54761

       (15) The administrator of an adult or pediatric trauma 54762
center, appointed from among three persons nominated by OHA: the 54763
association for hospitals and health systems, three persons 54764
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three persons 54765
nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, and 54766
three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio;54767

       (16) The administrator of a hospital that is not a trauma 54768
center and actively provides emergency care to adult or pediatric 54769
trauma patients, appointed from among three persons nominated by 54770
OHA: the association for hospitals and health systems, three 54771
persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three 54772
persons nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, 54773
and three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio;54774

       (17) The operator of an ambulance company that actively 54775
provides trauma care to emergency patients, appointed from among 54776
three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance association;54777

       (18) The chief of a fire department that actively provides 54778
trauma care to emergency patients, appointed from among three 54779
persons nominated by the Ohio fire chiefs' association;54780

       (19) An EMT or paramedic who is certified under this chapter 54781
and actively provides trauma care to emergency patients, appointed 54782
from among three persons nominated by the Ohio association of 54783
professional firefighters, three persons nominated by the northern 54784
Ohio fire fighters, three persons nominated by the Ohio state 54785
firefighters' association, and three persons nominated by the Ohio 54786
association of emergency medical services;54787

       (20) A person who actively advocates for trauma victims, 54788
appointed from three persons nominated by the Ohio brain injury 54789
association and three persons nominated by the governor's council 54790
on people with disabilities;54791

       (21) A physician or nurse who has substantial administrative 54792
responsibility for trauma care provided in or by an adult or 54793
pediatric trauma center, appointed from among three persons 54794
nominated by OHA: the association for hospitals and health 54795
systems, three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 54796
association, three persons nominated by the association of Ohio 54797
children's hospitals, and three persons nominated by the health 54798
forum of Ohio;54799

       (22) Three representatives of hospitals that are not trauma 54800
centers and actively provide emergency care to trauma patients, 54801
appointed from among three persons nominated by OHA: the 54802
association for hospitals and health systems, three persons 54803
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three persons 54804
nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, and 54805
three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio. The 54806
representatives may be hospital administrators, physicians, 54807
nurses, or other clinical professionals.54808

       Members of the committee shall have substantial experience in 54809
the categories they represent, shall be residents of this state, 54810
and may be members of the state board of emergency medical, fire, 54811
and transportation services. In appointing members of the 54812
committee, the director shall attempt to include members 54813
representing urban and rural areas, various geographical areas of 54814
the state, and various schools of training. The director shall not 54815
appoint to the committee more than one member who is employed by 54816
or practices at the same hospital, health system, or emergency 54817
medical service organization.54818

       The director may refuse to appoint any of the persons 54819
nominated by an organization or organizations under this division. 54820
In that event, the organization or organizations shall continue to 54821
nominate the required number of persons until the director 54822
appoints to the committee one or more of the persons nominated by 54823
the organization or organizations.54824

       Initial appointments to the committee shall be made by the 54825
director not later than ninety days after November 3, 2000. 54826
Members of the committee shall serve at the pleasure of the 54827
director, except that any member of the committee who ceases to be 54828
qualified for the position to which the member was appointed shall 54829
cease to be a member of the committee. Vacancies on the committee 54830
shall be filled in the same manner as original appointments.54831

       The members of the committee shall serve without compensation 54832
but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred 54833
in carrying out duties as members of the committee.54834

       The committee shall select a chairperson and vice-chairperson 54835
from among its members. A majority of all members of the committee 54836
shall constitute a quorum. No action shall be taken without the 54837
concurrence of a majority of all members of the committee. The 54838
committee shall meet at the call of the chair, upon written 54839
request of five members of the committee, and at the direction of 54840
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation54841
services. The committee shall not meet at times or locations that 54842
conflict with meetings of the board. The executive director and 54843
medical director of the state board of emergency medical, fire, 54844
and transportation services may participate in any meeting of the 54845
committee and shall do so at the request of the committee.54846

       The committee shall advise and assist the state board of 54847
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services in matters 54848
related to adult and pediatric trauma care and the establishment 54849
and operation of the state trauma registry. In matters relating to 54850
the state trauma registry, the board and the committee shall 54851
consult with trauma registrars from adult and pediatric trauma 54852
centers in the state. The committee may appoint a subcommittee to 54853
advise and assist with the trauma registry. The subcommittee may 54854
include persons with expertise relevant to the trauma registry who 54855
are not members of the board or committee.54856

       (C) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 54857
transportation services may appoint other committees and 54858
subcommittees as it considers necessary.54859

       (D) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 54860
transportation services, and any of its committees or 54861
subcommittees, may request assistance from any state agency. The 54862
board and its committees and subcommittees may permit persons who 54863
are not members of those bodies to participate in deliberations of 54864
those bodies, but no person who is not a member of the board shall 54865
vote on the board and no person who is not a member of a committee 54866
created under division (A) or (B) of this section shall vote on 54867
that committee.54868

       (E) Sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code do not 54869
apply to the committees established under division (A) or (B) of 54870
this section.54871

       Sec. 4765.05. (A) As used in this section, "prehospital 54872
emergency medical services" means an emergency medical services 54873
system that provides medical services to patients who require 54874
immediate assistance, because of illness or injury, prior to their 54875
arrival at an emergency medical facility.54876

       (B) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 54877
transportation services shall divide the state geographically into 54878
prehospital emergency medical services regions for purposes of 54879
overseeing the delivery of adult and pediatric prehospital 54880
emergency medical services. For each prehospital emergency medical 54881
services region, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 54882
transportation services shall appoint either a physician to serve 54883
as the regional director or a physician advisory board to serve as 54884
the regional advisory board. The state board of emergency medical, 54885
fire, and transportation services shall specify the duties of each 54886
regional director and regional advisory board. Regional directors 54887
and members of regional advisory boards shall serve without 54888
compensation, but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary 54889
expenses incurred in carrying out duties as regional directors and 54890
members of regional advisory boards.54891

       (C) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit in 54892
any way the ability of a hospital to determine the market area of 54893
that hospital.54894

       Sec. 4765.06.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 54895
fire, and transportation services shall establish an emergency 54896
medical services incidence reporting system for the collection of 54897
information regarding the delivery of emergency medical services 54898
in this state and the frequency at which the services are 54899
provided. All emergency medical service organizations shall submit 54900
to the board any information that the board determines is 54901
necessary for maintaining the incidence reporting system.54902

       (B) The board shall establish a state trauma registry to be 54903
used for the collection of information regarding the care of adult 54904
and pediatric trauma victims in this state. The registry shall 54905
provide for the reporting of adult and pediatric trauma-related 54906
deaths, identification of adult and pediatric trauma patients, 54907
monitoring of adult and pediatric trauma patient care data, 54908
determination of the total amount of uncompensated adult and 54909
pediatric trauma care provided annually by each facility that 54910
provides care to trauma victims, and collection of any other 54911
information specified by the board. All persons designated by the 54912
board shall submit to the board any information it determines is 54913
necessary for maintaining the state trauma registry. At the 54914
request of the board any state agency possessing information 54915
regarding adult or pediatric trauma care shall provide the 54916
information to the board. The board shall maintain the state 54917
trauma registry in accordance with rules adopted under section 54918
4765.11 of the Revised Code.54919

       Rules relating to the state trauma registry adopted under 54920
this section and section 4765.11 of the Revised Code shall not 54921
prohibit the operation of other trauma registries and may provide 54922
for the reporting of information to the state trauma registry by 54923
or through other trauma registries in a manner consistent with 54924
information otherwise reported to the state trauma registry. Other 54925
trauma registries may report aggregate information to the state 54926
trauma registry, provided the information can be matched to the 54927
person that reported it. Information maintained by another trauma 54928
registry and reported to the state trauma registry in lieu of 54929
being reported directly to the state trauma registry is a public 54930
record and shall be maintained, made available to the public, held 54931
in confidence, risk adjusted, and not subject to discovery or 54932
introduction into evidence in a civil action as provided in 54933
section 149.43 of the Revised Code and this section. Any person 54934
who provides, maintains, or risk adjusts such information shall 54935
comply with this section and rules adopted under it in performing 54936
that function and has the same immunities with respect to that 54937
function as a person who performs that function with respect to 54938
the state trauma registry.54939

       (C) The board and any employee or contractor of the board or 54940
the department of public safety shall not make public information 54941
it receives under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code that 54942
identifies or would tend to identify a specific recipient of 54943
emergency medical services or adult or pediatric trauma care.54944

       (D) Not later than two years after the effective date of this 54945
amendmentNovember3, 2000, the board shall adopt and implement 54946
rules under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code that provide 54947
written standards and procedures for risk adjustment of 54948
information received by the board under Chapter 4765. of the 54949
Revised Code. The rules shall be developed in consultation with 54950
appropriate medical, hospital, and emergency medical service 54951
organizations and may provide for risk adjustment by a contractor 54952
of the board. Before risk adjustment standards and procedures are 54953
implemented, no member of the board and no employee or contractor 54954
of the board or the department of public safety shall make public 54955
information received by the board under Chapter 4765. of the 54956
Revised Code that identifies or would tend to identify a specific 54957
provider of emergency medical services or adult or pediatric 54958
trauma care. After risk adjustment standards and procedures are 54959
implemented, the board shall make public such information only on 54960
a risk adjusted basis.54961

       (E) The board shall adopt rules under section 4765.11 of the 54962
Revised Code that specify procedures for ensuring the 54963
confidentiality of information that is not to be made public under 54964
this section. The rules shall specify the circumstances in which 54965
deliberations of the persons performing risk adjustment functions 54966
under this section are not open to the public and records of those 54967
deliberations are maintained in confidence. Nothing in this 54968
section prohibits the board from making public statistical 54969
information that does not identify or tend to identify a specific 54970
recipient or provider of emergency medical services or adult or 54971
pediatric trauma care.54972

       (F) No provider that furnishes information to the board with 54973
respect to any patient the provider examined or treated shall, 54974
because of this furnishing, be deemed liable in damages to any 54975
person or be held to answer for betrayal of a professional 54976
confidence in the absence of willful or wanton misconduct. No such 54977
information shall be subject to introduction in evidence in any 54978
civil action against the provider. No provider that furnishes 54979
information to the board shall be liable for the misuse or 54980
improper release of the information by the board or any other 54981
person.54982

       No person who performs risk adjustment functions under this 54983
section shall, because of performing such functions, be held 54984
liable in a civil action for betrayal of professional confidence 54985
or otherwise in the absence of willful or wanton misconduct.54986

       Sec. 4765.07.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 54987
fire, and transportation services shall adopt rules under section 54988
4765.11 of the Revised Code to establish and administer a grant 54989
program under which grants are distributed according to the 54990
following priorities:54991

       (1) First priority shall be given to emergency medical 54992
service organizations for the training of personnel, for the 54993
purchase of equipment and vehicles, and to improve the 54994
availability, accessibility, and quality of emergency medical 54995
services in this state. In this category, the board shall give 54996
priority to grants that fund training and equipping of emergency 54997
medical service personnel.54998

       (2) Second priority shall be given to entities that research, 54999
test, and evaluate medical procedures and systems related to adult 55000
and pediatric trauma care.55001

       (3) Third priority shall be given to entities that research 55002
the causes, nature, and effects of traumatic injuries, educate the 55003
public about injury prevention, and implement, test, and evaluate 55004
injury prevention strategies.55005

        (4) Fourth priority shall be given to entities that research, 55006
test, and evaluate procedures that promote the rehabilitation, 55007
retraining, and reemployment of adult or pediatric trauma victims 55008
and social service support mechanisms for adult or pediatric 55009
trauma victims and their families.55010

        (5) Fifth priority shall be given to entities that conduct 55011
research on, test, or evaluate one or more of the following:55012

       (a) Procedures governing the performance of emergency medical 55013
services in this state;55014

       (b) The training of emergency medical service personnel;55015

       (c) The staffing of emergency medical service organizations.55016

       (6) For grants distributed for the grant award years 55017
occurring not later than the award year ending June 30, 2017, 55018
sixth priority shall be given to entities that operate paramedic 55019
training programs and are seeking national accreditation of the 55020
programs.55021

       (B) To be eligible for a grant distributed pursuant to 55022
division (A)(6) of this section, an applicant for the grant shall 55023
meet all of the following conditions:55024

       (1) Hold a certificate of accreditation issued by the board 55025
under section 4765.17 of the Revised Code to operate a paramedic 55026
training program;55027

       (2) Be seeking initial national accreditation of the program 55028
from an accrediting organization approved by the board;55029

       (3) Apply for the national accreditation on or after February 55030
25, 2010.55031

       (C) The grant program shall be funded from the trauma and 55032
emergency medical services grants fund created by section 4513.263 55033
of the Revised Code. 55034

       Sec. 4765.08.  The state board of emergency medical, fire, 55035
and transportation services shall prepare a statewide emergency 55036
medical services plan and shall revise the plan as necessary.55037

       The board shall prepare a plan for the statewide regulation 55038
of emergency medical services during periods of disaster. The plan 55039
shall be consistent with the statewide emergency medical services 55040
plan required under this section and with the statewide emergency 55041
operations plan required under section 5502.22 of the Revised 55042
Code. The board shall submit the plan to the emergency management 55043
agency created under section 5502.22 of the Revised Code. The 55044
board shall cooperate with the agency in any other manner the 55045
agency considers necessary to develop and implement the statewide 55046
emergency operations plan.55047

       Sec. 4765.09.  The state board of emergency medical, fire, 55048
and transportation services shall prepare recommendations for the 55049
operation of ambulance service organizations, air medical 55050
organizations, and emergency medical service organizations. Within 55051
thirty days following the preparation or modification of 55052
recommendations, the board shall notify the board of county 55053
commissioners of any county, the board of township trustees of any 55054
township, the board of trustees of any joint ambulance district, 55055
or the board of trustees of any joint emergency medical services 55056
district in which there exist ambulance service organizations, air 55057
medical organizations, or emergency medical service organizations 55058
of any board recommendations for the operation of such 55059
organizations. The recommendations shall include, but not be 55060
limited to:55061

       (A) The definition and classification of ambulances and 55062
medical aircraft;55063

       (B) The design, equipment, and supplies for ambulances and 55064
medical aircraft, including special equipment, supplies, training, 55065
and staffing required to assist pediatric and geriatric emergency 55066
victims;55067

       (C) The minimum number and type of personnel for the 55068
operation of ambulances and medical aircraft;55069

       (D) The communication systems necessary for the operation of 55070
ambulances and medical aircraft;55071

       (E) Reports to be made by persons holding certificates of 55072
accreditation or approval issued under section 4765.17 of the 55073
Revised Code and certificates to practice issued under section 55074
4765.30 of the Revised Code to ascertain compliance with this 55075
chapter and the rules and recommendations adopted thereunder and 55076
to ascertain the quantity and quality of ambulance service 55077
organizations, air medical organizations, and emergency medical 55078
service organizations throughout the state.55079

       Sec. 4765.10.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 55080
fire, and transportation services shall do all of the following:55081

       (1) Administer and enforce the provisions of this chapter and 55082
the rules adopted under it;55083

       (2) Approve, in accordance with procedures established in 55084
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code, 55085
examinations that demonstrate competence to have a certificate to 55086
practice renewed without completing a continuing education 55087
program;55088

       (3) Advise applicants for state or federal emergency medical 55089
services funds, review and comment on applications for these 55090
funds, and approve the use of all state and federal funds 55091
designated solely for emergency medical service programs unless 55092
federal law requires another state agency to approve the use of 55093
all such federal funds;55094

       (4) Serve as a statewide clearinghouse for discussion, 55095
inquiry, and complaints concerning emergency medical services;55096

       (5) Make recommendations to the general assembly on 55097
legislation to improve the delivery of emergency medical services;55098

       (6) Maintain a toll-free long distance telephone number 55099
through which it shall respond to questions about emergency 55100
medical services;55101

       (7) Work with appropriate state offices in coordinating the 55102
training of firefighters and emergency medical service personnel. 55103
Other state offices that are involved in the training of 55104
firefighters or emergency medical service personnel shall 55105
cooperate with the board and its committees and subcommittees to 55106
achieve this goal.55107

       (8) Provide a liaison to the state emergency operation center 55108
during those periods when a disaster, as defined in section 55109
5502.21 of the Revised Code, has occurred in this state and the 55110
governor has declared an emergency as defined in that section.55111

       (B) The board may do any of the following:55112

       (1) Investigate complaints concerning emergency medical 55113
services and emergency medical service organizations as it 55114
determines necessary;55115

       (2) Enter into reciprocal agreements with other states that 55116
have standards for accreditation of emergency medical services 55117
training programs and for certification of first responders, 55118
EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, paramedics, firefighters, or fire safety 55119
inspectors that are substantially similar to those established 55120
under this chapter and the rules adopted under it;55121

       (3) Establish a statewide public information system and 55122
public education programs regarding emergency medical services;55123

       (4) Establish an injury prevention program.55124

       Sec. 4765.101. (A) The state board of emergency medical, 55125
fire, and transportation services shall investigate any allegation 55126
that a person has violated this chapter or a rule adopted under 55127
it.55128

       Any person may submit to the board a written complaint 55129
regarding an alleged violation of this chapter or a rule adopted 55130
under it. In the absence of fraud or bad faith, no person 55131
submitting a complaint to the board or testifying in an 55132
adjudication hearing conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 55133
the Revised Code with regard to such an alleged violation shall be 55134
liable to any person in damages in a civil action as a result of 55135
submitting the complaint or providing testimony.55136

        (B) In investigating an allegation, the board may do any of 55137
the following:55138

        (1) Administer oaths;55139

        (2) Order the taking of depositions;55140

        (3) Issue subpoenas;55141

        (4) Compel the attendance of witnesses and production of 55142
books, accounts, papers, records, documents, and testimony.55143

       (C) A subpoena for patient record information shall not be 55144
issued without consultation with the attorney general's office and 55145
approval of the executive director of the board. Before issuance 55146
of a subpoena for patient record information, the executive 55147
director shall determine whether there is probable cause to 55148
believe that the complaint filed alleges a violation of this 55149
chapter or any rule adopted under it and that the records sought 55150
are relevant to the alleged violation and material to the 55151
investigation. The subpoena may apply only to records that cover a 55152
reasonable period of time surrounding the alleged violation.55153

        (D) On failure to comply with any subpoena issued by the 55154
board and after reasonable notice to the person being subpoenaed, 55155
the board may move, pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure, for 55156
an order compelling the production of persons or records.55157

        (E) A subpoena issued by the board may be served by a 55158
sheriff, the sheriff's deputy, or an investigator for the division 55159
of emergency medical services of the department of public safety. 55160
Service of a subpoena issued by the board may be made by 55161
delivering a copy of the subpoena to the person named in it, 55162
reading it to the person, or leaving it at the person's usual 55163
place of residence. When the person being served is an individual 55164
authorized by this chapter to practice emergency medical services, 55165
service of the subpoena may be made by certified mail, restricted 55166
delivery, return receipt requested, and the subpoena shall be 55167
deemed served on the date delivery is made or on the date that the 55168
person refuses to accept delivery.55169

       Sec. 4765.102. (A) As used in this section, "licensing 55170
agency" means any entity that has the authority pursuant to Title 55171
XLVII of the Revised Code to issue a license, and any other agency 55172
of this or another state, other than the Ohio supreme court, that 55173
has the authority to issue a license that authorizes an individual 55174
to engage in an occupation or profession. "Licensing agency" 55175
includes an administrative officer that has authority to issue a 55176
license that authorizes an individual to engage in an occupation 55177
or profession.55178

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (D) of this 55179
section and section 4765.111 of the Revised Code, all information 55180
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation55181
services receives pursuant to an investigation, including 55182
information regarding an alleged violation of this chapter or 55183
rules adopted under it or a complaint submitted under division (A) 55184
of section 4765.101 of the Revised Code, is confidential, and is 55185
not subject to discovery in any civil action, during the course of 55186
the investigation and any adjudication proceedings that result 55187
from the investigation. Upon completion of the investigation and 55188
any resulting adjudication proceedings, the information is a 55189
matter of public record for purposes of section 149.43 of the 55190
Revised Code.55191

        (C) The board may release information otherwise made 55192
confidential by division (B) of this section to law enforcement 55193
officers or licensing agencies of this or another state that are 55194
prosecuting, adjudicating, or investigating the holder of a 55195
certificate issued under this chapter or a person who allegedly 55196
engaged in the unauthorized provision of emergency medical 55197
services.55198

        A law enforcement officer or licensing agency with 55199
information disclosed by the board under this division shall not 55200
divulge the information other than for the purpose of an 55201
adjudication by a court or licensing agency to which the subject 55202
of the adjudication is a party.55203

        (D) If an investigation conducted under section 4765.101 of 55204
the Revised Code requires a review of patient records, the 55205
investigation and proceedings related to it shall be conducted in 55206
such a manner as to protect patient confidentiality. The board 55207
shall not make public the name or any other identifying 55208
information about a patient unless proper consent is given in 55209
accordance with rules adopted by the board. If the patient is less 55210
than eighteen years of age, the board shall obtain consent from 55211
the patient's parent, guardian, or custodian.55212

       Sec. 4765.11.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 55213
fire, and transportation services shall adopt, and may amend and 55214
rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 55215
and division (C) of this section that establish all of the 55216
following:55217

       (1) Procedures for its governance and the control of its 55218
actions and business affairs;55219

       (2) Standards for the performance of emergency medical 55220
services by first responders, emergency medical technicians-basic, 55221
emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 55222
technicians-paramedic;55223

       (3) Application fees for certificates of accreditation, 55224
certificates of approval, certificates to teach, and certificates 55225
to practice, which shall be deposited into the trauma and 55226
emergency medical services fund created in section 4513.263 of the 55227
Revised Code;55228

       (4) Criteria for determining when the application or renewal 55229
fee for a certificate to practice may be waived because an 55230
applicant cannot afford to pay the fee;55231

       (5) Procedures for issuance and renewal of certificates of 55232
accreditation, certificates of approval, certificates to teach, 55233
and certificates to practice, including any procedures necessary 55234
to ensure that adequate notice of renewal is provided in 55235
accordance with division (D) of section 4765.30 of the Revised 55236
Code;55237

       (6) Procedures for suspending or revoking certificates of 55238
accreditation, certificates of approval, certificates to teach, 55239
and certificates to practice;55240

       (7) Grounds for suspension or revocation of a certificate to 55241
practice issued under section 4765.30 of the Revised Code and for 55242
taking any other disciplinary action against a first responder, 55243
EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic;55244

       (8) Procedures for taking disciplinary action against a first 55245
responder, EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic;55246

       (9) Standards for certificates of accreditation and 55247
certificates of approval;55248

       (10) Qualifications for certificates to teach;55249

       (11) Requirements for a certificate to practice;55250

       (12) The curricula, number of hours of instruction and 55251
training, and instructional materials to be used in adult and 55252
pediatric emergency medical services training programs and adult 55253
and pediatric emergency medical services continuing education 55254
programs;55255

       (13) Procedures for conducting courses in recognizing 55256
symptoms of life-threatening allergic reactions and in calculating 55257
proper dosage levels and administering injections of epinephrine 55258
to adult and pediatric patients who suffer life-threatening 55259
allergic reactions;55260

       (14) Examinations for certificates to practice;55261

       (15) Procedures for administering examinations for 55262
certificates to practice;55263

       (16) Procedures for approving examinations that demonstrate 55264
competence to have a certificate to practice renewed without 55265
completing an emergency medical services continuing education 55266
program;55267

       (17) Procedures for granting extensions and exemptions of 55268
emergency medical services continuing education requirements;55269

       (18) Procedures for approving the additional emergency 55270
medical services first responders are authorized by division (C) 55271
of section 4765.35 of the Revised Code to perform, EMTs-basic are 55272
authorized by division (C) of section 4765.37 of the Revised Code 55273
to perform, EMTs-I are authorized by division (B)(5) of section 55274
4765.38 of the Revised Code to perform, and paramedics are 55275
authorized by division (B)(6) of section 4765.39 of the Revised 55276
Code to perform;55277

       (19) Standards and procedures for implementing the 55278
requirements of section 4765.06 of the Revised Code, including 55279
designations of the persons who are required to report information 55280
to the board and the types of information to be reported;55281

       (20) Procedures for administering the emergency medical 55282
services grant program established under section 4765.07 of the 55283
Revised Code;55284

       (21) Procedures consistent with Chapter 119. of the Revised 55285
Code for appealing decisions of the board;55286

       (22) Minimum qualifications and peer review and quality 55287
improvement requirements for persons who provide medical direction 55288
to emergency medical service personnel;55289

       (23) The manner in which a patient, or a patient's parent, 55290
guardian, or custodian may consent to the board releasing 55291
identifying information about the patient under division (D) of 55292
section 4765.102 of the Revised Code;55293

       (24) Circumstances under which a training program or 55294
continuing education program, or portion of either type of 55295
program, may be taught by a person who does not hold a certificate 55296
to teach issued under section 4765.23 of the Revised Code;55297

       (25) Certification cycles for certificates issued under 55298
sections 4765.23 and 4765.30 of the Revised Code and certificates 55299
issued by the executive director of the state board of emergency 55300
medical, fire, and transportation services under section 4765.55 55301
of the Revised Code that establish a common expiration date for 55302
all certificates.55303

       (B) The board may adopt, and may amend and rescind, rules in 55304
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and division (C) 55305
of this section that establish the following:55306

       (1) Specifications of information that may be collected under 55307
the trauma system registry and incidence reporting system created 55308
under section 4765.06 of the Revised Code;55309

       (2) Standards and procedures for implementing any of the 55310
recommendations made by any committees of the board or under 55311
section 4765.04 of the Revised Code;55312

       (3) Requirements that a person must meet to receive a 55313
certificate to practice as a first responder pursuant to division 55314
(A)(2) of section 4765.30 of the Revised Code;55315

       (4) Any other rules necessary to implement this chapter.55316

       (C) In developing and administering rules adopted under this 55317
chapter, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 55318
transportation services shall consult with regional directors and 55319
regional physician advisory boards created by section 4765.05 of 55320
the Revised Code and emphasize the special needs of pediatric and 55321
geriatric patients.55322

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in this division, before 55323
adopting, amending, or rescinding any rule under this chapter, the 55324
board shall submit the proposed rule to the director of public 55325
safety for review. The director may review the proposed rule for 55326
not more than sixty days after the date it is submitted. If, 55327
within this sixty-day period, the director approves the proposed 55328
rule or does not notify the board that the rule is disapproved, 55329
the board may adopt, amend, or rescind the rule as proposed. If, 55330
within this sixty-day period, the director notifies the board that 55331
the proposed rule is disapproved, the board shall not adopt, 55332
amend, or rescind the rule as proposed unless at least twelve 55333
members of the board vote to adopt, amend, or rescind it.55334

       This division does not apply to an emergency rule adopted in 55335
accordance with section 119.03 of the Revised Code.55336

       Sec. 4765.111. Except as provided in this section or sections 55337
4765.112 to 4765.116 of the Revised Code, the state board of 55338
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall conduct 55339
disciplinary proceedings regarding the holder of a certificate 55340
issued under this chapter in accordance with rules adopted by the 55341
board under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.55342

       The board and a holder of a certificate are the parties to a 55343
hearing conducted under this chapter. Either party may submit a 55344
written request to the other party for a list of witnesses and 55345
copies of documents intended to be introduced at the hearing. The 55346
request shall be in writing and shall be served not less than 55347
thirty-seven days prior to the commencement of the hearing, unless 55348
the hearing officer or presiding board member grants an extension 55349
of time to make the request. Not later than thirty days before the 55350
hearing, the responding party shall provide the requested list of 55351
witnesses and copies of documents to the requesting party, unless 55352
the hearing officer or presiding board member grants an extension 55353
of time to provide the list and copies.55354

        Failure to timely provide a list or copies requested in 55355
accordance with this section shall result in exclusion from the 55356
hearing of the witnesses, testimony, or documents.55357

       Sec. 4765.112.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 55358
fire, and transportation services, by an affirmative vote of the 55359
majority of its members, may suspend without a prior hearing a 55360
certificate to practice issued under this chapter if the board 55361
determines that there is clear and convincing evidence that 55362
continued practice by the certificate holder presents a danger of 55363
immediate and serious harm to the public and that the certificate 55364
holder has done any of the following:55365

       (1) Furnished false, fraudulent, or misleading information to 55366
the board; 55367

       (2) Engaged in activities that exceed those permitted by the 55368
individual's certificate;55369

        (3) In a court of this or any other state or federal court 55370
been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been the subject of a 55371
judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt 55372
resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of 55373
eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a felony 55374
or for a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice or 55375
involving gross immorality or moral turpitude.55376

       (B) Immediately following the decision to impose a summary 55377
suspension, the board, in accordance with section 119.07 of the 55378
Revised Code, shall issue a written order of suspension, cause it 55379
to be delivered to the certificate holder, and notify the 55380
certificate holder of the opportunity for a hearing. If timely 55381
requested by the certificate holder, a hearing shall be conducted 55382
in accordance with section 4765.115 of the Revised Code. 55383

       Sec. 4765.113.  If the state board of emergency medical, 55384
fire, and transportation services imposes a suspension on the 55385
basis of a conviction, judicial finding, or plea as described in 55386
division (A)(3) of section 4765.112 of the Revised Code that is 55387
overturned on appeal, the certificate holder, on exhaustion of the 55388
criminal appeal process, may file with the board a petition for 55389
reconsideration of the suspension along with appropriate court 55390
documents. On receipt of the petition and documents, the board 55391
shall reinstate the certificate holder's certificate to practice.55392

       Sec. 4765.114.  (A) A certificate to practice emergency 55393
medical services issued under this chapter is automatically 55394
suspended on the certificate holder's conviction of, plea of 55395
guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of any of the following: 55396
aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious 55397
assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual 55398
imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated burglary, aggravated 55399
robbery, or a substantially equivalent offense committed in this 55400
or another jurisdiction. Continued practice after the suspension 55401
is practicing without a certificate. 55402

       (B) If the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 55403
transportation services has knowledge that an automatic suspension 55404
has occurred, it shall notify, in accordance with section 119.07 55405
of the Revised Code, the certificate holder of the suspension and 55406
of the opportunity for a hearing. If timely requested by the 55407
certificate holder, a hearing shall be conducted in accordance 55408
with section 4765.115 of the Revised Code. 55409

       Sec. 4765.115.  (A) A suspension order issued under section 55410
4765.112 or automatic suspension under section 4765.114 of the 55411
Revised Code is not subject to suspension by a court prior to a 55412
hearing under this section or during the pendency of any appeal 55413
filed under section 119.12 of the Revised Code. 55414

       (B) A suspension order issued under section 4765.112 or 55415
automatic suspension under section 4765.114 of the Revised Code 55416
remains in effect, unless reversed by the state board of emergency 55417
medical, fire, and transportation services, until a final 55418
adjudication order issued by the board pursuant to this section 55419
becomes effective.55420

       (C) Hearings requested pursuant to section 4765.112 or 55421
4765.114 of the Revised Code shall be conducted under this section 55422
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 55423

       (D) A hearing under this section shall be held not later than 55424
forty-five days but not earlier than forty days after the 55425
certificate holder requests it, unless another date is agreed to 55426
by the certificate holder and the board. 55427

       (E) After completion of an adjudication hearing, the board 55428
may adopt, by an affirmative vote of the majority of its members, 55429
a final adjudication order that imposes any of the following 55430
sanctions:55431

       (1) Suspension of the holder's certificate to practice;55432

       (2) Revocation of the holder's certificate to practice;55433

       (3) Issuance of a written reprimand;55434

       (4) A refusal to renew or a limitation on the holder's 55435
certificate to practice.55436

       The board shall issue its final adjudication order not later 55437
than forty-five days after completion of an adjudication hearing. 55438
If the board does not issue a final order within that time period, 55439
the suspension order is void, but any final adjudication order 55440
subsequently issued is not affected.55441

       (F) Any action taken by the board under this section 55442
resulting in a suspension from practice shall be accompanied by a 55443
written statement of the conditions under which the certificate to 55444
practice may be reinstated. Reinstatement of a certificate 55445
suspended under this section requires an affirmative vote by the 55446
majority of the members of the board. 55447

       (G) When the board revokes or refuses to reinstate a 55448
certificate to practice, the board may specify that its action is 55449
permanent. An individual subject to permanent action taken by the 55450
board is forever ineligible to hold a certificate of the type 55451
revoked or refused, and the board shall not accept from the 55452
individual an application for reinstatement of the certificate or 55453
for a new certificate.55454

       Sec. 4765.116.  If a certificate holder subject to a 55455
suspension order issued by the state board of emergency medical, 55456
fire, and transportation services under section 4765.112 or an 55457
automatic suspension order under section 4765.114 of the Revised 55458
Code fails to make a timely request for a hearing, the following 55459
apply:55460

       (A) In the case of a certificate holder subject to a summary 55461
suspension order, the board is not required to hold a hearing, but 55462
may adopt, by an affirmative vote of a majority of its members, a 55463
final order that contains the board's findings. In the final 55464
order, the board may order any of the sanctions listed in division 55465
(E) of section 4765.115 of the Revised Code. 55466

       (B) In the case of a certificate holder subject to an 55467
automatic suspension order, the board may adopt, by an affirmative 55468
vote of a majority of its members, a final order that permanently 55469
revokes the holder's certificate to practice.55470

       Sec. 4765.12.  (A) Not later than two years after the 55471
effective date of this sectionNovember 3, 2000, the state board 55472
of emergency medical and transportation services shall develop and 55473
distribute guidelines for the care of trauma victims by emergency 55474
medical service personnel and for the conduct of peer review and 55475
quality assurance programs by emergency medical service 55476
organizations. The guidelines shall be consistent with the state 55477
trauma triage protocols adopted in rules under sections 4765.11 55478
and 4765.40 of the Revised Code and shall place emphasis on the 55479
special needs of pediatric and geriatric trauma victims. In 55480
developing the guidelines, the board shall consult with entities 55481
with interests in trauma and emergency medical services and shall 55482
consider any relevant guidelines adopted by national 55483
organizations, including the American college of surgeons, 55484
American college of emergency physicians, and American academy of 55485
pediatrics. The board shall distribute the guidelines, and 55486
amendments to the guidelines, to each emergency medical service 55487
organization, regional director, regional physician advisory 55488
board, certified emergency medical service instructor, and person 55489
who regularly provides medical direction to emergency medical 55490
service personnel in this state.55491

       (B) Not later than three years after the effective date of 55492
this sectionNovember 3, 2000, each emergency medical service 55493
organization in this state shall implement ongoing peer review and 55494
quality assurance programs designed to improve the availability 55495
and quality of the emergency medical services it provides. The 55496
form and content of the programs shall be determined by each 55497
emergency medical service organization. In implementing the 55498
programs, each emergency medical service organization shall 55499
consider how to improve its ability to provide effective trauma 55500
care, particularly for pediatric and geriatric trauma victims, and 55501
shall take into account the trauma care guidelines developed by 55502
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation55503
services under this section.55504

       Information generated solely for use in a peer review or 55505
quality assurance program conducted on behalf of an emergency 55506
medical service organization is not a public record under section 55507
149.43 of the Revised Code. Such information, and any discussion 55508
conducted in the course of a peer review or quality assurance 55509
program conducted on behalf of an emergency medical service 55510
organization, is not subject to discovery in a civil action and 55511
shall not be introduced into evidence in a civil action against 55512
the emergency medical service organization on whose behalf the 55513
information was generated or the discussion occurred.55514

       No emergency medical service organization on whose behalf a 55515
peer review or quality assurance program is conducted, and no 55516
person who conducts such a program, because of performing such 55517
functions, shall be liable in a civil action for betrayal of 55518
professional confidence or otherwise in the absence of willful or 55519
wanton misconduct.55520

       Sec. 4765.15.  A person seeking to operate an emergency 55521
medical services training program shall submit a completed 55522
application for accreditation to the state board of emergency 55523
medical, fire, and transportation services on a form the board 55524
shall prescribe and furnish. The application shall be accompanied 55525
by the appropriate application fee established in rules adopted 55526
under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.55527

       A person seeking to operate an emergency medical services 55528
continuing education program shall submit a completed application 55529
for approval to the board on a form the board shall prescribe and 55530
furnish. The application shall be accompanied by the appropriate 55531
application fee established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 55532
of the Revised Code.55533

       The board shall administer the accreditation and approval 55534
processes pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the 55535
Revised Code. In administering these processes, the board may 55536
authorize other persons to evaluate applications for accreditation 55537
or approval and may accept the recommendations made by those 55538
persons.55539

       The board may cause an investigation to be made into the 55540
accuracy of the information submitted in any application for 55541
accreditation or approval. If an investigation indicates that 55542
false, misleading, or incomplete information has been submitted to 55543
the board in connection with any application for accreditation or 55544
approval, the board shall conduct a hearing on the matter in 55545
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.55546

       Sec. 4765.16.  (A) All courses offered through an emergency 55547
medical services training program or an emergency medical services 55548
continuing education program, other than ambulance driving, shall 55549
be developed under the direction of a physician who specializes in 55550
emergency medicine. Each course that deals with trauma care shall 55551
be developed in consultation with a physician who specializes in 55552
trauma surgery. Except as specified by the state board of 55553
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services pursuant to 55554
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code, each 55555
course offered through a training program or continuing education 55556
program shall be taught by a person who holds the appropriate 55557
certificate to teach issued under section 4765.23 of the Revised 55558
Code.55559

       (B) A training program for first responders shall meet the 55560
standards established in rules adopted by the board under section 55561
4765.11 of the Revised Code. The program shall include courses in 55562
both of the following areas for at least the number of hours 55563
established by the board's rules:55564

       (1) Emergency victim care;55565

       (2) Reading and interpreting a trauma victim's vital signs.55566

       (C) A training program for emergency medical 55567
technicians-basic shall meet the standards established in rules 55568
adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. 55569
The program shall include courses in each of the following areas 55570
for at least the number of hours established by the board's rules:55571

       (1) Emergency victim care;55572

       (2) Reading and interpreting a trauma victim's vital signs;55573

       (3) Triage protocols for adult and pediatric trauma victims;55574

       (4) In-hospital training;55575

       (5) Clinical training;55576

       (6) Training as an ambulance driver.55577

       Each operator of a training program for emergency medical 55578
technicians-basic shall allow any pupil in the twelfth grade in a 55579
secondary school who is at least seventeen years old and who 55580
otherwise meets the requirements for admission into such a 55581
training program to be admitted to and complete the program and, 55582
as part of the training, to ride in an ambulance with emergency 55583
medical technicians-basic, emergency medical 55584
technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 55585
technicians-paramedic. Each emergency medical service organization 55586
shall allow pupils participating in training programs to ride in 55587
an ambulance with emergency medical technicians-basic, advanced 55588
emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 55589
technicians-paramedic.55590

       (D) A training program for emergency medical 55591
technicians-intermediate shall meet the standards established in 55592
rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised 55593
Code. The program shall include, or require as a prerequisite, the 55594
training specified in division (C) of this section and courses in 55595
each of the following areas for at least the number of hours 55596
established by the board's rules:55597

       (1) Recognizing symptoms of life-threatening allergic 55598
reactions and in calculating proper dosage levels and 55599
administering injections of epinephrine to persons who suffer 55600
life-threatening allergic reactions, conducted in accordance with 55601
rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised 55602
Code;55603

       (2) Venous access procedures;55604

       (3) Cardiac monitoring and electrical interventions to 55605
support or correct the cardiac function.55606

       (E) A training program for emergency medical 55607
technicians-paramedic shall meet the standards established in 55608
rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised 55609
Code. The program shall include, or require as a prerequisite, the 55610
training specified in divisions (C) and (D) of this section and 55611
courses in each of the following areas for at least the number of 55612
hours established by the board's rules:55613

       (1) Medical terminology;55614

       (2) Venous access procedures;55615

       (3) Airway procedures;55616

       (4) Patient assessment and triage;55617

       (5) Acute cardiac care, including administration of 55618
parenteral injections, electrical interventions, and other 55619
emergency medical services;55620

       (6) Emergency and trauma victim care beyond that required 55621
under division (C) of this section;55622

       (7) Clinical training beyond that required under division (C) 55623
of this section.55624

       (F) A continuing education program for first responders, 55625
EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, or paramedics shall meet the standards 55626
established in rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of 55627
the Revised Code. A continuing education program shall include 55628
instruction and training in subjects established by the board's 55629
rules for at least the number of hours established by the board's 55630
rules.55631

       Sec. 4765.17.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 55632
fire, and transportation services shall issue the appropriate 55633
certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval to an 55634
applicant who is of good reputation and meets the requirements of 55635
section 4765.16 of the Revised Code. The board shall grant or deny 55636
a certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval within 55637
one hundred twenty days of receipt of the application. The board 55638
may issue or renew a certificate of accreditation or certificate 55639
of approval on a provisional basis to an applicant who is of good 55640
reputation and is in substantial compliance with the requirements 55641
of section 4765.16 of the Revised Code. The board shall inform an 55642
applicant receiving such a certificate of the conditions that must 55643
be met to complete compliance with section 4765.16 of the Revised 55644
Code.55645

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, a 55646
certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval is valid 55647
for up to five years and may be renewed by the board pursuant to 55648
procedures and standards established in rules adopted under 55649
section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. An application for renewal 55650
shall be accompanied by the appropriate renewal fee established in 55651
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.55652

       (C) A certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval 55653
issued on a provisional basis is valid for the length of time 55654
established by the board. If the board finds that the holder of 55655
such a certificate has met the conditions it specifies under 55656
division (A) of this section, the board shall issue the 55657
appropriate certificate of accreditation or certificate of 55658
approval.55659

       (D) A certificate of accreditation is valid only for the 55660
emergency medical services training program or programs for which 55661
it is issued. The holder of a certificate of accreditation may 55662
apply to operate additional training programs in accordance with 55663
rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised 55664
Code. Any additional training programs shall expire on the 55665
expiration date of the applicant's current certificate. A 55666
certificate of approval is valid only for the emergency medical 55667
services continuing education program for which it is issued. 55668
Neither is transferable.55669

       (E) The holder of a certificate of accreditation or a 55670
certificate of approval may offer courses at more than one 55671
location in accordance with rules adopted under section 4765.11 of 55672
the Revised Code.55673

       Sec. 4765.18.  The state board of emergency medical, fire, 55674
and transportation services may suspend or revoke a certificate of 55675
accreditation or a certificate of approval issued under section 55676
4765.17 of the Revised Code for any of the following reasons:55677

       (A) Violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it;55678

       (B) Furnishing of false, misleading, or incomplete 55679
information to the board;55680

       (C) The signing of an application or the holding of a 55681
certificate of accreditation by a person who has pleaded guilty to 55682
or has been convicted of a felony, or has pleaded guilty to or 55683
been convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude;55684

       (D) The signing of an application or the holding of a 55685
certificate of accreditation by a person who is addicted to the 55686
use of any controlled substance or has been adjudicated 55687
incompetent for that purpose by a court, as provided in section 55688
5122.301 of the Revised Code;55689

       (E) Violation of any commitment made in an application for a 55690
certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval;55691

       (F) Presentation to prospective students of misleading, 55692
false, or fraudulent information relating to the emergency medical 55693
services training program or emergency medical services continuing 55694
education program, employment opportunities, or opportunities for 55695
enrollment in accredited institutions of higher education after 55696
entering or completing courses offered by the operator of a 55697
program;55698

       (G) Failure to maintain in a safe and sanitary condition 55699
premises and equipment used in conducting courses of study;55700

       (H) Failure to maintain financial resources adequate for the 55701
satisfactory conduct of courses of study or to retain a sufficient 55702
number of certified instructors;55703

       (I) Discrimination in the acceptance of students upon the 55704
basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.55705

       Sec. 4765.22. A person seeking a certificate to teach in an 55706
emergency medical services training program or an emergency 55707
medical services continuing education program shall submit a 55708
completed application for certification to the state board of 55709
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services on a form the 55710
board shall prescribe and furnish. The application shall be 55711
accompanied by the appropriate application fee established in 55712
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.55713

       Sec. 4765.23.  The state board of emergency medical, fire, 55714
and transportation services shall issue a certificate to teach in 55715
an emergency medical services training program or an emergency 55716
medical services continuing education program to any applicant who 55717
it determines meets the qualifications established in rules 55718
adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. The certificate 55719
shall indicate each type of instruction and training the 55720
certificate holder may teach under the certificate.55721

       A certificate to teach shall have a certification cycle 55722
established by the board and may be renewed by the board pursuant 55723
to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. An 55724
application for renewal shall be accompanied by the appropriate 55725
renewal fee established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of 55726
the Revised Code.55727

       The board may suspend or revoke a certificate to teach 55728
pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 55729
Code.55730

       Sec. 4765.28.  A person seeking a certificate to practice as 55731
a first responder, emergency medical technician-basic, emergency 55732
medical technician-intermediate, or emergency medical 55733
technician-paramedic shall submit a completed application for 55734
certification to the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 55735
transportation services on a form the board shall prescribe and 55736
furnish. Except as provided in division (B) of section 4765.29 of 55737
the Revised Code, the application shall include evidence that the 55738
applicant received the appropriate certificate of completion 55739
pursuant to section 4765.24 of the Revised Code. The application 55740
shall be accompanied by the appropriate application fee 55741
established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 55742
Code, unless the board waives the fee on determining pursuant to 55743
those rules that the applicant cannot afford to pay the fee.55744

       Sec. 4765.29.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 55745
fire, and transportation services shall provide for the 55746
examination of applicants for certification to practice as first 55747
responders, emergency medical technicians-basic, emergency medical 55748
technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 55749
technicians-paramedic. The examinations shall be established by 55750
the board in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 55751
Code. The board may administer the examinations or contract with 55752
other persons to administer the examinations. In either case, the 55753
examinations shall be administered pursuant to procedures 55754
established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 55755
Code and shall be offered at various locations in the state 55756
selected by the board.55757

       Except as provided in division (B) of this section, an 55758
applicant shall not be permitted to take an examination for the 55759
same certificate to practice more than three times since last 55760
receiving the certificate of completion pursuant to section 55761
4765.24 of the Revised Code that qualifies the applicant to take 55762
the examination unless the applicant receives another certificate 55763
of completion that qualifies the applicant to take the 55764
examination.55765

       (B) On request of an applicant who fails three examinations 55766
for the same certificate to practice, the board may direct the 55767
applicant to complete a specific portion of an accredited 55768
emergency medical services training program. If the applicant 55769
provides satisfactory proof to the board that the applicant has 55770
successfully completed that portion of the program, the applicant 55771
shall be permitted to take the examination.55772

       Sec. 4765.30.  (A)(1) The state board of emergency medical, 55773
fire, and transportation services shall issue a certificate to 55774
practice as a first responder to an applicant who meets all of the 55775
following conditions:55776

       (a) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, is 55777
a volunteer for a nonprofit emergency medical service organization 55778
or a nonprofit fire department;55779

       (b) Holds the appropriate certificate of completion issued in 55780
accordance with section 4765.24 of the Revised Code;55781

       (c) Passes the appropriate examination conducted under 55782
section 4765.29 of the Revised Code;55783

       (d) Is not in violation of any provision of this chapter or 55784
the rules adopted under it;55785

       (e) Meets any other certification requirements established in 55786
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.55787

       (2) The board may waive the requirement to be a volunteer for 55788
a nonprofit entity if the applicant meets other requirements 55789
established in rules adopted under division (B)(3) of section 55790
4765.11 of the Revised Code relative to a person's eligibility to 55791
practice as a first responder.55792

       (B) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 55793
transportation services shall issue a certificate to practice as 55794
an emergency medical technician-basic to an applicant who meets 55795
all of the following conditions:55796

       (1) Holds a certificate of completion in emergency medical 55797
services training-basic issued in accordance with section 4765.24 55798
of the Revised Code;55799

       (2) Passes the examination for emergency medical 55800
technicians-basic conducted under section 4765.29 of the Revised 55801
Code;55802

       (3) Is not in violation of any provision of this chapter or 55803
the rules adopted under it;55804

       (4) Meets any other certification requirements established in 55805
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.55806

       (C) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 55807
transportation services shall issue a certificate to practice as 55808
an emergency medical technician-intermediate or emergency medical 55809
technician-paramedic to an applicant who meets all of the 55810
following conditions:55811

       (1) Holds a certificate to practice as an emergency medical 55812
technician-basic;55813

       (2) Holds the appropriate certificate of completion issued in 55814
accordance with section 4765.24 of the Revised Code;55815

       (3) Passes the appropriate examination conducted under 55816
section 4765.29 of the Revised Code;55817

       (4) Is not in violation of any provision of this chapter or 55818
the rules adopted under it;55819

       (5) Meets any other certification requirements established in 55820
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.55821

       (D) A certificate to practice shall have a certification 55822
cycle established by the board and may be renewed by the board 55823
pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 55824
Code. Not later than sixty days prior to the expiration date of an 55825
individual's certificate to practice, the board shall notify the 55826
individual of the scheduled expiration.55827

       An application for renewal shall be accompanied by the 55828
appropriate renewal fee established in rules adopted under section 55829
4765.11 of the Revised Code, unless the board waives the fee on 55830
determining pursuant to those rules that the applicant cannot 55831
afford to pay the fee. Except as provided in division (B) of 55832
section 4765.31 of the Revised Code, the application shall include 55833
evidence of either of the following:55834

       (1) That the applicant received a certificate of completion 55835
from the appropriate emergency medical services continuing 55836
education program pursuant to section 4765.24 of the Revised Code;55837

       (2) That the applicant has successfully passed an examination 55838
that demonstrates the competence to have a certificate renewed 55839
without completing an emergency medical services continuing 55840
education program. The board shall approve such examinations in 55841
accordance with rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 55842
Code.55843

       (E) The board shall not require an applicant for renewal of a 55844
certificate to practice to take an examination as a condition of 55845
renewing the certificate. This division does not preclude the use 55846
of examinations by operators of approved emergency medical 55847
services continuing education programs as a condition for issuance 55848
of a certificate of completion in emergency medical services 55849
continuing education.55850

       Sec. 4765.31.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 55851
section, a first responder, emergency medical technician-basic, 55852
emergency medical technician-intermediate, and emergency medical 55853
technician-paramedic shall complete an emergency medical services 55854
continuing education program or pass an examination approved by 55855
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation55856
services under division (A) of section 4765.10 of the Revised Code 55857
prior to the expiration of the individual's certificate to 55858
practice. Completion of the continuing education requirements for 55859
EMTs-I or paramedics satisfies the continuing education 55860
requirements for renewing the certificate to practice as an 55861
EMT-basic held by an EMT-I or paramedic.55862

       (B)(1) An applicant for renewal of a certificate to practice 55863
may apply to the board, in writing, for an extension to complete 55864
the continuing education requirements established under division 55865
(A) of this section. The board may grant such an extension and 55866
determine the length of the extension. The board may authorize the 55867
applicant to continue to practice during the extension as if the 55868
certificate to practice had not expired.55869

       (2) An applicant for renewal of a certificate to practice may 55870
apply to the board, in writing, for an exemption from the 55871
continuing education requirements established under division (A) 55872
of this section. The board may exempt an individual or a group of 55873
individuals from all or any part of the continuing education 55874
requirements due to active military service, unusual circumstance, 55875
emergency, special hardship, or any other cause considered 55876
reasonable by the board.55877

       (C) Decisions of whether to grant an extension or exemption 55878
under division (B) of this section shall be made by the board 55879
pursuant to procedures established in rules adopted under section 55880
4765.11 of the Revised Code.55881

       Sec. 4765.32.  A current, valid certificate of accreditation 55882
issued under the provisions of former section 3303.11 or 3303.23 55883
of the Revised Code shall remain valid until one year after the 55884
expiration date of the certificate as determined by the provisions 55885
of those sections and shall confer the same privileges and impose 55886
the same responsibilities and requirements as a certificate of 55887
accreditation issued by the state board of emergency medical, 55888
fire, and transportation services under section 4765.17 of the 55889
Revised Code.55890

       A certificate to practice as an emergency medical 55891
technician-ambulance that is valid on November 24, 1995, shall be 55892
considered a certificate to practice as an emergency medical 55893
technician-basic. A certificate to practice as an advanced 55894
emergency medical technician-ambulance that is valid on November 55895
24, 1995, shall be considered a certificate to practice as an 55896
emergency medical technician-intermediate.55897

       Sec. 4765.33.  The state board of emergency medical, fire, 55898
and transportation services may suspend or revoke certificates to 55899
practice issued under section 4765.30 of the Revised Code, and may 55900
take other disciplinary action against first responders, emergency 55901
medical technicians-basic, emergency medical 55902
technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 55903
technicians-paramedic pursuant to rules adopted under section 55904
4765.11 of the Revised Code.55905

       Sec. 4765.37.  (A) An emergency medical technician-basic 55906
shall perform the emergency medical services described in this 55907
section in accordance with this chapter and any rules adopted 55908
under it by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 55909
transportation services.55910

       (B) An emergency medical technician-basic may operate, or be 55911
responsible for operation of, an ambulance and may provide 55912
emergency medical services to patients. In an emergency, an 55913
EMT-basic may determine the nature and extent of illness or injury 55914
and establish priority for required emergency medical services. An 55915
EMT-basic may render emergency medical services such as opening 55916
and maintaining an airway, giving positive pressure ventilation, 55917
cardiac resuscitation, electrical interventions with automated 55918
defibrillators to support or correct the cardiac function and 55919
other methods determined by the board, controlling of hemorrhage, 55920
treatment of shock, immobilization of fractures, bandaging, 55921
assisting in childbirth, management of mentally disturbed 55922
patients, initial care of poison and burn patients, and 55923
determining triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims. Where 55924
patients must in an emergency be extricated from entrapment, an 55925
EMT-basic may assess the extent of injury and render all possible 55926
emergency medical services and protection to the entrapped 55927
patient; provide light rescue services if an ambulance has not 55928
been accompanied by a specialized unit; and after extrication, 55929
provide additional care in sorting of the injured in accordance 55930
with standard emergency procedures.55931

       (C) An EMT-basic may perform any other emergency medical 55932
services approved pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 55933
of the Revised Code. The board shall determine whether the nature 55934
of any such service requires that an EMT-basic receive 55935
authorization prior to performing the service.55936

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 55937
if the board determines under division (C) of this section that a 55938
service requires prior authorization, the service shall be 55939
performed only pursuant to the written or verbal authorization of 55940
a physician or of the cooperating physician advisory board, or 55941
pursuant to an authorization transmitted through a direct 55942
communication device by a physician or registered nurse designated 55943
by a physician.55944

       (2) If communications fail during an emergency situation or 55945
the required response time prohibits communication, an EMT-basic 55946
may perform services subject to this division, if, in the judgment 55947
of the EMT-basic, the life of the patient is in immediate danger. 55948
Services performed under these circumstances shall be performed in 55949
accordance with the protocols for triage of adult and pediatric 55950
trauma victims established in rules adopted under sections 4765.11 55951
and 4765.40 of the Revised Code and any applicable protocols 55952
adopted by the emergency medical service organization with which 55953
the EMT-basic is affiliated.55954

       Sec. 4765.38.  (A) An emergency medical 55955
technician-intermediate shall perform the emergency medical 55956
services described in this section in accordance with this chapter 55957
and any rules adopted under it.55958

       (B) An EMT-I may do any of the following:55959

       (1) Establish and maintain an intravenous lifeline that has 55960
been approved by a cooperating physician or physician advisory 55961
board;55962

       (2) Perform cardiac monitoring;55963

       (3) Perform electrical interventions to support or correct 55964
the cardiac function;55965

       (4) Administer epinephrine;55966

       (5) Determine triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims;55967

       (6) Perform any other emergency medical services approved 55968
pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 55969
Code.55970

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 55971
the services described in division (B) of this section shall be 55972
performed by an EMT-I only pursuant to the written or verbal 55973
authorization of a physician or of the cooperating physician 55974
advisory board, or pursuant to an authorization transmitted 55975
through a direct communication device by a physician or registered 55976
nurse designated by a physician.55977

       (2) If communications fail during an emergency situation or 55978
the required response time prohibits communication, an EMT-I may 55979
perform any of the services described in division (B) of this 55980
section, if, in the judgment of the EMT-I, the life of the patient 55981
is in immediate danger. Services performed under these 55982
circumstances shall be performed in accordance with the protocols 55983
for triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims established in 55984
rules adopted under sections 4765.11 and 4765.40 of the Revised 55985
Code and any applicable protocols adopted by the emergency medical 55986
service organization with which the EMT-I is affiliated.55987

       (D) In addition to, and in the course of, providing emergency 55988
medical treatment, an emergency medical technician-intermediate 55989
may withdraw blood as provided under sections 1547.11, 4506.17, 55990
and 4511.19 of the Revised Code. An emergency medical 55991
technician-intermediate shall withdraw blood in accordance with 55992
this chapter and any rules adopted under it by the state board of 55993
emergency medical and transportation services. 55994

       Sec. 4765.39.  (A) An emergency medical technician-paramedic 55995
shall perform the emergency medical services described in this 55996
section in accordance with this chapter and any rules adopted 55997
under it.55998

       (B) A paramedic may do any of the following:55999

       (1) Perform cardiac monitoring;56000

       (2) Perform electrical interventions to support or correct 56001
the cardiac function;56002

       (3) Perform airway procedures;56003

       (4) Perform relief of pneumothorax;56004

       (5) Administer appropriate drugs and intravenous fluids;56005

       (6) Determine triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims;56006

       (7) Perform any other emergency medical services, including 56007
life support or intensive care techniques, approved pursuant to 56008
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.56009

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 56010
the services described in division (B) of this section shall be 56011
performed by a paramedic only pursuant to the written or verbal 56012
authorization of a physician or of the cooperating physician 56013
advisory board, or pursuant to an authorization transmitted 56014
through a direct communication device by a physician or registered 56015
nurse designated by a physician.56016

       (2) If communications fail during an emergency situation or 56017
the required response time prohibits communication, a paramedic 56018
may perform any of the services described in division (B) of this 56019
section, if, in the paramedic's judgment, the life of the patient 56020
is in immediate danger. Services performed under these 56021
circumstances shall be performed in accordance with the protocols 56022
for triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims established in 56023
rules adopted under sections 4765.11 and 4765.40 of the Revised 56024
Code and any applicable protocols adopted by the emergency medical 56025
service organization with which the paramedic is affiliated.56026

       (D) In addition to, and in the course of, providing emergency 56027
medical treatment, an emergency medical technician-paramedic may 56028
withdraw blood as provided under sections 1547.11, 4506.17, and 56029
4511.19 of the Revised Code. An emergency medical 56030
technician-paramedic shall withdraw blood in accordance with this 56031
chapter and any rules adopted under it by the state board of 56032
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services.56033

       Sec. 4765.40.  (A)(1) Not later than two years after the 56034
effective date of this amendmentNovember 3, 2000, the state board 56035
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall 56036
adopt rules under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code establishing 56037
written protocols for the triage of adult and pediatric trauma 56038
victims. The rules shall define adult and pediatric trauma in a 56039
manner that is consistent with section 4765.01 of the Revised 56040
Code, minimizes overtriage and undertriage, and emphasizes the 56041
special needs of pediatric and geriatric trauma patients.56042

       (2) The state triage protocols adopted under division (A) of 56043
this section shall require a trauma victim to be transported 56044
directly to an adult or pediatric trauma center that is qualified 56045
to provide appropriate adult or pediatric trauma care, unless one 56046
or more of the following exceptions applies:56047

       (a) It is medically necessary to transport the victim to 56048
another hospital for initial assessment and stabilization before 56049
transfer to an adult or pediatric trauma center;56050

       (b) It is unsafe or medically inappropriate to transport the 56051
victim directly to an adult or pediatric trauma center due to 56052
adverse weather or ground conditions or excessive transport time;56053

       (c) Transporting the victim to an adult or pediatric trauma 56054
center would cause a shortage of local emergency medical service 56055
resources;56056

       (d) No appropriate adult or pediatric trauma center is able 56057
to receive and provide adult or pediatric trauma care to the 56058
trauma victim without undue delay;56059

       (e) Before transport of a patient begins, the patient 56060
requests to be taken to a particular hospital that is not a trauma 56061
center or, if the patient is less than eighteen years of age or is 56062
not able to communicate, such a request is made by an adult member 56063
of the patient's family or a legal representative of the patient.56064

       (3)(a) The state triage protocols adopted under division (A) 56065
of this section shall require trauma patients to be transported to 56066
an adult or pediatric trauma center that is able to provide 56067
appropriate adult or pediatric trauma care, but shall not require 56068
a trauma patient to be transported to a particular trauma center. 56069
The state triage protocols shall establish one or more procedures 56070
for evaluating whether an injury victim requires or would benefit 56071
from adult or pediatric trauma care, which procedures shall be 56072
applied by emergency medical service personnel based on the 56073
patient's medical needs. In developing state trauma triage 56074
protocols, the board shall consider relevant model triage rules 56075
and shall consult with the commission on minority health, regional 56076
directors, regional physician advisory boards, and appropriate 56077
medical, hospital, and emergency medical service organizations.56078

       (b) Before the joint committee on agency rule review 56079
considers state triage protocols for trauma victims proposed by 56080
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation56081
services, or amendments thereto, the board shall send a copy of 56082
the proposal to the Ohio chapter of the American college of 56083
emergency physicians, the Ohio chapter of the American college of 56084
surgeons, the Ohio chapter of the American academy of pediatrics, 56085
OHA: the association for hospitals and health systems, the Ohio 56086
osteopathic association, and the association of Ohio children's 56087
hospitals and shall hold a public hearing at which it must 56088
consider the appropriateness of the protocols to minimize 56089
overtriage and undertriage of trauma victims.56090

       (c) The board shall provide copies of the state triage 56091
protocols, and amendments to the protocols, to each emergency 56092
medical service organization, regional director, regional 56093
physician advisory board, certified emergency medical service 56094
instructor, and person who regularly provides medical direction to 56095
emergency medical service personnel in the state; to each medical 56096
service organization in other jurisdictions that regularly provide 56097
emergency medical services in this state; and to others upon 56098
request.56099

       (B)(1) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 56100
transportation services shall approve regional protocols for the 56101
triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims, and amendments to 56102
such protocols, that are submitted to the board as provided in 56103
division (B)(2) of this section and provide a level of adult and 56104
pediatric trauma care comparable to the state triage protocols 56105
adopted under division (A) of this section. The board shall not 56106
otherwise approve regional triage protocols for trauma victims. 56107
The board shall not approve regional triage protocols for regions 56108
that overlap and shall resolve any such disputes by apportioning 56109
the overlapping territory among appropriate regions in a manner 56110
that best serves the medical needs of the residents of that 56111
territory. The trauma committee of the board shall have reasonable 56112
opportunity to review and comment on regional triage protocols and 56113
amendments to such protocols before the board approves or 56114
disapproves them.56115

       (2) Regional protocols for the triage of adult and pediatric 56116
trauma victims, and amendments to such protocols, shall be 56117
submitted in writing to the state board of emergency medical, 56118
fire, and transportation services by the regional physician 56119
advisory board or regional director, as appropriate, that serves a 56120
majority of the population in the region in which the protocols 56121
apply. Prior to submitting regional triage protocols, or an 56122
amendment to such protocols, to the state board of emergency 56123
medical, fire, and transportation services, a regional physician 56124
advisory board or regional director shall consult with each of the 56125
following that regularly serves the region in which the protocols 56126
apply:56127

       (a) Other regional physician advisory boards and regional 56128
directors;56129

       (b) Hospitals that operate an emergency facility;56130

       (c) Adult and pediatric trauma centers;56131

       (d) Professional societies of physicians who specialize in 56132
adult or pediatric emergency medicine or adult or pediatric trauma 56133
surgery;56134

       (e) Professional societies of nurses who specialize in adult 56135
or pediatric emergency nursing or adult or pediatric trauma 56136
surgery;56137

       (f) Professional associations or labor organizations of 56138
emergency medical service personnel;56139

       (g) Emergency medical service organizations and medical 56140
directors of such organizations;56141

       (h) Certified emergency medical service instructors.56142

       (3) Regional protocols for the triage of adult and pediatric 56143
trauma victims approved under division (B)(2) of this section 56144
shall require patients to be transported to a trauma center that 56145
is able to provide an appropriate level of adult or pediatric 56146
trauma care; shall not discriminate among trauma centers for 56147
reasons not related to a patient's medical needs; shall seek to 56148
minimize undertriage and overtriage; may include any of the 56149
exceptions in division (A)(2) of this section; and supersede the 56150
state triage protocols adopted under division (A) of this section 56151
in the region in which the regional protocols apply.56152

       (4) Upon approval of regional protocols for the triage of 56153
adult and pediatric trauma victims under division (B)(2) of this 56154
section, or an amendment to such protocols, the state board of 56155
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall provide 56156
written notice of the approval and a copy of the protocols or 56157
amendment to each entity in the region in which the protocols 56158
apply to which the board is required to send a copy of the state 56159
triage protocols adopted under division (A) of this section.56160

       (C)(1) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 56161
transportation services shall review the state triage protocols 56162
adopted under division (A) of this section at least every three 56163
years to determine if they are causing overtriage or undertriage 56164
of trauma patients, and shall modify them as necessary to minimize 56165
overtriage and undertriage.56166

       (2) Each regional physician advisory board or regional 56167
director that has had regional triage protocols approved under 56168
division (B)(2) of this section shall review the protocols at 56169
least every three years to determine if they are causing 56170
overtriage or undertriage of trauma patients and shall submit an 56171
appropriate amendment to the state board, as provided in division 56172
(B) of this section, as necessary to minimize overtriage and 56173
undertriage. The state board shall approve the amendment if it 56174
will reduce overtriage or undertriage while complying with 56175
division (B) of this section, and shall not otherwise approve the 56176
amendment.56177

       (D) No provider of emergency medical services or person who 56178
provides medical direction to emergency medical service personnel 56179
in this state shall fail to comply with the state triage protocols 56180
adopted under division (A) of this section or applicable regional 56181
triage protocols approved under division (B)(2) of this section.56182

       (E) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 56183
transportation services shall adopt rules under section 4765.11 of 56184
the Revised Code that provide for enforcement of the state triage 56185
protocols adopted under division (A) of this section and regional 56186
triage protocols approved under division (B)(2) of this section, 56187
and for education regarding those protocols for emergency medical 56188
service organizations and personnel, regional directors and 56189
regional physician advisory boards, emergency medical service 56190
instructors, and persons who regularly provide medical direction 56191
to emergency medical service personnel in this state.56192

       Sec. 4765.42.  Each emergency medical service organization 56193
shall give notice of the name of its medical director or the names 56194
of the members of its cooperating physician advisory board to the 56195
state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation56196
services. The notice shall be made in writing.56197

       Sec. 4765.48.  The attorney general, the prosecuting attorney 56198
of the county, or the city director of law shall, upon complaint 56199
of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation56200
services, prosecute to termination or bring an action for 56201
injunction against any person violating this chapter or the rules 56202
adopted under it. The common pleas court in which an action for 56203
injunction is filed has the jurisdiction to grant injunctive 56204
relief upon a showing that the respondent named in the complaint 56205
is in violation of this chapter or the rules adopted under it.56206

       Sec. 4765.49.  (A) A first responder, emergency medical 56207
technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, or 56208
emergency medical technician-paramedic is not liable in damages in 56209
a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property 56210
resulting from the individual's administration of emergency 56211
medical services, unless the services are administered in a manner 56212
that constitutes willful or wanton misconduct. A physician or 56213
registered nurse designated by a physician, who is advising or 56214
assisting in the emergency medical services by means of any 56215
communication device or telemetering system, is not liable in 56216
damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or 56217
property resulting from the individual's advisory communication or 56218
assistance, unless the advisory communication or assistance is 56219
provided in a manner that constitutes willful or wanton 56220
misconduct. Medical directors and members of cooperating physician 56221
advisory boards of emergency medical service organizations are not 56222
liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to 56223
person or property resulting from their acts or omissions in the 56224
performance of their duties, unless the act or omission 56225
constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.56226

       (B) A political subdivision, joint ambulance district, joint 56227
emergency medical services district, or other public agency, and 56228
any officer or employee of a public agency or of a private 56229
organization operating under contract or in joint agreement with 56230
one or more political subdivisions, that provides emergency 56231
medical services, or that enters into a joint agreement or a 56232
contract with the state, any political subdivision, joint 56233
ambulance district, or joint emergency medical services district 56234
for the provision of emergency medical services, is not liable in 56235
damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or 56236
property arising out of any actions taken by a first responder, 56237
EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic working under the officer's or 56238
employee's jurisdiction, or for injury, death, or loss to person 56239
or property arising out of any actions of licensed medical 56240
personnel advising or assisting the first responder, EMT-basic, 56241
EMT-I, or paramedic, unless the services are provided in a manner 56242
that constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.56243

       (C) A student who is enrolled in an emergency medical 56244
services training program accredited under section 4765.17 of the 56245
Revised Code or an emergency medical services continuing education 56246
program approved under that section is not liable in damages in a 56247
civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property 56248
resulting from either of the following:56249

       (1) The student's administration of emergency medical 56250
services or patient care or treatment, if the services, care, or 56251
treatment is administered while the student is under the direct 56252
supervision and in the immediate presence of an EMT-basic, EMT-I, 56253
paramedic, registered nurse, or physician and while the student is 56254
receiving clinical training that is required by the program, 56255
unless the services, care, or treatment is provided in a manner 56256
that constitutes willful or wanton misconduct;56257

       (2) The student's training as an ambulance driver, unless the 56258
driving is done in a manner that constitutes willful or wanton 56259
misconduct.56260

       (D) An EMT-basic, EMT-I, paramedic, or other operator, who 56261
holds a valid commercial driver's license issued pursuant to 56262
Chapter 4506. of the Revised Code or driver's license issued 56263
pursuant to Chapter 4507. of the Revised Code and who is employed 56264
by an emergency medical service organization that is not owned or 56265
operated by a political subdivision as defined in section 2744.01 56266
of the Revised Code, is not liable in damages in a civil action 56267
for injury, death, or loss to person or property that is caused by 56268
the operation of an ambulance by the EMT-basic, EMT-I, paramedic, 56269
or other operator while responding to or completing a call for 56270
emergency medical services, unless the operation constitutes 56271
willful or wanton misconduct or does not comply with the 56272
precautions of section 4511.03 of the Revised Code. An emergency 56273
medical service organization is not liable in damages in a civil 56274
action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that 56275
is caused by the operation of an ambulance by its employee or 56276
agent, if this division grants the employee or agent immunity from 56277
civil liability for the injury, death, or loss.56278

       (E) An employee or agent of an emergency medical service 56279
organization who receives requests for emergency medical services 56280
that are directed to the organization, dispatches first 56281
responders, EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, or paramedics in response to those 56282
requests, communicates those requests to those employees or agents 56283
of the organization who are authorized to dispatch first 56284
responders, EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, or paramedics, or performs any 56285
combination of these functions for the organization, is not liable 56286
in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person 56287
or property resulting from the individual's acts or omissions in 56288
the performance of those duties for the organization, unless an 56289
act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.56290

       (F) A person who is performing the functions of a first 56291
responder, EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic under the authority of 56292
the laws of a state that borders this state and who provides 56293
emergency medical services to or transportation of a patient in 56294
this state is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, 56295
death, or loss to person or property resulting from the person's 56296
administration of emergency medical services, unless the services 56297
are administered in a manner that constitutes willful or wanton 56298
misconduct. A physician or registered nurse designated by a 56299
physician, who is licensed to practice in the adjoining state and 56300
who is advising or assisting in the emergency medical services by 56301
means of any communication device or telemetering system is not 56302
liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to 56303
person or property resulting from the person's advisory 56304
communication or assistance, unless the advisory communication or 56305
assistance is provided in a manner that constitutes willful or 56306
wanton misconduct.56307

       (G) A person certified under section 4765.23 of the Revised 56308
Code to teach in an emergency medical services training program or 56309
emergency medical services continuing education program, and a 56310
person who teaches at the Ohio fire academy established under 56311
section 3737.33 of the Revised Code or in a fire service training 56312
program described in division (A) of section 4765.55 of the 56313
Revised Code, is not liable in damages in a civil action for 56314
injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting from the 56315
person's acts or omissions in the performance of the person's 56316
duties, unless an act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 56317
misconduct.56318

       (H) In the accreditation of emergency medical services 56319
training programs or approval of emergency medical services 56320
continuing education programs, the state board of emergency 56321
medical, fire, and transportation services and any person or 56322
entity authorized by the board to evaluate applications for 56323
accreditation or approval are not liable in damages in a civil 56324
action for injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting 56325
from their acts or omissions in the performance of their duties, 56326
unless an act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 56327
misconduct.56328

       (I) A person authorized by an emergency medical service 56329
organization to review the performance of first responders, 56330
EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, and paramedics or to administer quality 56331
assurance programs is not liable in damages in a civil action for 56332
injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting from the 56333
person's acts or omissions in the performance of the person's 56334
duties, unless an act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 56335
misconduct.56336

       Sec. 4765.55.  (A) The executive director of the state board 56337
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services, with the 56338
advice and counsel of the firefighter and fire safety inspector 56339
training committee of the state board of emergency medical, fire, 56340
and transportation services, shall assist in the establishment and 56341
maintenance by any state agency, or any county, township, city, 56342
village, school district, or educational service center of a fire 56343
service training program for the training of all persons in 56344
positions of any fire training certification level approved by the 56345
executive director, including full-time paid firefighters, 56346
part-time paid firefighters, volunteer firefighters, and, fire 56347
safety inspectors in this state. The executive director, with the 56348
advice and counsel of the committee, shall adopt rules to regulate 56349
those firefighter and fire safety inspector training programs, and 56350
other training programs approved by the executive director. The 56351
rules may include, but need not be limited to, training 56352
curriculum, certification examinations, training schedules, 56353
minimum hours of instruction, attendance requirements, required 56354
equipment and facilities, basic physical requirements, and methods 56355
of training for all persons in positions of any fire training 56356
certification level approved by the executive director, including 56357
full-time paid firefighters, part-time paid firefighters, 56358
volunteer firefighters, and fire safety inspectors. The rules 56359
adopted to regulate training programs for volunteer firefighters 56360
shall not require more than thirty-six hours of training.56361

       The executive director, with the advice and counsel of the 56362
committee, shall provide for the classification and chartering of 56363
fire service training programs in accordance with rules adopted 56364
under division (B) of this section, and may take action against 56365
any chartered training program or applicant, in accordance with 56366
rules adopted under divisions (B)(4) and (5) of this section, for 56367
failure to meet standards set by the adopted rules.56368

       (B) The executive director, with the advice and counsel of 56369
the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of 56370
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation56371
services, shall adopt, and may amend or rescind, rules under 56372
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish all of the 56373
following:56374

       (1) Requirements for, and procedures for chartering, the 56375
training programs regulated by this section;56376

       (2) Requirements for, and requirements and procedures for 56377
obtaining and renewing, an instructor certificate to teach the 56378
training programs and continuing education classes regulated by 56379
this section;56380

       (3) Requirements for, and requirements and procedures for 56381
obtaining and renewing, any of the fire training certificates 56382
regulated by this section;56383

       (4) Grounds and procedures for suspending, revoking, 56384
restricting, or refusing to issue or renew any of the certificates 56385
or charters regulated by this section, which grounds shall be 56386
limited to one of the following:56387

        (a) Failure to satisfy the education or training requirements 56388
of this section;56389

        (b) Conviction of a felony offense;56390

        (c) Conviction of a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;56391

        (d) Conviction of a misdemeanor committed in the course of 56392
practice;56393

        (e) In the case of a chartered training program or applicant, 56394
failure to meet standards set by the rules adopted under this 56395
division.56396

       (5) Grounds and procedures for imposing and collecting fines, 56397
not to exceed one thousand dollars, in relation to actions taken 56398
under division (B)(4) of this section against persons holding 56399
certificates and charters regulated by this section, the fines to 56400
be deposited into the trauma and emergency medical services fund 56401
established under section 4513.263 of the Revised Code;56402

       (6) Continuing education requirements for certificate 56403
holders, including a requirement that credit shall be granted for 56404
in-service training programs conducted by local entities;56405

       (7) Procedures for considering the granting of an extension 56406
or exemption of fire service continuing education requirements;56407

       (8) Certification cycles for which the certificates and 56408
charters regulated by this section are valid.56409

       (C) The executive director, with the advice and counsel of 56410
the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of 56411
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation56412
services, shall issue or renew an instructor certificate to teach 56413
the training programs and continuing education classes regulated 56414
by this section to any applicant that the executive director 56415
determines meets the qualifications established in rules adopted 56416
under division (B) of this section, and may take disciplinary 56417
action against an instructor certificate holder or applicant in 56418
accordance with rules adopted under division (B) of this section. 56419
The executive director, with the advice and counsel of the 56420
committee, shall charter or renew the charter of any training 56421
program that the executive director determines meets the 56422
qualifications established in rules adopted under division (B) of 56423
this section, and may take disciplinary action against the holder 56424
of a charter in accordance with rules adopted under division (B) 56425
of this section.56426

       (D) The executive director shall issue or renew a fire 56427
training certificate for a firefighter, a fire safety inspector, 56428
or another position of any fire training certification level 56429
approved by the executive director, to any applicant that the 56430
executive director determines meets the qualifications established 56431
in rules adopted under division (B) of this section and may take 56432
disciplinary actions against a certificate holder or applicant in 56433
accordance with rules adopted under division (B) of this section.56434

       (E) Certificates issued under this section shall be on a form 56435
prescribed by the executive director, with the advice and counsel 56436
of the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of 56437
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation56438
services.56439

       (F)(1) The executive director, with the advice and counsel of 56440
the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of 56441
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation56442
services, shall establish criteria for evaluating the standards 56443
maintained by other states and the branches of the United States 56444
military for firefighter, fire safety inspector, and fire 56445
instructor training programs, and other training programs 56446
recognized by the executive director, to determine whether the 56447
standards are equivalent to those established under this section 56448
and shall establish requirements and procedures for issuing a 56449
certificate to each person who presents proof to the executive 56450
director of having satisfactorily completed a training program 56451
that meets those standards.56452

       (2) The executive director, with the committee's advice and 56453
counsel, shall adopt rules establishing requirements and 56454
procedures for issuing a fire training certificate in lieu of 56455
completing a chartered training program.56456

       (G) Nothing in this section invalidates any other section of 56457
the Revised Code relating to the fire training academy. Section 56458
4765.11 of the Revised Code does not affect any powers and duties 56459
granted to the executive director under this section.56460

       Sec. 4765.56.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 56461
3123.43 of the Revised Code, the state board of emergency medical, 56462
fire, and transportation services shall comply with sections 56463
3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules 56464
adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to 56465
a certificate to practice issued pursuant to this chapter.56466

       Sec. 4766.01.  As used in this chapter:56467

       (A) "Advanced life support" means treatment described in 56468
section 4765.39 of the Revised Code that a paramedic is certified 56469
to perform.56470

       (B) "Air medical service organization" means an organization 56471
that furnishes, conducts, maintains, advertises, promotes, or 56472
otherwise engages in providing medical services with a rotorcraft 56473
air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance.56474

       (C) "Air medical transportation" means the transporting of a 56475
patient by rotorcraft air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance 56476
with appropriately licensed and certified medical personnel.56477

       (D) "Ambulance" means any motor vehicle that is specifically 56478
designed, constructed, or modified and equipped and is intended to 56479
be used to provide basic life support, intermediate life support, 56480
advanced life support, or mobile intensive care unit services and 56481
transportation upon the streets or highways of this state of 56482
persons who are seriously ill, injured, wounded, or otherwise 56483
incapacitated or helpless. "Ambulance" does not include air 56484
medical transportation or a vehicle designed and used solely for 56485
the transportation of nonstretcher-bound persons, whether 56486
hospitalized or handicapped or whether ambulatory or confined to a 56487
wheelchair.56488

       (E) "Ambulette" means a motor vehicle that is specifically 56489
designed, constructed, or modified and equipped and is intended to 56490
be used for transportation upon the streets or highways of this 56491
state of persons who require use of a wheelchair.56492

       (F) "Basic life support" means treatment described in section 56493
4765.37 of the Revised Code that an EMT-basicEMT is certified to 56494
perform.56495

       (G) "Disaster situation" means any condition or situation 56496
described by rule of the Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 56497
fire, and transportation boardservices as a mass casualty, major 56498
emergency, natural disaster, or national emergency.56499

       (H) "Emergency medical service organization" means an 56500
organization that uses EMTs-basicEMTs, EMTs-Iadvanced EMTs, or 56501
paramedics, or a combination of EMTs-basicEMTs, EMTs-Iadvanced 56502
EMTs, and paramedics, to provide medical care to victims of 56503
illness or injury. An emergency medical service organization 56504
includes, but is not limited to, a commercial ambulance service 56505
organization, a hospital, and a funeral home.56506

       (I) "EMT-basicEMT," "EMT-Iadvanced EMT," and "paramedic" 56507
have the same meanings as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.56508

       (J) "Fixed wing air ambulance" means a fixed wing aircraft 56509
that is specifically designed, constructed, or modified and 56510
equipped and is intended to be used as a means of air medical 56511
transportation.56512

       (K) "Intermediate life support" means treatment described in 56513
section 4765.38 of the Revised Code that an EMT-Iadvanced EMT is 56514
certified to perform.56515

       (L) "Major emergency" means any emergency event that cannot 56516
be resolved through the use of locally available emergency 56517
resources.56518

       (M) "Mass casualty" means an emergency event that results in 56519
ten or more persons being injured, incapacitated, made ill, or 56520
killed.56521

       (N) "Medical emergency" means an unforeseen event affecting 56522
an individual in such a manner that a need for immediate care is 56523
created.56524

       (O) "Mobile intensive care unit" means an ambulance used only 56525
for maintaining specialized or intensive care treatment and used 56526
primarily for interhospital transports of patients whose 56527
conditions require care beyond the scope of a paramedic as 56528
provided in section 4765.39 of the Revised Code.56529

       (P)(1) "Nonemergency medical service organization" means a 56530
person that does both of the following:56531

       (a) Provides services to the public on a regular basis for 56532
the purpose of transporting individuals who require the use of a 56533
wheelchair or are confined to a wheelchair to receive health care 56534
services at health care facilities or health care practitioners' 56535
offices in nonemergency circumstances;56536

       (b) Provides the services for a fee, regardless of whether 56537
the fee is paid by the person being transported, a third party 56538
payer, as defined in section 3702.51 of the Revised Code, or any 56539
other person or government entity.56540

       (2) "Nonemergency medical service organization" does not 56541
include a health care facility, as defined in section 1751.01 of 56542
the Revised Code, that provides ambulette services only to 56543
patients of that facility.56544

       (Q) "Nontransport vehicle" means a motor vehicle operated by 56545
a licensed emergency medical service organization not as an 56546
ambulance, but as a vehicle for providing services in conjunction 56547
with the ambulances operated by the organization or other 56548
emergency medical service organizations.56549

       (R) "Patient" means any individual who as a result of illness 56550
or injury needs medical attention, whose physical or mental 56551
condition is such that there is imminent danger of loss of life or 56552
significant health impairment, who may be otherwise incapacitated 56553
or helpless as a result of a physical or mental condition, or 56554
whose physical condition requires the use of a wheelchair.56555

       (S) "Rotorcraft air ambulance" means a helicopter or other 56556
aircraft capable of vertical takeoffs, vertical landings, and 56557
hovering that is specifically designed, constructed, or modified 56558
and equipped and is intended to be used as a means of air medical 56559
transportation.56560

       Sec. 4766.03.  (A) The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 56561
fire, and transportation boardservices shall adopt rules, in 56562
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, implementing the 56563
requirements of this chapter. The rules shall include provisions 56564
relating to the following:56565

       (1) Requirements for an emergency medical service 56566
organization to receive a permit for an ambulance or nontransport 56567
vehicle;56568

       (2) Requirements for an emergency medical service 56569
organization to receive a license as a basic life-support, 56570
intermediate life-support, advanced life-support, or mobile 56571
intensive care unit organization;56572

       (3) Requirements for a nonemergency medical service 56573
organization to receive a permit for an ambulette vehicle;56574

       (4) Requirements for a nonemergency medical service 56575
organization to receive a license for an ambulette service;56576

       (5) Requirements for an air medical service organization to 56577
receive a permit for a rotorcraft air ambulance or fixed wing air 56578
ambulance;56579

       (6) Requirements for licensure of air medical service 56580
organizations;56581

       (7) Forms for applications and renewals of licenses and 56582
permits;56583

       (8) Requirements for record keeping of service responses made 56584
by licensed emergency medical service organizations;56585

       (9) Fee amounts for licenses and permits, and their renewals;56586

       (10) Inspection requirements for licensees' vehicles or 56587
aircraft, records, and physical facilities;56588

       (11) Fee amounts for inspections of ambulances, ambulettes, 56589
rotorcraft air ambulances, fixed wing air ambulances, and 56590
nontransport vehicles;56591

       (12) Requirements for ambulances and nontransport vehicles 56592
used by licensed emergency medical service organizations, for 56593
ambulette vehicles used by licensed nonemergency medical service 56594
organizations, and for rotorcraft air ambulances or fixed wing air 56595
ambulances used by licensed air medical service organizations that 56596
specify for each type of vehicle or aircraft the types of 56597
equipment that must be carried, the communication systems that 56598
must be maintained, and the personnel who must staff the vehicle 56599
or aircraft;56600

       (13) The level of care each type of emergency medical service 56601
organization, nonemergency medical service organization, and air 56602
medical service organization is authorized to provide;56603

       (14) Eligibility requirements for employment as an ambulette 56604
driver, including grounds for disqualification due to the results 56605
of a motor vehicle law violation check, chemical test, or criminal 56606
records check. The rule may require that an applicant for 56607
employment as an ambulette driver provide a set of fingerprints to 56608
law enforcement authorities if the applicant comes under final 56609
consideration for employment.56610

       (15) Any other rules that the board determines necessary for 56611
the implementation and enforcement of this chapter.56612

       (B) In the rules for ambulances and nontransport vehicles 56613
adopted under division (A)(12) of this section, the board may 56614
establish requirements that vary according to whether the 56615
emergency medical service organization using the vehicles is 56616
licensed as a basic life-support, intermediate life-support, 56617
advanced life-support, or mobile intensive care unit organization.56618

       (C) A mobile intensive care unit that is not dually certified 56619
to provide advanced life-support and meets the requirements of the 56620
rules adopted under this section is not required to carry 56621
immobilization equipment, including board splint kits, traction 56622
splints, backboards, backboard straps, cervical immobilization 56623
devices, cervical collars, stair chairs, folding cots, or other 56624
types of immobilization equipment determined by the board to be 56625
unnecessary for mobile intensive care units.56626

       A mobile intensive care unit is exempt from the emergency 56627
medical technician staffing requirements of section 4765.43 of the 56628
Revised Code when it is staffed by at least one physician or 56629
registered nurse and another person, designated by a physician, 56630
who holds a valid license or certificate to practice in a health 56631
care profession, and when at least one of the persons staffing the 56632
mobile intensive care unit is a registered nurse whose training 56633
meets or exceeds the training required for a paramedic.56634

       Sec. 4766.04.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 56635
chapter, no person shall furnish, operate, conduct, maintain, 56636
advertise, engage in, or propose or profess to engage in the 56637
business or service in this state of transporting persons who are 56638
seriously ill, injured, or otherwise incapacitated or who require 56639
the use of a wheelchair or are confined to a wheelchair unless the 56640
person is licensed pursuant to this section.56641

       (B) To qualify for a license as a basic life-support, 56642
intermediate life-support, advanced life-support, or mobile 56643
intensive care unit organization, an emergency medical service 56644
organization shall do all of the following:56645

       (1) Apply for a permit for each ambulance and nontransport 56646
vehicle owned or leased as provided in section 4766.07 of the 56647
Revised Code;56648

       (2) Meet all requirements established in rules adopted by the 56649
Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation 56650
boardservices regarding ambulances and nontransport vehicles, 56651
including requirements pertaining to equipment, communications 56652
systems, staffing, and level of care the particular organization 56653
is permitted to render;56654

       (3) Maintain the appropriate type and amount of insurance as 56655
specified in section 4766.06 of the Revised Code;56656

       (4) Meet all other requirements established under rules 56657
adopted by the board for the particular license.56658

       (C) To qualify for a license to provide ambulette service, a 56659
nonemergency medical service organization shall do all of the 56660
following:56661

       (1) Apply for a permit for each ambulette owned or leased as 56662
provided in section 4766.07 of the Revised Code;56663

       (2) Meet all requirements established in rules adopted by the56664
Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation 56665
boardservices regarding ambulettes, including requirements 56666
pertaining to equipment, communication systems, staffing, and 56667
level of care the organization is permitted to render;56668

       (3) Maintain the appropriate type and amount of insurance as 56669
specified in section 4766.06 of the Revised Code;56670

       (4) Meet all other requirements established under rules 56671
adopted by the board for the license.56672

       (D) To qualify for a license to provide air medical 56673
transportation, an air medical service organization shall do all 56674
of the following:56675

       (1) Apply for a permit for each rotorcraft air ambulance and 56676
fixed wing air ambulance owned or leased as provided in section 56677
4766.07 of the Revised Code;56678

       (2) Meet all requirements established in rules adopted by the56679
Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation 56680
boardservices regarding rotorcraft air ambulances and fixed wing 56681
air ambulances, including requirements pertaining to equipment, 56682
communication systems, staffing, and level of care the 56683
organization is permitted to render;56684

       (3) Maintain the appropriate type and amount of insurance as 56685
specified in section 4766.06 of the Revised Code;56686

       (4) Meet all other requirements established under rules 56687
adopted by the board for the license.56688

       (E) An emergency medical service organization that applies 56689
for a license as a basic life-support, intermediate life-support, 56690
advanced life-support, or mobile intensive care unit organization; 56691
a nonemergency medical service organization that applies for a 56692
license to provide ambulette service; or an air medical service 56693
organization that applies for a license to provide air medical 56694
transportation shall submit a completed application to the board, 56695
on a form provided by the board for each particular license, 56696
together with the appropriate fees established under section 56697
4766.05 of the Revised Code. The application form shall include 56698
all of the following:56699

       (1) The name and business address of the operator of the 56700
organization for which licensure is sought;56701

       (2) The name under which the applicant will operate the 56702
organization;56703

       (3) A list of the names and addresses of all officers and 56704
directors of the organization;56705

       (4) For emergency medical service organizations and 56706
nonemergency medical service organizations, a description of each 56707
vehicle to be used, including the make, model, year of 56708
manufacture, mileage, vehicle identification number, and the color 56709
scheme, insignia, name, monogram, or other distinguishing 56710
characteristics to be used to designate the applicant's vehicle;56711

       (5) For air medical service organizations using fixed wing 56712
air ambulances, a description of each aircraft to be used, 56713
including the make, model, year of manufacture, and aircraft hours 56714
on airframe;56715

       (6) For air medical service organizations using rotorcraft 56716
air ambulances, a description of each aircraft to be used, 56717
including the make, model, year of manufacture, aircraft hours on 56718
airframe, aircraft identification number, and the color scheme, 56719
insignia, name, monogram, or other distinguishing characteristics 56720
to be used to designate the applicant's rotorcraft air ambulance;56721

       (7) The location and description of each place from which the 56722
organization will operate;56723

       (8) A description of the geographic area to be served by the 56724
applicant;56725

       (9) Any other information the board, by rule, determines 56726
necessary.56727

       (F) Within sixty days after receiving a completed application 56728
for licensure as a basic life-support, intermediate life-support, 56729
advanced life-support, or mobile intensive care unit organization; 56730
an ambulette service; or an air medical service organization, the 56731
board shall approve or deny the application. The board shall deny 56732
an application if it determines that the applicant does not meet 56733
the requirements of this chapter or any rules adopted under it. 56734
The board shall send notice of the denial of an application by 56735
certified mail to the applicant. The applicant may request a 56736
hearing within ten days after receipt of the notice. If the board 56737
receives a timely request, it shall hold a hearing in accordance 56738
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.56739

       (G) If an applicant or licensee operates or plans to operate 56740
an organization in more than one location under the same or 56741
different identities, the applicant or licensee shall apply for 56742
and meet all requirements for licensure or renewal of a license, 56743
other than payment of a license fee or renewal fee, for operating 56744
the organization at each separate location. An applicant or 56745
licensee that operates or plans to operate under the same 56746
organization identity in separate locations shall pay only a 56747
single license fee.56748

       (H) An emergency medical service organization that wishes to 56749
provide ambulette services to the public must apply for a separate 56750
license under division (C) of this section.56751

       (I) Each license issued under this section and each permit 56752
issued under section 4766.07 of the Revised Code expires one year 56753
after the date of issuance and may be renewed in accordance with 56754
the standard renewal procedures of Chapter 4745. of the Revised 56755
Code. An application for renewal shall include the license or 56756
permit renewal fee established under section 4766.05 of the 56757
Revised Code. An applicant for renewal of a permit also shall 56758
submit to the board proof of an annual inspection of the vehicle 56759
or aircraft for which permit renewal is sought. The board shall 56760
renew a license if the applicant meets the requirements for 56761
licensure and shall renew a permit if the applicant and vehicle or 56762
aircraft meet the requirements to maintain a permit for that 56763
vehicle or aircraft.56764

       (J) Each licensee shall maintain accurate records of all 56765
service responses conducted. The records shall be maintained on 56766
forms prescribed by the board and shall contain information as 56767
specified by rule by the board.56768

       Sec. 4766.05.  (A) The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 56769
fire, and transportation boardservices shall establish by rule a 56770
license fee, a permit fee for each ambulance, ambulette, 56771
rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and 56772
nontransport vehicle owned or leased by the licensee that is or 56773
will be used as provided in section 4766.07 of the Revised Code, 56774
and fees for renewals of licenses and permits, taking into 56775
consideration the actual costs incurred by the board in carrying 56776
out its duties under this chapter. However, the fee for each 56777
license and each renewal of a license shall not exceed one hundred 56778
dollars, and the fee for each permit and each renewal of a permit 56779
shall not exceed one hundred dollars for each ambulance, 56780
rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and 56781
nontransport vehicle. The fee for each permit and each renewal of 56782
a permit shall be twenty-five dollars for each ambulette for one 56783
year after March 9, 2004. Thereafter, the board shall determine by 56784
rule the fee, which shall not exceed fifty dollars, for each 56785
permit and each renewal of a permit for each ambulette. For 56786
purposes of establishing fees, "actual costs" includes the costs 56787
of salaries, expenses, inspection equipment, supervision, and 56788
program administration.56789

       (B) The board shall deposit all fees and other moneys 56790
collected pursuant to sections 4766.04, 4766.07, and 4766.08 of 56791
the Revised Code in the state treasury to the credit of the 56792
occupational licensingtrauma and regulatoryemergency medical 56793
services fund, which is created by section 4743.054513.263 of the 56794
Revised Code. All moneys from the fund shall be used solely for 56795
the salaries and expenses of the board incurred in implementing 56796
and enforcing this chapter.56797

       (C) The board, subject to the approval of the controlling 56798
board, may establish fees in excess of the maximum amounts allowed 56799
under division (A) of this section, but such fees shall not exceed 56800
those maximum amounts by more than fifty per cent.56801

       Sec. 4766.07.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by rule of 56802
the Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and56803
transportation boardservices, each emergency medical service 56804
organization, nonemergency medical service organization, and air 56805
medical service organization subject to licensure under this 56806
chapter shall possess a valid permit for each ambulance, 56807
ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and 56808
nontransport vehicle it owns or leases that is or will be used by 56809
the licensee to perform the services permitted by the license. 56810
Each licensee and license applicant shall submit the appropriate 56811
fee and an application for a permit for each ambulance, ambulette, 56812
rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and 56813
nontransport vehicle to the Ohiostate board of emergency56814
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices on forms provided 56815
by the board. The application shall include documentation that the 56816
vehicle or aircraft meets the appropriate standards set by the 56817
board, that the vehicle or aircraft has been inspected pursuant to 56818
division (C) of this section, that the permit applicant maintains 56819
insurance as provided in section 4766.06 of the Revised Code, and 56820
that the vehicle or aircraft and permit applicant meet any other 56821
requirements established under rules adopted by the board.56822

       The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and56823
transportation boardservices may adopt rules in accordance with 56824
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to authorize the temporary use of 56825
a vehicle or aircraft for which a permit is not possessed under 56826
this section in back-up or disaster situations.56827

       (B)(1) Within sixty days after receiving a completed 56828
application for a permit, the board shall issue or deny the 56829
permit. The board shall deny an application if it determines that 56830
the permit applicant, vehicle, or aircraft does not meet the 56831
requirements of this chapter and the rules adopted under it that 56832
apply to permits for ambulances, ambulettes, rotorcraft air 56833
ambulances, fixed wing air ambulances, and nontransport vehicles. 56834
The board shall send notice of the denial of an application by 56835
certified mail to the permit applicant. The permit applicant may 56836
request a hearing within ten days after receipt of the notice. If 56837
the board receives a timely request, it shall hold a hearing in 56838
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.56839

       (2) If the board issues the vehicle permit for an ambulance, 56840
ambulette, or nontransport vehicle, it also shall issue a decal, 56841
in a form prescribed by rule, to be displayed on the rear window 56842
of the vehicle. The board shall not issue a decal until all of the 56843
requirements for licensure and permit issuance have been met.56844

       (3) If the board issues the aircraft permit for a rotorcraft 56845
air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance, it also shall issue a 56846
decal, in a form prescribed by rule, to be displayed on the left 56847
fuselage aircraft window in a manner that complies with all 56848
applicable federal aviation regulations. The board shall not issue 56849
a decal until all of the requirements for licensure and permit 56850
issuance have been met.56851

       (C) In addition to any other requirements that the board 56852
establishes by rule, a licensee or license applicant applying for 56853
an initial vehicle or aircraft permit under division (A) of this 56854
section shall submit to the board the vehicle or aircraft for 56855
which the permit is sought. Thereafter, a licensee shall annually 56856
submit to the board each vehicle or aircraft for which a permit 56857
has been issued.56858

       (1) The board shall conduct a physical inspection of an 56859
ambulance, ambulette, or nontransport vehicle to determine its 56860
roadworthiness and compliance with standard motor vehicle 56861
requirements.56862

       (2) The board shall conduct a physical inspection of the 56863
medical equipment, communication system, and interior of an 56864
ambulance to determine the operational condition and safety of the 56865
equipment and the ambulance's interior and to determine whether 56866
the ambulance is in compliance with the federal requirements for 56867
ambulance construction that were in effect at the time the 56868
ambulance was manufactured, as specified by the general services 56869
administration in the various versions of its publication titled 56870
"federal specification for the star-of-life ambulance, 56871
KKK-A-1822."56872

       (3) The board shall conduct a physical inspection of the 56873
equipment, communication system, and interior of an ambulette to 56874
determine the operational condition and safety of the equipment 56875
and the ambulette's interior and to determine whether the 56876
ambulette is in compliance with state requirements for ambulette 56877
construction. The board shall determine by rule requirements for 56878
the equipment, communication system, interior, and construction of 56879
an ambulette.56880

       (4) The board shall conduct a physical inspection of the 56881
medical equipment, communication system, and interior of a 56882
rotorcraft air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance to determine 56883
the operational condition and safety of the equipment and the 56884
aircraft's interior.56885

       (5) The board shall issue a certificate to the applicant for 56886
each vehicle or aircraft that passes the inspection and may assess 56887
a fee for each inspection, as established by the board.56888

       (6) The board shall adopt rules regarding the implementation 56889
and coordination of inspections. The rules may permit the board to 56890
contract with a third party to conduct the inspections required of 56891
the board under this section.56892

       Sec. 4766.08.  (A) The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 56893
fire, and transportation board mayservices, pursuant to an 56894
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 56895
Revised Code, may suspend or revoke any license or permit or 56896
renewal thereof issued under this chapter for any one or 56897
combination of the following causes:56898

       (1) Violation of this chapter or any rule adopted thereunder;56899

       (2) Refusal to permit the board to inspect a vehicle or 56900
aircraft used under the terms of a permit or to inspect the 56901
records or physical facilities of a licensee;56902

       (3) Failure to meet the ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft air 56903
ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and nontransport vehicle 56904
requirements specified in this chapter or the rules adopted 56905
thereunder;56906

       (4) Violation of an order issued by the board;56907

       (5) Failure to comply with any of the terms of an agreement 56908
entered into with the board regarding the suspension or revocation 56909
of a license or permit or the imposition of a penalty under this 56910
section.56911

       (B) If the board determines that the records, record-keeping 56912
procedures, or physical facilities of a licensee, or an ambulance, 56913
ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, or 56914
nontransport vehicle for which a valid permit has been issued, do 56915
not meet the standards specified in this chapter and the rules 56916
adopted thereunder, the board shall notify the licensee of any 56917
deficiencies within thirty days of finding the deficiencies. If 56918
the board determines that the deficiencies exist and they remain 56919
uncorrected after thirty days, the board may suspend the license, 56920
vehicle permit, or aircraft permit. The licensee, notwithstanding 56921
the suspension under this division, may operate until all appeals 56922
have been exhausted.56923

       (C) At the discretion of the board, a licensee whose license 56924
has been suspended or revoked under this section may be ineligible 56925
to be licensed under this chapter for a period of not more than 56926
three years from the date of the violation, provided that the 56927
board shall make no determination on a period of ineligibility 56928
until all the licensee's appeals relating to the suspension or 56929
revocation have been exhausted.56930

       (D) The board may, in addition to any other action taken 56931
under this section and after a hearing conducted pursuant to 56932
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, impose a penalty of not more 56933
than fifteen hundred dollars for any violation specified in this 56934
section. The attorney general shall institute a civil action for 56935
the collection of any such penalty imposed.56936

       Sec. 4766.09.  This chapter does not apply to any of the 56937
following:56938

       (A) A person rendering services with an ambulance in the 56939
event of a disaster situation when licensees' vehicles based in 56940
the locality of the disaster situation are incapacitated or 56941
insufficient in number to render the services needed;56942

       (B) Any person operating an ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft 56943
air ambulance, or fixed wing air ambulance outside this state 56944
unless receiving a person within this state for transport to a 56945
location within this state;56946

       (C) A publicly owned or operated emergency medical service 56947
organization and the vehicles it owns or leases and operates, 56948
except as provided in section 307.051, division (G) of section 56949
307.055, division (F) of section 505.37, division (B) of section 56950
505.375, and division (B)(3) of section 505.72 of the Revised 56951
Code;56952

       (D) An ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed 56953
wing air ambulance, or nontransport vehicle owned or leased and 56954
operated by the federal government;56955

       (E) A publicly owned and operated fire department vehicle;56956

       (F) Emergency vehicles owned by a corporation and operating 56957
only on the corporation's premises, for the sole use by that 56958
corporation;56959

       (G) An ambulance, nontransport vehicle, or other emergency 56960
medical service organization vehicle owned and operated by a 56961
municipal corporation;56962

       (H) A motor vehicle titled in the name of a volunteer rescue 56963
service organization, as defined in section 4503.172 of the 56964
Revised Code;56965

       (I) A public emergency medical service organization;56966

       (J) A fire department, rescue squad, or life squad comprised 56967
of volunteers who provide services without expectation of 56968
remuneration and do not receive payment for services other than 56969
reimbursement for expenses;56970

       (K) A private, nonprofit emergency medical service 56971
organization when fifty per cent or more of its personnel are 56972
volunteers, as defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code;56973

       (L) Emergency medical service personnel who are regulated by 56974
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation56975
services under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code;56976

       (M) Any of the following that operates a transit bus, as that 56977
term is defined in division (Q) of section 5735.01 of the Revised 56978
Code, unless the entity provides ambulette services that are 56979
reimbursed under the state medicaid plan:56980

        (1) A public nonemergency medical service organization;56981

        (2) An urban or rural public transit system;56982

        (3) A private nonprofit organization that receives grants 56983
under section 5501.07 of the Revised Code.56984

       (N)(1) An entity, to the extent it provides ambulette 56985
services, if the entity meets all of the following conditions:56986

       (a) The entity is certified by the department of aging or the 56987
department's designee in accordance with section 173.391 of the 56988
Revised Code or operates under a contract or grant agreement with 56989
the department or the department's designee in accordance with 56990
section 173.392 of the Revised Code.56991

       (b) The entity meets the requirements of section 4766.14 of 56992
the Revised Code.56993

       (c) The entity does not provide ambulette services that are 56994
reimbursed under the state medicaid plan.56995

       (2) A vehicle, to the extent it is used to provide ambulette 56996
services, if the vehicle meets both of the following conditions:56997

       (a) The vehicle is owned by an entity that meets the 56998
conditions specified in division (N)(1) of this section.56999

       (b) The vehicle does not provide ambulette services that are 57000
reimbursed under the state medicaid plan.57001

        (O) A vehicle that meets both of the following criteria, 57002
unless the vehicle provides services that are reimbursed under the 57003
state medicaid plan:57004

       (1) The vehicle was purchased with funds from a grant made by 57005
the United States secretary of transportation under 49 U.S.C. 57006
5310;57007

        (2) The department of transportation holds a lien on the 57008
vehicle.57009

       Sec. 4766.10.  This chapter does not invalidate any ordinance 57010
or resolution adopted by a municipal corporation that establishes 57011
standards for the licensure of emergency medical service 57012
organizations as basic life-support, intermediate life-support, or 57013
advanced life-support service organizations that have their 57014
principal places of business located within the limits of the 57015
municipal corporation, as long as the licensure standards meet or 57016
exceed the standards established in this chapter and the rules 57017
adopted thereunder.57018

       Emergency medical service organizations licensed by a 57019
municipal corporation are subject to the jurisdiction of the Ohio57020
state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation board57021
services, but the fees they pay to the board for licenses, 57022
permits, and renewals thereof shall not exceed fifty per cent of 57023
the fee amounts established by the board pursuant to section 57024
4766.03 of the Revised Code. The board may choose to waive the 57025
vehicle inspection requirements and inspection fees, but not the 57026
permit fees, for the vehicles of organizations licensed by a 57027
municipal corporation.57028

       Sec. 4766.11. (A) The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 57029
fire, and transportation boardservices may investigate alleged 57030
violations of this chapter or the rules adopted under it and may 57031
investigate any complaints received regarding alleged violations.57032

       In addition to any other remedies available and regardless of 57033
whether an adequate remedy at law exists, the board may apply to 57034
the court of common pleas in the county where a violation of any 57035
provision of this chapter or any rule adopted pursuant thereto is 57036
occurring for a temporary or permanent injunction restraining a 57037
person from continuing to commit that violation. On a showing that 57038
a person has committed a violation, the court shall grant the 57039
injunction.57040

       In conducting an investigation under this section, the board 57041
may issue subpoenas compelling the attendance and testimony of 57042
witnesses and the production of books, records, and other 57043
documents pertaining to the investigation. If a person fails to 57044
obey a subpoena from the board, the board may apply to the court 57045
of common pleas in the county where the investigation is being 57046
conducted for an order compelling the person to comply with the 57047
subpoena. On application by the board, the court shall compel 57048
obedience by attachment proceedings for contempt, as in the case 57049
of disobedience of the requirements of a subpoena from the court 57050
or a refusal to testify therein.57051

       (B) The medical transportation board may suspend a license 57052
issued under this chapter without a prior hearing if it determines 57053
that there is evidence that the license holder is subject to 57054
action under this section and that there is clear and convincing 57055
evidence that continued operation by the license holder presents a 57056
danger of immediate and serious harm to the public. The 57057
chairperson and executive director of the board shall make a 57058
preliminary determination and describe the evidence on which they 57059
made their determination to the board members. The board by 57060
resolution may designate another board member to act in place of 57061
the chairperson or another employee to act in place of the 57062
executive director in the event that the chairperson or executive 57063
director is unavailable or unable to act. Upon review of the 57064
allegations, the board, by the affirmative vote of at least foura 57065
majority of its members, may suspend the license without a 57066
hearing.57067

       Any method of communication, including a telephone conference 57068
call, may be utilized for describing the evidence to the board 57069
members, for reviewing the allegations, and for voting on the 57070
suspension.57071

       Immediately following the decision by the board to suspend a 57072
license under this division, the board shall issue a written order 57073
of suspension and cause it to be delivered in accordance with 57074
section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If the license holder subject 57075
to the suspension requests an adjudication hearing by the board, 57076
the date set for the adjudication shall be within fifteen days but 57077
not earlier than seven days after the request unless another date 57078
is agreed to by the license holder and the board.57079

       Any summary suspension imposed under this division remains in 57080
effect, unless reversed by the board, until a final adjudicative 57081
order issued by the board pursuant to this section and Chapter 57082
119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board shall issue 57083
its final adjudicative order not less than ninety days after 57084
completion of its adjudication hearing. Failure to issue the order 57085
by that day shall cause the summary suspension order to end, but 57086
such failure shall not affect the validity of any subsequent final 57087
adjudication order.57088

       Sec. 4766.12.  If a county, township, joint ambulance 57089
district, or joint emergency medical services district chooses to 57090
have the Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and57091
transportation boardservices license its emergency medical 57092
service organizations and issue permits for its vehicles pursuant 57093
to this chapter, except as may be otherwise provided, all 57094
provisions of this chapter and all rules adopted by the board 57095
thereunder are fully applicable. However, a county, township, 57096
joint ambulance district, or joint emergency medical services 57097
district is not required to obtain any type of permit from the 57098
board for any of its nontransport vehicles.57099

       Sec. 4766.13.  The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 57100
fire, and transportation boardservices, by endorsement, may 57101
license and issue vehicle permits to an emergency medical service 57102
organization or a nonemergency medical service organization that 57103
is regulated by another state. To qualify for a license and 57104
vehicle permits by endorsement, an organization must submit 57105
evidence satisfactory to the board that it has met standards in 57106
another state that are equal to or more stringent than the 57107
standards established by this chapter and the rules adopted under 57108
it.57109

       Sec. 4766.15.  (A) An applicant for employment as an 57110
ambulette driver with an organization licensed pursuant to this 57111
chapter shall submit proof to the organization of, or give consent 57112
to the employer to obtain, all of the following:57113

       (1)(a) A valid driver's license issued pursuant to Chapter 57114
4506. or 4507. of the Revised Code, or its equivalent, if the 57115
applicant is a resident of another state;57116

       (b) A recent certified abstract of the applicant's record of 57117
convictions for violations of motor vehicle laws provided by the 57118
registrar of motor vehicles pursuant to section 4509.05 of the 57119
Revised Code, or its equivalent, if the applicant is a resident of 57120
another state.57121

       (2)(a) A certificate of completion of a course in first aid 57122
techniques offered by the American red cross or an equivalent 57123
organization;57124

       (b) A certificate of completion of a course in 57125
cardiopulmonary resuscitation, or its equivalent, offered by an 57126
organization approved by the Ohiostate board of emergency57127
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices.57128

       (3) The result of a chemical test or tests of the applicant's 57129
blood, breath, or urine conducted at a hospital or other 57130
institution approved by the board for the purpose of determining 57131
the alcohol, drug of abuse, controlled substance, or metabolite of 57132
a controlled substance content of the applicant's whole blood, 57133
blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine;57134

       (4) The result of a criminal records check conducted by the 57135
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.57136

       (B) An organization may employ an applicant on a temporary 57137
provisional basis pending the completion of all of the 57138
requirements of this section. The length of the provisional period 57139
shall be determined by the board.57140

       (C) An organization licensed pursuant to this chapter shall 57141
use information received pursuant to this section to determine in 57142
accordance with rules adopted by the Ohiostate board of emergency57143
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices under section 57144
4766.03 of the Revised Code whether an applicant is disqualified 57145
for employment.57146

       No applicant shall be accepted for permanent employment as an 57147
ambulette driver by an organization licensed pursuant to this 57148
chapter until all of the requirements of division (A) of this 57149
section have been met.57150

       Sec. 4766.22.  (A) Not later than forty-five days after the 57151
end of each fiscal year, the Ohiostate board of emergency57152
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices shall submit a 57153
report to the governor and general assembly that provides all of 57154
the following information for that fiscal year:57155

       (1) The number of each of the following the board issued:57156

       (a) Basic life-support organization licenses;57157

       (b) Intermediate life-support organization licenses;57158

       (c) Advanced life-support organization licenses;57159

       (d) Mobile intensive care unit organization licenses;57160

       (e) Ambulette service licenses;57161

       (f) Air medical service organization licenses;57162

       (g) Ambulance permits;57163

       (h) Nontransport vehicle permits;57164

       (i) Ambulette vehicle permits;57165

       (j) Rotorcraft air ambulance permits;57166

       (k) Fixed wing air ambulance permits.57167

       (2) The amount of fees the board collected for issuing and 57168
renewing each type of license and permit specified in division 57169
(A)(1) of this section;57170

       (3) The number of inspections the board or a third party on 57171
the board's behalf conducted in connection with each type of 57172
license and permit specified in division (A)(1) of this section 57173
and the amount of fees the board collected for the inspections;57174

       (4) The number of complaints that were submitted to the 57175
board;57176

       (5) The number of investigations the board conducted under 57177
section 4766.11 of the Revised Code;57178

       (6) The number of adjudication hearings the board held and 57179
the outcomes of the adjudications;57180

       (7) The amount of penalties the board imposed and collected 57181
under section 4766.08 of the Revised Code;57182

       (8) Other information the board determines reflects the 57183
board's operations.57184

       (B) The board shall post the annual report required by this 57185
section on its web site and make it available to the public on 57186
request.57187

       Sec. 4773.08.  The publicdirector of health council shall 57188
adopt rules to implement and administer this chapter. In adopting 57189
the rules, the councildirector shall consider any recommendations 57190
made by the radiation advisory council created under section 57191
3701.93 of the Revised Code. The rules shall be adopted in 57192
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and shall not be 57193
less stringent than any applicable standards specified in 42 57194
C.F.R. 75. The rules shall establish all of the following:57195

       (A) Standards for licensing general x-ray machine operators, 57196
radiographers, radiation therapy technologists, and nuclear 57197
medicine technologists;57198

       (B) Application and renewal fees for licenses issued under 57199
this chapter that do not exceed the cost incurred in issuing and 57200
renewing the licenses;57201

       (C) Standards for accreditation of educational programs and 57202
approval of continuing education programs in general x-ray machine 57203
operation, radiography, radiation therapy technology, and nuclear 57204
medicine technology;57205

       (D) Fees for accrediting educational programs and approving 57206
continuing education programs in general x-ray machine operation, 57207
radiography, radiation therapy technology, and nuclear medicine 57208
technology that do not exceed the cost incurred in accrediting the 57209
educational programs;57210

       (E) Fees for issuing conditional licenses under section 57211
4773.05 of the Revised Code that do not exceed the cost incurred 57212
in issuing the licenses;57213

       (F) Continuing education requirements that must be met to 57214
have a license renewed under section 4773.03 of the Revised Code;57215

       (G) Continuing education requirements that the holder of a 57216
conditional license must meet to receive a license issued under 57217
section 4773.03 of the Revised Code;57218

       (H) Any other rules necessary for the implementation or 57219
administration of this chapter.57220

       Sec. 4781.01.  As used in this chapter:57221

       (A) "Industrialized unit" has the same meaning as in division 57222
(C)(3) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.57223

       (B) "Installation" means any of the following:57224

       (1) The temporary or permanent construction of stabilization, 57225
support, and anchoring systems for manufactured housing;57226

       (2) The placement and erection of a manufactured housing unit 57227
or components of a unit on a structural support system;57228

       (3) The supporting, blocking, leveling, securing, anchoring, 57229
underpinning, or adjusting of any section or component of a 57230
manufactured housing unit;57231

       (4) The joining or connecting of all sections or components 57232
of a manufactured housing unit.57233

       (C) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in division 57234
(C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.57235

       (D) "Manufactured home park" has the same meaning as in 57236
division (A) of section 3733.01 of the Revised Codemeans any 57237
tract of land upon which three or more manufactured or mobile 57238
homes used for habitation are parked, either free of charge or for 57239
revenue purposes, and includes any roadway, building, structure, 57240
vehicle, or enclosure used or intended for use as a part of the 57241
facilities of the park. "Manufactured home park" does not include 57242
any of the following:57243

       (1) A tract of land used solely for the storage or display 57244
for sale of manufactured or mobile homes or solely as a temporary 57245
park-camp as defined in section 3729.01 of the Revised Code;57246

       (2) A tract of land that is subdivided and the individual 57247
lots are for sale or sold for the purpose of installation of 57248
manufactured or mobile homes used for habitation and the roadways 57249
are dedicated to the local government authority;57250

       (3) A tract of land within an area that is subject to local 57251
zoning authority and subdivision requirements and is subdivided, 57252
and the individual lots are for sale or sold for the purpose of 57253
installation of manufactured or mobile homes for habitation.57254

       (E) "Manufactured housing" means manufactured homes and 57255
mobile homes.57256

       (F) "Manufactured housing installer" means an individual who 57257
installs manufactured housing.57258

       (G) "Mobile home" has the same meaning as in division (O) of 57259
section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.57260

       (H) "Model standards" means the federal manufactured home 57261
installation standards established pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 5404.57262

       (I) "Permanent foundation" has the same meaning as in 57263
division (C)(5) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.57264

       (J) "Business" includes any activities engaged in by any 57265
person for the object of gain, benefit, or advantage either direct 57266
or indirect.57267

       (K) "Casual sale" means any transfer of a manufactured home 57268
or mobile home by a person other than a manufactured housing 57269
dealer, manufactured housing salesperson, or manufacturer to an 57270
ultimate consumer or a person who purchases the home for use as a 57271
residence.57272

       (L) "Engaging in business" means commencing, conducting, or 57273
continuing in business, or liquidating a business when the 57274
liquidator thereof holds self out to be conducting such business; 57275
making a casual sale or otherwise making transfers in the ordinary 57276
course of business when the transfers are made in connection with 57277
the disposition of all or substantially all of the transferor's 57278
assets is not engaging in business.57279

       (M) "Manufactured home park operator" has the same meaning as 57280
"operator" in section 3733.01 of the Revised Codeor "park 57281
operator" means the person who has responsible charge of a 57282
manufactured home park and who is licensed under sections 4781.26 57283
to 4781.35 of the Revised Code.57284

       (N) "Manufactured housing broker" means any person acting as 57285
a selling agent on behalf of an owner of a manufactured home or 57286
mobile home that is subject to taxation under section 4503.06 of 57287
the Revised Code.57288

       (O) "Manufactured housing dealer" means any person engaged in 57289
the business of selling at retail, displaying, offering for sale, 57290
or dealing in manufactured homes or mobile homes.57291

       (P) "Manufacturer" means a person who manufacturers, 57292
assembles, or imports manufactured homes or mobile homes.57293

        (Q) "Retail sale" or "sale at retail" means the act or 57294
attempted act of selling, bartering, exchanging, or otherwise 57295
disposing of a manufactured home or mobile home to an ultimate 57296
purchaser for use as a residence.57297

       (R) "Salesperson" means any individual employed by a 57298
manufactured housing dealer or manufactured housing broker to 57299
sell, display, and offer for sale, or deal in manufactured homes 57300
or mobile homes for a commission, compensation, or other valuable 57301
consideration, but does not mean any public officer performing 57302
official duties.57303

       (S) "Ultimate purchaser" means, with respect to any new 57304
manufactured home, the first person, other than a manufactured 57305
housing dealer purchasing in the capacity of a manufactured 57306
housing dealer, who purchases such new manufactured home for 57307
purposes other than resale.57308

       (T) "Tenant" means a person who is entitled under a rental 57309
agreement with a manufactured home park operator to occupy a 57310
manufactured home park lot and who does not own the home occupying 57311
the lot.57312

       (U) "Owner" means a person who is entitled under a rental 57313
agreement with a manufactured home park operator to occupy a 57314
manufactured home park lot and who owns the home occupying the 57315
lot.57316

       (V) "Resident" means a person entitled under a rental 57317
agreement to the use and occupancy of residential premises to the 57318
exclusion of others. "Resident" includes both tenants and owners.57319

       (W) "Residential premises" means a lot located within a 57320
manufactured home park and the grounds, areas, and facilities 57321
contained within the manufactured home park for the use of 57322
residents generally or the use of which is promised to a resident.57323

       (X) "Rental agreement" means any agreement or lease, written 57324
or oral, that establishes or modifies the terms, conditions, 57325
rules, or any other provisions concerning the use and occupancy of 57326
residential premises by one of the parties.57327

       (Y) "Security deposit" means any deposit of money or property 57328
to secure performance by the resident under a rental agreement.57329

       (Z) "Development" means any artificial change to improved or 57330
unimproved real estate, including, without limitation, buildings 57331
or structures, dredging, filling, grading, paving, excavation or 57332
drilling operations, or storage of equipment or materials, and the 57333
construction, expansion, or substantial alteration of a 57334
manufactured home park, for which plan review is required under 57335
division (A) of section 4781.31 of the Revised Code. "Development" 57336
does not include the building, construction, erection, or 57337
manufacture of any building to which section 3781.06 of the 57338
Revised Code is applicable.57339

       (AA) "Flood" or "flooding" means either of the following:57340

       (1) A general and temporary condition of partial or complete 57341
inundation of normally dry land areas from any of the following:57342

       (a) The overflow of inland or tidal waters;57343

       (b) The unusual and rapid accumulation or runoff of surface 57344
waters from any source;57345

       (c) Mudslides that are proximately caused by flooding as 57346
defined in division (AA)(1)(b) of this section and that are akin 57347
to a river of liquid and flowing mud on the surface of normally 57348
dry land areas, as when earth is carried by a current of water and 57349
deposited along the path of the current.57350

       (2) The collapse or subsidence of land along the shore of a 57351
lake or other body of water as a result of erosion or undermining 57352
that is caused by waves or currents of water exceeding anticipated 57353
cyclical levels or that is suddenly caused by an unusually high 57354
water level in a natural body of water, and that is accompanied by 57355
a severe storm, by an unanticipated force of nature, such as a 57356
flash flood, by an abnormal tidal surge, or by some similarly 57357
unusual and unforeseeable event, that results in flooding as 57358
defined in division (AA)(1)(a) of this section.57359

       (BB) "Flood plain" means the area adjoining any river, 57360
stream, watercourse, or lake that has been or may be covered by 57361
flood water.57362

       (CC) "One-hundred-year flood" means a flood having a one per 57363
cent chance of being equaled or exceeded in any given year.57364

       (DD) "One-hundred-year flood plain" means that portion of a 57365
flood plain inundated by a one-hundred-year flood.57366

       (EE) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 57367
Revised Code and also includes this state, any political 57368
subdivision of this state, and any other state or local body of 57369
this state.57370

       (FF) "Substantial damage" means damage of any origin 57371
sustained by a manufactured or mobile home that is situated in a 57372
manufactured home park located in a flood plain when the cost of 57373
restoring the home to its condition before the damage occurred 57374
will equal or exceed fifty per cent of the market value of the 57375
home before the damage occurred.57376

       (GG) "Substantially alter" means a change in the layout or 57377
design of a manufactured home park, including, without limitation, 57378
the movement of utilities or changes in established streets, lots, 57379
or sites or in other facilities. In the case of manufactured home 57380
parks located within a one-hundred-year flood plain, 57381
"substantially alter" also includes changes in elevation resulting 57382
from the addition of fill, grading, or excavation that may affect 57383
flood plain management.57384

       (HH) "Tract" means a contiguous area of land that consists of 57385
one or more parcels, lots, or sites that have been separately 57386
surveyed regardless of whether the individual parcels, lots, or 57387
sites have been recorded and regardless of whether the one or more 57388
parcels, lots, or sites are under common or different ownership.57389

       Sec. 4781.02. (A) There is hereby created the manufactured 57390
homes commission which consists of nine members, with three 57391
members appointed by the governor, three members appointed by the 57392
president of the senate, and three members appointed by the 57393
speaker of the house of representatives.57394

       (B)(1) Commission members shall be residents of this state, 57395
except for members appointed pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(b) and 57396
(B)(4)(a) of this section. Members shall be selected from a list 57397
of persons the Ohio manufactured homes association, or any 57398
successor entity, recommends, except for appointments made 57399
pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section.57400

       (2) The governor shall appoint the following members:57401

       (a) One member to represent the board of building standards, 57402
who may be a member of the board or a board employee not in the 57403
classified civil service, with an initial term ending December 31, 57404
2007;57405

       (b) One member to represent the department of health, who may 57406
be a department employee not in the classified civil service, with 57407
an initial term ending December 31, 2005who is registered as a 57408
sanitarian in accordance with Chapter 4736. of the Revised Code, 57409
has experience with the regulation of manufactured homes, and is 57410
an employee of a health district described in section 3709.01 of 57411
the Revised Code;57412

       (c) One member whose primary residence is a manufactured 57413
home, with an initial term ending December 31, 2006.57414

       (3) The president of the senate shall appoint the following 57415
members:57416

        (a) Two members who are manufactured housing installers who 57417
have been actively engaged in the installation of manufactured 57418
housing for the five years immediately prior to appointment, with 57419
the initial term of one installer ending December 31, 2007, and 57420
the initial term of the other installer ending December 31, 2005.57421

       (b) One member who manufactures manufactured homes in this 57422
state or who manufactures manufactured homes in another state and 57423
ships homes into this state, to represent manufactured home 57424
manufacturers, with an initial term ending December 31, 2006.57425

       (4) The speaker of the house of representatives shall appoint 57426
the following members:57427

       (a) One member who operates a manufactured or mobile home 57428
retail business in this state to represent manufactured housing 57429
dealers, with an initial term ending December 31, 2007;57430

       (b) One member who is a manufactured home park operator or is 57431
employed by an operator, with an initial term ending December 31, 57432
2005;57433

       (c) One member to represent the Ohio manufactured home 57434
association, or any successor entity, who may be the president or 57435
executive director of the association or the successor entity, 57436
with an initial term ending December 31, 2006.57437

       (C)(1) After the initial term, each term of office is for 57438
four years ending on the thirty-first day of December. A member 57439
holds office from the date of appointment until the end of the 57440
term. No member may serve more than two consecutive four-year 57441
terms.57442

       (2) Any member appointed to fill a vacancy that occurs prior 57443
to the expiration of a term continues in office for the remainder 57444
of that term. Any member continues in office subsequent to the 57445
expiration date of the term until the member's successor takes 57446
office or until sixty days have elapsed, which ever occurs first.57447

       (3) A vacancy on the commission does not impair the authority 57448
of the remaining members to exercise all of the commission's 57449
powers.57450

       (D)(1) The governor may remove any member from office for 57451
incompetence, neglect of duty, misfeasance, nonfeasance, 57452
malfeasance, or unprofessional conduct in office.57453

       (2) Vacancies shall be filled in the manner of the original 57454
appointment.57455

       Sec. 4781.04. (A) The manufactured homes commission shall 57456
adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to do all 57457
of the following:57458

       (1) Establish uniform standards that govern the installation 57459
of manufactured housing. Not later than one hundred eighty days 57460
after the secretary of the United States department of housing and 57461
urban development adopts model standards for the installation of 57462
manufactured housing or amends those standards, the commission 57463
shall amend its standards as necessary to be consistent with, and 57464
not less stringent than, the model standards for the design and 57465
installation of manufactured housing the secretary adopts or any 57466
manufacturers' standards that the secretary determines are equal 57467
to or not less stringent than the model standards.57468

       (2) Govern the inspection of the installation of manufactured 57469
housing. The rules shall specify that the commission, any building 57470
department or personnel of any department, any licensor or 57471
personnel of any licensor, or any private third party, certified 57472
pursuant to section 4781.07 of the Revised Code shall conduct all 57473
inspections of the installation of manufactured housing located in 57474
manufactured home parks to determine compliance with the uniform 57475
installation standards the commission establishes pursuant to this 57476
section. 57477

       As used in division (A)(2) of this section, "licensor" has 57478
the same meaning as in section 3733.01 of the Revised Code.57479

       (3) Govern the design, construction, installation, approval, 57480
and inspection of foundations and the base support systems for 57481
manufactured housing. The rules shall specify that the commission, 57482
any building department or personnel of any department, any 57483
licensor or personnel of any licensor, or any private third party, 57484
certified pursuant to section 4781.07 of the Revised Code shall 57485
conduct all inspections of the installation, foundations, and base 57486
support systems of manufactured housing located in manufactured 57487
home parks to determine compliance with the uniform installation 57488
standards and foundation and base support system design the 57489
commission establishes pursuant to this section. 57490

       As used in division (A)(3) of this section, "licensor" has 57491
the same meaning as in section 3733.01 of the Revised Code.57492

       (4) Govern the training, experience, and education 57493
requirements for manufactured housing installers, manufactured 57494
housing dealers, manufactured housing brokers, and manufactured 57495
housing salespersons;57496

       (5) Establish a code of ethics for manufactured housing 57497
installers;57498

       (6) Govern the issuance, revocation, and suspension of 57499
licenses to manufactured housing installers;57500

       (7) Establish fees for the issuance and renewal of licenses, 57501
for conducting inspections to determine an applicant's compliance 57502
with this chapter and the rules adopted pursuant to it, and for 57503
the commission's expenses incurred in implementing this chapter;57504

       (8) Establish conditions under which a licensee may enter 57505
into contracts to fulfill the licensee's responsibilities;57506

       (9) Govern the investigation of complaints concerning any 57507
violation of this chapter or the rules adopted pursuant to it or 57508
complaints involving the conduct of any licensed manufactured 57509
housing installer or person installing manufactured housing 57510
without a license, licensed manufactured housing dealer, licensed 57511
manufactured housing broker, or manufactured housing salesperson;57512

       (10) Establish a dispute resolution program for the timely 57513
resolution of warranty issues involving new manufactured homes, 57514
disputes regarding responsibility for the correction or repair of 57515
defects in manufactured housing, and the installation of 57516
manufactured housing. The rules shall provide for the timely 57517
resolution of disputes between manufacturers, manufactured housing 57518
dealers, and installers regarding the correction or repair of 57519
defects in manufactured housing that are reported by the purchaser 57520
of the home during the one-year period beginning on the date of 57521
installation of the home. The rules also shall provide that 57522
decisions made regarding the dispute under the program are not 57523
binding upon the purchaser of the home or the other parties 57524
involved in the dispute unless the purchaser so agrees in a 57525
written acknowledgement that the purchaser signs and delivers to 57526
the program within ten business days after the decision is issued.57527

       (11) Establish the requirements and procedures for the 57528
certification of building departments and building department 57529
personnel pursuant to section 4781.07 of the Revised Code;57530

       (12) Establish fees to be charged to building departments and 57531
building department personnel applying for certification and 57532
renewal of certification pursuant to section 4781.07 of the 57533
Revised Code;57534

       (13) Develop a policy regarding the maintenance of records 57535
for any inspection authorized or conducted pursuant to this 57536
chapter. Any record maintained under division (A)(13) of this 57537
section shall be a public record under section 149.43 of the 57538
Revised Code.57539

       (14) Carry out any other provision of this chapter.57540

       (B) The manufactured homes commission shall do all of the 57541
following:57542

       (1) Prepare and administer a licensure examination to 57543
determine an applicant's knowledge of manufactured housing 57544
installation and other aspects of installation the commission 57545
determines appropriate;57546

       (2) Select, provide, or procure appropriate examination 57547
questions and answers for the licensure examination and establish 57548
the criteria for successful completion of the examination;57549

       (3) Prepare and distribute any application form this chapter 57550
requires;57551

       (4) Receive applications for licenses and renewal of licenses 57552
and issue licenses to qualified applicants;57553

       (5) Establish procedures for processing, approving, and 57554
disapproving applications for licensure;57555

       (6) Retain records of applications for licensure, including 57556
all application materials submitted and a written record of the 57557
action taken on each application;57558

       (7) Review the design and plans for manufactured housing 57559
installations, foundations, and support systems;57560

       (8) Inspect a sample of homes at a percentage the commission 57561
determines to evaluate the construction and installation of 57562
manufactured housing installations, foundations, and support 57563
systems to determine compliance with the standards the commission 57564
adopts;57565

       (9) Investigate complaints concerning violations of this 57566
chapter or the rules adopted pursuant to it, or the conduct of any 57567
manufactured housing installer, manufactured housing dealer, 57568
manufactured housing broker, or manufactured housing salesperson;57569

       (10) Determine appropriate disciplinary actions for 57570
violations of this chapter;57571

       (11) Conduct audits and inquiries of manufactured housing 57572
installers, manufactured housing dealers, and manufactured housing 57573
brokers as appropriate for the enforcement of this chapter. The 57574
commission, or any person the commission employs for the purpose, 57575
may review and audit the business records of any manufactured 57576
housing installer, dealer, or broker during normal business hours.57577

       (12) Approve an installation training course, which may be 57578
offered by the Ohio manufactured homes association or other 57579
entity;57580

       (13) Perform any function or duty necessary to administer 57581
this chapter and the rules adopted pursuant to it.57582

       (C) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the 57583
authority of a board of health to enforce section 3701.344 or 57584
Chapters 3703., 3718., and 3781. of the Revised Code.57585

       Sec. 4781.07. (A) Pursuant to rules the manufactured homes 57586
commission adopts, the commission may certify municipal, township, 57587
and county building departments and the personnel of those 57588
departments, licensors as defined in section 3733.01 of the 57589
Revised Code and the personnel of those licensors, or any private 57590
third party, to exercise the commission's enforcement authority, 57591
accept and approve plans and specifications for foundations, 57592
support systems and installations, and inspect manufactured 57593
housing foundations, support systems, and manufactured housing 57594
installations. Any certification is effective for three years.57595

       (B) Following an investigation and finding of facts that 57596
support its action, the commission may revoke or suspend 57597
certification. The commission may initiate an investigation on its 57598
own motion or the petition of a person affected by the enforcement 57599
or approval of plans.57600

       Sec. 4781.09. (A) The manufactured homes commission may deny, 57601
suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew the license of any 57602
manufactured home installer for any of the following reasons:57603

       (1) Failure to satisfy the requirements of section 4781.08 or 57604
4781.10 of the Revised Code;57605

       (2) Violation of this chapter or any rule adopted pursuant to 57606
it;57607

       (3) Making a material misstatement in an application for a 57608
license;57609

       (4) Installing manufactured housing without a license or 57610
without being under the supervision of a licensed manufactured 57611
housing installer;57612

       (5) Failure to appear for a hearing before the commission or 57613
to comply with any final adjudication order of the commission 57614
issued pursuant to this chapter;57615

       (6) Conviction of a felony or a crime involving moral 57616
turpitude;57617

       (7) Having had a license revoked, suspended, or denied by the 57618
commission during the preceding two years;57619

       (8) Having had a license revoked, suspended, or denied by 57620
another state or jurisdiction during the preceding two years;57621

       (9) Engaging in conduct in another state or jurisdiction that 57622
would violate this chapter if committed in this state.57623

       (10) Failing to provide written notification of an 57624
installation pursuant to division (D) of section 4781.11 of the 57625
Revised Code to a county treasurer or county auditor.57626

       (B)(1) Any person whose license or license application is 57627
revoked, suspended, denied, or not renewed or upon whom a civil 57628
penalty is imposed pursuant to division (C) of this section may 57629
request an adjudication hearing on the matter within thirty days 57630
after receipt of the notice of the action. The hearing shall be 57631
held in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.57632

       (2) Any licensee or applicant may appeal an order made 57633
pursuant to an adjudication hearing in the manner provided in 57634
section 119.12 of the Revised Code.57635

       (C) As an alternative to suspending, revoking, or refusing to 57636
renew a manufactured housing installer's license, the commission 57637
may impose a civil penalty of not less than one hundred dollars or 57638
more than five hundred dollars per violation of this chapter or 57639
any rule adopted pursuant to it. The commission shall deposit 57640
penalties in the occupational licensing and regulatory fund 57641
pursuant to section 4743.05 of the Revised Code.57642

       (D) A person whose license is suspended, revoked, or not 57643
renewed may apply for a new license two years after the date on 57644
which the license was suspended, revoked, or not renewed.57645

       Sec. 4781.121. (A) The manufactured homes commission, 57646
pursuant to section 4781.04 of the Revised Code, may investigate 57647
any person who allegedly has committed a violation. If, after an 57648
investigation the commission determines that reasonable evidence 57649
exists that a person has committed a violation, within seven days 57650
after that determination, the commission shall send a written 57651
notice to that person in the same manner as prescribed in section 57652
119.07 of the Revised Code for licensees, except that the notice 57653
shall specify that a hearing will be held and specify the date, 57654
time, and place of the hearing.57655

       (B) The commission shall hold a hearing regarding the alleged 57656
violation in the same manner prescribed for an adjudication 57657
hearing under section 119.09 of the Revised Code. If the 57658
commission, after the hearing, determines that a violation has 57659
occurred, the commission, upon an affirmative vote of five of its 57660
members, may impose a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars per 57661
violation per day. The commission's determination is an order that 57662
the person may appeal in accordance with section 119.12 of the 57663
Revised Code.57664

       (C) If the person who allegedly committed a violation fails 57665
to appear for a hearing, the commission may request the court of 57666
common pleas of the county where the alleged violation occurred to 57667
compel the person to appear before the commission for a hearing.57668

       (D) If the commission assesses a person a civil penalty for a 57669
violation and the person fails to pay that civil penalty within 57670
the time period prescribed by the commission pursuant to section 57671
131.02 of the Revised Code, the commission shall forward to the 57672
attorney general the name of the person and the amount of the 57673
civil penalty for the purpose of collecting that civil penalty. In 57674
addition to the civil penalty assessed pursuant to this section, 57675
the person also shall pay any fee assessed by the attorney general 57676
for collection of the civil penalty.57677

       (E) The authority provided to the commission pursuant to this 57678
section, and any fine imposed under this section, shall be in 57679
addition to, and not in lieu of, all penalties and other remedies 57680
provided in this chapter. Any fines collected pursuant to this 57681
section shall be used solely to administer and enforce this 57682
chapter and rules adopted under it. Any fees collected pursuant to 57683
this section shall be transmitted to the treasurer of state and 57684
shall be credited to the manufactured homes commission regulatory 57685
fund created in section 4781.54 of the Revised Code and the rules 57686
adopted thereunder. The fees shall be used only for the purpose of 57687
administering and enforcing sections 4781.26 to 4781.35 of the 57688
Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.57689

       (F) As used in this section, "violation" means a violation of 57690
section 4781.11, 4781.16, or 4781.27, or any rule adopted pursuant 57691
to section 4781.04, of the Revised Code.57692

       Sec. 4781.14.  (A) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of 57693
section 3733.02 of the Revised Code, the state, through theThe57694
manufactured homes commission, has exclusive authority to regulate 57695
manufactured home installers, the installation of manufactured 57696
housing, and manufactured housing foundations and support systems 57697
in thethis state. By enacting this chapter, it is the intent of 57698
the general assembly to preempt municipal corporations and other 57699
political subdivisions from regulating and licensing manufactured 57700
housing installers and regulating and inspecting the installation 57701
of manufactured housing and manufactured housing foundations and 57702
support systems.57703

       (B) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of section 3733.02 57704
of the Revised Code, theThe manufactured homes commission has 57705
exclusive power to adopt rules of uniform application throughout 57706
the state governing installation of manufactured housing, the 57707
inspection of manufactured housing foundations and support 57708
systems, the inspection of the installation of manufactured 57709
housing, the training and licensing of manufactured housing 57710
installers, and the investigation of complaints concerning 57711
manufactured housing installers.57712

       (C) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of section 3733.02 57713
of the Revised Code, theThe rules the commission adopts pursuant 57714
to this chapter are the exclusive rules governing the installation 57715
of manufactured housing, the design, construction, and approval of 57716
foundations for manufactured housing, the licensure of 57717
manufactured home installers, and the fees charged for licensure 57718
of manufactured home installers. No political subdivision of the 57719
state or any department or agency of the state may establish any 57720
other standards governing the installation of manufactured 57721
housing, manufactured housing foundations and support systems, the 57722
licensure of manufactured housing installers, or fees charged for 57723
the licensure of manufactured housing installers.57724

       (D) Nothing in this section limits the authority of the 57725
attorney general to enforce Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code or 57726
to take any action permitted by the Revised Code against 57727
manufactured housing installers, retailers, or manufacturers.57728

       Sec. 4781.15. The remedies provided in sections 4781.01 to 57729
4781.14 of the Revised Codethis chapter are in addition to 57730
remedies otherwise available for the same conduct under state or 57731
local law.57732

       Sec. 4781.16.  (A) Except as provided in division (E) of this 57733
section, no person shall do any of the following:57734

       (1) Engage in the business of displaying or selling at retail 57735
manufactured homes or mobile homes or assume to engage in that 57736
business, unless the person is licensed as a manufactured housing 57737
dealer under this chapter, or is a salesperson licensed under this 57738
chapter and employed by a licensed manufactured housing dealer;57739

       (2) Make more than five casual sales of manufactured homes or 57740
mobile homes in a twelve-month period without obtaining a license 57741
as a manufactured housing dealer under this chapter;57742

       (3) Purchase a manufactured home directly from the 57743
manufacturer without obtaining a license as a manufactured housing 57744
dealer under this chapter;57745

       (4) Engage in the business of brokering manufactured homes 57746
unless that person is licensed as a manufactured housing broker 57747
under this chapter or licensed as a real estate broker or 57748
salesperson pursuant to Chapter 4735. of the Revised Code.57749

       (B)(1) Except as provided in this division, no manufactured 57750
housing dealer shall sell, display, offer for sale, or deal in 57751
manufactured homes or mobile homes at any place except an 57752
established place of business that is used exclusively for the 57753
purpose of selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in 57754
manufactured homes or mobile homes. 57755

       (2) No manufactured housing broker shall engage in the 57756
business of brokering manufactured or mobile homes at any place 57757
except an established place of business that is used exclusively 57758
for the purpose of brokering manufactured and mobile homes.57759

       (3) A place of business used for the brokering or sale of 57760
manufactured homes or mobile homes is considered to be used 57761
exclusively for brokering, selling, displaying, offering for sale, 57762
or dealing in manufactured or mobile homes even though 57763
industrialized units, as defined by section 3781.06 of the Revised 57764
Code, are brokered, sold, displayed, offered for sale, or dealt at 57765
the same place of business.57766

       (4) If the licensed manufactured housing dealer is a 57767
manufactured home park operator, then all of the following apply:57768

       (a) An established place of business that is located in the 57769
operator's manufactured home park and that is used for selling, 57770
leasing, and renting manufactured homes and mobile homes in that 57771
manufactured home park is considered to be used exclusively for 57772
that purpose even though rent and other activities related to the 57773
operation of the manufactured home park take place at the same 57774
location or office.57775

       (b) The dealer's established place of business in the 57776
manufactured home park shall be staffed by someone licensed and 57777
regulated under this chapter who could reasonably assist any 57778
retail customer with or without an appointment, but such 57779
established place of business need not satisfy office size, 57780
display lot size, and physical barrier requirements applicable to 57781
other used motor vehicle dealers.57782

       (c) The manufactured and mobile homes being offered for sale, 57783
lease, or rental by the dealer may be located on individual rental 57784
lots inside the operator's manufactured home park.57785

        (C) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed as prohibiting 57786
the sale of a new or used manufactured or mobile home located in a 57787
manufactured home park by a licensed manufactured housing dealer.57788

       (D) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit 57789
persons licensed under this chapter from making sales calls.57790

       (E)(1) This chapter does not apply to mortgagees selling at 57791
retail only those manufactured homes or mobile homes that have 57792
come into their possession by a default in the terms of a mortgage 57793
contract.57794

       (2) When a partnership licensed under this chapter is 57795
dissolved by death, the surviving partners may operate under the 57796
manufactured housing dealer license for a period of sixty days, 57797
and the heirs or representatives of deceased persons and receivers 57798
or trustees in bankruptcy appointed by any competent authority may 57799
operate under the license of the person succeeded in possession by 57800
that heir, representative, receiver, or trustee in bankruptcy.57801

       Sec. 3733.02.        Sec. 4781.26.  (A)(1) The public health council57802
manufactured homes commission, subject to Chapter 119. of the 57803
Revised Code, shall adopt, and has the exclusive power to adopt, 57804
rules of uniform application throughout the state governing the 57805
review of plans, issuance of flood plain management permits, and 57806
issuance of licenses for manufactured home parks; the location, 57807
layout, density, construction, drainage, sanitation, safety, and 57808
operation of those parks; and notices of flood events concerning, 57809
and flood protection at, those parks. The rules pertaining to 57810
flood plain management shall be consistent with and not less 57811
stringent than the flood plain management criteria of the national 57812
flood insurance program adopted under the "National Flood 57813
Insurance Act of 1968," 82 Stat. 572, 42 U.S.C.A. 4001, as 57814
amended. The rules shall not apply to the construction, erection, 57815
or manufacture of any building to which section 3781.06 of the 57816
Revised Code is applicable.57817

       (2)(B) The rules pertaining to manufactured home parks 57818
constructed after June 30, 1971, shall specify that each home must 57819
be placed on its lot to provide not less than fifteen feet between 57820
the side of one home and the side of another home, ten feet 57821
between the end of one home and the side of another home, and five 57822
feet between the ends of two homes placed end to end.57823

       (3)(C) The manufactured homes commission shall determine 57824
compliance with the installation, blocking, tiedown, foundation, 57825
and base support system standards for manufactured housing located 57826
in manufactured home parks adopted by the commission pursuant to 57827
section 4781.04 of the Revised Code. All inspections of the 57828
installation, blocking, tiedown, foundation, and base support 57829
systems of manufactured housing in a manufactured home park that 57830
the department of health or a licensorcommission conducts shall 57831
be conducted by a person who has completed an installation 57832
training course approved by the manufactured homes commission 57833
certifies pursuant to division (B)(12) of section 4781.044781.0757834
of the Revised Code.57835

       As used in division (A)(3) of this section, "manufactured 57836
housing" has the same meaning as in section 4781.01 of the Revised 57837
Code.57838

       (B) The public health council, in accordance with Chapter 57839
119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules of uniform application 57840
throughout the state establishing requirements and procedures in 57841
accordance with which the director of health may authorize 57842
licensors for the purposes of sections 3733.022 and 3733.025 of 57843
the Revised Code. The rules shall include at least provisions 57844
under which a licensor may enter into contracts for the purpose of 57845
fulfilling the licensor's responsibilities under either or both of 57846
those sections.57847

       (D) The manufactured homes commission may enter into 57848
contracts for the purpose of fulfilling the commission's annual 57849
inspection responsibilities for manufactured home parks under this 57850
chapter. Boards of health of city or general health districts 57851
shall have the right of first refusal for those contracts.57852

       Sec. 3733.03.        Sec. 4781.27.  (A)(1) On or after the first day of 57853
December, but before the first day of January of the next year, 57854
every person who intends to operate a manufactured home park shall 57855
procure a license to operate the park for the next year from the 57856
licensormanufactured homes commission. If the applicable license 57857
fee prescribed under section 3733.044781.28 of the Revised Code 57858
is not received by the licensorcommission by the close of 57859
business on the last day of December, the applicant for the 57860
license shall pay a penalty equal to twenty-five per cent of the 57861
applicable license fee. The penalty shall accompany the license 57862
fee. If the last day of December is not a business day, the 57863
penalty attaches upon the close of business on the next business 57864
day.57865

       (2) No manufactured home park shall be maintained or operated 57866
in this state without a license.57867

       (3) No person who has received a license, upon the sale or 57868
disposition of the manufactured home park, may have the license 57869
transferred to the new operator. A person shall obtain a separate 57870
license to operate each manufactured home park.57871

       (B) Before a license is initially issued and annually 57872
thereafter, or more often if necessary, the licensorcommission57873
shall cause each manufactured home park to be inspected relative 57874
tofor compliance with sections 3733.014781.26 to 3733.084781.3557875
of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under those sections. A 57876
record shall be made of each inspection on a form prescribed by 57877
the director of healthcommission.57878

       (C) Each person applying for an initial license to operate a 57879
manufactured home park shall provide acceptable proof to the 57880
director commission that adequate fire protection will be 57881
provided and that applicable fire codes will be adhered to in the 57882
construction and operation of the park.57883

       Sec. 3733.04.        Sec. 4781.28.  The licensor of a manufactured home 57884
parkmanufactured homes commission may charge a fee for an annual 57885
license to operate such a manufactured home park. The fee for a 57886
license shall be determined in accordance with section 3709.0957887
4781.26 of the Revised Code and shall include the cost of 57888
licensing and all inspections.57889

       The fee also shall include any additional amount determined 57890
by rule of the public health council, which shall be collected and 57891
transmitted by the board of health to the director of health 57892
pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code and used only for 57893
the purpose of administering and enforcing sections 3733.01 to 57894
3733.08 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under those 57895
sections. The portion of any fee retained by the board of health57896
Any fees collected shall be paid into a special fundtransmitted 57897
to the treasurer of state and shall be credited to the 57898
manufactured homes commission regulatory fund created in section 57899
4781.54 of the Revised Code and used only for the purpose of 57900
administering and enforcing sections 3733.014781.26 to 3733.0857901
4781.35 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.57902

       Sec. 3733.05.        Sec. 4781.29.  The licensor of the health district in 57903
which a manufactured home park is or is to be located, in 57904
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code,manufactured 57905
homes commission may refuse to grant, may suspend, or may revoke 57906
any license granted to any person for failure to comply with 57907
sections 3733.014781.26 to 3733.084781.35 of the Revised Code or 57908
with any rule adopted by the public health council under section 57909
3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code.57910

       Sec. 3733.06.        Sec. 4781.30.  (A) Upon a license being issued under 57911
sections 3733.034781.27 to 3733.054781.29 of the Revised Code, 57912
any operator shall have the right to rent or use each lot for the 57913
parking or placement of a manufactured home or mobile home to be 57914
used for human habitation without interruption for any period 57915
coextensive with any license or consecutive licenses issued under 57916
sections 3733.034781.27 to 3733.054781.29 of the Revised Code.57917

       (B) No operator of a manufactured home park shall sell 57918
individual lots in a park for eight years following the issuance 57919
of the initial license for the park unless, at the time of sale, 57920
the park fulfills all platting and subdivision requirements 57921
established by the political subdivision in which the park is 57922
located, or the political subdivision has entered into an 57923
agreement with the operator regarding platting and subdivision 57924
requirements and the operator has fulfilled the terms of that 57925
agreement.57926

       Sec. 3733.07.        Sec. 4781.301.  Fees authorized or charged under 57927
sections 3733.021, 3733.0224781.31, 4781.32, and 3733.044781.2857928
of the Revised Code are in lieu of all license and inspection fees 57929
on or with respect to the operation or ownership of manufactured 57930
home parks within this state, except that the licensor may charge 57931
additional reasonable fees for the collection and bacteriological 57932
examination of any necessary water samples taken from any such 57933
park.57934

       Sec. 3733.021.        Sec. 4781.31.  (A) No person shall cause development 57935
to occur within any portion of a manufactured home park until the 57936
plans for the development have been submitted to and reviewed and 57937
approved by the director of healthmanufactured homes commission. 57938
This division does not require that plans be submitted to the 57939
directorcommission for approval for the replacement of 57940
manufactured or mobile homes on previously approved lots in a 57941
manufactured home park when no development is to occur in 57942
connection with the replacement. Within thirty days after receipt 57943
of the plans, all supporting documents and materials required to 57944
complete the review, and the applicable plan review fee 57945
established under division (D) of this section, the director57946
commission shall approve or disapprove the plans.57947

       (B) Any person aggrieved by the director'scommission's57948
disapproval of a set of plans under division (A) of this section 57949
may request a hearing on the matter within thirty days after 57950
receipt of the director'scommission's notice of the disapproval. 57951
The hearing shall be held in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 57952
Revised Code. Thereafter, the disapproval may be appealed in the 57953
manner provided in section 119.12 of the Revised Code.57954

       (C) The directorcommission shall establish a system by which 57955
development occurring within a manufactured home park is inspected 57956
or verified in accordance with rules adopted under division (A) of57957
section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code to ensure that the 57958
development complies with the plans approved under division (A) of 57959
this section.57960

       (D) The public health councilcommission shall establish fees 57961
for reviewing plans under division (A) of this section and 57962
conducting inspections under division (C) of this section.57963

       (E) The directorcommission shall charge the appropriate fees 57964
established under division (D) of this section for reviewing plans 57965
under division (A) of this section and conducting inspections 57966
under division (C) of this section. All such plan review and 57967
inspection fees received by the directorcommission shall be 57968
transmitted to the treasurer of state and shall be credited to the 57969
general operationsoccupational licensing and regulatory fund 57970
created in section 3701.834743.05 of the Revised Code. Moneys so 57971
credited to the fund shall be used only for the purpose of 57972
administering and enforcing sections 3733.014781.26 to 3733.0857973
4781.35 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under those 57974
sections.57975

       (F) Plan approvals issued under this section do not 57976
constitute an exemption from the land use and building 57977
requirements of the political subdivision in which the 57978
manufactured home park is or is to be located.57979

       Sec. 3733.022.        Sec. 4781.32.  (A) No person shall cause development 57980
to occur or cause the replacement of a mobile or manufactured home 57981
within any portion of a manufactured home park that is located 57982
within a one-hundred-year flood plain unless the person first 57983
obtains a permit from the director of health or a licensor 57984
authorized by the directormanufactured homes commission. If the 57985
development for which a permit is required under this division is 57986
to occur on a lot where a mobile or manufactured home is or is to 57987
be located, the owner of the home and the operator of the 57988
manufactured home park shall jointly obtain the permit. Each of 57989
the persons to whom a permit is jointly issued is responsible for 57990
compliance with the provisions of the approved permit that are 57991
applicable to that person.57992

       The director or a licensor authorized by the director 57993
commission shall disapprove an application for a permit required 57994
under this division unless the director or the licensorcommission57995
finds that the proposed development or replacement of a mobile or 57996
manufactured home complies with the rules adopted under division 57997
(A) of section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code. No permit is 57998
required under this division for the construction, erection, or 57999
manufacture of any building to which section 3781.06 of the 58000
Revised Code applies.58001

       The director or a licensor authorized by the director58002
commission may suspend or revoke a permit issued under this 58003
division for failure to comply with the rules adopted under 58004
division (A) of section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code 58005
pertaining to flood plain management or for failure to comply with 58006
the approved permit.58007

       Any person aggrieved by the disapproval, suspension, or 58008
revocation of a permit under this division by the director or by a 58009
licensor authorized by the directorcommission may request a 58010
hearing on the matter within thirty days after receipt of the 58011
notice of the disapproval, suspension, or revocation. The hearing 58012
shall be held in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 58013
Thereafter, an appeal of the disapproval, suspension, or 58014
revocation may be taken in the manner provided in section 119.12 58015
of the Revised Code.58016

       (B) The public health councilcommission shall establish fees 58017
for the issuance of permits under division (A) of this section and 58018
for necessary inspections conducted to determine compliance with 58019
those permits.58020

       (C) The director or a licensor authorized by the director58021
commission shall charge the appropriate fee established under 58022
division (B) of this section for the issuance of a permit under 58023
division (A) of this section or for conducting any necessary 58024
inspection to determine compliance with the permit. If the 58025
directorcommission issues such a permit or conducts such an 58026
inspection, the fee for the permit or inspection shall be 58027
transmitted to the treasurer of state and shall be credited to the 58028
general operationsoccupational licensing and regulatory fund 58029
created in section 3701.834743.05 of the Revised Code. Moneys so 58030
credited to the fund shall be used by the director only for the 58031
purpose of administering and enforcing sections 3733.014781.26 to58032
3733.084781.35 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under those 58033
sections. If the licensor is a board of health, the permit or 58034
inspection fee shall be deposited to the credit of the special 58035
fund of the health district created in section 3733.04 of the 58036
Revised Code and shall be used only for the purpose set forth in 58037
that section.58038

       Sec. 3733.024.        Sec. 4781.33. (A) When a flood event affects a 58039
manufactured home park, the operator of the manufactured home 58040
park, in accordance with rules adopted under division (A) of58041
section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code, shall notify the 58042
licensor having jurisdiction of the occurrence ofmanufactured 58043
homes commission and the board of health having jurisdiction where58044
the flood event occurred within forty-eight hours after the end of 58045
the flood event. The commission, after receiving notification, 58046
shall immediately notify the board of health.58047

       No person shall fail to comply with this division.58048

       (B) The licensor having jurisdiction where a flood event 58049
occurred that affected a manufactured home park shall notify the 58050
director of health of the occurrence of the flood event within 58051
twenty-four hours after being notified of the flood event under 58052
division (A) of this section. Within forty-eight hours afterAfter58053
being notified of such a flood event by a licensor, the director58054
board of health shall cause an inspection to be made of the 58055
manufactured home park named in the notice. The board of health 58056
shall issue a report of the inspection to the commission within 58057
ten days after the inspection is completed.58058

       Sec. 3733.025.        Sec. 4781.34.  (A) If a mobile or manufactured home 58059
that is located in a flood plain is substantially damaged, the 58060
owner of the home shall make all alterations, repairs, or changes 58061
to the home, and the operator of the manufactured home park shall 58062
make all alterations, repairs, or changes to the lot on which the 58063
home is located, that are necessary to ensure compliance with the 58064
flood plain management rules adopted under division (A) of section 58065
3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code. Such alterations, repairs, or 58066
changes may include, without limitation, removal of the home or 58067
other structures.58068

       No person shall fail to comply with this division.58069

       (B) No person shall cause to be performed any alteration, 58070
repair, or change required by division (A) of this section unless 58071
the person first obtains a permit from the director of health or a 58072
licensor authorized by the directormanufactured homes commission. 58073
The owner of the home and the operator of the manufactured home 58074
park shall jointly obtain the permit required by this division. 58075
Each of the persons to whom a permit is jointly issued is 58076
responsible for compliance with the provisions of the approved 58077
permit that are applicable to that person.58078

       The director or a licensor authorized by the director58079
commission shall disapprove an application for a permit required 58080
under this division unless the director or the licensorcommission58081
finds that the proposed alteration, repair, or change complies 58082
with the rules adopted under division (A) of section 3733.0258083
4781.26 of the Revised Code. No permit is required under this 58084
division for the construction, erection, or manufacture of any 58085
building to which section 3781.06 of the Revised Code applies.58086

       The director or a licensor authorized by the director58087
commission may suspend or revoke a permit issued under this 58088
division for failure to comply with the rules adopted under 58089
division (A) of section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code 58090
pertaining to flood plain management or for failure to comply with 58091
the approved permit for making alterations, repairs, or changes to 58092
the lot on which the manufactured home is located.58093

       Any person aggrieved by the disapproval, suspension, or 58094
revocation of a permit under this division by the director or by a 58095
licensor authorized by the directorcommission may request a 58096
hearing on the matter within thirty days after receipt of the 58097
notice of the disapproval, suspension, or revocation. The hearing 58098
shall be held in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 58099
Thereafter, an appeal of the disapproval, suspension, or 58100
revocation may be taken in the manner provided in section 119.12 58101
of the Revised Code and for necessary inspections conducted to 58102
determine compliance with those permits.58103

       (C) The public health councilcommission shall establish fees 58104
for the issuance of permits under division (B) of this section and 58105
for necessary inspections conducted to determine compliance with 58106
those permits for making alterations, repairs, or changes to the 58107
lot on which the manufactured home is located.58108

       (D) The director or a licensor authorized by the director58109
commission shall charge the appropriate fee established under 58110
division (C) of this section for the issuance of a permit under 58111
division (B) of this section or for conducting any necessary 58112
inspection to determine compliance with the permit. If the 58113
directorcommission issues such a permit or conducts such an 58114
inspection, the fee for the permit or inspection shall be 58115
transmitted to the treasurer of state and shall be credited to the 58116
general operationsoccupational licensing and regulatory fund 58117
created in section 3701.834743.05 of the Revised Code. Moneys so 58118
credited to the fund shall be used by the director only for the 58119
purpose of administering and enforcing sections 3733.014781.26 to58120
3733.084781.35 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under those 58121
sections. If the licensor is a board of health, the permit or 58122
inspection fee shall be deposited to the credit of the special 58123
fund of the health district created in section 3733.04 of the 58124
Revised Code and shall be used only for the purpose set forth in 58125
that section.58126

       Sec. 3733.08.        Sec. 4781.35.  (A) No person shall violate sections 58127
3733.014781.26 to 3733.084781.35 of the Revised Code or the 58128
rules adopted thereunder.58129

       (B) The prosecuting attorney of the county, the city director 58130
of law, or the attorney general, upon complaint of the licensor or 58131
the director of healthmanufactured homes commission, shall 58132
prosecute to termination or bring an action for injunction against 58133
any person violating sections 3733.014781.26 to 3733.084781.3558134
of the Revised Code or the rules adopted thereunder.58135

       Sec. 3733.09.        Sec. 4781.36.  (A) Subject to section 3733.09158136
4781.37 of the Revised Code, a park operator shall not retaliate 58137
against a resident by increasing the resident's rent, decreasing 58138
services that are due to the resident, refusing to renew or 58139
threatening to refuse to renew the rental agreement with the 58140
resident, or bringing or threatening to bring an action for 58141
possession of the resident's premises because:58142

       (1) The resident has complained to an appropriate 58143
governmental agency of a violation of a building, housing, health, 58144
or safety code that is applicable to the premises, and the 58145
violation materially affects health and safety;58146

       (2) The resident has complained to the park operator of any 58147
violation of section 3733.104781.38 of the Revised Code;58148

       (3) The resident joined with other residents for the purpose 58149
of negotiating or dealing collectively with the park operator on 58150
any of the terms and conditions of a rental agreement.58151

       (B) If a park operator acts in violation of division (A) of 58152
this section, the resident may:58153

       (1) Use the retaliatory action of the park operator as a 58154
defense to an action by the park operator to recover possession of 58155
the premises;58156

       (2) Recover possession of the premises;58157

       (3) Terminate the rental agreement.58158

       In addition, the resident may recover from the park operator 58159
any actual damages together with reasonable attorneys fees.58160

       (C) Nothing in division (A) of this section prohibits a park 58161
operator from increasing the rent to reflect the cost of 58162
improvements installed by the park operator in or about the 58163
premises or to reflect an increase in other costs of operation of 58164
the premises.58165

       Sec. 3733.091.        Sec. 4781.37.  (A) Notwithstanding section 3733.0958166
4781.36 of the Revised Code, a park operator may bring an action 58167
under Chapter 1923. of the Revised Code for possession of the 58168
premises if any of the following applies:58169

       (1) The resident is in default in the payment of rent.58170

       (2) The violation of the applicable building, housing, 58171
health, or safety code that the resident complained of was 58172
primarily caused by any act or lack of reasonable care by the 58173
resident, by any other person in the resident's household, or by 58174
anyone on the premises with the consent of the resident.58175

       (3) The resident is holding over the resident's term.58176

       (4) The resident is in violation of rules of the public 58177
health councilmanufactured homes commission adopted pursuant to 58178
section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code or rules of the 58179
manufactured home park adopted pursuant to the rules of the public 58180
health councilcommission.58181

       (5) The resident has been absent from the manufactured home 58182
park for a period of thirty consecutive days prior to the 58183
commencement of the action, and the resident's manufactured home, 58184
mobile home, or recreational vehicle parked in the manufactured 58185
home park has been left unoccupied for that thirty-day period, 58186
without notice to the park operator and without payment of rent 58187
due under the rental agreement.58188

       (B) The maintenance of an action by the park operator under 58189
this section does not prevent the resident from recovering damages 58190
for any violation by the park operator of the rental agreement or 58191
of section 3733.104781.38 of the Revised Code.58192

       Sec. 3733.10.        Sec. 4781.38.  (A) A park operator who is a party to 58193
a rental agreement shall:58194

       (1) Comply with the requirements of all applicable building, 58195
housing, health, and safety codes which materially affect health 58196
and safety, and comply with rules of the public health council58197
manufactured homes commission;58198

       (2) Make all repairs and do whatever is reasonably necessary 58199
to put and keep the premises in a fit and habitable condition;58200

       (3) Keep all common areas of the premises in a safe and 58201
sanitary condition;58202

       (4) Maintain in good and safe working order and condition all 58203
electrical and plumbing fixtures and appliances, and septic 58204
systems, sanitary and storm sewers, refuse receptacles, and well 58205
and water systems that are supplied or required to be supplied by58206
himthe park operator;58207

       (5) Not abuse the right of access conferred by division (B) 58208
of section 3733.1014781.39 of the Revised Code;58209

       (6) Except in the case of emergency or if it is impracticable 58210
to do so, give the resident reasonable notice of histhe park 58211
operator's intent to enter onto the residential premises and enter 58212
only at reasonable times. Twenty-four hours' notice shall be 58213
presumed to be a reasonable notice in the absence of evidence to 58214
the contrary.58215

       (B) If the park operator violates any provision of this 58216
section, makes a lawful entry onto the residential premises in an 58217
unreasonable manner, or makes repeated demands for entry otherwise 58218
lawful which demands have the effect of harassing the resident, 58219
the resident may recover actual damages resulting from the 58220
violation, entry, or demands and injunctive relief to prevent the 58221
recurrence of the conduct, and if hethe resident obtains a 58222
judgment, reasonable attorneys' fees, or terminate the rental 58223
agreement.58224

       Sec. 3733.101.        Sec. 4781.39.  (A) A resident who is a party to a 58225
rental agreement shall:58226

       (1) Keep that part of the premises that the resident occupies 58227
and uses safe and sanitary;58228

       (2) Dispose of all rubbish, garbage, and other waste in a 58229
clean, safe, and sanitary manner;58230

       (3) Comply with the requirements imposed on residents by all 58231
applicable state and local housing, health, and safety codes, 58232
rules of the public health councilmanufactured homes commission, 58233
and rules of the manufactured home park;58234

       (4) Personally refrain, and forbid any other person who is on 58235
the premises with the resident's permission, from intentionally or 58236
negligently destroying, defacing, damaging, or removing any 58237
fixture, appliance, or other part of the residential premises;58238

       (5) Conduct self and require other persons on the premises 58239
with the resident's consent to conduct themselves in a manner that 58240
will not disturb the resident's neighbors' peaceful enjoyment of 58241
the manufactured home park.58242

       (B) The resident shall not unreasonably withhold consent for 58243
the park operator to enter the home to inspect utility 58244
connections, or enter onto the premises in order to inspect the 58245
premises, make ordinary, necessary, or agreed repairs, 58246
decorations, alterations, or improvements, deliver parcels which 58247
are too large for the resident's mail facilities, or supply 58248
necessary or agreed services.58249

       (C) If the resident violates any provision of this section, 58250
the park operator may recover any actual damages which result from 58251
the violation and reasonable attorneys' fees. This remedy is in 58252
addition to any right of the park operator to terminate the rental 58253
agreement, to maintain an action for the possession of the 58254
premises, or injunctive relief to compel access under division (B) 58255
of this section.58256

       Sec. 3733.11.        Sec. 4781.40.  (A)(1) The park operator shall offer 58257
each home owner a written rental agreement for a manufactured home 58258
park lot for a term of one year or more that contains terms 58259
essentially the same as any alternative month-to-month rental 58260
agreement offered to current and prospective tenants and owners. 58261
The park operator shall offer the minimum one-year rental 58262
agreement to the owner prior to installation of the home in the 58263
manufactured home park or, if the home is in the manufactured home 58264
park, prior to the expiration of the owner's existing rental 58265
agreement.58266

       (2) The park operator shall deliver the offer to the owner by 58267
certified mail, return receipt requested, or in person. If the 58268
park operator delivers the offer to the owner in person, the owner 58269
shall complete a return showing receipt of the offer. If the owner 58270
does not accept the offer, the park operator is discharged from 58271
any obligation to make any further such offers. If the owner 58272
accepts the offer, the park operator shall, at the expiration of 58273
each successive rental agreement, offer the owner another rental 58274
agreement, for a term that is mutually agreed upon, and that 58275
contains terms essentially the same as the alternative 58276
month-to-month agreement. The park operator shall deliver 58277
subsequent rental offers by ordinary mail or personal delivery. If 58278
the park operator sells the manufactured home park to another 58279
manufactured home park operator, the purchaser is bound by the 58280
rental agreements entered into by the purchaser's predecessor.58281

       (3) If the park operator sells the manufactured home park for 58282
a use other than as a manufactured home park, the park operator 58283
shall give each tenant and owner a written notification by 58284
certified mail, return receipt requested, or by handing it to the 58285
tenant or owner in person. If the park operator delivers the 58286
notification in person, the recipient shall complete a return 58287
showing receipt of the notification. This notification shall 58288
contain notice of the sale of the manufactured home park, and 58289
notice of the date by which the tenant or owner shall vacate. The 58290
date by which the tenant shall vacate shall be at least one 58291
hundred twenty days after receipt of the written notification, and 58292
the date by which the owner shall vacate shall be at least one 58293
hundred eighty days after receipt of the written notification.58294

       (B) A park operator shall fully disclose in writing all fees, 58295
charges, assessments, including rental fees, and rules prior to a 58296
tenant or owner executing a rental agreement and assuming 58297
occupancy in the manufactured home park. No fees, charges, 58298
assessments, or rental fees so disclosed may be increased nor 58299
rules changed by a park operator without specifying the date of 58300
implementation of the changed fees, charges, assessments, rental 58301
fees, or rules, which date shall be not less than thirty days 58302
after written notice of the change and its effective date to all 58303
tenants or owners in the manufactured home park, and no fee, 58304
charge, assessment, or rental fee shall be increased during the 58305
term of any tenant's or owner's rental agreement. Failure on the 58306
part of the park operator to fully disclose all fees, charges, or 58307
assessments shall prevent the park operator from collecting the 58308
undisclosed fees, charges, or assessments. If a tenant or owner 58309
refuses to pay any undisclosed fees, charges, or assessments, the 58310
refusal shall not be used by the park operator as a cause for 58311
eviction in any court.58312

       (C) A park operator shall promulgate rules governing the 58313
rental or occupancy of a lot in the manufactured home park. The 58314
rules shall not be unreasonable, arbitrary, or capricious. A copy 58315
of the rules and any amendments to them shall be delivered by the 58316
park operator to the tenant or owner prior to signing the rental 58317
agreement. A copy of the rules and any amendments to them shall be 58318
posted in a conspicuous place upon the manufactured home park 58319
grounds.58320

       (D) No park operator shall require an owner to purchase from 58321
the park operator any personal property. The park operator may 58322
determine by rule the style or quality of skirting, equipment for 58323
tying down homes, manufactured or mobile home accessories, or 58324
other equipment to be purchased by an owner from a vendor of the 58325
owner's choosing, provided that the equipment is readily available 58326
to the owner. Any such equipment shall be installed in accordance 58327
with the manufactured home park rules.58328

       (E) No park operator shall charge any owner who chooses to 58329
install an electric or gas appliance in a home an additional fee 58330
solely on the basis of the installation, unless the installation 58331
is performed by the park operator at the request of the owner, nor 58332
shall the park operator restrict the installation, service, or 58333
maintenance of the appliance, restrict the ingress or egress of 58334
repairpersons to the manufactured home park for the purpose of 58335
installation, service, or maintenance of the appliance, nor 58336
restrict the making of any interior improvement in a home, if the 58337
installation or improvement is in compliance with applicable 58338
building codes and other provisions of law and if adequate utility 58339
services are available for the installation or improvement.58340

       (F) No park operator shall require a tenant to lease or an 58341
owner to purchase a manufactured or mobile home from the park 58342
operator or any specific person as a condition of or prerequisite 58343
to entering into a rental agreement.58344

       (G) No park operator shall require an owner to use the 58345
services of the park operator or any other specific person for 58346
installation of the manufactured or mobile home on the residential 58347
premises or for the performance of any service.58348

       (H) No park operator shall:58349

       (1) Deny any owner the right to sell the owner's manufactured 58350
home within the manufactured home park if the owner gives the park 58351
operator ten days' notice of the intention to sell the home;58352

       (2) Require the owner to remove the home from the 58353
manufactured home park solely on the basis of the sale of the 58354
home;58355

       (3) Unreasonably refuse to enter into a rental agreement with 58356
a purchaser of a home located within the operator's manufactured 58357
home park;58358

       (4) Charge any tenant or owner any fee, charge, or 58359
assessment, including a rental fee, that is not set forth in the 58360
rental agreement or, if the rental agreement is oral, is not set 58361
forth in a written disclosure given to the tenant or owner prior 58362
to the tenant or owner entering into a rental agreement;58363

       (5) Charge any owner any fee, charge, or assessment because 58364
of the transfer of ownership of a home or because a home is moved 58365
out of or into the manufactured home park, except a charge for the 58366
actual costs and expenses that are incurred by the park operator 58367
in moving the home out of or into the manufactured home park, or 58368
in installing the home in the manufactured home park and that have 58369
not been reimbursed by another tenant or owner.58370

       (I) If the park operator violates any provision of divisions 58371
(A) to (H) of this section, the tenant or owner may recover actual 58372
damages resulting from the violation, and, if the tenant or owner 58373
obtains a judgment, reasonable attorneys' fees, or terminate the 58374
rental agreement.58375

       (J) No rental agreement shall require a tenant or owner to 58376
sell, lease, or sublet the tenant's or owner's interest in the 58377
rental agreement or the manufactured or mobile home that is or 58378
will be located on the lot that is the subject of the rental 58379
agreement to any specific person or through any specific person as 58380
the person's agent.58381

       (K) No park operator shall enter into a rental agreement with 58382
the owner of a manufactured or mobile home for the use of 58383
residential premises, if the rental agreement requires the owner 58384
of the home, as a condition to the owner's renting, occupying, or 58385
remaining on the residential premises, to pay the park operator or 58386
any other person specified in the rental agreement a fee or any 58387
sum of money based on the sale of the home, unless the owner of 58388
the home uses the park operator or other person as the owner's 58389
agent in the sale of the home.58390

       (L) A park operator and a tenant or owner may include in a 58391
rental agreement any terms and conditions, including any term 58392
relating to rent, the duration of an agreement, and any other 58393
provisions governing the rights and obligations of the parties 58394
that are not inconsistent with or prohibited by sections 3733.09 58395
to 3733.20 of the Revised Code or any other rule of law.58396

       (M) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, 58397
the owner of a manufactured or mobile home that was previously 58398
titled by a dealer may utilize the services of a manufactured home58399
housing dealer or broker licensed under Chapter 4517. of the 58400
Revised Code or a person properly licensed under Chapter 4735.58401
4781. of the Revised Code to sell or lease the home.58402

       Sec. 3733.12.        Sec. 4781.41.  (A) If a park operator fails to 58403
fulfill any obligation imposed upon himthe park operator by 58404
section 3733.104781.38 of the Revised Code or by the rental 58405
agreement, or the conditions of the premises are such that the 58406
resident reasonably believes that a park operator has failed to 58407
fulfill any such obligations, or a governmental agency has found 58408
that the premises are not in compliance with building, housing, 58409
health, or safety codes which apply to any condition of the 58410
residential premises that could materially affect the health and 58411
safety of an occupant, the resident may give notice in writing to 58412
the park operator specifying the acts, omissions, or code 58413
violations that constitute noncompliance with such provisions. The 58414
notice shall be sent to the person or place where rent is normally 58415
paid.58416

       (B) If a park operator receives the notice described in 58417
division (A) of this section and after receipt of the notice fails 58418
to remedy the condition within a reasonable time, considering the 58419
severity of the condition and the time necessary to remedy such 58420
condition, or within thirty days, whichever is sooner, and if the 58421
resident is current in rent payments due under the rental 58422
agreement, the resident may do one of the following:58423

       (1) Deposit all rent that is due and thereafter becomes due 58424
the park operator with the clerk of court of the municipal or 58425
county court having jurisdiction in the territory in which the 58426
residential premises are located;58427

       (2) Apply to the court for an order directing the park 58428
operator to remedy the condition. As part thereof, the resident 58429
may deposit rent pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, and 58430
may apply for an order reducing the periodic rent due the park 58431
operator until such time as the park operator does remedy the 58432
condition, and may apply for an order to use the rent deposited to 58433
remedy the condition. In any order issued pursuant to this 58434
division, the court may require the resident to deposit rent with 58435
the clerk of court as provided in division (B)(1) of this section.58436

       Sec. 3733.121.        Sec. 4781.42.  (A) Whenever a resident deposits rent 58437
with the clerk of a court as provided in section 3733.124781.4158438
of the Revised Code, the clerk shall give written notice of this 58439
fact to the park operator and to histhe park operator's agent, if 58440
any.58441

       (B) The clerk shall place all rent deposited with himthe 58442
clerk in a separate rent escrow account in the name of the clerk 58443
in a bank or building and loan association domiciled in this 58444
state.58445

       (C) The clerk shall keep in a separate docket an account of 58446
each deposit, with the name and address of the resident, and the 58447
name and address of the park operator and of histhe park 58448
operator's agent, if any.58449

       (D) For histhe clerk's costs, the clerk may charge a fee of 58450
one per cent of the amount of the rent deposited, which shall be 58451
assessed as court costs.58452

       (E) All interest that has accrued on the rent deposited by 58453
the clerk of a county court under division (B) of this section 58454
shall be paid into the treasury of the political subdivision for 58455
which the clerk performs histhe clerk's duties. All interest that 58456
has accrued on the rent deposited by the clerk of a municipal 58457
court under division (B) of this section shall be paid into the 58458
city treasury as defined in division (B) of section 1901.03 of the 58459
Revised Code.58460

       Sec. 3733.122.        Sec. 4781.43.  (A) A park operator who receives 58461
notice that rent due himthe park operator has been deposited with 58462
a clerk of court pursuant to section 3733.124781.41 of the 58463
Revised Code, may:58464

       (1) Apply to the clerk of court for release of the rent on 58465
the ground that the condition contained in the notice given 58466
pursuant to division (A) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised 58467
Code has been remedied. The clerk shall forthwith release the 58468
rent, less costs, to the park operator if the resident gives 58469
written notice to the clerk that the condition has been remedied.58470

       (2) Apply to the court for release of the rent on the grounds 58471
that the resident did not comply with the notice requirement of 58472
division (A) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised Code, or 58473
that the resident was not current in rent payments due under the 58474
rental agreement at the time the resident initiated rent deposits 58475
with the clerk of courts under division (B)(1) of section 3733.1258476
4781.41 of the Revised Code;58477

       (3) Apply to the court for release of the rent on the grounds 58478
that there was no violation of any obligation imposed upon the 58479
park operator by section 3733.104781.38 of the Revised Code or by 58480
the rental agreement, or by any building, housing, health, or 58481
safety code, or that the condition contained in the notice given 58482
pursuant to division (A) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised 58483
Code has been remedied.58484

       (B) The resident shall be named as a party to any action 58485
filed by the park operator under this section, and shall have the 58486
right to file an answer and counterclaim, as in other civil cases. 58487
A trial shall be held within sixty days of the date of filing of 58488
the park operator's complaint, unless for good cause shown the 58489
court grants a continuance.58490

       (C) If the court finds that there was no violation of any 58491
obligation imposed upon the park operator by section 3733.1058492
4781.38 of the Revised Code or by the rental agreement, or by any 58493
building, housing, health, or safety code, or that the condition 58494
contained in the notice given pursuant to division (A) of section 58495
3733.124781.41 of the Revised Code has been remedied, or that the 58496
resident did not comply with the notice requirement of division 58497
(A) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised Code, or that the 58498
resident was not current in rent payments at the time the resident 58499
initiated rent deposits with the clerk of court under division 58500
(B)(1) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised Code, the court 58501
shall order the release to the park operator of rent on deposit 58502
with the clerk, less costs.58503

       (D) If the court finds that the condition contained in the 58504
notice given pursuant to division (A) of section 3733.124781.4158505
of the Revised Code was the result of an act or omission of the 58506
resident, or that the resident intentionally acted in bad faith in 58507
proceeding under section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised Code, the 58508
resident shall be liable for damages caused to the park operator, 58509
and for costs, together with reasonable attorneys' fees if the 58510
resident intentionally acted in bad faith.58511

       Sec. 3733.123.        Sec. 4781.44.  (A) If a park operator brings an 58512
action for the release of rent deposited with a clerk of court, 58513
the court may, during the pendency of the action, upon application 58514
of the park operator, release part of the rent on deposit for 58515
payment of the periodic interest on a mortgage on the premises, 58516
the periodic principal payments on a mortgage on the premises, the 58517
insurance premiums for the premises, real estate taxes on the 58518
premises, utility services, repairs, and other customary and usual 58519
costs of operating the premises.58520

       (B) In determining whether to release rent for the payments 58521
described in division (A) of this section, the court shall 58522
consider the amount of rent the park operator receives from other 58523
lots, the cost of operating these lots, and the costs which may be 58524
required to remedy the condition contained in the notice given 58525
pursuant to division (A) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised 58526
Code.58527

       Sec. 3733.13.        Sec. 4781.45.  If a resident commits a material 58528
violation of the rules of the manufactured home park, of the 58529
public health councilmanufactured homes commission, or of 58530
applicable state and local health and safety codes, the park 58531
operator may deliver a written notification of the violation to 58532
the resident. The notification shall contain all of the following:58533

       (A) A description of the violation;58534

       (B) A statement that the rental agreement will terminate upon 58535
a date specified in the written notice not less than thirty days 58536
after receipt of the notice unless the resident remedies the 58537
violation;58538

       (C) A statement that the violation was material and that if a 58539
second material violation of any park or public health council58540
commission rule, or any health and safety code, occurs within six 58541
months after the date of this notice, the rental agreement will 58542
terminate immediately;58543

       (D) A statement that a defense available to termination of 58544
the rental agreement for two material violations of park or public 58545
health councilcommission rules, or of health and safety codes, is 58546
that the park rule is unreasonable, or that the park or public 58547
health councilcommission rule, or health or safety code, is not 58548
being enforced against other manufactured home park residents, or 58549
that the two violations were not willful and not committed in bad 58550
faith.58551

       If the resident remedies the condition described in the 58552
notice, whether by repair, the payment of damages, or otherwise, 58553
the rental agreement shall not terminate. The park operator may 58554
terminate the rental agreement immediately if the resident commits 58555
a second material violation of the park or public health council58556
commission rules, or of applicable state and local health and 58557
safety codes, subject to the defense that the park rule is 58558
unreasonable, that the park or public health councilcommission58559
rule, or health or safety code, is not being enforced against 58560
other manufactured home park residents, or that the two violations 58561
were not willful and not committed in bad faith.58562

       Sec. 3733.14.        Sec. 4781.46.  In any action under sections 3733.0958563
4781.36 to 3733.204781.52 of the Revised Code, any party may 58564
recover damages for the breach of contract or the breach of any 58565
duty that is imposed by law.58566

       Sec. 3733.15.        Sec. 4781.47.  (A) No provision of sections 3733.0958567
4781.36 to 3733.204781.52 of the Revised Code may be modified or 58568
waived by any oral or written agreement except as provided in 58569
division (F) of this section.58570

       (B) No warrant of attorney to confess judgment shall be 58571
recognized in any rental agreement or in any other agreement 58572
between a park operator and resident for the recovery of rent or 58573
damages to the residential premises.58574

       (C) No agreement to pay the park operator's or resident's 58575
attorney fees shall be recognized in any rental agreement for 58576
residential premises or in any other agreement between a park 58577
operator and resident.58578

       (D) No agreement by a resident to the exculpation or 58579
limitation of any liability of the park operator arising under law 58580
or to indemnify the park operator for that liability or its 58581
related costs shall be recognized in any rental agreement or in 58582
any other agreement between a park operator and resident.58583

       (E) A rental agreement, or the assignment, conveyance, trust 58584
deed, or security instrument of the park operator's interest in 58585
the rental agreement may not permit the receipt of rent free of 58586
the obligation to comply with section 3733.104781.38 of the 58587
Revised Code.58588

       (F) The park operator may agree to assume responsibility for 58589
fulfilling any duty or obligation imposed on a resident by section 58590
3733.1014781.39 of the Revised Code.58591

       Sec. 3733.16.        Sec. 4781.48.  (A) If the court as a matter of law 58592
finds a rental agreement, or any clause of it, to have been 58593
unconscionable at the time it was made, it may refuse to enforce 58594
the rental agreement or it may enforce the remainder of the rental 58595
agreement without the unconscionable clause, or it may so limit 58596
the application of any unconscionable clause as to avoid any 58597
unconscionable result.58598

       (B) When it is claimed or appears to the court that the 58599
rental agreement, or any clause of it, may be unconscionable, the 58600
parties shall be afforded a reasonable opportunity to present 58601
evidence as to its setting, purpose, and effect to aid the court 58602
in making the determination.58603

       Sec. 3733.17.        Sec. 4781.49.  (A) No park operator of residential 58604
premises shall initiate any act, including termination of 58605
utilities or services, exclusion from the premises, or threat of 58606
any unlawful act, against a resident, or a resident whose right to 58607
possession has terminated, for the purpose of recovering 58608
possession of residential premises, other than as provided in 58609
Chapters 1923., 3733.4781., and 5303. of the Revised Code.58610

       (B) No park operator of residential premises shall seize the 58611
furnishings or possessions of a resident, or of a resident whose 58612
right to possession was terminated, for the purpose of recovering 58613
rent payments, other than in accordance with an order issued by a 58614
court of competent jurisdiction.58615

       (C) A park operator who violates this section is liable in a 58616
civil action for all damages caused to a resident, or to a 58617
resident whose right to possession has terminated, together with 58618
reasonable attorneys' fees.58619

       Sec. 3733.18.        Sec. 4781.50.  (A) Any security deposit in excess of 58620
fifty dollars or one month's periodic rent, whichever is greater, 58621
shall bear interest on the excess at the rate of five per cent per 58622
annum if the resident remains in possession of the premises for 58623
six months or more, and shall be computed and paid annually by the 58624
park operator to the resident.58625

       (B) Upon termination of the rental agreement any property or 58626
money held by the park operator as a security deposit may be 58627
applied to the payment of past due rent and to the payment of the 58628
amount of damages that the park operator has suffered by reason of 58629
the resident's noncompliance with section 3733.1014781.39 of the 58630
Revised Code or the rental agreement. Any deduction from the 58631
security deposit shall be itemized and identified by the park 58632
operator in a written notice delivered to the resident together 58633
with the amount due, within thirty days after termination of the 58634
rental agreement and delivery of possession. The resident shall 58635
provide the park operator in writing with a forwarding address or 58636
new address to which the written notice and amount due from the 58637
park operator may be sent. If the resident fails to provide the 58638
park operator with the forwarding or new address as required, the 58639
resident shall not be entitled to damages or attorneys' fees under 58640
division (C) of this section.58641

       (C) If the park operator fails to comply with division (B) of 58642
this section, the resident may recover the property and money due 58643
himthe resident, together with damages in an amount equal to the 58644
amount wrongfully withheld, and reasonable attorneys' fees.58645

       Sec. 3733.19.        Sec. 4781.51.  (A) Every written rental agreement for 58646
residential premises shall contain the name and address of the 58647
owner of the residential premises and the name and address of the 58648
owner's agent, if any. If the owner or the owner's agent is a 58649
corporation, partnership, limited partnership, association, trust, 58650
or other entity, the address shall be the principal place of 58651
business in the county in which the residential premises are 58652
situated or if there is no place of business in such county then 58653
its principal place of business in this state, and shall include 58654
the name of the person in charge thereof.58655

       (B) If the rental agreement is oral, the park operator, at 58656
the commencement of the term of occupancy, shall deliver to the 58657
resident a written notice containing the information required in 58658
division (A) of this section.58659

       (C) If the park operator fails to provide the notice of the 58660
name and address of the owner and owner's agent, if any, as 58661
required under division (A) or (B) of this section, the notices to 58662
the park operator required under division (A) of sections 3733.1258663
4781.41 and 3733.1214781.42 of the Revised Code are waived by the 58664
park operator and the operator's agent.58665

       (D) Every written rental agreement for residential premises 58666
shall contain the following notice in ten-point boldface type:58667

       "YOUR RIGHTS AS A RESIDENT AND YOUR MANUFACTURED HOME PARK 58668
OPERATOR'S RIGHTS ARE PROTECTED BY SECTIONS 3733.094781.36 TO 58669
3733.204781.52 OF THE REVISED CODE, WHICH REGULATE RENTAL 58670
AGREEMENTS IN MANUFACTURED HOME PARKS."58671

       If the rental agreement is oral, the park operator, at the 58672
commencement of the term of occupancy, shall deliver the notice to 58673
the resident in writing.58674

       Sec. 3733.20.        Sec. 4781.52.  No municipal corporation may adopt or 58675
continue in existence any ordinance and no township may adopt or 58676
continue in existence any resolution that is in conflict with 58677
sections 3733.094781.36 to 3733.204781.52 of the Revised Code, 58678
or that regulates those rights and obligations of parties to a 58679
rental agreement that are regulated by sections 3733.094781.36 to 58680
3733.204781.52 of the Revised Code. Sections 3733.094781.36 to 58681
3733.204781.52 of the Revised Code do not preempt any housing, 58682
building, health, or safety codes of any municipal corporation or 58683
township.58684

       Sec. 4781.54.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 58685
the manufactured homes commission regulatory fund. The fund shall 58686
consist of fees collected under section 4781.121 of the Revised 58687
Code and fees paid under section 4781.28 of the Revised Code and 58688
shall be used for the purposes described in those sections.58689

       Sec. 4781.99.  (A) Whoever violates division (A) of section 58690
4781.16 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor on a 58691
first offense and shall be subject to a mandatory fine of one 58692
hundred dollars. On a second offense, the person is guilty of a 58693
misdemeanor of the first degree and shall be subject to a 58694
mandatory fine of one thousand dollars.58695

       (B) Whoever violates section 4781.20 of the Revised Code is 58696
guilty of a minor misdemeanor.58697

       (C) Whoever violates any of the following is guilty of a 58698
misdemeanor of the fourth degree: 58699

       (1) Division (B) or (C) of section 4781.16 of the Revised 58700
Code;58701

       (2) Section 4781.22 of the Revised Code;58702

       (3) Section 4781.23 of the Revised Code;58703

       (4) Division (A) of section 4781.24 of the Revised Code;58704

       (5) Section 4781.25 of the Revised Code;58705

       (6) Division (A) of section 4781.35 of the Revised Code.58706

       Sec. 4905.01.  As used in this chapter:58707

       (A) "Railroad" has the same meaning as in section 4907.02 of 58708
the Revised Code.58709

       (B) "Motor transportation companycarrier" has the same 58710
meaning as in sections 4905.03 and 4921.02section 4923.01 of the 58711
Revised Code.58712

       (C) "TrailerMotor vehicle" and "public highway" have the 58713
same meanings as in section 4921.024921.01 of the Revised Code.58714

       (D) "Private motor carrier" and "motor vehicle" have the same 58715
meanings as in section 4923.02 of the Revised Code.58716

       (E) "Ohio coal research and development costs" means all 58717
reasonable costs associated with a facility or project undertaken 58718
by a public utility for which a recommendation to allow the 58719
recovery of costs associated therewith has been made under 58720
division (B)(7) of section 1551.33 of the Revised Code, including, 58721
but not limited to, capital costs, such as costs of debt and 58722
equity; construction and operation costs; termination and 58723
retirement costs; costs of feasibility and marketing studies 58724
associated with the project; and the acquisition and delivery 58725
costs of Ohio coal used in the project, less any expenditures of 58726
grant moneys.58727

       Sec. 4905.02. (A) As used in this chapter, "public utility" 58728
includes every corporation, company, copartnership, person, or 58729
association, the lessees, trustees, or receivers of the foregoing, 58730
defined in section 4905.03 of the Revised Code, including any 58731
public utility that operates its utility not for profit, except 58732
the following:58733

       (A)(1) An electric light company that operates its utility 58734
not for profit;58735

       (B)(2) A public utility, other than a telephone company, that 58736
is owned and operated exclusively by and solely for the utility's 58737
customers, including any consumer or group of consumers 58738
purchasing, delivering, storing, or transporting, or seeking to 58739
purchase, deliver, store, or transport, natural gas exclusively by 58740
and solely for the consumer's or consumers' own intended use as 58741
the end user or end users and not for profit;58742

       (C)(3) A public utility that is owned or operated by any 58743
municipal corporation;58744

       (D)(4) A railroad as defined in sections 4907.02 and 4907.03 58745
of the Revised Code;58746

       (E)(5) Any provider, including a telephone company, with 58747
respect to its provision of any of the following:58748

       (1)(a) Advanced services as defined in 47 C.F.R. 51.5;58749

       (2)(b) Broadband service, however defined or classified by 58750
the federal communications commission;58751

       (3)(c) Information service as defined in the 58752
"Telecommunications Act of 1996," 110 Stat. 59, 47 U.S.C. 153(20);58753

       (4)(d) Subject to division (A) of section 4927.03 of the 58754
Revised Code, internet protocol-enabled services as defined in 58755
section 4927.01 of the Revised Code;58756

        (5)(e) Subject to division (A) of section 4927.03 of the 58757
Revised Code, any telecommunications service as defined in section 58758
4927.01 of the Revised Code to which both of the following apply:58759

       (a)(i) The service was not commercially available on 58760
September 13, 2010, the effective date of the amendment of this 58761
section by S.B. 162 of the 128th general assembly.58762

       (b)(ii) The service employs technology that became available 58763
for commercial use only after September 13, 2010, the effective 58764
date of the amendment of this section by S.B. 162 of the 128th 58765
general assembly.58766

       (B)(1) "Public utility" includes a for-hire motor carrier 58767
even if the carrier is operated in connection with an entity 58768
described in division (A)(1), (2), (4), or (5) of this section.58769

       (2) Division (A) of this section shall not be construed to 58770
relieve a private motor carrier, operated in connection with an 58771
entity described in division (A)(1), (2), (4), or (5) of this 58772
section, from compliance with any of the following:58773

       (a) Chapter 4923. of the Revised Code;58774

       (b) Hazardous-material regulation under section 4921.15 of 58775
the Revised Code and division (H) of section 4921.19 of the 58776
Revised Code, or rules adopted thereunder;58777

       (c) Rules governing unified carrier registration adopted 58778
under section 4921.11 of the Revised Code.58779

       Sec. 4905.03.  As used in this chapter:58780

       (A) Any, any person, firm, copartnership, voluntary 58781
association, joint-stock association, company, or corporation, 58782
wherever organized or incorporated, is:58783

       (1)(A) A telephone company, when engaged in the business of 58784
transmitting telephonic messages to, from, through, or in this 58785
state;58786

       (2)(B) A for-hire motor transportation companycarrier, when 58787
engaged in the business of carrying and transporting persons or 58788
property or the business of providing or furnishing such 58789
transportation service, for hire, in or by motor-propelled 58790
vehicles of any kind, including trailers, for the public in 58791
general, over any public street, road, or highway in this state58792
vehicle for compensation, except as providedwhen engaged in any 58793
of the operations in intrastate commerce described in divisions 58794
(B)(1) to (9) of section 4921.024921.01 of the Revised Code, but 58795
including the carrier's agents, officers, and representatives, as 58796
well as employees responsible for hiring, supervising, training, 58797
assigning, or dispatching drivers and employees concerned with the 58798
installation, inspection, and maintenance of motor-vehicle 58799
equipment and accessories;58800

       (3)(C) An electric light company, when engaged in the 58801
business of supplying electricity for light, heat, or power 58802
purposes to consumers within this state, including supplying 58803
electric transmission service for electricity delivered to 58804
consumers in this state, but excluding a regional transmission 58805
organization approved by the federal energy regulatory commission;58806

       (4)(D) A gas company, when engaged in the business of 58807
supplying artificial gas for lighting, power, or heating purposes 58808
to consumers within this state or when engaged in the business of 58809
supplying artificial gas to gas companies or to natural gas 58810
companies within this state, but a producer engaged in supplying 58811
to one or more gas or natural gas companies, only such artificial 58812
gas as is manufactured by that producer as a by-product of some 58813
other process in which the producer is primarily engaged within 58814
this state is not thereby a gas company. All rates, rentals, 58815
tolls, schedules, charges of any kind, or agreements between any 58816
gas company and any other gas company or any natural gas company 58817
providing for the supplying of artificial gas and for compensation 58818
for the same are subject to the jurisdiction of the public 58819
utilities commission.58820

       (5)(E) A natural gas company, when engaged in the business of 58821
supplying natural gas for lighting, power, or heating purposes to 58822
consumers within this state. Notwithstanding the above, neither 58823
the delivery nor sale of Ohio-produced natural gas by a producer 58824
or gatherer under a public utilities commission-ordered exemption, 58825
adopted before, as to producers, or after, as to producers or 58826
gatherers, January 1, 1996, or the delivery or sale of 58827
Ohio-produced natural gas by a producer or gatherer of 58828
Ohio-produced natural gas, either to a lessor under an oil and gas 58829
lease of the land on which the producer's drilling unit is 58830
located, or the grantor incident to a right-of-way or easement to 58831
the producer or gatherer, shall cause the producer or gatherer to 58832
be a natural gas company for the purposes of this section.58833

       All rates, rentals, tolls, schedules, charges of any kind, or 58834
agreements between a natural gas company and other natural gas 58835
companies or gas companies providing for the supply of natural gas 58836
and for compensation for the same are subject to the jurisdiction 58837
of the public utilities commission. The commission, upon 58838
application made to it, may relieve any producer or gatherer of 58839
natural gas, defined in this section as a gas company or a natural 58840
gas company, of compliance with the obligations imposed by this 58841
chapter and Chapters 4901., 4903., 4907., 4909., 4921., and 4923. 58842
of the Revised Code, so long as the producer or gatherer is not 58843
affiliated with or under the control of a gas company or a natural 58844
gas company engaged in the transportation or distribution of 58845
natural gas, or so long as the producer or gatherer does not 58846
engage in the distribution of natural gas to consumers.58847

       Nothing in division (A)(5)(E) of this section limits the 58848
authority of the commission to enforce sections 4905.90 to 4905.96 58849
of the Revised Code.58850

       (6)(F) A pipe-line company, when engaged in the business of 58851
transporting natural gas, oil, or coal or its derivatives through 58852
pipes or tubing, either wholly or partly within this state;58853

       (7)(G) A water-works company, when engaged in the business of 58854
supplying water through pipes or tubing, or in a similar manner, 58855
to consumers within this state;58856

       (8)(H) A heating or cooling company, when engaged in the 58857
business of supplying water, steam, or air through pipes or tubing 58858
to consumers within this state for heating or cooling purposes;58859

       (9)(I) A messenger company, when engaged in the business of 58860
supplying messengers for any purpose;58861

       (10)(J) A street railway company, when engaged in the 58862
business of operating as a common carrier, a railway, wholly or 58863
partly within this state, with one or more tracks upon, along, 58864
above, or below any public road, street, alleyway, or ground, 58865
within any municipal corporation, operated by any motive power 58866
other than steam and not a part of an interurban railroad, whether 58867
the railway is termed street, inclined-plane, elevated, or 58868
underground railway;58869

       (11)(K) A suburban railroad company, when engaged in the 58870
business of operating as a common carrier, whether wholly or 58871
partially within this state, a part of a street railway 58872
constructed or extended beyond the limits of a municipal 58873
corporation, and not a part of an interurban railroad;58874

       (12)(L) An interurban railroad company, when engaged in the 58875
business of operating a railroad, wholly or partially within this 58876
state, with one or more tracks from one municipal corporation or 58877
point in this state to another municipal corporation or point in 58878
this state, whether constructed upon the public highways or upon 58879
private rights-of-way, outside of municipal corporations, using 58880
electricity or other motive power than steam power for the 58881
transportation of passengers, packages, express matter, United 58882
States mail, baggage, and freight. Such an interurban railroad 58883
company is included in the term "railroad" as used in section 58884
4907.02 of the Revised Code.58885

       (13)(M) A sewage disposal system company, when engaged in the 58886
business of sewage disposal services through pipes or tubing, and 58887
treatment works, or in a similar manner, within this state.58888

       (B) "Motor-propelled vehicle" means any automobile, 58889
automobile truck, motor bus, or any other self-propelled vehicle 58890
not operated or driven upon fixed rails or tracks.58891

       Sec. 4905.05.  The jurisdiction, supervision, powers, and 58892
duties of the public utilities commission extend to every public 58893
utility and railroad, the plant or property of which lies wholly 58894
within this state and when the property of a public utility or 58895
railroad lies partly within and partly without this state to that 58896
part of such plant or property which lies within this state; to 58897
the persons or companies owning, leasing, or operating such public 58898
utilities and railroads; to the records and accounts of the 58899
business thereof done within this state; and to the records and 58900
accounts of any companies which are part of an electric utility 58901
holding company system exempt under section 3(a)(1) or (2) of the 58902
"Public Utility Holding Company Act of 1935," 49 Stat. 803, 15 58903
U.S.C. 79c, and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder, 58904
insofar as such records and accounts may in any way affect or 58905
relate to the costs associated with the provision of electric 58906
utility service by any public utility operating in this state and 58907
part of such holding company system.58908

       Nothing in this section, or section 4905.06 or 4905.46 of the 58909
Revised Code pertaining to regulation of holding companies, grants 58910
the public utilities commission authority to regulate a holding 58911
company or its subsidiaries which are organized under the laws of 58912
another state, render no public utility service in the state of 58913
Ohio, and are regulated as a public utility by the public 58914
utilities commission of another state or primarily by a federal 58915
regulatory commission, nor do these grants of authority apply to 58916
public utilities that are excepted from the definition of "public 58917
utility" under divisions (A)(1) to (C)(3) of section 4905.02 of 58918
the Revised Code.58919

       Sec. 4905.06.  The public utilities commission has general 58920
supervision over all public utilities within its jurisdiction as 58921
defined in section 4905.05 of the Revised Code, and may examine 58922
such public utilities and keep informed as to their general 58923
condition, capitalization, and franchises, and as to the manner in 58924
which their properties are leased, operated, managed, and 58925
conducted with respect to the adequacy or accommodation afforded 58926
by their service, the safety and security of the public and their 58927
employees, and their compliance with all laws, orders of the 58928
commission, franchises, and charter requirements. The commission 58929
has general supervision over all other companies referred to in 58930
section 4905.05 of the Revised Code to the extent of its 58931
jurisdiction as defined in that section, and may examine such 58932
companies and keep informed as to their general condition and 58933
capitalization, and as to the manner in which their properties are 58934
leased, operated, managed, and conducted with respect to the 58935
adequacy or accommodation afforded by their service, and their 58936
compliance with all laws and orders of the commission, insofar as 58937
any of such matters may relate to the costs associated with the 58938
provision of electric utility service by public utilities in this 58939
state which are affiliated or associated with such companies. The 58940
commission, through the public utilities commissioners or 58941
inspectors or employees of the commission authorized by it, may 58942
enter in or upon, for purposes of inspection, any property, 58943
equipment, building, plant, factory, office, apparatus, machinery, 58944
device, and lines of any public utility. The power to inspect 58945
includes the power to prescribe any rule or order that the 58946
commission finds necessary for protection of the public safety. In 58947
order to assist the commission in the performance of its duties 58948
under this chapter, authorized employees of the motor carrier 58949
enforcement unit, created under section 5503.34 of the Revised 58950
Code in the division of state highway patrol, of the department of 58951
public safety may enter in or upon, for inspection purposes, any 58952
motor vehicle of any motor transportation company or private motor 58953
carrier as defined in section 4923.02 of the Revised Code.58954

       In order to inspect motor vehicles owned or operated by a 58955
motor transportation companycarrier engaged in the transportation 58956
of persons, authorized employees of the motor carrier enforcement 58957
unit, division of state highway patrol, of the department of 58958
public safety may enter in or upon any property of any motor 58959
transportation company, as defined in section 4921.02 of the 58960
Revised Code,carrier engaged in the intrastate transportation of 58961
persons.58962

       Sec. 4905.402.  (A) As used in this section:58963

       (1) "Control" means the possession of the power to direct the 58964
management and policies of a domestic telephone company or a 58965
holding company of a domestic telephone company, or the management 58966
and policies of a domestic electric utility or a holding company 58967
of a domestic electric utility, through the ownership of voting 58968
securities, by contract, or otherwise, but does not include the 58969
power that results from holding an official position or the 58970
possession of corporate office with the domestic company or 58971
utility or the holding company. Control is presumed to exist if 58972
any person, directly or indirectly, owns, controls, holds the 58973
power to vote, or holds with the power to vote proxies that 58974
constitute, twenty per cent or more of the total voting power of 58975
the domestic company or utility or the holding company.58976

       (2) "Electric utility" has the same meaning as in section 58977
4928.07 of the Revised Code.58978

       (3) "Holding company" excludes any securities broker 58979
performing the usual and customary broker's function.58980

       (4) "Telephone company" means any company described in 58981
division (A)(1) of section 4905.03 of the Revised Code that is a 58982
public utility under section 4905.02 of the Revised Code and 58983
provides basic local exchange service, as defined in section 58984
4927.01 of the Revised Code.58985

       (B) No person shall acquire control, directly or indirectly, 58986
of a domestic telephone company or a holding company controlling a 58987
domestic telephone company or of a domestic electric utility or a 58988
holding company controlling a domestic electric utility unless 58989
that person obtains the prior approval of the public utilities 58990
commission under this section. To obtain approval the person shall 58991
file an application with the commission demonstrating that the 58992
acquisition will promote public convenience and result in the 58993
provision of adequate service for a reasonable rate, rental, toll, 58994
or charge. The application shall contain such information as the 58995
commission may require. If the commission considers a hearing 58996
necessary, it may fix a time and place for hearing. If, after 58997
review of the application and after any necessary hearing, the 58998
commission is satisfied that approval of the application will 58999
promote public convenience and result in the provision of adequate 59000
service for a reasonable rate, rental, toll, or charge, the 59001
commission shall approve the application and make such order as it 59002
considers proper. If the commission fails to issue an order within 59003
thirty days of the filing of the application, or within twenty 59004
days of the conclusion of a hearing, if one is held, the 59005
application shall be deemed approved by operation of law.59006

       (C) No domestic telephone company shall merge with another 59007
domestic telephone company unless the merging companies obtain the 59008
prior approval of the commission. An application seeking such 59009
approval shall be filed, processed, and decided in the manner 59010
provided for an application under division (B) of this section.59011

       (D) The commission shall adopt such rules as it finds 59012
necessary to carry out the provisions of this section.59013

       (E) If it appears to the commission or to any person that may 59014
be adversely affected that any person is engaged in or about to 59015
engage in any acts or practices that would violate division (B) or 59016
(C) of this section or any provision of a rule adopted under this 59017
section, the attorney general, when directed to do so by the 59018
commission, or the person claiming to be adversely affected may 59019
bring an action in any court of common pleas that has jurisdiction 59020
and venue to enjoin such acts or practices and enforce compliance. 59021
Upon a proper showing, the court shall grant, without bond, a 59022
restraining order or temporary or permanent injunction.59023

       (F) The courts of this state have jurisdiction over every 59024
person not a resident of or domiciled or authorized to do business 59025
in this state that files, or is prohibited from acting without 59026
first filing, an application under division (B) or (C) of this 59027
section, and over all actions involving such person arising out of 59028
violations of any provision of this section or of a rule adopted 59029
under this section. The secretary of state shall be the agent for 59030
service of process for any such person in any action, suit, or 59031
proceeding arising out of such violations. Copies of all such 59032
lawful process shall be served upon the secretary of state and 59033
transmitted by certified mail, with return receipt requested, by 59034
the secretary of state to such person at the person's last known 59035
address.59036

       Sec. 4905.54.  Every public utility or railroad and every 59037
officer of a public utility or railroad shall comply with every 59038
order, direction, and requirement of the public utilities 59039
commission made under authority of this chapter and Chapters 59040
4901., 4903., 4907., and 4909., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised 59041
Code, so long as they remain in force. Except as otherwise 59042
specifically provided in sections 4905.83,section 4905.95, 59043
4919.99, 4921.99, and 4923.99 of the Revised Code, the public 59044
utilities commission may assess a forfeiture of not more than ten 59045
thousand dollars for each violation or failure against a public 59046
utility or railroad that violates a provision of those chapters or 59047
that after due notice fails to comply with an order, direction, or 59048
requirement of the commission that was officially promulgated. 59049
Each day's continuance of the violation or failure is a separate 59050
offense. All forfeitures collected under this section shall be 59051
credited to the general revenue fund.59052

       Sec. 4905.57.  Except as otherwise specifically provided in 59053
sections 4905.83, 4905.96, 4919.99, 4921.99, and 4923.99 of the 59054
Revised Code, actions to recover forfeitures provided for in this 59055
chapter and Chapters 4901., 4903., 4907., 4909., 4921., and 4923. 59056
of the Revised Code shall be prosecuted in the name of the state 59057
and may be brought in the court of common pleas of any county in 59058
which the public utility or, railroad, or motor carrier is 59059
located. Such actions shall be commenced and prosecuted by the 59060
attorney general when hethe attorney general is directed to do so 59061
by the public utilities commission. Moneys recovered by such 59062
actions shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of 59063
the general revenue fund.59064

       Sec. 4905.58.  All prosecutions against a railroad or an 59065
officer, agent, or employee thereof, under Chapters 4901., 4903., 59066
4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., and 4923. and other sections of 59067
the Revised Code for penalties involving imprisonment shall be by 59068
indictment.59069

       Sec. 4905.80.  The policy of this state is to:59070

       (A) Regulate transportation by motor carriers so as to 59071
recognize and preserve the inherent advantages of, and foster safe 59072
conditions in, that transportation and among those carriers in the 59073
public interest;59074

       (B) Promote safe and secure service by motor carriers, 59075
without unjust discriminations, undue preferences or advantages, 59076
and unfair or destructive competitive practices;59077

       (C) Improve the relations between, and coordinate 59078
transportation by and regulation of, motor carriers and other 59079
carriers;59080

       (D) Develop and preserve a highway transportation system 59081
properly adapted to the needs of commerce and the state;59082

       (E) Cooperate with the federal government and the several 59083
states, and the authorized officials thereof, and with any 59084
organization of motor carriers in the administration and 59085
enforcement of this chapter and Chapters 4901., 4903., 4907., 59086
4909., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code.59087

       Sec. 4905.81.  The public utilities commission shall:59088

       (A) Supervise and regulate each motor carrier;59089

       (B) Regulate the safety of operation of each motor carrier;59090

       (C) Adopt reasonable safety rules applicable to the highway 59091
transportation of persons or property in interstate and intrastate 59092
commerce by motor carriers;59093

       (D) Adopt safety rules applicable to the transportation and 59094
offering for transportation of hazardous materials in interstate 59095
and intrastate commerce by motor carriers. The rules shall not be 59096
incompatible with the requirements of the United States department 59097
of transportation.59098

       (E) Require the filing of reports and other data by motor 59099
carriers;59100

       (F) Adopt reasonable rules for the administration and 59101
enforcement of this chapter and Chapters 4901., 4903., 4907., 59102
4909., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code applying to each motor 59103
carrier in this state;59104

       (G) Supervise and regulate motor carriers in all other 59105
matters affecting the relationship between those carriers and the 59106
public to the exclusion of all local authorities, except as 59107
provided in this section. The commission, in the exercise of the 59108
jurisdiction conferred upon it by this chapter and Chapters 4901., 59109
4903., 4907., 4909., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code, may 59110
adopt rules affecting motor carriers, notwithstanding the 59111
provisions of any ordinance, resolution, license, or permit 59112
enacted, adopted, or granted by any township, municipal 59113
corporation, municipal corporation and county, or county. In case 59114
of conflict between any such ordinance, resolution, license, or 59115
permit, the order or rule of the commission shall prevail. Local 59116
subdivisions may adopt reasonable local police rules within their 59117
respective boundaries not inconsistent with those chapters and 59118
rules adopted under them.59119

       The commission has jurisdiction to receive, hear, and 59120
determine as a question of fact, upon complaint of any party or 59121
upon its own motion, and upon not less than fifteen days' notice 59122
of the time and place of the hearing and the matter to be heard, 59123
whether any corporation, company, association, joint-stock 59124
association, person, firm, or copartnership, or their lessees, 59125
legal or personal representatives, trustees, or receivers or 59126
trustees appointed by any court, is engaged as a motor carrier. 59127
The finding of the commission on such a question is a final order 59128
that may be reviewed as provided in section 4923.15 of the Revised 59129
Code.59130

       Sec. 4905.84. (A) As used in this section:59131

        (1) "Telecommunications relay service" means intrastate 59132
transmission services that provide the ability for an individual 59133
who has a hearing or speech impairment to engage in a 59134
communication by wire or radio with a hearing individual in a 59135
manner that is functionally equivalent to the ability of an 59136
individual who does not have a hearing or speech impairment to 59137
communicate using voice communication services by wire or radio. 59138
"Telecommunications relay service" includes services that enable 59139
two-way communication between an individual who uses a 59140
telecommunications device for the deaf or other nonvoice terminal 59141
device and an individual who does not use such a device.59142

        (2) "TRS provider" means an entity selected by the public 59143
utilities commission as the provider of telecommunications relay 59144
service for this state as part of the commission's intrastate 59145
telecommunications relay service program certified pursuant to 59146
federal law.59147

        (B) For the sole purpose of funding telecommunications relay 59148
service, the commission shall, not earlier than January 1, 2009, 59149
impose on and collect from each service provider that is required 59150
under federal law to provide its customers access to 59151
telecommunications relay service an annual assessment to pay for 59152
costs incurred by the TRS provider for providing such service in 59153
Ohio. The commission shall determine the appropriate service 59154
providers to be assessed the telecommunications relay service 59155
costs, including telephone companies as defined in division (A)(1)59156
of section 4905.03 of the Revised Code, commercial mobile radio 59157
service providers, and providers of advanced services or internet 59158
protocol-enabled services that are competitive with or 59159
functionally equivalent to basic local exchange service as defined 59160
in section 4927.01 of the Revised Code.59161

        (C) The assessment shall be allocated proportionately among 59162
the appropriate service providers using a competitively neutral 59163
formula established by the commission based on the number of 59164
retail intrastate customer access lines or their equivalent. The 59165
commission shall annually reconcile the funds collected with the 59166
actual costs of providing telecommunications relay service when it 59167
issues the assessment and shall either proportionately charge the 59168
service providers for any amounts not sufficient to cover the 59169
actual costs or proportionately credit amounts collected in excess 59170
of the actual costs. The total amount assessed from all service 59171
providers shall not exceed the total telecommunications relay 59172
service costs.59173

        Each service provider that pays the assessment shall be 59174
permitted to recover the cost of the assessment. The method of 59175
recovery may include, but is not limited to, a customer billing 59176
surcharge.59177

        The commission shall deposit the money collected in the 59178
telecommunications relay service fund, which is hereby created in 59179
the state treasury, and shall use the money in that fund solely to 59180
compensate the TRS provider.59181

        (D) The commission shall take such measures as it considers 59182
necessary to protect the confidentiality of information provided 59183
to the commission pursuant to this section by service providers 59184
required to pay the assessment.59185

        (E) The commission may assess a forfeiture of not more than 59186
one thousand dollars on any service provider failing to comply 59187
with this section. Each day's continuance of such failure is a 59188
separate offense. The forfeiture shall be recovered in accordance 59189
with sections 4905.55 to 4905.60 of the Revised Code.59190

       (F) The jurisdiction and authority granted to the commission 59191
by this section is limited to the administration and enforcement 59192
of this section. The commission may adopt such rules as it finds 59193
necessary to carry out this section. The commission shall adopt 59194
rules under section 111.15 of the Revised Code to establish the 59195
assessment amounts and procedures.59196

       Sec. 4905.90.  As used in sections 4905.90 to 4905.96 of the 59197
Revised Code:59198

       (A) "Contiguous property" includes, but is not limited to, a 59199
manufactured home park as defined in section 3733.014781.01 of 59200
the Revised Code; a public or publicly subsidized housing project; 59201
an apartment complex; a condominium complex; a college or 59202
university; an office complex; a shopping center; a hotel; an 59203
industrial park; and a race track.59204

       (B) "Gas" means natural gas, flammable gas, or gas which is 59205
toxic or corrosive.59206

       (C) "Gathering lines" and the "gathering of gas" have the 59207
same meaning as in the Natural Gas Pipeline Safety Act and the 59208
rules adopted by the United States department of transportation 59209
pursuant to the Natural Gas Pipeline Safety Act, including 49 59210
C.F.R. part 192, as amended.59211

       (D) "Intrastate pipe-line transportation" has the same 59212
meaning as in 82 Stat. 720 (1968), 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1671, as 59213
amended, but excludes the gathering of gas exempted by the Natural 59214
Gas Pipeline Safety Act.59215

       (E) "Master-meter system" means a pipe-line system that 59216
distributes gas within a contiguous property for which the system 59217
operator purchases gas for resale to consumers, including tenants. 59218
Such pipe-line system supplies consumers who purchase the gas 59219
directly through a meter, or by paying rent, or by other means. 59220
The term includes a master-meter system as defined in 49 C.F.R. 59221
191.3, as amended. The term excludes a pipeline within a 59222
manufactured home, mobile home, or a building.59223

       (F) "Natural Gas Pipeline Safety Act" means the "Natural Gas 59224
Pipeline Safety Act of 1968," 82 Stat. 720, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1671 59225
et seq., as amended.59226

       (G) "Operator" means any of the following:59227

       (1) A gas company or natural gas company as defined in 59228
section 4905.03 of the Revised Code, except that division 59229
(A)(5)(E) of that section does not authorize the public utilities 59230
commission to relieve any producer of gas, as a gas company or 59231
natural gas company, of compliance with sections 4905.90 to 59232
4905.96 of the Revised Code or the pipe-line safety code created 59233
under section 4905.91 of the Revised Code;59234

       (2) A pipe-line company, as defined in section 4905.03 of the 59235
Revised Code, when engaged in the business of transporting gas by 59236
pipeline;59237

       (3) A public utility that is excepted from the definition of 59238
"public utility" under division (B)(A)(2) or (C)(3) of section 59239
4905.02 of the Revised Code, when engaged in supplying or 59240
transporting gas by pipeline within this state;59241

       (4) Any person that owns, operates, manages, controls, or 59242
leases any of the following:59243

       (a) Intrastate pipe-line transportation facilities within 59244
this state;59245

       (b) Gas gathering lines within this state which are not 59246
exempted by the Natural Gas Pipeline Safety Act;59247

       (c) A master-meter system within this state.59248

       "Operator" does not include an ultimate consumer who owns a 59249
service line, as defined in 49 C.F.R. 192.3, as amended, on the 59250
real property of that ultimate consumer.59251

       (H) "Operator of a master-meter system" means a person 59252
described under division (F)(G)(4)(c) of this section. An operator 59253
of a master-meter system is not a public utility under section 59254
4905.02 or a gas or natural gas company under section 4905.03 of 59255
the Revised Code.59256

       (I) "Person" means:59257

       (1) In addition to those defined in division (C) of section 59258
1.59 of the Revised Code, a joint venture or a municipal 59259
corporation;59260

       (2) Any trustee, receiver, assignee, or personal 59261
representative of persons defined in division (H)(I)(1) of this 59262
section.59263

       (J) "Safety audit" means the public utilities commission's 59264
audit of the premises, pipe-line facilities, and the records, 59265
maps, and other relevant documents of a master-meter system to 59266
determine the operator's compliance with sections 4905.90 to 59267
4905.96 of the Revised Code and the pipe-line safety code.59268

       (K) "Safety inspection" means any inspection, survey, or 59269
testing of a master-meter system which is authorized or required 59270
by sections 4905.90 to 4905.96 of the Revised Code and the 59271
pipe-line safety code. The term includes, but is not limited to, 59272
leak surveys, inspection of regulators and critical valves, and 59273
monitoring of cathodic protection systems, where applicable.59274

       (L) "Safety-related condition" means any safety-related 59275
condition defined in 49 C.F.R. 191.23, as amended.59276

       (M) "Total Mcfs of gas it supplied or delivered" means the 59277
sum of the following volumes of gas that an operator supplied or 59278
delivered, measured in units per one thousand cubic feet:59279

       (1) Residential sales;59280

       (2) Commercial and industrial sales;59281

       (3) Other sales to public authorities;59282

       (4) Interdepartmental sales;59283

       (5) Sales for resale;59284

       (6) Transportation of gas.59285

       Sec. 4907.01.  As used in sections 4907.01 to 4907.63 of the 59286
Revised Code:59287

       (A) "Public utility" has the same meaning as in section 59288
4905.02 of the Revised Code.59289

       (B) "Telephone company," "street railway company," and 59290
"interurban railroad company" have the same meanings as in section 59291
4905.03 of the Revised Code.59292

       (C) "Railroad" has the same meaning as in section 4907.02 of 59293
the Revised Code.59294

       (D) "Public highway" has the same meaning as in sections 59295
4905.03 and 4921.02section 4921.01 of the Revised Code.59296

       Sec. 4907.02.  As used in Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 59297
4907., 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4959. of the Revised Code, 59298
"railroad" includes any corporation, company, individual, or 59299
association of individuals, or its lessees, trustees, or receivers 59300
appointed by a court, which owns, operates, manages, or controls a 59301
railroad or part of a railroad as a common carrier in this state, 59302
or which owns, operates, manages, or controls any cars or other 59303
equipment used on such a railroad, or which owns, operates, 59304
manages, or controls any bridges, terminals, union depots, 59305
sidetracks, docks, wharves, or storage elevators used in 59306
connection with such a railroad, whether owned by such railroad or 59307
otherwise, and means and includes express companies, water 59308
transportation companies, freight-line companies, sleeping car 59309
companies, and interurban railroad companies, and all persons and 59310
associations of persons, whether incorporated or not, operating 59311
such agencies for public use in the conveyance of persons or 59312
property within this state. All duties required of, and penalties 59313
imposed upon, a railroad or an officer or agent thereof insofar as 59314
they are applicable, are required and imposed upon express 59315
companies, water transportation companies, and interurban railroad 59316
companies, and upon their officers and agents.59317

       The public utilities commission has the power of supervision 59318
and control of express companies, water transportation companies, 59319
and interurban railroad companies to the same extent as railroads.59320

       Sec. 4907.04.  Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and59321
4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code do not apply to 59322
street and electric railways engaged solely in the transportation 59323
of passengers within the limits of cities, or to other private 59324
railroads not doing business as common carriers.59325

       Sec. 4907.08.  The public utilities commission shall inquire 59326
into any neglect or violation of the laws of this state by a 59327
railroad doing business in this state, by its officers, agents, or 59328
employees, or by any person operating a railroad. The commission 59329
shall enforce Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., 4909., 4921., 59330
4923., and 4959. of the Revised Code, as well as all other laws 59331
relating to railroads, and report violations thereof to the 59332
attorney general.59333

       If, upon complaint or otherwise, the commission has reason to 59334
believe that a railroad or any officer, agent, or employee of a 59335
railroad has violated or is violating any law of this state, or if 59336
it has reason to believe that differences have arisen between 59337
citizens of the state and any railroad operating as a common 59338
carrier within this state, it shall examine into the matter.59339

       Sec. 4907.19.  The public utilities commission shall cause 59340
blank forms to be prepared suitable for the purposes designated in 59341
Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 59342
4925. of the Revised Code which shall conform as nearly as 59343
practicable to the forms prescribed by the interstate commerce 59344
commission, and, when necessary, furnish such blank forms to each 59345
railroad.59346

       Sec. 4907.28.  No railroad shall charge, demand, collect, or 59347
receive a greater or less compensation for the transportation of 59348
passengers or property, or for any service in connection 59349
therewith, than is specified in the printed schedules referred to 59350
in sections 4907.25 to 4907.27, inclusive, of the Revised Code, 59351
including schedules of joint rates, as being then in force. The 59352
rates, fares, and charges named in such schedules shall be the 59353
lawful rates, fares, and charges until they are changed as 59354
provided in Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 59355
4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code.59356

       Sec. 4907.35.  If a railroad, or an agent or officer of a 59357
railroad, by special rate, rebate, drawback, or by means of false 59358
billing, false classification, false weighing, or other device, 59359
charges, demands, collects, or receives, either directly or 59360
indirectly, from any person, firm, or corporation, a greater or 59361
less compensation for service rendered or to be rendered by such 59362
railroad for the transportation of persons or property or any 59363
service in connection therewith, than that prescribed in the 59364
published tariffs then in force, or established as provided in 59365
Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 59366
4925. of the Revised Code, or a greater or less compensation than 59367
it charges, demands, collects, or receives from any other person, 59368
firm, or corporation for a like and contemporaneous service in the 59369
transportation of a like kind of traffic, under substantially 59370
similar circumstances and conditions, the railroad is guilty of 59371
unjust discrimination, which is hereby prohibited. Upon conviction 59372
of unjust discrimination, such railroad shall forfeit and pay into 59373
the state treasury not less than one hundred nor more than five 59374
thousand dollars for each offense.59375

       No agent or officer of a railroad shall violate this section.59376

       Sec. 4907.37.  No common carrier subject to Chapters 4901., 59377
4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the 59378
Revised Code shall make or give undue or unreasonable preference 59379
or advantage to a particular person, company, firm, corporation, 59380
or locality, or to any particular description of traffic, or 59381
subject any particular person, company, firm, corporation, or 59382
locality, or any particular description of traffic, to any undue 59383
or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage in any respect.59384

       Sec. 4907.43.  When the tracks of a railroad and the tracks 59385
of an interurban or suburban railway cross, connect, or intersect, 59386
and such tracks are of the same gauge, the companies owning such 59387
railroads may connect such tracks so as to admit the passage of 59388
cars from one to the other with facility.59389

       If any such railroads fail to make such connection, upon 59390
complaint of any party authorized by Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 59391
4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code to 59392
file complaint, the public utilities commission shall proceed to 59393
hear and determine the same in a manner provided for making 59394
investigations upon complaint.59395

       If upon such hearing the commission finds that it is 59396
practicable and reasonably necessary to accomodateaccommodate the 59397
public, to connect such tracks and that when so connected it will 59398
be practicable to transport cars over such railroad without 59399
endangering the equipment, tracks, or appliances of either 59400
company, the commission shall make an order requiring such 59401
railroads to make connection. Such order shall describe the terms 59402
and conditions and shall apportion the cost of making such 59403
connection between the railroads.59404

       When such connection is made, the railroads parties to it, 59405
according to their respective powers, shall afford all reasonable 59406
and proper facilities for the interchange of traffic between their 59407
respective lines for forwarding and delivering passengers and 59408
property, and without unreasonable delay or discrimination shall 59409
transfer, switch, and deliver freight or passenger cars destine to 59410
a point on its own or connecting lines. Precedence may be given to 59411
livestock and perishable freight over other freight. Whenever a 59412
derailing device is required at the intersection of any railroads 59413
mentioned in this section, it shall be installed, maintained, and 59414
operated as required by the commission, which may prescribe the 59415
necessary rules and regulations for such operation, and designate 59416
the companies that shall be responsible for the operation of such 59417
derailing device.59418

       Sec. 4907.49.  When two or more railroads cross a public 59419
highway or street at a dangerous crossing, the expenses incurred 59420
in the erection and maintenance of gates, bells, or other devices, 59421
and of necessary gatekeepers or flagmenflaggers, and apportioned 59422
by the public utilities commission as railroad expense, shall be 59423
shared equally by the railroads.59424

       Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., and 59425
4923. of the Revised Code do not prevent the use of automatic 59426
bells or other mechanical devices by a railroad at a public 59427
crossing not declared dangerous by the public utilities 59428
commission, nor do they prevent state, county, township, or 59429
municipal officials from entering into an agreement with a 59430
railroad to pay all or part of the expense of erecting a warning 59431
device. Any funds levied and made available for highways or street 59432
purposes may be used to pay the public share of the cost under 59433
such an agreement. If a gate is erected or a flagmanflagger is 59434
stationed and maintained by a railroad, either alone or pursuant 59435
to such an agreement, the gate or flagmanflagger shall not be 59436
abandoned nor an automatic bell or other mechanical device 59437
substituted for the gate or flagmanflagger, unless the commission 59438
consents to the abandonment or substitution.59439

       Sec. 4907.57.  All claims, charges, or demands against a 59440
railroad for loss of or damage to property occurring while in the 59441
custody of such railroad and unreasonable delay in transportation 59442
and delivery, for overcharges upon a shipment, or for any other 59443
service in violation of Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and59444
4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code, if not paid 59445
within sixty days from the date of the filing thereof with such 59446
railroad, may be submitted to the public utilities commission by a 59447
formal complaint. Such complaint shall be made upon blank forms 59448
which the commission shall provide upon demand of the claimant.59449

       Such complaint shall be verified as petitions in civil 59450
actions and may be accompanied by the sworn statements of any 59451
witnesses who have knowledge of any fact material to the inquiry. 59452
Upon the filing of such complaint the commission shall forthwith 59453
cite the railroad to answer the complaint, and the citation shall 59454
be accompanied with a brief statement of the claim. The answer of 59455
the railroad shall be filed within three weeks from the service of 59456
the citation and shall be verified as answers in civil cases, and 59457
may be accompanied with the affidavits of any witnesses having 59458
knowledge of facts material to the inquiry.59459

       The burden of proof shall be upon the railroad to show that 59460
loss or damage to property was not due to its negligence. The 59461
railroad to which property is delivered for shipment shall prima 59462
facie be liable for loss or damage occurring to such property in 59463
transit notwithstanding such property may be delivered to other 59464
railroads before reaching its destination. The claim referred to 59465
in this section for loss of or damage to property may be made to 59466
any carrier over whose lines the lost or damaged property was 59467
consigned, and such claimant may at histhe claimant's option join 59468
all of such railroads as parties defendant in histhe complaint 59469
before said commission. The railroad shall furnish the claimant 59470
with a copy of its answer and affidavits, and within two weeks 59471
from the filing of such answers the claimant may file hisa reply, 59472
with affidavits in support thereof, verified as replies in civil 59473
cases. At the expiration of said period of two weeks the 59474
commission shall proceed summarily to examine the complaint, 59475
answer, reply, and affidavits, and shall determine the existence 59476
and validity of the claim presented. If the commission finds in 59477
favor of the claimant it shall certify its findings to the clerk 59478
of the court of common pleas of the county in which the claimant 59479
resides or where the railroad or any of its offices is maintained.59480

       Sec. 4907.59.  Upon request of the public utilities 59481
commission, the attorney general or the prosecuting attorney of 59482
the proper county shall aid in an investigation, prosecution, 59483
hearing, or trial had under Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., 59484
and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code, and shall 59485
institute and prosecute necessary actions or proceedings for the 59486
enforcement of such chapters and of other laws of this state 59487
relating to railroads, and for the punishment of all violations of 59488
such chapters and such other laws.59489

       Sec. 4907.60.  If a railroad fails to perform a duty enjoined 59490
upon it by Chapter 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., 4909., 4921., 59491
4923., or 4959. of the Revised Code, or does any act prohibited by 59492
any of those chapters, for which failure or act no penalty or 59493
forfeiture has been provided by law, or fails to obey a lawful 59494
requirement or order made by the public utilities commission or 59495
order of any court upon application of the commission, the 59496
railroad, except as otherwise specifically provided in sections 59497
4905.83,section 4905.95, 4919.99, 4921.99, and 4923.99 of the 59498
Revised Code, shall forfeit into the state treasury not less than 59499
one hundred nor more than ten thousand dollars for each violation 59500
or failure. In construing and enforcing this section, the act, 59501
omission, or failure of any officer, agent, or other person acting 59502
for or employed by a railroad, while acting within the scope of 59503
the officer's, agent's, or other person's employment, is the act, 59504
omission, or failure of the railroad.59505

       Sec. 4907.61.  Except as otherwise specifically provided in 59506
sections 4905.83, 4905.96, 4919.99, 4921.99, and 4923.99 of the 59507
Revised Code, when the attorney general prosecutes an action for 59508
the recovery of a forfeiture provided for in Chapter 4901., 4903., 59509
4905., 4907., 4909., 4921., 4923., or 4959. of the Revised Code, 59510
the attorney general may bring the action in the court of common 59511
pleas of Franklin county or of any county having jurisdiction of 59512
the defendant.59513

       Sec. 4907.62.  If a railroad does, causes, or permits 59514
anything prohibited by Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and59515
4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code to be done, or 59516
omits doing anything required to be done by such chapters, such 59517
railroad is liable to the person, firm, or corporation injured 59518
thereby in treble the amount of damages sustained in consequence 59519
of such violation or omission. A recovery provided by this section 59520
shall not affect a recovery by the state of the penalty prescribed 59521
for such violation.59522

       Sec. 4909.01.  As used in this chapter:59523

       (A) "Public utility" has the same meaning as in section 59524
4905.02 of the Revised Code.59525

       (B) "Electric light company," "gas company," "natural gas 59526
company," "pipeline company," "water-works company," "sewage 59527
disposal system company," and "street railway company" have the 59528
same meanings as in section 4905.03 of the Revised Code.59529

       (C) "Railroad" has the same meaning as in section 4907.02 of 59530
the Revised Code.59531

       (D) "Motor transportation companyFor-hire motor carrier" has 59532
the same meaning as in sections 4905.03 and 4921.02section 59533
4921.01 of the Revised Code.59534

       Sec. 4909.02.  All regulations, practices, and service of 59535
railroad companies prescribed by the public utilities commission 59536
shall be in force and be prima-facie reasonable, unless suspended 59537
or found otherwise in an action brought for that purpose pursuant 59538
to Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., and 59539
4923. of the Revised Code, or until changed or modified by the 59540
commission.59541

       Sec. 4909.03.  All rates, fares, charges, classifications, 59542
and joint rates of railroad companies fixed by the public 59543
utilities commission shall be in force and be prima-facie lawful 59544
for two years from the day they take effect, or until changed or 59545
modified by the commission or by an order of a competent court in 59546
an action under Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 59547
4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code.59548

       Sec. 4909.17.  No rate, joint rate, toll, classification, 59549
charge, or rental, no change in any rate, joint rate, toll, 59550
classification, charge, or rental, and no regulation or practice 59551
affecting any rate, joint rate, toll, classification, charge, or 59552
rental of a public utility shall become effective until the public 59553
utilities commission, by order, determines it to be just and 59554
reasonable, except as provided in this section and sections 59555
4909.18, 4909.19, and 4909.191 of the Revised Code. Such sections 59556
do not apply to any rate, joint rate, toll, classification, 59557
charge, or rental, or any regulation or practice affecting the 59558
same, of railroads, street and electric railways, for-hire motor 59559
transportation companiescarriers, and pipe line companies. 59560

       Sec. 4909.22.  When passengers or property are transported 59561
over two or more connecting railroads between points in this 59562
state, and the railroad companies have made joint rates for the 59563
transportation of such passengers or property, such rates and all 59564
charges in connection therewith shall be just and reasonable. 59565
Every unjust and unreasonable charge is prohibited. A less charge 59566
by each of such railroads for its proportion of such joint rates 59567
than is made locally between the same points on their respective 59568
lines is not for that reason a violation of Chapters 4901., 4903., 59569
4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised 59570
Code and does not render such railroads liable to any of the 59571
penalties in such chapters.59572

       Sec. 4909.24.  Upon complaint of a person, firm, corporation, 59573
or association, of a mercantile, agricultural, or manufacturing 59574
society, or of a body politic or municipal organization, that any 59575
of the rates, fares, charges, or classifications, or any joint 59576
rates are in any respect unreasonable or unjustly discriminatory, 59577
or that any regulation or practice, affecting the transportation 59578
of persons or property, or any service in connection therewith, 59579
are in any respect unreasonable or unjustly discriminatory, or 59580
that any service is inadequate, the public utilities commission 59581
may notify the railroad complained of that complaint has been 59582
made, and ten days after such notice proceed to investigate such 59583
charges as provided in Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and59584
4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code. Before making 59585
such investigation, the commission shall give the railroad and the 59586
complainants ten days' notice of the time and place such matters 59587
will be considered and determined, and such parties are entitled 59588
to be heard and to have process to enforce the attendance of 59589
witnesses.59590

       A railroad may make complaint with like effect as though made 59591
by any person, firm, corporation, or association, merctantile59592
mercantile, agricultural, or manufacturing society, body politic, 59593
or municipal organization.59594

       Sec. 4909.28.  If, upon an investigation under Chapters 59595
4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of 59596
the Revised Code, the public utilities commission finds that any 59597
existing rate, fare, charge, or classification, any joint rate, or 59598
any regulation or practice affecting the transportation of persons 59599
or property, or service in connection therewith, is unreasonable 59600
or unjustly discriminatory, or that any service is inadequate, it 59601
shall determine and by order fix a reasonable rate, fare, charge, 59602
classification, joint rate, regulation, practice, or service to be 59603
imposed, observed, and followed in the future, in place of that so 59604
found to be unreasonable, unjustly discriminatory, or inadequate. 59605
A certified copy of each such order shall be delivered to an 59606
officer or station agent of the railroad affected, and such order 59607
shall of its own force take effect and become operative thirty 59608
days after service.59609

       All railroads to which such order applies shall make such 59610
changes in their schedules on file as are necessary to conform to 59611
such order, and no change shall thereafter be made by any railroad 59612
in any such rate, fare, or charge, or in any joint rate, without 59613
the approval of the commission.59614

       Sec. 4911.01.  As used in this chapter:59615

       (A) "Public utility" means every one as defined in divisions 59616
(A)(1), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (C), (D), (E), (F), (G), 59617
(H), and (13)(M) of section 4905.03 of the Revised Code, including 59618
all public utilities that operate their utilities not for profit, 59619
except the following:59620

       (1) Electric light companies that operate their utilities not 59621
for profit;59622

       (2) Public utilities, other than telephone companies, that 59623
are owned and operated exclusively by and solely for the 59624
utilities' customers;59625

       (3) Public utilities that are owned or operated by any 59626
municipal corporation;59627

       (4) Railroads as defined in sections 4907.02 and 4907.03 of 59628
the Revised Code.59629

       (B) "Residential consumer" means urban, suburban, and rural 59630
patrons of public utilities insofar as their needs for utility 59631
services are limited to their residence.59632

       Sec. 4921.01.  As used in this chapter:59633

       (A) "Ambulance" has the same meaning as in section 4766.01 of 59634
the Revised Code.59635

       (B) "For-hire motor carrier" means a person engaged in the 59636
business of transporting persons or property by motor vehicle for 59637
compensation, except when engaged in any of the following in 59638
intrastate commerce:59639

       (1) The transportation of persons in taxicabs in the usual 59640
taxicab service;59641

       (2) The transportation of pupils in school busses operating 59642
to or from school sessions or school events;59643

       (3) The transportation of farm supplies to the farm or farm 59644
products from farm to market or to food fabricating plants;59645

       (4) The distribution of newspapers;59646

       (5) The transportation of crude petroleum incidental to 59647
gathering from wells and delivery to destination by pipe line;59648

       (6) The transportation of injured, ill, or deceased persons 59649
by hearse or ambulance;59650

       (7) The transportation of compost (a combination of manure 59651
and sand or shredded bark mulch) or shredded bark mulch;59652

       (8) The transportation of persons in a ridesharing 59653
arrangement when any fee charged each person so transported is in 59654
such amount as to recover only the person's share of the costs of 59655
operating the motor vehicle for such purpose;59656

       (9) The operation of motor vehicles for contractors on public 59657
road work.59658

       "For-hire motor carrier" includes the carrier's agents, 59659
officers, and representatives, as well as employees responsible 59660
for hiring, supervising, training, assigning, or dispatching 59661
drivers and employees concerned with the installation, inspection, 59662
and maintenance of motor-vehicle equipment and accessories.59663

       Divisions (B)(1) to (9) of this section shall not be 59664
construed to relieve a person from compliance with 59665
hazardous-material regulation under section 4921.15 of the Revised 59666
Code and division (H) of section 4921.19 of the Revised Code, or 59667
rules adopted thereunder, or from compliance with rules governing 59668
unified carrier registration adopted under section 4921.11 of the 59669
Revised Code.59670

       (C) "Household goods" means personal effects and property 59671
used or to be used in a dwelling, excluding property moving from a 59672
factory or store.59673

       (D) "Interstate commerce" means trade, traffic, or 59674
transportation in the United States that is any of the following:59675

       (1) Between a place in a state and a place outside of that 59676
state (including a place outside of the United States);59677

       (2) Between two places in a state through another state or a 59678
place outside of the United States;59679

       (3) Between two places in a state as part of trade, traffic, 59680
or transportation originating or terminating outside the state or 59681
the United States.59682

       (E) "Intrastate commerce" means any trade, traffic, or 59683
transportation in any state which is not described in the term 59684
"interstate commerce."59685

       (F) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle, machine, tractor, 59686
trailer, or semitrailer propelled or drawn by mechanical power and 59687
used upon the highways in the transportation of persons or 59688
property, or any combination thereof, but does not include any 59689
vehicle, locomotive, or car operated exclusively on a rail or 59690
rails, or a trolley bus operated by electric power derived from a 59691
fixed overhead wire, furnishing local passenger transportation 59692
similar to street-railway service.59693

       (G) "Public highway" means any public street, road, or 59694
highway in this state, whether within or without the corporate 59695
limits of a municipal corporation.59696

       (H) "Ridesharing arrangement" means the transportation of 59697
persons in a motor vehicle where such transportation is incidental 59698
to another purpose of a volunteer driver, and includes ridesharing 59699
arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.59700

       (I) "School bus" has the same meaning as in section 4511.01 59701
of the Revised Code.59702

       (J) "Trailer" means any vehicle without motive power designed 59703
or used for carrying persons or property and for being drawn by a 59704
separate motor vehicle, including any vehicle of the trailer type, 59705
whether designed or used for carrying persons or property wholly 59706
on its own structure, or so designed or used that a part of its 59707
own weight or the weight of its load rests upon and is carried by 59708
such motor vehicle.59709

       Sec. 4921.03. (A) No for-hire motor carrier may operate in 59710
intrastate commerce unless the carrier has a current and valid 59711
certificate of public convenience and necessity.59712

       (B) The public utilities commission shall issue a certificate 59713
of public convenience and necessity to any person who does all of 59714
the following:59715

       (1) Files with the commission, in accordance with rules 59716
adopted under section 4921.05 of the Revised Code, a complete and 59717
accurate application that shall include a certification that (a) 59718
the person understands and is in compliance with the applicable 59719
service, operation, and safety laws of this state and (b) the 59720
person meets the requirements of section 4921.09 of the Revised 59721
Code;59722

       (2) Agrees to maintain accurate and current business and 59723
insurance information with the commission, in accordance with the 59724
commission's rules;59725

       (3) Has paid all applicable registration fees in accordance 59726
with rules adopted under section 4921.11 of the Revised Code, all 59727
applicable taxes under section 4921.19 of the Revised Code, and 59728
any forfeitures imposed under section 4923.99 of the Revised Code.59729

       (C) The commission shall have no power to fix, alter, or 59730
establish rates for the transportation of persons or property, nor 59731
shall the commission have the power to require or accept the 59732
filing of tariffs establishing such rates, except that the 59733
commission may accept the filing of tariffs establishing rates for 59734
the transportation of household goods.59735

       (D) A for-hire motor carrier may, at any time after a 59736
certificate of public convenience and necessity is granted or 59737
refused, file a new application or supplement a former 59738
application.59739

       (E) The commission may deny issuance of a certificate of 59740
public convenience and necessity for failure to comply with this 59741
section or rules adopted under section 4921.05 of the Revised 59742
Code.59743

       Sec. 4921.05. The public utilities commission shall adopt 59744
rules prescribing the manner and form in which a person shall 59745
apply for a certificate of public convenience and necessity under 59746
section 4921.03 of the Revised Code. The rules shall include a 59747
requirement that applications be made in writing on the blanks 59748
furnished by the commission and contain any information and 59749
certifications deemed necessary by the commission to carry out 59750
this chapter.59751

       Sec. 4921.07. (A) The public utilities commission shall adopt 59752
rules regarding procedures and timelines by which a certificate of 59753
public convenience and necessity issued under section 4921.03 of 59754
the Revised Code may be suspended. At a minimum, the rules shall 59755
require suspension of a certificate if the for-hire motor carrier 59756
does any of the following:59757

       (1) Fails to file a complete and accurate application for the 59758
certificate under section 4921.03 of the Revised Code;59759

       (2) Fails to maintain accurate and current business and 59760
insurance information with the commission;59761

       (3) Fails to maintain proper proof of insurance or proper 59762
levels of insurance under section 4921.09 of the Revised Code;59763

       (4) Fails to pay all applicable registration fees in 59764
accordance with rules adopted under section 4921.11 of the Revised 59765
Code, all applicable taxes under section 4921.19 of the Revised 59766
Code, and any forfeitures imposed under section 4923.99 of the 59767
Revised Code;59768

       (5) Requests to suspend the carrier's operations.59769

       (B)(1) The commission shall adopt rules regarding procedures 59770
and timelines by which a certificate suspended under division (A) 59771
of this section may be revoked if the conditions giving rise to 59772
the suspension are not remedied.59773

       (2) The commission shall provide the carrier with written 59774
notice indicating the nature of the deficiency, a proposed 59775
effective date of the revocation, and the means by which the 59776
deficiency may be remedied. The carrier may correct the identified 59777
deficiency or submit evidence refuting the proposed revocation 59778
within sixty days from the date of the notice. The commission may 59779
extend the sixty-day period for good cause shown. The commission 59780
may revoke the certificate after the remedy period if the carrier 59781
has not provided sufficient evidence to remedy the deficiency.59782

       Sec. 4921.09. (A) No certificate of public convenience and 59783
necessity shall be issued by the public utilities commission to 59784
any for-hire motor carrier until the carrier has filed with the 59785
commission a liability insurance certificate, policy, or bond 59786
satisfactory to the commission, in the sum and with the provisions 59787
the commission considers necessary adequately to protect the 59788
interests of the public, having due regard for the number of 59789
persons and amount of property affected. The certificate, policy, 59790
or bond shall insure the carrier against loss sustained by reason 59791
of death or injuries to persons and for loss or damage to property 59792
resulting from the negligence of the carrier.59793

       (B) No certificate for the transportation of household goods 59794
shall be issued to a for-hire motor carrier pursuant to sections 59795
4921.30 to 4921.38 of the Revised Code until it has filed with the 59796
commission a freight cargo insurance certificate, policy, or bond 59797
that the commission has determined to be adequate to protect the 59798
interests of the shipping public.59799

       (C) The Commission shall adopt rules to achieve the purposes 59800
of this section that are not incompatible with the requirements of 59801
the United States department of transportation. The rules shall at 59802
a minimum address all of the following:59803

       (1) The minimum levels of financial responsibility for each 59804
type of for-hire motor carrier;59805

       (2) The form and type of documents to be filed with the 59806
commission;59807

       (3) The manner by which documents may be filed with the 59808
commission;59809

       (4) The timelines for filing documents with the commission. 59810

       (D) If a certificate, policy, or bond required under division 59811
(A) of this section is canceled during its term or lapses for any 59812
reason, both of the following apply:59813

       (1) All operations under the certificate of public 59814
convenience and necessity shall cease immediately, and further 59815
operations shall not be conducted until a replacement is filed 59816
with the commission under division (D)(2) of this section.59817

       (2) The commission shall require the company to replace the 59818
certificate, policy, or bond with another that fully complies with 59819
the requirements of this section.59820

       The certificate of public convenience and necessity shall be 59821
reinstated only after a satisfactory insurance certificate, 59822
policy, or bond has been filed with the commission.59823

       (E) To ensure minimum standards of protection of consumers' 59824
household goods, the commission may adopt rules, not incompatible 59825
with the requirements of the United States department of 59826
transportation, governing requirements for cargo insurance for 59827
for-hire motor carriers engaged in the transportation of household 59828
goods over a public highway in this state.59829

       Sec. 4921.11.  The public utilities commission shall adopt 59830
rules applicable to registration pursuant to the unified carrier 59831
registration plan, codified as 49 U.S.C. 14504a, and the rules, 59832
procedures, and fee schedules adopted thereunder, in accordance 59833
with division (G) of section 4921.19 of the Revised Code.59834

       Sec. 4921.13. (A) The public utilities commission shall adopt 59835
rules applicable to the filing of annual update forms and the 59836
payment of taxes by for-hire motor carriers. The rules shall not 59837
be incompatible with the requirements of the United States 59838
department of transportation. The rules shall at a minimum address 59839
all of the following:59840

       (1) The information and certifications that must be provided 59841
to the commission on an annual update form, including a 59842
certification that the carrier continues to be in compliance with 59843
the applicable laws of this state.59844

       (2) Documentation and information that must be provided 59845
regarding proof of financial responsibility;59846

       (3) The form and manner in which taxes may be paid under 59847
section 4921.19 of the Revised Code.59848

       (B) The rules may address any other information that the 59849
commission determines is necessary to carry out this section.59850

       (C) A for-hire motor carrier shall not be issued a tax 59851
receipt under division (C) of section 4921.19 of the Revised Code 59852
until all of the following have been satisfied:59853

       (1) A complete and accurate annual update form has been filed 59854
with the commission;59855

       (2) Proof of financial responsibility remains in effect; 59856

       (3) All applicable registration fees in accordance with rules 59857
adopted under section 4921.11 of the Revised Code, all applicable 59858
taxes under section 4921.19 of the Revised Code, and any 59859
forfeitures imposed under section 4923.99 of the Revised Code have 59860
been paid in full.59861

       Sec. 4921.15.  (A) As used in sections 4921.15, 4921.16, and 59862
4921.19 of the Revised Code:59863

       (1) "Uniform registration" has the same meaning as 59864
"registration" as used in the final report submitted to the United 59865
States secretary of transportation, pursuant to subsection (c) of 59866
section 22 of the "Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform 59867
Safety Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1819.59868

       (2) "Uniform permit" has the same meaning as "permit" as used 59869
in the final report submitted to the United States secretary of 59870
transportation, pursuant to subsection (c) of section 22 of the 59871
"Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform Safety Act of 1990," 59872
104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1819.59873

       (B)(1) The public utilities commission may adopt rules 59874
applicable to the uniform registration and uniform permitting of 59875
persons engaged in the highway transportation of hazardous 59876
materials into, through, or within this state. The rules shall 59877
include rules staggering the registration date for those persons 59878
and reducing or extending, by no more than one year, the permit 59879
renewal period for those persons.59880

       (2) For the purpose of minimizing filing requirements 59881
regarding any background investigation required for the issuance 59882
of a uniform permit as a carrier of hazardous wastes, the 59883
commission shall accept from any applicant for the permit any 59884
refiling of information the applicant has filed with the office of 59885
the attorney general under section 3734.42 of the Revised Code or 59886
any reference to that information if the refiled or referenced 59887
information is on file with the office of the attorney general, is 59888
accurate and timely for the commission's purposes under this 59889
section, and is supplemented by any additional information the 59890
commission requires. The office of the attorney general, as 59891
necessary for a background investigation, shall make accessible to 59892
the commission any information referenced or refiled in an 59893
application for a uniform permit as a carrier of hazardous wastes 59894
that the attorney general determines may be disclosed in 59895
accordance with section 3734.42 of the Revised Code. Nothing in 59896
sections 4921.15, 4921.16, and division (H) of section 4921.19 of 59897
the Revised Code affects any limitations under section 3734.42 of 59898
the Revised Code on the disclosure of that information.59899

       (C) The commission, as necessary to implement the rules 59900
adopted under division (B) of this section, may enter into 59901
agreements, contracts, arrangements, or declarations with other 59902
states and with the national repository, established pursuant to 59903
the final report submitted to the United States secretary of 59904
transportation, pursuant to subsection (c) of section 22 of the 59905
"Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform Safety Act of 1990," 59906
104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1819. The agreements, contracts, 59907
arrangements, or declarations shall include, but not be limited 59908
to, the determination of a base state, the collection of uniform 59909
registration fees, the frequency of distribution of uniform 59910
registration fees, procedures for dispute resolution, and 59911
protection of trade secrets and confidential business information.59912

       (D) No person shall knowingly falsify or fail to submit any 59913
data, reports, records, or other information required to be 59914
submitted to the commission pursuant to this section or a rule 59915
adopted under it. For purposes of this division, a person acts 59916
knowingly if either of the following applies:59917

       (1) The person has actual knowledge of the facts giving rise 59918
to the violation.59919

       (2) A reasonable person acting in the circumstances and 59920
exercising due care would have such knowledge.59921

       (E) After notice and opportunity for a hearing, the 59922
commission, pursuant to criteria set forth in rules adopted under 59923
division (B) of this section, may suspend, revoke, or deny the 59924
uniform permit as a carrier of hazardous materials of any person 59925
that has obtained or applied for such a uniform permit from the 59926
commission pursuant to rules adopted under that division, or the 59927
commission may order the suspension of the transportation of 59928
hazardous materials into, through, or within this state by a 59929
carrier that has obtained a uniform permit from another state that 59930
has a reciprocity agreement with the commission pursuant to 59931
division (C) of this section.59932

       (F)(1) The proceedings specified in division (E) of this 59933
section are subject to and governed by Chapter 4903. of the 59934
Revised Code, except as otherwise provided in this section. The 59935
court of appeals of Franklin county has exclusive original 59936
jurisdiction to review, modify, or vacate any order of the 59937
commission suspending, revoking, or denying a uniform permit as a 59938
carrier of hazardous materials of any person that has obtained or 59939
applied for a uniform permit from the commission pursuant to rules 59940
adopted under division (B) of this section, or any order of the 59941
commission suspending the transportation of hazardous materials 59942
into, through, or within this state by a carrier that has obtained 59943
a uniform permit from another state that has a reciprocity 59944
agreement with the commission under division (C) of this section. 59945
The court of appeals shall hear and determine those appeals in the 59946
same manner and under the same standards as the Ohio supreme court 59947
hears and determines appeals under Chapter 4903. of the Revised 59948
Code. The judgment of the court of appeals is final and conclusive 59949
unless reversed, vacated, or modified on appeal. Such appeals may 59950
be taken either by the commission or the person to whom the order 59951
was issued and shall proceed as in the case of appeals in civil 59952
actions as provided in Chapter 2505. of the Revised Code.59953

       (2) Section 4903.11 of the Revised Code does not apply to 59954
appeals of any order of the commission suspending, revoking, or 59955
denying a uniform permit of a person that has obtained or applied 59956
for a uniform permit from the commission pursuant to rules adopted 59957
under division (B) of this section, or of any order of the 59958
commission suspending the transportation of hazardous materials 59959
into, through, or within this state by a carrier that has obtained 59960
a uniform permit from another state that has a reciprocity 59961
agreement with the commission pursuant to division (C) of this 59962
section. Any person to whom such an order is issued who wishes to 59963
contest the order shall file, within sixty days after the entry of 59964
the order upon the journal of the commission, a notice of appeal, 59965
setting forth the order appealed from and the errors complained 59966
of. The notice of appeal shall be served, unless waived, upon the 59967
chairperson of the commission or, in the event of the 59968
chairperson's absence, upon any public utilities commissioner, or 59969
by leaving a copy at the office of the commission at Columbus. On 59970
appeal, the court shall reverse, vacate, or modify the order if, 59971
upon consideration of the record, the court is of the opinion that 59972
the order was unlawful or unreasonable.59973

       Sec. 4921.16.  (A) Information submitted to the public 59974
utilities commission as part of a uniform registration 59975
application, pursuant to rules adopted under division (B) of 59976
section 4921.15 of the Revised Code, is a public record and is 59977
subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code.59978

       (B) Except for information related to corporate structure and 59979
personnel, information that is submitted to the commission as part 59980
of a uniform permit application, pursuant to rules adopted under 59981
division (B) of section 4921.15 of the Revised Code, is a public 59982
record and is subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code. 59983
Information that is related to corporate structure and personnel 59984
that is submitted to the commission as part of a uniform permit 59985
application, pursuant to rules adopted under division (B) of 59986
section 4921.15 of the Revised Code, is not a public record and is 59987
not subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Except as 59988
provided in division (D) of this section, the commission shall not 59989
disclose to any person any information that is related to 59990
corporate structure and personnel that is submitted as part of a 59991
uniform permit application.59992

       (C) Information that is submitted for any background 59993
investigation for an application for a uniform permit as a carrier 59994
of hazardous wastes is not a public record and is not subject to 59995
section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in division 59996
(D) of this section, the commission shall not disclose to any 59997
person any information submitted for any background investigation 59998
for such an application.59999

       (D) The commission may disclose to its authorized employees 60000
and to any federal agencies, state agencies of this state or 60001
another state, local government agencies of this state or another 60002
state, or the national repository established pursuant to the 60003
final report submitted to the United States secretary of 60004
transportation, pursuant to subsection (c) of section 22 of the 60005
"Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform Safety Act of 1990," 60006
104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1819, any information submitted 60007
to the commission as part of a uniform permit application that is 60008
related to corporate structure and personnel or submitted for any 60009
background investigation for an application for a uniform permit 60010
as a carrier of hazardous wastes if all of the following 60011
conditions are met:60012

       (1) The commission enters into a confidentiality agreement 60013
with the employee, agency, or national repository under which that 60014
employee or entity agrees not to disclose to any third party any 60015
information related to corporate structure or personnel or any 60016
information submitted as part of a background investigation unless 60017
the third party enters into a confidentiality agreement with the 60018
commission consistent with this division.60019

       (2) The employee, agency, or national repository certifies to 60020
the commission that it is not required by any state or federal law 60021
to disclose any information related to corporate structure or 60022
personnel or any information submitted as part of a background 60023
investigation.60024

       (3) The federal agency, state or local government agency of 60025
another state, or national repository irrevocably consents in 60026
writing to the jurisdiction of the courts of this state and 60027
service of process in this state, including, without limitation, 60028
summonses and subpoenas, for any civil proceeding arising out of 60029
an intentional disclosure of information in violation of this 60030
division.60031

       (E) Any person who intentionally discloses information in 60032
violation of division (D) of this section is liable to the owner 60033
of the information for civil damages caused by the disclosure.60034

       Sec. 4921.19.  (A) Every for-hire motor carrier operating in 60035
this state shall, at the time of the issuance of a certificate of 60036
public convenience and necessity under section 4921.03 of the 60037
Revised Code, pay to the public utilities commission, for and on 60038
behalf of the treasurer of state, the following taxes:60039

       (1) For each motor vehicle used for transporting persons, 60040
thirty dollars;60041

       (2) For each commercial tractor, as defined in section 60042
4501.01 of the Revised Code, used for transporting property, 60043
thirty dollars;60044

       (3) For each other motor vehicle transporting property, 60045
twenty dollars.60046

       (B) Every for-hire motor carrier operating in this state 60047
solely in intrastate commerce shall, annually between the first 60048
day of May and the thirtieth day of June, pay to the commission, 60049
for and on behalf of the treasurer of state, the following taxes:60050

       (1) For each motor vehicle used for transporting persons, 60051
thirty dollars;60052

       (2) For each commercial tractor, as defined in section 60053
4501.01 of the Revised Code, used for transporting property, 60054
thirty dollars;60055

       (3) For each other motor vehicle transporting property, 60056
twenty dollars.60057

       (C) After a for-hire motor carrier has paid the applicable 60058
taxes under division (B) of this section and all requirements 60059
under division (C) of section 4921.13 of the Revised Code have 60060
been met, the commission shall issue the carrier a tax receipt. 60061
The carrier shall carry a copy of the tax receipt in each motor 60062
vehicle operated by the carrier. The carrier shall maintain the 60063
original copy of the tax receipt at the carrier's primary place of 60064
business.60065

       (D) A trailer used by a for-hire motor carrier shall not be 60066
taxed under this section.60067

       (E) The annual tax levied by division (B) of this section 60068
does not apply in those cases where the commission finds that the 60069
movement of agricultural commodities or foodstuffs produced 60070
therefrom requires a temporary and seasonal use of vehicular 60071
equipment for a period of not more than ninety days. In such 60072
event, the tax on the vehicular equipment shall be twenty-five per 60073
cent of the annual tax levied by division (B) of this section. If 60074
any vehicular equipment is used in excess of the ninety-day 60075
period, the annual tax levied by this section shall be paid.60076

       (F) All taxes levied by division (B) of this section shall be 60077
reckoned as from the beginning of the quarter in which the tax 60078
receipt is issued or as from when the use of equipment under any 60079
existing tax receipt began.60080

       (G) The fees for unified carrier registration pursuant to 60081
section 4921.11 of the Revised Code shall be identical to those 60082
established by the unified carrier registration act board as 60083
approved by the federal motor carrier safety administration for 60084
each year.60085

       (H)(1) The fees for uniform registration and a uniform permit 60086
as a carrier of hazardous materials pursuant to section 4921.15 of 60087
the Revised Code shall consist of the following:60088

       (a) A processing fee of fifty dollars;60089

       (b) An apportioned per-truck registration fee, which shall be 60090
calculated by multiplying the percentage of a registrant's 60091
activity in this state times the percentage of the registrant's 60092
business that is hazardous-materials-related, times the number of 60093
vehicles owned or operated by the registrant, times a per-truck 60094
fee determined by order of the commission following public notice 60095
and an opportunity for comment.60096

       (i) The percentage of a registrant's activity in this state 60097
shall be calculated by dividing the number of miles that the 60098
registrant travels in this state under the international 60099
registration plan, pursuant to section 4503.61 of the Revised 60100
Code, by the number of miles that the registrant travels 60101
nationwide under the international registration plan. Registrants 60102
that operate solely within this state shall use one hundred per 60103
cent as their percentage of activity. Registrants that do not 60104
register their vehicles through the international registration 60105
plan shall calculate activity in the state in the same manner as 60106
that required by the international registration plan.60107

       (ii) The percentage of a registrant's business that is 60108
hazardous-materials-related shall be calculated, for 60109
less-than-truckload shipments, by dividing the weight of all the 60110
registrant's hazardous materials shipments by the total weight of 60111
all shipments in the previous year. The percentage of a 60112
registrant's business that is hazardous-materials-related shall be 60113
calculated, for truckload shipments, by dividing the number of 60114
shipments for which placarding, marking of the vehicle, or 60115
manifesting, as appropriate, was required by regulations adopted 60116
under sections 4 to 6 of the "Hazardous Materials Transportation 60117
Uniform Safety Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C. App. 1804, 60118
by the total number of the registrant's shipments that transported 60119
any kind of goods in the previous year. A registrant that 60120
transports both less-than-truckload and truckload shipments of 60121
hazardous materials shall calculate the percentage of business 60122
that is hazardous-materials-related on a proportional basis.60123

       (iii) A registrant may utilize fiscal year, or calendar year, 60124
or other current company accounting data, or other publicly 60125
available information, in calculating the percentages required by 60126
divisions (H)(1)(b)(i) and (ii) of this section.60127

       (2) The commission, after notice and opportunity for a 60128
hearing, may assess each carrier a fee for any background 60129
investigation required for the issuance, for the purpose of 60130
section 3734.15 of the Revised Code, of a uniform permit as a 60131
carrier of hazardous wastes and fees related to investigations and 60132
proceedings for the denial, suspension, or revocation of a uniform 60133
permit as a carrier of hazardous materials. The fees shall not 60134
exceed the reasonable costs of the investigations and proceedings. 60135
The fee for a background investigation for a uniform permit as a 60136
carrier of hazardous wastes shall be six hundred dollars plus the 60137
costs of obtaining any necessary information not included in the 60138
permit application, to be calculated at the rate of thirty dollars 60139
per hour, not exceeding six hundred dollars, plus any fees payable 60140
to obtain necessary information.60141

       (I) The application fee for a certificate for the 60142
transportation of household goods issued pursuant to sections 60143
4921.30 to 4921.38 of the Revised Code shall be based on the 60144
certificate holder's gross revenue, in the prior year, for the 60145
intrastate transportation of household goods. The commission shall 60146
establish, by order, ranges of gross revenue and the fee for each 60147
range. The fees shall be set in amounts sufficient to carry out 60148
the purposes of sections 4921.30 to 4921.38 and 4923.99 of the 60149
Revised Code and, to the extent necessary, the commission shall 60150
make changes to the fee structure to ensure that neither over nor 60151
under collection of the fees occurs. The fees shall also take into 60152
consideration the revenue generated from the assessment of 60153
forfeitures under section 4923.99 of the Revised Code regarding 60154
the consumer protection provisions applicable to for-hire motor 60155
carriers engaged in the transportation of household goods.60156

       (J) The fees and taxes provided under this section shall be 60157
in addition to taxes, fees, and charges fixed and exacted by other 60158
sections of the Revised Code, except the assessments required by 60159
section 4905.10 of the Revised Code, but all fees, license fees, 60160
annual payments, license taxes, or taxes or other money exactions, 60161
except the general property tax, assessed, charged, fixed, or 60162
exacted by local authorities such as municipal corporations, 60163
townships, counties, or other local boards, or the officers of 60164
such subdivisions are illegal and, are superseded by sections 60165
4503.04 and 4905.03 and Chapter 4921. of the Revised Code. On 60166
compliance with sections 4503.04 and 4905.03 and Chapter 4921. of 60167
the Revised Code, all local ordinances, resolutions, by laws, and 60168
rules in force shall cease to be operative as to the persons in 60169
compliance, except that such local subdivisions may make 60170
reasonable local police regulations within their respective 60171
boundaries not inconsistent with sections 4503.04 and 4905.03 and 60172
Chapter 4921. of the Revised Code. 60173

       Sec. 4921.21. (A) As used in this section, "adjusted credit 60174
amount" means the aggregate amount credited to the public 60175
utilities transportation safety fund, less the sum of all of the 60176
following:60177

       (1) The fees collected by the public utilities commission, in 60178
accordance with the unified carrier registration plan under 60179
section 4921.11 of the Revised Code, that exceed the federal 60180
certification of revenue for each year of the plan;60181

       (2) The fees collected by the commission on behalf of other 60182
states under division (C) of section 4921.15 of the Revised Code;60183

       (3) The forfeitures collected by the commission under section 60184
4923.99 of the Revised Code for violations of rules adopted under 60185
division (A)(2) of section 4923.04 of the Revised Code.60186

       (B)(1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 60187
public utilities transportation safety fund. The fees collected in 60188
accordance with the unified carrier registration plan under 60189
section 4921.11 of the Revised Code, the fees collected under 60190
section 4921.15 of the Revised Code, the taxes and fees remitted 60191
under section 4921.19 of the Revised Code, the forfeitures imposed 60192
under section 4923.99 of the Revised Code, except as provided in 60193
division (B)(2) of this section, and the fines collected under 60194
section 4163.07 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the 60195
state treasury to the credit of the public utilities 60196
transportation safety fund, until the adjusted credit amount in a 60197
fiscal year is equal to the total amount appropriated from the 60198
fund for the fiscal year. Once this point of parity is reached, 60199
any additional fees, taxes, forfeitures, or fines received during 60200
the fiscal year shall be credited to the general revenue fund, 60201
except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, and except 60202
for both of the following:60203

       (a) The fees collected in accordance with the unified carrier 60204
registration plan under section 4921.11 of the Revised Code, that 60205
exceed the federal certification of revenue for each year of the 60206
plan;60207

       (b) The fees collected on behalf of other states under 60208
division (C) of section 4921.15 of the Revised Code.60209

       (2) The first eight hundred thousand dollars of forfeitures 60210
collected under section 4923.99 of the Revised Code, for 60211
violations of rules adopted under division (A)(2) of section 60212
4923.04 of the Revised Code, during each fiscal year shall be 60213
credited to the public utilities transportation safety fund. Any 60214
forfeitures in excess of that amount shall be deposited into the 60215
general revenue fund. In each fiscal year, the commission shall 60216
distribute moneys from these forfeitures credited to the public 60217
utilities transportation safety fund for the purposes of emergency 60218
response planning and the training of safety, enforcement, and 60219
emergency services personnel in proper techniques for the 60220
management of hazardous materials releases that occur during 60221
transportation or otherwise. For these purposes, fifty per cent of 60222
all such moneys credited to the public utilities transportation 60223
safety fund shall be distributed to Cleveland state university, 60224
forty-five per cent shall be distributed to other educational 60225
institutions, state agencies, regional planning commissions, and 60226
political subdivisions, and five per cent shall be retained by the 60227
commission for the administration of this section and for training 60228
employees. However, if, in any such period, moneys from these 60229
forfeitures credited to the public utilities transportation safety 60230
fund equal an amount less than four hundred thousand dollars, the 60231
commission shall distribute, to the extent of the aggregate amount 60232
of those moneys, two hundred thousand dollars to Cleveland state 60233
university and the remainder to other educational institutions, 60234
state agencies, regional planning commissions, and political 60235
subdivisions.60236

       (C) The purpose of the public utilities transportation safety 60237
fund shall be for defraying all expenses incident to maintaining 60238
the nonrailroad transportation activities of the commission.60239

       (D) There is hereby created in the state treasury the federal 60240
commercial vehicle transportation systems fund. The fund shall 60241
consist of money received from the United States department of 60242
transportation's commercial vehicle intelligent transportation 60243
systems infrastructure deployment program. The public utilities 60244
commission shall use the fund to deploy the Ohio commercial 60245
vehicle information systems networks project and to improve safety 60246
of motor carrier operations through electronic exchange of data.60247

       (E) There is hereby created in the state treasury the motor 60248
carrier safety fund. The fund shall consist of money received from 60249
the United States department of transportation for motor carrier 60250
safety. The commission shall use the fund to administer the 60251
state's motor carrier safety assistance program and associated 60252
grants, including the motor carrier safety assistance program 60253
basic grant, the incentive grant, the high priority grants, the 60254
new entrant safety assurance grant, the safety data improvement 60255
grant, or their equivalents.60256

       (F) If the director of budget and management determines there 60257
is not sufficient money in the public utilities transportation 60258
safety fund, the director shall transfer money from the general 60259
revenue fund to the public utilities transportation safety fund in 60260
an amount up to the difference between the balance of the public 60261
utilities transportation safety fund and the appropriations from 60262
that fund. If the director subsequently determines during the 60263
fiscal year that the balance of the public utilities 60264
transportation safety fund exceeds the amount needed to support 60265
the appropriations from the fund, the director shall transfer the 60266
excess money, up to the amount of the original transfer, to the 60267
general revenue fund.60268

       Sec. 4921.25. Any person, firm, copartnership, voluntary 60269
association, joint-stock association, company, or corporation, 60270
wherever organized or incorporated, that is engaged in the towing 60271
of motor vehicles is subject to regulation by the public utilities 60272
commission as a for-hire motor carrier under this chapter. Such an 60273
entity is not subject to any ordinance, rule, or resolution of a 60274
municipal corporation, county, or township that provides for the 60275
licensing, registering, or regulation of entities that tow motor 60276
vehicles.60277

       Sec. 4921.30.  Except as otherwise provided in sections 60278
4921.32 to 4921.38 of the Revised Code, a for-hire motor carrier 60279
engaged in the transportation of household goods in intrastate 60280
commerce:60281

       (A) Is subject to Chapter 4921. of the Revised Code and to 60282
all other provisions of the Revised Code applicable to a for-hire 60283
motor carrier, including sections 4506.22, 4511.78, 5502.01, 60284
5503.02, and 5503.34 of the Revised Code;60285

       (B) Is not a public utility as defined in section 4911.01 of 60286
the Revised Code.60287

       Sec. 4921.32.  Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter 60288
or Chapters 4901. to 4909. and 4923. of the Revised Code to the 60289
contrary:60290

       (A) Not later than six months after the effective date of 60291
this section, the public utilities commission, in accordance with 60292
sections 4921.30 to 4921.38 of the Revised Code, shall establish 60293
by order a certification system for for-hire motor carriers 60294
engaged in the transportation of household goods in intrastate 60295
commerce.60296

       (B) Beginning on the effective date of the order of the 60297
commission as initially issued under division (A) of this section, 60298
no for-hire motor carrier shall engage in the transportation of 60299
household goods in intrastate commerce without first holding a 60300
current and valid certificate for the transportation of household 60301
goods issued by the commission pursuant to sections 4921.30 to 60302
4921.38 of the Revised Code.60303

       Sec. 4921.34. (A) The public utilities commission shall 60304
approve an application for a certificate for the transportation of 60305
household goods under sections 4921.30 to 4921.38 of the Revised 60306
Code and shall issue a certificate, provided the applicant pays 60307
the applicable application fee under division (I) of section 60308
4921.19 of the Revised Code and submits to the commission a 60309
completed application, on a form prescribed by the commission, 60310
that is substantially the same as the application prescribed by 60311
the commission pursuant to section 4921.05 of the Revised Code, 60312
and includes a certification of all of the following by 60313
responsible officials of the applicant:60314

       (1) The applicant's workers' compensation coverage is current 60315
pursuant to Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.60316

       (2) The applicant's unemployment compensation coverage is 60317
current pursuant to Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code.60318

       (3) The applicant's financial responsibility is in accordance 60319
with rules adopted by the commission under section 4921.09 of the 60320
Revised Code.60321

       (B) The commission shall not approve any application that 60322
does not contain the proper certifications required by this 60323
section. The commission may revoke a certificate issued under 60324
division (A) of this section if, after at least fifteen days' 60325
advance notice to the certificate holder of the basis for such 60326
action and providing the holder with an opportunity for a hearing, 60327
the commission finds that the holder is not in compliance with 60328
this chapter, or rules adopted or orders issued under it.60329

       (C) A certificate issued under division (A) of this section 60330
is valid for one year and is renewable annually.60331

       Sec. 4921.36.  Each holder of a certificate for the 60332
transportation of household goods shall do all of the following:60333

       (A) Make its current certificate available for public 60334
inspection during normal business hours;60335

       (B) Present each of its customers with information, written 60336
in plain and clear language and pursuant to a form prescribed by 60337
the public utilities commission, outlining a consumer's rights;60338

       (C) Include its certificate number on all advertising, 60339
written estimates, and contracts, pursuant to rules adopted by the 60340
commission.60341

       Sec. 4921.38.  In accordance with sections 4921.30 to 4921.36 60342
of the Revised Code, the public utilities commission may adopt 60343
rules regarding any of the following:60344

       (A) Providing for binding estimates by for-hire motor 60345
carriers engaged in the transportation of household goods in 60346
intrastate commerce;60347

       (B) Providing for guaranteed-not-to-exceed estimates by those 60348
carriers;60349

       (C) Requiring those carriers to include their certificate 60350
number in all advertising, written estimates, and contracts 60351
related to the transportation of household goods in intrastate 60352
commerce;60353

       (D) As are necessary and proper to carry out this chapter 60354
with respect to those carriers;60355

       (E) Providing for the enforcement of the consumer protection 60356
provisions of Title 49 of the United States Code related to the 60357
delivery and transportation of household goods in interstate 60358
commerce, as permitted by 49 U.S.C. 14710.60359

       Sec. 4923.01.  As used in this chapter:60360

       (A) "Ambulance," "interstate commerce," "intrastate 60361
commerce," "motor vehicle," "public highway," "ridesharing 60362
arrangement," and "school bus" have the same meanings as in 60363
section 4921.01 of the Revised Code.60364

       (B) "For-hire motor carrier" means a person engaged in the 60365
business of transporting persons or property by motor vehicle for 60366
compensation, except when engaged in any of the following in 60367
intrastate commerce:60368

       (1) The transportation of persons in taxicabs in the usual 60369
taxicab service;60370

       (2) The transportation of pupils in school busses operating 60371
to or from school sessions or school events;60372

       (3) The transportation of farm supplies to the farm or farm 60373
products from farm to market or to food fabricating plants;60374

       (4) The distribution of newspapers;60375

       (5) The transportation of crude petroleum incidental to 60376
gathering from wells and delivery to destination by pipe line;60377

       (6) The transportation of injured, ill, or deceased persons 60378
by hearse or ambulance;60379

       (7) The transportation of compost (a combination of manure 60380
and sand or shredded bark mulch) or shredded bark mulch;60381

       (8) The transportation of persons in a ridesharing 60382
arrangement when any fee charged each person so transported is in 60383
such amount as to recover only the person's share of the costs of 60384
operating the motor vehicle for such purpose;60385

       (9) The operation of motor vehicles for contractors on public 60386
road work.60387

       "For-hire motor carrier" includes the carrier's agents, 60388
officers, and representatives, as well as employees responsible 60389
for hiring, supervising, training, assigning, or dispatching 60390
drivers and employees concerned with the installation, inspection, 60391
and maintenance of motor-vehicle equipment and accessories.60392

       Divisions (B)(1) to (9) of this section shall not be 60393
construed to relieve a person from compliance with rules adopted 60394
under division (A)(2) of section 4923.04 of the Revised Code, 60395
division (E) of section 4923.06 of the Revised Code, division (B) 60396
of section 4923.07 of the Revised Code, and section 4923.11 of the 60397
Revised Code, or from compliance with rules regarding commercial 60398
driver's licenses adopted under division (A)(1) of section 4923.04 60399
of the Revised Code.60400

       (C) "Motor carrier" means both a for-hire motor carrier and a 60401
private motor carrier.60402

       (D) "Private motor carrier" means a person who is not a 60403
for-hire motor carrier but is engaged in the business of 60404
transporting persons or property by motor vehicle, except as 60405
provided in section 4923.02 of the Revised Code. "Private motor 60406
carrier" includes the carrier's agents, officers, and 60407
representatives, as well as employees responsible for hiring, 60408
supervising, training, assigning, or dispatching drivers and 60409
employees concerned with the installation, inspection, and 60410
maintenance of motor-vehicle equipment and accessories.60411

       Sec. 4923.02.  (A) As used in this chapter, "private motor 60412
carrier" does not include a person when engaged in any of the 60413
following in intrastate commerce:60414

       (1) The transportation of persons in taxicabs in the usual 60415
taxicab service;60416

       (2) The transportation of pupils in school busses operating 60417
to or from school sessions or school events;60418

       (3) The transportation of farm supplies to the farm or farm 60419
products from farm to market or to food fabricating plants;60420

       (4) The distribution of newspapers;60421

       (5) The transportation of crude petroleum incidental to 60422
gathering from wells and delivery to destination by pipe line;60423

       (6) The transportation of injured, ill, or deceased persons 60424
by hearse or ambulance; 60425

       (7) The transportation of compost (a combination of manure 60426
and sand or shredded bark mulch) or shredded bark mulch;60427

       (8) The transportation of persons in a ridesharing 60428
arrangement when any fee charged each person so transported is in 60429
such amount as to recover only the person's share of the costs of 60430
operating the motor vehicle for such purpose;60431

       (9) The operation of motor vehicles for contractors on public 60432
road work.60433

       (B) The public utilities commission may grant a motor carrier 60434
operating in intrastate commerce a temporary exemption from some 60435
or all of the provisions of this chapter and the rules adopted 60436
under it, when either of the following applies:60437

       (1) The governor of this state has declared an emergency.60438

       (2) The chairperson of the commission or the chairperson's 60439
designee has declared a transportation-specific emergency.60440

       (C) The commission may adopt rules not incompatible with the 60441
requirements of the United States department of transportation to 60442
provide exemptions to motor carriers operating in intrastate 60443
commerce not otherwise identified in divisions (A) and (B) of this 60444
section.60445

       (D) Divisions (A) to (C) of this section shall not be 60446
construed to relieve a person from compliance with either of the 60447
following:60448

       (1) Rules adopted under division (A)(2) of section 4923.04 of 60449
the Revised Code, division (E) of section 4923.06 of the Revised 60450
Code, division (B) of section 4923.07 of the Revised Code, and 60451
section 4923.11 of the Revised Code;60452

       (2) Rules regarding commercial driver's licenses adopted 60453
under division (A)(1) of section 4923.04 of the Revised Code.60454

       Sec. 4923.04.  (A)(1) The public utilities commission shall 60455
adopt rules applicable to the transportation of persons or 60456
property by motor carriers operating in interstate and intrastate 60457
commerce.60458

       (2) The commission shall adopt rules applicable to the 60459
highway transportation and offering for transportation of 60460
hazardous materials by motor carriers, and persons engaging in the 60461
highway transportation and offering for transportation of 60462
hazardous materials, operating in interstate or intrastate 60463
commerce. 60464

       (B) The rules adopted under division (A) of this section 60465
shall not be incompatible with the requirements of the United 60466
States department of transportation.60467

       (C) To achieve the purposes of this chapter and to assist the 60468
commission in the performance of any of its powers or duties, the 60469
commission, either through the public utilities commissioners or 60470
employees authorized by it, may do either or both of the 60471
following:60472

       (1) Apply for, and any judge of a court of record of 60473
competent jurisdiction may issue, an appropriate search warrant;60474

       (2) Examine under oath, at the offices of the commission, any 60475
officer, agent, or employee of any person subject to this chapter. 60476
The commission, by subpoena, also may compel the attendance of a 60477
witness for the purpose of the examination and, by subpoena duces 60478
tecum, may compel the production of all books, contracts, records, 60479
and documents that relate to the transportation and offering for 60480
transportation of hazardous materials.60481

       Sec. 4923.06. (A) The public utilities commission may, 60482
through the commission's inspectors or other authorized employees, 60483
enter in or upon any motor vehicle of any motor carrier, or any 60484
person engaging in the transportation of hazardous material or 60485
hazardous waste, to inspect the motor vehicle or driver subject to 60486
rules adopted under section 4923.04 of the Revised Code.60487

       (B) In order to assist the commission in performing its 60488
duties under this section, authorized employees of the state 60489
highway patrol of the department of public safety may conduct 60490
inspections of motor vehicles and drivers.60491

       (C) Inspectors and employees authorized to conduct 60492
inspections under divisions (A) and (B) of this section may, under 60493
the direction of the commission, stop motor vehicles to inspect 60494
those vehicles and drivers to enforce compliance with rules 60495
adopted under section 4923.04 of the Revised Code.60496

       (D) Inspectors and employees authorized to conduct 60497
inspections under divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall 60498
conduct inspections consistent with the North American standard 60499
inspection procedure of the commercial vehicle safety alliance and 60500
the standards of the United States department of transportation. 60501
The inspectors and employees may declare drivers and motor 60502
vehicles out-of-service consistent with this procedure and these 60503
standards.60504

       (E) The commission may adopt rules to carry out this section 60505
that are not incompatible with the requirements of the United 60506
States department of transportation.60507

       Sec. 4923.07. (A) The public utilities commission may, 60508
through the commission's inspectors or other authorized employees, 60509
enter in or upon the premises and motor vehicles of any motor 60510
carrier, or any person engaging in the transportation of hazardous 60511
material or hazardous waste, to examine any records, documents, or 60512
property for the purpose of assessing the safety, performance, and 60513
management controls associated with the carrier or person.60514

       (B) The commission may adopt rules to carry out this section 60515
that are not incompatible with the requirements of the United 60516
States department of transportation. 60517

       Sec. 4923.09. The public utilities commission shall cooperate 60518
with and permit the use of the services, records, and facilities 60519
of the commission as fully as practicable by appropriate officers 60520
of the United States department of transportation, other federal 60521
agencies or commissions, and appropriate commissions of other 60522
states in the enforcement and administration of state and federal 60523
laws relating to highway transportation by motor vehicles. The 60524
commission may enter into cooperative agreements with the United 60525
States department of transportation and any other federal agency 60526
or commission to enforce the safety laws and rules of this state 60527
and of the United States concerning highway transportation by 60528
motor vehicles. All grants-in-aid, cash, and reimbursements 60529
received by the commission pursuant to those cooperative 60530
agreements shall be deposited to the credit of the motor carrier 60531
safety fund created under section 4921.21 of the Revised Code.60532

       Sec. 4923.11. The public utilities commission may adopt rules 60533
applicable to the highway routing of hazardous materials into, 60534
through, or within this state. Rules adopted under this section 60535
shall not be incompatible with requirements of the United States 60536
department of transportation.60537

       Sec. 4923.15.  Proceedings of the public utilities commission 60538
for the assessment of forfeitures for violations of Chapters 4921. 60539
and 4923. of the Revised Code are subject to and governed by 60540
section 4923.99 of the Revised Code. In all other respects in 60541
which the commission has power and authority under Chapters 4921. 60542
and 4923. of the Revised Code, applications and complaints may be 60543
made and filed with the commission, processes may be issued, 60544
hearings may be held, opinions, orders, and decisions may be made 60545
and filed, petitions for rehearing may be filed and acted upon, 60546
and all proceedings before the supreme court of this state may be 60547
considered and disposed of by that court in the manner, under the 60548
conditions, subject to the limitations, and with the effect 60549
specified in the sections of the Revised Code governing the 60550
supervision of public utilities by the commission.60551

       Sec. 4923.99.  (A)(1) Whoever violates Chapter 4921. or 4923. 60552
of the Revised Code is liable to the state for a forfeiture of not 60553
more than twenty-five thousand dollars for each day of each 60554
violation. The public utilities commission, after providing 60555
reasonable notice and the opportunity for a hearing in accordance 60556
with the procedural rules adopted under section 4901.13 of the 60557
Revised Code, shall assess, by order, a forfeiture upon a person 60558
whom the commission determines, by a preponderance of the 60559
evidence, committed the violation. In determining the amount of 60560
the forfeiture for a violation discovered during a driver or 60561
motor-vehicle inspection under section 4923.06 of the Revised 60562
Code, the commission shall, to the extent practicable, not act in 60563
a manner incompatible with the requirements of the United States 60564
department of transportation, and, to the extent practicable, 60565
shall utilize a system comparable to the recommended civil-penalty 60566
procedure adopted by the commercial vehicle safety alliance. In 60567
determining the amount of the forfeiture for a violation 60568
discovered during a compliance review of a motor carrier under 60569
section 4923.07 of the Revised Code, the commission shall, to the 60570
extent practicable, not act in a manner incompatible with the 60571
civil-penalty guidelines of the United States department of 60572
transportation.60573

       The attorney general, upon the written request of the 60574
commission, shall bring a civil action in the court of common 60575
pleas of Franklin county to collect a forfeiture assessed under 60576
this section. The commission shall account for the forfeitures 60577
collected under this section and pay them to the treasurer of 60578
state under section 4921.21 of the Revised Code.60579

       (2) The attorney general, upon the written request of the 60580
commission, shall bring an action for injunctive relief in the 60581
court of common pleas of Franklin county against any person who 60582
has violated or is violating any order issued by the commission to 60583
secure compliance with any provision of Chapter 4921. or 4923. of 60584
the Revised Code. The court of common pleas of Franklin county has 60585
jurisdiction to and may grant preliminary and permanent injunctive 60586
relief upon a showing that the person against whom the action is 60587
brought has violated or is violating any such order. The court 60588
shall give precedence to such an action over all other cases.60589

       (B) The amount of any forfeiture may be compromised at any 60590
time prior to collection of the forfeiture. The commission shall 60591
adopt rules governing the manner in which the amount of a 60592
forfeiture may be established by agreement prior to the hearing on 60593
the forfeiture before the commission.60594

       (C) The proceedings of the commission specified in division 60595
(A) of this section are subject to and governed by Chapter 4903. 60596
of the Revised Code, except as otherwise specifically provided in 60597
this section. The court of appeals of Franklin county has 60598
exclusive, original jurisdiction to review, modify, or vacate an 60599
order of the commission issued to secure compliance with any 60600
provision of Chapter 4921. or 4923. of the Revised Code. The court 60601
of appeals shall hear and determine those appeals in the same 60602
manner, and under the same standards, as the supreme court hears 60603
and determines appeals under Chapter 4903. of the Revised Code. 60604
The judgment of the court of appeals is final and conclusive 60605
unless reversed, vacated, or modified on appeal. Such appeals may 60606
be taken either by the commission or the person to whom the 60607
compliance order or forfeiture assessment was issued and shall 60608
proceed as in the case of appeals in civil actions as provided in 60609
the rules of appellate procedure and Chapter 2505. of the Revised 60610
Code.60611

       (D) Section 4903.11 of the Revised Code does not apply to an 60612
appeal of an order issued to secure compliance with Chapter 4921. 60613
or 4923. of the Revised Code or an order issued under division 60614
(A)(1) of this section assessing a forfeiture. Any person to whom 60615
any such order is issued who wishes to contest a compliance order, 60616
the fact of the violation, or the amount of the forfeiture shall 60617
file a notice of appeal, setting forth the order appealed from and 60618
the errors complained of, within sixty days after the entry of the 60619
order upon the journal of the commission. The notice of appeal 60620
shall be served, unless waived, upon the chairperson of the 60621
commission or, in the event of the chairperson's absence, upon any 60622
public utilities commissioner, or by leaving a copy at the office 60623
of the commission at Columbus. An order issued by the commission 60624
to secure compliance with Chapter 4921. or 4923. of the Revised 60625
Code or an order issued under division (A)(1) of this section 60626
assessing a forfeiture shall be reversed, vacated, or modified on 60627
appeal if, upon consideration of the record, the court is of the 60628
opinion that the order was unlawful or unreasonable.60629

       (E) Only for such violations that constitute violations of 60630
the "Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform Safety Act of 60631
1990," 104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1804 and 1805, or 60632
regulations adopted under the act, the commission, in determining 60633
liability, shall use the same standard of culpability for civil 60634
forfeitures under this section as that set forth for civil 60635
penalties under section 12 of the "Hazardous Materials 60636
Transportation Uniform Safety Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 3244, 49 60637
U.S.C.A. App. 1809. The commission shall consider the assessment 60638
considerations for civil penalties specified in regulations 60639
adopted under the "Hazardous Materials Transportation Act," 88 60640
Stat. 2156 (1975), 49 U.S.C. 1801.60641

       Sec. 4927.01.  (A) As used in this chapter:60642

       (1) "Basic local exchange service" means residential-end-user 60643
access to and usage of telephone-company-provided services over a 60644
single line or small-business-end-user access to and usage of 60645
telephone-company-provided services over the primary access line 60646
of service, which in the case of residential and small-business 60647
access and usage is not part of a bundle or package of services, 60648
that does both of the following:60649

       (a) Enables a customer to originate or receive voice 60650
communications within a local service area as that area exists on 60651
September 13, 2010, the effective date of the amendment of this 60652
section by S.B. 162 of the 128th general assembly;60653

       (b) Consists of all of the following services:60654

       (i) Local dial tone service;60655

       (ii) For residential end users, flat-rate telephone exchange 60656
service;60657

       (iii) Touch tone dialing service;60658

       (iv) Access to and usage of 9-1-1 services, where such 60659
services are available;60660

       (v) Access to operator services and directory assistance;60661

       (vi) Provision of a telephone directory in any reasonable 60662
format for no additional charge and a listing in that directory, 60663
with reasonable accommodations made for private listings;60664

       (vii) Per call, caller identification blocking services;60665

       (viii) Access to telecommunications relay service; and60666

       (ix) Access to toll presubscription, interexchange or toll 60667
providers or both, and networks of other telephone companies.60668

       (2) "Bundle or package of services" means one or more 60669
telecommunications services or other services offered together as 60670
one service option at a single price.60671

       (3) "Carrier access" means access to and usage of telephone 60672
company-provided facilities that enable end user customers 60673
originating or receiving voice grade, data, or image 60674
communications, over a local exchange telephone company network 60675
operated within a local service area, to access interexchange or 60676
other networks and includes special access.60677

       (4) "Federal poverty level" means the income level 60678
represented by the poverty guidelines as revised annually by the 60679
United States department of health and human services in 60680
accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Reconciliation Act 60681
of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as amended, for a family 60682
size equal to the size of the family of the person whose income is 60683
being determined.60684

        (5) "Incumbent local exchange carrier" means, with respect to 60685
an area, the local exchange carrier that:60686

        (a) On February 8, 1996, provided telephone exchange service 60687
in such area; and60688

        (b)(i) On February 8, 1996, was deemed to be a member of the 60689
exchange carrier association pursuant to 47 C.F.R. 69.601(b); or60690

        (ii) Is a person or entity that, on or after February 8, 60691
1996, became a successor or assign of a member described in 60692
division (A)(5)(b)(i) of this section.60693

        (6) "Internet protocol-enabled services" means any services, 60694
capabilities, functionalities, or applications that are provided 60695
using internet protocol or a successor protocol to enable an end 60696
user to send or receive communications in internet protocol format 60697
or a successor format, regardless of how any particular such 60698
service is classified by the federal communications commission, 60699
and includes voice over internet protocol service.60700

        (7) "Local exchange carrier" means any person engaged in the 60701
provision of telephone exchange service, or the offering of access 60702
to telephone exchange service or facilities for the purpose of 60703
originating or terminating telephone toll service.60704

        (8) "Local service area" means the geographic area that may 60705
encompass more than one exchange area and within which a telephone 60706
customer, by paying the rate for basic local exchange service, may 60707
complete calls to other telephone customers without being assessed 60708
long distance toll charges.60709

       (9) "Small business" means a nonresidential service customer 60710
with three or fewer service access lines.60711

       (10) "Telecommunications" means the transmission, between or 60712
among points specified by the user, of information of the user's 60713
choosing, without change in the form or content of the information 60714
as sent and received.60715

       (11) "Telecommunications carrier" has the same meaning as in 60716
the "Telecommunications Act of 1996," 110 Stat. 60, 47 U.S.C. 153.60717

       (12) "Telecommunications service" means the offering of 60718
telecommunications for a fee directly to the public, or to such 60719
classes of users as to be effectively available directly to the 60720
public, regardless of the facilities used.60721

       (13) "Telephone company" means a company described in 60722
division (A)(1) of section 4905.03 of the Revised Code that is a 60723
public utility under section 4905.02 of the Revised Code.60724

       (14) "Telephone exchange service" means telecommunications 60725
service that is within a telephone exchange, or within a connected 60726
system of telephone exchanges within the same exchange area 60727
operated to furnish to subscribers intercommunicating service of 60728
the character ordinarily furnished by a single exchange, and that 60729
is covered by the exchange service charge; or comparable service 60730
provided through a system of switches, transmission equipment, or 60731
other facilities, or combination thereof, by which a customer can 60732
originate and terminate a telecommunications service.60733

       (15) "Telephone toll service" means telephone service between 60734
stations in different exchange areas for which there is made a 60735
separate charge not included in contracts with customers for 60736
exchange service.60737

       (16) "Voice over internet protocol service" means a service 60738
that uses a broadband connection from an end user's location and 60739
enables real-time, two-way, voice communications that originate or 60740
terminate from the user's location using internet protocol or a 60741
successor protocol, including, but not limited to, any such 60742
service that permits an end user to receive calls from and 60743
terminate calls to the public switched network.60744

       (17) "Wireless service" means federally licensed commercial 60745
mobile service as defined in the "Telecommunications Act of 1996," 60746
110 Stat. 61, 151, 153, 47 U.S.C. 332(d) and further defined as 60747
commercial mobile radio service in 47 C.F.R. 20.3. Under division 60748
(A)(17) of this section, commercial mobile radio service is 60749
specifically limited to mobile telephone, mobile cellular 60750
telephone, paging, personal communications services, and 60751
specialized mobile radio service provided by a common carrier in 60752
this state and excludes fixed wireless service.60753

       (18) "Wireless service provider" means a facilities-based 60754
provider of wireless service to one or more end users in this 60755
state.60756

       (B) The definitions of this section shall be applied 60757
consistent with the definitions in the "Telecommunications Act of 60758
1996," 110 Stat. 56, 47 U.S.C. 151 et seq., as amended, and with 60759
federal decisions interpreting those definitions.60760

       Sec. 4929.01.  As used in this chapter:60761

       (A) "Alternative rate plan" means a method, alternate to the 60762
method of section 4909.15 of the Revised Code, for establishing 60763
rates and charges, under which rates and charges may be 60764
established for a commodity sales service or ancillary service 60765
that is not exempt pursuant to section 4929.04 of the Revised Code 60766
or for a distribution service. Alternative rate plans may include, 60767
but are not limited to, methods that provide adequate and reliable 60768
natural gas services and goods in this state; minimize the costs 60769
and time expended in the regulatory process; tend to assess the 60770
costs of any natural gas service or goods to the entity, service, 60771
or goods that cause such costs to be incurred; afford rate 60772
stability; promote and reward efficiency, quality of service, or 60773
cost containment by a natural gas company; provide sufficient 60774
flexibility and incentives to the natural gas industry to achieve 60775
high quality, technologically advanced, and readily available 60776
natural gas services and goods at just and reasonable rates and 60777
charges; or establish revenue decoupling mechanisms. Alternative 60778
rate plans also may include, but are not limited to, automatic 60779
adjustments based on a specified index or changes in a specified 60780
cost or costs.60781

       (B) "Ancillary service" means a service that is ancillary to 60782
the receipt or delivery of natural gas to consumers, including, 60783
but not limited to, storage, pooling, balancing, and transmission.60784

       (C) "Commodity sales service" means the sale of natural gas 60785
to consumers, exclusive of any distribution or ancillary service.60786

       (D) "Comparable service" means any regulated service or goods 60787
whose availability, quality, price, terms, and conditions are the 60788
same as or better than those of the services or goods that the 60789
natural gas company provides to a person with which it is 60790
affiliated or which it controls, or, as to any consumer, that the 60791
natural gas company offers to that consumer as part of a bundled 60792
service that includes both regulated and exempt services or goods.60793

       (E) "Consumer" means any person or association of persons 60794
purchasing, delivering, storing, or transporting, or seeking to 60795
purchase, deliver, store, or transport, natural gas, including 60796
industrial consumers, commercial consumers, and residential 60797
consumers, but not including natural gas companies.60798

       (F) "Distribution service" means the delivery of natural gas 60799
to a consumer at the consumer's facilities, by and through the 60800
instrumentalities and facilities of a natural gas company, 60801
regardless of the party having title to the natural gas.60802

       (G) "Natural gas company" means a natural gas company, as 60803
defined in section 4905.03 of the Revised Code, that is a public 60804
utility as defined in section 4905.02 of the Revised Code and 60805
excludes a retail natural gas supplier.60806

       (H) "Person," except as provided in division (N) of this 60807
section, has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the Revised 60808
Code, and includes this state and any political subdivision, 60809
agency, or other instrumentality of this state and includes the 60810
United States and any agency or other instrumentality of the 60811
United States.60812

       (I) "Billing or collection agent" means a fully independent 60813
agent, not affiliated with or otherwise controlled by a retail 60814
natural gas supplier or governmental aggregator subject to 60815
certification under section 4929.20 of the Revised Code, to the 60816
extent that the agent is under contract with such supplier or 60817
aggregator solely to provide billing and collection for 60818
competitive retail natural gas service on behalf of the supplier 60819
or aggregator.60820

       (J) "Competitive retail natural gas service" means any retail 60821
natural gas service that may be competitively offered to consumers 60822
in this state as a result of revised schedules approved under 60823
division (C) of section 4929.29 of the Revised Code, a rule or 60824
order adopted or issued by the public utilities commission under 60825
Chapter 4905. of the Revised Code, or an exemption granted by the 60826
commission under sections 4929.04 to 4929.08 of the Revised Code.60827

       (K) "Governmental aggregator" means either of the following:60828

       (1) A legislative authority of a municipal corporation, a 60829
board of township trustees, or a board of county commissioners 60830
acting exclusively under section 4929.26 or 4929.27 of the Revised 60831
Code as an aggregator for the provision of competitive retail 60832
natural gas service;60833

       (2) A municipal corporation acting exclusively under Section 60834
4 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, as an aggregator for the 60835
provision of competitive retail natural gas service.60836

       (L)(1) "Mercantile customer" means a customer that consumes, 60837
other than for residential use, more than five hundred thousand 60838
cubic feet of natural gas per year at a single location within 60839
this state or consumes natural gas, other than for residential 60840
use, as part of an undertaking having more than three locations 60841
within or outside of this state. "Mercantile customer" excludes a 60842
customer for which a declaration under division (L)(2) of this 60843
section is in effect pursuant to that division.60844

       (2) A not-for-profit customer that consumes, other than for 60845
residential use, more than five hundred thousand cubic feet of 60846
natural gas per year at a single location within this state or 60847
consumes natural gas, other than for residential use, as part of 60848
an undertaking having more than three locations within or outside 60849
this state may file a declaration under division (L)(2) of this 60850
section with the public utilities commission. The declaration 60851
shall take effect upon the date of filing, and by virtue of the 60852
declaration, the customer is not a mercantile customer for the 60853
purposes of this section and sections 4929.20 to 4929.29 of the 60854
Revised Code or the purposes of a governmental natural gas 60855
aggregation or arrangement or other contract entered into after 60856
the declaration's effective date for the supply or arranging of 60857
the supply of natural gas to the customer to a location within 60858
this state. The customer may file a rescission of the declaration 60859
with the commission at any time. The rescission shall not affect 60860
any governmental natural gas aggregation or arrangement or other 60861
contract entered into by the customer prior to the date of the 60862
filing of the rescission and shall have effect only with respect 60863
to any subsequent such aggregation or arrangement or other 60864
contract. The commission shall prescribe rules under section 60865
4929.10 of the Revised Code specifying the form of the declaration 60866
or a rescission and procedures by which a declaration or 60867
rescission may be filed.60868

       (M) "Retail natural gas service" means commodity sales 60869
service, ancillary service, natural gas aggregation service, 60870
natural gas marketing service, or natural gas brokerage service.60871

       (N) "Retail natural gas supplier" means any person, as 60872
defined in section 1.59 of the Revised Code, that is engaged on a 60873
for-profit or not-for-profit basis in the business of supplying or 60874
arranging for the supply of a competitive retail natural gas 60875
service to consumers in this state that are not mercantile 60876
customers. "Retail natural gas supplier" includes a marketer, 60877
broker, or aggregator, but excludes a natural gas company, a 60878
governmental aggregator as defined in division (K)(1) or (2) of 60879
this section, an entity described in division (B)(A)(2) or (C)(3)60880
of section 4905.02 of the Revised Code, or a billing or collection 60881
agent, and excludes a producer or gatherer of gas to the extent 60882
such producer or gatherer is not a natural gas company under 60883
section 4905.03 of the Revised Code.60884

       (O) "Revenue decoupling mechanism" means a rate design or 60885
other cost recovery mechanism that provides recovery of the fixed 60886
costs of service and a fair and reasonable rate of return, 60887
irrespective of system throughput or volumetric sales.60888

       Sec. 4929.02.  (A) It is the policy of this state to, 60889
throughout this state:60890

       (1) Promote the availability to consumers of adequate, 60891
reliable, and reasonably priced natural gas services and goods;60892

       (2) Promote the availability of unbundled and comparable 60893
natural gas services and goods that provide wholesale and retail 60894
consumers with the supplier, price, terms, conditions, and quality 60895
options they elect to meet their respective needs;60896

       (3) Promote diversity of natural gas supplies and suppliers, 60897
by giving consumers effective choices over the selection of those 60898
supplies and suppliers;60899

       (4) Encourage innovation and market access for cost-effective 60900
supply- and demand-side natural gas services and goods;60901

       (5) Encourage cost-effective and efficient access to 60902
information regarding the operation of the distribution systems of 60903
natural gas companies in order to promote effective customer 60904
choice of natural gas services and goods;60905

       (6) Recognize the continuing emergence of competitive natural 60906
gas markets through the development and implementation of flexible 60907
regulatory treatment;60908

       (7) Promote an expeditious transition to the provision of 60909
natural gas services and goods in a manner that achieves effective 60910
competition and transactions between willing buyers and willing 60911
sellers to reduce or eliminate the need for regulation of natural 60912
gas services and goods under Chapters 4905. and 4909. of the 60913
Revised Code;60914

       (8) Promote effective competition in the provision of natural 60915
gas services and goods by avoiding subsidies flowing to or from 60916
regulated natural gas services and goods;60917

       (9) Ensure that the risks and rewards of a natural gas 60918
company's offering of nonjurisdictional and exempt services and 60919
goods do not affect the rates, prices, terms, or conditions of 60920
nonexempt, regulated services and goods of a natural gas company 60921
and do not affect the financial capability of a natural gas 60922
company to comply with the policy of this state specified in this 60923
section;60924

       (10) Facilitate the state's competitiveness in the global 60925
economy;60926

       (11) Facilitate additional choices for the supply of natural 60927
gas for residential consumers, including aggregation;60928

       (12) Promote an alignment of natural gas company interests 60929
with consumer interest in energy efficiency and energy 60930
conservation.60931

       (B) The public utilities commission and the office of the 60932
consumers' counsel shall follow the policy specified in this 60933
section in exercising their respective authorities relative to 60934
sections 4929.03 to 4929.30 of the Revised Code.60935

       (C) Nothing in Chapter 4929. of the Revised Code shall be 60936
construed to alter the public utilities commission's construction 60937
or application of division (A)(5)(E) of section 4905.03 of the 60938
Revised Code.60939

       Sec. 4929.041.  (A) As used in this section, "regulatory 60940
exemption" means an exemption from all provisions of Chapter 4905. 60941
of the Revised Code with the exception of sections 4905.10, 60942
4905.35, and 4905.90 to 4905.96 of the Revised Code, Chapters 60943
4909., 4933., and 4935. of the Revised Code, with the exception of 60944
section 4935.03 of the Revised Code, and from any rule or order 60945
issued under the exempted provisions of those chapters.60946

        (B) The public utilities commission, upon thean application 60947
offiled under section 4909.18 of the Revised Code by a natural 60948
gas company in substantial compliance with the policy specified in 60949
section 4929.02 of the Revised Code, shall exemptgrant a 60950
regulatory exemption, by order, any investmentfor either or both 60951
of the following:60952

       (1) Any investments in gathering lines or storage or 60953
gathering facilities placed into service on or after January 1, 60954
2010, and also any service of the natural gas company related to 60955
those gathering lines or storage facilities from all provisions 60956
of Chapter 4905. of the Revised Code with the exception of 60957
sections 4905.10, 4905.35, and 4905.90 to 4905.96 of the Revised 60958
Code, Chapters 4909., 4933., and 4935. of the Revised Code, with 60959
the exception of section 4935.03 of the Revised Code, and from any 60960
rule or order issued under the exempted provisions of those 60961
chapters;60962

       (2) Any investments in gathering facilities placed into 60963
service before January 1, 2010, and also any service of the 60964
natural gas company related to those facilities.60965

        (C)(1) A natural gas company requesting a regulatory 60966
exemption under division (B)(2) of this section shall identify in 60967
the application both of the following:60968

        (a) The valuation of the investments to be exempted, as 60969
determined under division (A)(1) of section 4909.15 of the Revised 60970
Code, in the rate case proceeding that established the company's 60971
rates in effect at the time of the filing of the application 60972
requesting the regulatory exemption;60973

        (b) The valuation of all nonexempt investments placed into 60974
service after the date certain used in the rate case proceeding 60975
described in division (C)(1)(a) of this section, excluding 60976
investments for which deferral or recovery is authorized under 60977
section 4909.18, 4929.05, or 4929.111 of the Revised Code.60978

        (2) The commission shall compare the valuations identified in 60979
divisions (C)(1)(a) and (b) of this section.60980

        (a) If the valuation identified in division (C)(1)(a) of this 60981
section exceeds the valuation identified in division (C)(1)(b) of 60982
this section, the commission shall, in addition to the adjustments 60983
needed to implement the regulatory exemption, reduce the gross 60984
annual revenues to which the utility is entitled under division 60985
(B) of section 4909.15 of the Revised Code by applying the rate of 60986
return, as determined under division (A)(2) of section 4909.15 of 60987
the Revised Code in the rate case proceeding in which the 60988
regulatory exemption is being sought, to the difference in the two 60989
valuations.60990

        (b) If the valuation identified in division (C)(1)(a) of this 60991
section does not exceed the valuation identified in division 60992
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the commission shall make no 60993
adjustments beyond those needed to implement the regulatory 60994
exemption.60995

       (B)(D)(1) Subject to division (C)(E) of this section, a 60996
natural gas company subject to ana regulatory exemption order 60997
issued under division (A) of this section shall, to the maximum 60998
extent practicable, keep separate the company's operations, 60999
resources, and employees, and the associated books and records, 61000
involved in the provision or marketing of a company-provided 61001
service related to an investment exempted under the regulatory61002
exemption order from the operations, resources, and employees, and 61003
the associated books and records, involved in the provision or 61004
marketing of any company-provided service not exempted under the 61005
regulatory exemption order or any other section of the Revised 61006
Code.61007

        (2) An order granting regulatory exemption order issued under 61008
division (A) of this section shall prescribe a functional 61009
separation plan for compliance with division (B)(D)(1) of this 61010
section.61011

        (C)(E)(1) No natural gas company subject to ana regulatory61012
exemption order issued under division (A) of this section may use 61013
the company's storage facilities andor gathering lines61014
facilities associated with the regulatory exemption order to 61015
provide a commodity sales service that is unregulated or subject 61016
to an exemption order issued under section 4929.04 of the Revised 61017
Code.61018

        (2) Upon application to the commission by a natural gas 61019
company and upon a finding of good cause shown, the commission 61020
may, by order, waive the prohibition described in division 61021
(C)(E)(1) of this section. The natural gas company shall bear the 61022
burden of proof that the waiver is just and reasonable, which 61023
shall constitute good cause.61024

        (D)(F) The commission shall have continuous jurisdiction to 61025
enforce any terms that it imposes in ana regulatory exemption 61026
order issued under division (A) of this section. Whenever the 61027
commission is of the opinion, after hearing had upon complaint or 61028
upon its own initiative or complaint, served as provided in 61029
section 4905.26 of the Revised Code, that ana regulatory61030
exemption order issued under division (A) of this section has 61031
adversely affected the quality, adequacy, or sufficiency of 61032
service provided by the company subject to the regulatory61033
exemption order, the commission may alter, amend, or suspend the 61034
regulatory exemption order.61035

       Sec. 4933.18.  (A) In a prosecution for a theft offense, as 61036
defined in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code, that involves 61037
alleged tampering with a gas, electric, steam, or water meter, 61038
conduit, or attachment of a utility that has been disconnected by 61039
the utility, proof that a meter, conduit, or attachment of a 61040
utility has been tampered with is prima-facie evidence that the 61041
person who is obligated to pay for the service rendered through 61042
the meter, conduit, or attachment and is in possession or control 61043
of the meter, conduit, or attachment at the time the tampering 61044
occurred has caused the tampering with intent to commit a theft 61045
offense.61046

       In a prosecution for a theft offense, as defined in section 61047
2913.01 of the Revised Code, that involves the alleged 61048
reconnection of a gas, electric, steam, or water meter, conduit, 61049
or attachment of a utility that has been disconnected by the 61050
utility, proof that a meter, conduit, or attachment disconnected 61051
by a utility has been reconnected without the consent of the 61052
utility is prima-facie evidence that the person in possession or 61053
control of the meter, conduit, or attachment at the time of the 61054
reconnection has reconnected the meter, conduit, or attachment 61055
with intent to commit a theft offense.61056

       (B) As used in this section:61057

       (1) "Utility" means any electric light company, gas company, 61058
natural gas company, pipe-line company, water-works company, or 61059
heating or cooling company, as defined by division (A)(3), (4), 61060
(5), (6), (7)(C), (D), (E), (F), (G), or (8)(H) of section 4905.03 61061
of the Revised Code, its lessees, trustees, or receivers, or any 61062
similar utility owned or operated by a political subdivision.61063

       (2) "Tamper" means to interfere with, damage, or by-pass a 61064
utility meter, conduit, or attachment with the intent to impede 61065
the correct registration of a meter or the proper functions of a 61066
conduit or attachment so as to reduce the amount of utility 61067
service that is registered on the meter.61068

       Sec. 4933.19.  Each electric light company, gas company, 61069
natural gas company, pipe-line company, water-works company, or 61070
heating or cooling company, as defined by division (A)(3), (4), 61071
(5), (6), (7),(C), (D), (E), (F), (G), or (8)(H) of section 61072
4905.03 of the Revised Code, or its lessees, trustees, or 61073
receivers, and each similar utility owned or operated by a 61074
political subdivision shall notify its customers, on an annual 61075
basis, that tampering with or bypassing a meter constitutes a 61076
theft offense that could result in the imposition of criminal 61077
sanctions.61078

       Sec. 4939.01. As used in sections 4939.01 to 4939.08 of the 61079
Revised Code:61080

       (A) "Cable operator," "cable service," and "franchise" have 61081
the same meanings as in the "Cable Communications Policy Act of 61082
1984," 98 Stat. 2779, 47 U.S.C.A. 522.61083

       (B) "Occupy or use" means, with respect to a public way, to 61084
place a tangible thing in a public way for any purpose, including, 61085
but not limited to, constructing, repairing, positioning, 61086
maintaining, or operating lines, poles, pipes, conduits, ducts, 61087
equipment, or other structures, appurtenances, or facilities 61088
necessary for the delivery of public utility services or any 61089
services provided by a cable operator.61090

       (C) "Person" means any natural person, corporation, or 61091
partnership and also includes any governmental entity.61092

       (D) "Public utility" means any company described in section 61093
4905.03 of the Revised Code except in divisions (A)(2)(B) and 61094
(9)(I) of that section, which company also is a public utility as 61095
defined in section 4905.02 of the Revised Code; and includes any 61096
electric supplier as defined in section 4933.81 of the Revised 61097
Code.61098

       (E) "Public way" means the surface of, and the space within, 61099
through, on, across, above, or below, any public street, public 61100
road, public highway, public freeway, public lane, public path, 61101
public alley, public court, public sidewalk, public boulevard, 61102
public parkway, public drive, and any other land dedicated or 61103
otherwise designated for a compatible public use, which, on or 61104
after the effective date of this sectionJuly 2, 2002, is owned or 61105
controlled by a municipal corporation. "Public way" excludes a 61106
private easement.61107

       (F) "Public way fee" means a fee levied to recover the costs 61108
incurred by a municipal corporation and associated with the 61109
occupancy or use of a public way.61110

       Sec. 4953.04.  No union terminal company or corporation shall 61111
engage in the business of a for-hire motor transportation service61112
carrier, as defined in sections 4905.03, 4921.02, and 4923.0261113
4921.01 of the Revised Code, over any public highway in this 61114
state, without obtaining authority from the public utilities 61115
commission, and complying with all laws governing every 61116
corporation or company when engaged or proposing to engage in such61117
the business of a for-hire motor transportation servicecarrier.61118

       Sec. 4961.03.  Any railroad company owning or operating a 61119
railroad in this state may own, control, operate, or manage motor 61120
vehicles for the purpose of transporting persons or property, or 61121
both, upon the public highways for hire, subject to sections 61122
4921.02 to 4921.32, inclusive,Chapters 4921. and 4923. of the 61123
Revised Code. Any railroad company may also own and operate 61124
equipment for and engage in the business of aerial transportation. 61125
Any railroad company may acquire, own, and hold capital stock and 61126
securities of corporations organized for or engaged in the 61127
businesses authorized in this section and may operate the 61128
properties, or any part thereof, of such corporations, and may 61129
enter into working arrangements and agreements with such 61130
corporations.61131

       Sec. 4965.54.  Any common carrier, railroad, or 61132
transportation companymotor carrier receiving property at a point 61133
within this state for transportation to a point within this state, 61134
shall issue a receipt or bill of lading for such property and is 61135
liable to the lawful holder of it for any loss, damage, or injury 61136
to such property caused by it or by any common carrier, railroad, 61137
or transportation company to which such property is delivered or 61138
over whose line such property passes. No contract, receipt, rule, 61139
or regulation shall exempt such common carrier, railroad, or 61140
transportation companymotor carrier from the liability imposed by 61141
this section. This section does not deprive any holder of such 61142
receipt or bill of lading of any remedy or right of action which 61143
hethe holder has under existing law.61144

       The common carrier, railroad, or transportation companymotor 61145
carrier issuing such receipt or bill of lading may recover from 61146
the common carrier, railroad, or transportation companymotor 61147
carrier on whose line the loss, damage, or injury was sustained 61148
the amount of such loss, damage, or injury it is required to pay 61149
the owners of such property as is evidenced by any receipt, 61150
judgment, or transcript thereof.61151

       As used in this section, "motor carrier" has the same meaning 61152
as in section 4923.01 of the Revised Code.61153

       Sec. 5101.01. (A) As used in the Revised Code, the 61154
"department of public welfare" and the "department of human 61155
services" mean the department of job and family services and the 61156
"director of public welfare" and the "director of human services" 61157
mean the director of job and family services. Whenever the 61158
department or director of public welfare or the department or 61159
director of human services is referred to or designated in any 61160
statute, rule, contract, grant, or other document, the reference 61161
or designation shall be deemed to refer to the department or 61162
director of job and family services, as the case may be.61163

       (B) As used in this chapter of the Revised Code:61164

        (1) References to counties or to a county departments61165
department of job and family services include thea joint county 61166
department of job and family services established under section 61167
329.40 of the Revised Code.61168

        (2) References to boardsa board of county commissioners 61169
include boardsthe board of directors of thea joint county61170
department of job and family services established under section 61171
329.40 of the Revised Code.61172

       Sec. 5101.46.  (A) As used in this section:61173

       (1) "Title XX" means Title XX of the "Social Security Act," 61174
88 Stat. 2337 (1974), 42 U.S.C.A. 1397, as amended.61175

       (2) "Respective local agency" means, with respect to the 61176
department of job and family services, a county department of job 61177
and family services; with respect to the department of mental 61178
health, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 61179
services; and with respect to the department of developmental 61180
disabilities, a county board of developmental disabilities.61181

       (3) "Federal poverty guidelines" means the poverty guidelines 61182
as revised annually by the United States department of health and 61183
human services in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus 61184
Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C.A. 61185
9902, as amended, for a family size equal to the size of the 61186
family of the person whose income is being determined.61187

       (B) The departments of job and family services, mental 61188
health, and developmental disabilities, with their respective 61189
local agencies, shall administer the provision of social services 61190
funded through grants made under Title XX. The social services 61191
furnished with Title XX funds shall be directed at the following 61192
goals:61193

       (1) Achieving or maintaining economic self-support to 61194
prevent, reduce, or eliminate dependency;61195

       (2) Achieving or maintaining self-sufficiency, including 61196
reduction or prevention of dependency;61197

       (3) Preventing or remedying neglect, abuse, or exploitation 61198
of children and adults unable to protect their own interests, or 61199
preserving, rehabilitating, or reuniting families;61200

       (4) Preventing or reducing inappropriate institutional care 61201
by providing for community-based care, home-based care, or other 61202
forms of less intensive care;61203

       (5) Securing referral or admission for institutional care 61204
when other forms of care are not appropriate, or providing 61205
services to individuals in institutions.61206

       (C)(1) All federal funds received under Title XX shall be 61207
appropriated as follows:61208

       (a) Seventy-two and one-half per cent to the department of 61209
job and family services;61210

       (b) Twelve and ninety-three one-hundrethsone-hundredths per 61211
cent to the department of mental health;61212

       (c) Fourteen and fifty-seven one-hundrethsone-hundredths per 61213
cent to the department of developmental disabilities.61214

       (2) Each of the state departments shall, subject to the 61215
approval of the controlling board, develop a formula for the 61216
distribution of the Title XX funds appropriated to the department 61217
to its respective local agencies. The formula developed by each 61218
state department shall take into account all of the following for 61219
each of its respective local agencies:61220

       (a) The total population of the area that is served by the 61221
respective local agency;61222

       (b) The percentage of the population in the area served that 61223
falls below the federal poverty guidelines;61224

       (c) The respective local agency's history of and ability to 61225
utilize Title XX funds.61226

       (3) Each of the state departments shall expend for state 61227
administrative costs not more than three per cent of the Title XX 61228
funds appropriated to the department. 61229

       Each state department shall establish for each of its 61230
respective local agencies the maximum percentage of the Title XX 61231
funds distributed to the respective local agency that the 61232
respective local agency may expend for local administrative costs. 61233
The percentage shall be established by rule and shall comply with 61234
federal law governing the use of Title XX funds. The rules shall 61235
be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code 61236
as if they were internal management rules.61237

       (4) The department of job and family services shall expend 61238
for the training of the following not more than two per cent of 61239
the Title XX funds appropriated to the department:61240

       (a) Employees of county departments of job and family 61241
services;61242

       (b) Providers of services under contract with the state 61243
departments' respective local agencies;61244

       (c) Employees of a public children services agency directly 61245
engaged in providing Title XX services. 61246

       (D) The department of job and family services shall prepare a 61247
biennialan annual comprehensive Title XX social services plan on 61248
the intended use of Title XX funds. The department shall develop a 61249
method for obtaining public comment during the development of the 61250
plan and following its completion.61251

       For each statefederal fiscal year, the department of job and 61252
family services shall prepare a report on the actual use of Title 61253
XX funds. The department shall make the annual report available 61254
for public inspection.61255

       The departments of mental health and developmental 61256
disabilities shall prepare and submit to the department of job and 61257
family services the portions of each biennialannual plan and 61258
annual report that apply to services for mental health and mental 61259
retardation and developmental disabilities. Each respective local 61260
agency of the three state departments shall submit information as 61261
necessary for the preparation of biennialannual plans and annual61262
reports.61263

       (E) Each county department of job and family services shall 61264
adopt a county profile for the administration and provision of 61265
Title XX social services in the county. In developing its county 61266
profile, the county department shall take into consideration the 61267
comments and recommendations received from the public by the 61268
county family services planning committee pursuant to section 61269
329.06 of the Revised Code. As part of its preparation of the 61270
county profile, the county department may prepare a local needs 61271
report analyzing the need for Title XX social services.61272

       The county department shall submit the county profile to the 61273
board of county commissioners for its review. Once the county 61274
profile has been approved by the board, the county department 61275
shall file a copy of the county profile with the department of job 61276
and family services. The department shall approve the county 61277
profile if the department determines the profile provides for the 61278
Title XX social services to meet the goals specified in division 61279
(B) of this section.61280

       (F) Any of the three state departments and their respective 61281
local agencies may require that an entity under contract to 61282
provide social services with Title XX funds submit to an audit on 61283
the basis of alleged misuse or improper accounting of funds. If an 61284
audit is required, the social services provider shall reimburse 61285
the state department or respective local agency for the cost it 61286
incurred in conducting the audit or having the audit conducted.61287

        If an audit demonstrates that a social services provider is 61288
responsible for one or more adverse findings, the provider shall 61289
reimburse the appropriate state department or its respective local 61290
agency the amount of the adverse findings. The amount shall not be 61291
reimbursed with Title XX funds received under this section. The 61292
three state departments and their respective local agencies may 61293
terminate or refuse to enter into a Title XX contract with a 61294
social services provider if there are adverse findings in an audit 61295
that are the responsibility of the provider. 61296

       (G) Except with respect to the matters for which each of the 61297
state departments must adopt rules under division (C)(3) of this 61298
section, the department of job and family services may adopt any 61299
rules it considers necessary to implement and carry out the 61300
purposes of this section. Rules governing financial and 61301
operational matters of the department or matters between the 61302
department and county departments of job and family services shall 61303
be adopted as internal management rules in accordance with section 61304
111.15 of the Revised Code. Rules governing eligibility for 61305
services, program participation, and other matters pertaining to 61306
applicants and participants shall be adopted in accordance with 61307
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.61308

       Sec. 5101.60.  As used in sections 5101.60 to 5101.71 of the 61309
Revised Code:61310

       (A) "Abuse" means the infliction upon an adult by self or 61311
others of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or cruel 61312
punishment with resulting physical harm, pain, or mental anguish.61313

       (B) "Adult" means any person sixty years of age or older 61314
within this state who is handicapped by the infirmities of aging 61315
or who has a physical or mental impairment which prevents the 61316
person from providing for the person's own care or protection, and 61317
who resides in an independent living arrangement. An "independent 61318
living arrangement" is a domicile of a person's own choosing, 61319
including, but not limited to, a private home, apartment, trailer, 61320
or rooming house. An "independent living arrangement" includes an 61321
adult carea residential facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 61322
5119.under section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides 61323
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three 61324
to sixteen unrelated adults, but does not include other 61325
institutions or facilities licensed by the state or facilities in 61326
which a person resides as a result of voluntary, civil, or 61327
criminal commitment. 61328

       (C) "Caretaker" means the person assuming the responsibility 61329
for the care of an adult on a voluntary basis, by contract, 61330
through receipt of payment for care, as a result of a family 61331
relationship, or by order of a court of competent jurisdiction.61332

       (D) "Court" means the probate court in the county where an 61333
adult resides.61334

       (E) "Emergency" means that the adult is living in conditions 61335
which present a substantial risk of immediate and irreparable 61336
physical harm or death to self or any other person.61337

       (F) "Emergency services" means protective services furnished 61338
to an adult in an emergency.61339

       (G) "Exploitation" means the unlawful or improper act of a 61340
caretaker using an adult or an adult's resources for monetary or 61341
personal benefit, profit, or gain.61342

       (H) "In need of protective services" means an adult known or 61343
suspected to be suffering from abuse, neglect, or exploitation to 61344
an extent that either life is endangered or physical harm, mental 61345
anguish, or mental illness results or is likely to result.61346

       (I) "Incapacitated person" means a person who is impaired for 61347
any reason to the extent that the person lacks sufficient 61348
understanding or capacity to make and carry out reasonable 61349
decisions concerning the person's self or resources, with or 61350
without the assistance of a caretaker. Refusal to consent to the 61351
provision of services shall not be the sole determinative that the 61352
person is incapacitated. "Reasonable decisions" are decisions made 61353
in daily living which facilitate the provision of food, shelter, 61354
clothing, and health care necessary for life support.61355

       (J) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of thought, 61356
mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly impairs 61357
judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to 61358
meet the ordinary demands of life.61359

       (K) "Neglect" means the failure of an adult to provide for 61360
self the goods or services necessary to avoid physical harm, 61361
mental anguish, or mental illness or the failure of a caretaker to 61362
provide such goods or services.61363

       (L) "Peace officer" means a peace officer as defined in 61364
section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.61365

       (M) "Physical harm" means bodily pain, injury, impairment, or 61366
disease suffered by an adult.61367

       (N) "Protective services" means services provided by the 61368
county department of job and family services or its designated 61369
agency to an adult who has been determined by evaluation to 61370
require such services for the prevention, correction, or 61371
discontinuance of an act of as well as conditions resulting from 61372
abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Protective services may include, 61373
but are not limited to, case work services, medical care, mental 61374
health services, legal services, fiscal management, home health 61375
care, homemaker services, housing-related services, guardianship 61376
services, and placement services as well as the provision of such 61377
commodities as food, clothing, and shelter.61378

       (O) "Working day" means Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, 61379
and Friday, except when such day is a holiday as defined in 61380
section 1.14 of the Revised Code.61381

       Sec. 5101.61.  (A) As used in this section:61382

       (1) "Senior service provider" means any person who provides 61383
care or services to a person who is an adult as defined in 61384
division (B) of section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.61385

       (2) "Ambulatory health facility" means a nonprofit, public or 61386
proprietary freestanding organization or a unit of such an agency 61387
or organization that:61388

       (a) Provides preventive, diagnostic, therapeutic, 61389
rehabilitative, or palliative items or services furnished to an 61390
outpatient or ambulatory patient, by or under the direction of a 61391
physician or dentist in a facility which is not a part of a 61392
hospital, but which is organized and operated to provide medical 61393
care to outpatients;61394

       (b) Has health and medical care policies which are developed 61395
with the advice of, and with the provision of review of such 61396
policies, an advisory committee of professional personnel, 61397
including one or more physicians, one or more dentists, if dental 61398
care is provided, and one or more registered nurses;61399

       (c) Has a medical director, a dental director, if dental care 61400
is provided, and a nursing director responsible for the execution 61401
of such policies, and has physicians, dentists, nursing, and 61402
ancillary staff appropriate to the scope of services provided;61403

       (d) Requires that the health care and medical care of every 61404
patient be under the supervision of a physician, provides for 61405
medical care in a case of emergency, has in effect a written 61406
agreement with one or more hospitals and other centers or clinics, 61407
and has an established patient referral system to other resources, 61408
and a utilization review plan and program;61409

       (e) Maintains clinical records on all patients;61410

       (f) Provides nursing services and other therapeutic services 61411
in accordance with programs and policies, with such services 61412
supervised by a registered professional nurse, and has a 61413
registered professional nurse on duty at all times of clinical 61414
operations;61415

       (g) Provides approved methods and procedures for the 61416
dispensing and administration of drugs and biologicals;61417

       (h) Has established an accounting and record keeping system 61418
to determine reasonable and allowable costs;61419

       (i) "Ambulatory health facilities" also includes an 61420
alcoholism treatment facility approved by the joint commission on 61421
accreditation of healthcare organizations as an alcoholism 61422
treatment facility or certified by the department of alcohol and 61423
drug addiction services, and such facility shall comply with other 61424
provisions of this division not inconsistent with such 61425
accreditation or certification.61426

       (3) "Community mental health facility" means a facility which 61427
provides community mental health services and is included in the 61428
comprehensive mental health plan for the alcohol, drug addiction, 61429
and mental health service district in which it is located.61430

       (4) "Community mental health service" means services, other 61431
than inpatient services, provided by a community mental health 61432
facility.61433

       (5) "Home health agency" means an institution or a distinct 61434
part of an institution operated in this state which:61435

       (a) Is primarily engaged in providing home health services;61436

       (b) Has home health policies which are established by a group 61437
of professional personnel, including one or more duly licensed 61438
doctors of medicine or osteopathy and one or more registered 61439
professional nurses, to govern the home health services it 61440
provides and which includes a requirement that every patient must 61441
be under the care of a duly licensed doctor of medicine or 61442
osteopathy;61443

       (c) Is under the supervision of a duly licensed doctor of 61444
medicine or doctor of osteopathy or a registered professional 61445
nurse who is responsible for the execution of such home health 61446
policies;61447

       (d) Maintains comprehensive records on all patients;61448

       (e) Is operated by the state, a political subdivision, or an 61449
agency of either, or is operated not for profit in this state and 61450
is licensed or registered, if required, pursuant to law by the 61451
appropriate department of the state, county, or municipality in 61452
which it furnishes services; or is operated for profit in this 61453
state, meets all the requirements specified in divisions (A)(5)(a) 61454
to (d) of this section, and is certified under Title XVIII of the 61455
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 61456
amended.61457

       (6) "Home health service" means the following items and 61458
services, provided, except as provided in division (A)(6)(g) of 61459
this section, on a visiting basis in a place of residence used as 61460
the patient's home:61461

       (a) Nursing care provided by or under the supervision of a 61462
registered professional nurse;61463

       (b) Physical, occupational, or speech therapy ordered by the 61464
patient's attending physician;61465

       (c) Medical social services performed by or under the 61466
supervision of a qualified medical or psychiatric social worker 61467
and under the direction of the patient's attending physician;61468

       (d) Personal health care of the patient performed by aides in 61469
accordance with the orders of a doctor of medicine or osteopathy 61470
and under the supervision of a registered professional nurse;61471

       (e) Medical supplies and the use of medical appliances;61472

       (f) Medical services of interns and residents-in-training 61473
under an approved teaching program of a nonprofit hospital and 61474
under the direction and supervision of the patient's attending 61475
physician;61476

       (g) Any of the foregoing items and services which:61477

       (i) Are provided on an outpatient basis under arrangements 61478
made by the home health agency at a hospital or skilled nursing 61479
facility;61480

       (ii) Involve the use of equipment of such a nature that the 61481
items and services cannot readily be made available to the patient 61482
in the patient's place of residence, or which are furnished at the 61483
hospital or skilled nursing facility while the patient is there to 61484
receive any item or service involving the use of such equipment.61485

       Any attorney, physician, osteopath, podiatrist, chiropractor, 61486
dentist, psychologist, any employee of a hospital as defined in 61487
section 3701.01 of the Revised Code, any nurse licensed under 61488
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, any employee of an ambulatory 61489
health facility, any employee of a home health agency, any 61490
employee of an adult carea residential facility as defined in61491
licensed under section 5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that 61492
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 61493
for three to sixteen unrelated adults, any employee of a nursing 61494
home, residential care facility, or home for the aging, as defined 61495
in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, any senior service 61496
provider, any peace officer, coroner, clergymanmember of the 61497
clergy, any employee of a community mental health facility, and 61498
any person engaged in social work or counseling having reasonable 61499
cause to believe that an adult is being abused, neglected, or 61500
exploited, or is in a condition which is the result of abuse, 61501
neglect, or exploitation shall immediately report such belief to 61502
the county department of job and family services. This section 61503
does not apply to employees of any hospital or public hospital as 61504
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.61505

       (B) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that an 61506
adult has suffered abuse, neglect, or exploitation may report, or 61507
cause reports to be made of such belief to the department.61508

       (C) The reports made under this section shall be made orally 61509
or in writing except that oral reports shall be followed by a 61510
written report if a written report is requested by the department. 61511
Written reports shall include:61512

       (1) The name, address, and approximate age of the adult who 61513
is the subject of the report;61514

       (2) The name and address of the individual responsible for 61515
the adult's care, if any individual is, and if the individual is 61516
known;61517

       (3) The nature and extent of the alleged abuse, neglect, or 61518
exploitation of the adult;61519

       (4) The basis of the reporter's belief that the adult has 61520
been abused, neglected, or exploited.61521

       (D) Any person with reasonable cause to believe that an adult 61522
is suffering abuse, neglect, or exploitation who makes a report 61523
pursuant to this section or who testifies in any administrative or 61524
judicial proceeding arising from such a report, or any employee of 61525
the state or any of its subdivisions who is discharging 61526
responsibilities under section 5101.62 of the Revised Code shall 61527
be immune from civil or criminal liability on account of such 61528
investigation, report, or testimony, except liability for perjury, 61529
unless the person has acted in bad faith or with malicious 61530
purpose.61531

       (E) No employer or any other person with the authority to do 61532
so shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 61533
performance evaluation, or reduce benefits, pay, or work 61534
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 61535
in any way retaliate against an employee as a result of the 61536
employee's having filed a report under this section.61537

       (F) Neither the written or oral report provided for in this 61538
section nor the investigatory report provided for in section 61539
5101.62 of the Revised Code shall be considered a public record as 61540
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 61541
contained in the report shall upon request be made available to 61542
the adult who is the subject of the report, to agencies authorized 61543
by the department to receive information contained in the report, 61544
and to legal counsel for the adult.61545

       Sec. 5104.012.  (A)(1) At the times specified in this 61546
division, the administrator of a child day-care center or a type A 61547
family day-care home shall request the superintendent of the 61548
bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a 61549
criminal records check with respect to any applicant who has 61550
applied to the center or type A home for employment as a person 61551
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child. 61552

        The administrator shall request a criminal records check 61553
pursuant to this division at the time of the applicant's initial 61554
application for employment and every four years thereafter. When 61555
the administrator requests pursuant to this division a criminal 61556
records check for an applicant at the time of the applicant's 61557
initial application for employment, the administrator shall 61558
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 61559
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 61560
check for the applicant, including fingerprint-based checks of 61561
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 61562
671, for the person subject to the criminal records check. In all 61563
other cases in which the administrator requests a criminal records 61564
check for an applicant pursuant to this division, the 61565
administrator may request that the superintendent include 61566
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 61567
criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 61568
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 61569
671.61570

       (2) A person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 61571
request a criminal records check shall provide to each applicant a 61572
copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 61573
109.572 of the Revised Code, provide to each applicant a standard 61574
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 61575
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised 61576
Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from each 61577
applicant, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 61578
the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 61579
investigation at the time the person requests a criminal records 61580
check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section. On and after 61581
August 14, 2008, the administrator of a child day-care center or a 61582
type A family day-care home shall review the results of the 61583
criminal records check before the applicant has sole 61584
responsibility for the care, custody, or control of any child.61585

       (3) An applicant who receives pursuant to division (A)(2) of 61586
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 61587
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of an 61588
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 61589
section and who is requested to complete the form and provide a 61590
set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form or provide 61591
all the information necessary to complete the form and shall 61592
provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 61593
applicant's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails to 61594
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 61595
provide impressions of the applicant's fingerprints, the center or 61596
type A home shall not employ that applicant for any position for 61597
which a criminal records check is required by division (A)(1) of 61598
this section.61599

       (B)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (E) 61600
of this section, no child day-care center or type A family 61601
day-care home shall employ or contract with another entity for the 61602
services of a person as a person responsible for the care, 61603
custody, or control of a child if the person previously has been 61604
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 61605
in division (A)(9)(6) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.61606

       (2) A child day-care center or type A family day-care home 61607
may employ an applicant conditionally until the criminal records 61608
check required by this section is completed and the center or home 61609
receives the results of the criminal records check. If the results 61610
of the criminal records check indicate that, pursuant to division 61611
(B)(1) of this section, the applicant does not qualify for 61612
employment, the center or home shall release the applicant from 61613
employment.61614

       (C)(1) Each child day-care center and type A family day-care 61615
home shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 61616
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 61617
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 61618
check conducted in accordance with that section upon the request 61619
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section of the administrator 61620
or provider of the center or home.61621

       (2) A child day-care center and type A family day-care home 61622
may charge an applicant a fee for the costs it incurs in obtaining 61623
a criminal records check under this section. A fee charged under 61624
this division shall not exceed the amount of fees the center or 61625
home pays under division (C)(1) of this section. If a fee is 61626
charged under this division, the center or home shall notify the 61627
applicant at the time of the applicant's initial application for 61628
employment of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is 61629
paid, the center or type A home will not consider the applicant 61630
for employment.61631

       (D) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 61632
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 61633
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 61634
under division (A)(1) of this section is not a public record for 61635
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 61636
be made available to any person other than the applicant who is 61637
the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's 61638
representative; the center or type A home requesting the criminal 61639
records check or its representative; the department of job and 61640
family services or a county department of job and family services; 61641
and any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 61642
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment to the 61643
applicant.61644

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 61645
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 61646
section, including rules specifying circumstances under which a 61647
center or home may hire a person who has been convicted of an 61648
offense listed in division (B)(1) of this section but who meets 61649
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the department.61650

       (F) Any person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 61651
request a criminal records check shall inform each person, at the 61652
time of the person's initial application for employment, that the 61653
person is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 61654
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 61655
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 61656
109.572 of the Revised Code if the person comes under final 61657
consideration for appointment or employment as a precondition to 61658
employment for that position.61659

       (G) As used in this section:61660

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 61661
consideration for appointment to or employment in a position with 61662
a child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a 61663
person responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child; 61664
an in-home aide certified pursuant to section 5104.12 of the 61665
Revised Code; or any person who would serve in any position with a 61666
child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a person 61667
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child pursuant 61668
to a contract with another entity.61669

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 61670
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.61671

       Sec. 5104.013.  (A)(1) At the times specified in division 61672
(A)(3) of this section, the director of job and family services, 61673
as part of the process of licensure of child day-care centers and 61674
type A family day-care homes, shall request the superintendent of 61675
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct 61676
a criminal records check with respect to the following persons:61677

       (a) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a child day-care 61678
center;61679

       (b) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a type A family 61680
day-care home and any person eighteen years of age or older who 61681
resides in a type A family day-care home.61682

       (2) At the times specified in division (A)(3) of this 61683
section, the director of a county department of job and family 61684
services, as part of the process of certification of type B family 61685
day-care homes, shall request the superintendent of the bureau of 61686
criminal identification and investigation to conduct a criminal 61687
records check with respect to any authorized provider of a 61688
certified type B family day-care home and any person eighteen 61689
years of age or older who resides in a certified type B family 61690
day-care home.61691

       (3) The director of job and family services shall request a 61692
criminal records check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section 61693
at the time of the initial application for licensure and every 61694
four years thereafter. The director of a county department of job 61695
and family services shall request a criminal records check 61696
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section at the time of the 61697
initial application for certification and every four years 61698
thereafter at the time of a certification renewal. When the 61699
director of job and family services or the director of a county 61700
department of job and family services requests pursuant to 61701
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section a criminal records check 61702
for a person at the time of the person's initial application for 61703
licensure or certification, the director shall request that the 61704
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 61705
investigation obtain information from the federal bureau of 61706
investigation as a part of the criminal records check for the 61707
person, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime 61708
information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 for the person 61709
subject to the criminal records check. In all other cases in which 61710
the director of job and family services or the director of a 61711
county department of job and family services requests a criminal 61712
records check for an applicant pursuant to division (A)(1) or (2) 61713
of this section, the director may request that the superintendent 61714
include information from the federal bureau of investigation in 61715
the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 61716
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 61717
671. 61718

       (4) The director of job and family services shall review the 61719
results of a criminal records check subsequent to a request made 61720
pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (3) of this section prior to 61721
approval of a license. The director of a county department of job 61722
and family services shall review the results of a criminal records 61723
check subsequent to a request made pursuant to divisions (A)(2) 61724
and (3) of this section prior to approval of certification.61725

       (B) The director of job and family services or the director 61726
of a county department of job and family services shall provide to 61727
each person for whom a criminal records check is required under 61728
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 61729
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 61730
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 61731
pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, obtain the completed 61732
form and impression sheet from that person, and forward the 61733
completed form and impression sheet to the superintendent of the 61734
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.61735

       (C) A person who receives pursuant to division (B) of this 61736
section a copy of the form and standard impression sheet described 61737
in that division and who is requested to complete the form and 61738
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 61739
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 61740
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 61741
person's fingerprints. If the person, upon request, fails to 61742
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 61743
provide impressions of the person's fingerprints, the director may 61744
consider the failure as a reason to deny licensure or 61745
certification.61746

       (D) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (G) of 61747
this section, the director of job and family services shall not 61748
grant a license to a child day-care center or type A family 61749
day-care home and a county director of job and family services 61750
shall not certify a type B family day-care home if a person for 61751
whom a criminal records check was required in connection with the 61752
center or home previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 61753
to any of the violations described in division (A)(9)(6) of 61754
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.61755

       (E) Each child day-care center, type A family day-care home, 61756
and type B family day-care home shall pay to the bureau of 61757
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 61758
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 61759
for each criminal records check conducted in accordance with that 61760
section upon a request made pursuant to division (A) of this 61761
section.61762

       (F) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 61763
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 61764
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 61765
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 61766
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 61767
be made available to any person other than the person who is the 61768
subject of the criminal records check or the person's 61769
representative, the director of job and family services, the 61770
director of a county department of job and family services, the 61771
center, type A home, or type B home involved, and any court, 61772
hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case 61773
dealing with a denial of licensure or certification related to the 61774
criminal records check.61775

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 61776
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 61777
section, including rules specifying exceptions to the prohibition 61778
in division (D) of this section for persons who have been 61779
convicted of an offense listed in that division but who meet 61780
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the department61781
director.61782

       (H) As used in this section, "criminal records check" has the 61783
same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.61784

       Sec. 5104.051.  (A)(1) The department of commerce is 61785
responsible for the inspections of child day-care centers as 61786
required by division (A)(1) of section 5104.05 of the Revised 61787
Code. Where there is a municipal, township, or county building 61788
department certified under section 3781.10 of the Revised Code to 61789
exercise enforcement authority with respect to the category of 61790
building occupancy which includes day-care centers, all 61791
inspections required under division (A)(1) of section 5104.05 of 61792
the Revised Code shall be made by that department according to the 61793
standards established by the board of building standards. 61794
Inspections in areas of the state where there is no municipal, 61795
township, or county building department certified under section 61796
3781.10 of the Revised Code to exercise enforcement authority with 61797
respect to the category of building occupancy which includes 61798
day-care centers shall be made by personnel of the department of 61799
commerce. Inspections of centers shall be contingent upon payment 61800
of a fee by the applicant to the department having jurisdiction to 61801
inspect.61802

       (2) The department of commerce is responsible for the 61803
inspections of type A family day-care homes as required by 61804
division (B)(3) of section 5104.05 of the Revised Code. Where 61805
there is a municipal, township, or county building department 61806
certified under section 3781.10 of the Revised Code to exercise 61807
enforcement authority with respect to the category of building 61808
occupancy which includes type A homes, all inspections required 61809
under division (B)(3) of section 5104.05 of the Revised Code shall 61810
be made by that department according to the standards established 61811
by the board of building standards. Inspections in areas of the 61812
state where there is no municipal, township, or county building 61813
department certified under section 3781.10 of the Revised Code to 61814
exercise enforcement authority with respect to the category of 61815
building occupancy which includes type A homes shall be made by 61816
personnel of the department of commerce. Inspections of type A 61817
homes shall be contingent upon payment of a fee by the applicant 61818
to the department having jurisdiction to inspect.61819

       (B) The state fire marshal is responsible for the inspections 61820
required by divisions (A)(2) and (B)(1) of section 5104.05 of the 61821
Revised Code. In municipal corporations and in townships outside 61822
municipal corporations where there is a fire prevention official, 61823
the inspections shall be made by the fire chief or the fire 61824
prevention official under the supervision of and according to the 61825
standards established by the state fire marshal. In townships 61826
outside municipal corporations where there is no fire prevention 61827
official, inspections shall be made by the employees of the state 61828
fire marshal.61829

       (C) The state fire marshal shall enforce all statutes and 61830
rules pertaining to fire safety and fire prevention in child 61831
day-care centers and type A family day-care homes. In the event of 61832
a dispute between the state fire marshal and any other responsible 61833
officer under sections 5104.05 and 5104.051 of the Revised Code 61834
with respect to the interpretation or application of a specific 61835
fire safety statute or rule, the interpretation of the state fire 61836
marshal shall prevail.61837

       (D) As used in this division, "licensor" has the same meaning 61838
as in section 3717.01 of the Revised Code.61839

       The licensor for food service operations in the city or 61840
general health district in which the center is located is 61841
responsible for the inspections required under Chapter 3717. of 61842
the Revised Code.61843

       (E) Any moneys collected by the department of commerce under 61844
this section shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit 61845
of the laborindustrial compliance operating fund created in 61846
section 121.084 of the Revised Code.61847

       Sec. 5104.09.  (A)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted 61848
pursuant to division (D) of this section, no individual who has 61849
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation described in 61850
division (A)(9)(6) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, a 61851
violation of section 2905.11, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 61852
2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2921.03, 2921.34, or 2921.35 61853
of the Revised Code or a violation of an existing or former law or 61854
ordinance of any municipal corporation, this state, any other 61855
state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to 61856
any of those violations, or two violations of section 4511.19 of 61857
the Revised Code during operation of the center or home shall be 61858
certified as an in-home aide or be employed in any capacity in or 61859
own or operate a child day-care center, type A family day-care 61860
home, type B family day-care home, or certified type B family 61861
day-care home.61862

       (2) Each employee of a child day-care center and type A home 61863
and every person eighteen years of age or older residing in a type 61864
A home shall sign a statement on forms prescribed by the director 61865
of job and family services attesting to the fact that the employee 61866
or resident person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 61867
any offense set forth in division (A)(1) of this section and that 61868
no child has been removed from the employee's or resident person's 61869
home pursuant to section 2151.353 of the Revised Code. Each 61870
licensee of a type A home shall sign a statement on a form 61871
prescribed by the director attesting to the fact that no person 61872
who resides at the type A home and who is under the age of 61873
eighteen has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a 61874
violation of any section listed in division (A)(1) of this 61875
section. The statements shall be kept on file at the center or 61876
type A home.61877

       (3) Each in-home aide and every person eighteen years of age 61878
or older residing in a certified type B home shall sign a 61879
statement on forms prescribed by the director of job and family 61880
services attesting that the aide or resident person has not been 61881
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense set forth in 61882
division (A)(1) of this section and that no child has been removed 61883
from the aide's or resident person's home pursuant to section 61884
2151.353 of the Revised Code. Each authorized provider shall sign 61885
a statement on forms prescribed by the director attesting that the 61886
provider has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any 61887
offense set forth in division (A)(1) of this section and that no 61888
child has been removed from the provider's home pursuant to 61889
section 2151.353 of the Revised Code. Each authorized provider 61890
shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by the director 61891
attesting to the fact that no person who resides at the certified 61892
type B home and who is under the age of eighteen has been 61893
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a violation of any 61894
section listed in division (A)(1) of this section. The statements 61895
shall be kept on file at the county department of job and family 61896
services.61897

       (4) Each administrator and licensee of a center or type A 61898
home shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by the director 61899
of job and family services attesting that the administrator or 61900
licensee has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any 61901
offense set forth in division (A)(1) of this section and that no 61902
child has been removed from the administrator's or licensee's home 61903
pursuant to section 2151.353 of the Revised Code. The statement 61904
shall be kept on file at the center or type A home.61905

       (B) No in-home aide, no administrator, licensee, authorized 61906
provider, or employee of a center, type A home, or certified type 61907
B home, and no person eighteen years of age or older residing in a 61908
type A home or certified type B home shall withhold information 61909
from, or falsify information on, any statement required pursuant 61910
to division (A)(2), (3), or (4) of this section.61911

       (C) No administrator, licensee, or child-care staff member 61912
shall discriminate in the enrollment of children in a child 61913
day-care center upon the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or 61914
national origin.61915

       (D) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 61916
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 61917
section, including rules specifying exceptions to the prohibition 61918
in division (A) of this section for persons who have been 61919
convicted of an offense listed in that division but meet 61920
rehabilitation standards set by the departmentdirector.61921

       Sec. 5104.37. (A) As used in this section, "eligible 61922
provider" means an individual or entity eligible to provide 61923
publicly funded child care pursuant to section 5104.31 of the 61924
Revised Code.61925

        (B) The department of job and family services may withhold 61926
any money due,under this chapter and recover through any 61927
appropriate method any money erroneously paid, under this chapter 61928
if evidence exists of less than full compliance with this chapter 61929
and any rules adopted under it.61930

       (C) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter to 61931
the contrary, the department shall take action against an eligible 61932
provider as described in this section.61933

        (D) The department may suspend a contract entered into with 61934
an eligible provider under section 5104.32 of the Revised Code 61935
when the department initiates an investigation concerning the 61936
eligible provider for either of the following reasons:61937

        (1) The department has evidence that the eligible provider 61938
received an improper child care payment as a result of the 61939
provider's intentional act.61940

        (2) The department receives notice and a copy of an 61941
indictment, information, or complaint charging the eligible 61942
provider or the owner or operator of the provider with committing 61943
any of the following:61944

        (a) An act that is a felony or misdemeanor relating to 61945
providing or billing for publicly funded child care or providing 61946
management or administrative services relating to providing 61947
publicly funded child care;61948

        (b) An act that would constitute an offense described in 61949
section 5104.09 of the Revised Code.61950

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 61951
the suspension of a contract under division (D) of this section 61952
shall continue until the department completes its investigation or 61953
all criminal charges are disposed of through dismissal, a finding 61954
of not guilty, conviction, or a plea of guilty.61955

        (2) If the department initiates the termination of a contract 61956
that has been suspended pursuant to division (D) of this section, 61957
the suspension shall continue until the termination process is 61958
completed.61959

       (F) An eligible provider shall not provide publicly funded 61960
child care while the provider's contract is under suspension 61961
pursuant to division (D) of this section. As of the date the 61962
eligible provider's contract is suspended, the department shall 61963
withhold payment to the eligible provider for publicly funded 61964
child care.61965

        (G) Not later than five days after suspending an eligible 61966
provider's contract pursuant to division (D) of this section, the 61967
department shall notify the eligible provider. The notice shall 61968
include all of the following:61969

        (1) A description of the investigation or indictment, 61970
information, or complaint, which need not disclose specific 61971
information concerning any ongoing administrative or criminal 61972
investigation;61973

        (2) A statement that the eligible provider is prohibited from 61974
providing publicly funded child care while the contract is under 61975
suspension;61976

        (3) A statement that the suspension will continue until the 61977
department completes its investigation or all criminal charges are 61978
disposed of through dismissal, a finding of not guilty, 61979
conviction, or a plea of guilty, and that if the department 61980
initiates the termination of the contract, the suspension will 61981
continue until the termination process is completed.61982

       (H) An eligible provider may file an appeal with the 61983
department regarding any action the department takes pursuant to 61984
division (D) of this section. The appeal must be received by the 61985
department not later than fifteen days after the date the provider 61986
receives the notification described in division (G) of this 61987
section. The department shall review the evidence and issue a 61988
decision not later than thirty days after receiving the appeal. 61989
The department shall not suspend a contract pursuant to division 61990
(D) of this section until the time for filing the appeal has 61991
passed or, if the provider files a timely appeal, the department 61992
has issued a decision on the appeal.61993

       Sec. 5107.05.  The director of job and family services shall 61994
adopt rules to implement this chapter. The rules shall be 61995
consistent with Title IV-A, Title IV-D, federal regulations, state 61996
law, the Title IV-A state plan submitted to the United States 61997
secretary of health and human services under section 5101.80 of 61998
the Revised Code, amendments to the plan, and waivers granted by 61999
the United States secretary. Rules governing eligibility, program 62000
participation, and other applicant and participant requirements 62001
shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 62002
Code. Rules governing financial and other administrative 62003
requirements applicable to the department of job and family 62004
services and county departments of job and family services shall 62005
be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code.62006

       (A) The rules shall specify, establish, or govern all of the 62007
following:62008

       (1) A payment standard for Ohio works first based on federal 62009
and state appropriations that is increased in accordance with 62010
section 5107.04 of the Revised Code;62011

       (2) For the purpose of section 5107.04 of the Revised Code, 62012
the method of determining the amount of cash assistance an 62013
assistance group receives under Ohio works first;62014

       (3) Requirements for initial and continued eligibility for 62015
Ohio works first, including requirements regarding income, 62016
citizenship, age, residence, and assistance group composition;62017

       (4) For the purpose of section 5107.12 of the Revised Code, 62018
application and verification procedures, including the minimum 62019
information an application must contain;62020

       (5) The extent to which a participant of Ohio works first 62021
must notify, pursuant to section 5107.12 of the Revised Code, a 62022
county department of job and family services of additional income 62023
not previously reported to the county department;62024

       (6) For the purpose of section 5107.16 of the Revised Code, 62025
allboth of the following:62026

       (a) Standards for the determination of good cause for failure 62027
or refusal to comply in full with a provision of a 62028
self-sufficiency contract;62029

       (b) The compliance formactivities a member of an assistance 62030
group may complete to indicate willingness to come into full 62031
compliancemust complete for the member to be considered to have 62032
ceased to fail or refuse to comply in full with a provision of a 62033
self-sufficiency contract;62034

       (c) The manner by which the compliance form is to be 62035
completed and provided to a county department of job and family 62036
services.62037

       (7) The department of job and family services providing 62038
written notice of a sanction under section 5107.161 of the Revised 62039
Code;62040

       (8) For the purpose of division (A)(2)(B) of section 5107.17 62041
of the Revised Code, the period of time by which a county 62042
department of job and family services is to receive a compliance 62043
form established in rules adopted under division (A)(6)(b) of this 62044
sectioncircumstances under which the adult member of an 62045
assistance group or an assistance group's minor head of household 62046
whose failure or refusal, without good cause, to comply in full 62047
with a provision of a self-sufficiency contract causes a sanction 62048
under section 5107.16 of the Revised Code must enter into a new, 62049
or amend an existing, self-sufficiency contract before the 62050
assistance group may resume participation in Ohio works first 62051
following the sanction;62052

       (9) Requirements for the collection and distribution of 62053
support payments owed participants of Ohio works first pursuant to 62054
section 5107.20 of the Revised Code;62055

       (10) For the purpose of section 5107.22 of the Revised Code, 62056
what constitutes cooperating in establishing a minor child's 62057
paternity or establishing, modifying, or enforcing a child support 62058
order and good cause for failure or refusal to cooperate;62059

       (11) The requirements governing the LEAP program, including 62060
the definitions of "equivalent of a high school diploma" and "good 62061
cause," and the incentives provided under the LEAP program;62062

       (12) If the director implements section 5107.301 of the 62063
Revised Code, the requirements governing the award provided under 62064
that section, including the form that the award is to take and 62065
requirements an individual must satisfy to receive the award;62066

       (13) Circumstances under which a county department of job and 62067
family services may exempt a minor head of household or adult from 62068
participating in a work activity or developmental activity for all 62069
or some of the weekly hours otherwise required by section 5107.43 62070
of the Revised Code. 62071

       (14) The maximum amount of time the department will subsidize 62072
positions created by state agencies and political subdivisions 62073
under division (C) of section 5107.52 of the Revised Code;62074

       (15) The implementation of sections 5107.71 to 5107.717 of 62075
the Revised Code by county departments of job and family services;62076

       (16) A domestic violence screening process to be used for the 62077
purpose of division (A) of section 5107.71 of the Revised Code;62078

       (17) The minimum frequency with which county departments of 62079
job and family services must redetermine a member of an assistance 62080
group's need for a waiver issued under section 5107.714 of the 62081
Revised Code.62082

       (B) The rules adopted under division (A)(3) of this section 62083
regarding income shall specify what is countable income, gross 62084
earned income, and gross unearned income for the purpose of 62085
section 5107.10 of the Revised Code.62086

       The rules adopted under division (A)(10) of this section 62087
shall be consistent with 42 U.S.C. 654(29).62088

       The rules adopted under division (A)(13) of this section 62089
shall specify that the circumstances include that a school or 62090
place of work is closed due to a holiday or weather or other 62091
emergency and that an employer grants the minor head of household 62092
or adult leave for illness or earned vacation.62093

        (C) The rules may provide that a county department of job and 62094
family services is not required to take action under section 62095
5107.76 of the Revised Code to recover an erroneous payment that 62096
is below an amount the department specifiesunder circumstances 62097
the rules specify.62098

       Sec. 5107.16.  (A) If a member of an assistance group fails 62099
or refuses, without good cause, to comply in full with a provision 62100
of a self-sufficiency contract entered into under section 5107.14 62101
of the Revised Code, a county department of job and family 62102
services shall sanction the assistance group as follows:62103

       (1) For a first failure or refusal, the county department 62104
shall deny or terminate the assistance group's eligibility to 62105
participate in Ohio works first for one payment month or until the 62106
failure or refusal ceases, whichever is longer;62107

       (2) For a second failure or refusal, the county department 62108
shall deny or terminate the assistance group's eligibility to 62109
participate in Ohio works first for three payment months or until 62110
the failure or refusal ceases, whichever is longer;62111

       (3) For a third or subsequent failure or refusal, the county 62112
department shall deny or terminate the assistance group's 62113
eligibility to participate in Ohio works first for six payment 62114
months or until the failure or refusal ceases, whichever is 62115
longer.62116

       (B) The director of job and family services shall establish 62117
standards for the determination of good cause for failure or 62118
refusal to comply in full with a provision of a self-sufficiency 62119
contract in rules adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised 62120
Code.62121

       (C) The director of job and family services shall provide a 62122
compliance form established in rules adopted under section 5107.05 62123
of the Revised Code to anAn assistance group member who fails or 62124
refuses, without good cause, to comply in full with a provision of 62125
a self-sufficiency contract. The member's failure or refusal to 62126
comply in full with the provision shall be deemed to have ceased 62127
on the date a county department of job and family services 62128
receives the compliance form from the member if the compliance 62129
form is completed and provided to the county department in the 62130
mannermust complete all compliance activities specified in rules 62131
adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised Code in order for the 62132
failure or refusal to be considered to have ceased.62133

       (D) After sanctioning an assistance group under division (A) 62134
of this section, a county department of job and family services 62135
shall continue to work with the assistance group.62136

       (E) An adult eligible for medicaid pursuant to division 62137
(A)(C)(1)(a) of section 5111.01 of the Revised Code who is 62138
sanctioned under division (A)(3) of this section for a failure or 62139
refusal, without good cause, to comply in full with a provision of 62140
a self-sufficiency contract related to work responsibilities under 62141
sections 5107.40 to 5107.69 of the Revised Code loses eligibility 62142
for medicaid unless the adult is otherwise eligible for medicaid 62143
pursuant to another division of section 5111.01 of the Revised 62144
Code.62145

        An assistance group that would be participating in Ohio works 62146
first if not for a sanction under this section shall continue to 62147
be eligible for all of the following:62148

       (1) Publicly funded child care in accordance with division 62149
(A)(3) of section 5104.30 of the Revised Code;62150

       (2) Support services in accordance with section 5107.66 of 62151
the Revised Code;62152

       (3) To the extent permitted by the "Fair Labor Standards Act 62153
of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C. 201, as amended, to participate 62154
in work activities, developmental activities, and alternative work 62155
activities in accordance with sections 5107.40 to 5107.69 of the 62156
Revised Code.62157

       Sec. 5107.17. AnBoth of the following must occur before an62158
assistance group that resumesmay resume participation in Ohio 62159
works first following a sanction under section 5107.16 of the 62160
Revised Code is not required to do either of the following:62161

       (A) ReapplyThe assistance group must reapply under section 62162
5107.12 of the Revised Code, unless eitherif any of the following 62163
appliesapply:62164

       (1) It is the assistance group's regularly scheduled time for 62165
an eligibility redetermination;62166

       (2) The county department of job and family services does not 62167
receive the completed compliance form established in rules adopted 62168
under section 5107.05 of the Revised Code within the period of 62169
time specified in rules adopted under that sectionIf the sanction 62170
was imposed under division (A)(1) of section 5107.16 of the 62171
Revised Code, the failure or refusal on which the sanction was 62172
based is not considered to have ceased until after one payment 62173
month immediately following the date the sanction began;62174

       (3) If the sanction was imposed under division (A)(2) of 62175
section 5107.16 of the Revised Code, the failure or refusal on 62176
which the sanction was based is not considered to have ceased 62177
until after three payment months immediately following the date 62178
the sanction began;62179

       (4) If the sanction was imposed under division (A)(3) of 62180
section 5107.16 of the Revised Code, the failure or refusal on 62181
which the sanction was based is not considered to have ceased 62182
until after six payment months immediately following the date the 62183
sanction began.62184

       (B) EnterThe adult member of the assistance group or the 62185
assistance group's minor head of household whose failure or 62186
refusal, without good cause, to comply in full with a provision of 62187
a self-sufficiency contract caused the sanction must enter into a 62188
new, or amend an existing, self-sufficiency contract under section 62189
5107.14 of the Revised Code, unless the county department of job 62190
and family services determines it is time for a new appraisal 62191
under section 5107.41 of the Revised Code or the assistance 62192
group's circumstances have changed in a manner necessitating an 62193
amendment to the self-sufficiency contract as determined using 62194
procedures included in the contract under division (B)(9) ofif 62195
required to do so by rules adopted under section 5107.145107.0562196
of the Revised Code.62197

       Sec. 5111.01. (A) As used in this chapter, "medical:62198

       "Children's health insurance program" means the children's 62199
health insurance program part I, children's health insurance 62200
program part II, and children's health insurance program part III 62201
authorized by sections 5101.50 to 5101.529 of the Revised Code.62202

       "Medical assistance program" or "medicaid" means the program 62203
that is authorized by this chapter and provided by the department62204
office of job and family servicesmedical assistance under this 62205
chapter, Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 62206
(1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396, et seq., as amended, and the waivers of 62207
Title XIX requirements granted to the departmentoffice by the 62208
centers for medicare and medicaid services of the United States 62209
department of health and human services.62210

       The department of job and family services(B) There is hereby 62211
established the office of medical assistance as a work unit within 62212
the department of job and family services. The chief of the office 62213
shall hold the title of medical assistance director. 62214
Notwithstanding section 5101.06 of the Revised Code, the governor 62215
shall appoint the medical assistance director and the medical 62216
assistance director shall serve at the governor's pleasure. The 62217
medical assistance director is not an assistant director of the 62218
department of job and family services for purposes of section 62219
121.05 or 5101.03 of the Revised Code or any other purpose.62220

       Subject to appropriations for the medicaid program and 62221
children's health insurance program, the department of job and 62222
family services shall provide staff and support services as 62223
necessary for the operation of the office of medical assistance.62224

       If a statute, rule, contract, or other legal authority 62225
requires the director of job and family services or department of 62226
job and family services to take an action regarding the medicaid 62227
program or children's health insurance program, the medical 62228
assistance director or office of medical assistance shall take the 62229
action in place of the director of job and family services or 62230
department of job and family services. If a statute, rule, 62231
contract, or other legal authority permits the director of job and 62232
family services or department of job and family services to take 62233
an action regarding the medicaid program or children's health 62234
insurance program, the medical assistance director or office of 62235
medical assistance shall take the action in place of the director 62236
of job and family services or department of job and family 62237
services if the action is to be taken.62238

       The office of medical assistance shall act as the single 62239
state agency to supervise the administration of the medicaid 62240
program. As the single state agency, the departmentoffice shall 62241
comply with 42 C.F.R. 431.10(e). The department'soffice's rules 62242
governing medicaid are binding on other agencies that administer 62243
components of the medicaid program. No agency may establish, by 62244
rule or otherwise, a policy governing medicaid that is 62245
inconsistent with a medicaid policy established, in rule or 62246
otherwise, by the medical assistance director of job and family 62247
services.62248

       (A)(C) The departmentoffice of job and family services62249
medical assistance may provide medical assistance under the 62250
medicaid program as long as federal funds are provided for such 62251
assistance, to the following:62252

       (1) Families with children that meet either of the following 62253
conditions:62254

       (a) The family meets the income, resource, and family 62255
composition requirements in effect on July 16, 1996, for the 62256
former aid to dependent children program as those requirements 62257
were established by Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code, federal 62258
waivers granted pursuant to requests made under former section 62259
5101.09 of the Revised Code, and rules adopted by the department 62260
or any changes the department makes to those requirements in 62261
accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of section 114 of the "Personal 62262
Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996," 62263
110 Stat. 2177, 42 U.S.C.A. 1396u-1, for the purpose of 62264
implementing section 5111.0120 of the Revised Code. An adult loses 62265
eligibility for medicaid under division (A)(C)(1)(a) of this 62266
section pursuant to division (E) of section 5107.16 of the Revised 62267
Code.62268

       (b) The family does not meet the requirements specified in 62269
division (A)(C)(1)(a) of this section but is eligible for medicaid 62270
pursuant to section 5101.18 of the Revised Code.62271

       (2) Aged, blind, and disabled persons who meet the following 62272
conditions:62273

       (a) Receive federal aid under Title XVI of the "Social 62274
Security Act," or are eligible for but are not receiving such aid, 62275
provided that the income from all other sources for individuals 62276
with independent living arrangements shall not exceed one hundred 62277
seventy-five dollars per month. The income standards hereby 62278
established shall be adjusted annually at the rate that is used by 62279
the United States department of health and human services to 62280
adjust the amounts payable under Title XVI.62281

       (b) Do not receive aid under Title XVI, but meet any of the 62282
following criteria:62283

       (i) Would be eligible to receive such aid, except that their 62284
income, other than that excluded from consideration as income 62285
under Title XVI, exceeds the maximum under division (A)(C)(2)(a) 62286
of this section, and incurred expenses for medical care, as 62287
determined under federal regulations applicable to section 209(b) 62288
of the "Social Security Amendments of 1972," 86 Stat. 1381, 42 62289
U.S.C.A. 1396a(f), as amended, equal or exceed the amount by which 62290
their income exceeds the maximum under division (A)(C)(2)(a) of 62291
this section;62292

       (ii) Received aid for the aged, aid to the blind, or aid for 62293
the permanently and totally disabled prior to January 1, 1974, and 62294
continue to meet all the same eligibility requirements;62295

       (iii) Are eligible for medicaid pursuant to section 5101.18 62296
of the Revised Code.62297

       (3) Persons to whom federal law requires, as a condition of 62298
state participation in the medicaid program, that medicaid be 62299
provided;62300

       (4) Persons under age twenty-one who meet the income 62301
requirements for the Ohio works first program established under 62302
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code but do not meet other 62303
eligibility requirements for the program. The medical assistance62304
director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 62305
Revised Code specifying which Ohio works first requirements shall 62306
be waived for the purpose of providing medicaid eligibility under 62307
division (A)(C)(4) of this section.62308

       (B)(D) If sufficient funds are appropriated for the medicaid 62309
program, the departmentoffice of medical assistance may provide 62310
medical assistance under the medicaid program to persons in groups 62311
designated by federal law as groups to which a state, at its 62312
option, may provide medical assistance under the medicaid program.62313

       (C)(E) The departmentoffice of medical assistance may expand 62314
eligibility for the medicaid program to include individuals under 62315
age nineteen with family incomes at or below one hundred fifty per 62316
cent of the federal poverty guidelines, except that the 62317
eligibility expansion shall not occur unless the departmentoffice62318
receives the approval of the federal government. The department62319
office may implement the eligibility expansion authorized under 62320
this division on any date selected by the departmentoffice, but 62321
not sooner than January 1, 1998.62322

       (D)(F) In addition to any other authority or requirement to 62323
adopt rules under this chapter, the medical assistance director 62324
may adopt rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised 62325
Code as the director considers necessary to establish standards, 62326
procedures, and other requirements regarding the provision of 62327
medical assistance under the medicaid program. The rules may 62328
establish requirements to be followed in applying for medicaid, 62329
making determinations of eligibility for medicaid, and verifying 62330
eligibility for medicaid. The rules may include special conditions 62331
as the departmentoffice determines appropriate for making 62332
applications, determining eligibility, and verifying eligibility 62333
for any medical assistance that the departmentoffice may provide 62334
under the medicaid program pursuant to division (C)(E) of this 62335
section and section 5111.014 or 5111.0120 of the Revised Code.62336

       Sec. 5111.013.  (A) The provision of medical assistance to 62337
pregnant women and young children who are eligible for medical 62338
assistance under division (A)(C)(3) of section 5111.01 of the 62339
Revised Code, but who are not otherwise eligible for medical 62340
assistance under that section, shall be known as the healthy start 62341
program.62342

       (B) The department of job and family services shall do all of 62343
the following with regard to the application procedures for the 62344
healthy start program:62345

       (1) Establish a short application form for the program that 62346
requires the applicant to provide no more information than is 62347
necessary for making determinations of eligibility for the healthy 62348
start program, except that the form may require applicants to 62349
provide their social security numbers. The form shall include a 62350
statement, which must be signed by the applicant, indicating that 62351
she does not choose at the time of making application for the 62352
program to apply for assistance provided under any other program 62353
administered by the department and that she understands that she 62354
is permitted at any other time to apply at the county department 62355
of job and family services of the county in which she resides for 62356
any other assistance administered by the department.62357

       (2) To the extent permitted by federal law, do one or both of 62358
the following:62359

       (a) Distribute the application form for the program to each 62360
public or private entity that serves as a women, infants, and 62361
children clinic or as a child and family health clinic and to each 62362
administrative body for such clinics and train employees of each 62363
such agency or entity to provide applicants assistance in 62364
completing the form;62365

       (b) In cooperation with the department of health, develop 62366
arrangements under which employees of county departments of job 62367
and family services are stationed at public or private agencies or 62368
entities selected by the department of job and family services 62369
that serve as women, infants, and children clinics; child and 62370
family health clinics; or administrative bodies for such clinics 62371
for the purpose both of assisting applicants for the program in 62372
completing the application form and of making determinations at 62373
that location of eligibility for the program.62374

       (3) Establish performance standards by which a county 62375
department of job and family services' level of enrollment of 62376
persons potentially eligible for the program can be measured, and 62377
establish acceptable levels of enrollment for each county 62378
department.62379

       (4) Direct any county department of job and family services 62380
whose rate of enrollment of potentially eligible enrollees in the 62381
program is below acceptable levels established under division 62382
(B)(3) of this section to implement corrective action. Corrective 62383
action may include but is not limited to any one or more of the 62384
following to the extent permitted by federal law:62385

       (a) Establishing formal referral and outreach methods with 62386
local health departments and local entities receiving funding 62387
through the bureau of maternal and child health;62388

       (b) Designating a specialized intake unit within the county 62389
department for healthy start applicants;62390

       (c) Establishing abbreviated timeliness requirements to 62391
shorten the time between receipt of an application and the 62392
scheduling of an initial application interview;62393

       (d) Establishing a system for telephone scheduling of intake 62394
interviews for applicants;62395

       (e) Establishing procedures to minimize the time an applicant 62396
must spend in completing the application and eligibility 62397
determination process, including permitting applicants to complete 62398
the process at times other than the regular business hours of the 62399
county department and at locations other than the offices of the 62400
county department.62401

       (C) To the extent permitted by federal law, local funds, 62402
whether from public or private sources, expended by a county 62403
department for administration of the healthy start program shall 62404
be considered to have been expended by the state for the purpose 62405
of determining the extent to which the state has complied with any 62406
federal requirement that the state provide funds to match federal 62407
funds for medical assistance, except that this division shall not 62408
affect the amount of funds the county is entitled to receive under 62409
section 5101.16, 5101.161, or 5111.012 of the Revised Code.62410

       (D) A county department of job and family services that 62411
maintains offices at more than one location shall accept 62412
applications for the healthy start program at all of those 62413
locations.62414

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 62415
in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code as necessary 62416
to implement this section.62417

       Sec. 5111.014.  (A) The director of job and family services 62418
shall submit to the United States secretary of health and human 62419
services an amendment to the state medicaid plan to make an 62420
individual who meets all of the following requirements eligible 62421
for medicaid:62422

       (1) The individual is pregnant;62423

       (2) The individual's family income does not exceed two 62424
hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines;62425

       (3) The individual satisfies all relevant requirements 62426
established by rules adopted under division (D)(F) of section 62427
5111.01 of the Revised Code.62428

       (B) If approved by the United States secretary of health and 62429
human services, the director of job and family services shall 62430
implement the medicaid plan amendment submitted under division (A) 62431
of this section as soon as possible after receipt of notice of the 62432
approval, but not sooner than January 1, 2008.62433

       Sec. 5111.0115.  (A) The department of job and family 62434
services may provide medical assistance under the medicaid 62435
program, as long as federal funds are provided for such 62436
assistance, to each former participant of the Ohio works first 62437
program established under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code who 62438
meets all of the following requirements:62439

       (1) Is ineligible to participate in Ohio works first solely 62440
as a result of increased income due to employment;62441

       (2) Is not covered by, and does not have access to, medical 62442
insurance coverage through the employer with benefits comparable 62443
to those provided under this section, as determined in accordance 62444
with rules adopted by the director of job and family services 62445
under division (B) of this section;62446

       (3) Meets any other requirement established by rule adopted 62447
under division (B) of this section.62448

       (B) The director of job and family services shall adopt such 62449
rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as are necessary to 62450
implement and administer the medical assistance program under this 62451
section.62452

       (C) A person seeking to participate in a program of medical 62453
assistance under this section shall apply to the county department 62454
of job and family services in the county in which the applicant 62455
resides. The application shall be made on a form prescribed by the 62456
department of job and family services and furnished by the county 62457
department.62458

       (D) If the county department of job and family services 62459
determines that a person is eligible to receive medical assistance 62460
under this section, the department shall provide assistance, to 62461
the same extent and in the same manner as medical assistance is 62462
provided to a person eligible for medical assistance pursuant to 62463
division (A)(C)(1)(a) of section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, for 62464
no longer than twelve months, beginning the month after the date 62465
the participant's eligibility for Ohio works first is terminated.62466

       Sec. 5111.0120.  The director of job and family services 62467
shall submit to the United States secretary of health and human 62468
services an amendment to the state medicaid plan to make an 62469
individual eligible for medicaid who meets all of the following 62470
requirements:62471

       (A) The individual is the parent of a child under nineteen 62472
years of age and resides with the child;62473

       (B) The individual's family income does not exceed ninety per 62474
cent of the federal poverty guidelines;62475

       (C) The individual is not otherwise eligible for medicaid;62476

       (D) The individual satisfies all relevant requirements 62477
established by rules adopted under division (D)(F) of section 62478
5111.01 of the Revised Code.62479

       Sec. 5111.031. (A) As used in this section:62480

       (1) "Independent provider" has the same meaning as in section 62481
5111.034 of the Revised Code.62482

       (2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 62483
and "nursing facility" have the same meanings as in section 62484
5111.20 of the Revised Code.62485

       (3) "Noninstitutional medicaid provider" means any person or 62486
entity with a medicaid provider agreement other than a hospital, 62487
nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for the mentally 62488
retarded.62489

       (4) "Owner" means any person having at least five per cent 62490
ownership in a noninstitutional medicaid provider.62491

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the 62492
contrary, the department of job and family services shall take 62493
action under this section against a noninstitutional medicaid 62494
provider or its owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, 62495
manager, or employee.62496

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section and in 62497
rules adopted by the department under division (H) of this 62498
section, on receiving notice and a copy of an indictment that is 62499
issued on or after September 29, 2007, and charges a 62500
noninstitutional medicaid provider or its owner, officer, 62501
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee with committing 62502
an offense specified in division (E) of this section, the 62503
department shall suspend the provider agreement held by the 62504
noninstitutional medicaid provider. Subject to division (D) of 62505
this section, the department shall also terminate medicaid 62506
reimbursement to the provider for services rendered.62507

       The suspension shall continue in effect until the proceedings 62508
in the criminal case are completed through dismissal of the 62509
indictment or through conviction, entry of a guilty plea, or 62510
finding of not guilty. If the department commences a process to 62511
terminate the suspended provider agreement, the suspension shall 62512
also continue in effect until the termination process is 62513
concluded. 62514

       Pursuant to section 5111.06 of the Revised Code, the 62515
department is not required to take action under this division by 62516
issuing an order pursuant to an adjudication conducted in 62517
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.62518

       When subject to a suspension under this division, a provider, 62519
owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 62520
shall not own or provide services to any other medicaid provider 62521
or risk contractor or arrange for, render, or order services for 62522
medicaid recipients during the period of suspension. During the 62523
period of suspension, the provider, owner, officer, authorized 62524
agent, associate, manager, or employee shall not receive 62525
reimbursement in the form of direct payments from the department 62526
or indirect payments of medicaid funds in the form of salary, 62527
shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or rebates from or through any 62528
participating provider or risk contractor.62529

       (D)(1) The department shall not suspend a provider agreement 62530
or terminate medicaid reimbursement under division (C) of this 62531
section if the provider or owner can demonstrate through the 62532
submission of written evidence that the provider or owner did not 62533
directly or indirectly sanction the action of its authorized 62534
agent, associate, manager, or employee that resulted in the 62535
indictment.62536

       (2) The termination of medicaid reimbursement applies only to 62537
payments for medicaid services rendered subsequent to the date on 62538
which the notice required under division (F) of this section is 62539
sent. Claims for reimbursement for medicaid services rendered by 62540
the provider prior to the issuance of the notice may be subject to 62541
prepayment review procedures whereby the department reviews claims 62542
to determine whether they are supported by sufficient 62543
documentation, are in compliance with state and federal statutes 62544
and rules, and are otherwise complete.62545

       (E)(1) In the case of a noninstitutional medicaid provider 62546
that is not an independent provider, the suspension of a provider 62547
agreement under division (C) of this section applies when an 62548
indictment charges a person with committing an act that would be a 62549
felony or misdemeanor under the laws of this state and the act 62550
relates to or results from either of the following:62551

       (a) Furnishing or billing for medical care, services, or 62552
supplies under the medicaid program;62553

       (b) Participating in the performance of management or 62554
administrative services relating to furnishing medical care, 62555
services, or supplies under the medicaid program.62556

       (2) In the case of a noninstitutional medicaid provider that 62557
is an independent provider, the suspension of a provider agreement 62558
under division (C) of this section applies when an indictment 62559
charges a person with committing an act that would constitute one 62560
of the offenses specified in division (D) ofa disqualifying 62561
offense as defined in section 5111.0345111.032 of the Revised 62562
Code.62563

       (F) Not later than five days after suspending a provider 62564
agreement under division (C) of this section, the department shall 62565
send notice of the suspension to the affected provider or owner. 62566
In providing the notice, the department shall do all of the 62567
following:62568

       (1) Describe the indictment that was the cause of the 62569
suspension, without necessarily disclosing specific information 62570
concerning any ongoing civil or criminal investigation;62571

       (2) State that the suspension will continue in effect until 62572
the proceedings in the criminal case are completed through 62573
dismissal of the indictment or through conviction, entry of a 62574
guilty plea, or finding of not guilty and, if the department 62575
commences a process to terminate the suspended provider agreement, 62576
until the termination process is concluded;62577

       (3) Inform the provider or owner of the opportunity to submit 62578
to the department, not later than thirty days after receiving the 62579
notice, a request for a reconsideration pursuant to division (G) 62580
of this section. 62581

       (G)(1) Pursuant to the procedure specified in division (G)(2) 62582
of this section, a noninstitutional medicaid provider or owner 62583
subject to a suspension under this section may request a 62584
reconsideration. The request shall be made not later than thirty 62585
days after receipt of the notice provided under division (F) of 62586
this section. The reconsideration is not subject to an 62587
adjudication hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.62588

       (2) In requesting a reconsideration, the provider or owner 62589
shall submit written information and documents to the department. 62590
The information and documents may pertain to any of the following 62591
issues:62592

       (a) Whether the determination to suspend the provider 62593
agreement was based on a mistake of fact, other than the validity 62594
of the indictment;62595

       (b) Whether any offense charged in the indictment resulted 62596
from an offense specified in division (E) of this section;62597

       (c) Whether the provider or owner can demonstrate that the 62598
provider or owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the 62599
action of its authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 62600
that resulted in the indictment.62601

       (3) The department shall review the information and documents 62602
submitted in a request for reconsideration. After the review, the 62603
suspension may be affirmed, reversed, or modified, in whole or in 62604
part. The department shall notify the affected provider or owner 62605
of the results of the review. The review and notification of its 62606
results shall be completed not later than forty-five days after 62607
receiving the information and documents submitted in a request for 62608
reconsideration.62609

       (H) The department may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 62610
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules may 62611
specify circumstances under which the department would not suspend 62612
a provider agreement pursuant to this section.62613

       Sec. 5111.032. (A) As used in this section:62614

       (1) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 62615
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.62616

       (2) "Department" includes a designee of the department of job 62617
and family services.62618

       (3)"Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:62619

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 62620
2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 62621
2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 62622
2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 62623
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 62624
2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 62625
2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23, 62626
2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 62627
2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 62628
2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 62629
2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 62630
2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.22, 2919.23, 62631
2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 62632
2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 62633
2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 62634
2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 62635
2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 62636
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;62637

       (b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 62638
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;62639

       (c) A violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 62640
existed prior to July 1, 1996;62641

       (d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of 62642
the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of 62643
the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses 62644
listed in division (A)(2)(a) to (c) of this section;62645

       (e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 62646
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 62647
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 62648
division (A)(2)(a) to (d) of this section.62649

       (3) "Owner" means a person who has an ownership interest in a 62650
provider or applicant to be a provider in an amount designated by 62651
the department of job and family services in rules adopted under 62652
this section.62653

       (4) "Person subject to the criminal records check 62654
requirement" means the following:62655

       (a) A provider or applicant to be a provider who is notified 62656
under division (E)(1) of this section that the provider or 62657
applicant is subject to a criminal records check;62658

       (b) An owner or prospective owner, officer or prospective 62659
officer, or board member or prospective board member of a provider 62660
or applicant to be a provider if, pursuant to division (E)(1)(a) 62661
of this section, the owner or prospective owner, officer or 62662
prospective officer, or board member or prospective board member 62663
is specified in information given to the provider or applicant 62664
under division (E)(1) of this section;62665

       (c) An employee or prospective employee of a provider or 62666
applicant to be a provider if both of the following apply:62667

       (i) The employee or prospective employee is specified, 62668
pursuant to division (E)(1)(b) of this section, in information 62669
given to the provider or applicant under division (E)(1) of this 62670
section.62671

       (ii) The provider or applicant is not prohibited by division 62672
(D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 62673
prospective employee.62674

       (5) "Provider" means a person, institution, or entity that 62675
has a medicaid provider agreement with the department of job and 62676
family services pursuant to Title XIX of the "Social Security 62677
Act," 49 State. 620 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amended.62678

       (6) "Responsible entity" means the following:62679

       (a) With respect to a criminal records check required under 62680
this section for a provider or applicant to be a provider, the 62681
department of job and family services or the department's 62682
designee;62683

       (b) With respect to a criminal records check required under 62684
this section for an owner or prospective owner, officer or 62685
prospective officer, board member or prospective board member, or 62686
employee or prospective employee of a provider or applicant to be 62687
a provider, the provider or applicant.62688

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 62689
theThis section does not apply to any individual who is subject 62690
to a criminal records check under section 3712.09, 3721.121, 62691
5111.034, 5123.081, or 5123.169 of the Revised Code or any 62692
individual who is subject to a database review or criminal records 62693
check under section 173.394, 3701.881, or 5111.033 of the Revised 62694
Code.62695

       (C) The department of job and family services may requiredo 62696
any of the following:62697

       (1) Require that any provider,or applicant to be a provider, 62698
employee or prospective employee of a provider, owner or 62699
prospective owner of a provider, officer or prospective officer of 62700
a provider, or board member or prospective board member of a 62701
provider submit to a criminal records check as a condition of 62702
obtaininghaving a medicaid provider agreement, continuing to hold 62703
a provider agreement, being employed by a provider, having an 62704
ownership interest in a provider, or being an officer or board 62705
member of a provider. The department may designate the categories 62706
of persons who are subject to the criminal records check 62707
requirement. The department shall designate the times at which the 62708
criminal records checks must be conducted.62709

       (2) The section does not apply to providers, applicants to be 62710
providers, employees of a provider, or prospective employees of a 62711
provider who are subject to criminal records checks under section 62712
5111.033 or 5111.034 of the Revised Code;62713

       (2) Require that any provider or applicant to be a provider 62714
require an owner or prospective owner, officer or prospective 62715
officer, or board member or prospective board member of the 62716
provider or applicant submit to a criminal records check as a 62717
condition of being an owner, officer, or board member of the 62718
provider or applicant;62719

       (3) Require that any provider or applicant to be a provider 62720
do the following:62721

       (a) If so required by rules adopted under this section, 62722
determine pursuant to a database review conducted under division 62723
(F)(1)(a) of this section whether any employee or prospective 62724
employee of the provider or applicant is included in a database;62725

       (b) Unless the provider or applicant is prohibited by 62726
division (D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 62727
prospective employee, require the employee or prospective employee 62728
to submit to a criminal records check as a condition of being an 62729
employee of the provider or applicant.62730

       (D)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 62731
terminate a provider's medicaid provider agreement or deny an 62732
applicant's application for a medicaid provider agreement if the 62733
provider or applicant is a person subject to the criminal records 62734
check requirement and either of the following applies:62735

       (a) The provider or applicant fails to obtain the criminal 62736
records check after being given the information specified in 62737
division (G)(1) of this section.62738

       (b) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 62739
the provider or applicant is found by the criminal records check 62740
to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found 62741
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 62742
disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the conviction, 62743
the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the applicant or 62744
provider was found eligible for intervention in lieu of 62745
conviction.62746

       (2) No provider or applicant to be a provider shall permit a 62747
person to be an owner, officer, or board member of the provider or 62748
applicant if the person is a person subject to the criminal 62749
records check requirement and either of the following applies:62750

       (a) The person fails to obtain the criminal records check 62751
after being given the information specified in division (G)(1) of 62752
this section.62753

       (b) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 62754
the person is found by the criminal records check to have been 62755
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 62756
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 62757
regardless of the date of the conviction, the date of entry of the 62758
guilty plea, or the date the person was found eligible for 62759
intervention in lieu of conviction.62760

       (3) No provider or applicant to be a provider shall employ a 62761
person if any of the following apply:62762

       (a) The person has been excluded from providing services or 62763
items under the medicaid program, the medicare program operated 62764
pursuant to Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," or any other 62765
federal health care program.62766

       (b) If the person is subject to a database review conducted 62767
under division (F)(1)(a) of this section, the person is found by 62768
the database review to be included in a database and the rules 62769
adopted under this section regarding the database review prohibit 62770
the provider or applicant from employing a person included in the 62771
database.62772

       (c) If the person is a person subject to the criminal records 62773
check requirement, either of the following applies:62774

       (i) The person fails to obtain the criminal records check 62775
after being given the information specified in division (G)(1) of 62776
this section.62777

       (ii) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 62778
the person is found by the criminal records check to have been 62779
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 62780
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 62781
regardless of the date of the conviction, the date of entry of the 62782
guilty plea, or the date the person was found eligible for 62783
intervention in lieu of conviction.62784

       (C)(E)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 62785
inform each provider or applicant to be a provider whether the 62786
provider or applicant is subject to a criminal records check 62787
requirement under division (B) of this section. For providers, the 62788
information shall be given at times designated in rules adopted 62789
under this section. For applicants to be providers, the 62790
information shall be given at the time of initial application. 62791
When the information is given, the department or the department's 62792
designee shall specify whichthe following:62793

       (a) Which of the provider's or applicant's employees or 62794
prospective employees, owners or prospective owners, officers or 62795
prospective officers, or board members or prospective board 62796
members are subject to thea criminal records check requirement;62797

       (b) Which of the provider's or applicant's employees or 62798
prospective employees are subject to division (C)(3) of this 62799
section.62800

       (2) At times designated in rules adopted under this section, 62801
a provider or applicant to be a provider that is a person subject 62802
to the criminal records check requirement shall informdo the 62803
following:62804

       (a) Inform each person specified by the department under 62805
division (C)(1)(E)(1)(a) of this section that the person is 62806
required, as applicable, to submit to a criminal records check for 62807
final consideration for employment in a full-time, part-time, or 62808
temporary position; as a condition of continued employment; or as 62809
a condition of becoming or continuing to bebeing an owner,62810
officer, or board member or owner of athe provider or applicant;62811

       (b) Inform each person specified under division (E)(1)(b) of 62812
this section that the person is subject to division (C)(3) of this 62813
section.62814

       (D)(F)(1) If a provider or applicant to be a provider is a 62815
person subject to athe criminal records check under this section62816
requirement, the department or the department's designee shall 62817
require the conduct of a criminal records check by the 62818
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 62819
investigation. If a provider or applicant to be a provider for 62820
whom a criminal records check is required does not present proof 62821
of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period 62822
immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 62823
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 62824
the superintendent has requested information about the individual 62825
from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records 62826
check, the department shall require the provider or applicant to 62827
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 62828
federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records 62829
check of the provider or applicant. Even if a provider or 62830
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required 62831
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 62832
five-year period, the department may require that the provider or 62833
applicant request that the superintendent obtain information from 62834
the federal bureau of investigation and include it in the criminal 62835
records check of the provider or applicant.62836

       (2)investigation. A provider or applicant to be a provider62837
shall require the conduct of a criminal records check by the 62838
superintendent with respect to each of the persons specified by 62839
the department under division (C)(1)(E)(1)(a) of this section. If 62840
the person for whom a criminal records check is required does not 62841
present proof of having been a resident of this state for the 62842
five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal 62843
records check is requested or provide evidence that within that 62844
five-year period the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 62845
identification and investigation has requested information about 62846
the individual from the federal bureau of investigation in a 62847
criminal records check, the individual shall request that the 62848
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 62849
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 62850
individual. Even if an individual for whom a criminal records 62851
check request is required presents proof of having been a resident 62852
of this state for the five-year period, the department may require 62853
the provider to request that the superintendent obtain information 62854
from the federal bureau of investigation and include it in the 62855
criminal records check of the person.With respect to each 62856
employee and prospective employee specified under division 62857
(E)(1)(b) of this section, a provider or applicant to be a 62858
provider shall do the following:62859

       (a) If rules adopted under this section require the provider 62860
or applicant to conduct a database review to determine whether the 62861
employee or prospective employee is included in a database, 62862
conduct the database review in accordance with the rules;62863

       (b) Unless the provider or applicant is prohibited by 62864
division (D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 62865
prospective employee, require the conduct of a criminal records 62866
check of the employee or prospective employee by the 62867
superintendent.62868

       (2) If a person subject to the criminal records check 62869
requirement does not present proof of having been a resident of 62870
this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date 62871
the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that 62872
within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 62873
information about the person from the federal bureau of 62874
investigation in a criminal records check, the responsible entity 62875
shall require the person to request that the superintendent obtain 62876
information from the federal bureau of investigation as part of 62877
the criminal records check of the person. Even if the person 62878
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 62879
five-year period, the responsible entity may require that the 62880
person request that the superintendent obtain information from the 62881
federal bureau of investigation and include it in the criminal 62882
records check of the person.62883

       (E)(1)(G) Criminal records checks required underby this 62884
section for providers or applicants to be providers shall be 62885
obtained as follows:62886

       (a)(1) The departmentresponsible entity shall provide each 62887
provider or applicantperson subject to the criminal records check 62888
requirement information about accessing and completing the form 62889
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 62890
Revised Code and the standard fingerprint impression sheet 62891
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section.62892

       (b)(2) The provider or applicantperson subject to the 62893
criminal records check requirement shall submit the required form 62894
and one complete set of the person's fingerprint impressions 62895
directly to the superintendent for purposes of conducting the 62896
criminal records check using the applicable methods prescribed by 62897
division (C) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The applicant 62898
or providerperson shall pay all fees associated with obtaining 62899
the criminal records check.62900

       (c)(3) The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 62901
check in accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The 62902
provider or applicantperson subject to the criminal records check 62903
requirement shall instruct the superintendent to submit the report 62904
of the criminal records check directly to the director of job and 62905
family services.62906

       (2) Criminal records checks required under this section for 62907
persons specified by the department under division (C)(1) of this 62908
section shall be obtained as follows:62909

       (a) The provider shall give to each person subject to 62910
criminal records check requirement information about accessing and 62911
completing the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 62912
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard fingerprint 62913
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 62914
section.62915

       (b) The person shall submit the required form and one 62916
complete set of fingerprint impressions directly to the 62917
superintendent for purposes of conducting the criminal records 62918
check using the applicable methods prescribed by division (C) of 62919
section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The person shall pay all fees 62920
associated with obtaining the criminal records check.62921

       (c) The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 62922
check in accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The 62923
person subject to the criminal records check shall instruct the 62924
superintendent to submit the report of the criminal records check 62925
directly to the providerresponsible entity. TheIf the department 62926
or the department's designee is not the responsible entity, the62927
department or designee may require the providerresponsible entity62928
to submit the report to the department or designee.62929

       (F) If a provider or applicant to be a provider is given the 62930
information specified in division (E)(1)(a) of this section but 62931
fails to obtain a criminal records check, the department shall, as 62932
applicable, terminate the provider agreement or deny the 62933
application to be a provider.62934

       If a person is given the information specified in division 62935
(E)(2)(a) of this section but fails to obtain a criminal records 62936
check, the provider shall not, as applicable, permit the person to 62937
be an employee, owner, officer, or board member of the provider.62938

       (G) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (J) of 62939
this section, the department shall terminate the provider 62940
agreement of a provider or the department shall not issue a 62941
provider agreement to an applicant if the provider or applicant is 62942
subject to a criminal records check under this section and the 62943
provider or applicant has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty 62944
to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 62945
conviction for any of the following, regardless of the date of the 62946
conviction, the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the 62947
applicant or provider was found eligible for intervention in lieu 62948
of conviction:62949

       (1) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 62950
2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 62951
2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 62952
2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 62953
2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 62954
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 62955
2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 62956
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 62957
2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 62958
2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 62959
2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.11, 62960
2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 62961
2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2923.01, 2923.02, 62962
2923.03, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.32, 2925.02, 2925.03, 62963
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 62964
2925.23, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 62965
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 62966
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 62967
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 62968
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 62969
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 62970
had the violation been committed prior to that date;62971

       (2) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 62972
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 62973
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 62974
division (G)(1) of this section.62975

       (H)(1)(a) Except as provided in rules adopted under division 62976
(J) of this section and subject to division (H)(2) of this 62977
section, no provider shall permit a person to be an employee, 62978
owner, officer, or board member of the provider if the person is 62979
subject to a criminal records check under this section and the 62980
person has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been 62981
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of 62982
the offenses specified in division (G)(1) or (2) of this section.62983

       (b) No provider shall employ a person who has been excluded 62984
from participating in the medicaid program, the medicare program 62985
operated pursuant to Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," or 62986
any other federal health care program.62987

       (2)(a)(H)(1) A provider or applicant to be a provider may 62988
employ conditionally a person for whom a criminal records check is 62989
required underby this section prior to obtaining the results of a62990
the criminal records check regarding the person, but only if the62991
both of the following apply:62992

       (a) The provider or applicant is not prohibited by division 62993
(D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the person.62994

       (b) The person submits a request for athe criminal records 62995
check not later than five business days after the individual62996
person begins conditional employment.62997

       (b)(2) A provider or applicant to be a provider that employs 62998
a person conditionally under authority of division (H)(2)(a)(1)62999
of this section shall terminate the person's employment if the 63000
results of the criminal records check request are not obtained 63001
within the period ending sixty days after the date the request is 63002
made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check 63003
are obtained, if the results indicate that the individualperson63004
has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been found 63005
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the 63006
offenses specified in division (G)(1) or (2) of this sectiona 63007
disqualifying offense, the provider or applicant shall terminate 63008
the person's employment unless circumstances specified in rules 63009
adopted under this section exist that permit the provider or 63010
applicant to employ the person and the provider or applicant63011
chooses to employ the individual pursuant to division (J) of this 63012
sectionperson.63013

       (I) The report of a criminal records check conducted pursuant 63014
to this section is not a public record for the purposes of section 63015
149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any 63016
person other than the following:63017

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 63018
check or the person's representative;63019

       (2) The director of job and family services and the staff of 63020
the department in the administration of the medicaid program;63021

       (3) The department's designee;63022

       (4) The provider or applicant to be a provider who required 63023
the person who is the subject of the criminal records check to 63024
submit to the criminal records check;63025

       (5) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 63026
involved in a case dealing with theany of the following:63027

       (a) The denial or termination of a medicaid provider 63028
agreement;63029

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 63030
involved in a case dealing with a(b) A person's denial of 63031
employment, termination of employment, or employment or 63032
unemployment benefits;63033

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 63034
program.63035

       (J) The departmentdirector of job and family services may 63036
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 63037
implement this section. If the director adopts such rules, the 63038
rules shall designate the times at which a criminal records check 63039
must be conducted under this section. The rules may specifydo 63040
any of the following:63041

       (1) Designate the categories of persons who are subject to a 63042
criminal records check under this section;63043

       (2) Specify circumstances under which the department or the 63044
department's designee may continue a medicaid provider agreement 63045
or issue a medicaid provider agreement to an applicant when the 63046
provider or applicant hasis found by a criminal records check to 63047
have been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been found 63048
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the 63049
offenses specified in division (G)(1) or (2) of this section. The 63050
rules may also specifya disqualifying offense;63051

       (3) Specify circumstances under which a provider or applicant 63052
to be a provider may permit a person to be an employee, owner, 63053
officer, or board member of the provider or applicant, when the 63054
person hasis found by a criminal records check conducted 63055
pursuant to this section to have been convicted of, has pleaded 63056
guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 63057
conviction for any of the offenses specified in division (G)(1) or 63058
(2) of this sectiona disqualifying offense;63059

       (4) Specify all of the following:63060

       (a) The circumstances under which a database review must be 63061
conducted under division (F)(1)(a) of this section to determine 63062
whether an employee or prospective employee of a provider or 63063
applicant to be a provider is included in a database;63064

       (b) The procedures for conducting the database review;63065

       (c) The databases that are to be checked;63066

       (d) The circumstances under which a provider or applicant to 63067
be a provider is prohibited from employing a person who is found 63068
by the database review to be included in a database.63069

       Sec. 5111.033.  (A) As used in this section:63070

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 63071
consideration for employment or, after September 26, 2003, an 63072
existing employee with a waiver agency in a full-time, part-time, 63073
or temporary position that involves providing home and 63074
community-based waiver services to a person with disabilities. 63075
"Applicant" also means an existing employee with a waiver agency 63076
in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 63077
providing home and community-based waiver services to a person 63078
with disabilities after September 26, 2003.63079

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 63080
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.63081

       (3) "Waiver agency" means a person or government entity that 63082
is not certified under the medicare program and is accredited by 63083
the community health accreditation program or the joint commission 63084
on accreditation of health care organizations or a company that 63085
provides home and community-based waiver services to persons with 63086
disabilities through department of job and family services 63087
administered home and community-based waiver programs.63088

       (4) "Home"Disqualifying offense" has the same meaning as in 63089
section 5111.032 of the Revised Code.63090

       "Employee" means a person employed by a waiver agency in a 63091
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 63092
providing home and community-based services.63093

       "Home and community-based waiver services medicaid waiver 63094
component" means services furnished under the provision of 42 63095
C.F.R. 441, subpart G, that permit individuals to live in a home 63096
setting rather than a nursing facility or hospitalhas the same 63097
meaning as in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code. Home and 63098
community-based waiver services are approved by the centers for 63099
medicare and medicaid for specific populations and are not 63100
otherwise available under the medicaid state plan.63101

       "Waiver agency" means a person or government entity that 63102
provides home and community-based services under a home and 63103
community-based services medicaid waiver component administered by 63104
the department of job and family services, other than such a 63105
person or government entity that is certified under the medicare 63106
program. "Waiver agency" does not mean an independent provider as 63107
defined in section 5111.034 of the Revised Code.63108

       (B) No waiver agency shall employ an applicant or continue to 63109
employ an employee in a position that involves providing home and 63110
community-based services if any of the following apply:63111

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 63112
section reveals any of the following:63113

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 63114
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 63115
section;63116

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 63117
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 63118
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 63119
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 63120
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 63121
such a resident;63122

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 63123
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 63124
section and the rules prohibit the waiver agency from employing an 63125
applicant or continuing to employ an employee included in such a 63126
database in a position that involves providing home and 63127
community-based services.63128

       (2) After the applicant or employee is given the information 63129
and notification required by divisions (E)(2)(a) and (b) of this 63130
section, the applicant or employee fails to do either of the 63131
following:63132

       (a) Access, complete, or forward to the superintendent of the 63133
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the form 63134
prescribed to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised 63135
Code or the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to 63136
division (C)(2) of that section;63137

       (b) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 63138
report of the criminal records check required by this section 63139
directly to the chief administrator of the waiver agency.63140

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 63141
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 63142
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 63143
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 63144
for a disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the 63145
conviction, date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the 63146
applicant or employee was found eligible for intervention in lieu 63147
of conviction.63148

       (C) At the time of each applicant's initial application for 63149
employment in a position that involves providing home and 63150
community-based services, the chief administrator of a waiver 63151
agency shall inform the applicant of both of the following:63152

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 63153
this section will be conducted to determine whether the waiver 63154
agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from 63155
employing the applicant in the position;63156

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 63157
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 63158
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 63159
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 63160
impressions as part of the criminal records check.63161

       (D) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 63162
that involves providing home and community-based services, the 63163
chief administrator of a waiver agency shall conduct a database 63164
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under 63165
this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 63166
chief administrator of a waiver agency shall conduct a database 63167
review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a condition 63168
of continuing to employ the employee in a position that involves 63169
providing home and community-based services. A database review 63170
shall determine whether the applicant or employee is included in 63171
any of the following:63172

       (1) The excluded parties list system maintained by the United 63173
States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of 63174
the federal acquisition regulation;63175

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 63176
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 63177
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 63178
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as 63179
amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 63180
388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;63181

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 63182
5123.52 of the Revised Code;63183

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 63184
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 63185
the Revised Code;63186

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 63187
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;63188

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 63189
3721.32 of the Revised Code;63190

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 63191
under this section.63192

       (E)(1) TheAs a condition of employing any applicant in a 63193
position that involves providing home and community-based 63194
services, the chief administrator of a waiver agency shall require 63195
eachthe applicant to request that the superintendent of the 63196
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 63197
criminal records check with respect toof the applicant. If rules 63198
adopted under this section so require, the chief administrator of 63199
a waiver agency shall require an employee to request that the 63200
superintendent conduct a criminal records check of the employee at 63201
times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to 63202
employ the employee in a position that involves providing home and 63203
community-based services. However, a criminal records check is not 63204
required for an applicant or employee if the waiver agency is 63205
prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing the 63206
applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a position that 63207
involves providing home and community-based services. If an 63208
applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is 63209
required under this divisionby this section does not present 63210
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 63211
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 63212
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 63213
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 63214
or employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal 63215
records check, the chief administrator shall require the applicant 63216
or employee to request that the superintendent obtain information 63217
from the federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal 63218
records check of the applicant. Even if an applicant or employee63219
for whom a criminal records check request is required under this 63220
divisionby this section presents proof of having been a resident 63221
of this state for the five-year period, the chief administrator 63222
may require the applicant or employee to request that the 63223
superintendent include information from the federal bureau of 63224
investigation in the criminal records check.63225

       (2) The chief administrator shall provide the following to 63226
each applicant and employee for whom a criminal records check 63227
request is required under division (B)(1) ofby this section:63228

       (a) Information about accessing, completing, and forwarding 63229
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 63230
investigation the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 63231
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard fingerprint63232
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 63233
section;63234

       (b) Written notification that the applicant or employee is to 63235
instruct the superintendent to submit the completed report of the 63236
criminal records check directly to the chief administrator.63237

       (3) An applicant given information and notification under 63238
divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who fails to access, 63239
complete, and forward to the superintendent the form or the 63240
standard fingerprint impression sheet, or who fails to instruct 63241
the superintendent to submit the completed report of the criminal 63242
records check directly to the chief administrator, shall not be 63243
employed in any position in a waiver agency for which a criminal 63244
records check is required by this section.A waiver agency shall 63245
pay to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the 63246
fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of 63247
the Revised Code for any criminal records check required by this 63248
section. However, a waiver agency may require an applicant to pay 63249
to the bureau the fee for a criminal records check of the 63250
applicant. If the waiver agency pays the fee for an applicant, it 63251
may charge the applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the waiver 63252
agency pays to the bureau under this section if the waiver agency 63253
notifies the applicant at the time of initial application for 63254
employment of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is 63255
paid, the applicant will not be considered for employment.63256

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the department 63257
of job and family services in accordance with division (F) of this 63258
section and subject to division (C)(2) of this section, no waiver 63259
agency shall employ a person in a position that involves providing 63260
home and community-based waiver services to persons with 63261
disabilities if the person has been convicted of, has pleaded 63262
guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 63263
conviction for any of the following, regardless of the date of the 63264
conviction, the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the 63265
person was found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction:63266

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 63267
2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 63268
2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 63269
2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 63270
2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 63271
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 63272
2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 63273
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 63274
2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 63275
2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 63276
2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.11, 63277
2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 63278
2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2923.01, 2923.02, 63279
2923.03, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.32, 2925.02, 2925.03, 63280
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 63281
2925.23, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 63282
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 63283
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 63284
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 63285
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 63286
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 63287
had the violation been committed prior to that date;63288

       (b) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 63289
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 63290
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 63291
division (C)(1)(a) of this section.63292

       (2)(a)(F)(1) A waiver agency may employ conditionally an 63293
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required 63294
under division (B) ofby this section prior to obtaining the 63295
results of athe criminal records check regarding the individual, 63296
provided that theif both of the following apply:63297

       (a) The waiver agency is not prohibited by division (B)(1) of 63298
this section from employing the applicant in a position that 63299
involves providing home and community-based services.63300

       (b) The chief administrator of the waiver agency shall 63301
requirerequires the individualapplicant to request a criminal 63302
records check regarding the individualapplicant in accordance 63303
with division (B)(E)(1) of this section not later than five 63304
business days after the individualapplicant begins conditional 63305
employment.63306

       (b)(2) A waiver agency that employs an individualapplicant63307
conditionally under authority of division (C)(2)(a)(F)(1) of this 63308
section shall terminate the individual'sapplicant's employment if 63309
the results of the criminal records check request under division 63310
(B) of this section, other than the results of any request for 63311
information from the federal bureau of investigation, are not 63312
obtained within the period ending sixty days after the date the 63313
request for the criminal records check is made. Regardless of when 63314
the results of the criminal records check are obtained, if the 63315
results indicate that the individualapplicant has been convicted 63316
of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for 63317
intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the offenses listed 63318
or described in division (C)(1) of this sectiona disqualifying 63319
offense, the waiver agency shall terminate the individual's63320
applicant's employment unless circumstances specified in rules 63321
adopted under this section exist that permit the waiver agency to 63322
employ the applicant and the waiver agency chooses to employ the 63323
individual pursuant to division (F) of this sectionapplicant.63324

       (D)(1) The fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 63325
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 63326
check conducted pursuant to a request made under division (B) of 63327
this section shall be paid to the bureau of criminal 63328
identification and investigation by the applicant or the waiver 63329
agency.63330

       (2) If a waiver agency pays the fee, it may charge the 63331
applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the agency pays under 63332
division (D)(1) of this section. An agency may collect a fee only 63333
if the agency notifies the person at the time of initial 63334
application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, 63335
unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered for 63336
employment.63337

       (E)(G) The report of any criminal records check conducted 63338
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 63339
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 63340
shall not be made available to any person other than the 63341
following:63342

       (1) The individualapplicant or employee who is the subject 63343
of the criminal records check or the individual's representative 63344
of the applicant or employee;63345

       (2) The chief administrator of the waiver agency requesting63346
that requires the applicant or employee to request the criminal 63347
records check or the administrator's representative;63348

       (3) An administrator atThe director of job and family 63349
services and the staff of the department in the administration of 63350
the medicaid program;63351

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 63352
involved in a case dealing with aany of the following:63353

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or dealing with 63354
employmentemployee;63355

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 63356
employee;63357

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 63358
program.63359

       (F)(H) The departmentdirector of job and family services63360
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 63361
Code to implement this section. The63362

       (1) The rules may do the following:63363

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 63364
criminal records checks under this section;63365

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 63366
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 63367
or more classes of employees from the requirements;63368

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 63369
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 63370
database review conducted under this section.63371

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:63372

       (a) The procedures for conducting a database review under 63373
this section;63374

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 63375
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 63376
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 63377
be conducted;63378

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 63379
part of a database review, the circumstances under which a waiver 63380
agency is prohibited from employing an applicant or continuing to 63381
employ an employee who is found by the database review to be 63382
included in one or more of those databases;63383

       (d) The circumstances under which a waiver agency may employ 63384
a personan applicant or employee who hasis found by a criminal 63385
records check required by this section to have been convicted of, 63386
has pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention 63387
in lieu of conviction for an offense listed or described in 63388
division (C)(1) of this sectiona disqualifying offense.63389

       (G) The chief administrator of a waiver agency shall inform 63390
each person, at the time of initial application for a position 63391
that involves providing home and community-based waiver services 63392
to a person with a disability, that the person is required to 63393
provide a set of fingerprint impressions and that a criminal 63394
records check is required to be conducted if the person comes 63395
under final consideration for employment.63396

       (H)(1) A person who, on September 26, 2003, is an employee of 63397
a waiver agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position 63398
that involves providing home and community-based waiver services 63399
to a person with disabilities shall comply with this section 63400
within sixty days after September 26, 2003, unless division (H)(2) 63401
of this section applies.63402

       (2) This section shall not apply to a person to whom all of 63403
the following apply:63404

       (a) On September 26, 2003, the person is an employee of a 63405
waiver agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position 63406
that involves providing home and community-based waiver services 63407
to a person with disabilities.63408

       (b) The person previously had been the subject of a criminal 63409
background check relating to that position;63410

       (c) The person has been continuously employed in that 63411
position since that criminal background check had been conducted.63412

       (I) The amendments made by ...B... to this section do not 63413
preclude the department of job and family services from taking 63414
action against a person for failure to comply with former division 63415
(H) of this section as that division existed on the day preceding 63416
the effective date of this amendment.63417

       Sec. 5111.034.  (A) As used in this section:63418

       (1) "Anniversary date" means the later of the effective date 63419
of the provider agreement relating to the independent provider or 63420
sixty days after September 26, 2003.63421

       (2) "Criminal"Applicant" means a person who has applied for 63422
a medicaid provider agreement to provide home and community-based 63423
services as an independent provider under a home and 63424
community-based medicaid waiver component administered by the 63425
department of job and family services.63426

       "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 63427
109.572 of the Revised Code.63428

       (3) "Department" includes a designee of the department of job 63429
and family services.63430

       (4) "Independent"Disqualifying offense" has the same meaning 63431
as in section 5111.032 of the Revised Code.63432

       "Independent provider" means a person who is submitting an 63433
application for a provider agreement or who has a medicaid63434
provider agreement to provide home and community-based services as 63435
an independent provider in a home and community-based services 63436
medicaid waiver component administered by the department of job 63437
and family services administered home and community-based services 63438
program providing home and community-based waiver services to 63439
consumers with disabilities.63440

       (5) "Home and community-based waiver services medicaid waiver 63441
component" has the same meaning as in section 5111.0335111.85 of 63442
the Revised Code.63443

       (B) The department of job and family services or the 63444
department's designee shall deny an applicant's application for a 63445
medicaid provider agreement and shall terminate an independent 63446
provider's medicaid provider agreement if either of the following 63447
applies:63448

       (1) After the applicant or independent provider is given the 63449
information and notification required by divisions (D)(2)(a) and 63450
(b) of this section, the applicant or independent provider fails 63451
to do either of the following:63452

       (a) Access, complete, or forward to the superintendent of the 63453
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the form 63454
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 63455
Revised Code or the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant 63456
to division (C)(2) of that section;63457

       (b) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 63458
report of the criminal records check required by this section 63459
directly to the department or the department's designee.63460

       (2) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 63461
the applicant or independent provider is found by a criminal 63462
records check required by this section to have been convicted of, 63463
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 63464
of conviction for a disqualifying offense, regardless of the date 63465
of the conviction, the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the 63466
date the applicant or independent provider was found eligible for 63467
intervention in lieu of conviction.63468

       (C)(1) The department of job and family servicesor the 63469
department's designee shall inform each independent provider63470
applicant, at the time of initial application for a medicaid63471
provider agreement that involves providing home and 63472
community-based waiver services to consumers with disabilities, 63473
that the independent providerapplicant is required to provide a 63474
set of the applicant's fingerprint impressions and that a criminal 63475
records check is required to be conducted if the person is to 63476
become an independent provider in adepartment administered home 63477
and community-based waiver programas a condition of the 63478
department's approving the application.63479

       (2) Beginning on September 26, 2003, the department or the 63480
department's designee shall inform each enrolled medicaid63481
independent provider on or before the time of the anniversary date 63482
of the medicaid provider agreement that involves providing home 63483
and community-based waiver services to consumers with disabilities63484
that the independent provider is required to provide a set of the 63485
independent provider's fingerprint impressions and that a criminal 63486
records check is required to be conducted.63487

       (C)(D)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 63488
require the independent provideran applicant to complete a 63489
criminal records check prior to entering into a medicaid provider 63490
agreement with the independent provider andapplicant. The 63491
department or the department's designee shall require an 63492
independent provider to complete a criminal records check at least 63493
annually thereafter. If an applicant or independent provider for 63494
whom a criminal records check is required under this divisionby 63495
this section does not present proof of having been a resident of 63496
this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date 63497
the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that 63498
within that five-year period the superintendent of the bureau of 63499
criminal identification and investigation has requested 63500
information about the applicant or independent provider from the 63501
federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the 63502
department or the department's designee shall request that the 63503
applicant or independent provider obtain through the 63504
superintendent a criminal records request from the federal bureau 63505
of investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 63506
applicant or independent provider. Even if an applicant or63507
independent provider for whom a criminal records check request is 63508
required under this divisionby this section presents proof of 63509
having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the 63510
department or the department's designee may request that the 63511
applicant or independent provider obtain information through the 63512
superintendent from the federal bureau of investigation in the 63513
criminal records check.63514

       (2) The department or the department's designee shall provide 63515
the following to each applicant and independent provider for whom 63516
a criminal records check request is required under division (C)(1) 63517
ofby this section:63518

       (a) Information about accessing, completing, and forwarding 63519
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 63520
investigation the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 63521
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard fingerprint63522
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 63523
section;63524

       (b) Written notification that the applicant or independent 63525
provider is to instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 63526
report of the criminal records check directly to the department or 63527
the department's designee.63528

       (3) An independent provider given information and 63529
notification under divisions (C)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who 63530
fails to access, complete, and forward to the superintendent the 63531
form or the standard fingerprint impression sheet, or who fails to 63532
instruct the superintendent to submit the completed report of the 63533
criminal records check directly to the department, shall not be 63534
approved as an independent provider.Each applicant and 63535
independent provider for whom a criminal records check is required 63536
by this section shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification 63537
and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) 63538
of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for the criminal records 63539
check conducted of the applicant or independent provider.63540

       (D) Except as provided in rules adopted by the department in 63541
accordance with division (G) of this section, the department shall 63542
not issue a new provider agreement to, and shall terminate an 63543
existing provider agreement of, an independent provider if the 63544
person has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been 63545
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of 63546
the following, regardless of the date of the conviction, the date 63547
of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the person was found 63548
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction:63549

       (1) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 63550
2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 63551
2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 63552
2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 63553
2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 63554
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 63555
2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 63556
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 63557
2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 63558
2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 63559
2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.11, 63560
2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 63561
2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2923.01, 2923.02, 63562
2923.03, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.32, 2925.02, 2925.03, 63563
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 63564
2925.23, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 63565
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 63566
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 63567
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 63568
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 63569
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 63570
had the violation been committed prior to that date;63571

       (2) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 63572
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 63573
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 63574
division (D)(1) of this section.63575

       (E) Each independent provider shall pay to the bureau of 63576
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 63577
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 63578
for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to a request 63579
made under division (C) of this section.63580

       (F)(E) The report of any criminal records check conducted by 63581
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in 63582
accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant 63583
to a request made under division (C) of this section is not a 63584
public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised 63585
Code and shall not be made available to any person other than the 63586
following:63587

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 63588
check or the person's representative;63589

       (2) An administrator atThe director of job and family 63590
services and the staff of the department or the administrator's 63591
representativein the administration of the medicaid program;63592

       (3) The department's designee;63593

       (4) An individual who receives home and community-based 63594
services from the person who is the subject of the criminal 63595
records check;63596

       (5) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 63597
involved in a case dealing with aeither of the following:63598

       (a) A denial or termination of a provider agreement related 63599
to the criminal records check;63600

       (b) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 63601
program.63602

       (G)(F) The departmentdirector of job and family services63603
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 63604
Code to implement this section. The rules shall specify 63605
circumstances under which the department or the department's 63606
designee may either issue a provider agreement to an independent 63607
providerapprove an applicant's application or allow an 63608
independent provider to maintain an existing medicaid provider 63609
agreement wheneven though the applicant or independent provider 63610
hasis found by a criminal records check required by this section 63611
to have been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been 63612
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for an 63613
offense listed or described in division (D)(1) or (2) of this 63614
sectiona disqualifying offense.63615

       Sec. 5111.06.  (A)(1) As used in this section and in sections 63616
5111.061 and 5111.063 of the Revised Code:63617

       (a) "Provider" means any person, institution, or entity that 63618
furnishes medicaid services under a provider agreement with the 63619
department of job and family services pursuant to Title XIX of the 63620
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as 63621
amended.63622

       (b) "Party" has the same meaning as in division (G) of 63623
section 119.01 of the Revised Code.63624

       (c) "Adjudication" has the same meaning as in division (D) of 63625
section 119.01 of the Revised Code.63626

       (2) This section does not apply to anyeither of the 63627
following:63628

       (a) Any action taken or decision made by the department of 63629
job and family services with respect to entering into or refusing 63630
to enter into a contract with a managed care organization pursuant 63631
to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;63632

       (b) Any action taken by the department under sections 5111.16 63633
to 5111.177 or sections 5111.35 to 5111.62 of the Revised Code.63634

       (B) Except as provided in division (D) of this section and 63635
section 5111.914 of the Revised Code, the department shall do 63636
either of the following by issuing an order pursuant to an 63637
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 63638
Revised Code:63639

       (1) Enter into or refuse to enter into a provider agreement 63640
with a provider, or suspend, terminate, renew, or refuse to renew 63641
an existing provider agreement with a provider;63642

       (2) Take any action based upon a final fiscal audit of a 63643
provider.63644

       (C) Any party who is adversely affected by the issuance of an 63645
adjudication order under division (B) of this section may appeal 63646
to the court of common pleas of Franklin county in accordance with 63647
section 119.12 of the Revised Code.63648

       (D) The department is not required to comply with division 63649
(B)(1) of this section whenever any of the following occur:63650

       (1) The terms of a provider agreement require the provider to 63651
hold a license, permit, or certificate or maintain a certification 63652
issued by an official, board, commission, department, division, 63653
bureau, or other agency of state or federal government other than 63654
the department of job and family services, and the license, 63655
permit, certificate, or certification has been denied, revoked, 63656
not renewed, suspended, or otherwise limited.63657

       (2) The terms of a provider agreement require the provider to 63658
hold a license, permit, or certificate or maintain certification 63659
issued by an official, board, commission, department, division, 63660
bureau, or other agency of state or federal government other than 63661
the department of job and family services, and the provider has 63662
not obtained the license, permit, certificate, or certification.63663

       (3) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 63664
renewed due to the termination, refusal to renew, or denial of a 63665
license, permit, certificate, or certification by an official, 63666
board, commission, department, division, bureau, or other agency 63667
of this state other than the department of job and family 63668
services, notwithstanding the fact that the provider may hold a 63669
license, permit, certificate, or certification from an official, 63670
board, commission, department, division, bureau, or other agency 63671
of another state.63672

       (4) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 63673
renewed pursuant to division (C) or (F) of section 5111.03 of the 63674
Revised Code.63675

       (5) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 63676
renewed due to the provider's termination, suspension, or 63677
exclusion from the medicare program established under Title XVIII 63678
of the "Social Security Act" or from another state's medicaid 63679
program and, in either case, the termination, suspension, or 63680
exclusion is binding on the provider's participation in the 63681
medicaid program in this state.63682

       (6) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 63683
renewed due to the provider's pleading guilty to or being 63684
convicted of a criminal activity materially related to either the 63685
medicare or medicaid program.63686

       (7) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or 63687
suspended as a result of action by the United States department of 63688
health and human services and that action is binding on the 63689
provider's participation in the medicaid program.63690

       (8) Pursuant to either section 5111.031 or 5111.035 of the 63691
Revised Code, the provider agreement is suspended and payments to 63692
the provider are suspended pending indictment of the provider.63693

       (9) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 63694
renewed because the provider or its owner, officer, authorized 63695
agent, associate, manager, or employee has been convicted of one 63696
of the offenses that caused the provider agreement to be suspended 63697
pursuant to section 5111.031 of the Revised Code.63698

       (10) The provider agreement is converted under section 63699
5111.028 of the Revised Code from a provider agreement that is not 63700
time-limited to a provider agreement that is time-limited.63701

       (11) The provider agreement is terminated or an application 63702
for re-enrollment is denied because the provider has failed to 63703
apply for re-enrollment within the time or in the manner specified 63704
for re-enrollment pursuant to section 5111.028 of the Revised 63705
Code.63706

       (12) The provider agreement is suspended or terminated, or an 63707
application for enrollment or re-enrollment is denied, for any 63708
reason authorized or required by one or more of the following: 42 63709
C.F.R. 455.106, 455.23, 455.416, 455.434, or 455.450.63710

       (13) The provider agreement is terminated or not renewed 63711
because the provider has not billed or otherwise submitted a 63712
medicaid claim to the department for two years or longer.63713

       (14) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 63714
renewed because the provider fails to provide to the department 63715
the national provider identifier assigned the provider by the 63716
national provider system pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 162.408.63717

       In the case of a provider described in division (D)(13) or 63718
(14) of this section, the department may take its proposed action 63719
against a provider agreement by sending a notice explaining the 63720
proposed action to the provider. The notice shall be sent to the 63721
provider's address on record with the department. The notice may 63722
be sent by regular mail.63723

       (E) The department may withhold payments for services 63724
rendered by a medicaid provider under the medicaid program during 63725
the pendency of proceedings initiated under division (B)(1) of 63726
this section. If the proceedings are initiated under division 63727
(B)(2) of this section, the department may withhold payments only 63728
to the extent that they equal amounts determined in a final fiscal 63729
audit as being due the state. This division does not apply if the 63730
department fails to comply with section 119.07 of the Revised 63731
Code, requests a continuance of the hearing, or does not issue a 63732
decision within thirty days after the hearing is completed. This 63733
division does not apply to nursing facilities and intermediate 63734
care facilities for the mentally retarded as defined in section 63735
5111.20 of the Revised Code.63736

       Sec. 5111.091. Not later than the first day of each calendar 63737
quarterSemiannually, the director of job and family services 63738
shall submit a report to the president and minority leader of the 63739
senate, speaker and minority leader of the house of 63740
representatives, and the chairpersons of the standing committees 63741
of the senate and house of representatives that hear billswith 63742
primary responsibility for legislation making biennial 63743
appropriations a report on the establishment and implementation of 63744
programs designed to control the increase of the cost of the 63745
medicaid program, increase the efficiency of the medicaid program, 63746
and promote better health outcomes. In each calendar year, one 63747
report shall be submitted not later than the last day of June and 63748
the subsequent report shall be submitted not later than the last 63749
day of December.63750

       The report shall include information regarding all of the 63751
following:63752

       (A) Provider network management;63753

       (B) Electronic claims submission and payment systems;63754

       (C) Limited provider contracts and payments based on 63755
performance;63756

       (D) Efforts to enforce third party liability;63757

       (E) Implementation of the medicaid information technology 63758
system;63759

       (F) Expansion of the medicaid data warehouse and decision 63760
support system;63761

       (G) Development of infrastructure policies for electronic 63762
health records and e-prescribing.63763

       Sec. 5111.113.  (A) As used in this section:63764

       (1) "Adult care facility" has the same meaning as in section 63765
5119.70 of the Revised Code.63766

       (2) "Commissioner" means a person appointed by a probate 63767
court under division (E) of section 2113.03 of the Revised Code to 63768
act as a commissioner.63769

       (3)(2) "Home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.10 of 63770
the Revised Code.63771

       (4)(3) "Personal needs allowance account" means an account or 63772
petty cash fund that holds the money of a resident of an adult 63773
care facility or home and that the facility or home manages for 63774
the resident.63775

       (4) "Residential facility" means a residential facility 63776
licensed under section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides 63777
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three 63778
to sixteen unrelated adults.63779

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (D) of this 63780
section, the owner or operator of an adult care facility ora home 63781
or residential facility shall transfer to the department of job 63782
and family services the money in the personal needs allowance 63783
account of a resident of the facility or home or facility who was 63784
a recipient of the medical assistance program no earlier than 63785
sixty days but not later than ninety days after the resident dies. 63786
The adult care facility or home or facility shall transfer the 63787
money even though the owner or operator of the facility or home 63788
has not been issued letters testamentary or letters of 63789
administration concerning the resident's estate.63790

       (C) If funeral or burial expenses for a resident of an adult 63791
care facility ora home or residential facility who has died have 63792
not been paid and the only resource the resident had that could be 63793
used to pay for the expenses is the money in the resident's 63794
personal needs allowance account, or all other resources of the 63795
resident are inadequate to pay the full cost of the expenses, the 63796
money in the resident's personal needs allowance account shall be 63797
used to pay for the expenses rather than being transferred to the 63798
department of job and family services pursuant to division (B) of 63799
this section.63800

       (D) If, not later than sixty days after a resident of an 63801
adult care facility ora home or residential facility dies, 63802
letters testamentary or letters of administration are issued, or 63803
an application for release from administration is filed under 63804
section 2113.03 of the Revised Code, concerning the resident's 63805
estate, the owner or operator of the facility or home or facility63806
shall transfer the money in the resident's personal needs 63807
allowance account to the administrator, executor, commissioner, or 63808
person who filed the application for release from administration.63809

       (E) The transfer or use of money in a resident's personal 63810
needs allowance account in accordance with division (B), (C), or 63811
(D) of this section discharges and releases the adult care 63812
facility or home or residential facility, and the owner or 63813
operator of the facility or home, from any claim for the money 63814
from any source.63815

       (F) If, sixty-one or more days after a resident of an adult 63816
care facility ora home or residential facility dies, letters 63817
testamentary or letters of administration are issued, or an 63818
application for release from administration under section 2113.03 63819
of the Revised Code is filed, concerning the resident's estate, 63820
the department of job and family services shall transfer the funds 63821
to the administrator, executor, commissioner, or person who filed 63822
the application, unless the department is entitled to recover the 63823
money under the medicaid estate recovery program instituted under 63824
section 5111.11 of the Revised Code.63825

       Sec. 5111.16. (A) As part of the medicaid program, the 63826
department of job and family services shall establish a care 63827
management system. The department shall submit, if necessary, 63828
applications to the United States department of health and human 63829
services for waivers of federal medicaid requirements that would 63830
otherwise be violated in the implementation of the system.63831

       (B) The department shall implement the care management system 63832
in some or all counties and shall designate the medicaid 63833
recipients who are required or permitted to participate in the 63834
system. In the department's implementation of the system and 63835
designation of participants, all of the following apply:63836

       (1) In the case of individuals who receive medicaid on the 63837
basis of being included in the category identified by the 63838
department as covered families and children, the department shall 63839
implement the care management system in all counties. All 63840
individuals included in the category shall be designated for 63841
participation, except for individuals included in one or more of 63842
the medicaid recipient groups specified in 42 C.F.R. 438.50(d). 63843
The department shall ensure that all participants are enrolled in 63844
health insuring corporations under contract with the department 63845
pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code.63846

       (2) In the case of individuals who receive medicaid on the 63847
basis of being aged, blind, or disabled, as specified in division 63848
(A)(C)(2) of section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, the department 63849
shall implement the care management system in all counties. Except 63850
as provided in division (C) of this section, all individuals 63851
included in the category shall be designated for participation. 63852
The department shall ensure that all participants are enrolled in 63853
health insuring corporations under contract with the department 63854
pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code.63855

        (3) Alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 63856
covered by medicaid shall not be included in any component of the 63857
care management system when the nonfederal share of the cost of 63858
those services is provided by a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 63859
and mental health services or a state agency other than the 63860
department of job and family services, but the recipients of those 63861
services may otherwise be designated for participation in the 63862
system.63863

        (C)(1) In designating participants who receive medicaid on 63864
the basis of being aged, blind, or disabled, the department shall 63865
not include any of the following, except as provided under 63866
division (C)(2) of this section:63867

        (a) Individuals who are under twenty-one years of age;63868

        (b) Individuals who are institutionalized;63869

        (c) Individuals who become eligible for medicaid by spending 63870
down their income or resources to a level that meets the medicaid 63871
program's financial eligibility requirements;63872

        (d) Individuals who are dually eligible under the medicaid 63873
program and the medicare program established under Title XVIII of 63874
the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as 63875
amended;63876

        (e) Individuals to the extent that they are receiving 63877
medicaid services through a medicaid waiver component, as defined 63878
in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.63879

       (2) If any necessary waiver of federal medicaid requirements 63880
is granted, the department may designate any of the following 63881
individuals who receive medicaid on the basis of being aged, 63882
blind, or disabled as individuals who are permitted or required to 63883
participate in the care management system:63884

       (a) Individuals who are under twenty-one years of age;63885

        (b) Individuals who reside in a nursing facility, as defined 63886
in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code;63887

       (c) Individuals who, as an alternative to receiving nursing 63888
facility services, are participating in a home and community-based 63889
services medicaid waiver component, as defined in section 5111.85 63890
of the Revised Code;63891

       (d) Individuals who are dually eligible under the medicaid 63892
program and the medicare program.63893

       (D) Subject to division (B) of this section, the department 63894
may do both of the following under the care management system:63895

       (1) Require or permit participants in the system to obtain 63896
health care services from providers designated by the department;63897

       (2) Require or permit participants in the system to obtain 63898
health care services through managed care organizations under 63899
contract with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the 63900
Revised Code.63901

       (E)(1) The department shall prepare an annual report on the 63902
care management system. The report shall address the department's 63903
ability to implement the system, including all of the following 63904
components:63905

        (a) The required designation of participants included in the 63906
category identified by the department as covered families and 63907
children;63908

       (b) The required designation of participants included in the 63909
aged, blind, or disabled category of medicaid recipients;63910

       (c) The use of any programs for enhanced care management.63911

       (2) The department shall submit each annual report to the 63912
general assembly. The first report shall be submitted not later 63913
than October 1, 2007.63914

       (F) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 63915
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 63916
this section.63917

       Sec. 5111.161.  (A) As used in this section:63918

       (1) "Children's care network" means any of the following:63919

       (a) A children's hospital;63920

       (b) A group of children's hospitals;63921

       (c) A group of pediatric physicians;.63922

       (2) "Children's hospital" has the same meaning as in section 63923
2151.86 of the Revised Code.63924

       (B) If the department of job and family services includes in 63925
the care management system, pursuant to section 5111.16 of the 63926
Revised Code, individuals under twenty-one years of age included 63927
in the category of individuals who receive medicaid on the basis 63928
of being aged, blind, or disabled, as specified in division 63929
(A)(C)(2) of section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, the department 63930
shall develop a system to recognize entities as pediatric 63931
accountable care organizations. The purpose of the recognition 63932
system shall be to meet the complex medical and behavioral needs 63933
of disabled children through new approaches to care coordination. 63934
The department shall implement the recognition system not later 63935
than July 1, 2012.63936

       An entity recognized by the department as a pediatric 63937
accountable care organization may develop innovative partnerships 63938
between relevant groups and may contract directly or subcontract 63939
with the state to provide services to the medicaid recipients 63940
under twenty-one years of age described in this division who are 63941
permitted or required to participate in the care management 63942
system. 63943

       (C)(1) To be recognized by the department as a pediatric 63944
accountable care organization, an entity shall meet the standards 63945
established in rules adopted under this section. Unless required 63946
by sections 2706 and 3022 of the "Patient Protection and 63947
Affordable Care Act," 124 Stat. 325 (2010) and Title XVIII of the 63948
"Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 395 (2010), 42 U.S.C. 1395jjj, 63949
the regulations adopted pursuant to those sections, and the laws 63950
of this state, the department shall not require that an entity be 63951
a health insuring corporation as a condition of receiving the 63952
department's recognition.63953

       (2) Any of the following entities may receive the 63954
department's recognition, if the standards for recognition have 63955
been met:63956

       (a) A children's care network;63957

       (b) A children's care network that may include one or more 63958
other entities, including, but not limited to, health insuring 63959
corporations or other managed care organizations;63960

       (c) Any other entity the department determines is qualified.63961

       (D) The department shall consult with all of the following in 63962
adopting rules under division (E) of this section necessary for an 63963
entity to be recognized by the department as a pediatric 63964
accountable care organization:63965

       (1) The superintendent of insurance;63966

       (2) Children's hospitals;63967

       (3) Managed care organizations under contract pursuant to 63968
section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;63969

       (4) Any other relevant entities, as determined necessary by 63970
the department, with interests in pediatric accountable care 63971
organizations.63972

       (E) The department shall adopt rules in accordance with 63973
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 63974
section. In adopting the rules, the department shall do all of the 63975
following:63976

       (1) Establish application procedures to be followed by an 63977
entity seeking recognition as a pediatric accountable care 63978
organization;63979

       (2) Ensure that the standards for recognition as a pediatric 63980
accountable care organization are the same as and do not conflict 63981
with those specified in sections 2706 and 3022 of the "Patient 63982
Protection and Affordable Care Act," 124 Stat. 325 (2010) and 63983
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 395 (2010), 42 63984
U.S.C. 1395jjj or the regulations adopted pursuant to those 63985
sections;63986

       (3) Establish requirements regarding the access to pediatric 63987
specialty care provided through or by a pediatric accountable care 63988
organization;63989

       (4) Establish accountability and financial requirements for 63990
an entity recognized as a pediatric accountable care organization;63991

       (5) Establish quality improvement initiatives consistent with 63992
any state medicaid quality plan established by the department;63993

       (6) Establish transparency and consumer protection 63994
requirements for an entity recognized as a pediatric accountable 63995
care organization;63996

       (7) Establish a process for sharing data.63997

       (F) This section does not limit the authority of the 63998
department of insurance to regulate the business of insurance in 63999
this state.64000

       Sec. 5111.171. (A) The department of job and family services 64001
may provide financial incentive awards to managed care 64002
organizations under contract with the department pursuant to 64003
section 5111.17 of the Revised Code that meet or exceed 64004
performance standards specified in provider agreements or rules 64005
adopted by the department. The department may specify in a 64006
contract with a managed care organization the amounts of financial 64007
incentive awards, methodology for distributing awards, types of 64008
awards, and standards for administration by the department.64009

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the health 64010
care compliance fund. The fund shall consist of all fines imposed 64011
on and collected from managed care organizations for failure to 64012
meet performance standards or other requirements specified in 64013
provider agreements or rules adopted by the department. All 64014
investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund. 64015
Moneys credited to the fund shall be used solely for the following 64016
purposes:64017

       (1) To reimburse managed care organizations that have paid 64018
fines for failures to meet performance standards or other 64019
requirements and that have come into compliance by meeting 64020
requirements as specified by the department;64021

       (2) To provide financial incentive awards established 64022
pursuant to division (A) of this section and specified in 64023
contracts between managed care organizations and the department.64024

       Sec. 5111.20.  As used in sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 64025
Revised Code:64026

       (A) "Allowable costs" are those costs determined by the 64027
department of job and family services to be reasonable and do not 64028
include fines paid under sections 5111.35 to 5111.61 and section 64029
5111.99 of the Revised Code.64030

       (B) "Ancillary and support costs" means all reasonable costs 64031
incurred by a nursing facility other than direct care costs, tax 64032
costs, or capital costs. "Ancillary and support costs" includes, 64033
but is not limited to, costs of activities, social services, 64034
pharmacy consultants, habilitation supervisors, qualified mental 64035
retardation professionals, program directors, medical and 64036
habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence supplies, 64037
food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 64038
housekeeping, security, administration, medical equipment, 64039
utilities, liability insurance, bookkeeping, purchasing 64040
department, human resources, communications, travel, dues, license 64041
fees, subscriptions, home office costs not otherwise allocated, 64042
legal services, accounting services, minor equipment, wheelchairs, 64043
resident transportation, maintenance and repairs, help-wanted 64044
advertising, informational advertising, start-up costs, 64045
organizational expenses, other interest, property insurance, 64046
employee training and staff development, employee benefits, 64047
payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or costs for 64048
self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in rules 64049
adopted by the director of job and family services under section 64050
5111.02 of the Revised Code, for personnel listed in this 64051
division. "Ancillary and support costs" also means the cost of 64052
equipment, including vehicles, acquired by operating lease 64053
executed before December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as 64054
administrative and general costs on the facility's cost report for 64055
the cost reporting period ending December 31, 1992.64056

       (C) "Capital costs" means costs of ownership and, in the case 64057
of an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, costs 64058
of nonextensive renovation.64059

       (1) "Cost of ownership" means the actual expense incurred for 64060
all of the following:64061

       (a) Depreciation and interest on any capital assets that cost 64062
five hundred dollars or more per item, including the following:64063

       (i) Buildings;64064

       (ii) Building improvements that are not approved as 64065
nonextensive renovations under section 5111.251 of the Revised 64066
Code;64067

       (iii) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, 64068
equipment;64069

       (iv) In the case of an intermediate care facility for the 64070
mentally retarded, extensive renovations;64071

       (v) Transportation equipment.64072

       (b) Amortization and interest on land improvements and 64073
leasehold improvements;64074

       (c) Amortization of financing costs;64075

       (d) Except as provided in division (K) of this section, lease 64076
and rent of land, building, and equipment.64077

       The costs of capital assets of less than five hundred dollars 64078
per item may be considered capital costs in accordance with a 64079
provider's practice.64080

       (2) "Costs of nonextensive renovation" means the actual 64081
expense incurred by an intermediate care facility for the mentally 64082
retarded for depreciation or amortization and interest on 64083
renovations that are not extensive renovations.64084

       (D) "Capital lease" and "operating lease" shall be construed 64085
in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.64086

       (E) "Case-mix score" means the measure determined under 64087
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code of the relative direct-care 64088
resources needed to provide care and habilitation to a resident of 64089
a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 64090
retarded.64091

       (F)(1) "Date of licensure," for a facility originally 64092
licensed as a nursing home under Chapter 3721. of the Revised 64093
Code, means the date specific beds were originally licensed as 64094
nursing home beds under that chapter, regardless of whether they 64095
were subsequently licensed as residential facility beds under 64096
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code. For a facility originally 64097
licensed as a residential facility under section 5123.19 of the 64098
Revised Code, "date of licensure" means the date specific beds 64099
were originally licensed as residential facility beds under that 64100
section.64101

        If nursing home beds licensed under Chapter 3721. of the 64102
Revised Code or residential facility beds licensed under section 64103
5123.19 of the Revised Code were not required by law to be 64104
licensed when they were originally used to provide nursing home or 64105
residential facility services, "date of licensure" means the date 64106
the beds first were used to provide nursing home or residential 64107
facility services, regardless of the date the present provider 64108
obtained licensure.64109

        If a facility adds nursing home beds or residential facility 64110
beds or extensively renovates all or part of the facility after 64111
its original date of licensure, it will have a different date of 64112
licensure for the additional beds or extensively renovated portion 64113
of the facility, unless the beds are added in a space that was 64114
constructed at the same time as the previously licensed beds but 64115
was not licensed under Chapter 3721. or section 5123.19 of the 64116
Revised Code at that time.64117

       (2) The definition of "date of licensure" in this section 64118
applies in determinations of the medicaid reimbursement rate for a 64119
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 64120
retarded but does not apply in determinations of the franchise 64121
permit fee for a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 64122
for the mentally retarded.64123

       (G) "Desk-reviewed" means that costs as reported on a cost 64124
report submitted under section 5111.26 of the Revised Code have 64125
been subjected to a desk review under division (A) of section 64126
5111.27 of the Revised Code and preliminarily determined to be 64127
allowable costs.64128

       (H) "Direct care costs" means all of the following:64129

       (1)(a) Costs for registered nurses, licensed practical 64130
nurses, and nurse aides employed by the facility;64131

       (b) Costs for direct care staff, administrative nursing 64132
staff, medical directors, respiratory therapists, and except as 64133
provided in division (H)(2) of this section, other persons holding 64134
degrees qualifying them to provide therapy;64135

       (c) Costs of purchased nursing services;64136

       (d) Costs of quality assurance;64137

       (e) Costs of training and staff development, employee 64138
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 64139
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 64140
rules adopted by the director of job and family services in 64141
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, for personnel 64142
listed in divisions (H)(1)(a), (b), and (d) of this section;64143

       (f) Costs of consulting and management fees related to direct 64144
care;64145

       (g) Allocated direct care home office costs.64146

       (2) In addition to the costs specified in division (H)(1) of 64147
this section, for nursing facilities only, direct care costs 64148
include costs of habilitation staff (other than habilitation 64149
supervisors), medical supplies, oxygen, over-the-counter pharmacy 64150
products, behavioral and mental health services, physical 64151
therapists, physical therapy assistants, occupational therapists, 64152
occupational therapy assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, 64153
habilitation supplies, wheelchairs, resident transportation, and 64154
universal precautions supplies.64155

       (3) In addition to the costs specified in division (H)(1) of 64156
this section, for intermediate care facilities for the mentally 64157
retarded only, direct care costs include both of the following:64158

       (a) Costs for physical therapists and physical therapy 64159
assistants, occupational therapists and occupational therapy 64160
assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, habilitation staff 64161
(including habilitation supervisors), qualified mental retardation 64162
professionals, program directors, social services staff, 64163
activities staff, off-site day programming, psychologists and 64164
psychology assistants, and social workers and counselors;64165

       (b) Costs of training and staff development, employee 64166
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 64167
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 64168
rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, for 64169
personnel listed in division (H)(3)(a) of this section.64170

       (4) Costs of other direct-care resources that are specified 64171
as direct care costs in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the 64172
Revised Code.64173

       (I) "Fiscal year" means the fiscal year of this state, as 64174
specified in section 9.34 of the Revised Code.64175

       (J) "Franchise permit fee" means the following:64176

       (1) In the context of nursing facilities, the fee imposed by 64177
sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 of the Revised Code;64178

       (2) In the context of intermediate care facilities for the 64179
mentally retarded, the fee imposed by sections 5112.30 to 5112.39 64180
of the Revised Code.64181

        (K) "Indirect care costs" means all reasonable costs incurred 64182
by an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded other 64183
than direct care costs, other protected costs, or capital costs. 64184
"Indirect care costs" includes but is not limited to costs of 64185
habilitation supplies, pharmacy consultants, medical and 64186
habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence supplies, 64187
food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 64188
housekeeping, security, administration, liability insurance, 64189
bookkeeping, purchasing department, human resources, 64190
communications, travel, dues, license fees, subscriptions, home 64191
office costs not otherwise allocated, legal services, accounting 64192
services, minor equipment, maintenance and repairs, help-wanted 64193
advertising, informational advertising, start-up costs, 64194
organizational expenses, other interest, property insurance, 64195
employee training and staff development, employee benefits, 64196
payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or costs for 64197
self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in rules 64198
adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, for personnel 64199
listed in this division. Notwithstanding division (C)(1) of this 64200
section, "indirect care costs" also means the cost of equipment, 64201
including vehicles, acquired by operating lease executed before 64202
December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as administrative and 64203
general costs on the facility's cost report for the cost reporting 64204
period ending December 31, 1992.64205

       (L) "Inpatient days" means allthe following:64206

       (1) In the context of a nursing facility, both of the 64207
following:64208

       (a) All days during which a resident, regardless of payment 64209
source, occupies a bed in a nursing facility or intermediate care 64210
facility for the mentally retarded that is included in the 64211
nursing facility's certified capacity under Title XIX. Therapeutic 64212
or hospital leave;64213

       (b) Fifty per cent of the days for which payment is made 64214
under section 5111.33 or 5111.331 of the Revised Code are 64215
considered inpatient days proportionate to the percentage of the 64216
facility's per resident per day rate paid for those days.64217

       (2) In the context of an intermediate care facility for the 64218
mentally retarded, both of the following:64219

        (a) All days during which a resident, regardless of payment 64220
source, occupies a bed in an intermediate care facility for the 64221
mentally retarded that is included in the facility's certified 64222
capacity under Title XIX;64223

        (b) All days for which payment is made under section 5111.33 64224
of the Revised Code. 64225

       (M) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 64226
means an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 64227
certified as in compliance with applicable standards for the 64228
medicaid program by the director of health in accordance with 64229
Title XIX.64230

       (N) "Maintenance and repair expenses" means, except as 64231
provided in division (BB)(2) of this section, expenditures that 64232
are necessary and proper to maintain an asset in a normally 64233
efficient working condition and that do not extend the useful life 64234
of the asset two years or more. "Maintenance and repair expenses" 64235
includes but is not limited to the cost of ordinary repairs such 64236
as painting and wallpapering.64237

       (O) "Medicaid days" means allthe following:64238

       (1) In the context of a nursing facility, both of the 64239
following:64240

       (a) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 64241
recipient eligible for nursing facility services occupies a bed in 64242
a nursing facility that is included in the nursing facility's 64243
certified capacity under Title XIX. Therapeutic or hospital leave;64244

       (b) Fifty per cent of the days for which payment is made 64245
under section 5111.33 or 5111.331 of the Revised Code are 64246
considered medicaid days proportionate to the percentage of the 64247
nursing facility's per resident per day rate paid for those days.64248

       (2) In the context of an intermediate care facility for the 64249
mentally retarded, both of the following:64250

        (a) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 64251
recipient eligible for intermediate care facility for the mentally 64252
retarded services occupies a bed in an intermediate care facility 64253
for the mentally retarded that is included in the facility's 64254
certified capacity under Title XIX;64255

        (b) All days for which payment is made under section 5111.33 64256
of the Revised Code. 64257

        (P) "Nursing facility" means a facility, or a distinct part 64258
of a facility, that is certified as a nursing facility by the 64259
director of health in accordance with Title XIX and is not an 64260
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded. "Nursing 64261
facility" includes a facility, or a distinct part of a facility, 64262
that is certified as a nursing facility by the director of health 64263
in accordance with Title XIX and is certified as a skilled nursing 64264
facility by the director in accordance with Title XVIII.64265

       (Q) "Operator" means the person or government entity 64266
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for a 64267
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 64268
retarded.64269

       (R) "Other protected costs" means costs incurred by an 64270
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded for medical 64271
supplies; real estate, franchise, and property taxes; natural gas, 64272
fuel oil, water, electricity, sewage, and refuse and hazardous 64273
medical waste collection; allocated other protected home office 64274
costs; and any additional costs defined as other protected costs 64275
in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code.64276

       (S)(1) "Owner" means any person or government entity that has 64277
at least five per cent ownership or interest, either directly, 64278
indirectly, or in any combination, in any of the following 64279
regarding a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the 64280
mentally retarded:64281

       (a) The land on which the facility is located;64282

       (b) The structure in which the facility is located;64283

       (c) Any mortgage, contract for deed, or other obligation 64284
secured in whole or in part by the land or structure on or in 64285
which the facility is located;64286

       (d) Any lease or sublease of the land or structure on or in 64287
which the facility is located.64288

       (2) "Owner" does not mean a holder of a debenture or bond 64289
related to the nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 64290
the mentally retarded and purchased at public issue or a regulated 64291
lender that has made a loan related to the facility unless the 64292
holder or lender operates the facility directly or through a 64293
subsidiary.64294

       (T) "Patient" includes "resident."64295

       (U) Except as provided in divisions (U)(1) and (2) of this 64296
section, "per diem" means a nursing facility's or intermediate 64297
care facility for the mentally retarded's actual, allowable costs 64298
in a given cost center in a cost reporting period, divided by the 64299
facility's inpatient days for that cost reporting period.64300

       (1) When calculating indirect care costs for the purpose of 64301
establishing rates under section 5111.241 of the Revised Code, 64302
"per diem" means an intermediate care facility for the mentally 64303
retarded's actual, allowable indirect care costs in a cost 64304
reporting period divided by the greater of the facility's 64305
inpatient days for that period or the number of inpatient days the 64306
facility would have had during that period if its occupancy rate 64307
had been eighty-five per cent.64308

       (2) When calculating capital costs for the purpose of 64309
establishing rates under section 5111.251 of the Revised Code, 64310
"per diem" means a facility's actual, allowable capital costs in a 64311
cost reporting period divided by the greater of the facility's 64312
inpatient days for that period or the number of inpatient days the 64313
facility would have had during that period if its occupancy rate 64314
had been ninety-five per cent.64315

       (V) "Provider" means an operator with a provider agreement.64316

       (W) "Provider agreement" means a contract between the 64317
department of job and family services and the operator of a 64318
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 64319
retarded for the provision of nursing facility services or 64320
intermediate care facility services for the mentally retarded 64321
under the medicaid program.64322

       (X) "Purchased nursing services" means services that are 64323
provided in a nursing facility by registered nurses, licensed 64324
practical nurses, or nurse aides who are not employees of the 64325
facility.64326

       (Y) "Reasonable" means that a cost is an actual cost that is 64327
appropriate and helpful to develop and maintain the operation of 64328
patient care facilities and activities, including normal standby 64329
costs, and that does not exceed what a prudent buyer pays for a 64330
given item or services. Reasonable costs may vary from provider to 64331
provider and from time to time for the same provider.64332

       (Z) "Related party" means an individual or organization that, 64333
to a significant extent, has common ownership with, is associated 64334
or affiliated with, has control of, or is controlled by, the 64335
provider.64336

       (1) An individual who is a relative of an owner is a related 64337
party.64338

       (2) Common ownership exists when an individual or individuals 64339
possess significant ownership or equity in both the provider and 64340
the other organization. Significant ownership or equity exists 64341
when an individual or individuals possess five per cent ownership 64342
or equity in both the provider and a supplier. Significant 64343
ownership or equity is presumed to exist when an individual or 64344
individuals possess ten per cent ownership or equity in both the 64345
provider and another organization from which the provider 64346
purchases or leases real property.64347

       (3) Control exists when an individual or organization has the 64348
power, directly or indirectly, to significantly influence or 64349
direct the actions or policies of an organization.64350

       (4) An individual or organization that supplies goods or 64351
services to a provider shall not be considered a related party if 64352
all of the following conditions are met:64353

       (a) The supplier is a separate bona fide organization.64354

       (b) A substantial part of the supplier's business activity of 64355
the type carried on with the provider is transacted with others 64356
than the provider and there is an open, competitive market for the 64357
types of goods or services the supplier furnishes.64358

       (c) The types of goods or services are commonly obtained by 64359
other nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities for the 64360
mentally retarded from outside organizations and are not a basic 64361
element of patient care ordinarily furnished directly to patients 64362
by the facilities.64363

       (d) The charge to the provider is in line with the charge for 64364
the goods or services in the open market and no more than the 64365
charge made under comparable circumstances to others by the 64366
supplier.64367

       (AA) "Relative of owner" means an individual who is related 64368
to an owner of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 64369
for the mentally retarded by one of the following relationships:64370

       (1) Spouse;64371

       (2) Natural parent, child, or sibling;64372

       (3) Adopted parent, child, or sibling;64373

       (4) Stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister;64374

       (5) Father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 64375
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law;64376

       (6) Grandparent or grandchild;64377

       (7) Foster caregiver, foster child, foster brother, or foster 64378
sister.64379

       (BB) "Renovation" and "extensive renovation" mean:64380

       (1) Any betterment, improvement, or restoration of an 64381
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded started 64382
before July 1, 1993, that meets the definition of a renovation or 64383
extensive renovation established in rules adopted by the director 64384
of job and family services in effect on December 22, 1992.64385

       (2) In the case of betterments, improvements, and 64386
restorations of intermediate care facilities for the mentally 64387
retarded started on or after July 1, 1993:64388

       (a) "Renovation" means the betterment, improvement, or 64389
restoration of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 64390
retarded beyond its current functional capacity through a 64391
structural change that costs at least five hundred dollars per 64392
bed. A renovation may include betterment, improvement, 64393
restoration, or replacement of assets that are affixed to the 64394
building and have a useful life of at least five years. A 64395
renovation may include costs that otherwise would be considered 64396
maintenance and repair expenses if they are an integral part of 64397
the structural change that makes up the renovation project. 64398
"Renovation" does not mean construction of additional space for 64399
beds that will be added to a facility's licensed or certified 64400
capacity.64401

       (b) "Extensive renovation" means a renovation that costs more 64402
than sixty-five per cent and no more than eighty-five per cent of 64403
the cost of constructing a new bed and that extends the useful 64404
life of the assets for at least ten years.64405

       For the purposes of division (BB)(2) of this section, the 64406
cost of constructing a new bed shall be considered to be forty 64407
thousand dollars, adjusted for the estimated rate of inflation 64408
from January 1, 1993, to the end of the calendar year during which 64409
the renovation is completed, using the consumer price index for 64410
shelter costs for all urban consumers for the north central 64411
region, as published by the United States bureau of labor 64412
statistics.64413

       The department of job and family services may treat a 64414
renovation that costs more than eighty-five per cent of the cost 64415
of constructing new beds as an extensive renovation if the 64416
department determines that the renovation is more prudent than 64417
construction of new beds.64418

       (CC) "Tax costs" means the costs of taxes imposed under 64419
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, real estate taxes, personal 64420
property taxes, and corporate franchise taxes.64421

       (DD) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 64422
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amended.64423

       (DD)(EE) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social 64424
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended.64425

       Sec. 5111.222.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by sections 64426
5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code and by division (B) of 64427
this section, the total rate that the department of job and family 64428
services shall agree to pay for a fiscal year to the provider of a 64429
nursing facility pursuant to a provider agreement shall equal the 64430
sum of all of the following:64431

        (1) The rate for direct care costs determined for the nursing 64432
facility under section 5111.231 of the Revised Code;64433

        (2) The rate for ancillary and support costs determined for 64434
the nursing facility's ancillary and support cost peer group under 64435
section 5111.24 of the Revised Code;64436

        (3) The rate for tax costs determined for the nursing 64437
facility under section 5111.242 of the Revised Code;64438

        (4) The quality incentive payment paid to the nursing 64439
facility under section 5111.244 of the Revised Code;64440

        (5) If the nursing facility qualifies as a critical access 64441
nursing facility, the critical access incentive payment paid to 64442
the nursing facility under section 5111.246 of the Revised Code;64443

       (6) The rate for capital costs determined for the nursing 64444
facility's capital costs peer group under section 5111.25 of the 64445
Revised Code.64446

        (B) The department shall adjust the rates otherwise 64447
determined under division (A) of this section as directed by the 64448
general assembly through the enactment of law governing medicaid 64449
payments to providers of nursing facilities, including any law 64450
that establishes factors by which the rates are to be adjusted.64451

       (C) In addition to paying a nursing facility provider the 64452
total rate determined for the nursing facility under division (A) 64453
of this section for a fiscal year, the department shall pay the 64454
provider a quality bonus under section 5111.245 of the Revised 64455
Code for that fiscal year if the provider's nursing facility is a 64456
qualifying nursing facility, as defined in that section, for that 64457
fiscal year. The quality bonus shall not be part of the total 64458
rate.64459

       Sec. 5111.23.  (A) The department of job and family services 64460
shall pay a provider for each of the provider's eligible 64461
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded a per 64462
resident per day rate for direct care costs established 64463
prospectively for each facility. The department shall establish 64464
each facility's rate for direct care costs quarterly.64465

       (B) Each facility's rate for direct care costs shall be based 64466
on the facility's cost per case-mix unit, subject to the maximum 64467
costs per case-mix unit established under division (B)(2) of this 64468
section, from the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which 64469
the rate is paid. To determine the rate, the department shall do 64470
all of the following:64471

       (1) Determine each facility's cost per case-mix unit for the 64472
calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 64473
paid by dividing the facility's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, 64474
per diem direct care costs for that year by its average case-mix 64475
score determined under section 5111.232 of the Revised Code for 64476
the same calendar year.64477

       (2)(a) Set the maximum cost per case-mix unit for each peer 64478
group of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded 64479
with more than eight beds specified in rules adopted under 64480
division (F) of this section at a percentage above the cost per 64481
case-mix unit of the facility in the group that has the group's 64482
median medicaid inpatient day for the calendar year preceding the 64483
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, as calculated under 64484
division (B)(1) of this section, that is no less than the 64485
percentage calculated under division (E)(2) of this section.64486

       (b) Set the maximum cost per case-mix unit for each peer 64487
group of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded 64488
with eight or fewer beds specified in rules adopted under division 64489
(F) of this section at a percentage above the cost per case-mix 64490
unit of the facility in the group that has the group's median 64491
medicaid inpatient day for the calendar year preceding the fiscal 64492
year in which the rate will be paid, as calculated under division 64493
(B)(1) of this section, that is no less than the percentage 64494
calculated under division (E)(3) of this section.64495

       (c) In calculating the maximum cost per case-mix unit under 64496
divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section for each peer group, 64497
the department shall exclude from its calculations the cost per 64498
case-mix unit of any facility in the group that participated in 64499
the medicaid program under the same operator for less than twelve 64500
months during the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which 64501
the rate will be paid.64502

       (3) Estimate the rate of inflation for the eighteen-month 64503
period beginning on the first day of July of the calendar year 64504
preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid and 64505
ending on the thirty-first day of December of the fiscal year in 64506
which the rate will be paid, using the index specified in division 64507
(C) of this section. If the estimated inflation rate for the 64508
eighteen-month period is different from the actual inflation rate 64509
for that period, as measured using the same index, the difference 64510
shall be added to or subtracted from the inflation rate estimated 64511
under division (B)(3) of this section for the following fiscal 64512
year.64513

       (4) The department shall not recalculate a maximum cost per 64514
case-mix unit under division (B)(2) of this section or a 64515
percentage under division (E) of this section based on additional 64516
information that it receives after the maximum costs per case-mix 64517
unit or percentages are set. The department shall recalculate a 64518
maximum cost per case-mix units or percentage only if it made an 64519
error in computing the maximum cost per case-mix unit or 64520
percentage based on information available at the time of the 64521
original calculation.64522

       (C) The department shall use the following index for the 64523
purpose of division (B)(3) of this section:64524

       (1) The employment cost index for total compensation, health 64525
services component, published by the United States bureau of labor 64526
statistics;64527

       (2) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 64528
publish the index specified in division (C)(1) of this section, 64529
the index that is subsequently published by the bureau and covers 64530
nursing facilities' staff costs.64531

       (D) Each facility's rate for direct care costs shall be 64532
determined as follows for each calendar quarter within a fiscal 64533
year:64534

       (1) Multiply the lesser of the following by the facility's 64535
average case-mix score determined under section 5111.232 of the 64536
Revised Code for the calendar quarter that preceded the 64537
immediately preceding calendar quarter:64538

       (a) The facility's cost per case-mix unit for the calendar 64539
year preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, as 64540
determined under division (B)(1) of this section;64541

       (b) The maximum cost per case-mix unit established for the 64542
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid for the facility's peer 64543
group under division (B)(2) of this section;64544

       (2) Adjust the product determined under division (D)(1) of 64545
this section by the inflation rate estimated under division (B)(3) 64546
of this section.64547

       (E)(1) The department shall calculate the percentage above 64548
the median cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B)(1) 64549
of this section for the facility that has the median medicaid 64550
inpatient day for calendar year 1992 for all intermediate care 64551
facilities for the mentally retarded with more than eight beds 64552
that would result in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, 64553
allowable direct care costs for eighty and one-half per cent of 64554
the medicaid inpatient days for such facilities for calendar year 64555
1992.64556

       (2) The department shall calculate the percentage above the 64557
median cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B)(1) of 64558
this section for the facility that has the median medicaid 64559
inpatient day for calendar year 1992 for all intermediate care 64560
facilities for the mentally retarded with eight or fewer beds that 64561
would result in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, allowable 64562
direct care costs for eighty and one-half per cent of the medicaid 64563
inpatient days for such facilities for calendar year 1992.64564

       (F) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 64565
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code that specify peer groups 64566
of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded with 64567
more than eight beds and intermediate care facilities for the 64568
mentally retarded with eight or fewer beds, based on findings of 64569
significant per diem direct care cost differences due to geography 64570
and facility bed-size. The rules also may specify peer groups 64571
based on findings of significant per diem direct care cost 64572
differences due to other factors which may include case-mix.64573

       (G) The department, in accordance with division (D) of 64574
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 64575
division (F) of that section, may assign case-mix scores or costs 64576
per case-mix unit if a provider fails to submit assessment data 64577
necessary to calculate an intermediate care facility for the 64578
mentally retarded's case-mix score in accordance with that 64579
section.64580

       Sec. 5111.242. (A) As used in this section:64581

       (1) "Applicable, "applicable calendar year" means the 64582
following:64583

        (a)(1) For the purpose of the department of job and family 64584
services' initial determination under this section of nursing 64585
facilities' rate for tax costs, calendar year 2003;64586

       (b)(2) For the purpose of the department's subsequent 64587
determinations under division (C) of this section of nursing 64588
facilities' rate for tax costs, the calendar year the department 64589
selects.64590

       (2) "Tax costs" means the costs of taxes imposed under 64591
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, real estate taxes, personal 64592
property taxes, and corporate franchise taxes.64593

        (B) The department of job and family services shall pay a 64594
provider for each of the provider's eligible nursing facilities a 64595
per resident per day rate for tax costs determined under division 64596
(C) of this section.64597

        (C) At least once every ten years, the department shall 64598
determine the rate for tax costs for each nursing facility. The 64599
rate for tax costs determined under this division for a nursing 64600
facility shall be used for subsequent years until the department 64601
redetermines it. To determine a nursing facility's rate for tax 64602
costs and except as provided in division (D) of this section, the 64603
department shall divide the nursing facility's desk-reviewed, 64604
actual, allowable tax costs paid for the applicable calendar year 64605
by the number of inpatient days the nursing facility would have 64606
had if its occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent during the 64607
applicable calendar year.64608

       (D) If a nursing facility had a credit regarding its real 64609
estate taxes reflected on its cost report for calendar year 2003, 64610
the department shall determine its rate for tax costs for the 64611
period beginning on July 1, 2010, and ending on the first day of 64612
the fiscal year for which the department first redetermines all 64613
nursing facilities' rate for tax costs under division (C) of this 64614
section by dividing the nursing facility's desk-reviewed, actual, 64615
allowable tax costs paid for calendar year 2004 by the number of 64616
inpatient days the nursing facility would have had if its 64617
occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent during calendar year 64618
2004.64619

       Sec. 5111.246.  (A) Each fiscal year, the department of job 64620
and family services shall pay a critical access incentive payment 64621
to the provider of each nursing facility that qualifies as a 64622
critical access nursing facility. To qualify as a critical access 64623
nursing facility for a fiscal year, a nursing facility must meet 64624
all of the following requirements:64625

       (1) The nursing facility must be located in an area that, on 64626
December 31, 2011, was designated an empowerment zone under 64627
section 1391 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 107 Stat. 64628
543, 26 U.S.C. 1391, as amended.64629

       (2) The nursing facility must have an occupancy rate of at 64630
least eighty-five per cent as of the last day of the calendar year 64631
preceding the fiscal year.64632

       (3) The nursing facility must have a medicaid utilization 64633
rate of at least sixty-five per cent as of the last day of the 64634
calendar year preceding the fiscal year.64635

       (B) A critical access nursing facility's critical access 64636
incentive payment for a fiscal year shall equal five per cent of 64637
the portion of the nursing facility's total rate for the fiscal 64638
year that is the sum of the rates and payment identified in 64639
divisions (A)(1) to (4) and (6) of section 5111.222 of the Revised 64640
Code.64641

       Sec. 5111.254.  (A) The department of job and family services 64642
shall establish initial rates for a nursing facility with a first 64643
date of licensure that is on or after July 1, 2006, including a 64644
facility that replaces one or more existing facilities, or for a 64645
nursing facility with a first date of licensure before that date 64646
that was initially certified for the medicaid program on or after 64647
that date, in the following manner:64648

       (1) The rate for direct care costs shall be the product of 64649
the cost per case-mix unit determined under division (D) of 64650
section 5111.231 of the Revised Code for the facility's peer group 64651
and the nursing facility's case-mix score. For the purpose of 64652
division (A)(1) of this section, the nursing facility's case-mix 64653
score shall be the following:64654

        (a) Unless the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 64655
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 64656
before the replacement nursing facility begins participating in 64657
the medicaid program, the median annual average case-mix score for 64658
the nursing facility's peer group;64659

        (b) If the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 64660
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 64661
before the replacement nursing facility begins participating in 64662
the medicaid program, the semiannual case-mix score most recently 64663
determined under section 5111.232 of the Revised Code for the 64664
replaced nursing facility as adjusted, if necessary, to reflect 64665
any difference in the number of beds in the replaced and 64666
replacement nursing facilities.64667

       (2) The rate for ancillary and support costs shall be the 64668
rate for the facility's peer group determined under division (D) 64669
of section 5111.24 of the Revised Code.64670

       (3) The rate for capital costs shall be the rate for the 64671
facility's peer group determined under division (D) of section 64672
5111.25 of the Revised Code.64673

       (4) The rate for tax costs as defined in section 5111.242 of 64674
the Revised Code shall be the median rate for tax costs for the 64675
facility's peer group in which the facility is placed under 64676
division (C) of section 5111.24 of the Revised Code.64677

       (5) The quality incentive payment shall be the mean payment 64678
made to nursing facilities under section 5111.244 of the Revised 64679
Code.64680

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, the department 64681
shall adjust the rates established under division (A) of this 64682
section effective the first day of July, to reflect new rate 64683
calculations for all nursing facilities under sections 5111.20 to 64684
5111.331 of the Revised Code.64685

       (C) If a rate for direct care costs is determined under this 64686
section for a nursing facility using the median annual average 64687
case-mix score for the nursing facility's peer group, the rate 64688
shall be redetermined to reflect the replacement nursing 64689
facility's actual semiannual case-mix score determined under 64690
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code after the nursing facility 64691
submits its first two quarterly assessment data that qualify for 64692
use in calculating a case-mix score in accordance with rules 64693
authorized by division (E) of section 5111.232 of the Revised 64694
Code. If the nursing facility's quarterly submissions do not 64695
qualify for use in calculating a case-mix score, the department 64696
shall continue to use the median annual average case-mix score for 64697
the nursing facility's peer group in lieu of the nursing 64698
facility's semiannual case-mix score until the nursing facility 64699
submits two consecutive quarterly assessment data that qualify for 64700
use in calculating a case-mix score.64701

       Sec. 5111.862.  (A) As used in this section:64702

       "Hospital long-term care unit" has the same meaning as in 64703
section 3721.50 of the Revised Code.64704

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 64705
of the Revised Code.64706

       "Ohio home care program" means the medicaid waiver component 64707
created under section 5111.861 of the Revised Code.64708

       "Residential treatment facility" means a residential facility 64709
licensed by the department of mental health under section 5119.22 64710
of the Revised Code, or an institution certified by the department 64711
of job and family services under section 5103.03 of the Revised 64712
Code, that serves children and either has more than sixteen beds 64713
or is part of a campus of multiple facilities or institutions64714
that, combined, have a total of more than sixteen beds.64715

       (B) Subject to division (C) of section 5111.861 of the 64716
Revised Code, the department of job and family services shall 64717
establish a home first component for the Ohio home care program. 64718
An individual is eligible for the Ohio home care program's home 64719
first component if the individual has been determined to be 64720
eligible for the Ohio home care program and at least one of the 64721
following applies:64722

       (1) If the individual is under twenty-one years of age, the 64723
individual received inpatient hospital services for at least 64724
fourteen consecutive days, or had at least three inpatient 64725
hospital stays during the twelve months, immediately preceding the 64726
date the individual applies for the Ohio home care program.64727

       (2) If the individual is at least twenty-one but less than 64728
sixty years of age, the individual received inpatient hospital 64729
services for at least fourteen consecutive days immediately 64730
preceding the date the individual applies for the Ohio home care 64731
program.64732

       (3) The individual received private duty nursing services 64733
under the medicaid program for at least twelve consecutive months 64734
immediately preceding the date the individual applies for the Ohio 64735
home care program.64736

       (4) The individual does not reside in a nursing facility or 64737
hospital long-term care unit at the time the individual applies 64738
for the Ohio home care program but is at risk of imminent 64739
admission to a nursing facility or hospital long-term care unit 64740
due to a documented loss of a primary caregiver.64741

       (5) The individual resides in a nursing facility at the time 64742
the individual applies for the Ohio home care program.64743

       (6) At the time the individual applies for the Ohio home care 64744
program, the individual participates in the money follows the 64745
person demonstration project authorized by section 6071 of the 64746
"Deficit Reduction Act of 2005," Pub. L. No. 109-171, as amended, 64747
and either resides in a residential treatment facility or 64748
inpatient hospital setting.64749

       (C) An individual determined to be eligible for the home 64750
first component of the Ohio home care program shall be enrolled in 64751
the Ohio home care program in accordance with rules adopted under 64752
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.64753

       Sec. 5111.874.  (A) As used in sections 5111.874 to 5111.8710 64754
of the Revised Code:64755

       "Home and community-based services" has the same meaning as 64756
in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.64757

       "ICF/MR services" means intermediate care facility for the 64758
mentally retarded services covered by the medicaid program that an 64759
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded provides to a 64760
resident of the facility who is a medicaid recipient eligible for 64761
medicaid-covered intermediate care facility for the mentally 64762
retarded services.64763

       "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" means 64764
an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded that is 64765
certified as in compliance with applicable standards for the 64766
medicaid program by the director of health in accordance with 64767
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 64768
U.S.C. 1396, as amended, and licensed as a residential facility 64769
under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.64770

       "Residential facility" has the same meaning as in section 64771
5123.19 of the Revised Code.64772

       (B) For the purpose of increasing the number of slots 64773
available for home and community-based services and subject to 64774
sections 5111.877 and 5111.878 of the Revised Code, the operator 64775
of an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded may 64776
convert some or all of the beds in the facility from providing 64777
ICF/MR services to providing home and community-based services if 64778
all of the following requirements are met:64779

       (1) The operator provides the directors of health, job and 64780
family services, and developmental disabilities at least ninety 64781
days' notice of the operator's intent to make the conversion.64782

       (2) The operator complies with the requirements of sections 64783
5111.65 to 5111.689 of the Revised Code regarding a voluntary 64784
termination as defined in section 5111.65 of the Revised Code if 64785
those requirements are applicable.64786

       (3) If the operator intends to convert all of the facility's 64787
beds, the operator notifies each of the facility's residents that 64788
the facility is to cease providing ICF/MR services and inform each 64789
resident that the resident may do either of the following:64790

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MR services by transferring to 64791
another facility that is an intermediate care facility for the 64792
mentally retarded willing and able to accept the resident if the 64793
resident continues to qualify for ICF/MR services;64794

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 64795
instead of ICF/MR services from any provider of home and 64796
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 64797
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 64798
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.64799

       (4) If the operator intends to convert some but not all of 64800
the facility's beds, the operator notifies each of the facility's 64801
residents that the facility is to convert some of its beds from 64802
providing ICF/MR services to providing home and community-based 64803
services and inform each resident that the resident may do either 64804
of the following:64805

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MR services from any provider of 64806
ICF/MR services that is willing and able to provide the services 64807
to the resident if the resident continues to qualify for ICF/MR 64808
services;64809

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 64810
instead of ICF/MR services from any provider of home and 64811
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 64812
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 64813
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.64814

       (5) The operator meets the requirements for providing home 64815
and community-based services, including the following:64816

       (a) Such requirements applicable to a residential facility if 64817
the operator maintains the facility's license as a residential 64818
facility;64819

       (b) Such requirements applicable to a facility that is not 64820
licensed as a residential facility if the operator surrenders the 64821
facility's license as a residential facility license under section 64822
5123.19 of the Revised Code.64823

       (6) The directorsdirector of developmental disabilities and 64824
job and family services approveapproves the conversion.64825

       (C) A decision by the directorsdirector of developmental 64826
disabilities to approve or refuse to approve a proposed conversion 64827
of beds is final. In making a decision, the directorsdirector64828
shall consider all of the following:64829

       (1) The fiscal impact on the facility if some but not all of 64830
the beds are converted;64831

       (2) The fiscal impact on the medical assistance program;64832

       (3) The availability of home and community-based services.64833

       (D) The notice provided to the directors under division 64834
(B)(1) of this section shall specify whether some or all of the 64835
facility's beds are to be converted. If some but not all of the 64836
beds are to be converted, the notice shall specify how many of the 64837
facility's beds are to be converted and how many of the beds are 64838
to continue to provide ICF/MR services. The notice to the director 64839
of developmental disabilities shall specify whether the operator 64840
wishes to surrender the facility's license as a residential 64841
facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.64842

       (E)(1) If the directorsdirector of developmental 64843
disabilities and job and family services approveapproves a 64844
conversion under division (C) of this section, the director of 64845
health shall do the following:64846

       (a) Terminate the certification of the intermediate care 64847
facility for the mentally retarded if the notice specifies that 64848
all of the facility's beds are to be converted;64849

       (b) Reduce the facility's certified capacity by the number of 64850
beds being converted if the notice specifies that some but not all 64851
of the beds are to be converted. 64852

       (2) The director of health shall notify the director of job 64853
and family services of the termination or reduction. On receipt of 64854
the director of health's notice, the director of job and family 64855
services shall do the following:64856

       (a) Terminate the operator's medicaid provider agreement that 64857
authorizes the operator to provide ICF/MR services at the facility 64858
if the facility's certification was terminated;64859

       (b) Amend the operator's medicaid provider agreement to 64860
reflect the facility's reduced certified capacity if the 64861
facility's certified capacity is reduced. 64862

       (3) In the case of action taken under division (E)(2)(a) of 64863
this section, the operator is not entitled to notice or a hearing 64864
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code before the director of job 64865
and family services terminates the medicaid provider agreement.64866

       Sec. 5111.877. The director of job and family services may 64867
seek approval from the United States secretary of health and human 64868
services for not more than a total of twofive hundred slots for 64869
home and community-based services for the purposes of sections 64870
5111.874, 5111.875, and 5111.876 of the Revised Code.64871

       Sec. 5111.878. Not more than a total of onefive hundred beds 64872
may be converted from providing ICF/MR services to providing home 64873
and community-based services under sections 5111.874 and 5111.875 64874
of the Revised Code.64875

       Sec. 5111.89.  (A) As used in sections 5111.89 to 5111.894 of 64876
the Revised Code:64877

       "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 64878
173.14 of the Revised Code.64879

       "Assisted living program" means the program created under 64880
this section.64881

       "Assisted living services" means the following home and 64882
community-based services: personal care, homemaker, chore, 64883
attendant care, companion, medication oversight, and therapeutic 64884
social and recreational programming.64885

       "Assisted living waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver 64886
granted by the United States secretary of health and human 64887
services that authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the 64888
assisted living program.64889

       "County or district home" means a county or district home 64890
operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.64891

       "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 64892
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 64893
the Revised Code.64894

       "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 64895
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 64896
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 64897
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 64898
particular area, that agency or entity.64899

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 64900
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.64901

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 64902
of the Revised Code.64903

       "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 64904
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.64905

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 64906
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 64907
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.64908

       (B) There is hereby created the assisted living program. The 64909
program shall provide assisted living services to individuals who 64910
meet the program's applicable eligibility requirements. Subject to 64911
division (C) of this section, the program shall have a 64912
medicaid-funded component and a state-funded component.64913

       (C)(1) Unless the medicaid-funded component of the assisted 64914
living program is terminated under division (C)(2) of this 64915
section, all of the following apply:64916

       (a) The department of aging shall administer the 64917
medicaid-funded component through a contract entered into with the 64918
department of job and family services under section 5111.91 of the 64919
Revised Code.64920

       (b) The contract shall include an estimate of the 64921
medicaid-funded component's costs. 64922

        (c) The medicaid-funded component shall be operated as a 64923
separate medicaid waiver component. 64924

        (d) The medicaid-funded component may not serve more 64925
individuals than is set by the United States secretary of health 64926
and human services in the assisted living waiver.64927

        (e) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 64928
under section 5111.85 of the Revised Code regarding the 64929
medicaid-funded component. 64930

       (f) The director of aging may adopt rules under Chapter 119. 64931
of the Revised Code regarding the medicaid-funded component that 64932
the rules adopted by the director of job and family services under 64933
division (C)(1)(e) of this section authorize the director of aging 64934
to adopt.64935

       (2) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 64936
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 64937
family services shall work together to determine whether the 64938
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program should 64939
continue to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component or be 64940
terminated. If the departments determine that the medicaid-funded 64941
component of the assisted living program should be terminated, the 64942
medicaid-funded component shall cease to exist on a date the 64943
departments shall specify.64944

       (D) The department of aging shall administer the state-funded 64945
component of the assisted living program. The state-funded 64946
component shall not be administered as part of the medicaid 64947
program.64948

       An individual who is eligible for the state-funded component 64949
may participate in the component for not more than three months64950
ninety days.64951

       The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with 64952
section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the state-funded 64953
component.64954

       Sec. 5111.894.  (A) Subject to division (C)(2) of section 64955
5111.89 of the Revised Code, the department of aging shall 64956
establish a home first component of the assisted living program 64957
under which eligible individuals may be enrolled in the 64958
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program in 64959
accordance with this section. An individual is eligible for the 64960
assisted living program's home first component if both of the 64961
following apply:64962

       (1) The individual has been determined to be eligible for the 64963
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program.64964

       (2) At least one of the following applies:64965

       (a) The individual has been admitted to a nursing facility.64966

       (b) A physician has determined and documented in writing that 64967
the individual has a medical condition that, unless the individual 64968
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 64969
assisted living program, will require the individual to be 64970
admitted to a nursing facility within thirty days of the 64971
physician's determination.64972

       (c) The individual has been hospitalized and a physician has 64973
determined and documented in writing that, unless the individual 64974
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 64975
assisted living program, the individual is to be transported 64976
directly from the hospital to a nursing facility and admitted.64977

       (d) Both of the following apply:64978

       (i) The individual is the subject of a report made under 64979
section 5101.61 of the Revised Code regarding abuse, neglect, or 64980
exploitation or such a report referred to a county department of 64981
job and family services under section 5126.31 of the Revised Code 64982
or has made a request to a county department for protective 64983
services as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.64984

       (ii) A county department of job and family services and an 64985
area agency on aging have jointly documented in writing that, 64986
unless the individual is enrolled in home and community-based 64987
services such as the assisted living program, the individual 64988
should be admitted to a nursing facility.64989

       (e) The individual resided in a residential care facility for 64990
at least six months immediately before applying for the 64991
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program and is at 64992
risk of imminent admission to a nursing facility because the costs 64993
of residing in the residential care facility have depleted the 64994
individual's resources such that the individual is unable to 64995
continue to afford the cost of residing in the residential care 64996
facility. 64997

       (B) Each month, each area agency on aging shall identify 64998
individuals residing in the area that the area agency on aging 64999
serves who are eligible for the home first component of the 65000
assisted living program. When an area agency on aging identifies 65001
such an individual and determines that there is a vacancy in a 65002
residential care facility participating in the medicaid-funded 65003
component of the assisted living program that is acceptable to the 65004
individual, the agency shall notify the long-term care 65005
consultation program administrator serving the area in which the 65006
individual resides. The administrator shall determine whether the 65007
assisted living program is appropriate for the individual and 65008
whether the individual would rather participate in the assisted 65009
living program than continue or begin to reside in a nursing 65010
facility. If the administrator determines that the assisted living 65011
program is appropriate for the individual and the individual would 65012
rather participate in the assisted living program than continue or 65013
begin to reside in a nursing facility, the administrator shall so 65014
notify the department of aging. On receipt of the notice from the 65015
administrator, the department shall approve the individual's 65016
enrollment in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 65017
program regardless of the unified waiting list established under 65018
section 173.404 of the Revised Code, unless the enrollment would 65019
cause the component to exceed any limit on the number of 65020
individuals who may participate in the component as set by the 65021
United States secretary of health and human services in the 65022
assisted living waiver. 65023

       Sec. 5111.941. (A) The medicaid revenue and collections65024
health care/medicaid support and recoveries fund is hereby created 65025
in the state treasury. ExceptAll of the following shall be 65026
credited to the fund:65027

       (1) Except as otherwise provided by statute or as authorized 65028
by the controlling board, the nonfederal share of all 65029
medicaid-related revenues, collections, and recoveries shall be 65030
credited to the fund;65031

       (2) Federal reimbursement received for payment adjustments 65032
made pursuant to section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 101 65033
Stat. 1330-148 (1987), 42 U.S.C. 1396r-4, as amended, under the 65034
medicaid program to state mental health hospitals maintained and 65035
operated by the department of mental health under division (A) of 65036
section 5119.02 of the Revised Code;65037

       (3) Revenues the department of job and family services 65038
receives from another state agency for medicaid services pursuant 65039
to an interagency agreement, other than such revenues required to 65040
be deposited into the health care services administration fund 65041
created under section 5111.94 of the Revised Code;65042

       (4) The first seven hundred fifty thousand dollars the 65043
department receives in a fiscal year for performing eligibility 65044
verification services necessary for compliance with the 65045
independent, certified audit requirement of 42 C.F.R. 455.304.65046

       (B) The department of job and family services shall use money 65047
credited to the medicaid revenue and collectionshealth 65048
care/medicaid support and recoveries fund to pay for medicaid 65049
services and contracts.65050

       Sec. 5111.946.  (A) As used in this section, "medicaid 65051
managed care organization" means a managed care organization under 65052
contract with the department of job and family services pursuant 65053
to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code.65054

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the health 65055
care compliance fund. All of the following shall be credited to 65056
the fund:65057

       (1) All fines imposed on and collected from medicaid managed 65058
care organizations for failure to meet performance standards or 65059
other requirements specified in provider agreements or rules 65060
adopted by the department;65061

       (2) Money the department receives in a fiscal year for 65062
performing eligibility verification services necessary for 65063
compliance with the independent, certified audit requirement of 42 65064
C.F.R. 455.304, other than the amounts of such money that are to 65065
be credited to the health care/medicaid support and recoveries 65066
fund under section 5111.941 of the Revised Code;65067

       (3) All investment earnings of the fund.65068

       (C) Money credited to the health care compliance fund shall 65069
be used solely for the following purposes:65070

       (1) To reimburse medicaid managed care organizations that 65071
have paid fines for failure to meet performance standards or other 65072
requirements and have come into compliance by meeting requirements 65073
as specified by the department;65074

       (2) To provide financial incentive awards established 65075
pursuant to section 5111.171 of the Revised Code and specified in 65076
contracts between medicaid managed care organizations and the 65077
department.65078

       Sec. 5111.96.  (A) As used in this section, "MFP 65079
demonstration project" means a money follows the person 65080
demonstration project that the United States secretary of health 65081
and human services is authorized to award under section 6071 of 65082
the Deficit Reduction Act of 2005 (Pub. L. No. 109-171, as 65083
amended).65084

        (B) To the extent funds are available under an MFP 65085
demonstration project awarded to the department of job and family 65086
services, the director of job and family services may operate the 65087
helping Ohioans move, expanding (HOME) choice demonstration 65088
component of the medicaid program to transition medicaid 65089
recipients who qualify for the demonstration component to 65090
community settings. The director may adopt rules in accordance 65091
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the administration and 65092
operation of the demonstration component.65093

       Sec. 5111.97. (A) As used in this section, "nursing:65094

       (1) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 65095
component" has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the 65096
Revised Code.65097

       (2) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 65098
5111.20 of the Revised Code.65099

       (B) To the extent funds are available, the director of job 65100
and family services may establish the Ohio access success project 65101
to help medicaid recipients make the transition from residing in a 65102
nursing facility to residing in a community setting. The project 65103
may be established as a separate nonmedicaid program or integrated 65104
into a new or existing program of medicaid-funded home and 65105
community-based services authorized by amedicaid waiver approved 65106
by the United States department of health and human services65107
component. The director shall permit any recipient of 65108
medicaid-funded nursing facility services to apply for 65109
participation in the project, but may limit the number of project 65110
participants. 65111

       The director shall ensure that an assessment of an applicant 65112
is conducted as soon as practicable to determine whether the 65113
applicant is eligible for participation in the project. To the 65114
maximum extent possible, the assessment and eligibility 65115
determination shall be completed not later than the date that 65116
occurs six months after the applicant became a recipient of 65117
medicaid-funded nursing facility services.65118

        (C) To be eligible for benefits under the project, a medicaid 65119
recipient must satisfy all of the following requirements:65120

       (1) The medicaid recipient must be a recipient of 65121
medicaid-funded nursing facility services, at the time of applying 65122
for the project benefits.65123

       (2) If the project is established as a nonmedicaid program, 65124
the medicaid recipient must be able to remain in the community as 65125
a result of receiving project benefits and the projected cost of 65126
the benefits to the project does not exceed eighty per cent of the 65127
average monthly medicaid cost of a medicaid recipient in a nursing 65128
facility.65129

       (3) If the project is integrated into a medicaid-funded home 65130
and community-based services medicaid waiver programcomponent, 65131
the medicaid recipient must meet the waiver component's enrollment 65132
criteria.65133

        (D) If the director establishes the Ohio access success 65134
project, the benefits provided under the project may include 65135
payment of all of the following:65136

       (1) The first month's rent in a community setting;65137

       (2) Rental deposits;65138

       (3) Utility deposits;65139

       (4) Moving expenses;65140

       (5) Other expenses not covered by the medicaid program that 65141
facilitate a medicaid recipient's move from a nursing facility to 65142
a community setting.65143

        (E) If the project is established as a nonmedicaid program, 65144
no participant may receive more than two thousand dollars' worth 65145
of benefits under the project.65146

        (F) If the department of job and family services enters into 65147
a contract with an entity to provide fiscal management services 65148
regarding the project, the contract may provide for a portion of a 65149
participant's benefits under the project to be paid to the 65150
contracting entity. The contract shall specify the portion to be 65151
paid to the contracting entity.65152

        (G) The director may submit a request to the United States 65153
secretary of health and human services pursuant to section 1915 of 65154
the "Social Security Act," 7995 Stat. 286809 (19651981), 42 65155
U.S.C. 1396n, as amended, to create a medicaid home and 65156
community-based services medicaid waiver programcomponent to 65157
serve individuals who meet the criteria for participation in the 65158
Ohio access success project. The65159

       (H) The director may adopt rules underin accordance with65160
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the administration and 65161
operation of the project. If the project is integrated into a home 65162
and community-based services medicaid waiver component, the rules 65163
shall be adopted under section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.65164

       Sec. 5112.31.  The department of job and family services 65165
shall do all of the following:65166

       (A) Subject to section 5112.331 of the Revised Code and65167
divisions (B) and (C) of this section and for the purposes 65168
specified in sections 5112.37 andsection 5112.371 of the Revised 65169
Code, assess for each fiscal year each intermediate care facility 65170
for the mentally retarded a franchise permit fee equal to the 65171
franchise permit fee rate multiplied by the product of the 65172
following:65173

       (1) The number of beds certified under Title XIX of the 65174
"Social Security Act" on the first day of May of the calendar year 65175
in which the assessment is determined pursuant to division (A) of 65176
section 5112.33 of the Revised Code;65177

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year.65178

       (B) If the total amount of the franchise permit fee assessed 65179
under division (A) of this section for a fiscal year exceeds the 65180
indirect guarantee percentage of the actual net patient revenue 65181
for all intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded for 65182
that fiscal year and seventy-five per cent or more of the total 65183
number of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded 65184
receive enhanced medicaid payments or other state payments equal 65185
to seventy-five per cent or more of their total franchise permit 65186
fee assessments, do both of the following:65187

       (1) Recalculate the assessments under division (A) of this 65188
section using a per bed per day rate equal to the indirect 65189
guarantee percentage of actual net patient revenue for all 65190
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded for that 65191
fiscal year;65192

       (2) Refund the difference between the amount of the franchise 65193
permit fee assessed for that fiscal year under division (A) of 65194
this section and the amount recalculated under division (B)(1) of 65195
this section as a credit against the assessments imposed under 65196
division (A) of this section for the subsequent fiscal year.65197

       (C) If the United States secretary of health and human 65198
services determines that the franchise permit fee established by 65199
sections 5112.30 to 5112.39 of the Revised Code would be an 65200
impermissible health care-related tax under section 1903(w) of the 65201
"Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 (1991), 42 U.S.C.A.65202
1396b(w), as amended, take all necessary actions to cease 65203
implementation of those sections in accordance with rules adopted 65204
under section 5112.39 of the Revised Code.65205

       Sec. 5112.33.  (A) Not later than the fifteenth day of August 65206
of each year, the department of job and family services shall 65207
determine the annual franchise permit fee for each intermediate 65208
care facility for the mentally retarded in accordance with section 65209
5112.31 of the Revised Code.65210

       (B) Not later than the first day of September of each year, 65211
the department shall mail to each intermediate care facility for 65212
the mentally retarded notice of the amount of the franchise permit 65213
fee the facility has been assessed under section 5112.31 of the 65214
Revised Code.65215

       (C) EachSubject to section 5112.331 of the Revised Code, 65216
each intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded shall 65217
pay its fee under section 5112.31 of the Revised Code to the 65218
department in quarterly installment payments not later than 65219
forty-five days after the last day of each September, December, 65220
March, and June.65221

       Sec. 5112.331.  (A) If, during the period beginning on the 65222
first day of May of a calendar year and ending on the first day of 65223
January of the immediately following calendar year, the operator 65224
of an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 65225
converts, pursuant to section 5111.874 of the Revised Code, one or 65226
more of the facility's beds to providing home and community-based 65227
services, the department of job and family services shall do the 65228
following:65229

       (1) If the facility's medicaid certification is terminated 65230
because of the conversion, terminate the facility's franchise 65231
permit fee effective on the first day of the quarter immediately 65232
following the quarter in which the department receives the notice 65233
of the conversion from the director of health;65234

       (2) If the facility's certified capacity under medicaid is 65235
reduced because of the conversion, redetermine the facility's 65236
franchise permit fee in accordance with division (B) of this 65237
section for the second half of the fiscal year for which the fee 65238
is assessed. 65239

       (B)(1) To redetermine an intermediate care facility for the 65240
mentally retarded's franchise permit fee, the department shall 65241
multiply the franchise permit fee rate by the product of the 65242
following:65243

       (a) The number of the facility's beds that remain certified 65244
under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act" as of the date the 65245
conversion takes effect;65246

       (b) The number of days in the second half of the fiscal year 65247
for which the redetermination is made.65248

       (2) The intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 65249
shall pay its franchise permit fee as redetermined under division 65250
(B)(1) of this section in installment payments not later than 65251
forty-five days after the last day of March and June of the fiscal 65252
year for which the redetermination is made.65253

       Sec. 5112.341.  (A) In addition to assessing a penalty 65254
pursuant to section 5112.34 of the Revised Code, the department of 65255
job and family services may do any of the following if an 65256
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded fails to pay 65257
the full amount of a franchise permit fee installment when due:65258

        (1) Withhold an amount less than or equal to the installment 65259
and penalty assessed under section 5112.34 of the Revised Code 65260
from a medicaid payment due the facility until the facility pays 65261
the installment and penalty;65262

        (2) Offset an amount less than or equal to the installment 65263
and penalty assessed under section 5112.34 of the Revised Code 65264
from a Medicaidmedicaid payment due the nursing facility or 65265
hospital;65266

       (3) Terminate the facility's medicaid provider agreement.65267

        (B) The department may offset a medicaid payment under 65268
division (A) of this section without providing notice to the 65269
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded and without 65270
conducting an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.65271

       Sec. 5112.37.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 65272
the home and community-based services for the mentally retarded 65273
and developmentally disabled fund. Eighty-one and seventy-seven 65274
hundredths per cent of allAll installment payments and penalties 65275
paid by an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 65276
under sections 5112.33 and 5112.34 of the Revised Code for state 65277
fiscal year 2012 shall be deposited into the fund. Eighty-two and 65278
two tenths per cent of all installment payments and penalties paid 65279
by an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under 65280
sections 5112.33 and 5112.34 of the Revised Code for state fiscal 65281
year 2013 and thereafter shall be deposited into the fund. The 65282
departmentAs soon as possible after the end of each quarter, the 65283
director of job and family services shall distributecertify to 65284
the director of budget and management the amount of money inthat 65285
is in the fund in accordance with rules adopted under section 65286
5112.39 of the Revised Codeas of the last day of that quarter. 65287
The departments of job and family services and developmental 65288
disabilities shall use the money for the medicaid program 65289
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and home and 65290
community-based services to mentally retarded and developmentally 65291
disabled persons.On receipt of a certification, the director of 65292
budget and management shall transfer the amount so certified from 65293
the home and community-based services for the mentally retarded 65294
and developmentally disabled fund to the department of 65295
developmental disabilities operating and services fund created 65296
under section 5112.371 of the Revised Code.65297

       Sec. 5112.371. There is hereby created in the state treasury 65298
the department of developmental disabilities operating and 65299
services fund. All installment payments and penalties paid by an 65300
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under 65301
sections 5112.33 and 5112.34 of the Revised Code that are not 65302
deposited into the home and community-based services for the 65303
mentally retarded and developmentally disabled fund shall be 65304
deposited into the department of developmental disabilities 65305
operating and servicesThe fund shall consist of the money 65306
transferred to it under section 5112.37 of the Revised Code. The 65307
money in the fund shall be used for the expenses of the programs 65308
that the department of developmental disabilities administers and 65309
the department's administrative expenses.65310

       Sec. 5112.39.  The director of job and family services shall 65311
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 65312
do allboth of the following:65313

       (A) Prescribe the actions the department will take to cease 65314
implementation of sections 5112.30 to 5112.39 of the Revised Code 65315
if the United States secretary of health and human services 65316
determines that the franchise permit fee imposed under section 65317
5112.31 of the Revised Code is an impermissible health 65318
care-related tax under section 1903(w) of the "Social Security 65319
Act," 49105 Stat. 6201793 (19351991), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396b(w), as 65320
amended;65321

       (B) Establish the method of distributing the money in the 65322
home and community-based services for the mentally retarded and 65323
developmentally disabled fund created by section 5112.37 of the 65324
Revised Code;65325

       (C) Establish any other requirements or procedures the 65326
director considers necessary to implement sections 5112.30 to 65327
5112.39 of the Revised Code.65328

       Sec. 5119.22.  (A)(1) As used in this section and section 65329
5119.221 of the Revised Code:65330

       (a)(1) "Accommodations" means housing, daily meal 65331
preparation, laundry, housekeeping, arranging for transportation, 65332
social and recreational activities, maintenance, security, and 65333
other services that do not constitute personal care services or 65334
skilled nursing care.65335

       (2) "ADAMHS board" means a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 65336
and mental health services.65337

       (3) "Adult" means a person who is eighteen years of age or 65338
older, other than a person described in division (A)(4) of this 65339
section who is between eighteen and twenty-one years of age.65340

       (4) "Child" means a person who is under eighteen years of age 65341
or a person with a mental disability who is under twenty-one years 65342
of age.65343

       (5) "Community mental health agency" means a community mental 65344
health agency as defined in division (H) of section 5122.01 of the 65345
Revised Code.65346

       (b)(6) "Community mental health services" means any of the 65347
services listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code.65348

       (c)(7) "Operator" means the person that is responsible for 65349
the administration and management of a residential facility.65350

       (8) "Personal care services" means services including, but 65351
not limited to, the following:65352

       (i)(a) Assisting residents with activities of daily living;65353

       (ii)(b) Assisting residents with self-administration of 65354
medication in accordance with rules adopted under this section;65355

       (iii)(c) Preparing special diets, other than complex 65356
therapeutic diets, for residents pursuant to the instructions of a 65357
physician or a licensed dietitian, in accordance with rules 65358
adopted under this section.65359

       "Personal care services" does not include "skilled nursing 65360
care" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code. A 65361
facility need not provide more than one of the services listed in 65362
division (A)(1)(c)(8) of this section to be considered to be 65363
providing personal care services.65364

       (d)(9) "Residential facility" means a publicly or privately 65365
operated home or facility that provides one of the following:65366

       (i) Room and board(a) Accommodations, supervision, personal 65367
care services, and community mental health services tofor one or 65368
more of the following unrelated persons with mental illness or 65369
persons with severe mental disabilities who are referred by or are 65370
receiving community mental health services from a community mental 65371
health agency, hospital, or practitioner;:65372

       (i) Adults with mental illness;65373

       (ii) Persons of any age with severe mental disabilities;65374

       (iii) Children with serious emotional disturbances or in need 65375
of mental health services.65376

       (ii) Room and board(b) Accommodations and personal care 65377
services for only one or two adults who are unrelated to the owner 65378
of the facility; accommodations, supervision, and personal care 65379
services tofor three to sixteen unrelated adults; or 65380
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for one or 65381
two of the following unrelated persons:65382

       (i) Persons of any age with mental illness or persons with 65383
severe mental disabilities who are referred by or are receiving 65384
community mental health services from a community mental health 65385
agency, hospital, or practitioner;65386

       (iii) Room and board to(ii) Persons of any age with severe 65387
mental disabilities who are referred by or are receiving community 65388
mental health services from a community mental health agency, 65389
hospital, or practitioner.65390

       (c) Room and board for five or more of the following 65391
unrelated persons:65392

       (i) Adults with mental illness or persons with severe mental 65393
disabilities who are referred by or are receiving community mental 65394
health services from a community mental health agency, hospital, 65395
or practitioner;65396

       (ii) Adults with severe mental disabilities who are referred 65397
by or are receiving community mental health services from a 65398
community mental health agency, hospital, or practitioner.65399

       The following are not residential facilities(10) 65400
"Residential facility" does not include any of the following: the 65401
residence of a relative or guardian of a mentally ill individual, 65402
a65403

       (a) A hospital subject to licensure under section 5119.20 of 65404
the Revised Code, a;65405

       (b) A residential facility as defined inlicensed under65406
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code, a facility providing care for 65407
a child in the custody of a public children services agency or a 65408
private agency certified under section 5103.03 of the Revised 65409
Code, a foster care facilityor otherwise regulated by the 65410
department of developmental disabilities;65411

       (c) An institution or association subject to certification 65412
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, an adult care facility 65413
subject to licensure under sections 5119.70 to 5119.88 of the 65414
Revised Code, and a;65415

       (d) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 65416
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively 65417
for care of hospice patients;65418

       (e) A nursing home, residential care facility, or home for 65419
the aging subject to licensure underas defined in section 3721.02 65420
of the Revised Code;65421

       (f) An alcohol or drug addiction program as defined in 65422
section 3793.01 of the Revised Code;65423

       (g) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment under 65424
section 3793.11 of the Revised Code;65425

       (h) Any facility that receives funding for operating costs 65426
from the department of development under any program established 65427
to provide emergency shelter housing or transitional housing for 65428
the homeless;65429

       (i) A terminal care facility for the homeless that has 65430
entered into an agreement with a hospice care program under 65431
section 3712.07 of the Revised Code;65432

       (j) A facility approved by the veterans administration under 65433
section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 65434
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 65435
the placement and care of veterans.65436

       (11) "Room and board" means the provision of sleeping and 65437
living space, meals or meal preparation, laundry services, 65438
housekeeping services, or any combination thereof.65439

       (12) "Supervision" means any of the following:65440

       (a) Observing a resident to ensure the resident's health, 65441
safety, and welfare while the resident engages in activities of 65442
daily living or other activities;65443

       (b) Reminding a resident to perform or complete an activity, 65444
such as reminding a resident to engage in personal hygiene or 65445
other self-care activities; 65446

       (c) Assisting a resident in making or keeping an appointment. 65447

       (13) "Unrelated" means that a resident is not related to the 65448
owner or operator of a residential facility or to the owner's or 65449
operator's spouse as a parent, grandparent, child, stepchild, 65450
grandchild, brother, sister, niece, nephew, aunt, or uncle, or as 65451
the child of an aunt or uncle.65452

       (2)(B) Nothing in division (A)(1)(d)(9) of this section shall 65453
be construed to permit personal care services to be imposed on a 65454
resident who is capable of performing the activity in question 65455
without assistance.65456

       (3)(C) Except in the case of a residential facility described 65457
in division (A)(1)(d)(i)(9)(a) of this section, members of the 65458
staff of a residential facility shall not administer medication to 65459
the facility's residents, all medication taken by residents of a 65460
residential facility shall be self-administered, and no person 65461
shall be admitted to or retained by a residential facility unless 65462
the person is capable of taking the person's own medication and 65463
biologicals, as determined in writing by the person's personal 65464
physician. Members of the staff of a residential facilitybut may 65465
do any of the following:65466

       (a)(1) Remind a resident when to take medication and watch to 65467
ensure that the resident follows the directions on the container;65468

       (b)(2) Assist a resident in the self-administration of 65469
medication by taking the medication from the locked area where it 65470
is stored, in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to this 65471
section, and handing it to the resident. If the resident is 65472
physically unable to open the container, a staff member may open 65473
the container for the resident.65474

       (c)(3) Assist a physically impaired but mentally alert 65475
resident, such as a resident with arthritis, cerebral palsy, or 65476
Parkinson's disease, in removing oral or topical medication from 65477
containers and in consuming or applying the medication, upon 65478
request by or with the consent of the resident. If a resident is 65479
physically unable to place a dose of medicine to the resident's 65480
mouth without spilling it, a staff member may place the dose in a 65481
container and place the container to the mouth of the resident.65482

       (B) Every(D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of 65483
this section, a person operating or desiringseeking to operate a 65484
residential facility shall apply for licensure of the facility to 65485
the department of mental health and. The application shall be 65486
submitted by the operator. When applying for the license, the 65487
applicant shall pay to the department the application fee 65488
specified in rules adopted under division (L) of this section. The 65489
fee is nonrefundable.65490

       The department shall send a copy of thean application to the 65491
ADAMHS board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 65492
services whose service district includesserving the county in 65493
which the person operates or desiresseeks to operate a 65494
residentialthe facility. The ADAMHS board shall review such 65495
applications and recommend approval or disapproval to the 65496
department. Each recommendation shall be consistent with the 65497
board's community mental health plan.65498

       (C)the application and provide to the department any 65499
information about the applicant or the facility that the board 65500
would like the department to consider in reviewing the 65501
application.65502

       (2) A person may not apply for a license to operate a 65503
residential facility if the person is or has been the owner, 65504
operator, or manager of a residential facility for which a license 65505
to operate was revoked or for which renewal of a license was 65506
refused for any reason other than nonpayment of the license 65507
renewal fee, unless both of the following conditions are met:65508

       (a) A period of not less than two years has elapsed since the 65509
date the director of mental health issued the order revoking or 65510
refusing to renew the facility's license.65511

       (b) The director's revocation or refusal to renew the license 65512
was not based on an act or omission at the facility that violated 65513
a resident's right to be free from abuse, neglect, or 65514
exploitation.65515

       (E)(1) Any person may operate a residential facility 65516
providing accommodations and personal care services for one to 65517
five unrelated persons and licensed as a residential facility that 65518
meets the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section 65519
as a permitted use in any residential district or zone, including 65520
any single-family residential district or zone of any political 65521
subdivision. Such facilities may be required to comply with area, 65522
height, yard, and architectural compatibility requirements that 65523
are uniformly imposed upon all single-family residences within the 65524
district or zone. 65525

       (2) Any person may operate a residential facility providing 65526
accommodations and personal care services for six to sixteen 65527
persons and licensed as a residential facility that meets the 65528
criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section as a 65529
permitted use in any multiple-family residential district or zone 65530
of any political subdivision, except that a political subdivision 65531
that has enacted a zoning ordinance or resolution establishing 65532
planned-unit development districts as defined in section 519.021 65533
of the Revised Code may exclude such facilities from such 65534
districts, and a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning 65535
ordinance or resolution may regulate such facilities in 65536
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 65537
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 65538
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 65539
zoning ordinance or resolution to: 65540

       (a) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 65541
home and the location, nature, and height of any walls, screens, 65542
and fences to be compatible with adjoining land uses and the 65543
residential character of the neighborhood; 65544

       (b) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 65545
regulation. 65546

       (3) Divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section do not affect 65547
any right of a political subdivision to permit a person to operate 65548
a residential facility licensed under this section in a 65549
single-family residential district or zone under conditions 65550
established by the political subdivision. 65551

       (4)(a) Notwithstanding divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this 65552
section and except as provided in division (E)(4)(b) of this 65553
section, a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning 65554
ordinance or resolution may limit the excessive concentration of 65555
licensed residential facilities that meet the criteria specified 65556
in division (A)(9)(b) of this section. 65557

       (b) Division (E)(4)(a) of this section does not authorize a 65558
political subdivision to prevent or limit the continued existence 65559
and operation of residential facilities existing and operating on 65560
the effective date of this section and that meet the criteria 65561
specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section. A political 65562
subdivision may consider the existence of such facilities for the 65563
purpose of limiting the excessive concentration of such facilities 65564
that meet the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this 65565
section that are not existing and operating on the effective date 65566
of this section.65567

       (F)(1) The department of mental health shall inspect and 65568
license the operation of residential facilities. The department 65569
shall consider the past record of the facility and the applicant 65570
or licensee in arriving at its licensure decision. The65571

       The department may issue full, probationary, and interim 65572
licenses. A full license shall expire two years after the date of 65573
issuance, a probationary license shall expire in a shorter period 65574
of time as prescribed by rulespecified in rules adopted by the 65575
director of mental health pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised 65576
Codeunder division (L) of this section, and an interim license 65577
shall expire ninety days after the date of issuance. TheA license 65578
may be renewed in accordance with rules adopted by the director 65579
under division (L) of this section. The renewal application shall 65580
be submitted by the operator. When applying for renewal of a 65581
license, the applicant shall pay to the department the renewal fee 65582
specified in rules adopted under division (L) of this section. The 65583
fee is nonrefundable.65584

       (2) The department may issue an order suspending the 65585
admission of residents to the facility or refuse to issue or renew 65586
and may revoke a license if it finds the facility is not in 65587
compliance with rules adopted by the departmentdirector pursuant 65588
to division (G)(L) of this section or if any facility operated by 65589
the applicant or licensee has hadbeen cited for repeated 65590
violations of statutes or rules during the period of previous 65591
licenses. Proceedings initiated to deny applications for full or 65592
probationary licenses or to revoke such licenses are governed by 65593
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.65594

       (D)(G) The department may issue an interim license to operate 65595
a residential facility if both of the following conditions are 65596
met:65597

       (1) The department determines that the closing of or the need 65598
to remove residents from another residential facility has created 65599
an emergency situation requiring immediate removal of residents 65600
and an insufficient number of licensed beds are available.65601

       (2) The residential facility applying for an interim license 65602
meets standards established for interim licenses in rules adopted 65603
by the director under Chapter 119. of the Revised Codedivision 65604
(L) of this section.65605

       An interim license shall be valid for ninety days and may be 65606
renewed by the director no more than twice. Proceedings initiated 65607
to deny applications for or to revoke interim licenses under this 65608
division are not subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.65609

       (E)(H)(1) The department of mental health may conduct an 65610
inspection of a residential facility as follows:65611

       (1)(a) Prior to the issuance of a license to a prospective 65612
operatorfor the facility;65613

       (2)(b) Prior to the renewal of any operator'sthe license;65614

       (3)(c) To determine whether athe facility has completed a 65615
plan of correction required pursuant to this division (H)(2) of 65616
this section and corrected deficiencies to the satisfaction of the 65617
department and in compliance with this section and rules adopted 65618
pursuant to it;65619

       (4)(d) Upon complaint by any individual or agency;65620

       (5)(e) At any time the director considers an inspection to be 65621
necessary in order to determine whether a residentialthe facility 65622
is in compliance with this section and rules adopted pursuant to 65623
this section.65624

       (2) In conducting inspections the department may conduct an 65625
on-site examination and evaluation of the residential facility,65626
and its personnel, activities, and services. The department shall 65627
have access to examine and copy all records, accounts, and any 65628
other documents relating to the operation of the residential 65629
facility, including records pertaining to residents, and shall 65630
have access to the facility in order to conduct interviews with 65631
the operator, staff, and residents. Following each inspection and 65632
review, the department shall complete a report listing any 65633
deficiencies, and including, when appropriate, a time table within 65634
which the operator shall correct the deficiencies. The department 65635
may require the operator to submit a plan of correction describing 65636
how the deficiencies will be corrected.65637

       (F)(I) No person shall do any of the following:65638

       (1) Operate a residential facility unless the facility holds 65639
a valid license;65640

       (2) Violate any of the conditions of licensure after having 65641
been granted a license;65642

       (3) Interfere with a state or local official's inspection or 65643
investigation of a residential facility;65644

       (4) Violate any of the provisions of this section or any 65645
rules adopted pursuant to this section.65646

       (G)(J) The following may enter a residential facility at any 65647
time:65648

       (1) Employees designated by the director of mental health;65649

       (2) Employees of an ADAMHS board under either of the 65650
following circumstances:65651

       (a) When a resident of the facility is receiving services 65652
from a community mental health agency under contract with that 65653
ADAMHS board or another ADAMHS board;65654

       (b) When authorized by section 340.05 of the Revised Code.65655

       (3) Employees of a community mental health agency under 65656
either of the following circumstances:65657

       (a) When the agency has a client residing in the facility;65658

       (b) When the agency is acting as an agent of an ADAMHS board 65659
other than the board with which it is under contract.65660

       (4) Representatives of the state long-term care ombudsperson 65661
program when the facility provides accommodations, supervision, 65662
and personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults 65663
or to one or two unrelated adults who are recipients under the 65664
residential state supplement program.65665

       The persons specified in division (J) of this section shall 65666
be afforded access to examine and copy all records, accounts, and 65667
any other documents relating to the operation of the residential 65668
facility, including records pertaining to residents. 65669

       (K) Employees of the department of mental health may enter, 65670
for the purpose of investigation, any institution, residence, 65671
facility, or other structure which has been reported to the 65672
department as, or that the department has reasonable cause to 65673
believe is, operating as a residential facility without a valid 65674
license.65675

       (L) The director shall adopt and may amend and rescind rules 65676
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, prescribing minimum65677
governing the licensing and operation of residential facilities. 65678
The rules shall establish all of the following:65679

       (1) Minimum standards for the health, safety, adequacy, and 65680
cultural specificity and sensitivitycompetency of treatment of 65681
and services for persons in residential facilities; establishing 65682
procedures65683

       (2) Procedures for the issuance, renewal or revocation of the 65684
licenses of suchresidential facilities; establishing the65685

       (3) Procedures for conducting criminal records checks for 65686
prospective operators, staff, and other individuals who, if 65687
employed by a residential facility, would have unsupervised access 65688
to facility residents;65689

       (4) The fee to be paid when applying for a new residential 65690
facility license or renewing the license;65691

       (5) Procedures for the operator of a residential facility to 65692
follow when notifying the ADAMHS board serving the county in which 65693
the facility is located when the facility is serving residents 65694
with mental illness or severe mental disability, including the 65695
circumstances under which the operator is required to make such a 65696
notification;65697

       (6) Procedures for the issuance and termination of orders of 65698
suspension of admission of residents to a residential facility; 65699

       (7) Measures to be taken by residential facilities relative 65700
to residents' medication;65701

       (8) Requirements relating to preparation of special diets;65702

       (9) The maximum number of residents ofwho may be served in a 65703
residential facility; establishing the65704

       (10) The rights of residents of residential facilities and 65705
procedures to protect such rights; and requiring65706

       (11) Procedures for obtaining an affiliation agreement 65707
approved by the board between a residential facility and a 65708
community mental health agency. Such affiliation agreement must be 65709
consistent with the residential portion of the community mental 65710
health plan submitted pursuant to section 340.03 of the Revised 65711
Code;65712

       (12) Standards and procedures under which the director may 65713
waive the requirements of any of the rules adopted.65714

       (H) The department may investigate any facility that has been 65715
reported to the department or that the department has reasonable 65716
cause to believe is operating as a residential facility without a 65717
valid license.65718

       (I)(M)(1) The department may withhold the source of any 65719
complaint reported as a violation of this actsection when the 65720
department determines that disclosure could be detrimental to the 65721
department's purposes or could jeopardize the investigation. The 65722
department may disclose the source of any complaint if the 65723
complainant agrees in writing to such disclosure and shall 65724
disclose the source upon order by a court of competent 65725
jurisdiction.65726

       (J)(2) Any person who makes a complaint under division (M)(1) 65727
of this section, or any person who participates in an 65728
administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from such a 65729
complaint, is immune from civil liability and is not subject to 65730
criminal prosecution, other than for perjury, unless the person 65731
has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.65732

       (N)(1) The director of mental health may petition the court 65733
of common pleas of the county in which a residential facility is 65734
located for an order enjoining any person from operating a 65735
residential facility without a license or from operating a 65736
licensed facility when, in the director's judgment, there is a 65737
real and present danger to the health or safety of any of the 65738
occupants of the facility. The court shall have jurisdiction to 65739
grant such injunctive relief upon a showing that the respondent 65740
named in the petition is operating a facility without a license or 65741
there is a real and present danger to the health or safety of any 65742
residents of the facility.65743

       (K) Whoever violates division (F) of this section or any rule 65744
adopted under this section is liable for a civil penalty of one 65745
hundred dollars for the first offense; for each subsequent 65746
offense, such violator is liable for a civil penalty of five 65747
hundred dollars. If the violator does not pay, the attorney 65748
general, upon the request of the director of mental health, shall 65749
bring a civil action to collect the penalty. Fines collected 65750
pursuant to this section shall be deposited into the state 65751
treasury to the credit of the mental health sale of goods and 65752
services fund.65753

       (2) When the court grants injunctive relief in the case of a 65754
facility operating without a license, the court shall issue, at a 65755
minimum, an order enjoining the facility from admitting new 65756
residents to the facility and an order requiring the facility to 65757
assist with the safe and orderly relocation of the facility's 65758
residents. 65759

       (3) If injunctive relief is granted against a facility for 65760
operating without a license and the facility continues to operate 65761
without a license, the director shall refer the case to the 65762
attorney general for further action.65763

       (O) The director may fine a person for violating division (I) 65764
of this section. The fine shall be five hundred dollars for a 65765
first offense; for each subsequent offense, the fine shall be one 65766
thousand dollars. The director's actions in imposing a fine shall 65767
be taken in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.65768

       Sec. 5119.61.  Any provision in this chapter that refers to a 65769
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services also 65770
refers to the community mental health board in an alcohol, drug 65771
addiction, and mental health service district that has a community 65772
mental health board.65773

       The director of mental health with respect to all facilities 65774
and programs established and operated under Chapter 340. of the 65775
Revised Code for mentally ill and emotionally disturbed persons, 65776
shall do all of the following:65777

       (A) Adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 65778
that may be necessary to carry out the purposes of Chapter 340. 65779
and sections 5119.61 to 5119.63 of the Revised Code.65780

       (1) The rules shall include all of the following:65781

       (a) Rules governing a community mental health agency's 65782
services under section 340.091 of the Revised Code to an 65783
individual referred to the agency under division (C)(D)(2) of 65784
section 5119.69 of the Revised Code;65785

       (b) For the purpose of division (A)(16) of section 340.03 of 65786
the Revised Code, rules governing the duties of mental health 65787
agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 65788
services under section 5119.88 of the Revised Code regarding 65789
referrals of individuals with mental illness or severe mental 65790
disability to adult careresidential facilities as defined in 65791
division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of the Revised Code and 65792
effective arrangements for ongoing mental health services for the 65793
individuals. The rules shall do at least the following:65794

       (i) Provide for agencies and boards to participate fully in 65795
the procedures owners and managers of adult care facilities must 65796
follow under division (A) of section 5119.88 of the Revised Code;65797

       (ii) Specify the manner in which boards are accountable for 65798
ensuring that ongoing mental health services are effectively 65799
arranged for individuals with mental illness or severe mental 65800
disability who are referred by the board or mental health agency 65801
under contract with the board to an adult care facility. 65802

       (c) Rules governing a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 65803
mental health services when making a report to the director of 65804
mental health under section 5119.87 of the Revised Code regarding 65805
the quality of care and services provided by an adult care 65806
facility to a person with mental illness or a severe mental 65807
disability.65808

       (2) Rules may be adopted to govern the method of paying a 65809
community mental health facility, as defined in section 5111.023 65810
of the Revised Code, for providing services listed in division (B) 65811
of that section. Such rules must be consistent with the contract 65812
entered into between the departments of job and family services 65813
and mental health under section 5111.91 of the Revised Code and 65814
include requirements ensuring appropriate service utilization.65815

       (B) Review and evaluate, and, taking into account the 65816
findings and recommendations of the board of alcohol, drug 65817
addiction, and mental health services of the district served by 65818
the program and the requirements and priorities of the state 65819
mental health plan, including the needs of residents of the 65820
district now residing in state mental institutions, and make 65821
recommendations for needed improvements to boards of alcohol, drug 65822
addiction, and mental health services;65823

       (C) Provide consultative services to community mental health 65824
agencies with the knowledge and cooperation of the board of 65825
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services;65826

        (D) At the director's discretion, provide to boards of 65827
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services state or 65828
federal funds, in addition to those allocated under section 65829
5119.62 of the Revised Code, for special programs or projects the 65830
director considers necessary but for which local funds are not 65831
available;65832

       (E) Establish criteria by which a board of alcohol, drug 65833
addiction, and mental health services reviews and evaluates the 65834
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided 65835
through its community mental health plan. The criteria shall 65836
include requirements ensuring appropriate service utilization. The 65837
department shall assess a board's evaluation of services and the 65838
compliance of each board with this section, Chapter 340. or 65839
section 5119.62 of the Revised Code, and other state or federal 65840
law and regulations. The department, in cooperation with the 65841
board, periodically shall review and evaluate the quality, 65842
effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided through each 65843
board. The department shall collect information that is necessary 65844
to perform these functions.65845

        (F) To the extent the director determines necessary and after 65846
consulting with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 65847
health services, develop and operate, or contract for the 65848
operation of, a community mental health information system or 65849
systems.65850

       Boards of alcohol, drug abuseaddiction, and mental health 65851
services shall submit information requested by the department in 65852
the form and manner prescribed by the department. Information 65853
collected by the department shall include, but not be limited to, 65854
all of the following:65855

       (1) Information regarding units of services provided in whole 65856
or in part under contract with a board, including diagnosis and 65857
special needs, demographic information, the number of units of 65858
service provided, past treatment, financial status, and service 65859
dates in accordance with rules adopted by the department in 65860
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;65861

       (2) Financial information other than price or price-related 65862
data regarding expenditures of boards and community mental health 65863
agencies, including units of service provided, budgeted and actual 65864
expenses by type, and sources of funds.65865

       Boards shall submit the information specified in division 65866
(F)(1) of this section no less frequently than annually for each 65867
client, and each time the client's case is opened or closed. The 65868
department shall not collect any personal information from the 65869
boards except as required or permitted by state or federal law for 65870
purposes related to payment, health care operations, program and 65871
service evaluation, reporting activities, research, system 65872
administration, and oversight.65873

       (G) Review each board's community mental health plan 65874
submitted pursuant to section 340.03 of the Revised Code and 65875
approve or disapprove it in whole or in part. Periodically, in 65876
consultation with representatives of boards and after considering 65877
the recommendations of the medical director, the director shall 65878
issue criteria for determining when a plan is complete, criteria 65879
for plan approval or disapproval, and provisions for conditional 65880
approval. The factors that the director considers may include, but 65881
are not limited to, the following:65882

       (1) The mental health needs of all persons residing within 65883
the board's service district, especially severely mentally 65884
disabled children, adolescents, and adults;65885

       (2) The demonstrated quality, effectiveness, efficiency, and 65886
cultural relevance of the services provided in each service 65887
district, the extent to which any services are duplicative of 65888
other available services, and whether the services meet the needs 65889
identified above;65890

       (3) The adequacy of the board's accounting for the 65891
expenditure of funds.65892

       If the director disapproves all or part of any plan, the 65893
director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its 65894
position. The director shall inform the board of the reasons for 65895
the disapproval and of the criteria that must be met before the 65896
plan may be approved. The director shall give the board a 65897
reasonable time within which to meet the criteria, and shall offer 65898
technical assistance to the board to help it meet the criteria.65899

       If the approval of a plan remains in dispute, the board or 65900
the director may request that the dispute be submitted to a 65901
mutually agreed upon third-party mediator with the cost to be 65902
shared by the board and the department. The mediator shall issue 65903
to the board and the department recommendations for resolution of 65904
the dispute. The director, taking into consideration the 65905
recommendations of the mediator, shall make a final determination 65906
and approve or disapprove the plan, in whole or in part.65907

       Sec. 5119.69.  (A) As used in this section and section 65908
5119.691 of the Revised Code:65909

       (1) "Long-term care consultation program" means the program 65910
the department of aging is required to develop under section 65911
173.42 of the Revised Code.65912

       (2) "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 65913
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 65914
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 65915
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 65916
particular area, that agency or entity.65917

       (3) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 65918
5111.20 of the Revised Code.65919

       (4) "Residential state supplement administrative agency" 65920
means the department of mental health or, if the department 65921
designates an entity under division (C) of this section for a 65922
particular area, the designated entity.65923

       (5) "Residential state supplement program" means the program 65924
administered pursuant to this section.65925

       (B) The department of mental health shall implement the 65926
residential state supplement program under which the state 65927
supplements the supplemental security income payments received by 65928
aged, blind, or disabled adults under Title XVI of the "Social 65929
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A., as amended. 65930
Residential state supplement payments shall be used for the 65931
provision of accommodations, supervision, and personal care 65932
services to supplemental security income recipients who the 65933
department determines are at risk of needing institutional care.65934

       (B)(C) In implementing the program, the department may 65935
designate one or more entities to be responsible for providing 65936
administrative services regarding the program. The department may 65937
designate an entity to be a residential state supplement 65938
administrative agency under this division either by entering into 65939
a contract with the entity to serve in that capacity or by 65940
otherwise delegating to the entity the responsibility to serve in 65941
that capacity.65942

       (C)(D) For an individual to be eligible for residential state 65943
supplement payments, all of the following must be the case:65944

       (1) Except as provided by division (G)(H) of this section, 65945
the individual must reside in one of the following:65946

       (a) An adult foster home certified under section 5119.692 of 65947
the Revised Code;65948

       (b) A home or facility, other than a nursing home or nursing 65949
home unit of a home for the aging, licensed by the department of 65950
health under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or the department 65951
of mental health under sections 5119.70 to 5119.88 of the Revised 65952
Code;65953

       (c)(b) A residential facility as defined in division 65954
(A)(1)(d)(ii)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of the Revised Code 65955
licensed by the department of mental health;65956

       (d)(c) An apartment or room used to provide community mental 65957
health housing services certified by the department of mental 65958
health under section 5119.611 of the Revised Code and approved by 65959
a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 65960
under division (A)(14) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code.65961

       (2) A residential state supplement administrative agency must 65962
have determined that the environment in which the individual will 65963
be living while receiving the payments is appropriate for the 65964
individual's needs. If the individual is eligible for supplemental 65965
security income payments or social security disability insurance 65966
benefits because of a mental disability, the residential state 65967
supplement administrative agency shall refer the individual to a 65968
community mental health agency for the community mental health 65969
agency to issue in accordance withan assessment under division 65970
(A) of section 340.091 of the Revised Code a recommendation on 65971
whether the residential state supplement administrative agency 65972
should determine that the environment in which the individual will 65973
be living while receiving the payments is appropriate for the 65974
individual's needs. 65975

       (3) The individual satisfies all eligibility requirements 65976
established by rules adopted under division (D)(E) of this 65977
section.65978

       (D)(E) The directors of mental health and job and family 65979
services shall adopt rules in accordance with section 111.15 of 65980
the Revised Code as necessary to implement the residential state 65981
supplement program.65982

       To the extent permitted by Title XVI of the "Social Security 65983
Act," and any other provision of federal law, the director of job 65984
and family services may adopt rules establishing standards for 65985
adjusting the eligibility requirements concerning the level of 65986
impairment a person must have so that the amount appropriated for 65987
the program by the general assembly is adequate for the number of 65988
eligible individuals. The rules shall not limit the eligibility of 65989
disabled persons solely on a basis classifying disabilities as 65990
physical or mental. The director of job and family services also 65991
may adopt rules that establish eligibility standards for aged, 65992
blind, or disabled individuals who reside in one of the homes or 65993
facilities specified in division (C)(D)(1) of this section but 65994
who, because of their income, do not receive supplemental security 65995
income payments. The rules may provide that these individuals may 65996
include individuals who receive other types of benefits, 65997
including, social security disability insurance benefits provided 65998
under Title II of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 65999
42 U.S.C.A. 401, as amended. Notwithstanding division (A)(B) of 66000
this section, such payments may be made if funds are available for 66001
them.66002

       The director of mental health may adopt rules establishing 66003
the method to be used to determine the amount an eligible 66004
individual will receive under the program. The amount the general 66005
assembly appropriates for the program may be a factor included in 66006
the method that director establishes. 66007

       (E)(F) The county department of job and family services of 66008
the county in which an applicant for the residential state 66009
supplement program resides shall determine whether the applicant 66010
meets income and resource requirements for the program.66011

       (F)(G) The department of mental health shall maintain a 66012
waiting list of any individuals eligible for payments under this 66013
section but not receiving them because moneys appropriated to the 66014
department for the purposes of this section are insufficient to 66015
make payments to all eligible individuals. An individual may apply 66016
to be placed on the waiting list even though the individual does 66017
not reside in one of the homes or facilities specified in division 66018
(C)(D)(1) of this section at the time of application. The director 66019
of mental health, by rules adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. 66020
of the Revised Code, may specify procedures and requirements for 66021
placing an individual on the waiting list and priorities for the 66022
order in which individuals placed on the waiting list are to begin 66023
to receive residential state supplement payments. The rules 66024
specifying priorities may give priority to individuals placed on 66025
the waiting list on or after July 1, 2006, who receive 66026
supplemental security income benefits under Title XVI of the 66027
"Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C. 1381, as 66028
amended. The rules shall not affect the place on the waiting list 66029
of any person who was on the list on July 1, 2006. The rules 66030
specifying priorities may also set additional priorities based on 66031
living arrangement, such as whether an individual resides in a 66032
facility listed in division (C)(D)(1) of this section or has been 66033
admitted to a nursing facility.66034

       (G)(H) An individual in a licensed or certified living 66035
arrangement receiving state supplementation on November 15, 1990, 66036
under former section 5101.531 of the Revised Code shall not become 66037
ineligible for payments under this section solely by reason of the 66038
individual's living arrangement as long as the individual remains 66039
in the living arrangement in which the individual resided on 66040
November 15, 1990.66041

       (H)(I) The department of mental health shall notify each 66042
person denied approval for payments under this section of the 66043
person's right to a hearing. On request, the hearing shall be 66044
provided in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.66045

       Sec. 5119.691. (A) As used in this section:66046

       "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 66047
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 66048
the Revised Code.66049

       "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 66050
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 66051
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 66052
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 66053
particular area, that agency or entity.66054

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 66055
of the Revised Code.66056

       "Residential state supplement administrative agency" means an 66057
entity designated as such by the department of mental health under 66058
section 5119.69 of the Revised Code.66059

       "Residential state supplement program" means the program 66060
administered pursuant to section 5119.69 of the Revised Code.66061

       (B) On a periodic schedule determined by the department of 66062
mental health, each residential state supplement administrative 66063
agency shall determine whether individuals who reside in the area 66064
that the agency serves and are on a waiting list for the 66065
residential state supplement program have been admitted to a 66066
nursing facility. If a residential state supplement administrative 66067
agency determines that such an individual has been admitted to a 66068
nursing facility, the agency shall notify the long-term care 66069
consultation program administrator serving the area in which the 66070
individual resides about the determination. The administrator 66071
shall determine whether the residential state supplement program 66072
is appropriate for the individual and whether the individual would 66073
rather participate in the program than continue residing in the 66074
nursing facility. If the administrator determines that the 66075
residential state supplement program is appropriate for the 66076
individual and the individual would rather participate in the 66077
program than continue residing in the nursing facility, the 66078
administrator shall so notify the department of mental health. On 66079
receipt of the notice from the administrator, the department of 66080
mental health shall approve the individual's enrollment in the 66081
residential state supplement program in accordance with the 66082
priorities specified in rules adopted under division (F)(G) of 66083
section 5119.69 of the Revised Code. Each quarter, the department 66084
of mental health shall certify to the director of budget and 66085
management the estimated increase in costs of the residential 66086
state supplement program resulting from enrollment of individuals 66087
in the program pursuant to this section.66088

       Sec. 5119.99. (A) Whoever violates section 5119.21 of the 66089
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.66090

       (B) Whoever violates division (A)(1) of section 5119.86 of 66091
the Revised Code shall be fined two thousand dollars for a first 66092
offense; for each subsequent offense, such person shall be fined 66093
five thousand dollars.66094

       (C) Whoever violates division (C) of section 5119.81 or 66095
division (A)(2), (3), (4), (5), or (6), (B), (C), (D), (E), or (F) 66096
of section 5119.86 of the Revised Code shall be fined five hundred 66097
dollars for a first offense; for each subsequent offense, such 66098
person shall be fined one thousand dollars.66099

       Sec. 5120.036.  (A) The department of rehabilitation and 66100
correction shall provide risk reduction programming and treatment 66101
for inmates whom a court under section 2929.143 of the Revised 66102
Code recommends serve a risk reduction sentence and who meet the 66103
eligibility criteria described in division (B) of this section.66104

       (B) If an offender is sentenced to a term of imprisonment in 66105
a state correctional institution and the sentencing court 66106
recommended that the offender serve a risk reduction sentence, the 66107
department of rehabilitation and correction shall conduct a 66108
validated and objective assessment of the person's needs and risk 66109
of reoffending. If the offender cooperates with the risk 66110
assessment and agrees to participate in any programming or 66111
treatment ordered by the department, the department shall provide 66112
programming and treatment to the offender to address the risks and 66113
needs identified in the assessment.66114

       (C) If the department determines that an offender serving a 66115
term of incarceration for whom the sentencing court recommended a 66116
risk reduction sentence under section 2929.143 of the Revised Code 66117
has successfully completed the assessment and treatment or 66118
programming required by the department under division (B) of this 66119
section, the department shall release the offender to supervised 66120
releasepost-release control under one or more post-release 66121
control sanctions after the offender has served each mandatory 66122
prison term to which the offender was sentenced, if any, and a 66123
minimum of eighty per cent of the aggregated nonmandatory prison 66124
terms to which the offender was sentenced. The placement under 66125
post-release control sanctions shall be under terms set by the 66126
parole board in accordance with section 2967.28 of the Revised 66127
Code and shall be subject to the provisions of that section and 66128
sections 2929.141 and 2967.15 of the Revised Code regarding 66129
violation of post-release control sanctions. No mandatory prison 66130
term shall be reduced by, or as a result of, an offender's service 66131
of a risk reduction sentence. The department shall notify the 66132
sentencing court that the offender has successfully completed the 66133
terms of the risk reduction sentence at least thirty days prior to 66134
the date upon which the offender is to be released. 66135

       (D) As used in this section:66136

        (1) "Mandatory prison term" has the same meaning as in 66137
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.66138

        (2) "Nonmandatory prison term" means a prison term that is 66139
not a mandatory prison term.66140

       (3) "Post-release control" and "post-release control 66141
sanction" have the same meanings as in section 2967.01 of the 66142
Revised Code.66143

       Sec. 5120.105.  (A) The department of administrative services66144
Ohio facilities construction commission shall provide for the 66145
construction of a halfway house facility in conformity with 66146
Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, except that construction 66147
services may be provided by the department of rehabilitation and 66148
correction.66149

       (B) The director of rehabilitation and correction may enter 66150
into an agreement with a halfway house organization for the 66151
management of a halfway house facility. The halfway house 66152
organization that occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the 66153
management of a halfway house facility shall pay the costs of 66154
management of and general building services for the halfway house 66155
facility as provided in an agreement between the department of 66156
rehabilitation and correction and the halfway house organization.66157

       (C) No state funds, including state bond proceeds, shall be 66158
spent on the construction of a halfway house facility under 66159
sections 5120.102 to 5120.105 of the Revised Code, unless the 66160
general assembly has specifically authorized the spending of money 66161
on, or has made an appropriation to the department of 66162
rehabilitation and correction for, the construction of the halfway 66163
house facility or rental payments relating to the financing of the 66164
construction of that facility. An authorization to spend money or 66165
an appropriation for planning a halfway house facility does not 66166
constitute an authorization to spend money on, or an appropriation 66167
for, the construction of that facility. Capital funds for the 66168
construction of halfway house facilities under sections 5120.102 66169
to 5120.105 of the Revised Code shall be paid from the adult 66170
correctional building fund created in division (F) of section 66171
154.24 of the Revised Code.66172

       Sec. 5120.132.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 66173
treasury the prisoner programs fund. The director of 66174
rehabilitation and correction shall deposit in the fund all moneys 66175
received by the department from commissions on telephone systems 66176
established for the use of prisonersand services provided to 66177
prisoners in relation to electronic mail, prisoner trust fund 66178
deposits, and the purchase of music, digital music players, and 66179
other electronic devices. The money in the fund shall be used only 66180
to pay for the costs of the following:66181

       (1) The purchase of material, supplies, and equipment used in 66182
any library program, educational program, religious program, 66183
recreational program, or pre-release program operated by the 66184
department for the benefit of prisoners;66185

       (2) The construction, alteration, repair, or reconstruction 66186
of buildings and structures owned by the department for use in any 66187
library program, educational program, religious program, 66188
recreational program, or pre-release program operated by the 66189
department for the benefit of prisoners;66190

       (3) The payment of salary, wages, and other compensation to 66191
employees of the department who are employed in any library 66192
program, educational program, religious program, recreational 66193
program, or pre-release program operated by the department for the 66194
benefit of prisoners;66195

       (4) The compensation to vendors that contract with the 66196
department for the provision of services for the benefit of 66197
prisoners in any library program, educational program, religious 66198
program, recreational program, or pre-release program operated by 66199
the department;66200

       (5) The payment of prisoner release payments in an 66201
appropriate amount as determined pursuant to rule;66202

       (6) The purchase of other goods and the payment of other 66203
services that are determined, in the discretion of the director, 66204
to be goods and services that may provide additional benefit to 66205
prisoners.66206

       (B) The director shall establish rules for the operation of 66207
the prisoner programs fund.66208

       Sec. 5120.66.  (A) Within ninety days after November 23, 66209
2005, but not before January 1, 2006, the department of 66210
rehabilitation and correction shall establish and operate on the 66211
internet a database that contains all of the following:66212

       (1) For each inmate in the custody of the department under a 66213
sentence imposed for a conviction of or plea of guilty to any 66214
offense, all of the following information:66215

       (a) The inmate's name;66216

       (b) For each offense for which the inmate was sentenced to a 66217
prison term or term of imprisonment and is in the department's 66218
custody, the name of the offense, the Revised Code section of 66219
which the offense is a violation, the gender of each victim of the 66220
offense if those facts are known, whether each victim of the 66221
offense was an adult or child if those facts are known, the range 66222
of the possible prison terms or term of imprisonment that could 66223
have been imposed for the offense, the actual prison term or term 66224
of imprisonment imposed for the offense, the county in which the 66225
offense was committed, the date on which the inmate began serving 66226
the prison term or term of imprisonment imposed for the offense, 66227
and either the date on which the inmate will be eligible for 66228
parole relative to the offense if the prison term or term of 66229
imprisonment is an indefinite term or life term or the date on 66230
which the term ends if the prison term is a definite term;66231

       (c) All of the following information that is applicable 66232
regarding the inmate:66233

       (i) If known to the department prior to the conduct of any 66234
hearing for judicial release of the defendant pursuant to section 66235
2929.20 of the Revised Code in relation to any prison term or term 66236
of imprisonment the inmate is serving for any offense or any 66237
hearing for release of the defendant pursuant to section 2967.19 66238
of the Revised Code in relation to any such term, notice of the 66239
fact that the inmate will be having a hearing regarding a possible 66240
grant of judicial release or release, the date of the hearing, and 66241
the right of any person pursuant to division (J) of section 66242
2929.20 or division (H) of section 2967.19 of the Revised Code, 66243
whichever is applicable, to submit to the court a written 66244
statement regarding the possible judicial release or release. The 66245
department also shall post notice of the filingsubmission to a 66246
sentencing court of any petitionrecommendation for early release 66247
of the inmate pursuant to section 2967.19 of the Revised Code, as 66248
required by division (E) of that section.66249

       (ii) If the inmate is serving a prison term pursuant to 66250
division (A)(3), (B)(1)(a), (b), or (c), (B)(2)(a), (b), or (c), 66251
or (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of section 2971.03 of the Revised 66252
Code, prior to the conduct of any hearing pursuant to section 66253
2971.05 of the Revised Code to determine whether to modify the 66254
requirement that the inmate serve the entire prison term in a 66255
state correctional facility in accordance with division (C) of 66256
that section, whether to continue, revise, or revoke any existing 66257
modification of that requirement, or whether to terminate the 66258
prison term in accordance with division (D) of that section, 66259
notice of the fact that the inmate will be having a hearing 66260
regarding those determinations and of the date of the hearing;66261

       (iii) At least three weeks before the adult parole authority 66262
recommends a pardon or commutation of sentence for the inmate or 66263
at least three weeks prior to a hearing before the adult parole 66264
authority regarding a grant of parole to the inmate in relation to 66265
any prison term or term of imprisonment the inmate is serving for 66266
any offense, notice of the fact that the inmate might be under 66267
consideration for a pardon or commutation of sentence or will be 66268
having a hearing regarding a possible grant of parole, of the date 66269
of any hearing regarding a possible grant of parole, and of the 66270
right of any person to submit a written statement regarding the 66271
pending action;66272

       (iv) At least three weeks before the inmate is transferred to 66273
transitional control under section 2967.26 of the Revised Code in 66274
relation to any prison term or term of imprisonment the inmate is 66275
serving for any offense, notice of the pendency of the transfer, 66276
of the date of the possible transfer, and of the right of any 66277
person to submit a statement regarding the possible transfer;66278

       (v) Prompt notice of the inmate's escape from any facility in 66279
which the inmate was incarcerated and of the capture of the inmate 66280
after an escape;66281

       (vi) Notice of the inmate's death while in confinement;66282

       (vii) Prior to the release of the inmate from confinement, 66283
notice of the fact that the inmate will be released, of the date 66284
of the release, and, if applicable, of the standard terms and 66285
conditions of the release;66286

       (viii) Notice of the inmate's judicial release pursuant to 66287
section 2929.20 of the Revised Code or release pursuant to section 66288
2967.19 of the Revised Code.66289

       (2) Information as to where a person can send written 66290
statements of the types referred to in divisions (A)(1)(c)(i), 66291
(iii), and (iv) of this section.66292

       (B)(1) The department shall update the database required 66293
under division (A) of this section every twenty-four hours to 66294
ensure that the information it contains is accurate and current.66295

       (2) The database required under division (A) of this section 66296
is a public record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the 66297
Revised Code. The department shall make the database searchable by 66298
inmate name and by the county and zip code where the offender 66299
intends to reside after release from a state correctional 66300
institution if this information is known to the department.66301

       (3) The database required under division (A) of this section 66302
may contain information regarding inmates who are listed in the 66303
database in addition to the information described in that 66304
division.66305

       (4) No information included on the database required under 66306
division (A) of this section shall identify or enable the 66307
identification of any victim of any offense committed by an 66308
inmate.66309

       (C) The failure of the department to comply with the 66310
requirements of division (A) or (B) of this section does not give 66311
any rights or any grounds for appeal or post-conviction relief to 66312
any inmate.66313

       (D) This section, and the related provisions of sections 66314
2929.20, 2967.03, 2967.12, and 2967.26 of the Revised Code enacted 66315
in the act in which this section was enacted, shall be known as 66316
"Laura's Law."66317

       Sec. 5122.31.  (A) All certificates, applications, records, 66318
and reports made for the purpose of this chapter and sections 66319
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised 66320
Code, other than court journal entries or court docket entries, 66321
and directly or indirectly identifying a patient or former patient 66322
or person whose hospitalization has been sought under this 66323
chapter, shall be kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by 66324
any person except:66325

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 66326
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 66327
guardian, consents, and if the disclosure is in the best interests 66328
of the person, as may be determined by the court for judicial 66329
records and by the chief clinical officer for medical records;66330

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in this chapter or 66331
section 5123.60 of the Revised Code;66332

       (3) That hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 66333
mental health services, and community mental health agencies may 66334
release necessary medical information to insurers and other 66335
third-party payers, including government entities responsible for 66336
processing and authorizing payment, to obtain payment for goods 66337
and services furnished to the patient;66338

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge;66339

       (5) That a patient shall be granted access to the patient's 66340
own psychiatric and medical records, unless access specifically is 66341
restricted in a patient's treatment plan for clear treatment 66342
reasons;66343

       (6) That hospitals and other institutions and facilities 66344
within the department of mental health may exchange psychiatric 66345
records and other pertinent information with other hospitals, 66346
institutions, and facilities of the department, and with community 66347
mental health agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 66348
mental health services with which the department has a current 66349
agreement for patient care or services. Records and information 66350
that may be released pursuant to this division shall be limited to 66351
medication history, physical health status and history, financial 66352
status, summary of course of treatment in the hospital, summary of 66353
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.66354

       (7) That hospitals within the department, other institutions 66355
and facilities within the department, hospitals licensed by the 66356
department under section 5119.20 of the Revised Code, and 66357
community mental health agencies may exchange psychiatric records 66358
and other pertinent information with payers and other providers of 66359
treatment and health services if the purpose of the exchange is to 66360
facilitate continuity of care for a patient;66361

       (8) That a patient's family member who is involved in the 66362
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the patient may 66363
receive medication information, a summary of the patient's 66364
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 66365
available to assist the patient and the patient's family, if the 66366
patient's treating physician determines that the disclosure would 66367
be in the best interests of the patient. No such disclosure shall 66368
be made unless the patient is notified first and receives the 66369
information and does not object to the disclosure.66370

       (9) That community mental health agencies may exchange 66371
psychiatric records and certain other information with the board 66372
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and other 66373
agencies in order to provide services to a person involuntarily 66374
committed to a board. Release of records under this division shall 66375
be limited to medication history, physical health status and 66376
history, financial status, summary of course of treatment, summary 66377
of treatment needs, and discharge summary, if any.66378

       (10) That information may be disclosed to the executor or the 66379
administrator of an estate of a deceased patient when the 66380
information is necessary to administer the estate;66381

       (11) That records in the possession of the Ohio historical 66382
society may be released to the closest living relative of a 66383
deceased patient upon request of that relative;66384

       (12) That information may be disclosed to staff members of 66385
the appropriate board or to staff members designated by the 66386
director of mental health for the purpose of evaluating the 66387
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services and determining 66388
if the services meet minimum standards. Information obtained 66389
during such evaluations shall not be retained with the name of any 66390
patient.66391

       (13) That records pertaining to the patient's diagnosis, 66392
course of treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be 66393
disclosed and released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if 66394
the patient was committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 66395
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the 66396
attorney designated by the board for proceedings pursuant to 66397
involuntary commitment under this chapter.66398

       (14) That the department of mental health may exchange 66399
psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental health treatment 66400
records, and other pertinent information with the department of 66401
rehabilitation and correction to ensure continuity of care for 66402
inmates who are receiving mental health services in an institution 66403
of the department of rehabilitation and correction and may 66404
exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental health 66405
treatment records, and other pertinent information with boards of 66406
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and community 66407
mental health agencies to ensure continuity of care for inmates or 66408
offenders who are receiving mental health services in an 66409
institution and are scheduled for release within six months. The 66410
department shall not disclose those records unless the inmate is 66411
notified, receives the information, and does not object to the 66412
disclosure. The release of records under this division is limited 66413
to records regarding an inmate's or offender's medication history, 66414
physical health status and history, summary of course of 66415
treatment, summary of treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if 66416
any.66417

       (15) That a community mental health agency that ceases to 66418
operate may transfer to either a community mental health agency 66419
that assumes its caseload or to the board of alcohol, drug 66420
addiction, and mental health services of the service district in 66421
which the patient resided at the time services were most recently 66422
provided any treatment records that have not been transferred 66423
elsewhere at the patient's request.66424

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 66425
(A)(3), (6), (7), and (9) of this section, the custodian of the 66426
records shall attempt to obtain the patient's consent for the 66427
disclosure. No person shall reveal the contents of a medical 66428
record of a patient except as authorized by law.66429

       (C) The managing officer of a hospital who releases necessary 66430
medical information under division (A)(3) of this section to allow 66431
an insurance carrier or other third party payor to comply with 66432
section 5121.43 of the Revised Code shall neither be subject to 66433
criminal nor civil liability.66434

       Sec. 5123.01.  As used in this chapter:66435

       (A) "Chief medical officer" means the licensed physician 66436
appointed by the managing officer of an institution for the 66437
mentally retarded with the approval of the director of 66438
developmental disabilities to provide medical treatment for 66439
residents of the institution.66440

       (B) "Chief program director" means a person with special 66441
training and experience in the diagnosis and management of the 66442
mentally retarded, certified according to division (C) of this 66443
section in at least one of the designated fields, and appointed by 66444
the managing officer of an institution for the mentally retarded 66445
with the approval of the director to provide habilitation and care 66446
for residents of the institution.66447

       (C) "Comprehensive evaluation" means a study, including a 66448
sequence of observations and examinations, of a person leading to 66449
conclusions and recommendations formulated jointly, with 66450
dissenting opinions if any, by a group of persons with special 66451
training and experience in the diagnosis and management of persons 66452
with mental retardation or a developmental disability, which group 66453
shall include individuals who are professionally qualified in the 66454
fields of medicine, psychology, and social work, together with 66455
such other specialists as the individual case may require.66456

       (D) "Education" means the process of formal training and 66457
instruction to facilitate the intellectual and emotional 66458
development of residents.66459

       (E) "Habilitation" means the process by which the staff of 66460
the institution assists the resident in acquiring and maintaining 66461
those life skills that enable the resident to cope more 66462
effectively with the demands of the resident's own person and of 66463
the resident's environment and in raising the level of the 66464
resident's physical, mental, social, and vocational efficiency. 66465
Habilitation includes but is not limited to programs of formal, 66466
structured education and training.66467

       (F) "Health officer" means any public health physician, 66468
public health nurse, or other person authorized or designated by a 66469
city or general health district.66470

       (G) "Home and community-based services" means medicaid-funded 66471
home and community-based services specified in division (B)(1) of 66472
section 5111.87 of the Revised Code provided under the medicaid 66473
waiver components the department of developmental disabilities 66474
administers pursuant to section 5111.871 of the Revised Code. 66475
HoweverExcept as provided in section 5123.0412 of the Revised 66476
Code, home and community-based services provided under the 66477
medicaid waiver component known as the transitions developmental 66478
disabilities waiver are to be considered to be home and 66479
community-based services for the purposes of this chapter only to 66480
the extent, if any, provided by the contract required by section 66481
5111.871 of the Revised Code regarding the waiver.66482

       (H) "Indigent person" means a person who is unable, without 66483
substantial financial hardship, to provide for the payment of an 66484
attorney and for other necessary expenses of legal representation, 66485
including expert testimony.66486

       (I) "Institution" means a public or private facility, or a 66487
part of a public or private facility, that is licensed by the 66488
appropriate state department and is equipped to provide 66489
residential habilitation, care, and treatment for the mentally 66490
retarded.66491

       (J) "Licensed physician" means a person who holds a valid 66492
certificate issued under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code 66493
authorizing the person to practice medicine and surgery or 66494
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or a medical officer of the 66495
government of the United States while in the performance of the 66496
officer's official duties.66497

       (K) "Managing officer" means a person who is appointed by the 66498
director of developmental disabilities to be in executive control 66499
of an institution for the mentally retarded under the jurisdiction 66500
of the department.66501

       (L) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 66502
the Revised Code.66503

       (M) "Medicaid case management services" means case management 66504
services provided to an individual with mental retardation or 66505
other developmental disability that the state medicaid plan 66506
requires.66507

       (N) "Mentally retarded person" means a person having 66508
significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning existing 66509
concurrently with deficiencies in adaptive behavior, manifested 66510
during the developmental period.66511

       (O) "Mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization 66512
by court order" means a person eighteen years of age or older who 66513
is at least moderately mentally retarded and in relation to whom, 66514
because of the person's retardation, either of the following 66515
conditions exist:66516

       (1) The person represents a very substantial risk of physical 66517
impairment or injury to self as manifested by evidence that the 66518
person is unable to provide for and is not providing for the 66519
person's most basic physical needs and that provision for those 66520
needs is not available in the community;66521

       (2) The person needs and is susceptible to significant 66522
habilitation in an institution.66523

       (P) "A person who is at least moderately mentally retarded" 66524
means a person who is found, following a comprehensive evaluation, 66525
to be impaired in adaptive behavior to a moderate degree and to be 66526
functioning at the moderate level of intellectual functioning in 66527
accordance with standard measurements as recorded in the most 66528
current revision of the manual of terminology and classification 66529
in mental retardation published by the American association on 66530
mental retardation.66531

       (Q) As used in this division, "substantial functional 66532
limitation," "developmental delay," and "established risk" have 66533
the meanings established pursuant to section 5123.011 of the 66534
Revised Code.66535

       "Developmental disability" means a severe, chronic disability 66536
that is characterized by all of the following:66537

       (1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or 66538
a combination of mental and physical impairments, other than a 66539
mental or physical impairment solely caused by mental illness as 66540
defined in division (A) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.66541

       (2) It is manifested before age twenty-two.66542

       (3) It is likely to continue indefinitely.66543

       (4) It results in one of the following:66544

       (a) In the case of a person under three years of age, at 66545
least one developmental delay or an established risk;66546

       (b) In the case of a person at least three years of age but 66547
under six years of age, at least two developmental delays or an 66548
established risk;66549

       (c) In the case of a person six years of age or older, a 66550
substantial functional limitation in at least three of the 66551
following areas of major life activity, as appropriate for the 66552
person's age: self-care, receptive and expressive language, 66553
learning, mobility, self-direction, capacity for independent 66554
living, and, if the person is at least sixteen years of age, 66555
capacity for economic self-sufficiency.66556

       (5) It causes the person to need a combination and sequence 66557
of special, interdisciplinary, or other type of care, treatment, 66558
or provision of services for an extended period of time that is 66559
individually planned and coordinated for the person.66560

       (R) "Developmentally disabled person" means a person with a 66561
developmental disability.66562

       (S) "State institution" means an institution that is 66563
tax-supported and under the jurisdiction of the department.66564

       (T) "Residence" and "legal residence" have the same meaning 66565
as "legal settlement," which is acquired by residing in Ohio for a 66566
period of one year without receiving general assistance prior to 66567
July 17, 1995, under former Chapter 5113. of the Revised Code, 66568
financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code, or 66569
assistance from a private agency that maintains records of 66570
assistance given. A person having a legal settlement in the state 66571
shall be considered as having legal settlement in the assistance 66572
area in which the person resides. No adult person coming into this 66573
state and having a spouse or minor children residing in another 66574
state shall obtain a legal settlement in this state as long as the 66575
spouse or minor children are receiving public assistance, care, or 66576
support at the expense of the other state or its subdivisions. For 66577
the purpose of determining the legal settlement of a person who is 66578
living in a public or private institution or in a home subject to 66579
licensing by the department of job and family services, the 66580
department of mental health, or the department of developmental 66581
disabilities, the residence of the person shall be considered as 66582
though the person were residing in the county in which the person 66583
was living prior to the person's entrance into the institution or 66584
home. Settlement once acquired shall continue until a person has 66585
been continuously absent from Ohio for a period of one year or has 66586
acquired a legal residence in another state. A woman who marries a 66587
man with legal settlement in any county immediately acquires the 66588
settlement of her husband. The legal settlement of a minor is that 66589
of the parents, surviving parent, sole parent, parent who is 66590
designated the residential parent and legal custodian by a court, 66591
other adult having permanent custody awarded by a court, or 66592
guardian of the person of the minor, provided that:66593

       (1) A minor female who marries shall be considered to have 66594
the legal settlement of her husband and, in the case of death of 66595
her husband or divorce, she shall not thereby lose her legal 66596
settlement obtained by the marriage.66597

       (2) A minor male who marries, establishes a home, and who has 66598
resided in this state for one year without receiving general 66599
assistance prior to July 17, 1995, under former Chapter 5113. of 66600
the Revised Code, financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the 66601
Revised Code, or assistance from a private agency that maintains 66602
records of assistance given shall be considered to have obtained a 66603
legal settlement in this state.66604

       (3) The legal settlement of a child under eighteen years of 66605
age who is in the care or custody of a public or private child 66606
caring agency shall not change if the legal settlement of the 66607
parent changes until after the child has been in the home of the 66608
parent for a period of one year.66609

       No person, adult or minor, may establish a legal settlement 66610
in this state for the purpose of gaining admission to any state 66611
institution.66612

       (U)(1) "Resident" means, subject to division (R)(2) of this 66613
section, a person who is admitted either voluntarily or 66614
involuntarily to an institution or other facility pursuant to 66615
section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 66616
Code subsequent to a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity 66617
or incompetence to stand trial or under this chapter who is under 66618
observation or receiving habilitation and care in an institution.66619

       (2) "Resident" does not include a person admitted to an 66620
institution or other facility under section 2945.39, 2945.40, 66621
2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code to the extent that the 66622
reference in this chapter to resident, or the context in which the 66623
reference occurs, is in conflict with any provision of sections 66624
2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code.66625

       (V) "Respondent" means the person whose detention, 66626
commitment, or continued commitment is being sought in any 66627
proceeding under this chapter.66628

       (W) "Working day" and "court day" mean Monday, Tuesday, 66629
Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday, except when such day is a legal 66630
holiday.66631

       (X) "Prosecutor" means the prosecuting attorney, village 66632
solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer 66633
who prosecuted a criminal case in which a person was found not 66634
guilty by reason of insanity, who would have had the authority to 66635
prosecute a criminal case against a person if the person had not 66636
been found incompetent to stand trial, or who prosecuted a case in 66637
which a person was found guilty.66638

       (Y) "Court" means the probate division of the court of common 66639
pleas.66640

       (Z) "Supported living" and "residential services" have the 66641
same meanings as in section 5126.01 of the Revised Code.66642

       Sec. 5123.033. The program fee fund is hereby created in the 66643
state treasury. All fees collected pursuant to sections 5123.161, 66644
5123.164, and 5123.19, and 5126.25 of the Revised Code shall be 66645
credited to the fund. Money credited to the fund shall be used 66646
solely for the department of developmental disabilities' duties 66647
under sections 5123.16 to 5123.1695123.1610, and 5123.19, and 66648
5126.25 of the Revised Code and to provide continuing education 66649
and professional training to employees of county boards of 66650
developmental disabilities for the purpose of section 5126.25 of 66651
the Revised Code and other providers of services to individuals 66652
with mental retardation or a developmental disability. If the 66653
money credited to the fund is inadequate to pay all of the 66654
department's costs in performing those duties and providing the 66655
continuing education and professional training, the department may 66656
use other available funds appropriated to the department to pay 66657
the remaining costs of performing those duties and providing the 66658
continuing education and professional training.66659

       Sec. 5123.042. (A) TheExcept as provided in section 66660
5123.197 of the Revised Code, each person or government entity 66661
seeking to develop new or modify existing residential services 66662
shall submit to the department of developmental disabilities a 66663
plan for the development or modification. The department shall 66664
approve a plan that is submitted in accordance with rules adopted 66665
under this section and meets the uniform standards for plans 66666
established in those rules.66667

        The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt rules 66668
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 66669
the following:66670

       (1)(A) Procedures for submitting plans under this section;66671

       (B) Uniform standards under which:66672

       (a) A person or agency shall submit plans to the county board 66673
of developmental disabilities for the development of residential 66674
services for individuals with mental retardation or a 66675
developmental disability within the county;66676

       (b) The county board must review the plans and recommend 66677
providers for the servicesfor the plans.66678

       (2) The eligibility criteria for selecting persons and 66679
agencies to provide residential services, which shall take into 66680
consideration the recommendations of the county board.66681

       (B) The county board, in accordance with its comprehensive 66682
service plan, shall review all proposals for the development of 66683
residential services that are submitted to it and shall, if the 66684
proposals are acceptable to the county board, recommend providers 66685
for the development of residential services within the county. The 66686
department shall approve proposals for the development of 66687
residential services within counties based upon the availability 66688
of funds and in accordance with rules adopted under division 66689
(A)(2) of this section.66690

       No county board shall recommend providers for the development 66691
of residential services if the county board is an applicant to 66692
provide services. In cases of possible conflict of interest, the 66693
director shall appoint a committee that shall, in accordance with 66694
the approved county comprehensive service plan, review and 66695
recommend to the director providers for the services.66696

       If a county board fails to establish an approved 66697
comprehensive service plan, the director may establish residential 66698
services development goals for the county board based on 66699
documented need as determined by the department. If a county board 66700
fails to develop or implement such a plan in accordance with the 66701
rules adopted under this section, the department may, without the 66702
involvement of the county board, review and select providers for 66703
the development of residential services in the county. 66704

       Sec. 5123.044. The department of developmental disabilities 66705
shall determine whether county boards of developmental 66706
disabilities are in compliance withviolate the rights that 66707
individuals with mental retardation or other developmental 66708
disabilities have under section 5126.046 of the Revised Code to 66709
obtain home and community-based services, nonmedicaid residential 66710
services, or nonmedicaid supported living from qualified and 66711
willing providers. The department shall provide assistance to an 66712
individual with mental retardation or other developmental 66713
disability who requests assistance with the individual's right66714
rights under that section 5126.046 of the Revised Code to choose a 66715
provider of habilitation, vocational, community employment, 66716
residential, or supported living services if the department is 66717
notified of a county board's alleged violation of the individual's 66718
right to choose such a providerrights under that section.66719

       Sec. 5123.0412. (A) The department of developmental 66720
disabilities shall charge each county board of developmental 66721
disabilities an annual fee equal to one and one-quarter per cent 66722
of the total value of all medicaid paid claims for home and 66723
community-based services provided during the year to an individual 66724
eligible for services from the county board. However, the 66725
department shall not charge the fee for home and community-based 66726
services provided under the medicaid waiver component known as the 66727
transitions developmental disabilities waiver. No county board 66728
shall pass the cost of a fee charged to the county board under 66729
this section on to another provider of these services.66730

       (B) The fees collected under this section shall be deposited 66731
into the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the ODJFS 66732
administration and oversight fund, both of which are hereby 66733
created in the state treasury. The portion of the fees to be 66734
deposited into the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the 66735
portion of the fees to be deposited into the ODJFS administration 66736
and oversight fund shall be the portion specified in an 66737
interagency agreement entered into under division (C) of this 66738
section. The department of developmental disabilities shall use 66739
the money in the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the 66740
department of job and family services shall use the money in the 66741
ODJFS administration and oversight fund for both of the following 66742
purposes:66743

       (1) Medicaid administrative costs, including administrative 66744
and oversight costs of medicaid case management services and home 66745
and community-based services. The administrative and oversight 66746
costs of medicaid case management services and home and 66747
community-based services shall include costs for staff, systems, 66748
and other resources the departments need and dedicate solely to 66749
the following duties associated with the services:66750

       (a) Eligibility determinations;66751

       (b) Training;66752

       (c) Fiscal management;66753

       (d) Claims processing;66754

       (e) Quality assurance oversight;66755

       (f) Other duties the departments identify.66756

       (2) Providing technical support to county boards' local 66757
administrative authority under section 5126.055 of the Revised 66758
Code for the services.66759

       (C) The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 66760
family services shall enter into an interagency agreement to do 66761
both of the following:66762

       (1) Specify which portion of the fees collected under this 66763
section is to be deposited into the ODDD administration and 66764
oversight fund and which portion is to be deposited into the ODJFS 66765
administration and oversight fund;66766

       (2) Provide for the departments to coordinate the staff whose 66767
costs are paid for with money in the ODDD administration and 66768
oversight fund and the ODJFS administration and oversight fund.66769

       (D) The departments shall submit an annual report to the 66770
director of budget and management certifying how the departments 66771
spent the money in the ODDD administration and oversight fund and 66772
the ODJFS administration and oversight fund for the purposes 66773
specified in division (B) of this section.66774

       Sec. 5123.0414. (A) When the director of developmental 66775
disabilities, under section 119.07 of the Revised Code, sends a 66776
party a notice by registered mail, return receipt requested, that 66777
the director intends to take action against the party authorized 66778
by section 5123.082, 5123.166, 5123.168, 5123.19, 5123.45, 66779
5123.51, or 5126.25 of the Revised Code and the notice is returned 66780
to the director with an endorsement indicating that the notice was 66781
refused or unclaimed, the director shall resend the notice by 66782
ordinary mail to the party.66783

        (B) If the original notice was refused, the notice shall be 66784
deemed received as of the date the director resends the notice.66785

        (C) If the original notice was unclaimed, the notice shall be 66786
deemed received as of the date the director resends the notice 66787
unless, not later than thirty days after the date the director 66788
sent the original notice, the resent notice is returned to the 66789
director for failure of delivery.66790

       If the notice concerns taking action under section 5123.51 of 66791
the Revised Code and the resent notice is returned to the director 66792
for failure of delivery not later than thirty days after the date 66793
the director sent the original notice, the director shall cause 66794
the notice to be published in a newspaper of general circulation 66795
in the county of the party's last known residence or business and 66796
shall mail a dated copy of the published notice to the party at 66797
the last known address. The notice shall be deemed received as of 66798
the date of the publication.66799

        If the notice concerns taking action under section 5123.082,66800
5123.166, 5123.168, 5123.19, 5123.45, or 5126.25 of the Revised 66801
Code and the resent notice is returned to the director for failure 66802
of delivery not later than thirty days after the date the director 66803
sent the original notice, the director shall resend the notice to 66804
the party a second time. The notice shall be deemed received as of 66805
the date the director resends the notice the second time.66806

       Sec. 5123.0415. As used in this section, "license" means a 66807
license, certificate, or evidence of registration.66808

       Each person and each government entity that applies for or 66809
holds a valid license, certification, or registration issued under 66810
section 5123.082, 5123.161, 5123.19, 5123.45, or 5126.25, or 66811
5126.252 of the Revised Code shall notify the director of 66812
developmental disabilities of any change in the personperson's66813
or government entity's address.66814

       Sec. 5123.081.  (A) As used in this section:66815

       (1)(a) "Applicant" means aany of the following:66816

       (i) A person who is under final consideration for appointment 66817
to or employment with the department of developmental 66818
disabilities, including, but not limited to, aor a county board 66819
of developmental disabilities;66820

       (ii) A person who is being transferred to the department and 66821
anor a county board;66822

       (iii) An employee who is being recalled to or reemployed by 66823
the department or a county board after a layoff;66824

        (iv) A person under final consideration for a direct services 66825
position with a provider or subcontractor.66826

        (b) Neither of the following is an applicant:66827

        (i) A person who is employed by a responsible entity in a 66828
position for which a criminal records check is required by this 66829
section and either is being considered for a different position 66830
with the responsible entity or is returning after a leave of 66831
absence or seasonal break in employment, unless the responsible 66832
entity has reason to believe that the person has committed a 66833
disqualifying offense;66834

        (ii) A person who is to provide only respite care under a 66835
family support services program established under section 5126.11 66836
of the Revised Code if a family member of the individual with 66837
mental retardation or a developmental disability who is to receive 66838
the respite care selects the person.66839

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 66840
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.66841

       (3) "Direct services position" means an employment position 66842
in which the employee has the opportunity to be alone with or 66843
exercises supervision or control over one or more individuals with 66844
mental retardation or a developmental disability.66845

        (4) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:66846

        (a) One or more violations of section 959.13, 959.131, 66847
2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 66848
2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 66849
2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 66850
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 66851
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 66852
2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 66853
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 66854
2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 66855
2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 66856
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 66857
2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 66858
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 66859
2921.24, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 66860
2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 66861
2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 66862
2925.09, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 66863
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;66864

        (b) One or more violations of section 2905.04 of the Revised 66865
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;66866

        (c) One or more violations of section 2919.23 of the Revised 66867
Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the 66868
Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the 66869
violation occurred prior to that date;66870

        (d) One violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that 66871
is not a minor drug possession offense;66872

        (e) Two or more violations of section 2925.11 of the Revised 66873
Code, regardless of whether any of the violations are a minor drug 66874
possession offense;66875

        (f) One or more violations of felonious sexual penetration 66876
under former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;66877

        (g) One or more violations of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 66878
2923.03 of the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is 66879
the object of the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the 66880
offenses listed in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (f) of this section;66881

        (h) One or more felonies contained in the Revised Code that 66882
are not listed in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (g) of this section, if 66883
the felony bears a direct and substantial relationship to the 66884
duties and responsibilities of the position being filled;66885

        (i) One or more offenses contained in the Revised Code 66886
constituting a misdemeanor of the first degree on the first 66887
offense and a felony on a subsequent offense, if the offense bears 66888
a direct and substantial relationship to the position being filled 66889
and the nature of the services being provided by the responsible 66890
entity;66891

        (j) One or more violations of an existing or former municipal 66892
ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United 66893
States, if the offense is substantially equivalent to any of the 66894
offenses listed or described in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (i) of this 66895
section.66896

        (5)(a) "Employee" means either of the following:66897

        (i) A person appointed to or employed by the department of 66898
developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental 66899
disabilities;66900

        (ii) A person employed in a direct services position by a 66901
provider or subcontractor.66902

        (b) "Employee" does not mean a person who provides only 66903
respite care under a family support services program established 66904
under section 5126.11 of the Revised Code if a family member of 66905
the individual with mental retardation or a developmental 66906
disability who receives the respite care selected the person.66907

        (6) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as 66908
in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.66909

       (7) "Provider" means a person that provides specialized 66910
services to individuals with mental retardation or a developmental 66911
disability and employs one or more persons in direct services 66912
positions.66913

        (8) "Responsible entity" means the following:66914

        (a) The department of developmental disabilities in the case 66915
of either of the following:66916

        (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 66917
final consideration for appointment to or employment with the 66918
department, being transferred to the department, or being recalled 66919
to or reemployed by the department after a layoff;66920

        (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 66921
appointed to or employed by the department.66922

        (b) A county board of developmental disabilities in the case 66923
of either of the following:66924

        (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 66925
final consideration for appointment to or employment with the 66926
county board, being transferred to the county board, or being 66927
recalled to or reemployed by the county board after a layoff;66928

        (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 66929
appointed to or employed by the county board.66930

        (c) A provider in the case of either of the following:66931

        (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 66932
final consideration for a direct services position with the 66933
provider;66934

        (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 66935
employed in a direct services position by the provider.66936

       (d) A subcontractor in the case of either of the following:66937

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 66938
final consideration for a direct services position with the 66939
subcontractor;66940

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 66941
employed in a direct services position by the subcontractor.66942

        (9) "Specialized services" means any program or service 66943
designed and operated to serve primarily individuals with mental 66944
retardation or a developmental disability, including a program or 66945
service provided by an entity licensed or certified by the 66946
department of developmental disabilities. If there is a question 66947
as to whether a provider or subcontractor is providing specialized 66948
services, the provider or subcontractor may request that the 66949
director of developmental disabilities make a determination. The 66950
director's determination is final.66951

       (10) "Subcontractor" means a person to which both of the 66952
following apply:66953

       (a) The person has either of the following:66954

       (i) A subcontract with a provider to provide specialized 66955
services included in the contract between the provider and the 66956
department of developmental disabilities or a county board of 66957
developmental disabilities;66958

       (ii) A subcontract with another subcontractor to provide 66959
specialized services included in a subcontract between the other 66960
subcontractor and a provider or other subcontractor.66961

       (b) The person employs one or more persons in direct services 66962
positions.66963

       (B) The director of developmental disabilitiesA responsible 66964
entity shall not employ an applicant or continue to employ an 66965
employee if either of the following applies:66966

        (1) The applicant or employee fails to comply with division 66967
(D)(3) of this section.66968

        (2) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 66969
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 66970
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 66971
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 66972
for a disqualifying offense.66973

        (C) Before employing an applicant in a position for which a 66974
criminal records check is required by this section, a responsible 66975
entity shall require the applicant to submit a statement with the 66976
applicant's signature attesting that the applicant has not been 66977
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 66978
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense. 66979
The responsible entity also shall require the applicant to sign an 66980
agreement under which the applicant agrees to notify the 66981
responsible entity within fourteen calendar days if, while 66982
employed by the responsible entity, the applicant is formally 66983
charged with, is convicted of, pleads guilty to, or is found 66984
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 66985
disqualifying offense. The agreement shall provide that the 66986
applicant's failure to provide the notification may result in 66987
termination of the applicant's employment.66988

        (D)(1) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 66989
position for which a criminal records check is required by this 66990
section, a responsible entity shall request the superintendent of 66991
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct 66992
a criminal records check with respect to each applicant, except 66993
that the director is not required to request a criminal records 66994
check for an employee of the department who is being considered 66995
for a different position or is returning after a leave of absence 66996
or seasonal break in employment, as long as the director has no 66997
reason to believe that the employee has committed any of the 66998
offenses listed or described in division (E) of this section.66999

       If theof the applicant. If rules adopted under this section 67000
require an employee to undergo a criminal records check, a 67001
responsible entity shall request the superintendent to conduct a 67002
criminal records check of the employee at times specified in the 67003
rules as a condition of the responsible entity's continuing to 67004
employ the employee in a position for which a criminal records 67005
check is required by this section. If an applicant or employee67006
does not present proof that the applicant or employee has been a 67007
resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior 67008
to the date upon which the criminal records check is requested, 67009
the directorresponsible entity shall request that the 67010
superintendent of the bureau obtain information from the federal 67011
bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records check 67012
for the applicant. If the applicant or employee presents proof 67013
that the applicant or employee has been a resident of this state 67014
for that five-year period, the directorresponsible entity may 67015
request that the superintendent of the bureau include information 67016
from the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records 67017
check. For purposes of this division, an applicant or employee may 67018
provide proof of residency in this state by presenting, with a 67019
notarized statement asserting that the applicant or employee has 67020
been a resident of this state for that five-year period, a valid 67021
driver's license, notification of registration as an elector, a 67022
copy of an officially filed federal or state tax form identifying 67023
the applicant's or employee's permanent residence, or any other 67024
document the directorresponsible entity considers acceptable.67025

       (C) The director(2) A responsible entity shall providedo 67026
all of the following:67027

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 67028
criminal records check is required by this section a copy of the 67029
form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of 67030
the Revised Code, provide to each applicantand a standard 67031
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 67032
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised 67033
Code, obtain;67034

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 67035
from eachthe applicant, and forwardor employee;67036

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 67037
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 67038
investigation at the time the criminal records check is requested.67039

       (3) Any applicant or employee who receives pursuant to this 67040
division a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) 67041
of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of anthe 67042
standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) 67043
of that section and who is requested to complete the form and 67044
provide a set of the applicant's or employee's fingerprint 67045
impressions shall complete the form or provide all the information 67046
necessary to complete the form and shall provide the material67047
standard impression sheet with the impressions of the applicant's 67048
or employee's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails 67049
to provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails 67050
to provide impressions of the applicant's fingerprints, the 67051
director shall not employ the applicant.67052

       (D) The director(4) A responsible entity shall pay to the 67053
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 67054
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 67055
Revised Code for each criminal records check requested and 67056
conducted pursuant to this section.67057

        (E) A responsible entity may request any other state or 67058
federal agency to supply the directorresponsible entity with a 67059
written report regarding the criminal record of eachan applicant 67060
or employee. With regard to an applicant who becomes a department 67061
employee, if theIf an employee holds an occupational or 67062
professional license or other credentials, the director67063
responsible entity may request that the state or federal agency 67064
that regulates the employee's occupation or profession supply the 67065
directorresponsible entity with a written report of any 67066
information pertaining to the employee's criminal record that the 67067
agency obtains in the course of conducting an investigation or in 67068
the process of renewing the employee's license or other 67069
credentials. The responsible entity may consider the reports when 67070
determining whether to employ the applicant or to continue to 67071
employ the employee.67072

       (E) Except as provided in division (K)(2) of this section and 67073
in rules adopted by the director in accordance with division (M) 67074
of this section, the director shall not employ a person to fill a 67075
position with the department who has been convicted of or pleaded 67076
guilty to any of the following:67077

       (1) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 67078
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 67079
2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 67080
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 67081
2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 67082
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 67083
2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 67084
2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, a violation of 67085
section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 67086
1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that 67087
would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code 67088
as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation occurred 67089
prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised 67090
Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, or felonious 67091
sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the 67092
Revised Code;67093

       (2) A felony contained in the Revised Code that is not listed 67094
in this division, if the felony bears a direct and substantial 67095
relationship to the duties and responsibilities of the position 67096
being filled;67097

       (3) Any offense contained in the Revised Code constituting a 67098
misdemeanor of the first degree on the first offense and a felony 67099
on a subsequent offense, if the offense bears a direct and 67100
substantial relationship to the position being filled and the 67101
nature of the services being provided by the department;67102

       (4) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 67103
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States, if 67104
the offense is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses 67105
listed or described in division (E)(1), (2), or (3) of this 67106
section.67107

       (F) Prior to employing an applicant, the director shall 67108
require the applicant to submit a statement with the applicant's 67109
signature attesting that the applicant has not been convicted of 67110
or pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed or described in 67111
division (E) of this section. The director also shall require the 67112
applicant to sign an agreement under which the applicant agrees to 67113
notify the director within fourteen calendar days if, while 67114
employed with the department, the applicant is ever formally 67115
charged with, convicted of, or pleads guilty to any of the 67116
offenses listed or described in division (E) of this section. The 67117
agreement shall inform the applicant that failure to report formal 67118
charges, a conviction, or a guilty plea may result in being 67119
dismissed from employment.As a condition of employing an 67120
applicant in a position for which a criminal records check is 67121
required by this section and that involves transporting 67122
individuals with mental retardation or developmental disabilities 67123
or operating a responsible entity's vehicles for any purpose, the 67124
responsible entity shall obtain the applicant's driving record 67125
from the bureau of motor vehicles. If rules adopted under this 67126
section require a responsible entity to obtain an employee's 67127
driving record, the responsible entity shall obtain the employee's 67128
driving record from the bureau at times specified in the rules as 67129
a condition of continuing to employ the employee. The responsible 67130
entity may consider the applicant's or employee's driving record 67131
when determining whether to employ the applicant or to continue to 67132
employ the employee.67133

       (G) The director shall pay to the bureau of criminal 67134
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 67135
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 67136
criminal records check requested and conducted pursuant to this 67137
section.A responsible entity may employ an applicant 67138
conditionally pending receipt of a report regarding the applicant 67139
requested under this section. The responsible entity shall 67140
terminate the applicant's employment if it is determined from a 67141
report that the applicant failed to inform the responsible entity 67142
that the applicant had been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 67143
been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 67144
disqualifying offense.67145

       (H) A responsible entity may charge an applicant a fee for 67146
costs the responsible entity incurs in obtaining a report 67147
regarding the applicant under this section if the responsible 67148
entity notifies the applicant of the amount of the fee at the time 67149
of the applicant's initial application for employment and that, 67150
unless the fee is paid, the responsible entity will not consider 67151
the applicant for employment. The fee shall not exceed the amount 67152
of the fee, if any, the responsible entity pays for the report.67153

        (I)(1) Any report obtained pursuant to this section is not a 67154
public record for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code 67155
and shall not be made available to any person, other than the 67156
following:67157

       (a) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 67158
records check or criminal records checkreport or the applicant's 67159
or employee's representative, the department;67160

       (b) The responsible entity that requested the report or its 67161
representative, a county board of developmental disabilities, and 67162
any;67163

        (c) The department if a county board, provider, or 67164
subcontractor is the responsible entity that requested the report 67165
and the department requests the responsible entity to provide a 67166
copy of the report to the department;67167

        (d) A county board if a provider or subcontractor is the 67168
responsible entity that requested the report and the county board 67169
requests the responsible entity to provide a copy of the report to 67170
the county board;67171

        (e) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 67172
involved in a case dealing with theany of the following:67173

       (i) The denial of employment to the applicant or the67174
employee;67175

       (ii) The denial, suspension, or revocation of a certificate 67176
or evidence of registration under section 5123.0825123.166 or 67177
5123.45 of the Revised Code;67178

       (iii) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 67179
program or a program the department administers.67180

       (2) An individualapplicant or employee for whom the director67181
responsible entity has obtained reports under this section may 67182
submit a written request to the directorresponsible entity to 67183
have copies of the reports sent to any state agency, entity of 67184
local government, or private entity. The individualapplicant or 67185
employee shall specify in the request the agencies or entities to 67186
which the copies are to be sent. On receiving the request, the 67187
directorresponsible entity shall send copies of the reports to 67188
the agencies or entities specified.67189

       The director(3) A responsible entity may request that a 67190
state agency, entity of local government, or private entity send 67191
copies to the directorresponsible entity of any report regarding 67192
a records check or criminal records check that the agency or 67193
entity possesses, if the directorresponsible entity obtains the 67194
written consent of the individual who is the subject of the 67195
report.67196

       (I) The director shall request the registrar of motor 67197
vehicles to supply the director with a certified abstract 67198
regarding the record of convictions for violations of motor 67199
vehicle laws of each applicant who will be required by the 67200
applicant's employment to transport individuals with mental 67201
retardation or a developmental disability or to operate the 67202
department's vehicles for any other purpose. For each abstract 67203
provided under this section, the director shall pay the amount 67204
specified in section 4509.05 of the Revised Code.67205

       (J) The director(4) A responsible entity shall provide each 67206
applicant and employee with a copy of any report or abstract67207
obtained about the applicant or employee under this section.67208

       (K)(1) The director shall inform each person, at the time of 67209
the person's initial application for employment, that the person 67210
is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 67211
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 67212
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 67213
109.572 of the Revised Code if the person comes under final 67214
consideration for employment as a precondition to employment in a 67215
position.67216

       (2) The director may employ an applicant pending receipt of 67217
reports requested under this section. The director shall terminate 67218
employment of any such applicant if it is determined from the 67219
reports that the applicant failed to inform the director that the 67220
applicant had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the 67221
offenses listed or described in division (E) of this section.67222

       (L) The director may charge an applicant a fee for costs the 67223
director incurs in obtaining reports, abstracts, or fingerprint 67224
impressions under this section. A fee charged under this division 67225
shall not exceed the amount of the fees the director pays under 67226
divisions (G) and (I) of this section. If a fee is charged under 67227
this division, the director shall notify the applicant of the 67228
amount of the fee at the time of the applicant's initial 67229
application for employment and that, unless the fee is paid, the 67230
director will not consider the applicant for employment.67231

       (M)(J) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 67232
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 67233
implement this section, including rules specifying.67234

        (1) The rules may do the following:67235

        (a) Require employees to undergo criminal records checks 67236
under this section;67237

        (b) Require responsible entities to obtain the driving 67238
records of employees under this section;67239

        (c) If the rules require employees to undergo criminal 67240
records checks, require responsible entities to obtain the driving 67241
records of employees, or both, exempt one or more classes of 67242
employees from the requirements.67243

        (2) The rules shall do both of the following:67244

        (a) If the rules require employees to undergo criminal 67245
records checks, require responsible entities to obtain the driving 67246
records of employees, or both, specify the times at which the 67247
criminal records checks are to be conducted and the driving 67248
records are to be obtained;67249

        (b) Specify circumstances under which the directora 67250
responsible entity may employ a person who hasan applicant or 67251
employee who is found by a criminal records check required by this 67252
section to have been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to an, or 67253
been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 67254
disqualifying offense listed or described in division (E) of this 67255
section but who meets standards in regard to rehabilitation set by 67256
the director.67257

       Sec. 5123.16.  (A) As used in sections 5123.16 to 5123.16967258
5123.1610 of the Revised Code:67259

       (1) "Applicant" means any of the following:67260

       (a) The chief executive officer of a business that applies 67261
under section 5123.161 of the Revised Code for a certificate to 67262
provide supported living;67263

       (b) The chief executive officer of a business that seeks 67264
renewal of the business's supported living certificate under 67265
section 5123.164 of the Revised Code;67266

       (c) An individual who applies under section 5123.161 of the 67267
Revised Code for a certificate to provide supported living as an 67268
independent provider;67269

       (d) An independent provider who seeks renewal of the 67270
independent provider's supported living certificate under section 67271
5123.164 of the Revised Code.67272

       (2)(a) "Business" means either of the following:67273

       (i) An association, corporation, nonprofit organization, 67274
partnership, trust, or other group of persons; 67275

       (ii) An individual who employs, directly or through contract, 67276
one or more other individuals to provide supported living.67277

       (b) "Business" does not mean an independent provider.67278

       (3) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 67279
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.67280

       (4) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:67281

       (a) One or more violations of section 959.13, 959.131, 67282
2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 67283
2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 67284
2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 67285
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 67286
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 67287
2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 67288
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 67289
2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 67290
2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 67291
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 67292
2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 67293
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 67294
2921.24, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 67295
2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 67296
2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 67297
2925.09, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 67298
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;67299

       (b) One or more violations of section 2905.04 of the Revised 67300
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;67301

       (c) One or more violations of section 2919.23 of the Revised 67302
Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the 67303
Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the 67304
violation occurred prior to that date;67305

       (d) One violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that 67306
is not a minor drug possession offense;67307

       (e) Two or more violations of section 2925.11 of the Revised 67308
Code, regardless of whether any of the violations are a minor drug 67309
possession offense;67310

       (f) One or more violations of felonious sexual penetration 67311
under former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;67312

       (g) One or more violations of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 67313
2923.03 of the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is 67314
the object of the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the 67315
offenses listed in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (f) of this section;67316

       (h) One or more felonies contained in the Revised Code that 67317
are not listed in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (g) of this section, if 67318
the felony bears a direct and substantial relationship to the 67319
duties and responsibilities of the position being filled;67320

       (i) One or more offenses contained in the Revised Code 67321
constituting a misdemeanor of the first degree on the first 67322
offense and a felony on a subsequent offense, if the offense bears 67323
a direct and substantial relationship to the position being filled 67324
and the nature of the services being provided by the responsible 67325
entity;67326

       (j) One or more violations of an existing or former municipal 67327
ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United 67328
States, if the offense is substantially equivalent to any of the 67329
offenses listed or described in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (i) of this 67330
section.67331

       (5) "Independent provider" means a provider who provides 67332
supported living on a self-employed basis and does not employ, 67333
directly or through contract, another individual to provide the 67334
supported living.67335

       (6) "Provider" means a person or government entity certified 67336
by the director of developmental disabilities to provide supported 67337
living.67338

       (2)(7) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning 67339
as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.67340

       (8) "Related party" means any of the following:67341

       (a) In the case of a provider who is an individual, any of 67342
the following:67343

       (i) The spouse of the provider;67344

       (ii) A parent or stepparent of the provider or provider's 67345
spouse;67346

       (iii) A child of the provider or provider's spouse;67347

       (iv) A sibling, half sibling, or stepsibling of the provider 67348
or provider's spouse;67349

       (v) A grandparent of the provider or provider's spouse;67350

       (vi) A grandchild of the provider or provider's spouse;67351

       (vii) An employee or employer of the provider or provider's 67352
spouse.67353

       (b) In the case of a provider that is a person other than an 67354
individual, any of the following:67355

       (i) An employee of the person;67356

       (ii) An officer of the provider, including the chief 67357
executive officer, president, vice-president, secretary, and 67358
treasurer;67359

       (iii) A member of the provider's board of directors or 67360
trustees;67361

       (iv) A person owning a financial interest of five per cent or 67362
more in the provider;67363

       (v) A corporation that has a subsidiary relationship with the 67364
provider;67365

       (vi) A person or government entity that has control over the 67366
provider's day-to-day operation;67367

       (vii) A person over which the provider has control of the 67368
day-to-day operation.67369

       (c) In the case of a provider that is a government entity, 67370
any of the following:67371

       (i) An employee of the provider;67372

       (ii) An officer of the provider;67373

       (iii) A member of the provider's governing board;67374

       (iv) A government entity that has control over the provider's 67375
day-to-day operation;67376

       (v) A person or government entity over which the provider has 67377
control of the day-to-day operation.67378

       (B) No person or government entity may provide supported 67379
living without a valid supported living certificate issued by the 67380
director of developmental disabilities.67381

       (C) A county board of developmental disabilities may provide 67382
supported living only to the extent permitted by rules adopted 67383
under section 5123.1695123.1610 of the Revised Code.67384

       Sec. 5123.161.  A person or government entity that seeks to 67385
provide supported living shall apply to the director of 67386
developmental disabilities for a supported living certificate.67387

        Except as provided in sectionsections 5123.166 and 5123.16967388
of the Revised Code, the director shall issue to the applicant67389
person or government entity a supported living certificate if the 67390
applicantperson or government entity follows the application 67391
process established in rules adopted under section 5123.16967392
5123.1610 of the Revised Code, meets the applicable certification 67393
standards established in those rules, and pays the certification 67394
fee established in those rules.67395

       Sec. 5123.162.  The director of developmental disabilities 67396
may conduct surveys of persons and government entities that seek a 67397
supported living certificate to determine whether the persons and 67398
government entities meet the certification standards. The director 67399
may also conduct surveys of providers to determine whether the 67400
providers continue to meet the certification standards. The 67401
director shall conduct the surveys in accordance with rules 67402
adopted under section 5123.1695123.1610 of the Revised Code.67403

       The records of surveys conducted under this section are 67404
public records for the purpose of section 149.43 of the Revised 67405
Code and shall be made available on the request of any person or 67406
government entity.67407

       Sec. 5123.163.  A supported living certificate is valid for a 67408
period of time established in rules adopted under section 5123.16967409
5123.1610 of the Revised Code, unless any of the following occur 67410
before the end of that period of time:67411

        (A) The director of developmental disabilities issues an 67412
order requiring that action be taken against the certificate 67413
holder under section 5123.166 of the Revised Code.67414

        (B) The director issues an order terminating the certificate 67415
under section 5123.168 of the Revised Code.67416

        (C) The certificate holder voluntarily surrenders the 67417
certificate to the director.67418

       Sec. 5123.164. Except as provided in sectionsections67419
5123.166 and 5123.169 of the Revised Code, the director of 67420
developmental disabilities shall renew a supported living 67421
certificate if the certificate holder follows the renewal process 67422
established in rules adopted under section 5123.1695123.1610 of 67423
the Revised Code, continues to meet the applicable certification 67424
standards established in those rules, and pays the renewal fee 67425
established in those rules.67426

       Sec. 5123.166.  (A) If good cause exists as specified in 67427
division (B) of this section and determined in accordance with 67428
procedures established in rules adopted under section 5123.16967429
5123.1610 of the Revised Code, the director of developmental 67430
disabilities may issue an adjudication order requiring that one of 67431
the following actions be taken against a person or government 67432
entity seeking or holding a supported living certificate:67433

       (1) Refusal to issue or renew a supported living certificate;67434

       (2) Revocation of a supported living certificate;67435

       (3) Suspension of a supported living certificate holder's 67436
authority to do either or both of the following:67437

        (a) Continue to provide supported living to one or more 67438
individuals from one or more counties who receive supported living 67439
from the certificate holder at the time the director takes the 67440
action;67441

        (b) Begin to provide supported living to one or more 67442
individuals from one or more counties who do not receive supported 67443
living from the certificate holder at the time the director takes 67444
the action.67445

       (B) The following constitute good cause for taking action 67446
under division (A) of this section against a person or government 67447
entity seeking or holding a supported living certificate:67448

       (1) The person or government entity's failure to meet or 67449
continue to meet the applicable certification standards 67450
established in rules adopted under section 5123.1695123.1610 of 67451
the Revised Code;67452

       (2) The person or government entity violates section 5123.165 67453
of the Revised Code;67454

       (3) The person or government entity's failure to satisfy the 67455
requirements of section 5123.081 or 5123.52, 5126.28, or 5126.28167456
of the Revised Code;67457

       (4) Misfeasance;67458

       (5) Malfeasance;67459

       (6) Nonfeasance;67460

       (7) Confirmed abuse or neglect;67461

       (8) Financial irresponsibility;67462

       (9) Other conduct the director determines is or would be 67463
injurious to individuals who receive or would receive supported 67464
living from the person or government entity.67465

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, the 67466
director shall issue an adjudication order under division (A) of 67467
this section in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.67468

       (D)(1) The director may issue an order requiring that action 67469
specified in division (A)(3) of this section be taken before a 67470
provider is provided notice and an opportunity for a hearing if 67471
all of the following are the case:67472

       (a) The director determines such action is warranted by the 67473
provider's failure to continue to meet the applicable 67474
certification standards;67475

       (b) The director determines that the failure either 67476
represents a pattern of serious noncompliance or creates a 67477
substantial risk to the health or safety of an individual who 67478
receives or would receive supported living from the provider;67479

        (c) If the order will suspend the provider's authority to 67480
continue to provide supported living to an individual who receives 67481
supported living from the provider at the time the director issues 67482
the order, both of the following are the case:67483

        (i) The director makes the individual, or the individual's 67484
guardian, aware of the director's determination under division 67485
(D)(1)(b) of this section and the individual or guardian does not 67486
select another provider.67487

        (ii) A county board of developmental disabilities has filed a 67488
complaint with a probate court under section 5123.335126.33 of 67489
the Revised Code that includes facts describing the nature of 67490
abuse or neglect that the individual has suffered due to the 67491
provider's actions that are the basis for the director making the 67492
determination under division (D)(1)(b) of this section and the 67493
probate court does not issue an order authorizing the county board 67494
to arrange services for the individual pursuant to an 67495
individualized service plan developed for the individual under 67496
section 5123.315126.31 of the Revised Code.67497

       (2) If the director issues an order under division (D)(1) of 67498
this section, sections 119.091 to 119.13 of the Revised Code and 67499
all of the following apply:67500

       (a) The director shall send the provider notice of the order 67501
by registered mail, return receipt requested, not later than 67502
twenty-four hours after issuing the order and shall include in the 67503
notice the reasons for the order, the citation to the law or rule 67504
directly involved, and a statement that the provider will be 67505
afforded a hearing if the provider requests it within ten days of 67506
the time of receiving the notice.67507

       (b) If the provider requests a hearing within the required 67508
time and the provider has provided the director the provider's 67509
current address, the director shall immediately set, and notify 67510
the provider of, the date, time, and place for the hearing.67511

       (c) The date of the hearing shall be not later than thirty 67512
days after the director receives the provider's timely request for 67513
the hearing.67514

       (d) The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with section 67515
119.09 of the Revised Code, except for all of the following:67516

       (i) The hearing shall continue uninterrupted until its close, 67517
except for weekends, legal holidays, and other interruptions the 67518
provider and director agree to.67519

       (ii) If the director appoints a referee or examiner to 67520
conduct the hearing, the referee or examiner, not later than ten 67521
days after the date the referee or examiner receives a transcript 67522
of the testimony and evidence presented at the hearing or, if the 67523
referee or examiner does not receive the transcript or no such 67524
transcript is made, the date that the referee or examiner closes 67525
the record of the hearing, shall submit to the director a written 67526
report setting forth the referee or examiner's findings of fact 67527
and conclusions of law and a recommendation of the action the 67528
director should take.67529

       (iii) The provider may, not later than five days after the 67530
date the director, in accordance with section 119.09 of the 67531
Revised Code, sends the provider or the provider's attorney or 67532
other representative of record a copy of the referee or examiner's 67533
report and recommendation, file with the director written 67534
objections to the report and recommendation.67535

       (iv) The director shall approve, modify, or disapprove the 67536
referee or examiner's report and recommendation not earlier than 67537
six days, and not later than fifteen days, after the date the 67538
director, in accordance with section 119.09 of the Revised Code, 67539
sends a copy of the report and recommendation to the provider or 67540
the provider's attorney or other representative of record.67541

       (3) The director may lift an order issued under division 67542
(D)(1) of this section even though a hearing regarding the order 67543
is occurring or pending if the director determines that the 67544
provider has taken action eliminating the good cause for issuing 67545
the order. The hearing shall proceed unless the provider withdraws 67546
the request for the hearing in a written letter to the director.67547

       (4) The director shall lift an order issued under division 67548
(D)(1) of this section if both of the following are the case:67549

        (a) The provider provides the director a plan of compliance 67550
the director determines is acceptable.67551

        (b) The director determines that the provider has implemented 67552
the plan of compliance correctly.67553

       Sec. 5123.169.  (A) The director of developmental 67554
disabilities shall not issue a supported living certificate to an 67555
applicant or renew an applicant's supported living certificate if 67556
either of the following applies:67557

       (1) The applicant fails to comply with division (C)(2) of 67558
this section;67559

       (2) Except as provided in rules adopted under section 67560
5123.1610 of the Revised Code, the applicant is found by a 67561
criminal records check required by this section to have been 67562
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 67563
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.67564

       (B) Before issuing a supported living certificate to an 67565
applicant or renewing an applicant's supported living certificate, 67566
the director shall require the applicant to submit a statement 67567
with the applicant's signature attesting that the applicant has 67568
not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible 67569
for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying 67570
offense. The director also shall require the applicant to sign an 67571
agreement under which the applicant agrees to notify the director 67572
within fourteen calendar days if, while holding a supported living 67573
certificate, the applicant is formally charged with, is convicted 67574
of, pleads guilty to, or is found eligible for intervention in 67575
lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense. The agreement 67576
shall provide that the applicant's failure to provide the 67577
notification may result in action being taken by the director 67578
against the applicant under section 5123.166 of the Revised Code.67579

       (C)(1) As a condition of receiving a supported living 67580
certificate or having a supported living certificate renewed, an 67581
applicant shall request the superintendent of the bureau of 67582
criminal identification and investigation to conduct a criminal 67583
records check of the applicant. If an applicant does not present 67584
proof to the director that the applicant has been a resident of 67585
this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date 67586
that the applicant applies for issuance or renewal of the 67587
supported living certificate, the director shall require the 67588
applicant to request that the superintendent obtain information 67589
from the federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal 67590
records check. If the applicant presents proof to the director 67591
that the applicant has been a resident of this state for that 67592
five-year period, the director may require the applicant to 67593
request that the superintendent include information from the 67594
federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check. For 67595
purposes of this division, an applicant may provide proof of 67596
residency in this state by presenting, with a notarized statement 67597
asserting that the applicant has been a resident of this state for 67598
that five-year period, a valid driver's license, notification of 67599
registration as an elector, a copy of an officially filed federal 67600
or state tax form identifying the applicant's permanent residence, 67601
or any other document the director considers acceptable.67602

       (2) Each applicant shall do all of the following:67603

       (a) Obtain a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 67604
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 67605
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 67606
109.572 of the Revised Code;67607

       (b) Complete the form and provide the applicant's fingerprint 67608
impressions on the standard impression sheet;67609

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 67610
to the superintendent at the time the criminal records check is 67611
requested;67612

       (d) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 67613
report of the criminal records check directly to the director;67614

       (e) Pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 67615
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 67616
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 67617
check of the applicant requested and conducted pursuant to this 67618
section.67619

       (D) The director may request any other state or federal 67620
agency to supply the director with a written report regarding the 67621
criminal record of an applicant. The director may consider the 67622
reports when determining whether to issue a supported living 67623
certificate to the applicant or to renew an applicant's supported 67624
living certificate.67625

       (E) An applicant who seeks to be an independent provider or 67626
is an independent provider seeking renewal of the applicant's 67627
supported living certificate shall obtain the applicant's driving 67628
record from the bureau of motor vehicles and provide a copy of the 67629
record to the director if the supported living that the applicant 67630
will provide involves transporting individuals with mental 67631
retardation or developmental disabilities. The director may 67632
consider the applicant's driving record when determining whether 67633
to issue the applicant a supported living certificate or to renew 67634
the applicant's supported living certificate.67635

       (F)(1) A report obtained pursuant to this section is not a 67636
public record for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code 67637
and shall not be made available to any person, other than the 67638
following:67639

       (a) The applicant who is the subject of the report or the 67640
applicant's representative;67641

       (b) The director or the director's representative;67642

       (c) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 67643
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:67644

       (i) The denial of a supported living certificate or refusal 67645
to renew a supported living certificate;67646

       (ii) The denial, suspension, or revocation of a certificate 67647
under section 5123.45 of the Revised Code;67648

       (iii) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 67649
program.67650

       (2) An applicant for whom the director has obtained reports 67651
under this section may submit a written request to the director to 67652
have copies of the reports sent to any person or state or local 67653
government entity. The applicant shall specify in the request the 67654
person or entities to which the copies are to be sent. On 67655
receiving the request, the director shall send copies of the 67656
reports to the persons or entities specified.67657

       (3) The director may request that a person or state or local 67658
government entity send copies to the director of any report 67659
regarding a records check or criminal records check that the 67660
person or entity possesses, if the director obtains the written 67661
consent of the individual who is the subject of the report.67662

       (4) The director shall provide each applicant with a copy of 67663
any report obtained about the applicant under this section.67664

       Sec. 5123.169.        Sec. 5123.1610.  The director of developmental 67665
disabilities shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised 67666
Code establishing all of the following:67667

       (A) The extent to which a county board of developmental 67668
disabilities may provide supported living;67669

       (B) The application process for obtaining a supported living 67670
certificate under section 5123.161 of the Revised Code;67671

       (C) The certification standards a person or government entity 67672
must meet to obtain a supported living certificate to provide 67673
supported living;67674

       (D) The certification fee for a supported living certificate, 67675
which shall be deposited into the program fee fund created under 67676
section 5123.033 of the Revised Code;67677

       (E) The period of time a supported living certificate is 67678
valid;67679

       (F) The process for renewing a supported living certificate 67680
under section 5123.164 of the Revised Code;67681

       (G) The renewal fee for a supported living certificate, which 67682
shall be deposited into the program fee fund created under section 67683
5123.033 of the Revised Code;67684

       (H) Procedures for conducting surveys under section 5123.162 67685
of the Revised Code;67686

       (I) Procedures for determining whether there is good cause to 67687
take action under section 5123.166 of the Revised Code against a 67688
person or government entity seeking or holding a supported living 67689
certificate;67690

       (J) Circumstances under which the director may issue a 67691
supported living certificate to an applicant or renew an 67692
applicant's supported living certificate if the applicant is found 67693
by a criminal records check required by section 5123.169 of the 67694
Revised Code to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 67695
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 67696
disqualifying offense but meets standards in regard to 67697
rehabilitation set by the director.67698

       Sec. 5123.171.  As used in this section, "respite care" means 67699
appropriate, short-term, temporary care provided to a mentally 67700
retarded or developmentally disabled person to sustain the family 67701
structure or to meet planned or emergency needs of the family.67702

       The department of developmental disabilities shall provide 67703
respite care services to persons with mental retardation or a 67704
developmental disability for the purpose of promoting 67705
self-sufficiency and normalization, preventing or reducing 67706
inappropriate institutional care, and furthering the unity of the 67707
family by enabling the family to meet the special needs of a 67708
mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person.67709

       In order to be eligible for respite care services under this 67710
section, the mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 67711
must be in need of habilitation services as defined in section 67712
5126.01 of the Revised Code.67713

       Respite care may be provided in a residential facility 67714
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code or(including a 67715
residential facility certified as an intermediate care facility 67716
for the mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security 67717
Act," 4979 Stat. 620344 (19351965), 42 U.S.C. 3011396, et 67718
seq., as amended, or certified as) and a respite care home 67719
certified under section 5126.05 of the Revised Code.67720

       The department shall develop a system for locating vacant 67721
beds that are available for respite care and for making 67722
information on vacant beds available to users of respite care 67723
services. Facilities certified as intermediate care facilities for 67724
the mentally retarded shall report vacant beds to the department 67725
but shall not be required to accept respite care clients.67726

       The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt, and 67727
may amend or rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 67728
Revised Code for both of the following:67729

       (A) Certification by county boards of developmental 67730
disabilities of respite care homes;67731

       (B) Provision of respite care services authorized by this 67732
section. Rules adopted under this division shall establish all of 67733
the following:67734

       (1) A formula for distributing funds appropriated for respite 67735
care services;67736

       (2) Standards for supervision, training and quality control 67737
in the provision of respite care services;67738

       (3) Eligibility criteria for emergency respite care services.67739

       Sec. 5123.19.  (A) As used in this section and in sections 67740
5123.191, 5123.194, 5123.196, 5123.197, 5123.198, and5123.19 to67741
5123.20 of the Revised Code:67742

       (1)(a) "Residential facility" means a home or facility in 67743
which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 67744
resides, except the home of a relative or legal guardian in which 67745
a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person resides, a 67746
respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of the Revised 67747
Code, a county home or district home operated pursuant to Chapter 67748
5155. of the Revised Code, or a dwelling in which the only 67749
mentally retarded or developmentally disabled residents are in an 67750
independent living arrangement or are being provided supported 67751
living.67752

        (b) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 67753
means a residential facility that is considered an intermediate 67754
care facility for the mentally retarded for the purposes of 67755
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.67756

       (2) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 67757
county, or township.67758

       (3) "Independent living arrangement" means an arrangement in 67759
which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 67760
resides in an individualized setting chosen by the person or the 67761
person's guardian, which is not dedicated principally to the 67762
provision of residential services for mentally retarded or 67763
developmentally disabled persons, and for which no financial 67764
support is received for rendering such service from any 67765
governmental agency by a provider of residential services.67766

       (4)(2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 67767
has the same meaning as in section 1905(d) of the "Social Security 67768
Act," 101 Stat. 1330-204 (1987), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(d), as amended.67769

        (3) "Licensee" means the person or government agency that has 67770
applied for a license to operate a residential facility and to 67771
which the license was issued under this section.67772

       (4) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 67773
county, or township.67774

       (5) "Related party" has the same meaning as in section 67775
5123.16 of the Revised Code except that "provider" as used in the 67776
definition of "related party" means a person or government entity 67777
that held or applied for a license to operate a residential 67778
facility, rather than a person or government entity certified to 67779
provide supported living.67780

       (6)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(6)(b) of this 67781
section, "residential facility" means a home or facility, 67782
including a facility certified as an intermediate care facility 67783
for the mentally retarded, in which an individual with mental 67784
retardation or a developmental disability resides.67785

        (b) "Residential facility" does not mean any of the 67786
following:67787

        (i) The home of a relative or legal guardian in which an 67788
individual with mental retardation or a developmental disability 67789
resides;67790

        (ii) A respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of 67791
the Revised Code;67792

        (iii) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 67793
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;67794

        (iv) A dwelling in which the only residents with mental 67795
retardation or developmental disabilities are in independent 67796
living arrangements or are being provided supported living.67797

       (B) Every person or government agency desiring to operate a 67798
residential facility shall apply for licensure of the facility to 67799
the director of developmental disabilities unless the residential 67800
facility is subject to section 3721.02, 5119.73, 5103.03, or67801
5119.20, or division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of the Revised 67802
Code. Notwithstanding Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a nursing 67803
home that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 67804
mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 67805
Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396, as amended, shall apply for 67806
licensure of the portion of the home that is certified as an 67807
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded. 67808

       (C) Subject to section 5123.196 of the Revised Code, the 67809
director of developmental disabilities shall license the operation 67810
of residential facilities. An initial license shall be issued for 67811
a period that does not exceed one year, unless the director denies 67812
the license under division (D) of this section. A license shall be 67813
renewed for a period that does not exceed three years, unless the 67814
director refuses to renew the license under division (D) of this 67815
section. The director, when issuing or renewing a license, shall 67816
specify the period for which the license is being issued or 67817
renewed. A license remains valid for the length of the licensing 67818
period specified by the director, unless the license is 67819
terminated, revoked, or voluntarily surrendered.67820

       (D) If it is determined that an applicant or licensee is not 67821
in compliance with a provision of this chapter that applies to 67822
residential facilities or the rules adopted under such a 67823
provision, the director may deny issuance of a license, refuse to 67824
renew a license, terminate a license, revoke a license, issue an 67825
order for the suspension of admissions to a facility, issue an 67826
order for the placement of a monitor at a facility, issue an order 67827
for the immediate removal of residents, or take any other action 67828
the director considers necessary consistent with the director's 67829
authority under this chapter regarding residential facilities. In 67830
the director's selection and administration of the sanction to be 67831
imposed, all of the following apply:67832

       (1) The director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke a 67833
license, if the director determines that the applicant or licensee 67834
has demonstrated a pattern of serious noncompliance or that a 67835
violation creates a substantial risk to the health and safety of 67836
residents of a residential facility.67837

       (2) The director may terminate a license if more than twelve 67838
consecutive months have elapsed since the residential facility was 67839
last occupied by a resident or a notice required by division (K) 67840
of this section is not given.67841

       (3) The director may issue an order for the suspension of 67842
admissions to a facility for any violation that may result in 67843
sanctions under division (D)(1) of this section and for any other 67844
violation specified in rules adopted under division (H)(2) of this 67845
section. If the suspension of admissions is imposed for a 67846
violation that may result in sanctions under division (D)(1) of 67847
this section, the director may impose the suspension before 67848
providing an opportunity for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of 67849
the Revised Code. The director shall lift an order for the 67850
suspension of admissions when the director determines that the 67851
violation that formed the basis for the order has been corrected.67852

       (4) The director may order the placement of a monitor at a 67853
residential facility for any violation specified in rules adopted 67854
under division (H)(2) of this section. The director shall lift the 67855
order when the director determines that the violation that formed 67856
the basis for the order has been corrected.67857

       (5) If the director determines that two or more residential 67858
facilities owned or operated by the same person or government 67859
entity are not being operated in compliance with a provision of 67860
this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 67861
adopted under such a provision, and the director's findings are 67862
based on the same or a substantially similar action, practice, 67863
circumstance, or incident that creates a substantial risk to the 67864
health and safety of the residents, the director shall conduct a 67865
survey as soon as practicable at each residential facility owned 67866
or operated by that person or government entity. The director may 67867
take any action authorized by this section with respect to any 67868
facility found to be operating in violation of a provision of this 67869
chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 67870
adopted under such a provision.67871

       (6) When the director initiates license revocation 67872
proceedings, no opportunity for submitting a plan of correction 67873
shall be given. The director shall notify the licensee by letter 67874
of the initiation of the proceedings. The letter shall list the 67875
deficiencies of the residential facility and inform the licensee 67876
that no plan of correction will be accepted. The director shall 67877
also send a copy of the letter to the county board of 67878
developmental disabilities. The county board shall send a copy of 67879
the letter to each of the following:67880

        (a) Each resident who receives services from the licensee;67881

        (b) The guardian of each resident who receives services from 67882
the licensee if the resident has a guardian;67883

        (c) The parent or guardian of each resident who receives 67884
services from the licensee if the resident is a minor.67885

       (7) Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance 67886
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may order the 67887
immediate removal of residents from a residential facility 67888
whenever conditions at the facility present an immediate danger of 67889
physical or psychological harm to the residents.67890

       (8) In determining whether a residential facility is being 67891
operated in compliance with a provision of this chapter that 67892
applies to residential facilities or the rules adopted under such 67893
a provision, or whether conditions at a residential facility 67894
present an immediate danger of physical or psychological harm to 67895
the residents, the director may rely on information obtained by a 67896
county board of developmental disabilities or other governmental 67897
agencies.67898

       (9) In proceedings initiated to deny, refuse to renew, or 67899
revoke licenses, the director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke 67900
a license regardless of whether some or all of the deficiencies 67901
that prompted the proceedings have been corrected at the time of 67902
the hearing.67903

       (E) The director shall establish a program under which public 67904
notification may be made when the director has initiated license 67905
revocation proceedings or has issued an order for the suspension 67906
of admissions, placement of a monitor, or removal of residents. 67907
The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 67908
the Revised Code to implement this division. The rules shall 67909
establish the procedures by which the public notification will be 67910
made and specify the circumstances for which the notification must 67911
be made. The rules shall require that public notification be made 67912
if the director has taken action against the facility in the 67913
eighteen-month period immediately preceding the director's latest 67914
action against the facility and the latest action is being taken 67915
for the same or a substantially similar violation of a provision 67916
of this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the 67917
rules adopted under such a provision. The rules shall specify a 67918
method for removing or amending the public notification if the 67919
director's action is found to have been unjustified or the 67920
violation at the residential facility has been corrected.67921

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 67922
appeals from proceedings initiated to impose a sanction under 67923
division (D) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with 67924
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.67925

       (2) Appeals from proceedings initiated to order the 67926
suspension of admissions to a facility shall be conducted in 67927
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, unless the order 67928
was issued before providing an opportunity for an adjudication, in 67929
which case all of the following apply:67930

       (a) The licensee may request a hearing not later than ten 67931
days after receiving the notice specified in section 119.07 of the 67932
Revised Code.67933

       (b) If a timely request for a hearing that includes the 67934
licensee's current address is made, the hearing shall commence not 67935
later than thirty days after the department receives the request.67936

       (c) After commencing, the hearing shall continue 67937
uninterrupted, except for Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, 67938
unless other interruptions are agreed to by the licensee and the 67939
director.67940

       (d) If the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner, the 67941
hearing examiner shall file a report and recommendations not later 67942
than ten days after the last of the following:67943

       (i) The close of the hearing;67944

       (ii) If a transcript of the proceedings is ordered, the 67945
hearing examiner receives the transcript;67946

        (iii) If post-hearing briefs are timely filed, the hearing 67947
examiner receives the briefs.67948

       (e) A copy of the written report and recommendation of the 67949
hearing examiner shall be sent, by certified mail, to the licensee 67950
and the licensee's attorney, if applicable, not later than five 67951
days after the report is filed.67952

        (f) Not later than five days after the hearing examiner files 67953
the report and recommendations, the licensee may file objections 67954
to the report and recommendations.67955

       (g) Not later than fifteen days after the hearing examiner 67956
files the report and recommendations, the director shall issue an 67957
order approving, modifying, or disapproving the report and 67958
recommendations.67959

       (h) Notwithstanding the pendency of the hearing, the director 67960
shall lift the order for the suspension of admissions when the 67961
director determines that the violation that formed the basis for 67962
the order has been corrected.67963

       (G) Neither a person or government agency whose application 67964
for a license to operate a residential facility is denied nor a 67965
related party of the person or government agency may apply for a 67966
license to operate a residential facility before the date that is 67967
one year after the date of the denial. Neither a licensee whose 67968
residential facility license is revoked nor a related party of the 67969
licensee may apply for a residential facility license before the 67970
date that is five years after the date of the revocation.67971

        (H) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 67972
director shall adopt and may amend and rescind rules for licensing 67973
and regulating the operation of residential facilities, including 67974
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded. The rules 67975
for residential facilities that are intermediate care facilities 67976
for the mentally retarded may differ from those for other 67977
residential facilities. The rules shall establish and specify the 67978
following:67979

       (1) Procedures and criteria for issuing and renewing 67980
licenses, including procedures and criteria for determining the 67981
length of the licensing period that the director must specify for 67982
each license when it is issued or renewed;67983

       (2) Procedures and criteria for denying, refusing to renew, 67984
terminating, and revoking licenses and for ordering the suspension 67985
of admissions to a facility, placement of a monitor at a facility, 67986
and the immediate removal of residents from a facility;67987

       (3) Fees for issuing and renewing licenses, which shall be 67988
deposited into the program fee fund created under section 5123.033 67989
of the Revised Code;67990

       (4) Procedures for surveying residential facilities;67991

       (5) Requirements for the training of residential facility 67992
personnel;67993

       (6) Classifications for the various types of residential 67994
facilities;67995

       (7) Certification procedures for licensees and management 67996
contractors that the director determines are necessary to ensure 67997
that they have the skills and qualifications to properly operate 67998
or manage residential facilities;67999

       (8) The maximum number of persons who may be served in a 68000
particular type of residential facility;68001

       (9) Uniform procedures for admission of persons to and 68002
transfers and discharges of persons from residential facilities;68003

       (10) Other standards for the operation of residential 68004
facilities and the services provided at residential facilities;68005

       (11) Procedures for waiving any provision of any rule adopted 68006
under this section.68007

       (I) Before issuing a license, the director of the department 68008
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of the 68009
residential facility for which application is made. The director 68010
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of each licensed 68011
residential facility at least once during the period the license 68012
is valid and may conduct additional inspections as needed. A 68013
survey includes but is not limited to an on-site examination and 68014
evaluation of the residential facility, its personnel, and the 68015
services provided there.68016

       In conducting surveys, the director or the director's 68017
designee shall be given access to the residential facility; all 68018
records, accounts, and any other documents related to the 68019
operation of the facility; the licensee; the residents of the 68020
facility; and all persons acting on behalf of, under the control 68021
of, or in connection with the licensee. The licensee and all 68022
persons on behalf of, under the control of, or in connection with 68023
the licensee shall cooperate with the director or the director's 68024
designee in conducting the survey.68025

       Following each survey, unless the director initiates a 68026
license revocation proceeding, the director or the director's 68027
designee shall provide the licensee with a report listing any 68028
deficiencies, specifying a timetable within which the licensee 68029
shall submit a plan of correction describing how the deficiencies 68030
will be corrected, and, when appropriate, specifying a timetable 68031
within which the licensee must correct the deficiencies. After a 68032
plan of correction is submitted, the director or the director's 68033
designee shall approve or disapprove the plan. A copy of the 68034
report and any approved plan of correction shall be provided to 68035
any person who requests it.68036

       The director shall initiate disciplinary action against any 68037
department employee who notifies or causes the notification to any 68038
unauthorized person of an unannounced survey of a residential 68039
facility by an authorized representative of the department.68040

       (J) In addition to any other information which may be 68041
required of applicants for a license pursuant to this section, the 68042
director shall require each applicant to provide a copy of an 68043
approved plan for a proposed residential facility pursuant to 68044
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code. This division does not apply 68045
to renewal of a license or to an applicant for an initial or 68046
modified license who meets the requirements of section 5123.193 or68047
5123.197 of the Revised Code.68048

       (K) A licensee shall notify the owner of the building in 68049
which the licensee's residential facility is located of any 68050
significant change in the identity of the licensee or management 68051
contractor before the effective date of the change if the licensee 68052
is not the owner of the building.68053

       Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance with 68054
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may require 68055
notification to the department of any significant change in the 68056
ownership of a residential facility or in the identity of the 68057
licensee or management contractor. If the director determines that 68058
a significant change of ownership is proposed, the director shall 68059
consider the proposed change to be an application for development 68060
by a new operator pursuant to section 5123.042 of the Revised Code 68061
and shall advise the applicant within sixty days of the 68062
notification that the current license shall continue in effect or 68063
a new license will be required pursuant to this section. If the 68064
director requires a new license, the director shall permit the 68065
facility to continue to operate under the current license until 68066
the new license is issued, unless the current license is revoked, 68067
refused to be renewed, or terminated in accordance with Chapter 68068
119. of the Revised Code.68069

       (L) A county board of developmental disabilities, the legal 68070
rights service, and any interested person may file complaints 68071
alleging violations of statute or department rule relating to 68072
residential facilities with the department. All complaints shall 68073
be in writing and shall state the facts constituting the basis of 68074
the allegation. The department shall not reveal the source of any 68075
complaint unless the complainant agrees in writing to waive the 68076
right to confidentiality or until so ordered by a court of 68077
competent jurisdiction.68078

       The department shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 68079
119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures for the receipt, 68080
referral, investigation, and disposition of complaints filed with 68081
the department under this division.68082

       (M) The department shall establish procedures for the 68083
notification of interested parties of the transfer or interim care 68084
of residents from residential facilities that are closing or are 68085
losing their license.68086

       (N) Before issuing a license under this section to a 68087
residential facility that will accommodate at any time more than 68088
one mentally retarded or developmentally disabled individual, the 68089
director shall, by first class mail, notify the following:68090

       (1) If the facility will be located in a municipal 68091
corporation, the clerk of the legislative authority of the 68092
municipal corporation;68093

       (2) If the facility will be located in unincorporated 68094
territory, the clerk of the appropriate board of county 68095
commissioners and the fiscal officer of the appropriate board of 68096
township trustees.68097

       The director shall not issue the license for ten days after 68098
mailing the notice, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal 68099
holidays, in order to give the notified local officials time in 68100
which to comment on the proposed issuance.68101

       Any legislative authority of a municipal corporation, board 68102
of county commissioners, or board of township trustees that 68103
receives notice under this division of the proposed issuance of a 68104
license for a residential facility may comment on it in writing to 68105
the director within ten days after the director mailed the notice, 68106
excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays. If the director 68107
receives written comments from any notified officials within the 68108
specified time, the director shall make written findings 68109
concerning the comments and the director's decision on the 68110
issuance of the license. If the director does not receive written 68111
comments from any notified local officials within the specified 68112
time, the director shall continue the process for issuance of the 68113
license.68114

       (O) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 68115
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 68116
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least six but 68117
not more than eight persons with mental retardation or a 68118
developmental disability as a permitted use in any residential 68119
district or zone, including any single-family residential district 68120
or zone, of any political subdivision. These residential 68121
facilities may be required to comply with area, height, yard, and 68122
architectural compatibility requirements that are uniformly 68123
imposed upon all single-family residences within the district or 68124
zone.68125

       (P) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 68126
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 68127
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least nine 68128
but not more than sixteen persons with mental retardation or a 68129
developmental disability as a permitted use in any multiple-family 68130
residential district or zone of any political subdivision, except 68131
that a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance 68132
or resolution establishing planned unit development districts may 68133
exclude these residential facilities from those districts, and a 68134
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 68135
resolution may regulate these residential facilities in 68136
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 68137
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 68138
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 68139
zoning ordinance or resolution to:68140

       (1) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 68141
residential facility and the location, nature, and height of any 68142
walls, screens, and fences to be compatible with adjoining land 68143
uses and the residential character of the neighborhood;68144

       (2) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 68145
regulation;68146

       (3) Limit excessive concentration of these residential 68147
facilities.68148

       (Q) This section does not prohibit a political subdivision 68149
from applying to residential facilities nondiscriminatory 68150
regulations requiring compliance with health, fire, and safety 68151
regulations and building standards and regulations.68152

       (R) Divisions (O) and (P) of this section are not applicable 68153
to municipal corporations that had in effect on June 15, 1977, an 68154
ordinance specifically permitting in residential zones licensed 68155
residential facilities by means of permitted uses, conditional 68156
uses, or special exception, so long as such ordinance remains in 68157
effect without any substantive modification.68158

       (S)(1) The director may issue an interim license to operate a 68159
residential facility to an applicant for a license under this 68160
section if either of the following is the case:68161

       (a) The director determines that an emergency exists 68162
requiring immediate placement of persons in a residential 68163
facility, that insufficient licensed beds are available, and that 68164
the residential facility is likely to receive a permanent license 68165
under this section within thirty days after issuance of the 68166
interim license.68167

       (b) The director determines that the issuance of an interim 68168
license is necessary to meet a temporary need for a residential 68169
facility.68170

       (2) To be eligible to receive an interim license, an 68171
applicant must meet the same criteria that must be met to receive 68172
a permanent license under this section, except for any differing 68173
procedures and time frames that may apply to issuance of a 68174
permanent license.68175

       (3) An interim license shall be valid for thirty days and may 68176
be renewed by the director for a period not to exceed one hundred 68177
fifty days.68178

       (4) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 68179
119. of the Revised Code as the director considers necessary to 68180
administer the issuance of interim licenses.68181

       (T) Notwithstanding rules adopted pursuant to this section 68182
establishing the maximum number of persons who may be served in a 68183
particular type of residential facility, a residential facility 68184
shall be permitted to serve the same number of persons being 68185
served by the facility on the effective date of the rules or the 68186
number of persons for which the facility is authorized pursuant to 68187
a current application for a certificate of need with a letter of 68188
support from the department of developmental disabilities and 68189
which is in the review process prior to April 4, 1986.68190

       (U) The director or the director's designee may enter at any 68191
time, for purposes of investigation, any home, facility, or other 68192
structure that has been reported to the director or that the 68193
director has reasonable cause to believe is being operated as a 68194
residential facility without a license issued under this section.68195

       The director may petition the court of common pleas of the 68196
county in which an unlicensed residential facility is located for 68197
an order enjoining the person or governmental agency operating the 68198
facility from continuing to operate without a license. The court 68199
may grant the injunction on a showing that the person or 68200
governmental agency named in the petition is operating a 68201
residential facility without a license. The court may grant the 68202
injunction, regardless of whether the residential facility meets 68203
the requirements for receiving a license under this section.68204

       Sec. 5123.192. (A) A person or government agency operating, 68205
on the effective date of this section, an intermediate care 68206
facility for the mentally retarded pursuant to a nursing home 68207
license issued under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code shall do 68208
both of the following as a condition of continuing to operate the 68209
facility on and after July 1, 2013:68210

        (1) Not later than February 1, 2013, apply to the director of 68211
developmental disabilities for a residential facility license 68212
under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code for the facility;68213

        (2) Not later than July 1, 2013, obtain the residential 68214
facility license for the facility.68215

        (B) The nursing home license of an intermediate care facility 68216
for the mentally retarded shall cease to be valid at the earliest 68217
of the following:68218

        (1) The date that the facility's nursing home license is 68219
revoked or voided under section 3721.07 of the Revised Code;68220

        (2) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 68221
for the facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;68222

        (3) July 1, 2013.68223

        (C) No bed that is part of an intermediate care facility for 68224
the mentally retarded that is licensed as a nursing home on the 68225
effective date of this section may be used as part of a nursing 68226
home on and after the earlier of the following:68227

        (1) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 68228
for the facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;68229

        (2) July 1, 2013.68230

       Sec. 5123.31. (A) The department of developmental 68231
disabilities shall keep in its office, accessible only to its 68232
employees, except by the consent of the department or the order of 68233
the judge of a court of record, a record showing the name, 68234
residence, sex, age, nativity, occupation, condition, and date of 68235
entrance or commitment of every resident in the institutions 68236
governed by it, the date, cause, and terms of discharge and the 68237
condition of such person at the time of leaving, and also a record 68238
of all transfers from one institution to another, and, if such 68239
person dies while in the care or custody of the department, the 68240
date and cause of death. These and such other facts as the 68241
department requires shall be furnished by the managing officer of 68242
each institution within ten days after the commitment, entrance, 68243
death, or discharge of a resident.68244

       Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 68245
department shall maintain the records described in this division 68246
in its office. The department shall make the records accessible 68247
only to its employees, except by the consent of the department or 68248
the order of the judge of a court of record.68249

       (B) In case of an accident or injury or peculiar death of a68250
an institution resident the managing officer shall make a special 68251
report to the department within twenty-four hours thereafter, 68252
giving the circumstances as fully as possible.68253

       (C) After a period of time determined by the department, the 68254
records described in division (A) of this section may be deposited 68255
with the Ohio historical society. Neither the records nor the 68256
information contained in them shall be disclosed by the historical 68257
society, except as provided in section 5123.89 of the Revised 68258
Code.68259

       Sec. 5123.38. (A) Except as provided in division (B) and (C)68260
of this section, if an individual receiving supported living or 68261
home and community-based services funded by a county board of 68262
developmental disabilities is committed to a state-operated 68263
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded pursuant to 68264
sections 5123.71 to 5123.76 of the Revised Code, the department of 68265
developmental disabilities shall use the funds otherwise allocated 68266
to the county board asis responsible for the nonfederal share of 68267
medicaid expenditures for the individual's care in the 68268
state-operated facility. The department of developmental 68269
disabilities shall collect the amount of the nonfederal share from 68270
the county board by either withholding that amount from funds the 68271
department has otherwise allocated to the county board or 68272
submitting an invoice for payment of that amount to the county 68273
board.68274

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply if theunder 68275
any of the following circumstances:68276

       (1) The county board, not later than ninety days after the 68277
date of the commitment of a person receiving supported services68278
living, commences funding of supported living for an individual 68279
who resides in a state-operated intermediate care facility for the 68280
mentally retarded on the date of the commitment or another 68281
eligible individual designated by the department.68282

       (C) Division (A) of this section does not apply if the(2) 68283
The county board, not later than ninety days after the date of the 68284
commitment of a person receiving home and community-based 68285
services, commences funding of home and community-based services 68286
for an individual who resides in a state-operated intermediate 68287
care facility for the mentally retarded on the date of the 68288
commitment or another eligible individual designated by the 68289
department.68290

       (3) The director of developmental disabilities, after 68291
determining that circumstances warrant granting a waiver in an 68292
individual's case, grants the county board a waiver that exempts 68293
the county board from responsibility for the nonfederal share for 68294
that case.68295

       Sec. 5123.41.  As used in this section and sections 5123.42 68296
to 5123.47 of the Revised Code:68297

       (A) "Adult services" has the same meaning as in section 68298
5126.01 of the Revised Code.68299

       (B) "Certified supported living provider" means a person or 68300
government entity certified under section 5123.161 of the Revised 68301
Code.68302

       (C) "Drug" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the 68303
Revised Code.68304

       (D) "Family support services" has the same meaning as in 68305
section 5126.01 of the Revised Code.68306

       (E) "Health-related activities" means the following:68307

       (1) Taking vital signs;68308

       (2) Application of clean dressings that do not require health 68309
assessment;68310

       (3) Basic measurement of bodily intake and output;68311

       (4) Oral suctioning;68312

       (5) Use of glucometers;68313

       (6) External urinary catheter care;68314

       (7) Emptying and replacing colostomy bags;68315

       (8) Collection of specimens by noninvasive means.68316

       (F) "Licensed health professional authorized to prescribe 68317
drugs" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised 68318
Code.68319

       (G) "MR/DD personnel" means the employees and the workers 68320
under contract who provide specialized services to individuals 68321
with mental retardation and developmental disabilities. "MR/DD 68322
personnel" includes those who provide the services as follows:68323

       (1) Through direct employment with the department of 68324
developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental 68325
disabilities;68326

       (2) Through an entity under contract with the department of 68327
developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental 68328
disabilities;68329

       (3) Through direct employment or by being under contract with 68330
private entities, including private entities that operate 68331
residential facilities.68332

       (H) "Nursing delegation" means the process established in 68333
rules adopted by the board of nursing pursuant to Chapter 4723. of 68334
the Revised Code under which a registered nurse or licensed 68335
practical nurse acting at the direction of a registered nurse 68336
transfers the performance of a particular nursing activity or task 68337
to another person who is not otherwise authorized to perform the 68338
activity or task.68339

       (I) "Prescribed medication" means a drug that is to be 68340
administered according to the instructions of a licensed health 68341
professional authorized to prescribe drugs.68342

       (J) "Residential facility" means a facility licensed under 68343
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code or subject to section 5123.192 68344
of the Revised Code.68345

       (K) "Specialized services" has the same meaning as in section 68346
5123.50 of the Revised Code.68347

       (L) "Tube feeding" means the provision of nutrition to an 68348
individual through a gastrostomy tube or a jejunostomy tube.68349

       Sec. 5123.50.  As used in this section and sections 5123.51, 68350
5123.52, and 5123.5415123.50 to 5123.542 of the Revised Code:68351

       (A) "Abuse" means all of the following:68352

       (1) The use of physical force that can reasonably be expected 68353
to result in physical harm or serious physical harm;68354

       (2) Sexual abuse;68355

       (3) Verbal abuse.68356

       (B) "Misappropriation" means depriving, defrauding, or 68357
otherwise obtaining the real or personal property of an individual 68358
by any means prohibited by the Revised Code, including violations 68359
of Chapter 2911. or 2913. of the Revised Code.68360

       (C) "MR/DD employee" means all of the following:68361

       (1) An employee of the department of developmental 68362
disabilities;68363

       (2) An employee of a county board of developmental 68364
disabilities;68365

       (3) An employee in a position that includes providing 68366
specialized services to an individual with mental retardation or 68367
another developmental disability;68368

       (4) An independent provider as defined in section 5123.16 of 68369
the Revised Code.68370

       (D) "Neglect" means, when there is a duty to do so, failing 68371
to provide an individual with any treatment, care, goods, or 68372
services that are necessary to maintain the health and safety of 68373
the individual.68374

       (E) "Offense of violence" has the same meaning as in section 68375
2901.01 of the Revised Code.68376

       (F) "Physical harm" and "serious physical harm" have the same 68377
meanings as in section 2901.01 of the Revised Code.68378

       (F)(G) "Prescribed medication" has the same meaning as in 68379
section 5123.41 of the Revised Code.68380

       (H) "Sexual abuse" means unlawful sexual conduct or sexual 68381
contact.68382

       (G)(I) "Specialized services" means any program or service 68383
designed and operated to serve primarily individuals with mental 68384
retardation or a developmental disability, including a program or 68385
service provided by an entity licensed or certified by the 68386
department of developmental disabilities. A program or service 68387
available to the general public is not a specialized service.68388

       (H)(J) "Verbal abuse" means purposely using words to 68389
threaten, coerce, intimidate, harass, or humiliate an individual.68390

       (I)(K) "Sexual conduct," "sexual contact," and "spouse" have 68391
the same meanings as in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code.68392

       Sec. 5123.51.  (A) In addition to any other action required 68393
by sections 5123.61 and 5126.31 of the Revised Code, the 68394
department of developmental disabilities shall review each report 68395
the department receives of abuse or neglect of an individual with 68396
mental retardation or a developmental disability or 68397
misappropriation of an individual's property that includes an 68398
allegation that an MR/DD employee committed or was responsible for 68399
the abuse, neglect, or misappropriation. The department shall 68400
review a report it receives from a public children services agency 68401
only after the agency completes its investigation pursuant to 68402
section 2151.421 of the Revised Code. On receipt of a notice under 68403
section 2930.061 or 5123.541 of the Revised Code, the department 68404
shall review the notice.68405

       (B) The department shall do both of the following:68406

       (1) Investigate the allegation or adopt the findings of an 68407
investigation or review of the allegation conducted by another 68408
person or government entity and determine whether there is a 68409
reasonable basis for the allegation;68410

       (2) If the department determines that there is a reasonable 68411
basis for the allegation, conduct an adjudication pursuant to 68412
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.68413

       (C)(1) The department shall appoint an independent hearing 68414
officer to conduct any hearing conducted pursuant to division 68415
(B)(2) of this section, except that, if the hearing is regarding 68416
an employee of the department who is represented by a union, the 68417
department and a representative of the union shall jointly select 68418
the hearing officer.68419

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(2)(b) of this 68420
section, no hearing shall be conducted under division (B)(2) of 68421
this section until any criminal proceeding or collective 68422
bargaining arbitration concerning the same allegation has 68423
concluded.68424

       (b) The department may conduct a hearing pursuant to division 68425
(B)(2) of this section before a criminal proceeding concerning the 68426
same allegation is concluded if both of the following are the 68427
case:68428

        (i) The department notifies the prosecutor responsible for 68429
the criminal proceeding that the department proposes to conduct a 68430
hearing.68431

        (ii) The prosecutor consents to the hearing.68432

       (3) In conducting a hearing pursuant to division (B)(2) of 68433
this section, the hearing officer shall do all of the following:68434

       (a) Determine whether there is clear and convincing evidence 68435
that the MR/DD employee has done any of the following:68436

       (i) Misappropriated property of one or more individuals with 68437
mental retardation or a developmental disability that has a value, 68438
either separately or taken together, of one hundred dollars or 68439
more;68440

       (ii) Misappropriated property of an individual with mental 68441
retardation or a developmental disability that is designed to be 68442
used as a check, draft, negotiable instrument, credit card, charge 68443
card, or device for initiating an electronic fund transfer at a 68444
point of sale terminal, automated teller machine, or cash 68445
dispensing machine;68446

       (iii) Misappropriated prescribed medication of an individual 68447
with mental retardation or a developmental disability;68448

       (iv) Knowingly abused such an individual;68449

       (iv)(v) Recklessly abused or neglected such an individual, 68450
with resulting physical harm;68451

       (v)(vi) Negligently abused or neglected such an individual, 68452
with resulting serious physical harm;68453

       (vi)(vii) Recklessly neglected such an individual, creating a 68454
substantial risk of serious physical harm;68455

       (vii)(viii) Engaged in sexual conduct or had sexual contact 68456
with an individual with mental retardation or another 68457
developmental disability who was not the MR/DD employee's spouse 68458
and for whom the MR/DD employee was employed or under a contract 68459
to provide care;68460

       (viii)(ix) Unreasonably failed to make a report pursuant to 68461
division (C) of section 5123.61 of the Revised Code when the 68462
employee knew or should have known that the failure would result 68463
in a substantial risk of harm to an individual with mental 68464
retardation or a developmental disability;68465

       (x) Been convicted of or entered a plea of guilty to any of 68466
the following if the victim of the offense is an individual with 68467
mental retardation or a developmental disability: an offense of 68468
violence, a violation of a section contained in Chapter 2907. or 68469
Chapter 2913. of the Revised Code, or a violation of section 68470
2903.16, 2903.34, 2903.341, or 2919.22 of the Revised Code.68471

       (b) Give weight to the decision in any collective bargaining 68472
arbitration regarding the same allegation;68473

        (c) Give weight to any relevant facts presented at the 68474
hearing.68475

       (D)(1) Unless the director of developmental disabilities 68476
determines that there are extenuating circumstances and except as 68477
provided in division (E) of this section, if the director, after 68478
considering all of the factors listed in division (C)(3) of this 68479
section, finds that there is clear and convincing evidence that an 68480
MR/DD employee has done one or more of the things described in 68481
division (C)(3)(a) of this section the director shall include the 68482
name of the employee in the registry established under section 68483
5123.52 of the Revised Code.68484

       (2) Extenuating circumstances the director must consider 68485
include the use of physical force by an MR/DD employee that was 68486
necessary as self-defense.68487

       (3) If the director includes an MR/DD employee in the 68488
registry established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code, 68489
the director shall notify the employee, the person or government 68490
entity that employs or contracts with the employee, the individual 68491
with mental retardation or a developmental disability who was the 68492
subject of the report and that individual's legal guardian, if 68493
any, the attorney general, and the prosecuting attorney or other 68494
law enforcement agency. If the MR/DD employee holds a license, 68495
certificate, registration, or other authorization to engage in a 68496
profession issued pursuant to Title XLVII of the Revised Code, the 68497
director shall notify the appropriate agency, board, department, 68498
or other entity responsible for regulating the employee's 68499
professional practice.68500

       (4) If an individual whose name appears on the registry is 68501
involved in a court proceeding or arbitration arising from the 68502
same facts as the allegation resulting in the individual's 68503
placement on the registry, the disposition of the proceeding or 68504
arbitration shall be noted in the registry next to the 68505
individual's name.68506

       (E) In the case of an allegation concerning an employee of 68507
the department, after the hearing conducted pursuant to division 68508
(B)(2) of this section, the director of health or that director's 68509
designee shall review the decision of the hearing officer to 68510
determine whether the standard described in division (C)(3) of 68511
this section has been met. If the director or designee determines 68512
that the standard has been met and that no extenuating 68513
circumstances exist, the director or designee shall notify the 68514
director of developmental disabilities that the MR/DD employee is 68515
to be included in the registry established under section 5123.52 68516
of the Revised Code. If the director of developmental disabilities 68517
receives such notification, the director shall include the MR/DD 68518
employee in the registry and shall provide the notification 68519
described in division (D)(3) of this section.68520

       (F) If the department is required by Chapter 119. of the 68521
Revised Code to give notice of an opportunity for a hearing and 68522
the MR/DD employee subject to the notice does not timely request a 68523
hearing in accordance with section 119.07 or 5123.0414 of the 68524
Revised Code, the department is not required to hold a hearing.68525

       (G) Files and records of investigations conducted pursuant to 68526
this section are not public records as defined in section 149.43 68527
of the Revised Code, but, on request, the department shall provide 68528
copies of those files and records to the attorney general, a 68529
prosecuting attorney, or a law enforcement agency.68530

       Sec. 5123.542.  (A) Each of the following shall annually 68531
provide a written notice to each of its MR/DD employees explaining 68532
the conduct for which an MR/DD employee may be included in the 68533
registry established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code:68534

        (1) The department of developmental disabilities;68535

        (2) Each county board of developmental disabilities;68536

        (3) Each contracting entityprovider and subcontractor, as 68537
defined in section 5126.2815123.081 of the Revised Code;68538

        (4) Each owner, operator, or administrator of a residential 68539
facility, as defined in section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;68540

        (5) Each owner, operator, or administrator of a program 68541
certified by the department to provide supported living.68542

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities or a county 68543
board of developmental disabilities shall provide the notice 68544
required by division (A) of this section to an MR/DD employee who 68545
is an independent provider as defined in section 5123.16 of the 68546
Revised Code.68547

        (C) The notice described in division (A) of this section 68548
shall be in a form and provided in a manner prescribed by the 68549
department of developmental disabilities. The form shall be the 68550
same for all persons and entities required to provide notice under 68551
division (A) of this section.68552

        (C) The fact that an MR/DD employee does not receive the 68553
notice required by this section does not exempt the employee from 68554
inclusion in the registry established under section 5123.52 of the 68555
Revised Code.68556

       Sec. 5123.61.  (A) As used in this section:68557

       (1) "Law enforcement agency" means the state highway patrol, 68558
the police department of a municipal corporation, or a county 68559
sheriff.68560

       (2) "Abuse" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of the 68561
Revised Code, except that it includes a misappropriation, as 68562
defined in that section.68563

       (3) "Neglect" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of 68564
the Revised Code.68565

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities shall 68566
establish a registry office for the purpose of maintaining reports 68567
of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents made to the 68568
department under this section and reports received from county 68569
boards of developmental disabilities under section 5126.31 of the 68570
Revised Code. The department shall establish committees to review 68571
reports of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents.68572

       (C)(1) Any person listed in division (C)(2) of this section, 68573
having reason to believe that a person with mental retardation or 68574
a developmental disability has suffered or faces a substantial 68575
risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or condition of 68576
such a nature as to reasonably indicate abuse or neglect of that 68577
person, shall immediately report or cause reports to be made of 68578
such information to the entity specified in this division. Except 68579
as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code or as 68580
otherwise provided in this division, the person making the report 68581
shall make it to a law enforcement agency or to the county board 68582
of developmental disabilities. If the report concerns a resident 68583
of a facility operated by the department of developmental 68584
disabilities the report shall be made either to a law enforcement 68585
agency or to the department. If the report concerns any act or 68586
omission of an employee of a county board of developmental 68587
disabilities, the report immediately shall be made to the 68588
department and to the county board.68589

       (2) All of the following persons are required to make a 68590
report under division (C)(1) of this section:68591

       (a) Any physician, including a hospital intern or resident, 68592
any dentist, podiatrist, chiropractor, practitioner of a limited 68593
branch of medicine as specified in section 4731.15 of the Revised 68594
Code, hospital administrator or employee of a hospital, nurse 68595
licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, employee of an 68596
ambulatory health facility as defined in section 5101.61 of the 68597
Revised Code, employee of a home health agency, employee of an 68598
adult careresidential facility licensed under Chapter 3722.68599
section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 68600
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 68601
unrelated adults, or employee of a community mental health 68602
facility;68603

       (b) Any school teacher or school authority, social worker, 68604
psychologist, attorney, peace officer, coroner, or residents' 68605
rights advocate as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code;68606

       (c) A superintendent, board member, or employee of a county 68607
board of developmental disabilities; an administrator, board 68608
member, or employee of a residential facility licensed under 68609
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code; an administrator, board 68610
member, or employee of any other public or private provider of 68611
services to a person with mental retardation or a developmental 68612
disability, or any MR/DD employee, as defined in section 5123.50 68613
of the Revised Code;68614

       (d) A member of a citizen's advisory council established at 68615
an institution or branch institution of the department of 68616
developmental disabilities under section 5123.092 of the Revised 68617
Code;68618

       (e) A clergymanmember of the clergy who is employed in a 68619
position that includes providing specialized services to an 68620
individual with mental retardation or another developmental 68621
disability, while acting in an official or professional capacity 68622
in that position, or a person who is employed in a position that 68623
includes providing specialized services to an individual with 68624
mental retardation or another developmental disability and who, 68625
while acting in an official or professional capacity, renders 68626
spiritual treatment through prayer in accordance with the tenets 68627
of an organized religion.68628

       (3)(a) The reporting requirements of this division do not 68629
apply to members of the legal rights service commission or to 68630
employees of the legal rights service.68631

       (b) An attorney or physician is not required to make a report 68632
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section concerning any 68633
communication the attorney or physician receives from a client or 68634
patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, 68635
if, in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of 68636
the Revised Code, the attorney or physician could not testify with 68637
respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding, 68638
except that the client or patient is deemed to have waived any 68639
testimonial privilege under division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 68640
of the Revised Code with respect to that communication and the 68641
attorney or physician shall make a report pursuant to division 68642
(C)(1) of this section, if both of the following apply:68643

       (i) The client or patient, at the time of the communication, 68644
is a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability.68645

       (ii) The attorney or physician knows or suspects, as a result 68646
of the communication or any observations made during that 68647
communication, that the client or patient has suffered or faces a 68648
substantial risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or 68649
condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect 68650
of the client or patient.68651

       (4) Any person who fails to make a report required under 68652
division (C) of this section and who is an MR/DD employee, as 68653
defined in section 5123.50 of the Revised Code, shall be eligible 68654
to be included in the registry regarding misappropriation, abuse, 68655
neglect, or other specified misconduct by MR/DD employees 68656
established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code.68657

       (D) The reports required under division (C) of this section 68658
shall be made forthwith by telephone or in person and shall be 68659
followed by a written report. The reports shall contain the 68660
following:68661

       (1) The names and addresses of the person with mental 68662
retardation or a developmental disability and the person's 68663
custodian, if known;68664

       (2) The age of the person with mental retardation or a 68665
developmental disability;68666

       (3) Any other information that would assist in the 68667
investigation of the report.68668

       (E) When a physician performing services as a member of the 68669
staff of a hospital or similar institution has reason to believe 68670
that a person with mental retardation or a developmental 68671
disability has suffered injury, abuse, or physical neglect, the 68672
physician shall notify the person in charge of the institution or 68673
that person's designated delegate, who shall make the necessary 68674
reports.68675

       (F) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that a 68676
person with mental retardation or a developmental disability has 68677
suffered or faces a substantial risk of suffering abuse or neglect 68678
may report or cause a report to be made of that belief to the 68679
entity specified in this division. Except as provided in section 68680
5120.173 of the Revised Code or as otherwise provided in this 68681
division, the person making the report shall make it to a law 68682
enforcement agency or the county board of developmental 68683
disabilities. If the person is a resident of a facility operated 68684
by the department of developmental disabilities, the report shall 68685
be made to a law enforcement agency or to the department. If the 68686
report concerns any act or omission of an employee of a county 68687
board of developmental disabilities, the report immediately shall 68688
be made to the department and to the county board.68689

       (G)(1) Upon the receipt of a report concerning the possible 68690
abuse or neglect of a person with mental retardation or a 68691
developmental disability, the law enforcement agency shall inform 68692
the county board of developmental disabilities or, if the person 68693
is a resident of a facility operated by the department of 68694
developmental disabilities, the director of the department or the 68695
director's designee.68696

       (2) On receipt of a report under this section that includes 68697
an allegation of action or inaction that may constitute a crime 68698
under federal law or the law of this state, the department of 68699
developmental disabilities shall notify the law enforcement 68700
agency.68701

       (3) When a county board of developmental disabilities 68702
receives a report under this section that includes an allegation 68703
of action or inaction that may constitute a crime under federal 68704
law or the law of this state, the superintendent of the board or 68705
an individual the superintendent designates under division (H) of 68706
this section shall notify the law enforcement agency. The 68707
superintendent or individual shall notify the department of 68708
developmental disabilities when it receives any report under this 68709
section.68710

       (4) When a county board of developmental disabilities 68711
receives a report under this section and believes that the degree 68712
of risk to the person is such that the report is an emergency, the 68713
superintendent of the board or an employee of the board the 68714
superintendent designates shall attempt a face-to-face contact 68715
with the person with mental retardation or a developmental 68716
disability who allegedly is the victim within one hour of the 68717
board's receipt of the report.68718

       (H) The superintendent of the board may designate an 68719
individual to be responsible for notifying the law enforcement 68720
agency and the department when the county board receives a report 68721
under this section.68722

       (I) An adult with mental retardation or a developmental 68723
disability about whom a report is made may be removed from the 68724
adult's place of residence only by law enforcement officers who 68725
consider that the adult's immediate removal is essential to 68726
protect the adult from further injury or abuse or in accordance 68727
with the order of a court made pursuant to section 5126.33 of the 68728
Revised Code.68729

       (J) A law enforcement agency shall investigate each report of 68730
abuse or neglect it receives under this section. In addition, the 68731
department, in cooperation with law enforcement officials, shall 68732
investigate each report regarding a resident of a facility 68733
operated by the department to determine the circumstances 68734
surrounding the injury, the cause of the injury, and the person 68735
responsible. The investigation shall be in accordance with the 68736
memorandum of understanding prepared under section 5126.058 of the 68737
Revised Code. The department shall determine, with the registry 68738
office which shall be maintained by the department, whether prior 68739
reports have been made concerning an adult with mental retardation 68740
or a developmental disability or other principals in the case. If 68741
the department finds that the report involves action or inaction 68742
that may constitute a crime under federal law or the law of this 68743
state, it shall submit a report of its investigation, in writing, 68744
to the law enforcement agency. If the person with mental 68745
retardation or a developmental disability is an adult, with the 68746
consent of the adult, the department shall provide such protective 68747
services as are necessary to protect the adult. The law 68748
enforcement agency shall make a written report of its findings to 68749
the department.68750

       If the person is an adult and is not a resident of a facility 68751
operated by the department, the county board of developmental 68752
disabilities shall review the report of abuse or neglect in 68753
accordance with sections 5126.30 to 5126.33 of the Revised Code 68754
and the law enforcement agency shall make the written report of 68755
its findings to the county board.68756

       (K) Any person or any hospital, institution, school, health 68757
department, or agency participating in the making of reports 68758
pursuant to this section, any person participating as a witness in 68759
an administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from the 68760
reports, or any person or governmental entity that discharges 68761
responsibilities under sections 5126.31 to 5126.33 of the Revised 68762
Code shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability that 68763
might otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of such actions 68764
except liability for perjury, unless the person or governmental 68765
entity has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.68766

       (L) No employer or any person with the authority to do so 68767
shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 68768
performance evaluation, reduce pay or benefits, terminate work 68769
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 68770
retaliate against an employee as a result of the employee's having 68771
made a report under this section. This division does not preclude 68772
an employer or person with authority from taking action with 68773
regard to an employee who has made a report under this section if 68774
there is another reasonable basis for the action.68775

       (M) Reports made under this section are not public records as 68776
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 68777
contained in the reports on request shall be made available to the 68778
person who is the subject of the report, to the person's legal 68779
counsel, and to agencies authorized to receive information in the 68780
report by the department or by a county board of developmental 68781
disabilities.68782

       (N) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the 68783
physician-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding 68784
evidence regarding the injuries or physical neglect of a person 68785
with mental retardation or a developmental disability or the cause 68786
thereof in any judicial proceeding resulting from a report 68787
submitted pursuant to this section.68788

       Sec. 5123.89.  (A) All certificates, applications, records, 68789
and reports made for the purpose of this chapter, other than court 68790
journal entries or court docket entries, which directly or 68791
indirectly identify a resident or former resident of an 68792
institution for the mentally retarded or person whose 68793
institutionalization has been sought under this chapter shall be 68794
kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by any person except 68795
in the following situations:68796

       (1) It is the judgment of the court for judicial records, and 68797
the managing officer for institution records, that disclosure is 68798
in the best interest of the person identified, and that person or 68799
that person's guardian or, if that person is a minor, that 68800
person's parent or guardian consents.68801

       (2) Disclosure is provided for in other sections of this 68802
chapter.68803

       (3) It is the judgment of the managing officer for 68804
institution records that disclosure to a mental health facility is 68805
in the best interest of the person identified.68806

       (4) Disclosure is of a record deposited with the Ohio 68807
historical society pursuant to division (C) of section 5123.31 of 68808
the Revised Code and the disclosure is made to the closest living 68809
relative of the person identified, on the relative's request.68810

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities shall adopt 68811
rules with respect to the systematic and periodic destruction of 68812
residents' records.68813

       (C)(1) As used in this division, "family" means a parent, 68814
brother, sister, spouse, son, daughter, grandparent, aunt, uncle, 68815
or cousin.68816

       (2) Upon the death of a resident or former resident of an 68817
institution for the mentally retarded or a person whose 68818
institutionalization was sought under this chapter, the managing 68819
officer of an institution shall provide access to the 68820
certificates, applications, records, and reports made for the 68821
purposes of this chapter to the resident's, former resident's, or 68822
person's guardian if the guardian makes a written request. If a 68823
deceased resident, former resident, or person whose 68824
institutionalization was sought under this chapter did not have a 68825
guardian at the time of death, the managing officer shall provide 68826
access to the certificates, applications, records, and reports 68827
made for purposes of this chapter to a member of the person's 68828
family, upon that family member's written request.68829

       (D) No person shall reveal the contents of a record of a 68830
resident except as authorized by this chapter.68831

       Sec. 5126.023. (A) None of the following individuals may 68832
serve as a member of a county board of developmental disabilities:68833

       (1)(A) An elected public official, except for a township 68834
trustee, township fiscal officer, or individual excluded from the 68835
definition of public official or employee in division (B) of 68836
section 102.01 of the Revised Code;68837

       (2)(B) An immediate family member of anothera member of the 68838
same county board member;68839

       (3) A county board(C) An employee orof any county board;68840

       (D) An immediate family member of a county boardan employee 68841
of the same county board;68842

       (4)(E) A former employee of thea county board whose 68843
employment with the county board ceased less than onefour68844
calendar yearyears before the former employee would begin to 68845
serve as a member of the same county board;68846

       (5) An(F) A former employee of a county board whose 68847
employment ceased less than two years before the former employee 68848
would begin to serve as a member of a different county board;68849

       (G) Unless there is no conflict of interest, an individual 68850
who or whose immediate family member is a board member or an 68851
employee of an agency licensed or certified by the department of 68852
developmental disabilities to provide services to individuals with 68853
mental retardation or developmental disabilities or an individual 68854
who or whose immediate family member is an employee of such an 68855
agency;68856

       (6) An individual who or whose immediate family member is a 68857
board member or employee of an agency contracting with the county 68858
board that is not licensed or certified by the department of 68859
developmental disabilities to provide services to individuals with 68860
mental retardation or developmental disabilities unless there is 68861
no conflict of interest;68862

       (7)(H) An individual with an immediate family member who 68863
serves as a county commissioner of a county served by the county 68864
board unless the individual was a member of the county board 68865
before October 31, 1980.68866

       (B) All questions relating to the existence of a conflict of 68867
interest for the purpose of division (A)(6) of this section shall 68868
be submitted to the local prosecuting attorney for resolution. The 68869
Ohio ethics commission may examine any issues arising under 68870
Chapter 102. and sections 2921.42, 2921.421, and 2921.43 of the 68871
Revised Code.68872

       Sec. 5126.0220. (A) The superintendent of the county board 68873
of developmental disabilities shall do all of the following:68874

       (A)(1) Administer the work of the board, subject to the 68875
board's rules;68876

       (B)(2) Recommend to the board the changes necessary to 68877
increase the effectiveness of the programs and services offered 68878
pursuant to Chapters 3323. and 5126. of the Revised Code;68879

       (C)(3) Employ persons for all positions authorized by the 68880
board, approve contracts of employment for management employees 68881
that are for a term of one year or less, and approve personnel 68882
actions that involve employees in the classified civil service as 68883
may be necessary for the work of the board;68884

       (D)(4) Approve compensation for employees within the limits 68885
set by the salary schedule and budget set by the board and in 68886
accordance with section 5126.26 of the Revised Code, and ensure 68887
that all employees and consultants are properly reimbursed for 68888
actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of 68889
official duties;68890

       (E)(5) Provide consultation to public agencies as defined in 68891
division (C) of section 102.01 of the Revised Code, including 68892
other county boards of developmental disabilities, and to 68893
individuals, agencies, or organizations providing services 68894
supported by the board.68895

       (B) The superintendent may authorize the payment of board 68896
obligations by the county auditor.68897

       Sec. 5126.0221. (A) As used in this section, "specialized 68898
services" has the same meaning as in section 5126.2815123.081 of 68899
the Revised Code.68900

        (B) Except as provided in division (C) of section 5126.033 of 68901
the Revised Code, none of the following individuals may be 68902
employed by a county board of developmental disabilities:68903

       (1) An employee of an agency contracting with the county 68904
board;68905

       (2) An immediate family member of an employee of an agency 68906
contracting with the county board unless the county board adopts a 68907
resolution authorizing the immediate family member's employment 68908
with the county board or the employment is consistent with a 68909
policy adopted by the board establishing parameters for such 68910
employment and the policy is consistent with Chapter 102. and 68911
sections 2921.42, 2921.421, and 2921.43 of the Revised Code;68912

       (3) An individual with an immediate family member who serves 68913
as a county commissioner of any of the counties served by the 68914
county board unless the individual was an employee of the county 68915
board before October 31, 1980;68916

       (4) An individual who is employed by, has an ownership 68917
interest in, performs or provides administrative duties for, or is 68918
a member of the governing board of an entity that provides 68919
specialized services, regardless of whether the entity contracts 68920
with the county board to provide specialized services.68921

       Sec. 5126.043. When an individual with mental retardation or 68922
other developmental disability is required within this chapter to 68923
consent, refuse to give consent, or withdraw consent for services 68924
and the individual has been adjudicated incompetent pursuant to 68925
Chapter 2111. of the Revised Code, the guardian for the individual 68926
appointed under that chapter and functioning in accordance with 68927
the appointment shall be responsible for giving, refusing to give, 68928
or withdrawing the consent for services.68929

       Individuals(A) Unless a guardian has been appointed for the 68930
individual, when a decision regarding receipt of a service or 68931
participation in a program provided for or funded under this 68932
chapter or Chapter 5123. of the Revised Code by an individual with 68933
mental retardation or other developmental disability must be made, 68934
the individual shall be permitted to make the decision. The 68935
individual may obtain support and guidance from an adult family 68936
member or other person, but doing so does not affect the right of 68937
the individual to make the decision.68938

       (B) An individual with mental retardation or other 68939
developmental disability may authorize an adult to make a decision 68940
described in division (A) of this section on the individual's 68941
behalf, as long as the adult does not have a financial interest in 68942
the decision. The authorization shall be made in writing.68943

       (C) If a guardian has been appointed for an individual with 68944
mental retardation or other developmental disability, the guardian 68945
shall make any decision described in division (A) of this section 68946
on behalf of the individual. This section does not require 68947
appointment of a guardian.68948

       (D) Individuals with mental retardation and other 68949
developmental disabilities, including those who have been 68950
adjudicated incompetent pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the Revised 68951
Code, have the right to participate in decisions that affect their 68952
lives and to have their needs, desires, and preferences 68953
considered. An adult or guardian who makes a decision pursuant to 68954
division (B) or (C) of this section shall make a decision that is 68955
in the best interests of the individual on whose behalf the 68956
decision is made and that is consistent with the needs, desires, 68957
and preferences of that individual.68958

       Sec. 5126.046. (A) Each county board of developmental 68959
disabilities that has medicaid local administrative authority 68960
under division (A) of section 5126.055 of the Revised Code for 68961
habilitation, vocational, or community employment services 68962
provided as part of home and community-based services shall create 68963
a list of all persons and government entities eligible to provide 68964
such habilitation, vocational, or community employment services. 68965
If the county board chooses and is eligible to provide such 68966
habilitation, vocational, or community employment services, the 68967
county board shall include itself on the list. The county board 68968
shall make the list available to each individual with mental 68969
retardation or other developmental disability who resides in the 68970
county and is eligible for such habilitation, vocational, or 68971
community employment services. The county board shall also make 68972
the list available to such individuals' families.68973

       AnExcept as otherwise provided by 42 C.F.R. 431.51, an68974
individual with mental retardation or other developmental 68975
disability who is eligible for habilitation, vocational, or 68976
community employmenthome and community-based services may choose 68977
thehas the right to obtain the services from any provider of the 68978
services.68979

       (B) Each month, the department of developmental disabilities 68980
shall create a list of all persons and government entities 68981
eligible to provide residential services and supported living. The 68982
department shall include on the list all residential facilities 68983
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code and all 68984
supported living providers certified under section 5123.161 of the 68985
Revised Code. The department shall distribute the monthly lists to 68986
county boards that have local administrative authority under 68987
division (A) of section 5126.055 of the Revised Code for 68988
residential services and supported living provided as part of home 68989
and community-based services. A county board that receives a list 68990
shall make it available to each individual with mental retardation 68991
or other developmental disability who resides in the county and is 68992
eligible for such residential services or supported living. The 68993
county board shall also make the list available to the families of 68994
those individualsthat is qualified to furnish the services and is 68995
willing to furnish the services to the individual. A county board 68996
of developmental disabilities that has medicaid local 68997
administrative authority under division (A) of section 5126.055 of 68998
the Revised Code for home and community-based services and refuses 68999
to permit an individual to obtain home and community-based 69000
services from a qualified and willing provider shall provide the 69001
individual timely notice that the individual may request a hearing 69002
under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code.69003

       (B) An individual with mental retardation or other 69004
developmental disability who is eligible for nonmedicaid69005
residential services or nonmedicaid supported living may choose 69006
thehas the right to obtain the services from any provider of the 69007
residential services or supported living that is qualified to 69008
furnish the residential services or supported living and is 69009
willing to furnish the residential services or supported living to 69010
the individual.69011

       (C) If a county board that has medicaid local administrative 69012
authority under division (A) of section 5126.055 of the Revised 69013
Code for home and community-based services violates the right 69014
established by this section of an individual to choose a provider 69015
that is qualified and willing to provide services to the 69016
individual, the individual shall receive timely notice that the 69017
individual may request a hearing under section 5101.35 of the 69018
Revised Code.The department of developmental disabilities shall 69019
make available to the public on its internet web site an 69020
up-to-date list of all providers of home and community-based 69021
services, nonmedicaid residential services, and nonmedicaid 69022
supported living. County boards shall assist individuals with 69023
mental retardation or other developmental disabilities and the 69024
families of such individuals access the list on the department's 69025
internet web site.69026

       (D) The departmentsdirector of developmental disabilities 69027
and job and family services shall adopt rules in accordance with 69028
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the implementation of 69029
this section. The rules shall include procedures for individuals 69030
to choose their service providers. The rules shall not be limited 69031
by a provider selection system established under section 5126.42 69032
of the Revised Code, including any pool of providers created 69033
pursuant to a provider selection system.69034

       Sec. 5126.055.  (A) Except as provided in section 5126.056 of 69035
the Revised Code, a county board of developmental disabilities has 69036
medicaid local administrative authority to, and shall, do all of 69037
the following for an individual with mental retardation or other 69038
developmental disability who resides in the county that the county 69039
board serves and seeks or receives home and community-based 69040
services:69041

       (1) Perform assessments and evaluations of the individual. As 69042
part of the assessment and evaluation process, the county board 69043
shall do all of the following:69044

       (a) Make a recommendation to the department of developmental 69045
disabilities on whether the department should approve or deny the 69046
individual's application for the services, including on the basis 69047
of whether the individual needs the level of care an intermediate 69048
care facility for the mentally retarded provides;69049

       (b) If the individual's application is denied because of the 69050
county board's recommendation and the individual requests a 69051
hearing under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code, present, with 69052
the department of developmental disabilities or department of job 69053
and family services, whichever denies the application, the reasons 69054
for the recommendation and denial at the hearing;69055

       (c) If the individual's application is approved, recommend to 69056
the departments of developmental disabilities and job and family 69057
services the services that should be included in the individual's 69058
individualized service plan and, if either department approves, 69059
reduces, denies, or terminates a service included in the 69060
individual's individualized service plan under section 5111.871 of 69061
the Revised Code because of the county board's recommendation, 69062
present, with the department that made the approval, reduction, 69063
denial, or termination, the reasons for the recommendation and 69064
approval, reduction, denial, or termination at a hearing under 69065
section 5101.35 of the Revised Code.69066

       (2) In accordance with the rules adopted under section 69067
5126.046 of the Revised Code, perform the county board'sPerform 69068
any duties assigned to the county board in rules adopted under 69069
that section 5126.046 of the Revised Code regarding assisting the 69070
individual's right to choose a qualified and willing provider of 69071
the services and, at a hearing under section 5101.35 of the 69072
Revised Code, present evidence of the process for appropriate 69073
assistance in choosing providers;69074

       (3) If the county board is certified under section 5123.161 69075
of the Revised Code to provide the services and agrees to provide 69076
the services to the individual and the individual chooses the 69077
county board to provide the services, furnish, in accordance with 69078
the county board's medicaid provider agreement and for the 69079
authorized reimbursement rate, the services the individual 69080
requires;69081

       (4) Monitor the services provided to the individual and 69082
ensure the individual's health, safety, and welfare. The 69083
monitoring shall include quality assurance activities. If the 69084
county board provides the services, the department of 69085
developmental disabilities shall also monitor the services.69086

       (5) Develop, with the individual and the provider of the 69087
individual's services, an effective individualized service plan 69088
that includes coordination of services, recommend that the 69089
departments of developmental disabilities and job and family 69090
services approve the plan, and implement the plan unless either 69091
department disapproves it. The individualized service plan shall 69092
include a summary page, agreed to by the county board, provider, 69093
and individual receiving services, that clearly outlines the 69094
amount, duration, and scope of services to be provided under the 69095
plan.69096

       (6) Have an investigative agent conduct investigations under 69097
section 5126.313 of the Revised Code that concern the individual;69098

       (7) Have a service and support administrator perform the 69099
duties under division (B)(9) of section 5126.15 of the Revised 69100
Code that concern the individual.69101

       (B) A county board shall perform its medicaid local 69102
administrative authority under this section in accordance with all 69103
of the following:69104

       (1) The county board's plan that the department of 69105
developmental disabilities approves under section 5123.046 of the 69106
Revised Code;69107

       (2) All applicable federal and state laws;69108

       (3) All applicable policies of the departments of 69109
developmental disabilities and job and family services and the 69110
United States department of health and human services;69111

       (4) The department of job and family services' supervision 69112
under its authority under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code to 69113
act as the single state medicaid agency;69114

       (5) The department of developmental disabilities' oversight.69115

       (C) The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 69116
family services shall communicate with and provide training to 69117
county boards regarding medicaid local administrative authority 69118
granted by this section. The communication and training shall 69119
include issues regarding audit protocols and other standards 69120
established by the United States department of health and human 69121
services that the departments determine appropriate for 69122
communication and training. County boards shall participate in the 69123
training. The departments shall assess the county board's 69124
compliance against uniform standards that the departments shall 69125
establish.69126

       (D) A county board may not delegate its medicaid local 69127
administrative authority granted under this section but may 69128
contract with a person or government entity, including a council 69129
of governments, for assistance with its medicaid local 69130
administrative authority. A county board that enters into such a 69131
contract shall notify the director of developmental disabilities. 69132
The notice shall include the tasks and responsibilities that the 69133
contract gives to the person or government entity. The person or 69134
government entity shall comply in full with all requirements to 69135
which the county board is subject regarding the person or 69136
government entity's tasks and responsibilities under the contract. 69137
The county board remains ultimately responsible for the tasks and 69138
responsibilities.69139

       (E) A county board that has medicaid local administrative 69140
authority under this section shall, through the departments of 69141
developmental disabilities and job and family services, reply to, 69142
and cooperate in arranging compliance with, a program or fiscal 69143
audit or program violation exception that a state or federal audit 69144
or review discovers. The department of job and family services 69145
shall timely notify the department of developmental disabilities 69146
and the county board of any adverse findings. After receiving the 69147
notice, the county board, in conjunction with the department of 69148
developmental disabilities, shall cooperate fully with the 69149
department of job and family services and timely prepare and send 69150
to the department a written plan of correction or response to the 69151
adverse findings. The county board is liable for any adverse 69152
findings that result from an action it takes or fails to take in 69153
its implementation of medicaid local administrative authority.69154

       (F) If the department of developmental disabilities or 69155
department of job and family services determines that a county 69156
board's implementation of its medicaid local administrative 69157
authority under this section is deficient, the department that 69158
makes the determination shall require that county board do the 69159
following:69160

       (1) If the deficiency affects the health, safety, or welfare 69161
of an individual with mental retardation or other developmental 69162
disability, correct the deficiency within twenty-four hours;69163

       (2) If the deficiency does not affect the health, safety, or 69164
welfare of an individual with mental retardation or other 69165
developmental disability, receive technical assistance from the 69166
department or submit a plan of correction to the department that 69167
is acceptable to the department within sixty days and correct the 69168
deficiency within the time required by the plan of correction.69169

       Sec. 5126.13.  (A) A county board of developmental 69170
disabilities may enter into an agreement with one or more other 69171
county boards of developmental disabilities to establish a 69172
regional council in accordance with Chapter 167. of the Revised 69173
Code. The agreement shall specify the duties and functions to be 69174
performed by the council, which may include any duty or function a 69175
county board is required or authorized to perform under this 69176
chapter. If directed to do so by a resolution adopted by a county 69177
board that is a member of a regional council, the department of 69178
developmental disabilities shall make any distributions of money 69179
for that county for the duties or functions performed by the 69180
council pursuant to its agreement that are otherwise required to 69181
be made to the county board under this chapter to the fiscal 69182
officer of the council designated under section 167.04 of the 69183
Revised Code.69184

       A county board may also enter into an agreement with one or 69185
more school districts or other political subdivisions to establish 69186
a regional council in accordance with Chapter 167. of the Revised 69187
Code.69188

       (B) On or before the thirtieth day of March, the fiscal 69189
officer of a regional council described in this section shall 69190
report to the department of developmental disabilities, in the 69191
format specified by the department, all income and operating 69192
expenditures of the council for the immediately preceding calendar 69193
year.69194

       Sec. 5126.15.  (A) A county board of developmental 69195
disabilities shall provide service and support administration to 69196
each individual three years of age or older who is eligible for 69197
service and support administration if the individual requests, or 69198
a person on the individual's behalf requests, service and support 69199
administration. A board shall provide service and support 69200
administration to each individual receiving home and 69201
community-based services. A board may provide, in accordance with 69202
the service coordination requirements of 34 C.F.R. 303.23, service 69203
and support administration to an individual under three years of 69204
age eligible for early intervention services under 34 C.F.R. part 69205
303. A board may provide service and support administration to an 69206
individual who is not eligible for other services of the board. 69207
Service and support administration shall be provided in accordance 69208
with rules adopted under section 5126.08 of the Revised Code.69209

       A board may provide service and support administration by 69210
directly employing service and support administrators or by 69211
contracting with entities for the performance of service and 69212
support administration. Individuals employed or under contract as 69213
service and support administrators shall not be in the same 69214
collective bargaining unit as employees who perform duties that 69215
are not administrative.69216

       Individuals employed by a board as service and support 69217
administrators shall not be assigned responsibilities for 69218
implementing other services for individuals and shall not be 69219
employed by or serve in a decision-making or policy-making 69220
capacity for any other entity that provides programs or services 69221
to individuals with mental retardation or developmental 69222
disabilities. An individual employed as a conditional status 69223
service and support administrator shall perform the duties of 69224
service and support administration only under the supervision of a 69225
management employee who is a service and support administration 69226
supervisor.69227

       (B) The individuals employed by or under contract with a 69228
board to provide service and support administration shall do all 69229
of the following:69230

       (1) Establish an individual's eligibility for the services of 69231
the county board of developmental disabilities;69232

       (2) Assess individual needs for services;69233

       (3) Develop individual service plans with the active 69234
participation of the individual to be served, other persons 69235
selected by the individual, and, when applicable, the provider 69236
selected by the individual, and recommend the plans for approval 69237
by the department of developmental disabilities when services 69238
included in the plans are funded through medicaid;69239

       (4) Establish budgets for services based on the individual's 69240
assessed needs and preferred ways of meeting those needs;69241

       (5) Assist individuals in making selections from among the 69242
providers they have chosen;69243

       (6) Ensure that services are effectively coordinated and 69244
provided by appropriate providers;69245

       (7) Establish and implement an ongoing system of monitoring 69246
the implementation of individual service plans to achieve 69247
consistent implementation and the desired outcomes for the 69248
individual;69249

       (8) Perform quality assurance reviews as a distinct function 69250
of service and support administration;69251

       (9) Incorporate the results of quality assurance reviews and 69252
identified trends and patterns of unusual incidents and major 69253
unusual incidents into amendments of an individual's service plan 69254
for the purpose of improving and enhancing the quality and 69255
appropriateness of services rendered to the individual;69256

       (10) Ensure that each individual receiving services has a 69257
designated person who is responsible on a continuing basis for 69258
providing the individual with representation, advocacy, advice, 69259
and assistance related to the day-to-day coordination of services 69260
in accordance with the individual's service plan. The service and 69261
support administrator shall give the individual receiving services 69262
an opportunity to designate the person to provide daily 69263
representation. If the individual declines to make a designation, 69264
the administrator shall make the designation. In either case, the 69265
individual receiving services may change at any time the person 69266
designated to provide daily representation.69267

       Sec. 5126.20.  As used in this section and sections 5126.21 69268
to 5126.295126.25 of the Revised Code:69269

       (A) "Service employee" means a person employed by a county 69270
board of developmental disabilities in a position which may 69271
require evidence of registration under section 5126.25 of the 69272
Revised Code but for which a bachelor's degree from an accredited 69273
college or university is not required, and includes employees in 69274
the positions listed in division (C) of section 5126.22 of the 69275
Revised Code.69276

       (B)(1) "Professional employee" means both of the following:69277

       (a) A person employed by a board in a position for which 69278
either a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or 69279
university or a license or certificate issued under Title XLVII of 69280
the Revised Code is a minimum requirement;69281

       (b) A person employed by a board as a conditional status 69282
service and support administrator.69283

       (2) "Professional employee" includes employees in the 69284
positions listed in division (B) of section 5126.22 of the Revised 69285
Code.69286

       (C) "Management employee" means a person employed by a board 69287
in a position having supervisory or managerial responsibilities 69288
and duties, and includes employees in the positions listed in 69289
division (A) of section 5126.22 of the Revised Code.69290

       (D) "Limited contract" means a contract of limited duration 69291
which is renewable at the discretion of the superintendent.69292

       (E) "Continuing contract" means a contract of employment that 69293
was issued prior to June 24, 1988, to a classified employee under 69294
which the employee has completed the employee's probationary 69295
period and under which the employee retains employment until the 69296
employee retires or resigns, is removed pursuant to section 69297
5126.23 of the Revised Code, or is laid off.69298

       (F) "Supervisory responsibilities and duties" includes the 69299
authority to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, 69300
discharge, assign, reward, or discipline other employees of the 69301
board; to responsibly direct them; to adjust their grievances; or 69302
to effectively recommend such action, if the exercise of that 69303
authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature but 69304
requires the use of independent judgment.69305

       (G)(F) "Managerial responsibilities and duties" includes 69306
formulating policy on behalf of the board, responsibly directing 69307
the implementation of policy, assisting in the preparation for the 69308
conduct of collective negotiations, administering collectively 69309
negotiated agreements, or having a major role in personnel 69310
administration.69311

       (H)(G) "Investigative agent" means an individual who conducts 69312
investigations under section 5126.313 of the Revised Code.69313

       Sec. 5126.21.  As used in this section, "management employee" 69314
does not include the superintendent of a county board of 69315
developmental disabilities.69316

       (A)(1) Each management employee of a county board of 69317
developmental disabilities shall hold a limited contract for a 69318
period of not less than one year and not more than five years, 69319
except that a management employee hired after the beginning of a 69320
program year may be employed under a limited contract expiring at 69321
the end of the program year. The board shall approve all contracts 69322
of employment for management employees that are for a term of more 69323
than one year. A management employee shall receive notice of the 69324
superintendent's intention not to rehire the employee at least 69325
ninety days prior to the expiration of the contract. If the 69326
superintendent fails to notify a management employee, the employee 69327
shall be reemployed under a limited contract of one year at the 69328
same salary plus any authorized salary increases.69329

       (2) During the term of a contract a management employee's 69330
salary may be increased, but shall not be reduced unless the 69331
reduction is part of a uniform plan affecting all employees of the 69332
board.69333

       (B) All management employees may be removed, suspended, or 69334
demoted for cause pursuant to section 5126.23 of the Revised Code.69335

       (C) All management employees shall receive employee benefits 69336
that shall include sick leave, vacation leave, holiday pay, and 69337
such other benefits as are established by the board. Sections 69338
124.38 and 325.19 of the Revised Code do not apply to management 69339
employees.69340

       (D) The superintendent of a county board of developmental 69341
disabilities shall notify all management employees of the board of 69342
their salary no later than thirty days before the first day of the 69343
new contract year.69344

       (E) All management employees of a county board of 69345
developmental disabilities who were given continuing contract 69346
status prior to the effective date of this section have continuing 69347
contract status so long as they maintain employment with the 69348
board.69349

       (F) All management employees who were probationary employees 69350
on the effective date of this section shall, upon completion of 69351
their probationary period, be granted continuing contract status 69352
if retained in employment.69353

       (G) Each county board of developmental disabilities shall 69354
establish a lay-off policy to be followed if it determines a 69355
reduction in the number of management employees is necessary.69356

       Sec. 5126.22.  (A) Employees who hold the following positions 69357
in a county board of developmental disabilities are management 69358
employees:69359

       assistant superintendent69360

       director of business69361

       director of personnel69362

       adult services director69363

       workshop director69364

       habilitation manager69365

       director of residential services69366

       principal (director of children services)69367

       program or service supervisor69368

       plant manager69369

       production manager69370

       service and support administration supervisor69371

       investigative agent69372

       confidential employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the 69373
Revised Code69374

       positions designated by the director of developmental 69375
disabilities as having managerial or supervisory responsibilities 69376
and duties69377

       positions designated by the county board in accordance with 69378
division (D) of this section.69379

       (B) Employees who hold the following positions in a board are 69380
professional employees:69381

       personnel licensed or certified pursuant to Chapter 3319. of 69382
the Revised Code69383

       early intervention specialist69384

       physical development specialist69385

       habilitation specialist69386

       work adjustment specialist69387

       placement specialist69388

       vocational evaluator69389

       psychologist69390

       occupational therapist69391

       speech and language pathologist69392

       recreation specialist69393

       behavior management specialist69394

       physical therapist69395

       supportive home services specialist69396

       licensed practical nurse or registered nurse69397

       rehabilitation counselor69398

       doctor of medicine and surgery or of osteopathic medicine and 69399
surgery69400

       dentist69401

       service and support administrator69402

       conditional status service and support administrator69403

       social worker69404

       any position that is not a management position and for which 69405
the standards for certification established by the director of 69406
developmental disabilities under section 5126.25 of the Revised 69407
Code require a bachelor's or higher degree69408

       professional positions designated by the director69409

       professional positions designated by the county board in 69410
accordance with division (D) of this section.69411

       (C) Employees who hold positions in a board that are neither 69412
management positions nor professional positions are service 69413
employees. Service employee positions include:69414

       workshop specialist69415

       workshop specialist assistant69416

       contract procurement specialist69417

       community employment specialist69418

       any assistant to a professional employee certified to 69419
provide, or supervise the provision of, adult services or service 69420
and support administration69421

       service positions designated by the director69422

       service positions designated by a county board in accordance 69423
with division (D) of this section.69424

       (D) A county board may designate a position only if the 69425
position does not include directly providing, or supervising 69426
employees who directly provide, service or instruction to 69427
individuals with mental retardation or developmental disabilities.69428

       (E) If a county board desires to have a position established 69429
that is not specifically listed in this section that includes 69430
directly providing, or supervising employees who directly provide, 69431
services or instruction to individuals with mental retardation or 69432
developmental disabilities, the board shall submit to the director 69433
a written description of the position and request that the 69434
director designate the position as a management, professional, or 69435
service position under this section. The director shall consider 69436
each request submitted under this division and respond within 69437
thirty days. If the director approves the request, the director 69438
shall designate the position as a management, professional, or 69439
service position.69440

       (F) A county board shall not terminate its employment of any 69441
management, professional, or service employee solely because a 69442
position is added to or eliminated from those positions listed in 69443
this section or because a position is designated or no longer 69444
designated by the director or a county board.69445

       Sec. 5126.25.  (A) The director of developmental disabilities 69446
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 69447
Codeunder division (C) of this section establishing uniform 69448
standards and procedures for the certification and registration of 69449
persons for employment by county boards of developmental 69450
disabilities as superintendents, management employees, and 69451
professional employees and uniform standards and procedures for 69452
the registration of persons for employment by county boards as 69453
registered service employees. As part of the rules, the director 69454
may establish continuing education and professional training 69455
requirements for renewal of certificates and evidence of 69456
registration and shall establish such requirements for renewal of 69457
an investigative agent certificate. In the rules, the director 69458
shall establish certification standards for employment in the 69459
position of investigative agent that require an individual to have 69460
or obtain no less than an associate degree from an accredited 69461
college or university or have or obtain comparable experience or 69462
training. The director shall not adopt rules that require any 69463
service employee to have or obtain a bachelor's or higher degree.69464

       The director shall adopt the rules in a manner that provides 69465
for the issuance of certificates and evidence of registration 69466
according to categories, levels, and grades. The rules shall 69467
describe each category, level, and grade.69468

       The rules adopted under this division shall apply to persons 69469
employed or seeking employment in a position that includes 69470
directly providing, or supervising persons who directly provide, 69471
services or instruction to or on behalf of individuals with mental 69472
retardation or developmental disabilities, except that the rules 69473
shall not apply to persons who hold a valid license issued under 69474
Chapter 3319. of the Revised Code and perform no duties other than 69475
teaching or supervision of a teaching program or persons who hold 69476
a valid license or certificate issued under Title XLVII of the 69477
Revised Code and perform only those duties governed by the license 69478
or certificate. The rules shall specify the positions that require 69479
certification or registration. The rules shall specify that the 69480
position of investigative agent requires certification, other than 69481
the persons described in division (I) of this section, who are 69482
seeking employment with or are employed by either of the 69483
following:69484

       (1) A county board of developmental disabilities;69485

       (2) An entity that contracts with a county board to operate 69486
programs and services for individuals with mental retardation or 69487
developmental disabilities.69488

       (B) No person shall be employed in a position for which 69489
certification or registration is required pursuant to the rules 69490
adopted under this section without the certification or 69491
registration that is required for that position. The person shall 69492
not be employed or shall not continue to be employed if the 69493
required certification or registration is denied, revoked, or not 69494
renewed.69495

       (B)(C) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with 69496
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing standards for 69497
approval of courses of study to prepare persons to meet 69498
certification requirements. The director shall approve courses of 69499
study meeting the standards and provide for the inspection of the 69500
courses to ensure the maintenance of satisfactory training 69501
procedures. The director shall approve courses of study only if 69502
given by a state university or college as defined in section 69503
3345.32 of the Revised Code, a state university or college of 69504
another state, or an institution that has received a certificate 69505
of authorization to confer degrees from the board of regents 69506
pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code or from a comparable 69507
agency of another stateas the director considers necessary to 69508
implement and administer this section, including rules 69509
establishing all of the following:69510

       (1) Positions of employment that are subject to this section 69511
and, for each position, whether a person must receive 69512
certification or receive registration to be employed in that 69513
position;69514

       (2) Requirements that must be met to receive the 69515
certification or registration required to be employed in a 69516
particular position, including standards regarding education, 69517
specialized training, and experience, taking into account the 69518
needs of individuals with mental retardation or developmental 69519
disabilities and the specialized techniques needed to serve them, 69520
except that the rules shall not require a person designated as a 69521
service employee under section 5126.22 of the Revised Code to have 69522
or obtain a bachelor's or higher degree;69523

       (3) Procedures to be followed in applying for initial 69524
certification or registration and for renewing the certification 69525
or registration.69526

       (4) Requirements that must be met for renewal of 69527
certification or registration, which may include continuing 69528
education and professional training requirements;69529

       (5) Subject to section 5126.23 of the Revised Code, grounds 69530
for which certification or registration may be denied, suspended, 69531
or revoked and procedures for appealing the denial, suspension, or 69532
revocation.69533

       (C)(D) Each applicant for a certificate for employment or 69534
evidence ofperson seeking certification or registration for 69535
employment by a county board shall apply to the department of 69536
developmental disabilities on forms that the director of the 69537
department shall prescribe and provide. The application shall be 69538
accompanied by the application feein the manner established in 69539
rules adopted under this section.69540

       (D) The director shall issue a certificate for employment to 69541
each applicant who meets the standards for certification 69542
established under this section and shall issue evidence of 69543
registration for employment to each applicant who meets the 69544
standards for registration established under this section. Each 69545
certificate or evidence of registration shall state the category, 69546
level, and grade for which it is issued.69547

       The director shall issue, renew, deny, suspend, or revoke 69548
certificates and evidence of registration in accordance with rules 69549
adopted under this section. The director shall deny, suspend, or 69550
revoke a certificate or evidence of registration if the director 69551
finds, pursuant to an adjudication conducted in accordance with 69552
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that the applicant for or holder 69553
of the certificate or evidence of registration is guilty of 69554
intemperate, immoral, or other conduct unbecoming to the 69555
applicant's or holder's position, or is guilty of incompetence or 69556
negligence within the scope of the applicant's or holder's duties. 69557
The director shall deny or revoke a certificate or evidence of 69558
registration if the director finds, pursuant to an adjudication 69559
conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 69560
that the applicant for or holder of the certificate or evidence of 69561
registration has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the 69562
offenses described in division (E) of section 5126.28 of the 69563
Revised Code, unless the individual meets standards for 69564
rehabilitation that the director establishes in the rules adopted 69565
under that section. Evidence supporting such allegations shall be 69566
presented to the director in writing and the director shall 69567
provide prompt notice of the allegations to the person who is the 69568
subject of the allegations. A denial, suspension, or revocation 69569
may be appealed in accordance with procedures the director shall 69570
establish in the rules adopted under this section.69571

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 69572
the superintendent of each county board is responsible for taking 69573
all actions regarding certification and registration of employees, 69574
other than the position of superintendent or investigative agent. 69575
For the position of superintendent or investigative agent, the 69576
director of developmental disabilities is responsible for taking 69577
all such actions.69578

       Actions that may be taken by the superintendent or director 69579
include issuing, renewing, denying, suspending, and revoking 69580
certification and registration. All actions shall be taken in 69581
accordance with the rules adopted under this section.69582

       The superintendent may charge a fee to persons applying for 69583
certification or registration. The superintendent shall establish 69584
the amount of the fee according to the costs the county board 69585
incurs in administering its program for certification and 69586
registration of employees.69587

       A person subject to the denial, suspension, or revocation of 69588
certification or registration may appeal the decision. The appeal 69589
shall be made in accordance with the rules adopted under this 69590
section.69591

       (2) Pursuant to division (C) of section 5126.05 of the 69592
Revised Code, the superintendent may enter into a contract with 69593
any other entity under which the entity is given authority to 69594
carry out all or part of the superintendent's responsibilities 69595
under division (E)(1) of this section.69596

       (F) A person holding awith valid certificatecertification 69597
or registration under this section on the effective date of any 69598
rules adopted under this section that increase the standards 69599
applicable to the certification standardsor registration shall 69600
have such period as the rules prescribe, but not less than one 69601
year after the effective date of the rules, to meet the new 69602
certification or registration standards.69603

       A person who is registered under this section on the 69604
effective date of any rule that changes the standards adopted 69605
under this section shall have such period as the rules prescribe, 69606
but not less than one year, to meet the new registration 69607
standards.69608

       (2) If an applicant for a certificate for employment has not 69609
completed the courses of instruction necessary to meet the 69610
department's standards for certification, the department shall 69611
inform the applicant of the courses the applicant must 69612
successfully complete to meet the standards and shall specify the 69613
time within which the applicant must complete the courses. The 69614
department shall grant the applicant at least one year to complete 69615
the courses and shall not require the applicant to complete more 69616
than four courses in any one year. The applicant is not subject to 69617
any changes regarding the courses required for certification that 69618
are made after the department informs the applicant of the courses 69619
the applicant must complete, unless the applicant does not 69620
successfully complete the courses within the time specified by the 69621
department.69622

       (F)(G) A person who holds a certificatewith valid 69623
certification or evidence of registration, other than one 69624
designated as temporary, is qualified to be employed according to 69625
that certificatecertification or evidence of registration by any 69626
county board or entity contracting with a county board.69627

       (G)(H) The director shall monitor county boards to ensure 69628
that their employees who must be certified or registered are 69629
appropriately certified or registered andand the employees of 69630
their contracting entities have the applicable certification or 69631
registration required under this section and that the employees 69632
are performing only those functions they are authorized to perform 69633
under their certificatethe certification or evidence of69634
registration.69635

       (H) A county board superintendent or the superintendent's 69636
designee may certify to the director that county board employees 69637
who are required to meet continuing education or professional 69638
training requirements as a condition of renewal of certificates or 69639
evidence of registration have met the requirements. The 69640
superintendent of each county board or the superintendent's 69641
designee shall maintain in appropriate personnel files evidence 69642
acceptable to the director that the employees have met the 69643
requirements and permit. On request, representatives of the 69644
department of developmental disabilities shall be given access to 69645
the evidence on request.69646

       (I) All fees collected pursuant to this section shall be 69647
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the program fee 69648
fund created under section 5123.033 of the Revised Code.69649

       (J) Employees of entities that contract with county boards of 69650
developmental disabilities to operate programs and services for 69651
individuals with mental retardation and developmental disabilities 69652
are subject to the certification and registration requirements 69653
established under section 5123.082 of the Revised CodeThe 69654
certification and registration requirements of this section and 69655
the rules adopted under it do not apply to either of the 69656
following:69657

       (1) A person who holds a valid license issued or certificate 69658
issued under Chapter 3319. of the Revised Code and performs no 69659
duties other than teaching or supervision of a teaching program;69660

       (2) A person who holds a valid license or certificate issued 69661
under Title XLVII of the Revised Code and performs only those 69662
duties governed by the license or certificate.69663

       Sec. 5126.251.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 69664
3123.43 of the Revised Code, the director of developmental 69665
disabilities or the superintendent of a county board of 69666
developmental disabilities shall comply with sections 3123.41 to 69667
3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted under 69668
section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to a certificate69669
a person's certification or evidence of registration issued 69670
pursuant to this chapterunder section 5126.25 of the Revised 69671
Code.69672

       Sec. 5126.51.  As used in sections 5126.51 to 5126.62 of the 69673
Revised Code:69674

       (A) "Develop" or "development," in contexts not referring to 69675
developmental disabilities, means construction or rehabilitation.69676

       (B) "Eligible lending institution" means a financial 69677
institution that meets all of the following requirements:69678

       (1) Is eligible to make commercial loans;69679

       (2) Has an office located within the territorial limits of 69680
the county;69681

       (3) Is an institution into which the county's investing 69682
authority may deposit the public moneys of the county;69683

       (4) Holds itself out as participating in the residential 69684
facility linked deposit program.69685

       (C) "Eligible organization" means either of the following:69686

       (1) Aa nonprofit corporation that has as its primary 69687
activity the development or operation of a residential facility;69688

       (2) A nonprofit corporation certified under section 5123.192 69689
of the Revised Code.69690

       (D) "Investing authority" has the same meaning as in section 69691
135.31 of the Revised Code.69692

       (E) "Residential facility" has the same meaning as in section 69693
5123.19 of the Revised Code and also includes a residence where a 69694
nonprofit corporation certified under section 5123.192 of the 69695
Revised Code provides or proposes to provide supported living for 69696
individuals with mental retardation or developmental disabilities.69697

       (F) "Residential facility linked deposit program" means the 69698
linked deposit program provided for in sections 5126.51 to 5126.62 69699
of the Revised Code. A "residential facility linked deposit" is a 69700
deposit of public moneys of the county under, and for the purposes 69701
of, the residential facility linked deposit program. A 69702
"residential facility linked deposit loan" is a loan under, and 69703
for the purposes of, the residential facility linked deposit 69704
program.69705

       Sec. 5139.41.  The appropriation made to the department of 69706
youth services for care and custody of felony delinquents shall be 69707
expended in accordance with the following procedure that the 69708
department shall use for each year of a biennium. The procedure 69709
shall be consistent with sections 5139.41 to 5139.43 of the 69710
Revised Code and shall be developed in accordance with the 69711
following guidelines:69712

       (A) The line item appropriation for the care and custody of 69713
felony delinquents shall provide funding for operational costs for 69714
the following:69715

       (1) Institutions and the diagnosis, care, or treatment of 69716
felony delinquents at facilities pursuant to contracts entered 69717
into under section 5139.08 of the Revised Code;69718

       (2) Community corrections facilities constructed, 69719
reconstructed, improved, or financed as described in section 69720
5139.36 of the Revised Code for the purpose of providing 69721
alternative placement and services for felony delinquents who have 69722
been diverted from care and custody in institutions;69723

       (3) County juvenile courts that administer programs and 69724
services for prevention, early intervention, diversion, treatment, 69725
and rehabilitation services and programs that are provided for 69726
alleged or adjudicated unruly or delinquent children or for 69727
children who are at risk of becoming unruly or delinquent 69728
children; 69729

       (4) Administrative expenses the department incurs in 69730
connection with the felony delinquent care and custody programs 69731
described in section 5139.43 of the Revised Code. 69732

       (B) From the appropriated line item for the care and custody 69733
of felony delinquents, the department, with the advice of the 69734
RECLAIM advisory committee established under section 5139.44 of 69735
the Revised Code, shall allocate annual operational funds for 69736
county juvenile programs, institutional care and custody, 69737
community corrections facilities care and custody, and 69738
administrative expenses incurred by the department associated with 69739
felony delinquent care and custody programs. The department, with 69740
the advice of the RECLAIM advisory committee, shall adjust these 69741
allocations, when modifications to this line item are made by 69742
legislative or executive action.69743

       (C) The department shall divide county juvenile program 69744
allocations among county juvenile courts that administer programs 69745
and services for prevention, early intervention, diversion, 69746
treatment, and rehabilitation that are provided for alleged or 69747
adjudicated unruly or delinquent children or for children who are 69748
at risk of becoming unruly or delinquent children. The department 69749
shall base funding on the county's previous year's ratio of the 69750
department's institutional and community correctional facilities 69751
commitments to that county's four year average of felony 69752
adjudications, as specified in the following formula:69753

       (1) The department shall give to each county a proportional 69754
allocation of commitment credits. The proportional allocation of 69755
commitment credits shall be calculated by the following 69756
procedures:69757

       (a) The department shall determine for each county and for 69758
the state a four yearan average of felony adjudications.69759
Beginning July 1, 2012, the average shall include felony 69760
adjudications for fiscal year 2007 and for each subsequent fiscal 69761
year through fiscal year 2016. Beginning July 1, 2017, the most 69762
recent felony adjudication data shall be included and the oldest 69763
fiscal year data shall be removed so that a ten-year average of 69764
felony adjudication data will be maintained.69765

       (b) The department shall determine for each county and for 69766
the state the number of charged bed days, for both the department 69767
and community correctional facilities, from the previous year.69768

       (c) The department shall divide the statewide total number of 69769
charged bed days by the statewide total number of felony 69770
adjudications, which quotient shall then be multiplied by a factor 69771
determined by the department.69772

       (d) The department shall calculate the county's allocation of 69773
credits by multiplying the number of adjudications for each court 69774
by the result determined pursuant to division (C)(1)(c) of this 69775
section.69776

       (2) The department shall subtract from the allocation 69777
determined pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section a credit 69778
for every chargeable bed day a youth stays in a department 69779
institution and two-thirds of credit for every chargeable bed day 69780
a youth stays in a community correctional facility, except for 69781
public safety beds. At the end of the year, the department shall 69782
divide the amount of remaining credits of that county's allocation 69783
by the total number of remaining credits to all counties, to 69784
determine the county's percentage, which shall then be applied to 69785
the total county allocation to determine the county's payment for 69786
the fiscal year.69787

       (3) The department shall pay counties three times during the 69788
fiscal year to allow for credit reporting and audit adjustments, 69789
and modifications to the appropriated line item for the care and 69790
custody of felony delinquents, as described in this section. The 69791
department shall pay fifty per cent of the payment by the 69792
fifteenth of July of each fiscal year, twenty-five per cent by the 69793
fifteenth of January of that fiscal year, and twenty-five per cent 69794
of the payment by the fifteenth of June of that fiscal year.69795

       (D) In fiscal year 2004, the payment of county juvenile 69796
programs shall be based on the following procedure:69797

       (1) The department shall divide the funding earned by each 69798
court in fiscal year 2003 by the aggregate funding of all courts, 69799
resulting in a percentage.69800

       (2) The department shall apply the percentage determined 69801
under division (D)(1) of this section to the total county juvenile 69802
program allocation for fiscal year 2004 to determine each court's 69803
total payment.69804

       (3) The department shall make payments in accordance with the 69805
schedule established in division (C)(3) of this section.69806

       Sec. 5139.43.  (A) The department of youth services shall 69807
operate a felony delinquent care and custody program that shall be 69808
operated in accordance with the formula developed pursuant to 69809
section 5139.41 of the Revised Code, subject to the conditions 69810
specified in this section.69811

       (B)(1) Each juvenile court shall use the moneys disbursed to 69812
it by the department of youth services pursuant to division (B) of 69813
section 5139.41 of the Revised Code in accordance with the 69814
applicable provisions of division (B)(2) of this section and shall 69815
transmit the moneys to the county treasurer for deposit in 69816
accordance with this division. The county treasurer shall create 69817
in the county treasury a fund that shall be known as the felony 69818
delinquent care and custody fund and shall deposit in that fund 69819
the moneys disbursed to the juvenile court pursuant to division 69820
(B) of section 5139.41 of the Revised Code. The county treasurer 69821
also shall deposit into that fund the state subsidy funds granted 69822
to the county pursuant to section 5139.34 of the Revised Code. The 69823
moneys disbursed to the juvenile court pursuant to division (B) of 69824
section 5139.41 of the Revised Code and deposited pursuant to this 69825
division in the felony delinquent care and custody fund shall not 69826
be commingled with any other county funds except state subsidy 69827
funds granted to the county pursuant to section 5139.34 of the 69828
Revised Code; shall not be used for any capital construction 69829
projects; upon an order of the juvenile court and subject to 69830
appropriation by the board of county commissioners, shall be 69831
disbursed to the juvenile court for use in accordance with the 69832
applicable provisions of division (B)(2) of this section; shall 69833
not revert to the county general fund at the end of any fiscal 69834
year; and shall carry over in the felony delinquent care and 69835
custody fund from the end of any fiscal year to the next fiscal 69836
year. The maximum balance carry-over at the end of each respective 69837
fiscal year in the felony delinquent care and custody fund in any 69838
county from funds allocated to the county pursuant to sections 69839
5139.34 and 5139.41 of the Revised Code in the previous fiscal 69840
year shall not exceed an amount to be calculated as provided in 69841
the formula set forth in this division, unless that county has 69842
applied for and been granted an exemption by the director of youth 69843
services. Beginning June 30, 2008, the maximum balance carry-over 69844
at the end of each respective fiscal year shall be determined by 69845
the following formula: for fiscal year 2008, the maximum balance 69846
carry-over shall be one hundred per cent of the allocation for 69847
fiscal year 2007, to be applied in determining the fiscal year 69848
2009 allocation; for fiscal year 2009, it shall be fifty per cent 69849
of the allocation for fiscal year 2008, to be applied in 69850
determining the fiscal year 2010 allocation; for fiscal year 2010, 69851
it shall be twenty-five per cent of the allocation for fiscal year 69852
2009, to be applied in determining the fiscal year 2011 69853
allocation; and for each fiscal year subsequent to fiscal year 69854
2010, it shall be twenty-five per cent of the allocation for the 69855
immediately preceding fiscal year, to be applied in determining 69856
the allocation for the next immediate fiscal year. The department 69857
shall withhold from future payments to a county an amount equal to 69858
any moneys in the felony delinquent care and custody fund of the 69859
county that exceed the total maximum balance carry-over that 69860
applies for that county for the fiscal year in which the payments 69861
are being made and shall reallocate the withheld amount. The 69862
department shall adopt rules for the withholding and reallocation 69863
of moneys disbursed under sections 5139.34 and 5139.41 of the 69864
Revised Code and for the criteria and process for a county to 69865
obtain an exemption from the withholding requirement. The moneys 69866
disbursed to the juvenile court pursuant to division (B) of 69867
section 5139.41 of the Revised Code and deposited pursuant to this 69868
division in the felony delinquent care and custody fund shall be 69869
in addition to, and shall not be used to reduce, any usual annual 69870
increase in county funding that the juvenile court is eligible to 69871
receive or the current level of county funding of the juvenile 69872
court and of any programs or services for delinquent children, 69873
unruly children, or juvenile traffic offenders.69874

       (2)(a) A county and the juvenile court that serves the county 69875
shall use the moneys in its felony delinquent care and custody 69876
fund in accordance with rules that the department of youth 69877
services adopts pursuant to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the 69878
Revised Code and as follows:69879

       (i) The moneys in the fund that represent state subsidy funds 69880
granted to the county pursuant to section 5139.34 of the Revised 69881
Code shall be used to aid in the support of prevention, early 69882
intervention, diversion, treatment, and rehabilitation programs 69883
that are provided for alleged or adjudicated unruly children or 69884
delinquent children or for children who are at risk of becoming 69885
unruly children or delinquent children. The county shall not use 69886
for capital improvements more than fifteen per cent of the moneys 69887
in the fund that represent the applicable annual grant of those 69888
state subsidy funds.69889

       (ii) The moneys in the fund that were disbursed to the 69890
juvenile court pursuant to division (B) of section 5139.41 of the 69891
Revised Code and deposited pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 69892
section in the fund shall be used to provide programs and services 69893
for the training, treatment, or rehabilitation of felony 69894
delinquents that are alternatives to their commitment to the 69895
department, including, but not limited to, community residential 69896
programs, day treatment centers, services within the home, and 69897
electronic monitoring, and shall be used in connection with 69898
training, treatment, rehabilitation, early intervention, or other 69899
programs or services for any delinquent child, unruly child, or 69900
juvenile traffic offender who is under the jurisdiction of the 69901
juvenile court. 69902

        The fund also may be used for prevention, early intervention, 69903
diversion, treatment, and rehabilitation programs that are 69904
provided for alleged or adjudicated unruly children, delinquent 69905
children, or juvenile traffic offenders or for children who are at 69906
risk of becoming unruly children, delinquent children, or juvenile 69907
traffic offenders. Consistent with division (B)(1) of this 69908
section, a county and the juvenile court of a county shall not use 69909
any of those moneys for capital construction projects.69910

       (iii) Moneys in the fund shall not be used to support 69911
programs or services that do not comply with federal juvenile 69912
justice and delinquency prevention core requirements or to support 69913
programs or services that research has shown to be ineffective. 69914
Moneys in the fund shall be prioritized to research-supported69915
Research-supported, outcome-based programs and services, to the 69916
extent they are available, shall be encouraged.69917

        (iv) The county and the juvenile court that serves the county 69918
may use moneys in the fund to provide out-of-home placement of 69919
children only in detention centers, community rehabilitation 69920
centers, or community corrections facilities approved by the 69921
department pursuant to standards adopted by the department, 69922
licensed by an authorized state agency, or accredited by the 69923
American correctional association or another national organization 69924
recognized by the department.69925

       (b) Each juvenile court shall comply with division (B)(3)(d) 69926
of this section as implemented by the department. If a juvenile 69927
court fails to comply with division (B)(3)(d) of this section, the 69928
department shall not be required to make any disbursements in 69929
accordance with division (C) or (D) of section 5139.41 or division 69930
(C)(2) of section 5139.34 of the Revised Code.69931

       (3) In accordance with rules adopted by the department 69932
pursuant to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the Revised Code, 69933
each juvenile court and the county served by that juvenile court 69934
shall do all of the following that apply:69935

       (a) The juvenile court shall prepare an annual grant 69936
agreement and application for funding that satisfies the 69937
requirements of this section and section 5139.34 of the Revised 69938
Code and that pertains to the use, upon an order of the juvenile 69939
court and subject to appropriation by the board of county 69940
commissioners, of the moneys in its felony delinquent care and 69941
custody fund for specified programs, care, and services as 69942
described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section, shall submit that 69943
agreement and application to the county family and children first 69944
council, the regional family and children first council, or the 69945
local intersystem services to children cluster as described in 69946
sections 121.37 and 121.38 of the Revised Code, whichever is 69947
applicable, and shall file that agreement and application with the 69948
department for its approval. The annual grant agreement and 69949
application for funding shall include a method of ensuring equal 69950
access for minority youth to the programs, care, and services 69951
specified in it.69952

       The department may approve an annual grant agreement and 69953
application for funding only if the juvenile court involved has 69954
complied with the preparation, submission, and filing requirements 69955
described in division (B)(3)(a) of this section. If the juvenile 69956
court complies with those requirements and the department approves 69957
that agreement and application, the juvenile court and the county 69958
served by the juvenile court may expend the state subsidy funds 69959
granted to the county pursuant to section 5139.34 of the Revised 69960
Code only in accordance with division (B)(2)(a) of this section, 69961
the rules pertaining to state subsidy funds that the department 69962
adopts pursuant to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the Revised 69963
Code, and the approved agreement and application.69964

       (b) By the thirty-first day of August of each year, the 69965
juvenile court shall file with the department a report that 69966
contains all of the statistical and other information for each 69967
month of the prior state fiscal year. If the juvenile court fails 69968
to file the report required by division (B)(3)(b) of this section 69969
by the thirty-first day of August of any year, the department 69970
shall not disburse any payment of state subsidy funds to which the 69971
county otherwise is entitled pursuant to section 5139.34 of the 69972
Revised Code and shall not disburse pursuant to division (B) of 69973
section 5139.41 of the Revised Code the applicable allocation 69974
until the juvenile court fully complies with division (B)(3)(b) of 69975
this section.69976

       (c) If the department requires the juvenile court to prepare 69977
monthly statistical reports and to submit the reports on forms 69978
provided by the department, the juvenile court shall file those 69979
reports with the department on the forms so provided. If the 69980
juvenile court fails to prepare and submit those monthly 69981
statistical reports within the department's timelines, the 69982
department shall not disburse any payment of state subsidy funds 69983
to which the county otherwise is entitled pursuant to section 69984
5139.34 of the Revised Code and shall not disburse pursuant to 69985
division (B) of section 5139.41 of the Revised Code the applicable 69986
allocation until the juvenile court fully complies with division 69987
(B)(3)(c) of this section. If the juvenile court fails to prepare 69988
and submit those monthly statistical reports within one hundred 69989
eighty days of the date the department establishes for their 69990
submission, the department shall not disburse any payment of state 69991
subsidy funds to which the county otherwise is entitled pursuant 69992
to section 5139.34 of the Revised Code and shall not disburse 69993
pursuant to division (B) of section 5139.41 of the Revised Code 69994
the applicable allocation, and the state subsidy funds and the 69995
remainder of the applicable allocation shall revert to the 69996
department. If a juvenile court states in a monthly statistical 69997
report that the juvenile court adjudicated within a state fiscal 69998
year five hundred or more children to be delinquent children for 69999
committing acts that would be felonies if committed by adults and 70000
if the department determines that the data in the report may be 70001
inaccurate, the juvenile court shall have an independent auditor 70002
or other qualified entity certify the accuracy of the data on a 70003
date determined by the department.70004

       (d) If the department requires the juvenile court and the 70005
county to participate in a fiscal monitoring program or another 70006
monitoring program that is conducted by the department to ensure 70007
compliance by the juvenile court and the county with division (B) 70008
of this section, the juvenile court and the county shall 70009
participate in the program and fully comply with any guidelines 70010
for the performance of audits adopted by the department pursuant 70011
to that program and all requests made by the department pursuant 70012
to that program for information necessary to reconcile fiscal 70013
accounting. If an audit that is performed pursuant to a fiscal 70014
monitoring program or another monitoring program described in this 70015
division determines that the juvenile court or the county used 70016
moneys in the county's felony delinquent care and custody fund for 70017
expenses that are not authorized under division (B) of this 70018
section, within forty-five days after the department notifies the 70019
county of the unauthorized expenditures, the county either shall 70020
repay the amount of the unauthorized expenditures from the county 70021
general revenue fund to the state's general revenue fund or shall 70022
file a written appeal with the department. If an appeal is timely 70023
filed, the director of the department shall render a decision on 70024
the appeal and shall notify the appellant county or its juvenile 70025
court of that decision within forty-five days after the date that 70026
the appeal is filed. If the director denies an appeal, the 70027
county's fiscal agent shall repay the amount of the unauthorized 70028
expenditures from the county general revenue fund to the state's 70029
general revenue fund within thirty days after receiving the 70030
director's notification of the appeal decision. 70031

       (C) The determination of which county a reduction of the care 70032
and custody allocation will be charged against for a particular 70033
youth shall be made as outlined below for all youths who do not 70034
qualify as public safety beds. The determination of which county a 70035
reduction of the care and custody allocation will be charged 70036
against shall be made as follows until each youth is released: 70037

       (1) In the event of a commitment, the reduction shall be 70038
charged against the committing county. 70039

       (2) In the event of a recommitment, the reduction shall be 70040
charged against the original committing county until the 70041
expiration of the minimum period of institutionalization under the 70042
original order of commitment or until the date on which the youth 70043
is admitted to the department of youth services pursuant to the 70044
order of recommitment, whichever is later. Reductions of the 70045
allocation shall be charged against the county that recommitted 70046
the youth after the minimum expiration date of the original 70047
commitment. 70048

       (3) In the event of a revocation of a release on parole, the 70049
reduction shall be charged against the county that revokes the 70050
youth's parole.70051

       (D) A juvenile court is not precluded by its allocation 70052
amount for the care and custody of felony delinquents from 70053
committing a felony delinquent to the department of youth services 70054
for care and custody in an institution or a community corrections 70055
facility when the juvenile court determines that the commitment is 70056
appropriate.70057

       Sec. 5139.511. Before a youth is released from a secure 70058
facility under the control of the department of youth services, 70059
the department of youth services shall attempt to verify the 70060
youth's identification and social security number. If the 70061
department is able to verify the youth's identity with a verified 70062
birth certificate and social security number, the department shall 70063
issue an identification card that the youth may present to the 70064
registrar or deputy registrar of motor vehicles. If the department 70065
is not able to verify the youth's identity with both a verified 70066
birth certificate and social security number, the youth shall not 70067
receive an identification card under this section.70068

       Sec. 5149.311.  (A) The department of rehabilitation and 70069
correction shall establish and administer the probation 70070
improvement grant and the probation incentive grant for court of 70071
common pleas probation departments that supervise felony offenders 70072
sentenced by courts of common pleas or municipal courts. 70073

       (B)(1) The probation improvement grant shall provide funding 70074
to court of common pleas probation departments to adopt policies 70075
and practices based on the latest research on how to reduce the 70076
number of felony offenders on probation supervision who violate 70077
the conditions of their supervision. 70078

        (2) The department shall adopt rules for the distribution of 70079
the probation improvement grant, including the formula for the 70080
allocation of the subsidy based on the number of felony offenders 70081
placed on probation annually in each jurisdiction.70082

        (C)(1) The probation incentive grant shall provide a 70083
performance-based level of funding to court of common pleas70084
probation departments that are successful in reducing the number 70085
of felony offenders on probation supervision whose terms of 70086
supervision are revoked. 70087

       (2) The department shall calculate annually any cost savings 70088
realized by the state from a reduction in the percentage of people 70089
who are incarcerated because their terms of supervised probation 70090
were revoked. The cost savings estimate shall be calculated for 70091
each countyjurisdiction served by the probation department 70092
eligible for a grant under this section and be based on the 70093
difference from fiscal year 2010 and the fiscal year under 70094
examination.70095

       (3) The department shall adopt rules that specify the subsidy 70096
amount to be appropriated to court of common pleas probation 70097
departments that successfully reduce the percentage of people on 70098
probation who are incarcerated because their terms of supervision 70099
are revoked. 70100

       (D) The following stipulations apply to both the probation 70101
improvement grant and the probation incentive grant:70102

       (1) In order to be eligible for the probation improvement 70103
grant and the probation incentive grant, courts of common pleas 70104
must satisfy all requirements under sections 2301.27 and 2301.30 70105
of the Revised Code and, except. Except for sentencing decisions 70106
made by a court when use of the risk assessment tool is 70107
discretionary, in order to be eligible for the probation 70108
improvement grant and the probation incentive grant, a court must 70109
utilize the single validated risk assessment tool selected by the 70110
department of rehabilitation and correction under section 5120.114 70111
of the Revised Code.70112

       (2) The department may deny a subsidy under this section to 70113
any applicant if the applicant fails to comply with the terms of 70114
any agreement entered into pursuant to any of the provisions of 70115
this section.70116

       (3) The department shall evaluate or provide for the 70117
evaluation of the policies, practices, and programs the court of 70118
common pleas probation departments utilize with the programs of 70119
subsidies established under this section and establish means of 70120
measuring their effectiveness.70121

       (4) The department shall specify the policies, practices, and 70122
programs for which court of common pleas probation departments may 70123
use the program subsidy and shall establish minimum standards of 70124
quality and efficiency that recipients of the subsidy must follow. 70125
The department shall give priority to supporting evidence-based 70126
policies and practices, as defined by the department.70127

       Sec. 5155.14.  At the request of the superintendent or 70128
administrator of the county home, the board of county 70129
commissioners or operator shall set apart from the county home 70130
fund, a reserve fund not to exceed four hundredfive thousand70131
dollars at any time, which, upon the order of the board or 70132
operator shall be paid to the superintendent or administrator and 70133
expended as needed for emergency supplies and expenses. The 70134
superintendent or administrator shall keep an accurate account of 70135
the reserve fund, in a book to be provided at the expense of the 70136
county for that purpose, and all expenditures from it shall be 70137
audited by the board or operator. The county home fund shall be 70138
reimbursed by the superintendent or administrator, in full, for 70139
any items expended by the superintendent or administrator from the 70140
reserve fund, which items are not allowed by the board or 70141
operator. When, and as often as such amount is entirely disbursed, 70142
on the order of the board or operator, the county auditor shall 70143
pay to the superintendent or administrator the amount so 70144
appropriated.70145

       Sec. 5501.04. The following divisions are hereby established 70146
in the department of transportation:70147

       (A) The division of business services;70148

       (B) The division of engineering policy;70149

       (C) The division of finance;70150

       (D) The division of human resources;70151

       (E) The division of information technology;70152

       (F) The division of multi-modal planning and programs;70153

       (G) The division of project management;70154

       (H) The division of equal opportunity.70155

       ThePursuant to section 5501.02 of the Revised Code, the70156
director of transportation shall distribute the duties, powers, 70157
and functions of the department among the divisions of the 70158
department.70159

       Each division shall be headed by a deputy director, whose 70160
title shall be designated by the director, and shall include those 70161
other officers and employees as may be necessary to carry out the 70162
work of the division. The director shall appoint theEach deputy 70163
director of each division, who shall be in the unclassified civil 70164
service of the state and shall serve at the pleasure of the 70165
director. The director shall supervise the work of each division 70166
and shall be responsible for the determination of general policies 70167
in the performance of the duties, powers, and functions of the 70168
department and of each division. The director shall have complete 70169
executive charge of the department, shall be responsible for the 70170
organization, direction, and supervision of the work of the 70171
department and the performance of the duties, powers, and 70172
functions assigned to each division, and may establish necessary 70173
administrative units therein. TheEach deputy director of each 70174
division, with the approval of the director and subject to Chapter 70175
124. of the Revised Code, shall appoint the necessary employees of 70176
the division and may remove such employees for cause.70177

       The division of equal opportunity shall ensure that minority 70178
groups and all groups protected by state and federal civil rights 70179
laws are afforded equal opportunity to be recruited, trained, and 70180
work in the employment of or on projects of the department of 70181
transportation, and to participate in contracts awarded by the 70182
department. The director of transportation each year shall report 70183
to the governor and the general assembly on the division's 70184
activities and accomplishments.70185

       Sec. 5501.07.  In addition to those duties, powers, and 70186
functions the director of transportation assigns to it, the office 70187
of public transportation of the division of multi-modal planning 70188
and programstransit:70189

       (A) May issue grants from any public transportation grant 70190
appropriation to county transit boards, regional transit 70191
authorities, regional transit commissions, counties, municipal 70192
corporations, and private nonprofit organizations that operate or 70193
will operate a public transportation system.70194

       The director shall establish criteria for the distribution of 70195
such grants. These criteria may include and the director may 70196
consider each of the following:70197

       (1) The degree to which comprehensive regional transportation 70198
planning goals may be attained through a program for which a grant 70199
will be used;70200

       (2) The amount of local financial or other support of public 70201
transportation operations and facilities affected by the program;70202

       (3) The levels of existing service and fare;70203

       (4) The degree to which the proposed plan demonstrates 70204
approaches of potential value to other local transit boards, 70205
authorities, commissions, counties, municipal corporations, and 70206
private nonprofit organizations operating public transportation 70207
systems;70208

       (5) The degree to which the grant applicant will use state 70209
and local funds to match a federal grant;70210

       (6) Such other factors as the director determines.70211

       Any criteria established by the director for the distribution 70212
of such grants shall be consistent with the requirements of the 70213
United States department of transportation, or any administration 70214
in the department, including, but not limited to, the federal 70215
transit administration. The director may designate in the criteria 70216
certain dates after which applications for specified portions of 70217
the appropriations made for this purpose will not be accepted.70218

       (B) May issue grants from any elderly and handicapped transit 70219
fare assistance grant appropriation to county transit boards, 70220
regional transit authorities, regional transit commissions, 70221
counties, municipal corporations, and private nonprofit 70222
organizations that operate or will operate public transportation 70223
systems for the purpose of reducing the transit or paratransit 70224
fares of elderly or handicapped persons. The director shall 70225
establish criteria for the distribution of such grants.70226

       (C) May administer provisions of federal public 70227
transportation acts or programs applicable within the state, 70228
pursuant to an agreement entered into by the director with an 70229
appropriate official of the federal agency responsible for 70230
implementation of the federal acts or programs. The federal acts 70231
or programs shall include, but are not limited to, programs 70232
authorized under the "Act of July 5, 1994," 108 Stat. 785, 49 70233
U.S.C.A. 5301, as amended.70234

       (D) Shall furnish, upon request and within the limits of 70235
appropriated funds, guidance in technical or policy matters to a 70236
county transit board, regional transit authority, regional transit 70237
commission, county, municipal corporation, or private nonprofit 70238
organization that operates or proposes to operate a public 70239
transportation system, and provide assistance and liaison in the 70240
preparation and submission of applications for federal and state 70241
funds;70242

       (E) May apply for and accept grants or loans from any federal 70243
agency for the purpose of providing for the development or 70244
improvement of public transportation facilities or for the 70245
coordination of any activities related to the development or 70246
improvement of such facilities, and may provide any consideration 70247
from any public transportation grant appropriation and enter into 70248
any contracts that may be required in order to obtain such grants 70249
or loans from a federal agency.70250

       Sec. 5502.01.  (A) The department of public safety shall 70251
administer and enforce the laws relating to the registration, 70252
licensing, sale, and operation of motor vehicles and the laws 70253
pertaining to the licensing of drivers of motor vehicles.70254

       The department shall compile, analyze, and publish statistics 70255
relative to motor vehicle accidents and the causes of them, 70256
prepare and conduct educational programs for the purpose of 70257
promoting safety in the operation of motor vehicles on the 70258
highways, and conduct research and studies for the purpose of 70259
promoting safety on the highways of this state.70260

       (B) The department shall administer the laws and rules 70261
relative to trauma and emergency medical services specified in 70262
Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code and any laws and rules relative 70263
to commercial medical transportation services as may be specified 70264
in Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code.70265

       (C) The department shall administer and enforce the laws 70266
contained in Chapters 4301. and 4303. of the Revised Code and 70267
enforce the rules and orders of the liquor control commission 70268
pertaining to retail liquor permit holders.70269

       (D) The department shall administer the laws governing the 70270
state emergency management agency and shall enforce all additional 70271
duties and responsibilities as prescribed in the Revised Code 70272
related to emergency management services.70273

       (E) The department shall conduct investigations pursuant to 70274
Chapter 5101. of the Revised Code in support of the duty of the 70275
department of job and family services to administer the 70276
supplemental nutrition assistance program throughout this state. 70277
The department of public safety shall conduct investigations 70278
necessary to protect the state's property rights and interests in 70279
the supplemental nutrition assistance program.70280

       (F) The department of public safety shall enforce compliance 70281
with orders and rules of the public utilities commission and 70282
applicable laws in accordance with Chapters 4919.4905., 4921., 70283
and 4923. of the Revised Code regarding commercial motor vehicle 70284
transportation safety, economic, and hazardous materials 70285
requirements.70286

       (G) Notwithstanding Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, the 70287
department of public safety may establish requirements for its 70288
enforcement personnel, including its enforcement agents described 70289
in section 5502.14 of the Revised Code, that include standards of 70290
conduct, work rules and procedures, and criteria for eligibility 70291
as law enforcement personnel.70292

       (H) The department shall administer, maintain, and operate 70293
the Ohio criminal justice network. The Ohio criminal justice 70294
network shall be a computer network that supports state and local 70295
criminal justice activities. The network shall be an electronic 70296
repository for various data, which may include arrest warrants, 70297
notices of persons wanted by law enforcement agencies, criminal 70298
records, prison inmate records, stolen vehicle records, vehicle 70299
operator's licenses, and vehicle registrations and titles.70300

       (I) The department shall coordinate all homeland security 70301
activities of all state agencies and shall be a liaison between 70302
state agencies and local entities for those activities and related 70303
purposes.70304

       (J) Beginning July 1, 2004, the department shall administer 70305
and enforce the laws relative to private investigators and 70306
security service providers specified in Chapter 4749. of the 70307
Revised Code.70308

       (K) The department shall administer criminal justice services 70309
in accordance with sections 5502.61 to 5502.66 of the Revised 70310
Code.70311

       Sec. 5502.011. (A) As used in this section, "department of 70312
public safety" and "department" include all divisions within the 70313
department of public safety.70314

        (B) The director of the department of public safety is the 70315
chief executive and administrative officer of the department. The 70316
director may establish policies governing the department, the 70317
performance of its employees and officers, the conduct of its 70318
business, and the custody, use, and preservation of departmental 70319
records, papers, books, documents, and property. The director also 70320
may authorize and approve investigations to be conducted by any of 70321
the department's divisions. Whenever the Revised Code imposes a 70322
duty upon or requires an action of the department, the director 70323
may perform the action or duty in the name of the department or 70324
direct such performance to be performed by the director's 70325
designee.70326

        (C) In addition to any other duties enumerated in the Revised 70327
Code, the director or the director's designee shall do all of the 70328
following:70329

        (1) Administer and direct the performance of the duties of 70330
the department;70331

        (2) Pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, approve, 70332
adopt, and prescribe such forms and rules as are necessary to 70333
carry out the duties of the department;70334

        (3) On behalf of the department and in addition to any 70335
authority the Revised Code otherwise grants to the department, 70336
have the authority and responsibility for approving and entering 70337
into contracts, agreements, and other business arrangements;70338

        (4) Make appointments for the department as needed to comply 70339
with requirements of the Revised Code;70340

        (5) Approve employment actions of the department, including 70341
appointments, promotions, discipline, investigations, and 70342
terminations;70343

       (6) Accept, hold, and use, for the benefit of the department, 70344
any gift, donation, bequest, or devise, and may agree to and 70345
perform all conditions of the gift, donation, bequest, or devise, 70346
that are not contrary to law;70347

       (7) Apply for, allocate, disburse, and account for grants 70348
made available under federal law or from other federal, state, or 70349
private sources;70350

       (8) Do all other acts necessary or desirable to carry out 70351
this chapter.70352

       (D)(1) The director of public safety may assess a reasonable 70353
fee, plus the amount of any charge or fee passed on from a 70354
financial institution, on a drawer or indorser for each of the 70355
following:70356

       (a) A check, draft, or money order that is returned or 70357
dishonored;70358

       (b) An automatic bank transfer that is declined, due to 70359
insufficient funds or for any other reason;70360

       (c) Any financial transaction device that is returned or 70361
dishonored for any reason.70362

       (2) The director shall deposit any fee collected under this 70363
division in an appropriate fund as determined by the director 70364
based on the tax, fee, or fine being paid.70365

       (3) As used in this division, "financial transaction device" 70366
has the same meaning as in section 113.40 of the Revised Code.70367

       (E) The director shall establish a homeland security advisory 70368
council to advise the director on homeland security, including 70369
homeland security funding efforts. The advisory council shall 70370
include, but not be limited to, state and local government 70371
officials who have homeland security or emergency management 70372
responsibilities and who represent first responders. The director 70373
shall appoint the members of the council, who shall serve without 70374
compensation.70375

       (F) The director of public safety shall adopt rules in 70376
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as required by 70377
section 2909.28 of the Revised Code and division (A)(1) of section 70378
2909.32 of the Revised Code. The director shall adopt rules as 70379
required by division (D) of section 2909.32 of the Revised Code, 70380
division (E) of section 2909.33 of the Revised Code, and division 70381
(D) of section 2909.34 of the Revised Code. The director may adopt 70382
rules pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 2909.32 of the 70383
Revised Code, division (A)(2) of section 2909.33 of the Revised 70384
Code, and division (A)(2) of section 2909.34 of the Revised Code.70385

       Sec. 5503.21.        Sec. 5502.05.  There is hereby created in the 70386
department of public safety, division of state highway patrol, a 70387
driver's license examination section to be administered by the 70388
superintendent of the state highway patrol. 70389

       The superintendent, with the approval of the director of 70390
public safety, may appoint necessary driver's license examiners 70391
and clerical personnel necessary to carry out the duties assigned 70392
under this section. The examiners shall be citizens of the United 70393
States and residents of the state and shall have such additional 70394
qualifications as the superintendent, with the approval of the70395
director, prescribes.70396

       The salaries and classifications of examiners and personnel 70397
shall be fixed in accordance with section 124.15 or 124.152 of the 70398
Revised Code. 70399

       Sec. 5503.22.        Sec. 5502.06.  Driver's license examiners assigned to 70400
the driver's license examination section shall conduct all 70401
examinations for driver's licenses as required by sections 4507.01 70402
to 4507.36 of the Revised Code, subject to the regulationsrules70403
issued by the registrar of motor vehicles.70404

       Sec. 5503.23.        Sec. 5502.07.  The superintendent of the state 70405
highway patrol, with the approval of the director of public 70406
safety, may conduct training schools for prospective driver's 70407
license examiners. The superintendentand may establish rules 70408
governing the qualifications for admission to such schools and 70409
provide for competitive examinations to determine the fitness of 70410
such students for prospective examiners, not inconsistent with the 70411
rules of the director of administrative services.70412

       Sec. 5503.02.  (A) The state highway patrol shall enforce the 70413
laws of the state relating to the titling, registration, and 70414
licensing of motor vehicles; enforce on all roads and highways, 70415
notwithstanding section 4513.39 of the Revised Code, the laws 70416
relating to the operation and use of vehicles on the highways; 70417
enforce and prevent the violation of the laws relating to the 70418
size, weight, and speed of commercial motor vehicles and all laws 70419
designed for the protection of the highway pavements and 70420
structures on the highways; investigate and enforce rules and laws 70421
of the public utilities commission governing the transportation of 70422
persons and property by motor carriers and report violations of 70423
such rules and laws to the commission; enforce against any motor 70424
transportation companycarrier as defined in section 4921.0270425
4923.01 of the Revised Code, any contract carrier by motor vehicle 70426
as defined in section 4923.02 of the Revised Code, any private 70427
motor carrier as defined in section 4923.20 of the Revised Code, 70428
and any motor carrier as defined in section 4919.75 of the Revised 70429
Code those rules and laws that, if violated, may result in a 70430
forfeiture as provided in section 4905.83, 4919.99, 4921.99, or70431
4923.99 of the Revised Code; investigate and report violations of 70432
all laws relating to the collection of excise taxes on motor 70433
vehicle fuels; and regulate the movement of traffic on the roads 70434
and highways of the state, notwithstanding section 4513.39 of the 70435
Revised Code.70436

       The patrol, whenever possible, shall determine the identity 70437
of the persons who are causing or who are responsible for the 70438
breaking, damaging, or destruction of any improved surfaced 70439
roadway, structure, sign, marker, guardrail, or other appurtenance 70440
constructed or maintained by the department of transportation and 70441
shall arrest the persons who are responsible for the breaking, 70442
damaging, or destruction and bring them before the proper 70443
officials for prosecution.70444

       State highway patrol troopers shall investigate and report 70445
all motor vehicle accidents on all roads and highways outside of 70446
municipal corporations. The superintendent of the patrol or any 70447
state highway patrol trooper may arrest, without a warrant, any 70448
person, who is the driver of or a passenger in any vehicle 70449
operated or standing on a state highway, whom the superintendent 70450
or trooper has reasonable cause to believe is guilty of a felony, 70451
under the same circumstances and with the same power that any 70452
peace officer may make such an arrest.70453

       The superintendent or any state highway patrol trooper may 70454
enforce the criminal laws on all state properties and state 70455
institutions, owned or leased by the state, and, when so ordered 70456
by the governor in the event of riot, civil disorder, or 70457
insurrection, may, pursuant to sections 2935.03 to 2935.05 of the 70458
Revised Code, arrest offenders against the criminal laws wherever 70459
they may be found within the state if the violations occurred 70460
upon, or resulted in injury to person or property on, state 70461
properties or state institutions, or under the conditions 70462
described in division (B) of this section. This authority of the 70463
superintendent and any state highway patrol trooper to enforce the 70464
criminal laws shall extend to the Lake Erie Correctional 70465
Institution, to the same extent as if that prison were owned by 70466
this state.70467

       (B) In the event of riot, civil disorder, or insurrection, or 70468
the reasonable threat of riot, civil disorder, or insurrection, 70469
and upon request, as provided in this section, of the sheriff of a 70470
county or the mayor or other chief executive of a municipal 70471
corporation, the governor may order the state highway patrol to 70472
enforce the criminal laws within the area threatened by riot, 70473
civil disorder, or insurrection, as designated by the governor, 70474
upon finding that law enforcement agencies within the counties 70475
involved will not be reasonably capable of controlling the riot, 70476
civil disorder, or insurrection and that additional assistance is 70477
necessary. In cities in which the sheriff is under contract to 70478
provide exclusive police services pursuant to section 311.29 of 70479
the Revised Code, in villages, and in the unincorporated areas of 70480
the county, the sheriff has exclusive authority to request the use 70481
of the patrol. In cities in which the sheriff does not exclusively 70482
provide police services, the mayor, or other chief executive 70483
performing the duties of mayor, has exclusive authority to request 70484
the use of the patrol.70485

       The superintendent or any state highway patrol trooper may 70486
enforce the criminal laws within the area designated by the 70487
governor during the emergency arising out of the riot, civil 70488
disorder, or insurrection until released by the governor upon 70489
consultation with the requesting authority. State highway patrol 70490
troopers shall never be used as peace officers in connection with 70491
any strike or labor dispute.70492

       When a request for the use of the patrol is made pursuant to 70493
this division, the requesting authority shall notify the law 70494
enforcement authorities in contiguous communities and the sheriff 70495
of each county within which the threatened area, or any part of 70496
the threatened area, lies of the request, but the failure to 70497
notify the authorities or a sheriff shall not affect the validity 70498
of the request.70499

       (C) Any person who is arrested by the superintendent or a 70500
state highway patrol trooper shall be taken before any court or 70501
magistrate having jurisdiction of the offense with which the 70502
person is charged. Any person who is arrested or apprehended 70503
within the limits of a municipal corporation shall be brought 70504
before the municipal court or other tribunal of the municipal 70505
corporation.70506

       (D)(1) State highway patrol troopers have the same right and 70507
power of search and seizure as other peace officers.70508

       No state official shall command, order, or direct any state 70509
highway patrol trooper to perform any duty or service that is not 70510
authorized by law. The powers and duties conferred on the patrol 70511
are supplementary to, and in no way a limitation on, the powers 70512
and duties of sheriffs or other peace officers of the state.70513

       (2)(a) A state highway patrol trooper, pursuant to the policy 70514
established by the superintendent of the state highway patrol 70515
under division (D)(2)(b) of this section, may render emergency 70516
assistance to any other peace officer who has arrest authority 70517
under section 2935.03 of the Revised Code, if both of the 70518
following apply:70519

       (i) There is a threat of imminent physical danger to the 70520
peace officer, a threat of physical harm to another person, or any 70521
other serious emergency situation;70522

       (ii) Either the peace officer requests emergency assistance, 70523
or it appears that the peace officer is unable to request 70524
emergency assistance and the circumstances observed by the state 70525
highway patrol trooper reasonably indicate that emergency 70526
assistance is appropriate, or the peace officer requests emergency 70527
assistance and in the request the peace officer specifies a 70528
particular location and the state highway patrol trooper arrives 70529
at that location prior to the time that the peace officer arrives 70530
at that location and the circumstances observed by the state 70531
highway patrol trooper reasonably indicate that emergency 70532
assistance is appropriate.70533

       (b) The superintendent of the state highway patrol shall 70534
establish, within sixty days of August 8, 1991, a policy that sets 70535
forth the manner and procedures by which a state highway patrol 70536
trooper may render emergency assistance to any other peace officer 70537
under division (D)(2)(a) of this section. The policy shall include 70538
a provision that a state highway patrol trooper never be used as a 70539
peace officer in connection with any strike or labor dispute.70540

       (3)(a) A state highway patrol trooper who renders emergency 70541
assistance to any other peace officer under the policy established 70542
by the superintendent pursuant to division (D)(2)(b) of this 70543
section shall be considered to be performing regular employment 70544
for the purposes of compensation, pension, indemnity fund rights, 70545
workers' compensation, and other rights or benefits to which the 70546
trooper may be entitled as incident to regular employment.70547

       (b) A state highway patrol trooper who renders emergency 70548
assistance to any other peace officer under the policy established 70549
by the superintendent pursuant to division (D)(2)(b) of this 70550
section retains personal immunity from liability as specified in 70551
section 9.86 of the Revised Code.70552

       (c) A state highway patrol trooper who renders emergency 70553
assistance under the policy established by the superintendent 70554
pursuant to division (D)(2)(b) of this section has the same 70555
authority as the peace officer for or with whom the state highway 70556
patrol trooper is providing emergency assistance.70557

       (E)(1) Subject to the availability of funds specifically 70558
appropriated by the general assembly for security detail purposes, 70559
the state highway patrol shall provide security as follows:70560

       (a) For the governor;70561

       (b) At the direction of the governor, for other officials of 70562
the state government of this state; officials of the state 70563
governments of other states who are visiting this state; officials 70564
of the United States government who are visiting this state; 70565
officials of the governments of foreign countries or their 70566
political subdivisions who are visiting this state; or other 70567
officials or dignitaries who are visiting this state, including, 70568
but not limited to, members of trade missions;70569

       (c) For the capitol square, as defined in section 105.41 of 70570
the Revised Code;70571

       (d) For other state property.70572

       (2) To carry out the security responsibilities of the patrol 70573
listed in division (E)(1) of this section, the superintendent may 70574
assign state highway patrol troopers to a separate unit that is 70575
responsible for security details. The number of troopers assigned 70576
to particular security details shall be determined by the 70577
superintendent.70578

       (3) The superintendent and any state highway patrol trooper, 70579
when providing security pursuant to division (E)(1)(a) or (b) of 70580
this section, have the same arrest powers as other peace officers 70581
to apprehend offenders against the criminal laws who endanger or 70582
threaten the security of any person being protected, no matter 70583
where the offense occurs.70584

       The superintendent, any state highway patrol trooper, and any 70585
special police officer designated under section 5503.09 of the 70586
Revised Code, when providing security pursuant to division 70587
(E)(1)(c) of this section, shall enforce any rules governing 70588
capitol square adopted by the capitol square review and advisory 70589
board.70590

       (F) The governor may order the state highway patrol to 70591
undertake major criminal investigations that involve state 70592
property interests. If an investigation undertaken pursuant to 70593
this division results in either the issuance of a no bill or the 70594
filing of an indictment, the superintendent shall file a complete 70595
and accurate report of the investigation with the president of the 70596
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, the minority 70597
leader of the senate, and the minority leader of the house of 70598
representatives within fifteen days after the issuance of the no 70599
bill or the filing of an indictment. If the investigation does not 70600
have as its result any prosecutorial action, the superintendent 70601
shall, upon reporting this fact to the governor, file a complete 70602
and accurate report of the investigation with the president of the 70603
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, the minority 70604
leader of the senate, and the minority leader of the house of 70605
representatives.70606

       (G) The superintendent may purchase or lease real property 70607
and buildings needed by the patrol, negotiate the sale of real 70608
property owned by the patrol, rent or lease real property owned or 70609
leased by the patrol, and make or cause to be made repairs to all 70610
property owned or under the control of the patrol. Any instrument 70611
by which real property is acquired pursuant to this division shall 70612
identify the agency of the state that has the use and benefit of 70613
the real property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised 70614
Code.70615

       Sections 123.01 and 125.02 of the Revised Code do not limit 70616
the powers granted to the superintendent by this division.70617

       Sec. 5503.04.  Forty-five per cent of the fines collected 70618
from or moneys arising from bail forfeited by persons apprehended 70619
or arrested by state highway patrol troopers shall be paid into 70620
the state treasury to be credited to the general revenue fund, 70621
five per cent shall be paid into the state treasury to be credited 70622
to the trauma and emergency medical services grants fund created 70623
by division (E) of section 4513.263 of the Revised Code, and fifty 70624
per cent shall be paid into the treasury of the municipal 70625
corporation where the case is prosecuted, if in a mayor's court. 70626
If the prosecution is in a trial court outside a municipal 70627
corporation, or outside the territorial jurisdiction of a 70628
municipal court, the fifty per cent of the fines and moneys that 70629
is not paid into the state treasury shall be paid into the 70630
treasury of the county where the case is prosecuted. The fines and 70631
moneys paid into a county treasury and the fines and moneys paid 70632
into the treasury of a municipal corporation shall be deposited 70633
one-half to the same fund and expended in the same manner as is 70634
the revenue received from the registration of motor vehicles, and 70635
one-half to the general fund of such county or municipal 70636
corporation.70637

       If the prosecution is in a municipal court, forty-five per 70638
cent of the fines and moneys shall be paid into the state treasury 70639
to be credited to the general revenue fund, five per cent shall be 70640
paid into the state treasury to be credited to the trauma and 70641
emergency medical services grants fund created by division (E) of 70642
section 4513.263 of the Revised Code, ten per cent shall be paid 70643
into the county treasury to be credited to the general fund of the 70644
county, and forty per cent shall be paid into the municipal 70645
treasury to be credited to the general fund of the municipal 70646
corporation. In the Auglaize county, Clermont county, Crawford 70647
county, Hocking county, Jackson county, Lawrence county, Madison 70648
county, Miami county, Ottawa county, Portage county, and Wayne 70649
county municipal courts, that portion of money otherwise paid into 70650
the municipal treasury shall be paid into the county treasury.70651

       The trial court shall make remittance of the fines and moneys 70652
as prescribed in this section, and at the same time as the 70653
remittance is made of the state's portion to the state treasury, 70654
the trial court shall notify the superintendent of the state 70655
highway patrol of the case and the amount covered by the 70656
remittance.70657

       This section does not apply to fines for violations of 70658
division (B) of section 4513.263 of the Revised Code, or for 70659
violations of any municipal ordinance that is substantively 70660
comparable to that division, all of which shall be delivered to 70661
the treasurer of state as provided in division (E) of section 70662
4513.263 of the Revised Code.70663

       Sec. 5503.34.  There is hereby created in the department of 70664
public safety, division of state highway patrol, a motor carrier 70665
enforcement unit, to be administered by the superintendent of the 70666
state highway patrol. This unit shall be responsible for 70667
enforcement of commercial motor vehicle transportation safety, 70668
economic, and hazardous materials requirements.70669

       The superintendent, with the approval of the director of 70670
public safety, may appoint and maintain necessary staff to carry 70671
out the duties assigned under this section.70672

       Employees of the motor carrier enforcement unit shall 70673
cooperate with the public utilities commission to enforce 70674
compliance with orders and rules of the commission, applicable 70675
laws under Chapters 49194905., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised 70676
Code, and any other applicable laws or rules.70677

       Uniformed employees of the motor carrier enforcement unit may 70678
stop commercial motor vehicles for the exclusive purpose of 70679
inspecting such vehicles to enforce compliance with orders and 70680
rules of the public utilities commission as required by division 70681
(F) of section 5502.01 of the Revised Code.70682

       Sec. 5516.02.  No advertising device shall be erected or 70683
maintained within six hundred sixty feet of the edge of the 70684
right-of-way of a highway on the interstate system except the 70685
following:70686

       (A) Directional and official signs and notices that conform 70687
to rules adopted by the director of transportation;70688

       (B) Signs advertising the sale or lease of the property upon 70689
which they are located;70690

       (C) Advertising devices indicating the name of the business 70691
or profession conducted on such property or that identify the 70692
goods produced, sold, or services rendered on such property, and 70693
that conform to rules adopted by the director;70694

       (D) Advertising devices that are located in commercial or 70695
industrial zones traversed by segments of the interstate system 70696
within the boundaries of a municipal corporation as such 70697
boundaries existed on September 21, 1959, and that conform to 70698
rules adopted by the director;70699

       (E) Advertising devices that are located on the premises of a 70700
professional sports facility and that conform to rules adopted by 70701
the director. For a professional sports facility that is located 70702
on real property owned by the state, the rules of the director 70703
shall allow an advertising device to be located within three 70704
hundred fifty feet of the structure of the professional sports 70705
facility and shall allow an advertising device to have a maximum 70706
area of five thousand square feet, excluding decorative bases and 70707
supports.70708

       Sec. 5516.06.  No advertising device shall be erected or 70709
maintained within six hundred sixty feet of the edge of the 70710
right-of-way of a highway on the primary system except the 70711
following:70712

       (A) Directional and other official signs and notices that 70713
conform to rules adopted by the director of transportation;70714

       (B) Signs advertising the sale or lease of the property upon 70715
which they are located;70716

       (C) Advertising devices indicating the name of the business, 70717
activities, or profession conducted on such property or that 70718
identify the goods produced, sold, or services rendered on such 70719
property and that conform to rules adopted by the director;70720

       (D) Precautionary signs relating to the premises;70721

       (E) Signs, displays, or devices which locate, identify, mark, 70722
or warn of the presence of pipe lines, utility lines, or rail 70723
lines, and appurtenances thereof, including, but not limited to, 70724
markers used in the maintenance, operation, observation, and 70725
safety of said lines;70726

       (F) Advertising devices located in zoned or unzoned 70727
industrial or commercial areas adjacent to highways on the primary 70728
system that conform to rules adopted by the director;70729

       (G) Signs lawfully in existence on October 22, 1965, that the 70730
director, subject to the approval of the secretary of the United 70731
States department of transportation, has determined to be landmark 70732
signs, including signs on farm structures or natural surfaces, 70733
which are of historic or artistic significance;70734

       (H) Advertising devices that are located on the premises of a 70735
professional sports facility and that conform to rules adopted by 70736
the director. For a professional sports facility that is located 70737
on real property owned by the state, the rules of the director 70738
shall allow an advertising device to be located within three 70739
hundred fifty feet of the structure of the professional sports 70740
facility and shall allow an advertising device to have a maximum 70741
area of five thousand square feet, excluding decorative bases and 70742
supports.70743

       Sec. 5701.13.  (A) As used in this section:70744

       (1) "Nursing home" means a nursing home or a home for the 70745
aging, as those terms are defined in section 3721.01 of the 70746
Revised Code, that is issued a license pursuant to section 3721.02 70747
of the Revised Code.70748

       (2) "Residential care facility" means a residential care 70749
facility, as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, that 70750
is issued a license pursuant to section 3721.02 of the Revised 70751
Code.70752

       (3) "Adult careResidential facility" means an adult carea 70753
residential facility as defined inlicensed under section 5119.7070754
5119.22 of the Revised Code that is issued a license pursuant to 70755
section 5119.73 of the Revised Codeprovides accommodations, 70756
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 70757
unrelated adults.70758

       (B) As used in Title LVII of the Revised Code, and for the 70759
purpose of other sections of the Revised Code that refer 70760
specifically to Chapter 5701. or section 5701.13 of the Revised 70761
Code, a "home for the aged" means either of the following:70762

       (1) A place of residence for aged and infirm persons that 70763
satisfies divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) of this section:70764

       (a) It is a nursing home, residential care facility, or adult 70765
careresidential facility.70766

       (b) It is owned by a corporation, unincorporated association, 70767
or trust of a charitable, religious, or fraternal nature, which is 70768
organized and operated not for profit, which is not formed for the 70769
pecuniary gain or profit of, and whose net earnings or any part of 70770
whose net earnings is not distributable to, its members, trustees, 70771
officers, or other private persons, and which is exempt from 70772
federal income taxation under section 501 of the "Internal Revenue 70773
Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1.70774

       (c) It is open to the public without regard to race, color, 70775
or national origin.70776

       (d) It does not pay, directly or indirectly, compensation for 70777
services rendered, interest on debts incurred, or purchase price 70778
for land, building, equipment, supplies, or other goods or 70779
chattels, which compensation, interest, or purchase price is 70780
unreasonably high.70781

       (e) It provides services for the life of each resident 70782
without regard to the resident's ability to continue payment for 70783
the full cost of the services.70784

       (2) A place of residence that satisfies divisions (B)(1)(b), 70785
(d), and (e) of this section; that satisfies the definition of 70786
"nursing home" or "residential care facility" under section 70787
3721.01 of the Revised Code or the definition of "adult care70788
residential facility" under section 5119.70 of the Revised Code70789
division (A)(3) of this section regardless of whether it is 70790
licensed as such a home or facility; and that is provided at no 70791
charge to individuals on account of their service without 70792
compensation to a charitable, religious, fraternal, or educational 70793
institution, which individuals are aged or infirm and are members 70794
of the corporation, association, or trust that owns the place of 70795
residence. For the purposes of division (B)(2) of this section, 70796
"compensation" does not include furnishing room and board, 70797
clothing, health care, or other necessities, or stipends or other 70798
de minimis payments to defray the cost thereof.70799

       Exemption from taxation shall be accorded, on proper 70800
application, only to those homes or parts of homes which meet the 70801
standards and provide the services specified in this section.70802

       Nothing in this section shall be construed as preventing a 70803
home from requiring a resident with financial need to apply for 70804
any applicable financial assistance or requiring a home to retain 70805
a resident who willfully refuses to pay for services for which the 70806
resident has contracted even though the resident has sufficient 70807
resources to do so.70808

       (C)(1) If a corporation, unincorporated association, or trust 70809
described in division (B)(1)(b) of this section is granted a 70810
certificate of need pursuant to section 3702.52 of the Revised 70811
Code to construct, add to, or otherwise modify a nursing home, or 70812
is given approval pursuant to section 3791.04 of the Revised Code 70813
to construct, add to, or otherwise modify a residential care 70814
facility or adult careresidential facility and if the 70815
corporation, association, or trust submits an affidavit to the tax 70816
commissioner stating that, commencing on the date of licensure and 70817
continuing thereafter, the home or facility will be operated in 70818
accordance with the requirements of divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) of 70819
this section, the corporation, association, or trust shall be 70820
considered to be operating a "home for the aged" within the 70821
meaning of division (B)(1) of this section, beginning on the first 70822
day of January of the year in which such certificate is granted or 70823
approval is given.70824

       (2) If a corporation, association, or trust is considered to 70825
be operating a "home for the aged" pursuant to division (C)(1) of 70826
this section, the corporation, association, or trust shall notify 70827
the tax commissioner in writing upon the occurrence of any of the 70828
following events:70829

       (a) The corporation, association, or trust no longer intends 70830
to complete the construction of, addition to, or modification of 70831
the home or facility, to obtain the appropriate license for the 70832
home or facility, or to commence operation of the home or facility 70833
in accordance with the requirements of divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) 70834
of this section;70835

       (b) The certificate of approval referred to in division 70836
(C)(1) of this section expires, is revoked, or is otherwise 70837
terminated prior to the completion of the construction of, 70838
addition to, or modification of the home or facility;70839

       (c) The license to operate the home or facility is not 70840
granted by the director of health within one year following 70841
completion of the construction of, addition to, or modification of 70842
the home or facility;70843

       (d) The license to operate the home or facility is not 70844
granted by the director of health within four years following the 70845
date upon which the certificate or approval referred to in 70846
division (C)(1) of this section was granted or given;70847

       (e) The home or facility is granted a license to operate as a 70848
nursing home, residential care facility, or adult careresidential70849
facility.70850

       (3) Upon the occurrence of any of the events referred to in 70851
divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section, the 70852
corporation, association, or trust shall no longer be considered 70853
to be operating a "home for the aged" pursuant to division (C)(1) 70854
of this section, except that the tax commissioner, for good cause 70855
shown and to the extent the commissioner considers appropriate, 70856
may extend the time period specified in division (C)(2)(c) or (d) 70857
of this section, or both. Nothing in division (C)(3) of this 70858
section shall be construed to prevent a nursing home, residential 70859
care facility, or adult careresidential facility from qualifying 70860
as a "home for the aged" if, upon proper application made pursuant 70861
to division (B) of this section, it is found to meet the 70862
requirements of divisions (A) and (B) of this section.70863

       Sec. 5703.05.  All powers, duties, and functions of the 70864
department of taxation are vested in and shall be performed by the 70865
tax commissioner, which powers, duties, and functions shall 70866
include, but shall not be limited to, the following:70867

       (A) Prescribing all blank forms which the department is 70868
authorized to prescribe, and to provide such forms and distribute 70869
the same as required by law and the rules of the department. 70870

       (B) Exercising the authority provided by law, including 70871
orders from bankruptcy courts, relative to remitting or refunding 70872
taxes or assessments, including penalties and interest thereon, 70873
illegally or erroneously assessed or collected, or for any other 70874
reason overpaid, and in addition, the commissioner may on written 70875
application of any person, firm, or corporation claiming to have 70876
overpaid to the treasurer of state at any time within five years 70877
prior to the making of such application any tax payable under any 70878
law which the department of taxation is required to administer 70879
which does not contain any provision for refund, or on the 70880
commissioner's own motion investigate the facts and make in 70881
triplicate a written statement of the commissioner's findings, 70882
and, if the commissioner finds that there has been an overpayment, 70883
issue in triplicate a certificate of abatement payable to the 70884
taxpayer, the taxpayer's assigns, or legal representative which 70885
shows the amount of the overpayment and the kind of tax overpaid. 70886
One copy of such statement shall be entered on the journal of the 70887
commissioner, one shall be certified to the attorney general, and 70888
one certified copy shall be delivered to the taxpayer. All copies 70889
of the certificate of abatement shall be transmitted to the 70890
attorney general, and if the attorney general finds it to be 70891
correct the attorney general shall so certify on each copy, and 70892
deliver one copy to the taxpayer, one copy to the commissioner, 70893
and the third copy to the treasurer of state. Except as provided 70894
in sectionssection 5725.08 and 5725.16 of the Revised Code, the 70895
taxpayer's copy of any certificates of abatement may be tendered 70896
by the payee or transferee thereof to the treasurer of state, or 70897
to the commissioner on behalf of the treasurer, as payment, to the 70898
extent of the amount thereof, of any tax payable to the treasurer 70899
of state.70900

       (C) Exercising the authority provided by law relative to 70901
consenting to the compromise and settlement of tax claims;70902

       (D) Exercising the authority provided by law relative to the 70903
use of alternative tax bases by taxpayers in the making of 70904
personal property tax returns;70905

       (E) Exercising the authority provided by law relative to 70906
authorizing the prepayment of taxes on retail sales of tangible 70907
personal property or on the storage, use, or consumption of 70908
personal property, and waiving the collection of such taxes from 70909
the consumers;70910

       (F) Exercising the authority provided by law to revoke 70911
licenses;70912

       (G) Maintaining a continuous study of the practical operation 70913
of all taxation and revenue laws of the state, the manner in which 70914
and extent to which such laws provide revenues for the support of 70915
the state and its political subdivisions, the probable effect upon 70916
such revenue of possible changes in existing laws, and the 70917
possible enactment of measures providing for other forms of 70918
taxation. For this purpose the commissioner may establish and 70919
maintain a division of research and statistics, and may appoint 70920
necessary employees who shall be in the unclassified civil 70921
service; the results of such study shall be available to the 70922
members of the general assembly and the public.70923

       (H) Making all tax assessments, valuations, findings, 70924
determinations, computations, and orders the department of 70925
taxation is by law authorized and required to make and, pursuant 70926
to time limitations provided by law, on the commissioner's own 70927
motion, reviewing, redetermining, or correcting any tax 70928
assessments, valuations, findings, determinations, computations, 70929
or orders the commissioner has made, but the commissioner shall 70930
not review, redetermine, or correct any tax assessment, valuation, 70931
finding, determination, computation, or order which the 70932
commissioner has made as to which an appeal or application for 70933
rehearing, review, redetermination, or correction has been filed 70934
with the board of tax appeals, unless such appeal or application 70935
is withdrawn by the appellant or applicant or dismissed;70936

       (I) Appointing not more than five deputy tax commissioners, 70937
who, under such regulations as the rules of the department of 70938
taxation prescribe, may act for the commissioner in the 70939
performance of such duties as the commissioner prescribes in the 70940
administration of the laws which the commissioner is authorized 70941
and required to administer, and who shall serve in the 70942
unclassified civil service at the pleasure of the commissioner, 70943
but if a person who holds a position in the classified service is 70944
appointed, it shall not affect the civil service status of such 70945
person. The commissioner may designate not more than two of the 70946
deputy commissioners to act as commissioner in case of the 70947
absence, disability, or recusal of the commissioner or vacancy in 70948
the office of commissioner. The commissioner may adopt rules 70949
relating to the order of precedence of such designated deputy 70950
commissioners and to their assumption and administration of the 70951
office of commissioner.70952

       (J) Appointing and prescribing the duties of all other 70953
employees of the department of taxation necessary in the 70954
performance of the work of the department which the tax 70955
commissioner is by law authorized and required to perform, and 70956
creating such divisions or sections of employees as, in the 70957
commissioner's judgment, is proper;70958

       (K) Organizing the work of the department, which the 70959
commissioner is by law authorized and required to perform, so 70960
that, in the commissioner's judgment, an efficient and economical 70961
administration of the laws will result;70962

       (L) Maintaining a journal, which is open to public 70963
inspection, in which the tax commissioner shall keep a record of 70964
all final determinations of the commissioner;70965

       (M) Adopting and promulgating, in the manner provided by 70966
section 5703.14 of the Revised Code, all rules of the department, 70967
including rules for the administration of sections 3517.16, 70968
3517.17, and 5747.081 of the Revised Code;70969

       (N) Destroying any or all returns or assessment certificates 70970
in the manner authorized by law;70971

       (O) Adopting rules, in accordance with division (B) of 70972
section 325.31 of the Revised Code, governing the expenditure of 70973
moneys from the real estate assessment fund under that division.70974

       Sec. 5705.08.  On or before the first Monday in May of each 70975
year, the fiscal officer of each subdivision that is not a, except70976
school districtdistricts and the city of Cincinnati, shall 70977
certify to its taxing authority the amount necessary to provide 70978
for the payment of final judgments against the subdivision, except 70979
in condemnation of property cases. The taxing authority shall 70980
place such certified amount in each budget and in the annual 70981
appropriation measure for the full amount certified.70982

       On or before the first Monday in November of each year, the 70983
fiscal officer of the city of Cincinnati and of each school 70984
district shall certify to its board of educationtaxing authority70985
the amount necessary to provide for the payment of final judgments 70986
against the districtsubdivision, except in condemnation of 70987
property cases. The board of educationtaxing authority shall 70988
place such certified amount in each budget and in the annual 70989
appropriation measure for the full amount certified.70990

       Sec. 5705.19.  This section does not apply to school 70991
districts or county school financing districts.70992

       The taxing authority of any subdivision at any time and in 70993
any year, by vote of two-thirds of all the members of the taxing 70994
authority, may declare by resolution and certify the resolution to 70995
the board of elections not less than ninety days before the 70996
election upon which it will be voted that the amount of taxes that 70997
may be raised within the ten-mill limitation will be insufficient 70998
to provide for the necessary requirements of the subdivision and 70999
that it is necessary to levy a tax in excess of that limitation 71000
for any of the following purposes:71001

       (A) For current expenses of the subdivision, except that the 71002
total levy for current expenses of a detention facility district 71003
or district organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code 71004
shall not exceed two mills and that the total levy for current 71005
expenses of a combined district organized under sections 2151.65 71006
and 2152.41 of the Revised Code shall not exceed four mills;71007

       (B) For the payment of debt charges on certain described 71008
bonds, notes, or certificates of indebtedness of the subdivision 71009
issued subsequent to January 1, 1925;71010

       (C) For the debt charges on all bonds, notes, and 71011
certificates of indebtedness issued and authorized to be issued 71012
prior to January 1, 1925;71013

       (D) For a public library of, or supported by, the subdivision 71014
under whatever law organized or authorized to be supported;71015

       (E) For a municipal university, not to exceed two mills over 71016
the limitation of one mill prescribed in section 3349.13 of the 71017
Revised Code;71018

       (F) For the construction or acquisition of any specific 71019
permanent improvement or class of improvements that the taxing 71020
authority of the subdivision may include in a single bond issue;71021

       (G) For the general construction, reconstruction, 71022
resurfacing, and repair of streets, roads, and bridges in 71023
municipal corporations, counties, or townships;71024

       (H) For parks and recreational purposes;71025

       (I) For the purpose of providing and maintaining fire 71026
apparatus, appliances, buildings, or sites therefor, or sources of 71027
water supply and materials therefor, or the establishment and 71028
maintenance of lines of fire alarm telegraph, or the payment of 71029
firefighting companies or permanent, part-time, or volunteer 71030
firefighting, emergency medical service, administrative, or 71031
communications personnel to operate the same, including the 71032
payment of any employer contributions required for such personnel 71033
under section 145.48 or 742.34 of the Revised Code, or the 71034
purchase of ambulance equipment, or the provision of ambulance, 71035
paramedic, or other emergency medical services operated by a fire 71036
department or firefighting company;71037

       (J) For the purpose of providing and maintaining motor 71038
vehicles, communications, other equipment, buildings, and sites 71039
for such buildings used directly in the operation of a police 71040
department, or the payment of salaries of permanent or part-time 71041
police, communications, or administrative personnel to operate the 71042
same, including the payment of any employer contributions required 71043
for such personnel under section 145.48 or 742.33 of the Revised 71044
Code, or the payment of the costs incurred by townships as a 71045
result of contracts made with other political subdivisions in 71046
order to obtain police protection, or the provision of ambulance 71047
or emergency medical services operated by a police department;71048

       (K) For the maintenance and operation of a county home or 71049
detention facility;71050

       (L) For community mental retardation and developmental 71051
disabilities programs and services pursuant to Chapter 5126. of 71052
the Revised Code, except that the procedure for such levies shall 71053
be as provided in section 5705.222 of the Revised Code;71054

       (M) For regional planning;71055

       (N) For a county's share of the cost of maintaining and 71056
operating schools, district detention facilities, forestry camps, 71057
or other facilities, or any combination thereof, established under 71058
section 2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code or both of those 71059
sections;71060

       (O) For providing for flood defense, providing and 71061
maintaining a flood wall or pumps, and other purposes to prevent 71062
floods;71063

       (P) For maintaining and operating sewage disposal plants and 71064
facilities;71065

       (Q) For the purpose of purchasing, acquiring, constructing, 71066
enlarging, improving, equipping, repairing, maintaining, or 71067
operating, or any combination of the foregoing, a county transit 71068
system pursuant to sections 306.01 to 306.13 of the Revised Code, 71069
or of making any payment to a board of county commissioners 71070
operating a transit system or a county transit board pursuant to 71071
section 306.06 of the Revised Code;71072

       (R) For the subdivision's share of the cost of acquiring or 71073
constructing any schools, forestry camps, detention facilities, or 71074
other facilities, or any combination thereof, under section 71075
2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code or both of those sections;71076

       (S) For the prevention, control, and abatement of air 71077
pollution;71078

       (T) For maintaining and operating cemeteries;71079

       (U) For providing ambulance service, emergency medical 71080
service, or both;71081

       (V) For providing for the collection and disposal of garbage 71082
or refuse, including yard waste;71083

       (W) For the payment of the police officer employers' 71084
contribution or the firefighter employers' contribution required 71085
under sections 742.33 and 742.34 of the Revised Code;71086

       (X) For the construction and maintenance of a drainage 71087
improvement pursuant to section 6131.52 of the Revised Code;71088

       (Y) For providing or maintaining senior citizens services or 71089
facilities as authorized by section 307.694, 307.85, 505.70, or 71090
505.706 or division (EE) of section 717.01 of the Revised Code;71091

       (Z) For the provision and maintenance of zoological park 71092
services and facilities as authorized under section 307.76 of the 71093
Revised Code;71094

       (AA) For the maintenance and operation of a free public 71095
museum of art, science, or history;71096

       (BB) For the establishment and operation of a 9-1-1 system, 71097
as defined in section 4931.40 of the Revised Code;71098

       (CC) For the purpose of acquiring, rehabilitating, or 71099
developing rail property or rail service. As used in this 71100
division, "rail property" and "rail service" have the same 71101
meanings as in section 4981.01 of the Revised Code. This division 71102
applies only to a county, township, or municipal corporation.71103

       (DD) For the purpose of acquiring property for, constructing, 71104
operating, and maintaining community centers as provided for in 71105
section 755.16 of the Revised Code;71106

       (EE) For the creation and operation of an office or joint 71107
office of economic development, for any economic development 71108
purpose of the office, and to otherwise provide for the 71109
establishment and operation of a program of economic development 71110
pursuant to sections 307.07 and 307.64 of the Revised Code, or to 71111
the extent that the expenses of a county land reutilization 71112
corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code are 71113
found by the board of county commissioners to constitute the 71114
promotion of economic development, for the payment of such 71115
operations and expenses;71116

       (FF) For the purpose of acquiring, establishing, 71117
constructing, improving, equipping, maintaining, or operating, or 71118
any combination of the foregoing, a township airport, landing 71119
field, or other air navigation facility pursuant to section 505.15 71120
of the Revised Code;71121

       (GG) For the payment of costs incurred by a township as a 71122
result of a contract made with a county pursuant to section 71123
505.263 of the Revised Code in order to pay all or any part of the 71124
cost of constructing, maintaining, repairing, or operating a water 71125
supply improvement;71126

       (HH) For a board of township trustees to acquire, other than 71127
by appropriation, an ownership interest in land, water, or 71128
wetlands, or to restore or maintain land, water, or wetlands in 71129
which the board has an ownership interest, not for purposes of 71130
recreation, but for the purposes of protecting and preserving the 71131
natural, scenic, open, or wooded condition of the land, water, or 71132
wetlands against modification or encroachment resulting from 71133
occupation, development, or other use, which may be styled as 71134
protecting or preserving "greenspace" in the resolution, notice of 71135
election, or ballot form. Except as otherwise provided in this 71136
division, land is not acquired for purposes of recreation, even if 71137
the land is used for recreational purposes, so long as no 71138
building, structure, or fixture used for recreational purposes is 71139
permanently attached or affixed to the land. Except as otherwise 71140
provided in this division, land that previously has been acquired 71141
in a township for these greenspace purposes may subsequently be 71142
used for recreational purposes if the board of township trustees 71143
adopts a resolution approving that use and no building, structure, 71144
or fixture used for recreational purposes is permanently attached 71145
or affixed to the land. The authorization to use greenspace land 71146
for recreational use does not apply to land located in a township 71147
that had a population, at the time it passed its first greenspace 71148
levy, of more than thirty-eight thousand within a county that had 71149
a population, at that time, of at least eight hundred sixty 71150
thousand.71151

       (II) For the support by a county of a crime victim assistance 71152
program that is provided and maintained by a county agency or a 71153
private, nonprofit corporation or association under section 307.62 71154
of the Revised Code;71155

       (JJ) For any or all of the purposes set forth in divisions 71156
(I) and (J) of this section. This division applies only to a 71157
township.71158

       (KK) For a countywide public safety communications system 71159
under section 307.63 of the Revised Code. This division applies 71160
only to counties.71161

       (LL) For the support by a county of criminal justice services 71162
under section 307.45 of the Revised Code;71163

       (MM) For the purpose of maintaining and operating a jail or 71164
other detention facility as defined in section 2921.01 of the 71165
Revised Code;71166

       (NN) For purchasing, maintaining, or improving, or any 71167
combination of the foregoing, real estate on which to hold 71168
agricultural fairs. This division applies only to a county.71169

       (OO) For constructing, rehabilitating, repairing, or 71170
maintaining sidewalks, walkways, trails, bicycle pathways, or 71171
similar improvements, or acquiring ownership interests in land 71172
necessary for the foregoing improvements;71173

       (PP) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (G) and 71174
(OO) of this section.71175

       (QQ) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (H) and 71176
(HH) of this section. This division applies only to a township.71177

       (RR) For the legislative authority of a municipal 71178
corporation, board of county commissioners of a county, or board 71179
of township trustees of a township to acquire agricultural 71180
easements, as defined in section 5301.67 of the Revised Code, and 71181
to supervise and enforce the easements.71182

       (SS) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (BB) and 71183
(KK) of this section. This division applies only to a county.71184

       (TT) For the maintenance and operation of a facility that is 71185
organized in whole or in part to promote the sciences and natural 71186
history under section 307.761 of the Revised Code.71187

       (UU) For the creation and operation of a county land 71188
reutilization corporation and for any programs or activities of 71189
the corporation found by the board of directors of the corporation 71190
to be consistent with the purposes for which the corporation is 71191
organized;71192

       (VV) For construction and maintenance of improvements and 71193
expenses of soil and water conservation district programs under 71194
Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code;71195

        (WW) For the Ohio cooperative extension service fund created 71196
under section 3335.35 of the Revised Code for the purposes 71197
prescribed under section 3335.36 of the Revised Code for the 71198
benefit of the citizens of a county. This division applies only to 71199
a county.71200

       (XX) For a municipal corporation that withdraws or proposes 71201
by resolution to withdraw from a regional transit authority under 71202
section 306.55 of the Revised Code to provide transportation 71203
services for the movement of persons within, from, or to the 71204
municipal corporation.71205

       The resolution shall be confined to the purpose or purposes 71206
described in one division of this section, to which the revenue 71207
derived therefrom shall be applied. The existence in any other 71208
division of this section of authority to levy a tax for any part 71209
or all of the same purpose or purposes does not preclude the use 71210
of such revenues for any part of the purpose or purposes of the 71211
division under which the resolution is adopted.71212

       The resolution shall specify the amount of the increase in 71213
rate that it is necessary to levy, the purpose of that increase in 71214
rate, and the number of years during which the increase in rate 71215
shall be in effect, which may or may not include a levy upon the 71216
duplicate of the current year. The number of years may be any 71217
number not exceeding five, except as follows:71218

       (1) When the additional rate is for the payment of debt 71219
charges, the increased rate shall be for the life of the 71220
indebtedness.71221

       (2) When the additional rate is for any of the following, the 71222
increased rate shall be for a continuing period of time:71223

       (a) For the current expenses for a detention facility 71224
district, a district organized under section 2151.65 of the 71225
Revised Code, or a combined district organized under sections 71226
2151.65 and 2152.41 of the Revised Code;71227

       (b) For providing a county's share of the cost of maintaining 71228
and operating schools, district detention facilities, forestry 71229
camps, or other facilities, or any combination thereof, 71230
established under section 2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code 71231
or under both of those sections.71232

       (3) When the additional rate is for either of the following, 71233
the increased rate may be for a continuing period of time:71234

       (a) For the purposes set forth in division (I), (J), (U), or 71235
(KK) of this section;71236

       (b) For the maintenance and operation of a joint recreation 71237
district.71238

       (4) When the increase is for the purpose or purposes set 71239
forth in division (D), (G), (H), (CC), or (PP) of this section, 71240
the tax levy may be for any specified number of years or for a 71241
continuing period of time, as set forth in the resolution.71242

       (5) When the additional rate is for the purpose described in 71243
division (Z) of this section, the increased rate shall be for any 71244
number of years not exceeding ten.71245

       A levy for one of the purposes set forth in division (G), 71246
(I), (J), or (U) of this section may be reduced pursuant to 71247
section 5705.261 or 5705.31 of the Revised Code. A levy for one of 71248
the purposes set forth in division (G), (I), (J), or (U) of this 71249
section may also be terminated or permanently reduced by the 71250
taxing authority if it adopts a resolution stating that the 71251
continuance of the levy is unnecessary and the levy shall be 71252
terminated or that the millage is excessive and the levy shall be 71253
decreased by a designated amount.71254

       A resolution of a detention facility district, a district 71255
organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code, or a combined 71256
district organized under both sections 2151.65 and 2152.41 of the 71257
Revised Code may include both current expenses and other purposes, 71258
provided that the resolution shall apportion the annual rate of 71259
levy between the current expenses and the other purpose or 71260
purposes. The apportionment need not be the same for each year of 71261
the levy, but the respective portions of the rate actually levied 71262
each year for the current expenses and the other purpose or 71263
purposes shall be limited by the apportionment.71264

       Whenever a board of county commissioners, acting either as 71265
the taxing authority of its county or as the taxing authority of a 71266
sewer district or subdistrict created under Chapter 6117. of the 71267
Revised Code, by resolution declares it necessary to levy a tax in 71268
excess of the ten-mill limitation for the purpose of constructing, 71269
improving, or extending sewage disposal plants or sewage systems, 71270
the tax may be in effect for any number of years not exceeding 71271
twenty, and the proceeds of the tax, notwithstanding the general 71272
provisions of this section, may be used to pay debt charges on any 71273
obligations issued and outstanding on behalf of the subdivision 71274
for the purposes enumerated in this paragraph, provided that any 71275
such obligations have been specifically described in the 71276
resolution.71277

       A resolution adopted by the legislative authority of a 71278
municipal corporation that is for the purpose in division (XX) of 71279
this section may be combined with the purpose provided in section 71280
306.55 of the Revised Code, by vote of two-thirds of all members 71281
of the legislative authority. The legislative authority may 71282
certify the resolution to the board of elections as a combined 71283
question. The question appearing on the ballot shall be as 71284
provided in section 5705.252 of the Revised Code.71285

       The resolution shall go into immediate effect upon its 71286
passage, and no publication of the resolution is necessary other 71287
than that provided for in the notice of election.71288

       When the electors of a subdivision have approved a tax levy 71289
under this section, the taxing authority of the subdivision may 71290
anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of the levy and issue 71291
anticipation notes in accordance with section 5705.191 or 5705.193 71292
of the Revised Code.71293

       Sec. 5705.25.  (A) A copy of any resolution adopted as 71294
provided in section 5705.19 or 5705.2111 of the Revised Code shall 71295
be certified by the taxing authority to the board of elections of 71296
the proper county not less than ninety days before the general 71297
election in any year, and the board shall submit the proposal to 71298
the electors of the subdivision at the succeeding November 71299
election. Except as otherwise provided in this division, a 71300
resolution to renew an existing levy, regardless of the section of 71301
the Revised Code under which the tax was imposed, shall not be 71302
placed on the ballot unless the question is submitted at the 71303
general election held during the last year the tax to be renewed 71304
or replaced may be extended on the real and public utility 71305
property tax list and duplicate, or at any election held in the 71306
ensuing year. The limitation of the foregoing sentence does not 71307
apply to a resolution to renew and increase or to renew part of an 71308
existing levy that was imposed under section 5705.191 of the 71309
Revised Code to supplement the general fund for the purpose of 71310
making appropriations for one or more of the following purposes: 71311
for public assistance, human or social services, relief, welfare, 71312
hospitalization, health, and support of general hospitals. The 71313
limitation of the second preceding sentence also does not apply to 71314
a resolution that proposes to renew two or more existing levies 71315
imposed under section 5705.21 of the Revised Code, in which case 71316
the question shall be submitted on the date of the general or 71317
primary election held during the last year at least one of the 71318
levies to be renewed may be extended on the real and public 71319
utility property tax list and duplicate, or at any election held 71320
during the ensuing year. For purposes of this section, a levy 71321
shall be considered to be an "existing levy" through the year 71322
following the last year it can be placed on that tax list and 71323
duplicate.71324

       The board shall make the necessary arrangements for the 71325
submission of such questions to the electors of such subdivision, 71326
and the election shall be conducted, canvassed, and certified in 71327
the same manner as regular elections in such subdivision for the 71328
election of county officers. Notice of the election shall be 71329
published in a newspaper of general circulation in the subdivision 71330
once a week for two consecutive weeks, or as provided in section 71331
7.16 of the Revised Code, prior to the election. If the board of 71332
elections operates and maintains a web site, the board of 71333
elections shall post notice of the election on its web site for 71334
thirty days prior to the election. The notice shall state the 71335
purpose, the proposed increase in rate expressed in dollars and 71336
cents for each one hundred dollars of valuation as well as in 71337
mills for each one dollar of valuation, the number of years during 71338
which the increase will be in effect, the first month and year in 71339
which the tax will be levied, and the time and place of the 71340
election.71341

       (B) The form of the ballots cast at an election held pursuant 71342
to division (A) of this section shall be as follows:71343

       "An additional tax for the benefit of (name of subdivision or 71344
public library) .......... for the purpose of (purpose stated in 71345
the resolution) .......... at a rate not exceeding ...... mills 71346
for each one dollar of valuation, which amounts to (rate expressed 71347
in dollars and cents) ............ for each one hundred dollars of 71348
valuation, for ...... (life of indebtedness or number of years the 71349
levy is to run).71350

        71351

 For the Tax Levy 71352
 Against the Tax Levy  " 71353

        71354

       (C) If the levy is to be in effect for a continuing period of 71355
time, the notice of election and the form of ballot shall so state 71356
instead of setting forth a specified number of years for the levy.71357

       If the tax is to be placed on the current tax list, the form 71358
of the ballot shall be modified by adding, after the statement of 71359
the number of years the levy is to run, the phrase ", commencing 71360
in .......... (first year the tax is to be levied), first due in 71361
calendar year .......... (first calendar year in which the tax 71362
shall be due)."71363

       If the levy submitted is a proposal to renew, increase, or 71364
decrease an existing levy, the form of the ballot specified in 71365
division (B) of this section may be changed by substituting for 71366
the words "An additional" at the beginning of the form, the words 71367
"A renewal of a" in case of a proposal to renew an existing levy 71368
in the same amount; the words "A renewal of ........ mills and an 71369
increase of ...... mills to constitute a" in the case of an 71370
increase; or the words "A renewal of part of an existing levy, 71371
being a reduction of ...... mills, to constitute a" in the case of 71372
a decrease in the proposed levy.71373

       If the levy submitted is a proposal to renew two or more 71374
existing levies imposed under section 5705.21 of the Revised Code, 71375
the form of the ballot specified in division (B) of this section 71376
shall be modified by substituting for the words "an additional 71377
tax" the words "a renewal of ....(insert the number of levies to 71378
be renewed) existing taxes."71379

       If the levy submitted is a levy under section 5705.72 of the 71380
Revised Code or a proposal to renew, increase, or decrease an 71381
existing levy imposed under that section, the name of the 71382
subdivision shall be "the unincorporated area of .......... (name 71383
of township)." 71384

       The question covered by such resolution shall be submitted as 71385
a separate proposition but may be printed on the same ballot with 71386
any other proposition submitted at the same election, other than 71387
the election of officers. More than one such question may be 71388
submitted at the same election.71389

       (D) A levy voted in excess of the ten-mill limitation under 71390
this section shall be certified to the tax commissioner. In the 71391
first year of the levy, it shall be extended on the tax lists 71392
after the February settlement succeeding the election. If the 71393
additional tax is to be placed upon the tax list of the current 71394
year, as specified in the resolution providing for its submission, 71395
the result of the election shall be certified immediately after 71396
the canvass by the board of elections to the taxing authority, who 71397
shall make the necessary levy and certify it to the county 71398
auditor, who shall extend it on the tax lists for collection. 71399
After the first year, the tax levy shall be included in the annual 71400
tax budget that is certified to the county budget commission.71401

       Sec. 5705.252.  (A) If the legislative authority of a 71402
municipal corporation adopts a resolution for the purposes 71403
provided in section 306.55 of the Revised Code and division (XX) 71404
of section 5705.19 of the Revised Code and certifies the 71405
resolution to the board of elections as a combined question, the 71406
question appearing on the ballot shall read:71407

       "Shall the territory within the ...... (name of municipal 71408
corporation) be withdrawn from ...... (name of regional transit 71409
authority) and shall an additional tax be levied for the benefit 71410
of ...... (name of municipal corporation) ...... for the purpose 71411
of providing transportation services for the movement of persons 71412
within, from, or to the ...... (name of municipal corporation) at 71413
a rate not exceeding ...... mills for each one dollar of 71414
valuation, which amounts to ...... (rate expressed in dollars and 71415
cents) for each one hundred dollars of valuation, for ...... 71416
(number of years the levy is to run)?"71417

       (B) If the board of trustees of a township adopts a 71418
resolution for the purposes provided in sections 306.55 and 71419
5705.72 of the Revised Code and certifies the resolution to the 71420
board of elections as a combined question, the question appearing 71421
on the ballot in the unincorporated area of the township shall 71422
read:71423

       "Shall the territory within the unincorporated area of ...... 71424
(name of township) be withdrawn from ...... (name of regional 71425
transit authority) and shall an additional tax be levied for the 71426
benefit of the unincorporated area of ...... (name of township) 71427
for the purpose of providing transportation services for the 71428
movement of persons within, from, or to the unincorporated area of 71429
...... (name of township) at a rate not exceeding ...... mills for 71430
each one dollar of valuation, which amounts to ...... (rate 71431
expressed in dollars and cents) for each one hundred dollars of 71432
valuation, for ...... (number of years the levy is to run)?71433

       Sec. 5705.28.  (A) Except as provided in division (B)(1) or 71434
(2) of this section or in section 5705.281 of the Revised Code, 71435
the taxing authority of each subdivision or other taxing unit 71436
shall adopt a tax budget for the next succeeding fiscal year:71437

       (1) On or before the fifteenth day of January in the case of 71438
a school districtdistricts and the city of Cincinnati;71439

       (2) On or before the fifteenth day of July in the case of all 71440
other subdivisions and taxing units.71441

       (B)(1) Before the first day of June in each year, the board 71442
of trustees of a school library district entitled to participate 71443
in any appropriation or revenue of a school district or to have a 71444
tax proposed by the board of education of a school district shall 71445
file with the board of education of the school district a tax 71446
budget for the ensuing fiscal year. On or before the fifteenth day 71447
of July in each year, the board of education of a school district 71448
to which a school library district tax budget was submitted under 71449
this division shall adopt such tax budget on behalf of the library 71450
district, but such budget shall not be part of the school 71451
district's tax budget.71452

       (2)(a) The taxing authority of a taxing unit that does not 71453
levy a tax is not required to adopt a tax budget pursuant to 71454
division (A) of this section. Instead, on or before the fifteenth 71455
day of July each year, such taxing authority shall adopt an 71456
operating budget for the taxing unit for the ensuing fiscal year. 71457
The operating budget shall include an estimate of receipts from 71458
all sources, a statement of all taxing unit expenses that are 71459
anticipated to occur, and the amount required for debt charges 71460
during the fiscal year. The operating budget is not required to be 71461
filed with the county auditor or the county budget commission.71462

       (b) Except for this section and sections 5705.36, 5705.38, 71463
5705.40, 5705.41, 5705.43, 5705.44, and 5705.45 of the Revised 71464
Code, a taxing unit that does not levy a tax is not a taxing unit 71465
for purposes of Chapter 5705. of the Revised Code. Documents 71466
prepared in accordance with such sections are not required to be 71467
filed with the county auditor or county budget commission.71468

       (c) The total appropriations from each fund of a taxing unit 71469
that does not levy a tax shall not exceed the total estimated 71470
revenue available for expenditures from the fund, and 71471
appropriations shall be made from each fund only for the purposes 71472
for which the fund is established.71473

       (C)(1) To assist in the preparation of the tax budget, the 71474
head of each department, board, commission, and district authority 71475
entitled to participate in any appropriation or revenue of a 71476
subdivision shall file with the taxing authority, or in the case 71477
of a municipal corporation, with its chief executive officer, 71478
before the forty-fifth day prior to the date on which the budget 71479
must be adopted, an estimate of contemplated revenue and 71480
expenditures for the ensuing fiscal year, in such form as is 71481
prescribed by the taxing authority of the subdivision or by the 71482
auditor of state. The taxing authority shall include in its budget 71483
of expenditures the full amounts requested by district 71484
authorities, not to exceed the amount authorized by law, if such 71485
authorities may fix the amount of revenue they are to receive from 71486
the subdivision. In a municipal corporation in which a special 71487
levy for a municipal university has been authorized to be levied 71488
in excess of the ten-mill limitation, or is required by the 71489
charter of the municipal corporation, the taxing authority shall 71490
include an amount not less than the estimated yield of such levy, 71491
if such amount is requested by the board of directors of the 71492
municipal university.71493

       (2) A county board of developmental disabilities may include 71494
within its estimate of contemplated revenue and expenditures a 71495
reserve balance account in the community developmental 71496
disabilities residential services fund. The account shall contain 71497
money that is not needed to pay for current expenses for 71498
residential services and supported living but will be needed to 71499
pay for expenses for such services in the future or may be needed 71500
for unanticipated emergency expenses. On the request of the county 71501
board of developmental disabilities, the board of county 71502
commissioners shall include such an account in its budget of 71503
expenditures and appropriate money to the account from residential 71504
service moneys for the county board.71505

       (D) The board of trustees of any public library desiring to 71506
participate in the distribution of the county public library fund 71507
shall adopt appropriate rules extending the benefits of the 71508
library service of such library to all the inhabitants of the 71509
county on equal terms, unless such library service is by law 71510
available to all such inhabitants, and shall certify a copy of 71511
such rules to the taxing authority with its estimate of 71512
contemplated revenue and expenditures. Where such rules have been 71513
so certified or where the adoption of such rules is not required, 71514
the taxing authority shall include in its budget of receipts such 71515
amounts as are specified by such board as contemplated revenue 71516
from the county public library fund, and in its budget of 71517
expenditures the full amounts requested therefrom by such board. 71518
No library association, incorporated or unincorporated, is 71519
entitled to participate in the proceeds of the county public 71520
library fund unless such association both was organized and 71521
operating prior to January 1, 1968, and participated in the 71522
distribution of the proceeds of the county public library fund 71523
prior to December 31, 2005.71524

       Sec. 5705.30.  This section does not apply to a subdivision 71525
for which the county budget commission has waived the requirement 71526
to adopt a tax budget under section 5705.281 of the Revised Code.71527

       In addition to the information required by section 5705.29 of 71528
the Revised Code, the budget of each subdivision and school 71529
library district shall include such other information as is 71530
prescribed by the auditor of state. At least two copies of the 71531
budget shall be filed in the office of the fiscal officer of the 71532
subdivision for public inspection not less than ten days before 71533
its adoption by the taxing authority, and such taxing authority 71534
shall hold at least one public hearing thereon, of which public 71535
notice shall be given by at least one publication not less than 71536
ten days prior to the date of hearing in the official publication 71537
of such subdivision, or in a newspaper having general circulation 71538
in the subdivision. The budget, after adoption, shall be submitted 71539
to the county auditor on or before the twentieth day of July, or 71540
in the case of a school district or the city of Cincinnati, by the 71541
twentieth day of January. The tax commissioner may prescribe a 71542
later date for the submission of a subdivision's tax budget. Any 71543
subdivision that fails to submit its budget to the county auditor 71544
on or before the twentieth day of July, unless the commissioner on 71545
or before the twentieth day of July prescribesdate prescribed by 71546
this section or a later date for submission of the budget by that 71547
subdivision,prescribed by the commissioner shall not receive an 71548
apportionment from the undivided local government fund 71549
distribution for the ensuing calendar year, unless upon review of 71550
the matter the commissioner determines that the budget was adopted 71551
by the subdivision on or before the fifteenthfifth day of July71552
before the date prescribed by this section for submitting the 71553
budget, but was not submitted to the county auditor by the 71554
twentieth day of Julydate so prescribed or the later time 71555
prescribed by the commissioner because of ministerial error by the 71556
subdivision or its officers, employees, or other representatives.71557

       Sec. 5705.34.  When the budget commission has completed its 71558
work with respect to a tax budget or other information required to 71559
be provided under section 5705.281 of the Revised Code, it shall 71560
certify its action to the taxing authority, together with an 71561
estimate by the county auditor of the rate of each tax necessary 71562
to be levied by the taxing authority within its subdivision or 71563
taxing unit, and what part thereof is in excess of, and what part 71564
within, the ten-mill tax limitation. The certification shall also 71565
indicate the date on which each tax levied by the taxing authority 71566
will expire.71567

       If a taxing authority levies a tax for a fixed sum of money 71568
or to pay debt charges for the tax year for which the tax budget 71569
is prepared, and a payment on account of that tax is payable to 71570
the taxing authority for the tax year under section 5727.85, 71571
5727.86, 5751.21, or 5751.22 of the Revised Code, the county 71572
auditor, when estimating the rate at which the tax shall be levied 71573
in the current year, shall estimate the rate necessary to raise 71574
the required sum less the estimated amount of any payments made 71575
for the tax year to a taxing unit for fixed-sum levies under those 71576
sections. The estimated rate shall be the rate of the levy that 71577
the budget commission certifies with its action under this 71578
section.71579

       Each taxing authority, by ordinance or resolution, shall 71580
authorize the necessary tax levies and certify them to the county 71581
auditor before the first day of October in each year, or at such 71582
later date as is approved by the tax commissioner, except that the 71583
certification by the legislative authority of the city of 71584
Cincinnati or by a board of education shall be made by the first 71585
day of April or at such later date as is approved by the 71586
commissioner, and except that a township board of park 71587
commissioners that is appointed by the board of township trustees 71588
and oversees a township park district that contains only 71589
unincorporated territory shall authorize only those taxes approved 71590
by, and only at the rate approved by, the board of township 71591
trustees as required by division (C) of section 511.27 of the 71592
Revised Code. If the levying of a tax to be placed on the 71593
duplicate of the current year is approved by the electors of the 71594
subdivision under sections 5705.01 to 5705.47 of the Revised Code; 71595
if the rate of a school district tax is increased due to the 71596
repeal of a school district income tax and property tax rate 71597
reduction at an election held pursuant to section 5748.04 of the 71598
Revised Code; or if refunding bonds to refund all or a part of the 71599
principal of bonds payable from a tax levy for the ensuing fiscal 71600
year are issued or sold and in the process of delivery, the budget 71601
commission shall reconsider and revise its action on the budget of 71602
the subdivision or school library district for whose benefit the 71603
tax is to be levied after the returns of such election are fully 71604
canvassed, or after the issuance or sale of such refunding bonds 71605
is certified to it.71606

       Sec. 5705.35.  (A) The certification of the budget commission 71607
to the taxing authority of each subdivision or taxing unit, as set 71608
forth in section 5705.34 of the Revised Code, shall show the 71609
various funds of such subdivisions other than funds to be created 71610
by transfer and shall be filed by the county budget commission 71611
with such taxing authority on or before the first day of March in 71612
the case of school districts and the city of Cincinnati and on or 71613
before the first day of September in each year in the case of all 71614
other taxing authorities. There shall be set forth on the credit 71615
side of each fund the estimated unencumbered balances and 71616
receipts, and if a tax is to be levied for such fund, the 71617
estimated revenue to be derived therefrom, the rate of the levy, 71618
and what portion thereof is within, and what in excess of, the 71619
ten-mill tax limitation, and on the debit side, the total 71620
appropriations that may be made therefrom. Subject to division (G) 71621
of section 5705.29 of the Revised Code, any reserve balance in an 71622
account established under section 5705.13 of the Revised Code for 71623
the purpose described in division (A)(1) of that section, and the 71624
principal of a nonexpendable trust fund established under section 71625
5705.131 of the Revised Code and any additions to principal 71626
arising from sources other than the reinvestment of investment 71627
earnings arising from that fund, are not unencumbered balances for 71628
the purposes of this section. The balance in a reserve balance 71629
account established under section 5705.132 of the Revised Code is 71630
not an unencumbered balance for the purposes of this division.71631

       There shall be attached to the certification a summary, which 71632
shall be known as the "official certificate of estimated 71633
resources," that shall state the total estimated resources of each 71634
fund of the subdivision that are available for appropriation in 71635
the fiscal year, other than funds to be created by transfer, and a 71636
statement of the amount of the total tax duplicate of the school 71637
district to be used in the collection of taxes for the following 71638
calendar year. Before the end of the fiscal year, the taxing 71639
authority of each subdivision and other taxing unit shall revise 71640
its tax budget, if one was adopted, so that the total contemplated 71641
expenditures from any fund during the ensuing fiscal year will not 71642
exceed the total appropriations that may be made from such fund, 71643
as determined by the budget commission in its certification; and 71644
such revised budget shall be the basis of the annual appropriation 71645
measure.71646

       (B)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2) of 71647
this section, revenues from real property taxes scheduled to be 71648
settled on or before the tenth day of August and the fifteenth day 71649
of February of a fiscal year under divisions (A) and (C) of 71650
section 321.24 of the Revised Code, and revenue from taxes levied 71651
on personal property used in business scheduled to be settled on 71652
or before the thirty-first day of October and the thirtieth day of 71653
June of a fiscal year under divisions (B) and (D) of section 71654
321.24 of the Revised Code shall not be available for 71655
appropriation by a board of education prior to the fiscal year in 71656
which such latest scheduled settlement date occurs, except that 71657
moneys advanced to the treasurer of a board of education under 71658
division (A)(2)(b) of section 321.34 of the Revised Code shall be 71659
available for appropriation in the fiscal year in which they are 71660
paid to the treasurer under such section. If the date for any 71661
settlement of taxes is extended under division (E) of section 71662
321.24 of the Revised Code, the latest date set forth in divisions 71663
(A) to (D) of that section shall be used to determine in which 71664
fiscal year the revenues are first available for appropriation.71665

       (2) Revenues available for appropriation by a school district 71666
during a fiscal year may include amounts borrowed in that fiscal 71667
year under section 133.301 of the Revised Code in anticipation of 71668
the collection of taxes that are to be included in the settlements 71669
made under divisions (C) and (D) of section 321.24 of the Revised 71670
Code in the ensuing fiscal year.71671

       Sec. 5705.38.  (A) This division does not apply to school 71672
district appropriation measures. On or about the first day of each 71673
fiscal year, the taxing authority of each subdivision or other 71674
taxing unit shall pass an appropriation measure, and thereafter 71675
during the year it may pass any supplemental appropriation 71676
measures as it finds necessary, based on the revised tax budget or 71677
the official certificate of estimated resources or amendments of 71678
the certificate. If it desires to postpone the passage of the 71679
annual appropriation measure until an amended certificate is 71680
received based on the actual balances, it may pass a temporary 71681
appropriation measure for meeting the ordinary expenses of the 71682
taxing unit until no later than the first day of April or, in the 71683
case of the city of Cincinnati, the first day of October, of the 71684
current year, and the appropriations made in the temporary measure 71685
shall be chargeable to the appropriations in the annual 71686
appropriation measure for that fiscal year when passed.71687

       (B) A board of education shall pass its annual appropriation 71688
measure by the first day of October. If, by the first day of 71689
October, a board has not received either the amended certificates 71690
of estimated resources required by division (B) of section 5705.36 71691
of the Revised Code or certifications that no amended certificates 71692
need be issued, the adoption of the annual appropriation measure 71693
shall be delayed until the amended certificates or certifications 71694
are received. Prior to the passage of the annual appropriation 71695
measure, the board may pass a temporary appropriation measure for 71696
meeting the ordinary expenses of the district until it passes an 71697
annual appropriation measure, and appropriations made in the 71698
temporary measure shall be chargeable to the appropriations in the 71699
annual appropriation measure for that fiscal year when passed. 71700
During the fiscal year and after the passage of the annual 71701
appropriation measure, a district may pass any supplemental 71702
appropriation measures as it finds necessary, based on the revised 71703
tax budget or the official certificate of estimated resources or 71704
amendments of the certificate. School district appropriation 71705
measures shall be in the form as the auditor of state, after 71706
consultation with the tax commissioner, prescribes.71707

       (C) Appropriation measures shall be classified so as to set 71708
forth separately the amounts appropriated for each office, 71709
department, and division, and, within each, the amount 71710
appropriated for personal services. In the case of a municipal 71711
university, the board of directors of which have assumed, in the 71712
manner provided by law, custody and control of the funds of the 71713
university, funds shall be appropriated as a lump sum for the use 71714
of the university.71715

       Sec. 5705.72. (A) As used in this section and in section 71716
5705.25 of the Revised Code with regard to a levy submitted under 71717
this section, "electors" means electors of the unincorporated area 71718
of a township.71719

       (B) The board of trustees of any township that withdraws or 71720
proposes by resolution to withdraw the unincorporated area of the 71721
township from a regional transit authority under section 306.55 of 71722
the Revised Code, by vote of two-thirds of all the members of the 71723
board of trustees, may declare by resolution that the amount of 71724
taxes that may be raised within the ten-mill limitation will be 71725
insufficient to provide transportation services to the 71726
unincorporated area of the township and that it is necessary to 71727
levy a tax in excess of that limitation within the unincorporated 71728
area of that township for the purpose of providing transportation 71729
services for the movement of persons within, from, or to the 71730
unincorporated area of that township. 71731

       The resolution shall specify the necessary amount of the 71732
increase in rate to levy, the purpose of such increase, and the 71733
number of years, not exceeding ten, during which the rate increase 71734
shall be in effect, which may or may not include a levy upon the 71735
tax list of the current year.71736

       The resolution shall be submitted to the proper county board 71737
of elections not less than ninety days before the date of the 71738
election at which the question will appear on the ballot and in 71739
the manner provided by section 5705.25 of the Revised Code, except 71740
that the question may be submitted to electors at a general 71741
election or a special election held on a date consistent with 71742
section 3501.01 of the Revised Code. 71743

       A resolution adopted by the board of trustees of a township 71744
under this section may be combined with a resolution for the 71745
withdrawal of the unincorporated area of the township from a 71746
regional transit authority as provided in section 306.55 of the 71747
Revised Code, by vote of two-thirds of all members of the board. 71748
The board may certify the combined resolution to the board of 71749
elections as a combined question. The question appearing on the 71750
ballot shall be as provided in section 5705.252 of the Revised 71751
Code.71752

       When electors have approved a tax levy under this section, 71753
the board of township trustees may anticipate a fraction of the 71754
proceeds of the levy and issue anticipation notes as authorized by 71755
section 5705.191 of the Revised Code for a current expense levy 71756
with a fixed term, and may anticipate the collection of current 71757
revenue under section 133.10 of the Revised Code.71758

       Sec. 5709.084. Real and personal property comprising a 71759
convention center that is constructed or, in the case of personal 71760
property, acquired, after January 1, 2010, are exempt from 71761
taxation if the convention center is located in a county having a 71762
population, when construction of the convention center commences, 71763
of more than one million two hundred thousand according to the 71764
most recent federal decennial census, and if the convention 71765
center, or the land upon which the convention center is situated, 71766
is owned or leased by the county. For the purposes of this 71767
section, construction of the convention center commences upon the 71768
earlier of issuance of debt to finance all or a portion of the 71769
convention center, demolition of existing structures on the site, 71770
or grading of the site in preparation for construction.71771

       Real and personal property comprising a convention center 71772
owned by the largest city in a county having a population greater 71773
than seven hundred thousand but less than nine hundred thousand 71774
according to the most recent federal decennial census is exempt 71775
from taxation, regardless of whether the property is leased to or 71776
otherwise operated or managed by a person other than the city.71777

       Real and personal property comprising a convention center 71778
owned by a convention facilities authority in a county having a 71779
population greater than one million according to the most recent 71780
federal decennial census is exempt from taxation, regardless of 71781
whether the property is leased to or otherwise operated or managed 71782
by a person other than the convention facilities authority.71783

       As used in this section, "convention center" has the same 71784
meaning as in section 307.695 of the Revised Code.71785

       Sec. 5709.12.  (A) As used in this section, "independent 71786
living facilities" means any residential housing facilities and 71787
related property that are not a nursing home, residential care 71788
facility, or adult careresidential facility as defined in 71789
division (A) of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.71790

       (B) Lands, houses, and other buildings belonging to a county, 71791
township, or municipal corporation and used exclusively for the 71792
accommodation or support of the poor, or leased to the state or 71793
any political subdivision for public purposes shall be exempt from 71794
taxation. Real and tangible personal property belonging to 71795
institutions that is used exclusively for charitable purposes 71796
shall be exempt from taxation, including real property belonging 71797
to an institution that is a nonprofit corporation that receives a 71798
grant under the Thomas Alva Edison grant program authorized by 71799
division (C) of section 122.33 of the Revised Code at any time 71800
during the tax year and being held for leasing or resale to 71801
others. If, at any time during a tax year for which such property 71802
is exempted from taxation, the corporation ceases to qualify for 71803
such a grant, the director of development shall notify the tax 71804
commissioner, and the tax commissioner shall cause the property to 71805
be restored to the tax list beginning with the following tax year. 71806
All property owned and used by a nonprofit organization 71807
exclusively for a home for the aged, as defined in section 5701.13 71808
of the Revised Code, also shall be exempt from taxation.71809

       (C)(1) If a home for the aged described in division (B)(1) of 71810
section 5701.13 of the Revised Code is operated in conjunction 71811
with or at the same site as independent living facilities, the 71812
exemption granted in division (B) of this section shall include 71813
kitchen, dining room, clinic, entry ways, maintenance and storage 71814
areas, and land necessary for access commonly used by both 71815
residents of the home for the aged and residents of the 71816
independent living facilities. Other facilities commonly used by 71817
both residents of the home for the aged and residents of 71818
independent living units shall be exempt from taxation only if the 71819
other facilities are used primarily by the residents of the home 71820
for the aged. Vacant land currently unused by the home, and 71821
independent living facilities and the lands connected with them 71822
are not exempt from taxation. Except as provided in division 71823
(A)(1) of section 5709.121 of the Revised Code, property of a home 71824
leased for nonresidential purposes is not exempt from taxation.71825

       (2) Independent living facilities are exempt from taxation if 71826
they are operated in conjunction with or at the same site as a 71827
home for the aged described in division (B)(2) of section 5701.13 71828
of the Revised Code; operated by a corporation, association, or 71829
trust described in division (B)(1)(b) of that section; operated 71830
exclusively for the benefit of members of the corporation, 71831
association, or trust who are retired, aged, or infirm; and 71832
provided to those members without charge in consideration of their 71833
service, without compensation, to a charitable, religious, 71834
fraternal, or educational institution. For the purposes of 71835
division (C)(2) of this section, "compensation" does not include 71836
furnishing room and board, clothing, health care, or other 71837
necessities, or stipends or other de minimis payments to defray 71838
the cost thereof.71839

       (D)(1) A private corporation established under federal law, 71840
defined in 36 U.S.C. 1101, Pub. L. No. 102-199, 105 Stat. 1629, as 71841
amended, the objects of which include encouraging the advancement 71842
of science generally, or of a particular branch of science, the 71843
promotion of scientific research, the improvement of the 71844
qualifications and usefulness of scientists, or the increase and 71845
diffusion of scientific knowledge is conclusively presumed to be a 71846
charitable or educational institution. A private corporation 71847
established as a nonprofit corporation under the laws of a state, 71848
that is exempt from federal income taxation under section 71849
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 71850
U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and has as its principal purpose one or 71851
more of the foregoing objects, also is conclusively presumed to be 71852
a charitable or educational institution.71853

       The fact that an organization described in this division 71854
operates in a manner that results in an excess of revenues over 71855
expenses shall not be used to deny the exemption granted by this 71856
section, provided such excess is used, or is held for use, for 71857
exempt purposes or to establish a reserve against future 71858
contingencies; and, provided further, that such excess may not be 71859
distributed to individual persons or to entities that would not be 71860
entitled to the tax exemptions provided by this chapter. Nor shall 71861
the fact that any scientific information diffused by the 71862
organization is of particular interest or benefit to any of its 71863
individual members be used to deny the exemption granted by this 71864
section, provided that such scientific information is available to 71865
the public for purchase or otherwise.71866

       (2) Division (D)(2) of this section does not apply to real 71867
property exempted from taxation under this section and division 71868
(A)(3) of section 5709.121 of the Revised Code and belonging to a 71869
nonprofit corporation described in division (D)(1) of this section 71870
that has received a grant under the Thomas Alva Edison grant 71871
program authorized by division (C) of section 122.33 of the 71872
Revised Code during any of the tax years the property was exempted 71873
from taxation.71874

       When a private corporation described in division (D)(1) of 71875
this section sells all or any portion of a tract, lot, or parcel 71876
of real estate that has been exempt from taxation under this 71877
section and section 5709.121 of the Revised Code, the portion sold 71878
shall be restored to the tax list for the year following the year 71879
of the sale and, except in connection with a sale and transfer of 71880
such a tract, lot, or parcel to a county land reutilization 71881
corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code, a 71882
charge shall be levied against the sold property in an amount 71883
equal to the tax savings on such property during the four tax 71884
years preceding the year the property is placed on the tax list. 71885
The tax savings equals the amount of the additional taxes that 71886
would have been levied if such property had not been exempt from 71887
taxation.71888

       The charge constitutes a lien of the state upon such property 71889
as of the first day of January of the tax year in which the charge 71890
is levied and continues until discharged as provided by law. The 71891
charge may also be remitted for all or any portion of such 71892
property that the tax commissioner determines is entitled to 71893
exemption from real property taxation for the year such property 71894
is restored to the tax list under any provision of the Revised 71895
Code, other than sections 725.02, 1728.10, 3735.67, 5709.40, 71896
5709.41, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.71, 5709.73, 5709.78, and 5709.84, 71897
upon an application for exemption covering the year such property 71898
is restored to the tax list filed under section 5715.27 of the 71899
Revised Code.71900

       (E) Real property held by an organization organized and 71901
operated exclusively for charitable purposes as described under 71902
section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and exempt from 71903
federal taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue 71904
Code, 26 U.S.C.A. 501(a) and (c)(3), as amended, for the purpose 71905
of constructing or rehabilitating residences for eventual transfer 71906
to qualified low-income families through sale, lease, or land 71907
installment contract, shall be exempt from taxation.71908

       The exemption shall commence on the day title to the property 71909
is transferred to the organization and shall continue to the end 71910
of the tax year in which the organization transfers title to the 71911
property to a qualified low-income family. In no case shall the 71912
exemption extend beyond the second succeeding tax year following 71913
the year in which the title was transferred to the organization. 71914
If the title is transferred to the organization and from the 71915
organization to a qualified low-income family in the same tax 71916
year, the exemption shall continue to the end of that tax year. 71917
The proportionate amount of taxes that are a lien but not yet 71918
determined, assessed, and levied for the tax year in which title 71919
is transferred to the organization shall be remitted by the county 71920
auditor for each day of the year that title is held by the 71921
organization.71922

       Upon transferring the title to another person, the 71923
organization shall file with the county auditor an affidavit 71924
affirming that the title was transferred to a qualified low-income 71925
family or that the title was not transferred to a qualified 71926
low-income family, as the case may be; if the title was 71927
transferred to a qualified low-income family, the affidavit shall 71928
identify the transferee by name. If the organization transfers 71929
title to the property to anyone other than a qualified low-income 71930
family, the exemption, if it has not previously expired, shall 71931
terminate, and the property shall be restored to the tax list for 71932
the year following the year of the transfer and a charge shall be 71933
levied against the property in an amount equal to the amount of 71934
additional taxes that would have been levied if such property had 71935
not been exempt from taxation. The charge constitutes a lien of 71936
the state upon such property as of the first day of January of the 71937
tax year in which the charge is levied and continues until 71938
discharged as provided by law.71939

       The application for exemption shall be filed as otherwise 71940
required under section 5715.27 of the Revised Code, except that 71941
the organization holding the property shall file with its 71942
application documentation substantiating its status as an 71943
organization organized and operated exclusively for charitable 71944
purposes under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and 71945
its qualification for exemption from federal taxation under 71946
section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, and affirming its 71947
intention to construct or rehabilitate the property for the 71948
eventual transfer to qualified low-income families.71949

       As used in this division, "qualified low-income family" means 71950
a family whose income does not exceed two hundred per cent of the 71951
official federal poverty guidelines as revised annually in 71952
accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget 71953
Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C.A. 9902, as 71954
amended, for a family size equal to the size of the family whose 71955
income is being determined.71956

       (F) Real property held by a county land reutilization 71957
corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code 71958
shall be exempt from taxation. Notwithstanding section 5715.27 of 71959
the Revised Code, a county land reutilization corporation is not 71960
required to apply to any county or state agency in order to 71961
qualify for the exemption.71962

       The exemption shall commence on the day title to the property 71963
is transferred to the corporation and shall continue to the end of 71964
the tax year in which the instrument transferring title from the 71965
corporation to another owner is recorded, if the use to which the 71966
other owner puts the property does not qualify for an exemption 71967
under this section or any other section of the Revised Code. If 71968
the title to the property is transferred to the corporation and 71969
from the corporation in the same tax year, the exemption shall 71970
continue to the end of that tax year. The proportionate amount of 71971
taxes that are a lien but not yet determined, assessed, and levied 71972
for the tax year in which title is transferred to the corporation 71973
shall be remitted by the county auditor for each day of the year 71974
that title is held by the corporation. 71975

       Upon transferring the title to another person, the 71976
corporation shall file with the county auditor an affidavit 71977
affirming that the title was transferred to such other person and 71978
shall identify the transferee by name. If the corporation 71979
transfers title to the property to anyone that does not qualify or 71980
the use to which the property is put does not qualify the property 71981
for an exemption under this section or any other section of the 71982
Revised Code, the exemption, if it has not previously expired, 71983
shall terminate, and the property shall be restored to the tax 71984
list for the year following the year of the transfer. A charge 71985
shall be levied against the property in an amount equal to the 71986
amount of additional taxes that would have been levied if such 71987
property had not been exempt from taxation. The charge constitutes 71988
a lien of the state upon such property as of the first day of 71989
January of the tax year in which the charge is levied and 71990
continues until discharged as provided by law. 71991

       In lieu of the application for exemption otherwise required 71992
to be filed as required under section 5715.27 of the Revised Code, 71993
a count land reutilization corporation holding the property shall, 71994
upon the request of any county or state agency, submit its 71995
articles of incorporation substantiating its status as a county 71996
land reutilization corporation.71997

       Sec. 5709.121. (A) Real property and tangible personal 71998
property belonging to a charitable or educational institution or 71999
to the state or a political subdivision, shall be considered as 72000
used exclusively for charitable or public purposes by such 72001
institution, the state, or political subdivision, if it meets one 72002
of the following requirements:72003

       (1) It is used by such institution, the state, or political 72004
subdivision, or by one or more other such institutions, the state, 72005
or political subdivisions under a lease, sublease, or other 72006
contractual arrangement:72007

       (a) As a community or area center in which presentations in 72008
music, dramatics, the arts, and related fields are made in order 72009
to foster public interest and education therein;72010

       (b) For other charitable, educational, or public purposes.72011

       (2) It is made available under the direction or control of 72012
such institution, the state, or political subdivision for use in 72013
furtherance of or incidental to its charitable, educational, or 72014
public purposes and not with the view to profit.72015

       (3) It is used by an organization described in division (D) 72016
of section 5709.12 of the Revised Code. If the organization is a 72017
corporation that receives a grant under the Thomas Alva Edison 72018
grant program authorized by division (C) of section 122.33 of the 72019
Revised Code at any time during the tax year, "used," for the 72020
purposes of this division, includes holding property for lease or 72021
resale to others.72022

       (B)(1) Property described in division (A)(1)(a) of this 72023
section shall continue to be considered as used exclusively for 72024
charitable or public purposes even if the property is conveyed 72025
through one conveyance or a series of conveyances to an entity 72026
that is not a charitable or educational institution and is not the 72027
state or a political subdivision, provided that all of the 72028
following conditions apply with respect to that property:72029

        (a) The property has been listed as exempt on the county 72030
auditor's tax list and duplicate for the county in which it is 72031
located for the ten tax years immediately preceding the year in 72032
which the property is conveyed through one conveyance or a series 72033
of conveyances;72034

        (b) The owner to which the property is conveyed through one 72035
conveyance or a series of conveyances leasesto an owner that does 72036
any of the following:72037

       (i) Leases the property through one lease or a series of 72038
leases to the entity that owned or occupied the property for the 72039
ten tax years immediately preceding the year in which the property 72040
is conveyed or to an affiliate of such prior owner or occupant72041
that entity;72042

       (ii) Contracts to have renovations performed as described in 72043
division (B)(1)(d) of this section and is at least partially owned 72044
by a nonprofit organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the 72045
Internal Revenue Code that is exempt from taxation under section 72046
501(a) of that code.72047

        (c) The property includes improvements that are at least 72048
fifty years old;72049

        (d) The property is being renovated in connection with a 72050
claim for historic preservation tax credits available under 72051
federal law;72052

        (e) The property continues to be used for the purposes 72053
described in division (A)(1)(a) of this section after its 72054
conveyance; and72055

        (f) The property is certified by the United States secretary 72056
of the interior as a "certified historic structure" or certified 72057
as part of a certified historic structure.72058

        (2) Notwithstanding section 5715.27 of the Revised Code, an 72059
application for exemption from taxation of property described in 72060
division (B)(1) of this section may be filed by either the owner 72061
of the property or its occupant.72062

       (C) For purposes of this section, an institution that meets 72063
all of the following requirements is conclusively presumed to be a 72064
charitable institution:72065

       (1) The institution is a nonprofit corporation or 72066
association, no part of the net earnings of which inures to the 72067
benefit of any private shareholder or individual;72068

       (2) The institution is exempt from federal income taxation 72069
under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code;72070

       (3) The majority of the institution's board of directors are 72071
appointed by the mayor or legislative authority of a municipal 72072
corporation or a board of county commissioners, or a combination 72073
thereof;72074

       (4) The primary purpose of the institution is to assist in 72075
the development and revitalization of downtown urban areas.72076

       Sec. 5709.212.  (A) With every application for an exempt 72077
facility certificate filed pursuant to section 5709.21 of the 72078
Revised Code, the applicant shall pay a fee equal to one-half of 72079
one per cent of the total exempt facility project cost, not to 72080
exceed two thousand dollars. One-half of the fee received with 72081
applications for exempt facility certificates shall be credited to 72082
the exempt facility administrative fund, which is hereby created 72083
in the state treasury, for appropriation to the department of 72084
taxation for use in administering sections 5709.20 to 5709.27 of 72085
the Revised Code. If the director of environmental protection is 72086
required to provide the opinion for an application, one-half of 72087
the fee shall be credited to the non-Title V clean air fund 72088
created in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code for use in 72089
administering section 5709.211 of the Revised Code, unless the 72090
application is for an industrial water pollution control facility. 72091
If the application is for an industrial water pollution control 72092
facility, one-half of the fee shall be credited to the surface 72093
water protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised 72094
Code for use in administering section 5709.211 of the Revised 72095
Code. If the director of development is required to provide the 72096
opinion for an application, one-half of the fee for each exempt 72097
facility application shall be credited to the exempt facility 72098
inspection fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury, 72099
for appropriation to the department of development for use in 72100
administering section 5709.211 of the Revised Code.72101

       An applicant is not entitled to any tax exemption under 72102
section 5709.25 of the Revised Code until the fee required by this 72103
section is paid. The fee required by this section is not 72104
refundable, and is due with the application for an exempt facility 72105
certificate even if an exempt facility certificate ultimately is 72106
not issued or is withdrawn. Any application submitted without 72107
payment of the fee shall be deemed incomplete until the fee is 72108
paid.72109

       (B) The application fee imposed under division (A) of this 72110
section for a jointly owned facility shall be equal to one-half of 72111
one per cent of the total exempt facility project cost, not to 72112
exceed two thousand dollars for each facility that is the subject 72113
of the application.72114

       Sec. 5709.43.  (A) A municipal corporation that grants a tax 72115
exemption under section 5709.40 of the Revised Code shall 72116
establish a municipal public improvement tax increment equivalent 72117
fund into which shall be deposited service payments in lieu of 72118
taxes distributed to the municipal corporation under section 72119
5709.42 of the Revised Code. If the legislative authority of the 72120
municipal corporation has adopted an ordinance under division (C) 72121
of section 5709.40 of the Revised Code, the municipal corporation 72122
shall establish at least one account in that fund with respect to 72123
ordinances adopted under division (B) of that section, and one 72124
account with respect to each incentive district created in an 72125
ordinance adopted under division (C) of that section. If an 72126
ordinance adopted under division (C) of section 5709.40 of the 72127
Revised Code also authorizes the use of service payments for 72128
housing renovations within the district, the municipal corporation 72129
shall establish separate accounts for the service payments 72130
designated for public infrastructure improvements and for the 72131
service payments authorized for the purpose of housing 72132
renovations. Money in an account of the municipal public 72133
improvement tax increment equivalent fund shall be used to finance 72134
the public infrastructure improvements designated in, or the 72135
housing renovations authorized by, the ordinance with respect to 72136
which the account is established; in the case of an account 72137
established with respect to an ordinance adopted under division 72138
(C) of that section, money in the account shall be used to finance 72139
the public infrastructure improvements designated, or the housing 72140
renovations authorized, for each incentive district created in the 72141
ordinance. Money in an account shall not be used to finance or 72142
support housing renovations that take place after the incentive 72143
district has expired. The municipal corporation also may deposit 72144
into any of those accounts municipal income tax revenue that has 72145
been designated by ordinance to finance the public infrastructure 72146
improvements and housing renovations.72147

       (B) A municipal corporation may establish an urban 72148
redevelopment tax increment equivalent fund, by resolution or 72149
ordinance of its legislative authority, into which shall be 72150
deposited service payments in lieu of taxes distributed to the 72151
municipal corporation by the county treasurer as provided in 72152
section 5709.42 of the Revised Code for improvements exempt from 72153
taxation pursuant to an ordinance adopted under section 5709.41 of 72154
the Revised Code. Moneys deposited in the urban redevelopment tax 72155
increment equivalent fund shall be used for such purposes as are 72156
authorized in the resolution or ordinance establishing the fund. 72157
The municipal corporation also may deposit into the urban 72158
redevelopment tax increment equivalent fund municipal income tax 72159
revenue that has been dedicated to fund any of the purposes for 72160
which the fund is established.72161

       (C)(1)(a) A municipal corporation may distribute money in the 72162
municipal public improvement tax increment equivalent fund or the 72163
urban redevelopment tax increment equivalent fund to any school 72164
district in which the exempt property is located, in an amount not 72165
to exceed the amount of real property taxes that such school 72166
district would have received from the improvement if it were not 72167
exempt from taxation, or use money in either or both funds to 72168
finance specific public improvements benefiting the school 72169
district. The resolution or ordinance establishing the fund shall 72170
set forth the percentage of such maximum amount that will be 72171
distributed to any affected school district or used to finance 72172
specific public improvements benefiting the school district.72173

       (b) A municipal corporation also may distribute money in the 72174
municipal public improvement tax increment equivalent fund or the 72175
urban redevelopment tax increment equivalent fund as follows:72176

       (i) To a board of county commissioners, in the amount that is 72177
owed to the board pursuant to division (E) of section 5709.40 of 72178
the Revised Code;72179

       (ii) To a county in accordance with section 5709.913 of the 72180
Revised Code.72181

       (2) Money from an account in a municipal public improvement 72182
tax increment equivalent fund or from an urban redevelopment tax 72183
increment equivalent fund may be distributed under division 72184
(C)(1)(b) of this section, regardless of the date a resolution or 72185
an ordinance was adopted under section 5709.40 or 5709.41 of the 72186
Revised Code that prompted the establishment of the account or the 72187
establishment of the urban redevelopment tax increment equivalent 72188
fund, even if the resolution or ordinance was adopted prior to the 72189
effective date of this amendmentMarch 30, 2006.72190

       (D)(1) A municipal corporation may use surplus money in the 72191
municipal public improvement tax increment equivalent fund or an 72192
account of that fund, or in the urban redevelopment tax increment 72193
equivalent fund, to repay a loan or provide matching funds for a 72194
grant awarded to the municipal corporation under the local 72195
government innovation program created in section 189.02 of the 72196
Revised Code.72197

       (2) Any incidental surplus remaining in the municipal public 72198
improvement tax increment equivalent fund or an account of that 72199
fund, or in the urban redevelopment tax increment equivalent fund, 72200
upon dissolution of the account or fund shall be used as provided 72201
in division (D)(1) of this section or transferred to the general 72202
fund of the municipal corporation.72203

       Sec. 5709.62.  (A) In any municipal corporation that is 72204
defined by the United States office of management and budget as a 72205
principal city of a metropolitan statistical area, the legislative 72206
authority of the municipal corporation may designate one or more 72207
areas within its municipal corporation as proposed enterprise 72208
zones. Upon designating an area, the legislative authority shall 72209
petition the director of development for certification of the area 72210
as having the characteristics set forth in division (A)(1) of 72211
section 5709.61 of the Revised Code as amended by Substitute 72212
Senate Bill No. 19 of the 120th general assembly. Except as 72213
otherwise provided in division (E) of this section, on and after 72214
July 1, 1994, legislative authorities shall not enter into 72215
agreements under this section unless the legislative authority has 72216
petitioned the director and the director has certified the zone 72217
under this section as amended by that act; however, all agreements 72218
entered into under this section as it existed prior to July 1, 72219
1994, and the incentives granted under those agreements shall 72220
remain in effect for the period agreed to under those agreements. 72221
Within sixty days after receiving such a petition, the director 72222
shall determine whether the area has the characteristics set forth 72223
in division (A)(1) of section 5709.61 of the Revised Code, and 72224
shall forward the findings to the legislative authority of the 72225
municipal corporation. If the director certifies the area as 72226
having those characteristics, and thereby certifies it as a zone, 72227
the legislative authority may enter into an agreement with an 72228
enterprise under division (C) of this section.72229

       (B) Any enterprise that wishes to enter into an agreement 72230
with a municipal corporation under division (C) of this section 72231
shall submit a proposal to the legislative authority of the 72232
municipal corporation on a form prescribed by the director of 72233
development, together with the application fee established under 72234
section 5709.68 of the Revised Code. The form shall require the 72235
following information:72236

       (1) An estimate of the number of new employees whom the 72237
enterprise intends to hire, or of the number of employees whom the 72238
enterprise intends to retain, within the zone at a facility that 72239
is a project site, and an estimate of the amount of payroll of the 72240
enterprise attributable to these employees;72241

       (2) An estimate of the amount to be invested by the 72242
enterprise to establish, expand, renovate, or occupy a facility, 72243
including investment in new buildings, additions or improvements 72244
to existing buildings, machinery, equipment, furniture, fixtures, 72245
and inventory;72246

       (3) A listing of the enterprise's current investment, if any, 72247
in a facility as of the date of the proposal's submission.72248

       The enterprise shall review and update the listings required 72249
under this division to reflect material changes, and any agreement 72250
entered into under division (C) of this section shall set forth 72251
final estimates and listings as of the time the agreement is 72252
entered into. The legislative authority may, on a separate form 72253
and at any time, require any additional information necessary to 72254
determine whether an enterprise is in compliance with an agreement 72255
and to collect the information required to be reported under 72256
section 5709.68 of the Revised Code.72257

       (C) Upon receipt and investigation of a proposal under 72258
division (B) of this section, if the legislative authority finds 72259
that the enterprise submitting the proposal is qualified by 72260
financial responsibility and business experience to create and 72261
preserve employment opportunities in the zone and improve the 72262
economic climate of the municipal corporation, the legislative 72263
authority, on or before October 15, 20122013, may do one of the 72264
following:72265

       (1) Enter into an agreement with the enterprise under which 72266
the enterprise agrees to establish, expand, renovate, or occupy a 72267
facility and hire new employees, or preserve employment 72268
opportunities for existing employees, in return for one or more of 72269
the following incentives:72270

       (a) Exemption for a specified number of years, not to exceed 72271
fifteen, of a specified portion, up to seventy-five per cent, of 72272
the assessed value of tangible personal property first used in 72273
business at the project site as a result of the agreement. If an 72274
exemption for inventory is specifically granted in the agreement 72275
pursuant to this division, the exemption applies to inventory 72276
required to be listed pursuant to sections 5711.15 and 5711.16 of 72277
the Revised Code, except that, in the instance of an expansion or 72278
other situations in which an enterprise was in business at the 72279
facility prior to the establishment of the zone, the inventory 72280
that is exempt is that amount or value of inventory in excess of 72281
the amount or value of inventory required to be listed in the 72282
personal property tax return of the enterprise in the return for 72283
the tax year in which the agreement is entered into.72284

       (b) Exemption for a specified number of years, not to exceed 72285
fifteen, of a specified portion, up to seventy-five per cent, of 72286
the increase in the assessed valuation of real property 72287
constituting the project site subsequent to formal approval of the 72288
agreement by the legislative authority;72289

       (c) Provision for a specified number of years, not to exceed 72290
fifteen, of any optional services or assistance that the municipal 72291
corporation is authorized to provide with regard to the project 72292
site.72293

       (2) Enter into an agreement under which the enterprise agrees 72294
to remediate an environmentally contaminated facility, to spend an 72295
amount equal to at least two hundred fifty per cent of the true 72296
value in money of the real property of the facility prior to 72297
remediation as determined for the purposes of property taxation to 72298
establish, expand, renovate, or occupy the remediated facility, 72299
and to hire new employees or preserve employment opportunities for 72300
existing employees at the remediated facility, in return for one 72301
or more of the following incentives:72302

       (a) Exemption for a specified number of years, not to exceed 72303
fifteen, of a specified portion, not to exceed fifty per cent, of 72304
the assessed valuation of the real property of the facility prior 72305
to remediation;72306

       (b) Exemption for a specified number of years, not to exceed 72307
fifteen, of a specified portion, not to exceed one hundred per 72308
cent, of the increase in the assessed valuation of the real 72309
property of the facility during or after remediation;72310

       (c) The incentive under division (C)(1)(a) of this section, 72311
except that the percentage of the assessed value of such property 72312
exempted from taxation shall not exceed one hundred per cent;72313

       (d) The incentive under division (C)(1)(c) of this section.72314

       (3) Enter into an agreement with an enterprise that plans to 72315
purchase and operate a large manufacturing facility that has 72316
ceased operation or announced its intention to cease operation, in 72317
return for exemption for a specified number of years, not to 72318
exceed fifteen, of a specified portion, up to one hundred per 72319
cent, of the assessed value of tangible personal property used in 72320
business at the project site as a result of the agreement, or of 72321
the assessed valuation of real property constituting the project 72322
site, or both.72323

       (D)(1) Notwithstanding divisions (C)(1)(a) and (b) of this 72324
section, the portion of the assessed value of tangible personal 72325
property or of the increase in the assessed valuation of real 72326
property exempted from taxation under those divisions may exceed 72327
seventy-five per cent in any year for which that portion is 72328
exempted if the average percentage exempted for all years in which 72329
the agreement is in effect does not exceed sixty per cent, or if 72330
the board of education of the city, local, or exempted village 72331
school district within the territory of which the property is or 72332
will be located approves a percentage in excess of seventy-five 72333
per cent.72334

       (2) Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the 72335
contrary, the exemptions described in divisions (C)(1)(a), (b), 72336
and (c), (C)(2)(a), (b), and (c), and (C)(3) of this section may 72337
be for up to fifteen years if the board of education of the city, 72338
local, or exempted village school district within the territory of 72339
which the property is or will be located approves a number of 72340
years in excess of ten.72341

       (3) For the purpose of obtaining the approval of a city, 72342
local, or exempted village school district under division (D)(1) 72343
or (2) of this section, the legislative authority shall deliver to 72344
the board of education a notice not later than forty-five days 72345
prior to approving the agreement, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, 72346
and legal holidays as defined in section 1.14 of the Revised Code. 72347
The notice shall state the percentage to be exempted, an estimate 72348
of the true value of the property to be exempted, and the number 72349
of years the property is to be exempted. The board of education, 72350
by resolution adopted by a majority of the board, shall approve or 72351
disapprove the agreement and certify a copy of the resolution to 72352
the legislative authority not later than fourteen days prior to 72353
the date stipulated by the legislative authority as the date upon 72354
which approval of the agreement is to be formally considered by 72355
the legislative authority. The board of education may include in 72356
the resolution conditions under which the board would approve the 72357
agreement, including the execution of an agreement to compensate 72358
the school district under division (B) of section 5709.82 of the 72359
Revised Code. The legislative authority may approve the agreement 72360
at any time after the board of education certifies its resolution 72361
approving the agreement to the legislative authority, or, if the 72362
board approves the agreement conditionally, at any time after the 72363
conditions are agreed to by the board and the legislative 72364
authority.72365

       If a board of education has adopted a resolution waiving its 72366
right to approve agreements and the resolution remains in effect, 72367
approval of an agreement by the board is not required under this 72368
division. If a board of education has adopted a resolution 72369
allowing a legislative authority to deliver the notice required 72370
under this division fewer than forty-five business days prior to 72371
the legislative authority's approval of the agreement, the 72372
legislative authority shall deliver the notice to the board not 72373
later than the number of days prior to such approval as prescribed 72374
by the board in its resolution. If a board of education adopts a 72375
resolution waiving its right to approve agreements or shortening 72376
the notification period, the board shall certify a copy of the 72377
resolution to the legislative authority. If the board of education 72378
rescinds such a resolution, it shall certify notice of the 72379
rescission to the legislative authority.72380

       (4) The legislative authority shall comply with section 72381
5709.83 of the Revised Code unless the board of education has 72382
adopted a resolution under that section waiving its right to 72383
receive such notice.72384

       (E) This division applies to zones certified by the director 72385
of development under this section prior to July 22, 1994.72386

       On or before October 15, 20122013, the legislative authority 72387
that designated a zone to which this division applies may enter 72388
into an agreement with an enterprise if the legislative authority 72389
finds that the enterprise satisfies one of the criteria described 72390
in divisions (E)(1) to (5) of this section:72391

       (1) The enterprise currently has no operations in this state 72392
and, subject to approval of the agreement, intends to establish 72393
operations in the zone;72394

       (2) The enterprise currently has operations in this state 72395
and, subject to approval of the agreement, intends to establish 72396
operations at a new location in the zone that would not result in 72397
a reduction in the number of employee positions at any of the 72398
enterprise's other locations in this state;72399

       (3) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 72400
intends to relocate operations, currently located in another 72401
state, to the zone;72402

       (4) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 72403
intends to expand operations at an existing site in the zone that 72404
the enterprise currently operates;72405

       (5) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 72406
intends to relocate operations, currently located in this state, 72407
to the zone, and the director of development has issued a waiver 72408
for the enterprise under division (B) of section 5709.633 of the 72409
Revised Code.72410

       The agreement shall require the enterprise to agree to 72411
establish, expand, renovate, or occupy a facility in the zone and 72412
hire new employees, or preserve employment opportunities for 72413
existing employees, in return for one or more of the incentives 72414
described in division (C) of this section.72415

       (F) All agreements entered into under this section shall be 72416
in the form prescribed under section 5709.631 of the Revised Code. 72417
After an agreement is entered into under this section, if the 72418
legislative authority revokes its designation of a zone, or if the 72419
director of development revokes a zone's certification, any 72420
entitlements granted under the agreement shall continue for the 72421
number of years specified in the agreement.72422

       (G) Except as otherwise provided in this division, an 72423
agreement entered into under this section shall require that the 72424
enterprise pay an annual fee equal to the greater of one per cent 72425
of the dollar value of incentives offered under the agreement or 72426
five hundred dollars; provided, however, that if the value of the 72427
incentives exceeds two hundred fifty thousand dollars, the fee 72428
shall not exceed two thousand five hundred dollars. The fee shall 72429
be payable to the legislative authority once per year for each 72430
year the agreement is effective on the days and in the form 72431
specified in the agreement. Fees paid shall be deposited in a 72432
special fund created for such purpose by the legislative authority 72433
and shall be used by the legislative authority exclusively for the 72434
purpose of complying with section 5709.68 of the Revised Code and 72435
by the tax incentive review council created under section 5709.85 72436
of the Revised Code exclusively for the purposes of performing the 72437
duties prescribed under that section. The legislative authority 72438
may waive or reduce the amount of the fee charged against an 72439
enterprise, but such a waiver or reduction does not affect the 72440
obligations of the legislative authority or the tax incentive 72441
review council to comply with section 5709.68 or 5709.85 of the 72442
Revised Code.72443

       (H) When an agreement is entered into pursuant to this 72444
section, the legislative authority authorizing the agreement shall 72445
forward a copy of the agreement to the director of development and 72446
to the tax commissioner within fifteen days after the agreement is 72447
entered into. If any agreement includes terms not provided for in 72448
section 5709.631 of the Revised Code affecting the revenue of a 72449
city, local, or exempted village school district or causing 72450
revenue to be forgone by the district, including any compensation 72451
to be paid to the school district pursuant to section 5709.82 of 72452
the Revised Code, those terms also shall be forwarded in writing 72453
to the director of development along with the copy of the 72454
agreement forwarded under this division.72455

       (I) After an agreement is entered into, the enterprise shall 72456
file with each personal property tax return required to be filed, 72457
or annual report required to be filed under section 5727.08 of the 72458
Revised Code, while the agreement is in effect, an informational 72459
return, on a form prescribed by the tax commissioner for that 72460
purpose, setting forth separately the property, and related costs 72461
and values, exempted from taxation under the agreement.72462

       (J) Enterprises may agree to give preference to residents of 72463
the zone within which the agreement applies relative to residents 72464
of this state who do not reside in the zone when hiring new 72465
employees under the agreement.72466

       (K) An agreement entered into under this section may include 72467
a provision requiring the enterprise to create one or more 72468
temporary internship positions for students enrolled in a course 72469
of study at a school or other educational institution in the 72470
vicinity, and to create a scholarship or provide another form of 72471
educational financial assistance for students holding such a 72472
position in exchange for the student's commitment to work for the 72473
enterprise at the completion of the internship.72474

       (L) The tax commissioner's authority in determining the 72475
accuracy of any exemption granted by an agreement entered into 72476
under this section is limited to divisions (C)(1)(a) and (b), 72477
(C)(2)(a), (b), and (c), (C)(3), (D), and (I) of this section and 72478
divisions (B)(1) to (10) of section 5709.631 of the Revised Code 72479
and, as authorized by law, to enforcing any modification to, or 72480
revocation of, that agreement by the legislative authority of a 72481
municipal corporation or the director of development.72482

       Sec. 5709.63.  (A) With the consent of the legislative 72483
authority of each affected municipal corporation or of a board of 72484
township trustees, a board of county commissioners may, in the 72485
manner set forth in section 5709.62 of the Revised Code, designate 72486
one or more areas in one or more municipal corporations or in 72487
unincorporated areas of the county as proposed enterprise zones. A 72488
board of county commissioners may designate no more than one area 72489
within a township, or within adjacent townships, as a proposed 72490
enterprise zone. The board shall petition the director of 72491
development for certification of the area as having the 72492
characteristics set forth in division (A)(1) or (2) of section 72493
5709.61 of the Revised Code as amended by Substitute Senate Bill 72494
No. 19 of the 120th general assembly. Except as otherwise provided 72495
in division (D) of this section, on and after July 1, 1994, boards 72496
of county commissioners shall not enter into agreements under this 72497
section unless the board has petitioned the director and the 72498
director has certified the zone under this section as amended by 72499
that act; however, all agreements entered into under this section 72500
as it existed prior to July 1, 1994, and the incentives granted 72501
under those agreements shall remain in effect for the period 72502
agreed to under those agreements. The director shall make the 72503
determination in the manner provided under section 5709.62 of the 72504
Revised Code.72505

       Any enterprise wishing to enter into an agreement with the 72506
board under division (B) or (D) of this section shall submit a 72507
proposal to the board on the form and accompanied by the 72508
application fee prescribed under division (B) of section 5709.62 72509
of the Revised Code. The enterprise shall review and update the 72510
estimates and listings required by the form in the manner required 72511
under that division. The board may, on a separate form and at any 72512
time, require any additional information necessary to determine 72513
whether an enterprise is in compliance with an agreement and to 72514
collect the information required to be reported under section 72515
5709.68 of the Revised Code.72516

       (B) If the board of county commissioners finds that an 72517
enterprise submitting a proposal is qualified by financial 72518
responsibility and business experience to create and preserve 72519
employment opportunities in the zone and to improve the economic 72520
climate of the municipal corporation or municipal corporations or 72521
the unincorporated areas in which the zone is located and to which 72522
the proposal applies, the board, on or before October 15, 201272523
2013, and with the consent of the legislative authority of each 72524
affected municipal corporation or of the board of township 72525
trustees may do either of the following:72526

       (1) Enter into an agreement with the enterprise under which 72527
the enterprise agrees to establish, expand, renovate, or occupy a 72528
facility in the zone and hire new employees, or preserve 72529
employment opportunities for existing employees, in return for the 72530
following incentives:72531

       (a) When the facility is located in a municipal corporation, 72532
the board may enter into an agreement for one or more of the 72533
incentives provided in division (C) of section 5709.62 of the 72534
Revised Code, subject to division (D) of that section;72535

       (b) When the facility is located in an unincorporated area, 72536
the board may enter into an agreement for one or more of the 72537
following incentives:72538

       (i) Exemption for a specified number of years, not to exceed 72539
fifteen, of a specified portion, up to sixty per cent, of the 72540
assessed value of tangible personal property first used in 72541
business at a project site as a result of the agreement. If an 72542
exemption for inventory is specifically granted in the agreement 72543
pursuant to this division, the exemption applies to inventory 72544
required to be listed pursuant to sections 5711.15 and 5711.16 of 72545
the Revised Code, except, in the instance of an expansion or other 72546
situations in which an enterprise was in business at the facility 72547
prior to the establishment of the zone, the inventory that is 72548
exempt is that amount or value of inventory in excess of the 72549
amount or value of inventory required to be listed in the personal 72550
property tax return of the enterprise in the return for the tax 72551
year in which the agreement is entered into.72552

       (ii) Exemption for a specified number of years, not to exceed 72553
fifteen, of a specified portion, up to sixty per cent, of the 72554
increase in the assessed valuation of real property constituting 72555
the project site subsequent to formal approval of the agreement by 72556
the board;72557

       (iii) Provision for a specified number of years, not to 72558
exceed fifteen, of any optional services or assistance the board 72559
is authorized to provide with regard to the project site;72560

       (iv) The incentive described in division (C)(2) of section 72561
5709.62 of the Revised Code.72562

       (2) Enter into an agreement with an enterprise that plans to 72563
purchase and operate a large manufacturing facility that has 72564
ceased operation or has announced its intention to cease 72565
operation, in return for exemption for a specified number of 72566
years, not to exceed fifteen, of a specified portion, up to one 72567
hundred per cent, of tangible personal property used in business 72568
at the project site as a result of the agreement, or of real 72569
property constituting the project site, or both.72570

       (C)(1)(a) Notwithstanding divisions (B)(1)(b)(i) and (ii) of 72571
this section, the portion of the assessed value of tangible 72572
personal property or of the increase in the assessed valuation of 72573
real property exempted from taxation under those divisions may 72574
exceed sixty per cent in any year for which that portion is 72575
exempted if the average percentage exempted for all years in which 72576
the agreement is in effect does not exceed fifty per cent, or if 72577
the board of education of the city, local, or exempted village 72578
school district within the territory of which the property is or 72579
will be located approves a percentage in excess of sixty per cent.72580

       (b) Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the 72581
contrary, the exemptions described in divisions (B)(1)(b)(i), 72582
(ii), (iii), and (iv) and (B)(2) of this section may be for up to 72583
fifteen years if the board of education of the city, local, or 72584
exempted village school district within the territory of which the 72585
property is or will be located approves a number of years in 72586
excess of ten.72587

       (c) For the purpose of obtaining the approval of a city, 72588
local, or exempted village school district under division 72589
(C)(1)(a) or (b) of this section, the board of county 72590
commissioners shall deliver to the board of education a notice not 72591
later than forty-five days prior to approving the agreement, 72592
excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays as defined in 72593
section 1.14 of the Revised Code. The notice shall state the 72594
percentage to be exempted, an estimate of the true value of the 72595
property to be exempted, and the number of years the property is 72596
to be exempted. The board of education, by resolution adopted by a 72597
majority of the board, shall approve or disapprove the agreement 72598
and certify a copy of the resolution to the board of county 72599
commissioners not later than fourteen days prior to the date 72600
stipulated by the board of county commissioners as the date upon 72601
which approval of the agreement is to be formally considered by 72602
the board of county commissioners. The board of education may 72603
include in the resolution conditions under which the board would 72604
approve the agreement, including the execution of an agreement to 72605
compensate the school district under division (B) of section 72606
5709.82 of the Revised Code. The board of county commissioners may 72607
approve the agreement at any time after the board of education 72608
certifies its resolution approving the agreement to the board of 72609
county commissioners, or, if the board of education approves the 72610
agreement conditionally, at any time after the conditions are 72611
agreed to by the board of education and the board of county 72612
commissioners.72613

       If a board of education has adopted a resolution waiving its 72614
right to approve agreements and the resolution remains in effect, 72615
approval of an agreement by the board of education is not required 72616
under division (C) of this section. If a board of education has 72617
adopted a resolution allowing a board of county commissioners to 72618
deliver the notice required under this division fewer than 72619
forty-five business days prior to approval of the agreement by the 72620
board of county commissioners, the board of county commissioners 72621
shall deliver the notice to the board of education not later than 72622
the number of days prior to such approval as prescribed by the 72623
board of education in its resolution. If a board of education 72624
adopts a resolution waiving its right to approve agreements or 72625
shortening the notification period, the board of education shall 72626
certify a copy of the resolution to the board of county 72627
commissioners. If the board of education rescinds such a 72628
resolution, it shall certify notice of the rescission to the board 72629
of county commissioners.72630

       (2) The board of county commissioners shall comply with 72631
section 5709.83 of the Revised Code unless the board of education 72632
has adopted a resolution under that section waiving its right to 72633
receive such notice.72634

       (D) This division applies to zones certified by the director 72635
of development under this section prior to July 22, 1994.72636

       On or before October 15, 20122013, and with the consent of 72637
the legislative authority of each affected municipal corporation 72638
or board of township trustees of each affected township, the board 72639
of county commissioners that designated a zone to which this 72640
division applies may enter into an agreement with an enterprise if 72641
the board finds that the enterprise satisfies one of the criteria 72642
described in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this section:72643

       (1) The enterprise currently has no operations in this state 72644
and, subject to approval of the agreement, intends to establish 72645
operations in the zone;72646

       (2) The enterprise currently has operations in this state 72647
and, subject to approval of the agreement, intends to establish 72648
operations at a new location in the zone that would not result in 72649
a reduction in the number of employee positions at any of the 72650
enterprise's other locations in this state;72651

       (3) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 72652
intends to relocate operations, currently located in another 72653
state, to the zone;72654

       (4) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 72655
intends to expand operations at an existing site in the zone that 72656
the enterprise currently operates;72657

       (5) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 72658
intends to relocate operations, currently located in this state, 72659
to the zone, and the director of development has issued a waiver 72660
for the enterprise under division (B) of section 5709.633 of the 72661
Revised Code.72662

       The agreement shall require the enterprise to agree to 72663
establish, expand, renovate, or occupy a facility in the zone and 72664
hire new employees, or preserve employment opportunities for 72665
existing employees, in return for one or more of the incentives 72666
described in division (B) of this section.72667

       (E) All agreements entered into under this section shall be 72668
in the form prescribed under section 5709.631 of the Revised Code. 72669
After an agreement under this section is entered into, if the 72670
board of county commissioners revokes its designation of a zone, 72671
or if the director of development revokes a zone's certification, 72672
any entitlements granted under the agreement shall continue for 72673
the number of years specified in the agreement.72674

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, an 72675
agreement entered into under this section shall require that the 72676
enterprise pay an annual fee equal to the greater of one per cent 72677
of the dollar value of incentives offered under the agreement or 72678
five hundred dollars; provided, however, that if the value of the 72679
incentives exceeds two hundred fifty thousand dollars, the fee 72680
shall not exceed two thousand five hundred dollars. The fee shall 72681
be payable to the board of county commissioners once per year for 72682
each year the agreement is effective on the days and in the form 72683
specified in the agreement. Fees paid shall be deposited in a 72684
special fund created for such purpose by the board and shall be 72685
used by the board exclusively for the purpose of complying with 72686
section 5709.68 of the Revised Code and by the tax incentive 72687
review council created under section 5709.85 of the Revised Code 72688
exclusively for the purposes of performing the duties prescribed 72689
under that section. The board may waive or reduce the amount of 72690
the fee charged against an enterprise, but such waiver or 72691
reduction does not affect the obligations of the board or the tax 72692
incentive review council to comply with section 5709.68 or 5709.85 72693
of the Revised Code, respectively.72694

       (G) With the approval of the legislative authority of a 72695
municipal corporation or the board of township trustees of a 72696
township in which a zone is designated under division (A) of this 72697
section, the board of county commissioners may delegate to that 72698
legislative authority or board any powers and duties of the board 72699
of county commissioners to negotiate and administer agreements 72700
with regard to that zone under this section.72701

       (H) When an agreement is entered into pursuant to this 72702
section, the board of county commissioners authorizing the 72703
agreement or the legislative authority or board of township 72704
trustees that negotiates and administers the agreement shall 72705
forward a copy of the agreement to the director of development and 72706
to the tax commissioner within fifteen days after the agreement is 72707
entered into. If any agreement includes terms not provided for in 72708
section 5709.631 of the Revised Code affecting the revenue of a 72709
city, local, or exempted village school district or causing 72710
revenue to be foregone by the district, including any compensation 72711
to be paid to the school district pursuant to section 5709.82 of 72712
the Revised Code, those terms also shall be forwarded in writing 72713
to the director of development along with the copy of the 72714
agreement forwarded under this division.72715

       (I) After an agreement is entered into, the enterprise shall 72716
file with each personal property tax return required to be filed, 72717
or annual report that is required to be filed under section 72718
5727.08 of the Revised Code, while the agreement is in effect, an 72719
informational return, on a form prescribed by the tax commissioner 72720
for that purpose, setting forth separately the property, and 72721
related costs and values, exempted from taxation under the 72722
agreement.72723

       (J) Enterprises may agree to give preference to residents of 72724
the zone within which the agreement applies relative to residents 72725
of this state who do not reside in the zone when hiring new 72726
employees under the agreement.72727

       (K) An agreement entered into under this section may include 72728
a provision requiring the enterprise to create one or more 72729
temporary internship positions for students enrolled in a course 72730
of study at a school or other educational institution in the 72731
vicinity, and to create a scholarship or provide another form of 72732
educational financial assistance for students holding such a 72733
position in exchange for the student's commitment to work for the 72734
enterprise at the completion of the internship.72735

       (L) The tax commissioner's authority in determining the 72736
accuracy of any exemption granted by an agreement entered into 72737
under this section is limited to divisions (B)(1)(b)(i) and (ii), 72738
(B)(2), (C), and (I) of this section, division (B)(1)(b)(iv) of 72739
this section as it pertains to divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), and (c) 72740
of section 5709.62 of the Revised Code, and divisions (B)(1) to 72741
(10) of section 5709.631 of the Revised Code and, as authorized by 72742
law, to enforcing any modification to, or revocation of, that 72743
agreement by the board of county commissioners or the director of 72744
development or, if the board's powers and duties are delegated 72745
under division (G) of this section, by the legislative authority 72746
of a municipal corporation or board of township trustees.72747

       Sec. 5709.632.  (A)(1) The legislative authority of a 72748
municipal corporation defined by the United States office of 72749
management and budget as a principal city of a metropolitan 72750
statistical area may, in the manner set forth in section 5709.62 72751
of the Revised Code, designate one or more areas in the municipal 72752
corporation as a proposed enterprise zone.72753

       (2) With the consent of the legislative authority of each 72754
affected municipal corporation or of a board of township trustees, 72755
a board of county commissioners may, in the manner set forth in 72756
section 5709.62 of the Revised Code, designate one or more areas 72757
in one or more municipal corporations or in unincorporated areas 72758
of the county as proposed urban jobs and enterprise zones, except 72759
that a board of county commissioners may designate no more than 72760
one area within a township, or within adjacent townships, as a 72761
proposed urban jobs and enterprise zone.72762

       (3) The legislative authority or board of county 72763
commissioners may petition the director of development for 72764
certification of the area as having the characteristics set forth 72765
in division (A)(3) of section 5709.61 of the Revised Code. Within 72766
sixty days after receiving such a petition, the director shall 72767
determine whether the area has the characteristics set forth in 72768
that division and forward the findings to the legislative 72769
authority or board of county commissioners. If the director 72770
certifies the area as having those characteristics and thereby 72771
certifies it as a zone, the legislative authority or board may 72772
enter into agreements with enterprises under division (B) of this 72773
section. Any enterprise wishing to enter into an agreement with a 72774
legislative authority or board of county commissioners under this 72775
section and satisfying one of the criteria described in divisions 72776
(B)(1) to (5) of this section shall submit a proposal to the 72777
legislative authority or board on the form prescribed under 72778
division (B) of section 5709.62 of the Revised Code and shall 72779
review and update the estimates and listings required by the form 72780
in the manner required under that division. The legislative 72781
authority or board may, on a separate form and at any time, 72782
require any additional information necessary to determine whether 72783
an enterprise is in compliance with an agreement and to collect 72784
the information required to be reported under section 5709.68 of 72785
the Revised Code.72786

       (B) Prior to entering into an agreement with an enterprise, 72787
the legislative authority or board of county commissioners shall 72788
determine whether the enterprise submitting the proposal is 72789
qualified by financial responsibility and business experience to 72790
create and preserve employment opportunities in the zone and to 72791
improve the economic climate of the municipal corporation or 72792
municipal corporations or the unincorporated areas in which the 72793
zone is located and to which the proposal applies, and whether the 72794
enterprise satisfies one of the following criteria:72795

       (1) The enterprise currently has no operations in this state 72796
and, subject to approval of the agreement, intends to establish 72797
operations in the zone;72798

       (2) The enterprise currently has operations in this state 72799
and, subject to approval of the agreement, intends to establish 72800
operations at a new location in the zone that would not result in 72801
a reduction in the number of employee positions at any of the 72802
enterprise's other locations in this state;72803

       (3) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 72804
intends to relocate operations, currently located in another 72805
state, to the zone;72806

       (4) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 72807
intends to expand operations at an existing site in the zone that 72808
the enterprise currently operates;72809

       (5) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 72810
intends to relocate operations, currently located in this state, 72811
to the zone, and the director of development has issued a waiver 72812
for the enterprise under division (B) of section 5709.633 of the 72813
Revised Code.72814

       (C) If the legislative authority or board determines that the 72815
enterprise is so qualified and satisfies one of the criteria 72816
described in divisions (B)(1) to (5) of this section, the 72817
legislative authority or board may, after complying with section 72818
5709.83 of the Revised Code and on or before October 15, 201272819
2013, and, in the case of a board of commissioners, with the 72820
consent of the legislative authority of each affected municipal 72821
corporation or of the board of township trustees, enter into an 72822
agreement with the enterprise under which the enterprise agrees to 72823
establish, expand, renovate, or occupy a facility in the zone and 72824
hire new employees, or preserve employment opportunities for 72825
existing employees, in return for the following incentives:72826

       (1) When the facility is located in a municipal corporation, 72827
a legislative authority or board of commissioners may enter into 72828
an agreement for one or more of the incentives provided in 72829
division (C) of section 5709.62 of the Revised Code, subject to 72830
division (D) of that section;72831

       (2) When the facility is located in an unincorporated area, a 72832
board of commissioners may enter into an agreement for one or more 72833
of the incentives provided in divisions (B)(1)(b), (B)(2), and 72834
(B)(3) of section 5709.63 of the Revised Code, subject to division 72835
(C) of that section.72836

       (D) All agreements entered into under this section shall be 72837
in the form prescribed under section 5709.631 of the Revised Code. 72838
After an agreement under this section is entered into, if the 72839
legislative authority or board of county commissioners revokes its 72840
designation of the zone, or if the director of development revokes 72841
the zone's certification, any entitlements granted under the 72842
agreement shall continue for the number of years specified in the 72843
agreement.72844

       (E) Except as otherwise provided in this division, an 72845
agreement entered into under this section shall require that the 72846
enterprise pay an annual fee equal to the greater of one per cent 72847
of the dollar value of incentives offered under the agreement or 72848
five hundred dollars; provided, however, that if the value of the 72849
incentives exceeds two hundred fifty thousand dollars, the fee 72850
shall not exceed two thousand five hundred dollars. The fee shall 72851
be payable to the legislative authority or board of commissioners 72852
once per year for each year the agreement is effective on the days 72853
and in the form specified in the agreement. Fees paid shall be 72854
deposited in a special fund created for such purpose by the 72855
legislative authority or board and shall be used by the 72856
legislative authority or board exclusively for the purpose of 72857
complying with section 5709.68 of the Revised Code and by the tax 72858
incentive review council created under section 5709.85 of the 72859
Revised Code exclusively for the purposes of performing the duties 72860
prescribed under that section. The legislative authority or board 72861
may waive or reduce the amount of the fee charged against an 72862
enterprise, but such waiver or reduction does not affect the 72863
obligations of the legislative authority or board or the tax 72864
incentive review council to comply with section 5709.68 or 5709.85 72865
of the Revised Code, respectively.72866

       (F) With the approval of the legislative authority of a 72867
municipal corporation or the board of township trustees of a 72868
township in which a zone is designated under division (A)(2) of 72869
this section, the board of county commissioners may delegate to 72870
that legislative authority or board any powers and duties of the 72871
board to negotiate and administer agreements with regard to that 72872
zone under this section.72873

       (G) When an agreement is entered into pursuant to this 72874
section, the legislative authority or board of commissioners 72875
authorizing the agreement shall forward a copy of the agreement to 72876
the director of development and to the tax commissioner within 72877
fifteen days after the agreement is entered into. If any agreement 72878
includes terms not provided for in section 5709.631 of the Revised 72879
Code affecting the revenue of a city, local, or exempted village 72880
school district or causing revenue to be forgone by the district, 72881
including any compensation to be paid to the school district 72882
pursuant to section 5709.82 of the Revised Code, those terms also 72883
shall be forwarded in writing to the director of development along 72884
with the copy of the agreement forwarded under this division.72885

       (H) After an agreement is entered into, the enterprise shall 72886
file with each personal property tax return required to be filed 72887
while the agreement is in effect, an informational return, on a 72888
form prescribed by the tax commissioner for that purpose, setting 72889
forth separately the property, and related costs and values, 72890
exempted from taxation under the agreement.72891

       (I) An agreement entered into under this section may include 72892
a provision requiring the enterprise to create one or more 72893
temporary internship positions for students enrolled in a course 72894
of study at a school or other educational institution in the 72895
vicinity, and to create a scholarship or provide another form of 72896
educational financial assistance for students holding such a 72897
position in exchange for the student's commitment to work for the 72898
enterprise at the completion of the internship.72899

       Sec. 5709.73.  (A) As used in this section and section 72900
5709.74 of the Revised Code:72901

       (1) "Business day" means a day of the week excluding 72902
Saturday, Sunday, and a legal holiday as defined in section 1.14 72903
of the Revised Code.72904

       (2) "Further improvements" or "improvements" means the 72905
increase in the assessed value of real property that would first 72906
appear on the tax list and duplicate of real and public utility 72907
property after the effective date of a resolution adopted under 72908
this section were it not for the exemption granted by that 72909
resolution. For purposes of division (B) of this section, 72910
"improvements" do not include any property used or to be used for 72911
residential purposes.72912

       (3) "Housing renovation" means a project carried out for 72913
residential purposes.72914

       (4) "Incentive district" has the same meaning as in section 72915
5709.40 of the Revised Code, except that a blighted area is in the 72916
unincorporated area of a township.72917

       (5) "Project" and "public infrastructure improvement" have 72918
the same meanings as in section 5709.40 of the Revised Code.72919

       (B) A board of township trustees may, by unanimous vote, 72920
adopt a resolution that declares to be a public purpose any public 72921
infrastructure improvements made that are necessary for the 72922
development of certain parcels of land located in the 72923
unincorporated area of the township. Except with the approval 72924
under division (D) of this section of the board of education of 72925
each city, local, or exempted village school district within which 72926
the improvements are located, the resolution may exempt from real 72927
property taxation not more than seventy-five per cent of further 72928
improvements to a parcel of land that directly benefits from the 72929
public infrastructure improvements, for a period of not more than 72930
ten years. The resolution shall specify the percentage of the 72931
further improvements to be exempted and the life of the exemption.72932

       (C)(1) A board of township trustees may adopt, by unanimous 72933
vote, a resolution creating an incentive district and declaring 72934
improvements to parcels within the district to be a public purpose 72935
and, except as provided in division (F) of this section, exempt 72936
from taxation as provided in this section, but no board of 72937
township trustees of a township that has a population that exceeds 72938
twenty-five thousand, as shown by the most recent federal 72939
decennial census, shall adopt a resolution that creates an 72940
incentive district if the sum of the taxable value of real 72941
property in the proposed district for the preceding tax year and 72942
the taxable value of all real property in the township that would 72943
have been taxable in the preceding year were it not for the fact 72944
that the property was in an existing incentive district and 72945
therefore exempt from taxation exceeds twenty-five per cent of the 72946
taxable value of real property in the township for the preceding 72947
tax year. The district shall be located within the unincorporated 72948
area of the township and shall not include any territory that is 72949
included within a district created under division (B) of section 72950
5709.78 of the Revised Code. The resolution shall delineate the 72951
boundary of the district and specifically identify each parcel 72952
within the district. A district may not include any parcel that is 72953
or has been exempted from taxation under division (B) of this 72954
section or that is or has been within another district created 72955
under this division. A resolution may create more than one 72956
district, and more than one resolution may be adopted under 72957
division (C)(1) of this section.72958

       (2) Not later than thirty days prior to adopting a resolution 72959
under division (C)(1) of this section, if the township intends to 72960
apply for exemptions from taxation under section 5709.911 of the 72961
Revised Code on behalf of owners of real property located within 72962
the proposed incentive district, the board shall conduct a public 72963
hearing on the proposed resolution. Not later than thirty days 72964
prior to the public hearing, the board shall give notice of the 72965
public hearing and the proposed resolution by first class mail to 72966
every real property owner whose property is located within the 72967
boundaries of the proposed incentive district that is the subject 72968
of the proposed resolution.72969

       (3)(a) A resolution adopted under division (C)(1) of this 72970
section shall specify the life of the incentive district and the 72971
percentage of the improvements to be exempted, shall designate the 72972
public infrastructure improvements made, to be made, or in the 72973
process of being made, that benefit or serve, or, once made, will 72974
benefit or serve parcels in the district. The resolution also 72975
shall identify one or more specific projects being, or to be, 72976
undertaken in the district that place additional demand on the 72977
public infrastructure improvements designated in the resolution. 72978
The project identified may, but need not be, the project under 72979
division (C)(3)(b) of this section that places real property in 72980
use for commercial or industrial purposes.72981

       A resolution adopted under division (C)(1) of this section on 72982
or after March 30, 2006, shall not designate police or fire 72983
equipment as public infrastructure improvements, and no service 72984
payment provided for in section 5709.74 of the Revised Code and 72985
received by the township under the resolution shall be used for 72986
police or fire equipment.72987

       (b) A resolution adopted under division (C)(1) of this 72988
section may authorize the use of service payments provided for in 72989
section 5709.74 of the Revised Code for the purpose of housing 72990
renovations within the incentive district, provided that the 72991
resolution also designates public infrastructure improvements that 72992
benefit or serve the district, and that a project within the 72993
district places real property in use for commercial or industrial 72994
purposes. Service payments may be used to finance or support 72995
loans, deferred loans, and grants to persons for the purpose of 72996
housing renovations within the district. The resolution shall 72997
designate the parcels within the district that are eligible for 72998
housing renovations. The resolution shall state separately the 72999
amount or the percentages of the expected aggregate service 73000
payments that are designated for each public infrastructure 73001
improvement and for the purpose of housing renovations.73002

       (4) Except with the approval of the board of education of 73003
each city, local, or exempted village school district within the 73004
territory of which the incentive district is or will be located, 73005
and subject to division (E) of this section, the life of an 73006
incentive district shall not exceed ten years, and the percentage 73007
of improvements to be exempted shall not exceed seventy-five per 73008
cent. With approval of the board of education, the life of a 73009
district may be not more than thirty years, and the percentage of 73010
improvements to be exempted may be not more than one hundred per 73011
cent. The approval of a board of education shall be obtained in 73012
the manner provided in division (D) of this section.73013

       (D) Improvements with respect to a parcel may be exempted 73014
from taxation under division (B) of this section, and improvements 73015
to parcels within an incentive district may be exempted from 73016
taxation under division (C) of this section, for up to ten years 73017
or, with the approval of the board of education of the city, 73018
local, or exempted village school district within which the parcel 73019
or district is located, for up to thirty years. The percentage of 73020
the improvements exempted from taxation may, with such approval, 73021
exceed seventy-five per cent, but shall not exceed one hundred per 73022
cent. Not later than forty-five business days prior to adopting a 73023
resolution under this section declaring improvements to be a 73024
public purpose that is subject to approval by a board of education 73025
under this division, the board of township trustees shall deliver 73026
to the board of education a notice stating its intent to adopt a 73027
resolution making that declaration. The notice regarding 73028
improvements with respect to a parcel under division (B) of this 73029
section shall identify the parcels for which improvements are to 73030
be exempted from taxation, provide an estimate of the true value 73031
in money of the improvements, specify the period for which the 73032
improvements would be exempted from taxation and the percentage of 73033
the improvements that would be exempted, and indicate the date on 73034
which the board of township trustees intends to adopt the 73035
resolution. The notice regarding improvements made under division 73036
(C) of this section to parcels within an incentive district shall 73037
delineate the boundaries of the district, specifically identify 73038
each parcel within the district, identify each anticipated 73039
improvement in the district, provide an estimate of the true value 73040
in money of each such improvement, specify the life of the 73041
district and the percentage of improvements that would be 73042
exempted, and indicate the date on which the board of township 73043
trustees intends to adopt the resolution. The board of education, 73044
by resolution adopted by a majority of the board, may approve the 73045
exemption for the period or for the exemption percentage specified 73046
in the notice; may disapprove the exemption for the number of 73047
years in excess of ten, may disapprove the exemption for the 73048
percentage of the improvements to be exempted in excess of 73049
seventy-five per cent, or both; or may approve the exemption on 73050
the condition that the board of township trustees and the board of 73051
education negotiate an agreement providing for compensation to the 73052
school district equal in value to a percentage of the amount of 73053
taxes exempted in the eleventh and subsequent years of the 73054
exemption period or, in the case of exemption percentages in 73055
excess of seventy-five per cent, compensation equal in value to a 73056
percentage of the taxes that would be payable on the portion of 73057
the improvements in excess of seventy-five per cent were that 73058
portion to be subject to taxation, or other mutually agreeable 73059
compensation.73060

       The board of education shall certify its resolution to the 73061
board of township trustees not later than fourteen days prior to 73062
the date the board of township trustees intends to adopt the 73063
resolution as indicated in the notice. If the board of education 73064
and the board of township trustees negotiate a mutually acceptable 73065
compensation agreement, the resolution may declare the 73066
improvements a public purpose for the number of years specified in 73067
the resolution or, in the case of exemption percentages in excess 73068
of seventy-five per cent, for the exemption percentage specified 73069
in the resolution. In either case, if the board of education and 73070
the board of township trustees fail to negotiate a mutually 73071
acceptable compensation agreement, the resolution may declare the 73072
improvements a public purpose for not more than ten years, and 73073
shall not exempt more than seventy-five per cent of the 73074
improvements from taxation. If the board of education fails to 73075
certify a resolution to the board of township trustees within the 73076
time prescribed by this section, the board of township trustees 73077
thereupon may adopt the resolution and may declare the 73078
improvements a public purpose for up to thirty years or, in the 73079
case of exemption percentages proposed in excess of seventy-five 73080
per cent, for the exemption percentage specified in the 73081
resolution. The board of township trustees may adopt the 73082
resolution at any time after the board of education certifies its 73083
resolution approving the exemption to the board of township 73084
trustees, or, if the board of education approves the exemption on 73085
the condition that a mutually acceptable compensation agreement be 73086
negotiated, at any time after the compensation agreement is agreed 73087
to by the board of education and the board of township trustees. 73088
If a mutually acceptable compensation agreement is negotiated 73089
between the board of township trustees and the board of education, 73090
including agreements for payments in lieu of taxes under section 73091
5709.74 of the Revised Code, the board of township trustees shall 73092
compensate the joint vocational school district within which the 73093
parcel or district is located at the same rate and under the same 73094
terms received by the city, local, or exempted village school 73095
district.73096

        If a board of education has adopted a resolution waiving its 73097
right to approve exemptions from taxation under this section and 73098
the resolution remains in effect, approval of such exemptions by 73099
the board of education is not required under division (D) of this 73100
section. If a board of education has adopted a resolution allowing 73101
a board of township trustees to deliver the notice required under 73102
division (D) of this section fewer than forty-five business days 73103
prior to adoption of the resolution by the board of township 73104
trustees, the board of township trustees shall deliver the notice 73105
to the board of education not later than the number of days prior 73106
to the adoption as prescribed by the board of education in its 73107
resolution. If a board of education adopts a resolution waiving 73108
its right to approve exemptions or shortening the notification 73109
period, the board of education shall certify a copy of the 73110
resolution to the board of township trustees. If the board of 73111
education rescinds the resolution, it shall certify notice of the 73112
rescission to the board of township trustees.73113

       If the board of township trustees is not required by division 73114
(D) of this section to notify the board of education of the board 73115
of township trustees' intent to declare improvements to be a 73116
public purpose, the board of township trustees shall comply with 73117
the notice requirements imposed under section 5709.83 of the 73118
Revised Code before taking formal action to adopt the resolution 73119
making that declaration, unless the board of education has adopted 73120
a resolution under that section waiving its right to receive the 73121
notice.73122

       (E)(1) If a proposed resolution under division (C)(1) of this 73123
section exempts improvements with respect to a parcel within an 73124
incentive district for more than ten years, or the percentage of 73125
the improvement exempted from taxation exceeds seventy-five per 73126
cent, not later than forty-five business days prior to adopting 73127
the resolution the board of township trustees shall deliver to the 73128
board of county commissioners of the county within which the 73129
incentive district is or will be located a notice that states its 73130
intent to adopt a resolution creating an incentive district. The 73131
notice shall include a copy of the proposed resolution, identify 73132
the parcels for which improvements are to be exempted from 73133
taxation, provide an estimate of the true value in money of the 73134
improvements, specify the period of time for which the 73135
improvements would be exempted from taxation, specify the 73136
percentage of the improvements that would be exempted from 73137
taxation, and indicate the date on which the board of township 73138
trustees intends to adopt the resolution.73139

       (2) The board of county commissioners, by resolution adopted 73140
by a majority of the board, may object to the exemption for the 73141
number of years in excess of ten, may object to the exemption for 73142
the percentage of the improvement to be exempted in excess of 73143
seventy-five per cent, or both. If the board of county 73144
commissioners objects, the board may negotiate a mutually 73145
acceptable compensation agreement with the board of township 73146
trustees. In no case shall the compensation provided to the board 73147
of county commissioners exceed the property taxes foregone due to 73148
the exemption. If the board of county commissioners objects, and 73149
the board of county commissioners and board of township trustees 73150
fail to negotiate a mutually acceptable compensation agreement, 73151
the resolution adopted under division (C)(1) of this section shall 73152
provide to the board of county commissioners compensation in the 73153
eleventh and subsequent years of the exemption period equal in 73154
value to not more than fifty per cent of the taxes that would be 73155
payable to the county or, if the board of county commissioner's 73156
objection includes an objection to an exemption percentage in 73157
excess of seventy-five per cent, compensation equal in value to 73158
not more than fifty per cent of the taxes that would be payable to 73159
the county, on the portion of the improvement in excess of 73160
seventy-five per cent, were that portion to be subject to 73161
taxation. The board of county commissioners shall certify its 73162
resolution to the board of township trustees not later than thirty 73163
days after receipt of the notice.73164

       (3) If the board of county commissioners does not object or 73165
fails to certify its resolution objecting to an exemption within 73166
thirty days after receipt of the notice, the board of township 73167
trustees may adopt its resolution, and no compensation shall be 73168
provided to the board of county commissioners. If the board of 73169
county commissioners timely certifies its resolution objecting to 73170
the trustees' resolution, the board of township trustees may adopt 73171
its resolution at any time after a mutually acceptable 73172
compensation agreement is agreed to by the board of county 73173
commissioners and the board of township trustees, or, if no 73174
compensation agreement is negotiated, at any time after the board 73175
of township trustees agrees in the proposed resolution to provide 73176
compensation to the board of county commissioners of fifty per 73177
cent of the taxes that would be payable to the county in the 73178
eleventh and subsequent years of the exemption period or on the 73179
portion of the improvement in excess of seventy-five per cent, 73180
were that portion to be subject to taxation.73181

       (F) Service payments in lieu of taxes that are attributable 73182
to any amount by which the effective tax rate of either a renewal 73183
levy with an increase or a replacement levy exceeds the effective 73184
tax rate of the levy renewed or replaced, or that are attributable 73185
to an additional levy, for a levy authorized by the voters for any 73186
of the following purposes on or after January 1, 2006, and which 73187
are provided pursuant to a resolution creating an incentive 73188
district under division (C)(1) of this section that is adopted on 73189
or after January 1, 2006, shall be distributed to the appropriate 73190
taxing authority as required under division (C) of section 5709.74 73191
of the Revised Code in an amount equal to the amount of taxes from 73192
that additional levy or from the increase in the effective tax 73193
rate of such renewal or replacement levy that would have been 73194
payable to that taxing authority from the following levies were it 73195
not for the exemption authorized under division (C) of this 73196
section:73197

       (1) A tax levied under division (L) of section 5705.19 or 73198
section 5705.191 of the Revised Code for community mental 73199
retardation and developmental disabilities programs and services 73200
pursuant to Chapter 5126. of the Revised Code;73201

       (2) A tax levied under division (Y) of section 5705.19 of the 73202
Revised Code for providing or maintaining senior citizens services 73203
or facilities;73204

       (3) A tax levied under section 5705.22 of the Revised Code 73205
for county hospitals;73206

       (4) A tax levied by a joint-county district or by a county 73207
under section 5705.19, 5705.191, or 5705.221 of the Revised Code 73208
for alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services or 73209
families;73210

       (5) A tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code 73211
for library purposes;73212

       (6) A tax levied under section 5705.24 of the Revised Code 73213
for the support of children services and the placement and care of 73214
children;73215

       (7) A tax levied under division (Z) of section 5705.19 of the 73216
Revised Code for the provision and maintenance of zoological park 73217
services and facilities under section 307.76 of the Revised Code;73218

        (8) A tax levied under section 511.27 or division (H) of 73219
section 5705.19 of the Revised Code for the support of township 73220
park districts;73221

        (9) A tax levied under division (A), (F), or (H) of section 73222
5705.19 of the Revised Code for parks and recreational purposes of 73223
a joint recreation district organized pursuant to division (B) of 73224
section 755.14 of the Revised Code;73225

        (10) A tax levied under section 1545.20 or 1545.21 of the 73226
Revised Code for park district purposes;73227

        (11) A tax levied under section 5705.191 of the Revised Code 73228
for the purpose of making appropriations for public assistance; 73229
human or social services; public relief; public welfare; public 73230
health and hospitalization; and support of general hospitals;73231

        (12) A tax levied under section 3709.29 of the Revised Code 73232
for a general health district program.73233

       (G) An exemption from taxation granted under this section 73234
commences with the tax year specified in the resolution so long as 73235
the year specified in the resolution commences after the effective 73236
date of the resolution. If the resolution specifies a year 73237
commencing before the effective date of the resolution or 73238
specifies no year whatsoever, the exemption commences with the tax 73239
year in which an exempted improvement first appears on the tax 73240
list and duplicate of real and public utility property and that 73241
commences after the effective date of the resolution. Except as 73242
otherwise provided in this division, the exemption ends on the 73243
date specified in the resolution as the date the improvement 73244
ceases to be a public purpose or the incentive district expires, 73245
or ends on the date on which the public infrastructure 73246
improvements and housing renovations are paid in full from the 73247
township public improvement tax increment equivalent fund 73248
established under section 5709.75 of the Revised Code, whichever 73249
occurs first. The exemption of an improvement with respect to a 73250
parcel or within an incentive district may end on a later date, as 73251
specified in the resolution, if the board of township trustees and 73252
the board of education of the city, local, or exempted village 73253
school district within which the parcel or district is located 73254
have entered into a compensation agreement under section 5709.82 73255
of the Revised Code with respect to the improvement and the board 73256
of education has approved the term of the exemption under division 73257
(D) of this section, but in no case shall the improvement be 73258
exempted from taxation for more than thirty years. The board of 73259
township trustees may, by majority vote, adopt a resolution 73260
permitting the township to enter into such agreements as the board 73261
finds necessary or appropriate to provide for the construction or 73262
undertaking of public infrastructure improvements and housing 73263
renovations. Any exemption shall be claimed and allowed in the 73264
same or a similar manner as in the case of other real property 73265
exemptions. If an exemption status changes during a tax year, the 73266
procedure for the apportionment of the taxes for that year is the 73267
same as in the case of other changes in tax exemption status 73268
during the year.73269

       (H) The board of township trustees may issue the notes of the 73270
township to finance all costs pertaining to the construction or 73271
undertaking of public infrastructure improvements and housing 73272
renovations made pursuant to this section. The notes shall be 73273
signed by the board and attested by the signature of the township 73274
fiscal officer, shall bear interest not to exceed the rate 73275
provided in section 9.95 of the Revised Code, and are not subject 73276
to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code. The resolution authorizing 73277
the issuance of the notes shall pledge the funds of the township 73278
public improvement tax increment equivalent fund established 73279
pursuant to section 5709.75 of the Revised Code to pay the 73280
interest on and principal of the notes. The notes, which may 73281
contain a clause permitting prepayment at the option of the board, 73282
shall be offered for sale on the open market or given to the 73283
vendor or contractor if no sale is made.73284

       (I) The township, not later than fifteen days after the 73285
adoption of a resolution under this section, shall submit to the 73286
director of development a copy of the resolution. On or before the 73287
thirty-first day of March of each year, the township shall submit 73288
a status report to the director of development. The report shall 73289
indicate, in the manner prescribed by the director, the progress 73290
of the project during each year that the exemption remains in 73291
effect, including a summary of the receipts from service payments 73292
in lieu of taxes; expenditures of money from the fund created 73293
under section 5709.75 of the Revised Code; a description of the 73294
public infrastructure improvements and housing renovations 73295
financed with the expenditures; and a quantitative summary of 73296
changes in private investment resulting from each project.73297

       (J) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a 73298
board of township trustees from declaring to be a public purpose 73299
improvements with respect to more than one parcel.73300

       (K) A board of township trustees that adopted a resolution 73301
under this section prior to July 21, 1994, may amend that 73302
resolution to include any additional public infrastructure 73303
improvement. A board of township trustees that seeks by the 73304
amendment to utilize money from its township public improvement 73305
tax increment equivalent fund for land acquisition in aid of 73306
industry, commerce, distribution, or research, demolition on 73307
private property, or stormwater and flood remediation projects may 73308
do so provided that the board currently is a party to a 73309
hold-harmless agreement with the board of education of the city, 73310
local, or exempted village school district within the territory of 73311
which are located the parcels that are subject to an exemption. 73312
For the purposes of this division, a "hold-harmless agreement" 73313
means an agreement under which the board of township trustees 73314
agrees to compensate the school district for one hundred per cent 73315
of the tax revenue that the school district would have received 73316
from further improvements to parcels designated in the resolution 73317
were it not for the exemption granted by the resolution.73318

       (L) With respect to improvements resulting from projects, for 73319
which construction commences on or after April 1, 2012, and on or 73320
before December 31, 2013, and for which an exemption has been or 73321
will be sought pursuant to a resolution adopted under this section 73322
before December 14, 2001, "property used or to be used for 73323
residential purposes," as used in division (A)(2) of this section, 73324
means only that property that, as improved, the tax commissioner 73325
would classify as residential land and improvements pursuant to 73326
rules adopted by the tax commissioner under section 5713.041 of 73327
the Revised Code.73328

       Sec. 5709.75. (A) Any township that receives service payments 73329
in lieu of taxes under section 5709.74 of the Revised Code shall 73330
establish a township public improvement tax increment equivalent 73331
fund into which those payments shall be deposited. If the board of 73332
township trustees has adopted a resolution under division (C) of 73333
section 5709.73 of the Revised Code, the township shall establish 73334
at least one account in that fund with respect to resolutions 73335
adopted under division (B) of that section, and one account with 73336
respect to each incentive district created by a resolution adopted 73337
under division (C) of that section. If a resolution adopted under 73338
division (C) of section 5709.73 of the Revised Code also 73339
authorizes the use of service payments for housing renovations 73340
within the incentive district, the township shall establish 73341
separate accounts for the service payments designated for public 73342
infrastructure improvements and for the service payments 73343
authorized for the purpose of housing renovations.73344

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) or (D) of 73345
this section, money deposited in an account of the township public 73346
improvement tax increment equivalent fund shall be used by the 73347
township to pay the costs of public infrastructure improvements 73348
designated in or the housing renovations authorized by the 73349
resolution with respect to which the account is established, 73350
including any interest on and principal of the notes; in the case 73351
of an account established with respect to a resolution adopted 73352
under division (C) of that section, money in the account shall be 73353
used to finance the public infrastructure improvements designated, 73354
or the housing renovations authorized, for each incentive district 73355
created in the resolution. Money in an account shall not be used 73356
to finance or support housing renovations that take place after 73357
the incentive district has expired.73358

       (C)(1)(a) A township may distribute money in such an account 73359
to any school district in which the exempt property is located in 73360
an amount not to exceed the amount of real property taxes that 73361
such school district would have received from the improvement if 73362
it were not exempt from taxation. The resolution establishing the 73363
fund shall set forth the percentage of such maximum amount that 73364
will be distributed to any affected school district.73365

       (b) A township also may distribute money in such an account 73366
as follows:73367

       (i) To a board of county commissioners, in the amount that is 73368
owed to the board pursuant to division (E) of section 5709.73 of 73369
the Revised Code;73370

       (ii) To a county in accordance with section 5709.913 of the 73371
Revised Code.73372

       (2) Money from an account in a township public improvement 73373
tax increment equivalent fund may be distributed under division 73374
(C)(1)(b) of this section, regardless of the date a resolution was 73375
adopted under section 5709.73 of the Revised Code that prompted 73376
the establishment of the account, even if the resolution was 73377
adopted prior to March 30, 2006.73378

       (D) A board of township trustees that adopted a resolution 73379
under division (B) of section 5709.73 of the Revised Code before 73380
January 1, 19952011, and that, with respect to property exempted 73381
under such a resolution, is party to a hold-harmless or service73382
agreement, may appropriate and expend unencumbered money in the 73383
fund to pay current public safety expenses of the township. A 73384
township appropriating and expending money under this division 73385
shall reimburse the fund for the sum so appropriated and expended 73386
not later than the day the exemption granted under the resolution 73387
expires. For the purposes of this division, a "hold-harmless 73388
agreement" is an agreement with the board of education of a city, 73389
local, or exempted village school district under which the board 73390
of township trustees agrees to compensate the school district for 73391
one hundred per cent of the tax revenue the school district would 73392
have received from improvements to parcels designated in the 73393
resolution were it not for the exemption granted by the 73394
resolution. For the purposes of this division, a "service 73395
agreement" is an agreement with the board of education of a city, 73396
local, or exempted village school district under which the board 73397
of township trustees agrees to compensate the school district for 73398
a portion of the tax revenue the school district would have 73399
received from improvements to parcels designated in the resolution 73400
if not for the exemption granted by the resolution.73401

       (E)(1) A township may use surplus money in the township 73402
public improvement tax increment equivalent fund, or an account of 73403
that fund, to repay a loan or provide matching funds for a grant 73404
awarded to the township under the local government innovation 73405
program created in section 189.02 of the Revised Code.73406

       (2) Any incidental surplus remaining in the township public 73407
improvement tax increment equivalent fund or an account of that 73408
fund upon dissolution of the account or fund shall be used as 73409
provided in division (E)(1) of this section or transferred to the 73410
general fund of the township.73411

       Sec. 5709.80.  (A) The board of county commissioners of a 73412
county that receives service payments in lieu of taxes under 73413
section 5709.79 of the Revised Code shall establish a 73414
redevelopment tax equivalent fund into which those payments shall 73415
be deposited. Separate accounts shall be established in the fund 73416
for each resolution adopted by the board of county commissioners 73417
under section 5709.78 of the Revised Code. If the board of county 73418
commissioners has adopted a resolution under division (B) of that 73419
section, the county shall establish an account for each incentive 73420
district created in that resolution. If a resolution adopted under 73421
division (B) of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code also 73422
authorizes the use of service payments for housing renovations 73423
within the incentive district, the county shall establish separate 73424
accounts for the service payments designated for public 73425
infrastructure improvements and for the service payments 73426
authorized for the purpose of housing renovations.73427

       (B) Moneys deposited into each account of the fund shall be 73428
used by the county to pay the cost of constructing or repairing 73429
the public infrastructure improvements designated in, or the 73430
housing renovations authorized by, the resolution, or for each 73431
incentive district for which the account is established, to pay 73432
the interest on and principal of bonds or notes issued under 73433
division (B) of section 307.082 or division (A) of section 5709.81 73434
of the Revised Code, or for the purposes pledged under division 73435
(B) of section 5709.81 of the Revised Code. Money in an account 73436
shall not be used to finance or support housing renovations that 73437
take place after the incentive district has expired.73438

       (C)(1)(a) The board of county commissioners may distribute 73439
money in an account to any school district in which the exempt 73440
property is located in an amount not to exceed the amount of real 73441
property taxes that such school district would have received from 73442
the improvement if it were not exempt from taxation. The 73443
resolution under which an account is established shall set forth 73444
the percentage of such maximum amount that will be distributed to 73445
any affected school district.73446

       (b) A board of county commissioners also may distribute money 73447
in such an account as follows:73448

       (i) To a board of township trustees or legislative authority 73449
of a municipal corporation, as applicable, in the amount that is 73450
owed to the board of township trustees or legislative authority 73451
pursuant to division (D) of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code;73452

       (ii) To a township in accordance with section 5709.914 of the 73453
Revised Code.73454

       (2) Money from an account in the redevelopment tax equivalent 73455
fund may be distributed under division (C)(1)(b) of this section, 73456
regardless of the date a resolution was adopted under section 73457
5709.78 of the Revised Code that prompted the establishment of the 73458
account, even if the resolution was adopted prior to the effective 73459
date of this amendmentMarch 30, 2006.73460

       (D) An account dissolves upon fulfillment of the purposes for 73461
which money in the account may be used(1) A county may use 73462
surplus money in an account of the redevelopment tax equivalent 73463
fund to repay a loan or provide matching funds for a grant awarded 73464
to the county under the local government innovation program 73465
created in section 189.02 of the Revised Code.73466

       (2) An incidental surplus remaining in an account upon its 73467
dissolution shall be used as provided in division (D)(1) of this 73468
section or transferred to the general fund of the county.73469

       Sec. 5713.012.  (A) For purposes of this section:73470

        (1) "Mass appraisal project" means any sexennial reappraisal, 73471
triennial update, or other revaluation of all real property or the 73472
valuation of newly constructed real property in accordance with 73473
section 5713.01 of the Revised Code. 73474

       (2) "Qualified project manager" means a person who plans, 73475
manages, coordinates, and controls the execution of a mass 73476
appraisal project under the direction of the county auditor and 73477
who has all of the following qualifications:73478

       (a) Has passed a comprehensive final examination that 73479
corresponds to a course, approved by the superintendent of real 73480
estate and professional licensing, that consists of at least 73481
thirty hours of instruction, quizzes, and learning aids. The 73482
superintendent shall not approve a course under this division that 73483
does not address the following topics in both the instruction and 73484
the examination:73485

        (i) Concepts and principles of mass appraisal as they relate 73486
to the assessment of real property for the purposes of ad valorem 73487
taxation;73488

       (ii) Methods of data collection and data management relative 73489
to parcels of real property, including modern alternative data 73490
collection methods and currently utilized computer-assisted mass 73491
appraisal systems;73492

       (iii) Assessment sales-ratio study including various measures 73493
of central tendency, the various measures of dispersion of data 73494
about the mean, median, and dollar-weighted mean, and the 73495
advantages and disadvantages of various analysis techniques;73496

       (iv) Traditional approaches of property valuation, including 73497
the cost approach, the sales comparison approach, and the income 73498
approach, as they are implemented in a mass appraisal project;73499

       (v) Methods and systems for model building and model 73500
calibration as related to mass appraisal of real property;73501

       (vi) Methods of production management and project analysis 73502
such as Gantt charts, program evaluation and review technique 73503
(PERT) charts, frequency distribution charts, line graphs, bar 73504
charts, and scatter diagrams, as they are utilized in the mass 73505
appraisal area.73506

       (b) Has completed at least seven hours of continuing 73507
education courses in mass appraisal during the two-year period 73508
immediately succeeding the year in which the person passed the 73509
examination required in division (A)(2)(a) of this section, and 73510
during each two-year period thereafter.73511

        (B)(1) The county auditor, in acting as the assessor of all 73512
real property in the auditor's county for taxation purposes in 73513
accordance with section 5713.01 of the Revised Code, shall involve 73514
at least one qualified project manager in each mass assessment 73515
project that originates more than two years after the effective 73516
date of the enactment of this section by H.B. 487 of the 129th 73517
general assembly.73518

       (2) The tax commissioner, beginning two years after the 73519
effective date of the enactment of this section by H.B. 487 of the 73520
129th general assembly, shall not approve any contract entered 73521
into by the auditor under division (E) of section 5713.01 of the 73522
Revised Code, with a person to do all or any part of the work 73523
necessary to the performance of the auditor's duties as assessor 73524
unless that person designates an officer or employee of that 73525
person, with the appropriate credentials, to act as a qualified 73526
project manager. 73527

       (3) The tax commissioner, beginning two years after the 73528
effective date of the enactment of this section by H.B. 487 of the 73529
129th general assembly, shall not include any person that has not 73530
designated an officer or employee, with the appropriate 73531
credentials, to act as a qualified project manager on a list 73532
generated by the commissioner for either of the following 73533
purposes:73534

       (a) To assist county auditors in selecting a person to do all 73535
or any part of the work necessary to the performance of the 73536
auditor's duties as assessor of all real property under section 73537
5713.01 of the Revised Code;73538

       (b) To assist the commissioner in the consideration of 73539
whether to approve or disapprove the auditor's application 73540
requesting authority to employ an appraisal firm or individual 73541
appraiser.73542

       Sec. 5713.03.  The county auditor, from the best sources of 73543
information available, shall determine, as nearly as practicable, 73544
the true value of the fee simple estate, as if unencumbered, of73545
each separate tract, lot, or parcel of real property and of 73546
buildings, structures, and improvements located thereon and the 73547
current agricultural use value of land valued for tax purposes in 73548
accordance with section 5713.31 of the Revised Code, in every 73549
district, according to the rules prescribed by this chapter and 73550
section 5715.01 of the Revised Code, and in accordance with the 73551
uniform rules and methods of valuing and assessing real property 73552
as adopted, prescribed, and promulgated by the tax commissioner. 73553
HeThe auditor shall determine the taxable value of all real 73554
property by reducing its true or current agricultural use value by 73555
the percentage ordered by the commissioner. In determining the 73556
true value of any tract, lot, or parcel of real estate under this 73557
section, if such tract, lot, or parcel has been the subject of an 73558
arm's length sale between a willing seller and a willing buyer 73559
within a reasonable length of time, either before or after the tax 73560
lien date, the auditor shallmay consider the sale price of such 73561
tract, lot, or parcel to be the true value for taxation purposes. 73562
However, the sale price in an arm's length transaction between a 73563
willing seller and a willing buyer shall not be considered the 73564
true value of the property sold if subsequent to the sale:73565

       (A) The tract, lot, or parcel of real estate loses value due 73566
to some casualty;73567

       (B) An improvement is added to the property. Nothing in this 73568
section or section 5713.01 of the Revised Code and no rule adopted 73569
under section 5715.01 of the Revised Code shall require the county 73570
auditor to change the true value in money of any property in any 73571
year except a year in which the tax commissioner is required to 73572
determine under section 5715.24 of the Revised Code whether the 73573
property has been assessed as required by law.73574

       The county auditor shall adopt and use a real property record 73575
approved by the commissioner for each tract, lot, or parcel of 73576
real property, setting forth the true and taxable value of land 73577
and, in the case of land valued in accordance with section 5713.31 73578
of the Revised Code, its current agricultural use value, the 73579
number of acres of arable land, permanent pasture land, woodland, 73580
and wasteland in each tract, lot, or parcel. HeThe auditor shall 73581
record pertinent information and the true and taxable value of 73582
each building, structure, or improvement to land, which value 73583
shall be included as a separate part of the total value of each 73584
tract, lot, or parcel of real property.73585

       Sec. 5719.13.  Taxes assessed on the shares of stock of a 73586
dealer in intangibles shall be a lien on such shares from the 73587
first day of January in each year until they are paid. Each dealer 73588
in intangibles shall collect the taxes due from the owners of such 73589
shares and payremit the same to the tax commissioner, who shall 73590
accept the remittance on behalf of the treasurer of state. The 73591
remittance shall be made payable to the treasurer of state and 73592
shall be made in the form prescribed by the commissioner. Any 73593
dealer in intangibles who fails to pay said taxes as provided in 73594
this section shall be liable by way of penalty for the gross 73595
amount of the taxes due from all the owners of shares, and for an 73596
additional amount of one hundred dollars for each day of delay in 73597
the payment of said taxes.73598

       A dealer in intangibles who pays to the treasurer of state73599
the taxes assessed upon its shares in the hands of its 73600
shareholders, as provided in this section, may deduct the amount 73601
thereof from dividends or distributions that are due or thereafter 73602
become due on such shares, and shall have a lien on the shares of 73603
stock and all funds belonging to such shareholders in its 73604
possession, or which come into its possession, for reimbursement 73605
of such tax paid on account of the shareholders, with legal 73606
interest. Such lien may be enforced in any appropriate manner.73607

       Sec. 5725.14. (A) As used in this section and section 5725.15 73608
of the Revised Code:73609

       (1) "Billing address" of a customer means one of the 73610
following:73611

       (a) The customer's address as set forth in any notice, 73612
statement, bill, or similar acknowledgment shall be presumed to be 73613
the address where the customer is located with respect to the 73614
transaction for which the dealer issued the notice, statement, 73615
bill, or acknowledgment.73616

       (b) If the dealer issues any notice, statement, bill, or 73617
similar acknowledgment electronically to an address other than a 73618
street address or post office box address or if the dealer does 73619
not issue such a notice, statement, bill, or acknowledgment, the 73620
customer's street address as set forth in the records of the 73621
dealer at the time of the transaction shall be presumed to be the 73622
address where the customer is located.73623

       (2) "Commissions" includes but is not limited to brokerage 73624
commissions, asset management fees, and similar fees charged in 73625
the regular course of business to a customer for the maintenance 73626
and management of the customer's account.73627

       (3) "Gross receipts" means one of the following:73628

       (a) In the case of a dealer in intangibles principally 73629
engaged in the business of lending money or discounting loans, the 73630
aggregate amount of loans effected or discounted;73631

       (b) In the case of a dealer in intangibles principally 73632
engaged in the business of selling or buying stocks, bonds, or 73633
other similar securities either on the dealer's own account or as 73634
agent for another, the aggregate amount of all commissions 73635
charged.73636

       (B) Each dealer in intangibles shall return to the tax 73637
commissioner between the first and second Mondays of March, 73638
annually, a report exhibiting in detail, and under appropriate 73639
heads, the dealer's resources and liabilities at the close of 73640
business on the thirty-first day of December next preceding, 73641
together with remittance made payable to the treasurer of state of 73642
the tax levied under division (D) of section 5707.03 of the 73643
Revised Code. In the case of an unincorporated dealer in 73644
intangibles, such report shall also exhibit the amount or value as 73645
of the date of conversion of all property within the year 73646
preceding the date of listing, and on or after the first day of 73647
November converted into bonds or other securities not taxed to the 73648
extent such nontaxable bonds or securities may be shown in the 73649
dealer's resources on such date, without deduction for 73650
indebtedness created in the purchase of such nontaxable bonds or 73651
securities.73652

       If a dealer in intangibles maintains separate business 73653
offices, whether within this state only or within and without this 73654
state, the report shall also show the gross receipts from business 73655
done at each such office during the year ending on the 73656
thirty-first day of December next preceding.73657

       For the purposes of this section and section 5725.15 of the 73658
Revised Code, business is considered done at an office when it 73659
originates at such office, but the receipts from business 73660
originating at one office and consummated at another office shall 73661
be divided equitably between such offices.73662

       (C) For the purposes of this section and section 5725.15 of 73663
the Revised Code, in the case of a dealer in intangibles 73664
principally engaged in the business of selling or buying stocks, 73665
bonds, or other similar securities either on the dealer's own 73666
account or as agent for another, the dealer's capital, surplus, 73667
and undivided profits employed in this state shall bear the same 73668
ratio to the dealer's total capital, surplus, and undivided 73669
profits employed everywhere as the amount described in division 73670
(C)(1) of this section bears to the amount described in division 73671
(C)(2) of this section:73672

       (1) The sum of the commissions earned during the year covered 73673
by the reportreturn from transactions with respect to brokerage 73674
accounts owned by customers having billing addresses in this 73675
state;73676

       (2) The sum of the commissions earned during that year from 73677
transactions with respect to brokerage accounts owned by all of 73678
the dealer's customers.73679

       (D) An incorporated dealer in intangibles which owns or 73680
controls fifty-one per cent or more of the common stock of another 73681
incorporated dealer in intangibles may, under uniform regulations 73682
prescribed by the tax commissioner, make a consolidated return for 73683
the purpose of sections 5725.01 to 5725.26, inclusive, of the 73684
Revised Code. In such case the parent corporation making such 73685
return is not required to include in its resources any of the 73686
stocks, securities, or other obligations of its subsidiary 73687
dealers, nor permitted to include in its liabilities any of its 73688
own securities or other obligations belonging to its subsidiaries.73689

       Sec. 5725.15. Upon receiving theThe report required by 73690
section 5725.14 of the Revised Code, the tax commissioner shall73691
ascertain and assessinclude as taxable property all the shares of 73692
such dealersthe dealer in intangibles, the capital stock of which 73693
is divided into shares, representing capital employed in this 73694
state, and the value of the property representing the capital, not 73695
divided into shares, employed in this state by such dealer in 73696
intangibles, according to the aggregate fair value of the capital, 73697
surplus, and undivided profits as shown in such report, including 73698
in the case of an unincorporated dealer, the value of property 73699
converted into nontaxable bonds or securities within the preceding 73700
year, without deduction for indebtedness created in the purchase 73701
of such nontaxable bonds or securities.73702

       The filing by a dealer of the report required by section 73703
5725.14 of the Revised Code shall be the preliminary assessment of 73704
the shares and property listed therein.73705

       If a dealer has separate offices, whether within this state 73706
only or within and without this state, the commissionerdealer73707
shall findlist the amount of capital employed in each office in 73708
this state, which shall bear the same ratio to the entire capital 73709
of such dealer, wherever employed, as the gross receipts of such 73710
office bears to the entire gross receipts of such dealer, wherever 73711
arising.73712

       The aggregate book value of the capital, surplus, and 73713
undivided profits of a dealer in intangibles as shown in such 73714
report shall be taken as the fair value thereof for the purpose of 73715
the assessment required by this section, unless the commissioner 73716
finds that such book value is greater or less than the then fair 73717
value of said capital, surplus, and undivided profits. Claim for 73718
any deduction from book value of capital, surplus, and undivided 73719
profits must be made in writing by the dealer in intangibles at 73720
the time of making histhe dealer's return.73721

       Whenever the commissioner assesses the fair value of the 73722
capital, surplus, and undivided profits of a dealer in intangibles 73723
at an amount in excess of the book value thereof as shown by its 73724
report, or disallows any claim for deduction from book value of 73725
such capital, surplus, and undivided profitslisted in the 73726
dealer's report, or assesses the shares or property of a dealer 73727
that fails to file a return, hethe commissioner shall give notice 73728
and proceed as provided in section 5711.31 of the Revised Code.73729

       Sec. 5725.16.  On or before the first Monday of May, annually 73730
, the tax commissioner shall certify to the treasurer of state the 73731
assessment of the shares or property representing capital, or 73732
apportionment of either, of each dealer in intangibles doing 73733
business in the state, showing separately the amount representing 73734
capital employed in each county.73735

       The treasurer of state shall place the amounts certified on 73736
the intangible property tax list in histhe treasurer of state's73737
office in the names of the dealers represented by those 73738
certificates.73739

       Any certificate of abatement issued pursuant to section 73740
5703.05 of the Revised Code for the overpayment of the tax on 73741
shares or property representing capital of aThe commissioner 73742
shall collect, on behalf of the treasurer, the taxes due on the 73743
assessments certified pursuant to this section, together with any 73744
applicable penalties or interest, in the manner prescribed by 73745
section 5725.22 of the Revised Code. The commissioner shall 73746
immediately forward to the treasurer any payments received under 73747
this section or section 5719.13 of the Revised Code. The treasurer 73748
shall credit all such payments against the appropriate amounts on 73749
the intangible property tax list in the treasurer's office.73750

       A dealer in intangibles may be tendered by the payee or 73751
transferee thereof to the treasurer of state as payment for any 73752
taxes allocable to the county in which the claim fora refund of 73753
any overpayment aroseof the tax levied under division (D) of 73754
section 5707.03 of the Revised Code by filing an application for 73755
final assessment in accordance with section 5711.26 of the Revised 73756
Code.73757

       Sec. 5725.17.  (A) In addition to any other penalty imposed 73758
by this chapter or Chapter 5703. of the Revised Code, the 73759
following penalties shall apply:73760

       (1) If a dealer in intangibles fails to make and furnish to 73761
the tax commissioner the report required by section 5725.14 of the 73762
Revised Code, within the time fixed by that section, a penalty 73763
shall be imposed equal to the greater of fifty dollars per month 73764
or fraction of a month, not to exceed five hundred dollars, or 73765
five per cent per month or fraction of a month, not to exceed 73766
fifty per cent, of the tax required to be shown on the report, for 73767
each month or fraction of a month elapsing between the due date, 73768
including extensions of the due date, and the date on which the 73769
report is filed.73770

       (2) If a dealer in intangibles fails to pay any amounts of 73771
the tax levied by division (D) of section 5707.03 of the Revised 73772
Code by the dates prescribed for payment, a penalty shall be 73773
imposed equal to the greater of the penalty due under division73774
(C)(F) of section 5725.22 of the Revised Code, for which this 73775
penalty shall be a substitute, or two times the interest charged 73776
under section 5725.221 of the Revised Code for the delinquent 73777
payment.73778

       (3) If a dealer in intangibles submits a report required by 73779
section 5725.14 of the Revised Code that is marked, defaced, or 73780
otherwise designed by the dealer to be a frivolous protest or an 73781
attempt to delay or impede the administration of the tax levied by 73782
division (D) of section 5707.03 of the Revised Code, a penalty 73783
shall be imposed equal to the greater of one hundred dollars or 73784
twenty-five per cent of the tax required to be shown on the 73785
report.73786

       (4) If a dealer in intangibles makes a fraudulent attempt to 73787
evade the reporting or payment of the tax levied by division (D) 73788
of section 5707.03 of the Revised Code, a penalty shall be imposed 73789
equal to the greater of one thousand dollars or one hundred per 73790
cent of the tax required to be shown on the report required by 73791
section 5725.14 of the Revised Code.73792

       (5) If any person makes a false or fraudulent claim for 73793
abatement or refund of the tax levied by division (D) of section 73794
5707.03 of the Revised Code, a penalty shall be imposed equal to 73795
the greater of one thousand dollars or one hundred per cent of the 73796
claim. The penalty imposed by this division, any abatement or 73797
refund on the claim, and interest on any refund from the date of 73798
the refund, may be assessed under section 5725.15 of the Revised 73799
Code or added by the treasurer of statetax commissioner as tax, 73800
penalty, and interest due from the tax levied by division (D) of 73801
section 5707.03 of the Revised Code, without regard to whether the 73802
person making the claim is otherwise subject to the tax, and 73803
without regard to any time limitation for assessment.73804

       (B) Each penalty imposed under division (A) of this section 73805
shall be in addition to any other penalty imposed under that 73806
division. All or part of any penalty imposed under division (A) of 73807
this section may be abated by the commissioner or the treasurer of 73808
state, as appropriate.73809

       Sec. 5725.22. (A) The treasurer of state shall maintain an 73810
intangible property tax list of taxes levied by section 5707.03 of 73811
the Revised Code and certified by the tax commissioner pursuant to 73812
sections 5711.13, 5725.08, 5725.16, and 5727.15 of the Revised 73813
Code, and a separate list of taxes levied by section 5725.18 of 73814
the Revised Code and certified by the superintendent of insurance 73815
pursuant to section 5725.20 of the Revised Code. Upon receipt of 73816
any assessment certified to him73817

       (B)(1) With respect to taxes levied under section 5725.18 of 73818
the Revised Code, the treasurer of state, upon receipt of an 73819
assessment, shall compute the taxes at the rates prescribed by law 73820
and enter the taxes on the proper tax list. HeThe treasurer shall 73821
collect, and the taxpayer shall pay, all such taxes and any 73822
interest applicable thereto. Payments may be made by mail, in 73823
person, or by any other means authorized by the treasurer of 73824
state. The treasurer of state shall render a daily itemized 73825
statement to the tax commissionersuperintendent of insurance of 73826
the amount of taxes collected and the name of the domestic 73827
insurance company or assessment certificate number of the person73828
from whom collected. The treasurer of state may adopt rules 73829
concerning the methods and timeliness of paymentpayments under 73830
this division.73831

       (2) With respect to taxes levied under section 5707.03 of the 73832
Revised Code, any assessment certified to the treasurer of state 73833
shall reflect the taxes computed at the rates prescribed by law. 73834
Upon receipt of such an assessment, the treasurer shall enter the 73835
taxes on the proper tax list. The tax commissioner shall collect, 73836
and the taxpayer shall pay, all such taxes and any interest 73837
applicable thereto. Payments may be made by mail, in person, or by 73838
any other means authorized by the commissioner. The commissioner 73839
shall immediately forward to the treasurer any payments received 73840
under this division, together with any information necessary for 73841
the treasurer to properly credit such payments. The commissioner 73842
may adopt rules concerning the method and timeliness of payments 73843
under this division.73844

       (C) Each tax bill issued pursuant to this section shall 73845
separately reflect the taxes due, interest, if any, due date, and 73846
any other information considered necessary. The last day on which 73847
payment may be made without penalty shall be at least twenty but 73848
not more than thirty days from the date of mailing the tax bill. 73849
The treasurer of state or tax commissioner, as appropriate, shall 73850
mail the tax bill, and the mailing thereof shall be prima-facie 73851
evidence of receipt thereof by the taxpayer.73852

       The treasurer of stateor commissioner, as appropriate, shall 73853
refund taxes as provided in this section, but no refund shall be 73854
made to a taxpayer having a delinquent claim certified pursuant to 73855
this section that remains unpaid. The treasurer of stateor 73856
commissioner may consult the attorney general regarding such 73857
claims. Refunds shall be paid from the tax refund fund created by 73858
section 5703.052 of the Revised Code.73859

       (A)(D)(1) Within twenty days after receipt of any preliminary 73860
assessment certified to himof taxes levied under section 5725.18 73861
of the Revised Code, the treasurer of state shall issue a tax 73862
bill, but if such preliminary assessment reflects a late filed tax 73863
return, the treasurer of state shall add interest as provided in 73864
division (A) of section 5725.221 of the Revised Code and issue a 73865
tax bill.73866

       (B)(2) Within twenty days after receipt of any amended or 73867
final assessment certified to himof taxes levied under section 73868
5725.18 of the Revised Code, the treasurer of state shall 73869
ascertain the difference between the total taxes computed on such 73870
assessment and the total taxes computed on the most recent 73871
assessment certified for the same tax year. If the difference is a 73872
deficiency, the treasurer of state shall add interest as provided 73873
in division (B)(1) of section 5725.221 of the Revised Code and 73874
issue a tax bill. If the difference is an excess, the treasurer of 73875
state shall add interest as provided in division (B)(2) of section 73876
5725.221 of the Revised Code and certify the name of the taxpayer 73877
and the amount to be refunded to the director of budget and 73878
management for payment to the taxpayer. If the taxpayer has a 73879
deficiency for one tax year and an excess for another tax year, or 73880
any combination thereof for more than two tax years, the treasurer 73881
of state may determine the net result after adding interest, if 73882
applicable, and, depending on such result, proceed to mail a tax 73883
bill or certify a refund.73884

       (C)(E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this 73885
section, within twenty days after certifying to the treasurer of 73886
state an amended or final assessment, or a preliminary assessment 73887
of a dealer in intangibles that has failed to file a report or 73888
disclose taxable property, the tax commissioner shall ascertain 73889
the difference between the total taxes computed on such assessment 73890
and the total taxes computed on the most recent assessment 73891
certified for the same tax year, if any. If the difference is a 73892
deficiency, the commissioner shall add interest as provided in 73893
division (B)(1) of section 5725.221 of the Revised Code and issue 73894
a tax bill. If the difference is an excess, the commissioner shall 73895
add interest as provided in division (B)(2) of section 5725.221 of 73896
the Revised Code and certify the name of the taxpayer and the 73897
amount to be refunded to the director of budget and management for 73898
payment to the taxpayer. If the taxpayer has a deficiency for one 73899
tax year and excess for another tax year, or any combination 73900
thereof for more than two tax years, the commissioner may 73901
determine the net result after adding interest, if applicable, 73902
and, depending on such result, proceed to mail a tax bill or 73903
certify a refund.73904

       (2) The tax commissioner may issue a tax bill for any 73905
deficiency resulting from an assessment at the time the 73906
commissioner issues the assessment.73907

        (F) If a taxpayer fails to pay all taxes and interest, if 73908
any, on or before the due date shown on the tax bill but makes 73909
payment within ten calendar days of such date, the treasurer of 73910
state or tax commissioner, as appropriate, shall add a penalty 73911
equal to five per cent of the taxes due. If payment is not made 73912
within ten days of such date, the treasurer of stateor 73913
commissioner shall add a penalty equal to ten per cent of the 73914
taxes due. The treasurer of stateor commissioner shall prepare a 73915
delinquent claim for each tax bill on which penalties were added 73916
and certify such claims to the attorney general for collection. 73917
The attorney general shall transmit a copy of each claim certified 73918
by the treasurer to the tax commissioner or the superintendent of 73919
insurance and. For each claim certified by the treasurer or 73920
commissioner, the attorney general shall proceed to collect the 73921
delinquent taxes, penalties, and interest thereon in the manner 73922
prescribed by law.73923

       Sec. 5725.221.  For the purposes of this section, interest 73924
shall be computed at a rate per calendar month, rounded to the 73925
nearest one-hundredth of one per cent, equal to one-twelfth of the 73926
rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code 73927
for the calendar year that includes the month for which the 73928
interest accrues.73929

       (A) When taxes levied by section 3737.71, 5707.03, or 5725.18 73930
of the Revised Code are assessed as the result of a tax return 73931
being filed late, the treasurer of state or tax commissioner, as 73932
appropriate, shall add interest to the taxes due. The interest 73933
shall accrue from the first day of the month following the last 73934
day on which such taxes were required to be paid, had the 73935
assessment been certified by the date prescribed, to the last day 73936
of the month preceding the date on which the assessment was 73937
certified, and shall be computed on the taxes due.73938

       (B) If an assessment has been certified pursuant to section 73939
5711.13, 5725.08, 5725.16, 5725.20, or 5725.222 of the Revised 73940
Code and an amended or final assessment is certified for the same 73941
taxpayer and the same tax year, the treasurer of state or tax 73942
commissioner, as appropriate, shall add interest to the deficiency 73943
or excess. The interest shall be computed on the excess or 73944
deficiency, and shall be accrued in the following manner:73945

       (1) On a deficiency, interest shall accrue from the first day 73946
of the month following the last day on which the previous 73947
assessment was required to be paid, to the last day of the month 73948
preceding the date on which the amended or final assessment is 73949
certified;73950

       (2) On an excess, interest shall be allowed from the first 73951
day of the month following the date of payment of the previous 73952
assessment, to the last day of the month preceding the date on 73953
which the amended or final assessment is certified.73954

       Sec. 5731.39.  (A) No corporation organized or existing under 73955
the laws of this state shall transfer on its books or issue a new 73956
certificate for any share of its capital stock registered in the 73957
name of a decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of 73958
a decedent and another person or persons, without the written 73959
consent of the tax commissioner.73960

       (B) No safe deposit company, trust company, financial 73961
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 73962
Revised Code or other corporation or person, having in possession, 73963
control, or custody a deposit standing in the name of a decedent, 73964
or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a decedent and 73965
another person or persons, shall deliver or transfer an amount in 73966
excess of three-fourths of the total value of such deposit, 73967
including accrued interest and dividends, as of the date of 73968
decedent's death, without the written consent of the tax 73969
commissioner. The written consent of the tax commissioner need not 73970
be obtained prior to the delivery or transfer of amounts having a 73971
value of three-fourths or less of said total value.73972

       (C) No life insurance company shall pay the proceeds of an 73973
annuity or matured endowment contract, or of a life insurance 73974
contract payable to the estate of a decedent, or of any other 73975
insurance contract taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 73976
Code, without the written consent of the tax commissioner. Any 73977
life insurance company may pay the proceeds of any insurance 73978
contract not specified in this division (C) without the written 73979
consent of the tax commissioner.73980

       (D) No trust company or other corporation or person shall pay 73981
the proceeds of any death benefit, retirement, pension or profit 73982
sharing plan in excess of two thousand dollars, without the 73983
written consent of the tax commissioner. Such trust company or 73984
other corporation or person, however, may pay the proceeds of any 73985
death benefit, retirement, pension, or profit-sharing plan which 73986
consists of insurance on the life of the decedent payable to a 73987
beneficiary other than the estate of the insured without the 73988
written consent of the tax commissioner.73989

       (E) No safe deposit company, trust company, financial 73990
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 73991
Revised Code, or other corporation or person, having in 73992
possession, control, or custody securities, assets, or other 73993
property (including the shares of the capital stock of, or other 73994
interest in, such safe deposit company, trust company, financial 73995
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 73996
Revised Code, or other corporation), standing in the name of a 73997
decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a decedent 73998
and another person or persons, and the transfer of which is 73999
taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code, shall deliver or 74000
transfer any such securities, assets, or other property which have 74001
a value as of the date of decedent's death in excess of 74002
three-fourths of the total value thereof, without the written 74003
consent of the tax commissioner. The written consent of the tax 74004
commissioner need not be obtained prior to the delivery or 74005
transfer of any such securities, assets, or other property having 74006
a value of three-fourths or less of said total value.74007

       (F) No safe deposit company, financial institution as defined 74008
in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the Revised Code, or other 74009
corporation or person having possession or control of a safe 74010
deposit box or similar receptacle standing in the name of a 74011
decedent or in the name of the decedent and another person or 74012
persons, or to which the decedent had a right of access, except 74013
when such safe deposit box or other receptacle stands in the name 74014
of a corporation or partnership, or in the name of the decedent as 74015
guardian or executor, shall deliver any of the contents thereof 74016
unless the safe deposit box or similar receptacle has been opened 74017
and inventoried in the presence of the tax commissioner or the 74018
commissioner's agent, and a written consent to transfer issued; 74019
provided, however, that a safe deposit company, financial 74020
institution, or other corporation or person having possession or 74021
control of a safe deposit box may deliver wills, deeds to burial 74022
lots, and insurance policies to a representative of the decedent, 74023
but that a representative of the safe deposit company, financial 74024
institution, or other corporation or person must supervise the 74025
opening of the box and make a written record of the wills, deeds, 74026
and policies removed. Such written record shall be included in the 74027
tax commissioner's inventory records.74028

       (G) Notwithstanding any provision of this section:74029

       (1) The tax commissioner may authorize any delivery or 74030
transfer or waive any of the foregoing requirements under such 74031
terms and conditions as the commissioner may prescribe;74032

       (2) An adult care facility, as defined in section 5119.70 of 74033
the Revised Code, or aA home, as defined in section 3721.10 of 74034
the Revised Code, or a residential facility licensed under section 74035
5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 74036
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 74037
unrelated adults, may transfer or use the money in a personal 74038
needs allowance account in accordance with section 5111.113 of the 74039
Revised Code without the written consent of the tax commissioner, 74040
and without the account having been opened and inventoried in the 74041
presence of the commissioner or the commissioner's agent. 74042

       Failure to comply with this section shall render such safe 74043
deposit company, trust company, life insurance company, financial 74044
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 74045
Revised Code, or other corporation or person liable for the amount 74046
of the taxes and interest due under the provisions of Chapter 74047
5731. of the Revised Code on the transfer of such stock, deposit, 74048
proceeds of an annuity or matured endowment contract or of a life 74049
insurance contract payable to the estate of a decedent, or other 74050
insurance contract taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 74051
Code, proceeds of any death benefit, retirement, pension, or 74052
profit sharing plan in excess of two thousand dollars, or 74053
securities, assets, or other property of any resident decedent, 74054
and in addition thereto, to a penalty of not less than five 74055
hundred or more than five thousand dollars.74056

       Sec. 5733.064.  There is hereby allowed a credit against the 74057
tax imposed under sections 5733.06, 5733.065, and 5733.066 of the 74058
Revised Code. The credit shall equal the lesser of fifty per cent 74059
of any cash donations made during the taxable year by the taxpayer 74060
to an Ohio corporation organized prior to January 1, 1987, whose 74061
sole purpose is to promote and encourage recycling and that has 74062
been determined by the internal revenue service to be a nonprofit 74063
corporation regardless of whether the nonprofit corporation 74064
received a grant under section 1502.053736.05 of the Revised 74065
Code, or to municipal corporations, counties, townships, park 74066
districts, and boards of education that received grants pursuant 74067
to that section, or one-half of the amount of the taxpayer's 74068
additional tax liability for the tax year resulting from the 74069
additional rates imposed by sections 5733.065 and 5733.066 of the 74070
Revised Code to provide funding for the division of recycling and 74071
litter prevention under Chapter 1502.3736. of the Revised Code. 74072
The taxpayer shall claim the nonrefundable credit in the order 74073
required under section 5733.98 of the Revised Code.74074

       The tax commissioner may require the taxpayer to furnish such 74075
information as is necessary to support a claim for a credit under 74076
this section, and no credit shall be allowed unless the 74077
information is provided.74078

       Sec. 5739.01.  As used in this chapter:74079

       (A) "Person" includes individuals, receivers, assignees, 74080
trustees in bankruptcy, estates, firms, partnerships, 74081
associations, joint-stock companies, joint ventures, clubs, 74082
societies, corporations, the state and its political subdivisions, 74083
and combinations of individuals of any form.74084

       (B) "Sale" and "selling" include all of the following 74085
transactions for a consideration in any manner, whether absolutely 74086
or conditionally, whether for a price or rental, in money or by 74087
exchange, and by any means whatsoever:74088

       (1) All transactions by which title or possession, or both, 74089
of tangible personal property, is or is to be transferred, or a 74090
license to use or consume tangible personal property is or is to 74091
be granted;74092

       (2) All transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to 74093
be furnished to transient guests;74094

       (3) All transactions by which:74095

       (a) An item of tangible personal property is or is to be 74096
repaired, except property, the purchase of which would not be 74097
subject to the tax imposed by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code;74098

       (b) An item of tangible personal property is or is to be 74099
installed, except property, the purchase of which would not be 74100
subject to the tax imposed by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code 74101
or property that is or is to be incorporated into and will become 74102
a part of a production, transmission, transportation, or 74103
distribution system for the delivery of a public utility service;74104

       (c) The service of washing, cleaning, waxing, polishing, or 74105
painting a motor vehicle is or is to be furnished;74106

       (d) Until August 1, 2003, industrial laundry cleaning 74107
services are or are to be provided and, on and after August 1, 74108
2003, laundry and dry cleaning services are or are to be provided;74109

       (e) Automatic data processing, computer services, or 74110
electronic information services are or are to be provided for use 74111
in business when the true object of the transaction is the receipt 74112
by the consumer of automatic data processing, computer services, 74113
or electronic information services rather than the receipt of 74114
personal or professional services to which automatic data 74115
processing, computer services, or electronic information services 74116
are incidental or supplemental. Notwithstanding any other 74117
provision of this chapter, such transactions that occur between 74118
members of an affiliated group are not sales. An "affiliated 74119
group" means two or more persons related in such a way that one 74120
person owns or controls the business operation of another member 74121
of the group. In the case of corporations with stock, one 74122
corporation owns or controls another if it owns more than fifty 74123
per cent of the other corporation's common stock with voting 74124
rights.74125

       (f) Telecommunications service, including prepaid calling 74126
service, prepaid wireless calling service, or ancillary service, 74127
is or is to be provided, but not including coin-operated telephone 74128
service;74129

       (g) Landscaping and lawn care service is or is to be 74130
provided;74131

       (h) Private investigation and security service is or is to be 74132
provided;74133

       (i) Information services or tangible personal property is 74134
provided or ordered by means of a nine hundred telephone call;74135

       (j) Building maintenance and janitorial service is or is to 74136
be provided;74137

       (k) Employment service is or is to be provided;74138

       (l) Employment placement service is or is to be provided;74139

       (m) Exterminating service is or is to be provided;74140

       (n) Physical fitness facility service is or is to be 74141
provided;74142

       (o) Recreation and sports club service is or is to be 74143
provided;74144

       (p) On and after August 1, 2003, satellite broadcasting 74145
service is or is to be provided;74146

       (q) On and after August 1, 2003, personal care service is or 74147
is to be provided to an individual. As used in this division, 74148
"personal care service" includes skin care, the application of 74149
cosmetics, manicuring, pedicuring, hair removal, tattooing, body 74150
piercing, tanning, massage, and other similar services. "Personal 74151
care service" does not include a service provided by or on the 74152
order of a licensed physician or licensed chiropractor, or the 74153
cutting, coloring, or styling of an individual's hair.74154

       (r) On and after August 1, 2003, the transportation of 74155
persons by motor vehicle or aircraft is or is to be provided, when 74156
the transportation is entirely within this state, except for 74157
transportation provided by an ambulance service, by a transit bus, 74158
as defined in section 5735.01 of the Revised Code, and 74159
transportation provided by a citizen of the United States holding 74160
a certificate of public convenience and necessity issued under 49 74161
U.S.C. 41102;74162

       (s) On and after August 1, 2003, motor vehicle towing service 74163
is or is to be provided. As used in this division, "motor vehicle 74164
towing service" means the towing or conveyance of a wrecked, 74165
disabled, or illegally parked motor vehicle.74166

        (t) On and after August 1, 2003, snow removal service is or 74167
is to be provided. As used in this division, "snow removal 74168
service" means the removal of snow by any mechanized means, but 74169
does not include the providing of such service by a person that 74170
has less than five thousand dollars in sales of such service 74171
during the calendar year.74172

       (u) Electronic publishing service is or is to be provided to 74173
a consumer for use in business, except that such transactions 74174
occurring between members of an affiliated group, as defined in 74175
division (B)(3)(e) of this section, are not sales.74176

       (4) All transactions by which printed, imprinted, 74177
overprinted, lithographic, multilithic, blueprinted, photostatic, 74178
or other productions or reproductions of written or graphic matter 74179
are or are to be furnished or transferred;74180

       (5) The production or fabrication of tangible personal 74181
property for a consideration for consumers who furnish either 74182
directly or indirectly the materials used in the production of 74183
fabrication work; and include the furnishing, preparing, or 74184
serving for a consideration of any tangible personal property 74185
consumed on the premises of the person furnishing, preparing, or 74186
serving such tangible personal property. Except as provided in 74187
section 5739.03 of the Revised Code, a construction contract 74188
pursuant to which tangible personal property is or is to be 74189
incorporated into a structure or improvement on and becoming a 74190
part of real property is not a sale of such tangible personal 74191
property. The construction contractor is the consumer of such 74192
tangible personal property, provided that the sale and 74193
installation of carpeting, the sale and installation of 74194
agricultural land tile, the sale and erection or installation of 74195
portable grain bins, or the provision of landscaping and lawn care 74196
service and the transfer of property as part of such service is 74197
never a construction contract.74198

       As used in division (B)(5) of this section:74199

       (a) "Agricultural land tile" means fired clay or concrete 74200
tile, or flexible or rigid perforated plastic pipe or tubing, 74201
incorporated or to be incorporated into a subsurface drainage 74202
system appurtenant to land used or to be used primarily in 74203
production by farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. 74204
The term does not include such materials when they are or are to 74205
be incorporated into a drainage system appurtenant to a building 74206
or structure even if the building or structure is used or to be 74207
used in such production.74208

       (b) "Portable grain bin" means a structure that is used or to 74209
be used by a person engaged in farming or agriculture to shelter 74210
the person's grain and that is designed to be disassembled without 74211
significant damage to its component parts.74212

       (6) All transactions in which all of the shares of stock of a 74213
closely held corporation are transferred, if the corporation is 74214
not engaging in business and its entire assets consist of boats, 74215
planes, motor vehicles, or other tangible personal property 74216
operated primarily for the use and enjoyment of the shareholders;74217

       (7) All transactions in which a warranty, maintenance or 74218
service contract, or similar agreement by which the vendor of the 74219
warranty, contract, or agreement agrees to repair or maintain the 74220
tangible personal property of the consumer is or is to be 74221
provided;74222

       (8) The transfer of copyrighted motion picture films used 74223
solely for advertising purposes, except that the transfer of such 74224
films for exhibition purposes is not a sale;74225

       (9) On and after August 1, 2003, all transactions by which 74226
tangible personal property is or is to be stored, except such 74227
property that the consumer of the storage holds for sale in the 74228
regular course of business;74229

       (10) All transactions in which "guaranteed auto protection" 74230
is provided whereby a person promises to pay to the consumer the 74231
difference between the amount the consumer receives from motor 74232
vehicle insurance and the amount the consumer owes to a person 74233
holding title to or a lien on the consumer's motor vehicle in the 74234
event the consumer's motor vehicle suffers a total loss under the 74235
terms of the motor vehicle insurance policy or is stolen and not 74236
recovered, if the protection and its price are included in the 74237
purchase or lease agreement;74238

       (11)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(11)(b) of this 74239
section, on and after October 1, 2009, all transactions by which 74240
health care services are paid for, reimbursed, provided, 74241
delivered, arranged for, or otherwise made available by a medicaid 74242
health insuring corporation pursuant to the corporation's contract 74243
with the state.74244

       (b) If the centers for medicare and medicaid services of the 74245
United States department of health and human services determines 74246
that the taxation of transactions described in division (B)(11)(a) 74247
of this section constitutes an impermissible health care-related 74248
tax under section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 74249
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended, and regulations 74250
adopted thereunder, the director of job and family services shall 74251
notify the tax commissioner of that determination. Beginning with 74252
the first day of the month following that notification, the 74253
transactions described in division (B)(11)(a) of this section are 74254
not sales for the purposes of this chapter or Chapter 5741. of the 74255
Revised Code. The tax commissioner shall order that the collection 74256
of taxes under sections 5739.02, 5739.021, 5739.023, 5739.026, 74257
5741.02, 5741.021, 5741.022, and 5741.023 of the Revised Code 74258
shall cease for transactions occurring on or after that date.74259

       Except as provided in this section, "sale" and "selling" do 74260
not include transfers of interest in leased property where the 74261
original lessee and the terms of the original lease agreement 74262
remain unchanged, or professional, insurance, or personal service 74263
transactions that involve the transfer of tangible personal 74264
property as an inconsequential element, for which no separate 74265
charges are made.74266

       (C) "Vendor" means the person providing the service or by 74267
whom the transfer effected or license given by a sale is or is to 74268
be made or given and, for sales described in division (B)(3)(i) of 74269
this section, the telecommunications service vendor that provides 74270
the nine hundred telephone service; if two or more persons are 74271
engaged in business at the same place of business under a single 74272
trade name in which all collections on account of sales by each 74273
are made, such persons shall constitute a single vendor.74274

       Physicians, dentists, hospitals, and veterinarians who are 74275
engaged in selling tangible personal property as received from 74276
others, such as eyeglasses, mouthwashes, dentifrices, or similar 74277
articles, are vendors. Veterinarians who are engaged in 74278
transferring to others for a consideration drugs, the dispensing 74279
of which does not require an order of a licensed veterinarian or 74280
physician under federal law, are vendors.74281

       (D)(1) "Consumer" means the person for whom the service is 74282
provided, to whom the transfer effected or license given by a sale 74283
is or is to be made or given, to whom the service described in 74284
division (B)(3)(f) or (i) of this section is charged, or to whom 74285
the admission is granted.74286

       (2) Physicians, dentists, hospitals, and blood banks operated 74287
by nonprofit institutions and persons licensed to practice 74288
veterinary medicine, surgery, and dentistry are consumers of all 74289
tangible personal property and services purchased by them in 74290
connection with the practice of medicine, dentistry, the rendition 74291
of hospital or blood bank service, or the practice of veterinary 74292
medicine, surgery, and dentistry. In addition to being consumers 74293
of drugs administered by them or by their assistants according to 74294
their direction, veterinarians also are consumers of drugs that 74295
under federal law may be dispensed only by or upon the order of a 74296
licensed veterinarian or physician, when transferred by them to 74297
others for a consideration to provide treatment to animals as 74298
directed by the veterinarian.74299

       (3) A person who performs a facility management, or similar 74300
service contract for a contractee is a consumer of all tangible 74301
personal property and services purchased for use in connection 74302
with the performance of such contract, regardless of whether title 74303
to any such property vests in the contractee. The purchase of such 74304
property and services is not subject to the exception for resale 74305
under division (E)(1) of this section.74306

       (4)(a) In the case of a person who purchases printed matter 74307
for the purpose of distributing it or having it distributed to the 74308
public or to a designated segment of the public, free of charge, 74309
that person is the consumer of that printed matter, and the 74310
purchase of that printed matter for that purpose is a sale.74311

       (b) In the case of a person who produces, rather than 74312
purchases, printed matter for the purpose of distributing it or 74313
having it distributed to the public or to a designated segment of 74314
the public, free of charge, that person is the consumer of all 74315
tangible personal property and services purchased for use or 74316
consumption in the production of that printed matter. That person 74317
is not entitled to claim exemption under division (B)(42)(f) of 74318
section 5739.02 of the Revised Code for any material incorporated 74319
into the printed matter or any equipment, supplies, or services 74320
primarily used to produce the printed matter.74321

       (c) The distribution of printed matter to the public or to a 74322
designated segment of the public, free of charge, is not a sale to 74323
the members of the public to whom the printed matter is 74324
distributed or to any persons who purchase space in the printed 74325
matter for advertising or other purposes.74326

       (5) A person who makes sales of any of the services listed in 74327
division (B)(3) of this section is the consumer of any tangible 74328
personal property used in performing the service. The purchase of 74329
that property is not subject to the resale exception under 74330
division (E)(1) of this section.74331

       (6) A person who engages in highway transportation for hire 74332
is the consumer of all packaging materials purchased by that 74333
person and used in performing the service, except for packaging 74334
materials sold by such person in a transaction separate from the 74335
service.74336

       (7) In the case of a transaction for health care services 74337
under division (B)(11) of this section, a medicaid health insuring 74338
corporation is the consumer of such services. The purchase of such 74339
services by a medicaid health insuring corporation is not subject 74340
to the exception for resale under division (E)(1) of this section 74341
or to the exemptions provided under divisions (B)(12), (18), (19), 74342
and (22) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code.74343

       (E) "Retail sale" and "sales at retail" include all sales, 74344
except those in which the purpose of the consumer is to resell the 74345
thing transferred or benefit of the service provided, by a person 74346
engaging in business, in the form in which the same is, or is to 74347
be, received by the person.74348

       (F) "Business" includes any activity engaged in by any person 74349
with the object of gain, benefit, or advantage, either direct or 74350
indirect. "Business" does not include the activity of a person in 74351
managing and investing the person's own funds.74352

       (G) "Engaging in business" means commencing, conducting, or 74353
continuing in business, and liquidating a business when the 74354
liquidator thereof holds itself out to the public as conducting 74355
such business. Making a casual sale is not engaging in business.74356

       (H)(1)(a) "Price," except as provided in divisions (H)(2), 74357
(3), and (4) of this section, means the total amount of 74358
consideration, including cash, credit, property, and services, for 74359
which tangible personal property or services are sold, leased, or 74360
rented, valued in money, whether received in money or otherwise, 74361
without any deduction for any of the following:74362

       (i) The vendor's cost of the property sold;74363

       (ii) The cost of materials used, labor or service costs, 74364
interest, losses, all costs of transportation to the vendor, all 74365
taxes imposed on the vendor, including the tax imposed under 74366
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, and any other expense of the 74367
vendor;74368

       (iii) Charges by the vendor for any services necessary to 74369
complete the sale;74370

       (iv) On and after August 1, 2003, delivery charges. As used 74371
in this division, "delivery charges" means charges by the vendor 74372
for preparation and delivery to a location designated by the 74373
consumer of tangible personal property or a service, including 74374
transportation, shipping, postage, handling, crating, and packing.74375

       (v) Installation charges;74376

       (vi) Credit for any trade-in.74377

       (b) "Price" includes consideration received by the vendor 74378
from a third party, if the vendor actually receives the 74379
consideration from a party other than the consumer, and the 74380
consideration is directly related to a price reduction or discount 74381
on the sale; the vendor has an obligation to pass the price 74382
reduction or discount through to the consumer; the amount of the 74383
consideration attributable to the sale is fixed and determinable 74384
by the vendor at the time of the sale of the item to the consumer; 74385
and one of the following criteria is met:74386

       (i) The consumer presents a coupon, certificate, or other 74387
document to the vendor to claim a price reduction or discount 74388
where the coupon, certificate, or document is authorized, 74389
distributed, or granted by a third party with the understanding 74390
that the third party will reimburse any vendor to whom the coupon, 74391
certificate, or document is presented;74392

       (ii) The consumer identifies the consumer's self to the 74393
seller as a member of a group or organization entitled to a price 74394
reduction or discount. A preferred customer card that is available 74395
to any patron does not constitute membership in such a group or 74396
organization.74397

       (iii) The price reduction or discount is identified as a 74398
third party price reduction or discount on the invoice received by 74399
the consumer, or on a coupon, certificate, or other document 74400
presented by the consumer.74401

       (c) "Price" does not include any of the following:74402

       (i) Discounts, including cash, term, or coupons that are not 74403
reimbursed by a third party that are allowed by a vendor and taken 74404
by a consumer on a sale;74405

       (ii) Interest, financing, and carrying charges from credit 74406
extended on the sale of tangible personal property or services, if 74407
the amount is separately stated on the invoice, bill of sale, or 74408
similar document given to the purchaser;74409

       (iii) Any taxes legally imposed directly on the consumer that 74410
are separately stated on the invoice, bill of sale, or similar 74411
document given to the consumer. For the purpose of this division, 74412
the tax imposed under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code is not a 74413
tax directly on the consumer, even if the tax or a portion thereof 74414
is separately stated.74415

       (iv) Notwithstanding divisions (H)(1)(b)(i) to (iii) of this 74416
section, any discount allowed by an automobile manufacturer to its 74417
employee, or to the employee of a supplier, on the purchase of a 74418
new motor vehicle from a new motor vehicle dealer in this state.74419

       (v) The dollar value of a gift card that is not sold by a 74420
vendor or purchased by a consumer and that is redeemed by the 74421
consumer in purchasing tangible personal property or services if 74422
the vendor is not reimbursed and does not receive compensation 74423
from a third party to cover all or part of the gift card value. 74424
For the purposes of this division, a gift card is not sold by a 74425
vendor or purchased by a consumer if it is distributed pursuant to 74426
an awards, loyalty, or promotional program. Past and present 74427
purchases of tangible personal property or services by the 74428
consumer shall not be treated as consideration exchanged for a 74429
gift card.74430

       (2) In the case of a sale of any new motor vehicle by a new 74431
motor vehicle dealer, as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised 74432
Code, in which another motor vehicle is accepted by the dealer as 74433
part of the consideration received, "price" has the same meaning 74434
as in division (H)(1) of this section, reduced by the credit 74435
afforded the consumer by the dealer for the motor vehicle received 74436
in trade.74437

       (3) In the case of a sale of any watercraft or outboard motor 74438
by a watercraft dealer licensed in accordance with section 74439
1547.543 of the Revised Code, in which another watercraft, 74440
watercraft and trailer, or outboard motor is accepted by the 74441
dealer as part of the consideration received, "price" has the same 74442
meaning as in division (H)(1) of this section, reduced by the 74443
credit afforded the consumer by the dealer for the watercraft, 74444
watercraft and trailer, or outboard motor received in trade. As 74445
used in this division, "watercraft" includes an outdrive unit 74446
attached to the watercraft.74447

       (4) In the case of transactions for health care services 74448
under division (B)(11) of this section, "price" means the amount 74449
of managed care premiums received each month by a medicaid health 74450
insuring corporation.74451

       (I) "Receipts" means the total amount of the prices of the 74452
sales of vendors, provided that the dollar value of gift cards 74453
distributed pursuant to an awards, loyalty, or promotional 74454
program, and cash discounts allowed and taken on sales at the time 74455
they are consummated are not included, minus any amount deducted 74456
as a bad debt pursuant to section 5739.121 of the Revised Code. 74457
"Receipts" does not include the sale price of property returned or 74458
services rejected by consumers when the full sale price and tax 74459
are refunded either in cash or by credit.74460

       (J) "Place of business" means any location at which a person 74461
engages in business.74462

       (K) "Premises" includes any real property or portion thereof 74463
upon which any person engages in selling tangible personal 74464
property at retail or making retail sales and also includes any 74465
real property or portion thereof designated for, or devoted to, 74466
use in conjunction with the business engaged in by such person.74467

       (L) "Casual sale" means a sale of an item of tangible 74468
personal property that was obtained by the person making the sale, 74469
through purchase or otherwise, for the person's own use and was 74470
previously subject to any state's taxing jurisdiction on its sale 74471
or use, and includes such items acquired for the seller's use that 74472
are sold by an auctioneer employed directly by the person for such 74473
purpose, provided the location of such sales is not the 74474
auctioneer's permanent place of business. As used in this 74475
division, "permanent place of business" includes any location 74476
where such auctioneer has conducted more than two auctions during 74477
the year.74478

       (M) "Hotel" means every establishment kept, used, maintained, 74479
advertised, or held out to the public to be a place where sleeping 74480
accommodations are offered to guests, in which five or more rooms 74481
are used for the accommodation of such guests, whether the rooms 74482
are in one or several structures, except as otherwise provided in 74483
division (G) of section 5739.09 of the Revised Code.74484

       (N) "Transient guests" means persons occupying a room or 74485
rooms for sleeping accommodations for less than thirty consecutive 74486
days.74487

       (O) "Making retail sales" means the effecting of transactions 74488
wherein one party is obligated to pay the price and the other 74489
party is obligated to provide a service or to transfer title to or 74490
possession of the item sold. "Making retail sales" does not 74491
include the preliminary acts of promoting or soliciting the retail 74492
sales, other than the distribution of printed matter which 74493
displays or describes and prices the item offered for sale, nor 74494
does it include delivery of a predetermined quantity of tangible 74495
personal property or transportation of property or personnel to or 74496
from a place where a service is performed, regardless of whether 74497
the vendor is a delivery vendor.74498

       (P) "Used directly in the rendition of a public utility 74499
service" means that property that is to be incorporated into and 74500
will become a part of the consumer's production, transmission, 74501
transportation, or distribution system and that retains its 74502
classification as tangible personal property after such 74503
incorporation; fuel or power used in the production, transmission, 74504
transportation, or distribution system; and tangible personal 74505
property used in the repair and maintenance of the production, 74506
transmission, transportation, or distribution system, including 74507
only such motor vehicles as are specially designed and equipped 74508
for such use. Tangible personal property and services used 74509
primarily in providing highway transportation for hire are not 74510
used directly in the rendition of a public utility service. In 74511
this definition, "public utility" includes a citizen of the United 74512
States holding, and required to hold, a certificate of public 74513
convenience and necessity issued under 49 U.S.C. 41102.74514

       (Q) "Refining" means removing or separating a desirable 74515
product from raw or contaminated materials by distillation or 74516
physical, mechanical, or chemical processes.74517

       (R) "Assembly" and "assembling" mean attaching or fitting 74518
together parts to form a product, but do not include packaging a 74519
product.74520

       (S) "Manufacturing operation" means a process in which 74521
materials are changed, converted, or transformed into a different 74522
state or form from which they previously existed and includes 74523
refining materials, assembling parts, and preparing raw materials 74524
and parts by mixing, measuring, blending, or otherwise committing 74525
such materials or parts to the manufacturing process. 74526
"Manufacturing operation" does not include packaging.74527

       (T) "Fiscal officer" means, with respect to a regional 74528
transit authority, the secretary-treasurer thereof, and with 74529
respect to a county that is a transit authority, the fiscal 74530
officer of the county transit board if one is appointed pursuant 74531
to section 306.03 of the Revised Code or the county auditor if the 74532
board of county commissioners operates the county transit system.74533

       (U) "Transit authority" means a regional transit authority 74534
created pursuant to section 306.31 of the Revised Code or a county 74535
in which a county transit system is created pursuant to section 74536
306.01 of the Revised Code. For the purposes of this chapter, a 74537
transit authority must extend to at least the entire area of a 74538
single county. A transit authority that includes territory in more 74539
than one county must include all the area of the most populous 74540
county that is a part of such transit authority. County population 74541
shall be measured by the most recent census taken by the United 74542
States census bureau.74543

       (V) "Legislative authority" means, with respect to a regional 74544
transit authority, the board of trustees thereof, and with respect 74545
to a county that is a transit authority, the board of county 74546
commissioners.74547

       (W) "Territory of the transit authority" means all of the 74548
area included within the territorial boundaries of a transit 74549
authority as they from time to time exist. Such territorial 74550
boundaries must at all times include all the area of a single 74551
county or all the area of the most populous county that is a part 74552
of such transit authority. County population shall be measured by 74553
the most recent census taken by the United States census bureau.74554

       (X) "Providing a service" means providing or furnishing 74555
anything described in division (B)(3) of this section for 74556
consideration.74557

       (Y)(1)(a) "Automatic data processing" means processing of 74558
others' data, including keypunching or similar data entry services 74559
together with verification thereof, or providing access to 74560
computer equipment for the purpose of processing data.74561

       (b) "Computer services" means providing services consisting 74562
of specifying computer hardware configurations and evaluating 74563
technical processing characteristics, computer programming, and 74564
training of computer programmers and operators, provided in 74565
conjunction with and to support the sale, lease, or operation of 74566
taxable computer equipment or systems.74567

       (c) "Electronic information services" means providing access 74568
to computer equipment by means of telecommunications equipment for 74569
the purpose of either of the following:74570

       (i) Examining or acquiring data stored in or accessible to 74571
the computer equipment;74572

       (ii) Placing data into the computer equipment to be retrieved 74573
by designated recipients with access to the computer equipment.74574

       For transactions occurring on or after the effective date of 74575
the amendment of this section by H.B. 157 of the 127th general 74576
assembly, December 21, 2007, "electronic information services" 74577
does not include electronic publishing as defined in division 74578
(LLL) of this section.74579

       (d) "Automatic data processing, computer services, or 74580
electronic information services" shall not include personal or 74581
professional services.74582

       (2) As used in divisions (B)(3)(e) and (Y)(1) of this 74583
section, "personal and professional services" means all services 74584
other than automatic data processing, computer services, or 74585
electronic information services, including but not limited to:74586

       (a) Accounting and legal services such as advice on tax 74587
matters, asset management, budgetary matters, quality control, 74588
information security, and auditing and any other situation where 74589
the service provider receives data or information and studies, 74590
alters, analyzes, interprets, or adjusts such material;74591

       (b) Analyzing business policies and procedures;74592

       (c) Identifying management information needs;74593

       (d) Feasibility studies, including economic and technical 74594
analysis of existing or potential computer hardware or software 74595
needs and alternatives;74596

       (e) Designing policies, procedures, and custom software for 74597
collecting business information, and determining how data should 74598
be summarized, sequenced, formatted, processed, controlled, and 74599
reported so that it will be meaningful to management;74600

       (f) Developing policies and procedures that document how 74601
business events and transactions are to be authorized, executed, 74602
and controlled;74603

       (g) Testing of business procedures;74604

       (h) Training personnel in business procedure applications;74605

       (i) Providing credit information to users of such information 74606
by a consumer reporting agency, as defined in the "Fair Credit 74607
Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1114, 1129 (1970), 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f), or 74608
as hereafter amended, including but not limited to gathering, 74609
organizing, analyzing, recording, and furnishing such information 74610
by any oral, written, graphic, or electronic medium;74611

       (j) Providing debt collection services by any oral, written, 74612
graphic, or electronic means.74613

       The services listed in divisions (Y)(2)(a) to (j) of this 74614
section are not automatic data processing or computer services.74615

       (Z) "Highway transportation for hire" means the 74616
transportation of personal property belonging to others for 74617
consideration by any of the following:74618

       (1) The holder of a permit or certificate issued by this 74619
state or the United States authorizing the holder to engage in 74620
transportation of personal property belonging to others for 74621
consideration over or on highways, roadways, streets, or any 74622
similar public thoroughfare;74623

       (2) A person who engages in the transportation of personal 74624
property belonging to others for consideration over or on 74625
highways, roadways, streets, or any similar public thoroughfare 74626
but who could not have engaged in such transportation on December 74627
11, 1985, unless the person was the holder of a permit or 74628
certificate of the types described in division (Z)(1) of this 74629
section;74630

       (3) A person who leases a motor vehicle to and operates it 74631
for a person described by division (Z)(1) or (2) of this section.74632

       (AA)(1) "Telecommunications service" means the electronic 74633
transmission, conveyance, or routing of voice, data, audio, video, 74634
or any other information or signals to a point, or between or 74635
among points. "Telecommunications service" includes such 74636
transmission, conveyance, or routing in which computer processing 74637
applications are used to act on the form, code, or protocol of the 74638
content for purposes of transmission, conveyance, or routing 74639
without regard to whether the service is referred to as voice-over 74640
internet protocol service or is classified by the federal 74641
communications commission as enhanced or value-added. 74642
"Telecommunications service" does not include any of the 74643
following:74644

        (a) Data processing and information services that allow data 74645
to be generated, acquired, stored, processed, or retrieved and 74646
delivered by an electronic transmission to a consumer where the 74647
consumer's primary purpose for the underlying transaction is the 74648
processed data or information;74649

        (b) Installation or maintenance of wiring or equipment on a 74650
customer's premises;74651

        (c) Tangible personal property;74652

       (d) Advertising, including directory advertising;74653

        (e) Billing and collection services provided to third 74654
parties;74655

        (f) Internet access service;74656

        (g) Radio and television audio and video programming 74657
services, regardless of the medium, including the furnishing of 74658
transmission, conveyance, and routing of such services by the 74659
programming service provider. Radio and television audio and video 74660
programming services include, but are not limited to, cable 74661
service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. 522(6), and audio and video 74662
programming services delivered by commercial mobile radio service 74663
providers, as defined in 47 C.F.R. 20.3;74664

        (h) Ancillary service;74665

        (i) Digital products delivered electronically, including 74666
software, music, video, reading materials, or ring tones.74667

        (2) "Ancillary service" means a service that is associated 74668
with or incidental to the provision of telecommunications service, 74669
including conference bridging service, detailed telecommunications 74670
billing service, directory assistance, vertical service, and voice 74671
mail service. As used in this division:74672

        (a) "Conference bridging service" means an ancillary service 74673
that links two or more participants of an audio or video 74674
conference call, including providing a telephone number. 74675
"Conference bridging service" does not include telecommunications 74676
services used to reach the conference bridge.74677

        (b) "Detailed telecommunications billing service" means an 74678
ancillary service of separately stating information pertaining to 74679
individual calls on a customer's billing statement.74680

        (c) "Directory assistance" means an ancillary service of 74681
providing telephone number or address information.74682

        (d) "Vertical service" means an ancillary service that is 74683
offered in connection with one or more telecommunications 74684
services, which offers advanced calling features that allow 74685
customers to identify callers and manage multiple calls and call 74686
connections, including conference bridging service.74687

        (e) "Voice mail service" means an ancillary service that 74688
enables the customer to store, send, or receive recorded messages. 74689
"Voice mail service" does not include any vertical services that 74690
the customer may be required to have in order to utilize the voice 74691
mail service.74692

        (3) "900 service" means an inbound toll telecommunications 74693
service purchased by a subscriber that allows the subscriber's 74694
customers to call in to the subscriber's prerecorded announcement 74695
or live service, and which is typically marketed under the name 74696
"900" service and any subsequent numbers designated by the federal 74697
communications commission. "900 service" does not include the 74698
charge for collection services provided by the seller of the 74699
telecommunications service to the subscriber, or services or 74700
products sold by the subscriber to the subscriber's customer.74701

        (4) "Prepaid calling service" means the right to access 74702
exclusively telecommunications services, which must be paid for in 74703
advance and which enables the origination of calls using an access 74704
number or authorization code, whether manually or electronically 74705
dialed, and that is sold in predetermined units ofor dollars of 74706
which the number declines with use in a known amount.74707

        (5) "Prepaid wireless calling service" means a 74708
telecommunications service that provides the right to utilize 74709
mobile telecommunications service as well as other 74710
non-telecommunications services, including the download of digital 74711
products delivered electronically, and content and ancillary 74712
services, that must be paid for in advance and that is sold in 74713
predetermined units ofor dollars of which the number declines 74714
with use in a known amount.74715

        (6) "Value-added non-voice data service" means a 74716
telecommunications service in which computer processing 74717
applications are used to act on the form, content, code, or 74718
protocol of the information or data primarily for a purpose other 74719
than transmission, conveyance, or routing.74720

        (7) "Coin-operated telephone service" means a 74721
telecommunications service paid for by inserting money into a 74722
telephone accepting direct deposits of money to operate.74723

        (8) "Customer" has the same meaning as in section 5739.034 of 74724
the Revised Code.74725

       (BB) "Laundry and dry cleaning services" means removing soil 74726
or dirt from towels, linens, articles of clothing, or other fabric 74727
items that belong to others and supplying towels, linens, articles 74728
of clothing, or other fabric items. "Laundry and dry cleaning 74729
services" does not include the provision of self-service 74730
facilities for use by consumers to remove soil or dirt from 74731
towels, linens, articles of clothing, or other fabric items.74732

       (CC) "Magazines distributed as controlled circulation 74733
publications" means magazines containing at least twenty-four 74734
pages, at least twenty-five per cent editorial content, issued at 74735
regular intervals four or more times a year, and circulated 74736
without charge to the recipient, provided that such magazines are 74737
not owned or controlled by individuals or business concerns which 74738
conduct such publications as an auxiliary to, and essentially for 74739
the advancement of the main business or calling of, those who own 74740
or control them.74741

       (DD) "Landscaping and lawn care service" means the services 74742
of planting, seeding, sodding, removing, cutting, trimming, 74743
pruning, mulching, aerating, applying chemicals, watering, 74744
fertilizing, and providing similar services to establish, promote, 74745
or control the growth of trees, shrubs, flowers, grass, ground 74746
cover, and other flora, or otherwise maintaining a lawn or 74747
landscape grown or maintained by the owner for ornamentation or 74748
other nonagricultural purpose. However, "landscaping and lawn care 74749
service" does not include the providing of such services by a 74750
person who has less than five thousand dollars in sales of such 74751
services during the calendar year.74752

       (EE) "Private investigation and security service" means the 74753
performance of any activity for which the provider of such service 74754
is required to be licensed pursuant to Chapter 4749. of the 74755
Revised Code, or would be required to be so licensed in performing 74756
such services in this state, and also includes the services of 74757
conducting polygraph examinations and of monitoring or overseeing 74758
the activities on or in, or the condition of, the consumer's home, 74759
business, or other facility by means of electronic or similar 74760
monitoring devices. "Private investigation and security service" 74761
does not include special duty services provided by off-duty police 74762
officers, deputy sheriffs, and other peace officers regularly 74763
employed by the state or a political subdivision.74764

       (FF) "Information services" means providing conversation, 74765
giving consultation or advice, playing or making a voice or other 74766
recording, making or keeping a record of the number of callers, 74767
and any other service provided to a consumer by means of a nine 74768
hundred telephone call, except when the nine hundred telephone 74769
call is the means by which the consumer makes a contribution to a 74770
recognized charity.74771

       (GG) "Research and development" means designing, creating, or 74772
formulating new or enhanced products, equipment, or manufacturing 74773
processes, and also means conducting scientific or technological 74774
inquiry and experimentation in the physical sciences with the goal 74775
of increasing scientific knowledge which may reveal the bases for 74776
new or enhanced products, equipment, or manufacturing processes.74777

       (HH) "Qualified research and development equipment" means 74778
capitalized tangible personal property, and leased personal 74779
property that would be capitalized if purchased, used by a person 74780
primarily to perform research and development. Tangible personal 74781
property primarily used in testing, as defined in division (A)(4) 74782
of section 5739.011 of the Revised Code, or used for recording or 74783
storing test results, is not qualified research and development 74784
equipment unless such property is primarily used by the consumer 74785
in testing the product, equipment, or manufacturing process being 74786
created, designed, or formulated by the consumer in the research 74787
and development activity or in recording or storing such test 74788
results.74789

       (II) "Building maintenance and janitorial service" means 74790
cleaning the interior or exterior of a building and any tangible 74791
personal property located therein or thereon, including any 74792
services incidental to such cleaning for which no separate charge 74793
is made. However, "building maintenance and janitorial service" 74794
does not include the providing of such service by a person who has 74795
less than five thousand dollars in sales of such service during 74796
the calendar year.74797

       (JJ) "Employment service" means providing or supplying 74798
personnel, on a temporary or long-term basis, to perform work or 74799
labor under the supervision or control of another, when the 74800
personnel so provided or supplied receive their wages, salary, or 74801
other compensation from the provider or supplier of the employment 74802
service or from a third party that provided or supplied the 74803
personnel to the provider or supplier. "Employment service" does 74804
not include:74805

       (1) Acting as a contractor or subcontractor, where the 74806
personnel performing the work are not under the direct control of 74807
the purchaser.74808

       (2) Medical and health care services.74809

       (3) Supplying personnel to a purchaser pursuant to a contract 74810
of at least one year between the service provider and the 74811
purchaser that specifies that each employee covered under the 74812
contract is assigned to the purchaser on a permanent basis.74813

       (4) Transactions between members of an affiliated group, as 74814
defined in division (B)(3)(e) of this section.74815

       (5) Transactions where the personnel so provided or supplied 74816
by a provider or supplier to a purchaser of an employment service 74817
are then provided or supplied by that purchaser to a third party 74818
as an employment service, except "employment service" does include 74819
the transaction between that purchaser and the third party.74820

       (KK) "Employment placement service" means locating or finding 74821
employment for a person or finding or locating an employee to fill 74822
an available position.74823

       (LL) "Exterminating service" means eradicating or attempting 74824
to eradicate vermin infestations from a building or structure, or 74825
the area surrounding a building or structure, and includes 74826
activities to inspect, detect, or prevent vermin infestation of a 74827
building or structure.74828

       (MM) "Physical fitness facility service" means all 74829
transactions by which a membership is granted, maintained, or 74830
renewed, including initiation fees, membership dues, renewal fees, 74831
monthly minimum fees, and other similar fees and dues, by a 74832
physical fitness facility such as an athletic club, health spa, or 74833
gymnasium, which entitles the member to use the facility for 74834
physical exercise.74835

       (NN) "Recreation and sports club service" means all 74836
transactions by which a membership is granted, maintained, or 74837
renewed, including initiation fees, membership dues, renewal fees, 74838
monthly minimum fees, and other similar fees and dues, by a 74839
recreation and sports club, which entitles the member to use the 74840
facilities of the organization. "Recreation and sports club" means 74841
an organization that has ownership of, or controls or leases on a 74842
continuing, long-term basis, the facilities used by its members 74843
and includes an aviation club, gun or shooting club, yacht club, 74844
card club, swimming club, tennis club, golf club, country club, 74845
riding club, amateur sports club, or similar organization.74846

       (OO) "Livestock" means farm animals commonly raised for food, 74847
food production, or other agricultural purposes, including, but 74848
not limited to, cattle, sheep, goats, swine, poultry, and captive 74849
deer. "Livestock" does not include invertebrates, amphibians, 74850
reptiles, domestic pets, animals for use in laboratories or for 74851
exhibition, or other animals not commonly raised for food or food 74852
production.74853

       (PP) "Livestock structure" means a building or structure used 74854
exclusively for the housing, raising, feeding, or sheltering of 74855
livestock, and includes feed storage or handling structures and 74856
structures for livestock waste handling.74857

       (QQ) "Horticulture" means the growing, cultivation, and 74858
production of flowers, fruits, herbs, vegetables, sod, mushrooms, 74859
and nursery stock. As used in this division, "nursery stock" has 74860
the same meaning as in section 927.51 of the Revised Code.74861

       (RR) "Horticulture structure" means a building or structure 74862
used exclusively for the commercial growing, raising, or 74863
overwintering of horticultural products, and includes the area 74864
used for stocking, storing, and packing horticultural products 74865
when done in conjunction with the production of those products.74866

       (SS) "Newspaper" means an unbound publication bearing a title 74867
or name that is regularly published, at least as frequently as 74868
biweekly, and distributed from a fixed place of business to the 74869
public in a specific geographic area, and that contains a 74870
substantial amount of news matter of international, national, or 74871
local events of interest to the general public.74872

       (TT) "Professional racing team" means a person that employs 74873
at least twenty full-time employees for the purpose of conducting 74874
a motor vehicle racing business for profit. The person must 74875
conduct the business with the purpose of racing one or more motor 74876
racing vehicles in at least ten competitive professional racing 74877
events each year that comprise all or part of a motor racing 74878
series sanctioned by one or more motor racing sanctioning 74879
organizations. A "motor racing vehicle" means a vehicle for which 74880
the chassis, engine, and parts are designed exclusively for motor 74881
racing, and does not include a stock or production model vehicle 74882
that may be modified for use in racing. For the purposes of this 74883
division:74884

       (1) A "competitive professional racing event" is a motor 74885
vehicle racing event sanctioned by one or more motor racing 74886
sanctioning organizations, at which aggregate cash prizes in 74887
excess of eight hundred thousand dollars are awarded to the 74888
competitors.74889

       (2) "Full-time employee" means an individual who is employed 74890
for consideration for thirty-five or more hours a week, or who 74891
renders any other standard of service generally accepted by custom 74892
or specified by contract as full-time employment.74893

        (UU)(1) "Lease" or "rental" means any transfer of the 74894
possession or control of tangible personal property for a fixed or 74895
indefinite term, for consideration. "Lease" or "rental" includes 74896
future options to purchase or extend, and agreements described in 74897
26 U.S.C. 7701(h)(1) covering motor vehicles and trailers where 74898
the amount of consideration may be increased or decreased by 74899
reference to the amount realized upon the sale or disposition of 74900
the property. "Lease" or "rental" does not include:74901

       (a) A transfer of possession or control of tangible personal 74902
property under a security agreement or a deferred payment plan 74903
that requires the transfer of title upon completion of the 74904
required payments;74905

       (b) A transfer of possession or control of tangible personal 74906
property under an agreement that requires the transfer of title 74907
upon completion of required payments and payment of an option 74908
price that does not exceed the greater of one hundred dollars or 74909
one per cent of the total required payments;74910

       (c) Providing tangible personal property along with an 74911
operator for a fixed or indefinite period of time, if the operator 74912
is necessary for the property to perform as designed. For purposes 74913
of this division, the operator must do more than maintain, 74914
inspect, or set-up the tangible personal property.74915

       (2) "Lease" and "rental," as defined in division (UU) of this 74916
section, shall not apply to leases or rentals that exist before 74917
June 26, 2003.74918

       (3) "Lease" and "rental" have the same meaning as in division 74919
(UU)(1) of this section regardless of whether a transaction is 74920
characterized as a lease or rental under generally accepted 74921
accounting principles, the Internal Revenue Code, Title XIII of 74922
the Revised Code, or other federal, state, or local laws.74923

       (VV) "Mobile telecommunications service" has the same meaning 74924
as in the "Mobile Telecommunications Sourcing Act," Pub. L. No. 74925
106-252, 114 Stat. 631 (2000), 4 U.S.C.A. 124(7), as amended, and, 74926
on and after August 1, 2003, includes related fees and ancillary 74927
services, including universal service fees, detailed billing 74928
service, directory assistance, service initiation, voice mail 74929
service, and vertical services, such as caller ID and three-way 74930
calling.74931

       (WW) "Certified service provider" has the same meaning as in 74932
section 5740.01 of the Revised Code.74933

       (XX) "Satellite broadcasting service" means the distribution 74934
or broadcasting of programming or services by satellite directly 74935
to the subscriber's receiving equipment without the use of ground 74936
receiving or distribution equipment, except the subscriber's 74937
receiving equipment or equipment used in the uplink process to the 74938
satellite, and includes all service and rental charges, premium 74939
channels or other special services, installation and repair 74940
service charges, and any other charges having any connection with 74941
the provision of the satellite broadcasting service.74942

       (YY) "Tangible personal property" means personal property 74943
that can be seen, weighed, measured, felt, or touched, or that is 74944
in any other manner perceptible to the senses. For purposes of 74945
this chapter and Chapter 5741. of the Revised Code, "tangible 74946
personal property" includes motor vehicles, electricity, water, 74947
gas, steam, and prewritten computer software.74948

       (ZZ) "Direct mail" means printed material delivered or 74949
distributed by United States mail or other delivery service to a 74950
mass audience or to addressees on a mailing list provided by the 74951
consumer or at the direction of the consumer when the cost of the 74952
items are not billed directly to the recipients. "Direct mail" 74953
includes tangible personal property supplied directly or 74954
indirectly by the consumer to the direct mail vendor for inclusion 74955
in the package containing the printed material. "Direct mail" does 74956
not include multiple items of printed material delivered to a 74957
single address.74958

       (AAA) "Computer" means an electronic device that accepts 74959
information in digital or similar form and manipulates it for a 74960
result based on a sequence of instructions.74961

       (BBB) "Computer software" means a set of coded instructions 74962
designed to cause a computer or automatic data processing 74963
equipment to perform a task.74964

       (CCC) "Delivered electronically" means delivery of computer 74965
software from the seller to the purchaser by means other than 74966
tangible storage media.74967

       (DDD) "Prewritten computer software" means computer software, 74968
including prewritten upgrades, that is not designed and developed 74969
by the author or other creator to the specifications of a specific 74970
purchaser. The combining of two or more prewritten computer 74971
software programs or prewritten portions thereof does not cause 74972
the combination to be other than prewritten computer software. 74973
"Prewritten computer software" includes software designed and 74974
developed by the author or other creator to the specifications of 74975
a specific purchaser when it is sold to a person other than the 74976
purchaser. If a person modifies or enhances computer software of 74977
which the person is not the author or creator, the person shall be 74978
deemed to be the author or creator only of such person's 74979
modifications or enhancements. Prewritten computer software or a 74980
prewritten portion thereof that is modified or enhanced to any 74981
degree, where such modification or enhancement is designed and 74982
developed to the specifications of a specific purchaser, remains 74983
prewritten computer software; provided, however, that where there 74984
is a reasonable, separately stated charge or an invoice or other 74985
statement of the price given to the purchaser for the modification 74986
or enhancement, the modification or enhancement shall not 74987
constitute prewritten computer software.74988

       (EEE)(1) "Food" means substances, whether in liquid, 74989
concentrated, solid, frozen, dried, or dehydrated form, that are 74990
sold for ingestion or chewing by humans and are consumed for their 74991
taste or nutritional value. "Food" does not include alcoholic 74992
beverages, dietary supplements, soft drinks, or tobacco.74993

       (2) As used in division (EEE)(1) of this section:74994

       (a) "Alcoholic beverages" means beverages that are suitable 74995
for human consumption and contain one-half of one per cent or more 74996
of alcohol by volume.74997

       (b) "Dietary supplements" means any product, other than 74998
tobacco, that is intended to supplement the diet and that is 74999
intended for ingestion in tablet, capsule, powder, softgel, 75000
gelcap, or liquid form, or, if not intended for ingestion in such 75001
a form, is not represented as conventional food for use as a sole 75002
item of a meal or of the diet; that is required to be labeled as a 75003
dietary supplement, identifiable by the "supplement facts" box 75004
found on the label, as required by 21 C.F.R. 101.36; and that 75005
contains one or more of the following dietary ingredients:75006

       (i) A vitamin;75007

       (ii) A mineral;75008

       (iii) An herb or other botanical;75009

       (iv) An amino acid;75010

       (v) A dietary substance for use by humans to supplement the 75011
diet by increasing the total dietary intake;75012

       (vi) A concentrate, metabolite, constituent, extract, or 75013
combination of any ingredient described in divisions 75014
(EEE)(2)(b)(i) to (v) of this section.75015

       (c) "Soft drinks" means nonalcoholic beverages that contain 75016
natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" does not include 75017
beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice, or 75018
similar milk substitutes, or that contains greater than fifty per 75019
cent vegetable or fruit juice by volume.75020

       (d) "Tobacco" means cigarettes, cigars, chewing or pipe 75021
tobacco, or any other item that contains tobacco.75022

       (FFF) "Drug" means a compound, substance, or preparation, and 75023
any component of a compound, substance, or preparation, other than 75024
food, dietary supplements, or alcoholic beverages that is 75025
recognized in the official United States pharmacopoeia, official 75026
homeopathic pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official 75027
national formulary, and supplements to them; is intended for use 75028
in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of 75029
disease; or is intended to affect the structure or any function of 75030
the body.75031

       (GGG) "Prescription" means an order, formula, or recipe 75032
issued in any form of oral, written, electronic, or other means of 75033
transmission by a duly licensed practitioner authorized by the 75034
laws of this state to issue a prescription.75035

       (HHH) "Durable medical equipment" means equipment, including 75036
repair and replacement parts for such equipment, that can 75037
withstand repeated use, is primarily and customarily used to serve 75038
a medical purpose, generally is not useful to a person in the 75039
absence of illness or injury, and is not worn in or on the body. 75040
"Durable medical equipment" does not include mobility enhancing 75041
equipment.75042

       (III) "Mobility enhancing equipment" means equipment, 75043
including repair and replacement parts for such equipment, that is 75044
primarily and customarily used to provide or increase the ability 75045
to move from one place to another and is appropriate for use 75046
either in a home or a motor vehicle, that is not generally used by 75047
persons with normal mobility, and that does not include any motor 75048
vehicle or equipment on a motor vehicle normally provided by a 75049
motor vehicle manufacturer. "Mobility enhancing equipment" does 75050
not include durable medical equipment.75051

       (JJJ) "Prosthetic device" means a replacement, corrective, or 75052
supportive device, including repair and replacement parts for the 75053
device, worn on or in the human body to artificially replace a 75054
missing portion of the body, prevent or correct physical deformity 75055
or malfunction, or support a weak or deformed portion of the body. 75056
As used in this division, "prosthetic device" does not include 75057
corrective eyeglasses, contact lenses, or dental prosthesis.75058

       (KKK)(1) "Fractional aircraft ownership program" means a 75059
program in which persons within an affiliated group sell and 75060
manage fractional ownership program aircraft, provided that at 75061
least one hundred airworthy aircraft are operated in the program 75062
and the program meets all of the following criteria:75063

       (a) Management services are provided by at least one program 75064
manager within an affiliated group on behalf of the fractional 75065
owners.75066

       (b) Each program aircraft is owned or possessed by at least 75067
one fractional owner.75068

       (c) Each fractional owner owns or possesses at least a 75069
one-sixteenth interest in at least one fixed-wing program 75070
aircraft.75071

       (d) A dry-lease aircraft interchange arrangement is in effect 75072
among all of the fractional owners.75073

       (e) Multi-year program agreements are in effect regarding the 75074
fractional ownership, management services, and dry-lease aircraft 75075
interchange arrangement aspects of the program.75076

       (2) As used in division (KKK)(1) of this section:75077

       (a) "Affiliated group" has the same meaning as in division 75078
(B)(3)(e) of this section.75079

        (b) "Fractional owner" means a person that owns or possesses 75080
at least a one-sixteenth interest in a program aircraft and has 75081
entered into the agreements described in division (KKK)(1)(e) of 75082
this section.75083

       (c) "Fractional ownership program aircraft" or "program 75084
aircraft" means a turbojet aircraft that is owned or possessed by 75085
a fractional owner and that has been included in a dry-lease 75086
aircraft interchange arrangement and agreement under divisions 75087
(KKK)(1)(d) and (e) of this section, or an aircraft a program 75088
manager owns or possesses primarily for use in a fractional 75089
aircraft ownership program.75090

       (d) "Management services" means administrative and aviation 75091
support services furnished under a fractional aircraft ownership 75092
program in accordance with a management services agreement under 75093
division (KKK)(1)(e) of this section, and offered by the program 75094
manager to the fractional owners, including, at a minimum, the 75095
establishment and implementation of safety guidelines; the 75096
coordination of the scheduling of the program aircraft and crews; 75097
program aircraft maintenance; program aircraft insurance; crew 75098
training for crews employed, furnished, or contracted by the 75099
program manager or the fractional owner; the satisfaction of 75100
record-keeping requirements; and the development and use of an 75101
operations manual and a maintenance manual for the fractional 75102
aircraft ownership program.75103

       (e) "Program manager" means the person that offers management 75104
services to fractional owners pursuant to a management services 75105
agreement under division (KKK)(1)(e) of this section.75106

       (LLL) "Electronic publishing" means providing access to one 75107
or more of the following primarily for business customers, 75108
including the federal government or a state government or a 75109
political subdivision thereof, to conduct research: news; 75110
business, financial, legal, consumer, or credit materials; 75111
editorials, columns, reader commentary, or features; photos or 75112
images; archival or research material; legal notices, identity 75113
verification, or public records; scientific, educational, 75114
instructional, technical, professional, trade, or other literary 75115
materials; or other similar information which has been gathered 75116
and made available by the provider to the consumer in an 75117
electronic format. Providing electronic publishing includes the 75118
functions necessary for the acquisition, formatting, editing, 75119
storage, and dissemination of data or information that is the 75120
subject of a sale.75121

       (MMM) "Medicaid health insuring corporation" means a health 75122
insuring corporation that holds a certificate of authority under 75123
Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code and is under contract with the 75124
department of job and family services pursuant to section 5111.17 75125
of the Revised Code.75126

       (NNN) "Managed care premium" means any premium, capitation, 75127
or other payment a medicaid health insuring corporation receives 75128
for providing or arranging for the provision of health care 75129
services to its members or enrollees residing in this state.75130

       (OOO) "Captive deer" means deer and other cervidae that have 75131
been legally acquired, or their offspring, that are privately 75132
owned for agricultural or farming purposes.75133

       (PPP) "Gift card" means a document, card, certificate, or 75134
other record, whether tangible or intangible, that may be redeemed 75135
by a consumer for a dollar value when making a purchase of 75136
tangible personal property or services.75137

       Sec. 5739.02.  For the purpose of providing revenue with 75138
which to meet the needs of the state, for the use of the general 75139
revenue fund of the state, for the purpose of securing a thorough 75140
and efficient system of common schools throughout the state, for 75141
the purpose of affording revenues, in addition to those from 75142
general property taxes, permitted under constitutional 75143
limitations, and from other sources, for the support of local 75144
governmental functions, and for the purpose of reimbursing the 75145
state for the expense of administering this chapter, an excise tax 75146
is hereby levied on each retail sale made in this state.75147

       (A)(1) The tax shall be collected as provided in section 75148
5739.025 of the Revised Code. The rate of the tax shall be five 75149
and one-half per cent. The tax applies and is collectible when the 75150
sale is made, regardless of the time when the price is paid or 75151
delivered.75152

        (2) In the case of the lease or rental, with a fixed term of 75153
more than thirty days or an indefinite term with a minimum period 75154
of more than thirty days, of any motor vehicles designed by the 75155
manufacturer to carry a load of not more than one ton, watercraft, 75156
outboard motor, or aircraft, or of any tangible personal property, 75157
other than motor vehicles designed by the manufacturer to carry a 75158
load of more than one ton, to be used by the lessee or renter 75159
primarily for business purposes, the tax shall be collected by the 75160
vendor at the time the lease or rental is consummated and shall be 75161
calculated by the vendor on the basis of the total amount to be 75162
paid by the lessee or renter under the lease agreement. If the 75163
total amount of the consideration for the lease or rental includes 75164
amounts that are not calculated at the time the lease or rental is 75165
executed, the tax shall be calculated and collected by the vendor 75166
at the time such amounts are billed to the lessee or renter. In 75167
the case of an open-end lease or rental, the tax shall be 75168
calculated by the vendor on the basis of the total amount to be 75169
paid during the initial fixed term of the lease or rental, and for 75170
each subsequent renewal period as it comes due. As used in this 75171
division, "motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 75172
4501.01 of the Revised Code, and "watercraft" includes an outdrive 75173
unit attached to the watercraft.75174

       A lease with a renewal clause and a termination penalty or 75175
similar provision that applies if the renewal clause is not 75176
exercised is presumed to be a sham transaction. In such a case, 75177
the tax shall be calculated and paid on the basis of the entire 75178
length of the lease period, including any renewal periods, until 75179
the termination penalty or similar provision no longer applies. 75180
The taxpayer shall bear the burden, by a preponderance of the 75181
evidence, that the transaction or series of transactions is not a 75182
sham transaction.75183

       (3) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, in 75184
the case of a sale, the price of which consists in whole or in 75185
part of the lease or rental of tangible personal property, the tax 75186
shall be measured by the installments of that lease or rental.75187

       (4) In the case of a sale of a physical fitness facility 75188
service or recreation and sports club service, the price of which 75189
consists in whole or in part of a membership for the receipt of 75190
the benefit of the service, the tax applicable to the sale shall 75191
be measured by the installments thereof.75192

       (B) The tax does not apply to the following:75193

       (1) Sales to the state or any of its political subdivisions, 75194
or to any other state or its political subdivisions if the laws of 75195
that state exempt from taxation sales made to this state and its 75196
political subdivisions;75197

       (2) Sales of food for human consumption off the premises 75198
where sold;75199

       (3) Sales of food sold to students only in a cafeteria, 75200
dormitory, fraternity, or sorority maintained in a private, 75201
public, or parochial school, college, or university;75202

       (4) Sales of newspapers and of magazine subscriptions and 75203
sales or transfers of magazines distributed as controlled 75204
circulation publications;75205

       (5) The furnishing, preparing, or serving of meals without 75206
charge by an employer to an employee provided the employer records 75207
the meals as part compensation for services performed or work 75208
done;75209

       (6) Sales of motor fuel upon receipt, use, distribution, or 75210
sale of which in this state a tax is imposed by the law of this 75211
state, but this exemption shall not apply to the sale of motor 75212
fuel on which a refund of the tax is allowable under division (A) 75213
of section 5735.14 of the Revised Code; and the tax commissioner 75214
may deduct the amount of tax levied by this section applicable to 75215
the price of motor fuel when granting a refund of motor fuel tax 75216
pursuant to division (A) of section 5735.14 of the Revised Code 75217
and shall cause the amount deducted to be paid into the general 75218
revenue fund of this state;75219

       (7) Sales of natural gas by a natural gas company, of water 75220
by a water-works company, or of steam by a heating company, if in 75221
each case the thing sold is delivered to consumers through pipes 75222
or conduits, and all sales of communications services by a 75223
telegraph company, all terms as defined in section 5727.01 of the 75224
Revised Code, and sales of electricity delivered through wires;75225

       (8) Casual sales by a person, or auctioneer employed directly 75226
by the person to conduct such sales, except as to such sales of 75227
motor vehicles, watercraft or outboard motors required to be 75228
titled under section 1548.06 of the Revised Code, watercraft 75229
documented with the United States coast guard, snowmobiles, and 75230
all-purpose vehicles as defined in section 4519.01 of the Revised 75231
Code;75232

       (9)(a) Sales of services or tangible personal property, other 75233
than motor vehicles, mobile homes, and manufactured homes, by 75234
churches, organizations exempt from taxation under section 75235
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or nonprofit 75236
organizations operated exclusively for charitable purposes as 75237
defined in division (B)(12) of this section, provided that the 75238
number of days on which such tangible personal property or 75239
services, other than items never subject to the tax, are sold does 75240
not exceed six in any calendar year, except as otherwise provided 75241
in division (B)(9)(b) of this section. If the number of days on 75242
which such sales are made exceeds six in any calendar year, the 75243
church or organization shall be considered to be engaged in 75244
business and all subsequent sales by it shall be subject to the 75245
tax. In counting the number of days, all sales by groups within a 75246
church or within an organization shall be considered to be sales 75247
of that church or organization.75248

       (b) The limitation on the number of days on which tax-exempt 75249
sales may be made by a church or organization under division 75250
(B)(9)(a) of this section does not apply to sales made by student 75251
clubs and other groups of students of a primary or secondary 75252
school, or a parent-teacher association, booster group, or similar 75253
organization that raises money to support or fund curricular or 75254
extracurricular activities of a primary or secondary school.75255

       (c) Divisions (B)(9)(a) and (b) of this section do not apply 75256
to sales by a noncommercial educational radio or television 75257
broadcasting station.75258

       (10) Sales not within the taxing power of this state under 75259
the Constitution of the United States;75260

       (11) Except for transactions that are sales under division 75261
(B)(3)(r) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, the 75262
transportation of persons or property, unless the transportation 75263
is by a private investigation and security service;75264

       (12) Sales of tangible personal property or services to 75265
churches, to organizations exempt from taxation under section 75266
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, and to any other 75267
nonprofit organizations operated exclusively for charitable 75268
purposes in this state, no part of the net income of which inures 75269
to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual, and no 75270
substantial part of the activities of which consists of carrying 75271
on propaganda or otherwise attempting to influence legislation; 75272
sales to offices administering one or more homes for the aged or 75273
one or more hospital facilities exempt under section 140.08 of the 75274
Revised Code; and sales to organizations described in division (D) 75275
of section 5709.12 of the Revised Code.75276

       "Charitable purposes" means the relief of poverty; the 75277
improvement of health through the alleviation of illness, disease, 75278
or injury; the operation of an organization exclusively for the 75279
provision of professional, laundry, printing, and purchasing 75280
services to hospitals or charitable institutions; the operation of 75281
a home for the aged, as defined in section 5701.13 of the Revised 75282
Code; the operation of a radio or television broadcasting station 75283
that is licensed by the federal communications commission as a 75284
noncommercial educational radio or television station; the 75285
operation of a nonprofit animal adoption service or a county 75286
humane society; the promotion of education by an institution of 75287
learning that maintains a faculty of qualified instructors, 75288
teaches regular continuous courses of study, and confers a 75289
recognized diploma upon completion of a specific curriculum; the 75290
operation of a parent-teacher association, booster group, or 75291
similar organization primarily engaged in the promotion and 75292
support of the curricular or extracurricular activities of a 75293
primary or secondary school; the operation of a community or area 75294
center in which presentations in music, dramatics, the arts, and 75295
related fields are made in order to foster public interest and 75296
education therein; the production of performances in music, 75297
dramatics, and the arts; or the promotion of education by an 75298
organization engaged in carrying on research in, or the 75299
dissemination of, scientific and technological knowledge and 75300
information primarily for the public.75301

       Nothing in this division shall be deemed to exempt sales to 75302
any organization for use in the operation or carrying on of a 75303
trade or business, or sales to a home for the aged for use in the 75304
operation of independent living facilities as defined in division 75305
(A) of section 5709.12 of the Revised Code.75306

       (13) Building and construction materials and services sold to 75307
construction contractors for incorporation into a structure or 75308
improvement to real property under a construction contract with 75309
this state or a political subdivision of this state, or with the 75310
United States government or any of its agencies; building and 75311
construction materials and services sold to construction 75312
contractors for incorporation into a structure or improvement to 75313
real property that are accepted for ownership by this state or any 75314
of its political subdivisions, or by the United States government 75315
or any of its agencies at the time of completion of the structures 75316
or improvements; building and construction materials sold to 75317
construction contractors for incorporation into a horticulture 75318
structure or livestock structure for a person engaged in the 75319
business of horticulture or producing livestock; building 75320
materials and services sold to a construction contractor for 75321
incorporation into a house of public worship or religious 75322
education, or a building used exclusively for charitable purposes 75323
under a construction contract with an organization whose purpose 75324
is as described in division (B)(12) of this section; building 75325
materials and services sold to a construction contractor for 75326
incorporation into a building under a construction contract with 75327
an organization exempt from taxation under section 501(c)(3) of 75328
the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 when the building is to be used 75329
exclusively for the organization's exempt purposes; building and 75330
construction materials sold for incorporation into the original 75331
construction of a sports facility under section 307.696 of the 75332
Revised Code; building and construction materials and services 75333
sold to a construction contractor for incorporation into real 75334
property outside this state if such materials and services, when 75335
sold to a construction contractor in the state in which the real 75336
property is located for incorporation into real property in that 75337
state, would be exempt from a tax on sales levied by that state; 75338
and, until one calendar year after the construction of a 75339
convention center that qualifies for property tax exemption under 75340
section 5709.084 of the Revised Code is completed, building and 75341
construction materials and services sold to a construction 75342
contractor for incorporation into the real property comprising 75343
that convention center;75344

       (14) Sales of ships or vessels or rail rolling stock used or 75345
to be used principally in interstate or foreign commerce, and 75346
repairs, alterations, fuel, and lubricants for such ships or 75347
vessels or rail rolling stock;75348

       (15) Sales to persons primarily engaged in any of the 75349
activities mentioned in division (B)(42)(a), (g), or (h) of this 75350
section, to persons engaged in making retail sales, or to persons 75351
who purchase for sale from a manufacturer tangible personal 75352
property that was produced by the manufacturer in accordance with 75353
specific designs provided by the purchaser, of packages, including 75354
material, labels, and parts for packages, and of machinery, 75355
equipment, and material for use primarily in packaging tangible 75356
personal property produced for sale, including any machinery, 75357
equipment, and supplies used to make labels or packages, to 75358
prepare packages or products for labeling, or to label packages or 75359
products, by or on the order of the person doing the packaging, or 75360
sold at retail. "Packages" includes bags, baskets, cartons, 75361
crates, boxes, cans, bottles, bindings, wrappings, and other 75362
similar devices and containers, but does not include motor 75363
vehicles or bulk tanks, trailers, or similar devices attached to 75364
motor vehicles. "Packaging" means placing in a package. Division 75365
(B)(15) of this section does not apply to persons engaged in 75366
highway transportation for hire.75367

       (16) Sales of food to persons using supplemental nutrition 75368
assistance program benefits to purchase the food. As used in this 75369
division, "food" has the same meaning as in 7 U.S.C. 2012 and 75370
federal regulations adopted pursuant to the Food and Nutrition Act 75371
of 2008.75372

       (17) Sales to persons engaged in farming, agriculture, 75373
horticulture, or floriculture, of tangible personal property for 75374
use or consumption primarily in the production by farming, 75375
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture of other tangible 75376
personal property for use or consumption primarily in the 75377
production of tangible personal property for sale by farming, 75378
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture; or material and parts 75379
for incorporation into any such tangible personal property for use 75380
or consumption in production; and of tangible personal property 75381
for such use or consumption in the conditioning or holding of 75382
products produced by and for such use, consumption, or sale by 75383
persons engaged in farming, agriculture, horticulture, or 75384
floriculture, except where such property is incorporated into real 75385
property;75386

       (18) Sales of drugs for a human being that may be dispensed 75387
only pursuant to a prescription; insulin as recognized in the 75388
official United States pharmacopoeia; urine and blood testing 75389
materials when used by diabetics or persons with hypoglycemia to 75390
test for glucose or acetone; hypodermic syringes and needles when 75391
used by diabetics for insulin injections; epoetin alfa when 75392
purchased for use in the treatment of persons with medical 75393
disease; hospital beds when purchased by hospitals, nursing homes, 75394
or other medical facilities; and medical oxygen and medical 75395
oxygen-dispensing equipment when purchased by hospitals, nursing 75396
homes, or other medical facilities;75397

       (19) Sales of prosthetic devices, durable medical equipment 75398
for home use, or mobility enhancing equipment, when made pursuant 75399
to a prescription and when such devices or equipment are for use 75400
by a human being.75401

       (20) Sales of emergency and fire protection vehicles and 75402
equipment to nonprofit organizations for use solely in providing 75403
fire protection and emergency services, including trauma care and 75404
emergency medical services, for political subdivisions of the 75405
state;75406

       (21) Sales of tangible personal property manufactured in this 75407
state, if sold by the manufacturer in this state to a retailer for 75408
use in the retail business of the retailer outside of this state 75409
and if possession is taken from the manufacturer by the purchaser 75410
within this state for the sole purpose of immediately removing the 75411
same from this state in a vehicle owned by the purchaser;75412

       (22) Sales of services provided by the state or any of its 75413
political subdivisions, agencies, instrumentalities, institutions, 75414
or authorities, or by governmental entities of the state or any of 75415
its political subdivisions, agencies, instrumentalities, 75416
institutions, or authorities;75417

       (23) Sales of motor vehicles to nonresidents of this state 75418
under the circumstances described in division (B) of section 75419
5739.029 of the Revised Code;75420

       (24) Sales to persons engaged in the preparation of eggs for 75421
sale of tangible personal property used or consumed directly in 75422
such preparation, including such tangible personal property used 75423
for cleaning, sanitizing, preserving, grading, sorting, and 75424
classifying by size; packages, including material and parts for 75425
packages, and machinery, equipment, and material for use in 75426
packaging eggs for sale; and handling and transportation equipment 75427
and parts therefor, except motor vehicles licensed to operate on 75428
public highways, used in intraplant or interplant transfers or 75429
shipment of eggs in the process of preparation for sale, when the 75430
plant or plants within or between which such transfers or 75431
shipments occur are operated by the same person. "Packages" 75432
includes containers, cases, baskets, flats, fillers, filler flats, 75433
cartons, closure materials, labels, and labeling materials, and 75434
"packaging" means placing therein.75435

       (25)(a) Sales of water to a consumer for residential use, 75436
except the sale of bottled water, distilled water, mineral water, 75437
carbonated water, or ice;75438

       (b) Sales of water by a nonprofit corporation engaged 75439
exclusively in the treatment, distribution, and sale of water to 75440
consumers, if such water is delivered to consumers through pipes 75441
or tubing.75442

       (26) Fees charged for inspection or reinspection of motor 75443
vehicles under section 3704.14 of the Revised Code;75444

       (27) Sales to persons licensed to conduct a food service 75445
operation pursuant to section 3717.43 of the Revised Code, of 75446
tangible personal property primarily used directly for the 75447
following:75448

       (a) To prepare food for human consumption for sale;75449

       (b) To preserve food that has been or will be prepared for 75450
human consumption for sale by the food service operator, not 75451
including tangible personal property used to display food for 75452
selection by the consumer;75453

       (c) To clean tangible personal property used to prepare or 75454
serve food for human consumption for sale.75455

       (28) Sales of animals by nonprofit animal adoption services 75456
or county humane societies;75457

       (29) Sales of services to a corporation described in division 75458
(A) of section 5709.72 of the Revised Code, and sales of tangible 75459
personal property that qualifies for exemption from taxation under 75460
section 5709.72 of the Revised Code;75461

       (30) Sales and installation of agricultural land tile, as 75462
defined in division (B)(5)(a) of section 5739.01 of the Revised 75463
Code;75464

       (31) Sales and erection or installation of portable grain 75465
bins, as defined in division (B)(5)(b) of section 5739.01 of the 75466
Revised Code;75467

       (32) The sale, lease, repair, and maintenance of, parts for, 75468
or items attached to or incorporated in, motor vehicles that are 75469
primarily used for transporting tangible personal property 75470
belonging to others by a person engaged in highway transportation 75471
for hire, except for packages and packaging used for the 75472
transportation of tangible personal property;75473

       (33) Sales to the state headquarters of any veterans' 75474
organization in this state that is either incorporated and issued 75475
a charter by the congress of the United States or is recognized by 75476
the United States veterans administration, for use by the 75477
headquarters;75478

       (34) Sales to a telecommunications service vendor, mobile 75479
telecommunications service vendor, or satellite broadcasting 75480
service vendor of tangible personal property and services used 75481
directly and primarily in transmitting, receiving, switching, or 75482
recording any interactive, one- or two-way electromagnetic 75483
communications, including voice, image, data, and information, 75484
through the use of any medium, including, but not limited to, 75485
poles, wires, cables, switching equipment, computers, and record 75486
storage devices and media, and component parts for the tangible 75487
personal property. The exemption provided in this division shall 75488
be in lieu of all other exemptions under division (B)(42)(a) or 75489
(n) of this section to which the vendor may otherwise be entitled, 75490
based upon the use of the thing purchased in providing the 75491
telecommunications, mobile telecommunications, or satellite 75492
broadcasting service.75493

       (35)(a) Sales where the purpose of the consumer is to use or 75494
consume the things transferred in making retail sales and 75495
consisting of newspaper inserts, catalogues, coupons, flyers, gift 75496
certificates, or other advertising material that prices and 75497
describes tangible personal property offered for retail sale.75498

       (b) Sales to direct marketing vendors of preliminary 75499
materials such as photographs, artwork, and typesetting that will 75500
be used in printing advertising material; and of printed matter 75501
that offers free merchandise or chances to win sweepstake prizes 75502
and that is mailed to potential customers with advertising 75503
material described in division (B)(35)(a) of this section; and75504

       (c) Sales of equipment such as telephones, computers, 75505
facsimile machines, and similar tangible personal property 75506
primarily used to accept orders for direct marketing retail sales.75507

       (c)(d) Sales of automatic food vending machines that preserve 75508
food with a shelf life of forty-five days or less by refrigeration 75509
and dispense it to the consumer.75510

       For purposes of division (B)(35) of this section, "direct 75511
marketing" means the method of selling where consumers order 75512
tangible personal property by United States mail, delivery 75513
service, or telecommunication and the vendor delivers or ships the 75514
tangible personal property sold to the consumer from a warehouse, 75515
catalogue distribution center, or similar fulfillment facility by 75516
means of the United States mail, delivery service, or common 75517
carrier.75518

       (36) Sales to a person engaged in the business of 75519
horticulture or producing livestock of materials to be 75520
incorporated into a horticulture structure or livestock structure;75521

       (37) Sales of personal computers, computer monitors, computer 75522
keyboards, modems, and other peripheral computer equipment to an 75523
individual who is licensed or certified to teach in an elementary 75524
or a secondary school in this state for use by that individual in 75525
preparation for teaching elementary or secondary school students;75526

       (38) Sales to a professional racing team of any of the 75527
following:75528

       (a) Motor racing vehicles;75529

       (b) Repair services for motor racing vehicles;75530

       (c) Items of property that are attached to or incorporated in 75531
motor racing vehicles, including engines, chassis, and all other 75532
components of the vehicles, and all spare, replacement, and 75533
rebuilt parts or components of the vehicles; except not including 75534
tires, consumable fluids, paint, and accessories consisting of 75535
instrumentation sensors and related items added to the vehicle to 75536
collect and transmit data by means of telemetry and other forms of 75537
communication.75538

       (39) Sales of used manufactured homes and used mobile homes, 75539
as defined in section 5739.0210 of the Revised Code, made on or 75540
after January 1, 2000;75541

       (40) Sales of tangible personal property and services to a 75542
provider of electricity used or consumed directly and primarily in 75543
generating, transmitting, or distributing electricity for use by 75544
others, including property that is or is to be incorporated into 75545
and will become a part of the consumer's production, transmission, 75546
or distribution system and that retains its classification as 75547
tangible personal property after incorporation; fuel or power used 75548
in the production, transmission, or distribution of electricity; 75549
energy conversion equipment as defined in section 5727.01 of the 75550
Revised Code; and tangible personal property and services used in 75551
the repair and maintenance of the production, transmission, or 75552
distribution system, including only those motor vehicles as are 75553
specially designed and equipped for such use. The exemption 75554
provided in this division shall be in lieu of all other exemptions 75555
in division (B)(42)(a) or (n) of this section to which a provider 75556
of electricity may otherwise be entitled based on the use of the 75557
tangible personal property or service purchased in generating, 75558
transmitting, or distributing electricity.75559

       (41) Sales to a person providing services under division 75560
(B)(3)(r) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code of tangible 75561
personal property and services used directly and primarily in 75562
providing taxable services under that section.75563

       (42) Sales where the purpose of the purchaser is to do any of 75564
the following:75565

       (a) To incorporate the thing transferred as a material or a 75566
part into tangible personal property to be produced for sale by 75567
manufacturing, assembling, processing, or refining; or to use or 75568
consume the thing transferred directly in producing tangible 75569
personal property for sale by mining, including, without 75570
limitation, the extraction from the earth of all substances that 75571
are classed geologically as minerals, production of crude oil and 75572
natural gas, or directly in the rendition of a public utility 75573
service, except that the sales tax levied by this section shall be 75574
collected upon all meals, drinks, and food for human consumption 75575
sold when transporting persons. Persons engaged in rendering 75576
services in the exploration for, and production of, crude oil and 75577
natural gas for others are deemed engaged directly in the 75578
exploration for, and production of, crude oil and natural gas. 75579
This paragraph does not exempt from "retail sale" or "sales at 75580
retail" the sale of tangible personal property that is to be 75581
incorporated into a structure or improvement to real property.75582

       (b) To hold the thing transferred as security for the 75583
performance of an obligation of the vendor;75584

       (c) To resell, hold, use, or consume the thing transferred as 75585
evidence of a contract of insurance;75586

       (d) To use or consume the thing directly in commercial 75587
fishing;75588

       (e) To incorporate the thing transferred as a material or a 75589
part into, or to use or consume the thing transferred directly in 75590
the production of, magazines distributed as controlled circulation 75591
publications;75592

       (f) To use or consume the thing transferred in the production 75593
and preparation in suitable condition for market and sale of 75594
printed, imprinted, overprinted, lithographic, multilithic, 75595
blueprinted, photostatic, or other productions or reproductions of 75596
written or graphic matter;75597

       (g) To use the thing transferred, as described in section 75598
5739.011 of the Revised Code, primarily in a manufacturing 75599
operation to produce tangible personal property for sale;75600

       (h) To use the benefit of a warranty, maintenance or service 75601
contract, or similar agreement, as described in division (B)(7) of 75602
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, to repair or maintain 75603
tangible personal property, if all of the property that is the 75604
subject of the warranty, contract, or agreement would not be 75605
subject to the tax imposed by this section;75606

       (i) To use the thing transferred as qualified research and 75607
development equipment;75608

       (j) To use or consume the thing transferred primarily in 75609
storing, transporting, mailing, or otherwise handling purchased 75610
sales inventory in a warehouse, distribution center, or similar 75611
facility when the inventory is primarily distributed outside this 75612
state to retail stores of the person who owns or controls the 75613
warehouse, distribution center, or similar facility, to retail 75614
stores of an affiliated group of which that person is a member, or 75615
by means of direct marketing. This division does not apply to 75616
motor vehicles registered for operation on the public highways. As 75617
used in this division, "affiliated group" has the same meaning as 75618
in division (B)(3)(e) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code and 75619
"direct marketing" has the same meaning as in division (B)(35) of 75620
this section.75621

       (k) To use or consume the thing transferred to fulfill a 75622
contractual obligation incurred by a warrantor pursuant to a 75623
warranty provided as a part of the price of the tangible personal 75624
property sold or by a vendor of a warranty, maintenance or service 75625
contract, or similar agreement the provision of which is defined 75626
as a sale under division (B)(7) of section 5739.01 of the Revised 75627
Code;75628

       (l) To use or consume the thing transferred in the production 75629
of a newspaper for distribution to the public;75630

       (m) To use tangible personal property to perform a service 75631
listed in division (B)(3) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, 75632
if the property is or is to be permanently transferred to the 75633
consumer of the service as an integral part of the performance of 75634
the service;75635

       (n) To use or consume the thing transferred primarily in 75636
producing tangible personal property for sale by farming, 75637
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. Persons engaged in 75638
rendering farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture 75639
services for others are deemed engaged primarily in farming, 75640
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. This paragraph does 75641
not exempt from "retail sale" or "sales at retail" the sale of 75642
tangible personal property that is to be incorporated into a 75643
structure or improvement to real property.75644

       (o) To use or consume the thing transferred in acquiring, 75645
formatting, editing, storing, and disseminating data or 75646
information by electronic publishing.75647

       As used in division (B)(42) of this section, "thing" includes 75648
all transactions included in divisions (B)(3)(a), (b), and (e) of 75649
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.75650

       (43) Sales conducted through a coin operated device that 75651
activates vacuum equipment or equipment that dispenses water, 75652
whether or not in combination with soap or other cleaning agents 75653
or wax, to the consumer for the consumer's use on the premises in 75654
washing, cleaning, or waxing a motor vehicle, provided no other 75655
personal property or personal service is provided as part of the 75656
transaction.75657

       (44) Sales of replacement and modification parts for engines, 75658
airframes, instruments, and interiors in, and paint for, aircraft 75659
used primarily in a fractional aircraft ownership program, and 75660
sales of services for the repair, modification, and maintenance of 75661
such aircraft, and machinery, equipment, and supplies primarily 75662
used to provide those services.75663

       (45) Sales of telecommunications service that is used 75664
directly and primarily to perform the functions of a call center. 75665
As used in this division, "call center" means any physical 75666
location where telephone calls are placed or received in high 75667
volume for the purpose of making sales, marketing, customer 75668
service, technical support, or other specialized business 75669
activity, and that employs at least fifty individuals that engage 75670
in call center activities on a full-time basis, or sufficient 75671
individuals to fill fifty full-time equivalent positions.75672

        (46) Sales by a telecommunications service vendor of 900 75673
service to a subscriber. This division does not apply to 75674
information services, as defined in division (FF) of section 75675
5739.01 of the Revised Code.75676

        (47) Sales of value-added non-voice data service. This 75677
division does not apply to any similar service that is not 75678
otherwise a telecommunications service.75679

       (48)(a) Sales of machinery, equipment, and software to a 75680
qualified direct selling entity for use in a warehouse or 75681
distribution center primarily for storing, transporting, or 75682
otherwise handling inventory that is held for sale to independent 75683
salespersons who operate as direct sellers and that is held 75684
primarily for distribution outside this state;75685

       (b) As used in division (B)(48)(a) of this section:75686

       (i) "Direct seller" means a person selling consumer products 75687
to individuals for personal or household use and not from a fixed 75688
retail location, including selling such product at in-home product 75689
demonstrations, parties, and other one-on-one selling.75690

       (ii) "Qualified direct selling entity" means an entity 75691
selling to direct sellers at the time the entity enters into a tax 75692
credit agreement with the tax credit authority pursuant to section 75693
122.17 of the Revised Code, provided that the agreement was 75694
entered into on or after January 1, 2007. Neither contingencies 75695
relevant to the granting of, nor later developments with respect 75696
to, the tax credit shall impair the status of the qualified direct 75697
selling entity under division (B)(48) of this section after 75698
execution of the tax credit agreement by the tax credit authority.75699

       (c) Division (B)(48) of this section is limited to machinery, 75700
equipment, and software first stored, used, or consumed in this 75701
state within the period commencing June 24, 2008, and ending on 75702
the date that is five years after that date.75703

       (49)(a) Sales of materials, parts, equipment, or engines used 75704
in the repair or maintenance of aircraft or avionics systems of 75705
such aircraft, and sales of repair, remodeling, replacement, or 75706
maintenance services in this state performed on aircraft or on an 75707
aircraft's avionics, engine, or component materials or parts. As 75708
used in division (B)(49)(a) of this section, "aircraft" means 75709
aircraft of more than six thousand pounds maximum certified 75710
takeoff weight or used exclusively in general aviation.75711

       (b) Sales of tangible personal property, including materials, 75712
parts, equipment, software, supplies, tools, fuel, catalysts, oil, 75713
acids, and other consumables, or services used or consumed in 75714
performing research and development activities with respect to 75715
aerospace vehicles, the parts, avionics systems, control systems, 75716
engines, software, component materials, or component parts of such 75717
aerospace vehicles, and human performance equipment and technology 75718
associated with operating and testing aerospace vehicles. As used 75719
in division (B)(49)(b) of this section, "aerospace vehicles" means 75720
any manned or unmanned aviation device including, but not limited 75721
to, aircraft, airplanes, helicopters, missiles, rockets, and space 75722
vehicles. 75723

       (50) Sales of full flight simulators that are used for pilot 75724
or flight-crew training, sales of repair or replacement parts or 75725
components, and sales of repair or maintenance services for such 75726
full flight simulators. "Full flight simulator" means a replica of 75727
a specific type, or make, model, and series of aircraft cockpit. 75728
It includes the assemblage of equipment and computer programs 75729
necessary to represent aircraft operations in ground and flight 75730
conditions, a visual system providing an out-of-the-cockpit view, 75731
and a system that provides cues at least equivalent to those of a 75732
three-degree-of-freedom motion system, and has the full range of 75733
capabilities of the systems installed in the device as described 75734
in appendices A and B of part 60 of chapter 1 of title 14 of the 75735
Code of Federal Regulations.75736

       (51) Any transfer or lease of tangible personal property 75737
between the state and a successful proposer in accordance with 75738
sections 126.60 to 126.605 of the Revised Code, provided the 75739
property is part of a project as defined in section 126.60 of the 75740
Revised Code and the state retains ownership of the project or 75741
part thereof that is being transferred or leased, between the 75742
state and JobsOhio in accordance with section 4313.02 of the 75743
Revised Code.75744

       (C) For the purpose of the proper administration of this 75745
chapter, and to prevent the evasion of the tax, it is presumed 75746
that all sales made in this state are subject to the tax until the 75747
contrary is established.75748

       (D) The levy of this tax on retail sales of recreation and 75749
sports club service shall not prevent a municipal corporation from 75750
levying any tax on recreation and sports club dues or on any 75751
income generated by recreation and sports club dues.75752

       (E) The tax collected by the vendor from the consumer under 75753
this chapter is not part of the price, but is a tax collection for 75754
the benefit of the state, and of counties levying an additional 75755
sales tax pursuant to section 5739.021 or 5739.026 of the Revised 75756
Code and of transit authorities levying an additional sales tax 75757
pursuant to section 5739.023 of the Revised Code. Except for the 75758
discount authorized under section 5739.12 of the Revised Code and 75759
the effects of any rounding pursuant to section 5703.055 of the 75760
Revised Code, no person other than the state or such a county or 75761
transit authority shall derive any benefit from the collection or 75762
payment of the tax levied by this section or section 5739.021, 75763
5739.023, or 5739.026 of the Revised Code.75764

       Sec. 5743.03. (A) Except as provided in section 5743.04 of 75765
the Revised Code, the taxes imposed under sections 5743.02, 75766
5743.021, 5743.024, and 5743.026 of the Revised Code shall be paid 75767
by the purchase of tax stamps. A tax stamp shall be affixed to 75768
each package of an aggregate denomination not less than the amount 75769
of the tax upon the contents thereof. The tax stamp, so affixed, 75770
shall be prima-facie evidence of payment of the tax. 75771

       Except as is provided in the rules prescribed by the tax 75772
commissioner under authority of sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the 75773
Revised Code, and unless tax stamps have been previously affixed, 75774
they shall be so affixed by each wholesale dealer, and canceled by 75775
writing or stamping across the face thereof the number assigned to 75776
such wholesale dealer by the tax commissioner for that purpose, 75777
prior to the delivery of any cigarettes to any person in this 75778
state, or in the case of a tax levied pursuant to section 75779
5743.021, 5743.024, or 5743.026 of the Revised Code, prior to the 75780
delivery of cigarettes to any person in the county in which the 75781
tax is levied.75782

       (B) Except as provided in the rules prescribed by the 75783
commissioner under authority of sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the 75784
Revised Code, each retail dealer, within twenty-four hours after 75785
the receipt of any cigarettes at the retail dealer's place of 75786
business, shall inspect the cigarettes to ensure that tax stamps 75787
are affixed. The inspection shall be completed before the 75788
cigarettes are delivered to any person in this state, or, in the 75789
case of a tax levied pursuant to section 5743.021, 5743.024, or 75790
5743.026 of the Revised Code, before the cigarettes are delivered 75791
to any person in the county in which the tax is levied.75792

       (C) Whenever any cigarettes are found in the place of 75793
business of any retail dealer without proper tax stamps affixed 75794
thereto and canceled, it is presumed that such cigarettes are kept 75795
therein in violation of sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised 75796
Code.75797

       (D) Each wholesale dealer who purchases cigarettes without 75798
proper tax stamps affixed thereto shall, on or before the 75799
thirty-first day of the month following the close of each 75800
semiannual period, which period shall end on the thirtieth day of 75801
June and the thirty-first day of December of each year, make and 75802
file a return of the preceding semiannual period, on such form as 75803
is prescribed by the tax commissioner, showing the dealer's entire 75804
purchases and sales of cigarettes and stamps or impressions for 75805
such semiannual period and accurate inventories as of the 75806
beginning and end of each semiannual period of cigarettes, stamped 75807
or unstamped; cigarette tax stamps affixed or unaffixed and unused 75808
meter impressions; and such other information as the commissioner 75809
finds necessary to the proper administration of sections 5743.01 75810
to 5743.20 of the Revised Code. The commissioner may extend the 75811
time for making and filing returns and may remit all or any part 75812
of amounts of penalties that may become due under sections 5743.01 75813
to 5743.20 of the Revised Code. The wholesale dealer shall deliver 75814
the return together with a remittance of the tax deficiency 75815
reported thereon to the treasurer of state. The treasurer of state 75816
shall stamp or otherwise mark on the return the date it was 75817
received and shall also show thereon by stamp or otherwise a 75818
payment or nonpayment of the deficiency shown by the return. 75819
Thereafter, the treasurer of state shall immediately transmit all 75820
returns filed under this section to the commissioner.75821

       (E) Any wholesale dealer who fails to file a return under 75822
this section and the rules of the commissioner, other than a 75823
report required pursuant to division (F) of this section, may be 75824
required, for each day the dealer so fails, to forfeit and pay 75825
into the state treasury the sum of one dollar as revenue arising 75826
from the tax imposed by sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised 75827
Code and such sum may be collected by assessment in the manner 75828
provided in section 5743.081 of the Revised Code. If the 75829
commissioner finds it necessary in order to insure the payment of 75830
the tax imposed by sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised 75831
Code, the commissioner may require returns and payments to be made 75832
other than semiannually. The returns shall be signed by the 75833
wholesale dealer or an authorized agent thereof.75834

       (F) Each person required to file a tax return under section 75835
5743.03, 5743.52, or 5743.62 of the Revised Code shall report to 75836
the commissioner the quantity of all cigarettes and roll-your-own 75837
cigarette tobacco sold in Ohio for each brand not covered by the 75838
tobacco master settlement agreement for which the person is liable 75839
for the taxes levied under section 5743.02, 5743.51, or 5743.62 of 75840
the Revised Code.75841

       As used in this division, "tobacco master settlement 75842
agreement" has the same meaning as in section 183.01 of the 75843
Revised Code.75844

       (G) The report required by division (F) of this section shall 75845
be made on a form prescribed by the commissioner and shall be 75846
filed not later than the last day of each month for the previous 75847
month, except that if the commissioner determines that the 75848
quantity reported by a person does not warrant monthly reporting, 75849
the commissioner may authorize reporting at less frequent 75850
intervals. The commissioner may assess a penalty of not more than 75851
two hundred fifty dollars for each month or portion thereof that a 75852
person fails to timely file a required report, and such sum may be 75853
collected by assessment in the manner provided in section 5743.081 75854
of the Revised Code. All money collected under this division shall 75855
be considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by 75856
sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised Code.75857

       (H) The treasurer of state or an agent of the treasurer may 75858
sell tax stamps only to a licensed wholesale dealer, except as 75859
otherwise authorized by the commissioner. The treasurer or an 75860
agent of the treasurer may charge the costs associated with the 75861
sale of tax stamps to the licensed wholesale dealer. Amounts 75862
collected from such charges shall be credited to the treasurer of 75863
state's administrative fund created under section 113.20 of the 75864
Revised Code.75865

       Sec. 5743.031.  (A) A wholesale dealer may affix stamps only 75866
to packages of cigarettes that the dealer received directly from a 75867
manufacturer or importer of cigarettes that possesses a valid and 75868
current license under section 5743.15 of the Revised Code, or to 75869
packages of cigarettes that the dealer received from another 75870
wholesale dealer that possesses a valid and current license under 75871
section 5743.15 of the Revised Code, provided that the tax 75872
commissioner has authorized the sale of the cigarettes between 75873
those wholesale dealers and that the wholesale dealer that sells 75874
the cigarettes received them directly from a manufacturer or 75875
importer of cigarettes that possesses a valid and current license 75876
under section 5743.15 of the Revised Code.75877

       (B) Only a wholesale dealer that possesses a valid and 75878
current license under section 5743.15 of the Revised Code may 75879
purchase or obtain tax stamps. A wholesale dealer may not sell or 75880
provide such stamps to any other wholesale dealer or any other 75881
person.75882

       (C) Any person shipping unstamped packages of cigarettes into 75883
this state to a person other than a wholesale dealer licensed 75884
under section 5743.15 of the Revised Code shall, before such 75885
shipment, file notice of the shipment with the tax commissioner. 75886
Any person that transports unstamped packages of cigarettes into 75887
or within this state shall carry in the vehicle used to convey the 75888
shipment invoices or equivalent documentation of the shipment for 75889
all cigarettes in the shipment. The invoices or other 75890
documentation shall show the true name and address of the 75891
consignor or seller, the true name and address of the consignee or 75892
purchaser, and the quantity of the cigarettes being transported. 75893
This division does not apply to any common or contractfor-hire 75894
motor carrier transporting cigarettes through this state to 75895
another location under a proper bill of lading or freight bill 75896
that states the quantity, source, and destination of the 75897
cigarettes.75898

       Sec. 5751.033.  For the purposes of this chapter, gross 75899
receipts shall be sitused to this state as follows:75900

       (A) Gross rents and royalties from real property located in 75901
this state shall be sitused to this state.75902

       (B) Gross rents and royalties from tangible personal property 75903
shall be sitused to this state to the extent the tangible personal 75904
property is located or used in this state.75905

       (C) Gross receipts from the sale of electricity and electric 75906
transmission and distribution services shall be sitused to this 75907
state in the manner provided under section 5733.059 of the Revised 75908
Code.75909

       (D) Gross receipts from the sale of real property located in 75910
this state shall be sitused to this state.75911

       (E) Gross receipts from the sale of tangible personal 75912
property shall be sitused to this state if the property is 75913
received in this state by the purchaser. In the case of delivery 75914
of tangible personal property by commonmotor carrier or by other 75915
means of transportation, the place at which such property is 75916
ultimately received after all transportation has been completed 75917
shall be considered the place where the purchaser receives the 75918
property. For purposes of this section, the phrase "delivery of 75919
tangible personal property by commonmotor carrier or by other 75920
means of transportation" includes the situation in which a 75921
purchaser accepts the property in this state and then transports 75922
the property directly or by other means to a location outside this 75923
state. Direct delivery in this state, other than for purposes of 75924
transportation, to a person or firm designated by a purchaser 75925
constitutes delivery to the purchaser in this state, and direct 75926
delivery outside this state to a person or firm designated by a 75927
purchaser does not constitute delivery to the purchaser in this 75928
state, regardless of where title passes or other conditions of 75929
sale.75930

       (F) Gross receipts from the sale, exchange, disposition, or 75931
other grant of the right to use trademarks, trade names, patents, 75932
copyrights, and similar intellectual property shall be sitused to 75933
this state to the extent that the receipts are based on the amount 75934
of use of the property in this state. If the receipts are not 75935
based on the amount of use of the property, but rather on the 75936
right to use the property, and the payor has the right to use the 75937
property in this state, then the receipts from the sale, exchange, 75938
disposition, or other grant of the right to use such property 75939
shall be sitused to this state to the extent the receipts are 75940
based on the right to use the property in this state.75941

       (G) Gross receipts from the sale of transportation services 75942
by a common or contractmotor carrier shall be sitused to this 75943
state in proportion to the mileage traveled by the carrier during 75944
the tax period on roadways, waterways, airways, and railways in 75945
this state to the mileage traveled by the carrier during the tax 75946
period on roadways, waterways, airways, and railways everywhere. 75947
With prior written approval of the tax commissioner, a common or 75948
contractmotor carrier may use an alternative situsing procedure 75949
for transportation services.75950

        (H) Gross receipts from dividends, interest, and other 75951
sources of income from financial instruments described in 75952
divisions (F)(4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), and (13) of 75953
section 5733.056 of the Revised Code shall be sitused to this 75954
state in accordance with the situsing provisions set forth in 75955
those divisions. When applying the provisions of divisions (F)(6), 75956
(8), and (13) of section 5733.056 of the Revised Code, "gross 75957
receipts" shall be substituted for "net gains" wherever "net 75958
gains" appears in those divisions. Nothing in this division limits 75959
or modifies the exclusions enumerated in divisions (E) and (F)(2) 75960
of section 5751.01 of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner may 75961
promulgate rules to further specify the manner in which to situs 75962
gross receipts subject to this division.75963

        (I) Gross receipts from the sale of all other services, and 75964
all other gross receipts not otherwise sitused under this section, 75965
shall be sitused to this state in the proportion that the 75966
purchaser's benefit in this state with respect to what was 75967
purchased bears to the purchaser's benefit everywhere with respect 75968
to what was purchased. The physical location where the purchaser 75969
ultimately uses or receives the benefit of what was purchased 75970
shall be paramount in determining the proportion of the benefit in 75971
this state to the benefit everywhere. If a taxpayer's records do 75972
not allow the taxpayer to determine that location, the taxpayer 75973
may use an alternative method to situs gross receipts under this 75974
division if the alternative method is reasonable, is consistently 75975
and uniformly applied, and is supported by the taxpayer's records 75976
as the records exist when the service is provided or within a 75977
reasonable period of time thereafter.75978

       (J) If the situsing provisions of divisions (A) to (H) of 75979
this section do not fairly represent the extent of a person's 75980
activity in this state, the person may request, or the tax 75981
commissioner may require or permit, an alternative method. Such 75982
request by a person must be made within the applicable statute of 75983
limitations set forth in this chapter.75984

       (K) The tax commissioner may adopt rules to provide 75985
additional guidance to the application of this section, and 75986
provide alternative methods of situsing gross receipts that apply 75987
to all persons, or subset of persons, that are engaged in similar 75988
business or trade activities.75989

       (L) As used in this section, "motor carrier" has the same 75990
meaning as in section 4923.01 of the Revised Code.75991

       Sec. 5751.12.  The tax commissioner may prescribe 75992
requirements for the keeping of records and other pertinent 75993
documents, the filing of copies of federal income tax returns and 75994
determinations, and computations reconciling federal income tax 75995
returns with the returns and reports required by section 5751.05 75996
of the Revised Code. The commissioner may require any person, by 75997
rule or notice served on that person, to keep those records that 75998
the commissioner considers necessary to show whether, and the 75999
extent to which, a person is subject to this chapter. Those 76000
records and other documents shall be open during business hours to 76001
the inspection of the commissioner, and shall be preserved for a 76002
period of four years unless the commissioner, in writing, consents 76003
to their destruction within that period, or by order requires that 76004
they be kept longer. If such records are normally kept by the 76005
person electronically, the person shall provide such records to 76006
the commissioner electronically at the commissioner's request.76007

       Any information required by the tax commissioner under this 76008
chapter is confidential as provided for in section 5703.21 of the 76009
Revised Code. However, the commissioner shall make public an 76010
electronic list of all actively registered persons required to 76011
remit the tax under this chapter, including legal names, trade 76012
names, addresses, and account numbers. In addition, such list 76013
shall include all persons that cancelled their registration at any 76014
time during the preceding four calendar years, including the date 76015
the registration was cancelled.76016

       Sec. 6109.21.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (D)(I) and 76017
(E)(J) of this section, on and after January 1, 1994, no person 76018
shall operate or maintain a public water system in this state 76019
without a license issued by the director of environmental 76020
protection. A person who operates or maintains a public water 76021
system on January 1, 1994, shall obtain an initial license under 76022
this section in accordance with the following schedule:76023

       (1) If the public water system is a community water system, 76024
not later than January 31, 1994; 76025

       (2) If the public water system is not a community water 76026
system and serves a nontransient population, not later than 76027
January 31, 1994;76028

       (3) If the public water system is not a community water 76029
system and serves a transient population, not later than January 76030
31, 1995.76031

       A person proposing to operate or maintain a new public water 76032
system after January 1, 1994, in addition to complying with 76033
section 6109.07 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it, 76034
shall submit an application for an initial license under this 76035
section to the director prior to commencing operation of the 76036
system. 76037

       A license or license renewal issued under this section shall 76038
be renewed annually. Such a license or license renewal shall 76039
expire on the thirtieth day of January in the year following its 76040
issuance. A license holder that proposes to continue operating the 76041
public water system for which the license or license renewal was 76042
issued shall apply for a license renewal at least thirty days 76043
prior to that expiration date. 76044

       The director shall adopt, and may amend and rescind, rules in 76045
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 76046
procedures governing and information to be included on 76047
applications for licenses and license renewals under this section. 76048
Through(B)(1) A person who proposes to operate a new public water 76049
system, in addition to complying with section 6109.07 of the 76050
Revised Code and rules adopted under it, shall obtain an initial 76051
license from the director. The person shall submit an application 76052
for the initial license at least forty-five days prior to 76053
commencing the operation of the system.76054

        (C) A license shall expire on the thirtieth day of January in 76055
the year following its issuance.76056

        (D) A license shall be renewed annually. A person proposing 76057
to continue operating a public water system shall apply for a 76058
license renewal at least thirty days prior to the expiration date 76059
of the license.76060

        (E) Through June 30, 2014, each application for a license or 76061
license renewal shall be accompanied by the appropriate fee 76062
established under division (M) of section 3745.11 of the Revised 76063
Code, provided that. However, an applicant for an initial license 76064
who is proposing to operate or maintain a new public water system 76065
after January 1, 1994, shall submit a fee that equals a prorated 76066
amount of the appropriate fee established under that division for 76067
the remainder of the licensing year.76068

       (B)(F) Not later than thirty days after receiving a completed 76069
application and the appropriate license fee for an initiala76070
license under division (A) of this section, the director shall 76071
issue theor license renewal for thea public water system. Not 76072
later than thirty days after receiving a completed application and 76073
the appropriate license fee for a license renewal under division 76074
(A) of this section, the director shall do one of the following:76075

       (1) Issue the license or license renewal for the public water 76076
system;76077

       (2) Issue the license or license renewal subject to terms and 76078
conditions that the director determines are necessary to ensure 76079
compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under it;76080

       (3) Deny the license or license renewal if the director finds 76081
that the public water system was notcannot be operated in 76082
substantial compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under 76083
it.76084

       (C)(G) The director may condition, suspend, or revoke a 76085
license or license renewal issued under this section at any time76086
if the director finds that the public water system was not or will 76087
not be operated in substantial compliance with this chapter and 76088
rules adopted under it. The director shall adopt, and may amend 76089
and rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 76090
Code governing such suspensions and revocations.76091

       (D)(H) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with 76092
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures and 76093
requirements governing both of the following:76094

        (1) Information to be included on applications for licenses 76095
and license renewals issued under this section;76096

        (2) The issuance, conditioning, suspension, revocation, and 76097
denial of licenses and license renewals under this section. 76098

       (I)(1) As used in division (D)(I) of this section, "church" 76099
means a fellowship of believers, congregation, society, 76100
corporation, convention, or association that is formed primarily 76101
or exclusively for religious purposes and that is not formed or 76102
operated for the private profit of any person.76103

       (2) This section does not apply to a church that operates or 76104
maintains a public water system solely to provide water for that 76105
church or for a campground that is owned by the church and 76106
operated primarily or exclusively for members of the church and 76107
their families. A church that, on or before March 5, 1996, has 76108
obtained a license under this section for such a public water 76109
system need not obtain a license renewal under this section.76110

       (E)(J) This section does not apply to any public or nonpublic 76111
school that meets minimum standards of the state board of 76112
education that operates or maintains a public water system solely 76113
to provide water for that school.76114

       (F)(K) The environmental protection agency shall collect well 76115
log filing fees on behalf of the division of soil and water 76116
resources in the department of natural resources in accordance 76117
with section 1521.05 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 76118
it. The fees shall be submitted to the division quarterly as 76119
provided in those rules.76120

       Sec. 6111.46.  (A) The environmental protection agency shall 76121
exercise general supervision of the treatment and disposal of 76122
sewage and industrial wastes and the operation and maintenance of 76123
works or means installed for the collection, treatment, and 76124
disposal of sewage and industrial wastes. Such general supervision 76125
shall apply to all features of construction, operation, and 76126
maintenance of the works or means that do or may affect the proper 76127
treatment and disposal of sewage and industrial wastes. 76128

       (B)(1) The agency shall investigate the works or means 76129
employed in the collection, treatment, and disposal of sewage and 76130
industrial wastes whenever considered necessary or whenever 76131
requested to do so by local health officials and may issue and 76132
enforce orders and shall adopt rules governing the operation and 76133
maintenance of the works or means of treatment and disposal of 76134
such sewage and industrial wastes. In adopting rules under this 76135
section, the agency shall establish standards governing the 76136
construction, operation, and maintenance of the works or means of 76137
collection, treatment, and disposal of sewage that is generated at 76138
recreational vehicle parks, recreation camps, combined park-camps, 76139
and temporary park-camps that are separate from such standards 76140
relative to manufactured home parks.76141

       (2) As used in division (B)(1) of this section:76142

       (a) "Manufactured home parks" has the same meaning as in 76143
section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code.76144

       (b) "Recreational vehicle parks," "recreation camps," 76145
"combined park-camps," and "temporary park-camps" have the same 76146
meanings as in section 3729.01 of the Revised Code.76147

       (C) The agency may require the submission of records and data 76148
of construction, operation, and maintenance, including plans and 76149
descriptions of existing works or means of treatment and disposal 76150
of such sewage and industrial wastes. When the agency requires the 76151
submission of such records or information, the public officials or 76152
person, firm, or corporation having the works in charge shall 76153
comply promptly with that order.76154

       Sec. 6117.39.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 76155
section, whenever, in the opinion of the board of county 76156
commissioners, it is necessary to acquire real estate or any 76157
interest in real estate for the acquisition, construction, 76158
maintenance, or operation of any sewer, drainage, or other 76159
improvement authorized by this chapter, or to acquire the right to 76160
construct, maintain, and operate the sewer, drainage, or other 76161
improvement in and upon any property within or outside of a county 76162
sewer district, it may purchase the real estate, interest in real 76163
estate, or right by negotiation. If the board and the owner of the 76164
real estate, interest in real estate, or right are unable to agree 76165
upon its purchase and sale, or the amount of damages to be awarded 76166
for it, the board may appropriate the real estate, interest, or 76167
right in accordance with sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised 76168
Code, except that the board, in the exercise of the powers granted 76169
by this section or any other section of this chapter, may not 76170
appropriate real estate or personal property owned by a municipal 76171
corporation.76172

       (B)(1) For the purposes of division (B) of this section, 76173
eitherany of the following constitutes a public exigency:76174

        (a) A finding by the director of environmental protection 76175
that a public health nuisance caused by an occasion of unavoidable 76176
urgency and suddenness due to unsanitary conditions compels the 76177
immediate construction of sewers for the protection of the public 76178
health and welfare;76179

       (b) The issuance of an order by the board of health of a 76180
health district to mitigate or abate a public health nuisance that 76181
is caused by an occasion of unavoidable urgency and suddenness due 76182
to unsanitary conditions and compels the immediate construction of 76183
sewers for the protection of the public health and welfare;76184

       (c) With respect to an affected parcel of property, an 76185
improvement required as a result of a federally imposed or 76186
state-imposed consent decree that prohibits future sewer inflows, 76187
combined sewer overflows, or sewer back-ups.76188

        (2) If the board of county commissioners is unable to 76189
purchase property for the purpose of the construction of sewers to 76190
mitigate or abate the public health nuisance that is the subject 76191
of a finding of the director or an order of the board of health76192
addressing a public exigency pursuant to division (B) of this 76193
section, the board of county commissioners may adopt a resolution 76194
finding that it is necessary for the protection of the public 76195
health and welfare to appropriate property that the board of 76196
county commissioners considers needed for that purpose. The 76197
resolution shall contain a definite, accurate, and detailed 76198
description of the property and the name and place of residence, 76199
if known or with reasonable diligence ascertainable, of the owners 76200
of the property to be appropriated.76201

        The board of county commissioners shall fix in its resolution 76202
what it considers to be the value of the property to be 76203
appropriated, which shall be the board's determination of the 76204
compensation for the property and shall be supported by an 76205
independent appraisal, together with any damages to the residue. 76206
The board shall deposit the compensation so determined, together 76207
with an amount for the damages to the residue, with the probate 76208
court or the court of common pleas of the county in which the 76209
property, or a part of it, is situated. Except as otherwise 76210
provided in this division, the power to appropriate property for 76211
the purposes of this division shall be exercised in the manner 76212
provided in sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code for an 76213
appropriation in the time of public exigency. The board's 76214
resolution and a written copy of the independent appraisal shall 76215
accompany the petition filed under section 163.05 of the Revised 76216
Code.76217

       Sec. 6119.11.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 76218
section, the board of trustees of a regional water and sewer 76219
district may condemn for the use of the district any public or 76220
private land, easement, rights, rights-of-way, franchises, or 76221
other property within or without the district required by it for 76222
the accomplishment of its purposes according to the procedure set 76223
forth in sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code.76224

       (B)(1) For the purposes of division (B) of this section, 76225
eitherany of the following constitutes a public exigency:76226

        (a) A finding by the director of environmental protection 76227
that a public health nuisance caused by an occasion of unavoidable 76228
urgency and suddenness due to unsanitary conditions compels the 76229
immediate construction of sewers for the protection of the public 76230
health and welfare;76231

       (b) The issuance of an order by the board of health of a 76232
health district to mitigate or abate a public health nuisance that 76233
is caused by an occasion of unavoidable urgency and suddenness due 76234
to unsanitary conditions and compels the immediate construction of 76235
sewers for the protection of the public health and welfare;76236

       (c) With respect to an affected parcel of property, an 76237
improvement required as a result of a federally imposed or 76238
state-imposed consent decree that prohibits future sewer inflows, 76239
combined sewer overflows, or sewer back-ups.76240

        (2) If the board of trustees of a regional water and sewer 76241
district is unable to purchase property for the purpose of the 76242
construction of sewers to mitigate or abate the public health 76243
nuisance that is the subject of a finding of the director or an 76244
order of the board of healthaddressing a public exigency pursuant 76245
to division (B) of this section, the board of trustees may adopt a 76246
resolution finding that it is necessary for the protection of the 76247
public health and welfare to appropriate property that the board 76248
of trustees considers needed for that purpose. The resolution 76249
shall contain a definite, accurate, and detailed description of 76250
the property and the name and place of residence, if known or with 76251
reasonable diligence ascertainable, of the owners of the property 76252
to be appropriated.76253

        The board of trustees shall fix in its resolution what it 76254
considers to be the value of the property to be appropriated, 76255
which shall be the board's determination of the compensation for 76256
the property and shall be supported by an independent appraisal, 76257
together with any damages to the residue. The board shall deposit 76258
the compensation so determined, together with an amount for the 76259
damages to the residue, with the probate court or the court of 76260
common pleas of the county in which the property, or a part of it, 76261
is situated. Except as otherwise provided in this division, the 76262
power to appropriate property for the purposes of this division 76263
shall be exercised in the manner provided in sections 163.01 to 76264
163.22 of the Revised Code for an appropriation in the time of 76265
public exigency. The board's resolution and a written copy of the 76266
independent appraisal shall accompany the petition filed under 76267
section 163.05 of the Revised Code.76268

       Section 101.02. That existing sections 7.10, 7.16, 9.34, 76269
102.02, 103.05, 105.41, 107.54, 109.33, 109.57, 109.572, 109.801, 76270
119.032, 121.04, 121.08, 121.083, 121.084, 123.01, 123.011, 76271
123.024, 123.04, 123.07, 123.08, 123.09, 123.10, 123.101, 123.11, 76272
123.13, 123.14, 123.15, 123.152, 123.17, 123.21, 123.46, 123.47, 76273
123.48, 123.49, 123.77, 124.04, 124.06, 124.11, 124.12, 124.14, 76274
124.231, 124.241, 124.25, 124.26, 124.27, 124.30, 124.31, 125.082, 76275
125.14, 126.14, 135.35, 140.01, 140.03, 140.05, 140.08, 145.01, 76276
145.012, 149.43, 151.01, 152.18, 152.24, 153.01, 153.011, 153.013, 76277
153.02, 153.04, 153.06, 153.07, 153.08, 153.09, 153.11, 153.12, 76278
153.14, 153.16, 153.17, 153.502, 153.503, 153.53, 154.01, 167.04, 76279
173.14, 173.21, 173.23, 173.26, 173.27, 173.391, 173.394, 173.40, 76280
173.42, 173.45, 173.46, 185.01, 185.02, 185.03, 185.05, 185.06, 76281
185.07, 185.09, 185.12, 189.04, 189.05, 189.06, 189.08, 306.04, 76282
306.36, 306.55, 307.05, 307.051, 307.055, 313.121, 313.122, 76283
313.16, 329.01, 329.40, 329.41, 329.42, 329.43, 329.44, 329.45, 76284
329.46, 330.04, 339.091, 340.03, 340.05, 340.091, 505.37, 505.375, 76285
505.44, 505.72, 705.18, 749.04, 749.05, 749.18, 901.54, 924.51, 76286
955.16, 955.26, 991.02, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 76287
1317.05, 1321.37, 1321.52, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.02, 1322.03, 76288
1322.031, 1345.05, 1501.04, 1502.01, 1502.02, 1502.03, 1502.04, 76289
1502.05, 1502.06, 1502.07, 1502.12, 1502.99, 1503.012, 1503.43, 76290
1506.42, 1509.071, 1533.10, 1541.26, 1551.33, 1555.02, 1555.03, 76291
1555.04, 1555.05, 1555.06, 1707.08, 1707.391, 1724.03, 1733.47, 76292
1751.01, 1751.02, 1751.13, 1761.26, 1901.01, 1901.02, 1901.03, 76293
1901.06, 1901.07, 1901.08, 1901.18, 1901.31, 1907.11, 1907.13, 76294
1909.11, 1923.01, 1923.02, 1923.061, 1923.15, 2151.86, 2152.121, 76295
2152.22, 2301.01, 2301.27, 2301.271, 2301.571, 2305.01, 2307.89, 76296
2317.02, 2317.422, 2317.56, 2501.02, 2503.01, 2743.02, 2743.10, 76297
2746.01, 2901.01, 2903.33, 2907.29, 2909.21, 2909.28, 2927.023, 76298
2929.01, 2929.19, 2935.01, 2935.03, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 76299
2945.40, 2945.401, 2961.22, 2967.03, 2967.05, 2967.14, 2967.19, 76300
2967.191, 2967.26, 2967.28, 2981.11, 2981.14, 3109.14, 3125.41, 76301
3301.55, 3304.14, 3304.16, 3304.181, 3304.182, 3305.01, 3305.02, 76302
3305.03, 3305.04, 3305.05, 3305.053, 3305.06, 3313.65, 3313.71, 76303
3313.976, 3313.978, 3313.979, 3318.034, 3318.08, 3318.10, 3318.30, 76304
3318.31, 3318.37, 3333.04, 3333.041, 3333.123, 3333.21, 3333.60, 76305
3333.61, 3333.71, 3333.72, 3334.08, 3345.16, 3345.28, 3345.50, 76306
3345.51, 3345.54, 3345.69, 3345.692, 3347.03, 3383.02, 3383.07, 76307
3517.20, 3701.021, 3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.025, 3701.03, 3701.05, 76308
3701.07, 3701.072, 3701.11, 3701.132, 3701.146, 3701.161, 3701.20, 76309
3701.201, 3701.21, 3701.221, 3701.23, 3701.232, 3701.24, 3701.241, 76310
3701.242, 3701.248, 3701.341, 3701.342, 3701.343, 3701.344, 76311
3701.345, 3701.347, 3701.352, 3701.40, 3701.503, 3701.507, 76312
3701.508, 3701.509, 3701.57, 3701.63, 3701.74, 3701.87, 3701.881, 76313
3702.141, 3702.31, 3702.51, 3702.52, 3702.522, 3702.523, 3702.524, 76314
3702.525, 3702.526, 3702.53, 3702.531, 3702.54, 3702.55, 3702.56, 76315
3702.57, 3702.59, 3702.592, 3702.593, 3702.594, 3702.60, 3702.62, 76316
3703.01, 3703.03, 3703.04, 3703.05, 3703.06, 3703.07, 3703.08, 76317
3703.10, 3703.21, 3703.99, 3704.035, 3705.24, 3705.242, 3705.30, 76318
3706.19, 3709.03, 3709.04, 3709.06, 3709.085, 3709.09, 3709.092, 76319
3709.32, 3709.35, 3710.01, 3710.02, 3710.04, 3710.05, 3710.051, 76320
3710.06, 3710.07, 3710.08, 3710.09, 3710.10, 3710.12, 3710.13, 76321
3710.17, 3711.04, 3711.06, 3711.08, 3711.12, 3711.21, 3712.03, 76322
3712.04, 3712.09, 3713.01, 3713.02, 3713.03, 3713.04, 3713.05, 76323
3713.06, 3713.07, 3713.08, 3713.09, 3713.10, 3714.073, 3715.01, 76324
3715.025, 3715.60, 3715.61, 3715.62, 3715.68, 3715.87, 3716.01, 76325
3716.03, 3717.01, 3717.04, 3717.05, 3717.07, 3717.45, 3717.51, 76326
3718.02, 3718.021, 3718.022, 3718.05, 3718.06, 3718.07, 3718.09, 76327
3721.01, 3721.011, 3721.02, 3721.03, 3721.032, 3721.04, 3721.07, 76328
3721.071, 3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.21, 3721.28, 3721.29, 3721.50, 76329
3721.51, 3723.06, 3723.07, 3723.09, 3725.02, 3727.01, 3727.42, 76330
3729.01, 3729.02, 3729.03, 3729.04, 3729.07, 3729.08, 3730.10, 76331
3733.02, 3733.021, 3733.022, 3733.024, 3733.025, 3733.03, 3733.04, 76332
3733.05, 3733.06, 3733.07, 3733.08, 3733.09, 3733.091, 3733.10, 76333
3733.101, 3733.11, 3733.12, 3733.121, 3733.122, 3733.123, 3733.13, 76334
3733.14, 3733.15, 3733.16, 3733.17, 3733.18, 3733.19, 3733.20, 76335
3733.41, 3733.42, 3734.01, 3734.131, 3734.15, 3734.51, 3734.55, 76336
3734.79, 3734.82, 3735.37, 3737.83, 3737.841, 3742.01, 3742.02, 76337
3742.03, 3742.04, 3742.05, 3742.30, 3742.31, 3742.32, 3742.47, 76338
3742.50, 3743.04, 3743.06, 3743.19, 3743.25, 3745.01, 3745.11, 76339
3745.112, 3748.04, 3748.05, 3748.07, 3748.10, 3748.12, 3748.13, 76340
3748.15, 3748.20, 3749.02, 3749.03, 3749.04, 3752.06, 3770.06, 76341
3781.03, 3781.06, 3781.102, 3781.11, 3781.112, 3783.05, 3791.02, 76342
3791.04, 3791.05, 3791.07, 3791.11, 3791.12, 3793.04, 3793.09, 76343
3905.36, 4104.01, 4104.02, 4104.06, 4104.07, 4104.08, 4104.09, 76344
4104.10, 4104.101, 4104.12, 4104.15, 4104.16, 4104.17, 4104.18, 76345
4104.19, 4104.21, 4104.33, 4104.42, 4104.43, 4104.44, 4104.48, 76346
4105.01, 4105.02, 4105.03, 4105.04, 4105.05, 4105.06, 4105.09, 76347
4105.11, 4105.12, 4105.13, 4105.15, 4105.16, 4105.17, 4105.191, 76348
4105.20, 4105.21, 4115.10, 4115.101, 4121.04, 4121.123, 4121.30, 76349
4123.20, 4123.35, 4123.57, 4141.35, 4163.07, 4169.02, 4169.03, 76350
4169.04, 4171.04, 4301.30, 4303.181, 4303.22, 4313.02, 4501.01, 76351
4501.06, 4501.271, 4503.031, 4503.061, 4503.062, 4503.49, 4503.81, 76352
4506.01, 4506.03, 4506.22, 4506.25, 4507.01, 4507.011, 4507.12, 76353
4507.51, 4508.02, 4510.037, 4510.038, 4511.191, 4511.78, 4511.98, 76354
4513.18, 4513.263, 4513.50, 4582.12, 4582.31, 4712.01, 4723.481, 76355
4730.42, 4731.052, 4731.22, 4735.01, 4735.02, 4735.052, 4735.10, 76356
4735.13, 4735.14, 4735.141, 4735.142, 4735.74, 4736.01, 4740.03, 76357
4740.11, 4740.14, 4743.05, 4763.05, 4765.02, 4765.03, 4765.04, 76358
4765.05, 4765.06, 4765.07, 4765.08, 4765.09, 4765.10, 4765.101, 76359
4765.102, 4765.11, 4765.111, 4765.112, 4765.113, 4765.114, 76360
4765.115, 4765.116, 4765.12, 4765.15, 4765.16, 4765.17, 4765.18, 76361
4765.22, 4765.23, 4765.28, 4765.29, 4765.30, 4765.31, 4765.32, 76362
4765.33, 4765.37, 4765.38, 4765.39, 4765.40, 4765.42, 4765.48, 76363
4765.49, 4765.55, 4765.56, 4766.01, 4766.03, 4766.04, 4766.05, 76364
4766.07, 4766.08, 4766.09, 4766.10, 4766.11, 4766.12, 4766.13, 76365
4766.15, 4766.22, 4773.08, 4781.01, 4781.02, 4781.04, 4781.07, 76366
4781.09, 4781.14, 4781.15, 4781.16, 4781.99, 4905.01, 4905.02, 76367
4905.03, 4905.05, 4905.06, 4905.402, 4905.54, 4905.57, 4905.58, 76368
4905.84, 4905.90, 4907.01, 4907.02, 4907.04, 4907.08, 4907.19, 76369
4907.28, 4907.35, 4907.37, 4907.43, 4907.49, 4907.57, 4907.59, 76370
4907.60, 4907.61, 4907.62, 4909.01, 4909.02, 4909.03, 4909.17, 76371
4909.22, 4909.24, 4909.28, 4911.01, 4927.01, 4929.01, 4929.02, 76372
4929.041, 4933.18, 4933.19, 4939.01, 4953.04, 4961.03, 4965.54, 76373
5101.01, 5101.46, 5101.60, 5101.61, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.051, 76374
5104.09, 5104.37, 5107.05, 5107.16, 5107.17, 5111.01, 5111.013, 76375
5111.014, 5111.0115, 5111.0120, 5111.031, 5111.032, 5111.033, 76376
5111.034, 5111.06, 5111.091, 5111.113, 5111.16, 5111.161, 76377
5111.171, 5111.20, 5111.222, 5111.23, 5111.242, 5111.254, 76378
5111.862, 5111.874, 5111.877, 5111.878, 5111.89, 5111.894, 76379
5111.941, 5111.97, 5112.31, 5112.33, 5112.341, 5112.37, 5112.371, 76380
5112.39, 5119.22, 5119.61, 5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.99, 5120.036, 76381
5120.105, 5120.132, 5120.66, 5122.31, 5123.01, 5123.033, 5123.042, 76382
5123.044, 5123.0412, 5123.0414, 5123.0415, 5123.081, 5123.16, 76383
5123.161, 5123.162, 5123.163, 5123.164, 5123.166, 5123.169, 76384
5123.171, 5123.19, 5123.31, 5123.38, 5123.41, 5123.50, 5123.51, 76385
5123.542, 5123.61, 5123.89, 5126.023, 5126.0220, 5126.0221, 76386
5126.043, 5126.046, 5126.055, 5126.13, 5126.15, 5126.20, 5126.21, 76387
5126.22, 5126.25, 5126.251, 5126.51, 5139.41, 5139.43, 5149.311, 76388
5155.14, 5501.04, 5501.07, 5502.01, 5502.011, 5503.02, 5503.04, 76389
5503.21, 5503.22, 5503.23, 5503.34, 5516.02, 5516.06, 5701.13, 76390
5703.05, 5705.08, 5705.19, 5705.25, 5705.28, 5705.30, 5705.34, 76391
5705.35, 5705.38, 5709.084, 5709.12, 5709.121, 5709.212, 5709.43, 76392
5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.73, 5709.75, 5709.80, 5713.03, 76393
5719.13, 5725.14, 5725.15, 5725.16, 5725.17, 5725.22, 5725.221, 76394
5731.39, 5733.064, 5739.01, 5739.02, 5743.03, 5743.031, 5751.033, 76395
5751.12, 6109.21, 6111.46, 6117.39, and 6119.11 of the Revised 76396
Code are hereby repealed.76397

       Section 105.01. That sections 185.04, 185.08, 185.10, 76398
185.11, 2909.32, 2909.33, 2909.34, 3301.68, 3333.049, 3333.0411, 76399
3333.33, 3333.70, 3333.80, 3334.111, 3354.23, 3701.02, 3701.032, 76400
3701.12, 3701.33, 3701.34, 3701.35, 3702.521, 3702.5210, 76401
3702.5211, 3702.5212, 3702.5213, 3702.58, 3702.591, 3733.01, 76402
3733.031, 3745.111, 3781.183, 3791.043, 4113.11, 4121.18, 76403
4766.02, 4766.20, 4905.80, 4905.801, 4905.81, 4905.82, 4905.83, 76404
4919.75, 4919.76, 4919.77, 4919.78, 4919.79, 4919.99, 4921.01, 76405
4921.02, 4921.03, 4921.04, 4921.05, 4921.06, 4921.07, 4921.08, 76406
4921.09, 4921.10, 4921.101, 4921.11, 4921.12, 4921.13, 4921.14, 76407
4921.15, 4921.16, 4921.17, 4921.18, 4921.19, 4921.20, 4921.23, 76408
4921.24, 4921.25, 4921.26, 4921.27, 4921.28, 4921.30, 4921.31, 76409
4921.32, 4921.35, 4921.36, 4921.37, 4921.38, 4921.39, 4921.40, 76410
4921.99, 4923.01, 4923.02, 4923.03, 4923.04, 4923.05, 4923.06, 76411
4923.07, 4923.08, 4923.09, 4923.10, 4923.11, 4923.12, 4923.13, 76412
4923.14, 4923.17, 4923.20, 4923.26, 4923.99, 5101.97, 5111.651, 76413
5119.614, 5119.692, 5119.693, 5119.70, 5119.701, 5119.71, 76414
5119.711, 5119.712, 5119.72, 5119.73, 5119.731, 5119.74, 5119.75, 76415
5119.76, 5119.77, 5119.78, 5119.79, 5119.80, 5119.81, 5119.82, 76416
5119.83, 5119.84, 5119.85, 5119.86, 5119.87, 5119.88, 5123.082, 76417
5123.083, 5123.192, 5126.0222, 5126.252, 5126.26, 5126.27, 76418
5126.28, 5126.281, 5126.29, and 5501.09 of the Revised Code are 76419
hereby repealed.76420

       Section 105.10. Section 3356.10 of the Revised Code is hereby 76421
repealed, effective five years after the effective date of that 76422
section.76423

       Section 110.10. That the version of section 5122.31 of the 76424
Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 2012, 76425
be amended to read as follows:76426

       Sec. 5122.31.  (A) All certificates, applications, records, 76427
and reports made for the purpose of this chapter and sections 76428
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised 76429
Code, other than court journal entries or court docket entries, 76430
and directly or indirectly identifying a patient or former patient 76431
or person whose hospitalization has been sought under this 76432
chapter, shall be kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by 76433
any person except:76434

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 76435
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 76436
guardian, consents, and if the disclosure is in the best interests 76437
of the person, as may be determined by the court for judicial 76438
records and by the chief clinical officer for medical records;76439

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in this chapter or 76440
section 5123.601 of the Revised Code;76441

       (3) That hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 76442
mental health services, and community mental health agencies may 76443
release necessary medical information to insurers and other 76444
third-party payers, including government entities responsible for 76445
processing and authorizing payment, to obtain payment for goods 76446
and services furnished to the patient;76447

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge;76448

       (5) That a patient shall be granted access to the patient's 76449
own psychiatric and medical records, unless access specifically is 76450
restricted in a patient's treatment plan for clear treatment 76451
reasons;76452

       (6) That hospitals and other institutions and facilities 76453
within the department of mental health may exchange psychiatric 76454
records and other pertinent information with other hospitals, 76455
institutions, and facilities of the department, and with community 76456
mental health agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 76457
mental health services with which the department has a current 76458
agreement for patient care or services. Records and information 76459
that may be released pursuant to this division shall be limited to 76460
medication history, physical health status and history, financial 76461
status, summary of course of treatment in the hospital, summary of 76462
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.76463

       (7) That hospitals within the department, other institutions 76464
and facilities within the department, hospitals licensed by the 76465
department under section 5119.20 of the Revised Code, and 76466
community mental health agencies may exchange psychiatric records 76467
and other pertinent information with payers and other providers of 76468
treatment and health services if the purpose of the exchange is to 76469
facilitate continuity of care for a patient;76470

       (8) That a patient's family member who is involved in the 76471
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the patient may 76472
receive medication information, a summary of the patient's 76473
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 76474
available to assist the patient and the patient's family, if the 76475
patient's treating physician determines that the disclosure would 76476
be in the best interests of the patient. No such disclosure shall 76477
be made unless the patient is notified first and receives the 76478
information and does not object to the disclosure.76479

       (9) That community mental health agencies may exchange 76480
psychiatric records and certain other information with the board 76481
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and other 76482
agencies in order to provide services to a person involuntarily 76483
committed to a board. Release of records under this division shall 76484
be limited to medication history, physical health status and 76485
history, financial status, summary of course of treatment, summary 76486
of treatment needs, and discharge summary, if any.76487

       (10) That information may be disclosed to the executor or the 76488
administrator of an estate of a deceased patient when the 76489
information is necessary to administer the estate;76490

       (11) That records in the possession of the Ohio historical 76491
society may be released to the closest living relative of a 76492
deceased patient upon request of that relative;76493

       (12) That information may be disclosed to staff members of 76494
the appropriate board or to staff members designated by the 76495
director of mental health for the purpose of evaluating the 76496
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services and determining 76497
if the services meet minimum standards. Information obtained 76498
during such evaluations shall not be retained with the name of any 76499
patient.76500

       (13) That records pertaining to the patient's diagnosis, 76501
course of treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be 76502
disclosed and released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if 76503
the patient was committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 76504
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the 76505
attorney designated by the board for proceedings pursuant to 76506
involuntary commitment under this chapter.76507

       (14) That the department of mental health may exchange 76508
psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental health treatment 76509
records, and other pertinent information with the department of 76510
rehabilitation and correction to ensure continuity of care for 76511
inmates who are receiving mental health services in an institution 76512
of the department of rehabilitation and correction. The department 76513
shall not disclose those records unless the inmate is notified, 76514
receives the information, and does not object to the disclosure. 76515
The release of records under this division is limited to records 76516
regarding an inmate's medication history, physical health status 76517
and history, summary of course of treatment, summary of treatment 76518
needs, and a discharge summary, if any.76519

       (15) That a community mental health agency that ceases to 76520
operate may transfer to either a community mental health agency 76521
that assumes its caseload or to the board of alcohol, drug 76522
addiction, and mental health services of the service district in 76523
which the patient resided at the time services were most recently 76524
provided any treatment records that have not been transferred 76525
elsewhere at the patient's request.76526

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 76527
(A)(3), (6), (7), and (9) of this section, the custodian of the 76528
records shall attempt to obtain the patient's consent for the 76529
disclosure. No person shall reveal the contents of a medical 76530
record of a patient except as authorized by law.76531

       (C) The managing officer of a hospital who releases necessary 76532
medical information under division (A)(3) of this section to allow 76533
an insurance carrier or other third party payor to comply with 76534
section 5121.43 of the Revised Code shall neither be subject to 76535
criminal nor civil liability.76536

       Section 110.11. That the existing version of section 5122.31 76537
of the Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 76538
2012, is hereby repealed.76539

       Section 110.12. Sections 110.10 and 110.11 of this act take 76540
effect October 1, 2012.76541

       Section 110.20. That the version of section 5123.19 of the 76542
Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 2012, 76543
be amended to read as follows:76544

       Sec. 5123.19.  (A) As used in this section and in sections 76545
5123.191, 5123.194, 5123.196, 5123.197, 5123.198, and5123.19 to76546
5123.20 of the Revised Code:76547

       (1)(a) "Residential facility" means a home or facility in 76548
which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 76549
resides, except the home of a relative or legal guardian in which 76550
a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person resides, a 76551
respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of the Revised 76552
Code, a county home or district home operated pursuant to Chapter 76553
5155. of the Revised Code, or a dwelling in which the only 76554
mentally retarded or developmentally disabled residents are in an 76555
independent living arrangement or are being provided supported 76556
living. 76557

        (b) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 76558
means a residential facility that is considered an intermediate 76559
care facility for the mentally retarded for the purposes of 76560
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.76561

       (2) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 76562
county, or township.76563

       (3) "Independent living arrangement" means an arrangement in 76564
which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 76565
resides in an individualized setting chosen by the person or the 76566
person's guardian, which is not dedicated principally to the 76567
provision of residential services for mentally retarded or 76568
developmentally disabled persons, and for which no financial 76569
support is received for rendering such service from any 76570
governmental agency by a provider of residential services.76571

       (4)(2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 76572
has the same meaning as in section 1905(d) of the "Social Security 76573
Act," 101 Stat. 1330-204 (1987), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(d), as amended.76574

        (3) "Licensee" means the person or government agency that has 76575
applied for a license to operate a residential facility and to 76576
which the license was issued under this section.76577

       (4) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 76578
county, or township.76579

       (5) "Related party" has the same meaning as in section 76580
5123.16 of the Revised Code except that "provider" as used in the 76581
definition of "related party" means a person or government entity 76582
that held or applied for a license to operate a residential 76583
facility, rather than a person or government entity certified to 76584
provide supported living.76585

       (6)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(6)(b) of this 76586
section, "residential facility" means a home or facility, 76587
including a facility certified as an intermediate care facility 76588
for the mentally retarded, in which an individual with mental 76589
retardation or a developmental disability resides.76590

        (b) "Residential facility" does not mean any of the 76591
following:76592

        (i) The home of a relative or legal guardian in which an 76593
individual with mental retardation or a developmental disability 76594
resides;76595

        (ii) A respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of 76596
the Revised Code;76597

        (iii) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 76598
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;76599

        (iv) A dwelling in which the only residents with mental 76600
retardation or developmental disabilities are in independent 76601
living arrangements or are being provided supported living.76602

       (B) Every person or government agency desiring to operate a 76603
residential facility shall apply for licensure of the facility to 76604
the director of developmental disabilities unless the residential 76605
facility is subject to section 3721.02, 5119.73, 5103.03, or76606
5119.20, or division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of the Revised 76607
Code. Notwithstanding Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a nursing 76608
home that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 76609
mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 76610
Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396, as amended, shall apply for 76611
licensure of the portion of the home that is certified as an 76612
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded. 76613

       (C) Subject to section 5123.196 of the Revised Code, the 76614
director of developmental disabilities shall license the operation 76615
of residential facilities. An initial license shall be issued for 76616
a period that does not exceed one year, unless the director denies 76617
the license under division (D) of this section. A license shall be 76618
renewed for a period that does not exceed three years, unless the 76619
director refuses to renew the license under division (D) of this 76620
section. The director, when issuing or renewing a license, shall 76621
specify the period for which the license is being issued or 76622
renewed. A license remains valid for the length of the licensing 76623
period specified by the director, unless the license is 76624
terminated, revoked, or voluntarily surrendered.76625

       (D) If it is determined that an applicant or licensee is not 76626
in compliance with a provision of this chapter that applies to 76627
residential facilities or the rules adopted under such a 76628
provision, the director may deny issuance of a license, refuse to 76629
renew a license, terminate a license, revoke a license, issue an 76630
order for the suspension of admissions to a facility, issue an 76631
order for the placement of a monitor at a facility, issue an order 76632
for the immediate removal of residents, or take any other action 76633
the director considers necessary consistent with the director's 76634
authority under this chapter regarding residential facilities. In 76635
the director's selection and administration of the sanction to be 76636
imposed, all of the following apply:76637

       (1) The director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke a 76638
license, if the director determines that the applicant or licensee 76639
has demonstrated a pattern of serious noncompliance or that a 76640
violation creates a substantial risk to the health and safety of 76641
residents of a residential facility.76642

       (2) The director may terminate a license if more than twelve 76643
consecutive months have elapsed since the residential facility was 76644
last occupied by a resident or a notice required by division (K) 76645
of this section is not given.76646

       (3) The director may issue an order for the suspension of 76647
admissions to a facility for any violation that may result in 76648
sanctions under division (D)(1) of this section and for any other 76649
violation specified in rules adopted under division (H)(2) of this 76650
section. If the suspension of admissions is imposed for a 76651
violation that may result in sanctions under division (D)(1) of 76652
this section, the director may impose the suspension before 76653
providing an opportunity for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of 76654
the Revised Code. The director shall lift an order for the 76655
suspension of admissions when the director determines that the 76656
violation that formed the basis for the order has been corrected.76657

       (4) The director may order the placement of a monitor at a 76658
residential facility for any violation specified in rules adopted 76659
under division (H)(2) of this section. The director shall lift the 76660
order when the director determines that the violation that formed 76661
the basis for the order has been corrected.76662

       (5) If the director determines that two or more residential 76663
facilities owned or operated by the same person or government 76664
entity are not being operated in compliance with a provision of 76665
this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 76666
adopted under such a provision, and the director's findings are 76667
based on the same or a substantially similar action, practice, 76668
circumstance, or incident that creates a substantial risk to the 76669
health and safety of the residents, the director shall conduct a 76670
survey as soon as practicable at each residential facility owned 76671
or operated by that person or government entity. The director may 76672
take any action authorized by this section with respect to any 76673
facility found to be operating in violation of a provision of this 76674
chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 76675
adopted under such a provision.76676

       (6) When the director initiates license revocation 76677
proceedings, no opportunity for submitting a plan of correction 76678
shall be given. The director shall notify the licensee by letter 76679
of the initiation of the proceedings. The letter shall list the 76680
deficiencies of the residential facility and inform the licensee 76681
that no plan of correction will be accepted. The director shall 76682
also send a copy of the letter to the county board of 76683
developmental disabilities. The county board shall send a copy of 76684
the letter to each of the following:76685

        (a) Each resident who receives services from the licensee;76686

        (b) The guardian of each resident who receives services from 76687
the licensee if the resident has a guardian;76688

        (c) The parent or guardian of each resident who receives 76689
services from the licensee if the resident is a minor.76690

       (7) Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance 76691
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may order the 76692
immediate removal of residents from a residential facility 76693
whenever conditions at the facility present an immediate danger of 76694
physical or psychological harm to the residents.76695

       (8) In determining whether a residential facility is being 76696
operated in compliance with a provision of this chapter that 76697
applies to residential facilities or the rules adopted under such 76698
a provision, or whether conditions at a residential facility 76699
present an immediate danger of physical or psychological harm to 76700
the residents, the director may rely on information obtained by a 76701
county board of developmental disabilities or other governmental 76702
agencies.76703

       (9) In proceedings initiated to deny, refuse to renew, or 76704
revoke licenses, the director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke 76705
a license regardless of whether some or all of the deficiencies 76706
that prompted the proceedings have been corrected at the time of 76707
the hearing.76708

       (E) The director shall establish a program under which public 76709
notification may be made when the director has initiated license 76710
revocation proceedings or has issued an order for the suspension 76711
of admissions, placement of a monitor, or removal of residents. 76712
The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 76713
the Revised Code to implement this division. The rules shall 76714
establish the procedures by which the public notification will be 76715
made and specify the circumstances for which the notification must 76716
be made. The rules shall require that public notification be made 76717
if the director has taken action against the facility in the 76718
eighteen-month period immediately preceding the director's latest 76719
action against the facility and the latest action is being taken 76720
for the same or a substantially similar violation of a provision 76721
of this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the 76722
rules adopted under such a provision. The rules shall specify a 76723
method for removing or amending the public notification if the 76724
director's action is found to have been unjustified or the 76725
violation at the residential facility has been corrected.76726

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 76727
appeals from proceedings initiated to impose a sanction under 76728
division (D) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with 76729
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.76730

       (2) Appeals from proceedings initiated to order the 76731
suspension of admissions to a facility shall be conducted in 76732
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, unless the order 76733
was issued before providing an opportunity for an adjudication, in 76734
which case all of the following apply:76735

       (a) The licensee may request a hearing not later than ten 76736
days after receiving the notice specified in section 119.07 of the 76737
Revised Code.76738

       (b) If a timely request for a hearing that includes the 76739
licensee's current address is made, the hearing shall commence not 76740
later than thirty days after the department receives the request.76741

       (c) After commencing, the hearing shall continue 76742
uninterrupted, except for Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, 76743
unless other interruptions are agreed to by the licensee and the 76744
director.76745

       (d) If the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner, the 76746
hearing examiner shall file a report and recommendations not later 76747
than ten days after the last of the following:76748

       (i) The close of the hearing;76749

       (ii) If a transcript of the proceedings is ordered, the 76750
hearing examiner receives the transcript;76751

        (iii) If post-hearing briefs are timely filed, the hearing 76752
examiner receives the briefs.76753

       (e) A copy of the written report and recommendation of the 76754
hearing examiner shall be sent, by certified mail, to the licensee 76755
and the licensee's attorney, if applicable, not later than five 76756
days after the report is filed.76757

        (f) Not later than five days after the hearing examiner files 76758
the report and recommendations, the licensee may file objections 76759
to the report and recommendations.76760

       (g) Not later than fifteen days after the hearing examiner 76761
files the report and recommendations, the director shall issue an 76762
order approving, modifying, or disapproving the report and 76763
recommendations.76764

       (h) Notwithstanding the pendency of the hearing, the director 76765
shall lift the order for the suspension of admissions when the 76766
director determines that the violation that formed the basis for 76767
the order has been corrected.76768

       (G) Neither a person or government agency whose application 76769
for a license to operate a residential facility is denied nor a 76770
related party of the person or government agency may apply for a 76771
license to operate a residential facility before the date that is 76772
one year after the date of the denial. Neither a licensee whose 76773
residential facility license is revoked nor a related party of the 76774
licensee may apply for a residential facility license before the 76775
date that is five years after the date of the revocation.76776

        (H) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 76777
director shall adopt and may amend and rescind rules for licensing 76778
and regulating the operation of residential facilities, including 76779
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded. The rules 76780
for residential facilities that are intermediate care facilities 76781
for the mentally retarded may differ from those for other 76782
residential facilities. The rules shall establish and specify the 76783
following:76784

       (1) Procedures and criteria for issuing and renewing 76785
licenses, including procedures and criteria for determining the 76786
length of the licensing period that the director must specify for 76787
each license when it is issued or renewed;76788

       (2) Procedures and criteria for denying, refusing to renew, 76789
terminating, and revoking licenses and for ordering the suspension 76790
of admissions to a facility, placement of a monitor at a facility, 76791
and the immediate removal of residents from a facility;76792

       (3) Fees for issuing and renewing licenses, which shall be 76793
deposited into the program fee fund created under section 5123.033 76794
of the Revised Code;76795

       (4) Procedures for surveying residential facilities;76796

       (5) Requirements for the training of residential facility 76797
personnel;76798

       (6) Classifications for the various types of residential 76799
facilities;76800

       (7) Certification procedures for licensees and management 76801
contractors that the director determines are necessary to ensure 76802
that they have the skills and qualifications to properly operate 76803
or manage residential facilities;76804

       (8) The maximum number of persons who may be served in a 76805
particular type of residential facility;76806

       (9) Uniform procedures for admission of persons to and 76807
transfers and discharges of persons from residential facilities;76808

       (10) Other standards for the operation of residential 76809
facilities and the services provided at residential facilities;76810

       (11) Procedures for waiving any provision of any rule adopted 76811
under this section.76812

       (I) Before issuing a license, the director of the department 76813
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of the 76814
residential facility for which application is made. The director 76815
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of each licensed 76816
residential facility at least once during the period the license 76817
is valid and may conduct additional inspections as needed. A 76818
survey includes but is not limited to an on-site examination and 76819
evaluation of the residential facility, its personnel, and the 76820
services provided there.76821

       In conducting surveys, the director or the director's 76822
designee shall be given access to the residential facility; all 76823
records, accounts, and any other documents related to the 76824
operation of the facility; the licensee; the residents of the 76825
facility; and all persons acting on behalf of, under the control 76826
of, or in connection with the licensee. The licensee and all 76827
persons on behalf of, under the control of, or in connection with 76828
the licensee shall cooperate with the director or the director's 76829
designee in conducting the survey.76830

       Following each survey, unless the director initiates a 76831
license revocation proceeding, the director or the director's 76832
designee shall provide the licensee with a report listing any 76833
deficiencies, specifying a timetable within which the licensee 76834
shall submit a plan of correction describing how the deficiencies 76835
will be corrected, and, when appropriate, specifying a timetable 76836
within which the licensee must correct the deficiencies. After a 76837
plan of correction is submitted, the director or the director's 76838
designee shall approve or disapprove the plan. A copy of the 76839
report and any approved plan of correction shall be provided to 76840
any person who requests it.76841

       The director shall initiate disciplinary action against any 76842
department employee who notifies or causes the notification to any 76843
unauthorized person of an unannounced survey of a residential 76844
facility by an authorized representative of the department.76845

       (J) In addition to any other information which may be 76846
required of applicants for a license pursuant to this section, the 76847
director shall require each applicant to provide a copy of an 76848
approved plan for a proposed residential facility pursuant to 76849
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code. This division does not apply 76850
to renewal of a license or to an applicant for an initial or 76851
modified license who meets the requirements of section 5123.193 or76852
5123.197 of the Revised Code.76853

       (K) A licensee shall notify the owner of the building in 76854
which the licensee's residential facility is located of any 76855
significant change in the identity of the licensee or management 76856
contractor before the effective date of the change if the licensee 76857
is not the owner of the building.76858

       Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance with 76859
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may require 76860
notification to the department of any significant change in the 76861
ownership of a residential facility or in the identity of the 76862
licensee or management contractor. If the director determines that 76863
a significant change of ownership is proposed, the director shall 76864
consider the proposed change to be an application for development 76865
by a new operator pursuant to section 5123.042 of the Revised Code 76866
and shall advise the applicant within sixty days of the 76867
notification that the current license shall continue in effect or 76868
a new license will be required pursuant to this section. If the 76869
director requires a new license, the director shall permit the 76870
facility to continue to operate under the current license until 76871
the new license is issued, unless the current license is revoked, 76872
refused to be renewed, or terminated in accordance with Chapter 76873
119. of the Revised Code.76874

       (L) A county board of developmental disabilities and any 76875
interested person may file complaints alleging violations of 76876
statute or department rule relating to residential facilities with 76877
the department. All complaints shall be in writing and shall state 76878
the facts constituting the basis of the allegation. The department 76879
shall not reveal the source of any complaint unless the 76880
complainant agrees in writing to waive the right to 76881
confidentiality or until so ordered by a court of competent 76882
jurisdiction.76883

       The department shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 76884
119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures for the receipt, 76885
referral, investigation, and disposition of complaints filed with 76886
the department under this division.76887

       (M) The department shall establish procedures for the 76888
notification of interested parties of the transfer or interim care 76889
of residents from residential facilities that are closing or are 76890
losing their license.76891

       (N) Before issuing a license under this section to a 76892
residential facility that will accommodate at any time more than 76893
one mentally retarded or developmentally disabled individual, the 76894
director shall, by first class mail, notify the following:76895

       (1) If the facility will be located in a municipal 76896
corporation, the clerk of the legislative authority of the 76897
municipal corporation;76898

       (2) If the facility will be located in unincorporated 76899
territory, the clerk of the appropriate board of county 76900
commissioners and the fiscal officer of the appropriate board of 76901
township trustees.76902

       The director shall not issue the license for ten days after 76903
mailing the notice, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal 76904
holidays, in order to give the notified local officials time in 76905
which to comment on the proposed issuance.76906

       Any legislative authority of a municipal corporation, board 76907
of county commissioners, or board of township trustees that 76908
receives notice under this division of the proposed issuance of a 76909
license for a residential facility may comment on it in writing to 76910
the director within ten days after the director mailed the notice, 76911
excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays. If the director 76912
receives written comments from any notified officials within the 76913
specified time, the director shall make written findings 76914
concerning the comments and the director's decision on the 76915
issuance of the license. If the director does not receive written 76916
comments from any notified local officials within the specified 76917
time, the director shall continue the process for issuance of the 76918
license.76919

       (O) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 76920
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 76921
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least six but 76922
not more than eight persons with mental retardation or a 76923
developmental disability as a permitted use in any residential 76924
district or zone, including any single-family residential district 76925
or zone, of any political subdivision. These residential 76926
facilities may be required to comply with area, height, yard, and 76927
architectural compatibility requirements that are uniformly 76928
imposed upon all single-family residences within the district or 76929
zone.76930

       (P) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 76931
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 76932
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least nine 76933
but not more than sixteen persons with mental retardation or a 76934
developmental disability as a permitted use in any multiple-family 76935
residential district or zone of any political subdivision, except 76936
that a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance 76937
or resolution establishing planned unit development districts may 76938
exclude these residential facilities from those districts, and a 76939
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 76940
resolution may regulate these residential facilities in 76941
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 76942
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 76943
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 76944
zoning ordinance or resolution to:76945

       (1) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 76946
residential facility and the location, nature, and height of any 76947
walls, screens, and fences to be compatible with adjoining land 76948
uses and the residential character of the neighborhood;76949

       (2) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 76950
regulation;76951

       (3) Limit excessive concentration of these residential 76952
facilities.76953

       (Q) This section does not prohibit a political subdivision 76954
from applying to residential facilities nondiscriminatory 76955
regulations requiring compliance with health, fire, and safety 76956
regulations and building standards and regulations.76957

       (R) Divisions (O) and (P) of this section are not applicable 76958
to municipal corporations that had in effect on June 15, 1977, an 76959
ordinance specifically permitting in residential zones licensed 76960
residential facilities by means of permitted uses, conditional 76961
uses, or special exception, so long as such ordinance remains in 76962
effect without any substantive modification.76963

       (S)(1) The director may issue an interim license to operate a 76964
residential facility to an applicant for a license under this 76965
section if either of the following is the case:76966

       (a) The director determines that an emergency exists 76967
requiring immediate placement of persons in a residential 76968
facility, that insufficient licensed beds are available, and that 76969
the residential facility is likely to receive a permanent license 76970
under this section within thirty days after issuance of the 76971
interim license.76972

       (b) The director determines that the issuance of an interim 76973
license is necessary to meet a temporary need for a residential 76974
facility.76975

       (2) To be eligible to receive an interim license, an 76976
applicant must meet the same criteria that must be met to receive 76977
a permanent license under this section, except for any differing 76978
procedures and time frames that may apply to issuance of a 76979
permanent license.76980

       (3) An interim license shall be valid for thirty days and may 76981
be renewed by the director for a period not to exceed one hundred 76982
fifty days.76983

       (4) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 76984
119. of the Revised Code as the director considers necessary to 76985
administer the issuance of interim licenses.76986

       (T) Notwithstanding rules adopted pursuant to this section 76987
establishing the maximum number of persons who may be served in a 76988
particular type of residential facility, a residential facility 76989
shall be permitted to serve the same number of persons being 76990
served by the facility on the effective date of the rules or the 76991
number of persons for which the facility is authorized pursuant to 76992
a current application for a certificate of need with a letter of 76993
support from the department of developmental disabilities and 76994
which is in the review process prior to April 4, 1986.76995

       (U) The director or the director's designee may enter at any 76996
time, for purposes of investigation, any home, facility, or other 76997
structure that has been reported to the director or that the 76998
director has reasonable cause to believe is being operated as a 76999
residential facility without a license issued under this section.77000

       The director may petition the court of common pleas of the 77001
county in which an unlicensed residential facility is located for 77002
an order enjoining the person or governmental agency operating the 77003
facility from continuing to operate without a license. The court 77004
may grant the injunction on a showing that the person or 77005
governmental agency named in the petition is operating a 77006
residential facility without a license. The court may grant the 77007
injunction, regardless of whether the residential facility meets 77008
the requirements for receiving a license under this section.77009

       Section 110.21. That the existing version of section 5123.19 77010
of the Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 77011
2012, is hereby repealed.77012

       Section 110.22. Sections 110.20 and 110.21 of this act take 77013
effect October 1, 2012.77014

       Section 110.30. That the version of section 5123.61 of the 77015
Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 2012, 77016
be amended to read as follows:77017

       Sec. 5123.61.  (A) As used in this section:77018

       (1) "Law enforcement agency" means the state highway patrol, 77019
the police department of a municipal corporation, or a county 77020
sheriff.77021

       (2) "Abuse" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of the 77022
Revised Code, except that it includes a misappropriation, as 77023
defined in that section.77024

       (3) "Neglect" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of 77025
the Revised Code.77026

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities shall 77027
establish a registry office for the purpose of maintaining reports 77028
of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents made to the 77029
department under this section and reports received from county 77030
boards of developmental disabilities under section 5126.31 of the 77031
Revised Code. The department shall establish committees to review 77032
reports of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents.77033

       (C)(1) Any person listed in division (C)(2) of this section, 77034
having reason to believe that a person with mental retardation or 77035
a developmental disability has suffered or faces a substantial 77036
risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or condition of 77037
such a nature as to reasonably indicate abuse or neglect of that 77038
person, shall immediately report or cause reports to be made of 77039
such information to the entity specified in this division. Except 77040
as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code or as 77041
otherwise provided in this division, the person making the report 77042
shall make it to a law enforcement agency or to the county board 77043
of developmental disabilities. If the report concerns a resident 77044
of a facility operated by the department of developmental 77045
disabilities the report shall be made either to a law enforcement 77046
agency or to the department. If the report concerns any act or 77047
omission of an employee of a county board of developmental 77048
disabilities, the report immediately shall be made to the 77049
department and to the county board.77050

       (2) All of the following persons are required to make a 77051
report under division (C)(1) of this section:77052

       (a) Any physician, including a hospital intern or resident, 77053
any dentist, podiatrist, chiropractor, practitioner of a limited 77054
branch of medicine as specified in section 4731.15 of the Revised 77055
Code, hospital administrator or employee of a hospital, nurse 77056
licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, employee of an 77057
ambulatory health facility as defined in section 5101.61 of the 77058
Revised Code, employee of a home health agency, employee of an 77059
adult carea residential facility licensed under Chapter 3722.77060
section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 77061
supervision, and person care services for three to sixteen 77062
unrelated adults, or employee of a community mental health 77063
facility;77064

       (b) Any school teacher or school authority, social worker, 77065
psychologist, attorney, peace officer, coroner, or residents' 77066
rights advocate as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code;77067

       (c) A superintendent, board member, or employee of a county 77068
board of developmental disabilities; an administrator, board 77069
member, or employee of a residential facility licensed under 77070
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code; an administrator, board 77071
member, or employee of any other public or private provider of 77072
services to a person with mental retardation or a developmental 77073
disability, or any MR/DD employee, as defined in section 5123.50 77074
of the Revised Code;77075

       (d) A member of a citizen's advisory council established at 77076
an institution or branch institution of the department of 77077
developmental disabilities under section 5123.092 of the Revised 77078
Code;77079

       (e) A clergymanmember of the clergy who is employed in a 77080
position that includes providing specialized services to an 77081
individual with mental retardation or another developmental 77082
disability, while acting in an official or professional capacity 77083
in that position, or a person who is employed in a position that 77084
includes providing specialized services to an individual with 77085
mental retardation or another developmental disability and who, 77086
while acting in an official or professional capacity, renders 77087
spiritual treatment through prayer in accordance with the tenets 77088
of an organized religion.77089

       (3)(a) The reporting requirements of this division do not 77090
apply to employees of the Ohio protection and advocacy system.77091

       (b) An attorney or physician is not required to make a report 77092
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section concerning any 77093
communication the attorney or physician receives from a client or 77094
patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, 77095
if, in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of 77096
the Revised Code, the attorney or physician could not testify with 77097
respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding, 77098
except that the client or patient is deemed to have waived any 77099
testimonial privilege under division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 77100
of the Revised Code with respect to that communication and the 77101
attorney or physician shall make a report pursuant to division 77102
(C)(1) of this section, if both of the following apply:77103

       (i) The client or patient, at the time of the communication, 77104
is a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability.77105

       (ii) The attorney or physician knows or suspects, as a result 77106
of the communication or any observations made during that 77107
communication, that the client or patient has suffered or faces a 77108
substantial risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or 77109
condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect 77110
of the client or patient.77111

       (4) Any person who fails to make a report required under 77112
division (C) of this section and who is an MR/DD employee, as 77113
defined in section 5123.50 of the Revised Code, shall be eligible 77114
to be included in the registry regarding misappropriation, abuse, 77115
neglect, or other specified misconduct by MR/DD employees 77116
established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code.77117

       (D) The reports required under division (C) of this section 77118
shall be made forthwith by telephone or in person and shall be 77119
followed by a written report. The reports shall contain the 77120
following:77121

       (1) The names and addresses of the person with mental 77122
retardation or a developmental disability and the person's 77123
custodian, if known;77124

       (2) The age of the person with mental retardation or a 77125
developmental disability;77126

       (3) Any other information that would assist in the 77127
investigation of the report.77128

       (E) When a physician performing services as a member of the 77129
staff of a hospital or similar institution has reason to believe 77130
that a person with mental retardation or a developmental 77131
disability has suffered injury, abuse, or physical neglect, the 77132
physician shall notify the person in charge of the institution or 77133
that person's designated delegate, who shall make the necessary 77134
reports.77135

       (F) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that a 77136
person with mental retardation or a developmental disability has 77137
suffered or faces a substantial risk of suffering abuse or neglect 77138
may report or cause a report to be made of that belief to the 77139
entity specified in this division. Except as provided in section 77140
5120.173 of the Revised Code or as otherwise provided in this 77141
division, the person making the report shall make it to a law 77142
enforcement agency or the county board of developmental 77143
disabilities. If the person is a resident of a facility operated 77144
by the department of developmental disabilities, the report shall 77145
be made to a law enforcement agency or to the department. If the 77146
report concerns any act or omission of an employee of a county 77147
board of developmental disabilities, the report immediately shall 77148
be made to the department and to the county board.77149

       (G)(1) Upon the receipt of a report concerning the possible 77150
abuse or neglect of a person with mental retardation or a 77151
developmental disability, the law enforcement agency shall inform 77152
the county board of developmental disabilities or, if the person 77153
is a resident of a facility operated by the department of 77154
developmental disabilities, the director of the department or the 77155
director's designee.77156

       (2) On receipt of a report under this section that includes 77157
an allegation of action or inaction that may constitute a crime 77158
under federal law or the law of this state, the department of 77159
developmental disabilities shall notify the law enforcement 77160
agency.77161

       (3) When a county board of developmental disabilities 77162
receives a report under this section that includes an allegation 77163
of action or inaction that may constitute a crime under federal 77164
law or the law of this state, the superintendent of the board or 77165
an individual the superintendent designates under division (H) of 77166
this section shall notify the law enforcement agency. The 77167
superintendent or individual shall notify the department of 77168
developmental disabilities when it receives any report under this 77169
section.77170

       (4) When a county board of developmental disabilities 77171
receives a report under this section and believes that the degree 77172
of risk to the person is such that the report is an emergency, the 77173
superintendent of the board or an employee of the board the 77174
superintendent designates shall attempt a face-to-face contact 77175
with the person with mental retardation or a developmental 77176
disability who allegedly is the victim within one hour of the 77177
board's receipt of the report.77178

       (H) The superintendent of the board may designate an 77179
individual to be responsible for notifying the law enforcement 77180
agency and the department when the county board receives a report 77181
under this section.77182

       (I) An adult with mental retardation or a developmental 77183
disability about whom a report is made may be removed from the 77184
adult's place of residence only by law enforcement officers who 77185
consider that the adult's immediate removal is essential to 77186
protect the adult from further injury or abuse or in accordance 77187
with the order of a court made pursuant to section 5126.33 of the 77188
Revised Code.77189

       (J) A law enforcement agency shall investigate each report of 77190
abuse or neglect it receives under this section. In addition, the 77191
department, in cooperation with law enforcement officials, shall 77192
investigate each report regarding a resident of a facility 77193
operated by the department to determine the circumstances 77194
surrounding the injury, the cause of the injury, and the person 77195
responsible. The investigation shall be in accordance with the 77196
memorandum of understanding prepared under section 5126.058 of the 77197
Revised Code. The department shall determine, with the registry 77198
office which shall be maintained by the department, whether prior 77199
reports have been made concerning an adult with mental retardation 77200
or a developmental disability or other principals in the case. If 77201
the department finds that the report involves action or inaction 77202
that may constitute a crime under federal law or the law of this 77203
state, it shall submit a report of its investigation, in writing, 77204
to the law enforcement agency. If the person with mental 77205
retardation or a developmental disability is an adult, with the 77206
consent of the adult, the department shall provide such protective 77207
services as are necessary to protect the adult. The law 77208
enforcement agency shall make a written report of its findings to 77209
the department.77210

       If the person is an adult and is not a resident of a facility 77211
operated by the department, the county board of developmental 77212
disabilities shall review the report of abuse or neglect in 77213
accordance with sections 5126.30 to 5126.33 of the Revised Code 77214
and the law enforcement agency shall make the written report of 77215
its findings to the county board.77216

       (K) Any person or any hospital, institution, school, health 77217
department, or agency participating in the making of reports 77218
pursuant to this section, any person participating as a witness in 77219
an administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from the 77220
reports, or any person or governmental entity that discharges 77221
responsibilities under sections 5126.31 to 5126.33 of the Revised 77222
Code shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability that 77223
might otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of such actions 77224
except liability for perjury, unless the person or governmental 77225
entity has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.77226

       (L) No employer or any person with the authority to do so 77227
shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 77228
performance evaluation, reduce pay or benefits, terminate work 77229
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 77230
retaliate against an employee as a result of the employee's having 77231
made a report under this section. This division does not preclude 77232
an employer or person with authority from taking action with 77233
regard to an employee who has made a report under this section if 77234
there is another reasonable basis for the action.77235

       (M) Reports made under this section are not public records as 77236
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 77237
contained in the reports on request shall be made available to the 77238
person who is the subject of the report, to the person's legal 77239
counsel, and to agencies authorized to receive information in the 77240
report by the department or by a county board of developmental 77241
disabilities.77242

       (N) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the 77243
physician-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding 77244
evidence regarding the injuries or physical neglect of a person 77245
with mental retardation or a developmental disability or the cause 77246
thereof in any judicial proceeding resulting from a report 77247
submitted pursuant to this section.77248

       Section 110.31. That the existing version of section 5123.61 77249
of the Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 77250
2012, is hereby repealed.77251

       Section 110.32. Sections 110.30 and 110.31 of this act take 77252
effect October 1, 2012.77253

       Section 503.10. FISCAL YEAR 2012 GENERAL REVENUE FUND ENDING 77254
BALANCE77255

       Notwithstanding divisions (B) and (C) of section 131.44 of 77256
the Revised Code, the Director of Budget and Management shall 77257
determine the surplus General Revenue Fund revenue that existed on 77258
June 30, 2012, in excess of the amount required under division 77259
(A)(3) of section 131.44 of the Revised Code, and transfer from 77260
the General Revenue Fund, to the extent of the amount so 77261
determined, to the Statewide Treatment and Prevention Fund (Fund 77262
4750), a cash amount of $1,000,000 and to the Long-Term Care 77263
Ombudsman Program Fund (Fund 4C40), a cash amount of $1,500,000.77264

       Section 506.10. OHP HEALTH CARE GRANTS FUND77265

       For fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013, the Department of 77266
Job and Family Services may deposit into the OHP Health Care 77267
Grants Fund (Fund 3FA0) federal grants for the administration of 77268
health care programs that the Department receives under the 77269
"Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act," Public Law 111-148, 77270
and the "Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010," 77271
Public Law 111-152. The Department shall use the money in the fund 77272
to pay for expenses incurred in carrying out duties the Department 77273
assumes by accepting such federal grants, including expenses for 77274
the administration of health care programs.77275

       Section 512.10. TRANSFER OF FUNDS FOR CASINO CONTROL 77276
COMMISSION OPERATIONS77277

        During fiscal year 2013, the Director of Budget and 77278
Management may, in consultation with the Executive Director of the 77279
Casino Control Commission, transfer cash as necessary for 77280
operating expenses and casino investigations. The transfer shall 77281
be made from the General Revenue Fund to the Casino Control 77282
Commission Operating Fund (Fund 5HS0). Once funds from upfront 77283
license application fees and gross casino revenue taxes have been 77284
accumulated to sustain operations, the Director of Budget and 77285
Management, in consultation with the Executive Director of the 77286
Casino Control Commission, shall establish a repayment schedule 77287
for transfers to the General Revenue Fund from the Casino Control 77288
Commission Operating Fund (Fund 5HS0).77289

       Section 512.20.  PRE-SECURITIZATION TOBACCO PAYMENTS77290

       The Pre-Securitization Tobacco Payments Fund (Fund 5LS0) is 77291
hereby created in the state treasury. All moneys received by the 77292
state in connection with releases from disputed payment accounts 77293
or amounts previously withheld under the Tobacco Master Settlement 77294
Agreement that do not constitute pledged receipts for the Buckeye 77295
Tobacco Settlement Financing Authority Tobacco Settlement Bonds, 77296
Series 2007, shall be credited to the fund and used by the 77297
Director of Budget and Management as authorized in this section.77298

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 77299
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall determine, 77300
in consultation with the Attorney General, the amounts needed to 77301
fund tobacco enforcement-related activities and may transfer cash 77302
in those amounts from Fund 5LS0 to the Tobacco Oversight 77303
Administration and Enforcement Fund (Fund U087). The Director of 77304
Budget and Management may transfer remaining cash determined to be 77305
in excess of the tobacco enforcement needs of the Attorney General 77306
from Fund 5LS0 to the General Revenue Fund. 77307

       Upon receipt of all pre-securitization Tobacco Master 77308
Settlement Agreement payments and the transfer of all cash 77309
credited to Fund 5LS0 as authorized in this section, Fund 5LS0 is 77310
abolished.77311

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, and upon 77312
the request of the Attorney General, the Director of Budget and 77313
Management may transfer up to $3,000,000 cash from the General 77314
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 1060) to the Tobacco Oversight 77315
Administration and Enforcement Fund (Fund U087). 77316

       Section 512.30. CASH TRANSFER FROM TRAUMA AND EMERGENCY 77317
MEDICAL SERVICES GRANTS FUND77318

        On the effective date of this section, or as soon as possible 77319
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 77320
the cash balance in the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services 77321
Grants Fund (Fund 83P0) to the Trauma and Emergency Medical 77322
Services Fund (Fund 83M0). The Director shall cancel any existing 77323
encumbrances against appropriation item 765637, EMS Grants, and 77324
reestablish them against appropriation item 765640, EMS – Grants. 77325
The reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.77326

       Section 512.40. CASH TRANSFER FROM ELEMENTARY SCHOOL SEAT 77327
BELT FUND77328

       On the effective date of this section, or as soon as possible 77329
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 77330
the cash balance in the Elementary School Seat Belt Fund (Fund 77331
83N0) to the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Fund (Fund 77332
83M0). The Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 77333
appropriation item 761611, Elementary School Seat Belt Program, 77334
and reestablish them against appropriation item 765624, Operating 77335
Expense - Trauma and EMS. The reestablished encumbrance amounts 77336
are hereby appropriated.77337

       Section 512.50. MEDICAID PROGRAM SUPPORT STATE FUND ABOLISHED77338

       The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer any 77339
remaining cash balance in the Medicaid Program Support State Fund 77340
(Fund 5C90) to the Health Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries 77341
Fund (Fund 5DL0) created under section 5111.941 of the Revised 77342
Code. The Medicaid Program Support State Fund (Fund 5C90) shall 77343
cease to exist once the transfer is complete.77344

       Section 600.10.  That Section 753.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 114 of 77345
the 129th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:77346

       Sec. 753.20. (A) The Governor is authorized to execute a deed 77347
in the name of the state conveying to Taylor Chevrolet, Inc. 77348
(hereinafter the "grantee"), its successors and assigns, all of 77349
the state's right, title, and interest in the following described 77350
real estate known as Ohio State Highway Patrol Post 23, 1125 Ety 77351
Road, in the City of Lancaster, County of Fairfield, State of 77352
Ohio, and in the land on which the post is situated.:77353

       Being a part of Section 27, Township 15, Range 19, Greenfield 77354
Township, Fairfield County, Ohio and being more particularly 77355
described as follows:77356

       Commencing at a point in the east line of Section 27 and in 77357
the centerline of U.S. Route 33 at Station 139 plus 53.38, (1941 77358
Survey) as shown by plans on file with the Department of Highways, 77359
said point being N 1° 21' E, 452.70 feet from the southeast corner 77360
of said Section 27; thence, along said Section line, N 1° 21 min. 77361
E, 85.21 feet, to a point in the centerline of Township Road No. 77362
201 and to an easement for electric power line of the Ohio Power 77363
Company, Deed Record Volume 166, Page 375, Recorder's Office, 77364
Fairfield County, Ohio, said point being the place of beginning of 77365
the tract herein described; thence, along said Section line and 77366
along the centerline of said Township Road, N 1° 21' E, 224.90 77367
feet, to a point; thence, leaving said road, N 74° 38' 30" W, 77368
226.61 feet, to a point; thence, S 28° 31' 30" W, 148.15 feet, to 77369
a point in the northerly right of way line of said U.S. Route 33; 77370
thence, along said northerly right of way line of said U.S. 33, S 77371
62° 01' E, 122.04 feet to a point; thence, continuing along said 77372
right of way line, S 61° 19' E, 94.12 feet, to a point; thence, 77373
continuing along said right of way line, S 60° 52' E 107.24 feet, 77374
to a point, the place of beginning containing 1.11 acres, more or 77375
less.77376

       The above described tract of land is subject to an easement 77377
for Highway purposes along Township Road No. 201.77378

       (B) In preparing the deed, the Auditor of State, with the 77379
assistance of the Attorney General, shall develop a legal 77380
description of the real estate in conformity with the actual 77381
bounds of the real estate.77382

        (C) Consideration for conveyance of the real estate shall be 77383
agreed upon between the Superintendent of the State Highway Patrol 77384
and the grantee.77385

        (D)(C) The deed may contain any condition or restriction that 77386
the Governor determines is reasonably necessary to protect the 77387
state's interests.77388

       (E)(D) The grantee shall pay all costs associated with the 77389
purchase and conveyance of the real estate, including recordation 77390
costs of the deed.77391

       (F)(E) Upon payment of the purchase price, the Auditor of 77392
State, with the assistance of the Attorney General, shall prepare 77393
a deed to the real estate. The deed shall state the consideration 77394
and any conditions or restrictions and shall be executed by the 77395
Governor in the name of the state, countersigned by the Secretary 77396
of State, sealed with the Great Seal of the State, presented in 77397
the Office of the Auditor of State for recording, and delivered to 77398
the grantee. The grantee shall present the deed for recording in 77399
the Office of the Fairfield County Recorder.77400

        (G)(F) The proceeds of the conveyance of the real estate 77401
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 77402
State Highway Safety Fund.77403

       (H)(G) This section expires one year after its effective 77404
date.77405

       Section 600.11. That existing Section 753.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 77406
114 of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.77407

       Section 601.10. That Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 114 of 77408
the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 77409
129th General Assembly, be amended to read as follows:77410

       Sec. 205.10. DPS DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY77411

State Highway Safety Fund Group77412

4W40 762321 Operating Expense - BMV $ 80,003,146 $ 82,403,240 82,003,240 77413
4W40 762410 Registrations Supplement $ 28,945,176 $ 29,813,532 77414
5V10 762682 License Plate Contributions $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 77415
7036 761321 Operating Expense - Information and Education $ 7,124,366 $ 7,338,097 6,988,097 77416
7036 761401 Lease Rental Payments $ 9,978,300 $ 2,315,700 77417
7036 764033 Minor Capital Projects $ 1,250,000 $ 1,250,000 77418
7036 764321 Operating Expense - Highway Patrol $ 260,744,934 $ 258,365,903 77419
7036 764605 Motor Carrier Enforcement Expenses $ 2,860,000 $ 2,860,000 77420
8300 761603 Salvage and Exchange - Administration $ 19,469 $ 20,053 77421
8310 761610 Information and Education - Federal $ 422,084 $ 434,746 409,746 77422
8310 764610 Patrol - Federal $ 2,209,936 $ 2,276,234 77423
8310 764659 Transportation Enforcement - Federal $ 5,519,333 $ 5,684,913 77424
8310 765610 EMS - Federal $ 532,007 $ 532,007 77425
8310 769610 Food Stamp Trafficking Enforcement - Federal Investigative Unit Federal Reimbursement $ 1,546,319 $ 1,546,319 77426
8310 769631 Homeland Security - Federal $ 2,184,000 $ 2,184,000 77427
8320 761612 Traffic Safety - Federal $ 16,577,565 $ 16,577,565 77428
8350 762616 Financial Responsibility Compliance $ 5,457,240 $ 5,549,068 5,274,068 77429
8370 764602 Turnpike Policing $ 11,553,959 $ 11,553,959 77430
8380 764606 Patrol Reimbursement $ 50,000 $ 50,000 77431
83C0 764630 Contraband, Forfeiture, Other $ 622,894 $ 622,894 77432
83F0 764657 Law Enforcement Automated Data System $ 9,053,266 $ 9,053,266 77433
83G0 764633 OMVI Enforcement/Education $ 623,230 $ 641,927 77434
83J0 764693 Highway Patrol Justice Contraband $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 77435
83M0 765624 Operating Expense - Trauma and EMS $ 2,632,106 $ 2,711,069 3,204,925 77436
83M0 765640 EMS - Grants $ 0 $ 4,229,819 77437
83N0 761611 Elementary School Seat Belt Program $ 305,600 $ 305,600 0 77438
83P0 765637 EMS Grants $ 4,106,621 $ 4,229,819 0 77439
83R0 762639 Local Immobilization Reimbursement $ 450,000 $ 450,000 77440
83T0 764694 Highway Patrol Treasury Contraband $ 21,000 $ 21,000 77441
8400 764607 State Fair Security $ 1,256,655 $ 1,294,354 77442
8400 764617 Security and Investigations $ 6,432,686 $ 6,432,686 77443
8400 764626 State Fairgrounds Police Force $ 849,883 $ 849,883 77444
8400 769632 Homeland Security - Operating $ 737,791 $ 737,791 77445
8410 764603 Salvage and Exchange - Highway Patrol $ 1,339,399 $ 1,339,399 77446
8460 761625 Motorcycle Safety Education $ 3,185,013 $ 3,280,563 77447
8490 762627 Automated Title Processing Board $ 17,316,755 $ 14,335,513 77448
TOTAL HSF State Highway Safety Fund Group $ 490,110,733 $ 481,261,100 480,399,356 77449

General Services Fund Group77450

4P60 768601 Justice Program Services $ 998,104 $ 1,028,047 77451
4S30 766661 Hilltop Utility Reimbursement $ 540,800 $ 540,800 77452
5ET0 768625 Drug Law Enforcement $ 3,780,000 $ 3,893,400 77453
5Y10 764695 Highway Patrol Continuing Professional Training $ 170,000 $ 170,000 77454
5Y10 767696 Investigative Unit Continuing Professional Training $ 15,000 $ 15,000 77455
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 5,503,904 $ 5,647,247 77456

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group77457

3290 763645 Federal Mitigation Program $ 10,110,332 $ 10,413,642 77458
3370 763609 Federal Disaster Relief $ 27,707,636 $ 27,707,636 77459
3390 763647 Emergency Management Assistance and Training $ 75,664,821 $ 77,934,765 77460
3CB0 768691 Federal Justice Grants - FFY06 $ 200,000 $ 50,000 77461
3CC0 768609 Justice Assistance Grants - FFY07 $ 583,222 $ 310,000 77462
3CD0 768610 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY08 $ 310,000 $ 150,000 77463
3CE0 768611 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY09 $ 865,000 $ 1,200,000 77464
3CV0 768697 Justice Assistance Grants Supplement – FFY08 $ 2,000 $ 0 77465
3DE0 768612 Federal Stimulus - Justice Assistance Grants $ 1,015,000 $ 1,015,000 77466
3DH0 768613 Federal Stimulus - Justice Programs $ 150,000 $ 150,000 77467
3DU0 762628 BMV Grants $ 1,525,000 $ 1,580,000 1,480,000 77468
3EU0 768614 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY10 $ 650,000 $ 920,000 77469
3L50 768604 Justice Program $ 11,400,000 $ 11,400,000 77470
3N50 763644 U.S. Department of Energy Agreement $ 31,672 $ 31,672 77471
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 130,214,683 $ 132,862,715 132,762,715 77472

State Special Revenue Fund Group77473

4V30 763662 EMA Service and Reimbursement $ 4,368,369 $ 4,499,420 77474
5390 762614 Motor Vehicle Dealers Board $ 180,000 $ 185,400 77475
5B90 766632 Private Investigator and Security Guard Provider $ 1,562,637 $ 1,562,637 77476
5BK0 768687 Criminal Justice Services - Operating $ 400,000 $ 400,000 77477
5BK0 768689 Family Violence Shelter Programs $ 750,000 $ 750,000 77478
5CM0 767691 Federal Investigative Seizure Investigative Unit Federal Equitable Sharing - Treasury $ 300,000 $ 300,000 77479
5DS0 769630 Homeland Security $ 1,414,384 $ 1,414,384 77480
5FF0 762621 Indigent Interlock and Alcohol Monitoring $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 77481
5FL0 769634 Investigations $ 899,300 $ 899,300 77482
5LM0 768698 Criminal Justice Services Law Enforcement Support $ 33,991 $ 816,955 77483
6220 767615 Investigative Contraband and Forfeiture $ 375,000 $ 375,000 77484
6570 763652 Utility Radiological Safety $ 1,415,945 $ 1,415,945 77485
6810 763653 SARA Title III HAZMAT Planning $ 262,438 $ 262,438 77486
8500 767628 Investigative Unit Salvage $ 90,000 $ 92,700 77487
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 14,018,073 14,052,064 $ 14,157,224 14,974,179 77488

Liquor Control Fund Group77489

7043 767321 Liquor Enforcement - Operating $ 11,000,000 $ 11,000,000 77490
TOTAL LCF Liquor Control Fund Group $ 11,000,000 $ 11,000,000 77491

Agency Fund Group77492

5J90 761678 Federal Salvage/GSA $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 77493
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 77494

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group77495

R024 762619 Unidentified Motor Vehicle Receipts $ 1,885,000 $ 1,885,000 77496
R052 762623 Security Deposits $ 350,000 $ 350,000 77497
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,235,000 $ 2,235,000 77498
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 654,582,393 654,616,384 $ 648,663,286 648,518,497 77499

       MOTOR VEHICLE REGISTRATION77500

       The Registrar of Motor Vehicles may deposit revenues to meet 77501
the cash needs of the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 77502
4W40) established in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code, obtained 77503
under sections 4503.02 and 4504.02 of the Revised Code, less all 77504
other available cash. Revenue deposited pursuant to this paragraph 77505
shall support, in part, appropriations for operating expenses and 77506
defray the cost of manufacturing and distributing license plates 77507
and license plate stickers and enforcing the law relative to the 77508
operation and registration of motor vehicles. Notwithstanding 77509
section 4501.03 of the Revised Code, the revenues shall be paid 77510
into Fund 4W40 before any revenues obtained pursuant to sections 77511
4503.02 and 4504.02 of the Revised Code are paid into any other 77512
fund. The deposit of revenues to meet the aforementioned cash 77513
needs shall be in approximately equal amounts on a monthly basis 77514
or as otherwise determined by the Director of Budget and 77515
Management pursuant to a plan submitted by the Registrar of Motor 77516
Vehicles.77517

       CAPITAL PROJECTS77518

       The Registrar of Motor Vehicles may transfer cash from the 77519
State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 4W40) to the State 77520
Highway Safety Fund (Fund 7036) to meet its obligations for 77521
capital projects CIR-047, Department of Public Safety Office 77522
Building and CIR-049, Warehouse Facility. 77523

       OBA BOND AUTHORITY/LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS77524

       The foregoing appropriation item 761401, Lease Rental 77525
Payments, shall be used for payments to the Ohio Building 77526
Authority for the period July 1, 2011, to June 30, 2013, under the 77527
primary leases and agreements for public safety related buildings 77528
financed by obligations issued under Chapter 152. of the Revised 77529
Code. Notwithstanding section 152.24 of the Revised Code, the Ohio 77530
Building Authority may, with approval of the Director of Budget 77531
and Management, lease capital facilities to the Department of 77532
Public Safety.77533

       HILLTOP TRANSFER77534

       The Director of Public Safety shall determine, per an 77535
agreement with the Director of Transportation, the share of each 77536
debt service payment made out of appropriation item 761401, Lease 77537
Rental Payments, that relates to the Department of 77538
Transportation's portion of the Hilltop Building Project, and 77539
shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amounts 77540
of this share. The Director of Budget and Management shall 77541
transfer the amounts of such shares from the Highway Operating 77542
Fund (Fund 7002) to the State Highway Safety Fund (Fund 7036).77543

       CASH TRANSFERS TO TRAUMA AND EMERGENCY MEDICAL SERVICES FUND77544

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 77545
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the unexpended 77546
and unencumbered cash balance in the Seat Belt Education Fund 77547
(Fund 8440) to the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Fund 77548
(Fund 83M0). Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 8440 is 77549
abolished. The Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances 77550
against appropriation item 761613, Seat Belt Education Program, 77551
and reestablish them against appropriation item 765624, Operating 77552
Expense - Trauma and EMS. The reestablished encumbrance amounts 77553
are hereby appropriated.77554

       CASH TRANSFERS BETWEEN FUNDS77555

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 77556
Director of Budget and Management, upon the written request of the 77557
Director of Public Safety, may approve the transfer of cash 77558
between the following six funds: the Trauma and Emergency Medical 77559
Services Fund (Fund 83M0), the Homeland Security Fund (Fund 5DS0), 77560
the Investigations Fund (Fund 5FL0), the Emergency Management 77561
Agency Service and Reimbursement Fund (Fund 4V30), the Justice 77562
Program Services Fund (Fund 4P60), and the State Bureau of Motor 77563
Vehicles Fund (Fund 4W40).77564

       CASH TRANSFERS TO SECURITY, INVESTIGATIONS, AND POLICING FUND77565

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 77566
Director of Budget and Management, upon the written request of the 77567
Director of Public Safety, may approve the transfer of cash from 77568
the Continuing Professional Training Fund (Fund 5Y10), the State 77569
Highway Patrol Contraband, Forfeiture, and Other Fund (Fund 83C0), 77570
the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Fund (Fund 83M0), and 77571
the Highway Safety Salvage and Exchange Highway Patrol Fund (Fund 77572
8410) to the Security, Investigations, and Policing Fund (Fund 77573
8400).77574

        CASH TRANSFERS OF SEAT BELT FINE REVENUES 77575

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 77576
Controlling Board, upon request of the Director of Public Safety, 77577
may approve the transfer of cash between the following fourthree77578
funds that receive fine revenues from enforcement of the mandatory 77579
seat belt law: the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Fund 77580
(Fund 83M0), the Elementary School Program Fund (Fund 83N0), and 77581
the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Grants Fund (Fund 83P0). 77582

       STATE DISASTER RELIEF77583

       The State Disaster Relief Fund (Fund 5330) may accept 77584
transfers of cash and appropriations from Controlling Board 77585
appropriation items for Ohio Emergency Management Agency disaster 77586
response costs and disaster program management costs, and may also 77587
be used for the following purposes:77588

       (A) To accept transfers of cash and appropriations from 77589
Controlling Board appropriation items for Ohio Emergency 77590
Management Agency public assistance and mitigation program match 77591
costs to reimburse eligible local governments and private 77592
nonprofit organizations for costs related to disasters;77593

       (B) To accept and transfer cash to reimburse the costs 77594
associated with Emergency Management Assistance Compact (EMAC) 77595
deployments;77596

       (C) To accept disaster related reimbursement from federal, 77597
state, and local governments. The Director of Budget and 77598
Management may transfer cash from reimbursements received by this 77599
fund to other funds of the state from which transfers were 77600
originally approved by the Controlling Board.77601

       (D) To accept transfers of cash and appropriations from 77602
Controlling Board appropriation items to fund the State Disaster 77603
Relief Program, for disasters that have been declared by the 77604
Governor, and the State Individual Assistance Program for 77605
disasters that have been declared by the Governor and the federal 77606
Small Business Administration. The Ohio Emergency Management 77607
Agency shall publish and make available application packets 77608
outlining procedures for the State Disaster Relief Program and the 77609
State Individual Assistance Program.77610

       JUSTICE ASSISTANCE GRANT FUND77611

       The federal payments made to the state for the Byrne Justice 77612
Assistance Grants Program under Title II of Division A of the 77613
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 shall be deposited 77614
to the credit of the Justice Assistance Grant Fund (Fund 3DE0), 77615
which is hereby created in the state treasury. All investment 77616
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.77617

        FEDERAL STIMULUS – JUSTICE PROGRAMS77618

        The federal payments made to the state for the Violence 77619
Against Women Formula Grant under Title II of Division A of the 77620
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 shall be deposited 77621
to the credit of the Federal Stimulus – Justice Programs Fund 77622
(Fund 3DH0).77623

        TRANSFER FROM STATE FIRE MARSHAL FUND TO EMERGENCY MANAGEMENT 77624
AGENCY SERVICE AND REIMBURSEMENT FUND77625

        On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 77626
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 77627
$200,000 in cash from the State Fire Marshal Fund (Fund 5460) to 77628
the Emergency Management Agency Service and Reimbursement Fund 77629
(Fund 4V30) to be distributed to the Ohio Task Force One – Urban 77630
Search and Rescue Unit and other urban search and rescue programs 77631
around the state.77632

       FAMILY VIOLENCE PREVENTION FUND77633

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in each 77634
of fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the first $750,000 received to the 77635
credit of the Family Violence Prevention Fund (Fund 5BK0) shall be 77636
appropriated to appropriation item 768689, Family Violence Shelter 77637
Programs, and the next $400,000 received to the credit of Fund 77638
5BK0 in each of those fiscal years shall be appropriated to 77639
appropriation item 768687, Criminal Justice Services - Operating. 77640
Any moneys received to the credit of Fund 5BK0 in excess of the 77641
aforementioned appropriated amounts in each fiscal year shall, 77642
upon the approval of the Controlling Board, be used to provide 77643
grants to family violence shelters in Ohio.77644

       SARA TITLE III HAZMAT PLANNING77645

       The SARA Title III HAZMAT Planning Fund (Fund 6810) is 77646
entitled to receive grant funds from the Emergency Response 77647
Commission to implement the Emergency Management Agency's 77648
responsibilities under Chapter 3750. of the Revised Code.77649

       COLLECTIVE BARGAINING INCREASES77650

       Notwithstanding division (D) of section 127.14 and division 77651
(B) of section 131.35 of the Revised Code, except for the General 77652
Revenue Fund, the Controlling Board may, upon the request of 77653
either the Director of Budget and Management, or the Department of 77654
Public Safety with the approval of the Director of Budget and 77655
Management, increase appropriations for any fund, as necessary for 77656
the Department of Public Safety, to assist in paying the costs of 77657
increases in employee compensation that have occurred pursuant to 77658
collective bargaining agreements under Chapter 4117. of the 77659
Revised Code and, for exempt employees, under section 124.152 of 77660
the Revised Code.77661

       CASH BALANCE FUND REVIEW77662

       Not later than the first day of April in each fiscal year of 77663
the biennium, the Director of Budget and Management shall review 77664
the cash balances for each fund, except the State Highway Safety 77665
Fund (Fund 7036) and the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 77666
4W40), in the State Highway Safety Fund Group, and shall recommend 77667
to the Controlling Board an amount to be transferred to the credit 77668
of Fund 7036 or Fund 4W40, as appropriate.77669

       Section 601.11. That existing Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 77670
114 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 77671
of the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.77672

       Section 601.20. That Section 201 of Sub. H.B. 123 of the 77673
129th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:77674

       Sec. 201.  All items in Sections 201 and 203 of this act are 77675
hereby appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the 77676
credit of the designated fund. For all appropriations made in this 77677
act, those in the first column are for fiscal year 2012, and those 77678
in the second column are for fiscal year 2013.77679

FND AI AI TITLE Appropriations 77680

BWC BUREAU OF WORKERS' COMPENSATION
77681

Workers' Compensation Fund Group77682

7023 855401 William Green Lease Payments to OBA $ 18,291,365 $ 17,533,370 77683
7023 855407 Claims, Risk and Medical Management $ 125,427,732 $ 124,192,959 122,492,959 77684
7023 855408 Fraud Prevention $ 11,331,154 $ 11,164,226 77685
7023 855409 Administrative Services $ 101,724,950 $ 104,136,037 103,346,037 77686
7023 855410 Attorney General Payments $ 4,621,850 $ 4,621,850 77687
8220 855606 Coal Workers' Fund $ 150,586 $ 147,666 77688
8230 855608 Marine Industry $ 76,532 $ 75,527 77689
8250 855605 Disabled Workers Relief Fund $ 322,266 $ 319,718 77690
8260 855609 Safety and Hygiene Operating $ 20,382,567 $ 20,161,132 77691
8260 855610 Gear Program $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 77692
8290 855604 Long Term Care Loan Program $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 100,000 77693
TOTAL WCF Workers' Compensation 77694
Fund Group $ 287,329,002 $ 287,352,485 283,962,485 77695

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group77696

3490 855601 OSHA Enforcement $ 1,670,998 $ 1,647,515 77697
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,670,998 $ 1,647,515 77698
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 289,000,000 $ 289,000,000 285,610,000 77699

       WILLIAM GREEN LEASE PAYMENTS77700

       The foregoing appropriation item 855401, William Green Lease 77701
Payments to OBA, shall be used for lease payments to the Ohio 77702
Building Authority, and these appropriations shall be used to meet 77703
all payments at the times they are required to be made during the 77704
period from July 1, 2011, to June 30, 2013, by the Bureau of 77705
Workers' Compensation to the Ohio Building Authority pursuant to 77706
leases and agreements made under Chapter 152. of the Revised Code 77707
and Section 6 of Am. Sub. H.B. 743 of the 118th General Assembly. 77708
Of the amounts received in Fund 7023, appropriation item 855401, 77709
William Green Lease Payments to OBA, up to $35,824,735 shall be 77710
restricted for lease rental payments to the Ohio Building 77711
Authority. If it is determined that additional appropriations are 77712
necessary for such purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.77713

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, all 77714
tenants of the William Green Building not funded by the Workers' 77715
Compensation Fund (Fund 7023) shall pay their fair share of the 77716
costs of lease payments to the Workers' Compensation Fund (Fund 77717
7023) by intrastate transfer voucher.77718

       WORKERS' COMPENSATION FRAUD UNIT77719

       The Workers' Compensation Section Fund (Fund 1950) 77720
administered by the Attorney General shall receive payments from 77721
the Bureau of Workers' Compensation at the beginning of each 77722
quarter of each fiscal year to fund expenses of the Workers' 77723
Compensation Fraud Unit within the Attorney General's Office. Of 77724
the foregoing appropriation item 855410, Attorney General 77725
Payments, $828,200 in fiscal year 2012 and $828,200 in fiscal year 77726
2013 shall be used to provide these payments.77727

       SAFETY AND HYGIENE77728

       Notwithstanding section 4121.37 of the Revised Code, the 77729
Treasurer of State shall transfer $20,382,567 cash in fiscal year 77730
2012 and $20,161,132 cash in fiscal year 2013 from the State 77731
Insurance Fund to the Safety and Hygiene Fund (Fund 8260).77732

       OSHA ON-SITE CONSULTATION PROGRAM77733

        The Bureau of Workers' Compensation may designate a portion 77734
of appropriation item 855609, Safety and Hygiene Operating, to be 77735
used to match federal funding for the federal Occupational Safety 77736
and Health Administration's (OSHA) on-site consultation program.77737

       VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION77738

       The Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the Rehabilitation 77739
Services Commission shall enter into an interagency agreement for 77740
the provision of vocational rehabilitation services and staff to 77741
mutually eligible clients. The bureau shall provide $605,407 in 77742
fiscal year 2012 and $605,407 in fiscal year 2013 from the State 77743
Insurance Fund to fund vocational rehabilitation services and 77744
staff in accordance with the interagency agreement.77745

       FUND BALANCE77746

       Any unencumbered cash balance in excess of $45,000,000 in the 77747
Workers' Compensation Fund (Fund 7023) on the thirtieth day of 77748
June of each fiscal year shall be used to reduce the 77749
administrative cost rate charged to employers to cover 77750
appropriations for Bureau of Workers' Compensation operations.77751

       Section 601.21. That existing Section 201 of Sub. H.B. 123 of 77752
the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.77753

       Section 601.30. That Section 1 of H.B. 124 of the 129th 77754
General Assembly be amended to read as follows:77755

       Sec. 1. All items in this section are hereby appropriated out 77756
of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit of the 77757
designated fund. For all appropriations made in this section, 77758
those in the first column are for fiscal year 2012, and those in 77759
the second column are for fiscal year 2013.77760

Appropriations 77761

FND AI AI TITLE FY 2012 FY 2013 77762

OIC INDUSTRIAL COMMISSION
77763

Workers' Compensation Fund Group77764

5W30 845321 Operating Expenses $ 50,100,000 $ 48,900,000 47,732,000 77765
5W30 845402 Rent - William Green Building $ 5,500,000 $ 5,500,000 77766
5W30 845410 Attorney General Payments $ 3,900,000 $ 4,000,000 77767
TOTAL WCF Workers' Compensation 77768
Fund Group $ 59,500,000 $ 58,400,000 57,232,000 77769
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 59,500,000 $ 58,400,000 57,232,000 77770

       RENT - WILLIAM GREEN BUILDING77771

       The foregoing appropriation item 845402, Rent - William Green 77772
Building, shall be used for rent and operating expenses for the 77773
space occupied by the Industrial Commission in the William Green 77774
Building.77775

       Section 601.31. That existing Section 1 of H.B. 124 of the 77776
129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.77777

       Section 601.40. That Sections 205.10, 207.10, 207.10.80, 77778
207.20.10, 207.20.30, 207.20.90, 209.10, 209.20, 209.30, 211.10, 77779
215.10, 215.20, 223.10, 229.10, 243.10, 261.10.40, 261.10.70, 77780
261.20.40, 261.20.50, 261.20.60, 261.20.80, 261.20.90, 261.30.10, 77781
261.30.20, 261.30.30, 261.30.40, 261.30.60, 261.30.70, 261.30.80, 77782
261.30.90, 261.40.10, 263.10, 263.10.30, 263.10.90, 263.20.40, 77783
263.20.70, 267.10, 267.10.10, 267.10.20, 267.10.40, 267.30.20, 77784
267.30.40, 279.10, 287.10, 291.10, 307.10, 309.10, 309.30.10, 77785
309.30.30, 309.30.33, 309.30.53, 309.30.73, 313.10, 315.10, 77786
323.10, 327.10, 335.10, 337.10, 343.10, 343.40, 365.10, 367.10, 77787
369.10, 371.10, 371.50.61, 371.60.80, 373.10, 375.10, 379.10, 77788
387.10, 403.10, 411.10, 415.10, 503.50, and 521.70 of Am. Sub. 77789
H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly be amended to read as 77790
follows: 77791

       Sec. 205.10. ADJ ADJUTANT GENERAL77792

General Revenue Fund77793

GRF 745401 Ohio Military Reserve $ 12,308 $ 12,308 77794
GRF 745404 Air National Guard $ 1,810,606 $ 1,810,606 77795
GRF 745407 National Guard Benefits $ 400,000 $ 400,000 77796
GRF 745409 Central Administration $ 2,692,098 $ 2,692,098 2,682,098 77797
GRF 745499 Army National Guard $ 3,687,888 $ 3,689,871 77798
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 8,602,900 $ 8,604,883 8,594,883 77799

General Services Fund Group77800

5340 745612 Property Operations Management $ 534,304 $ 534,304 77801
5360 745605 Marksmanship Activities $ 128,600 $ 128,600 77802
5360 745620 Camp Perry and Buckeye Inn Operations $ 1,178,311 $ 978,846 77803
5370 745604 Ohio National Guard Facilities Maintenance $ 62,000 $ 62,000 77804
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 1,903,215 $ 1,703,750 77805

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group77806

3410 745615 Air National Guard Base Security $ 2,977,692 $ 2,977,692 77807
3420 745616 Army National Guard Service Agreement $ 10,970,050 $ 10,970,050 77808
3E80 745628 Air National Guard Operations and Maintenance $ 16,958,595 $ 16,958,595 77809
3R80 745603 Counter Drug Operations $ 25,000 $ 25,000 77810
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 30,931,337 $ 30,931,337 77811

State Special Revenue Fund Group77812

5U80 745613 Community Match Armories $ 250,000 $ 250,000 77813
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 250,000 $ 250,000 77814

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 41,687,452 $ 41,489,970 41,479,970 77815

       NATIONAL GUARD BENEFITS77816

       The foregoing appropriation item 745407, National Guard 77817
Benefits, shall be used for purposes of sections 5919.31 and 77818
5919.33 of the Revised Code, and for administrative costs of the 77819
associated programs.77820

       For active duty members of the Ohio National Guard who died 77821
after October 7, 2001, while performing active duty, the death 77822
benefit, pursuant to section 5919.33 of the Revised Code, shall be 77823
paid to the beneficiary or beneficiaries designated on the 77824
member's Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance Policy.77825

       STATE ACTIVE DUTY COSTS77826

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 745409, Central 77827
Administration, $50,000 in each fiscal year shall be used for the 77828
purpose of paying expenses related to state active duty of members 77829
of the Ohio organized militia, in accordance with a proclamation 77830
of the Governor. Expenses include, but are not limited to, the 77831
cost of equipment, supplies, and services, as determined by the 77832
Adjutant General's Department.77833

       Sec. 207.10. DAS DEPARTMENT OF ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICES77834

General Revenue Fund77835

GRF 100403 Public Employees Health Care Program $ 400,000 $ 400,000 344,000 77836
GRF 100415 OAKS Rental Payments $ 23,024,500 $ 23,006,300 77837
GRF 100416 STARS Lease Rental Payments $ 4,970,700 $ 4,971,300 77838
GRF 100418 Web Sites and Business Gateway $ 2,895,063 $ 2,795,176 0 77839
GRF 100419 IT Security Infrastructure $ 742,535 $ 742,648 0 77840
GRF 100439 Equal Opportunity Certification Programs $ 625,000 $ 625,000 0 77841
GRF 100447 OBA - Building Rent Payments $ 53,260,000 $ 83,504,200 77842
GRF 100448 OBA - Building Operating Payments $ 21,000,000 $ 21,000,000 20,000,000 77843
GRF 100449 DAS - Building Operating Payments $ 7,551,245 $ 7,551,571 77844
GRF 100451 Minority Affairs $ 24,016 $ 24,016 0 77845
GRF 100452 Efficiency & Results Program $ 0 $ 650,000 77846
GRF 100456 State IT Services $ 0 $ 3,537,824 77847
GRF 100457 Equal Opportunity Services $ 0 $ 1,610,516 77848
GRF 100458 State Construction Management Services $ 0 $ 2,745,751 77849
GRF 102321 Construction Compliance $ 920,000 $ 920,000 0 77850
GRF 130321 State Agency Support Services $ 2,779,457 $ 2,780,032 2,752,232 77851
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 118,192,516 $ 148,320,243 150,673,694 77852

General Services Fund Group77853

1120 100616 DAS Administration $ 5,974,625 $ 5,886,524 5,827,659 77854
1150 100632 Central Service Agency $ 911,995 $ 912,305 903,182 77855
1170 100644 General Services Division - Operating $ 13,000,000 $ 13,000,000 77856
1220 100637 Fleet Management $ 3,978,827 $ 4,204,066 4,412,025 77857
1250 100622 Human Resources Division - Operating $ 16,922,295 $ 16,717,009 16,549,839 77858
1250 100657 Benefits Communication $ 925,586 $ 921,531 912,316 77859
1280 100620 Collective Bargaining $ 3,462,529 $ 3,464,148 3,429,507 77860
1300 100606 Risk Management Reserve $ 10,349,494 $ 12,149,884 12,028,385 77861
1310 100639 State Architect's Office $ 9,812,132 $ 9,813,342 9,463,342 77862
1320 100631 DAS Building Management $ 11,000,000 $ 11,000,000 77863
1330 100607 IT Services Delivery $ 58,088,940 $ 58,103,005 57,521,975 77864
1880 100649 Equal Opportunity Division - Operating $ 939,559 $ 863,013 77865
2100 100612 State Printing $ 17,597,054 $ 16,659,526 77866
2290 100630 IT Governance $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 77867
2290 100640 Leveraged Enterprise Purchases $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 2,816,535 77868
4270 100602 Investment Recovery $ 4,100,000 $ 4,100,000 4,000,000 77869
4N60 100617 Major IT Purchases $ 1,950,000 $ 4,950,000 77870
4P30 100603 DAS Information Services $ 5,047,565 $ 4,979,392 4,929,598 77871
5C20 100605 MARCS Administration $ 14,075,705 $ 14,077,467 77872
5C30 100608 Skilled Trades $ 404,297 $ 404,375 204,375 77873
5EB0 100635 OAKS Support Organization $ 19,000,539 $ 19,003,108 18,813,077 77874
5EB0 100656 OAKS Updates and Developments $ 12,265,952 $ 8,743,462 8,656,027 77875
5HU0 100655 Construction Reform Demo Compliance $ 150,000 $ 150,000 77876
5L70 100610 Professional Development $ 2,496,679 $ 2,496,760 77877
5V60 100619 Employee Educational Development $ 800,000 $ 850,000 77878
5X30 100634 Centralized Gateway Enhancement $ 2,052,308 $ 2,052,308 77879
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 77880
Group $ 232,306,081 $ 232,501,225 230,566,916 77881

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group77882

3AJ0 100654 ARRA Broadband Mapping Grant $ 270,756 $ 106,347 77883
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 77884
Fund Group $ 270,756 $ 106,347 77885

State Special Revenue Fund Group77886

5JQ0 100658 Professions Professionals Licensing System $ 2,000,000 $ 1,000,000 990,000 77887
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 77888
Fund Group $ 2,000,000 $ 1,000,000 990,000 77889
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 352,769,353 $ 381,927,815 382,336,957 77890


       Sec. 207.10.80. DAS - BUILDING OPERATING PAYMENTS77892

       The foregoing appropriation item 100449, DAS - Building 77893
Operating Payments, shall be used to pay the rent expenses of 77894
veterans organizations pursuant to section 123.024 of the Revised 77895
Code in fiscal years 2012 and 2013.77896

       The foregoing appropriation item, 100449, DAS - Building 77897
Operating Payments, also may be used to provide funding for the 77898
cost of property appraisals or building studies that the 77899
Department of Administrative Services may be required to obtain 77900
for property that is being sold by the state or property under 77901
consideration to be renovated or purchased by the state.77902

       Notwithstanding section 125.28 of the Revised Code, the 77903
remaining portion of the appropriation may be used to pay the 77904
operating expenses of state facilities maintained by the 77905
Department of Administrative Services that are not billed to 77906
building tenants, or other costs associated with the Voinovich 77907
Center in Youngstown, Ohio. These expenses may include, but are 77908
not limited to, the costs for vacant space and space undergoing 77909
renovation, and the rent expenses of tenants that are relocated 77910
because of building renovations. These payments shall be processed 77911
by the Department of Administrative Services through intrastate 77912
transfer vouchers and placed in the Building Management Fund (Fund 77913
1320).77914

       STATE IT SERVICES77915

       The foregoing appropriation item 100456, State IT Services, 77916
shall be used to pay costs associated with the Ohio Business 77917
Gateway, State Portal, and Shared Hosting Service that were 77918
formerly paid from appropriation item 100418, Web Sites and 77919
Business Gateway, and costs associated with statewide operators 77920
and the Ohio Geographically Referenced Information Program that 77921
were formerly paid from appropriation item 100419, IT Security 77922
Infrastructure. The Director of Budget and Management shall cancel 77923
any existing encumbrances against appropriation items 100418, Web 77924
Site and Business Gateway and 100419, IT Security Infrastructure, 77925
and reestablish them against appropriation item 100456, State IT 77926
Services. The reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby 77927
appropriated.77928

        EQUAL OPPORTUNITY SERVICES77929

        The foregoing appropriation item 100457, Equal Opportunity 77930
Services, shall be used to pay costs associated with the 77931
certification of businesses for participation in the Minority 77932
Business Enterprise and Encouraging Diversity, Growth and Equity 77933
Programs that were formerly paid from appropriation item 100439, 77934
Equal Opportunity Certification Programs; the activities of the 77935
Ohio Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. Holiday Commission that were 77936
formerly paid from appropriation item 100451, Minority Affairs; 77937
and the monitoring of equal employment opportunity (EEO) and 77938
affirmative action requirements to ensure contractors bidding on 77939
and receiving contracts comply with EEO laws, rules, and 77940
regulations that were formerly paid from appropriation item 77941
102321, Construction Compliance. The Director of Budget and 77942
Management shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 77943
appropriation items 100439, Equal Opportunity Certification 77944
Programs; 100451, Minority Affairs; and 102321, Construction 77945
Compliance, and reestablish them against appropriation item 77946
100457, Equal Opportunity Services. The reestablished encumbrance 77947
amounts are hereby appropriated.77948

        STATE CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT SERVICES77949

        The foregoing appropriation item 100458, State Construction 77950
Management Services, shall be used to pay costs of statewide 77951
shared construction-related services and capital improvement 77952
project management services provided through the state's 77953
enterprise resource planning system. 77954

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT FUND TO THE 77955
HUMAN RESOURCES SERVICES FUND77956

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, in 77957
FY 2013, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer up 77958
to $975,000 from the Workforce Development Fund (Fund 5D70) to the 77959
Human Resources Services Fund (Fund 1250) to support one-time 77960
human resources administration activities for state agencies. 77961

       Sec. 207.20.10. GENERAL SERVICE CHARGES77962

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 77963
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 77964
for recovering the costs of administering the programs funded by 77965
the General Services Fund (Fund 1170) and the State Printing Fund 77966
(Fund 2100). Such charges within Fund 1170 may be used to recover 77967
the cost of paying a vendor to establish reduced pricing for 77968
contracted supplies or services.77969

        If the Director of Administrative Services determines that 77970
additional amounts are necessary to pay for consulting and 77971
administrative costs related to securing lower pricing, the 77972
Director of Administrative Services may request that the Director 77973
of Budget and Management approve additional expenditures. Such 77974
approved additional amounts are appropriated to appropriation item 77975
100644, General Services Division-Operating. 77976

       Sec. 207.20.30. EQUAL OPPORTUNITY PROGRAM77977

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 77978
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 77979
for recovering the costs of administering the activities supported 77980
by the State EEO Fund (Fund 1880). These charges shall be 77981
deposited to the credit of the State EEO Fund (Fund 1880) upon 77982
payment made by state agencies, state-supported or state-assisted 77983
institutions of higher education, and tax-supported agencies, 77984
municipal corporations, and other political subdivisions of the 77985
state, for services rendered.77986

       LEVERAGED ENTERPRISE PURCHASES77987

        The foregoing appropriation item 100640, Leveraged Enterprise 77988
Purchases, shall be used by the Department of Administrative 77989
Services to make information technology purchases for the benefit 77990
of one or more government entities as authorized under division 77991
(G) of section 125.18 of the Revised Code. If the Director of 77992
Administrative Services determines that the existing appropriation 77993
is insufficient to timely make such purchases, the Director of 77994
Administrative Services shall seek Controlling Board approval for 77995
an increase in appropriation to make the requested purchases.77996

       Sec. 207.20.90. CASH TRANSFERS FROM THE MAJOR IT PURCHASES 77997
FUND77998

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, the 77999
Director of Budget and Management may make the following transfers 78000
from the Major IT Purchases Fund (Fund 4N60):78001

       (1) Up to $2,800,000 in each fiscal year of the biennium to 78002
the State Architect's Fund (Fund 1310) to support the OAKS Capital 78003
Improvements Module and other costs of the State Architect's 78004
Office that are not directly related to capital projects managed 78005
by the State Architect;78006

       (2) Up to $310,276 in fiscal year 2012 and up to $305,921 in 78007
fiscal year 2013 to the Director's Office Fund (Fund 1120) to 78008
support operating expenses of the Accountability and Results 78009
Initiative.78010

       CASH TRANSFERS TO THE MAJOR IT PURCHASES FUND78011

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, the 78012
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $4,000,000 78013
from the OAKS Support Organization Fund (Fund 5EB0) to the Major 78014
IT Purchases Fund (Fund 4N60). This amount represents cash 78015
transferred from Fund 4N60 during fiscal year 2010 pursuant to 78016
Section 207.30.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General 78017
Assembly. Any portion of appropriation item 100617, Major IT 78018
Purchases, that is unencumbered and unexpended at the end of 78019
fiscal year 2012 is hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2013.78020

       Sec. 209.10. AGE DEPARTMENT OF AGING78021

General Revenue Fund78022

GRF 490321 Operating Expenses $ 1,501,616 $ 1,502,442 1,487,418 78023
GRF 490410 Long-Term Care Ombudsman $ 482,271 $ 482,271 477,448 78024
GRF 490411 Senior Community Services $ 7,130,952 $ 7,131,236 7,060,844 78025
GRF 490414 Alzheimer's Respite $ 1,917,740 $ 1,917,757 1,895,245 78026
GRF 490423 Long-Term Care Budget - State $ 3,419,250 $ 3,419,250 3,385,057 78027
GRF 490506 National Senior Service Corps $ 241,413 $ 241,413 78028
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 14,693,242 $ 14,694,369 14,547,425 78029

General Services Fund Group78030

4800 490606 Senior Community Outreach and Education $ 372,518 $ 372,523 78031
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 78032
Group $ 372,518 $ 372,523 78033

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group78034

3220 490618 Federal Aging Grants $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 78035
3C40 490623 Long-Term Care Budget $ 3,525,000 $ 3,525,000 78036
3M40 490612 Federal Independence Services $ 63,655,080 $ 63,655,080 78037
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 78038
Fund Group $ 81,180,080 $ 81,180,080 78039

State Special Revenue Fund Group78040

4C40 490609 Regional Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program $ 935,000 $ 935,000 2,435,000 78041
5BA0 490620 Ombudsman Support $ 750,000 $ 750,000 78042
5K90 490613 Long-Term Care Consumers Guide $ 1,059,400 $ 1,059,400 78043
5W10 490616 Resident Services Coordinator Program $ 344,692 $ 344,700 78044
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 78045
Fund Group $ 3,089,092 $ 3,089,100 4,589,100 78046
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 99,334,932 $ 99,336,072 100,689,128 78047


       Sec. 209.20. LONG-TERM CARE78049

       Pursuant to an interagency agreement, the Department of Job 78050
and Family Services shallmay designate the Department of Aging to 78051
perform assessments under section 5111.204 of the Revised Code. 78052
The Department of Aging shall provide long-term care consultations 78053
under section 173.42 of the Revised Code to assist individuals in 78054
planning for their long-term health care needs. 78055

       The Department of Aging shall administer the Medicaid 78056
waiver-funded PASSPORT Home Care Program, the Choices Program, the 78057
Assisted Living Program, and the PACE Program as delegated by the 78058
Department of Job and Family Services in an interagency agreement. 78059
The foregoing appropriation items 490423, Long-Term Care Budget - 78060
State, and 490623, Long-Term Care Budget, may be used to support 78061
the Department of Aging's administrative costs associated with 78062
operating the PASSPORT, Choices, Assisted Living, and PACE 78063
programs.78064

       Sec. 209.30.  LONG-TERM CARE OMBUDSMAN78065

       The foregoing appropriation item 490410, Long-Term Care 78066
Ombudsman, shall be used for a program to fund ombudsman program 78067
activities as authorized in sections 173.14 to 173.27 and section 78068
173.99 of the Revised Code.78069

       SENIOR COMMUNITY SERVICES78070

       The foregoing appropriation item 490411, Senior Community 78071
Services, shall be used for services designated by the Department 78072
of Aging, including, but not limited to, home-delivered and 78073
congregate meals, transportation services, personal care services, 78074
respite services, adult day services, home repair, care 78075
coordination, and decision support systems. Service priority shall 78076
be given to low income, frail, and cognitively impaired persons 60 78077
years of age and over. The department shall promote cost sharing 78078
by service recipients for those services funded with senior 78079
community services funds, including, when possible, sliding-fee 78080
scale payment systems based on the income of service recipients.78081

       ALZHEIMER'S RESPITE78082

       The foregoing appropriation item 490414, Alzheimer's Respite, 78083
shall be used to fund only Alzheimer's disease services under 78084
section 173.04 of the Revised Code.78085

       SENIOR COMMUNITY OUTREACH AND EDUCATION78086

       The foregoing appropriation item 490606, Senior Community 78087
Outreach and Education, may be used to provide training to workers 78088
in the field of aging pursuant to division (G) of section 173.02 78089
of the Revised Code.78090

       TRANSFER OF APPROPRIATIONS - FEDERAL INDEPENDENCE SERVICES 78091
AND FEDERAL AGING GRANTS78092

       At the request of the Director of Aging, the Director of 78093
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation between 78094
appropriation items 490612, Federal Independence Services, and 78095
490618, Federal Aging Grants. The amounts transferred shall not 78096
exceed 30 per cent of the appropriation from which the transfer is 78097
made. Any transfers shall be reported by the Department of Aging 78098
to the Controlling Board at the next scheduled meeting of the 78099
board.78100

       REGIONAL LONG-TERM CARE OMBUDSMAN PROGRAM78101

       TheOf the foregoing appropriation item 490609, Regional 78102
Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program, $935,000 in each fiscal year78103
shall be used to pay the costs of operating the regional long-term 78104
care ombudsman programs designated by the Long-Term Care 78105
Ombudsman.78106

       Notwithstanding division (B) of section 173.26 of the Revised 78107
Code, of the foregoing appropriation item 490609, Regional 78108
Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program, $1,500,000 in fiscal year 2013 78109
shall be used for costs associated with the Aging in Place Pilot 78110
Program.78111

       TRANSFER OF RESIDENT PROTECTION FUNDS78112

       In each fiscal year, the Director of Budget and Management 78113
may transfer up to $750,000 cash from the Resident Protection Fund 78114
(Fund 4E30), which is used by the Department of Job and Family 78115
Services, to the Ombudsman Support Fund (Fund 5BA0), which is used 78116
by the Department of Aging. The moneys in the Ombudsman Support 78117
Fund may be used by the state office of the Long-Term Care 78118
Ombudsman Program and by regional ombudsman programs to promote 78119
person-centered care in nursing homes.78120

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 78121
Department of Aging shall certify to the Director of Budget and 78122
Management the amount of the cash balance in the Ombudsman Support 78123
Fund at the end of fiscal year 2011.78124

       LONG-TERM CARE CONSUMERS GUIDE78125

        The foregoing appropriation item 490613, Long-Term Care 78126
Consumers Guide, shall be used to conduct annual customer 78127
satisfaction surveys and to pay for other administrative expenses 78128
related to the publication of the Ohio Long-Term Care Consumer 78129
Guide.78130

       During fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013, the Department 78131
of Aging shall identify methods and tools for assessing consumer 78132
satisfaction with adult care facilities and with the providers of 78133
home and community-based services. The Department shall also 78134
consider the development of a provider fee structure to support 78135
the inclusion of information about adult care facilities and 78136
providers of home and community-based services among the types of 78137
providers reviewed in the Ohio Long-Term Care Consumer Guide.78138

       Sec. 211.10. AGR DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE78139

General Revenue Fund78140

GRF 700401 Animal Disease Control $ 3,936,687 $ 3,936,687 78141
GRF 700403 Dairy Division $ 1,088,115 $ 1,088,115 78142
GRF 700404 Ohio Proud $ 50,000 $ 50,000 78143
GRF 700406 Consumer Analytical Lab $ 1,287,556 $ 1,287,556 78144
GRF 700407 Food Safety $ 848,792 $ 848,792 78145
GRF 700409 Farmland Preservation $ 72,750 $ 72,750 78146
GRF 700412 Weights and Measures $ 600,000 $ 600,000 78147
GRF 700415 Poultry Inspection $ 392,978 $ 392,978 78148
GRF 700418 Livestock Regulation Program $ 1,108,071 $ 1,108,071 78149
GRF 700424 Livestock Testing and Inspections $ 102,770 $ 102,770 78150
GRF 700499 Meat Inspection Program - State Share $ 4,175,097 $ 4,175,097 78151
GRF 700501 County Agricultural Societies $ 391,413 $ 391,413 78152
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 14,054,229 $ 14,054,229 78153

General Services Fund Group78154

5DA0 700644 Laboratory Administration Support $ 1,094,867 $ 1,094,867 78155
5GH0 700655 Central Support Indirect Cost $ 4,456,842 $ 4,456,842 78156
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 5,551,709 $ 5,551,709 78157

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group78158

3260 700618 Meat Inspection Program - Federal Share $ 4,950,000 $ 4,950,000 78159
3360 700617 Ohio Farm Loan Revolving Fund $ 150,000 $ 150,000 78160
3820 700601 Cooperative Contracts $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 78161
3AB0 700641 Agricultural Easement $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 78162
3J40 700607 Indirect Cost $ 600,000 $ 600,000 78163
3R20 700614 Federal Plant Industry $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 78164
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 78165
Fund Group $ 9,700,000 $ 9,700,000 78166

State Special Revenue Fund Group78167

4960 700626 Ohio Grape Industries $ 846,611 $ 846,611 78168
4970 700627 Commodity Handlers Regulatory Program $ 483,402 $ 483,402 78169
4C90 700605 Commercial Feed and Seed $ 1,816,897 $ 1,816,897 78170
4D20 700609 Auction Education $ 41,000 $ 41,000 78171
4E40 700606 Utility Radiological Safety $ 131,785 $ 131,785 78172
4P70 700610 Food Safety Inspection $ 1,085,836 $ 1,085,836 78173
4R00 700636 Ohio Proud Marketing $ 30,500 $ 30,500 78174
4R20 700637 Dairy Industry Inspection $ 1,758,247 $ 1,758,247 78175
4T60 700611 Poultry and Meat Inspection $ 180,000 $ 180,000 78176
4T70 700613 Ohio Proud International and Domestic Market Development $ 50,000 $ 50,000 78177
5780 700620 Ride Inspection Fees $ 1,175,142 $ 1,175,142 78178
5B80 700629 Auctioneers $ 359,823 $ 359,823 78179
5FC0 700648 Plant Pest Program $ 1,164,000 2,164,000 $ 1,164,000 78180
5H20 700608 Metrology Lab and Scale Certification $ 750,000 $ 750,000 78181
5HP0 700656 Livestock Care Standards Board $ 80,000 $ 80,000 78182
5L80 700604 Livestock Management Program $ 584,000 $ 584,000 78183
6520 700634 Animal and Consumer Analytical Laboratory $ 4,366,383 $ 4,366,383 78184
6690 700635 Pesticide, Fertilizer, and Lime Inspection Program $ 3,418,041 $ 3,418,041 78185
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 78186
Fund Group $ 18,321,667 19,321,667 $ 18,321,667 78187

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group78188

7057 700632 Clean Ohio Agricultural Easement $ 310,000 $ 310,000 78189
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 310,000 $ 310,000 78190

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 47,937,605 48,937,605 $ 47,937,605 78191

       COUNTY AGRICULTURAL SOCIETIES78192

       The foregoing appropriation item 700501, County Agricultural 78193
Societies, shall be used to reimburse county and independent 78194
agricultural societies for expenses related to Junior Fair 78195
activities.78196

        ABOLISHMENT OF VARIOUS FUNDS78197

        Upon the effective date of this amendment, or as soon as 78198
possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall 78199
transfer the cash balances in the following twelve funds to the 78200
Indirect Cost Fund (Fund 5GH0): (1) the Federal Grants Fund (Fund 78201
3X60), (2) the Specialty Crops Support Fund (Fund 3X70), (3) the 78202
Fruits and Vegetables Fund (Fund 4930), (4) the Dairy Fund (Fund 78203
4V00), (5) the Animal Industry Fund (Fund 4VS0), (6) the Scale 78204
Certification Fund (Fund 5790), (7) the Weights and Measures 78205
Permits Fund (Fund 58F0), (8) the Food Policy Council Fund (Fund 78206
5FD0), (9) the Sustainable Agriculture Fund (Fund 5FE0), (10) the 78207
Pilot Farmland Preservation Fund (Fund 5GS0), (11) the Farm 78208
Service Electronic Filing Fund (Fund SY70), and (12) the Seed Fund 78209
(Fund SZ40). Upon completion of the cash transfers, the funds from 78210
which the required cash transfers were made are abolished. The 78211
Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against applicable 78212
line items within the abolished funds and reestablish them against 78213
Fund 5GH0 appropriation item 700655, Central Support Indirect 78214
Cost. The reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby 78215
appropriated.78216

       ASIAN LONGHORNED BEETLE78217

        On the effective date of this act, or as soon as possible 78218
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 78219
up to $1,000,000 in cash from the General Revenue Fund to the 78220
Plant Pest Fund (Fund 5FC0).78221

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 700648, Plant Pest 78222
Program, up to $1,000,000 in FY 2012 shall be used for the 78223
eradication of the Asian Longhorned Beetle. Any portion of this 78224
transfer that remains unexpended and unencumbered in FY 2012 is 78225
hereby reappropriated for the same purpose in FY 2013.78226

       CLEAN OHIO AGRICULTURAL EASEMENT78227

       The foregoing appropriation item 700632, Clean Ohio 78228
Agricultural Easement, shall be used by the Department of 78229
Agriculture in administering Ohio Agricultural Easement Fund (Fund 78230
7057) projects pursuant to sections 901.21, 901.22, and 5301.67 to 78231
5301.70 of the Revised Code.78232

       Sec. 215.10. ADA DEPARTMENT OF ALCOHOL AND DRUG ADDICTION 78233
SERVICES78234

General Revenue Fund78235

GRF 038401 Treatment Services $ 11,225,590 $ 7,020,974 7,120,974 78236
GRF 038404 Prevention Services $ 868,659 $ 868,659 78237
GRF 038501 Medicaid Match $ 23,959,113 $ 0 78238
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 36,053,362 $ 7,889,633 7,989,633 78239

General Services Fund78240

5T90 038616 Problem Gambling Services $ 335,000 $ 335,000 78241
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 335,000 $ 335,000 78242

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group78243

3G40 038614 Substance Abuse Block Grant $ 69,000,000 $ 69,000,000 78244
3H80 038609 Demonstration Grants $ 8,675,580 $ 8,675,580 78245
3J80 038610 Medicaid $ 69,200,000 $ 0 78246
3N80 038611 Administrative Reimbursement $ 300,000 $ 300,000 78247
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 78248
Fund Group $ 147,175,580 $ 77,975,580 78249

State Special Revenue Fund Group78250

4750 038621 Statewide Treatment and Prevention $ 16,000,000 $ 14,000,000 15,000,000 78251
5JL0 038629 Problem Casino Gambling and Addictions Fund $ 226,612 $ 5,446,364 78252
5JW0 038615 Board Match Reimbursement $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 78253
6890 038604 Education and Conferences $ 75,000 $ 75,000 78254
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 78255
Fund Group $ 19,075,000 19,301,612 $ 17,075,000 23,521,364 78256
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 202,638,942 202,865,554 $ 103,275,213 109,821,577 78257


       Sec. 215.20. ALCOHOLOHIO WORKS FIRST DRUG TESTING PILOT 78259
PROGRAM78260

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 038401, Treatment 78261
Services, up to $100,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used to fund 78262
drug treatment services provided to individuals seeking treatment 78263
under the Ohio Works First Drug Testing Pilot Program established 78264
under Section 751.17 of H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly.78265

       ALCOHOL AND DRUG ADDICTION MEDICAID MATCH78266

       (A) As used in this section, "community alcohol and drug 78267
addiction Medicaid services" means services provided under the 78268
component, or aspect of the component, of the Medicaid program 78269
that the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services 78270
administers pursuant to a contract entered into with the 78271
Department of Job and Family Services under section 5111.91 of the 78272
Revised Code.78273

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, the foregoing 78274
appropriation item 038501, Medicaid Match, shall be used by the 78275
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services to make payments 78276
for community alcohol and drug addiction Medicaid services.78277

       (C) For state fiscal year 2012, the Department shall allocate 78278
foregoing appropriation item 038501, Medicaid Match, and a portion 78279
of appropriation item 038621, Statewide Treatment and Prevention, 78280
to boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 78281
in accordance with a distribution methodology the Department shall 78282
establish. Notwithstanding sections 5111.911 and 5111.913 of the 78283
Revised Code, the boards shall use the funds allocated to them 78284
under this section to pay claims for community alcohol and drug 78285
addiction Medicaid services provided during fiscal year 2012. The 78286
boards shall use all federal financial participation that the 78287
Department receives for claims paid for community alcohol and drug 78288
addiction Medicaid services provided during fiscal year 2012 as 78289
the first payment source to pay claims for community alcohol and 78290
drug addiction Medicaid services provided during fiscal year 2012. 78291
The boards are not required to use any funds other than the funds 78292
allocated to them under this section and the federal financial 78293
participation received for claims for community alcohol and drug 78294
addiction Medicaid services provided during fiscal year 2012 to 78295
pay for such claims.78296

       (D) The Department shall enter into an agreement with each 78297
board regarding the issue of paying claims that are for community 78298
alcohol and drug addiction Medicaid services provided before July 78299
1, 2011, and submitted for payment on or after that date. Such 78300
claims shall be paid in accordance with the agreements. A board 78301
shall receive the federal financial participation received for 78302
claims for community alcohol and drug addiction Medicaid services 78303
that were provided before July 1, 2011, and paid by the board.78304

       STATEWIDE TREATMENT AND PREVENTION78305

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 038621, Statewide 78306
Treatment and Prevention, up to $1,000,000 in fiscal year 2013 78307
shall be used to fund the pilot program for opioid- and 78308
alcohol-dependent offenders established under Section 737.70 of 78309
H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly.78310

       Sec. 223.10. AGO ATTORNEY GENERAL78311

General Revenue Fund78312

GRF 055321 Operating Expenses $ 42,514,169 $ 42,514,169 78313
GRF 055405 Law-Related Education $ 100,000 $ 100,000 78314
GRF 055411 County Sheriffs' Pay Supplement $ 757,921 $ 757,921 78315
GRF 055415 County Prosecutors' Pay Supplement $ 831,499 $ 831,499 78316
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 44,203,589 $ 44,203,589 78317

General Services Fund Group78318

1060 055612 General Reimbursement $ 43,357,968 $ 43,011,277 78319
1950 055660 Workers' Compensation Section $ 8,415,504 $ 8,415,504 78320
4180 055615 Charitable Foundations $ 7,286,000 $ 7,286,000 78321
4200 055603 Attorney General Antitrust $ 1,871,674 $ 1,839,074 78322
4210 055617 Police Officers' Training Academy Fee $ 2,124,942 $ 2,088,805 78323
4Z20 055609 BCI Asset Forfeiture and Cost Reimbursement $ 1,529,685 $ 1,521,731 78324
5900 055633 Peace Officer Private Security Fund $ 98,370 $ 98,370 78325
5A90 055618 Telemarketing Fraud Enforcement $ 7,500 $ 7,500 78326
5L50 055619 Law Enforcement Assistance Program $ 300,222 $ 0 78327
5LR0 055655 Peace Officer Training - Casino $ 192,620 $ 4,629,409 78328
6310 055637 Consumer Protection Enforcement $ 3,799,115 $ 3,718,973 78329
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 78330
Group $ 68,790,980 68,983,600 $ 67,987,234 72,616,643 78331

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group78332

3060 055620 Medicaid Fraud Control $ 4,211,235 $ 4,122,399 78333
3810 055611 Civil Rights Legal Service $ 402,540 $ 402,540 78334
3830 055634 Crime Victims Assistance $ 13,000,000 $ 13,000,000 78335
3E50 055638 Attorney General Pass-Through Funds $ 1,223,606 $ 1,222,172 78336
3R60 055613 Attorney General Federal Funds $ 3,823,251 $ 3,673,251 78337
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 78338
Fund Group $ 22,660,632 $ 22,420,362 78339

State Special Revenue Fund Group78340

4020 055616 Victims of Crime $ 26,000,000 $ 26,000,000 78341
4170 055621 Domestic Violence Shelter $ 25,000 $ 25,000 78342
4190 055623 Claims Section $ 44,197,843 $ 41,953,025 78343
4L60 055606 DARE Programs $ 4,477,962 $ 4,477,962 78344
4Y70 055608 Title Defect Recision $ 600,000 $ 600,000 78345
6590 055641 Solid and Hazardous Waste Background Investigations $ 662,227 $ 651,049 78346
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 78347
Fund Group $ 75,963,032 $ 73,707,036 78348

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group78349

R004 055631 General Holding Account $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 78350
R005 055632 Antitrust Settlements $ 1,000 $ 1,000 78351
R018 055630 Consumer Frauds $ 750,000 $ 750,000 78352
R042 055601 Organized Crime Commission Distributions $ 25,025 $ 25,025 78353
R054 055650 Collection Outside Counsel Payments $ 4,500,000 $ 4,500,000 78354
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 78355
Redistribution Fund Group $ 6,276,025 $ 6,276,025 78356

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group78357

J087 055635 Law Enforcement Technology, Training, and Facility Enhancements $ 2,300,000 $ 0 78358
U087 055402 Tobacco Settlement Oversight, Administration, and Enforcement $ 2,527,992 $ 2,514,690 78359
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 4,827,992 $ 2,514,690 78360
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 222,722,250 222,914,870 $ 217,108,936 221,738,345 78361

       COUNTY SHERIFFS' PAY SUPPLEMENT78362

        The foregoing appropriation item 055411, County Sheriffs' Pay 78363
Supplement, shall be used for the purpose of supplementing the 78364
annual compensation of county sheriffs as required by section 78365
325.06 of the Revised Code.78366

       At the request of the Attorney General, the Director of 78367
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation from 78368
appropriation item 055321, Operating Expenses, to appropriation 78369
item 055411, County Sheriffs' Pay Supplement. Any appropriation so 78370
transferred shall be used to supplement the annual compensation of 78371
county sheriffs as required by section 325.06 of the Revised Code.78372

       COUNTY PROSECUTORS' PAY SUPPLEMENT78373

       The foregoing appropriation item 055415, County Prosecutors' 78374
Pay Supplement, shall be used for the purpose of supplementing the 78375
annual compensation of certain county prosecutors as required by 78376
section 325.111 of the Revised Code.78377

       At the request of the Attorney General, the Director of 78378
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation from 78379
appropriation item 055321, Operating Expenses, to appropriation 78380
item 055415, County Prosecutors' Pay Supplement. Any appropriation 78381
so transferred shall be used to supplement the annual compensation 78382
of county prosecutors as required by section 325.111 of the 78383
Revised Code.78384

       GENERAL REIMBURSEMENT FUND78385

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 78386
on July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Director 78387
of Budget and Management shall transfer $160,000 cash from the 78388
General Revenue Fund to the General Reimbursement Fund (Fund 1060) 78389
used by the Office of the Attorney General.78390

       WORKERS' COMPENSATION SECTION78391

       The Workers' Compensation Fund (Fund 1950) is entitled to 78392
receive payments from the Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the 78393
Ohio Industrial Commission at the beginning of each quarter of 78394
each fiscal year to fund legal services to be provided to the 78395
Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the Ohio Industrial Commission 78396
during the ensuing quarter. The advance payment shall be subject 78397
to adjustment.78398

       In addition, the Bureau of Workers' Compensation shall 78399
transfer payments at the beginning of each quarter for the support 78400
of the Workers' Compensation Fraud Unit.78401

       All amounts shall be mutually agreed upon by the Attorney 78402
General, the Bureau of Workers' Compensation, and the Ohio 78403
Industrial Commission.78404

       ATTORNEY GENERAL PASS-THROUGH FUNDS78405

        The foregoing appropriation item 055638, Attorney General 78406
Pass-Through Funds, shall be used to receive federal grant funds 78407
provided to the Attorney General by other state agencies, 78408
including, but not limited to, the Department of Youth Services 78409
and the Department of Public Safety.78410

       GENERAL HOLDING ACCOUNT78411

       The foregoing appropriation item 055631, General Holding 78412
Account, shall be used to distribute moneys under the terms of 78413
relevant court orders or other settlements received in a variety 78414
of cases involving the Office of the Attorney General. If it is 78415
determined that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, 78416
the amounts are hereby appropriated.78417

        ANTITRUST SETTLEMENTS78418

       The foregoing appropriation item 055632, Antitrust 78419
Settlements, shall be used to distribute moneys under the terms of 78420
relevant court orders or other out of court settlements in 78421
antitrust cases or antitrust matters involving the Office of the 78422
Attorney General. If it is determined that additional amounts are 78423
necessary for this purpose, the amounts are hereby appropriated.78424

       CONSUMER FRAUDS78425

        The foregoing appropriation item 055630, Consumer Frauds, 78426
shall be used for distribution of moneys from court-ordered 78427
judgments against sellers in actions brought by the Office of 78428
Attorney General under sections 1334.08 and 4549.48 and division 78429
(B) of section 1345.07 of the Revised Code. These moneys shall be 78430
used to provide restitution to consumers victimized by the fraud 78431
that generated the court-ordered judgments. If it is determined 78432
that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, the 78433
amounts are hereby appropriated.78434

       ORGANIZED CRIME COMMISSION DISTRIBUTIONS78435

        The foregoing appropriation item 055601, Organized Crime 78436
Commission Distributions, shall be used by the Organized Crime 78437
Investigations Commission, as provided by section 177.011 of the 78438
Revised Code, to reimburse political subdivisions for the expenses 78439
the political subdivisions incur when their law enforcement 78440
officers participate in an organized crime task force. If it is 78441
determined that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, 78442
the amounts are hereby appropriated.78443

       COLLECTION OUTSIDE COUNSEL PAYMENTS78444

        The foregoing appropriation item 055650, Collection Outside 78445
Counsel Payments, shall be used for the purpose of paying 78446
contingency counsel fees for cases where debtors mistakenly paid 78447
the client agencies instead of the Attorney General's Revenue 78448
Recovery/Collections Enforcement Section. If it is determined that 78449
additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, the amounts are 78450
hereby appropriated.78451

       Sec. 229.10. OBM OFFICE OF BUDGET AND MANAGEMENT78452

General Revenue Fund78453

GRF 042321 Budget Development and Implementation $ 2,362,025 $ 2,378,166 2,353,166 78454
GRF 042409 Commission Closures $ 50,000 $ 50,000 78455
GRF 042416 Office of Health Transformation $ 306,285 $ 0 499,252 78456
GRF 042423 Liquor Enterprise Transaction $ 500,000 $ 0 78457
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 3,218,310 $ 2,428,166 2,902,418 78458

General Services Fund Group78459

1050 042603 State Accounting and Budgeting $ 21,917,230 21,158,069 $ 22,006,331 22,262,185 78460
5N40 042602 OAKS Project Implementation $ 1,358,000 $ 1,309,500 1,296,000 78461
5Z80 042608 Office of Health Transformation Administration $ 57,752 $ 0 78462
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 23,332,982 22,573,821 $ 23,315,831 23,558,185 78463

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group78464

3CM0 042606 Office of Health Transformation - Federal $ 384,037 $ 145,500 438,723 78465
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 384,037 $ 145,500 438,723 78466

Agency Fund Group78467

5EH0 042604 Forgery Recovery $ 50,000 $ 50,000 49,000 78468
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 50,000 $ 50,000 49,000 78469
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 26,985,329 26,226,168 $ 25,939,497 26,948,326 78470

       COMMISSION CLOSURES78471

       The foregoing appropriation item 042409, Commission Closures, 78472
may be used to pay obligations associated with the closure of the 78473
Commission on Dispute Resolution and Conflict Management, the 78474
School Employees Health Care Board, the Legal Rights Service, and 78475
the Workers' Compensation Council. Notwithstanding any provision 78476
of law to the contrary, this appropriation item may also be used 78477
to pay final payroll expenses occurring after the closure of the 78478
Commission on Dispute Resolution and Conflict Management, the 78479
School Employees Health Care Board, the Legal Rights Service, and 78480
the Workers' Compensation Council in the event that appropriations 78481
or cash in the closing agency are insufficient to do so. 78482

       The Director of Budget and Management may request Controlling 78483
Board approval for funds to be transferred to appropriation item 78484
042409, Commission Closures, from appropriation item 911614, CB 78485
Emergency Purposes, for anticipated expenses associated with 78486
agency closures.78487

       LIQUOR ENTERPRISE TRANSACTION78488

       The foregoing appropriation item 042423, Liquor Enterprise 78489
Transaction, shall be used by the Director of Budget and 78490
Management, without need for any other approval, to retain or 78491
contract for the services of commercial appraisers, underwriters, 78492
investment bankers, and financial advisers, as are necessary in 78493
the Director's judgment to commence negotiation of the transfer 78494
agreement referred to in sections 4313.01 and 4313.02 of the 78495
Revised Code, as enacted by this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 78496
129th General Assembly. Any amounts expended from appropriation 78497
item 042423 shall be reimbursed from the proceeds of the 78498
enterprise acquisition project transaction authorized in those 78499
sections.78500

       The Director of Budget and Management, in consultation with 78501
the Director of Commerce, may negotiate an initial agreement with 78502
JobsOhio, which shall be executed by the Directors of Budget and 78503
Management and Commerce upon its completion. 78504

       AUDIT COSTS AND DUES78505

       All centralized audit costs associated with either Single 78506
Audit Schedules or financial statements prepared in conformance 78507
with generally accepted accounting principles for the state shall 78508
be paid from the foregoing appropriation item 042603, State 78509
Accounting and Budgeting.78510

       Costs associated with the audit of the Auditor of State and 78511
national association dues shall be paid from the foregoing 78512
appropriation item 042321, Budget Development and Implementation.78513

       SHARED SERVICES CENTER78514

       The Director of Budget and Management shall use the OAKS 78515
Project Implementation Fund (Fund 5N40) and the Accounting and 78516
Budgeting Fund (Fund 1050) to support a Shared Services Center 78517
within the Office of Budget and Management for the purpose of 78518
consolidating statewide business functions and common 78519
transactional processes.78520

        The Director of Budget and Management shall include the 78521
recovery of costs to operate the Shared Services Center in the 78522
accounting and budgeting services payroll rate and through a 78523
direct charge using intrastate transfer vouchers to agencies for 78524
services rendered. The Director of Budget and Management shall 78525
determine the cost recovery methodology. Such cost recovery 78526
revenues shall be deposited to the credit of Fund 1050.78527

       INTERNAL CONTROL AND AUDIT OVERSIGHT78528

       The Director of Budget and Management shall include the 78529
recovery of costs to operate the Internal Control and Audit 78530
Oversight Program in the accounting and budgeting services payroll 78531
rate and through a direct charge using intrastate transfer 78532
vouchers to agencies reviewed by the program. The Director of 78533
Budget and Management, with advice from the Internal Audit 78534
Advisory Council, shall determine the cost recovery methodology. 78535
Such cost recovery revenues shall be deposited to the credit of 78536
the Accounting and Budgeting Fund (Fund 1050).78537

       FORGERY RECOVERY78538

       The foregoing appropriation item 042604, Forgery Recovery, 78539
shall be used to reissue warrants that have been certified as 78540
forgeries by the rightful recipient as determined by the Bureau of 78541
Criminal Identification and Investigation and the Treasurer of 78542
State. Upon receipt of funds to cover the reissuance of the 78543
warrant, the Director of Budget and Management shall reissue a 78544
state warrant of the same amount.78545

       GRF TRANSFER TO THE OAKS PROJECT IMPLEMENTATION FUND78546

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 78547
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 78548
an amount not to exceed $1,100,000 in cash from the General 78549
Revenue Fund to the OAKS Project Implementation Fund (Fund 5N40).78550

       Sec. 243.10. COM DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE78551

General Services Fund Group78552

1630 800620 Division of Administration $ 6,200,000 $ 6,200,000 78553
1630 800637 Information Technology $ 5,999,892 $ 6,011,977 78554
5430 800602 Unclaimed Funds-Operating $ 7,836,107 $ 7,841,473 78555
5430 800625 Unclaimed Funds-Claims $ 69,700,000 $ 69,800,000 68,000,000 78556
5F10 800635 Small Government Fire Departments $ 300,000 $ 300,000 78557
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 78558
Group $ 90,035,999 $ 90,153,450 88,353,450 78559

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group78560

3480 800622 Underground Storage Tanks $ 1,129,518 $ 1,129,518 78561
3480 800624 Leaking Underground Storage Tanks $ 1,556,211 $ 1,556,211 78562
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 78563
Fund Group $ 2,685,729 $ 2,685,729 78564

State Special Revenue Fund Group78565

4B20 800631 Real Estate Appraisal Recovery $ 35,000 $ 35,000 78566
4H90 800608 Cemeteries $ 268,067 $ 268,293 78567
4X20 800619 Financial Institutions $ 2,186,271 $ 1,990,693 1,970,786 78568
5440 800612 Banks $ 7,242,364 $ 6,942,336 6,872,913 78569
5450 800613 Savings Institutions $ 2,257,220 $ 2,259,536 78570
5460 800610 Fire Marshal $ 15,400,000 $ 15,501,562 15,484,574 78571
5460 800639 Fire Department Grants $ 1,698,802 $ 1,698,802 78572
5470 800603 Real Estate Education/Research $ 125,000 $ 125,000 80,655 78573
5480 800611 Real Estate Recovery $ 25,000 $ 25,000 78574
5490 800614 Real Estate $ 3,413,708 $ 3,332,308 78575
5500 800617 Securities $ 4,312,434 $ 4,314,613 4,271,467 78576
5520 800604 Credit Union $ 3,450,390 $ 3,450,390 3,415,886 78577
5530 800607 Consumer Finance $ 3,613,016 $ 3,516,861 3,481,692 78578
5560 800615 Industrial Compliance $ 27,639,372 $ 27,664,695 27,388,048 78579
5FW0 800616 Financial Literacy Education $ 240,000 $ 240,000 200,000 78580
5GK0 800609 Securities Investor Education/Enforcement $ 1,135,000 $ 485,000 480,150 78581
5HV0 800641 Cigarette Enforcement $ 120,000 $ 120,000 118,800 78582
5LN0 800645 Liquor Operating Services $ 0 $ 5,500,000 78583
5LP0 800646 Liquor Regulatory Operating Expense $ 0 $ 8,500,000 78584
5X60 800623 Video Service $ 340,299 $ 340,630 337,224 78585
6530 800629 UST Registration/Permit Fee $ 1,854,675 $ 1,509,653 1,494,556 78586
6A40 800630 Real Estate Appraiser-Operating $ 699,565 $ 648,890 78587
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 78588
Fund Group $ 76,056,183 $ 74,469,262 87,864,580 78589

Liquor Control Fund Group78590

7043 800601 Merchandising $ 472,209,274 $ 0 78591
7043 800627 Liquor Control Operating $ 13,398,274 $ 10,110,479 1,509,374 78592
7043 800633 Development Assistance Debt Service $ 51,973,200 $ 0 78593
7043 800636 Revitalization Debt Service $ 21,129,800 $ 0 78594
TOTAL LCF Liquor Control 78595
Fund Group $ 558,710,548 $ 10,110,479 1,509,374 78596
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 727,488,459 $ 177,418,920 180,413,133 78597

       SMALL GOVERNMENT FIRE DEPARTMENTS78598

       Notwithstanding section 3737.17 of the Revised Code, the 78599
foregoing appropriation item 800635, Small Government Fire 78600
Departments, may be used to provide loans to private fire 78601
departments.78602

       UNCLAIMED FUNDS PAYMENTS78603

       The foregoing appropriation item 800625, Unclaimed 78604
Funds-Claims, shall be used to pay claims under section 169.08 of 78605
the Revised Code. If it is determined that additional amounts are 78606
necessary, the amounts are appropriated.78607

       UNCLAIMED FUNDS TRANSFERS78608

        Notwithstanding division (A) of section 169.05 of the Revised 78609
Code, during the FY 2012-FY 2013 biennium, the Director of Budget 78610
and Management shall request the Director of Commerce to transfer 78611
to the General Revenue Fund up to $215,000,000 of unclaimed funds 78612
that have been reported by holders of unclaimed funds under 78613
section 169.05 of the Revised Code, irrespective of the allocation 78614
of the unclaimed funds under that section. The Director of 78615
Commerce shall transfer the funds at the times requested by the 78616
Director of Budget and Management.78617

       FIRE DEPARTMENT GRANTS78618

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 800639, Fire Department 78619
Grants, up to $1,647,140 in each fiscal year shall be used to make 78620
annual grants to the following eligible recipients: volunteer fire 78621
departments, fire departments that serve one or more small 78622
municipalities or small townships, joint fire districts comprised 78623
of fire departments that primarily serve small municipalities or 78624
small townships, local units of government responsible for such 78625
fire departments, and local units of government responsible for 78626
the provision of fire protection services for small municipalities 78627
or small townships. For the purposes of these grants, a private 78628
fire company, as that phrase is defined in section 9.60 of the 78629
Revised Code, that is providing fire protection services under a 78630
contract to a political subdivision of the state, is an additional 78631
eligible recipient for a training grant.78632

       Eligible recipients that consist of small municipalities or 78633
small townships that all intend to contract with the same fire 78634
department or private fire company for fire protection services 78635
may jointly apply and be considered for a grant. If a joint 78636
applicant is awarded a grant, the State Fire Marshal shall, if 78637
feasible, proportionately award the grant and any equipment 78638
purchased with grant funds to each of the joint applicants based 78639
upon each applicant's contribution to and demonstrated need for 78640
fire protection services.78641

       If the grant awarded to joint applicants is an equipment 78642
grant and the equipment to be purchased cannot be readily 78643
distributed or possessed by multiple recipients, each of the joint 78644
applicants shall be awarded by the State Fire Marshal an ownership 78645
interest in the equipment so purchased in proportion to each 78646
applicant's contribution to and demonstrated need for fire 78647
protection services. The joint applicants shall then mutually 78648
agree on how the equipment is to be maintained, operated, stored, 78649
or disposed of. If, for any reason, the joint applicants cannot 78650
agree as to how jointly owned equipment is to be maintained, 78651
operated, stored, or disposed of or any of the joint applicants no 78652
longer maintain a contract with the same fire protection service 78653
provider as the other applicants, then the joint applicants shall, 78654
with the assistance of the State Fire Marshal, mutually agree as 78655
to how the jointly owned equipment is to be maintained, operated, 78656
stored, disposed of, or owned. If the joint applicants cannot 78657
agree how the grant equipment is to be maintained, operated, 78658
stored, disposed of, or owned, the State Fire Marshal may, in its 78659
discretion, require all of the equipment acquired by the joint 78660
applicants with grant funds to be returned to the State Fire 78661
Marshal. The State Fire Marshal may then award the returned 78662
equipment to any eligible recipients.78663

       The grants shall be used by recipients to purchase 78664
firefighting or rescue equipment or gear or similar items, to 78665
provide full or partial reimbursement for the documented costs of 78666
firefighter training, or, at the discretion of the State Fire 78667
Marshal, to cover fire department costs for providing fire 78668
protection services in that grant recipient's jurisdiction. 78669

       Grant awards for firefighting or rescue equipment or gear or 78670
for fire department costs of providing fire protection services 78671
shall be up to $15,000 per fiscal year, or up to $25,000 per 78672
fiscal year if an eligible entity serves a jurisdiction in which 78673
the Governor declared a natural disaster during the preceding or 78674
current fiscal year in which the grant was awarded. In addition to 78675
any grant funds awarded for rescue equipment or gear, or for fire 78676
department costs associated with the provision of fire protection 78677
services, an eligible entity may receive a grant for up to $15,000 78678
per fiscal year for full or partial reimbursement of the 78679
documented costs of firefighter training. For each fiscal year, 78680
the State Fire Marshal shall determine the total amounts to be 78681
allocated for each eligible purpose.78682

       The grant program shall be administered by the State Fire 78683
Marshal in accordance with rules the State Fire Marshal adopts as 78684
part of the state fire code adopted pursuant to section 3737.82 of 78685
the Revised Code that are necessary for the administration and 78686
operation of the grant program. The rules may further define the 78687
entities eligible to receive grants and establish criteria for the 78688
awarding and expenditure of grant funds, including methods the 78689
State Fire Marshal may use to verify the proper use of grant funds 78690
or to obtain reimbursement for or the return of equipment for 78691
improperly used grant funds. Any amounts in appropriation item 78692
800639, Fire Department Grants, in excess of the amount allocated 78693
for these grants may be used for the administration of the grant 78694
program.78695

       CASH TRANSFERS TO THE DIVISION OF SECURITIES INVESTOR 78696
EDUCATION AND ENFORCEMENT EXPENSE FUND78697

       The Director of Budget and Management, upon the request of 78698
the Director of Commerce, shall transfer up to $485,000 in cash in 78699
each fiscal year from the Division of Securities Fund (Fund 5500) 78700
to the Division of Securities Investor Education and Enforcement 78701
Expense Fund (Fund 5GK0) created in section 1707.37 of the Revised 78702
Code. 78703

       CASH TRANSFER TO VIDEO SERVICE AUTHORIZATION FUND78704

       The Director of Budget and Management, upon the request of 78705
the Director of Commerce, shall transfer up to $340,000 in cash in 78706
each fiscal year from the Division of Administration Fund (Fund 78707
1630) to the Video Service Authorization Fund (Fund 5X60).78708

       INCREASED APPROPRIATION - MERCHANDISING78709

       The foregoing appropriation item 800601, Merchandising, shall 78710
be used under section 4301.12 of the Revised Code. If it is 78711
determined that additional expenditures are necessary, the amounts 78712
are hereby appropriated.78713

       DEVELOPMENT ASSISTANCE DEBT SERVICE78714

        The foregoing appropriation item 800633, Development 78715
Assistance Debt Service, shall be used to pay debt service and 78716
related financing costs at the times they are required to be made 78717
during the period from July 1, 2011, to June 30, 2012, for bond 78718
service charges on obligations issued under Chapter 166. of the 78719
Revised Code. If it is determined that additional appropriations 78720
are necessary for this purpose, such amounts are appropriated, 78721
subject to the limitations set forth in section 166.11 of the 78722
Revised Code. An appropriation for this purpose is not required, 78723
but is made in this form and in this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 78724
129th General Assembly for record purposes only.78725

        REVITALIZATION DEBT SERVICE78726

       The foregoing appropriation item 800636, Revitalization Debt 78727
Service, shall be used to pay debt service and related financing 78728
costs at the times they are required to be made pursuant to 78729
sections 151.01 and 151.40 of the Revised Code during the period 78730
from July 1, 2011, to June 30, 2012. If it is determined that 78731
additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, such 78732
amounts are hereby appropriated. The General Assembly acknowledges 78733
the priority of the pledge of a portion of receipts from that 78734
source to obligations issued and to be issued under Chapter 166. 78735
of the Revised Code.78736

        LIQUOR CONTROL FUND TRANSFER78737

        On January 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 78738
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $10,600,000 78739
in cash from the General Revenue Fund to the Liquor Control Fund 78740
(Fund 7043) for the liquor permitting and compliance functions of 78741
the Division of Liquor Control in the Department of Commerce and 78742
for the operations of the Liquor Control Commission and the 78743
Department of Public Safety pursuant to Chapter 4301. of the 78744
Revised Code.78745

        On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 78746
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $21,800,000 78747
in cash from the General Revenue Fund to the Liquor Control Fund 78748
(Fund 7043) for the liquor permitting and compliance functions of 78749
the Division of Liquor Control in the Department of Commerce and 78750
for the operations of the Liquor Control Commission and the 78751
Department of Public Safety pursuant to Chapter 4301. of the 78752
Revised Code.78753

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 78754
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $500,000 in cash 78755
from the Liquor Control Fund (Fund 7043) to the State Liquor 78756
Regulatory Fund (Fund 5LP0) created in section 4301.30 of the 78757
Revised Code.78758

       ADMINISTRATIVE ASSESSMENTS78759

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 78760
the Division of Administration Fund (Fund 1630) is entitled to 78761
receive assessments from all operating funds of the Department in 78762
accordance with procedures prescribed by the Director of Commerce 78763
and approved by the Director of Budget and Management.78764

       Sec. 261.10.40. TRAVEL AND TOURISM78765

       The foregoing appropriation item 195407, Travel and Tourism, 78766
shall be used for marketing the state of Ohio as a tourism 78767
destination and to support administrative expenses and contracts 78768
necessary to market Ohio.78769

       STRATEGIC BUSINESS INVESTMENT DIVISION AND REGIONAL OFFICES78770
DEVELOPMENT SERVICES78771

       The foregoing appropriation item 195415, Strategic Business 78772
Investment Division and Regional OfficesDevelopment Services, 78773
shall be used for the operating expenses of the Strategic Business 78774
InvestmentServices Division and the regional economic development 78775
offices and for grants for cooperative economic development 78776
ventures.78777

       Sec. 261.10.70. CLEAN OHIO IMPLEMENTATION78778

        The foregoing appropriation item 195426, Clean Ohio 78779
Implementation, shall be used to fund the costs of administering 78780
the Clean Ohio Revitalization program and other urban 78781
revitalization programs that may be implemented by the Department 78782
of Development Services Agency.78783

       CDBG OPERATING MATCH78784

       The foregoing appropriation item 195497, CDBG Operating 78785
Match, shall be used as matching funds for grants from the United 78786
States Department of Housing and Urban Development pursuant to the 78787
Housing and Community Development Act of 1974 and regulations and 78788
policy guidelines for the programs pursuant thereto.78789

       TECHNOLOGY PROGRAMS AND GRANTS78790

       The foregoing appropriation item 195532, Technology Programs 78791
and Grants, shall be used for the same purposes as funding 78792
previously appropriated for appropriation items 195401, Thomas 78793
Edison Program, and 195422, Technology Action. Of the foregoing 78794
appropriation item 195532, Technology Programs and Grants, up to 78795
$547,341 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used for operating expenses 78796
incurred in administering the Ohio Third Frontier pursuant to 78797
sections 184.10 to 184.20 of the Revised Code; and up to 78798
$13,000,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used for the Thomas 78799
Edison Program pursuant to sections 122.28 to 122.38 of the 78800
Revised Code, of which not more than ten per cent shall be used 78801
for operating expenses incurred in administering the program.78802

       BUSINESS ASSISTANCE78803

       The foregoing appropriation item 195533, Business Assistance, 78804
shall be used as matching funds for grants from the United States 78805
Small Business Administration and other federal agencies, pursuant 78806
to Public Law No. 96-302 as amended by Public Law No. 98-395, and 78807
regulations and policy guidelines for the programs pursuant 78808
thereto. This appropriation item also may be used to provide 78809
grants to local organizations to support economic development 78810
activities that promote minority business development, small 78811
business development, entrepreneurship, and exports of Ohio's 78812
goods and services.78813

       APPALACHIA ASSISTANCE78814

       The foregoing appropriation item 195535, Appalachia 78815
Assistance, may be used for the administrative costs of planning 78816
and liaison activities for the Governor's Office of Appalachia, to 78817
provide financial assistance to projects in Ohio's Appalachian 78818
counties, to pay dues for the Appalachian Regional Commission, and 78819
to match federal funds from the Appalachian Regional Commission.78820

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 195535, Appalachia 78821
Assistance, up to $440,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used to 78822
support four local development districts. Of that amount, up to 78823
$135,000 shall be allocated to the Ohio Valley Regional 78824
Development Commission, up to $135,000 shall be allocated to the 78825
Ohio Mid-Eastern Government Association, up to $135,000 shall be 78826
allocated to the Buckeye Hills-Hocking Valley Regional Development 78827
District, and up to $35,000 shall be allocated to the Eastgate 78828
Regional Council of Governments. Local development districts 78829
receiving funding under this section shall use the funds for the 78830
implementation and administration of programs and duties under 78831
section 107.21 of the Revised Code. 78832

       Sec. 261.20.40. SUPPORTIVEDEVELOPMENT SERVICES OPERATIONS78833

       The Director of Development Services may assess divisions78834
offices of the departmentagency for the cost of central service 78835
operations. An assessment shall contain the characteristics of 78836
administrative ease and uniform application. A division's payments 78837
shall be credited to the Supportive Services Fund (Fund 1350) 78838
using an intrastate transfer voucher.78839

       ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT CONTINGENCY78840

       The foregoing appropriation item 195677, Economic Development 78841
Contingency, may be used to award funds directly to either (1) 78842
business entities considering Ohio for expansion or new site 78843
location opportunities or (2) political subdivisions to assist 78844
with necessary costs involved in attracting a business entity. In 78845
addition, the Director of Development may award funds for 78846
alternative purposes when appropriate to satisfy an economic 78847
development opportunity or need deemed extraordinary in nature by 78848
the Director.78849

       LEGACY PROJECTS78850

       The foregoing appropriation item 195633, Legacy Projects, 78851
shall be used to support existing grant commitments to companies 78852
incurred prior to fiscal year 2013. A portion of the appropriation 78853
item may also be used to support administrative expenses and other 78854
costs associated with these projects.78855

       DIRECT COST RECOVERYDEVELOPMENT SERVICES REIMBURSABLE78856
EXPENDITURES78857

       The foregoing appropriation item 195636, Direct Cost Recovery78858
Development Services Reimbursable Expenditures, shall be used for 78859
reimbursable costs incurred by the agency. Revenues to the General 78860
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 6850) shall consist of moneys charged for 78861
administrative costs that are not central service costs.78862

       Sec. 261.20.50. HEAP WEATHERIZATION78863

       Up to fifteen per cent of the federal funds deposited to the 78864
credit of the Home Energy Assistance Block Grant Fund (Fund 3K90) 78865
may be expended from appropriation item 195614, HEAP 78866
Weatherization, to provide home weatherization services in the 78867
state as determined by the Director of Development Services. Any 78868
transfers or increases in appropriation for the foregoing 78869
appropriation items 195614, HEAP Weatherization, or 195611, Home 78870
Energy Assistance Block Grant, shall be subject to approval by the 78871
Controlling Board.78872

       Sec. 261.20.60. BUSINESS ASSISTANCE PROGRAMS78873

       The foregoing appropriation item 195649, Business Assistance 78874
Programs, shall be used for administrative expenses associated 78875
with the operation of tax credit programs, loan servicing, the 78876
Ohio Film Office, and the Office of Strategic Business 78877
Investments, and for payments to the JobsOhio corporation 78878
established in Chapter 187. of the Revised Code for services 78879
provided for the administration of the 166 Direct Loan Program, 78880
Ohio Enterprise Bond Fund, Research and Development Loan Program, 78881
and Innovation Ohio Loan Program.78882

        STATE SPECIAL PROJECTS78883

       The State Special Projects Fund (Fund 4F20), may be used for 78884
the deposit of private-sector funds from utility companies and for 78885
the deposit of other miscellaneous state funds. State moneys so 78886
deposited shallmay also be used to match federal housing grants 78887
for the homeless and to market economic development opportunities 78888
in the state. Private-sector moneys shall be deposited for use in 78889
appropriation item 195699, Utility Provided FundsCommunity 78890
Assistance, and shall be used to (1) pay the expenses of verifying 78891
the income-eligibility of HEAP applicants, (2) leverage additional 78892
federal funds, (3) fund special projects to assist homeless 78893
individualsincome-eligible veterans and families with services 78894
and energy assistance programs, (4) fund special projects to 78895
assist with the energy efficiency of households eligible to 78896
participate in the Percentage of Income Payment Plan, and (5) 78897
assist with training programs for agencies that administer 78898
low-income customer assistance programs.78899

       Sec. 261.20.80. MINORITY BUSINESS ENTERPRISE LOAN78900

       All repayments from the Minority Development Financing 78901
Advisory Board Loan Program and the Ohio Mini-Loan Guarantee 78902
Program shall be deposited in the State Treasury to the credit of 78903
the Minority Business Enterprise Loan Fund (Fund 4W10). Operating 78904
costs of administering the Minority Business Enterprise Loan Fund 78905
may be paid from the Minority Business Enterprise Loan Fund (Fund 78906
4W10).78907

       MINORITY BUSINESS BONDING FUND78908

       Notwithstanding Chapters 122., 169., and 175. of the Revised 78909
Code, the Director of Development Services may, upon the 78910
recommendation of the Minority Development Financing Advisory 78911
Board, pledge up to $10,000,000 in the fiscal year 2012-fiscal 78912
year 2013 biennium of unclaimed funds administered by the Director 78913
of Commerce and allocated to the Minority Business Bonding Program 78914
under section 169.05 of the Revised Code. The transfer of any cash 78915
by the Director of Budget and Management from the Department of 78916
Commerce's Unclaimed Funds Fund (Fund 5430) used by the Department 78917
of Commerce to the Department of Development's Minority Business 78918
Bonding Fund (Fund 4490) used by the Development Services Agency78919
shall occur, if requested by the Director of Development Services, 78920
only if such funds are needed for payment of losses arising from 78921
the Minority Business Bonding Program, and only after proceeds of 78922
the initial transfer of $2,700,000 by the Controlling Board to the 78923
Minority Business Bonding Program has been used for that purpose. 78924
Moneys transferred by the Director of Budget and Management from 78925
the Department of Commerce for this purpose may be moneys in 78926
custodial funds held by the Treasurer of State. If expenditures 78927
are required for payment of losses arising from the Minority 78928
Business Bonding Program, such expenditures shall be made from 78929
appropriation item 195623, Minority Business Bonding Contingency 78930
in the Minority Business Bonding Fund, and such amounts are hereby 78931
appropriated.78932

       Sec. 261.20.90. OHIO INCUMBENT WORKFORCE TRAINING VOUCHERS78933

       (A) On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 78934
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer up to $20,000,000 78935
cash from the Economic Development Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used 78936
by the Board of Regents to the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job 78937
Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the Department of Development 78938
Services Agency.78939

        On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 78940
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer up to $30,000,000 78941
cash from the Economic Development Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used 78942
by the Board of Regents to the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job 78943
Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the Department of Development 78944
Services Agency.78945

        (B) Of the foregoing appropriation item 195526, Ohio78946
Incumbent Workforce Job Training Vouchers, up to $20,000,000 in 78947
fiscal year 2012 and up to $30,000,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall 78948
be used to support the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training Voucher 78949
Program. The Director of Development Services and the Chief 78950
Investment Officer of JobsOhio may enter into an agreement to 78951
operate the program pursuant to the contract between the 78952
Department of Development Services Agency and JobsOhio under 78953
section 187.04 of the Revised Code. The agreement may include a 78954
provision for granting, loaning, or transferring funds from 78955
appropriation item 195526, Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training 78956
Vouchers, to JobsOhio to provide training for incumbent workers.78957

        (C) Regardless of any agreement between the Director and the 78958
Chief Investment Officer under division (B) of this section, the 78959
Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training Voucher Program shall conform to 78960
guidelines for the operation of the program, including, but not 78961
limited to, the following:78962

        (1) A requirement that a training voucher under the program 78963
shall not exceed $6,000 per worker per year;78964

       (2) A provision for an employer of an eligible employee to 78965
apply for a voucher on behalf of the eligible employee;78966

        (3) A provision for an eligible employee to apply directly 78967
for a training voucher with the pre-approval of the employee's 78968
employer; and78969

        (4) A requirement that an employee participating in the 78970
program, or the employee's employer, shall pay for not less than 78971
thirty-three per cent of the training costs under the program.78972

       DEFENSE DEVELOPMENT ASSISTANCE78973

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 78974
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 78975
$5,000,000 in cash from the Economic Development Projects Fund 78976
(Fund 5JC0) used by the Board of Regents to the Ohio Incumbent 78977
Workforce Job Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the Department of78978
Development Services Agency. The transferred funds are hereby 78979
appropriated in appropriation item 195622, Defense Development 78980
Assistance.78981

       The foregoing appropriation item 195622, Defense Development 78982
Assistance, shall be used for economic development programs and 78983
the creation of new jobs to leverage and support mission gains at 78984
Department of Defense facilities in Ohio by working with future 78985
base realignment and closure activities and ongoing Department of 78986
Defense efficiency initiatives, assisting efforts to secure 78987
Department of Defense support contracts for Ohio companies, 78988
assessing and supporting regional job training and workforce 78989
development needs generated by the Department of Defense and the 78990
Ohio aerospace industry, and for expanding job training and 78991
economic development programs in human performance related 78992
initiatives. These funds shall be matched by private industry 78993
partners or the Department of Defense in an aggregate amount of 78994
$6,000,000 over the FY 2012-FY 2013 biennium.78995

       WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT PROGRAMS78996

       The foregoing appropriation item 195655, Workforce 78997
Development Programs, may be used for the Ohio Workforce Guarantee 78998
Program to promote training through grants to businesses and, in 78999
the case of a business consortium, to the consortium for training 79000
and education providers for the reimbursement of eligible training 79001
expenses. Not more than ten per cent of appropriation item 195655, 79002
Workforce Development Programs, shall be used for administrative 79003
expenses related to the Ohio Workforce Guarantee Program.79004

       Sec. 261.30.10.  ADVANCED ENERGY FUNDLOAN PROGRAMS79005

       The foregoing appropriation item 195660, Advanced Energy Loan79006
Programs, shall be used to provide financial assistance to 79007
customers for eligible advanced energy projects for residential, 79008
commercial, and industrial business, local government, educational 79009
institution, nonprofit, and agriculture customers, and to pay for 79010
the program's administrative costs as provided in sections 4928.61 79011
to 4928.63 of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the Director 79012
of Development Services.79013

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 79014
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 79015
$750,000 in cash from the Advanced Energy Fund (Fund 5M50) to the 79016
Alternative Fuel Transportation Grant Fund (Fund 5CG0).79017

       VOLUME CAP ADMINISTRATION79018

       The foregoing appropriation item 195654, Volume Cap 79019
Administration, shall be used for expenses related to the 79020
administration of the Volume Cap Program. Revenues received by the 79021
Volume Cap Administration Fund (Fund 6170) shall consist of 79022
application fees, forfeited deposits, and interest earned from the 79023
custodial account held by the Treasurer of State.79024

       Sec. 261.30.20. INNOVATION OHIO LOAN FUND79025

        The foregoing appropriation item 195664, Innovation Ohio, 79026
shall be used to provide for innovation Ohio purposes, including 79027
loan guarantees and loans under Chapter 166. and particularly 79028
sections 166.12 to 166.16 of the Revised Code.79029

       RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT79030

       The foregoing appropriation item 195665, Research and 79031
Development, shall be used to provide for research and development 79032
purposes, including loans, under Chapter 166. and particularly 79033
sections 166.17 to 166.21 of the Revised Code.79034

       LOGISTICS AND DISTRIBUTION INFRASTRUCTURE79035

       Appropriation item 195698, Logistics and Distribution 79036
Infrastructure, shall be used for eligible logistics and 79037
distribution infrastructure projects as defined in section 166.01 79038
of the Revised Code. Any unexpended and unencumbered portion of 79039
the appropriation item at the end of fiscal year 2011 is hereby 79040
reappropriated for the same purpose in fiscal year 2012, and any 79041
unexpended and unencumbered portion of the appropriation item at 79042
the end of fiscal year 2012 is hereby reappropriated for the same 79043
purpose in fiscal year 2013.79044

        After all encumbrances have been paid, the Director of Budget 79045
and Management shall transfer the remaining cash balance in the 79046
Logistics and Distribution Infrastructure Fund (Fund 7008) to the 79047
Facilities Establishment Fund (Fund 7037).79048

       FACILITIES ESTABLISHMENT FUND79049

       The foregoing appropriation item 195615, Facilities 79050
Establishment (Fund 7037), shall be used for the purposes of the 79051
Facilities Establishment Fund under Chapter 166. of the Revised 79052
Code.79053

       Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, an amount 79054
not to exceed $1,000,000 in cash in fiscal year 2012 may be 79055
transferred from the Facilities Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to 79056
the Economic Development Financing OperatingBusiness Assistance79057
Fund (Fund 4510). The transfer is subject to Controlling Board 79058
approval under division (B) of section 166.03 of the Revised Code.79059

        Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, the 79060
Director of Budget and Management may transfer an amount not to 79061
exceed $2,500,000 in cash in each fiscal year from the Facilities 79062
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to the Minority Business Enterprise 79063
Loan Fund (Fund 4W10).79064

       On July 1, 20112012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 79065
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the unexpended 79066
and unencumbered cash balance in the Urban Development Loans Fund 79067
(Fund 5D20) to the Facilities Establishment Fund (Fund 7037).79068

       On July 1, 20112012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 79069
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the unexpended 79070
and unencumbered cash balance in the Rural Industrial Park Loan 79071
Fund (Fund 4Z60) to the Facilities Establishment Fund (Fund 7037).79072

       CAPITAL ACCESS LOAN PROGRAM79073

       The foregoing appropriation item 195628, Capital Access Loan 79074
Program, shall be used for operating, program, and administrative 79075
expenses of the program. Funds of the Capital Access Loan Program 79076
shall be used to assist participating financial institutions in 79077
making program loans to eligible businesses that face barriers in 79078
accessing working capital and obtaining fixed-asset financing.79079

       Sec. 261.30.30. CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES79080

       The foregoing appropriation item 195663, Clean Ohio 79081
OperatingProgram, shall be used by the Department of Development 79082
Services Agency in administering Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund 79083
(Fund 7003) projects pursuant to sections 122.65 to 122.658 of the 79084
Revised Code.79085

       Sec. 261.30.40.  THIRD FRONTIER OPERATING79086

       The foregoing appropriation items 195686, Third Frontier 79087
Operating, and 195620, Third Frontier Operating - Tax, shall be 79088
used for operating expenses incurred by the Department of79089
Development Services Agency in administering projects pursuant to 79090
sections 184.10 to 184.20 of the Revised Code. Operating expenses 79091
paid from item 195686 shall be limited to the administration of 79092
projects funded from the Third Frontier Research & Development 79093
Fund (Fund 7011) and operating expenses paid from item 195620 79094
shall be limited to the administration of projects funded from the 79095
Third Frontier Research & Development Taxable Bond Project Fund 79096
(Fund 7014).79097

       Sec. 261.30.60. JOB READY SITE OPERATINGPROGRAM79098

       The foregoing appropriation item 195688, Job Ready Site 79099
OperatingProgram, shall be used for operating expenses incurred 79100
by the Department of Development Services Agency in administering 79101
Job Ready Site Development Fund (Fund 7012) projects pursuant to 79102
sections 122.085 to 122.0820 of the Revised Code. Operating 79103
expenses include, but are not limited to, certain qualified 79104
expenses of the District Public Works Integrating Committees, as 79105
applicable, engineering review of submitted applications by the 79106
State Architect or a third-party engineering firm, audit and 79107
accountability activities, and costs associated with formal 79108
certifications verifying that site infrastructure is in place and 79109
is functional.79110

       Sec. 261.30.70. OHIO COAL DEVELOPMENT OFFICE79111

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 79112
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer any unexpended 79113
and unencumbered portion of appropriation item 898604, Coal 79114
Research and Development Fund, used by the Ohio Air Quality 79115
Development Authority, to a new capital appropriation item in the 79116
Department of Development Services Agency, to be determined by the 79117
Director. The Director also shall cancel all outstanding 79118
encumbrances against appropriation item 898604, Coal Research and 79119
Development Fund, and reestablish them against the foregoing new 79120
capital appropriation item. The amounts of the transfer and the 79121
reestablished encumbrances, plus $2,283,264, are hereby 79122
appropriated for fiscal year 2012 in the foregoing new 79123
appropriation item and shall be used to provide funding for coal 79124
research and development purposes.79125

       Sec. 261.30.80. THIRD FRONTIER BIOMEDICAL RESEARCH AND 79126
COMMERCIALIZATION SUPPORT79127

       The General Assembly and the Governor recognize the role that 79128
the biomedical industry has in job creation, innovation, and 79129
economic development throughout Ohio. It is the intent of the 79130
General Assembly, the Governor, the Director of Development 79131
Services, and the Director of Budget and Management to work 79132
together in continuing to provide comprehensive state support for 79133
the biomedical industry.79134

       Sec. 261.30.90. UNCLAIMED FUNDS TRANSFER79135

       (A)(1) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 169.05 of the 79136
Revised Code, upon the request of the Director of Budget and 79137
Management, the Director of Commerce, before June 30, 2012, shall 79138
transfer to the Job Development Initiatives Fund (Fund 5AD0) an 79139
amount not to exceed $25,000,000 in cash of the unclaimed funds 79140
that have been reported by the holders of unclaimed funds under 79141
section 169.05 of the Revised Code, regardless of the allocation 79142
of the unclaimed funds described under that section.79143

       Notwithstanding division (A) of section 169.05 of the Revised 79144
Code, upon the request of the Director of Budget and Management, 79145
the Director of Commerce, before June 30, 2013, shall transfer to 79146
the Job Development Initiatives Fund (Fund 5AD0) an amount not to 79147
exceed $15,000,00018,600,000 in cash of the unclaimed funds that 79148
have been reported by the holders of unclaimed funds under section 79149
169.05 of the Revised Code, regardless of the allocation of the 79150
unclaimed funds described under that section.79151

       (B)(2) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 169.05 of the 79152
Revised Code, upon the request of the Director of Budget and 79153
Management, the Director of Commerce, before June 30, 2012, shall 79154
transfer to the State Special Projects Fund (Fund 4F20) an amount 79155
not to exceed $5,000,000 in cash of the unclaimed funds that have 79156
been reported by the holders of unclaimed funds under section 79157
169.05 of the Revised Code, regardless of the allocation of the 79158
unclaimed funds described under that section.79159

       (B) ASSORTED TRANSFERS FOR RESTRUCTURING79160

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 79161
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 79162
in the Water and Sewer Fund (Fund 4440) to the General 79163
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 6850).79164

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 79165
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 79166
in the Water and Sewer Administration Fund (Fund 6110) to the 79167
General Reimbursement Fund (Fund 6850).79168

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 79169
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 79170
in the Tax Incentive Programs Operating Fund (Fund 4S00) to the 79171
Business Assistance Fund (Fund 4510).79172

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 79173
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 79174
in the Brownfield Stormwater Loan Fund (Fund 5KD0) to the New 79175
Market Tax Credit Program Fund (Fund 5JR0).79176

       Sec. 261.40.10. WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT79177

       The Director of Development Services and the Director of Job 79178
and Family Services may enter into one or more interagency 79179
agreements between the two departments and take other actions the 79180
directors consider appropriate to further integrate workforce 79181
development into a larger economic development strategy, to 79182
implement the recommendations of the Workforce Policy Board, and 79183
to complete activities related to the transition of the 79184
administration of employment programs identified by the board. 79185
Subject to the approval of the Director of Budget and Management, 79186
the Department of Development Services Agency and the Department 79187
of Job and Family Services may expend moneys to support the 79188
recommendations of the Workforce Policy Board in the area of 79189
integration of employment functions as described in this paragraph 79190
and to complete implementation and transition activities from the 79191
appropriations to those departments.79192

       Sec. 263.10. DDD DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES79193

General Revenue Fund79194

GRF 320321 Central Administration $ 4,422,794 $ 4,422,794 79195
GRF 320412 Protective Services $ 2,174,826 $ 1,957,343 79196
GRF 320415 Lease-Rental Payments $ 18,394,250 $ 19,907,900 17,907,900 79197
GRF 322407 Medicaid State Match $ 218,034,162 $ 214,902,506 79198
GRF 322420 Screening and Early Intervention $ 0 $ 300,000 79199
GRF 322451 Family Support Services $ 5,932,758 $ 5,932,758 79200
GRF 322501 County Boards Subsidies $ 40,906,365 $ 44,449,280 79201
GRF 322503 Tax Equity $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 79202
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 303,865,155 $ 305,572,581 303,872,581 79203

General Services Fund Group79204

1520 323609 Developmental Center and Residential Operating Services $ 3,414,317 $ 3,414,317 79205
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 3,414,317 $ 3,414,317 79206

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group79207

3A50 320613 DD Council $ 3,341,572 $ 3,341,572 79208
3250 322612 Community Social Service Programs $ 11,017,754 $ 10,604,896 79209
3DZ0 322648 Enhanced Medicaid - Federal $ 10,000,000 $ 0 79210
3G60 322639 Medicaid Waiver - Federal $ 866,566,007 $ 985,566,007 79211
3M70 322650 CAFS Medicaid $ 29,349,502 $ 29,349,502 3,000,000 79212
3A40 323605 Developmental Center and Residential Facility Services and Support $ 180,266,029 $ 179,384,881 174,000,000 79213
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,100,540,864 $ 1,208,246,858 1,176,512,475 79214

State Special Revenue Fund Group79215

5GE0 320606 Operating and Services $ 7,406,609 $ 7,407,297 79216
2210 322620 Supplement Service Trust $ 150,000 $ 150,000 79217
4K80 322604 Medicaid Waiver - State Match $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 79218
5CT0 322632 Intensive Behavioral Needs $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 79219
5DJ0 322625 Targeted Case Management Match $ 21,000,000 $ 24,000,000 79220
5DJ0 322626 Targeted Case Management Services $ 57,307,357 $ 66,000,000 79221
5DK0 322629 Capital Replacement Facilities $ 750,000 $ 750,000 79222
5EV0 322627 Program Fees $ 685,000 $ 685,000 79223
5H00 322619 Medicaid Repayment $ 160,000 $ 160,000 79224
5JX0 322651 Interagency Workgroup - Autism $ 45,000 45,000 79225
5Z10 322624 County Board Waiver Match $ 235,000,000 $ 290,000,000 79226
4890 323632 Developmental Center Direct Care Support $ 16,497,170 $ 16,497,169 79227
5S20 590622 Medicaid Administration & Oversight $ 20,875,567 $ 21,727,540 79228
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 372,876,703 $ 440,422,006 79229
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,780,697,039 $ 1,957,655,762 1,924,221,379 79230


       Sec. 263.10.30. FAMILYSCREENING AND EARLY INTERVENTION79232

       The foregoing appropriation item 322420, Screening and Early 79233
Intervention, shall be used for screening and early intervention 79234
programs for children with autism selected by the Director.79235

       FAMILY SUPPORT SERVICES SUBSIDY79236

       (A) The foregoing appropriation item 322451, Family Support 79237
Services, may be used as follows in fiscal year 2012 and fiscal 79238
year 2013:79239

       (1) The appropriation item may be used to provide a subsidy 79240
to county boards of developmental disabilities for family support 79241
services provided under section 5126.11 of the Revised Code. The 79242
subsidy shall be paid in quarterly installments and allocated to 79243
county boards according to a formula the Director of Developmental 79244
Disabilities shall develop in consultation with representatives of 79245
county boards. A county board shall use not more than seven per 79246
cent of its subsidy for administrative costs.79247

       (2) The appropriation item may be used to distribute funds to 79248
county boards for the purpose of addressing economic hardships and 79249
to promote efficiency of operations. In consultation with 79250
representatives of county boards, the Director shall determine the 79251
amount of funds to distribute for these purposes and the criteria 79252
for distributing the funds.79253

       (B) Each county board shall submit reports to the Department 79254
of Developmental Disabilities on the use of funds received under 79255
this section. The reports shall be submitted at the times and in 79256
the manner specified in rules the Director shall adopt in 79257
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.79258

       Sec. 263.10.90. TARGETED CASE MANAGEMENT SERVICES79259

       County boards of developmental disabilities shall pay the 79260
nonfederal portion of targeted case management costs to the 79261
Department of Developmental Disabilities.79262

       The Directors of Developmental Disabilities and Job and 79263
Family Services may enter into an interagency agreement under 79264
which the Department of Developmental Disabilities shall transfer 79265
cash from the Targeted Case Management Fund (Fund 5DJ0) to the 79266
Medicaid Program Support - StateHealth Care/Medicaid Support and 79267
Recoveries Fund (Fund 5C905DL0) used by the Department of Job and 79268
Family Services in an amount equal to the nonfederal portion of 79269
the cost of targeted case management services paid by county 79270
boards, and the Department of Job and Family Services shall pay 79271
the total cost of targeted case management claims. The transfer 79272
shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher.79273

       Sec. 263.20.40. TRANSFER OF FUNDS FOR DEVELOPMENTAL CENTER 79274
PHARMACY PROGRAMS79275

       The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall quarterly 79276
transfer cash from the Medicaid - Medicare Fund (Fund 3A40) to the 79277
Medicaid Program Support - StateHealth Care/Medicaid Support and 79278
Recoveries Fund (Fund 5C905DL0) used by the Department of Job and 79279
Family Services, in an amount equal to the nonfederal share of 79280
Medicaid prescription drug claim costs for all developmental 79281
centers paid by the Department of Job and Family Services. The 79282
quarterly transfer shall be made using an intrastate transfer 79283
voucher.79284

       Sec. 263.20.70.  RATE INCREASE FOR WAIVER PROVIDERS SERVING 79285
FORMER RESIDENTS OF DEVELOPMENTAL CENTERS OR RESIDENTS OF 79286
CONVERTED FACILITIES79287

       Subject(A) As used in this section, "converted facility" 79288
means an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded as 79289
defined in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code, or former 79290
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, that 79291
converted some or all of its beds to providing home and 79292
community-based services under the Individual Options Waiver 79293
pursuant to section 5111.874 of the Revised Code.79294

       (B) Subject to approval by the Centers for Medicare and 79295
Medicaid Services, the Department of Job and Family Services shall 79296
increase the rate paid to a provider under the Individual Options 79297
Waiver by fifty-two cents for each fifteen minutes of routine 79298
homemaker/personal care provided to an individual for up to a year 79299
if all of the following apply:79300

       (A)(1) The individual was a resident of a developmental 79301
center or converted facility immediately prior to enrollment in 79302
the waiver;79303

       (B)(2) The provider begins serving the individual on or after 79304
July 1, 2011;79305

       (C)(3) The Director of Developmental Disabilities determines 79306
that the increased rate is warranted by the individual's special 79307
circumstances, including the individual's diagnosis, service 79308
needs, or length of stay at the developmental center or converted 79309
facility, and that serving the individual through the Individual 79310
Options Waiver is fiscally prudent for the Medicaid program. 79311

       Sec. 267.10. EDU DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION79312

General Revenue Fund79313

GRF 200100 Personal Services $ 8,579,178 $ 8,579,178 0 79314
GRF 200320 Maintenance and Equipment $ 2,830,407 $ 2,830,407 0 79315
GRF 200321 Operating Expenses $ 0 $ 13,142,780 79316
GRF 200408 Early Childhood Education $ 23,268,341 $ 23,268,341 79317
GRF 200416 Career-Technical Education Match $ 2,233,195 $ 2,233,195 0 79318
GRF 200420 Computer/Application/ Network Information Technology Development and Support $ 4,241,296 $ 4,241,296 79319
GRF 200421 Alternative Education Programs $ 7,403,998 $ 7,403,998 79320
GRF 200422 School Management Assistance $ 2,842,812 $ 3,000,000 79321
GRF 200424 Policy Analysis $ 328,558 $ 328,558 79322
GRF 200425 Tech Prep Consortia Support $ 260,542 $ 260,542 79323
GRF 200426 Ohio Educational Computer Network $ 17,974,489 $ 17,974,489 79324
GRF 200427 Academic Standards $ 4,346,060 $ 3,700,000 79325
GRF 200437 Student Assessment $ 55,002,167 $ 55,002,167 79326
GRF 200439 Accountability/Report Cards $ 3,579,279 $ 3,579,279 79327
GRF 200442 Child Care Licensing $ 827,140 $ 827,140 79328
GRF 200446 Education Management Information System $ 6,833,070 $ 6,833,070 79329
GRF 200447 GED Testing $ 879,551 $ 879,551 79330
GRF 200448 Educator Preparation $ 786,737 $ 786,737 79331
GRF 200455 Community Schools and Choice Programs $ 2,200,000 $ 2,200,000 79332
GRF 200502 Pupil Transportation $ 438,248,936 $ 442,113,527 79333
GRF 200505 School Lunch Match $ 9,100,000 $ 9,100,000 79334
GRF 200511 Auxiliary Services $ 124,194,099 $ 126,194,099 79335
GRF 200532 Nonpublic Administrative Cost Reimbursement $ 56,164,384 $ 57,006,850 79336
GRF 200540 Special Education Enhancements $ 135,820,668 $ 135,820,668 79337
GRF 200545 Career-Technical Education Enhancements $ 8,802,699 $ 8,802,699 79338
GRF 200550 Foundation Funding $ 5,536,347,861 $ 5,610,290,686 5,612,562,311 79339
GRF 200901 Property Tax Allocation - Education $ 1,086,500,000 $ 1,095,000,000 79340
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 7,539,595,467 $ 7,628,256,477 7,630,028,102 79341

General Services Fund Group79342

1380 200606 Computer Services-Operational Information Technology Development and Support $ 7,600,090 $ 7,600,090 6,100,090 79343
4520 200638 Miscellaneous Educational Services Fees and Refunds $ 300,000 $ 300,000 79344
4L20 200681 Teacher Certification and Licensure $ 8,147,756 $ 8,147,756 79345
5960 200656 Ohio Career Information System $ 529,761 $ 529,761 79346
5H30 200687 School District Solvency Assistance $ 25,000,000 $ 25,000,000 79347
TOTAL GSF General Services 79348
Fund Group $ 41,577,607 $ 41,577,607 40,077,607 79349

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group79350

3090 200601 Neglected and Delinquent Education $ 2,168,642 $ 2,168,642 79351
3670 200607 School Food Services $ 6,803,472 $ 6,959,906 79352
3690 200616 Career-Technical Education Federal Enhancement $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 79353
3700 200624 Education of Exceptional Children $ 1,905,000 $ 0 79354
3780 200660 Learn and Serve $ 619,211 $ 619,211 79355
3AF0 200603 Schools Medicaid Administrative Claims $ 639,000 $ 639,000 79356
3AN0 200671 School Improvement Grants $ 20,400,000 $ 20,400,000 79357
3AX0 200698 Improving Health and Educational Outcomes of Young People $ 630,954 $ 630,954 79358
3BK0 200628 Longitudinal Data Systems $ 500,000 $ 250,000 79359
3C50 200661 Early Childhood Education $ 14,554,749 $ 14,554,749 79360
3CG0 200646 Teacher Incentive Fund $ 1,925,881 $ 0 79361
3D10 200664 Drug Free Schools $ 1,500,000 $ 0 79362
3D20 200667 Math Science Partnerships $ 9,500,001 $ 9,500,001 79363
3DG0 200630 Federal Stimulus - McKinney Vento Grants $ 330,512 $ 0 79364
3DJ0 200699 IDEA Part B - Federal Stimulus $ 21,886,803 $ 0 79365
3DK0 200642 Title 1A - Federal Stimulus $ 18,633,673 $ 0 79366
3DL0 200650 IDEA Preschool - Federal Stimulus $ 670,000 $ 0 79367
3DM0 200651 Title IID Technology - Federal Stimulus $ 1,195,100 $ 0 79368
3DP0 200652 Title I School Improvement - Federal Stimulus $ 48,500,000 $ 30,000,000 79369
3EC0 200653 Teacher Incentive - Federal Stimulus $ 7,500,000 $ 7,500,000 79370
3EH0 200620 Migrant Education $ 2,645,905 $ 2,645,905 79371
3EJ0 200622 Homeless Children Education $ 1,759,782 $ 1,759,782 79372
3EN0 200655 State Data Systems - Federal Stimulus $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 79373
3ES0 200657 General Supervisory Enhancement Grant $ 500,000 $ 500,000 79374
3ET0 200658 Education Jobs Fund $ 300,000,000 $ 50,000,000 79375
3FD0 200665 Race to the Top $ 100,000,000 $ 100,000,000 79376
3FE0 200669 Striving Readers $ 180,000 $ 100,000 79377
3H90 200605 Head Start Collaboration Project $ 225,000 $ 225,000 79378
3L60 200617 Federal School Lunch $ 327,516,539 $ 337,323,792 79379
3L70 200618 Federal School Breakfast $ 87,596,850 $ 90,224,756 79380
3L80 200619 Child/Adult Food Programs $ 100,850,833 $ 103,876,359 79381
3L90 200621 Career-Technical Education Basic Grant $ 48,466,864 $ 48,466,864 79382
3M00 200623 ESEA Title 1A $ 530,010,000 $ 530,010,000 79383
3M20 200680 Individuals with Disabilities Education Act $ 443,170,050 $ 443,170,050 79384
3S20 200641 Education Technology $ 9,487,397 $ 9,487,397 79385
3T40 200613 Public Charter Schools $ 14,291,353 $ 14,291,353 79386
3Y20 200688 21st Century Community Learning Centers $ 43,720,462 $ 45,906,485 79387
3Y60 200635 Improving Teacher Quality $ 101,900,000 $ 101,900,000 79388
3Y70 200689 English Language Acquisition $ 8,373,995 $ 8,373,995 79389
3Y80 200639 Rural and Low Income Technical Assistance $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 79390
3Z20 200690 State Assessments $ 11,882,258 $ 11,882,258 79391
3Z30 200645 Consolidated Federal Grant Administration $ 8,949,280 $ 8,949,280 7,949,280 79392
TOTAL FED Federal Special 79393
Revenue Fund Group $ 2,310,389,566 $ 2,011,315,739 2,010,315,739 79394

State Special Revenue Fund Group79395

4540 200610 Guidance and GED Testing $ 1,050,000 $ 1,050,000 79396
4550 200608 Commodity Foods $ 24,000,000 $ 24,000,000 79397
4R70 200695 Indirect Operational Support $ 6,500,000 $ 6,600,000 79398
4V70 200633 Interagency Operational Program Support $ 1,117,725 $ 1,117,725 717,725 79399
5980 200659 Auxiliary Services Reimbursement $ 1,328,910 $ 1,328,910 79400
5BB0 200696 State Action for Education Leadership $ 231,300 $ 0 79401
5BJ0 200626 Half-Mill Maintenance Equalization $ 17,300,000 $ 18,000,000 79402
5U20 200685 National Education Statistics $ 300,000 $ 300,000 79403
6200 200615 Educational Improvement Grants $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 79404
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 79405
Fund Group $ 54,827,935 $ 55,396,635 54,996,635 79406

Lottery Profits Education Fund Group79407

7017 200612 Foundation Funding $ 717,500,000 $ 680,500,000 79408
TOTAL LPE Lottery Profits 79409
Education Fund Group $ 717,500,000 $ 680,500,000 79410

Revenue Distribution Fund Group79411

7047 200909 School District Property Tax Replacement-Business $ 722,000,000 $ 475,000,000 79412
7053 200900 School District Property Tax Replacement-Utility $ 34,000,000 $ 30,000,000 79413
TOTAL RDF Revenue Distribution 79414
Fund Group $ 756,000,000 $ 505,000,000 79415
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 11,419,890,575 $ 10,922,046,458 10,920,918,083 79416


       Sec. 267.10.10. OPERATING EXPENSES79418

       The foregoing appropriation item 200321, Operating Expenses, 79419
shall be used to support the same activities as are supported 79420
prior to July 1, 2012, by appropriation items 200100, Personal 79421
Services, and 200320, Maintenance and Equipment. A portion of this 79422
appropriation item also shall be used by the Department of 79423
Education to provide matching funds under 20 U.S.C. 2321, which 79424
are provided by appropriation item 200416, Career-Technical 79425
Education Match, prior to July 1, 2012. 79426

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 79427
Director of Budget and Management shall cancel any existing 79428
encumbrances against appropriation items 200100, Personal 79429
Services, 200320, Maintenance and Equipment, and 200416, 79430
Career-Technical Education Match, and reestablish them against 79431
appropriation item 200321, Operating Expenses. The reestablished 79432
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. 79433

       EARLY CHILDHOOD EDUCATION79434

       The Department of Education shall distribute the foregoing 79435
appropriation item 200408, Early Childhood Education, to pay the 79436
costs of early childhood education programs. 79437

       (A) As used in this section:79438

       (1) "Provider" means a city, local, exempted village, or 79439
joint vocational school district, or an educational service 79440
center.79441

       (2) In the case of a city, local, or exempted village school 79442
district, "new eligible provider" means a district that did not 79443
receive state funding for Early Childhood Education in the 79444
previous fiscal year or demonstrates a need for early childhood 79445
programs as defined in division (D) of this section.79446

       (3) "Eligible child" means a child who is at least three 79447
years of age as of the district entry date for kindergarten, is 79448
not of the age to be eligible for kindergarten, and whose family 79449
earns not more than two hundred per cent of the federal poverty 79450
guidelines as defined in division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the 79451
Revised Code. Children with an Individualized Education Program 79452
and where the Early Childhood Education program is the least 79453
restrictive environment may be enrolled on their third birthday.79454

       (B) In each fiscal year, up to two per cent of the total 79455
appropriation may be used by the Department for program support 79456
and technical assistance. The Department shall distribute the 79457
remainder of the appropriation in each fiscal year to serve 79458
eligible children.79459

       (C) The Department shall provide an annual report to the 79460
Governor, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the 79461
President of the Senate and post the report to the Department's 79462
web site, regarding early childhood education programs operated 79463
under this section and the early learning program guidelines.79464

       (D) After setting aside the amounts to make payments due from 79465
the previous fiscal year, in fiscal year 2012, the Department 79466
shall distribute funds first to recipients of funds for early 79467
childhood education programs under Section 265.10.20 of Am. Sub. 79468
H.B. 1 of the 128th General Assembly in the previous fiscal year 79469
and the balance to new eligible providers of early childhood 79470
education programs under this section or to existing providers to 79471
serve more eligible children or for purposes of program expansion, 79472
improvement, or special projects to promote quality and 79473
innovation.79474

       After setting aside the amounts to make payments due from the 79475
previous fiscal year, in fiscal year 2013, the Department shall 79476
distribute funds first to providers of early childhood education 79477
programs under this section in the previous fiscal year and the 79478
balance to new eligible providers or to existing providers to 79479
serve more eligible children or for purposes of program expansion, 79480
improvement, or special projects to promote quality and 79481
innovation.79482

        Awards under this section shall be distributed on a per-pupil 79483
basis, and in accordance with division (H) of this section. The 79484
Department may adjust the per-pupil amount so that the per-pupil 79485
amount multiplied by the number of eligible children enrolled and 79486
receiving services on the first day of December or the business 79487
day closest to that date equals the amount allocated under this 79488
section.79489

       (E) Costs for developing and administering an early childhood 79490
education program may not exceed fifteen per cent of the total 79491
approved costs of the program.79492

       All providers shall maintain such fiscal control and 79493
accounting procedures as may be necessary to ensure the 79494
disbursement of, and accounting for, these funds. The control of 79495
funds provided in this program, and title to property obtained, 79496
shall be under the authority of the approved provider for purposes 79497
provided in the program unless, as described in division (J) of 79498
this section, the program waives its right for funding or a 79499
program's funding is eliminated or reduced due to its inability to 79500
meet financial or early learning program guidelines. The approved 79501
provider shall administer and use such property and funds for the 79502
purposes specified.79503

       (F) The Department may examine a provider's financial and 79504
program records. If the financial practices of the program are not 79505
in accordance with standard accounting principles or do not meet 79506
financial standards outlined under division (E) of this section, 79507
or if the program fails to substantially meet the early learning 79508
program guidelines, meet a quality rating level in the tiered 79509
quality rating and improvement system developed under section 79510
5104.30 of the Revised Code as prescribed by the Department, or 79511
exhibits below average performance as measured against the 79512
guidelines, the early childhood education program shall propose 79513
and implement a corrective action plan that has been approved by 79514
the Department. The approved corrective action plan shall be 79515
signed by the chief executive officer and the executive of the 79516
official governing body of the provider. The corrective action 79517
plan shall include a schedule for monitoring by the Department. 79518
Such monitoring may include monthly reports, inspections, a 79519
timeline for correction of deficiencies, and technical assistance 79520
to be provided by the Department or obtained by the early 79521
childhood education program. The Department may withhold funding 79522
pending corrective action. If an early childhood education program 79523
fails to satisfactorily complete a corrective action plan, the 79524
Department may deny expansion funding to the program or withdraw 79525
all or part of the funding to the program and establish a new 79526
eligible provider through a selection process established by the 79527
Department.79528

       (G) Each early childhood education program shall do all of 79529
the following:79530

       (1) Meet teacher qualification requirements prescribed by 79531
section 3301.311 of the Revised Code;79532

       (2) Align curriculum to the early learning content standards 79533
developed by the Department;79534

       (3) Meet any child or program assessment requirements 79535
prescribed by the Department;79536

       (4) Require teachers, except teachers enrolled and working to 79537
obtain a degree pursuant to section 3301.311 of the Revised Code, 79538
to attend a minimum of twenty hours every two years of 79539
professional development as prescribed by the Department;79540

       (5) Document and report child progress as prescribed by the 79541
Department;79542

       (6) Meet and report compliance with the early learning 79543
program guidelines as prescribed by the Department;79544

       (7) Participate in the tiered quality rating and improvement 79545
system developed under section 5104.30 of the Revised Code. 79546
Effective July 1, 2016, all programs shall be rated through the 79547
system.79548

       (H) Per-pupil funding for programs subject to this section 79549
shall be sufficient to provide eligible children with services for 79550
a standard early childhood schedule which shall be defined in this 79551
section as a minimum of twelve and one-half hours per school week 79552
as defined in section 3313.62 of the Revised Code for the minimum 79553
school year as defined in sections 3313.48, 3313.481, and 3313.482 79554
of the Revised Code. Nothing in this section shall be construed to 79555
prohibit program providers from utilizing other funds to serve 79556
eligible children in programs that exceed the twelve and one-half 79557
hours per week or that exceed the minimum school year. For any 79558
provider for which a standard early childhood education schedule 79559
creates a hardship or for which the provider shows evidence that 79560
the provider is working in collaboration with a preschool special 79561
education program, the provider may submit a waiver to the 79562
Department requesting an alternate schedule. If the Department 79563
approves a waiver for an alternate schedule that provides services 79564
for less time than the standard early childhood education 79565
schedule, the Department may reduce the provider's annual 79566
allocation proportionately. Under no circumstances shall an annual 79567
allocation be increased because of the approval of an alternate 79568
schedule.79569

       (I) Each provider shall develop a sliding fee scale based on 79570
family incomes and shall charge families who earn more than two 79571
hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, as defined in 79572
division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, for the 79573
early childhood education program.79574

       The Department shall conduct an annual survey of each 79575
provider to determine whether the provider charges families 79576
tuition or fees, the amount families are charged relative to 79577
family income levels, and the number of families and students 79578
charged tuition and fees for the early childhood program.79579

       (J) If an early childhood education program voluntarily 79580
waives its right for funding, or has its funding eliminated for 79581
not meeting financial standards or the early learning program 79582
guidelines, the provider shall transfer control of title to 79583
property, equipment, and remaining supplies obtained through the 79584
program to providers designated by the Department and return any 79585
unexpended funds to the Department along with any reports 79586
prescribed by the Department. The funding made available from a 79587
program that waives its right for funding or has its funding 79588
eliminated or reduced may be used by the Department for new grant 79589
awards or expansion grants. The Department may award new grants or 79590
expansion grants to eligible providers who apply. The eligible 79591
providers who apply must do so in accordance with the selection 79592
process established by the Department.79593

       (K) As used in this section, "early learning program 79594
guidelines" means the guidelines established by the Department 79595
pursuant to division (C)(3) of Section 206.09.54 of Am. Sub. H.B. 79596
66 of the 126th General Assembly.79597

       (L) Eligible expenditures for the Early Childhood Education 79598
program shall be claimed each fiscal year to help meet the state's 79599
TANF maintenance of effort requirement. The Superintendent of 79600
Public Instruction and the Director of Job and Family Services 79601
shall enter into an interagency agreement to carry out the 79602
requirements under this division, which shall include developing 79603
reporting guidelines for these expenditures.79604

       Sec. 267.10.20. CAREER-TECHNICAL EDUCATION MATCH79605

       TheFor fiscal year 2012, the foregoing appropriation item 79606
200416, Career-Technical Education Match, shall be used by the 79607
Department of Education to provide vocational administration79608
matching funds under 20 U.S.C. 23112321.79609

       The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer any 79610
remaining appropriation from appropriation item 200416, 79611
Career-Technical Education Match, to appropriation item 200426, 79612
Ohio Educational Computer Network, to support the Ohio Educational 79613
Computer Network.79614

       COMPUTER/APPLICATION/NETWORKINFORMATION TECHNOLOGY79615
DEVELOPMENT AND SUPPORT79616

       The foregoing appropriation item 200420, 79617
Computer/Application/NetworkInformation Technology Development 79618
and Support, shall be used to support the development and 79619
implementation of information technology solutions designed to 79620
improve the performance and services of the Department of 79621
Education. Funds may be used for personnel, maintenance, and 79622
equipment costs related to the development and implementation of 79623
these technical system projects. Implementation of these systems 79624
shall allow the Department to provide greater levels of assistance 79625
to school districts and to provide more timely information to the 79626
public, including school districts, administrators, and 79627
legislators. Funds may also be used to support data-driven 79628
decision-making and differentiated instruction, as well as to 79629
communicate academic content standards and curriculum models to 79630
schools through web-based applications.79631

       Sec. 267.10.40. SCHOOL MANAGEMENT ASSISTANCE79632

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200422, School Management 79633
Assistance, $1,000,000 in each fiscal year 2012 and $1,300,000 in 79634
fiscal year 2013 shall be used by the Auditor of State in 79635
consultation with the Department of Education for expenses 79636
incurred in the Auditor of State's role relating to fiscal 79637
caution, fiscal watch, and fiscal emergency activities as defined 79638
in Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code and may also be used by the 79639
Auditor of State to conduct performance audits of other school 79640
districts with priority given to districts in fiscal distress. 79641
Districts in fiscal distress shall be determined by the Auditor of 79642
State and shall include districts that the Auditor of State, in 79643
consultation with the Department of Education, determines are 79644
employing fiscal practices or experiencing budgetary conditions 79645
that could produce a state of fiscal watch or fiscal emergency.79646

       The remainder of appropriation item 200422, School Management 79647
Assistance, shall be used by the Department of Education to 79648
provide fiscal technical assistance and inservice education for 79649
school district management personnel and to administer, monitor, 79650
and implement the fiscal caution, fiscal watch, and fiscal 79651
emergency provisions under Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code.79652

       COMMUNITY SCHOOL AND CHOICE PROGRAMS79653

        An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered balances of 79654
the GRF appropriations for the Department of Education at the end 79655
of fiscal year 2012, but not to exceed $600,000, is hereby 79656
reappropriated to appropriation item 200455, Community Schools and 79657
Choice Programs, for fiscal year 2013 for the Department of 79658
Education to provide STEM schools with matching funds for industry 79659
workforce development initiatives.79660

        If the unexpended, unencumbered balances reappropriated above 79661
are less than $600,000, the Superintendent of Public Instruction 79662
shall identify outstanding GRF encumbrances of the Department for 79663
fiscal year 2012 and prior fiscal years that are no longer needed 79664
to support the obligations of the Department. On July 1, 2012, or 79665
as soon as possible thereafter, the Superintendent shall certify 79666
the identified encumbrances to the Director of Budget and 79667
Management. Upon receipt of the certification, the Director of 79668
Budget and Management shall cancel identified encumbrances in an 79669
amount up to the difference between $600,000 and the amount 79670
reappropriated above. The amount of canceled encumbrances is 79671
hereby appropriated to appropriation item 200455, Community 79672
Schools and Choice Programs, for fiscal year 2013 for the 79673
Department of Education to provide STEM schools with matching 79674
funds for industry workforce development initiatives. 79675

       Sec. 267.30.20. SPECIAL EDUCATION ENHANCEMENTS79676

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 79677
Enhancements, up to $2,206,875 in each fiscal year shall be used 79678
for home instruction for children with disabilities.79679

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 79680
Enhancements, up to $45,282,959 in each fiscal year shall be used 79681
to fund special education and related services at county boards of 79682
developmental disabilities for eligible students under section 79683
3317.20 of the Revised Code and at institutions for eligible 79684
students under section 3317.201 of the Revised Code. 79685
Notwithstanding the distribution formulas under sections 3317.20 79686
and 3317.201 of the Revised Code, funding for DD boards and 79687
institutions for fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013 shall be 79688
determined by providing the per pupil amount received by each DD 79689
board and institution for the prior fiscal year for each student 79690
served in the current fiscal year.79691

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 79692
Enhancements, up to $1,333,468 in each fiscal year shall be used 79693
for parent mentoring programs.79694

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 79695
Enhancements, up to $2,537,824 in each fiscal year may be used for 79696
school psychology interns.79697

        The remainder of appropriation item 200540, Special Education 79698
Enhancements, shall be distributed by the Department of Education 79699
to county boards of developmental disabilities, educational 79700
service centers, and school districts for preschool special 79701
education units and preschool supervisory units under section 79702
3317.052 of the Revised Code. To the greatest extent possible, the 79703
Department of Education shall allocate these units to school 79704
districts and educational service centers.79705

       The Department may reimburse county DD boards, educational 79706
service centers, and school districts for services provided by 79707
instructional assistants, related services as defined in rule 79708
3301-51-11 of the Administrative Code, physical therapy services 79709
provided by a licensed physical therapist or physical therapist 79710
assistant under the supervision of a licensed physical therapist 79711
as required under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code and Chapter 79712
4755-27 of the Administrative Code and occupational therapy 79713
services provided by a licensed occupational therapist or 79714
occupational therapy assistant under the supervision of a licensed 79715
occupational therapist as required under Chapter 4755. of the 79716
Revised Code and Chapter 4755-7 of the Administrative Code. 79717
Nothing in this section authorizes occupational therapy assistants 79718
or physical therapist assistants to generate or manage their own 79719
caseloads.79720

       The Department of Education shall require school districts, 79721
educational service centers, and county DD boards serving 79722
preschool children with disabilities to adhere to Ohio's Early 79723
Learning Program Guidelines, participate in the tiered quality 79724
rating and improvement system developed under section 5104.30 of 79725
the Revised Code, and document child progress using research-based 79726
indicators prescribed by the Department and report results 79727
annually. The reporting dates and method shall be determined by 79728
the Department. Effective July 1, 2018, all programs shall be 79729
rated through the tiered quality rating and improvement system.79730

       Sec. 267.30.40. FOUNDATION FUNDING79731

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 79732
Funding, up to $675,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 79733
support the work of the College of Education and Human Ecology at 79734
the Ohio State University in reviewing and assessing the alignment 79735
of courses offered through the distance learning clearinghouse 79736
established in sections 3333.81 to 3333.88 of the Revised Code 79737
with the academic content standards adopted under division (A) of 79738
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code.79739

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 79740
Funding, up to $250,000 in each fiscal year may be used by the 79741
Department to fund a shared services pilot project involving at 79742
least two educational service centers. The pilot project shall 79743
focus on the design, implementation, and evaluation of a shared 79744
service delivery model. The educational service centers 79745
participating in the pilot project shall submit a report not later 79746
than September 1, 2013, to the Governor, members of the General 79747
Assembly, and members of the State Board of Education, reviewing 79748
the opportunities and challenges of implementing shared services 79749
initiatives as well as any real or projected cost efficiencies 79750
achieved through the pilot project.79751

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 79752
Funding, up to $50,000 shall be expended in each fiscal year for 79753
court payments under section 2151.362 of the Revised Code.79754

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 79755
Funding, up to $8,100,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 79756
fund gifted education at educational service centers. 79757
Notwithstanding division (D)(5) of section 3317.018 of the Revised 79758
Code, the Department shall distribute the funding through the 79759
unit-based funding methodology in place under division (L) of 79760
section 3317.024, division (E) of section 3317.05, and divisions 79761
(A), (B), and (C) of section 3317.053 of the Revised Code as they 79762
existed prior to fiscal year 2010.79763

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 79764
Funding, up to $10,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 79765
provide additional state aid to school districts, joint vocational 79766
school districts, and community schools for special education 79767
students under division (C)(3) of section 3317.022 of the Revised 79768
Code, except that the Controlling Board may increase these amounts 79769
if presented with such a request from the Department of Education 79770
at the final meeting of the fiscal year; and up to $2,000,000 in 79771
each fiscal year shall be reserved for Youth Services tuition 79772
payments under section 3317.024 of the Revised Code.79773

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 79774
Funding, up to $41,760,000 in fiscal year 2012 and up to 79775
$35,496,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall be reserved to fund the 79776
state reimbursement of educational service centers under section 79777
3317.11 of the Revised Code and the section of this act entitled 79778
"EDUCATIONAL SERVICE CENTERS FUNDING"; and up to $3,545,752 in 79779
each fiscal year shall be distributed to educational service 79780
centers for School Improvement Initiatives. Educational service 79781
centers shall be required to support districts in the development 79782
and implementation of their continuous improvement plans as 79783
required in section 3302.04 of the Revised Code and to provide 79784
technical assistance and support in accordance with Title I of the 79785
"No Child Left Behind Act of 2001," 115 Stat. 1425, 20 U.S.C. 79786
6317. 79787

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 79788
Funding, up to $700,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 79789
Department of Education for a program to pay for educational 79790
services for youth who have been assigned by a juvenile court or 79791
other authorized agency to any of the facilities described in 79792
division (A) of the section of this act entitled "PRIVATE 79793
TREATMENT FACILITY PROJECT."79794

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 79795
Funding, up to $12,522,860 in each fiscal year 2012 and up to 79796
$14,794,485 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used to support the 79797
Cleveland school choice programprograms.79798

       Of the portion of the funds distributed to the Cleveland 79799
Municipal School District under this section, up to $11,901,887 in 79800
each fiscal year shall be used to operate the school choice 79801
program in the Cleveland Municipal School District under sections 79802
3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding 79803
divisions (B) and (C) of section 3313.978 and division (C) of 79804
section 3313.979 of the Revised Code, up to $1,000,000 in each 79805
fiscal year of this amount shall be used by the Cleveland 79806
Municipal School District to provide tutorial assistance as 79807
provided in division (H) of section 3313.974 of the Revised Code. 79808
The Cleveland Municipal School District shall report the use of 79809
these funds in the district's three-year continuous improvement 79810
plan as described in section 3302.04 of the Revised Code in a 79811
manner approved by the Department of Education.79812

       Any sums, in addition to the amounts specifically 79813
appropriated in appropriation item 200550, Foundation Funding, for 79814
payments of the scholarships required under sections 3313.974 to 79815
3313.979 of the Revised Code, which are determined to be necessary 79816
by the Superintendent of Public Instruction, are hereby 79817
appropriated.79818

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 79819
Funding, an amount shall be available in each fiscal year to be 79820
paid to joint vocational school districts in accordance with the 79821
section of this act entitled "FUNDING FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL 79822
DISTRICTS."79823

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 79824
Funding, a portion in each fiscal year shall be paid to city, 79825
exempted village, and local school districts in accordance with 79826
the section of this act entitled "SUPPLEMENTAL SCHOOL DISTRICT 79827
FUNDING."79828

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 79829
Funding, a portion in each fiscal year shall be paid to school 79830
districts and community schools in accordance with the section of 79831
this act entitled "SUBSIDY FOR HIGH PERFORMING SCHOOL DISTRICTS."79832

       The remainder of appropriation item 200550, Foundation 79833
Funding, shall be used to distribute the amounts calculated for 79834
formula aid under Section 267.30.50 of this act.79835

       Appropriation items 200502, Pupil Transportation, 200540, 79836
Special Education Enhancements, and 200550, Foundation Funding, 79837
other than specific set-asides, are collectively used in each 79838
fiscal year to pay state formula aid obligations for school 79839
districts, community schools, STEM schools, and joint vocational 79840
school districts under this act. The first priority of these 79841
appropriation items, with the exception of specific set-asides, is 79842
to fund state formula aid obligations. It may be necessary to 79843
reallocate funds among these appropriation items or use excess 79844
funds from other general revenue fund appropriation items in the 79845
Department of Education's budget in each fiscal year, in order to 79846
meet state formula aid obligations. If it is determined that it is 79847
necessary to transfer funds among these appropriation items or to 79848
transfer funds from other General Revenue Fund appropriations in 79849
the Department of Education's budget to meet state formula aid 79850
obligations, the Department of Education shall seek approval from 79851
the Controlling Board to transfer funds as needed.79852

       Sec. 279.10. EPA ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY79853

General Services Fund Group79854

1990 715602 Laboratory Services $ 402,295 $ 408,560 79855
2190 715604 Central Support Indirect $ 8,594,348 $ 8,555,680 79856
4A10 715640 Operating Expenses $ 2,304,267 $ 2,093,039 79857
4D50 715618 Recycled State Materials $ 0 $ 50,000 79858
TOTAL GSF General Services 79859
Fund Group $ 11,300,910 $ 11,057,279 11,107,279 79860

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group79861

3530 715612 Public Water Supply $ 2,941,282 $ 2,941,282 79862
3540 715614 Hazardous Waste Management - Federal $ 4,193,000 $ 4,193,000 79863
3570 715619 Air Pollution Control - Federal $ 6,310,203 $ 6,310,203 79864
3620 715605 Underground Injection Control - Federal $ 111,874 $ 111,874 79865
3BU0 715684 Water Quality Protection $ 8,100,000 $ 6,785,000 79866
3CS0 715688 Federal NRD Settlements $ 100,000 $ 100,000 79867
3F20 715630 Revolving Loan Fund - Operating $ 907,543 $ 907,543 79868
3F30 715632 Federally Supported Cleanup and Response $ 3,344,746 $ 3,290,405 79869
3F50 715641 Nonpoint Source Pollution Management $ 6,265,000 $ 6,260,000 79870
3T30 715669 Drinking Water State Revolving Fund $ 2,273,323 $ 2,273,323 79871
3V70 715606 Agencywide Grants $ 600,000 $ 600,000 79872
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 79873
Fund Group $ 35,146,971 $ 33,772,630 79874

State Special Revenue Fund Group79875

4J00 715638 Underground Injection Control $ 445,234 $ 445,571 79876
4K20 715648 Clean Air - Non Title V $ 3,152,306 $ 2,906,267 79877
4K30 715649 Solid Waste $ 16,742,551 $ 16,414,654 79878
4K40 715650 Surface Water Protection $ 7,642,625 $ 6,672,246 79879
4K40 715686 Environmental Lab Service $ 2,096,007 $ 2,096,007 79880
4K50 715651 Drinking Water Protection $ 7,410,118 $ 7,405,428 79881
4P50 715654 Cozart Landfill $ 100,000 $ 100,000 79882
4R50 715656 Scrap Tire Management $ 1,368,610 $ 1,376,742 79883
4R90 715658 Voluntary Action Program $ 999,503 $ 997,425 79884
4T30 715659 Clean Air - Title V Permit Program $ 16,349,471 $ 16,241,822 79885
4U70 715660 Construction and Demolition Debris $ 425,913 $ 433,591 79886
5000 715608 Immediate Removal Special Account $ 633,832 $ 634,033 79887
5030 715621 Hazardous Waste Facility Management $ 10,241,107 $ 9,789,620 79888
5050 715623 Hazardous Waste Cleanup $ 12,511,234 $ 12,331,272 79889
5050 715674 Clean Ohio Environmental Review $ 108,104 $ 108,104 79890
5320 715646 Recycling and Litter Control $ 0 $ 4,911,575 79891
5410 715670 Site Specific Cleanup $ 2,048,101 $ 2,048,101 79892
5420 715671 Risk Management Reporting $ 132,636 $ 132,636 79893
5860 715637 Scrap Tire Market Development $ 0 $ 1,497,645 79894
5920 715627 Anti Tampering Settlement $ 2,285 $ 2,285 79895
5BC0 715617 Clean Ohio $ 611,455 $ 611,455 79896
5BC0 715622 Local Air Pollution Control $ 2,297,980 $ 2,297,980 79897
5BC0 715624 Surface Water $ 8,970,181 $ 9,114,974 79898
5BC0 715672 Air Pollution Control $ 4,438,629 $ 4,534,758 79899
5BC0 715673 Drinking and Ground Water $ 4,317,527 $ 4,323,521 79900
5BC0 715675 Hazardous Waste $ 95,266 $ 95,266 79901
5BC0 715676 Assistance and Prevention $ 640,179 $ 645,069 79902
5BC0 715677 Laboratory $ 939,717 $ 958,586 79903
5BC0 715678 Corrective Actions $ 31,765 $ 105,423 79904
5BC0 715687 Areawide Planning Agencies $ 450,000 $ 450,000 79905
5BC0 715692 Administration $ 8,562,476 $ 8,212,627 79906
5BT0 715679 C&DD Groundwater Monitoring $ 203,800 $ 203,800 79907
5BY0 715681 Auto Emissions Test $ 13,029,952 $ 13,242,762 11,242,762 79908
5CD0 715682 Clean Diesel School Buses $ 600,000 $ 600,000 79909
5H40 715664 Groundwater Support $ 77,508 $ 78,212 79910
5N20 715613 Dredge and Fill $ 29,250 $ 29,250 79911
5Y30 715685 Surface Water Improvement $ 2,800,000 $ 2,800,000 79912
6440 715631 ER Radiological Safety $ 279,838 $ 279,966 79913
6600 715629 Infectious Waste Management $ 91,573 $ 88,764 79914
6760 715642 Water Pollution Control Loan Administration $ 4,317,376 $ 4,321,605 79915
6780 715635 Air Toxic Release $ 138,669 $ 138,669 79916
6790 715636 Emergency Planning $ 2,623,192 $ 2,623,252 79917
6960 715643 Air Pollution Control Administration $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 79918
6990 715644 Water Pollution Control Administration $ 220,000 $ 220,000 79919
6A10 715645 Environmental Education $ 1,488,260 $ 1,488,718 79920
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 140,764,230 $ 138,700,461 143,109,681 79921

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group79922

5S10 715607 Clean Ohio - Operating $ 284,083 $ 284,124 79923
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 284,083 $ 284,124 79924
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 187,496,194 $ 183,814,494 188,273,714 79925

       AUTOMOBILE EMISSIONS TESTING PROGRAM OPERATION AND OVERSIGHT79926

        On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 79927
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer up 79928
to $13,029,952 in cash in fiscal year 2012, and up to $13,242,76279929
11,242,762 in cash in fiscal year 2013 from the General Revenue 79930
Fund to the Auto Emissions Test Fund (Fund 5BY0) for the operation 79931
and oversight of the auto emissions testing program.79932

       AREAWIDE PLANNING AGENCIES79933

       The Director of Environmental Protection Agency may award 79934
grants from appropriation item 715687, Areawide Planning Agencies, 79935
to areawide planning agencies engaged in areawide water quality 79936
management and planning activities in accordance with Section 208 79937
of the "Federal Clean Water Act," 33 U.S.C. 1288.79938

       CORRECTIVE CASH TRANSFERS79939

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 79940
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $376,891.85 in 79941
cash that was mistakenly deposited in the Clean Air Non Title V 79942
Fund (Fund 4K20) to the Clean Air Title V Permit Fund (Fund 4T30).79943

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 79944
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $133,026.63 in 79945
cash that was mistakenly deposited in the Scrap Tire Management 79946
Fund (Fund 4R50) to the Site Specific Cleanup Fund (Fund 5410).79947

       Sec. 283.10. ETC ETECH OHIO79948

General Revenue Fund79949

GRF 935401 Statehouse News Bureau $ 215,561 $ 215,561 79950
GRF 935402 Ohio Government Telecommunications Services $ 702,089 $ 702,089 1,002,089 79951
GRF 935408 General Operations $ 1,251,789 $ 1,254,193 79952
GRF 935409 Technology Operations $ 2,092,432 $ 2,091,823 79953
GRF 935410 Content Development, Acquisition, and Distribution $ 2,607,094 $ 2,607,094 79954
GRF 935411 Technology Integration and Professional Development $ 4,251,185 $ 4,252,671 79955
GRF 935412 Information Technology $ 829,340 $ 829,963 79956
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 11,949,490 $ 11,953,394 12,253,394 79957

General Services Fund Group79958

4F30 935603 Affiliate Services $ 50,000 $ 50,000 79959
4T20 935605 Government Television/Telecommunications Operating $ 25,000 $ 25,000 79960
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 75,000 $ 75,000 79961

State Special Revenue Fund Group79962

4W90 935630 Telecommunity $ 25,000 $ 25,000 79963
4X10 935634 Distance Learning $ 24,150 $ 24,150 79964
5D40 935640 Conference/Special Purposes $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 79965
5FK0 935608 Media Services $ 637,601 $ 637,956 79966
5JU0 935611 Information Technology Services $ 1,455,000 $ 1,455,000 79967
5T30 935607 Gates Foundation Grants $ 200,000 $ 171,112 79968
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 4,441,751 $ 4,413,218 79969
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 16,466,241 $ 16,441,612 16,741,612 79970


       Sec. 283.20.  STATEHOUSE NEWS BUREAU79972

       The foregoing appropriation item 935401, Statehouse News 79973
Bureau, shall be used solely to support the operations of the Ohio 79974
Statehouse News Bureau.79975

       OHIO GOVERNMENT TELECOMMUNICATIONS SERVICES79976

       The foregoing appropriation item 935402, Ohio Government 79977
Telecommunications Services, shall be used solely to support the 79978
operations of Ohio Government Telecommunications Services which 79979
include providing multimedia support to the state government and 79980
its affiliated organizations and broadcasting the activities of 79981
the legislative, judicial, and executive branches of state 79982
government, among its other functions.79983

       TECHNOLOGY OPERATIONS79984

       The foregoing appropriation item 935409, Technology 79985
Operations, shall be used by eTech Ohio to pay expenses of eTech 79986
Ohio's network infrastructure, which includes the television and 79987
radio transmission infrastructure and infrastructure that shall 79988
link all public K-12 classrooms to each other and to the Internet, 79989
and provide access to voice, video, other communication services, 79990
and data educational resources for students and teachers. The 79991
foregoing appropriation item 935409, Technology Operations, may 79992
also be used to cover student costs for taking advanced placement 79993
courses and courses that the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 79994
has determined to be eligible for postsecondary credit through the 79995
Ohio Learns Gateway. To the extent that funds remain available for 79996
this purpose, public school students taking advanced placement or 79997
postsecondary courses through the OhioLearns Gateway shall be 79998
eligible to receive a fee waiver to cover the cost of 79999
participating in one course. The fee waivers shall be distributed 80000
until the funds appropriated to support the waivers have been 80001
exhausted.80002

       CONTENT DEVELOPMENT, ACQUISITION, AND DISTRIBUTION80003

       The foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content Development, 80004
Acquisition, and Distribution, shall be used for the development, 80005
acquisition, and distribution of information resources by public 80006
media and radio reading services and for educational use in the 80007
classroom and online.80008

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 80009
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $658,099 in each80010
fiscal year 2012 shall be allocated equally among the 12 Ohio 80011
educational television stations and used with the advice and 80012
approval of eTech Ohio. Funds shall be used for the production of 80013
interactive instructional programming series with priority given 80014
to resources aligned with state academic content standards in 80015
consultation with the Ohio Department of Education and for 80016
teleconferences to support eTech Ohio. The programming shall be 80017
targeted to the needs of the poorest two hundred school districts 80018
as determined by the district's adjusted valuation per pupil as 80019
defined in former section 3317.0213 of the Revised Code as that 80020
section existed prior to June 30, 2005.80021

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 80022
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $1,749,283 in 80023
each fiscal year 2012 shall be distributed by eTech Ohio to Ohio's 80024
qualified public educational television stations and educational 80025
radio stations to support their operations. The funds shall be 80026
distributed pursuant to an allocation formula used by the Ohio 80027
Educational Telecommunications Network Commission unless a 80028
substitute formula is developed by eTech Ohio in consultation with 80029
Ohio's qualified public educational television stations and 80030
educational radio stations.80031

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 80032
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $199,712 in each80033
fiscal year 2012 shall be distributed by eTech Ohio to Ohio's 80034
qualified radio reading services to support their operations. The 80035
funds shall be distributed pursuant to an allocation formula used 80036
by the Ohio Educational Telecommunications Network Commission 80037
unless a substitute formula is developed by eTech Ohio in 80038
consultation with Ohio's qualified radio reading services.80039

       Sec. 283.30. TECHNOLOGY INTEGRATION AND PROFESSIONAL 80040
DEVELOPMENT80041

       The foregoing appropriation item 935411, Technology 80042
Integration and Professional Development, shall be used by eTech 80043
Ohio for the provision of staff development, hardware, software, 80044
telecommunications services, and information resources to support 80045
educational uses of technology in the classroom and at a distance 80046
and for professional development for teachers, administrators, and 80047
technology staff on the use of educational technology in 80048
qualifying public schools, including the State School for the 80049
Blind, the State School for the Deaf, and the Department of Youth 80050
Services.80051

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935411, Technology 80052
Integration and Professional Development, up to $1,691,701 in each80053
fiscal year 2012 shall be used by eTech Ohio to contract with 80054
educational television to provide Ohio public schools with 80055
instructional resources and services with priority given to 80056
resources and services aligned with state academic content 80057
standards and such resources and services shall be based upon the 80058
advice and approval of eTech Ohio, based on a formula used by the 80059
Ohio SchoolNet Commission unless and until a substitute formula is 80060
developed by eTech Ohio in consultation with Ohio's educational 80061
technology agencies and noncommercial educational television 80062
stations.80063

       Sec. 287.10. EXP OHIO EXPOSITIONS COMMISSION80064

General Revenue Fund80065

GRF 723403 Junior Fair Subsidy $ 250,000 $ 250,000 80066
GRF 723501 Building Construction $ 0 $ 1,000,000 80067
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 250,000 $ 250,000 1,250,000 80068

State Special Revenue Fund Group80069

4N20 723602 Ohio State Fair Harness Racing $ 400,000 $ 400,000 80070
5060 723601 Operating Expenses $ 12,991,000 $ 12,894,000 80071
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 80072
Fund Group $ 13,391,000 $ 13,294,000 80073
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 13,641,000 $ 13,544,000 14,544,000 80074

       STATE FAIR RESERVE80075

       The General Manager of the Expositions Commission may submit 80076
a request to the Controlling Board to use available amounts in the 80077
State Fair Reserve Fund (Fund 6400) if the following conditions 80078
apply:80079

       (A) Admissions receipts for the 2011 or 2012 Ohio State Fair 80080
are less than $1,982,000 because of inclement weather or 80081
extraordinary circumstances;80082

       (B) The Ohio Expositions Commission declares a state of 80083
fiscal exigency; and80084

        (C) The request contains a plan describing how the 80085
Expositions Commission will eliminate the cash shortage causing 80086
the request.80087

       The amount approved by the Controlling Board is hereby 80088
appropriated.80089

       BUILDING CONSTRUCTION80090

       The foregoing GRF appropriation item 723501, Building 80091
Construction, shall be used for acquiring purchased services and 80092
for construction of a new Expositions facility for which matching 80093
funds are received in the amount of $1,000,000 from a private 80094
sector partnering entity.80095

       Sec. 291.10. DOH DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH80096

General Revenue Fund80097

GRF 440412 Cancer Incidence Surveillance System $ 600,000 $ 600,000 80098
GRF 440413 Local Health Department Support $ 2,302,788 $ 2,303,061 80099
GRF 440416 Mothers and Children Safety Net Services $ 4,227,842 $ 4,228,015 80100
GRF 440418 Immunizations $ 6,430,538 $ 8,930,829 8,825,829 80101
GRF 440431 Free Clinics Safety Net Services $ 437,326 $ 437,326 80102
GRF 440438 Breast and Cervical Cancer Screening $ 823,217 $ 823,217 80103
GRF 440444 AIDS Prevention and Treatment $ 5,842,315 $ 5,842,315 80104
GRF 440451 Public Health Laboratory $ 3,654,348 $ 3,655,449 80105
GRF 440452 Child and Family Health Services Match $ 630,390 $ 630,444 80106
GRF 440453 Health Care Quality Assurance $ 8,170,694 $ 8,174,361 80107
GRF 440454 Local Environmental Health $ 1,310,141 $ 1,310,362 1,194,634 80108
GRF 440459 Help Me Grow $ 33,673,545 $ 33,673,987 80109
GRF 440465 Federally Qualified Health Centers $ 458,688 $ 2,686,688 80110
GRF 440467 Access to Dental Care $ 540,484 $ 540,484 80111
GRF 440468 Chronic Disease and Injury Prevention $ 2,577,251 $ 2,577,251 2,447,251 80112
GRF 440472 Alcohol Testing $ 550,000 $ 1,100,000 80113
GRF 440505 Medically Handicapped Children $ 7,512,451 $ 7,512,451 80114
GRF 440507 Targeted Health Care Services Over 21 $ 1,045,414 $ 1,045,414 80115
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 80,787,432 $ 86,071,654 85,720,926 80116

State Highway Safety Fund Group80117

4T40 440603 Child Highway Safety $ 233,894 $ 233,894 80118
TOTAL HSF State Highway Safety 80119
Fund Group $ 233,894 $ 233,894 80120

General Services Fund Group80121

1420 440646 Agency Health Services $ 8,825,788 $ 8,826,146 80122
2110 440613 Central Support Indirect Costs $ 28,900,000 $ 29,000,000 80123
4730 440622 Lab Operating Expenses $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 80124
5HB0 440470 Breast and Cervical Cancer Screening $ 1,000,000 $ 0 80125
6830 440633 Employee Assistance Program $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 80126
6980 440634 Nurse Aide Training $ 99,239 $ 99,265 80127
TOTAL GSF General Services 80128
Fund Group $ 44,925,027 $ 44,025,411 80129

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group80130

3200 440601 Maternal Child Health Block Grant $ 27,068,886 $ 27,068,886 80131
3870 440602 Preventive Health Block Grant $ 7,826,659 $ 7,826,659 80132
3890 440604 Women, Infants, and Children $ 308,672,689 $ 308,672,689 80133
3910 440606 Medicaid/Medicare $ 29,625,467 $ 29,257,457 80134
3920 440618 Federal Public Health Programs $ 137,976,988 $ 137,976,988 80135
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 80136
Fund Group $ 511,170,689 $ 510,802,679 80137

State Special Revenue Fund Group80138

4700 440647 Fee Supported Programs $ 24,503,065 $ 24,513,973 24,263,973 80139
4710 440619 Certificate of Need $ 878,145 $ 878,433 80140
4770 440627 Medically Handicapped Children Audit $ 3,692,704 $ 3,692,703 80141
4D60 440608 Genetics Services $ 3,310,953 $ 3,311,039 80142
4F90 440610 Sickle Cell Disease Control $ 1,032,754 $ 1,032,824 80143
4G00 440636 Heirloom Birth Certificate $ 5,000 $ 5,000 80144
4G00 440637 Birth Certificate Surcharge $ 5,000 $ 5,000 80145
4L30 440609 Miscellaneous Expenses $ 3,333,164 $ 3,333,164 80146
4P40 440628 Ohio Physician Loan Repayment $ 476,870 $ 476,870 80147
4V60 440641 Save Our Sight $ 2,255,760 $ 2,255,789 80148
5B50 440616 Quality, Monitoring, and Inspection $ 878,638 $ 878,997 80149
5C00 440615 Alcohol Testing and Permit $ 551,018 $ 0 80150
5CN0 440645 Choose Life $ 75,000 $ 75,000 80151
5D60 440620 Second Chance Trust $ 1,151,815 $ 1,151,902 80152
5ED0 440651 Smoke Free Indoor Air $ 190,452 $ 190,452 80153
5G40 440639 Adoption Services $ 20,000 $ 20,000 80154
5L10 440623 Nursing Facility Technical Assistance Program $ 687,500 $ 687,528 80155
5Z70 440624 Ohio Dentist Loan Repayment $ 140,000 $ 140,000 80156
6100 440626 Radiation Emergency Response $ 930,525 $ 930,576 80157
6660 440607 Medically Handicapped Children - County Assessments $ 19,738,286 $ 19,739,617 80158
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 80159
Fund Group $ 63,856,649 $ 63,318,867 63,068,867 80160

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group80161

R014 440631 Vital Statistics $ 44,986 $ 44,986 80162
R048 440625 Refunds, Grants Reconciliation, and Audit Settlements $ 20,000 $ 20,000 80163
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 80164
Redistribution Fund Group $ 64,986 $ 64,986 80165

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group80166

5BX0 440656 Tobacco Use Prevention $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 80167
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 80168
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 702,038,677 $ 705,517,491 704,916,763 80169


       Sec. 307.10.  INS DEPARTMENT OF INSURANCE80171

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group80172

3EV0 820610 Health Insurance Premium Review $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 80173
3EW0 820611 Health Exchange Planning $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 80174
3U50 820602 OSHIIP Operating Grant $ 2,270,726 $ 2,270,725 80175
TOTAL FED Federal Special 80176
Revenue Fund Group $ 4,270,726 $ 4,270,725 80177

State Special Revenue Fund Group80178

5540 820601 Operating Expenses - OSHIIP $ 190,000 $ 180,000 80179
5540 820606 Operating Expenses $ 22,745,538 $ 22,288,550 22,931,817 80180
5550 820605 Examination $ 9,065,684 $ 8,934,065 8,184,065 80181
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 80182
Fund Group $ 32,001,222 $ 31,402,615 31,295,882 80183
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 36,271,948 $ 35,673,340 35,566,607 80184

       MARKET CONDUCT EXAMINATION80185

       When conducting a market conduct examination of any insurer 80186
doing business in this state, the Superintendent of Insurance may 80187
assess the costs of the examination against the insurer. The 80188
superintendent may enter into consent agreements to impose 80189
administrative assessments or fines for conduct discovered that 80190
may be violations of statutes or rules administered by the 80191
superintendent. All costs, assessments, or fines collected shall 80192
be deposited to the credit of the Department of Insurance 80193
Operating Fund (Fund 5540).80194

       EXAMINATIONS OF DOMESTIC FRATERNAL BENEFIT SOCIETIES80195

       The Director of Budget and Management, at the request of the 80196
Superintendent of Insurance, may transfer funds from the 80197
Department of Insurance Operating Fund (Fund 5540), established by 80198
section 3901.021 of the Revised Code, to the Superintendent's 80199
Examination Fund (Fund 5550), established by section 3901.071 of 80200
the Revised Code, only for expenses incurred in examining domestic 80201
fraternal benefit societies as required by section 3921.28 of the 80202
Revised Code.80203

       TRANSFER FROM FUND 5540 TO GENERAL REVENUE FUND80204

        Not later than the thirty-first day of July each fiscal year, 80205
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $5,000,000 80206
from the Department of Insurance Operating Fund (Fund 5540) to the 80207
General Revenue Fund.80208

       Sec. 309.10. JFS DEPARTMENT OF JOB AND FAMILY SERVICES80209

General Revenue Fund80210

GRF 600321 Program Support Services 80211
State $ 34,801,760 $ 31,932,117 31,612,796 80212
Federal $ 9,322,222 $ 9,207,441 9,115,366 80213
Program Support Services Total $ 44,123,982 $ 41,139,558 40,728,162 80214
GRF 600410 TANF State/Maintenance of Effort $ 151,386,934 $ 151,386,934 80215
GRF 600413 Child Care Match State/Maintenance of Effort $ 84,732,730 $ 84,732,730 80216
GRF 600416 Computer Information Technology Projects 80217
State $ 67,955,340 $ 69,263,506 68,570,871 80218
Federal $ 13,105,167 $ 12,937,222 12,807,850 80219
Computer Information Technology Projects Total $ 81,060,507 $ 82,200,728 81,378,721 80220
GRF 600417 Medicaid Provider Audits $ 1,312,992 $ 1,312,992 1,299,862 80221
GRF 600420 Child Support Administration Programs $ 6,163,534 $ 6,065,588 6,004,932 80222
GRF 600421 Office of Family Stability Assistance Programs $ 3,768,929 $ 3,757,493 3,719,918 80223
GRF 600423 Office of Children and Families and Children Programs $ 5,123,406 $ 4,978,756 80224
GRF 600425 Office of Ohio Health Plans Care Programs 80225
State $ 13,149,582 $ 15,740,987 15,583,577 80226
Federal $ 12,556,921 $ 12,286,234 12,163,372 80227
Office of Ohio Health Plans Care Programs Total $ 25,706,503 $ 28,027,221 27,746,949 80228
GRF 600502 Administration Child Support - Local $ 23,814,103 $ 23,814,103 80229
GRF 600511 Disability Financial Assistance $ 26,599,666 $ 27,108,734 80230
GRF 600521 Entitlement Administration Family Assistance - Local $ 72,200,721 $ 72,200,721 80231
GRF 600523 Family and Children and Families Services $ 53,605,323 52,605,323 $ 53,105,323 54,105,323 80232
GRF 600525 Health Care/Medicaid 80233
State $ 4,313,761,372 $ 4,689,051,017 4,689,701,017 80234
Federal $ 7,530,008,024 $ 8,429,762,527 8,430,897,261 80235
Health Care Total $ 11,843,769,396 $ 13,118,813,544 13,120,598,278 80236
GRF 600526 Medicare Part D $ 277,996,490 $ 296,964,743 80237
GRF 600528 Adoption Services 80238
State $ 29,257,932 $ 29,257,932 80239
Federal $ 41,085,169 $ 41,085,169 80240
Adoption Services Total $ 70,343,101 $ 70,343,101 80241
GRF 600533 Child, Family, and Adult Community & Protective Services $ 13,500,000 $ 13,500,000 80242
GRF 600534 Adult Protective Services $ 366,003 $ 366,003 80243
GRF 600535 Early Care and Education $ 123,596,474 $ 123,596,474 80244
GRF 600537 Children's Hospital $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 80245
GRF 600540 Second Harvest Food Banks $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 80246
GRF 600541 Kinship Permanency Incentive Program $ 2,500,000 $ 3,500,000 80247
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund 80248
State $ 5,315,593,291 5,314,593,291 $ 5,711,636,153 5,712,005,426 80249
Federal $ 7,606,077,503 $ 8,505,278,593 8,506,069,018 80250
GRF Total $ 12,921,670,794 12,920,670,794 $ 14,216,914,746 14,218,074,444 80251

General Services Fund Group80252

4A80 600658 Public Assistance Activities $ 34,000,000 $ 34,000,000 80253
5C90 600671 Medicaid Program Support $ 85,800,878 $ 82,839,266 0 80254
5DL0 600639 Medicaid Revenue and Collections Health Care/Medicaid Support - Recoveries $ 89,256,974 $ 84,156,974 166,996,240 80255
5DM0 600633 Administration & Operating $ 20,392,173 $ 19,858,928 19,660,339 80256
5FX0 600638 Medicaid Payment Withholding $ 5,000,000 $ 6,000,000 80257
5HL0 600602 State and County Shared services $ 3,020,000 $ 3,020,000 80258
5P50 600692 Prescription Drug Rebate - State Health Care/Medicaid Support - Drug Rebates $ 220,600,000 $ 242,600,000 80259
6130 600645 Training Activities $ 500,000 $ 500,000 80260
TOTAL GSF General Services 80261
Fund Group $ 458,570,025 $ 472,975,168 472,776,579 80262

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group80263

3270 600606 Child Welfare $ 29,769,865 $ 29,769,866 80264
3310 600615 Veterans Programs $ 0 $ 8,000,000 80265
3310 600624 Employment Services Programs $ 0 $ 33,943,023 80266
3310 600686 Federal Operating Workforce Programs $ 49,128,140 $ 48,203,023 6,260,000 80267
3840 600610 Food Assistance and State Administration Programs $ 180,381,394 $ 180,381,394 80268
3850 600614 Refugee Services $ 11,582,440 $ 12,564,952 80269
3950 600616 Special Activities/Child and Family Services Federal Discretionary Grants $ 2,259,264 $ 2,259,264 80270
3960 600620 Social Services Block Grant $ 64,999,999 $ 64,999,998 80271
3970 600626 Child Support - Federal $ 255,812,837 $ 255,813,528 80272
3980 600627 Adoption Maintenance/ Administration Program - Federal $ 352,183,862 $ 352,184,253 174,178,779 80273
3A20 600641 Emergency Food Distribution $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 80274
3AW0 600675 Faith Based Initiatives $ 544,140 $ 544,140 80275
3D30 600648 Children's Trust Fund Federal $ 2,040,524 $ 2,040,524 80276
3ER0 600603 Health Information Technology $ 411,661,286 $ 416,395,286 80277
3F00 600623 Health Care Federal $ 2,637,061,505 $ 2,720,724,869 80278
3F00 600650 Hospital Care Assurance Match - Federal $ 372,784,046 $ 380,645,627 80279
3FA0 600680 Ohio Health Care Grants - Federal $ 9,405,000 $ 20,000,000 80280
3G50 600655 Interagency Reimbursement $ 1,621,305,787 $ 1,380,391,478 80281
3H70 600617 Child Care Federal $ 208,290,036 $ 204,813,731 80282
3N00 600628 IV-E Foster Care Maintenance Program - Federal $ 133,963,142 $ 133,963,142 311,968,616 80283
3S50 600622 Child Support Projects $ 534,050 $ 534,050 80284
3V00 600688 Workforce Investment Act Programs $ 176,496,250 $ 172,805,562 80285
3V40 600678 Federal Unemployment Programs $ 188,680,096 $ 186,723,415 80286
3V40 600679 Unemployment Compensation UC Review Commission - Federal $ 4,166,988 $ 4,068,758 80287
3V60 600689 TANF Block Grant $ 727,968,260 $ 727,968,260 80288
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 80289
Fund Group $ 7,446,018,911 $ 7,302,795,120 80290

State Special Revenue Fund Group80291

1980 600647 Children's Trust Fund $ 5,873,637 $ 5,873,848 80292
4A90 600607 Unemployment Compensation Administration Fund $ 21,924,998 $ 21,424,998 80293
4A90 600694 Unemployment Compensation UC Review Commission - SAF $ 2,173,167 $ 2,117,031 80294
4E30 600605 Nursing Home Assessments Resident Protection Fund $ 2,878,320 $ 2,878,319 80295
4E70 600604 Child and Family and Children Services Collections $ 400,000 $ 400,000 80296
4F10 600609 Family and Children and Family Services Activities $ 683,359 $ 683,549 80297
4K10 600621 ICF/MR Bed Assessments DDD Support - Franchise Fee $ 41,405,596 $ 44,372,874 80298
4Z10 600625 HealthCare Compliance $ 11,551,076 $ 14,582,000 80299
5AJ0 600631 Money Follows the Person $ 5,483,080 $ 4,733,080 80300
5DB0 600637 Military Injury Grants Relief Subsidies $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 80301
5DP0 600634 Adoption Assistance Loan $ 500,000 $ 500,000 80302
5ES0 600630 Food Bank Assistance $ 500,000 $ 500,000 80303
5GF0 600656 Medicaid Health Care/Medicaid Support - Hospital/UPL $ 436,000,000 $ 436,000,000 80304
5KC0 600682 Health Care Special Activities Grants - State $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 80305
5KU0 600611 Unemployment Compensation Support - Other Sources $ 2,000,000 $ 4,000,000 80306
5R20 600608 Medicaid-Nursing Facilities Long-Term Care Support $ 402,489,308 $ 407,100,746 80307
5S30 600629 MR/DD Medicaid Administration Health Care Program and Oversight DDD Support $ 9,252,738 $ 9,147,791 80308
5U30 600654 Health Care Services Administration Program Support $ 24,400,000 $ 24,400,000 24,156,000 80309
5U60 600663 Children Family and Family Children Support $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 80310
6510 600649 Hospital Care Assurance Program Fund $ 212,526,123 $ 217,008,050 80311
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 80312
Fund Group $ 1,194,041,402 1,196,041,402 $ 1,207,722,286 1,211,478,286 80313

Agency Fund Group80314

1920 600646 Child Support Intercept - Federal $ 130,000,000 $ 130,000,000 129,250,000 80315
5830 600642 Child Support Intercept - State $ 16,000,000 $ 16,000,000 14,000,000 80316
5B60 600601 Food Assistance Intercept $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 1,000,000 80317
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 148,000,000 $ 148,000,000 144,250,000 80318

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group80319

R012 600643 Refunds and Audit Settlements $ 2,200,000 $ 2,200,000 80320
R013 600644 Forgery Collections $ 10,000 $ 10,000 80321
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,210,000 $ 2,210,000 80322
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 22,170,511,132 22,171,511,132 $ 23,350,617,320 23,351,584,429 80323


       Sec. 309.30.10. HEALTH CARE/MEDICAID80325

       The foregoing appropriation item 600525, Health 80326
Care/Medicaid, shall not be limited by section 131.33 of the 80327
Revised Code.80328

       HEALTH CARE/MEDICAID ENDING BALANCE80329

        Thirty million dollars of the unexpended and unencumbered 80330
portion of appropriation item 600525, Health Care/Medicaid, at the 80331
end of fiscal year 2012 is hereby reappropriated to the Department 80332
of Job and Family Services for payments to nursing facilities for 80333
fiscal year 2013 in accordance with the section of this act titled 80334
"FISCAL YEAR 2013 QUALITY BONUS PAYMENTS TO NURSING FACILITIES."80335

       Sec. 309.30.30. REDUCTION IN MEDICAID PAYMENT RATES80336

       (A) As used in this section, "charge high trim point" means a 80337
measure, excluding the measure established by paragraph (A)(6) of 80338
rule 5101:3-2-07.9 of the Administrative Code, used to determine 80339
whether a claim for a hospital inpatient service qualifies for a 80340
cost outlier payment under the Medicaid program.80341

       (B) For fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013, the Director 80342
of Job and Family Services shall implement purchasing strategies 80343
and rate reductions for hospital and other Medicaid-covered 80344
services, as determined by the Director, that result in payment 80345
rates for those services being at least two per cent less than the 80346
respective payment rates for fiscal year 2011. In implementing the 80347
purchasing strategies and rate reductions, the Director shall do 80348
the following:80349

       (1) Notwithstanding the section of this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 80350
of the 129th General Assembly titled "CONTINUATION OF MEDICAID 80351
RATES FOR HOSPITAL INPATIENT AND OUTPATIENT SERVICES," modernize 80352
hospital inpatient and outpatient reimbursement methodologies by 80353
doing the following:80354

       (a) Modifying the inpatient hospital capital reimbursement 80355
methodology;80356

       (b) Establishing new diagnosis-related groups in a 80357
cost-neutral manner;80358

       (c) For hospital discharges that occur during the period 80359
beginning October 1, 2011, and ending January 1, 2012, modifying 80360
charge high trim points, as in effect on January 1, 2011, by a 80361
factor of 13.6%;80362

       (d) For hospital discharges that occur during the period 80363
beginning January 1, 2012, and ending on the effective date of the 80364
first of the new diagnosis-related groups established under 80365
division (B)(1)(b) of this section, modifying charge high trim 80366
points, as in effect on October 1, 2011, by a factor of 9.72%;80367

       (e) Implementing other changes the Director considers 80368
appropriate.80369

       (2) Establish selective contracting and prior authorization 80370
requirements for types of medical assistance the Director 80371
identifies.80372

        (C) The Director shall adopt rules under sectionsections80373
5111.02 and 5111.85 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement 80374
this section. The rules adopted to implement divisions (B)(1)(a), 80375
(b), and (e) of this section shall include quality factors and 80376
quality-based incentive payments.80377

       (D) This section does not apply to nursing facility and 80378
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded services 80379
provided under the Medicaid program.80380

       Sec. 309.30.33.  HOSPITAL INPATIENT AND OUTPATIENT 80381
SUPPLEMENTAL UPPER PAYMENT LIMIT PROGRAM; MEDICAID MANAGED CARE 80382
HOSPITAL INCENTIVE PAYMENT PROGRAM80383

       (A) As used in this section:80384

       (1) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 5112.40 of 80385
the Revised Code.80386

       (2) "Hospital Assessment Fund" means the fund created under 80387
section 5112.45 of the Revised Code.80388

       (3) "Medicaid managed care organization" means an entity 80389
under contract pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code to 80390
provide or arrange services for Medicaid recipients who are 80391
required or permitted to participate in the Medicaid care 80392
management system.80393

       (B) The Department of Job and Family Services shall submit to 80394
the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services a 80395
Medicaid state plan amendment to do both of the following:80396

       (1) Continue the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient 80397
Supplemental Upper Payment Limit Program that was established 80398
pursuant to Section 309.30.17 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th 80399
General Assembly, with any modifications necessary to implement 80400
the program as described under division (D) of this section;80401

       (2) Create the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital Incentive 80402
Payment Program, as described under division (E) of this section.80403

       (C) Of the amounts deposited into the Hospital Assessment 80404
Fund in fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013:80405

       (1) Up to $432,432,725 (state and federal) in fiscal year 80406
2012 and up to $415,162,388 (state and federal) in fiscal year 80407
2013 shall be used for the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient 80408
Supplemental Upper Payment Limit Program;80409

       (2) Up to $162,000,000 (state and federal) in each fiscal 80410
year shall be used for the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital 80411
Incentive Payment Program;80412

       (3) Up to $176,021,111 (state and federal) in fiscal year 80413
2012 and up to $195,158,394 (state and federal) in fiscal year 80414
2013 shall be used for the program authorized by the section of 80415
this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly titled 80416
"CONTINUATION OF MEDICAID RATES FOR HOSPITAL INPATIENT AND 80417
OUTPATIENT SERVICES."80418

       (D)(1) If the Medicaid state plan amendment submitted under 80419
division (B)(1) of this section is approved, the Department shall 80420
implement the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient Supplemental Upper 80421
Payment Limit Program during fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 80422
2013. Under the Program, subject to division (D)(2) of this 80423
section, supplemental Medicaid payments shall be made to hospitals 80424
for Medicaid-covered inpatient and outpatient services. The 80425
Department shall make the payments through amounts that are made 80426
available for the Program under division (C) of this section and 80427
any federal financial participation available for the Program.80428

       (2) The Department shall take all actions necessary to cease 80429
implementation of the Program if the United States Secretary 80430
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5112.41 of 80431
the Revised Code is an impermissible healthcare-related tax under 80432
section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 80433
(1991), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended.80434

       (E)(1) If the Medicaid state plan amendment submitted under 80435
division (B)(2) of this section is approved, the Department shall 80436
implement the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital Incentive Payment 80437
Program. The purpose of the Program is to increase access to 80438
hospital services for Medicaid recipients who are enrolled in 80439
Medicaid managed care organizations.80440

       Under the Program, subject to division (E)(3) of this 80441
section, funds shall be provided to Medicaid managed care 80442
organizations, which shall use the funds to increase payments to 80443
hospitals for providing services to Medicaid recipients who are 80444
enrolled in the organizations. The Department shall provide the 80445
funds through amounts that are made available for the Program 80446
under division (C) of this section and any federal financial 80447
participation available for the Program.80448

       (2) Not later than July 1, 2012, the Department shall select 80449
an actuary to conduct a study of the contracted reimbursement 80450
rates between Medicaid managed care organizations and hospitals. 80451
The actuary shall determine if a reduction in the capitation rates 80452
paid to Medicaid managed care organizations in fiscal year 2013 is 80453
appropriate as a result of the contracted reimbursement rates 80454
between the organizations and hospitals. The actuary shall notify 80455
the Department of its determination.80456

       If the actuary determines that a reduction in the capitation 80457
rates paid to Medicaid managed care organizations in fiscal year 80458
2013 will not achieve $22 million in state savings in fiscal year 80459
2013, the state shall receive the difference between what the 80460
actuary determines the state will save and $22 million. The 80461
Department, in consultation with the Ohio Association of Health 80462
Plans and the Ohio Hospital Association, shall establish a 80463
methodology under which the difference is paid equally by Medicaid 80464
managed care organizations and hospitals in this state.80465

       Notwithstanding anything to the contrary specified in 80466
division (E)(3)(b) or (c) of this section, the Medicaid managed 80467
care organizations and hospitals shall pay the amounts determined 80468
under the methodology, unless the Department waives the 80469
requirement to make the payments. The requirement may be waived if 80470
spending for the Medicaid program in fiscal year 2013 is less than 80471
the amount that is budgeted for that fiscal year. If payments are 80472
made, the amount received by the Department shall be deposited 80473
into the state treasury to the credit of the Health Care 80474
Compliance Fund created under section 5111.1715111.946 of the 80475
Revised Code.80476

       (3)(a) The Department shall not provide funds to Medicaid 80477
managed care organizations under the Program unless an actuary 80478
selected by the Department certifies that the Program would not 80479
violate the actuarial soundness of the capitation rates paid to 80480
Medicaid managed care organizations.80481

       (b) The Department shall not implement the Program in a 80482
manner that causes a hospital to receive less money from the 80483
Hospital Assessment Fund than the hospital would have received if 80484
the Program were not implemented.80485

       (c) The Department shall not implement the Program in a 80486
manner that causes a Medicaid managed care organization to receive 80487
a lower capitation payment rate solely because funds are made 80488
available to the organization under the Program.80489

       (d) The Department shall take all necessary actions to cease 80490
implementation of the Program if the United States Secretary 80491
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5112.41 of 80492
the Revised Code is an impermissible healthcare-related tax under 80493
section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 80494
(1991), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended.80495

       (F) The Director of Budget and Management may authorize 80496
additional expenditures from appropriation item 600623, Health 80497
Care Federal, appropriation item 600525, Health Care/Medicaid, and 80498
appropriation item 600656, Medicaid-Hospital, in order to 80499
implement the programs authorized by this section and to implement 80500
the section of this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 80501
Assembly titled "CONTINUATION OF MEDICAID RATES FOR HOSPITAL 80502
INPATIENT AND OUTPATIENT SERVICES." Any amounts authorized are 80503
hereby appropriated.80504

       (G) Nothing in this section reduces payments to children's 80505
hospitals authorized under the section of this actAm. Sub. H.B. 80506
153 of the 129th General Assembly titled "CHILDREN'S HOSPITALS 80507
SUPPLEMENTAL FUNDING."80508

       Sec. 309.30.53. MEDICAID MANAGED CARE EXEMPTIONS80509

       (A) As used in this section, "disabled individual" means any 80510
individual receiving services through the program for medically 80511
handicapped children established under section 3701.023 of the 80512
Revised Code who has one or more of the following conditions:80513

        (1) Cystic fibrosis;80514

        (2) Hemophilia;80515

        (3) Cancer.80516

        (B) Notwithstanding section 5111.16 of the Revised Code, as 80517
amended by this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 80518
Assembly, the Department of Job and Family Services shall not 80519
include in the care management system established under that 80520
section in either fiscal year 2012 or fiscal year 2013 any 80521
individual receiving services through the program for medically 80522
handicapped children established under section 3701.023 of the 80523
Revised Code who has one or more of the following conditions and 80524
who was not receiving services through the care management system 80525
immediately before the effective date of this section:80526

       (1) Cystic fibrosis;80527

       (2) Hemophilia;80528

       (3) Cancerany disabled individual who was not receiving 80529
services through the care management system immediately before 80530
June 30, 2011, until the later of the following:80531

        (1) January 1, 2014;80532

        (2) One year after the date that the Department first 80533
designates any individual who receives Medicaid on the basis of 80534
being aged, blind, or disabled who is under twenty-one years of 80535
age as an individual who is permitted or required to participate 80536
in the care management system.80537

       Sec. 309.30.73. JOINT LEGISLATIVE COMMITTEE FOR UNIFIED 80538
LONG-TERM SERVICES AND SUPPORTS80539

       (A) There is hereby created the Joint Legislative Committee 80540
for Unified Long-Term Services and Supports. The Committee shall 80541
consist of the following members:80542

       (1) Two members of the House of Representatives from the 80543
majority party, appointed by the Speaker of the House of 80544
Representatives;80545

       (2) One member of the House of Representatives from the 80546
minority party, appointed by the Speaker of the House of 80547
Representatives;80548

       (3) Two members of the Senate from the majority party, 80549
appointed by the President of the Senate;80550

       (4) One member of the Senate from the minority party, 80551
appointed by the President of the Senate.80552

       (B) The Speaker of the House of Representatives shall 80553
designate one of the members of the Committee appointed under 80554
division (A)(1) of this section to serve as co-chairperson of the 80555
Committee. The President of the Senate shall designate one of the 80556
members of the Committee appointed under division (A)(3) of this 80557
section to serve as the other co-chairperson of the Committee. The 80558
Committee shall meet at the call of the co-chairpersons. The 80559
co-chairpersons may request assistance for the Committee from the 80560
Legislative Service Commission.80561

       (C) The Committee may examine the following issues:80562

       (1) The implementation of the dual eligible integrated care 80563
demonstration project authorized by section 5111.981 of the 80564
Revised Code;80565

       (2) The implementation of a unified long-term services and 80566
support Medicaid waiver component under section 5111.864 of the 80567
Revised Code;80568

       (3) Providing consumers choices regarding a continuum of 80569
services that meet their health-care needs, promote autonomy and 80570
independence, and improve quality of life;80571

       (4) Ensuring that long-term care services and supports are 80572
delivered in a cost-effective and quality manner;80573

       (5) Subjecting county homes, county nursing homes, and 80574
district homes operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised 80575
Code to the franchise permit fee under sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 80576
of the Revised Code;80577

       (6) Other issues of interest to the committee.80578

       (D) The co-chairpersons of the Committee shall provide for 80579
the Medical Assistance Director of the Office of Ohio Health Plans 80580
in the Department of Job and Family Services to testify before the 80581
Committee not later than September 30, 2011, and at least 80582
quarterly thereafter regarding the issues that the Committee 80583
examines.80584

       Sec. 309.35.73. HEALTHCARE COMPLIANCE APPROPRIATION80585

        Notwithstanding the provisions of section 5111.1715111.94680586
of the Revised Code specifying the uses of the HealthCareHealth 80587
Care Compliance Fund, appropriations in appropriation item 600625, 80588
HealthCare Compliance, may be used for expenses incurred in 80589
implementation or operation of Health Home programs, contracts for 80590
consultants regarding Medicaid, and for the creation, 80591
modification, or replacement of any federally funded Medicaid 80592
healthcare systems in fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013.80593

       Sec. 313.10.  JCO JUDICIAL CONFERENCE OF OHIO80594

General Revenue Fund80595

GRF 018321 Operating Expenses $ 720,000 801,000 $ 720,000 801,700 80596
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 720,000 801,000 $ 720,000 801,700 80597

General Services Fund Group80598

4030 018601 Ohio Jury Instructions $ 350,000 $ 350,000 80599
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 350,000 $ 350,000 80600
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,070,000 1,151,000 $ 1,070,000 1,151,700 80601

       STATE COUNCIL OF UNIFORM STATE LAWS80602

       Notwithstanding section 105.26 of the Revised Code, of the 80603
foregoing appropriation item 018321, Operating Expenses, up to 80604
$81,000 in fiscal year 2012 and up to $81,700 in fiscal year 2013 80605
shall be used to pay the expenses of the State Council of Uniform 80606
State Laws, including membership dues to the National Conference 80607
of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws.80608

       OHIO JURY INSTRUCTIONS FUND80609

       The Ohio Jury Instructions Fund (Fund 4030) shall consist of 80610
grants, royalties, dues, conference fees, bequests, devises, and 80611
other gifts received for the purpose of supporting costs incurred 80612
by the Judicial Conference of Ohio in its activities as a part of 80613
the judicial system of the state as determined by the Judicial 80614
Conference Executive Committee. Fund 4030 shall be used by the 80615
Judicial Conference of Ohio to pay expenses incurred in its 80616
activities as a part of the judicial system of the state as 80617
determined by the Judicial Conference Executive Committee. All 80618
moneys accruing to Fund 4030 in excess of $350,000 in fiscal year 80619
2012 and in excess of $350,000 in fiscal year 2013 are hereby 80620
appropriated for the purposes authorized.80621

       No money in Fund 4030 shall be transferred to any other fund 80622
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board.80623

       Sec. 315.10.  JSC THE JUDICIARY/SUPREME COURT80624

General Revenue Fund80625

GRF 005321 Operating Expenses - Judiciary/Supreme Court $ 133,704,620 132,347,507 $ 132,565,410 133,922,523 80626
GRF 005406 Law-Related Education $ 236,172 $ 236,172 80627
GRF 005409 Ohio Courts Technology Initiative $ 2,150,000 $ 2,150,000 80628
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 136,090,792 134,733,679 $ 134,951,582 136,308,695 80629

General Services Fund Group80630

6720 005601 Continuing Judicial Education $ 172,142 $ 169,420 80631
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 172,142 $ 169,420 80632

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group80633

3J00 005603 Federal Grants $ 1,653,317 $ 1,605,717 80634
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,653,317 $ 1,605,717 80635

State Special Revenue Fund Group80636

4C80 005605 Attorney Services $ 3,718,328 $ 3,695,192 80637
5HT0 005617 Court Interpreter Certification $ 39,000 $ 39,000 80638
5T80 005609 Grants and Awards $ 50,000 $ 50,000 80639
6A80 005606 Supreme Court Admissions $ 1,223,340 $ 1,205,056 80640
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 5,030,668 $ 4,989,248 80641
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 142,946,919 141,589,806 $ 141,715,967 143,073,080 80642

       OPERATING EXPENSES - JUDICIARY/SUPREME COURT80643

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 005321, Operating 80644
Expenses - Judiciary/Supreme Court, up to $206,770 in each fiscal 80645
year may be used to support the functions of the State Criminal 80646
Sentencing Council.80647

       LAW-RELATED EDUCATION80648

       The foregoing appropriation item 005406, Law-Related 80649
Education, shall be distributed directly to the Ohio Center for 80650
Law-Related Education for the purposes of providing continuing 80651
citizenship education activities to primary and secondary 80652
students, expanding delinquency prevention programs, increasing 80653
activities for at-risk youth, and accessing additional public and 80654
private money for new programs.80655

       OHIO COURTS TECHNOLOGY INITIATIVE80656

       The foregoing appropriation item 005409, Ohio Courts 80657
Technology Initiative, shall be used to fund an initiative by the 80658
Supreme Court to facilitate the exchange of information and 80659
warehousing of data by and between Ohio courts and other justice 80660
system partners through the creation of an Ohio Courts Network, 80661
the delivery of technology services to courts throughout the 80662
state, including the provision of hardware, software, and the 80663
development and implementation of educational and training 80664
programs for judges and court personnel, and operation of the 80665
Commission on Technology and the Courts by the Supreme Court for 80666
the promulgation of statewide rules, policies, and uniform 80667
standards, and to aid in the orderly adoption and comprehensive 80668
use of technology in Ohio courts.80669

       CONTINUING JUDICIAL EDUCATION80670

       The Continuing Judicial Education Fund (Fund 6720) shall 80671
consist of fees paid by judges and court personnel for attending 80672
continuing education courses and other gifts and grants received 80673
for the purpose of continuing judicial education. The foregoing 80674
appropriation item 005601, Continuing Judicial Education, shall be 80675
used to pay expenses for continuing education courses for judges 80676
and court personnel. If it is determined by the Administrative 80677
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 80678
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.80679

       No money in Fund 6720 shall be transferred to any other fund 80680
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 80681
Interest earned on money in Fund 6720 shall be credited to the 80682
fund.80683

       FEDERAL GRANTS80684

       The Federal Grants Fund (Fund 3J00) shall consist of grants 80685
and other moneys awarded to the Supreme Court (The Judiciary) by 80686
the United States Government or other entities that receive the 80687
moneys directly from the United States Government and distribute 80688
those moneys to the Supreme Court (The Judiciary). The foregoing 80689
appropriation item 005603, Federal Grants, shall be used in a 80690
manner consistent with the purpose of the grant or award. If it is 80691
determined by the Administrative Director of the Supreme Court 80692
that additional appropriations are necessary, the amounts are 80693
hereby appropriated.80694

       No money in Fund 3J00 shall be transferred to any other fund 80695
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 80696
However, interest earned on money in Fund 3J00 shall be credited 80697
or transferred to the General Revenue Fund.80698

       ATTORNEY SERVICES80699

       The Attorney Services Fund (Fund 4C80), formerly known as the 80700
Attorney Registration Fund, shall consist of money received by the 80701
Supreme Court (The Judiciary) pursuant to the Rules for the 80702
Government of the Bar of Ohio. In addition to funding other 80703
activities considered appropriate by the Supreme Court, the 80704
foregoing appropriation item 005605, Attorney Services, may be 80705
used to compensate employees and to fund appropriate activities of 80706
the following offices established by the Supreme Court: the Office 80707
of Disciplinary Counsel, the Board of Commissioners on Grievances 80708
and Discipline, the Clients' Security Fund, and the Attorney 80709
Services Division. If it is determined by the Administrative 80710
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 80711
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.80712

       No money in Fund 4C80 shall be transferred to any other fund 80713
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 80714
Interest earned on money in Fund 4C80 shall be credited to the 80715
fund.80716

       COURT INTERPRETER CERTIFICATION80717

       The Court Interpreter Certification Fund (Fund 5HT0) shall 80718
consist of money received by the Supreme Court (The Judiciary) 80719
pursuant to Rules 80 through 87 of the Rules of Superintendence 80720
for the Courts of Ohio. The foregoing appropriation item 005617, 80721
Court Interpreter Certification, shall be used to provide 80722
training, to provide the written examination, and to pay language 80723
experts to rate, or grade, the oral examinations of those applying 80724
to become certified court interpreters. If it is determined by the 80725
Administrative Director that additional appropriations are 80726
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.80727

       No money in Fund 5HT0 shall be transferred to any other fund 80728
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 80729
Interest earned on money in Fund 5HT0 shall be credited to the 80730
fund.80731

       GRANTS AND AWARDS80732

       The Grants and Awards Fund (Fund 5T80) shall consist of 80733
grants and other money awarded to the Supreme Court (The 80734
Judiciary) by the State Justice Institute, the Division of 80735
Criminal Justice Services, or other entities. The foregoing 80736
appropriation item 005609, Grants and Awards, shall be used in a 80737
manner consistent with the purpose of the grant or award. If it is 80738
determined by the Administrative Director of the Supreme Court 80739
that additional appropriations are necessary, the amounts are 80740
hereby appropriated.80741

       No money in Fund 5T80 shall be transferred to any other fund 80742
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 80743
However, interest earned on money in Fund 5T80 shall be credited 80744
or transferred to the General Revenue Fund.80745

       SUPREME COURT ADMISSIONS80746

       The foregoing appropriation item 005606, Supreme Court 80747
Admissions, shall be used to compensate Supreme Court employees 80748
who are primarily responsible for administering the attorney 80749
admissions program under the Rules for the Government of the Bar 80750
of Ohio, and to fund any other activities considered appropriate 80751
by the court. Moneys shall be deposited into the Supreme Court 80752
Admissions Fund (Fund 6A80) under the Supreme Court Rules for the 80753
Government of the Bar of Ohio. If it is determined by the 80754
Administrative Director of the Supreme Court that additional 80755
appropriations are necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.80756

       No money in Fund 6A80 shall be transferred to any other fund 80757
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 80758
Interest earned on money in Fund 6A80 shall be credited to the 80759
fund.80760

       Sec. 323.10. LSC LEGISLATIVE SERVICE COMMISSION80761

General Revenue Fund80762

GRF 035321 Operating Expenses $ 15,117,700 $ 15,117,700 80763
GRF 035402 Legislative Fellows $ 1,022,120 $ 1,022,120 80764
GRF 035405 Correctional Institution Inspection Committee $ 438,900 $ 438,900 80765
GRF 035407 Legislative Task Force on Redistricting $ 590,000 $ 750,000 80766
GRF 035409 National Associations $ 460,560 $ 460,560 80767
GRF 035410 Legislative Information Systems $ 3,661,250 $ 3,661,250 3,861,250 80768
GRF 035411 Ohio Constitutional Modernization Commission $ 50,000 $ 50,000 80769
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 21,340,530 $ 21,500,530 21,700,530 80770

General Services Fund Group80771

4100 035601 Sale of Publications $ 10,000 $ 10,000 80772
4F60 035603 Legislative Budget Services $ 200,000 $ 200,000 80773
5EF0 035607 Legislative Agency Telephone Usage $ 30,000 $ 30,000 80774
TOTAL GSF General Services 80775
Fund Group $ 240,000 $ 240,000 80776
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 21,580,530 $ 21,740,530 21,940,530 80777

        OPERATING EXPENSES80778

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 80779
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 80780
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 80781
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035321, 80782
Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2011 to be 80783
reappropriated to fiscal year 2012. The amount certified is hereby 80784
reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal year 80785
2012.80786

        On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 80787
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 80788
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 80789
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035321, 80790
Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2012 to be 80791
reappropriated to fiscal year 2013. The amount certified is hereby 80792
reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal year 80793
2013.80794

       LEGISLATIVE TASK FORCE ON REDISTRICTING80795

        An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 80796
the foregoing appropriation item 035407, Legislative Task Force on 80797
Redistricting, at the end of fiscal year 2011 is hereby 80798
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 80799
purpose for fiscal year 2012.80800

       An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 80801
the foregoing appropriation item 035407, Legislative Task Force on 80802
Redistricting, at the end of fiscal year 2012 is hereby 80803
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 80804
purpose for fiscal year 2013.80805

        LEGISLATIVE INFORMATION SYSTEMS80806

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 80807
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 80808
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 80809
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035410, 80810
Legislative Information Systems, at the end of fiscal year 2011 to 80811
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2012. The amount certified is 80812
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 80813
year 2012.80814

        On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 80815
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 80816
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 80817
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035410, 80818
Legislative Information Systems, at the end of fiscal year 2012 to 80819
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2013. The amount certified is 80820
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 80821
year 2013.80822

       OHIO CONSTITUTIONAL MODERNIZATION COMMISSION80823

       The foregoing appropriation item 035411, Ohio Constitutional 80824
Modernization Commission, shall be used to support the operation 80825
and expenses of the Ohio Constitutional Modernization Commission 80826
under sections 103.61 to 103.67 of the Revised Code.80827

       Sec. 327.10. LCO LIQUOR CONTROL COMMISSION80828

State Special Revenue Fund Group80829

5LP0 970601 Commission Operating Expense $ 0 $ 754,146 80830
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 0 $ 754,146 80831

Liquor Control Fund Group80832

7043 970321 Operating Expenses $ 753,933 $ 754,146 0 80833
TOTAL LCF Liquor Control Fund Group $ 753,933 $ 754,146 0 80834
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 753,933 $ 754,146 80835


       Sec. 335.10. AMB OHIO MEDICAL TRANSPORTATION BOARD80837

General Services Fund Group80838

4K90 915604 Operating Expenses $ 493,641 $ 493,856 0 80839
TOTAL GSF General Services 80840
Fund Group $ 493,641 $ 493,856 0 80841
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 493,641 $ 493,856 0 80842


       Sec. 337.10. DMH DEPARTMENT OF MENTAL HEALTH80844

General Revenue Fund80845

GRF 332401 Forensic Services $ 3,244,251 $ 3,244,251 80846
GRF 333321 Central Administration $ 16,000,000 $ 16,000,000 80847
GRF 333402 Resident Trainees $ 450,000 $ 450,000 80848
GRF 333403 Pre-Admission Screening Expenses $ 486,119 $ 486,119 286,119 80849
GRF 333415 Lease-Rental Payments $ 18,394,250 $ 19,907,900 17,907,900 80850
GRF 333416 Research Program Evaluation $ 421,724 $ 421,998 80851
GRF 334412 Hospital Services $ 194,918,888 $ 192,051,209 191,051,209 80852
GRF 334506 Court Costs $ 584,210 $ 584,210 80853
GRF 335405 Family & Children First $ 1,386,000 $ 1,386,000 80854
GRF 335419 Community Medication Subsidy $ 8,963,818 $ 8,963,818 80855
GRF 335501 Mental Health Medicaid Match $ 186,400,000 $ 0 80856
GRF 335505 Local Mental Health Systems of Care $ 49,963,776 $ 59,087,955 62,087,955 80857
GRF 335506 Residential State Supplement $ 4,702,875 $ 4,702,875 80858
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 485,915,911 $ 307,286,335 307,086,335 80859

General Services Fund Group80860

1490 333609 Central Office Operating $ 1,343,190 $ 1,343,190 80861
1490 334609 Hospital - Operating Expenses $ 28,190,000 $ 28,190,000 80862
1500 334620 Special Education $ 150,000 $ 150,000 80863
4P90 335604 Community Mental Health Projects $ 4,061,100 $ 250,000 80864
1510 336601 Office of Support Services $ 129,770,770 $ 129,779,822 127,297,130 80865
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 163,515,060 $ 159,713,012 157,230,320 80866

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group80867

3240 333605 Medicaid/Medicare $ 154,500 $ 154,500 80868
3A60 333608 Federal Miscellaneous $ 140,000 $ 140,000 80869
3A70 333612 Social Services Block Grant $ 50,000 $ 50,000 80870
3A80 333613 Federal Grant - Administration $ 4,717,000 $ 4,717,000 80871
3A90 333614 Mental Health Block Grant - Administration $ 748,470 $ 748,470 80872
3B10 333635 Community Medicaid Expansion $ 13,691,682 $ 13,691,682 80873
3240 334605 Medicaid/Medicare $ 28,200,000 $ 28,200,000 80874
3A60 334608 Federal Miscellaneous $ 200,000 $ 200,000 80875
3A80 334613 Federal Letter of Credit $ 200,000 $ 200,000 80876
3A60 335608 Federal Miscellaneous $ 2,170,000 $ 2,170,000 80877
3A70 335612 Social Services Block Grant $ 8,400,000 $ 8,400,000 80878
3A80 335613 Federal Grant - Community Mental Health Board Subsidy $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 80879
3A90 335614 Mental Health Block Grant $ 14,200,000 $ 14,200,000 80880
3B10 335635 Community Medicaid Expansion $ 346,200,000 $ 0 80881
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 421,571,652 $ 75,371,652 80882

State Special Revenue Fund Group80883

2320 333621 Family and Children First Administration $ 448,286 $ 432,197 80884
4850 333632 Mental Health Operating $ 134,233 $ 134,233 80885
4X50 333607 Behavioral Health Medicaid Services $ 3,000,624 $ 3,000,624 80886
5V20 333611 Non-Federal Miscellaneous $ 100,000 $ 100,000 80887
4850 334632 Mental Health Operating $ 2,477,500 $ 2,477,500 80888
5AU0 335615 Behavioral Healthcare $ 6,690,000 $ 6,690,000 80889
6320 335616 Community Capital Replacement $ 350,000 $ 350,000 80890
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 13,200,643 $ 13,184,554 80891
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,084,203,266 $ 555,555,553 552,872,861 80892


       Sec. 343.10. DNR DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES80894

General Revenue Fund80895

GRF 725401 Wildlife-GRF Central Support $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 80896
GRF 725413 Lease Rental Payments $ 20,568,600 $ 19,734,700 80897
GRF 725456 Canal Lands $ 135,000 $ 135,000 80898
GRF 725502 Soil and Water Districts $ 2,900,000 $ 2,900,000 80899
GRF 725505 Healthy Lake Erie Fund $ 0 $ 3,000,000 80900
GRF 725903 Natural Resources General Obligation Debt Service $ 5,375,300 $ 25,209,100 80901
GRF 727321 Division of Forestry $ 4,878,338 $ 4,880,000 80902
GRF 729321 Office of Information Technology $ 194,118 $ 197,117 80903
GRF 730321 Division of Parks and Recreation $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 80904
GRF 736321 Division of Engineering $ 3,024,459 $ 3,025,078 2,995,078 80905
GRF 737321 Division of Soil and Water Resources $ 4,982,961 $ 4,983,356 80906
GRF 741321 Division of Natural Areas and Preserves $ 1,200,000 $ 1,200,000 80907
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 75,058,776 $ 94,064,351 97,034,351 80908

General Services Fund Group80909

1550 725601 Departmental Projects $ 3,365,651 $ 2,725,484 2,512,977 80910
1570 725651 Central Support Indirect $ 5,854,167 $ 5,857,800 80911
2040 725687 Information Services $ 4,659,276 $ 4,643,835 80912
2070 725690 Real Estate Services $ 50,000 $ 50,000 80913
2230 725665 Law Enforcement Administration $ 2,106,776 $ 2,126,432 80914
2270 725406 Parks Projects Personnel $ 436,500 $ 436,500 80915
4300 725671 Canal Lands $ 907,618 $ 907,879 883,879 80916
4D50 725618 Recycled Materials $ 50,000 $ 50,000 0 80917
4S90 725622 NatureWorks Personnel $ 400,358 $ 400,358 80918
4X80 725662 Water Resources Council $ 138,011 $ 138,005 80919
5100 725631 Maintenance - State-owned Residences $ 303,611 $ 303,611 80920
5160 725620 Water Management $ 2,541,565 $ 2,559,292 80921
6350 725664 Fountain Square Facilities Management $ 3,544,623 $ 3,548,445 3,473,413 80922
6970 725670 Submerged Lands $ 836,162 $ 848,546 80923
TOTAL GSF General Services 80924
Fund Group $ 25,194,318 $ 24,596,187 24,234,648 80925

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group80926

3320 725669 Federal Mine Safety Grant $ 258,102 $ 258,102 80927
3B30 725640 Federal Forest Pass-Thru $ 600,000 $ 600,000 80928
3B40 725641 Federal Flood Pass-Thru $ 600,000 $ 600,000 80929
3B50 725645 Federal Abandoned Mine Lands $ 21,007,667 $ 21,207,667 80930
3B60 725653 Federal Land and Water Conservation Grants $ 1,150,000 $ 1,150,000 80931
3B70 725654 Reclamation - Regulatory $ 3,200,000 $ 3,200,000 80932
3P10 725632 Geological Survey - Federal $ 692,401 $ 692,401 80933
3P20 725642 Oil and Gas-Federal $ 234,509 $ 234,509 80934
3P30 725650 Coastal Management - Federal $ 3,290,633 $ 3,290,633 80935
3P40 725660 Federal - Soil and Water Resources $ 1,213,048 $ 1,209,957 80936
3R50 725673 Acid Mine Drainage Abatement/Treatment $ 2,025,001 $ 2,025,001 80937
3Z50 725657 Federal Recreation and Trails $ 1,850,000 $ 1,850,000 80938
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 80939
Fund Group $ 36,121,361 $ 36,318,270 80940

State Special Revenue Fund Group80941

4J20 725628 Injection Well Review $ 130,899 $ 128,466 80942
4M70 725686 Wildfire Suppression $ 100,000 $ 100,000 80943
4U60 725668 Scenic Rivers Protection $ 100,000 $ 100,000 80944
5090 725602 State Forest $ 7,891,747 $ 7,058,793 80945
5110 725646 Ohio Geological Mapping $ 704,777 $ 705,130 80946
5120 725605 State Parks Operations $ 32,284,117 $ 31,550,444 80947
5140 725606 Lake Erie Shoreline $ 1,502,654 $ 1,505,983 80948
5180 725643 Oil and Gas Permit Fees $ 5,821,970 $ 5,623,645 9,823,645 80949
5180 725677 Oil and Gas Well Plugging $ 800,000 $ 800,000 80950
5210 725627 Off-Road Vehicle Trails $ 143,490 $ 143,490 80951
5220 725656 Natural Areas and Preserves $ 546,580 $ 546,639 80952
5260 725610 Strip Mining Administration Fee $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 80953
5270 725637 Surface Mining Administration $ 1,940,977 $ 1,941,532 80954
5290 725639 Unreclaimed Land Fund $ 2,004,180 $ 2,004,180 80955
5310 725648 Reclamation Forfeiture $ 1,423,000 $ 1,423,000 500,000 80956
5320 725644 Litter Control and Recycling $ 4,926,730 $ 4,911,575 0 80957
5860 725633 Scrap Tire Program $ 1,497,645 $ 1,497,645 0 80958
5B30 725674 Mining Regulation $ 28,135 $ 28,135 80959
5BV0 725658 Heidelberg Water Quality Lab $ 250,000 $ 250,000 80960
5BV0 725683 Soil and Water Districts $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 80961
5CU0 725647 Mine Safety $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 80962
5EJ0 725608 Forestry Law Enforcement $ 1,000 $ 1,000 80963
5EK0 725611 Natural Areas & Preserves Law Enforcement $ 1,000 $ 1,000 80964
5EL0 725612 Wildlife Law Enforcement $ 12,000 $ 12,000 80965
5EM0 725613 Park Law Enforcement $ 34,000 $ 34,000 80966
5EN0 725614 Watercraft Law Enforcement $ 2,500 $ 2,500 80967
5HK0 725625 Ohio Nature Preserves $ 1,000 $ 1,000 80968
6150 725661 Dam Safety $ 925,344 $ 926,028 80969
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 80970
Fund Group $ 76,073,745 $ 74,296,185 71,163,965 80971

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group80972

7061 725405 Clean Ohio Operating $ 300,775 $ 300,775 80973
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 300,775 $ 300,775 80974

Wildlife Fund Group80975

5P20 725634 Wildlife Boater Angler Administration $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 80976
7015 740401 Division of Wildlife Conservation $ 52,721,044 $ 51,669,158 80977
8150 725636 Cooperative Management Projects $ 120,449 $ 120,449 80978
8160 725649 Wetlands Habitat $ 966,885 $ 966,885 80979
8170 725655 Wildlife Conservation Checkoff Fund $ 3,240,000 $ 3,240,000 80980
8180 725629 Cooperative Fisheries Research $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 80981
8190 725685 Ohio River Management $ 128,584 $ 128,584 80982
TOTAL WLF Wildlife Fund Group $ 62,676,962 $ 61,625,076 80983

Waterways Safety Fund Group80984

7086 725414 Waterways Improvement $ 5,692,601 $ 5,693,671 80985
7086 725418 Buoy Placement $ 52,182 $ 52,182 80986
7086 725501 Waterway Safety Grants $ 120,000 $ 120,000 80987
7086 725506 Watercraft Marine Patrol $ 576,153 $ 576,153 80988
7086 725513 Watercraft Educational Grants $ 366,643 $ 366,643 80989
7086 739401 Division of Watercraft $ 18,040,593 $ 17,552,370 80990
TOTAL WSF Waterways Safety Fund 80991
Group $ 24,848,172 $ 24,361,019 80992

Accrued Leave Liability Fund Group80993

4M80 725675 FOP Contract $ 20,219 $ 20,219 80994
TOTAL ALF Accrued Leave 80995
Liability Fund Group $ 20,219 $ 20,219 80996

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group80997

R017 725659 Performance Cash Bond Refunds $ 296,263 $ 296,263 80998
R043 725624 Forestry $ 2,000,000 $ 2,154,750 80999
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 81000
Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,296,263 $ 2,451,013 81001
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 302,590,591 $ 318,033,095 317,509,336 81002


       Sec. 343.40.  LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS81004

       The foregoing appropriation item 725413, Lease Rental 81005
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 81006
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2011, through 81007
June 30, 2013, by the Department of Natural Resources pursuant to 81008
leases and agreements made under section 154.22 of the Revised 81009
Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged for 81010
bond service charges or obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 81011
154. of the Revised Code.81012

       CANAL LANDS81013

        The foregoing appropriation item 725456, Canal Lands, shall 81014
be used to transfer funds to the Canal Lands Fund (Fund 4300) to 81015
provide operating expenses for the State Canal Lands Program. The 81016
transfer shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher and 81017
shall be subject to the approval of the Director of Budget and 81018
Management.81019

       HEALTHY LAKE ERIE FUND81020

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 725505, Healthy Lake Erie 81021
Fund, up to $3,000,000 shall be used by the Director of Natural 81022
Resources, in consultation with the Director of Agriculture and 81023
the Director of Environmental Protection, to implement 81024
nonstatutory recommendations of the Agriculture Nutrients and 81025
Water Quality Working Group. The Director shall give priority to 81026
recommendations that encourage farmers to adopt agricultural 81027
production guidelines commonly known as 4R nutrient stewardship 81028
practices. Funds may also be used for enhanced soil testing in the 81029
Western Lake Erie Basin, monitoring the quality of Lake Erie and 81030
its tributaries, and conducting research and establishing pilot 81031
projects that have the goal of reducing algae blooms in Lake Erie.81032

       NATURAL RESOURCES GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE81033

       The foregoing appropriation item 725903, Natural Resources 81034
General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt 81035
service and related financing costs during the period July 1, 81036
2011, through June 30, 2013, on obligations issued under sections 81037
151.01 and 151.05 of the Revised Code.81038

       Sec. 365.10. PUC PUBLIC UTILITIES COMMISSION OF OHIO81039

General Services Fund Group81040

5F60 870622 Utility and Railroad Regulation $ 30,637,234 $ 31,638,708 81041
5F60 870624 NARUC/NRRI Subsidy $ 158,000 $ 158,000 100,000 81042
5F60 870625 Motor Transportation Regulation $ 4,976,641 $ 5,971,218 0 81043
5Q50 870626 Telecommunications Relay Service $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 81044
TOTAL GSF General Services 81045
Fund Group $ 40,771,875 $ 42,767,926 36,738,708 81046

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group81047

3330 870601 Gas Pipeline Safety $ 597,959 $ 597,959 81048
3500 870608 Motor Carrier Safety $ 7,351,660 $ 7,351,660 81049
3CU0 870627 Electric Market Modeling $ 91,183 $ 0 81050
3EA0 870630 Energy Assurance Planning $ 384,000 $ 384,000 81051
3ED0 870631 State Regulators Assistance $ 231,824 $ 231,824 81052
3V30 870604 Commercial Vehicle Information Systems/Networks $ 100,000 $ 100,000 81053
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 81054
Fund Group $ 8,756,626 $ 8,665,443 81055

State Special Revenue Fund Group81056

4A30 870614 Grade Crossing Protection Devices-State $ 1,347,357 $ 1,347,357 81057
4L80 870617 Pipeline Safety-State $ 181,992 $ 181,992 81058
4S60 870618 Hazardous Material Registration $ 450,395 $ 450,395 0 81059
4S60 870621 Hazardous Materials Base State Registration $ 373,346 $ 373,346 0 81060
4U80 870620 Civil Forfeitures $ 277,347 $ 277,496 0 81061
5590 870605 Public Utilities Territorial Administration $ 3,880 $ 3,880 0 81062
5600 870607 Special Assessment $ 97,000 $ 97,000 0 81063
5610 870606 Power Siting Board $ 631,508 $ 631,618 581,618 81064
5BP0 870623 Wireless 9-1-1 Administration $ 36,440,000 $ 18,220,000 17,757,250 81065
5HD0 870629 Radioactive Waste Transportation $ 98,800 $ 98,800 0 81066
5LT0 870640 Intrastate Registration $ 0 $ 180,000 81067
5LT0 870641 Unified Carrier Registration $ 0 $ 420,000 81068
5LT0 870642 Hazardous Materials Registration $ 0 $ 823,741 81069
5LT0 870643 Nonhazardous Materials Civil Forfeiture $ 0 $ 277,496 81070
5LT0 870644 Hazardous Materials Civil Forfeiture $ 0 $ 898,800 81071
5LT0 870645 Motor Carrier Enforcement $ 0 $ 5,401,318 81072
6380 870611 Biofuels/Municipal Waste Technology $ 570 $ 0 81073
6610 870612 Hazardous Materials Transportation $ 898,800 $ 898,800 0 81074
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 81075
Fund Group $ 40,800,995 $ 22,580,684 27,869,572 81076
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 90,329,496 $ 74,014,053 73,273,723 81077

        COMMUNITY-VOICEMAIL SERVICE PILOT PROGRAM81078

       The Community-voicemail Service Pilot Program assessments 81079
authorized by Section 6 of Sub. S.B. 162 of the 128th General 81080
Assembly shall cease. These assessments shall be refunded without 81081
interest to those assessed under the program by the Public 81082
Utilities Commission within 60 days of the effective date of this 81083
section.81084

       FUND ADJUSTMENTS81085

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as practicable thereafter, the 81086
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balances 81087
in the Hazardous Materials Registration Fund (Fund 4S60) and the 81088
Base State Registration Fund (Fund 4G40) to the Public Utilities 81089
Transportation Safety Fund (Fund 5LT0). The Director shall cancel 81090
any existing encumbrances against appropriation items 870618, 81091
Hazardous Material Registration, and 870621, Hazardous Materials 81092
Base State Registration, and reestablish them against 81093
appropriation item 870642, Hazardous Materials Registration. The 81094
amounts of the reestablished encumbrances are hereby appropriated. 81095
Upon completion of these transfers, the Hazardous Materials 81096
Registration Fund (Fund 4S60) and the Base State Registration Fund 81097
(Fund 4G40) are hereby abolished.81098

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as practicable thereafter, the 81099
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 81100
in the Transportation Enforcement Fund (Fund 4U80) to the Public 81101
Utilities Transportation Safety Fund (Fund 5LT0). The Director 81102
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 81103
870620, Civil Forfeitures, and reestablish them against 81104
appropriation item 870643, Nonhazardous Materials Civil 81105
Forfeitures. The amounts of the reestablished encumbrances are 81106
hereby appropriated. Upon completion of these transfers, the 81107
Transportation Enforcement Fund (Fund 4U80) is hereby abolished.81108

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as practicable thereafter, the 81109
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 81110
in the Radioactive Waste Transportation Fund (Fund 5HD0) to the 81111
Public Utilities Transportation Safety Fund (Fund 5LT0). The 81112
Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 81113
appropriation item 870629, Radioactive Waste Transportation, and 81114
reestablish them against appropriation item 870645, Motor Carrier 81115
Enforcement. The amounts of the reestablished encumbrances are 81116
hereby appropriated. Upon completion of these transfers, the 81117
Radioactive Waste Transportation Fund (Fund 5HD0) is hereby 81118
abolished.81119

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as practicable thereafter, the 81120
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 81121
in the Hazardous Materials Transportation Fund (Fund 6610) to the 81122
Public Utilities Transportation Safety Fund (Fund 5LT0). The 81123
Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 81124
appropriation item 870612, Hazardous Materials Transportation, and 81125
reestablish them against appropriation item 870644, Hazardous 81126
Materials Civil Forfeitures. The amounts of the reestablished 81127
encumbrances are hereby appropriated. Upon completion of these 81128
transfers, the Hazardous Materials Transportation Fund (Fund 6610) 81129
is hereby abolished.81130

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as practicable thereafter, the 81131
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer cash in an amount 81132
up to $21,000,000 from the Public Utilities Fund (Fund 5F60) to 81133
the Public Utilities Transportation Safety Fund (Fund 5LT0). The 81134
Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 81135
appropriation item 870625, Motor Transportation Regulation, and 81136
reestablish encumbrances or parts of encumbrances as needed in the 81137
fiscal year in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the 81138
same purpose and to the same vendor. The amounts of the 81139
reestablished encumbrances are hereby appropriated.81140

       The fund created by division (E) of section 4921.21 of the 81141
Revised Code is the same fund, with the same name, as the Motor 81142
Carrier Safety Fund (Fund 3500).81143

       The fund created by division (D) of section 4921.21 of the 81144
Revised Code is the same fund, with the same name, as the 81145
Commercial Vehicle Transportation Systems Fund (Fund 3V30).81146

       Sec. 367.10. PWC PUBLIC WORKS COMMISSION81147

General Revenue Fund81148

GRF 150904 Conservation General Obligation Debt Service $ 21,953,000 $ 29,297,300 81149
GRF 150907 State Capital Improvements $ 106,770,600 $ 215,571,100 208,571,100 81150
General Obligation Debt Service 81151
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 128,723,600 $ 244,868,400 237,868,400 81152

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group81153

7056 150403 Clean Ohio Operating Expenses $ 300,000 $ 288,980 81154
TOTAL 056 Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 300,000 $ 288,980 81155

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 129,023,600 $ 245,157,380 238,157,380 81156

       CONSERVATION GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE81157

       The foregoing appropriation item 150904, Conservation General 81158
Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt service and 81159
related financing costs during the period from July 1, 2011, 81160
through June 30, 2013, at the times they are required to be made 81161
for obligations issued under sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the 81162
Revised Code.81163

       STATE CAPITAL IMPROVEMENTS GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE81164

       The foregoing appropriation item 150907, State Capital 81165
Improvements General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay 81166
all debt service and related financing costs during the period 81167
from July 1, 2011, through June 30, 2013, at the times they are 81168
required to be made for obligations issued under sections 151.01 81169
and 151.08 of the Revised Code.81170

       CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES81171

       The foregoing appropriation item 150403, Clean Ohio Operating 81172
Expenses, shall be used by the Ohio Public Works Commission in 81173
administering Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) projects 81174
pursuant to sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code.81175

       REIMBURSEMENT TO THE GENERAL REVENUE FUND81176

        (A) On or before July 15, 2013, the Director of the Public 81177
Works Commission shall certify to the Director of Budget and 81178
Management the following:81179

        (1) The total amount disbursed from appropriation item 81180
700409, Farmland Preservation, during the FY 2012-FY 2013 81181
biennium; and81182

        (2) The amount of interest earnings that have been credited 81183
to the Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) that are in excess 81184
of the amount needed for other purposes as calculated by the 81185
Director of the Public Works Commission.81186

        (B) If the Director of Budget and Management determines under 81187
division (A)(2) of this section that there are excess interest 81188
earnings, the Director of Budget and Management shall, on or 81189
before July 15, 2013, transfer the excess interest earnings to the 81190
General Revenue Fund in an amount equal to the total amount 81191
disbursed under division (A)(1) of this section from the Clean 81192
Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056).81193

       Sec. 369.10. RAC STATE RACING COMMISSION81194

State Special Revenue Fund Group81195

5620 875601 Thoroughbred Race Fund $ 1,796,328 $ 1,696,456 81196
5630 875602 Standardbred Development Fund $ 1,697,418 $ 1,697,452 81197
5640 875603 Quarter Horse Development Fund $ 1,000 $ 1,000 81198
5650 875604 Racing Commission Operating $ 3,095,331 $ 2,934,178 81199
5C40 875607 Simulcast Horse Racing Purse $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 81200
5JK0 875610 Racing Commission Fund $ 339,919 $ 8,169,547 81201
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 81202
Fund Group $ 18,590,078 18,929,996 $ 18,329,087 26,498,633 81203

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group81204

R021 875605 Bond Reimbursements $ 100,000 $ 100,000 81205
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution 81206
Fund Group $ 100,000 $ 100,000 81207
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 18,690,078 19,029,996 $ 18,429,087 26,598,633 81208


       Sec. 371.10. BOR BOARD OF REGENTS81210

General Revenue Fund81211

GRF 235321 Operating Expenses $ 2,300,000 $ 2,300,000 81212
GRF 235401 Lease Rental Payments $ 83,151,600 $ 57,634,400 81213
GRF 235402 Sea Grants $ 285,000 $ 285,000 81214
GRF 235406 Articulation and Transfer $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 81215
GRF 235408 Midwest Higher Education Compact $ 95,000 $ 95,000 81216
GRF 235409 HEI Information System $ 800,000 $ 800,000 81217
GRF 235414 State Grants and Scholarship Administration $ 1,230,000 $ 1,230,000 81218
GRF 235417 Ohio Learning Network eStudent Services $ 2,532,688 $ 2,532,688 81219
GRF 235428 Appalachian New Economy Partnership $ 737,366 $ 737,366 81220
GRF 235433 Economic Growth Challenge $ 440,000 $ 440,000 81221
GRF 235438 Choose Ohio First Scholarship $ 15,750,085 $ 15,750,085 81222
GRF 235443 Adult Basic and Literacy Education - State $ 7,302,416 $ 7,302,416 81223
GRF 235444 Post-Secondary Adult Career-Technical Education $ 15,317,547 $ 15,317,547 81224
GRF 235474 Area Health Education Centers Program Support $ 900,000 $ 900,000 81225
GRF 235501 State Share of Instruction $ 1,735,530,031 $ 1,751,225,497 81226
GRF 235502 Student Support Services $ 632,974 $ 632,974 81227
GRF 235504 War Orphans Scholarships $ 4,787,833 $ 4,787,833 81228
GRF 235507 OhioLINK $ 6,100,000 $ 6,100,000 81229
GRF 235508 Air Force Institute of Technology $ 1,740,803 $ 1,740,803 81230
GRF 235510 Ohio Supercomputer Center $ 3,347,418 $ 3,347,418 81231
GRF 235511 Cooperative Extension Service $ 22,220,910 $ 22,220,910 81232
GRF 235514 Central State Supplement $ 11,503,651 $ 10,928,468 81233
GRF 235515 Case Western Reserve University School of Medicine $ 2,146,253 $ 2,146,253 81234
GRF 235519 Family Practice $ 3,166,185 $ 3,166,185 81235
GRF 235520 Shawnee State Supplement $ 2,448,523 $ 2,326,097 81236
GRF 235524 Police and Fire Protection $ 107,814 $ 107,814 81237
GRF 235525 Geriatric Medicine $ 522,151 $ 522,151 81238
GRF 235526 Primary Care Residencies $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 81239
GRF 235535 Ohio Agricultural Research and Development Center $ 33,100,000 $ 33,100,000 81240
GRF 235536 The Ohio State University Clinical Teaching $ 9,668,941 $ 9,668,941 81241
GRF 235537 University of Cincinnati Clinical Teaching $ 7,952,573 $ 7,952,573 81242
GRF 235538 University of Toledo Clinical Teaching $ 6,198,600 $ 6,198,600 81243
GRF 235539 Wright State University Clinical Teaching $ 3,011,400 $ 3,011,400 81244
GRF 235540 Ohio University Clinical Teaching $ 2,911,212 $ 2,911,212 81245
GRF 235541 Northeast Ohio Medical University Clinical Teaching $ 2,994,178 $ 2,994,178 81246
GRF 235552 Capital Component $ 20,638,274 $ 20,638,274 13,628,639 81247
GRF 235555 Library Depositories $ 1,440,342 $ 1,440,342 81248
GRF 235556 Ohio Academic Resources Network $ 3,172,519 $ 3,172,519 81249
GRF 235558 Long-term Care Research $ 195,300 $ 195,300 81250
GRF 235563 Ohio College Opportunity Grant $ 80,284,265 $ 80,284,265 81251
GRF 235572 The Ohio State University Clinic Support $ 766,533 $ 766,533 81252
GRF 235599 National Guard Scholarship Program $ 16,912,271 $ 18,143,293 81253
GRF 235909 Higher Education General Obligation Debt Service $ 108,262,500 $ 201,555,000 81254
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,226,105,156 $ 2,310,109,335 2,303,099,700 81255

General Services Fund Group81256

2200 235614 Program Approval and Reauthorization $ 1,311,567 $ 1,457,959 81257
4560 235603 Sales and Services $ 199,250 $ 199,250 81258
5JC0 235649 Co-op Internship Program $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 81259
5JC0 235667 Ohio College Opportunity Grant-Proprietary $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 81260
5JC0 235668 Air Force Institute of Technology - Defense/Aerospace Graduate Studies Institute $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 81261
TOTAL GSF General Services 81262
Fund Group $ 23,510,817 $ 23,657,209 81263

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group81264

3120 235609 Tech Prep $ 183,850 $ 183,850 0 81265
3120 235611 Gear-up Grant $ 3,900,000 $ 3,900,000 50,000 81266
3120 235612 Carl D. Perkins Grant/Plan Administration $ 912,961 $ 912,961 81267
3120 235617 Improving Teacher Quality Grant $ 3,200,000 $ 3,200,000 81268
3120 235641 Adult Basic and Literacy Education - Federal $ 14,835,671 $ 14,835,671 81269
3120 235659 Race to the Top Scholarship Program $ 2,400,000 $ 3,780,000 0 81270
3120 235660 Race to the Top Educator Preparation Reform Initiative $ 448,000 $ 1,120,000 0 81271
3120 235661 Americorps Grant $ 260,000 $ 260,000 0 81272
3H20 235608 Human Services Project $ 3,500,000 $ 3,500,000 81273
3N60 235638 College Access Challenge Grant $ 4,381,431 $ 4,381,431 81274
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 81275
Fund Group $ 34,021,913 $ 36,073,913 26,880,063 81276

State Special Revenue Fund Group81277

4E80 235602 Higher Educational Facility Commission Administration $ 29,100 $ 29,100 81278
5FR0 235640 Joyce Foundation Shifting Gears Grant $ 919,719 $ 919,719 81279
5FR0 235647 Developmental Education Initiatives $ 135,000 $ 135,000 81280
5FR0 235657 Win-Win Grant $ 37,000 $ 15,000 81281
5P30 235663 Variable Savings Plan $ 8,946,994 $ 9,072,136 81282
6450 235664 Guaranteed Savings Plan $ 900,293 $ 907,514 81283
6820 235606 Nursing Loan Program $ 891,320 $ 891,320 81284
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 81285
Fund Group $ 11,859,426 $ 11,969,789 81286

Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group81287

7011 235634 Research Incentive Third Frontier Fund $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 81288
TOTAL 011 Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 81289
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,303,497,312 $ 2,389,810,246 2,373,606,761 81290


       Sec. 371.50.61. CO-OP INTERNSHIP PROGRAM81292

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 81293
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 81294
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 81295
Ohio University's Voinovich School.81296

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 81297
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year, shall be used by the 81298
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 81299
The Ohio State University's John Glenn School of Public Affairs.81300

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 81301
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 81302
Bliss Institute of Applied Politics at the University of Akron.81303

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 81304
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 81305
Center for Public Management and Regional Affairs at Miami 81306
University.81307

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 81308
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 81309
Washington Center Internship Program.81310

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 81311
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 81312
Maxine Goodman Levin College of Urban Affairsmentoring program of 81313
the Ohio Center for the Advancement of Women in Public Service at 81314
the Cleveland State University.81315

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 81316
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 81317
University of Cincinnati Internship Program.81318

       Sec. 371.60.80. (A) The Ohio Digital Learning Task Force is 81319
hereby established to develop a strategy for the expansion of 81320
digital learning that enables students to customize their 81321
education, produces cost savings, and meets the needs of Ohio's 81322
economy. The Task Force shall consist of the following members:81323

       (1) The Chancellor of the Ohio Board of Regents or the 81324
Chancellor's designee;81325

       (2) The Superintendent of Public Instruction or the 81326
Superintendent's designee;81327

       (3) The Director of the Governor's Office of 21st Century 81328
Education or the Director's designee;81329

       (4) Up to six members appointed by the Governor, who shall be 81330
representatives of school districts or community schools, 81331
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, that are 81332
high-performing of their type and have demonstrated the ability to 81333
incorporate technology into the classroom successfully; 81334

       (5) A member appointed by the President of the Senate;81335

       (6) A member appointed by the Speaker of the House of 81336
Representatives.81337

       (B) Members of the Task Force shall be appointed not later 81338
than sixty days after the effective date of this section. 81339
Vacancies on the Task Force shall be filled in the same manner as 81340
the original appointments. Members shall serve without 81341
compensation.81342

       (C) The Governor shall designate the chairperson of the Task 81343
Force. All meetings of the Task Force shall be held at the call of 81344
the chairperson.81345

       (D) The Task Force shall do all of the following:81346

       (1) Request information from textbook publishers about the 81347
development of digital textbooks and other new digital content 81348
distribution methods for use by primary, secondary, and 81349
post-secondary schools and institutions and examine that 81350
information;81351

       (2) Examine potential cost savings and efficiency of 81352
utilizing digital textbooks and other new digital content 81353
distribution methods in primary, secondary, and post-secondary 81354
schools and institutions;81355

       (3) Examine potential academic benefits of utilizing digital 81356
textbooks and other new digital content distribution methods, 81357
including, but not limited to, the ability to individualize 81358
content to specific student learning styles, accessibility for 81359
individuals with disabilities, and the integration of formative 81360
and other online assessments;81361

        (4) Examine digital content pilot programs and initiatives 81362
currently operating at primary, secondary, and post-secondary 81363
schools and institutions in Ohio, including, but not limited to, 81364
those financed in part with federal funds; 81365

       (5) Examine any state-level initiatives to provide or 81366
facilitate use of digital content in primary, secondary, and 81367
post-secondary schools and institutions in Ohio.81368

        (E) The Task Force shall make recommendations regarding all 81369
of the following:81370

       (1) The creation of high quality digital content and 81371
instruction in grades kindergarten to twelve for free access by 81372
public and nonpublic schools and students receiving home 81373
instruction;81374

       (2) High quality professional development for teachers and 81375
principals providing online instruction or blended learning 81376
programs;81377

       (3) Funding strategies that create incentives for high 81378
performance, innovation, and options in course providers and 81379
delivery;81380

       (4) Student assessment and accountability;81381

       (5) Infrastructure to support digital learning;81382

       (6) Mobile learning and mobile learning applications;81383

       (7) The clearinghouse established under section 3333.82 of 81384
the Revised Code;81385

       (8) Ways to align the resources and digital learning 81386
initiatives of state agencies and offices;81387

       (9) Methods for removing redundancy and inefficiency in, and 81388
for providing coordination, of all digital learning programs, 81389
including the provision of free online instruction to public and 81390
nonpublic schools on a statewide basis;81391

       (10) Methods of addressing future changes in technology and 81392
learning.81393

       (E)(F) Not later than March 1, 2012, the Task Force shall 81394
issue a report of its findings and recommendations to the 81395
Governor, the President of the Senate, and the Speaker of the 81396
House of Representatives. Upon issuance ofAfter issuing its 81397
report, the Task Force shall monitor the implementation of its 81398
recommendations. Not later than June 30, 2013, the Task Force 81399
shall report to the Governor, the President of the Senate, and the 81400
Speaker of the House of Representatives whether digital learning 81401
is advancing in Ohio schools and submit any recommendations to 81402
further enhance the full deployment of useful digital learning 81403
programs and services. The Task Force shall cease to exist on June 81404
30, 2013.81405

       Sec. 373.10. DRC DEPARTMENT OF REHABILITATION AND CORRECTION81406

General Revenue Fund 81407
GRF 501321 Institutional Operations $ 909,547,156 $ 866,592,589 81408
GRF 501403 Prisoner Compensation $ 8,599,255 $ 8,599,255 81409
GRF 501405 Halfway House $ 43,637,069 $ 43,622,104 81410
GRF 501406 Lease Rental Payments $ 42,863,100 $ 104,301,500 81411
GRF 501407 Community Nonresidential Programs $ 25,859,382 $ 25,839,390 81412
GRF 501408 Community Misdemeanor Programs $ 14,906,800 $ 14,906,800 81413
GRF 501501 Community Residential Programs - CBCF $ 62,692,785 $ 62,477,785 81414
GRF 502321 Mental Health Services $ 58,525,816 $ 51,778,513 81415
GRF 503321 Parole and Community Operations $ 68,197,272 $ 63,783,848 81416
GRF 504321 Administrative Operations $ 21,996,504 $ 20,085,474 81417
GRF 505321 Institution Medical Services $ 209,231,014 $ 195,241,961 81418
GRF 506321 Institution Education Services $ 20,237,576 $ 18,086,492 81419
GRF 507321 Institution Recovery Services $ 5,786,109 $ 5,375,737 81420
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,492,079,838 $ 1,480,691,448 81421

General Services Fund Group81422

1480 501602 Services and Agricultural Institutional Services $ 3,579,250 $ 3,584,263 81423
2000 501607 Ohio Penal Industries $ 38,000,000 $ 38,000,000 81424
4830 501605 Property Receipts $ 182,723 $ 182,086 81425
4B00 501601 Sewer Treatment Services $ 2,145,630 $ 2,157,682 2,057,682 81426
4D40 501603 Prisoner Programs $ 14,900,000 $ 14,900,000 81427
4L40 501604 Transitional Control $ 1,168,843 $ 1,213,120 1,113,120 81428
4S50 501608 Education Services $ 2,376,041 $ 2,359,775 81429
5710 501606 Training Academy Receipts $ 125,000 $ 125,000 81430
5930 501618 Laboratory Services $ 6,665,137 $ 6,664,729 81431
5AF0 501609 State and Non-Federal Awards $ 1,440,000 $ 1,440,000 81432
5H80 501617 Offender Financial Responsibility $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 81433
5L60 501611 Information Technology Services $ 600,000 $ 600,000 350,000 81434
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 73,182,624 $ 73,226,655 72,776,655 81435

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group81436

3230 501619 Federal Grants $ 9,013,558 $ 9,180,703 81437
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 81438
Fund Group $ 9,013,558 $ 9,180,703 81439

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,574,276,020 $ 1,563,098,806 1,562,648,806 81440

       TRANSFER OF OPERATING APPROPRIATIONS TO IMPLEMENT CRIMINAL 81441
SENTENCING REFORMS81442

       For the purposes of implementing criminal sentencing reforms, 81443
and notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 81444
the Director of Budget and Management, at the request of the 81445
Director of Rehabilitation and Correction, may transfer up to 81446
$14,000,000 in appropriations, in each of fiscal years 2012 and 81447
2013, from appropriation item 501321, Institutional Operations, to 81448
any combination of appropriation items 501405, Halfway House; 81449
501407, Community Residential Programs; 501408, Community 81450
Misdemeanor Programs; and 501501, Community Residential Programs - 81451
CBCF.81452

       OHIO BUILDING AUTHORITY LEASE PAYMENTS81453

       The foregoing appropriation item 501406, Lease Rental 81454
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 81455
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2011, through 81456
June 30, 2013, by the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction 81457
to the Ohio Building Authority under the primary leases and 81458
agreements for those buildings made under Chapter 152. of the 81459
Revised Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged 81460
for bond service charges or obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 81461
152. of the Revised Code.81462

        OSU MEDICAL CHARGES81463

        Notwithstanding section 341.192 of the Revised Code, at the 81464
request of the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction, The 81465
Ohio State University Medical Center, including the James Cancer 81466
Hospital and Solove Research Institute and the Richard M. Ross 81467
Heart Hospital, shall provide necessary care to persons who are 81468
confined in state adult correctional facilities. The provision of 81469
necessary care shall be billed to the Department at a rate not to 81470
exceed the authorized reimbursement rate for the same service 81471
established by the Department of Job and Family Services under the 81472
Medical Assistance Program.81473

       CASH TRANSFER FROM INSTITUTIONAL SERVICES FUND TO OHIO PENAL 81474
INDUSTRIES FUND81475

       The Director of Budget and Management may transfer an amount 81476
not to exceed $4,000,000 in cash in fiscal year 2013 from the 81477
Institutional Services Fund (Fund 1480) to the Ohio Penal 81478
Industries Fund (Fund 2000).81479

       Sec. 375.10. RSC REHABILITATION SERVICES COMMISSION81480

General Revenue Fund81481

GRF 415402 Independent Living Council $ 252,000 $ 252,000 81482
GRF 415406 Assistive Technology $ 26,618 $ 26,618 81483
GRF 415431 Office for People with Brain Injury $ 126,567 $ 126,567 81484
GRF 415506 Services for People with Disabilities $ 12,777,884 $ 12,777,884 81485
GRF 415508 Services for the Deaf $ 28,000 $ 28,000 81486
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 13,211,069 $ 13,211,069 81487

General Services Fund Group81488

4670 415609 Business Enterprise Operating Expenses $ 1,308,431 $ 1,303,090 81489
TOTAL GSF General Services 81490
Fund Group $ 1,308,431 $ 1,303,090 81491

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group81492

3170 415620 Disability Determination $ 97,579,095 $ 97,579,095 87,579,095 81493
3790 415616 Federal - Vocational Rehabilitation $ 103,160,426 $ 103,150,102 81494
3L10 415601 Social Security Personal Care Assistance $ 3,370,000 $ 3,370,000 81495
3L10 415605 Social Security Community Centers for the Deaf $ 772,000 $ 772,000 81496
3L10 415608 Social Security Special Programs/Assistance $ 1,521,406 $ 1,520,184 81497
3L40 415612 Federal Independent Living Centers or Services $ 652,222 $ 652,222 81498
3L40 415615 Federal - Supported Employment $ 929,755 $ 929,755 81499
3L40 415617 Independent Living/Vocational Rehabilitation Programs $ 2,137,338 $ 2,137,338 81500
TOTAL FED Federal Special 81501
Revenue Fund Group $ 210,122,242 $ 210,110,696 200,110,696 81502

State Special Revenue Fund Group81503

4680 415618 Third Party Funding $ 10,802,589 $ 10,802,589 81504
4L10 415619 Services for Rehabilitation $ 3,700,000 $ 3,700,000 81505
4W50 415606 Program Management Expenses $ 11,636,730 $ 11,587,201 81506
TOTAL SSR State Special 81507
Revenue Fund Group $ 26,139,319 $ 26,089,790 81508
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 250,781,061 $ 250,714,645 240,714,645 81509

       INDEPENDENT LIVING COUNCIL81510

       The foregoing appropriation item 415402, Independent Living 81511
Council, shall be used to fund the operations of the State 81512
Independent Living Council and to support state independent living 81513
centers and independent living services under Title VII of the 81514
Independent Living Services and Centers for Independent Living of 81515
the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1992, 106 Stat. 4344, 29 81516
U.S.C. 796d.81517

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 415402, Independent 81518
Living Council, $67,662 in each fiscal year shall be used as state 81519
matching funds for vocational rehabilitation innovation and 81520
expansion activities.81521

       ASSISTIVE TECHNOLOGY81522

       The total amount of the foregoing appropriation item 415406, 81523
Assistive Technology, shall be provided to Assistive Technology of 81524
Ohio to provide grants and assistive technology services for 81525
people with disabilities in the State of Ohio.81526

       OFFICE FOR PEOPLE WITH BRAIN INJURY81527

       The foregoing appropriation item 415431, Office for People 81528
with Brain Injury, shall be used to plan and coordinate 81529
head-injury-related services provided by state agencies and other 81530
government or private entities, to assess the needs for such 81531
services, and to set priorities in this area.81532

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 415431, Office for People 81533
with Brain Injury, $44,067 in each fiscal year shall be used as 81534
state matching funds to provide vocational rehabilitation services 81535
to eligible consumers.81536

       VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION SERVICES81537

       The foregoing appropriation item 415506, Services for People 81538
with Disabilities, shall be used as state matching funds to 81539
provide vocational rehabilitation services to eligible consumers.81540

       At the request of the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, the 81541
Director of Budget and Management may transfer any unexpended, 81542
unencumbered appropriation in fiscal year 2012 or fiscal year 2013 81543
from appropriation item 235502, Student Support Services, to 81544
appropriation item 415506, Services for People with Disabilities. 81545
Any appropriation so transferred shall be used by the Ohio 81546
Rehabilitation Services Commission to obtain additional federal 81547
matching funds to serve disabled students.81548

       SERVICES FOR THE DEAF81549

        The foregoing appropriation item 415508, Services for the 81550
Deaf, shall be used to provide grants to community centers for the 81551
deaf.81552

       INDEPENDENT LIVING/VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION PROGRAMS81553

       The foregoing appropriation item 415617, Independent 81554
Living/Vocational Rehabilitation Programs, shall be used to 81555
support vocational rehabilitation programs.81556

       SOCIAL SECURITY REIMBURSEMENT FUNDS81557

       Reimbursement funds received from the Social Security 81558
Administration, United States Department of Health and Human 81559
Services, for the costs of providing services and training to 81560
return disability recipients to gainful employment shall be 81561
expended from the Social Security Reimbursement Fund (Fund 3L10), 81562
to the extent funds are available, as follows:81563

       (A) Appropriation item 415601, Social Security Personal Care 81564
Assistance, to provide personal care services in accordance with 81565
section 3304.41 of the Revised Code;81566

       (B) Appropriation item 415605, Social Security Community 81567
Centers for the Deaf, to provide grants to community centers for 81568
the deaf in Ohio for services to individuals with hearing 81569
impairments; and81570

       (C) Appropriation item 415608, Social Security Special 81571
Programs/Assistance, to provide vocational rehabilitation services 81572
to individuals with severe disabilities who are Social Security 81573
beneficiaries, to enable them to achieve competitive employment. 81574
This appropriation item shall also be used to pay a portion of 81575
indirect costs of the Personal Care Assistance Program and the 81576
Independent Living Programs as mandated by federal OMB Circular 81577
A-87.81578

       PROGRAM MANAGEMENT EXPENSES81579

       The foregoing appropriation item 415606, Program Management 81580
Expenses, shall be used to support the administrative functions of 81581
the commission related to the provision of vocational 81582
rehabilitation, disability determination services, and ancillary 81583
programs.81584

       Sec. 379.10. RDF REVENUE DISTRIBUTION FUNDS81585

Volunteer Firefighters' Dependents Fund81586

7085 800985 Volunteer Firemen's Dependents Fund $ 300,000 $ 300,000 81587
TOTAL 085 Volunteer Firefighters' 81588
Dependents Fund $ 300,000 $ 300,000 81589
Agency Fund Group 81590
4P80 001698 Cash Management Improvement Fund $ 3,100,000 $ 3,100,000 81591
5JG0 110633 Gross Casino Revenue County Fund $ 5,778,617 $ 138,882,294 81592
5JH0 110634 Gross Casino Revenue County Student Fund $ 3,852,412 $ 92,588,196 81593
5JJ0 110636 Gross Casino Revenue Host City Fund $ 566,531 $ 13,615,911 81594
5JK0 875610 Ohio State Racing Commission Fund $ 339,919 $ 8,169,547 81595
5JL0 038629 Problem Casino Gambling and Addictions Fund $ 226,612 $ 5,446,364 81596
5JN0 055654 Ohio Law Enforcement Training Fund $ 226,612 $ 5,446,364 81597
6080 001699 Investment Earnings $ 50,000,000 $ 150,000,000 81598
7062 110962 Resort Area Excise Tax $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 81599
7063 110963 Permissive Tax Distribution $ 1,904,500,000 $ 1,980,700,000 81600
7067 110967 School District Income Tax $ 317,000,000 $ 330,000,000 81601
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 2,286,590,703 2,285,797,560 $ 2,728,948,676 2,709,886,401 81602

Holding Account Redistribution81603

R045 110617 International Fuel Tax Distribution $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 81604
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund 81605
Revenue Distribution Fund Group $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 81606
7049 038900 Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment $ 2,200,000 $ 2,200,000 81607
7050 762900 International Registration Plan Distribution $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 81608
7051 762901 Auto Registration Distribution $ 539,000,000 $ 539,000,000 81609
7054 110954 Local Government Property Tax Replacement - Utility $ 16,000,000 $ 11,000,000 81610
7060 110960 Gasoline Excise Tax Fund $ 393,000,000 $ 395,000,000 81611
7065 110965 Public Library Fund $ 354,000,000 $ 345,000,000 81612
7066 800966 Undivided Liquor Permits $ 14,100,000 $ 14,100,000 81613
7068 110968 State and Local Government Highway Distribution $ 193,000,000 $ 196,000,000 81614
7069 110969 Local Government Fund $ 577,000,000 $ 348,000,000 81615
7081 110981 Local Government Property Tax Replacement-Business $ 291,000,000 $ 181,000,000 81616
7082 110982 Horse Racing Tax $ 100,000 $ 100,000 81617
7083 700900 Ohio Fairs Fund $ 1,400,000 $ 1,400,000 81618
TOTAL RDF Revenue Distribution 81619
Fund Group $ 2,410,800,000 $ 2,062,800,000 81620
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 4,737,690,703 4,736,897,560 $ 4,832,048,676 4,812,986,401 81621

       ADDITIONAL APPROPRIATIONS81622

       Appropriation items in this section shall be used for the 81623
purpose of administering and distributing the designated revenue 81624
distribution funds according to the Revised Code. If it is 81625
determined that additional appropriations are necessary for this 81626
purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.81627

       GENERAL REVENUE FUND TRANSFERS81628

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 81629
fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013, the Director of Budget and 81630
Management may transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Local 81631
Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund (Fund 7081) in 81632
the Revenue Distribution Fund Group, those amounts necessary to 81633
reimburse local taxing units under section 5751.22 of the Revised 81634
Code. Also, in fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013, the Director 81635
of Budget and Management may make temporary transfers from the 81636
General Revenue Fund to ensure sufficient balances in the Local 81637
Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund (Fund 7081) and 81638
to replenish the General Revenue Fund for such transfers.81639

       Sec. 387.10. SFC SCHOOL FACILITIES COMMISSION81640

General Revenue Fund81641

GRF 230908 Common Schools General Obligation Debt Service $ 150,604,900 $ 341,919,400 329,919,400 81642
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 150,604,900 $ 341,919,400 329,919,400 81643

State Special Revenue Fund Group81644

5E30 230644 Operating Expenses $ 8,950,000 $ 8,550,000 81645
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 81646
Fund Group $ 8,950,000 $ 8,550,000 81647
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 159,554,900 $ 350,469,400 338,469,400 81648


       Sec. 403.10. TAX DEPARTMENT OF TAXATION81650

General Revenue Fund81651

GRF 110321 Operating Expenses $ 73,500,000 $ 73,550,000 72,814,500 81652
GRF 110404 Tobacco Settlement Enforcement $ 200,000 $ 200,000 198,000 81653
GRF 110412 Child Support Administration $ 15,804 $ 15,804 15,646 81654
GRF 110901 Property Tax Allocation - Taxation $ 610,900,000 $ 616,000,000 81655
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 684,615,804 $ 689,765,804 689,028,146 81656

General Services Fund Group81657

2280 110628 Tax Reform System Implementation $ 13,638,008 $ 13,642,176 13,505,754 81658
4330 110602 Tape File Account $ 197,802 $ 197,878 195,899 81659
5AP0 110632 Discovery Project $ 2,445,799 $ 2,445,657 2,421,200 81660
5BW0 110630 Tax Amnesty Promotion and Administration $ 2,500,000 $ 0 81661
5CZ0 110631 Vendor's License Application $ 250,000 $ 250,000 81662
5N50 110605 Municipal Income Tax Administration $ 339,798 $ 339,975 336,575 81663
5N60 110618 Kilowatt Hour Tax Administration $ 150,000 $ 150,000 148,500 81664
5V80 110623 Property Tax Administration $ 12,195,733 $ 12,099,303 11,978,310 81665
5W40 110625 Centralized Tax Filing and Payment $ 200,000 $ 200,000 198,000 81666
5W70 110627 Exempt Facility Administration $ 50,000 $ 50,000 49,500 81667
TOTAL GSF General Services 81668
Fund Group $ 31,967,140 $ 29,374,989 29,083,738 81669

State Special Revenue Fund Group81670

4350 110607 Local Tax Administration $ 19,028,339 $ 19,225,941 19,033,682 81671
4360 110608 Motor Vehicle Audit $ 1,474,081 $ 1,474,353 1,459,609 81672
4370 110606 Litter/Natural Resource Tax Administration $ 20,000 $ 20,000 19,800 81673
4380 110609 School District Income Tax $ 5,859,041 $ 5,860,650 5,802,044 81674
4C60 110616 International Registration Plan $ 689,296 $ 689,308 682,415 81675
4R60 110610 Tire Tax Administration $ 245,462 $ 246,660 244,193 81676
5V70 110622 Motor Fuel Tax Administration $ 5,384,254 $ 5,086,236 5,035,374 81677
6390 110614 Cigarette Tax Enforcement $ 1,384,217 $ 1,384,314 1,370,471 81678
6420 110613 Ohio Political Party Distributions $ 500,000 $ 500,000 81679
6880 110615 Local Excise Tax Administration $ 782,630 $ 782,843 775,015 81680
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 81681
Fund Group $ 35,367,320 $ 35,270,305 34,922,603 81682

Agency Fund Group81683

4250 110635 Tax Refunds $ 1,546,800,000 $ 1,546,800,000 81684
7095 110995 Municipal Income Tax $ 21,000,000 $ 21,000,000 81685
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,567,800,000 $ 1,567,800,000 81686

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group81687

R010 110611 Tax Distributions $ 50,000 $ 50,000 81688
R011 110612 Miscellaneous Income Tax Receipts $ 50,000 $ 50,000 81689
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 81690
Redistribution Fund Group $ 100,000 $ 100,000 81691
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,319,850,264 $ 2,322,311,098 2,320,934,487 81692

       HOMESTEAD EXEMPTION, PROPERTY TAX ROLLBACK81693

       The foregoing appropriation item 110901, Property Tax 81694
Allocation - Taxation, is hereby appropriated to pay for the 81695
state's costs incurred due to the Homestead Exemption, the 81696
Manufactured Home Property Tax Rollback, and the Property Tax 81697
Rollback. The Tax Commissioner shall distribute these funds 81698
directly to the appropriate local taxing districts, except for 81699
school districts, notwithstanding the provisions in sections 81700
321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, which provide for payment 81701
of the Homestead Exemption, the Manufactured Home Property Tax 81702
Rollback, and Property Tax Rollback by the Tax Commissioner to the 81703
appropriate county treasurer and the subsequent redistribution of 81704
these funds to the appropriate local taxing districts by the 81705
county auditor.81706

       Upon receipt of these amounts, each local taxing district 81707
shall distribute the amount among the proper funds as if it had 81708
been paid as real property taxes. Payments for the costs of 81709
administration shall continue to be paid to the county treasurer 81710
and county auditor as provided for in sections 319.54, 321.26, and 81711
323.156 of the Revised Code.81712

       Any sums, in addition to the amounts specifically 81713
appropriated in appropriation item 110901, Property Tax Allocation 81714
- Taxation, for the Homestead Exemption, the Manufactured Home 81715
Property Tax Rollback, and the Property Tax Rollback payments, 81716
which are determined to be necessary for these purposes, are 81717
hereby appropriated.81718

       TAX AMNESTY PROMOTION AND ADMINISTRATION81719

       The foregoing appropriation item 110630, Tax Amnesty 81720
Promotion and Administration, shall be used to pay expenses 81721
incurred to promote and administer the tax amnesty program to be 81722
conducted from May 1, 2012, through June 15, 2012, by the 81723
Department of Taxation pursuant to Section 757.40 of this actAm. 81724
Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly.81725

       MUNICIPAL INCOME TAX81726

       The foregoing appropriation item 110995, Municipal Income 81727
Tax, shall be used to make payments to municipal corporations 81728
under section 5745.05 of the Revised Code. If it is determined 81729
that additional appropriations are necessary to make such 81730
payments, such amounts are hereby appropriated.81731

       TAX REFUNDS81732

       The foregoing appropriation item 110635, Tax Refunds, shall 81733
be used to pay refunds under section 5703.052 of the Revised Code. 81734
If it is determined that additional appropriations are necessary 81735
for this purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.81736

       INTERNATIONAL REGISTRATION PLAN AUDIT81737

       The foregoing appropriation item 110616, International 81738
Registration Plan, shall be used under section 5703.12 of the 81739
Revised Code for audits of persons with vehicles registered under 81740
the International Registration Plan.81741

       TRAVEL EXPENSES FOR THE STREAMLINED SALES TAX PROJECT81742

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 110607, Local Tax 81743
Administration, the Tax Commissioner may disburse funds, if 81744
available, for the purposes of paying travel expenses incurred by 81745
members of Ohio's delegation to the Streamlined Sales Tax Project, 81746
as appointed under section 5740.02 of the Revised Code. Any travel 81747
expense reimbursement paid for by the Department of Taxation shall 81748
be done in accordance with applicable state laws and guidelines.81749

       CENTRALIZED TAX FILING AND PAYMENT FUND81750

       The Director of Budget and Management, under a plan submitted 81751
by the Tax Commissioner, or as otherwise determined by the 81752
Director of Budget and Management, shall set a schedule to 81753
transfer cash from the General Revenue Fund to the credit of the 81754
Centralized Tax Filing and Payment Fund (Fund 5W40). The transfers 81755
of cash shall not exceed $400,000 in the biennium.81756

       TOBACCO SETTLEMENT ENFORCEMENT81757

       The foregoing appropriation item 110404, Tobacco Settlement 81758
Enforcement, shall be used by the Tax Commissioner to pay costs 81759
incurred in the enforcement of divisions (F) and (G) of section 81760
5743.03 of the Revised Code.81761

       Sec. 411.10.  DVS DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS SERVICES81762

General Revenue Fund81763

GRF 900321 Veterans' Homes $ 27,369,946 $ 27,369,946 81764
GRF 900402 Hall of Fame $ 107,075 $ 107,075 81765
GRF 900408 Department of Veterans Services $ 1,901,823 $ 1,901,823 2,001,823 81766
GRF 900901 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation Debt Service $ 5,486,600 $ 10,112,100 81767
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 34,865,444 $ 39,490,944 39,590,944 81768

General Services Fund Group81769

4840 900603 Veterans' Homes Services $ 305,806 $ 312,458 81770
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 305,806 $ 312,458 81771

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group81772

3680 900614 Veterans Training $ 769,500 $ 754,377 81773
3740 900606 Troops to Teachers $ 136,786 $ 133,461 81774
3BX0 900609 Medicare Services $ 2,500,000 $ 2,490,169 81775
3L20 900601 Veterans' Homes Operations - Federal $ 23,455,379 $ 23,476,269 81776
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 81777
Fund Group $ 26,861,665 $ 26,854,276 81778

State Special Revenue Fund Group81779

4E20 900602 Veterans' Homes Operating $ 10,117,680 $ 10,319,078 81780
6040 900604 Veterans' Homes Improvement $ 347,598 $ 398,731 81781
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 81782
Fund Group $ 10,465,278 $ 10,717,809 81783

Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation Fund Group81784

7041 900615 Veteran Bonus Program - Administration $ 1,605,410 $ 1,147,703 81785
7041 900641 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation $ 25,425,000 $ 24,300,000 81786
TOTAL 041 Persian Gulf, 81787
Afghanistan, and Iraq 81788
Compensation Fund Group $ 27,030,410 $ 25,447,703 81789
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 99,528,603 $ 102,823,190 102,923,190 81790

       PERSIAN GULF, AFGHANISTAN AND IRAQ COMPENSATION GENERAL 81791
OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE81792

       The foregoing appropriation item 900901, Persian Gulf, 81793
Afghanistan and Iraq Compensation Debt Service, shall be used to 81794
pay all debt service and related financing costs during the period 81795
from July 1, 2011, through June 30, 2013, on obligations issued 81796
for Persian Gulf, Afghanistan and Iraq Conflicts Compensation 81797
purposes under sections 151.01 and 151.12 of the Revised Code.81798

       Sec. 415.10. DYS DEPARTMENT OF YOUTH SERVICES81799

General Revenue Fund81800

GRF 470401 RECLAIM Ohio $ 168,716,967 $ 162,362,228 81801
GRF 470412 Lease Rental Payments $ 10,221,800 $ 27,230,100 81802
GRF 470510 Youth Services $ 16,702,728 $ 16,702,728 81803
GRF 472321 Parole Operations $ 10,830,019 $ 10,583,118 81804
GRF 477321 Administrative Operations $ 12,222,051 $ 11,855,389 81805
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 218,693,565 $ 228,733,563 81806

General Services Fund Group81807

1750 470613 Education Reimbursement $ 8,160,277 $ 8,151,056 6,251,056 81808
4790 470609 Employee Food Service $ 150,000 $ 150,000 81809
4A20 470602 Child Support $ 450,000 $ 400,000 81810
4G60 470605 General Operational Funds $ 125,000 $ 125,000 81811
5BN0 470629 E-Rate Program $ 535,000 $ 535,000 81812
TOTAL GSF General Services 81813
Fund Group $ 9,420,277 $ 9,361,056 7,461,056 81814

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group81815

3210 470601 Education $ 1,774,469 $ 1,517,840 81816
3210 470603 Juvenile Justice Prevention $ 300,000 $ 300,000 81817
3210 470606 Nutrition $ 1,747,432 $ 1,704,022 1,400,000 81818
3210 470610 Rehabilitation Programs $ 36,000 $ 36,000 0 81819
3210 470614 Title IV-E Reimbursements $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 81820
3BY0 470635 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 07 $ 56,471 $ 2,000 81821
3BZ0 470636 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 08 $ 82,000 $ 1,618 81822
3CP0 470638 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 09 $ 500,000 $ 300,730 81823
3CR0 470639 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 10 $ 800,000 $ 479,900 81824
3FB0 470641 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 11 $ 135,000 $ 600,000 81825
3FC0 470642 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 12 $ 0 $ 135,000 81826
3V50 470604 Juvenile Justice/Delinquency Prevention $ 2,010,000 $ 2,000,000 81827
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 81828
Fund Group $ 13,441,372 $ 13,077,110 12,737,088 81829

State Special Revenue Fund Group81830

1470 470612 Vocational Education $ 762,126 $ 758,210 81831
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 81832
Fund Group $ 762,126 $ 758,210 81833
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 242,317,340 $ 251,929,939 249,689,917 81834

       COMMUNITY PROGRAMS81835

       For purposes of implementing juvenile sentencing reforms, and 81836
notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 81837
Department of Youth Services may use up to forty-five per cent of 81838
the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the portion of 81839
appropriation item 470401, RECLAIM Ohio, that is allocated to 81840
juvenile correctional facilities in each fiscal year to expand 81841
Targeted RECLAIM, the Behavioral Health Juvenile Justice 81842
Initiative, and other evidence-based community programs.81843

       OHIO BUILDING AUTHORITY LEASE PAYMENTS81844

       The foregoing appropriation item 470412, Lease Rental 81845
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 81846
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2011, through June 81847
30, 2013, by the Department of Youth Services to the Ohio Building 81848
Authority under the leases and agreements for facilities made 81849
under Chapter 152. of the Revised Code. This appropriation is the 81850
source of funds pledged for bond service charges on related 81851
obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 152. of the Revised Code.81852

       EDUCATION REIMBURSEMENT81853

       The foregoing appropriation item 470613, Education 81854
Reimbursement, shall be used to fund the operating expenses of 81855
providing educational services to youth supervised by the 81856
Department of Youth Services. Operating expenses include, but are 81857
not limited to, teachers' salaries, maintenance costs, and 81858
educational equipment. This appropriation item may be used for 81859
capital expenses related to the education program.81860

       EMPLOYEE FOOD SERVICE AND EQUIPMENT81861

       Notwithstanding section 125.14 of the Revised Code, the 81862
foregoing appropriation item 470609, Employee Food Service, may be 81863
used to purchase any food operational items with funds received 81864
into the fund from reimbursements for state surplus property.81865

       FLEXIBLE FUNDING FOR CHILDREN AND FAMILIES81866

       In collaboration with the county family and children first 81867
council, the juvenile court of that county that receives 81868
allocations from one or both of the foregoing appropriation items 81869
470401, RECLAIM Ohio, and 470510, Youth Services, may transfer 81870
portions of those allocations to a flexible funding pool as 81871
authorized by the section of this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 81872
129th General Assembly titled "FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE 81873
FUNDING POOL."81874

       Sec. 503.50. REAPPROPRIATION OF UNEXPENDED ENCUMBERED 81875
BALANCES OF OPERATING APPROPRIATIONS81876

       (A) An unexpended balance of an operating appropriation or 81877
reappropriation that a state agency lawfully encumbered prior to 81878
the close of a fiscal year is hereby reappropriated on the first 81879
day of July of the following fiscal year from the fund from which 81880
it was originally appropriated or reappropriated for the following 81881
period and shall remain available only for the purpose of 81882
discharging the encumbrance:81883

       (1) For an encumbrance for personal services, maintenance, 81884
equipment, or items for resale, other than an encumbrance for an 81885
item of special order manufacture not available on term contract 81886
or in the open market or for reclamation of land or oil and gas 81887
wells, for a period of not more than five months from the end of 81888
the fiscal year;81889

       (2) For an encumbrance for an item of special order 81890
manufacture not available on term contract or in the open market, 81891
for a period of not more than five months from the end of the 81892
fiscal year or, with the written approval of the Director of 81893
Budget and Management, for a period of not more than twelve months 81894
from the end of the fiscal year;81895

       (3) For an encumbrance for reclamation of land or oil and gas 81896
wells, for a period ending when the encumbered appropriation is 81897
expended or for a period of two years, whichever is less;81898

       (4) For an encumbrance for any other expense, for such period 81899
as the Director approves, provided such period does not exceed two 81900
years.81901

       (B) Any operating appropriations for which unexpended 81902
balances are reappropriated beyond a five-month period from the 81903
end of the fiscal year by division (A)(2) of this section shall be 81904
reported to the Controlling Board by the Director of Budget and 81905
Management by the thirty-first day of December of each year. The 81906
report on each such item shall include the item, the cost of the 81907
item, and the name of the vendor. The report shall be updated on a 81908
quarterly basis for encumbrances remaining open.81909

       (C) Upon the expiration of the reappropriation period set out 81910
in division (A) of this section, a reappropriation made by this 81911
section lapses, and the Director of Budget and Management shall 81912
cancel the encumbrance of the unexpended reappropriation not later 81913
than the end of the weekend following the expiration of the 81914
reappropriation period.81915

       (D) Notwithstanding division (C) of this section, with the 81916
approval of the Director of Budget and Management, an unexpended 81917
balance of an encumbrance that was reappropriated on the first day 81918
of July by this section for a period specified in division (A)(3) 81919
or (4) of this section and that remains encumbered at the close of 81920
the fiscal biennium is hereby reappropriated on the first day of 81921
July of the following fiscal biennium from the fund from which it 81922
was originally appropriated or reappropriated for the applicable 81923
period specified in division (A)(3) or (4) of this section and 81924
shall remain available only for the purpose of discharging the 81925
encumbrance.81926

       (E) The Director of Budget and Management may correct 81927
accounting errors committed by the staff of the Office of Budget 81928
and Management, such as re-establishingreestablishing81929
encumbrances or appropriations cancelled in error, during the 81930
cancellation of operating encumbrances in November and of 81931
nonoperating encumbrances in December.81932

       (F) The Director of Budget and Management may at any time 81933
correct accounting errors committed by the staff of a state 81934
institution of higher education, as defined in section 3345.011 of 81935
the Revised Code, such as reestablishing prior year nonoperating 81936
encumbrances canceled or modified in error. The reestablished 81937
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.81938

       (G) If the Controlling Board approved a purchase, that 81939
approval remains in effect so long as the appropriation used to 81940
make that purchase remains encumbered.81941

       Sec. 521.70.  OVERSIGHT OF FEDERAL STIMULUS FUNDS81942

       (A) The Office of Internal Auditing within the Office of 81943
Budget and Management shall, in connection with its duties under 81944
sections 126.45 to 126.48 of the Revised Code, monitor and measure 81945
the effectiveness of funds allocated to the state as part of the 81946
federal American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009. As such, 81947
the Office of Internal Auditing shall review how funds allocated 81948
to each state agency are spent. For purposes of this section, 81949
"state agency" has the same meaning as in division (A) of section 81950
126.45 of the Revised Code.81951

       In addition to the reports required under section 126.47 of 81952
the Revised Code, the Office of Internal Auditing shall submit81953
prepare a report of its findings for the period beginning July 1, 81954
2011, and ending December 31, 2011. The Office shall submit the 81955
report to the President of the Senate, Minority Leader of the 81956
Senate, Speaker of the House of Representatives, Minority Leader 81957
of the House of Representatives, and the Chairs of the committees 81958
in the Senate and House of Representatives handling finance and 81959
appropriations. The report shall be submitted every six months at 81960
the following intervals:81961

       (1) For the six-month period ending December 31, 2011, not 81962
later thanby February 1, 2012;81963

       (2) For the six-month period ending June 30, 2012, not later 81964
than August 1, 2012;81965

       (3) For the six-month period ending December 31, 2012, not 81966
later than February 1, 2013;81967

       (4) For the six-month period ending June 30, 2013, not later 81968
than August 1, 2013.81969

       (B) When, as part of its compliance with the federal American 81970
Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 requirements to monitor and 81971
measure the effectiveness of funds for which the state of Ohio is 81972
the prime recipient, and for which reporting authority has not 81973
been delegated to a sub-recipientsubrecipient, the Office of 81974
Budget and Management submits quarterly reports to the federal 81975
government, the Office of Budget and Management shall also submit 81976
those reports to the President of the Senate, Minority Leader of 81977
the Senate, Speaker of the House of Representatives, Minority 81978
Leader of the House of Representatives, and Chairs and ranking 81979
members of the committees in the Senate and House of 81980
Representatives handling finance and appropriations. The Office of 81981
Budget and Management shall continue to submit quarterly reports 81982
to the legislature for the duration of the period in which the 81983
state of Ohio is required to make reports to the federal 81984
government concerning Ohio's use of the federal American Recovery 81985
and Reinvestment Act of 2009 funds.81986

       Section 601.41. That existing Sections 205.10, 207.10, 81987
207.10.80, 207.20.10, 207.20.30, 207.20.90, 209.10, 209.20, 81988
209.30, 211.10, 215.10, 215.20, 223.10, 229.10, 243.10, 261.10.40, 81989
261.10.70, 261.20.40, 261.20.50, 261.20.60, 261.20.80, 261.20.90, 81990
261.30.10, 261.30.20, 261.30.30, 261.30.40, 261.30.60, 261.30.70, 81991
261.30.80, 261.30.90, 261.40.10, 263.10, 263.10.30, 263.10.90, 81992
263.20.40, 263.20.70, 267.10, 267.10.10, 267.10.20, 267.10.40, 81993
267.30.20, 267.30.40, 279.10, 287.10, 291.10, 307.10, 309.10, 81994
309.30.30, 309.30.33, 309.30.53, 309.30.73, 313.10, 315.10, 81995
323.10, 327.10, 335.10, 337.10, 343.10, 343.40, 365.10, 367.10, 81996
369.10, 371.10, 371.50.61, 371.60.80, 373.10, 375.10, 379.10, 81997
387.10, 403.10, 411.10, 415.10, 503.50, and 521.70 of Am. Sub. 81998
H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly are hereby repealed.81999

       Section 601.43. That Section 247.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of 82000
the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Sub. H.B. 319 of the 82001
129th General Assembly, be amended to read as follows:82002

       Sec. 247.10. CEB CONTROLLING BOARD82003

General Revenue Fund82004

GRF 911404 Mandate Assistance $ 2,750,000 $ 0 82005
GRF 911441 Ballot Advertising Costs $ 475,000 $ 475,000 82006
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 3,225,000 $ 475,000 82007

General Services Fund Group82008

5KM0 911614 CB Emergency Purposes $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 82009
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 82010
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 13,225,000 $ 10,475,000 82011

       FEDERAL SHARE82012

       In transferring appropriations to or from appropriation items 82013
that have federal shares identified in this act, the Controlling 82014
Board shall add or subtract corresponding amounts of federal 82015
matching funds at the percentages indicated by the state and 82016
federal division of the appropriations in this act. Such changes 82017
are hereby appropriated.82018

       REDISTRICTING IMPLEMENTATION82019

       The foregoing appropriation item 911404, Mandate Assistance, 82020
shall be used in a method prescribed by the Secretary of State and 82021
transferred by the Director of Budget and Management to implement 82022
this act, which includes remapping and reprecincting counties, and 82023
reprogramming database systems and voting machines. At the end of 82024
fiscal year 2012, an amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered 82025
portion of appropriation item 911404, Mandate Assistance, is 82026
hereby reappropriated in fiscal year 2013 for the same purpose.82027

       DISASTER SERVICES82028

        Pursuant to requests submitted by the Department of Public 82029
Safety, the Controlling Board may approve transfers from the 82030
Disaster Services Fund (5E20) to a fund and appropriation item 82031
used by the Department of Public Safety to provide for assistance 82032
to political subdivisions made necessary by natural disasters or 82033
emergencies. These transfers may be requested and approved prior 82034
to the occurrence of any specific natural disasters or emergencies 82035
in order to facilitate the provision of timely assistance. The 82036
Emergency Management Agency of the Department of Public Safety 82037
shall use the funding to fund the State Disaster Relief Program 82038
for disasters that have been declared by the Governor, and the 82039
State Individual Assistance Program for disasters that have been 82040
declared by the Governor and the federal Small Business 82041
Administration. The Ohio Emergency Management Agency shall publish 82042
and make available application packets outlining procedures for 82043
the State Disaster Relief Program and the State Individual 82044
Assistance Program.82045

       Fund 5E20 shall be used by the Controlling Board, pursuant to 82046
requests submitted by state agencies, to transfer cash and 82047
appropriations to any fund and appropriation item for the payment 82048
of state agency disaster relief program expenses for disasters 82049
declared by the Governor, if the Director of Budget and Management 82050
determines that sufficient funds exist.82051

       Upon the request of the Department of Public Safety, the 82052
Controlling Board may release up to $3,000,000 for Blanchard River 82053
flood mitigation projects.82054

       BALLOT ADVERTISING COSTS82055

       Pursuant to section 3501.17 of the Revised Code, and upon 82056
requests submitted by the Secretary of State, the Controlling 82057
Board shall approve transfers from the foregoing appropriation 82058
item 911441, Ballot Advertising Costs, to appropriation item 82059
050621, Statewide Ballot Advertising, in order to pay for the cost 82060
of public notices associated with statewide ballot initiatives.82061

       CAPITAL APPROPRIATION INCREASE FOR FEDERAL STIMULUS 82062
ELIGIBILITY82063

        A state agency director shall request that the Controlling 82064
Board increase the amount of the agency's capital appropriations 82065
if the director determines such an increase is necessary for the 82066
agency to receive and use funds under the federal American 82067
Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009. The Controlling Board may 82068
increase the capital appropriations pursuant to the request up to 82069
the exact amount necessary under the federal act if the Board 82070
determines it is necessary for the agency to receive and use those 82071
federal funds.82072

       Section 601.44. That existing Section 247.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 82073
153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Sub. H.B. 319 of 82074
the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.82075

       Section 601.46. That Sections 261.10 and 261.20.93 of Am. 82076
Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Sub. 82077
H.B. 371 of the 129th General Assembly, be amended to read as 82078
follows:82079

       Sec. 261.10. DEV DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENT SERVICES AGENCY82080

General Revenue Fund82081

GRF 195401 Thomas Edison Program $ 14,820,354 $ 0 82082
GRF 195402 Coal Development Office Research Operating $ 260,983 $ 261,205 82083
GRF 195404 Small Business Development $ 1,565,770 $ 0 82084
GRF 195405 Minority Business Enterprise Division $ 1,118,528 $ 0 82085
GRF 195407 Travel and Tourism $ 5,000,000 $ 0 5,000,000 82086
GRF 195412 Rapid Outreach Grants $ 9,000,000 $ 0 82087
GRF 195415 Strategic Business Investment Division and Regional Offices Development Services $ 4,500,000 $ 0 2,413,387 82088
GRF 195416 Governor's Office of Appalachia $ 3,700,000 $ 3,700,000 0 82089
GRF 195422 Technology Action $ 547,341 $ 0 82090
GRF 195426 Clean Ohio Implementation $ 468,365 $ 0 468,365 82091
GRF 195432 Global Markets $ 3,500,000 $ 0 82092
GRF 195434 Industrial Training Grants $ 10,000,000 $ 0 82093
GRF 195497 CDBG Operating Match $ 1,015,000 $ 0 1,015,000 82094
GRF 195501 Appalachian Local Development Districts $ 391,482 $ 391,482 0 82095
GRF 195502 Appalachian Regional Commission Dues $ 195,000 $ 195,000 0 82096
GRF 195528 Economic Development Projects $ 0 $ 26,943,518 82097
GRF 195532 Technology Programs and Grants $ 0 $ 13,547,341 82098
GRF 195533 Business Assistance $ 0 $ 5,899,465 82099
GRF 195535 Appalachia Assistance $ 0 $ 4,286,482 82100
GRF 195901 Coal Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 7,861,100 $ 5,577,700 82101
GRF 195905 Third Frontier Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 29,323,300 $ 63,640,300 82102
GRF 195912 Job Ready Site Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 9,859,200 $ 15,680,500 82103
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 103,126,423 $ 116,389,705 118,039,745 82104

General Services Fund Group82105

1350 195684 Supportive Development Services Operations $ 11,700,000 $ 11,700,000 82106
4W10 195646 Minority Business Enterprise Loan $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 82107
5AD0 195633 Legacy Projects $ 15,000,000 $ 15,000,000 18,600,000 82108
5AD0 195677 Economic Development Contingency $ 10,000,000 $ 0 82109
5W50 195690 Travel and Tourism Cooperative Projects $ 50,000 $ 50,000 82110
6850 195636 Direct Cost Recovery Development Services Reimbursable Expenditures $ 750,000 $ 750,000 82111
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 82112
Group $ 40,000,000 $ 30,000,000 33,600,000 82113

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group82114

3080 195602 Appalachian Regional Commission $ 475,000 $ 475,000 82115
3080 195603 Housing and Urban Development Assistance Programs $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 82116
3080 195605 Federal Projects $ 85,028,606 $ 85,470,106 0 82117
3080 195609 Small Business Administration Grants $ 6,438,143 $ 5,511,381 82118
3080 195618 Energy Federal Grants $ 38,000,000 $ 3,400,000 82119
3080 195670 Home Weatherization Program $ 0 $ 72,670,106 82120
3080 195671 Brownfield Redevelopment $ 0 $ 6,800,000 82121
3080 195672 Manufacturing Extension Partnership $ 0 $ 6,000,000 82122
3350 195610 Energy Conservation and Emerging Technology Programs $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 82123
3AE0 195643 Workforce Development Initiatives $ 16,300,000 $ 16,300,000 82124
3DB0 195642 Federal Stimulus - Energy Efficiency & Conservation Block Grants $ 3,000,000 $ 42,485 82125
3EG0 195608 Federal Energy Sector Training Grants $ 5,000,000 $ 1,344,056 82126
3K80 195613 Community Development Block Grant $ 76,795,818 $ 65,210,000 82127
3K90 195611 Home Energy Assistance Block Grant $ 115,743,608 $ 115,743,608 82128
3K90 195614 HEAP Weatherization $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 82129
3L00 195612 Community Services Block Grant $ 27,240,217 $ 27,240,217 82130
3V10 195601 HOME Program $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 82131
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 82132
Fund Group $ 443,121,392 $ 389,836,853 82133

State Special Revenue Fund Group82134

4500 195624 Minority Business Bonding Program Administration $ 160,110 $ 159,069 82135
4510 195625 Economic Development Financing Operating $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 0 82136
4510 195649 Business Assistance Programs $ 0 $ 3,700,800 82137
4F20 195639 State Special Projects $ 180,437 $ 180,436 82138
4F20 195676 Marketing Initiatives $ 5,000,000 $ 0 82139
4F20 195699 Utility Provided Funds Community Assistance $ 500,000 $ 500,000 82140
4S00 195630 Tax Incentive Programs $ 650,800 $ 650,800 0 82141
5CG0 195679 Alternative Fuel Transportation $ 750,000 $ 750,000 82142
5HJ0 195604 Motion Picture Tax Credit Program $ 50,000 $ 50,000 0 82143
5HR0 195526 Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training Vouchers $ 20,000,000 $ 30,000,000 82144
5HR0 195622 Defense Development Assistance $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 82145
5JR0 195635 Redevelopment Program Support $ 0 $ 100,000 82146
5JR0 195656 New Market Tax Credit Program $ 50,000 $ 50,000 0 82147
5KD0 195621 Brownfield Stormwater Loan $ 50,000 $ 50,000 0 82148
5KN0 195640 Local Government Innovation $ 175,000 $ 44,825,000 82149
5LK0 195655 Workforce Development Programs $ 0 $ 10,000,000 82150
5M40 195659 Low Income Energy Assistance (USF) $ 245,000,000 $ 245,000,000 82151
5M50 195660 Advanced Energy Loan Programs $ 8,000,000 $ 0 82152
5W60 195691 International Trade Cooperative Projects $ 160,000 $ 160,000 82153
6170 195654 Volume Cap Administration $ 94,397 $ 92,768 82154
6460 195638 Low- and Moderate- Income Housing Trust Fund $ 53,000,000 $ 53,000,000 82155
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 82156
Fund Group $ 341,820,744 $ 383,468,073 393,468,073 82157

Facilities Establishment Fund Group82158

5S90 195628 Capital Access Loan Program $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 82159
7009 195664 Innovation Ohio $ 15,000,000 $ 15,000,000 82160
7010 195665 Research and Development $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 82161
7037 195615 Facilities Establishment $ 50,000,000 $ 50,000,000 82162
TOTAL 037 Facilities 82163
Establishment Fund Group $ 88,500,000 $ 88,500,000 82164

Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund82165

7003 195663 Clean Ohio Operating Program $ 950,000 $ 950,000 82166
TOTAL 7003 Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund $ 950,000 $ 950,000 82167

Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group82168

7011 195686 Third Frontier Operating $ 1,149,750 $ 1,149,750 82169
7011 195687 Third Frontier Research & Development Projects $ 183,850,250 $ 133,850,250 82170
7014 195620 Third Frontier Operating - Tax $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 82171
7014 195692 Research & Development Taxable Bond Projects $ 38,300,000 $ 38,300,000 82172
TOTAL 011 Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group $ 225,000,000 $ 175,000,000 82173

Job Ready Site Development Fund Group82174

7012 195688 Job Ready Site Operating Program $ 800,000 $ 800,000 82175
TOTAL 012 Job Ready Site Development Fund Group $ 800,000 $ 800,000 82176

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group82177

M087 195435 Biomedical Research and Technology Transfer $ 1,999,224 $ 1,999,224 82178
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 1,999,224 $ 1,999,224 82179
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,245,317,783 $ 1,186,943,855 1,202,193,895 82180


       Sec. 261.20.93. LOCAL GOVERNMENT INNOVATION FUND82182

       The foregoing appropriation item 195640, Local Government 82183
Innovation, shall be used for the purposes of making loans and 82184
grants to political subdivisions under the Local Government 82185
Innovation Program in accordance with sections 189.01 to 189.10 of 82186
the Revised Code. Of the foregoing appropriation item 195640, 82187
Local Government Innovation, up to $175,000 in fiscal year 2012 82188
and $175,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used for administrative 82189
costs incurred by the Department of Development Services Agency.82190

       On the effective date of this amendment, or as soon as 82191
possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall 82192
transfer $175,000 in cash from the General Revenue Fund to the 82193
Local Government Innovation Fund (Fund 5KN0). On July 1, 2012, or 82194
as soon as possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and 82195
Management shall transfer $44,825,000 in cash from the General 82196
Revenue Fund to the Local Government Innovation Fund (Fund 5KN0). 82197

       Section 601.47. That existing Sections 261.10 and 261.20.93 82198
of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by 82199
Sub. H.B. 371 of the 129th General Assembly, are hereby repealed.82200

       Section 601.50. That Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th 82201
General Assembly be amended to read as follows:82202

       Sec. 4. The following agencies are retained under division 82203
(D) of section 101.83 of the Revised Code and expire on December 82204
31, 2016:82205

AGENCY NAME REVISED CODE OR UNCODIFIED SECTION 82206
Academic Distress Commission 3302.10 82207
Advisory Board of Governor's Office of Faith-Based and Community Initiatives 107.12 82208
Advisory Board to Assist and Advise in the Operation of the Ohio Center for Autism and Low Incidence 3323.33, 3323.34 82209
Advisory Council on Amusement Ride Safety 1711.51, 1711.52 82210
Advisory Council of Directors for Prison Labor 5145.162 82211
Advisory Council for Wild, Scenic, or Recreational River Area(s) 1547.84 82212
Advisory Committee on Livestock Exhibitions 901.71 82213
Agricultural Commodity Marketing Programs Operating Committees 924.07 82214
Agricultural Commodity Marketing Programs Coordinating Committee 924.14 82215
Alternative Energy Advisory Committee 4928.64(D) 82216
AMBER Alert Advisory Committee 5502.521 82217
Apprenticeship Council Chapter 4139. 82218
Armory Board of Control 5911.09, 5911.12 82219
Automated Title Processing Board 4505.09(C)(1) 82220
Backflow Advisory Board 3703.21 82221
Banking Commission 1123.01 82222
Board of Directors of the Great Lakes Protection Fund 1506.22 (6161.04) 82223
Board of Directors of the Medical Liability Underwriting Association Stabilization Fund 3929.631 82224
Board of Directors of the Ohio Appalachian Center for Higher Education 3333.58 82225
Board of Directors of the Ohio Health Reinsurance Program 3924.08 - 3924.11 82226
Board of Governors of the Commercial Insurance Joint Underwriting Association 3930.03 82227
Board of Governors of the Medical Liability Underwriting Association 3929.64 82228
Board of Voting Machines Examiners 3506.05 82229
Budget Planning and Management Commission Section 509.10, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 82230
Brain Injury Advisory Committee 3304.231 82231
Bureau of Workers' Compensation Board of Directors 4121.12 82232
Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board 105.41 82233
Child Care Advisory Council 5104.08 82234
Child Support Guideline Advisory Council 3119.024 82235
Children's Trust Fund Board 3109.15 - 3109.17 82236
Citizen's Advisory Council 5123.092, 5123.093 82237
Clean Ohio Trail Advisory Board 1519.06 82238
Coastal Resources Advisory Council 1506.12 82239
Commission on African-American Males 4112.12, 4112.13 82240
Commission on Hispanic-Latino Affairs 121.31 82241
Commission on Minority Health 3701.78 82242
Committee on Prescriptive Governance 4723.49 - 4723.492 82243
Commodity Advisory Commission 926.32 82244
Consumer Advisory Committee to the Rehabilitation Services Commission 3304.24 82245
Continuing Education Committee 109.80(B) 82246
Council on Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services 3793.09 82247
Council on Unreclaimed Strip Mined Lands 1513.29 82248
County Sheriff's Standard Car Marking and Uniform Commission 311.25 - 311.27 82249
Credential Review Board 3319.65 82250
Credit Union Council 1733.329 82251
Criminal Sentencing Advisory Committee 181.22 82252
Data Collection and Analysis Group 3727.32 82253
Dentist Loan Repayment Advisory Board 3702.92 82254
Department Advisory Council(s) 107.18, 121.13 82255
Development Financing Advisory Council 122.40, 122.41 82256
Early Childhood Advisory Council 3301.90 82257
Education Commission of the States (Interstate Compact for Education) 3301.48, 3301.49 82258
Education Management Information System Advisory Board 3301.0713 82259
Educator Standards Board 3319.60 82260
Electrical Safety Inspector Advisory Committee 3783.08 82261
Emergency Response Commission 3750.02 82262
Engineering Experiment Station Advisory Committee 3335.27 82263
Environmental Education Council 3745.21 82264
Environmental Protection Agency Advisory Board(s) 121.13, 3704.03, 3745.01 82265
eTech Ohio Commission 3353.02 - 3353.04 82266
Ex-Offender Reentry Coalition 5120.07 82267
Farmland Preservation Advisory Board 901.23 82268
Financial Planning and Supervision Commission(s) for Municipal Corporation, County, or Township 118.05 82269
Financial Planning and Supervision Commission for a school district 3316.05 82270
Forestry Advisory Council 1503.40 82271
Governance Authority for a State University or College 3345.75 82272
Governor's Council on People with Disabilities 3303.41 82273
Governor's Policy Information Working Group Section 313, H.B. 420, 127th G.A. 82274
Governor's Residence Advisory Commission 107.40 82275
Grain Marketing Program Operating Committee 924.20 - 924.30 82276
Great Lakes Commission (Great Lakes Basin Compact) 6161.01 82277
Gubernatorial Transition Committee 107.29, 126.26 82278
Help Me Grow Advisory Council 3701.611 82279
Hemophilia Advisory Subcommittee of the Medically Handicapped Children's Medical Advisory Council 3701.0210 82280
Homeland Security Advisory Council 5502.011(E) 82281
Hospital Measures Advisory Council 3727.31 82282
Housing Trust Fund Advisory Committee 174.06 82283
Industrial Commission Nominating Council 4121.04 82284
Industrial Technology and Enterprise Advisory Council 122.29, 122.30 82285
Infant Hearing Screening Subcommittee 3701.507 82286
Infection Control Group 3727.312(D) 82287
Insurance Agent Education Advisory Council 3905.483 82288
Interstate Rail Passenger Advisory Council 4981.35 82289
Joint Select Committee on Volume Cap 133.021 82290
Labor-Management Government Advisory Council 4121.70 82291
Legislative Programming Committee of the Ohio Government Telecommunications Service 3353.07 82292
Legislative Task Force on Redistricting, Reapportionment, and Demographic Research 103.51 82293
Maternity and Newborn Advisory Council 3711.20, 3711.21 82294
Medically Handicapped Children's Medical Advisory Council 3701.025 82295
Midwest Interstate Passenger Rail Compact Commission 4981.361 82296
Milk Sanitation Board 917.03 - 917.032 82297
Mine Subsidence Insurance Governing Board 3929.51 82298
Minority Development Financing Advisory Board 122.72, 122.73 82299
Multi-Agency Radio Communications System (MARCS) Steering Committee Section 15.02, H.B. 640, 123rd G.A. 82300
National Museum of Afro-American History and Culture Planning Committee 149.303 82301
New African Immigrants Commission 4112.31, 4112.32 82302
Ohio Accountability Task Force 3302.021(E) 82303
Ohio Advisory Council for the Aging 173.03 82304
Ohio Agriculture License Plate Scholarship Fund Board 901.90 82305
Ohio Arts Council Chapter 3379. 82306
Ohio Business Gateway Steering Committee 5703.57 82307
Ohio Cemetery Dispute Resolution Commission 4767.05, 4767.06 82308
Ohio Civil Rights Commission Advisory Agencies and Conciliation Councils 4112.04(B)(4) 82309
Ohio Commercial Market Assistance Plan Executive Committee 3930.02 82310
Ohio Commission on Dispute Resolution and Conflict Management 179.02 - 179.04 82311
Ohio Commission on Fatherhood 5101.34 82312
Ohio Community Service Council 121.40 - 121.404 82313
Ohio Council for Interstate Adult Offender Supervision 5149.22 82314
Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission Chapter 3383. 82315
Ohio Cystic Fibrosis Legislative Task Force 101.38 82316
Ohio Developmental Disabilities Council 5123.35 82317
Ohio Expositions Commission 991.02 82318
Ohio Family and Children First Cabinet Council 121.37 82319
Ohio Geographically Referenced Information Program Council 125.901, 125.902 82320
Ohio Geology Advisory Council 1501.11 82321
Ohio Grape Industries Committee 924.51 - 924.55 82322
Ohio Historic Site Preservation Advisory Board 149.301 82323
Ohio Historical Society Board of Trustees 149.30 82324
Ohio Judicial Conference 105.91 - 105.97 82325
Ohio Lake Erie Commission 1506.21 82326
Ohio Legislative Commission on the Education and Preservation of State History Section 701.05, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 82327
Ohio Medical Quality Foundation 3701.89 82328
Ohio Parks and Recreation Council 1541.40 82329
Ohio Peace Officer Training Commission 109.71, 109.72 82330
Ohio Private Investigation and Security Services Commission 4749.021, 4743.01 82331
Ohio Public Defender Commission 120.01 - 120.03 82332
Ohio Public Library Information Network Board of Trustees 3375.65, 3375.66 82333
Ohio Quarter Horse Development Commission 3769.086 82334
Ohio Small Government Capital Improvements Commission 164.02(C)(D) 82335
Ohio Soil and Water Conservation Commission 1515.02 82336
Ohio Standardbred Development Commission 3769.085 82337
Ohio Subrogation Rights Commission 2323.44 82338
Ohio Thoroughbred Racing Advisory Committee 3769.084 82339
Ohio Transportation Finance Commission 5531.12(B) to (D) 82340
Ohio Tuition Trust Authority 3334.03, 3334.08 82341
Ohio University College of Osteopathic Medicine Advisory Committee 3337.10, 3337.11 82342
Ohio Vendors Representative Committee 3304.34, 20 USC 107 82343
Ohio War Orphans Scholarship Board 5910.02 - 5910.06 82344
Ohio Water Advisory Council 1521.031 82345
Ohio Water Resources Council Advisory Group 1521.19 82346
Ohio Water Resources Council 1521.19 82347
Oil and Gas Commission 1509.35 82348
Operating Committee of the Oil and Gas Marketing Program 1510.06, 1510.11 82349
Organized Crime Investigations Commission 177.01 82350
Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee of the Department of Job and Family Services 5111.084 82351
Physician Assistant Policy Committee of the State Medical Board 4730.05, 4730.06 82352
Physician Loan Repayment Advisory Board 3702.81 82353
Power Siting Board 4906.02 82354
Prequalification Review Board 5525.07 82355
Private Water Systems Advisory Council 3701.346 82356
Public Health Council 3701.33, 3701.34 82357
Public Utilities Commission Nominating Council 4901.021 82358
Public Utility Property Tax Study Committee 5727.85(K) 82359
Radiation Advisory Council 3748.20 82360
Reclamation Commission 1513.05 82361
Reclamation Forfeiture Fund Advisory Board 1513.182 82362
Recreation and Resources Commission 1501.04 82363
Recycling and Litter Prevention Advisory Council 1502.04 82364
School and Ministerial Lands Divestiture Committee 501.041 82365
Savings and Loan Associations and Savings Banks Board 1181.16 82366
Second Chance Trust Fund Advisory Committee 2108.35 82367
Service Coordination Workgroup Section 751.20, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 82368
Ski Tramway Board 4169.02 82369
Small Business Stationary Source Technical and Environmental Compliance Assistance Council 3704.19 82370
Solid Waste Management Advisory Council 3734.51 82371
Special Commission to Consider the Suspension of Local Government Officials 3.16 82372
Speed to Scale Task Force Section 375.60.80, H.B. 119, 128th G.A. 82373
State Agency Coordinating Group 1521.19 82374
State Audit Committee 126.46 82375
State Council of Uniform State Laws 105.21 - 105.27 82376
State Criminal Sentencing Commission 181.22 - 181.26 82377
State Fire Council 3737.81 82378
State Library Board 3375.01 82379
State Victims Assistance Advisory Council 109.91(B) and (C) 82380
Statewide Consortium of County Law Library Resource Boards 3375.481 82381
STEM Committee 3326.02 82382
Student Tuition Recovery Authority 3332.081 82383
Sunset Review Committee 101.84 - 101.87 82384
Tax Credit Authority 122.17(M) 82385
Technical Advisory Committee to Assist Director of the Ohio Coal Development Office 1551.35 82386
Technical Advisory Council on Oil and Gas 1509.38 82387
Transportation Review Advisory Council 5512.07 - 5512.09 82388
Unemployment Compensation Advisory Council 4141.08 82389
Unemployment Compensation Review Commission 4141.06 82390
Veterans Advisory Committee 5902.02(K) 82391
Volunteer Fire Fighters' Dependents Fund Boards (private volunteer) 146.02 - 146.06 82392
Volunteer Fire Fighters' Dependents Fund Boards (public) 146.02 - 146.06 82393
Water and Sewer Commission 1525.11(C) 82394
Waterways Safety Council 1547.73 82395
Wildlife Council 1531.03 - 1531.05 82396
Workers' Compensation Board of Directors Nominating Committee 4121.123 82397

       Section 601.51. That existing Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of 82398
the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.82399

       Section 601.55.  That Section 701.10 of Sub. S.B. 312 of the 82400
129th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:82401

       Sec. 701.10. Notwithstanding any contrary provision in 82402
section 105.41 of the Revised Code or in any rule or procedure 82403
adopted by the Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board, the Board 82404
shall designate, not later than October 1, 2012, a prominent place 82405
on the lawn or other outside grounds of Capitol Square for the 82406
erection of a permanent memorial to victims of The Holocaust 82407
(1933-1945) and to those Ohioans who participated in the 82408
liberation of the death camps during World War II. The Ohio Arts 82409
Council and the Board shall work together to invite, accept, and 82410
evaluate proposals for the concept, design, and erection of such a 82411
memorial, and shall jointly select from among the proposals the 82412
memorial to be designed and erected at the place designated by the 82413
Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board for that purpose. Site 82414
preparation, utility placement, and other preliminary construction 82415
activities shall be paid for with public funds. Planning, and 82416
planning for and designing and erecting the memorial, shall be 82417
paid for with only private contributions. The Capitol Square 82418
Foundation shall accept private contributions for those purposes, 82419
and shall deposit the contributions into the Capitol Square 82420
Holocaust Memorial Fund.82421

       Section 601.56. That existing Section 701.10 of Sub. S.B. 312 82422
of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.82423

       Section 610.10. That Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 82424
121st General Assembly be amended to read as follows:82425

       Sec. 3. Sections 109.57, 109.572, 2950.08, and 2953.32, and 82426
3701.881 of the Revised Code, as amended by this actAm. Sub. S.B. 82427
160 of the 121st General Assembly regarding employment of persons 82428
who provide direct care to older adults, and sections 173.41,82429
3712.09, 3721.121, and 3722.151 of the Revised Code, as enacted by 82430
this actAm. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st General Assembly, apply 82431
only to persons who apply for employment on or after the effective 82432
date of this actJanuary 27, 1997.82433

       Section 610.11. That existing Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 82434
of the 121st General Assembly is hereby repealed.82435

       Section 620.10. That Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 38 of the 82436
120th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:82437

       Sec. 3. Sections 3301.54, and 5104.09, and 5126.28 of the 82438
Revised Code, as amended by this actAm. Sub. S.B. 38 of the 120th 82439
General Assembly, and sections 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32, 82440
3301.541, 3319.3113319.39, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, and 82441
5153.111 of the Revised Code, as enacted by this actAm. Sub. S.B. 82442
38 of the 120th General Assembly, apply only to persons who apply 82443
for employment for a position on or after the effective date of 82444
this actOctober 29, 1993.82445

       Section 620.11. That existing Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 38 82446
of the 120th General Assembly is hereby repealed.82447

       Section 650.10. That Sections 261.10.10, 261.10.20, 82448
261.10.30, 261.10.50, 261.10.60, 261.10.80, 261.10.90, 261.20.10, 82449
261.20.20, 261.20.70, 261.30.50, and 263.10.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 82450
153 of the 129th General Assembly are hereby repealed.82451

       Section 701.10.10. OHIO STATEHOUSE SAFETY AND SECURITY STUDY82452

        The Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board and the 82453
Department of Public Safety jointly shall contract for a study of 82454
the safety and security of the Ohio Statehouse complex, including 82455
the buildings, parking garage, and grounds. The Board and the 82456
Department jointly shall determine with whom to contract. The 82457
study shall include recommendations for security protocols while 82458
providing for the health, safety, and convenience of those who 82459
work in, or visit, the statehouse. The report shall be submitted 82460
to the Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board for action not 82461
later than December 1, 2012.82462

       Section 701.23. As used in this section, "political 82463
subdivision" has the meaning defined in section 2744.01 of the 82464
Revised Code.82465

        The Auditor of State shall establish, operate, and maintain 82466
one or more web sites to serve as an online clearinghouse of 82467
information about streamlining government operations, 82468
collaboration, and shared services to reduce the cost of 82469
government in this state. The web site may be developed by the 82470
Auditor of State or through the use of outside vendors. Existing 82471
web sites may be used if their content conforms to the 82472
requirements of this section. In establishing, maintaining, and 82473
operating the online clearinghouse web site, the Auditor of State 82474
shall:82475

        (A) Use a domain name for the web site that will be easily 82476
recognized, remembered, and understood by the users of the web 82477
site;82478

        (B) Maintain the web site so that it is fully accessible to 82479
and searchable by members of the public at all times;82480

        (C) Not charge a fee to a person who accesses, searches, or 82481
otherwise uses the web site;82482

        (D) Compile information provided by political subdivisions 82483
that includes savings recommendations from performance audits, 82484
examples of shared services among communities, shared services 82485
agreements to use as templates, and other tools developed 82486
independently by the Auditor of State or requested by political 82487
subdivisions and agreed to by the Auditor of State;82488

        (E) Enable political subdivisions to register and request 82489
inclusion of their submitted information on the web site, as well 82490
as to report state and local barriers to collaboration;82491

        (F) Enable information to be accessed by key word or other 82492
useful identifiers;82493

        (G) Maintain adequate systemic security and back-up features, 82494
and develop and maintain a contingency plan for coping with and 82495
recovering from power outages, systemic failures, and other 82496
unforeseen difficulties; and82497

        (H) Maintain the web site in such a manner that it will not 82498
infringe legally protected interests, so that vulnerability of the 82499
web site to interruption because of litigation or the threat of 82500
litigation is reduced.82501

       Section 701.33. As used in this section, "political 82502
subdivision" has the meaning defined in section 2744.01 of the 82503
Revised Code.82504

        The Department of Administrative Services, by itself or by 82505
contract with another entity, shall establish, operate, and 82506
maintain a web site to serve as an online clearinghouse of 82507
information about existing joint purchasing programs between or 82508
among political subdivisions in the state. In establishing, 82509
maintaining, and operating the online clearinghouse web site, the 82510
department shall:82511

        (A) Use a domain name for the web site that will be easily 82512
recognized, remembered, and understood by the users of the web 82513
site;82514

        (B) Maintain the web site so that it is fully accessible to 82515
and searchable by members of the public at all times;82516

        (C) Not charge a fee to a person who accesses, searches, or 82517
otherwise uses the web site;82518

        (D) Compile information provided by political subdivisions 82519
about joint purchasing arrangements they are involved in that the 82520
department verifies, through meetings with various statewide 82521
associations and others, to have resulted in verifiable cost 82522
savings, and consolidate that information on the web site in a 82523
consistent manner;82524

        (E) Enable political subdivisions to register and request 82525
inclusion of their submitted information on the web site;82526

       (F) Enable information to be accessed by key word, by program 82527
name, by county, by type of product or service, and by other 82528
useful identifiers;82529

       (G) Maintain adequate systemic security and back-up features, 82530
and develop and maintain a contingency plan for coping with and 82531
recovering from power outages, systemic failures, and other 82532
unforeseen difficulties; and82533

        (H) Maintain the web site in such a manner that it will not 82534
infringe legally protected interests, so that vulnerability of the 82535
web site to interruption because of litigation or the threat of 82536
litigation is reduced.82537

        The department shall bear the expense of establishing, 82538
operating, and maintaining the online clearinghouse web site.82539

       Section 701.41. The Department of Administrative Services 82540
shall analyze opportunities to reduce travel expenses through 82541
teleconferencing and web conferencing within state government. The 82542
Department shall assess current teleconferencing capabilities 82543
within state government operations, research industry standards 82544
and best practices, and make recommendations that will optimize 82545
the use of these technologies. Not later than December 31, 2012, 82546
the Department of Administrative Services shall produce a report 82547
with its findings and shall deliver the report to the Speaker and 82548
Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President and 82549
Minority Leader of the Senate, and the Governor.82550

       Section 701.50. MARCS STEERING COMMITTEE AND STATEWIDE 82551
COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEM82552

       There is hereby created a Multi-Agency Radio Communications 82553
System (MARCS) Steering Committee consisting of the designees of 82554
the Directors of Administrative Services, Public Safety, Natural 82555
Resources, Transportation, Rehabilitation and Correction, and 82556
Budget and Management, and the State Fire Marshal or the State 82557
Fire Marshal's designee. The Director of Administrative Services 82558
or the Director's designee shall chair the Committee. The 82559
Committee shall provide assistance to the Director of 82560
Administrative Services for effective and efficient implementation 82561
of the MARCS system as well as develop policies for the ongoing 82562
management of the system. Upon dates prescribed by the Directors 82563
of Administrative Services and Budget and Management, the MARCS 82564
Steering Committee shall report to the Directors on the progress 82565
of MARCS implementation and the development of policies related to 82566
the system.82567

       Section 701.60. As used in this section, "business day" means 82568
a day of the week, excluding Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday 82569
as defined in section 1.14 of the Revised Code.82570

       Any regional council of governments that was formed and is 82571
operating before the effective date of the amendment by this act 82572
of section 167.04 of the Revised Code shall notify the Auditor of 82573
State of its existence within 30 business days after the effective 82574
date of that amendment, and shall provide on a form prescribed by 82575
the Auditor of State the information required under that section. 82576
The Auditor of State shall review the information and, within one 82577
year after the effective date of that amendment, shall issue a 82578
report to the Governor and the General Assembly. The report shall 82579
address how many regional councils of governments are operating 82580
under Chapter 167. of the Revised Code, whether those regional 82581
councils continue to meet the objectives for which regional 82582
councils were first authorized in 1967, and whether regional 82583
councils are an efficient and effective way for local governments 82584
to share services or to participate in cooperative arrangements.82585

       Section 701.70.10. (A) The construction and energy operations 82586
of the Office of the State Architect and Engineer (OSAE) under 82587
Chapters 123. and 153. are transferred and consolidated into the 82588
construction and capital funding operations of the Ohio Facilities 82589
Construction Commission (OFCC). And the Ohio School Facilities 82590
Commission (OSFC) becomes an independent agency within the Ohio 82591
Facilities Construction Commission. Notwithstanding Chapter 153. 82592
of the Revised Code, the OFCC is thereupon and thereafter 82593
successor to, assumes the power and obligations of, and otherwise 82594
constitutes the continuation of the construction and energy 82595
operations and related management functions of the OSAE as 82596
provided in the applicable sections of Chapter 153. of the Revised 82597
Code or in any agreements relating to capital expenditures for 82598
construction operations functions to which the OSAE is a party. 82599
All statutory references to the OSAE are deemed to be references 82600
to the OFCC.82601

       (B) Any activities relating to the operations and related 82602
management functions commenced but not completed by the OSAE shall 82603
be completed by the OFCC in the same manner and with the same 82604
effect as if completed by the OSAE. No validation, cure, right, 82605
privilege, remedy, obligation, or liability is lost or impaired by 82606
reason of the consolidation, and shall be administered by the 82607
OFCC. All rules, orders, and determinations related to design, 82608
planning, and construction and energy operations and related 82609
management functions of the OSAE continue in effect as rules, 82610
orders, and determinations of the OFCC, until modified or 82611
rescinded by the OFCC. The Director of the Legislative Service 82612
Commission shall renumber the OSAE rules related to the design, 82613
planning, and construction and energy operations and related 82614
management functions to reflect their transfer to the OFCC. 82615

        (C) To the extent possible, all employees of the OSAE shall 82616
be transferred to the OFCC, as the OFCC determines to be necessary 82617
for the successful implementation of this section. All employees 82618
of the OSFC shall remain in their current classifications unless 82619
the OFCC determines otherwise.82620

       (D) No judicial or administrative action or proceeding, to 82621
which the OSAE or an authorized officer of either is a party, that 82622
is pending on the effective date of this section, or on such later 82623
date as may be established by an authorized officer of the OFCC 82624
and that is related to its construction, capital funding, or 82625
energy operation or related management functions, is affected by 82626
the transfer and consolidation of functions. Any such action or 82627
proceeding shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 82628
OFCC. On application to the court or agency, the OFCC shall be 82629
substituted for the OSAE or an authorized officer of either as a 82630
party to the action or proceeding.82631

       (E) Notwithstanding any provision of the law to the contrary, 82632
and not sooner than 90 days after the effective date of this 82633
section, and if requested by the OFCC, the Director of Budget and 82634
Management shall make budget changes made necessary by the 82635
transfer, if any, including administrative organization, program 82636
transfers, the creation of new funds, the transfer of state funds, 82637
and the consolidation of funds, as authorized by this section. The 82638
Director of Budget and Management may, if necessary, establish 82639
encumbrances or parts of encumbrances created in fiscal years 2012 82640
and 2013 in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the 82641
same purpose and for payment to the same vendor in fiscal year 82642
2013. The established encumbrances plus any additional amounts 82643
determined to be necessary for the OFCC to perform the 82644
construction, energy, and capital funding operation and related 82645
management functions of the OSAE are hereby appropriated.82646

       (F) Not later than 30 days after the transfer and 82647
consolidation of the construction, energy, and capital funding 82648
operations and related management functions of the OSAE to the 82649
OFCC, an authorized officer of the OSAE shall certify to the OFCC 82650
the unexpended balance and location of any funds and accounts 82651
designated for building and facility operation and management 82652
functions, and the custody of such funds and accounts shall be 82653
transferred to the OFCC.82654

       (G) The OFCC and the Department of Natural Resources (DNR) 82655
shall cooperate in a study to determine which operation functions, 82656
if any, of the DNR Division of Engineering should be integrated 82657
and consolidated into the OFCC. The study shall be completed not 82658
later than December 31, 2012.82659

       Section 701.70.20. The Division of Labor in the Department of 82660
Commerce is hereby renamed the Division of Industrial Compliance 82661
on the effective date of section 121.04 of the Revised Code, as 82662
amended by this act. The Division and the Superintendent of 82663
Industrial Compliance shall have and perform all the duties, 82664
powers, and obligations of the Division and Superintendent of 82665
Labor. All rules, actions, determinations, commitments, 82666
resolutions, decisions, and agreements pertaining to the duties, 82667
powers, obligations, functions, and rights of the Division or 82668
Superintendent of Labor, in force or in effect on the effective 82669
date of section 121.04 of the Revised Code, as amended by this 82670
act, shall continue in force and effect and apply to the Division 82671
or Superintendent of Industrial Compliance as applicable and 82672
subject to any further lawful action thereon by the Division or 82673
Superintendent of Industrial Compliance. Wherever the 82674
Superintendent of Labor or Division of Labor are referred to in 82675
any provision of law, or in any agreement or document that 82676
pertains to those duties, powers, obligations, functions, and 82677
rights, the reference is to the Superintendent of Industrial 82678
Compliance or Division of Industrial Compliance, as appropriate.82679

       All authorized obligations and supplements thereto of the 82680
Superintendent and Division of Labor are binding on the 82681
Superintendent or Division of Industrial Compliance and nothing in 82682
this act impairs those obligations or rights or the obligations or 82683
rights under any contract. The renaming of the Division of Labor 82684
and Superintendent of Labor does not affect the validity of 82685
agreements or obligations made by that superintendent or division 82686
pursuant to Chapters 121., 3703., 3781., 3791., 4104., 4105., and 82687
4740. of the Revised Code or any other provisions of law.82688

       In connection with the renaming of the Division of Labor, all 82689
real property and interest therein, documents, books, money, 82690
papers, records, machinery, furnishings, office equipment, 82691
furniture, and all other property over which the Superintendent 82692
and Division of Labor have control and the rights of the 82693
Superintendent and Division of Labor to enforce or receive any of 82694
those is automatically transferred to the Superintendent and 82695
Division of Industrial Compliance without necessity for further 82696
action on the part of the Superintendent or Division of Industrial 82697
Compliance, or the Director of Commerce. Additionally, all 82698
appropriations or reappropriations made to the Superintendent and 82699
Division of Labor for the purposes of the performance of their 82700
duties, powers, and obligations, are transferred to the 82701
Superintendent and Division of Industrial Compliance to the extent 82702
of the remaining unexpended or unencumbered balance thereof, 82703
whether allocated or unallocated, and whether obligated or 82704
unobligated.82705

       Section 701.111. The new filing requirements applicable to 82706
persons who are elected or appointed to, or who are candidates 82707
for, an office of a township with a population of five thousand or 82708
more under section 102.02 of the Revised Code, as amended by this 82709
act, first apply to 2011 statements required to be filed by 82710
persons who are candidates for or serving in a township office in 82711
calendar year 2012, which shall be filed not later than ninety 82712
days after the effective date of this section.82713

       Section 701.121.  (A) The state of Ohio requests that the 82714
Joint Committee on the Library of Congress approve the replacement 82715
of Ohio's statue of Governor William Allen in the National 82716
Statuary Hall Collection with a statue of Thomas Edison. 82717

       (B) In accordance with the Procedure for Replacement of 82718
Statues in the National Statuary Hall Collection, Ohio submits the 82719
following information for consideration by the Joint Committee on 82720
the Library of Congress:82721

       (1) Thomas Edison, a native of Milan, Ohio, was a world 82722
famous inventor and highly successful businessperson whose 82723
inventions, such as the phonograph, the kinetoscope (a precursor 82724
to the film projector), and the first practical incandescent light 82725
bulb, have had a tremendous impact on the world. In addition to 82726
these inventions, Thomas Edison's service to the United States 82727
Government has also impacted world history. During World War I, he 82728
consulted for the government, examining inventions submitted for 82729
military use and working on defensive devices for submarines and 82730
ships. For his service, he eventually was awarded a Distinguished 82731
Service Medal by the Department of the Navy. By the time of his 82732
death, he had received over one thousand patents.82733

       Thomas Edison also has had a significant impact on the state 82734
of Ohio. He established the Edison Steel Company in Cleveland, 82735
Ohio, and established one of the first electric power stations in 82736
Tiffin, Ohio. His General Electric Company established the first 82737
industrial park in Ohio, which has employed hundreds of thousands 82738
of people over time. And the Ohio Department of Development 82739
sponsors The Thomas Edison Award, which was established in 82740
partnership with the Edison Birthplace Museum in Milan, Ohio. The 82741
Edison Birthplace Museum also has been instrumental in the 82742
issuance of a Thomas Edison stamp and commemorative silver dollar, 82743
and has received, on Thomas Edison's behalf, a posthumously 82744
awarded GRAMMY Award. 82745

       Thomas Edison's impact on the world, and, in particular, on 82746
the state of Ohio, through his inventions, business endeavors, and 82747
government service, merits inclusion of a statue of him in the 82748
National Statuary Hall Collection. 82749

       (2) The Ohio Statuary Hall Commission, a nonprofit Ohio 82750
corporation, was established in 2009 for the purpose of assisting 82751
with the process of recommending an Ohio citizen for statuary 82752
representation in the National Statuary Hall Collection, including 82753
raising funds and providing financial support for that effort. If 82754
the Joint Committee on the Library of Congress approves this 82755
replacement statue request, the Commission shall be responsible 82756
for the selection of a sculptor for the Thomas Edison statue as 82757
well as for paying all costs incurred for placing the Thomas 82758
Edison statue in the United States Capitol, including costs 82759
incurred for all of the following:82760

       (a) Paying the sculptor;82761

       (b) Carving or casting the statue;82762

       (c) Creating a pedestal and any inscription;82763

       (d) Transporting the statue and pedestal to the United States 82764
Capitol;82765

       (e) Removing and transporting the replaced statue;82766

       (f) Temporarily erecting the new statue in the Rotunda of the 82767
Capitol for the unveiling ceremony;82768

       (g) Expenses related to the unveiling ceremony; and82769

       (h) Any other expenses that the Ohio Statuary Hall Commission 82770
finds it to be necessary to incur.82771

       (C) As required by the Procedure for Replacement of Statues 82772
in the National Statuary Hall Collection, the Governor shall 82773
submit to the Architect of the Capitol a copy of this act, along 82774
with a letter from the Governor, requesting approval from the 82775
Joint Committee on the Library of Congress to replace Ohio's 82776
statue of Governor William Allen in the National Statuary Hall 82777
Collection with a statue of Thomas Edison.82778

       Section 701.131.  The amendment by this act to sections 82779
107.54 and 119.032 and the enactment by this act of section 82780
119.033 of the Revised Code apply to a rule that is subjected to 82781
review under section 119.032 of the Revised Code on or after 82782
January 1, 2013. The amendment by this act to sections 107.54 and 82783
119.032 and the enactment by this act of section 119.033 of the 82784
Revised Code do not apply to a rule the review of which under 82785
section 119.032 of the Revised Code is pending on January 1, 2013. 82786
Prior law continues to apply to these proposed rules and to these 82787
rules until the rule-making or the review proceedings are 82788
completed.82789

       Section 707.10. For fiscal years 2013 and 2014, the 82790
legislative authority of a municipal corporation in a county, with 82791
a population between three hundred seventy-five thousand and four 82792
hundred thousand according to the most recent federal decennial 82793
census, may conduct a pilot program whereby the legislative 82794
authority may use up to five per cent of the aggregate amount of 82795
money deposited in the municipal corporation's sewer fund and up 82796
to five per cent of the aggregate amount of money deposited in a 82797
fund created by the municipal corporation for water-works for the 82798
purpose of extending the municipal corporation's water or sewerage 82799
system, as applicable, if both of the following apply:82800

        (A) The water or sewerage system is being extended to areas 82801
for economic development purposes.82802

        (B) The areas into which the water or sewerage system is 82803
being extended are the subject of a cooperative economic 82804
development agreement entered into by the municipal corporation 82805
under section 701.07 of the Revised Code.82806

        With regard to either fund, the legislative authority shall 82807
not exceed the five per cent limit established in this section.82808

       Section 709.11. Upon the expiration of the term of a member 82809
who is serving on the Ohio Grape Industries Committee created in 82810
section 924.51 of the Revised Code immediately prior to the 82811
effective date of this act, the Director of Agriculture shall 82812
appoint a member for a new term in accordance with that section as 82813
amended by this act.82814

       Section 733.05.  Not later than ninety days after the 82815
effective date of this section, the Ohio Board of Regents shall 82816
complete a review of each entity that held the Department of 82817
Insurance's designation under section 3305.03 of the Revised Code 82818
immediately prior to the effective date of this act. In conducting 82819
the review, the Board shall comply with the applicable 82820
requirements of sections 3305.03 and 3305.031 of the Revised Code, 82821
as amended and enacted by this act.82822

       Section 733.10. (A) This section applies to a state 82823
university, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, 82824
that has a main campus subsidy-eligible undergraduate enrollment 82825
of more than 17,000 but less than 22,000 students for fiscal year 82826
2012.82827

       (B) Notwithstanding section 3313.41 of the Revised Code, when 82828
a school district board of education decides to dispose of real 82829
property that the board owns in its corporate capacity, exceeds in 82830
value ten thousand dollars, and is located within one hundred 82831
yards of any classroom or administrative building on the main 82832
campus of the state university as described in division (A) of 82833
this section, prior to offering that property for sale under 82834
divisions (A) to (G) of section 3313.41 of the Revised Code, the 82835
board may offer that property to the board of trustees of the 82836
state university in either or both of the following manners:82837

        (1) In an "as is" condition in return for an agreement 82838
between the board of trustees and the school district board, under 82839
which the university will provide the school district with in-kind 82840
services, educational programs, or other assistance valued in the 82841
aggregate in an amount reasonably related to the appraised fair 82842
market value of the property;82843

        (2) For sale for money at a price that is not higher than the 82844
appraised fair market value of that property.82845

        (C) If the board of trustees does not accept either offer, or 82846
if the agreement is not entered into between the school district 82847
board and the board of trustees, within sixty days after the offer 82848
is made by the district board, the district board then shall offer 82849
the property for sale as provided in division (G) of section 82850
3313.41 of the Revised Code.82851

       (D) This section expires on December 31, 2012.82852

       Section 737.10.  ABOLISHMENT OF THE PUBLIC HEALTH COUNCIL82853

       On the effective date of this section, the Public Health 82854
Council is abolished and the responsibilities of the Public Health 82855
Council are transferred to the Director of Health.82856

        Any business before the Public Health Council commenced but 82857
not completed before the effective date of this section shall be 82858
completed by the Director of Health. The business shall be 82859
completed in the same manner, and with the same effect, as if 82860
completed by the Director of Health immediately prior to the 82861
effective date of this section.82862

        No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 82863
liability is lost or impaired by reason of this act's abolishment 82864
of the Public Health Council and transfer of responsibility to the 82865
Director of Health. Each such validation, cure, right, privilege, 82866
remedy, obligation, or liability shall be administered by the 82867
Director of Health.82868

       All rules, orders, and determinations of the Public Health 82869
Council adopted or made immediately prior to the effective date of 82870
this section shall continue in effect as rules, orders, and 82871
determinations of the Director of Health until modified or 82872
rescinded by the Director of Health. If necessary to ensure the 82873
integrity of the numbering system of the Administrative Code, the 82874
Director of the Legislative Service Commission shall renumber the 82875
rules to reflect the transfer of the Public Health Council's 82876
responsibilities to the Director of Health.82877

        Any action or proceeding that is related to the functions or 82878
duties of the Public Health Council pending on the effective date 82879
of this section is not affected by the transfer and shall be 82880
prosecuted or defended in the name of the Director of Health. In 82881
all such actions and proceedings, the Director of Health, on 82882
application to the court, shall be substituted as a party.82883

       Section 737.20. (A) On the effective date of the amendment of 82884
the statutes governing the Division of Recycling and Litter 82885
Prevention in the Department of Natural Resources by this act or 82886
on July 1, 2012, whichever is later, the Division of Recycling and 82887
Litter Prevention is abolished, and all of its functions, together 82888
with its assets and liabilities, are transferred from within the 82889
Department of Natural Resources to within the Environmental 82890
Protection Agency.82891

       (B) Any business commenced but not completed by the Division 82892
of Recycling and Litter Prevention in the Department of Natural 82893
Resources on the effective date of the transfer shall be completed 82894
by the Environmental Protection Agency. Any validation, cure, 82895
right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or liability is not lost or 82896
impaired solely by reason of the transfer required by this section 82897
and shall be administered by the Environmental Protection Agency 82898
in accordance with this act.82899

       (C) All of the rules, orders, and determinations of the 82900
Division of Recycling and Litter Prevention in the Department of 82901
Natural Resources or of the Department of Natural Resources in 82902
relation to that Division continue in effect as rules, orders, and 82903
determinations of the Environmental Protection Agency until 82904
modified or rescinded by the Environmental Protection Agency. If 82905
necessary to ensure the integrity of the numbering of the 82906
Administrative Code, the Director of the Legislative Service 82907
Commission shall renumber rules of the Department of Natural 82908
Resources in relation to the former Division of Recycling and 82909
Litter Prevention in that Department to reflect the transfer to 82910
the Environmental Protection Agency.82911

       (D) Subject to the provisions of the applicable bargaining 82912
unit agreements, all of the positions of the Division of Recycling 82913
and Litter Prevention in the Department of Natural Resources are 82914
transferred to the Environmental Protection Agency. Employees who 82915
transfer with the positions shall retain their same or 82916
substantially similar positions and all the benefits accruing 82917
thereto. Upon completion of the transfer, the employees shall be 82918
subject to the policies and procedures of the Environmental 82919
Protection Agency.82920

       (E) Whenever the Division of Recycling and Litter Prevention 82921
in the Department of Natural Resources or the Chief of the 82922
Division of Recycling and Litter Prevention is referred to in any 82923
law, contract, or other document, the reference shall be deemed to 82924
refer to the Environmental Protection Agency or to the Director of 82925
Environmental Protection, whichever is appropriate in context.82926

       (F) Any action or proceeding pending on the effective date of 82927
the amendment of the statutes governing the Division of Recycling 82928
and Litter Prevention by this act is not affected by the transfer 82929
of the functions of that Division by this act and shall be 82930
prosecuted or defended in the name of the Environmental Protection 82931
Agency. In all such actions and proceedings, the Environmental 82932
Protection Agency, upon application to the court, shall be 82933
substituted as a party.82934

       Section 737.30. The Recycling and Litter Prevention Advisory 82935
Council created within the Environmental Protection Agency by 82936
section 3736.04 of the Revised Code, as amended and renumbered by 82937
this act, is a continuation of the Recycling and Litter Prevention 82938
Advisory Council created within the Division of Recycling and 82939
Litter Prevention in the Department of Natural Resources by 82940
section 1502.04 of the Revised Code prior to its amendment and 82941
renumbering by this act.82942

       Section 737.40. (A) As used in this section:82943

        (1) "Food service operation," "retail food establishment," 82944
and "vending machine location" have the same meanings as in 82945
section 3717.01 of the Revised Code.82946

        (2) "Micro market" means an area or room that has displays of 82947
not more than two hundred fifty linear feet that offer either of 82948
the following:82949

        (a) Prepackaged foods that are not time- or 82950
temperature-controlled for food safety purposes;82951

        (b) Prepackaged foods that are refrigerated or frozen and 82952
time- or temperature-controlled for food safety purposes and that 82953
are stored in equipment that complies with Chapter 3717-1 of the 82954
Administrative Code.82955

        (B) Until the Director of Agriculture adopts rules under 82956
section 3717.04 of the Revised Code governing the licensure of 82957
micro markets, the operation of a micro market is exempt from the 82958
licensure requirements for retail food establishments, food 82959
service operations, and vending machine locations established 82960
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code. This division applies to 82961
a micro market that was previously exempted under division (B)(5) 82962
of section 3717.22 of the Revised Code by the Director from being 82963
licensed as a retail food establishment.82964

        (C) Not later than sixty days following the adoption of rules 82965
by the Director under section 3717.04 of the Revised Code 82966
governing the licensure of micro markets, the operator of a micro 82967
market shall apply for a license in accordance with those rules.82968

       Section 737.50. Not later than 30 days after the amendment by 82969
this act of section 3791.11 of the Revised Code takes effect, the 82970
Treasurer of State shall give written notice to each property 82971
owner or lessee who, under former division (D) of that section, 82972
deposited money or a surety or government-issued bond with the 82973
Treasurer of State that the money will be refunded or the bond 82974
will be released within the following time period, and that the 82975
property owner or lessee must file a bond in the manner required 82976
by division (C) of section 3791.11 of the Revised Code immediately 82977
after the refund or release:82978

        (A) If money was deposited, the Treasurer of State will 82979
refund the money to the property owner or lessee within 180 days 82980
after the effective date of section 3791.11 of the Revised Code, 82981
as amended by this act;82982

        (B) If a surety bond was deposited, the Treasurer of State 82983
will release the bond to the property owner or lessee upon the 82984
earlier of the expiration of the bond or within two years after 82985
the effective date of section 3791.11 of the Revised Code, as 82986
amended by this act;82987

        (C) If a government-issued bond was deposited, the Treasurer 82988
of State will release the bond to the property owner or lessee 82989
within 180 days after the effective date of section 3791.11 of the 82990
Revised Code, as amended by this act.82991

       Section 737.60. LUPUS EDUCATION AND AWARENESS PROGRAM82992

       (A) In establishing the Lupus Education and Awareness Program 82993
under sections 3701.77 to 3701.775 of the Revised Code, as enacted 82994
by this act, the General Assembly hereby finds the following:82995

       (1) Lupus is a serious, complex, and debilitating autoimmune 82996
disease that can cause inflammation and tissue damage to virtually 82997
any organ system in the body, including the skin, joints, other 82998
connective tissue, blood and blood vessels, heart, lungs, kidneys, 82999
and brain.83000

       (2) The Lupus Foundation of America, Inc., estimates that 83001
approximately 1.5 to 2 million Americans live with lupus.83002

       (3) According to the Centers for Disease Control and 83003
Prevention, the rate of lupus mortality has increased since the 83004
late 1970s.83005

       (4) The pain and fatigue associated with lupus can threaten 83006
the ability to live independently, maintain employment, and lead a 83007
normal life. One in five individuals with lupus is disabled by the 83008
disease, and consequently receives support from government 83009
programs, including Medicare, Medicaid, Social Security 83010
Disability, and Social Security Supplemental Income.83011

       (5) The estimated average annual cost of medical treatment 83012
for an individual with lupus is between $10,000 and $30,000; for 83013
individuals who have the most serious form of lupus, medical costs 83014
can greatly exceed this amount, causing a significant economic, 83015
emotional, and social burden to the entire family and society.83016

       (6) More than half of individuals with lupus suffer four or 83017
more years and visit three or more physicians before obtaining a 83018
diagnosis of lupus; early diagnosis of and treatment for lupus can 83019
prevent or reduce serious organ damage, disability, and death.83020

       (7) Despite the magnitude of lupus and its impact on 83021
individuals and families, health professional and public 83022
understanding of lupus remains low; only one in five Americans can 83023
provide basic information about lupus, and awareness of lupus is 83024
lowest among adults 18 to 34 years of age - the age group most 83025
likely to develop lupus.83026

       (8) Lupus is a significant national health issue that 83027
deserves a comprehensive and coordinated response by state and 83028
federal governments with involvement of the health care provider, 83029
patient, and public health communities.83030

       (B) The purpose of sections 3701.77 to 3701.775 of the 83031
Revised Code, as enacted by this act, is to create a 83032
multi-pronged, statewide program to promote public and health 83033
professional awareness and increase knowledge concerning the 83034
causes and consequences of lupus, the importance of early 83035
diagnosis and appropriate management, and effective treatment and 83036
management strategies by all of the following:83037

       (1) Conducting educational and training programs for health 83038
professionals on lupus diagnosis and management;83039

       (2) Developing and disseminating educational materials and 83040
information to patients and health professionals on lupus research 83041
results and health care services available;83042

       (3) Designing and implementing a statewide public education 83043
campaign aimed at heightening public awareness of lupus;83044

       (4) Leveraging educational and training resources and 83045
services previously developed by organizations with appropriate 83046
expertise and knowledge of lupus.83047

       Section 737.70. PILOT PROGRAM FOR OPIOID- AND 83048
ALCOHOL-DEPENDENT OFFENDERS83049

       (A) The Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services 83050
shall conduct a pilot program to provide to certain 83051
opioid-dependent, alcohol-dependent, or opioid- and 83052
alcohol-dependent offenders within the criminal justice system 83053
treatment to prevent relapse into dependency, including 83054
medication-assisted treatment. The medication-assisted treatment 83055
shall be provided by using one or more drugs that constitute 83056
long-acting antagonist therapy and meet all of the following 83057
conditions:83058

       (1) There is no potential for abuse of the drugs by the 83059
person to whom they are given or through diversion of the drugs to 83060
others.83061

        (2) There is no potential for a person to become addicted to 83062
or otherwise dependent on the drugs.83063

        (3) The drugs have been approved by the United States Food 83064
and Drug Administration to prevent relapse into opioid dependency, 83065
alcohol dependency, or opioid and alcohol dependency.83066

        (B) The Department shall conduct the program in Franklin 83067
County and Scioto County and may conduct the program in any one or 83068
more other counties the Department selects. In conducting the 83069
program, the Department shall collaborate with the boards of 83070
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services that serve the 83071
counties included in the program. The Department also shall 83072
collaborate with the Departments of Mental Health, Job and Family 83073
Services, and Health and with any other state agency that the 83074
Department determines may be of assistance in accomplishing the 83075
objectives of the program.83076

        (C) The program shall serve not more than one hundred fifty 83077
opioid-dependent or alcohol-dependent offenders selected by the 83078
Department, each of whom meets all of the following criteria:83079

       (1) Is either being released from a community-based 83080
correctional facility or being diverted from prosecution under 83081
section 2935.36 of the Revised Code by a county drug court or 83082
municipal court;83083

        (2) Is transitioning to community-based programs as 83084
prescribed by the court;83085

        (3) Was opioid dependent, alcohol dependent, or opioid and 83086
alcohol dependent at the time of committing the offense for which 83087
the offender was most recently sentenced;83088

       (4) Resides in this state and in the offender's own 83089
court-approved residence or court-approved transitional housing.83090

        (D) A program participant shall do both of the following:83091

        (1) Commit to participate in the program for twelve months 83092
and comply with all requirements established by the program, 83093
sentencing court, and treatment providers, including testing, 83094
counseling, medication therapies, and reporting requirements;83095

        (2) Attend any on-site programming specified by the 83096
sentencing court or treatment provider.83097

        (E) Treatment under the program shall be provided by an 83098
alcohol and drug addiction program certified by the Department 83099
under section 3793.06 of the Revised Code. Treatment shall be 83100
based on an integrated service delivery model. The treatment 83101
provider shall do all of the following:83102

        (1) Conduct a professional, comprehensive substance abuse and 83103
mental health diagnostic assessment of each person who is a 83104
potential program participant to determine whether the person is 83105
opioid dependent, alcohol dependent, or opioid and alcohol 83106
dependent and would benefit from substance abuse treatment and 83107
monitoring to address the dependency;83108

        (2) Determine treatment needs for each program participant 83109
based on the diagnostic assessment;83110

        (3) Develop individualized goals and objectives for each 83111
program participant that follow guidelines provided by the 83112
Department;83113

        (4) Provide initial treatment to each program participant by 83114
persons professionally qualified to provide substance abuse 83115
counseling or treatment;83116

        (5) Provide substance abuse and co-occurring disorder 83117
treatment that includes psychosocial therapies and monthly 83118
medication-assisted treatment;83119

        (6) Provide access to long-acting antagonist therapies to the 83120
same extent that access may be provided to any other 83121
medication-assisted treatment approved by the United States Food 83122
and Drug Administration;83123

        (7) Monitor program compliance through regular urinalysis 83124
drug testing.83125

        (F) Not later than three months after the program has ended, 83126
Kent State University shall prepare a report of the findings 83127
obtained from the program, along with its recommendations, if any. 83128
The University shall include in the report data derived from the 83129
drug testing performed under the program. In preparing the report, 83130
the University shall obtain assistance from the Department of 83131
Alcohol and Drug Addition Services. When the report is complete, 83132
the University shall submit the report to the Governor; President 83133
of the Senate; Speaker of the House of Representatives; 83134
Departments of Mental Health, Job and Family Services, and Health; 83135
and any other agency the Department collaborates with in 83136
conducting the program.83137

       Section 737.81. (A) As used in this section, "source 83138
separated recyclable material" includes any material such as 83139
paper, cardboard, metal, glass, plastic, or similar material that 83140
is segregated by the producer or generator of the material in 83141
order to reuse or recycle the material.83142

       (B) On and after the effective date of this section through 83143
December 31, 2013, the board of county commissioners or board of 83144
directors of a solid waste management district shall not do any of 83145
the following:83146

       (1) Designate any new facilities or activities for the 83147
collection or processing of source separated recyclable material; 83148

       (2) Exercise rulemaking authority to require source separated 83149
recyclable material to be delivered to one or more specified 83150
facilities; 83151

       (3) Enter into any new contract for the collection of source 83152
separated recyclable material that requires the material to be 83153
delivered to one or more specified facilities. 83154

       Any designations, rules, or contracts existing on the 83155
effective date of this section shall remain in effect and, with 83156
respect to contracts, may be renewed.83157

       (C) On and after the effective date of this section through 83158
December 31, 2013, the board of county commissioners or board of 83159
directors of a solid waste management district proposing to 83160
construct a new recycling processing facility on land owned by the 83161
district or operate a new recycling processing facility shall do 83162
so only through a competitive selection process, including 83163
competitive bidding or competitive proposals.83164

       Section 737.91.  It is expected that the Futures Committee of 83165
the Ohio Association of Health Commissioners will release a report 83166
in June 2012 that evaluates the status of public health services 83167
in the state and offers ideas for the future role of boards of 83168
health and health districts in the state. The Legislative 83169
Committee on Public Health Futures shall review the Future 83170
Committee's report, and, on the basis of its review, recommend 83171
legislative and fiscal policies. The policy recommendations shall 83172
be considered for inclusion in the fiscal year 2013-2014 operating 83173
budget. The Legislative Committee, not later than October 31, 83174
2012, shall prepare a report that describes its review of the 83175
Future Committee's report, and that states, and provides 83176
explanations of, its policy recommendations. The Legislative 83177
Committee shall transmit a copy of its report to the Governor, the 83178
President and Minority Leader of the Senate, the Speaker and 83179
Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, and the 83180
chairpersons of the committees of the Senate and House of 83181
Representatives that will consider the public health phase of the 83182
2013-2014 operating budget. Upon transmitting its report, the 83183
Legislative Committee ceases to exist.83184

       There is the Legislative Committee on Public Health Futures. 83185
Each of the following associations shall appoint one individual to 83186
the Legislative Committee: the County Commissioners Association of 83187
Ohio, the Ohio Township Association, the Department of Health, the 83188
Association of Ohio Health Commissioners, the Ohio Public Health 83189
Association, the Ohio Environmental Health Association, the Ohio 83190
Boards of Health Association, the Ohio Municipal League, and the 83191
Ohio Hospital Association. The President and Minority Leader of 83192
the Senate each shall appoint one member of the Senate to the 83193
Legislative Committee. The Speaker and Minority Leader of the 83194
House of Representatives each shall appoint one member of the 83195
House of Representatives to the Legislative Committee. 83196
Appointments shall be made as soon as possible but not later than 83197
thirty days after the effective date of this section. Vacancies on 83198
the Legislative Committee shall be filled in the same manner as 83199
the original appointment.83200

       As soon as all members have been appointed to the Legislative 83201
Committee, the President of the Senate shall fix a time and place 83202
for the committee to hold its first meeting. At that meeting, the 83203
committee shall elect from among its membership a chairperson, a 83204
vice-chairperson, and a secretary. The Director of Health shall 83205
provide the Legislative Committee with meeting and office space, 83206
equipment, and professional, technical, and clerical staff as are 83207
necessary to enable the Legislative Committee successfully to 83208
complete its work.83209

       Section 747.10.10.  (A) The Manufactured Homes Commission 83210
shall adopt the rules required by section 4781.26 of the Revised 83211
Code as amended by this act not later than December 1, 2012. After 83212
adopting the rules, the Commission immediately shall notify the 83213
Director of Health.83214

       (B)(1) The rules governing manufactured home parks adopted by 83215
the Public Health Council under former section 3733.02 of the 83216
Revised Code shall remain in effect in a health district until the 83217
Commission adopts rules under section 4781.26 of the Revised Code 83218
as amended by this act.83219

       (2) On the effective date of the rules adopted by the 83220
Commission as required by section 4781.26 of the Revised Code as 83221
amended by this act, the Public Health Council rules adopted under 83222
former section 3733.02 of the Revised Code cease to be effective 83223
within the jurisdiction of that board of health.83224

       (C) No board of health of a city or general health district 83225
shall invoice or collect manufactured home park licensing fees for 83226
calendar year 2013.83227

       (D) As used in this section:83228

       (1) "Manufactured home park," "board of health," and "health 83229
district" have the same meanings as in section 4781.01 of the 83230
Revised Code, as amended by this act.83231

       (2) "Public Health Council" means the Public Health Council 83232
created by section 3701.33 of the Revised Code.83233

       Section 747.10.20.  Any manufactured home park license and 83234
inspection fees collected pursuant to former section 3733.04 of 83235
the Revised Code by a board of health prior to the transition of 83236
the annual license and inspection program to the Manufactured 83237
Homes Commission as required under this act in the amount of two 83238
thousand dollars or less may be transferred to the health fund of 83239
the city or general health district. Any of those funds in excess 83240
of two thousand dollars shall be transferred to the Manufactured 83241
Homes Commission Regulatory Fund created in section 4781.54 of the 83242
Revised Code as enacted by this act.83243

       Section 747.10.30.  Notwithstanding the original term of the 83244
appointment, the term of the Manufactured Homes Commission member 83245
who was appointed by the Governor as a representative of the 83246
Department of Health pursuant to division (B)(2)(b) of section 83247
4781.02 of the Revised Code shall end on the effective date of 83248
that section as amended by this act. The initial term of the 83249
registered sanitarian appointed to the Manufactured Homes 83250
Commission pursuant to section 4781.02 of the Revised Code, as 83251
amended by this act, shall expire on the date when the 83252
representative of the Department of Health's term would have 83253
expired, but for this section.83254

       Section 747.20.10. On the effective date of the amendments 83255
made to section 4765.02 of the Revised Code by this act, the 83256
member of the renamed State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and 83257
Transportation Services who is an administrator of an adult or 83258
pediatric trauma center shall cease to be a member of the Board. 83259
On the effective date of the amendments made to section 4765.02 of 83260
the Revised Code by this act, the member of the renamed State 83261
Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and Transportation Services who 83262
is a member of the Ohio Ambulance Association shall cease to be a 83263
member of the Board. On the effective date of the amendments made 83264
to section 4765.02 of the Revised Code by this act, the member of 83265
the renamed State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and 83266
Transportation Services who is a physician certified by the 83267
American board of surgery, American board of osteopathic surgery, 83268
American osteopathic board of emergency medicine, or American 83269
board of emergency medicine, is chief medical officer of an air 83270
medical agency, and is currently active in providing emergency 83271
medical services shall cease to be a member of the Board. On the 83272
effective date of the amendments made to section 4765.02 of the 83273
Revised Code by this act, of the members of the renamed State 83274
Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and Transportation Services who 83275
were EMTs, advanced EMTs, or paramedics and were appointed to the 83276
Board in that capacity, only the members who are designated by the 83277
Governor to continue to be members of the Board shall continue to 83278
be so; the other persons shall cease to be members of the Board. 83279
On the effective date of the amendments made to section 4765.02 of 83280
the Revised Code by this act, the member of the renamed State 83281
Board of Emergency Medical and Transportation Services who is a 83282
registered nurse and is in the active practice of emergency 83283
nursing shall cease to be a member of the Board. Not later than 83284
sixty days after the effective date of those amendments, the 83285
Governor shall appoint to the renamed State Board of Emergency 83286
Medical and Transportation Services a registered nurse with EMS 83287
certification who is in the active practice of critical care 83288
nursing. The Governor shall appoint this member from among three 83289
persons nominated by the Ohio Nurses Association, three persons 83290
nominated by the Ohio Association of Critical Care Transport, and 83291
three persons nominated by the Ohio State Council of the Emergency 83292
Nurses Association.83293

       On the effective date of the amendments made to section 83294
4765.02 of the Revised Code by this act, all members of the former 83295
State Board of Emergency Medical Services who do not cease to be 83296
members of the renamed State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and 83297
Transportation Services by the terms of this act shall continue to 83298
be members of the renamed State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, 83299
and Transportation Services, and the dates on which the terms of 83300
the continuing members expire shall be the dates on which their 83301
terms as members of the former State Board of Emergency Medical 83302
Services expired. On the effective date of the amendments made to 83303
section 4765.02 of the Revised Code by this act, the following 83304
members of the former Ohio Medical Transportation Board shall 83305
become members of the State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and 83306
Transportation Services, and the dates on which those members' 83307
terms on the State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and 83308
Transportation Services expire shall be as follows:83309

       (A) The person who owns or operates a private emergency 83310
medical service organization operating in this state, as 83311
designated by the Governor, term ends November 12, 2012;83312

       (B) The person who owns or operates a nonemergency medical 83313
service organization that provides only ambulette services, term 83314
ends November 12, 2012;83315

       (C) The person who is a member of the Ohio Association of 83316
Critical Care Transport and represents air-based services, term 83317
ends November 12, 2013.83318

       (D) The person who is a member of the Ohio Association of 83319
Critical Care Transport and represents a ground-based mobile 83320
intensive care unit organization, term ends November 12, 2013.83321

       All subsequent terms of office for these six positions on the 83322
State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and Transportation 83323
Services shall be for three years as provided in section 4765.02 83324
of the Revised Code.83325

       Section 747.20.20. TRANSFER OF THE MEDICAL TRANSPORTATION 83326
BOARD TO THE DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY83327

       On July 1, 2012, the Medical Transportation Board and all of 83328
its functions are transferred to the Department of Public Safety. 83329
As of such date, the Medical Transportation Board shall operate 83330
under the Department of Public Safety, which shall assume all of 83331
the Board's functions. All assets, liabilities, any capital 83332
spending authority related thereto, and equipment and records, 83333
regardless of form or medium, related to the Medical 83334
Transportation Board's functions are transferred to the Department 83335
of Public Safety on July 1, 2012.83336

       No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 83337
liability is lost or impaired by reason of the transfer. All of 83338
the Medical Transportation Board's rules, orders, and 83339
determinations continue in effect as rules, orders, and 83340
determinations of the Department of Public Safety until modified 83341
or rescinded by the Department of Public Safety.83342

       Subject to the lay-off provisions of sections 124.321 to 83343
124.328 of the Revised Code, all employees of the Medical 83344
Transportation Board are transferred to the Department of Public 83345
Safety and shall retain their positions and all benefits accruing 83346
thereto.83347

       No action or proceeding pending on July 1, 2012, is affected 83348
by the transfer and any action or proceeding pending on July 1, 83349
2012, shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 83350
Department of Public Safety or its director. In all such actions 83351
and proceedings, the Department of Public Safety or its director, 83352
upon application to the court, shall be substituted as a party.83353

       On or after July 1, 2012, notwithstanding any provision of 83354
law to the contrary, the Director of Budget and Management shall 83355
take any action with respect to budget changes made necessary by 83356
the transfer. The Director may transfer cash balances between 83357
funds. The Director may cancel encumbrances and reestablish 83358
encumbrances or parts of encumbrances as needed in the fiscal year 83359
in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the same 83360
purpose and to the same vendor. As determined by the Director, 83361
encumbrances reestablished in the fiscal year in a different fund 83362
or appropriation item used by an agency or between agencies are 83363
appropriated. The Director shall reduce each year's appropriation 83364
balances by the amount of the encumbrance canceled in their 83365
respective funds and appropriation item. Any unencumbered or 83366
unallocated appropriation balances from the previous fiscal year 83367
may be transferred to the appropriate appropriation item to be 83368
used for the same purposes, as determined by the Director. Any 83369
such transfers are hereby appropriated.83370

       Section 747.31. A licensee whose license is in a voluntary 83371
hold status under Chapter 4735. of the Revised Code on the 83372
effective date of this section may apply to the Superintendent of 83373
the Division of Real Estate and Professional Licensing for 83374
reactivation of the license in accordance with rules adopted by 83375
the Ohio Real Estate Commission or may apply to place the license 83376
in a resigned status within the ninety-day period after the 83377
effective date of this section. The license of a licensee who does 83378
not reactivate or resign a license that is in a voluntary hold 83379
status on the effective date of this section shall be 83380
automatically suspended. A suspended license may be reactivated 83381
within twelve months of the date of suspension, provided that the 83382
renewal fee plus a penalty fee of fifty per cent of the renewal 83383
fee is paid to the Superintendent. Failure to reactivate the 83384
suspended license within twelve months as provided in this section 83385
shall result in automatic revocation of the license without the 83386
taking of any action by the Superintendent.83387

       Section 751.03.  TRANSFER OF MEDICAID AND CHILDREN'S HEALTH 83388
INSURANCE PROGRAM83389

       (A) Notwithstanding the amendments made by this act to 83390
section 5111.01 of the Revised Code:83391

       (1) The Office of Medical Assistance shall not replace the 83392
Department of Job and Family Services as the single state agency 83393
to supervise the administration of Medicaid until the replacement 83394
is approved by the United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid 83395
Services if such approval is needed.83396

       (2) A contract regarding Medicaid or the Children's Health 83397
Insurance Program that is in effect on the effective date of this 83398
section shall continue to be operated in accordance with the 83399
contract's terms until the contract is amended, expires, or is 83400
terminated. 83401

       (B) Subject to division (A)(1) of this section:83402

       (1) The Office of Medical Assistance is responsible for 83403
entering into contracts regarding Medicaid and the Children's 83404
Health Insurance Program on or after the effective date of this 83405
section.83406

       (2) Any rules of the Department of Job and Family Services 83407
regarding Medicaid or the Children's Health Insurance Program that 83408
are in effect on the effective date of this section are hereby 83409
rules of the Office of Medical Assistance and the Medical 83410
Assistance Director may amend or rescind the rules in a manner 83411
consistent with the statutes that authorize the rules.83412

       (C) The Director of Job and Family Services and Medical 83413
Assistance Director shall collaborate as necessary to provide for 83414
the Office of Medical Assistance to assume the Department of Job 83415
and Family Services' duties and authorities regarding Medicaid and 83416
the Children's Health Insurance Program.83417

       (D) It is the General Assembly's intent to amend the laws 83418
governing Medicaid and the Children's Health Insurance Program to 83419
replace references to the Director of Job and Family Services with 83420
references to the Medical Assistance Director and to replace 83421
references to the Department of Job and Family Services with 83422
references to the Office of Medical Assistance as appropriate in 83423
the context of transferring authority for those programs from the 83424
Department of Job and Family Services to the Office of Medical 83425
Assistance.83426

       Section 751.05.  FISCAL YEAR 2013 QUALITY BONUS PAYMENTS TO 83427
NURSING FACILITIES83428

       (A) As used in this section:83429

       (1) "Medicaid days," "nursing facility," and "provider" have 83430
the same meanings as in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.83431

       (2) "Point days" means the product of the following:83432

       (a) A qualifying nursing facility's quality bonus points for 83433
fiscal year 2013;83434

       (b) The number of the qualifying nursing facility's Medicaid 83435
days in fiscal year 2012.83436

       (3) "Qualifying nursing facility" means a nursing facility 83437
that qualifies for a quality bonus for fiscal year 2013 as 83438
determined under division (C) of this section.83439

       (4) "Quality bonus points" means the amount determined by 83440
subtracting five from the number of points awarded to a qualifying 83441
nursing facility under division (C) of section 5111.244 of the 83442
Revised Code for fiscal year 2013.83443

       (B) In addition to the quality bonuses, if any, to be paid to 83444
nursing facilities in accordance with section 5111.245 of the 83445
Revised Code for fiscal year 2013, quality bonuses also shall be 83446
paid to nursing facilities in accordance with this section for 83447
fiscal year 2013.83448

       (C) Not later than July 31, 2012, the Department of Job and 83449
Family Services shall pay a nursing facility provider a quality 83450
bonus for fiscal year 2013 if the provider's nursing facility is 83451
awarded more than five points under division (C) of section 83452
5111.244 of the Revised Code for fiscal year 2013 and at least one 83453
of the points is awarded to the nursing facility pursuant to 83454
division (C)(10), (11), (12), (13), or (14) of that section.83455

       (D) The total quality bonus to be paid to the provider of a 83456
qualifying nursing facility for fiscal year 2013 shall equal the 83457
product of the following:83458

       (1) The quality bonus per Medicaid day for the fiscal year 83459
determined for the provider's qualifying nursing facility under 83460
division (E) of this section;83461

       (2) The number of the qualifying nursing facility's Medicaid 83462
days in fiscal year 2012.83463

       (E) A qualifying nursing facility's quality bonus per 83464
Medicaid day for fiscal year 2013 shall be the product of the 83465
following:83466

       (1) The nursing facility's quality bonus points for fiscal 83467
year 2013;83468

       (2) The quality bonus per point for fiscal year 2013 83469
determined under division (F) of this section.83470

       (F) The quality bonus per point for fiscal year 2013 shall be 83471
determined as follows:83472

       (1) Determine the number of each qualifying nursing 83473
facility's point days for fiscal year 2013.83474

       (2) Determine the sum of all qualifying nursing facilities' 83475
point days for fiscal year 2013.83476

       (3) Divide thirty million dollars by the sum determined under 83477
division (F)(2) of this section.83478

       (G) The calculation of a qualifying nursing facility's bonus 83479
payment is not subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised 83480
Code.83481

       (H) The Director of Job and Family Services may adopt rules 83482
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to 83483
implement this section.83484

       Section 751.10. LICENSURE OF ICFs/MR AS RESIDENTIAL 83485
FACILITIES83486

       (A) Until July 1, 2013, a person or government agency that, 83487
on the effective date of this section, operates an intermediate 83488
care facility for the mentally retarded pursuant to a nursing home 83489
license issued under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code shall not 83490
be subject to a penalty under section 5123.99 of the Revised Code 83491
for operating the facility without a license issued under section 83492
5123.19 of the Revised Code notwithstanding sections 5123.20 and 83493
5123.99 of the Revised Code.83494

        (B) Notwithstanding the amendments by this act to sections 83495
3702.62, 3721.01, and 5123.19 of the Revised Code and the repeal 83496
by this act of section 5123.192 of the Revised Code, an 83497
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded that is 83498
licensed as a nursing home under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code 83499
on the effective date of this section shall continue to be a 83500
nursing home for the purposes for which it is considered to be a 83501
nursing home under the law in effect on the day immediately 83502
preceding the effective date of those amendments and that repeal 83503
until the earliest of the following:83504

        (1) The date that the facility's nursing home license is 83505
revoked or voided under section 3721.07 of the Revised Code;83506

        (2) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 83507
for the facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;83508

        (3) July 1, 2013.83509

        (C) Notwithstanding the amendment by this act to section 83510
3721.21 of the Revised Code, a nursing home or part of a nursing 83511
home certified as an intermediate care facility for the mentally 83512
retarded on the effective date of this section shall continue to 83513
be excluded from the definition of "long-term care facility" in 83514
that section for as long as it is certified as an intermediate 83515
care facility for the mentally retarded.83516

       (D) Notwithstanding the amendment by this act to section 83517
3721.50 of the Revised Code, a nursing home or part of a nursing 83518
home licensed under section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code 83519
that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 83520
mentally retarded on the effective date of this section shall 83521
continue to be exempt from the franchise permit fee under sections 83522
3721.50 to 3721.58 of the Revised Code and instead subject to the 83523
franchise permit fee under sections 5112.30 to 5112.39 of the 83524
Revised Code for as long as it is certified as an intermediate 83525
care facility for the mentally retarded.83526

        (E) Notwithstanding the amendment by this act to section 83527
5123.41 of the Revised Code, a nursing home or part of a nursing 83528
home that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 83529
mentally retarded on the effective date of this section shall 83530
continue to be a residential facility for the purpose of section 83531
5123.41 of the Revised Code for as long as it is certified as an 83532
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded or is 83533
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.83534

        (F) Notwithstanding the amendment by this act to section 83535
5126.51 of the Revised Code, a nursing home or part of a nursing 83536
home that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 83537
mentally retarded on the effective date of this section shall 83538
continue to be a residential facility for the purpose of section 83539
5126.51 of the Revised Code for as long as it is certified as an 83540
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded or otherwise 83541
meets the definition of "residential facility" in section 5123.19 83542
of the Revised Code.83543

       Section 751.10.10. ADULT CARE FACILITY LICENSURE TRANSITION83544

       Pursuant to the amendment and repeal by this act of sections 83545
5119.22, 5119.70 to 5119.88, and 5119.99 of the Revised Code, the 83546
Director of Mental Health may convert an adult care facility's 83547
license in effect immediately before the effective date of this 83548
section to a license as a residential facility. Until the Director 83549
converts the license or issues an order denying the conversion, 83550
the adult care facility's license is deemed to be a residential 83551
facility license. All rules, orders, and determinations pertaining 83552
to the adult care facility license continue in effect as rules, 83553
orders, and determinations pertaining to the residential facility 83554
license.83555

       Section 751.12. TRANSITION FOR CERTIFIED ADULT FOSTER HOMES83556

       Pursuant to the amendment and repeal by this act of sections 83557
5119.22, 5119.692, and 5119.693 of the Revised Code, the Director 83558
of Mental Health may convert an adult foster home's certification 83559
in effect immediately before the effective date of this section to 83560
a license as a residential facility. Until the Director converts 83561
the certification or issues an order denying the conversion, the 83562
adult foster home's certification is deemed to be a residential 83563
facility license. All rules, orders, and determinations pertaining 83564
to the adult foster home's certification continue in effect as 83565
rules, orders, and determinations pertaining to the residential 83566
facility license.83567

       Section 751.15. AGING IN PLACE PILOT PROGRAM83568

       (A) As used in this section:83569

       (1) "Aging in Place administrator" means the organization 83570
that contracts with the Department of Aging pursuant to division 83571
(E) of this section to administer the Aging in Place pilot 83572
program.83573

       (2) "Nursing home" and "residential care facility" have the 83574
same meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.83575

       (3) "Residential facility" means a residential facility as 83576
defined in section 5119.22 or a residential facility as defined in 83577
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.83578

       (4) "Veteran" means either of the following:83579

        (a) A former member of the armed forces of the United States 83580
who served on active military duty and received an honorable 83581
discharge or honorable separation;83582

        (b) A member of the United States army transport service or 83583
the United States naval transport service who has an honorable 83584
report of separation from the active duty military service, form 83585
DD214 or DD215.83586

       (B) The Department of Aging shall establish the Aging in 83587
Place pilot program in Butler, Clermont, Hamilton, and Warren 83588
counties. Up to one hundred eighty eligible individuals may enroll 83589
in the pilot program to receive home repairs and modifications 83590
that are covered by the pilot program. The pilot program shall be 83591
operated for two years.83592

       (C) To be eligible to enroll in the Aging in Place pilot 83593
program, an individual must meet all of the following 83594
requirements:83595

       (1) The individual must be at least fifty years of age or a 83596
veteran of any age.83597

       (2) The individual must be a resident of one of the counties 83598
in which the pilot program is established.83599

       (3) The individual must reside in a private residence that is 83600
not a nursing home, residential care facility, residential 83601
facility, or other facility that may not operate legally without a 83602
license, certificate, or other authority issued by an agency of 83603
this state or a political subdivision of this state.83604

       (4) The individual or a member of the individual's household 83605
must own the private residence in which the individual resides.83606

       (5) The individual must be at risk of moving to a nursing 83607
home or residential care facility due to a medical condition.83608

       (6) The private residence in which the individual resides 83609
must be in need of a repair or modification covered by the pilot 83610
program.83611

       (7) The individual must meet any other requirements specified 83612
in rules adopted under this section.83613

       (D) The Aging in Place pilot program shall cover home repairs 83614
and modifications specified in rules adopted under this section.83615

       (E) The Department of Aging shall contract with an 83616
organization that meets all of the following requirements to 83617
administer the Aging in Place pilot program:83618

       (1) It must have been founded not later than 1975.83619

       (2) It must provide professional and critical home repair and 83620
modification services to individuals who reside in the counties in 83621
which the pilot program is established and have low incomes or are 83622
elderly or disabled.83623

       (3) It must be exempt from federal income taxation under 83624
section 501(a) and described in section 501(c)(3) of the "Internal 83625
Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 501, as amended.83626

       (F) The Aging in Place administrator may help coordinate the 83627
home repairs and modifications provided under the Aging in Place 83628
pilot program with home health services that individuals enrolled 83629
in the pilot program receive under the Medicaid program or other 83630
programs.83631

       (G) The Aging in Place administrator shall seek 83632
nongovernmental funds to help pay the costs of the Aging in Place 83633
pilot program.83634

       (H) The Department of Job and Family Services shall apply to 83635
the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services for a 83636
federal Medicaid waiver to make the Aging in Place pilot program a 83637
component of the Medicaid program. If the waiver is granted, the 83638
Department of Job and Family Services shall enter into an 83639
interagency agreement with the Department of Aging under section 83640
5111.91 of the Revised Code regarding the Department of Aging's 83641
duties under this section and the Department of Aging shall 83642
establish the pilot program as a Medicaid component. If the waiver 83643
is not granted, the Department of Aging shall establish the pilot 83644
program as a non-Medicaid program.83645

       (I) The Director of Aging shall adopt rules in accordance 83646
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to implement 83647
this section. If the Aging in Place pilot program is established 83648
as a Medicaid component, the Director of Job and Family Services 83649
shall adopt any rules that are necessary for the Director of Aging 83650
to be able to adopt the rules for the pilot program.83651

       (J) Not later than ninety days after the termination of the 83652
Aging in Place pilot program, the Department of Aging shall 83653
prepare a report regarding the pilot program. On completion of the 83654
report, the Department shall submit it to the Governor and, in 83655
accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, the General 83656
Assembly. The report shall include the Department's conclusions 83657
regarding all of the following:83658

       (1) The number of individuals in the state who would benefit 83659
from the services covered by the pilot program if the services 83660
were made available statewide;83661

       (2) How governmental and nongovernmental resources can be 83662
leveraged most efficiently to make the services available 83663
statewide;83664

       (3) The costs, if any, that the Medicaid program and other 83665
governmental health care programs would incur if the services were 83666
available statewide;83667

       (4) The impact that the services would have on the quality of 83668
patient care and treatment;83669

       (5) The impact that the services would have on the 83670
communities in which they would be provided;83671

       (6) The overall costs and benefits to the state that the 83672
services would have.83673

       Section 751.17. OHIO WORKS FIRST DRUG TESTING PILOT PROGRAM83674

        (A) As used in this section:83675

       (1) "Adult," "assistance group," "minor child," and "Ohio 83676
Works First" have the same meanings as in section 5107.02 of the 83677
Revised Code.83678

       (2) "Chemical dependency" means the use of a drug of abuse to 83679
the extent that the user becomes physically or psychologically 83680
dependent on the drug or endangers the user's health, safety, or 83681
welfare or that of others.83682

       (3) "Drug of abuse" means any controlled substance as defined 83683
in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code, any harmful intoxicant as 83684
defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, and any dangerous 83685
drug as defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.83686

       (4) "Drug test" means either of the following that is 83687
conducted to determine whether a drug of abuse is present in a 83688
biological specimen taken from an individual's body:83689

       (a) A chemical test of an individual's urine;83690

       (b) An oral fluid test that uses a swab.83691

       (5)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(5)(b) of this 83692
section, "fail a drug test" means that a drug test reveals the 83693
presence of a drug of abuse in a biological specimen taken from an 83694
individual's body.83695

        (b) An individual shall not be determined to have failed a 83696
drug test if the individual obtained the drug of abuse pursuant to 83697
a prescription issued by a licensed health professional authorized 83698
to prescribe drugs and the individual injected, ingested, or 83699
inhaled the drug of abuse in accordance with the licensed health 83700
professional's directions.83701

       (6) "Licensed health professional authorized to prescribe 83702
drugs" and "prescription" have the same meanings as in section 83703
4729.01 of the Revised Code.83704

       (7) "Participating county" means a county participating in 83705
the pilot program established under this section.83706

       (8) "Pass a drug test" means that a drug test does not reveal 83707
the presence of a drug of abuse in a biological specimen taken 83708
from an individual's body.83709

       (9) "Work-eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 45 83710
C.F.R. 261.2(n).83711

       (B) Not later than ninety days after the effective date of 83712
this section, the Director of Job and Family Services shall 83713
establish an Ohio Works First drug testing pilot program. The 83714
pilot program shall be operated for two years in three counties 83715
the Director selects, except that the Director may select a county 83716
to participate only if the board of county commissioners of the 83717
county volunteers to have the county participate. In selecting 83718
counties, the Director shall strive to have one rural, one 83719
suburban, and one urban county participate. 83720

       Under the pilot program, the county department of job and 83721
family services of each participating county shall conduct an 83722
assessment of each adult member of an assistance group that 83723
applies to participate in Ohio Works First to determine whether 83724
there is reasonable cause to suspect that any of the adults have a 83725
chemical dependency. The assessment shall be conducted in 83726
accordance with rules adopted under this section and as part of 83727
the process of determining under section 5107.12 of the Revised 83728
Code whether the assistance group is initially eligible to 83729
participate in Ohio Works First. The assessment shall not be 83730
conducted as part of an eligibility redetermination. If pursuant 83731
to an assessment conducted under the pilot program there is 83732
reasonable cause to suspect that an adult has a chemical 83733
dependency, the county department shall require the adult to 83734
undergo a drug test.83735

        (C) The cash assistance that an assistance group receives 83736
under Ohio Works First shall be provided to a protective payee 83737
approved by the county department of job and family services if an 83738
adult member of the assistance group refuses to cooperate with an 83739
assessment conducted under the pilot program, refuses to undergo a 83740
drug test when required to do so under the pilot program, or fails 83741
a drug test conducted under the pilot program. The protective 83742
payee may not be a member of the assistance group. The protective 83743
payee shall act as a representative of the assistance group and 83744
manage the assistance group's cash assistance on behalf of the 83745
assistance group. Except as provided in division (D) of this 83746
section, the assistance group's cash assistance shall be provided 83747
to the protective payee for one year. After the one-year period, 83748
the cash assistance shall be provided to the assistance group 83749
unless rules adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised Code 83750
provide for the cash assistance to be provided to a protective 83751
payee due to another circumstance.83752

        (D) The county department of job and family services of a 83753
participating county shall refer an adult who fails a drug test 83754
conducted pursuant to division (B) of this section to the board of 83755
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services that serves 83756
the same county as the county department. If the adult, acting on 83757
the referral, requests services from the board to which the adult 83758
is referred, the board shall refer the adult to an alcohol and 83759
drug addiction program certified by the Department of Alcohol and 83760
Drug Addiction Services under section 3793.06 of the Revised Code.83761

       Not sooner than six months after the date that the cash 83762
assistance of the adult's assistance group begins to be provided 83763
to a protective payee pursuant to division (C) of this section, 83764
the adult may submit a request to the county department to have 83765
the assistance group's cash assistance cease to be provided to the 83766
protective payee and begin to be provided to the assistance group. 83767
The adult must include with the request documentation that is 83768
acceptable to the county department and shows that the adult 83769
successfully completed the treatment provided by the certified 83770
alcohol and drug addiction program to which the adult was referred 83771
under this division. The county department may approve the request 83772
if the adult undergoes a drug test and passes the drug test. 83773
However, the county department shall disapprove the request if 83774
rules adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised Code provide 83775
for the cash assistance to be provided to a protective payee due 83776
to another circumstance. If the adult fails to undergo a drug test 83777
or fails the drug test, the cash assistance shall continue to be 83778
provided to the protective payee for an additional year beginning 83779
on the date that is twelve months after the date that the cash 83780
assistance first began to be provided to the protective payee 83781
under division (C) of this section.83782

        (E) An assistance group's cash assistance shall be provided 83783
to a protective payee for the period specified in division (C) or 83784
(D) of this section, as applicable, regardless of whether that 83785
period extends beyond the date the pilot program ends.83786

        (F) The provision of an assistance group's cash assistance to 83787
a protective payee as required by this section does not excuse the 83788
members of the assistance group or any work-eligible individuals 83789
from compliance with any of the Ohio Works First requirements 83790
applicable to them.83791

       (G) The county department of job and family services of a 83792
participating county shall determine which type of drug test to 83793
use under the pilot program. An adult undergoing the drug test is 83794
responsible for the cost of the drug test.83795

       (H) The Director of Job and Family Services shall adopt rules 83796
as necessary to implement the pilot program, including rules 83797
governing the assessments conducted under division (B) of this 83798
section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 83799
119. of the Revised Code.83800

       (I)(1) The Director of Job and Family Services shall prepare 83801
a report regarding the pilot program. The report shall include all 83802
of the following information:83803

       (a) The number of adults for whom reasonable cause to suspect 83804
they have a chemical dependency is found pursuant to assessments 83805
conducted under division (B) of this section;83806

        (b) The number of adults required to undergo drug tests;83807

       (c) The number of adults who fail drug tests;83808

       (d) The costs of the drug tests;83809

       (e) The total amount of time that Ohio Works First cash 83810
assistance is provided to protective payees under the pilot 83811
program as of the date the report is prepared;83812

       (f) Regarding the adults who are referred to certified 83813
alcohol and drug addiction programs under division (D) of this 83814
section, all of the following:83815

        (i) The number of the adults who complete the treatment 83816
provided by the programs;83817

        (ii) The number of the adults who are employed as of the date 83818
the report is prepared;83819

        (iii) In the case of the adults who are not employed at the 83820
time they complete the treatment but become employed by the date 83821
the report is prepared, the average number of months it took the 83822
adults after completing the treatment to become employed.83823

       (2) The county department of job and family services of each 83824
participating county shall provide any information the Director 83825
needs to prepare the report. Not later than ninety days after the 83826
conclusion of the pilot program, the Director shall submit the 83827
report to the Governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of 83828
the Revised Code, the General Assembly.83829

       Section 751.20. The amendments by this act to Section 3 of 83830
Am. Sub. S.B. 38 of the 120th General Assembly eliminate the 83831
exemptions from the requirements of sections 3701.881 and 5126.28 83832
of the Revised Code that Section 3 of that act gave to persons 83833
who, before October 29, 1993, were employed or had applied for 83834
employment in positions covered by sections 3701.881 and 5126.28 83835
of the Revised Code. The amendments by this act to Section 3 of 83836
Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st General Assembly eliminate the 83837
exemptions from the requirements of sections 173.41 (as 83838
subsequently renumbered as 173.394) and 3701.881 of the Revised 83839
Code that Section 3 of that act gave to persons who, before 83840
January 27, 1997, were employed or had applied for employment in 83841
positions covered by sections 173.41 (173.394) and 3701.881 of the 83842
Revised Code. The exemptions are eliminated in conjunction with 83843
this act's amendments to sections 173.394, 3701.881, and 5123.081 83844
of the Revised Code and the repeal of section 5126.28 of the 83845
Revised Code so that the Directors of Aging, Health, and 83846
Developmental Disabilities may adopt rules under those amended 83847
sections to make persons formerly exempt from the requirements of 83848
sections 173.394, 3701.881, and 5126.28 of the Revised Code 83849
subject to the requirements of sections 173.394, 3701.881, and 83850
5123.081 of the Revised Code.83851

       Section 753.11. (A) Notwithstanding section 3313.41 of the 83852
Revised Code, during the period beginning June 30, 2005, and 83853
ending December 31, 2005, a school district board of education in 83854
support of economic development within the territory of the 83855
district may dispose of real property that it owns in its 83856
corporate capacity, and that exceeds in value ten thousand 83857
dollars, by direct sale in lieu of offering the property for sale 83858
at public auction as provided in division (A) of that section, in 83859
lieu of offering the property for sale to an entity listed in 83860
division (C) of that section, or in lieu of offering the property 83861
for sale to a community school as provided in division (G) of that 83862
section, if all of the following conditions are satisfied:83863

        (1) The real property is encumbered by easements, liens, or 83864
other use restrictions that benefit the person acquiring the 83865
property under this section;83866

        (2) The real property was part of or adjacent to real 83867
property previously disposed of by the board of education;83868

        (3) The real property when sold will be used for commercial 83869
development.83870

        (B) Notwithstanding division (A)(3) of this section, on or 83871
after the effective date of this section, the real property may be 83872
used for residential development as well as commercial 83873
development.83874

       Section 753.13.  That Section 2 of Am. Sub. S.B. 63 of the 83875
121st General Assembly is repealed.83876

       This repeal releases the use, ownership, and conveyance 83877
restrictions, and rescinds the state's right of reversion, with 83878
respect to real estate conveyed to the City of Broadview Heights 83879
under Section 1 of Am. Sub. S.B. 63 of the 121st General Assembly.83880

       Section 753.14. Within thirty days after the effective date 83881
of Section 753.13 of this act, the Auditor of State, with the 83882
assistance of the Attorney General, shall, consistent with that 83883
section, prepare a deed to the real estate. The deed shall be 83884
executed by the Governor in the name of the state, countersigned 83885
by the Secretary of State, sealed with the Great Seal of the 83886
State, presented in the office of the Auditor of State for 83887
recording, and delivered to the City of Broadview Heights. The 83888
City of Broadview Heights shall present the deed for recording in 83889
the Office of the Cuyahoga County Recorder.83890

       Section 755.10. One year after the effective date of this 83891
act, the Director of the Department of Rehabilitation and 83892
Correction, after consultation with the State Highway Patrol, the 83893
Department of Public Safety, the Fraternal Order of Police of 83894
Ohio, and the Buckeye State Sheriff's Association, shall submit a 83895
written report to the Governor, the President of the Senate, the 83896
Speaker of the House of Representatives, the minority leader of 83897
the Senate, and the minority leader of the House of 83898
Representatives on the effectiveness of the State Highway Patrol's 83899
authority to enforce the criminal laws in the Lake Erie 83900
Correctional Institution pursuant to section 5503.03 of the 83901
Revised Code, as amended by this act.83902

       Section 757.10. A board of township trustees or the 83903
legislative authority of a municipal corporation to which section 83904
5705.19 or 5705.252 of the Revised Code applies, as enacted or 83905
amended by this act, may adopt the resolution proposing the levy 83906
of the tax or the combined questions authorized by those 83907
enactments or amendments and certify a copy of the resolution to 83908
the proper county board of elections as otherwise prescribed by 83909
law after this act becomes law and before the effective date of 83910
those enactments or amendments, requesting that the board of 83911
elections submit the proposal to the electors at the general 83912
election occurring on November 6, 2012. The board of elections, 83913
upon receiving a properly certified copy of such a resolution not 83914
later than four p.m. on August 8, 2012, shall submit the proposal 83915
to electors at that election as otherwise provided under section 83916
5705.25 or 5705.252 of the Revised Code, and such actions of the 83917
board of township trustees, municipal legislative authority, and 83918
board of elections are hereby ratified.83919

       Section 757.20. As used in this section, "qualified property" 83920
means real property that either:83921

       (A) Satisfies the qualifications for tax exemption under the 83922
terms of section 5709.07 of the Revised Code and is owned by a 83923
church as defined in that section;83924

        (B) Satisfies the qualifications for tax exemption under the 83925
terms of section 5709.08 of the Revised Code and is owned by a 83926
township that acquired the property from a county.83927

       Notwithstanding section 5713.081 of the Revised Code, when 83928
qualified property has not received tax exemption due to a failure 83929
to comply with Chapter 5713. or section 5715.27 of the Revised 83930
Code, the current owner of the property, or the prior owner of the 83931
property requesting exemption from prior taxes, at any time on or 83932
before twelve months after the effective date of this section, may 83933
file with the Tax Commissioner an application requesting that the 83934
property be placed on the tax-exempt list and that all unpaid 83935
taxes, penalties, and interest on the property be abated.83936

       The application shall be made on the form prescribed by the 83937
Tax Commissioner under section 5715.27 of the Revised Code and 83938
shall list the name of the county in which the property is 83939
located; the property's legal description; its taxable value; the 83940
amount in dollars of the unpaid taxes, penalties, and interest; 83941
the date of acquisition of title to the property; the use of the 83942
property during any time that the unpaid taxes accrued; and any 83943
other information required by the Tax Commissioner. The county 83944
auditor shall supply the required information upon request of the 83945
applicant.83946

       Upon request of the applicant, the county treasurer shall 83947
determine if all taxes, penalties, and interest that became a lien 83948
on the qualified property before it first was used for an exempt 83949
purpose and all special assessments charged against the property 83950
have been paid in full. If so, the county treasurer shall issue a 83951
certificate to the applicant stating that all such taxes, 83952
penalties, interest, and assessments have been paid in full. Prior 83953
to filing the application with the Tax Commissioner, the applicant 83954
shall attach the county treasurer's certificate to it. The Tax 83955
Commissioner shall not consider an application filed under this 83956
section unless such a certificate is attached to it.83957

       Upon receipt of the application and after consideration of 83958
it, the Tax Commissioner shall determine if the applicant meets 83959
the qualifications set forth in this section, and if so shall 83960
issue an order directing that the property be placed on the 83961
tax-exempt list of the county and that all unpaid taxes, 83962
penalties, and interest for every year the property met the 83963
qualifications for exemption described in section 5709.07 or 83964
5709.08 of the Revised Code be abated. If the Tax Commissioner 83965
finds that the property is not now being so used or is being used 83966
for a purpose that would foreclose its right to tax exemption, the 83967
Tax Commissioner shall issue an order denying the application.83968

       If the Tax Commissioner finds that the property is not 83969
entitled to tax exemption and to the abatement of unpaid taxes, 83970
penalties, and interest for any of the years for which the current 83971
or prior owner claims an exemption or abatement, the Tax 83972
Commissioner shall order the county treasurer of the county in 83973
which the property is located to collect all taxes, penalties, and 83974
interest due on the property for those years in accordance with 83975
law.83976

       The Tax Commissioner may apply this section to any qualified 83977
property that is the subject of an application for exemption 83978
pending before the Tax Commissioner on the effective date of this 83979
section, without requiring the property owner to file an 83980
additional application. The Tax Commissioner also may apply this 83981
section to any qualified property that is the subject of an 83982
application for exemption filed on or after the effective date of 83983
this section and on or before twelve months after that effective 83984
date, even though the application does not expressly request 83985
abatement of unpaid taxes, penalties, and interest.83986

       Section 757.51.  The amendment by this act of section 5713.03 83987
of the Revised Code applies to the first tax year, after tax year 83988
2012, to which division (A) or (B) of section 5715.24 of the 83989
Revised Code applies in the county.83990

       Section 757.61. The General Assembly hereby declares that the 83991
intent of the amendment by this act of section 5739.02 of the 83992
Revised Code is to clarify the law as it existed prior to the 83993
amendment by this act of that section.83994

       Section 806.10. The items of law contained in this act, and 83995
their applications, are severable. If any item of law contained in 83996
this act, or if any application of any item of law contained in 83997
this act, is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other 83998
items of law contained in this act and their applications that can 83999
be given effect without the invalid item of law or application.84000

       Section 812.10. Sections subject to referendum: general 84001
effective date. Except as otherwise provided in this act, the 84002
amendment, enactment, or repeal by this act of a section is 84003
subject to the referendum under Ohio Constitution, Article II, 84004
Section 1c and therefore takes effect on the ninety-first day 84005
after this act is filed with the Secretary of State.84006

       Section 812.11. Sections subject to referendum: special 84007
effective date. The amendment by this act of sections 4735.01, 84008
4735.02, 4735.052, 4735.10, 4735.13, 4735.14, 4735.141, and 84009
4735.142 of the Revised Code is subject to the referendum under 84010
Ohio Constitution, Article II, Section 1c and takes effect on the 84011
ninetieth day after the day on which this section takes effect.84012

       Section 812.20. Sections exempt from referendum: general 84013
effective date. The amendment, enactment, or repeal by this act of 84014
the following sections is exempt from the referendum under Ohio 84015
Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and section 1.471 of the 84016
Revised Code and therefore takes effect immediately when this act 84017
becomes law:84018

       Sections 145.01, 145.012, 167.04, 306.04, 306.36, 340.091, 84019
901.54, 2927.023, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 84020
3125.41, 3734.131, 3734.15, 3743.06, 3743.19, 3752.06, 4163.07, 84021
4303.22, 4501.01, 4501.06, 4503.81, 4506.01, 4506.03, 4506.22, 84022
4506.25, 4511.78, 4513.50, 4905.01, 4905.02, 4905.03, 4905.05, 84023
4905.06, 4905.402, 4905.54, 4905.57, 4905.58, 4905.80, 4905.801, 84024
4905.81, 4905.82, 4905.83, 4905.84, 4907.01, 4907.02, 4907.04, 84025
4907.08, 4907.19, 4907.28, 4907.35, 4907.37, 4907.43, 4907.49, 84026
4907.57, 4907.59, 4907.60, 4907.61, 4907.62, 4909.01, 4909.02, 84027
4909.03, 4909.17, 4909.22, 4909.24, 4909.28, 4911.01, 4919.75, 84028
4919.76, 4919.77, 4919.78, 4919.79, 4919.99, 4921.01, 4921.02, 84029
4921.03, 4921.04, 4921.05, 4921.06, 4921.07, 4921.08, 4921.09, 84030
4921.10, 4921.101, 4921.11, 4921.12, 4921.13, 4921.14, 4921.15, 84031
4921.16, 4921.17, 4921.18, 4921.19, 4921.20, 4921.21, 4921.23, 84032
4921.24, 4921.25, 4921.26, 4921.27, 4921.28, 4921.30, 4921.31, 84033
4921.32, 4921.34, 4921.35, 4921.36, 4921.37, 4921.38, 4921.39, 84034
4921.40, 4921.99, 4923.01, 4923.02, 4923.03, 4923.04, 4923.05, 84035
4923.06, 4923.07, 4923.08, 4923.09, 4923.10, 4923.11, 4923.12, 84036
4923.13, 4923.14, 4923.15, 4923.17, 4923.20, 4923.26, 4923.99, 84037
4927.01, 4929.01, 4929.02, 4933.18, 4933.19, 4939.01, 4953.04, 84038
4961.03, 4965.54, 5119.691, 5503.02, 5503.34, 5743.031, and 84039
5751.033 of the Revised Code.84040

        Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 114 of the 129th General 84041
Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 84042
Assembly.84043

        Section 201 of Sub. H.B. 123 of the 129th General Assembly.84044

        Section 1 of H.B. 124 of the 129th General Assembly.84045

       Sections 205.10, 207.10, 207.10.80, 207.20.10, 207.20.30, 84046
207.20.90, 209.10, 209.30, 211.10, 215.10, 223.10, 229.10, 243.10, 84047
261.10, 261.10.10, 261.10.20, 261.10.30, 261.10.40, 261.10.50, 84048
261.10.60, 261.10.70, 261.10.80, 261.10.90, 261.20.10, 261.20.20, 84049
261.20.40, 261.20.50, 261.20.60, 261.20.70, 261.20.80, 261.20.90, 84050
261.30.10, 261.30.20, 261.30.30, 261.30.40, 261.30.50, 261.30.60, 84051
261.30.70, 261.30.80, 261.30.90, 261.40.10, 263.10, 263.10.30, 84052
263.10.90, 263.20.40, 263.20.70, 267.10, 267.10.20, 267.10.40, 84053
267.30.40, 279.10, 287.10, 291.10, 307.10, 309.10, 313.10, 315.10, 84054
323.10, 327.10, 335.10, 337.10, 343.10, 343.40, 365.10, 367.10, 84055
369.10, 371.10, 371.50.61, 371.60.80, 373.10, 375.10, 379.10, 84056
387.10, 403.10, 411.10, 415.10, 503.50, and 521.70 of Am. Sub. 84057
H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly.84058

       Section 247.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 84059
Assembly, as amended by Sub. H.B. 319 of the 129th General 84060
Assembly.84061

       Sections 261.10 and 261.20.93 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 84062
129th General Assembly, as amended by Sub. H.B. 371 of the 129th 84063
General Assembly.84064

       Sections 701.70.10, 701.80, and 733.10 of this act.84065

       Sections 812.20 and 812.21 of this act.84066

       Section 812.30 of this act insofar as it refers to parts of 84067
sections that are exempt from the referendum.84068

       Section 812.21. Sections exempt from the referendum: special 84069
effective date. The amendment by this act of sections 3313.976, 84070
3313.978, and 3313.979 of the Revised Code is exempt from the 84071
referendum under Ohio Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and 84072
section 1.471 of the Revised Code and is therefore entitled to 84073
take effect immediately when this act becomes law. However, the 84074
amendment of those sections takes effect on July 1, 2012, or the 84075
date this act becomes law, whichever is later.84076

       Section 812.30. Mixed sections: general effective dates. The 84077
sections listed in the left-hand column of the following table 84078
combine amendments by this act that are and that are not exempt 84079
from the referendum. The middle column identifies amendments to 84080
the listed sections that are subject to the referendum under Ohio 84081
Constitution, Article II, Section 1c and therefore take effect on 84082
the ninety-first day after this act is filed with the Secretary of 84083
State. The right-hand column identifies amendments to the listed 84084
sections that are exempt from the referendum under Ohio 84085
Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and section 1.471 of the 84086
Revised Code and therefore take effect immediately when this act 84087
becomes law.84088

Section of law Amendments subject to referendum Amendments exempt from referendum 84089
4905.90 The amendment in division (A) All amendments except as described in the middle column 84090
5111.941 The amendment that inserts division (A)(4) All amendments except as described in the middle column 84091
5119.61 All amendments except as described in the right-hand column The amendment in division (A) striking "(C)" and inserting "(D)" and the amendment in division (F) striking "abuse" and inserting "addiction" 84092
5119.69 The amendments in relettered divisions (D)(1)(b) and (c) All amendments except as described in the middle column 84093
5502.01 All amendments except as described in the right-hand column The amendment in division (F) 84094

       Section 815.20. The General Assembly, applying the principle 84095
stated in division (B) of section 1.52 of the Revised Code that 84096
amendments are to be harmonized if reasonably capable of 84097
simultaneous operation, finds that the following sections, 84098
presented in this act as composites of the sections as amended by 84099
the acts indicated, are the resulting versions of the sections in 84100
effect prior to the effective date of the sections as presented in 84101
this act:84102

       Section 102.02 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 84103
Sub. H.B. 153 and Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th General Assembly.84104

       Section 121.04 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 84105
Sub. H.B. 153 and Sub. H.B. 229 of the 129th General Assembly.84106

       Section 123.01 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 84107
Sub. H.B. 133 and Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly.84108

       Section 124.11 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 84109
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.84110

       Section 149.43 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 84111
H.B. 64 and Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly.84112

       Sections 1901.01, 1901.03, 1901.08, and 1907.11 of the 84113
Revised Code as amended by both Am. Sub. H.B. 238 and Sub. H.B. 84114
338 of the 128th General Assembly.84115

       Section 1923.01 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 84116
H.B. 56 and Am. Sub. S.B. 10 of the 127th General Assembly.84117

       Section 1923.02 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 84118
H.B. 56 and Am. Sub. S.B. 10 of the 127th General Assembly.84119

       Section 3301.55 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 84120
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.84121

       Section 4731.22 of the Revised Code as amended by both H.B. 84122
78 and Am. Sub. H.B. 93 of the 129th General Assembly.84123